As Reported by the House Finance and Appropriations Committee

129th General Assembly
Regular Session
2011-2012
Sub. H. B. No. 487


Representative Amstutz (By Request) 



A BILL
To amend sections 7.10, 7.16, 9.34, 9.90, 9.91, 1
102.02, 103.51, 105.41, 109.57, 109.572, 121.04, 2
121.08, 121.083, 121.084, 122.07, 123.01, 123.011, 3
123.07, 123.09, 123.10, 123.101, 123.13, 123.14, 4
123.15, 123.152, 123.17, 123.21, 123.48, 123.77, 5
124.04, 124.06, 124.11, 124.12, 124.14, 124.231, 6
124.241, 124.25, 124.26, 124.27, 124.30, 124.31, 7
125.05, 125.082, 125.14, 126.14, 140.01, 140.03, 8
140.05, 140.08, 145.01, 145.012, 149.43, 152.09, 9
152.18, 152.24, 153.01, 153.011, 153.013, 153.02, 10
153.04, 153.06, 153.07, 153.08, 153.09, 153.11, 11
153.12, 153.14, 153.16, 153.17, 153.502, 153.503, 12
153.53, 154.25, 167.04, 173.14, 173.21, 173.23, 13
173.26, 173.27, 173.391, 173.394, 173.40, 173.42, 14
173.45, 173.46, 185.01, 185.02, 185.03, 185.05, 15
185.06, 185.07, 185.09, 185.12, 306.04, 306.36, 16
306.55, 307.05, 307.051, 307.055, 309.09, 313.121, 17
313.122, 313.16, 339.091, 340.03, 340.091, 505.37, 18
505.375, 505.44, 505.72, 705.18, 901.54, 955.16, 19
955.26, 991.02, 1121.23, 1155.03, 1163.05, 20
1315.141, 1321.37, 1321.53, 1321.531, 1322.03, 21
1322.031, 1345.05, 1501.04, 1502.01, 1502.02, 22
1502.03, 1502.04, 1502.05, 1502.06, 1502.12, 23
1502.99, 1503.012, 1503.43, 1506.42, 1509.071, 24
1509.36, 1533.10, 1541.26, 1551.33, 1555.02, 25
1555.03, 1555.04, 1555.05, 1555.06, 1571.14, 26
1707.08, 1707.391, 1733.47, 1751.01, 1751.02, 27
1751.13, 1761.26, 1901.18, 1909.11, 1923.01, 28
1923.02, 1923.061, 1923.15, 2151.86, 2152.121, 29
2152.22, 2301.03, 2301.18, 2301.20, 2301.21, 30
2301.22, 2301.23, 2301.24, 2301.25, 2301.26, 31
2301.27, 2301.271, 2301.571, 2305.01, 2305.02, 32
2307.89, 2317.02, 2317.422, 2317.56, 2319.27, 33
2501.02, 2501.16, 2501.17, 2743.01, 2743.02, 34
2743.09, 2743.10, 2743.48, 2746.01, 2746.03, 35
2746.04, 2903.33, 2907.29, 2909.21, 2909.28, 36
2927.023, 2929.01, 2929.19, 2939.11, 2945.371, 37
2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, 2953.32, 38
2961.22, 2967.03, 2967.05, 2967.14, 2967.19, 39
2967.191, 2967.26, 2967.28, 2981.11, 2981.14, 40
3125.41, 3301.55, 3304.14, 3304.16, 3304.181, 41
3304.182, 3305.01, 3305.02, 3305.03, 3305.04, 42
3305.05, 3305.053, 3305.06, 3313.603, 3313.65, 43
3313.71, 3313.976, 3313.978, 3313.979, 3314.074, 44
3317.06, 3317.50, 3317.51, 3318.034, 3318.08, 45
3318.10, 3318.30, 3318.31, 3318.36, 3318.37, 46
3319.22, 3319.235, 3333.04, 3333.041, 3333.123, 47
3333.21, 3333.60, 3333.61, 3333.71, 3333.72, 48
3333.82, 3345.12, 3345.16, 3345.28, 3345.50, 49
3345.51, 3345.54, 3345.69, 3345.692, 3347.03, 50
3353.01, 3353.06, 3383.02, 3383.07, 3701.021, 51
3701.023, 3701.024, 3701.025, 3701.03, 3701.05, 52
3701.07, 3701.072, 3701.11, 3701.132, 3701.146, 53
3701.161, 3701.20, 3701.201, 3701.21, 3701.221, 54
3701.23, 3701.232, 3701.24, 3701.241, 3701.242, 55
3701.248, 3701.341, 3701.342, 3701.343, 3701.344, 56
3701.345, 3701.347, 3701.352, 3701.40, 3701.503, 57
3701.507, 3701.508, 3701.509, 3701.57, 3701.63, 58
3701.74, 3701.87, 3701.881, 3702.141, 3702.31, 59
3702.51, 3702.52, 3702.522, 3702.523, 3702.524, 60
3702.525, 3702.526, 3702.53, 3702.531, 3702.54, 61
3702.55, 3702.56, 3702.57, 3702.59, 3702.592, 62
3702.593, 3702.594, 3702.60, 3702.62, 3703.01, 63
3703.03, 3703.04, 3703.05, 3703.06, 3703.07, 64
3703.08, 3703.10, 3703.21, 3703.99, 3704.035, 65
3705.24, 3705.30, 3706.19, 3709.03, 3709.04, 66
3709.06, 3709.085, 3709.09, 3709.092, 3709.32, 67
3709.35, 3710.01, 3710.02, 3710.04, 3710.05, 68
3710.051, 3710.06, 3710.07, 3710.08, 3710.09, 69
3710.10, 3710.12, 3710.13, 3710.17, 3711.04, 70
3711.06, 3711.08, 3711.12, 3711.21, 3712.03, 71
3712.04, 3712.09, 3713.01, 3713.02, 3713.03, 72
3713.04, 3713.05, 3713.06, 3713.07, 3713.08, 73
3713.09, 3713.10, 3714.073, 3715.01, 3715.025, 74
3715.60, 3715.61, 3715.62, 3715.68, 3716.01, 75
3716.03, 3717.01, 3717.04, 3717.05, 3717.07, 76
3717.45, 3717.51, 3718.02, 3718.021, 3718.022, 77
3718.05, 3718.06, 3718.07, 3718.09, 3719.06, 78
3721.01, 3721.011, 3721.02, 3721.03, 3721.032, 79
3721.04, 3721.07, 3721.071, 3721.121, 3721.13, 80
3721.21, 3721.28, 3721.29, 3721.50, 3721.51, 81
3723.06, 3723.07, 3723.09, 3725.02, 3727.01, 82
3727.42, 3729.01, 3729.02, 3729.03, 3729.04, 83
3729.07, 3729.08, 3730.10, 3733.02, 3733.021, 84
3733.022, 3733.024, 3733.025, 3733.03, 3733.04, 85
3733.05, 3733.06, 3733.07, 3733.08, 3733.09, 86
3733.091, 3733.10, 3733.101, 3733.11, 3733.12, 87
3733.121, 3733.122, 3733.123, 3733.13, 3733.14, 88
3733.15, 3733.17, 3733.18, 3733.19, 3733.20, 89
3733.41, 3733.42, 3734.01, 3734.131, 3734.15, 90
3734.51, 3734.55, 3734.79, 3734.82, 3735.37, 91
3737.83, 3737.841, 3742.01, 3742.02, 3742.03, 92
3742.04, 3742.05, 3742.30, 3742.47, 3742.50, 93
3743.04, 3743.06, 3743.19, 3743.25, 3745.01, 94
3745.05, 3745.11, 3745.112, 3748.04, 3748.05, 95
3748.07, 3748.10, 3748.12, 3748.13, 3748.15, 96
3748.20, 3749.02, 3749.03, 3749.04, 3752.06, 97
3770.06, 3781.03, 3781.06, 3781.102, 3781.11, 98
3781.112, 3783.05, 3791.02, 3791.04, 3791.05, 99
3791.07, 3791.11, 3791.12, 3793.04, 3793.09, 100
3905.36, 4104.01, 4104.02, 4104.06, 4104.07, 101
4104.08, 4104.09, 4104.10, 4104.101, 4104.12, 102
4104.15, 4104.16, 4104.17, 4104.18, 4104.19, 103
4104.21, 4104.33, 4104.42, 4104.43, 4104.44, 104
4104.48, 4105.01, 4105.02, 4105.03, 4105.04, 105
4105.05, 4105.06, 4105.09, 4105.11, 4105.12, 106
4105.13, 4105.15, 4105.16, 4105.17, 4105.191, 107
4105.20, 4105.21, 4115.10, 4115.101, 4121.123, 108
4121.30, 4123.20, 4163.07, 4169.02, 4169.03, 109
4169.04, 4171.04, 4301.30, 4303.181, 4303.22, 110
4313.02, 4501.01, 4501.06, 4503.031, 4503.061, 111
4503.062, 4503.49, 4503.81, 4506.01, 4506.03, 112
4506.22, 4506.25, 4507.01, 4507.011, 4507.12, 113
4507.51, 4510.037, 4510.038, 4511.191, 4511.78, 114
4513.263, 4513.50, 4730.06, 4730.38, 4730.39, 115
4730.40, 4730.41, 4730.42, 4731.22, 4731.293, 116
4736.01, 4740.03, 4740.11, 4740.14, 4743.05, 117
4763.05, 4765.02, 4765.03, 4765.04, 4765.05, 118
4765.06, 4765.07, 4765.08, 4765.09, 4765.10, 119
4765.101, 4765.102, 4765.11, 4765.111, 4765.112, 120
4765.113, 4765.114, 4765.115, 4765.116, 4765.12, 121
4765.15, 4765.16, 4765.17, 4765.18, 4765.22, 122
4765.23, 4765.28, 4765.29, 4765.30, 4765.31, 123
4765.32, 4765.33, 4765.37, 4765.38, 4765.39, 124
4765.40, 4765.42, 4765.48, 4765.49, 4765.55, 125
4765.56, 4766.01, 4766.03, 4766.04, 4766.05, 126
4766.07, 4766.08, 4766.09, 4766.10, 4766.11, 127
4766.12, 4766.13, 4766.15, 4766.22, 4773.08, 128
4781.01, 4781.02, 4781.04, 4781.07, 4781.09, 129
4781.14, 4781.15, 4781.99, 4905.01, 4905.02, 130
4905.03, 4905.05, 4905.06, 4905.402, 4905.54, 131
4905.57, 4905.58, 4905.84, 4905.90, 4907.01, 132
4907.02, 4907.04, 4907.08, 4907.19, 4907.28, 133
4907.35, 4907.37, 4907.43, 4907.49, 4907.57, 134
4907.59, 4907.60, 4907.61, 4907.62, 4909.01, 135
4909.02, 4909.03, 4909.17, 4909.22, 4909.24, 136
4909.28, 4911.01, 4927.01, 4929.01, 4929.02, 137
4929.041, 4933.18, 4933.19, 4939.01, 4953.04, 138
4961.03, 4965.54, 5101.46, 5101.60, 5101.61, 139
5104.012, 5104.013, 5104.051, 5104.09, 5104.37, 140
5107.05, 5111.031, 5111.032, 5111.033, 5111.034, 141
5111.06, 5111.091, 5111.113, 5111.171, 5111.20, 142
5111.222, 5111.23, 5111.242, 5111.254, 5111.862, 143
5111.874, 5111.877, 5111.878, 5111.894, 5111.941, 144
5111.97, 5112.31, 5112.33, 5112.341, 5112.37, 145
5112.371, 5112.39, 5119.22, 5119.61, 5119.69, 146
5119.691, 5119.692, 5119.99, 5120.036, 5120.105, 147
5120.132, 5120.66, 5122.31, 5123.01, 5123.033, 148
5123.042, 5123.044, 5123.0412, 5123.0414, 149
5123.0415, 5123.081, 5123.16, 5123.161, 5123.162, 150
5123.163, 5123.164, 5123.166, 5123.169, 5123.171, 151
5123.19, 5123.31, 5123.38, 5123.41, 5123.50, 152
5123.51, 5123.542, 5123.61, 5123.89, 5126.023, 153
5126.0220, 5126.0221, 5126.043, 5126.046, 154
5126.055, 5126.13, 5126.15, 5126.20, 5126.21, 155
5126.22, 5126.25, 5126.251, 5126.51, 5139.41, 156
5139.43, 5149.311, 5153.18, 5155.14, 5501.04, 157
5501.07, 5502.01, 5502.011, 5503.02, 5503.04, 158
5503.21, 5503.22, 5503.23, 5503.34, 5701.13, 159
5703.05, 5705.08, 5705.19, 5705.25, 5705.28, 160
5705.30, 5705.34, 5705.35, 5705.38, 5709.12, 161
5709.212, 5709.73, 5709.75, 5719.13, 5725.14, 162
5725.15, 5725.16, 5725.17, 5725.22, 5725.221, 163
5731.39, 5733.064, 5739.01, 5743.03, 5743.031, 164
5751.033, 5751.12, 6109.21, and 6111.46; to amend, 165
for the purpose of adopting new section numbers as 166
indicated in parentheses, sections 123.011 167
(123.22), 123.024 (123.06), 123.04 (123.02), 168
123.07 (123.03), 123.08 (123.18), 123.09 (123.04), 169
123.10 (123.05), 123.101 (123.27), 123.11 170
(123.07), 123.13 (123.08), 123.14 (123.09), 123.15 171
(123.10), 123.17 (123.24), 123.21 (123.11), 123.46 172
(123.12), 123.47 (123.13), 123.48 (123.14), 123.49 173
(123.15), 123.77 (123.17), 185.01 (3701.92), 174
185.02 (3701.923), 185.03 (3701.924), 185.05 175
(3701.925), 185.06 (3701.926), 185.07 (3701.927), 176
185.09 (3701.928), 185.12 (3701.929), 1502.01 177
(3736.01), 1502.02 (3736.03), 1502.03 (3736.02), 178
1502.04 (3736.04), 1502.05 (3736.05), 1502.06 179
(3736.06), 1502.07 (3736.07), 1502.12 (3734.822), 180
1502.99 (3736.99), 3333.90 (3333.59), 3353.01 181
(3333.89), 3353.05 (3333.91), 3353.06 (3333.92), 182
3353.07 (3333.93), 3353.11 (3333.94), 3702.522 183
(3702.521), 3702.523 (3702.522), 3702.524 184
(3702.523), 3702.525 (3702.524), 3702.526 185
(3702.525), 3733.02 (4781.26), 3733.021 (4781.31), 186
3733.022 (4781.32), 3733.024 (4781.33), 3733.025 187
(4781.34), 3733.03 (4781.27), 3733.04 (4781.28), 188
3733.05 (4781.29), 3733.06 (4781.30), 3733.07 189
(4781.301), 3733.08 (4781.35), 3733.09 (4781.36), 190
3733.091 (4781.37), 3733.10 (4781.38), 3733.101 191
(4781.39), 3733.11 (4781.40), 3733.12 (4781.41), 192
3733.121 (4781.42), 3733.122 (4781.43), 3733.123 193
(4781.44), 3733.13 (4781.45), 3733.14 (4781.46), 194
3733.15 (4781.47), 3733.16 (4781.48), 3733.17 195
(4781.49), 3733.18 (4781.50), 3733.19 (4781.51), 196
3733.20 (4781.52), 5123.169 (5123.1610), 5503.21 197
(5502.05), 5503.22 (5502.06), and 5503.23 198
(5502.07); to enact new sections 123.21, 3333.90, 199
3702.526, 4905.80, 4905.81, 4921.01, 4921.03, 200
4921.05, 4921.07, 4921.09, 4921.11, 4921.13, 201
4921.15, 4921.16, 4921.19, 4921.25, 4921.30, 202
4921.32, 4921.36, 4921.38, 4923.01, 4923.02, 203
4923.04, 4923.06, 4923.07, 4923.09, 4923.11, 204
4923.99, 5123.169, and 5123.192 and sections 205
121.35, 123.20, 123.201, 123.23, 123.26, 191.01, 206
191.02, 191.04, 191.06, 505.59, 1533.081, 207
2743.021, 2743.022, 3301.75, 3305.031, 3305.032, 208
3701.77, 3701.771, 3701.772, 3701.773, 3701.774, 209
3701.775, 3701.921, 3701.922, 3701.93, 3701.931, 210
3701.932, 3701.933, 3701.934, 3701.935, 3701.936, 211
3701.937, 3701.938, 3701.9310, 3701.9311, 212
3701.9312, 3701.9314, 3702.511, 3702.527, 213
3793.041, 3798.01, 3798.02, 3798.03, 3798.04, 214
3798.06, 3798.07, 3798.08, 3798.10, 3798.12, 215
3798.13, 3798.14, 3798.15, 3798.16, 4730.411, 216
4731.297, 4781.121, 4781.54, 4921.21, 4921.34, 217
4923.15, 5111.246, 5111.946, 5111.96, 5112.331, 218
5139.511, 5705.252, 5705.72, and 5713.012; and to 219
repeal sections 103.144, 103.145, 103.146, 183.28, 220
185.04, 185.08, 185.10, 185.11, 340.05, 2301.19, 221
2909.32, 2909.33, 2909.34, 3301.68, 3333.049, 222
3333.0411, 3333.33, 3333.70, 3333.80, 3334.111, 223
3353.02, 3353.03, 3353.04, 3353.09, 3353.15, 224
3353.20, 3354.23, 3701.02, 3701.032, 3701.12, 225
3701.33, 3701.34, 3701.35, 3702.521, 3702.5210, 226
3702.5211, 3702.5212, 3702.5213, 3702.58, 227
3702.591, 3733.01, 3733.031, 3745.111, 3781.183, 228
3791.043, 4113.11, 4121.18, 4730.401, 4766.02, 229
4766.20, 4905.80, 4905.801, 4905.81, 4905.82, 230
4905.83, 4919.75, 4919.76, 4919.77, 4919.78, 231
4919.79, 4919.99, 4921.01, 4921.02, 4921.03, 232
4921.04, 4921.05, 4921.06, 4921.07, 4921.08, 233
4921.09, 4921.10, 4921.101, 4921.11, 4921.12, 234
4921.13, 4921.14, 4921.15, 4921.16, 4921.17, 235
4921.18, 4921.19, 4921.20, 4921.23, 4921.24, 236
4921.25, 4921.26, 4921.27, 4921.28, 4921.30, 237
4921.31, 4921.32, 4921.35, 4921.36, 4921.37, 238
4921.38, 4921.39, 4921.40, 4921.99, 4923.01, 239
4923.02, 4923.03, 4923.04, 4923.05, 4923.06, 240
4923.07, 4923.08, 4923.09, 4923.10, 4923.11, 241
4923.12, 4923.13, 4923.14, 4923.17, 4923.20, 242
4923.26, 4923.99, 5101.97, 5111.651, 5119.614, 243
5119.70, 5119.701, 5119.71, 5119.711, 5119.712, 244
5119.72, 5119.73, 5119.731, 5119.74, 5119.75, 245
5119.76, 5119.77, 5119.78, 5119.79, 5119.80, 246
5119.81, 5119.82, 5119.83, 5119.84, 5119.85, 247
5119.86, 5119.87, 5119.88, 5123.082, 5123.083, 248
5123.192, 5126.0222, 5126.252, 5126.26, 5126.27, 249
5126.28, 5126.281, 5126.29, and 5501.09 of the 250
Revised Code; to amend Section 205.10 of Am. Sub. 251
H.B. 114 of the 129th General Assembly, as 252
subsequently amended, Section 201 of Sub. H.B. 123 253
of the 129th General Assembly, Section 1 of H.B. 254
124 of the 129th General Assembly, Sections 255
205.10, 207.10, 207.10.80, 207.20.10, 207.20.30, 256
207.20.90, 209.10, 209.20, 209.30, 211.10, 215.10, 257
215.20, 223.10, 229.10, 243.10, 261.10.40, 258
261.10.70, 261.20.10, 261.20.40, 261.20.50, 259
261.20.60, 261.20.80, 261.20.90, 261.30.10, 260
261.30.20, 261.30.30, 261.30.40, 261.30.60, 261
261.30.70, 261.30.80, 261.30.90, 261.40.10, 262
263.10, 263.10.30, 263.10.90, 263.20.40, 263
263.20.70, 267.10, 267.10.10, 267.10.20, 264
267.10.40, 267.30.20, 267.30.40, 279.10, 283.10, 265
283.20, 283.30, 291.10, 307.10, 309.10, 309.30.10, 266
309.30.30, 309.30.33, 309.30.53, 309.35.73, 267
315.10, 327.10, 335.10, 337.10, 343.10, 343.40, 268
365.10, 367.10, 369.10, 371.10, 371.50.61, 269
371.60.70, 371.60.80, 373.10, 375.10, 379.10, 270
387.10, 403.10, 411.10, 415.10, 503.50, 521.70, 271
and 701.40 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th 272
General Assembly, Sections 247.10, 261.10, and 273
261.20.93 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th 274
General Assembly, as subsequently amended, Section 275
4 of Sub. S.B. 171 of the 129th General Assembly, 276
Section 3 of Am. Sub. S.B. 160 of the 121st 277
General Assembly, and Section 3 of Am. Sub. S.B. 278
38 of the 120th General Assembly; to repeal 279
Sections 261.10.10, 261.10.20, 261.10.30, 280
261.10.50, 261.10.60, 261.10.80, 261.10.90, 281
261.20.20, 261.20.70, 261.30.50, and 263.10.80 of 282
Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly; 283
and to amend the versions of sections 5122.31, 284
5123.19, and 5123.61 of the Revised Code that are 285
scheduled to take effect October 1, 2012, to 286
continue the provisions of this act on and after 287
that effective date; to make operating and other 288
appropriations and to provide authorization and 289
conditions for the operation of state programs.290


BE IT ENACTED BY THE GENERAL ASSEMBLY OF THE STATE OF OHIO:

       Section 101.01. That sections 7.10, 7.16, 9.34, 9.90, 9.91, 291
102.02, 103.51, 105.41, 109.57, 109.572, 121.04, 121.08, 121.083, 292
121.084, 122.07, 123.01, 123.011, 123.07, 123.09, 123.10, 123.101, 293
123.13, 123.14, 123.15, 123.152, 123.17, 123.21, 123.48, 123.77, 294
124.04, 124.06, 124.11, 124.12, 124.14, 124.231, 124.241, 124.25, 295
124.26, 124.27, 124.30, 124.31, 125.05, 125.082, 125.14, 126.14, 296
140.01, 140.03, 140.05, 140.08, 145.01, 145.012, 149.43, 152.09, 297
152.18, 152.24, 153.01, 153.011, 153.013, 153.02, 153.04, 153.06, 298
153.07, 153.08, 153.09, 153.11, 153.12, 153.14, 153.16, 153.17, 299
153.502, 153.503, 153.53, 154.25, 167.04, 173.14, 173.21, 173.23, 300
173.26, 173.27, 173.391, 173.394, 173.40, 173.42, 173.45, 173.46, 301
185.01, 185.02, 185.03, 185.05, 185.06, 185.07, 185.09, 185.12, 302
306.04, 306.36, 306.55, 307.05, 307.051, 307.055, 309.09, 313.121, 303
313.122, 313.16, 339.091, 340.03, 340.091, 505.37, 505.375, 304
505.44, 505.72, 705.18, 901.54, 955.16, 955.26, 991.02, 1121.23, 305
1155.03, 1163.05, 1315.141, 1321.37, 1321.53, 1321.531, 1322.03, 306
1322.031, 1345.05, 1501.04, 1502.01, 1502.02, 1502.03, 1502.04, 307
1502.05, 1502.06, 1502.12, 1502.99, 1503.012, 1503.43, 1506.42, 308
1509.071, 1509.36, 1533.10, 1541.26, 1551.33, 1555.02, 1555.03, 309
1555.04, 1555.05, 1555.06, 1571.14, 1707.08, 1707.391, 1733.47, 310
1751.01, 1751.02, 1751.13, 1761.26, 1901.18, 1909.11, 1923.01, 311
1923.02, 1923.061, 1923.15, 2151.86, 2152.121, 2152.22, 2301.03, 312
2301.18, 2301.20, 2301.21, 2301.22, 2301.23, 2301.24, 2301.25, 313
2301.26, 2301.27, 2301.271, 2301.571, 2305.01, 2305.02, 2307.89, 314
2317.02, 2317.422, 2317.56, 2319.27, 2501.02, 2501.16, 2501.17, 315
2743.01, 2743.02, 2743.09, 2743.10, 2743.48, 2746.01, 2746.03, 316
2746.04, 2903.33, 2907.29, 2909.21, 2909.28, 2927.023, 2929.01, 317
2929.19, 2939.11, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, 318
2953.32, 2961.22, 2967.03, 2967.05, 2967.14, 2967.19, 2967.191, 319
2967.26, 2967.28, 2981.11, 2981.14, 3125.41, 3301.55, 3304.14, 320
3304.16, 3304.181, 3304.182, 3305.01, 3305.02, 3305.03, 3305.04, 321
3305.05, 3305.053, 3305.06, 3313.603, 3313.65, 3313.71, 3313.976, 322
3313.978, 3313.979, 3314.074, 3317.06, 3317.50, 3317.51, 3318.034, 323
3318.08, 3318.10, 3318.30, 3318.31, 3318.36, 3318.37, 3319.22, 324
3319.235, 3333.04, 3333.041, 3333.123, 3333.21, 3333.60, 3333.61, 325
3333.71, 3333.72, 3333.82, 3345.12, 3345.16, 3345.28, 3345.50, 326
3345.51, 3345.54, 3345.69, 3345.692, 3347.03, 3353.01, 3353.06, 327
3383.02, 3383.07, 3701.021, 3701.023, 3701.024, 3701.025, 3701.03, 328
3701.05, 3701.07, 3701.072, 3701.11, 3701.132, 3701.146, 3701.161, 329
3701.20, 3701.201, 3701.21, 3701.221, 3701.23, 3701.232, 3701.24, 330
3701.241, 3701.242, 3701.248, 3701.341, 3701.342, 3701.343, 331
3701.344, 3701.345, 3701.347, 3701.352, 3701.40, 3701.503, 332
3701.507, 3701.508, 3701.509, 3701.57, 3701.63, 3701.74, 3701.87, 333
3701.881, 3702.141, 3702.31, 3702.51, 3702.52, 3702.522, 3702.523, 334
3702.524, 3702.525, 3702.526, 3702.53, 3702.531, 3702.54, 3702.55, 335
3702.56, 3702.57, 3702.59, 3702.592, 3702.593, 3702.594, 3702.60, 336
3702.62, 3703.01, 3703.03, 3703.04, 3703.05, 3703.06, 3703.07, 337
3703.08, 3703.10, 3703.21, 3703.99, 3704.035, 3705.24, 3705.30, 338
3706.19, 3709.03, 3709.04, 3709.06, 3709.085, 3709.09, 3709.092, 339
3709.32, 3709.35, 3710.01, 3710.02, 3710.04, 3710.05, 3710.051, 340
3710.06, 3710.07, 3710.08, 3710.09, 3710.10, 3710.12, 3710.13, 341
3710.17, 3711.04, 3711.06, 3711.08, 3711.12, 3711.21, 3712.03, 342
3712.04, 3712.09, 3713.01, 3713.02, 3713.03, 3713.04, 3713.05, 343
3713.06, 3713.07, 3713.08, 3713.09, 3713.10, 3714.073, 3715.01, 344
3715.025, 3715.60, 3715.61, 3715.62, 3715.68, 3716.01, 3716.03, 345
3717.01, 3717.04, 3717.05, 3717.07, 3717.45, 3717.51, 3718.02, 346
3718.021, 3718.022, 3718.05, 3718.06, 3718.07, 3718.09, 3719.06, 347
3721.01, 3721.011, 3721.02, 3721.03, 3721.032, 3721.04, 3721.07, 348
3721.071, 3721.121, 3721.13, 3721.21, 3721.28, 3721.29, 3721.50, 349
3721.51, 3723.06, 3723.07, 3723.09, 3725.02, 3727.01, 3727.42, 350
3729.01, 3729.02, 3729.03, 3729.04, 3729.07, 3729.08, 3730.10, 351
3733.02, 3733.021, 3733.022, 3733.024, 3733.025, 3733.03, 3733.04, 352
3733.05, 3733.06, 3733.07, 3733.08, 3733.09, 3733.091, 3733.10, 353
3733.101, 3733.11, 3733.12, 3733.121, 3733.122, 3733.123, 3733.13, 354
3733.14, 3733.15, 3733.17, 3733.18, 3733.19, 3733.20, 3733.41, 355
3733.42, 3734.01, 3734.131, 3734.15, 3734.51, 3734.55, 3734.79, 356
3734.82, 3735.37, 3737.83, 3737.841, 3742.01, 3742.02, 3742.03, 357
3742.04, 3742.05, 3742.30, 3742.47, 3742.50, 3743.04, 3743.06, 358
3743.19, 3743.25, 3745.01, 3745.05, 3745.11, 3745.112, 3748.04, 359
3748.05, 3748.07, 3748.10, 3748.12, 3748.13, 3748.15, 3748.20, 360
3749.02, 3749.03, 3749.04, 3752.06, 3770.06, 3781.03, 3781.06, 361
3781.102, 3781.11, 3781.112, 3783.05, 3791.02, 3791.04, 3791.05, 362
3791.07, 3791.11, 3791.12, 3793.04, 3793.09, 3905.36, 4104.01, 363
4104.02, 4104.06, 4104.07, 4104.08, 4104.09, 4104.10, 4104.101, 364
4104.12, 4104.15, 4104.16, 4104.17, 4104.18, 4104.19, 4104.21, 365
4104.33, 4104.42, 4104.43, 4104.44, 4104.48, 4105.01, 4105.02, 366
4105.03, 4105.04, 4105.05, 4105.06, 4105.09, 4105.11, 4105.12, 367
4105.13, 4105.15, 4105.16, 4105.17, 4105.191, 4105.20, 4105.21, 368
4115.10, 4115.101, 4121.123, 4121.30, 4123.20, 4163.07, 4169.02, 369
4169.03, 4169.04, 4171.04, 4301.30, 4303.181, 4303.22, 4313.02, 370
4501.01, 4501.06, 4503.031, 4503.061, 4503.062, 4503.49, 4503.81, 371
4506.01, 4506.03, 4506.22, 4506.25, 4507.01, 4507.011, 4507.12, 372
4507.51, 4510.037, 4510.038, 4511.191, 4511.78, 4513.263, 4513.50, 373
4730.06, 4730.38, 4730.39, 4730.40, 4730.41, 4730.42, 4731.22, 374
4731.293, 4736.01, 4740.03, 4740.11, 4740.14, 4743.05, 4763.05, 375
4765.02, 4765.03, 4765.04, 4765.05, 4765.06, 4765.07, 4765.08, 376
4765.09, 4765.10, 4765.101, 4765.102, 4765.11, 4765.111, 4765.112, 377
4765.113, 4765.114, 4765.115, 4765.116, 4765.12, 4765.15, 4765.16, 378
4765.17, 4765.18, 4765.22, 4765.23, 4765.28, 4765.29, 4765.30, 379
4765.31, 4765.32, 4765.33, 4765.37, 4765.38, 4765.39, 4765.40, 380
4765.42, 4765.48, 4765.49, 4765.55, 4765.56, 4766.01, 4766.03, 381
4766.04, 4766.05, 4766.07, 4766.08, 4766.09, 4766.10, 4766.11, 382
4766.12, 4766.13, 4766.15, 4766.22, 4773.08, 4781.01, 4781.02, 383
4781.04, 4781.07, 4781.09, 4781.14, 4781.15, 4781.99, 4905.01, 384
4905.02, 4905.03, 4905.05, 4905.06, 4905.402, 4905.54, 4905.57, 385
4905.58, 4905.84, 4905.90, 4907.01, 4907.02, 4907.04, 4907.08, 386
4907.19, 4907.28, 4907.35, 4907.37, 4907.43, 4907.49, 4907.57, 387
4907.59, 4907.60, 4907.61, 4907.62, 4909.01, 4909.02, 4909.03, 388
4909.17, 4909.22, 4909.24, 4909.28, 4911.01, 4927.01, 4929.01, 389
4929.02, 4929.041, 4933.18, 4933.19, 4939.01, 4953.04, 4961.03, 390
4965.54, 5101.46, 5101.60, 5101.61, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5104.051, 391
5104.09, 5104.37, 5107.05, 5111.031, 5111.032, 5111.033, 5111.034, 392
5111.06, 5111.091, 5111.113, 5111.171, 5111.20, 5111.222, 5111.23, 393
5111.242, 5111.254, 5111.862, 5111.874, 5111.877, 5111.878, 394
5111.894, 5111.941, 5111.97, 5112.31, 5112.33, 5112.341, 5112.37, 395
5112.371, 5112.39, 5119.22, 5119.61, 5119.69, 5119.691, 5119.692, 396
5119.99, 5120.036, 5120.105, 5120.132, 5120.66, 5122.31, 5123.01, 397
5123.033, 5123.042, 5123.044, 5123.0412, 5123.0414, 5123.0415, 398
5123.081, 5123.16, 5123.161, 5123.162, 5123.163, 5123.164, 399
5123.166, 5123.169, 5123.171, 5123.19, 5123.31, 5123.38, 5123.41, 400
5123.50, 5123.51, 5123.542, 5123.61, 5123.89, 5126.023, 5126.0220, 401
5126.0221, 5126.043, 5126.046, 5126.055, 5126.13, 5126.15, 402
5126.20, 5126.21, 5126.22, 5126.25, 5126.251, 5126.51, 5139.41, 403
5139.43, 5149.311, 5153.18, 5155.14, 5501.04, 5501.07, 5502.01, 404
5502.011, 5503.02, 5503.04, 5503.21, 5503.22, 5503.23, 5503.34, 405
5701.13, 5703.05, 5705.08, 5705.19, 5705.25, 5705.28, 5705.30, 406
5705.34, 5705.35, 5705.38, 5709.12, 5709.212, 5709.73, 5709.75, 407
5719.13, 5725.14, 5725.15, 5725.16, 5725.17, 5725.22, 5725.221, 408
5731.39, 5733.064, 5739.01, 5743.03, 5743.031, 5751.033, 5751.12, 409
6109.21, and 6111.46 be amended; sections 123.011 (123.22), 410
123.024 (123.06), 123.04 (123.02), 123.07 (123.03), 123.08 411
(123.18), 123.09 (123.04), 123.10 (123.05), 123.101 (123.27), 412
123.11 (123.07), 123.13 (123.08), 123.14 (123.09), 123.15 413
(123.10), 123.17 (123.24), 123.21 (123.11), 123.46 (123.12), 414
123.47 (123.13), 123.48 (123.14), 123.49 (123.15), 123.77 415
(123.17), 185.01 (3701.92), 185.02 (3701.923), 185.03 (3701.924), 416
185.05 (3701.925), 185.06 (3701.926), 185.07 (3701.927), 185.09 417
(3701.928), 185.12 (3701.929), 1502.01 (3736.01), 1502.02 418
(3736.03), 1502.03 (3736.02), 1502.04 (3736.04), 1502.05 419
(3736.05), 1502.06 (3736.06), 1502.07 (3736.07), 1502.12 420
(3734.822), 1502.99 (3736.99), 3333.90 (3333.59), 3353.01 421
(3333.89), 3353.05 (3333.91), 3353.06 (3333.92), 3353.07 422
(3333.93), 3353.11 (3333.94), 3702.522 (3702.521), 3702.523 423
(3702.522), 3702.524 (3702.523), 3702.525 (3702.524), 3702.526 424
(3702.525), 3733.02 (4781.26), 3733.021 (4781.31), 3733.022 425
(4781.32), 3733.024 (4781.33), 3733.025 (4781.34), 3733.03 426
(4781.27), 3733.04 (4781.28), 3733.05 (4781.29), 3733.06 427
(4781.30), 3733.07 (4781.301), 3733.08 (4781.35), 3733.09 428
(4781.36), 3733.091 (4781.37), 3733.10 (4781.38), 3733.101 429
(4781.39), 3733.11 (4781.40), 3733.12 (4781.41), 3733.121 430
(4781.42), 3733.122 (4781.43), 3733.123 (4781.44), 3733.13 431
(4781.45), 3733.14 (4781.46), 3733.15 (4781.47), 3733.16 432
(4781.48), 3733.17 (4781.49), 3733.18 (4781.50), 3733.19 433
(4781.51), 3733.20 (4781.52), 5123.169 (5123.1610), 5503.21 434
(5502.05), 5503.22 (5502.06), and 5503.23 (5502.07) be amended for 435
the purpose of adopting new section numbers as indicated in 436
parentheses; and new sections 123.21, 3333.90, 3702.526, 4905.80, 437
4905.81, 4921.01, 4921.03, 4921.05, 4921.07, 4921.09, 4921.11, 438
4921.13, 4921.15, 4921.16, 4921.19, 4921.25, 4921.30, 4921.32, 439
4921.36, 4921.38, 4923.01, 4923.02, 4923.04, 4923.06, 4923.07, 440
4923.09, 4923.11, 4923.99, 5123.169, and 5123.192 and sections 441
121.35, 123.20, 123.201, 123.23, 123.26, 191.01, 191.02, 191.04, 442
191.06, 505.59, 1533.081, 2743.021, 2743.022, 3301.75, 3305.031, 443
3305.032, 3701.77, 3701.771, 3701.772, 3701.773, 3701.774, 444
3701.775, 3701.921, 3701.922, 3701.93, 3701.931, 3701.932, 445
3701.933, 3701.934, 3701.935, 3701.936, 3701.937, 3701.938, 446
3701.9310, 3701.9311, 3701.9312, 3701.9314, 3702.511, 3702.527, 447
3793.041, 3798.01, 3798.02, 3798.03, 3798.04, 3798.06, 3798.07, 448
3798.08, 3798.10, 3798.12, 3798.13, 3798.14, 3798.15, 3798.16, 449
4730.411, 4731.297, 4781.121, 4781.54, 4921.21, 4921.34, 4923.15, 450
5111.246, 5111.946, 5111.96, 5112.331, 5139.511, 5705.252, 451
5705.72, and 5713.012 of the Revised Code be enacted to read as 452
follows:453

       Sec. 7.10.  For the publication of advertisements, notices, 454
and proclamations, except those relating to proposed amendments to 455
the Ohio Constitution, required to be published by a public 456
officer of the state,, a benevolent or other public institution, a 457
trustee, assignee, executor, or administrator, or by or in any 458
court of record, except when the rate is otherwise fixed by law, 459
publishers of newspapers may charge and receive for such 460
advertisements, notices, and proclamations rates charged on annual 461
contracts by them for a like amount of space to other advertisers 462
who advertise in its general display advertising columns. 463

       For the publication of advertisements, notices, or 464
proclamations required to be published by a public officer of a 465
county, municipal corporation, township, school, or other 466
political subdivision, publishers of newspapers shall establish a 467
government rate, which shall include free publication of 468
advertisements, notices, or proclamations on the newspaper's 469
internet web site, if the newspaper has one. The government rate 470
shall not exceed the lowest classified advertising rate and lowest 471
insert rate paid by other advertisers.472

        Legal advertising, except that relating to proposed 473
amendments to the Ohio Constitution, shall be set up in a compact 474
form, without unnecessary spaces, blanks, or headlines, and 475
printed in not smaller than six-point type. The type used must be 476
of such proportions that the body of the capital letter M is no 477
wider than it is high and all other letters and characters are in 478
proportion.479

       Except as provided in section 2701.09 of the Revised Code, 480
all legal advertisements or notices shall be printed in newspapers481
a newspaper of general circulation and also shall be posted on the 482
state public notice web site created under section 125.182 of the 483
Revised Code, and on athe newspaper's internet web site, if the 484
newspaper has one.485

       Sec. 7.16. (A) As used in this section:486

       (1) "State agency" means any organized body, office, agency, 487
institution, or other entity established by the laws of the state 488
for the exercise of any function of state government, including 489
state institutions of higher education, as defined in section 490
3345.011 of the Revised Code.491

       (2) "Political subdivision" has the meaning defined in 492
section 2744.01 of the Revised Code.493

       (B) If a section of the Revised Code or an administrative 494
rule requires a state agency or a political subdivision of the 495
state to publish a notice or advertisement two or more times in a 496
newspaper of general circulation and the section or administrative 497
rule refers to this section, the first publication of the notice 498
or advertisement shall be made in its entirety in a newspaper of 499
general circulation and may be made in a preprinted insert in the 500
newspaper, but the second publication otherwise required by that 501
section or administrative rule may be made in abbreviated form in 502
a newspaper of general circulation in the state or in the 503
political subdivision, as designated in that section or 504
administrative rule, and on the newspaper's internet web site, if 505
the newspaper has one. The state agency or political subdivision 506
may eliminate any further newspaper publications required by that 507
section or administrative rule, provided that the second, 508
abbreviated notice or advertisement meets all of the following 509
requirements:510

       (1) It is published in the newspaper of general circulation 511
in which the first publication of the notice or advertisement was 512
made and is published on that newspaper's internet web site, if 513
the newspaper has one.514

       (2) It is published on the state public notice web site 515
established under section 125.182 of the Revised Code.516

       (3) It includes a title, followed by a summary paragraph or 517
statement that clearly describes the specific purpose of the 518
notice or advertisement, and includes a statement that the notice 519
or advertisement is posted in its entirety on the state public 520
notice web site established under section 125.182 of the Revised 521
Code. The notice or advertisement also may be posted on the state 522
agency's or political subdivision's internet web site.523

       (3)(4) It includes the internet addresses of the state public 524
notice web site, and of the newspaper's and state agency's or 525
political subdivision's internet web site if the notice or 526
advertisement is posted on those web sites, and the name, address, 527
telephone number, and electronic mail address of the state agency, 528
political subdivision, or other party responsible for publication 529
of the notice or advertisement.530

       (B)(C) A notice or advertisement published under this section 531
on an internet web site shall be published in its entirety in 532
accordance with the section of the Revised Code or the 533
administrative rule that requires the publication.534

       (C)(D) If a state agency or political subdivision does not 535
operate and maintain, or ceases to operate and maintain, an 536
internet web site, and if the state public notice web site 537
established under section 125.182 of the Revised Code is not 538
operational, the state agency or political subdivision shall not 539
publish a notice or advertisement under this section, but instead 540
shall comply with the publication requirements of the section of 541
the Revised Code or the administrative rule that refers to this 542
section.543

       Sec. 9.34.  (A) The fiscal year of the state and of, every 544
school district, and, beginning July 1, 2013, the city of 545
Cincinnati, shall begin on the first day of July of each calendar 546
year and end at the close of the thirtieth day of June of the 547
succeeding calendar year. The fiscal year of every school library 548
district, and all political subdivisions or taxing districtsunits549
except school districts and the city of Cincinnati, and of every 550
officer, department, commission, board, or institution thereof, 551
shall begin at the opening of the first day of January of each 552
calendar year and end at the close of the succeeding thirty-first 553
day of December. Except as otherwise provided for school districts 554
and as otherwise provided in division (B) of this section, all 555
laws relating to the levying of taxes, the collection, 556
appropriation, or expenditure of revenues, or the making of 557
financial reports or statements for a fiscal year or other year 558
refer and apply to the fiscal year as defined in this division. 559
Reports required by sections 3319.32 to 3319.37 of the Revised 560
Code shall be for the school year as defined in section 3313.62 of 561
the Revised Code.562

       (B) Nothing in this section prohibits a subdivision, other 563
than a school district or county school financing district, from 564
using a different fiscal year or other fiscal period for one or 565
more of its funds, including when that fiscal year or period is 566
the same as the fiscal year of an entity providing money for the 567
fund or the fiscal period of a capital project. Use of a different 568
fiscal year or period shall be consistent with generally accepted 569
accounting principles, and shall be approved by the fiscal officer 570
of the subdivision and by the auditor of state. If a subdivision 571
uses a different fiscal year or period under this section, the 572
auditor of state may require the subdivision to continue to 573
maintain financial reports or statements on the basis of the 574
fiscal year prescribed by division (A) of this section.575

       (C) Taxes or other revenues collected in or on hand in any 576
fiscal year for the purposes of the next or any subsequent fiscal 577
year shall not be appropriated or expended prior to such next or 578
subsequent year. School district property taxes shall be subject 579
to appropriation as provided in division (B) of section 5705.35 of 580
the Revised Code. Budgets shall be designated and known by the 581
fiscal year for the purposes for which they are made.582

       (D) As used in this section, "fiscal officer," "school 583
library district," "subdivision," and "taxing districtunit" have 584
the same meanings as in section 5705.01 of the Revised Code.585

       Sec. 9.90.  (A) The following applies until the department of 586
administrative services implements healthcare plans designed under 587
section 9.901 of the Revised Code. If those plans do not include 588
or address any benefits listed in this section, or if the board of 589
trustees or other governing body of a state institution of higher 590
education, as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, 591
board of education of a school district, or governing board of an 592
educational service center do not elect to be covered under a plan 593
offered by the department of administrative services under section 594
9.901 of the Revised Code, the following provisions continue in 595
effect for those benefits. The board of trustees or other 596
governing body of a state institution of higher education, as 597
defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, board of 598
education of a school district, or governing board of an 599
educational service center may, in addition to all other powers 600
provided in the Revised Code:601

       (1) Contract for, purchase, or otherwise procure from an 602
insurer or insurers licensed to do business by the state of Ohio 603
for or on behalf of such of its employees as it may determine, 604
life insurance, or sickness, accident, annuity, endowment, health, 605
medical, hospital, dental, or surgical coverage and benefits, or 606
any combination thereof, by means of insurance plans or other 607
types of coverage, family, group or otherwise, and may pay from 608
funds under its control and available for such purpose all or any 609
portion of the cost, premium, or charge for such insurance, 610
coverage, or benefits. However, the governing board, in addition 611
to or as an alternative to the authority otherwise granted by 612
division (A)(1) of this section, may elect to procure coverage for 613
health care services, for or on behalf of such of its employees as 614
it may determine, by means of policies, contracts, certificates, 615
or agreements issued by at least two health insuring corporations 616
holding a certificate of authority under Chapter 1751. of the 617
Revised Code and may pay from funds under the governing board's 618
control and available for such purpose all or any portion of the 619
cost of such coverage.620

       (2) Make payments to a custodial account for investment in 621
regulated investment company stock for the purpose of providing 622
retirement benefits as described in sectionprocurement of an 623
annuity qualified under Internal Revenue Code 403(b)(7) of the 624
Internal Revenue Code of 1954, as amended. Such stock shall be 625
purchased only from persons authorized to sell such stock in this 626
state.627

       Any income of an employee deferred under divisions (A)(1) and 628
(2) of this section in a deferred compensation program eligible 629
for favorable tax treatment under the Internal Revenue Code of 630
1954, as amended, shall continue to be included as regular 631
compensation for the purpose of computing the contributions to and 632
benefits from the retirement system of such employee. Any sum so 633
deferred shall not be included in the computation of any federal 634
and state income taxes withheld on behalf of any such employee.635

       (B) All or any portion of the cost, premium, or charge 636
therefor may be paid in such other manner or combination of 637
manners as the board or governing body may determine, including 638
direct payment by the employee in cases under division (A)(1) of 639
this section, and, if authorized in writing by the employee in 640
cases under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section, by the board 641
or governing body with moneys made available by deduction from or 642
reduction in salary or wages or by the foregoing of a salary or 643
wage increase. Nothing in section 3917.01 or section 3917.06 of 644
the Revised Code shall prohibit the issuance or purchase of group 645
life insurance authorized by this section by reason of payment of 646
premiums therefor by the board or governing body from its funds, 647
and such group life insurance may be so issued and purchased if 648
otherwise consistent with the provisions of sections 3917.01 to 649
3917.07 of the Revised Code.650

       (C) The board of education of any school district may 651
exercise any of the powers granted to the governing boards of 652
public institutions of higher education under divisions (A) and 653
(B) of this section. All health care benefits provided to persons 654
employed by the public schools of this state shall be through 655
health care plans that contain best practices established by the 656
department of administrative services pursuant to section 9.901 of 657
the Revised Code.658

       (D) Once the department of administrative services releases 659
in final form health care plans designed under section 9.901 of 660
the Revised Code, all health care benefits provided to persons 661
employed by state institutions of higher education, school 662
districts, or educational service centers may be through those 663
plans.664

       Sec. 9.91. If the(A) Both of the following apply when a665
governing board of a public institution of higher education or the 666
board of education of a school district procures a tax-sheltered667
an annuity for an employee, pursuant to division (A)(1) or (2) of668
section 9.90 of the Revised Code, that meets:669

       (1) No annuity contract may be procured unless it meets the 670
requirements of section 403(b) of the Internal Revenue Code of 671
1954, 26 U.S.C.A. 403(b), the employee has the right to;672

       (2) The board shall arrange for the procurement of the 673
annuity contract by doing one of the following:674

       (a) Selecting one or more providers of annuities through a 675
competitive bidding process;676

       (b) In accordance with division (B) of this section, 677
selecting vendors designated under Chapter 3305.03 of the Revised 678
Code as the providers of the annuities;679

       (c) Requiring the employee to designate thea licensed agent, 680
broker, or company through whom the board shall arrange for the 681
placement or purchase of the tax-sheltered annuityas the 682
provider. In683

       (B)(1) All of the following apply to the selection of 684
providers under division (A)(2)(b) of this section:685

       (a) The board may require providers of the annuities to enter 686
into agreements with the board that include such terms and 687
conditions as are determined by the board in its sole discretion; 688

       (b) The board shall select as annuity providers a minimum of 689
four vendors designated under section 3305.03 of the Revised Code, 690
or, if fewer than four vendors are available, the number of 691
vendors available, except that a board is not required to select a 692
vendor to which any of the following apply:693

       (i) The vendor is not willing to provide annuity contracts to 694
the public institution of higher education or school district.695

       (ii) The vendor is not willing to agree to the terms and 696
conditions established by the board under division (B)(1)(a) of 697
this section.698

       (iii) The vendor does not offer an annuity contract that is a 699
defined contribution plan qualified under Internal Revenue Code 700
403(b) and is offered by the vendor in at least one other state.701

       (2) Both of the following apply to an agreement with an 702
annuity provider selected by a board under division (A)(2)(b) of 703
this section:704

       (a) The agreement shall be terminated if the provider ceases 705
to be designated as a vendor under section 3305.03 of the Revised 706
Code.707

       (b) The agreement may be terminated if the provider fails to 708
comply with the terms and conditions established by the board 709
under division (B)(1)(a) of this section.710

       (3) The Ohio board of regents may develop a standardized plan 711
document that may be used by a governing board of a public 712
institution of higher education or the board of education of a 713
school district when entering into an agreement with a provider 714
under division (B)(1)(a) of this section. The board may charge 715
providers fees to cover any administrative and marketing expenses 716
of the board, as determined by the board.717

       (C) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, in718
any case in which the employee has designated such an agent, 719
broker, or company under division (A)(2)(c) of this section, the 720
board shall comply with the designation, provided that the board 721
may impose either or both of the following as conditions to 722
complying with any such designations:723

       (A)(1) The designee must execute a reasonable agreement 724
protecting the institution or district from any liability 725
attendant to procuring the annuity;726

       (B)(2) The designee must be designated by a number of 727
employees equal to at least one per cent of the board's full-time 728
employees or at least five employees, whichever is greater, except 729
that the board may not require that the agent, broker, or company 730
be designated by more than fifty employees.731

       (D) The board may require an employee who has made a 732
designation under division (A)(2)(c) of this section to designate 733
a provider selected by the board under divisions (A)(2)(a) or (b) 734
of this section as the provider of the employee's annuity. The 735
selection shall take effect at the earlier of the termination of 736
the contract with the designated provider or the renewal of the 737
contract.738

       Sec. 102.02.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in division 739
(H) of this section, all of the following shall file with the 740
appropriate ethics commission the disclosure statement described 741
in this division on a form prescribed by the appropriate 742
commission: every person who is elected to or is a candidate for a 743
state, county, or city office and every person who is appointed to 744
fill a vacancy for an unexpired term in such an elective office; 745
all members of the state board of education; the director, 746
assistant directors, deputy directors, division chiefs, or persons 747
of equivalent rank of any administrative department of the state; 748
the president or other chief administrative officer of every state 749
institution of higher education as defined in section 3345.011 of 750
the Revised Code; the executive director and the members of the 751
capitol square review and advisory board appointed or employed 752
pursuant to section 105.41 of the Revised Code; all members of the 753
Ohio casino control commission, the executive director of the 754
commission, all professional employees of the commission, and all 755
technical employees of the commission who perform an internal 756
audit function; the individuals set forth in division (B)(2) of 757
section 187.03 of the Revised Code; the chief executive officer 758
and the members of the board of each state retirement system; each 759
employee of a state retirement board who is a state retirement 760
system investment officer licensed pursuant to section 1707.163 of 761
the Revised Code; the members of the Ohio retirement study council 762
appointed pursuant to division (C) of section 171.01 of the 763
Revised Code; employees of the Ohio retirement study council, 764
other than employees who perform purely administrative or clerical 765
functions; the administrator of workers' compensation and each 766
member of the bureau of workers' compensation board of directors; 767
the bureau of workers' compensation director of investments; the 768
chief investment officer of the bureau of workers' compensation; 769
all members of the board of commissioners on grievances and 770
discipline of the supreme court and the ethics commission created 771
under section 102.05 of the Revised Code; every business manager, 772
treasurer, or superintendent of a city, local, exempted village, 773
joint vocational, or cooperative education school district or an 774
educational service center; every person who is elected to or is a 775
candidate for the office of member of a board of education of a 776
city, local, exempted village, joint vocational, or cooperative 777
education school district or of a governing board of an 778
educational service center that has a total student count of 779
twelve thousand or more as most recently determined by the 780
department of education pursuant to section 3317.03 of the Revised 781
Code; every person who is appointed to the board of education of a 782
municipal school district pursuant to division (B) or (F) of 783
section 3311.71 of the Revised Code; all members of the board of 784
directors of a sanitary district that is established under Chapter 785
6115. of the Revised Code and organized wholly for the purpose of 786
providing a water supply for domestic, municipal, and public use, 787
and that includes two municipal corporations in two counties; 788
every public official or employee who is paid a salary or wage in 789
accordance with schedule C of section 124.15 or schedule E-2 of 790
section 124.152 of the Revised Code; members of the board of 791
trustees and the executive director of the southern Ohio 792
agricultural and community development foundation; all members 793
appointed to the Ohio livestock care standards board under section 794
904.02 of the Revised Code; and every other public official or 795
employee who is designated by the appropriate ethics commission 796
pursuant to division (B) of this section.797

       The disclosure statement shall include all of the following:798

       (1) The name of the person filing the statement and each 799
member of the person's immediate family and all names under which 800
the person or members of the person's immediate family do 801
business;802

       (2)(a) Subject to divisions (A)(2)(b) and (c) of this section 803
and except as otherwise provided in section 102.022 of the Revised 804
Code, identification of every source of income, other than income 805
from a legislative agent identified in division (A)(2)(b) of this 806
section, received during the preceding calendar year, in the 807
person's own name or by any other person for the person's use or 808
benefit, by the person filing the statement, and a brief 809
description of the nature of the services for which the income was 810
received. If the person filing the statement is a member of the 811
general assembly, the statement shall identify the amount of every 812
source of income received in accordance with the following ranges 813
of amounts: zero or more, but less than one thousand dollars; one 814
thousand dollars or more, but less than ten thousand dollars; ten 815
thousand dollars or more, but less than twenty-five thousand 816
dollars; twenty-five thousand dollars or more, but less than fifty 817
thousand dollars; fifty thousand dollars or more, but less than 818
one hundred thousand dollars; and one hundred thousand dollars or 819
more. Division (A)(2)(a) of this section shall not be construed to 820
require a person filing the statement who derives income from a 821
business or profession to disclose the individual items of income 822
that constitute the gross income of that business or profession, 823
except for those individual items of income that are attributable 824
to the person's or, if the income is shared with the person, the 825
partner's, solicitation of services or goods or performance, 826
arrangement, or facilitation of services or provision of goods on 827
behalf of the business or profession of clients, including 828
corporate clients, who are legislative agents. A person who files 829
the statement under this section shall disclose the identity of 830
and the amount of income received from a person who the public 831
official or employee knows or has reason to know is doing or 832
seeking to do business of any kind with the public official's or 833
employee's agency.834

       (b) If the person filing the statement is a member of the 835
general assembly, the statement shall identify every source of 836
income and the amount of that income that was received from a 837
legislative agent during the preceding calendar year, in the 838
person's own name or by any other person for the person's use or 839
benefit, by the person filing the statement, and a brief 840
description of the nature of the services for which the income was 841
received. Division (A)(2)(b) of this section requires the 842
disclosure of clients of attorneys or persons licensed under 843
section 4732.12 of the Revised Code, or patients of persons 844
certified under section 4731.14 of the Revised Code, if those 845
clients or patients are legislative agents. Division (A)(2)(b) of 846
this section requires a person filing the statement who derives 847
income from a business or profession to disclose those individual 848
items of income that constitute the gross income of that business 849
or profession that are received from legislative agents.850

       (c) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(2)(c) of 851
this section, division (A)(2)(a) of this section applies to 852
attorneys, physicians, and other persons who engage in the 853
practice of a profession and who, pursuant to a section of the 854
Revised Code, the common law of this state, a code of ethics 855
applicable to the profession, or otherwise, generally are required 856
not to reveal, disclose, or use confidences of clients, patients, 857
or other recipients of professional services except under 858
specified circumstances or generally are required to maintain 859
those types of confidences as privileged communications except 860
under specified circumstances. Division (A)(2)(a) of this section 861
does not require an attorney, physician, or other professional 862
subject to a confidentiality requirement as described in division 863
(A)(2)(c) of this section to disclose the name, other identity, or 864
address of a client, patient, or other recipient of professional 865
services if the disclosure would threaten the client, patient, or 866
other recipient of professional services, would reveal details of 867
the subject matter for which legal, medical, or professional 868
advice or other services were sought, or would reveal an otherwise 869
privileged communication involving the client, patient, or other 870
recipient of professional services. Division (A)(2)(a) of this 871
section does not require an attorney, physician, or other 872
professional subject to a confidentiality requirement as described 873
in division (A)(2)(c) of this section to disclose in the brief 874
description of the nature of services required by division 875
(A)(2)(a) of this section any information pertaining to specific 876
professional services rendered for a client, patient, or other 877
recipient of professional services that would reveal details of 878
the subject matter for which legal, medical, or professional 879
advice was sought or would reveal an otherwise privileged 880
communication involving the client, patient, or other recipient of 881
professional services.882

       (3) The name of every corporation on file with the secretary 883
of state that is incorporated in this state or holds a certificate 884
of compliance authorizing it to do business in this state, trust, 885
business trust, partnership, or association that transacts 886
business in this state in which the person filing the statement or 887
any other person for the person's use and benefit had during the 888
preceding calendar year an investment of over one thousand dollars 889
at fair market value as of the thirty-first day of December of the 890
preceding calendar year, or the date of disposition, whichever is 891
earlier, or in which the person holds any office or has a 892
fiduciary relationship, and a description of the nature of the 893
investment, office, or relationship. Division (A)(3) of this 894
section does not require disclosure of the name of any bank, 895
savings and loan association, credit union, or building and loan 896
association with which the person filing the statement has a 897
deposit or a withdrawable share account.898

       (4) All fee simple and leasehold interests to which the 899
person filing the statement holds legal title to or a beneficial 900
interest in real property located within the state, excluding the 901
person's residence and property used primarily for personal 902
recreation;903

       (5) The names of all persons residing or transacting business 904
in the state to whom the person filing the statement owes, in the 905
person's own name or in the name of any other person, more than 906
one thousand dollars. Division (A)(5) of this section shall not be 907
construed to require the disclosure of debts owed by the person 908
resulting from the ordinary conduct of a business or profession or 909
debts on the person's residence or real property used primarily 910
for personal recreation, except that the superintendent of 911
financial institutions shall disclose the names of all 912
state-chartered savings and loan associations and of all service 913
corporations subject to regulation under division (E)(2) of 914
section 1151.34 of the Revised Code to whom the superintendent in 915
the superintendent's own name or in the name of any other person 916
owes any money, and that the superintendent and any deputy 917
superintendent of banks shall disclose the names of all 918
state-chartered banks and all bank subsidiary corporations subject 919
to regulation under section 1109.44 of the Revised Code to whom 920
the superintendent or deputy superintendent owes any money.921

       (6) The names of all persons residing or transacting business 922
in the state, other than a depository excluded under division 923
(A)(3) of this section, who owe more than one thousand dollars to 924
the person filing the statement, either in the person's own name 925
or to any person for the person's use or benefit. Division (A)(6) 926
of this section shall not be construed to require the disclosure 927
of clients of attorneys or persons licensed under section 4732.12 928
or 4732.15 of the Revised Code, or patients of persons certified 929
under section 4731.14 of the Revised Code, nor the disclosure of 930
debts owed to the person resulting from the ordinary conduct of a 931
business or profession.932

       (7) Except as otherwise provided in section 102.022 of the 933
Revised Code, the source of each gift of over seventy-five 934
dollars, or of each gift of over twenty-five dollars received by a 935
member of the general assembly from a legislative agent, received 936
by the person in the person's own name or by any other person for 937
the person's use or benefit during the preceding calendar year, 938
except gifts received by will or by virtue of section 2105.06 of 939
the Revised Code, or received from spouses, parents, grandparents, 940
children, grandchildren, siblings, nephews, nieces, uncles, aunts, 941
brothers-in-law, sisters-in-law, sons-in-law, daughters-in-law, 942
fathers-in-law, mothers-in-law, or any person to whom the person 943
filing the statement stands in loco parentis, or received by way 944
of distribution from any inter vivos or testamentary trust 945
established by a spouse or by an ancestor;946

       (8) Except as otherwise provided in section 102.022 of the 947
Revised Code, identification of the source and amount of every 948
payment of expenses incurred for travel to destinations inside or 949
outside this state that is received by the person in the person's 950
own name or by any other person for the person's use or benefit 951
and that is incurred in connection with the person's official 952
duties, except for expenses for travel to meetings or conventions 953
of a national or state organization to which any state agency, 954
including, but not limited to, any legislative agency or state 955
institution of higher education as defined in section 3345.011 of 956
the Revised Code, pays membership dues, or any political 957
subdivision or any office or agency of a political subdivision 958
pays membership dues;959

       (9) Except as otherwise provided in section 102.022 of the 960
Revised Code, identification of the source of payment of expenses 961
for meals and other food and beverages, other than for meals and 962
other food and beverages provided at a meeting at which the person 963
participated in a panel, seminar, or speaking engagement or at a 964
meeting or convention of a national or state organization to which 965
any state agency, including, but not limited to, any legislative 966
agency or state institution of higher education as defined in 967
section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, pays membership dues, or any 968
political subdivision or any office or agency of a political 969
subdivision pays membership dues, that are incurred in connection 970
with the person's official duties and that exceed one hundred 971
dollars aggregated per calendar year;972

       (10) If the disclosure statement is filed by a public 973
official or employee described in division (B)(2) of section 974
101.73 of the Revised Code or division (B)(2) of section 121.63 of 975
the Revised Code who receives a statement from a legislative 976
agent, executive agency lobbyist, or employer that contains the 977
information described in division (F)(2) of section 101.73 of the 978
Revised Code or division (G)(2) of section 121.63 of the Revised 979
Code, all of the nondisputed information contained in the 980
statement delivered to that public official or employee by the 981
legislative agent, executive agency lobbyist, or employer under 982
division (F)(2) of section 101.73 or (G)(2) of section 121.63 of 983
the Revised Code.984

       A person may file a statement required by this section in 985
person or by mail. A person who is a candidate for elective office 986
shall file the statement no later than the thirtieth day before 987
the primary, special, or general election at which the candidacy 988
is to be voted on, whichever election occurs soonest, except that 989
a person who is a write-in candidate shall file the statement no 990
later than the twentieth day before the earliest election at which 991
the person's candidacy is to be voted on. A person who holds 992
elective office shall file the statement on or before the 993
fifteenth day of April of each year unless the person is a 994
candidate for office. A person who is appointed to fill a vacancy 995
for an unexpired term in an elective office shall file the 996
statement within fifteen days after the person qualifies for 997
office. Other persons shall file an annual statement on or before 998
the fifteenth day of April or, if appointed or employed after that 999
date, within ninety days after appointment or employment. No 1000
person shall be required to file with the appropriate ethics 1001
commission more than one statement or pay more than one filing fee 1002
for any one calendar year.1003

       The appropriate ethics commission, for good cause, may extend 1004
for a reasonable time the deadline for filing a statement under 1005
this section.1006

       A statement filed under this section is subject to public 1007
inspection at locations designated by the appropriate ethics 1008
commission except as otherwise provided in this section.1009

       (B) The Ohio ethics commission, the joint legislative ethics 1010
committee, and the board of commissioners on grievances and 1011
discipline of the supreme court, using the rule-making procedures 1012
of Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, may require any class of 1013
public officials or employees under its jurisdiction and not 1014
specifically excluded by this section whose positions involve a 1015
substantial and material exercise of administrative discretion in 1016
the formulation of public policy, expenditure of public funds, 1017
enforcement of laws and rules of the state or a county or city, or 1018
the execution of other public trusts, to file an annual statement 1019
on or before the fifteenth day of April under division (A) of this 1020
section. The appropriate ethics commission shall send the public 1021
officials or employees written notice of the requirement by the 1022
fifteenth day of February of each year the filing is required 1023
unless the public official or employee is appointed after that 1024
date, in which case the notice shall be sent within thirty days 1025
after appointment, and the filing shall be made not later than 1026
ninety days after appointment.1027

       Except for disclosure statements filed by members of the 1028
board of trustees and the executive director of the southern Ohio 1029
agricultural and community development foundation, disclosure 1030
statements filed under this division with the Ohio ethics 1031
commission by members of boards, commissions, or bureaus of the 1032
state for which no compensation is received other than reasonable 1033
and necessary expenses shall be kept confidential. Disclosure 1034
statements filed with the Ohio ethics commission under division 1035
(A) of this section by business managers, treasurers, and 1036
superintendents of city, local, exempted village, joint 1037
vocational, or cooperative education school districts or 1038
educational service centers shall be kept confidential, except 1039
that any person conducting an audit of any such school district or 1040
educational service center pursuant to section 115.56 or Chapter 1041
117. of the Revised Code may examine the disclosure statement of 1042
any business manager, treasurer, or superintendent of that school 1043
district or educational service center. Disclosure statements 1044
filed with the Ohio ethics commission under division (A) of this 1045
section by the individuals set forth in division (B)(2) of section 1046
187.03 of the Revised Code shall be kept confidential. The Ohio 1047
ethics commission shall examine each disclosure statement required 1048
to be kept confidential to determine whether a potential conflict 1049
of interest exists for the person who filed the disclosure 1050
statement. A potential conflict of interest exists if the private 1051
interests of the person, as indicated by the person's disclosure 1052
statement, might interfere with the public interests the person is 1053
required to serve in the exercise of the person's authority and 1054
duties in the person's office or position of employment. If the 1055
commission determines that a potential conflict of interest 1056
exists, it shall notify the person who filed the disclosure 1057
statement and shall make the portions of the disclosure statement 1058
that indicate a potential conflict of interest subject to public 1059
inspection in the same manner as is provided for other disclosure 1060
statements. Any portion of the disclosure statement that the 1061
commission determines does not indicate a potential conflict of 1062
interest shall be kept confidential by the commission and shall 1063
not be made subject to public inspection, except as is necessary 1064
for the enforcement of Chapters 102. and 2921. of the Revised Code 1065
and except as otherwise provided in this division.1066

       (C) No person shall knowingly fail to file, on or before the 1067
applicable filing deadline established under this section, a 1068
statement that is required by this section.1069

       (D) No person shall knowingly file a false statement that is 1070
required to be filed under this section.1071

       (E)(1) Except as provided in divisions (E)(2) and (3) of this 1072
section, the statement required by division (A) or (B) of this 1073
section shall be accompanied by a filing fee of fortysixty1074
dollars.1075

       (2) The statement required by division (A) of this section 1076
shall be accompanied by the following filing fee to be paid by the 1077
person who is elected or appointed to, or is a candidate for, any 1078
of the following offices:1079

For state office, except member of the 1080
state board of education $95 1081
For office of member of general assembly $40 1082
For county office $60 1083
For city office $35 1084
For office of member of the state board 1085
of education $25 $35 1086
For office of member of the Ohio 1087
livestock care standards board $..... 1088
For office of member of a city, local, 1089
exempted village, or cooperative 1090
education board of 1091
education or educational service 1092
center governing board $30 1093
For position of business manager, 1094
treasurer, or superintendent of a 1095
city, local, exempted village, joint 1096
vocational, or cooperative education 1097
school district or 1098
educational service center $30 1099

       (3) No judge of a court of record or candidate for judge of a 1100
court of record, and no referee or magistrate serving a court of 1101
record, shall be required to pay the fee required under division 1102
(E)(1) or (2) or (F) of this section.1103

       (4) For any public official who is appointed to a nonelective 1104
office of the state and for any employee who holds a nonelective 1105
position in a public agency of the state, the state agency that is 1106
the primary employer of the state official or employee shall pay 1107
the fee required under division (E)(1) or (F) of this section.1108

       (F) If a statement required to be filed under this section is 1109
not filed by the date on which it is required to be filed, the 1110
appropriate ethics commission shall assess the person required to 1111
file the statement a late filing fee of ten dollars for each day 1112
the statement is not filed, except that the total amount of the 1113
late filing fee shall not exceed two hundred fifty dollars.1114

       (G)(1) The appropriate ethics commission other than the Ohio 1115
ethics commission and the joint legislative ethics committee shall 1116
deposit all fees it receives under divisions (E) and (F) of this 1117
section into the general revenue fund of the state.1118

       (2) The Ohio ethics commission shall deposit all receipts, 1119
including, but not limited to, fees it receives under divisions 1120
(E) and (F) of this section, investigative or other fees, costs, 1121
or other funds it receives as a result of court orders, and all 1122
moneys it receives from settlements under division (G) of section 1123
102.06 of the Revised Code, into the Ohio ethics commission fund, 1124
which is hereby created in the state treasury. All moneys credited 1125
to the fund shall be used solely for expenses related to the 1126
operation and statutory functions of the commission.1127

       (3) The joint legislative ethics committee shall deposit all 1128
receipts it receives from the payment of financial disclosure 1129
statement filing fees under divisions (E) and (F) of this section 1130
into the joint legislative ethics committee investigative fund.1131

       (H) Division (A) of this section does not apply to a person 1132
elected or appointed to the office of precinct, ward, or district 1133
committee member under Chapter 3517. of the Revised Code; a 1134
presidential elector; a delegate to a national convention; village 1135
or township officials and employees; any physician or psychiatrist 1136
who is paid a salary or wage in accordance with schedule C of 1137
section 124.15 or schedule E-2 of section 124.152 of the Revised 1138
Code and whose primary duties do not require the exercise of 1139
administrative discretion; or any member of a board, commission, 1140
or bureau of any county or city who receives less than one 1141
thousand dollars per year for serving in that position.1142

       Sec. 103.51.  (A) There is hereby created the legislative 1143
task force on redistricting, reapportionment, and demographic 1144
research, consisting of six members. The president of the senate 1145
shall appoint three members, not more than two of whom shall be 1146
members of the same political party. One member appointed by the 1147
president shall not be a member of the general assembly. The 1148
speaker of the house of representatives shall appoint three 1149
members, not more than two of whom shall be members of the same 1150
political party. One member appointed by the speaker shall not be 1151
a member of the general assembly.1152

       Appointments to the task force shall be made within fifteen 1153
days after the commencement of the first regular session of each 1154
general assembly in the manner prescribed in this division. A 1155
vacancy on the task force shall be filled for the unexpired term 1156
in the same manner as the original appointment. Members of the 1157
task force shall serve on the task force until the appointments 1158
are made in the first regular session of the following general 1159
assembly or, in the case of task force members who also are 1160
general assembly members when appointed, until they are no longer 1161
general assembly members.1162

       The president of the senate shall appoint a member of the 1163
task force, and the speaker of the house of representatives shall 1164
appoint a member of the task force, to serve as co-chairmen1165
co-chairpersons of the task force. The co-chairmenco-chairpersons1166
shall be members of different political parties. The co-chairmen1167
co-chairpersons may enter into any agreements on behalf of the 1168
task force and perform any acts that may be necessary or proper 1169
for the task force to carry out its powers and duties under this 1170
section.1171

       (B) The members of the task force shall serve without 1172
compensation, but shall be reimbursed for their actual and 1173
necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their official 1174
duties.1175

       (C) The task force shall do all of the following:1176

       (1) Provide such assistance to the general assembly and its 1177
committees as requested in order to help the general assembly 1178
fulfill its duty to establish districts for the election of 1179
representatives to congress;1180

       (2) Provide such assistance to the apportionment board as 1181
requested in order to help it fulfill its duty to provide for the 1182
apportionment of this state for members of the general assembly. 1183
As used in this section, "apportionment board" means the persons 1184
designated in Section 1 of Article XI, Ohio Constitution, as being 1185
responsible for that apportionment.1186

       (3) Engage in such research studies and other activities as 1187
the task force considers necessary or appropriate in the 1188
preparation and formulation of a plan for the next apportionment 1189
of the state for members of the general assembly and a plan for 1190
the next establishment of districts for the election of 1191
representatives to congress and in the utilization of census and 1192
other demographic and, statistical, and election data for policy 1193
analysis, program development, and program evaluation purposes for 1194
the benefit of the general assembly.1195

       (D) Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the 1196
task force may do all of the following:1197

       (1) Hire such employees and engage such experts and technical 1198
advisors and fix their compensation, and obtain such services, as 1199
are necessary for the task force to exercise its duties under this 1200
section;1201

       (2) Authorize the providing of such services and the 1202
furnishing of such data by the task force to any state agency or 1203
political subdivision of this state as the task force may specify, 1204
on such terms and conditions as the task force may specify, 1205
including the amount of the payment for providing the services and 1206
furnishing the data;1207

       (3) Conduct meetings and hearings both within and outside 1208
this state and otherwise exercise all of the powers of a standing 1209
or select committee of the general assembly;1210

       (4) Request and receive from any state agency or political 1211
subdivision of this state such assistance and data as will enable 1212
the task force to exercise its powers and duties under this 1213
section.1214

       Sec. 105.41.  (A) There is hereby created in the legislative 1215
branch of government the capitol square review and advisory board, 1216
consisting of thirteentwelve members as follows:1217

       (1) Two members of the senate, appointed by the president of 1218
the senate, both of whom shall not be members of the same 1219
political party;1220

       (2) Two members of the house of representatives, appointed by 1221
the speaker of the house of representatives, both of whom shall 1222
not be members of the same political party;1223

       (3) FiveFour members appointed by the governor, with the 1224
advice and consent of the senate, not more than three of whom 1225
shall be members of the same political party, one of whom shall be 1226
the chief of staff of the governor's office, one of whom shall 1227
represent the Ohio arts council, one of whom shall represent the 1228
Ohio historical society, one of whom shall represent the Ohio 1229
building authority, and one of whom shall represent the public at 1230
large;1231

       (4) One member, who shall be a former president of the 1232
senate, appointed by the current president of the senate. If the 1233
current president of the senate, in the current president's 1234
discretion, decides for any reason not to make the appointment or 1235
if no person is eligible or available to serve, the seat shall 1236
remain vacant.1237

       (5) One member, who shall be a former speaker of the house of 1238
representatives, appointed by the current speaker of the house of 1239
representatives. If the current speaker of the house of 1240
representatives, in the current speaker's discretion, decides for 1241
any reason not to make the appointment or if no person is eligible 1242
or available to serve, the seat shall remain vacant.1243

       (6) The clerk of the senate and the clerk of the house of 1244
representatives.1245

       (B) Terms of office of each appointed member of the board 1246
shall be for three years, except that members of the general 1247
assembly appointed to the board shall be members of the board only 1248
so long as they are members of the general assembly and the chief 1249
of staff of the governor's office shall be a member of the board 1250
only so long as the appointing governor remains in office. Each 1251
member shall hold office from the date of the member's appointment 1252
until the end of the term for which the member was appointed. In 1253
case of a vacancy occurring on the board, the president of the 1254
senate, the speaker of the house of representatives, or the 1255
governor, as the case may be, shall in the same manner prescribed 1256
for the regular appointment to the commission, fill the vacancy by 1257
appointing a member. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy 1258
occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which the 1259
member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the 1260
remainder of the term. Any appointed member shall continue in 1261
office subsequent to the expiration date of the member's term 1262
until the member's successor takes office, or until a period of 1263
sixty days has elapsed, whichever occurs first.1264

       (C) The board shall hold meetings in a manner and at times 1265
prescribed by the rules adopted by the board. A majority of the 1266
board constitutes a quorum, and no action shall be taken by the 1267
board unless approved by at least six members or by at least seven 1268
members if a person is appointed under division (A)(4) or (5) of 1269
this section. At its first meeting, the board shall adopt rules 1270
for the conduct of its business and the election of its officers, 1271
and shall organize by selecting a chairperson and other officers 1272
as it considers necessary. Board members shall serve without 1273
compensation but shall be reimbursed for actual and necessary 1274
expenses incurred in the performance of their duties.1275

       (D) The board may do any of the following:1276

       (1) Employ or hire on a consulting basis professional, 1277
technical, and clerical employees as are necessary for the 1278
performance of its duties. All employees of the board are in the 1279
unclassified service and serve at the pleasure of the board. For 1280
purposes of section 4117.01 of the Revised Code, employees of the 1281
board shall be considered employees of the general assembly, 1282
except that employees who are covered by a collective bargaining 1283
agreement on the effective date of this amendmentSeptember 29, 1284
2011, shall remain subject to the agreement until the agreement 1285
expires on its terms, and the agreement shall not be extended or 1286
renewed. Upon expiration of the agreement, the employees are 1287
considered employees of the general assembly for purposes of 1288
section 4117.01 of the Revised Code and are in the unclassified 1289
service and serve at the pleasure of the board.1290

       (2) Hold public hearings at times and places as determined by 1291
the board;1292

       (3) Adopt, amend, or rescind rules necessary to accomplish 1293
the duties of the board as set forth in this section;1294

       (4) Sponsor, conduct, and support such social events as the 1295
board may authorize and consider appropriate for the employees of 1296
the board, employees and members of the general assembly, 1297
employees of persons under contract with the board or otherwise 1298
engaged to perform services on the premises of capitol square, or 1299
other persons as the board may consider appropriate. Subject to 1300
the requirements of Chapter 4303. of the Revised Code, the board 1301
may provide beer, wine, and intoxicating liquor, with or without 1302
charge, for those events and may use funds only from the sale of 1303
goods and services fund to purchase the beer, wine, and 1304
intoxicating liquor the board provides;1305

       (5) Purchase a warehouse in which to store items of the 1306
capitol collection trust and, whenever necessary, equipment or 1307
other property of the board.1308

       (E) The board shall do all of the following:1309

       (1) Have sole authority to coordinate and approve any 1310
improvements, additions, and renovations that are made to the 1311
capitol square. The improvements shall include, but not be limited 1312
to, the placement of monuments and sculpture on the capitol 1313
grounds.1314

       (2) Subject to section 3353.073333.93 of the Revised Code, 1315
operate the capitol square, and have sole authority to regulate 1316
all uses of the capitol square. The uses shall include, but not be 1317
limited to, the casual and recreational use of the capitol square.1318

       (3) Employ, fix the compensation of, and prescribe the duties 1319
of the executive director of the board and other employees the 1320
board considers necessary for the performance of its powers and 1321
duties;1322

       (4) Establish and maintain the capitol collection trust. The 1323
capitol collection trust shall consist of furniture, antiques, and 1324
other items of personal property that the board shall store in 1325
suitable facilities until they are ready to be displayed in the 1326
capitol square.1327

       (5) Perform repair, construction, contracting, purchasing, 1328
maintenance, supervisory, and operating activities the board 1329
determines are necessary for the operation and maintenance of the 1330
capitol square;1331

       (6) Maintain and preserve the capitol square, in accordance 1332
with guidelines issued by the United States secretary of the 1333
interior for application of the secretary's standards for 1334
rehabilitation adopted in 36 C.F.R. part 67;1335

       (7) Plan and develop a center at the capitol building for the 1336
purpose of educating visitors about the history of Ohio, including 1337
its political, economic, and social development and the design and 1338
erection of the capitol building and its grounds.1339

       (F)(1) The board shall lease capital facilities improved or 1340
financed by the Ohio building authority pursuant to Chapter 152. 1341
of the Revised Code for the use of the board, and may enter into 1342
any other agreements with the authority ancillary to improvement, 1343
financing, or leasing of those capital facilities, including, but 1344
not limited to, any agreement required by the applicable bond 1345
proceedings authorized by Chapter 152. of the Revised Code. Any 1346
lease of capital facilities authorized by this section shall be 1347
governed by division (D) of section 152.24 of the Revised Code.1348

       (2) Fees, receipts, and revenues received by the board from 1349
the state underground parking garage constitute available receipts 1350
as defined in section 152.09 of the Revised Code, and may be 1351
pledged to the payment of bond service charges on obligations 1352
issued by the Ohio building authority pursuant to Chapter 152. of 1353
the Revised Code to improve, finance, or purchase capital 1354
facilities useful to the board. The authority may, with the 1355
consent of the board, provide in the bond proceedings for a pledge 1356
of all or a portion of those fees, receipts, and revenues as the 1357
authority determines. The authority may provide in the bond 1358
proceedings or by separate agreement with the board for the 1359
transfer of those fees, receipts, and revenues to the appropriate 1360
bond service fund or bond service reserve fund as required to pay 1361
the bond service charges when due, and any such provision for the 1362
transfer of those fees, receipts, and revenues shall be 1363
controlling notwithstanding any other provision of law pertaining 1364
to those fees, receipts, and revenues.1365

       (3) All moneys received by the treasurer of state on account 1366
of the board and required by the applicable bond proceedings or by 1367
separate agreement with the board to be deposited, transferred, or 1368
credited to the bond service fund or bond service reserve fund 1369
established by the bond proceedings shall be transferred by the 1370
treasurer of state to such fund, whether or not it is in the 1371
custody of the treasurer of state, without necessity for further 1372
appropriation, upon receipt of notice from the Ohio building 1373
authority as prescribed in the bond proceedings.1374

       (G) All fees, receipts, and revenues received by the board 1375
from the state underground parking garage shall be deposited into 1376
the state treasury to the credit of the underground parking garage 1377
operating fund, which is hereby created, to be used for the 1378
purposes specified in division (F) of this section and for the 1379
operation and maintenance of the garage. All investment earnings 1380
of the fund shall be credited to the fund.1381

       (H) All donations received by the board shall be deposited 1382
into the state treasury to the credit of the capitol square 1383
renovation gift fund, which is hereby created. The fund shall be 1384
used by the board as follows:1385

       (1) To provide part or all of the funding related to 1386
construction, goods, or services for the renovation of the capitol 1387
square;1388

       (2) To purchase art, antiques, and artifacts for display at 1389
the capitol square;1390

       (3) To award contracts or make grants to organizations for 1391
educating the public regarding the historical background and 1392
governmental functions of the capitol square. Chapters 125., 127., 1393
and 153. and section 3517.13 of the Revised Code do not apply to 1394
purchases made exclusively from the fund, notwithstanding anything 1395
to the contrary in those chapters or that section. All investment 1396
earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund.1397

       (I) Except as provided in divisions (G), (H), and (J) of this 1398
section, all fees, receipts, and revenues received by the board 1399
shall be deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the 1400
sale of goods and services fund, which is hereby created. Money 1401
credited to the fund shall be used solely to pay costs of the 1402
board other than those specified in divisions (F) and (G) of this 1403
section. All investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to 1404
the fund.1405

       (J) There is hereby created in the state treasury the capitol 1406
square improvement fund, to be used by the board to pay 1407
construction, renovation, and other costs related to the capitol 1408
square for which money is not otherwise available to the board. 1409
Whenever the board determines that there is a need to incur those 1410
costs and that the unencumbered, unobligated balance to the credit 1411
of the underground parking garage operating fund exceeds the 1412
amount needed for the purposes specified in division (F) of this 1413
section and for the operation and maintenance of the garage, the 1414
board may request the director of budget and management to 1415
transfer from the underground parking garage operating fund to the 1416
capitol square improvement fund the amount needed to pay such 1417
construction, renovation, or other costs. The director then shall 1418
transfer the amount needed from the excess balance of the 1419
underground parking garage operating fund.1420

       (K) As the operation and maintenance of the capitol square 1421
constitute essential government functions of a public purpose, the 1422
board shall not be required to pay taxes or assessments upon the 1423
square, upon any property acquired or used by the board under this 1424
section, or upon any income generated by the operation of the 1425
square.1426

       (L) As used in this section, "capitol square" means the 1427
capitol building, senate building, capitol atrium, capitol 1428
grounds, the state underground parking garage, and the warehouse 1429
owned by the board.1430

       (M) The capitol annex shall be known as the senate building.1431

       Sec. 109.57.  (A)(1) The superintendent of the bureau of 1432
criminal identification and investigation shall procure from 1433
wherever procurable and file for record photographs, pictures, 1434
descriptions, fingerprints, measurements, and other information 1435
that may be pertinent of all persons who have been convicted of 1436
committing within this state a felony, any crime constituting a 1437
misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on subsequent 1438
offenses, or any misdemeanor described in division (A)(1)(a), 1439
(A)(8)(5)(a), or (A)(10)(7)(a) of section 109.572 of the Revised 1440
Code, of all children under eighteen years of age who have been 1441
adjudicated delinquent children for committing within this state 1442
an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence if 1443
committed by an adult or who have been convicted of or pleaded 1444
guilty to committing within this state a felony or an offense of 1445
violence, and of all well-known and habitual criminals. The person 1446
in charge of any county, multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, 1447
or multicounty-municipal jail or workhouse, community-based 1448
correctional facility, halfway house, alternative residential 1449
facility, or state correctional institution and the person in 1450
charge of any state institution having custody of a person 1451
suspected of having committed a felony, any crime constituting a 1452
misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on subsequent 1453
offenses, or any misdemeanor described in division (A)(1)(a), 1454
(A)(8)(5)(a), or (A)(10)(7)(a) of section 109.572 of the Revised 1455
Code or having custody of a child under eighteen years of age with 1456
respect to whom there is probable cause to believe that the child 1457
may have committed an act that would be a felony or an offense of 1458
violence if committed by an adult shall furnish such material to 1459
the superintendent of the bureau. Fingerprints, photographs, or 1460
other descriptive information of a child who is under eighteen 1461
years of age, has not been arrested or otherwise taken into 1462
custody for committing an act that would be a felony or an offense 1463
of violence who is not in any other category of child specified in 1464
this division, if committed by an adult, has not been adjudicated 1465
a delinquent child for committing an act that would be a felony or 1466
an offense of violence if committed by an adult, has not been 1467
convicted of or pleaded guilty to committing a felony or an 1468
offense of violence, and is not a child with respect to whom there 1469
is probable cause to believe that the child may have committed an 1470
act that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed 1471
by an adult shall not be procured by the superintendent or 1472
furnished by any person in charge of any county, multicounty, 1473
municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal jail or 1474
workhouse, community-based correctional facility, halfway house, 1475
alternative residential facility, or state correctional 1476
institution, except as authorized in section 2151.313 of the 1477
Revised Code. 1478

       (2) Every clerk of a court of record in this state, other 1479
than the supreme court or a court of appeals, shall send to the 1480
superintendent of the bureau a weekly report containing a summary 1481
of each case involving a felony, involving any crime constituting 1482
a misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on subsequent 1483
offenses, involving a misdemeanor described in division (A)(1)(a), 1484
(A)(8)(5)(a), or (A)(10)(7)(a) of section 109.572 of the Revised 1485
Code, or involving an adjudication in a case in which a child 1486
under eighteen years of age was alleged to be a delinquent child 1487
for committing an act that would be a felony or an offense of 1488
violence if committed by an adult. The clerk of the court of 1489
common pleas shall include in the report and summary the clerk 1490
sends under this division all information described in divisions 1491
(A)(2)(a) to (f) of this section regarding a case before the court 1492
of appeals that is served by that clerk. The summary shall be 1493
written on the standard forms furnished by the superintendent 1494
pursuant to division (B) of this section and shall include the 1495
following information: 1496

       (a) The incident tracking number contained on the standard 1497
forms furnished by the superintendent pursuant to division (B) of 1498
this section; 1499

       (b) The style and number of the case; 1500

       (c) The date of arrest, offense, summons, or arraignment; 1501

       (d) The date that the person was convicted of or pleaded 1502
guilty to the offense, adjudicated a delinquent child for 1503
committing the act that would be a felony or an offense of 1504
violence if committed by an adult, found not guilty of the 1505
offense, or found not to be a delinquent child for committing an 1506
act that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed 1507
by an adult, the date of an entry dismissing the charge, an entry 1508
declaring a mistrial of the offense in which the person is 1509
discharged, an entry finding that the person or child is not 1510
competent to stand trial, or an entry of a nolle prosequi, or the 1511
date of any other determination that constitutes final resolution 1512
of the case; 1513

       (e) A statement of the original charge with the section of 1514
the Revised Code that was alleged to be violated; 1515

       (f) If the person or child was convicted, pleaded guilty, or 1516
was adjudicated a delinquent child, the sentence or terms of 1517
probation imposed or any other disposition of the offender or the 1518
delinquent child. 1519

       If the offense involved the disarming of a law enforcement 1520
officer or an attempt to disarm a law enforcement officer, the 1521
clerk shall clearly state that fact in the summary, and the 1522
superintendent shall ensure that a clear statement of that fact is 1523
placed in the bureau's records. 1524

       (3) The superintendent shall cooperate with and assist 1525
sheriffs, chiefs of police, and other law enforcement officers in 1526
the establishment of a complete system of criminal identification 1527
and in obtaining fingerprints and other means of identification of 1528
all persons arrested on a charge of a felony, any crime 1529
constituting a misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on 1530
subsequent offenses, or a misdemeanor described in division 1531
(A)(1)(a), (A)(8)(5)(a), or (A)(10)(7)(a) of section 109.572 of 1532
the Revised Code and of all children under eighteen years of age 1533
arrested or otherwise taken into custody for committing an act 1534
that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by 1535
an adult. The superintendent also shall file for record the 1536
fingerprint impressions of all persons confined in a county, 1537
multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal 1538
jail or workhouse, community-based correctional facility, halfway 1539
house, alternative residential facility, or state correctional 1540
institution for the violation of state laws and of all children 1541
under eighteen years of age who are confined in a county, 1542
multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal 1543
jail or workhouse, community-based correctional facility, halfway 1544
house, alternative residential facility, or state correctional 1545
institution or in any facility for delinquent children for 1546
committing an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence 1547
if committed by an adult, and any other information that the 1548
superintendent may receive from law enforcement officials of the 1549
state and its political subdivisions. 1550

       (4) The superintendent shall carry out Chapter 2950. of the 1551
Revised Code with respect to the registration of persons who are 1552
convicted of or plead guilty to a sexually oriented offense or a 1553
child-victim oriented offense and with respect to all other duties 1554
imposed on the bureau under that chapter. 1555

       (5) The bureau shall perform centralized recordkeeping 1556
functions for criminal history records and services in this state 1557
for purposes of the national crime prevention and privacy compact 1558
set forth in section 109.571 of the Revised Code and is the 1559
criminal history record repository as defined in that section for 1560
purposes of that compact. The superintendent or the 1561
superintendent's designee is the compact officer for purposes of 1562
that compact and shall carry out the responsibilities of the 1563
compact officer specified in that compact. 1564

       (B) The superintendent shall prepare and furnish to every 1565
county, multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or 1566
multicounty-municipal jail or workhouse, community-based 1567
correctional facility, halfway house, alternative residential 1568
facility, or state correctional institution and to every clerk of 1569
a court in this state specified in division (A)(2) of this section 1570
standard forms for reporting the information required under 1571
division (A) of this section. The standard forms that the 1572
superintendent prepares pursuant to this division may be in a 1573
tangible format, in an electronic format, or in both tangible 1574
formats and electronic formats. 1575

       (C)(1) The superintendent may operate a center for 1576
electronic, automated, or other data processing for the storage 1577
and retrieval of information, data, and statistics pertaining to 1578
criminals and to children under eighteen years of age who are 1579
adjudicated delinquent children for committing an act that would 1580
be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by an adult, 1581
criminal activity, crime prevention, law enforcement, and criminal 1582
justice, and may establish and operate a statewide communications 1583
network to be known as the Ohio law enforcement gateway to gather 1584
and disseminate information, data, and statistics for the use of 1585
law enforcement agencies and for other uses specified in this 1586
division. The superintendent may gather, store, retrieve, and 1587
disseminate information, data, and statistics that pertain to 1588
children who are under eighteen years of age and that are gathered 1589
pursuant to sections 109.57 to 109.61 of the Revised Code together 1590
with information, data, and statistics that pertain to adults and 1591
that are gathered pursuant to those sections. 1592

       (2) The superintendent or the superintendent's designee shall 1593
gather information of the nature described in division (C)(1) of 1594
this section that pertains to the offense and delinquency history 1595
of a person who has been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been 1596
adjudicated a delinquent child for committing a sexually oriented 1597
offense or a child-victim oriented offense for inclusion in the 1598
state registry of sex offenders and child-victim offenders 1599
maintained pursuant to division (A)(1) of section 2950.13 of the 1600
Revised Code and in the internet database operated pursuant to 1601
division (A)(13) of that section and for possible inclusion in the 1602
internet database operated pursuant to division (A)(11) of that 1603
section. 1604

        (3) In addition to any other authorized use of information, 1605
data, and statistics of the nature described in division (C)(1) of 1606
this section, the superintendent or the superintendent's designee 1607
may provide and exchange the information, data, and statistics 1608
pursuant to the national crime prevention and privacy compact as 1609
described in division (A)(5) of this section. 1610

       (4) The attorney general may adopt rules under Chapter 119. 1611
of the Revised Code establishing guidelines for the operation of 1612
and participation in the Ohio law enforcement gateway. The rules 1613
may include criteria for granting and restricting access to 1614
information gathered and disseminated through the Ohio law 1615
enforcement gateway. The attorney general shall permit the state 1616
medical board and board of nursing to access and view, but not 1617
alter, information gathered and disseminated through the Ohio law 1618
enforcement gateway.1619

       The attorney general may appoint a steering committee to 1620
advise the attorney general in the operation of the Ohio law 1621
enforcement gateway that is comprised of persons who are 1622
representatives of the criminal justice agencies in this state 1623
that use the Ohio law enforcement gateway and is chaired by the 1624
superintendent or the superintendent's designee.1625

       (D)(1) The following are not public records under section 1626
149.43 of the Revised Code:1627

       (a) Information and materials furnished to the superintendent 1628
pursuant to division (A) of this section;1629

       (b) Information, data, and statistics gathered or 1630
disseminated through the Ohio law enforcement gateway pursuant to 1631
division (C)(1) of this section;1632

       (c) Information and materials furnished to any board or 1633
person under division (F) or (G) of this section.1634

       (2) The superintendent or the superintendent's designee shall 1635
gather and retain information so furnished under division (A) of 1636
this section that pertains to the offense and delinquency history 1637
of a person who has been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been 1638
adjudicated a delinquent child for committing a sexually oriented 1639
offense or a child-victim oriented offense for the purposes 1640
described in division (C)(2) of this section. 1641

       (E) The attorney general shall adopt rules, in accordance 1642
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, setting forth the procedure 1643
by which a person may receive or release information gathered by 1644
the superintendent pursuant to division (A) of this section. A 1645
reasonable fee may be charged for this service. If a temporary 1646
employment service submits a request for a determination of 1647
whether a person the service plans to refer to an employment 1648
position has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense 1649
listed in division (A)(1), (3), (4), (5), or (6)(2) of section 1650
109.572 of the Revised Code or has been convicted of, pleaded 1651
guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of 1652
conviction for a disqualifying offense as defined in section 1653
173.394, 3701.881, or 5111.032 of the Revised Code, the request 1654
shall be treated as a single request and only one fee shall be 1655
charged. 1656

       (F)(1) As used in division (F)(2) of this section, "head 1657
start agency" means an entity in this state that has been approved 1658
to be an agency for purposes of subchapter II of the "Community 1659
Economic Development Act," 95 Stat. 489 (1981), 42 U.S.C.A. 9831, 1660
as amended. 1661

       (2)(a) In addition to or in conjunction with any request that 1662
is required to be made under section 109.572, 2151.86, 3301.32, 1663
3301.541, division (C) of section 3310.58, or section 3319.39, 1664
3319.391, 3327.10, 3701.881, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5123.081, 1665
5126.28, 5126.281, or 5153.111 of the Revised Code or that is made 1666
under section 3314.41, 3319.392, 3326.25, or 3328.20 of the 1667
Revised Code, the board of education of any school district; the 1668
director of developmental disabilities; any county board of 1669
developmental disabilities; any entity under contract with a 1670
county board of developmental disabilitiesprovider or 1671
subcontractor as defined in section 5123.081 of the Revised Code; 1672
the chief administrator of any chartered nonpublic school; the 1673
chief administrator of a registered private provider that is not 1674
also a chartered nonpublic school; the chief administrator of any 1675
home health agency; the chief administrator of or person operating 1676
any child day-care center, type A family day-care home, or type B 1677
family day-care home licensed or certified under Chapter 5104. of 1678
the Revised Code; the administrator of any type C family day-care 1679
home certified pursuant to Section 1 of Sub. H.B. 62 of the 121st 1680
general assembly or Section 5 of Am. Sub. S.B. 160 of the 121st 1681
general assembly; the chief administrator of any head start 1682
agency; the executive director of a public children services 1683
agency; a private company described in section 3314.41, 3319.392, 1684
3326.25, or 3328.20 of the Revised Code; or an employer described 1685
in division (J)(2) of section 3327.10 of the Revised Code may 1686
request that the superintendent of the bureau investigate and 1687
determine, with respect to any individual who has applied for 1688
employment in any position after October 2, 1989, or any 1689
individual wishing to apply for employment with a board of 1690
education may request, with regard to the individual, whether the 1691
bureau has any information gathered under division (A) of this 1692
section that pertains to that individual. On receipt of the 1693
request, the superintendent shall determine whether that 1694
information exists and, upon request of the person, board, or 1695
entity requesting information, also shall request from the federal 1696
bureau of investigation any criminal records it has pertaining to 1697
that individual. The superintendent or the superintendent's 1698
designee also may request criminal history records from other 1699
states or the federal government pursuant to the national crime 1700
prevention and privacy compact set forth in section 109.571 of the 1701
Revised Code. Within thirty days of the date that the 1702
superintendent receives a request, the superintendent shall send 1703
to the board, entity, or person a report of any information that 1704
the superintendent determines exists, including information 1705
contained in records that have been sealed under section 2953.32 1706
of the Revised Code, and, within thirty days of its receipt, shall 1707
send the board, entity, or person a report of any information 1708
received from the federal bureau of investigation, other than 1709
information the dissemination of which is prohibited by federal 1710
law. 1711

       (b) When a board of education or a registered private 1712
provider is required to receive information under this section as 1713
a prerequisite to employment of an individual pursuant to division 1714
(C) of section 3310.58 or section 3319.39 of the Revised Code, it 1715
may accept a certified copy of records that were issued by the 1716
bureau of criminal identification and investigation and that are 1717
presented by an individual applying for employment with the 1718
district in lieu of requesting that information itself. In such a 1719
case, the board shall accept the certified copy issued by the 1720
bureau in order to make a photocopy of it for that individual's 1721
employment application documents and shall return the certified 1722
copy to the individual. In a case of that nature, a district or 1723
provider only shall accept a certified copy of records of that 1724
nature within one year after the date of their issuance by the 1725
bureau. 1726

       (c) Notwithstanding division (F)(2)(a) of this section, in 1727
the case of a request under section 3319.39, 3319.391, or 3327.10 1728
of the Revised Code only for criminal records maintained by the 1729
federal bureau of investigation, the superintendent shall not 1730
determine whether any information gathered under division (A) of 1731
this section exists on the person for whom the request is made.1732

       (3) The state board of education may request, with respect to 1733
any individual who has applied for employment after October 2, 1734
1989, in any position with the state board or the department of 1735
education, any information that a school district board of 1736
education is authorized to request under division (F)(2) of this 1737
section, and the superintendent of the bureau shall proceed as if 1738
the request has been received from a school district board of 1739
education under division (F)(2) of this section. 1740

       (4) When the superintendent of the bureau receives a request 1741
for information under section 3319.291 of the Revised Code, the 1742
superintendent shall proceed as if the request has been received 1743
from a school district board of education and shall comply with 1744
divisions (F)(2)(a) and (c) of this section. 1745

       (5) When a recipient of a classroom reading improvement grant 1746
paid under section 3301.86 of the Revised Code requests, with 1747
respect to any individual who applies to participate in providing 1748
any program or service funded in whole or in part by the grant, 1749
the information that a school district board of education is 1750
authorized to request under division (F)(2)(a) of this section, 1751
the superintendent of the bureau shall proceed as if the request 1752
has been received from a school district board of education under 1753
division (F)(2)(a) of this section. 1754

       (G) In addition to or in conjunction with any request that is 1755
required to be made under section 3701.881, 3712.09, 3721.121, or1756
5119.693, or 5119.85 of the Revised Code with respect to an 1757
individual who has applied for employment in a position that 1758
involves providing direct care to an older adult or adult 1759
resident, the chief administrator of a home health agency, hospice 1760
care program, home licensed under Chapter 3721. of the Revised 1761
Code, adult day-care program operated pursuant to rules adopted 1762
under section 3721.04 of the Revised Code, or adult foster home, 1763
or adult care facility may request that the superintendent of the 1764
bureau investigate and determine, with respect to any individual 1765
who has applied after January 27, 1997, for employment in a 1766
position that does not involve providing direct care to an older 1767
adult or adult resident, whether the bureau has any information 1768
gathered under division (A) of this section that pertains to that 1769
individual. 1770

       In addition to or in conjunction with any request that is 1771
required to be made under section 173.27 of the Revised Code with 1772
respect to an individual who has applied for employment in a 1773
position that involves providing ombudsperson services to 1774
residents of long-term care facilities or recipients of 1775
community-based long-term care services, the state long-term care 1776
ombudsperson, ombudsperson's designee, or director of health may 1777
request that the superintendent investigate and determine, with 1778
respect to any individual who has applied for employment in a 1779
position that does not involve providing such ombudsperson 1780
services, whether the bureau has any information gathered under 1781
division (A) of this section that pertains to that applicant. 1782

       In addition to or in conjunction with any request that is 1783
required to be made under section 173.394 of the Revised Code with 1784
respect to an individual who has applied for employment in a 1785
position that involves providing direct care to an individual, the 1786
chief administrator of a community-based long-term care agency may 1787
request that the superintendent investigate and determine, with 1788
respect to any individual who has applied for employment in a 1789
position that does not involve providing direct care, whether the 1790
bureau has any information gathered under division (A) of this 1791
section that pertains to that applicant. 1792

       On receipt of a request under this division, the 1793
superintendent shall determine whether that information exists 1794
and, on request of the individual requesting information, shall 1795
also request from the federal bureau of investigation any criminal 1796
records it has pertaining to the applicant. The superintendent or 1797
the superintendent's designee also may request criminal history 1798
records from other states or the federal government pursuant to 1799
the national crime prevention and privacy compact set forth in 1800
section 109.571 of the Revised Code. Within thirty days of the 1801
date a request is received, the superintendent shall send to the 1802
requester a report of any information determined to exist, 1803
including information contained in records that have been sealed 1804
under section 2953.32 of the Revised Code, and, within thirty days 1805
of its receipt, shall send the requester a report of any 1806
information received from the federal bureau of investigation, 1807
other than information the dissemination of which is prohibited by 1808
federal law. 1809

       (H) Information obtained by a government entity or person 1810
under this section is confidential and shall not be released or 1811
disseminated. 1812

       (I) The superintendent may charge a reasonable fee for 1813
providing information or criminal records under division (F)(2) or 1814
(G) of this section. 1815

       (J) As used in this section:1816

       (1) "Sexually oriented offense" and "child-victim oriented 1817
offense" have the same meanings as in section 2950.01 of the 1818
Revised Code.1819

       (2) "Registered private provider" means a nonpublic school or 1820
entity registered with the superintendent of public instruction 1821
under section 3310.41 of the Revised Code to participate in the 1822
autism scholarship program or section 3310.58 of the Revised Code 1823
to participate in the Jon Peterson special needs scholarship 1824
program.1825

       Sec. 109.572. (A)(1) Upon receipt of a request pursuant to 1826
section 121.08, 3301.32, 3301.541, or 3319.39 of the Revised Code, 1827
a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this 1828
section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the 1829
manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the 1830
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 1831
investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner 1832
described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any 1833
information exists that indicates that the person who is the 1834
subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded 1835
guilty to any of the following:1836

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 1837
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 1838
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 1839
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 1840
2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 1841
2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 1842
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 1843
2925.06, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual 1844
penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised 1845
Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it 1846
existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of 1847
the Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 1848
2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, 1849
had the violation been committed prior to that date, or a 1850
violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a 1851
minor drug possession offense;1852

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 1853
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 1854
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(1)(a) of 1855
this section.1856

       (2) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 5123.081 of 1857
the Revised Code with respect to an applicant for employment in 1858
any position with the department of developmental disabilities, 1859
pursuant to section 5126.28 of the Revised Code with respect to an 1860
applicant for employment in any position with a county board of 1861
developmental disabilities, or pursuant to section 5126.281 of the 1862
Revised Code with respect to an applicant for employment in a 1863
direct services position with an entity contracting with a county 1864
board for employment, a completed form prescribed pursuant to 1865
division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint 1866
impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of 1867
this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 1868
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records 1869
check. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check 1870
in the manner described in division (B) of this section to 1871
determine whether any information exists that indicates that the 1872
person who is the subject of the request has been convicted of or 1873
pleaded guilty to any of the following:1874

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 1875
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 1876
2903.341, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.04, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 1877
2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 1878
2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 1879
2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 1880
2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 1881
2925.03, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;1882

       (b) An existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this 1883
state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially 1884
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(2)(a) of 1885
this section.1886

       (3) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 173.27, 1887
173.394, 3712.09, 3721.121, or 5119.693, or 5119.85 of the Revised 1888
Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of 1889
this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the 1890
manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the 1891
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 1892
investigation shall conduct a criminal records check with respect 1893
to any person who has applied for employment in a position for 1894
which a criminal records check is required by those sections. The 1895
superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check in the 1896
manner described in division (B) of this section to determine 1897
whether any information exists that indicates that the person who 1898
is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or 1899
pleaded guilty to any of the following:1900

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 1901
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 1902
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 1903
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 1904
2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 1905
2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 1906
2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 1907
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 1908
2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;1909

       (b) An existing or former law of this state, any other state, 1910
or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of 1911
the offenses listed in division (A)(3)(2)(a) of this section.1912

       (4) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 3701.881 of 1913
the Revised Code with respect to an applicant for employment with 1914
a home health agency as a person responsible for the care, 1915
custody, or control of a child, a completed form prescribed 1916
pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of 1917
fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in 1918
division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau 1919
of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a 1920
criminal records check. The superintendent shall conduct the 1921
criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of 1922
this section to determine whether any information exists that 1923
indicates that the person who is the subject of the request 1924
previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the 1925
following:1926

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 1927
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 1928
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.04, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 1929
2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.21, 1930
2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 1931
2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 2919.22, 1932
2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 1933
2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code or a 1934
violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a 1935
minor drug possession offense;1936

       (b) An existing or former law of this state, any other state, 1937
or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of 1938
the offenses listed in division (A)(4)(a) of this section.1939

       (5)(3) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 173.27, 1940
173.394, 3701.881, 5111.032, 5111.033, or 5111.034, 5123.081, or 1941
5123.169 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant 1942
to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint 1943
impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of 1944
this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 1945
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records 1946
check of the person for whom the request is made. The 1947
superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check in the 1948
manner described in division (B) of this section to determine 1949
whether any information exists that indicates that the person who 1950
is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of, 1951
has pleaded guilty to, or has been found eligible for intervention 1952
in lieu of conviction for any of the following, regardless of the 1953
date of the conviction, the date of entry of the guilty plea, or 1954
the date the person was found eligible for intervention in lieu of 1955
conviction:1956

       (a) A violation of section 959.13, 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 1957
2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.15, 2903.16, 1958
2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 1959
2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 1960
2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.24, 1961
2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2909.02, 1962
2909.03, 2909.04, 2909.05, 2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2911.01, 1963
2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 1964
2913.05, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 2913.40, 2913.41, 1965
2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 2913.441, 2913.45, 2913.46, 2913.47, 1966
2913.48, 2913.49, 2913.51, 2917.01, 2917.02, 2917.03, 2917.11, 1967
2917.31, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.23, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.03, 1968
2921.11, 2921.13, 2921.34, 2921.35, 2921.36, 2923.01, 2923.02, 1969
2923.03, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2923.32, 2925.02, 2925.03, 1970
2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.14, 2925.22, 1971
2925.23, 2927.12, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual 1972
penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised 1973
Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it 1974
existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of 1975
the Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 1976
2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, 1977
had the violation been committed prior to that date;1978

       (b) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance 1979
or law of this state, any other state, or the United States that 1980
is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in 1981
division (A)(5)(a) of this sectiona disqualifying offense as 1982
defined in the section of the Revised Code under which the request 1983
is made.1984

       (6) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 3701.881 of 1985
the Revised Code with respect to an applicant for employment with 1986
a home health agency in a position that involves providing direct 1987
care to an older adult, a completed form prescribed pursuant to 1988
division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint 1989
impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of 1990
this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 1991
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records 1992
check. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check 1993
in the manner described in division (B) of this section to 1994
determine whether any information exists that indicates that the 1995
person who is the subject of the request previously has been 1996
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:1997

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 1998
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 1999
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 2000
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2001
2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2002
2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2003
2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 2004
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2005
2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;2006

       (b) An existing or former law of this state, any other state, 2007
or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of 2008
the offenses listed in division (A)(6)(a) of this section.2009

       (7)(4) When conducting a criminal records check upon a 2010
request pursuant to section 3319.39 of the Revised Code for an 2011
applicant who is a teacher, in addition to the determination made 2012
under division (A)(1) of this section, the superintendent shall 2013
determine whether any information exists that indicates that the 2014
person who is the subject of the request previously has been 2015
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense specified in section 2016
3319.31 of the Revised Code.2017

       (8)(5) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 2151.86 of 2018
the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division 2019
(C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions 2020
obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this 2021
section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 2022
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records 2023
check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to 2024
determine whether any information exists that indicates that the 2025
person who is the subject of the request previously has been 2026
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:2027

       (a) A violation of section 959.13, 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2028
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.15, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2029
2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2030
2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2031
2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2032
2907.322, 2907.323, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2033
2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2913.49, 2917.01, 2917.02, 2034
2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2035
2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2927.12, or 3716.11 2036
of the Revised Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised 2037
Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2038
2919.23 of the Revised Code that would have been a violation of 2039
section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 2040
1996, had the violation been committed prior to that date, a 2041
violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a 2042
minor drug possession offense, two or more OVI or OVUAC violations 2043
committed within the three years immediately preceding the 2044
submission of the application or petition that is the basis of the 2045
request, or felonious sexual penetration in violation of former 2046
section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;2047

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 2048
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 2049
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(8)(5)(a) 2050
of this section.2051

       (9)(6) Upon receipt of a request pursuant to section 5104.012 2052
or 5104.013 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed 2053
pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of 2054
fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in 2055
division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau 2056
of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a 2057
criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of 2058
this section to determine whether any information exists that 2059
indicates that the person who is the subject of the request has 2060
been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:2061

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2062
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.22, 2063
2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2064
2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2065
2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2066
2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2067
2913.041, 2913.05, 2913.06, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 2068
2913.33, 2913.34, 2913.40, 2913.41, 2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 2069
2913.441, 2913.45, 2913.46, 2913.47, 2913.48, 2913.49, 2919.12, 2070
2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.11, 2921.13, 2923.01, 2923.12, 2071
2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, or 2072
3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual penetration in 2073
violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code, a 2074
violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed 2075
prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of the 2076
Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 2905.04 2077
of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the 2078
violation been committed prior to that date, a violation of 2079
section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a minor drug 2080
possession offense, a violation of section 2923.02 or 2923.03 of 2081
the Revised Code that relates to a crime specified in this 2082
division, or a second violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised 2083
Code within five years of the date of application for licensure or 2084
certification.2085

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 2086
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 2087
equivalent to any of the offenses or violations described in 2088
division (A)(9)(6)(a) of this section.2089

       (10)(7) Upon receipt of a request pursuant to section 2090
5153.111 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant 2091
to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint 2092
impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of 2093
this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 2094
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records 2095
check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to 2096
determine whether any information exists that indicates that the 2097
person who is the subject of the request previously has been 2098
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:2099

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2100
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 2101
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2102
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2103
2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2909.02, 2104
2909.03, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2105
2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2106
2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, 2107
felonious sexual penetration in violation of former section 2108
2907.12 of the Revised Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the 2109
Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of 2110
section 2919.23 of the Revised Code that would have been a 2111
violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed 2112
prior to July 1, 1996, had the violation been committed prior to 2113
that date, or a violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code 2114
that is not a minor drug possession offense;2115

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 2116
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 2117
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(10)(7)(a) 2118
of this section.2119

       (11)(8) On receipt of a request for a criminal records check 2120
from an individual pursuant to section 4749.03 or 4749.06 of the 2121
Revised Code, accompanied by a completed copy of the form 2122
prescribed in division (C)(1) of this section and a set of 2123
fingerprint impressions obtained in a manner described in division 2124
(C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of 2125
criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal 2126
records check in the manner described in division (B) of this 2127
section to determine whether any information exists indicating 2128
that the person who is the subject of the request has been 2129
convicted of or pleaded guilty to a felony in this state or in any 2130
other state. If the individual indicates that a firearm will be 2131
carried in the course of business, the superintendent shall 2132
require information from the federal bureau of investigation as 2133
described in division (B)(2) of this section. The superintendent 2134
shall report the findings of the criminal records check and any 2135
information the federal bureau of investigation provides to the 2136
director of public safety.2137

       (12)(9) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 1321.37, 2138
1321.53, 1321.531, 1322.03, 1322.031, or 4763.05 of the Revised 2139
Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of 2140
this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the 2141
manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the 2142
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 2143
investigation shall conduct a criminal records check with respect 2144
to any person who has applied for a license, permit, or 2145
certification from the department of commerce or a division in the 2146
department. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records 2147
check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to 2148
determine whether any information exists that indicates that the 2149
person who is the subject of the request previously has been 2150
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following: a 2151
violation of section 2913.02, 2913.11, 2913.31, 2913.51, or 2152
2925.03 of the Revised Code; any other criminal offense involving 2153
theft, receiving stolen property, embezzlement, forgery, fraud, 2154
passing bad checks, money laundering, or drug trafficking, or any 2155
criminal offense involving money or securities, as set forth in 2156
Chapters 2909., 2911., 2913., 2915., 2921., 2923., and 2925. of 2157
the Revised Code; or any existing or former law of this state, any 2158
other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent 2159
to those offenses.2160

       (13)(10) On receipt of a request for a criminal records check 2161
from the treasurer of state under section 113.041 of the Revised 2162
Code or from an individual under section 4701.08, 4715.101, 2163
4717.061, 4725.121, 4725.501, 4729.071, 4730.101, 4730.14, 2164
4730.28, 4731.081, 4731.15, 4731.171, 4731.222, 4731.281, 2165
4731.296, 4731.531, 4732.091, 4734.202, 4740.061, 4741.10, 2166
4755.70, 4757.101, 4759.061, 4760.032, 4760.06, 4761.051, 2167
4762.031, 4762.06, or 4779.091 of the Revised Code, accompanied by 2168
a completed form prescribed under division (C)(1) of this section 2169
and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner 2170
described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent 2171
of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall 2172
conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in 2173
division (B) of this section to determine whether any information 2174
exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the 2175
request has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any criminal 2176
offense in this state or any other state. The superintendent shall 2177
send the results of a check requested under section 113.041 of the 2178
Revised Code to the treasurer of state and shall send the results 2179
of a check requested under any of the other listed sections to the 2180
licensing board specified by the individual in the request.2181

       (14)(11) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 1121.23, 2182
1155.03, 1163.05, 1315.141, 1733.47, or 1761.26 of the Revised 2183
Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of 2184
this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the 2185
manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the 2186
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 2187
investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner 2188
described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any 2189
information exists that indicates that the person who is the 2190
subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded 2191
guilty to any criminal offense under any existing or former law of 2192
this state, any other state, or the United States.2193

       (15)(12) On receipt of a request for a criminal records check 2194
from an appointing or licensing authority under section 3772.07 of 2195
the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed under division 2196
(C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions 2197
obtained in the manner prescribed in division (C)(2) of this 2198
section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 2199
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records 2200
check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to 2201
determine whether any information exists that indicates that the 2202
person who is the subject of the request previously has been 2203
convicted of or pleaded guilty or no contest to any offense under 2204
any existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the 2205
United States that is a disqualifying offense as defined in 2206
section 3772.07 of the Revised Code or substantially equivalent to 2207
such an offense.2208

       (16)(13) Not later than thirty days after the date the 2209
superintendent receives a request of a type described in division 2210
(A)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), (9), (10), (11), (12), 2211
(14), or (15)(13) of this section, the completed form, and the 2212
fingerprint impressions, the superintendent shall send the results 2213
of the criminal records check to the person, board, or entity that 2214
made the request any information, other than. The superintendent 2215
shall exclude from the results any information the dissemination 2216
of which is prohibited by federal law, the superintendent 2217
determines exists with respect to the person who is the subject of 2218
the request that indicates that the person previously has been 2219
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense listed or described 2220
in division (A)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), (9), (10), 2221
(11), (12), (14), or (15) of this section, as appropriate. The 2222
superintendent shall send the person, board, or entity that made 2223
the request a copy of the list of offenses specified in division 2224
(A)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), (9), (10), (11), (12), 2225
(14), or (15) of this section, as appropriatefor which the 2226
criminal records check was conducted. If the request was made 2227
under section 3701.881 of the Revised Code with regard to an 2228
applicant who may be both responsible for the care, custody, or 2229
control of a child and involved in providing direct care to an 2230
older adult, the superintendent shall provide a list of the 2231
offenses specified in divisions (A)(4) and (6) of this section.2232

       Not later than thirty days after the superintendent receives 2233
a request for a criminal records check pursuant to section 113.041 2234
of the Revised Code, the completed form, and the fingerprint 2235
impressions, the superintendent shall send the treasurer of state 2236
any information, other than information the dissemination of which 2237
is prohibited by federal law, the superintendent determines exist 2238
with respect to the person who is the subject of the request that 2239
indicates that the person previously has been convicted of or 2240
pleaded guilty to any criminal offense in this state or any other 2241
state.2242

       (B) The superintendent shall conduct any criminal records 2243
check requested under section 113.041, 121.08, 173.27, 173.394, 2244
1121.23, 1155.03, 1163.05, 1315.141, 1321.53, 1321.531, 1322.03, 2245
1322.031, 1733.47, 1761.26, 2151.86, 3301.32, 3301.541, 3319.39, 2246
3701.881, 3712.09, 3721.121, 3772.07, 4701.08, 4715.101, 4717.061, 2247
4725.121, 4725.501, 4729.071, 4730.101, 4730.14, 4730.28, 2248
4731.081, 4731.15, 4731.171, 4731.222, 4731.281, 4731.296, 2249
4731.531, 4732.091, 4734.202, 4740.061, 4741.10, 4749.03, 4749.06, 2250
4755.70, 4757.101, 4759.061, 4760.032, 4760.06, 4761.051, 2251
4762.031, 4762.06, 4763.05, 4779.091, 5104.012, 5104.013, 2252
5111.032, 5111.033, 5111.034, 5119.693, 5119.85, 5123.081, 2253
5126.28, 5126.281, or 5153.111 of the Revised Codeto be conducted 2254
under this section as follows:2255

       (1) The superintendent shall review or cause to be reviewed 2256
any relevant information gathered and compiled by the bureau under 2257
division (A) of section 109.57 of the Revised Code that relates to 2258
the person who is the subject of the requestcriminal records 2259
check, including, if the criminal records check was requested 2260
under section 113.041, 121.08, 173.27, 173.394, 1121.23, 1155.03, 2261
1163.05, 1315.141, 1321.37, 1321.53, 1321.531, 1322.03, 1322.031, 2262
1733.47, 1761.26, 2151.86, 3301.32, 3301.541, 3319.39, 3701.881, 2263
3712.09, 3721.121, 3772.07, 4749.03, 4749.06, 4763.05, 5104.012, 2264
5104.013, 5111.032, 5111.033, 5111.034, 5119.693, 5119.85,2265
5123.081, 5126.28, 5126.281,5123.169, or 5153.111 of the Revised 2266
Code, any relevant information contained in records that have been 2267
sealed under section 2953.32 of the Revised Code;2268

       (2) If the request received by the superintendent asks for 2269
information from the federal bureau of investigation, the 2270
superintendent shall request from the federal bureau of 2271
investigation any information it has with respect to the person 2272
who is the subject of the requestcriminal records check, 2273
including fingerprint-based checks of national crime information 2274
databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 671 if the request is made 2275
pursuant to section 2151.86, 5104.012, or 5104.013 of the Revised 2276
Code or if any other Revised Code section requires 2277
fingerprint-based checks of that nature, and shall review or cause 2278
to be reviewed any information the superintendent receives from 2279
that bureau. If a request under section 3319.39 of the Revised 2280
Code asks only for information from the federal bureau of 2281
investigation, the superintendent shall not conduct the review 2282
prescribed by division (B)(1) of this section.2283

        (3) The superintendent or the superintendent's designee may 2284
request criminal history records from other states or the federal 2285
government pursuant to the national crime prevention and privacy 2286
compact set forth in section 109.571 of the Revised Code.2287

       (C)(1) The superintendent shall prescribe a form to obtain 2288
the information necessary to conduct a criminal records check from 2289
any person for whom a criminal records check is requested under 2290
section 113.041 of the Revised Code or required by section 121.08, 2291
173.27, 173.394, 1121.23, 1155.03, 1163.05, 1315.141, 1321.53, 2292
1321.531, 1322.03, 1322.031, 1733.47, 1761.26, 2151.86, 3301.32, 2293
3301.541, 3319.39, 3701.881, 3712.09, 3721.121, 3772.07, 4701.08, 2294
4715.101, 4717.061, 4725.121, 4725.501, 4729.071, 4730.101, 2295
4730.14, 4730.28, 4731.081, 4731.15, 4731.171, 4731.222, 4731.281, 2296
4731.296, 4731.531, 4732.091, 4734.202, 4740.061, 4741.10, 2297
4749.03, 4749.06, 4755.70, 4757.101, 4759.061, 4760.032, 4760.06, 2298
4761.051, 4762.031, 4762.06, 4763.05, 4779.091, 5104.012, 2299
5104.013, 5111.032, 5111.033, 5111.034, 5119.693, 5119.85, 2300
5123.081, 5126.28, 5126.281, or 5153.111 of the Revised Codeto be 2301
conducted under this section. The form that the superintendent 2302
prescribes pursuant to this division may be in a tangible format, 2303
in an electronic format, or in both tangible and electronic 2304
formats.2305

       (2) The superintendent shall prescribe standard impression 2306
sheets to obtain the fingerprint impressions of any person for 2307
whom a criminal records check is requested under section 113.041 2308
of the Revised Code or required by section 121.08, 173.27, 2309
173.394, 1121.23, 1155.03, 1163.05, 1315.141, 1321.53, 1321.531, 2310
1322.03, 1322.031, 1733.47, 1761.26, 2151.86, 3301.32, 3301.541, 2311
3319.39, 3701.881, 3712.09, 3721.121, 3772.07, 4701.08, 4715.101, 2312
4717.061, 4725.121, 4725.501, 4729.071, 4730.101, 4730.14, 2313
4730.28, 4731.081, 4731.15, 4731.171, 4731.222, 4731.281, 2314
4731.296, 4731.531, 4732.091, 4734.202, 4740.061, 4741.10, 2315
4749.03, 4749.06, 4755.70, 4757.101, 4759.061, 4760.032, 4760.06, 2316
4761.051, 4762.031, 4762.06, 4763.05, 4779.091, 5104.012, 2317
5104.013, 5111.032, 5111.033, 5111.034, 5119.693, 5119.85, 2318
5123.081, 5126.28, 5126.281, or 5153.111 of the Revised Codeto be 2319
conducted under this section. Any person for whom a records check 2320
is requested under or required by any of those sectionsto be 2321
conducted under this section shall obtain the fingerprint 2322
impressions at a county sheriff's office, municipal police 2323
department, or any other entity with the ability to make 2324
fingerprint impressions on the standard impression sheets 2325
prescribed by the superintendent. The office, department, or 2326
entity may charge the person a reasonable fee for making the 2327
impressions. The standard impression sheets the superintendent 2328
prescribes pursuant to this division may be in a tangible format, 2329
in an electronic format, or in both tangible and electronic 2330
formats.2331

       (3) Subject to division (D) of this section, the 2332
superintendent shall prescribe and charge a reasonable fee for 2333
providing a criminal records check requested under section 2334
113.041, 121.08, 173.27, 173.394, 1121.23, 1155.03, 1163.05, 2335
1315.141, 1321.53, 1321.531, 1322.03, 1322.031, 1733.47, 1761.26, 2336
2151.86, 3301.32, 3301.541, 3319.39, 3701.881, 3712.09, 3721.121, 2337
3772.07, 4701.08, 4715.101, 4717.061, 4725.121, 4725.501, 2338
4729.071, 4730.101, 4730.14, 4730.28, 4731.081, 4731.15, 4731.171, 2339
4731.222, 4731.281, 4731.296, 4731.531, 4732.091, 4734.202, 2340
4740.061, 4741.10, 4749.03, 4749.06, 4755.70, 4757.101, 4759.061, 2341
4760.032, 4760.06, 4761.051, 4762.031, 4762.06, 4763.05, 4779.091, 2342
5104.012, 5104.013, 5111.032, 5111.033, 5111.034, 5119.693, 2343
5119.85, 5123.081, 5126.28, 5126.281, or 5153.111 of the Revised 2344
Codeunder this section. The person making arequesting the2345
criminal records request under any of those sectionscheck shall 2346
pay the fee prescribed pursuant to this division. A person making 2347
a request under section 3701.881 of the Revised Code for a 2348
criminal records check for an applicant who may be both 2349
responsible for the care, custody, or control of a child and 2350
involved in providing direct care to an older adult shall pay one 2351
fee for the request. In the case of a request under section 2352
1121.23, 1155.03, 1163.05, 1315.141, 1733.47, 1761.26, or 5111.032 2353
of the Revised Code, the fee shall be paid in the manner specified 2354
in that section.2355

       (4) The superintendent of the bureau of criminal 2356
identification and investigation may prescribe methods of 2357
forwarding fingerprint impressions and information necessary to 2358
conduct a criminal records check, which methods shall include, but 2359
not be limited to, an electronic method.2360

       (D) A determination whether any information exists that 2361
indicates that a person previously has been convicted of or 2362
pleaded guilty to any offense listed or described in division 2363
(A)(1)(a) or (b), (A)(2)(a) or (b), (A)(3)(a) or (b), (A)(4)(a) or 2364
(b), (A)(5)(a) or (b), (A)(6)(a) or (b), (A)(7), (A)(8)(a) or (b), 2365
(A)(9)(a) or (b), (A)(10)(a) or (b), (A)(12), (A)(14), or (A)(15) 2366
of this section, or that indicates that a person previously has 2367
been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any criminal offense in 2368
this state or any other state regarding a criminal records check 2369
of a type described in division (A)(13) of this section, and that 2370
is made by the superintendent with respect to information 2371
considered inThe results of a criminal records check in 2372
accordance withconducted under this section is, other than a 2373
criminal records check specified in division (A)(8) of this 2374
section, are valid for the person who is the subject of the 2375
criminal records check for a period of one year from the date upon 2376
which the superintendent makes the determinationcompletes the 2377
criminal records check. During theIf during that period in which 2378
the determination in regard to a person is valid, ifthe 2379
superintendent receives another request under this section is made2380
for a criminal records check to be conducted under this section2381
for that person, the superintendent shall provide the information 2382
that is the basis for the superintendent's initial determination2383
results from the previous criminal records check of the person at 2384
a lower fee than the fee prescribed for the initial criminal 2385
records check.2386

       (E) When the superintendent receives a request for 2387
information from a registered private provider, the superintendent 2388
shall proceed as if the request was received from a school 2389
district board of education under section 3319.39 of the Revised 2390
Code. The superintendent shall apply division (A)(7)(4) of this 2391
section to any such request for an applicant who is a teacher.2392

       (F) As used in this section:2393

       (1) "Criminal records check" means any criminal records check 2394
conducted by the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 2395
identification and investigation in accordance with division (B) 2396
of this section.2397

       (2) "Minor drug possession offense" has the same meaning as 2398
in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.2399

       (3) "Older adult" means a person age sixty or older.2400

       (4) "OVI or OVUAC violation" means a violation of section 2401
4511.19 of the Revised Code or a violation of an existing or 2402
former law of this state, any other state, or the United States 2403
that is substantially equivalent to section 4511.19 of the Revised 2404
Code.2405

       (5)(4) "Registered private provider" means a nonpublic school 2406
or entity registered with the superintendent of public instruction 2407
under section 3310.41 of the Revised Code to participate in the 2408
autism scholarship program or section 3310.58 of the Revised Code 2409
to participate in the Jon Peterson special needs scholarship 2410
program.2411

       Sec. 121.04.  Offices are created within the several 2412
departments as follows:2413

       In the department of commerce:2414

Commissioner of securities; 2415
Superintendent of real estate and professional licensing; 2416
Superintendent of financial institutions; 2417
State fire marshal; 2418
Superintendent of labor industrial compliance; 2419
Superintendent of liquor control; 2420
Superintendent of unclaimed funds. 2421

       In the department of administrative services:2422

State architect and engineer; 2423
Equal employment opportunity coordinator. 2424

       In the department of agriculture:2425

       Chiefs of divisions as follows:2426

Administration; 2427
Animal health; 2428
Livestock environmental permitting; 2429
Dairy; 2430
Food safety; 2431
Plant health; 2432
Markets; 2433
Meat inspection; 2434
Consumer protection laboratory; 2435
Amusement ride safety; 2436
Enforcement; 2437
Weights and measures. 2438

       In the department of natural resources:2439

       Chiefs of divisions as follows:2440

Mineral resources management; 2441
Oil and gas resources management; 2442
Forestry; 2443
Natural areas and preserves; 2444
Wildlife; 2445
Geological survey; 2446
Parks and recreation; 2447
Watercraft; 2448
Recycling and litter prevention; 2449
Soil and water resources; 2450
Engineering. 2451

       In the department of insurance:2452

Deputy superintendent of insurance; 2453
Assistant superintendent of insurance, technical; 2454
Assistant superintendent of insurance, administrative; 2455
Assistant superintendent of insurance, research. 2456

       Sec. 121.08.  (A) There is hereby created in the department 2457
of commerce the position of deputy director of administration. 2458
This officer shall be appointed by the director of commerce, serve 2459
under the director's direction, supervision, and control, perform 2460
the duties the director prescribes, and hold office during the 2461
director's pleasure. The director of commerce may designate an 2462
assistant director of commerce to serve as the deputy director of 2463
administration. The deputy director of administration shall 2464
perform the duties prescribed by the director of commerce in 2465
supervising the activities of the division of administration of 2466
the department of commerce.2467

       (B) Except as provided in section 121.07 of the Revised Code, 2468
the department of commerce shall have all powers and perform all 2469
duties vested in the deputy director of administration, the state 2470
fire marshal, the superintendent of financial institutions, the 2471
superintendent of real estate and professional licensing, the 2472
superintendent of liquor control, the superintendent of labor2473
industrial compliance, the superintendent of unclaimed funds, and 2474
the commissioner of securities, and shall have all powers and 2475
perform all duties vested by law in all officers, deputies, and 2476
employees of those offices. Except as provided in section 121.07 2477
of the Revised Code, wherever powers are conferred or duties 2478
imposed upon any of those officers, the powers and duties shall be 2479
construed as vested in the department of commerce.2480

       (C)(1) There is hereby created in the department of commerce 2481
a division of financial institutions, which shall have all powers 2482
and perform all duties vested by law in the superintendent of 2483
financial institutions. Wherever powers are conferred or duties 2484
imposed upon the superintendent of financial institutions, those 2485
powers and duties shall be construed as vested in the division of 2486
financial institutions. The division of financial institutions 2487
shall be administered by the superintendent of financial 2488
institutions.2489

       (2) All provisions of law governing the superintendent of 2490
financial institutions shall apply to and govern the 2491
superintendent of financial institutions provided for in this 2492
section; all authority vested by law in the superintendent of 2493
financial institutions with respect to the management of the 2494
division of financial institutions shall be construed as vested in 2495
the superintendent of financial institutions created by this 2496
section with respect to the division of financial institutions 2497
provided for in this section; and all rights, privileges, and 2498
emoluments conferred by law upon the superintendent of financial 2499
institutions shall be construed as conferred upon the 2500
superintendent of financial institutions as head of the division 2501
of financial institutions. The director of commerce shall not 2502
transfer from the division of financial institutions any of the 2503
functions specified in division (C)(2) of this section.2504

       (D) There is hereby created in the department of commerce a 2505
division of liquor control, which shall have all powers and 2506
perform all duties vested by law in the superintendent of liquor 2507
control. Wherever powers are conferred or duties are imposed upon 2508
the superintendent of liquor control, those powers and duties 2509
shall be construed as vested in the division of liquor control. 2510
The division of liquor control shall be administered by the 2511
superintendent of liquor control.2512

       (E) The director of commerce shall not be interested, 2513
directly or indirectly, in any firm or corporation which is a 2514
dealer in securities as defined in sections 1707.01 and 1707.14 of 2515
the Revised Code, or in any firm or corporation licensed under 2516
sections 1321.01 to 1321.19 of the Revised Code.2517

       (F) The director of commerce shall not have any official 2518
connection with a savings and loan association, a savings bank, a 2519
bank, a bank holding company, a savings and loan association 2520
holding company, a consumer finance company, or a credit union 2521
that is under the supervision of the division of financial 2522
institutions, or a subsidiary of any of the preceding entities, or 2523
be interested in the business thereof.2524

       (G) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 2525
division of administration fund. The fund shall receive 2526
assessments on the operating funds of the department of commerce 2527
in accordance with procedures prescribed by the director of 2528
commerce and approved by the director of budget and management. 2529
All operating expenses of the division of administration shall be 2530
paid from the division of administration fund.2531

       (H) There is hereby created in the department of commerce a 2532
division of real estate and professional licensing, which shall be 2533
under the control and supervision of the director of commerce. The 2534
division of real estate and professional licensing shall be 2535
administered by the superintendent of real estate and professional 2536
licensing. The superintendent of real estate and professional 2537
licensing shall exercise the powers and perform the functions and 2538
duties delegated to the superintendent under Chapters 4735., 2539
4763., and 4767. of the Revised Code.2540

       (I) There is hereby created in the department of commerce a 2541
division of laborindustrial compliance, which shall have all 2542
powers and perform all duties vested by law in the superintendent 2543
of laborindustrial compliance. Wherever powers are conferred or 2544
duties imposed upon the superintendent of laborindustrial 2545
compliance, those powers and duties shall be construed as vested 2546
in the division of laborindustrial compliance. The division of 2547
laborindustrial compliance shall be under the control and 2548
supervision of the director of commerce and be administered by the 2549
superintendent of laborindustrial compliance.2550

       (J) There is hereby created in the department of commerce a 2551
division of unclaimed funds, which shall have all powers and 2552
perform all duties delegated to or vested by law in the 2553
superintendent of unclaimed funds. Wherever powers are conferred 2554
or duties imposed upon the superintendent of unclaimed funds, 2555
those powers and duties shall be construed as vested in the 2556
division of unclaimed funds. The division of unclaimed funds shall 2557
be under the control and supervision of the director of commerce 2558
and shall be administered by the superintendent of unclaimed 2559
funds. The superintendent of unclaimed funds shall exercise the 2560
powers and perform the functions and duties delegated to the 2561
superintendent by the director of commerce under section 121.07 2562
and Chapter 169. of the Revised Code, and as may otherwise be 2563
provided by law.2564

       (K) The department of commerce or a division of the 2565
department created by the Revised Code that is acting with 2566
authorization on the department's behalf may request from the 2567
bureau of criminal identification and investigation pursuant to 2568
section 109.572 of the Revised Code, or coordinate with 2569
appropriate federal, state, and local government agencies to 2570
accomplish, criminal records checks for the persons whose 2571
identities are required to be disclosed by an applicant for the 2572
issuance or transfer of a permit, license, certificate of 2573
registration, or certification issued or transferred by the 2574
department or division. At or before the time of making a request 2575
for a criminal records check, the department or division may 2576
require any person whose identity is required to be disclosed by 2577
an applicant for the issuance or transfer of such a license, 2578
permit, certificate of registration, or certification to submit to 2579
the department or division valid fingerprint impressions in a 2580
format and by any media or means acceptable to the bureau of 2581
criminal identification and investigation and, when applicable, 2582
the federal bureau of investigation. The department or division 2583
may cause the bureau of criminal identification and investigation 2584
to conduct a criminal records check through the federal bureau of 2585
investigation only if the person for whom the criminal records 2586
check would be conducted resides or works outside of this state or 2587
has resided or worked outside of this state during the preceding 2588
five years, or if a criminal records check conducted by the bureau 2589
of criminal identification and investigation within this state 2590
indicates that the person may have a criminal record outside of 2591
this state.2592

        In the case of a criminal records check under section 109.572 2593
of the Revised Code, the department or division shall forward to 2594
the bureau of criminal identification and investigation the 2595
requisite form, fingerprint impressions, and fee described in 2596
division (C) of that section. When requested by the department or 2597
division in accordance with this section, the bureau of criminal 2598
identification and investigation shall request from the federal 2599
bureau of investigation any information it has with respect to the 2600
person who is the subject of the requested criminal records check 2601
and shall forward the requisite fingerprint impressions and 2602
information to the federal bureau of investigation for that 2603
criminal records check. After conducting a criminal records check 2604
or receiving the results of a criminal records check from the 2605
federal bureau of investigation, the bureau of criminal 2606
identification and investigation shall provide the results to the 2607
department or division.2608

        The department or division may require any person about whom 2609
a criminal records check is requested to pay to the department or 2610
division the amount necessary to cover the fee charged to the 2611
department or division by the bureau of criminal identification 2612
and investigation under division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the 2613
Revised Code, including, when applicable, any fee for a criminal 2614
records check conducted by the federal bureau of investigation.2615

       Sec. 121.083.  The superintendent of laborindustrial 2616
compliance in the department of commerce shall do all of the 2617
following:2618

       (A) Administer and enforce the general laws of this state 2619
pertaining to buildings, pressure piping, boilers, bedding, 2620
upholstered furniture, and stuffed toys, steam engineering, 2621
elevators, plumbing, licensed occupations regulated by the 2622
department, and travel agents, as they apply to plans review, 2623
inspection, code enforcement, testing, licensing, registration, 2624
and certification.2625

       (B) Exercise the powers and perform the duties delegated to 2626
the superintendent by the director of commerce under Chapters 2627
4109., 4111., and 4115. of the Revised Code.2628

       (C) Collect and collate statistics as are necessary.2629

       (D) Examine and license persons who desire to act as steam 2630
engineers, to operate steam boilers, and to act as inspectors of 2631
steam boilers, provide for the scope, conduct, and time of such 2632
examinations, provide for, regulate, and enforce the renewal and 2633
revocation of such licenses, inspect and examine steam boilers and 2634
make, publish, and enforce rules and orders for the construction, 2635
installation, inspection, and operation of steam boilers, and do, 2636
require, and enforce all things necessary to make such 2637
examination, inspection, and requirement efficient.2638

       (E) Rent and furnish offices as needed in cities in this 2639
state for the conduct of its affairs.2640

       (F) Oversee a chief of construction and compliance, a chief 2641
of operations and maintenance, a chief of licensing and 2642
certification, a chief of worker protection, and other designees 2643
appointed by the director to perform the duties described in this 2644
section.2645

       (G) Enforce the rules the board of building standards adopts 2646
pursuant to division (A)(2) of section 4104.43 of the Revised Code 2647
under the circumstances described in division (D) of that section.2648

       (H) Accept submissions, establish a fee for submissions, and 2649
review submissions of certified welding and brazing procedure 2650
specifications, procedure qualification records, and performance 2651
qualification records for building services piping as required by 2652
section 4104.44 of the Revised Code.2653

       Sec. 121.084.  (A) All moneys collected under sections 2654
3783.05, 3791.07, 4104.07, 4104.18, 4104.44, 4105.17, 4105.20, 2655
4169.03, 4171.04, and 5104.051 of the Revised Code, and any other 2656
moneys collected by the division of laborindustrial compliance2657
shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the labor2658
industrial compliance operating fund, which is hereby created. The 2659
department of commerce shall use the moneys in the fund for paying 2660
the operating expenses of the division and the administrative 2661
assessment described in division (B) of this section.2662

       (B) The director of commerce, with the approval of the 2663
director of budget and management, shall prescribe procedures for 2664
assessing the laborindustrial compliance operating fund a 2665
proportionate share of the administrative costs of the department 2666
of commerce. The assessment shall be made in accordance with those 2667
procedures and be paid from the laborindustrial compliance2668
operating fund to the division of administration fund created in 2669
section 121.08 of the Revised Code.2670

       Sec. 121.35.  (A) Subject to division (B) of this section, 2671
the following state agencies shall collaborate to revise and make 2672
more uniform the eligibility standards and eligibility 2673
determination procedures of programs the state agencies 2674
administer:2675

       (1) The department of aging; 2676

       (2) The department of alcohol and drug addiction services;2677

       (3) The department of development;2678

       (4) The department of developmental disabilities;2679

       (5) The department of education;2680

       (6) The department of health;2681

       (7) The department of job and family services;2682

       (8) The department of mental health;2683

       (9) The rehabilitation services commission.2684

       (B) In revising eligibility standards and eligibility 2685
determination procedures, a state agency shall not make any 2686
program's eligibility standards or eligibility determination 2687
procedures inconsistent with state or federal law. To the extent 2688
authorized by state and federal law, the revisions may provide for 2689
the state agencies to share administrative operations.2690

       Sec. 122.07.  (A) The department of development may do either2691
any of the following:2692

       (1) Disseminate information concerning the industrial, 2693
commercial, governmental, educational, cultural, recreational, 2694
agricultural, and other advantages and attractions of the state;2695

       (2) Provide technical assistance to public and private 2696
agencies in the preparation of promotional programs designed to 2697
attract business, industry, and tourists to the state;2698

       (3) Enter into cooperative or contractual agreements, through 2699
the director of development, with any individual, organization, or 2700
business to create, administer, or otherwise be involved with Ohio 2701
tourism-related promotional programs. Compensation under such 2702
agreements shall be determined by the director and may include 2703
deferred compensation. This compensation is payable from the 2704
travel and tourism cooperative projects fund of the department. 2705
Any excess revenue generated under such a cooperative or 2706
contractual agreement shall be remitted to the fund to be 2707
reinvested in ongoing tourism marketing initiatives as authorized 2708
by law.2709

       (B) Records related to tourism market research submitted to 2710
or generated by the research office of the division of travel and 2711
tourism of the department of development, and any information 2712
taken for any purpose from such research, are not public records 2713
for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code. The 2714
department may use, however, such tourism market research in a 2715
public report if the director of the department determines that 2716
issuing and distributing the report would promote or market the 2717
state's travel and tourism industry or otherwise advance the 2718
purposes of this section.2719

       Sec. 123.01.  (A) The department of administrative services, 2720
in addition to those powers enumerated in Chapters 124. and 125. 2721
of the Revised Code and provided elsewhere by law, shall exercise 2722
the following powers:2723

       (1) To prepare, or contract to be prepared, by licensed 2724
engineers or architects, surveys, general and detailed plans, 2725
specifications, bills of materials, and estimates of cost for any 2726
projects, improvements, or public buildings to be constructed by 2727
state agencies that may be authorized by legislative 2728
appropriations or any other funds made available therefor, 2729
provided that the construction of the projects, improvements, or 2730
public buildings is a statutory duty of the department. This 2731
section does not require the independent employment of an 2732
architect or engineer as provided by section 153.01 of the Revised 2733
Code in the cases to which that section applies nor affect or 2734
alter the existing powers of the director of transportation.2735

       (2) To have general supervision over the construction of any 2736
projects, improvements, or public buildings constructed for a 2737
state agency and over the inspection of materials previous to 2738
their incorporation into those projects, improvements, or 2739
buildings;2740

       (3) To make contracts for and supervise the construction of 2741
any projects and improvements or the construction and repair of 2742
buildings under the control of a state agency, except contracts 2743
for the repair of buildings under the management and control of 2744
the departments of public safety, job and family services, mental 2745
health, developmental disabilities, rehabilitation and correction, 2746
and youth services, the bureau of workers' compensation, the 2747
rehabilitation services commission, and boards of trustees of 2748
educational and benevolent institutions and except contracts for 2749
the construction of projects that do not require the issuance of a 2750
building permit or the issuance of a certificate of occupancy and 2751
that are necessary to remediate conditions at a hazardous waste 2752
facility, solid waste facility, or other location at which the 2753
director of environmental protection has reason to believe there 2754
is a substantial threat to public health or safety or the 2755
environment. These contracts shall be made and entered into by the 2756
directors of public safety, job and family services, mental 2757
health, developmental disabilities, rehabilitation and correction, 2758
and youth services, the administrator of workers' compensation, 2759
the rehabilitation services commission, the boards of trustees of 2760
such institutions, and the director of environmental protection, 2761
respectively. All such contracts may be in whole or in part on 2762
unit price basis of maximum estimated cost, with payment computed 2763
and made upon actual quantities or units.2764

       (4) To prepare and suggest comprehensive plans for the 2765
development of grounds and buildings under the control of a state 2766
agency;2767

       (5)(2) To acquire, by purchase, gift, devise, lease, or 2768
grant, all real estate required by a state agency, in the exercise 2769
of which power the department may exercise the power of eminent 2770
domain, in the manner provided by sections 163.01 to 163.22 of the 2771
Revised Code;2772

       (6) To make and provide all plans, specifications, and models 2773
for the construction and perfection of all systems of sewerage, 2774
drainage, and plumbing for the state in connection with buildings 2775
and grounds under the control of a state agency;2776

       (7)(3) To erect, supervise, and maintain all public monuments 2777
and memorials erected by the state, except where the supervision 2778
and maintenance is otherwise provided by law;2779

       (8)(4) To procure, by lease, storage accommodations for a 2780
state agency;2781

       (9)(5) To lease or grant easements or licenses for 2782
unproductive and unused lands or other property under the control 2783
of a state agency. Such leases, easements, or licenses shallmay2784
be granted to any person or entity, shall be for a period not to 2785
exceed fifteen years, and shall be executed for the state by the 2786
director of administrative services and the governor and shall be 2787
approved as to form by the attorney general, provided that leases, 2788
easements, or licenses may be granted to any county, township, 2789
municipal corporation, port authority, water or sewer district, 2790
school district, library district, health district, park district, 2791
soil and water conservation district, conservancy district, or 2792
other political subdivision or taxing district, or any agency of 2793
the United States government, for the exclusive use of that 2794
agency, political subdivision, or taxing district, without any 2795
right of sublease or assignment, for a period not to exceed 2796
fifteen years, andor the director's designee, provided that the 2797
director or the director's designee shall grant leases, easements, 2798
or licenses of university land for periods not to exceed 2799
twenty-five years for purposes approved by the respective 2800
university's board of trustees wherein the uses are compatible 2801
with the uses and needs of the university and may grant leases of 2802
university land for periods not to exceed forty years for purposes 2803
approved by the respective university's board of trustees pursuant 2804
to section 123.77123.17 of the Revised Code.2805

       (10)(6) To lease space for the use of a state agency;2806

       (11)(7) To have general supervision and care of the 2807
storerooms, offices, and buildings leased for the use of a state 2808
agency;2809

       (12)(8) To exercise general custodial care of all real 2810
property of the state;2811

       (13)(9) To assign and group together state offices in any 2812
city in the state and to establish, in cooperation with the state 2813
agencies involved, rules governing space requirements for office 2814
or storage use;2815

       (14)(10) To lease for a period not to exceed forty years, 2816
pursuant to a contract providing for the construction thereof 2817
under a lease-purchase plan, buildings, structures, and other 2818
improvements for any public purpose, and, in conjunction 2819
therewith, to grant leases, easements, or licenses for lands under 2820
the control of a state agency for a period not to exceed forty 2821
years. The lease-purchase plan shall provide that at the end of 2822
the lease period, the buildings, structures, and related 2823
improvements, together with the land on which they are situated, 2824
shall become the property of the state without cost.2825

       (a) Whenever any building, structure, or other improvement is 2826
to be so leased by a state agency, the department shall retain 2827
either basic plans, specifications, bills of materials, and 2828
estimates of cost with sufficient detail to afford bidders all 2829
needed information or, alternatively, all of the following plans, 2830
details, bills of materials, and specifications:2831

       (i) Full and accurate plans suitable for the use of mechanics 2832
and other builders in the improvement;2833

       (ii) Details to scale and full sized, so drawn and 2834
represented as to be easily understood;2835

       (iii) Accurate bills showing the exact quantity of different 2836
kinds of material necessary to the construction;2837

       (iv) Definite and complete specifications of the work to be 2838
performed, together with such directions as will enable a 2839
competent mechanic or other builder to carry them out and afford 2840
bidders all needed information;2841

       (v) A full and accurate estimate of each item of expense and 2842
of the aggregate cost thereof.2843

       (b) The department shall give public notice, in such 2844
newspaper, in such form, and with such phraseology as the director 2845
of administrative services prescribes, published once each week 2846
for four consecutive weeks, of the time when and place where bids 2847
will be received for entering into an agreement to lease to a 2848
state agency a building, structure, or other improvement. The last 2849
publication shall be at least eight days preceding the day for 2850
opening the bids. The bids shall contain the terms upon which the 2851
builder would propose to lease the building, structure, or other 2852
improvement to the state agency. The form of the bid approved by 2853
the department shall be used, and a bid is invalid and shall not 2854
be considered unless that form is used without change, alteration, 2855
or addition. Before submitting bids pursuant to this section, any 2856
builder shall comply with Chapter 153. of the Revised Code.2857

       (c) On the day and at the place named for receiving bids for 2858
entering into lease agreements with a state agency, the director 2859
of administrative services shall open the bids and shall publicly 2860
proceed immediately to tabulate the bids upon duplicate sheets. No 2861
lease agreement shall be entered into until the bureau of workers' 2862
compensation has certified that the person to be awarded the lease 2863
agreement has complied with Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code, 2864
until, if the builder submitting the lowest and best bid is a 2865
foreign corporation, the secretary of state has certified that the 2866
corporation is authorized to do business in this state, until, if 2867
the builder submitting the lowest and best bid is a person 2868
nonresident of this state, the person has filed with the secretary 2869
of state a power of attorney designating the secretary of state as 2870
its agent for the purpose of accepting service of summons in any 2871
action brought under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code, and until 2872
the agreement is submitted to the attorney general and the 2873
attorney general's approval is certified thereon. Within thirty 2874
days after the day on which the bids are received, the department 2875
shall investigate the bids received and shall determine that the 2876
bureau and the secretary of state have made the certifications 2877
required by this section of the builder who has submitted the 2878
lowest and best bid. Within ten days of the completion of the 2879
investigation of the bids, the department shall award the lease 2880
agreement to the builder who has submitted the lowest and best bid 2881
and who has been certified by the bureau and secretary of state as 2882
required by this section. If bidding for the lease agreement has 2883
been conducted upon the basis of basic plans, specifications, 2884
bills of materials, and estimates of costs, upon the award to the 2885
builder the department, or the builder with the approval of the 2886
department, shall appoint an architect or engineer licensed in 2887
this state to prepare such further detailed plans, specifications, 2888
and bills of materials as are required to construct the building, 2889
structure, or improvement. The department shall adopt such rules 2890
as are necessary to give effect to this section. The department 2891
may reject any bid. Where there is reason to believe there is 2892
collusion or combination among bidders, the bids of those 2893
concerned therein shall be rejected.2894

       (15)(11) To acquire by purchase, gift, devise, or grant and 2895
to transfer, lease, or otherwise dispose of all real property 2896
required to assist in the development of a conversion facility as 2897
defined in section 5709.30 of the Revised Code as that section 2898
existed before its repeal by Amended Substitute House Bill 95 of 2899
the 125th general assembly;2900

       (16)(12) To lease for a period not to exceed forty years, 2901
notwithstanding any other division of this section, the 2902
state-owned property located at 408-450 East Town Street, 2903
Columbus, Ohio, formerly the state school for the deaf, to a 2904
developer in accordance with this section. "Developer," as used in 2905
this section, has the same meaning as in section 123.77 of the 2906
Revised Code.2907

       Such a lease shall be for the purpose of development of the 2908
land for use by senior citizens by constructing, altering, 2909
renovating, repairing, expanding, and improving the site as it 2910
existed on June 25, 1982. A developer desiring to lease the land 2911
shall prepare for submission to the department a plan for 2912
development. Plans shall include provisions for roads, sewers, 2913
water lines, waste disposal, water supply, and similar matters to 2914
meet the requirements of state and local laws. The plans shall 2915
also include provision for protection of the property by insurance 2916
or otherwise, and plans for financing the development, and shall 2917
set forth details of the developer's financial responsibility.2918

       The department may employ, as employees or consultants, 2919
persons needed to assist in reviewing the development plans. Those 2920
persons may include attorneys, financial experts, engineers, and 2921
other necessary experts. The department shall review the 2922
development plans and may enter into a lease if it finds all of 2923
the following:2924

       (a) The best interests of the state will be promoted by 2925
entering into a lease with the developer;2926

       (b) The development plans are satisfactory;2927

       (c) The developer has established the developer's financial 2928
responsibility and satisfactory plans for financing the 2929
development.2930

       The lease shall contain a provision that construction or 2931
renovation of the buildings, roads, structures, and other 2932
necessary facilities shall begin within one year after the date of 2933
the lease and shall proceed according to a schedule agreed to 2934
between the department and the developer or the lease will be 2935
terminated. The lease shall contain such conditions and 2936
stipulations as the director considers necessary to preserve the 2937
best interest of the state. Moneys received by the state pursuant 2938
to this lease shall be paid into the general revenue fund. The 2939
lease shall provide that at the end of the lease period the 2940
buildings, structures, and related improvements shall become the 2941
property of the state without cost.2942

       (17)(13) To manage the use of space owned and controlled by 2943
the department, including space in property under the jurisdiction 2944
of the Ohio building authority, by doing all of the following:2945

       (a) Biennially implementing, by state agency location, a 2946
census of agency employees assigned space;2947

        (b) Periodically in the discretion of the director of 2948
administrative services:2949

       (i) Requiring each state agency to categorize the use of 2950
space allotted to the agency between office space, common areas, 2951
storage space, and other uses, and to report its findings to the 2952
department;2953

        (ii) Creating and updating a master space utilization plan 2954
for all space allotted to state agencies. The plan shall 2955
incorporate space utilization metrics.2956

        (iii) Conducting a cost-benefit analysis to determine the 2957
effectiveness of state-owned buildings;2958

        (iv) Assessing the alternatives associated with consolidating 2959
the commercial leases for buildings located in Columbus.2960

        (c) Commissioning a comprehensive space utilization and 2961
capacity study in order to determine the feasibility of 2962
consolidating existing commercially leased space used by state 2963
agencies into a new state-owned facility.2964

       (14) To adopt rules to ensure that energy efficiency and 2965
conservation is considered in the purchase of products and 2966
equipment, except motor vehicles, by any state agency, department, 2967
division, bureau, office, unit, board, commission, authority, 2968
quasi-governmental entity, or institution. The department may 2969
require minimum energy efficiency standards for purchased products 2970
and equipment based on federal testing and labeling if available 2971
or on standards developed by the department. When possible, the 2972
rules shall apply to the competitive selection of energy consuming 2973
systems, components, and equipment under Chapter 125. of the 2974
Revised Code.2975

       (15) To ensure energy efficient and energy conserving 2976
purchasing practices by doing all of the following:2977

       (a) Identifying available energy efficiency and conservation 2978
opportunities;2979

       (b) Providing for interchange of information among purchasing 2980
agencies;2981

       (c) Identifying laws, policies, rules, and procedures that 2982
should be modified;2983

       (d) Monitoring experience with and the cost-effectiveness of 2984
this state's purchase and use of motor vehicles and of major 2985
energy-consuming systems, components, equipment, and products 2986
having a significant impact on energy consumption by the 2987
government;2988

       (e) Providing technical assistance and training to state 2989
employees involved in the purchasing process;2990

       (f) Working with the department of development to make 2991
recommendations regarding planning and implementation of 2992
purchasing policies and procedures that are supportive of energy 2993
efficiency and conservation.2994

       (16) To require all state agencies, departments, divisions, 2995
bureaus, offices, units, commissions, boards, authorities, 2996
quasi-governmental entities, institutions, and state institutions 2997
of higher education to implement procedures to ensure that all of 2998
the passenger automobiles they acquire in each fiscal year, except 2999
for those passenger automobiles acquired for use in law 3000
enforcement or emergency rescue work, achieve a fleet average fuel 3001
economy of not less than the fleet average fuel economy for that 3002
fiscal year as the department shall prescribe by rule. The 3003
department shall adopt the rule prior to the beginning of the 3004
fiscal year, in accordance with the average fuel economy standards 3005
established by federal law for passenger automobiles manufactured 3006
during the model year that begins during the fiscal year.3007

       Each state agency, department, division, bureau, office, 3008
unit, commission, board, authority, quasi-governmental entity, 3009
institution, and state institution of higher education shall 3010
determine its fleet average fuel economy by dividing the total 3011
number of passenger vehicles acquired during the fiscal year, 3012
except for those passenger vehicles acquired for use in law 3013
enforcement or emergency rescue work, by a sum of terms, each of 3014
which is a fraction created by dividing the number of passenger 3015
vehicles of a given make, model, and year, except for passenger 3016
vehicles acquired for use in law enforcement or emergency rescue 3017
work, acquired during the fiscal year by the fuel economy measured 3018
by the administrator of the United States environmental protection 3019
agency, for the given make, model, and year of vehicle, that 3020
constitutes an average fuel economy for combined city and highway 3021
driving.3022

       As used in division (A)(16) of this section, "acquired" means 3023
leased for a period of sixty continuous days or more, or 3024
purchased.3025

       (B) This section and section 125.02 of the Revised Code shall 3026
not interfere with any of the following:3027

       (1) The power of the adjutant general to purchase military 3028
supplies, or with the custody of the adjutant general of property 3029
leased, purchased, or constructed by the state and used for 3030
military purposes, or with the functions of the adjutant general 3031
as director of state armories;3032

       (2) The power of the director of transportation in acquiring 3033
rights-of-way for the state highway system, or the leasing of 3034
lands for division or resident district offices, or the leasing of 3035
lands or buildings required in the maintenance operations of the 3036
department of transportation, or the purchase of real property for 3037
garage sites or division or resident district offices, or in 3038
preparing plans and specifications for and constructing such 3039
buildings as the director may require in the administration of the 3040
department;3041

       (3) The power of the director of public safety and the 3042
registrar of motor vehicles to purchase or lease real property and 3043
buildings to be used solely as locations to which a deputy 3044
registrar is assigned pursuant to division (B) of section 4507.011 3045
of the Revised Code and from which the deputy registrar is to 3046
conduct the deputy registrar's business, the power of the director 3047
of public safety to purchase or lease real property and buildings 3048
to be used as locations for division or district offices as 3049
required in the maintenance of operations of the department of 3050
public safety, and the power of the superintendent of the state 3051
highway patrol in the purchase or leasing of real property and 3052
buildings needed by the patrol, to negotiate the sale of real 3053
property owned by the patrol, to rent or lease real property owned 3054
or leased by the patrol, and to make or cause to be made repairs 3055
to all property owned or under the control of the patrol;3056

       (4) The power of the division of liquor control in the 3057
leasing or purchasing of retail outlets and warehouse facilities 3058
for the use of the division;3059

       (5) The power of the director of development to enter into 3060
leases of real property, buildings, and office space to be used 3061
solely as locations for the state's foreign offices to carry out 3062
the purposes of section 122.05 of the Revised Code;3063

       (6) The power of the director of environmental protection to 3064
enter into environmental covenants, to grant and accept easements, 3065
or to sell property pursuant to division (G) of section 3745.01 of 3066
the Revised Code.3067

       (C) Purchases for, and the custody and repair of, buildings 3068
under the management and control of the capitol square review and 3069
advisory board, the rehabilitation services commission, the bureau 3070
of workers' compensation, or the departments of public safety, job 3071
and family services, mental health, developmental disabilities, 3072
and rehabilitation and correction; buildings of educational and 3073
benevolent institutions under the management and control of boards 3074
of trustees; and purchases or leases for, and the custody and 3075
repair of, office space used for the purposes of the joint 3076
legislative ethics committee are not subject to the control and 3077
jurisdiction of the department of administrative services.3078

       If the joint legislative ethics committee so requests, the 3079
committee and the director of administrative services may enter 3080
into a contract under which the department of administrative 3081
services agrees to perform any services requested by the committee 3082
that the department is authorized under this section to perform.3083

       (D) Any instrument by which real property is acquired 3084
pursuant to this section shall identify the agency of the state 3085
that has the use and benefit of the real property as specified in 3086
section 5301.012 of the Revised Code.3087

       Sec. 123.04.        Sec. 123.02.  The director of administrative services 3088
shall be appointed superintendent of public works and shall have 3089
the care and control of the public works of the state and shall 3090
protect, maintain, and keep them in repair.3091

       Subject to the approval of the governor, the director may 3092
purchase on behalf of the state such real or personal property, 3093
rights, or privileges as are necessary, in the director's 3094
judgment, to acquire in the maintenance of the public works or 3095
their improvement.3096

       Any instrument by which the state or an agency of the state 3097
acquires real property pursuant to this section shall identify the 3098
agency of the state that has the use and benefit of the real 3099
property as specified in section 5301.012 of the Revised Code.3100

       Sec. 123.07.        Sec. 123.03.  The director of administrative services 3101
may maintain an action in the name of the state for violations of 3102
any law relating to the public works for an injury to property 3103
pertaining to the public works, or for any other cause which is 3104
necessary in the performance of histhe director's duties.3105

       Sec. 123.09.        Sec. 123.04.  The director of administrative services 3106
shall have supervision of the public works of the state and shall 3107
make such rules and regulations for the improvement, maintenance,3108
and operation of the public works as are necessary.3109

       Sec. 123.10.        Sec. 123.05. (A) The director of administrative 3110
services shall regulate the rate of tolls to be collected on the 3111
public works of the state, and shall fix all rentals and collect 3112
all tolls, rents, fines, commissions, fees, and other revenues 3113
arising from any source in the public works, including the sale,3114
construction, purchase, or rental of property, except that the 3115
director shall not collect a commission or fee from a real estate 3116
broker or the private owner when real property is leased or rented 3117
to the state.3118

       (B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the state 3119
architect's fund which shall consist of money received by the 3120
department of administrative services under division (A) of this 3121
section, fees paid under section 123.17 of the Revised Code, 3122
transfers of money to the fund authorized by the general assembly, 3123
and such amount of the investment earnings of the administrative 3124
building fund created in division (F) of section 154.24 of the 3125
Revised Code as the director of budget and management determines 3126
to be appropriate and in excess of the amounts required to meet 3127
estimated federal arbitrage rebate requirements. Money in the fund 3128
shall be used by the department of administrative services for the 3129
following purposes:3130

       (1) To pay personnel and other administrative expenses of the 3131
department;3132

       (2) To pay the cost of conducting evaluations of public 3133
works;3134

       (3) To pay the cost of building design specifications;3135

       (4) To pay the cost of providing project management services;3136

       (5) To pay the cost of operating the local administration 3137
competency certification program prescribed by section 123.17 of 3138
the Revised Code;3139

       (6) Any other purposes that the director of administrative 3140
services determines to be necessary for the department to execute 3141
its duties under this chapter.3142

       Sec. 123.024.        Sec. 123.06.  (A) The department of administrative 3143
services shall assign and make available, at state expense, 3144
suitable office space in state-owned facilities to accommodate the 3145
office operations of the state headquarters of both of the 3146
following:3147

       (1) All veterans organizations in this state that either are 3148
incorporated and issued a charter by the congress of the United 3149
States or are recognized by the United States department of 3150
veterans affairs;3151

       (2) The auxiliary organizations of veterans organizations 3152
described in division (A)(1) of this section.3153

       (B) The department may situate office space for each 3154
auxiliary organization of a veterans organization with or near the 3155
office space of that veterans organization.3156

       Sec. 123.11.        Sec. 123.07.  Each state agency and any county, 3157
township, or municipal corporation owning, leasing, or controlling 3158
the operation of parking spaces for use by its employees may 3159
provide preferential parking for those vehicles used in carpools, 3160
vanpools, and buspools. The department of administrative services 3161
shall coordinate the efforts of the state agencies in providing 3162
preferential parking for such vehicles.3163

       Sec. 123.13.        Sec. 123.08.  The director of administrative services 3164
shall appoint such foremanforepersons, patrolmenpatrol officers, 3165
lock tenders, inspectors, engineers, and all other employees as 3166
are necessary for the improvement, maintenance, and operation of 3167
the public works. They shall be assigned to duty under the 3168
supervision of the director, under rules and regulations 3169
prescribed by himthe director. Any such employee, when deemed 3170
necessary by the director, shall give proper bond to the state, 3171
conditioned for the faithful performance of histhe employee's3172
duties. Such bonds may, in the discretion of the director, be 3173
individual, schedule, or blanket bonds.3174

       Sec. 123.14.        Sec. 123.09.  All claims against the state for the 3175
improvement, repair, maintenance, and operation of the public 3176
works of Ohio, including salary and expenses of all employees 3177
engaged in such work, shall be paid upon the order of the director 3178
of administrative services.3179

       Sec. 123.15.        Sec. 123.10.  (A) As used in this section and section 3180
123.21123.11 of the Revised Code, "public exigency" means an 3181
injury or obstruction that occurs in any public works of the state 3182
maintained by the director of administrative services and that 3183
materially impairs its immediate use or places in jeopardy 3184
property adjacent to it; an immediate danger of such an injury or 3185
obstruction; or an injury or obstruction, or an immediate danger 3186
of an injury or obstruction, that occurs during the process of 3187
construction ofin any public works of the state maintained by the 3188
director of administrative services and that materially impairs 3189
its immediate use or places in jeopardy property adjacent to it.3190

       (B) TheWhen a declaration of public exigency is issued 3191
pursuant to division (C) of this section, the director of 3192
administrative services may request the Ohio facilities 3193
construction commission to enter into contracts with proper 3194
persons for the performance of labor, the furnishing of materials, 3195
or the construction of any structures and buildings necessary to 3196
the maintenance, control, and management of the public works of 3197
the state or any part of those public works. Except as provided 3198
in division (C) of this section for public exigencies, the 3199
director shall advertise, award, and administer thoseAny3200
contracts in accordance with the requirementsawarded for the work 3201
performed pursuant to the declaration of a public exigency may be 3202
awarded without competitive bidding or selection as set forth in 3203
Chapter 153. of the Revised Code.3204

       (C) The director of administrative services may issue a 3205
declaration of a public exigency on the director's own initiative 3206
or upon the request of the director of any state agency. The 3207
director's declaration shall identify the specific injury, 3208
obstruction, or danger that is the subject of the declaration and 3209
shall set forth a dollar limitation for the repair, removal, or 3210
prevention of that exigency under the declaration.3211

       Before any project to repair, remove, or prevent a public 3212
exigency under the director's declaration may begin, the director 3213
shall send notice of the project, in writing, to the director of 3214
budget and management and to the members of the controlling board. 3215
That notice shall detail the project to be undertaken to address 3216
the public exigency and shall include a copy of the director's 3217
declaration that establishes the monetary limitations on that 3218
project.3219

       Sec. 123.21.        Sec. 123.11.  When a public exigency, as defined in 3220
division (A) of section 123.15123.10 of the Revised Code, exists, 3221
the director of administrative services may take possession of 3222
lands and use them, or materials and other property necessary for 3223
the maintenance, protection, or repair of the public works, in 3224
accordance with sections 163.01 to 163.22 of the Revised Code.3225

       Sec. 123.46.        Sec. 123.12.  No land lease or sale of state lands 3226
shall be made by the director of administrative services except 3227
upon the written approval of the governor and the attorney 3228
general.3229

       Sec. 123.47.        Sec. 123.13.  Except as otherwise provided by law, the 3230
director of administrative services shall have the custody and 3231
control of the books, records, papers, surveys, maps, plats, and 3232
documents that pertain to any of the public works of this state.3233

       Sec. 123.48.        Sec. 123.14.  The director of administrative services 3234
shall make an annual report to the governor containing a statement 3235
of the expenses of the public works under histhe director's3236
supervision during the preceding year, setting forth an account of 3237
moneys expended on each of the public works during the year, and 3238
such other information and records as hethe director deems 3239
proper. Such report shall contain a statement of the moneys 3240
received from all sources and an estimate of the appropriations 3241
necessary to maintain the public works and keep them in repair. 3242
The report shall also contain a list of all persons regularly 3243
employed, together with the salary, compensation, or allowance 3244
paid each.3245

       HeThe director shall further from time to time when hethe 3246
director deems it necessary, or when called upon by the governor, 3247
to do so, make such other reports as are proper, touching on the 3248
general condition and welfare of the public works and the 3249
drainage, leaseholds, and water powers incident thereto.3250

       Sec. 123.49.        Sec. 123.15.  The department of administrative 3251
services may adopt, amend, and rescind rules pertaining to lands 3252
under the supervision of the department in accordance with Chapter 3253
119. of the Revised Code.3254

       Sec. 123.152. (A) As used in this section, "EDGE business 3255
enterprise" means a sole proprietorship, association, partnership, 3256
corporation, limited liability corporation, or joint venture 3257
certified as a participant in the encouraging diversity, growth, 3258
and equity program by the director of administrative services 3259
under this section of the Revised Code.3260

       (B) The director of administrative services shall establish a 3261
business assistance program known as the encouraging diversity, 3262
growth, and equity program and shall adopt rules in accordance 3263
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to administer the program 3264
that do all of the following:3265

       (1) Establish procedures by which a sole proprietorship, 3266
association, partnership, corporation, limited liability 3267
corporation, or joint venture may apply for certification as an 3268
EDGE business enterprise;3269

       (2) Except as provided in division (B)(14) of this section, 3270
establish agency procurement goals for contracting with EDGE 3271
business enterprises in the award of contracts under Chapters 3272
123., 125., and 153. of the Revised Code based on the availability 3273
of eligible program participants by region or geographic area, as 3274
determined by the director, and by standard industrial code or 3275
equivalent code classification. 3276

       (a) Goals established under division (B)(2) of this section 3277
shall be based on a percentage level of participation and a 3278
percentage of contractor availability. 3279

       (b) Goals established under division (B)(2) of this section 3280
shall be applied at the contract level, relative to an overall 3281
dollar goal for each state agency, in accordance with the 3282
following certification categories: construction, architecture, 3283
and engineering; professional services; goods and services; and 3284
information technology services.3285

       (3) Establish a system of certifying EDGE business 3286
enterprises based on a requirement that the business owner or 3287
owners show both social and economic disadvantage based on the 3288
following, as determined to be sufficient by the director:3289

       (a) Relative wealth of the business seeking certification as 3290
well as the personal wealth of the owner or owners of the 3291
business;3292

       (b) Social disadvantage based on any of the following:3293

       (i) A rebuttable presumption when the business owner or 3294
owners demonstrate membership in a racial minority group or show 3295
personal disadvantage due to color, ethnic origin, gender, 3296
physical disability, long-term residence in an environment 3297
isolated from the mainstream of American society, location in an 3298
area of high unemployment;3299

       (ii) Some other demonstration of personal disadvantage not 3300
common to other small businesses;3301

       (iii) By business location in a qualified census tract.3302

       (c) Economic disadvantage based on economic and business size 3303
thresholds and eligibility criteria designed to stimulate economic 3304
development through contract awards to businesses located in 3305
qualified census tracts.3306

       (4) Establish standards to determine when an EDGE business 3307
enterprise no longer qualifies for EDGE business enterprise 3308
certification;3309

       (5) Develop a process for evaluating and adjusting goals 3310
established by this section to determine what adjustments are 3311
necessary to achieve participation goals established by the 3312
director;3313

       (6) Establish a point system or comparable system to evaluate 3314
bid proposals to encourage EDGE business enterprises to 3315
participate in the procurement of professional design and 3316
information technology services;3317

       (7) Establish a system to track data and analyze each 3318
certification category established under division (B)(2)(b) of 3319
this section;3320

       (8) Establish a process to mediate complaints and to review 3321
EDGE business enterprise certification appeals;3322

       (9) Implement an outreach program to educate potential 3323
participants about the encouraging diversity, growth, and equity 3324
program;3325

       (10) Establish a system to assist state agencies in 3326
identifying and utilizing EDGE business enterprises in their 3327
contracting processes;3328

       (11) Implement a system of self-reporting by EDGE business 3329
enterprises as well as an on-site inspection process to validate 3330
the qualifications of an EDGE business enterprise;3331

       (12) Establish a waiver mechanism to waive program goals or 3332
participation requirements for those companies that, despite their 3333
best-documented efforts, are unable to contract with certified 3334
EDGE business enterprises;3335

       (13) Establish a process for monitoring overall program 3336
compliance in which equal employment opportunity officers 3337
primarily are responsible for monitoring their respective 3338
agencies;3339

       (14) Establish guidelines for state universities as defined 3340
in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code and the Ohio school3341
facilities construction commission created in section 3318.303342
123.20 of the Revised Code for awarding contracts pursuant to 3343
Chapters 153., 3318., and 3345. of the Revised Code to allow the 3344
universities and commission to establish agency procurement goals 3345
for contracting with EDGE business enterprises.3346

       (C) Business and personal financial information and trade 3347
secrets submitted by encouraging diversity, growth, and equity 3348
program applicants to the director pursuant to this section are 3349
not public records for purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised 3350
Code, unless the director presents the financial information or 3351
trade secrets at a public hearing or public proceeding regarding 3352
the applicant's eligibility to participate in the program.3353

       Sec. 123.77.        Sec. 123.17.  The department of administrative 3354
services may lease land belonging to or under the control or 3355
jurisdiction of a state university, not required nor to be 3356
required for use of the university, to a developer in accordance 3357
with this section. "Developer," as used in this section, means a 3358
person, partnership, association, corporation, or community 3359
improvement corporation established pursuant to Chapter 1724. of 3360
the Revised Code who or which submits a development plan to the 3361
department as provided in this section and requests the department 3362
to enter into a lease.3363

       Such a lease of university land shall be for the purpose of 3364
development of the land by establishing, constructing, altering, 3365
repairing, expanding, and improving industrial, distribution, 3366
commercial, or research facilities. A developer desiring to lease 3367
land of the university for such development shall prepare and 3368
submit to the department of administrative services and to the 3369
board of trustees of the university a plan for such development. 3370
Plans shall include provisions for roads, streets, sewers, water 3371
lines, waste disposal, water supply, and similar matters to meet 3372
the requirements of state and local laws. The plans shall also 3373
include provision for protection of the property by insurance or 3374
otherwise and plans for financing the development, and shall set 3375
forth details of the developer's financial responsibility.3376

       The department of administrative services may employ as 3377
employees or consultants, persons needed to assist it in reviewing 3378
the development plans. Such persons may include attorneys, 3379
financial experts, engineers, and other necessary experts. The 3380
department of administrative services shall review the development 3381
plans and may enter into a lease if it finds that:3382

       (A) The best interests of the university will be promoted by 3383
entering into a lease with the developer.3384

       (B) The development plans are satisfactory.3385

       (C) The developer has established histhe developer's3386
financial responsibility and satisfactory plans for financing the 3387
development.3388

       (D) The university board of trustees approves the lease.3389

       A lease may be entered into pursuant to this section for an 3390
annual rent agreed to between the department and the developer for 3391
a maximum term of forty years and may be renewed for a like or 3392
lesser term. The lease shall contain a provision that construction 3393
of buildings, structures, roads, and other necessary facilities 3394
shall begin within one year after the date of the lease and shall 3395
proceed according to a schedule agreed to between the department 3396
and the developer or the lease will be terminated. Moneys received 3397
by the state pursuant to such leases shall be paid into the state 3398
treasury as an addition to the appropriation made to the 3399
university which has control or jurisdiction of the land or to 3400
which the land belongs.3401

       Sec. 123.08.        Sec. 123.18.  The director of administrative services 3402
may administer oaths to persons required by law to file affidavits 3403
or statements in the department of administrative services and to 3404
witnesses who are examined in matters pertaining to the 3405
administration of the public works.3406

       Sec. 123.20.  (A) There is hereby created the Ohio facilities 3407
construction commission. The commission shall administer the 3408
design and construction of improvements to public facilities of 3409
the state in accordance with this chapter and other provisions of 3410
the Revised Code.3411

       The commission is a body corporate and politic, an agency of 3412
state government and an instrumentality of the state, performing 3413
essential governmental functions of this state. The carrying out 3414
of the purposes and the exercise by the commission of its powers 3415
are essential public functions and public purposes of the state. 3416
The commission may, in its own name, sue and be sued, enter into 3417
contracts, and perform all the powers and duties given to it by 3418
the Revised Code, but it does not have and shall not exercise the 3419
power of eminent domain. In its discretion and as it determines 3420
appropriate, the commission may delegate to any of its members, 3421
executive director, or other employees any of the commission's 3422
powers and duties to carry out its functions.3423

       (B) The commission shall consist of three members: the 3424
director of the office of budget and management and the director 3425
of administrative services, or their designees, and a member whom 3426
the governor shall appoint.3427

       Members of the commission shall serve without compensation.3428

       Within sixty days after the effective date of this section, 3429
the commission shall meet and organize by electing voting members 3430
as the chairperson and vice-chairperson of the commission, who 3431
shall hold their offices until the next organizational meeting of 3432
the commission. Organizational meetings of the commission shall be 3433
held at the first meeting of each calendar year. At each 3434
organizational meeting, the commission shall elect from among its 3435
voting members a chairperson and vice-chairperson, who shall serve 3436
until the next annual organizational meeting. The commission shall 3437
adopt rules pursuant to section 111.15 of the Revised Code for the 3438
conduct of its internal business and shall keep a journal of its 3439
proceedings. Including the organizational meeting, the commission 3440
shall meet at least once each calendar year.3441

       Two members of the commission constitute a quorum, and the 3442
affirmative vote of two members is necessary for approval of any 3443
action taken by the commission. A vacancy in the membership of the 3444
commission does not impair a quorum from exercising all the rights 3445
and performing all the duties of the commission. Meetings of the 3446
commission may be held anywhere in the state and shall be held in 3447
compliance with section 121.22 of the Revised Code.3448

       (C) Within sixty days after the effective date of this 3449
section, the governor shall appoint a member to the commission. 3450
The initial appointment shall be for a term ending three years 3451
after the effective date of this section, with subsequent terms 3452
ending three years after they begin, on the same day of the same 3453
month as the initial term. 3454

       A vacancy for the member appointed by the governor shall be 3455
filled in the same manner as provided for the original 3456
appointment. The appointed member shall hold office for the 3457
remainder of the term for which the vacancy existed. After the 3458
expiration of the term, the appointed member shall continue in 3459
office for a period of sixty days or until the appointed member's 3460
successor takes office, whichever period is shorter.3461

       (D) The commission shall file an annual report of its 3462
activities and finances with the governor, speaker of the house of 3463
representatives, president of the senate, and chairpersons of the 3464
house and senate finance committees.3465

       (E) The commission shall be exempt from the requirements of 3466
sections 101.82 to 101.87 of the Revised Code.3467

       Sec. 123.201.  There is hereby created in the state treasury 3468
the Ohio facilities construction commission fund, consisting of 3469
transfers of moneys authorized by the general assembly and 3470
revenues received by the Ohio facilities construction commission 3471
under section 123.21 of the Revised Code. Investment earnings on 3472
moneys in the fund shall be credited to the fund. Moneys in the 3473
fund may be used by the commission, in performing its duties under 3474
this chapter, to pay personnel and other administrative expenses, 3475
to pay the cost of preparing building design specifications, to 3476
pay the cost of providing project management services, and for 3477
other purposes determined by the commission to be necessary to 3478
fulfill its duties under this chapter.3479

       Sec. 123.21.  (A) The Ohio facilities construction commission 3480
may perform any act and ensure the performance of any function 3481
necessary or appropriate to carry out the purposes of, and 3482
exercise the powers granted under this chapter or any other 3483
provision of the Revised Code, including any of the following:3484

       (1) Prepare, or contract to be prepared, by licensed 3485
engineers or architects, surveys, general and detailed plans, 3486
specifications, bills of materials, and estimates of cost for any 3487
projects, improvements, or public buildings to be constructed by 3488
state agencies that may be authorized by legislative 3489
appropriations or any other funds made available therefor, 3490
provided that the construction of the projects, improvements, or 3491
public buildings is a statutory duty of the commission. This 3492
section does not require the independent employment of an 3493
architect or engineer as provided by section 153.01 of the Revised 3494
Code in the cases to which section 153.01 of the Revised Code 3495
applies. This section does not affect or alter the existing powers 3496
of the director of transportation.3497

       (2) Have general supervision over the construction of any 3498
projects, improvements, or public buildings constructed for a 3499
state agency and over the inspection of materials prior to their 3500
incorporation into those projects, improvements, or buildings.3501

       (3) Make contracts for and supervise the design and 3502
construction of any projects and improvements or the construction 3503
and repair of buildings under the control of a state agency. All 3504
such contracts may be based in whole or in part on the unit price 3505
or maximum estimated cost, with payment computed and made upon 3506
actual quantities or units.3507

       (4) Adopt, amend, and rescind rules pertaining to the 3508
administration of the construction of the public works of the 3509
state as required by law, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 3510
Revised Code.3511

       (5) Contract with, retain the services of, or designate, and 3512
fix the compensation of, such agents, accountants, consultants, 3513
advisers, and other independent contractors as may be necessary or 3514
desirable to carry out the programs authorized under this chapter, 3515
or authorize the executive director to perform such powers and 3516
duties.3517

       (6) Receive and accept any gifts, grants, donations, and 3518
pledges, and receipts therefrom, to be used for the programs 3519
authorized under this chapter.3520

       (7) Make and enter into all contracts, commitments, and 3521
agreements, and execute all instruments, necessary or incidental 3522
to the performance of its duties and the execution of its rights 3523
and powers under this chapter, or authorize the executive director 3524
to perform such powers and duties.3525

       (8) Debar a contractor as provided in section 153.02 of the 3526
Revised Code.3527

       (B) The commission shall appoint and fix the compensation of 3528
an executive director who shall serve at the pleasure of the 3529
commission. The executive director shall exercise all powers that 3530
the commission possesses, supervise the operations of the 3531
commission, and perform such other duties as delegated by the 3532
commission. The executive director also shall employ and fix the 3533
compensation of such employees as will facilitate the activities 3534
and purposes of the commission, who shall serve at the pleasure of 3535
the executive director.3536

       (C) The attorney general shall serve as the legal 3537
representative for the commission and may appoint other counsel as 3538
necessary for that purpose in accordance with section 109.07 of 3539
the Revised Code.3540

       Sec. 123.011.        Sec. 123.22.  (A) As used in this section:3541

       (1) "Construct" includes reconstruct, improve, renovate, 3542
enlarge, or otherwise alter.3543

        (2) "Energy consumption analysis" means the evaluation of all 3544
energy consuming systems, components, and equipment by demand and 3545
type of energy, including the internal energy load imposed on a 3546
facility by its occupants and the external energy load imposed by 3547
climatic conditions.3548

       (3) "Energy performance index" means a number describing the 3549
energy requirements of a facility per square foot of floor space 3550
or per cubic foot of occupied volume as appropriate under defined 3551
internal and external ambient conditions over an entire seasonal 3552
cycle.3553

       (4) "Facility" means a building or other structure, or part 3554
of a building or other structure, that includes provision for a 3555
heating, refrigeration, ventilation, cooling, lighting, hot water, 3556
or other major energy consuming system, component, or equipment.3557

       (5) "Life-cycle cost analysis" means a general approach to 3558
economic evaluation that takes into account all dollar costs 3559
related to owning, operating, maintaining, and ultimately 3560
disposing of a project over the appropriate study period.3561

       (6) "Political subdivision" means a county, township, 3562
municipal corporation, board of education of any school district, 3563
or any other body corporate and politic that is responsible for 3564
government activities in a geographic area smaller than that of 3565
the state.3566

       (7) "State funded" means funded in whole or in part through 3567
appropriation by the general assembly or through the use of any 3568
guarantee provided by this state.3569

       (8) "State institution of higher education" has the same 3570
meaning as in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.3571

        (B) There is hereby created within the department of 3572
administrative services the office of energy services. The office 3573
shall be under the supervision of a manager, who shall be 3574
appointed by the director of administrative services. The director 3575
shall assign to the office such number of employees and furnish 3576
such equipment and supplies as are necessary for the performance 3577
of the office's duties.3578

       The officeOhio facilities construction commission shall 3579
develop energy efficiency and conservation programs in each of the 3580
following areas:3581

       (1) Newfor new construction design and review;3582

       (2) Existingand for existing building audit and retrofit;3583

       (3) Energy efficient procurement;3584

       (4) Alternative fuel vehicles.3585

       The officecommission may accept and administer grants from 3586
public and private sources for carrying out any of its duties 3587
under this section.3588

       (C) No state agency, department, division, bureau, office, 3589
unit, board, commission, authority, quasi-governmental entity, or 3590
institution, including those agencies otherwise excluded from the 3591
jurisdiction of the department under division (A)(3) of section 3592
123.01 of the Revised Code, shall lease, construct, or cause to be 3593
leased or constructed, within the limits prescribed in this 3594
section, a state-funded facility, without a proper life-cycle cost 3595
analysis or, in the case of a lease, an energy consumption 3596
analysis, as computed or prepared by a qualified architect or 3597
engineer in accordance with the rules required by division (D) of 3598
this section.3599

       Construction shall proceed only upon the disclosure to the 3600
office, for the facility chosen, of the life-cycle costs as 3601
determined in this section and the capitalization of the initial 3602
construction costs of the building. The results of life-cycle cost 3603
analysis shall be a primary consideration in the selection of a 3604
building design. That analysis shall be required only for 3605
construction of buildings with an area of five thousand square 3606
feet or greater. An energy consumption analysis for the term of a 3607
proposed lease shall be required only for the leasing of an area 3608
of twenty thousand square feet or greater within a given building 3609
boundary. That analysis shall be a primary consideration in the 3610
selection of a facility to be leased.3611

       Nothing in this section shall deprive or limit any state 3612
agency that has review authority over design, construction, or 3613
leasing plans from requiring a life-cycle cost analysis or energy 3614
consumption analysis.3615

       (D) For the purposes of assisting the departmentcommission3616
in its responsibility for state-funded facilities pursuant to 3617
section 123.01123.21 of the Revised Code and of cost-effectively 3618
reducing the energy consumption of those and any other 3619
state-funded facilities, thereby promoting fiscal, economic, and 3620
environmental benefits to this state, the officecommission shall 3621
promulgate rules specifying cost-effective, energy efficiency and 3622
conservation standards that may govern the lease, design, 3623
construction, operation, and maintenance of all state-funded 3624
facilities, except facilities of state institutions of higher 3625
education or facilities operated by a political subdivision. The 3626
office of energy efficiency in the department of development shall 3627
cooperate in providing information and technical expertise to the 3628
office of energy services to ensure promulgation of rules of 3629
maximum effectiveness. The standards prescribed by rules 3630
promulgated under this division may draw from or incorporate, by 3631
reference or otherwise and in whole or in part, standards already 3632
developed or implemented by any competent, public or private 3633
standards organization or program. The rules also may include any 3634
of the following:3635

        (1) Specifications for a life-cycle cost analysis that shall 3636
determine, for the economic life of such state-funded facility, 3637
the reasonably expected costs of facility ownership, operation, 3638
and maintenance including labor and materials. Life-cycle cost may 3639
be expressed as an annual cost for each year of the facility's 3640
use. 3641

        A life-cycle cost analysis additionally may include an energy 3642
consumption analysis that conforms to division (D)(2) of this 3643
section.3644

        (2) Specifications for an energy consumption analysis of the 3645
facility's heating, refrigeration, ventilation, cooling, lighting, 3646
hot water, and other major energy consuming systems, components, 3647
and equipment. 3648

        A life-cycle cost analysis and energy consumption analysis 3649
shall be based on the best currently available methods of 3650
analysis, such as those of the national institute of standards and 3651
technology, the United States department of energy or other 3652
federal agencies, professional societies, and directions developed 3653
by the department.3654

        (3) Specifications for energy performance indices, to be used 3655
to audit and evaluate competing design proposals submitted to the 3656
state.3657

        (4) A requirement that, not later than two years after April 3658
6, 2007, each state-funded facility, except a facility of a state 3659
institution of higher education or a facility operated by a 3660
political subdivision, is managed by at least one building 3661
operator certified under the building operator certification 3662
program or any equivalent program or standards as shall be 3663
prescribed in the rules and considered reasonably equivalent.3664

       (5) An application process by which a manager of a specified 3665
state-funded facility, except a facility of a state institution of 3666
higher education or a facility operated by a political 3667
subdivision, may apply for a waiver of compliance with any 3668
provision of the rules required by divisions (D)(1) to (4) of this 3669
section.3670

       (E) The office of energy services shall promulgate rules to 3671
ensure that energy efficiency and conservation will be considered 3672
in the purchase of products and equipment, except motor vehicles, 3673
by any state agency, department, division, bureau, office, unit, 3674
board, commission, authority, quasi-governmental entity, or 3675
institution. Minimum energy efficiency standards for purchased 3676
products and equipment may be required, based on federal testing 3677
and labeling where available or on standards developed by the 3678
office. The rules shall apply to the competitive selection of 3679
energy consuming systems, components, and equipment under Chapter 3680
125. of the Revised Code where possible.3681

        The office also shall ensure energy efficient and energy 3682
conserving purchasing practices by doing all of the following:3683

       (1) Cooperatively with the office of energy efficiency, 3684
identifying available energy efficiency and conservation 3685
opportunities;3686

       (2) Providing for interchange of information among purchasing 3687
agencies;3688

       (3) Identifying laws, policies, rules, and procedures that 3689
need modification;3690

       (4) Monitoring experience with and the cost-effectiveness of 3691
this state's purchase and use of motor vehicles and of major 3692
energy-consuming systems, components, equipment, and products 3693
having a significant impact on energy consumption by government;3694

       (5) Cooperatively with the office of energy efficiency, 3695
providing technical assistance and training to state employees 3696
involved in the purchasing process.3697

       The department of development shall make recommendations to 3698
the office regarding planning and implementation of purchasing 3699
policies and procedures supportive of energy efficiency and 3700
conservation.3701

       (F)(1) The office of energy services shall require all state 3702
agencies, departments, divisions, bureaus, offices, units, 3703
commissions, boards, authorities, quasi-governmental entities, 3704
institutions, and state institutions of higher education to 3705
implement procedures ensuring that all their passenger automobiles 3706
acquired in each fiscal year, except for those passenger 3707
automobiles acquired for use in law enforcement or emergency 3708
rescue work, achieve a fleet average fuel economy of not less than 3709
the fleet average fuel economy for that fiscal year as shall be 3710
prescribed by the office by rule. The office shall promulgate the 3711
rule prior to the beginning of the fiscal year in accordance with 3712
the average fuel economy standards established pursuant to federal 3713
law for passenger automobiles manufactured during the model year 3714
that begins during the fiscal year.3715

       (2) Each state agency, department, division, bureau, office, 3716
unit, commission, board, authority, quasi-governmental entity, 3717
institution, and state institution of higher education shall 3718
determine its fleet average fuel economy by dividing:3719

       (a) The total number of passenger vehicles acquired during 3720
the fiscal year, except for those passenger vehicles acquired for 3721
use in law enforcement or emergency rescue work, by3722

       (b) A sum of terms, each of which is a fraction created by 3723
dividing:3724

       (i) The number of passenger vehicles of a given make, model, 3725
and year, except for passenger vehicles acquired for use in law 3726
enforcement or emergency rescue work, acquired during the fiscal 3727
year, by3728

       (ii) The fuel economy measured by the administrator of the 3729
United States environmental protection agency, for the given make, 3730
model, and year of vehicle, that constitutes an average fuel 3731
economy for combined city and highway driving.3732

        As used in division (F)(2) of this section, "acquired" means 3733
leased for a period of sixty continuous days or more, or 3734
purchased.3735

       (G)(E) Each state agency, department, division, bureau, 3736
office, unit, board, commission, authority, quasi-governmental 3737
entity, institution, and state institution of higher education 3738
shall comply with any applicable provision of this section or of a 3739
rule promulgated pursuant to division (D) or (F) of this section.3740

       Sec. 123.23.  (A) As used in this section, "public exigency" 3741
means an injury or obstruction that occurs in any public works of 3742
the state that materially impairs its immediate use or places in 3743
jeopardy property adjacent to it; an immediate danger of such an 3744
injury or obstruction; or an injury or obstruction, or an 3745
immediate danger of an injury or obstruction, that occurs during 3746
the process of construction of any public works and that 3747
materially impairs its immediate use or places in jeopardy 3748
property adjacent to it. 3749

       (B) When a declaration of a public exigency is issued 3750
pursuant to division (C) of this section, the executive director 3751
of the Ohio facilities construction commission may enter into 3752
contracts with proper persons for the performance of labor, the 3753
furnishing of materials, or the construction of any structures and 3754
buildings necessary to the maintenance, control, and management of 3755
the public works of the state or any part of those public works. 3756
Any contracts awarded for the work performed pursuant to the 3757
declaration of a public exigency may be awarded without 3758
competitive bidding or selection as otherwise required by Chapter 3759
153. of the Revised Code.3760

       (C) The executive director of the commission may issue a 3761
declaration of a public exigency on the executive director's own 3762
initiative, or upon the request of the director of any state 3763
agency, university, or instrumentality. The executive director's 3764
declaration shall identify the specific injury, obstruction, or 3765
danger that is the subject of the declaration and shall set forth 3766
a dollar limitation for the repair, removal, or prevention of that 3767
exigency under the declaration.3768

       Before any project to repair, remove, or prevent a public 3769
exigency under the executive director's declaration may begin, the 3770
executive director shall send notice of the project, in writing, 3771
to the director of budget and management and to the members of the 3772
controlling board. The notice shall detail the project to be 3773
undertaken to address the public exigency and shall include a copy 3774
of the director's declaration that establishes the monetary 3775
limitations on that project. 3776

       Sec. 123.17.        Sec. 123.24. (A) As used in this section, "institution 3777
of higher education" means a state university or college, as 3778
defined in section 3345.12 of the Revised Code, or a state 3779
community college.3780

       (B) Not later than December 30, 2005, the state architectThe 3781
Ohio facilities construction commission shall establish a local 3782
administration competency certification program to certify 3783
institutions of higher education to administer capital facilities 3784
projects pursuant to section 3345.51 of the Revised Code without 3785
the supervision, control, or approval of the department of 3786
administrative servicescommission. The program shall offer 3787
instruction in the administration of capital facilities projects 3788
for employees of institutions of higher education who are 3789
responsible for such administration and who are selected by their 3790
employing institutions to participate in the program.3791

       (C) The program shall provide instruction about the 3792
provisions of Chapters 9., 123., and 153. of the Revised Code and 3793
any rules or policies adopted by the departmentcommission3794
regarding the planning, design, and construction of capital 3795
facilities, including all of the following:3796

       (1) The planning, design, and construction process;3797

       (2) Contract requirements;3798

       (3) Construction management;3799

       (4) Project management.3800

       (D) The state architectcommission shall award local 3801
administration competency certification to any institution of 3802
higher education if all of the following apply:3803

       (1) The institution applied for certification on a form and 3804
in a manner prescribed by the state architectcommission.3805

       (2) The state architectcommission determines that a 3806
sufficient number of the institution's employees, representing a 3807
sufficient number of employee classifications, responsible for the 3808
administration of capital facilities projects have successfully 3809
completed the certification program to ensure that any capital 3810
facilities project undertaken by the institution will be 3811
administered successfully and in accordance with all provisions of 3812
the Revised Code, and the board of trustees of the institution 3813
provides written assurance to the state architectcommission that 3814
the institution will select new employees to participate in the 3815
certification program as necessary to compensate for employee 3816
turnover.3817

       (3) The state architectcommission determines that the 3818
employees of the institution enrolled in the program demonstrate 3819
successful completion of the competency certification training and 3820
a satisfactory level of knowledge of and competency in the 3821
requirements for administering capital facilities projects.3822

       (4) The institution pays the fee prescribed by division (F) 3823
of this section.3824

       (5) The board of trustees of the institution provides written 3825
assurance to the state architectcommission that the institution 3826
will conduct biennial audits of the institution's administration 3827
of capital facilities projects in accordance with division (C) of 3828
section 3345.51 of the Revised Code.3829

       (6) The board of trustees of the institution agrees in 3830
writing to indemnify and hold harmless the state and the 3831
departmentcommission for any claim of injury, loss, or damage 3832
that results from the institution's administration of a capital 3833
facilities project.3834

       (E) Local administration competency certification granted 3835
under this section shall remain in effect for as long as the state 3836
architectcommission determines that both of the following apply:3837

        (1) The institution of higher education maintains a 3838
sufficient number of employees responsible for the administration 3839
of capital facilities projects who have successfully completed the 3840
certification program and have demonstrated a satisfactory level 3841
of knowledge of and competency in the requirements for 3842
administering capital facilities projects;3843

        (2) The institution is performing the biennial audits 3844
prescribed in division (C) of section 3345.51 of the Revised Code.3845

       If the state architectcommission determines that an 3846
institution of higher education has failed to comply with the 3847
conditions of division (E)(1) or (2) of this section, the state 3848
architectcommission shall revoke the institution's certification 3849
and shall notify the board of trustees of the institution in 3850
writing of the revocation.3851

        (F) The state architectcommission shall establish, subject 3852
to the approval of the director of budget and management, the 3853
amount of the fee required to be paid by any institution of higher 3854
education that seeks certification under this section. The amount 3855
of the fees shall be set to cover the costs to implement this 3856
section, including the costs for materials and the competency 3857
certification training sessions. Any fees received under this 3858
section shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the 3859
state architect'scommission's fund established under section 3860
123.10123.201 of the Revised Code.3861

       (G) Nothing in this section shall prohibit an institution 3862
that administers a capital facilities project under section 3863
3345.51 of the Revised Code from requesting guidance or other 3864
services from the department of administrative services3865
commission.3866

       Sec. 123.26.  (A) The executive director of the Ohio 3867
facilities construction commission shall regulate the rate of 3868
tolls to be collected on the construction or improvement of the 3869
public works of the state, and shall fix all rentals and collect 3870
all tolls, rents, fines, commissions, fees, and other revenues 3871
arising from any source in the construction or improvement of the 3872
public works of the state.3873

       (B) Deposits made to the commission's fund in the state 3874
treasury under section 123.201 of the Revised Code shall consist 3875
of money received by the commission under division (A) of this 3876
section, fees paid under section 123.24 of the Revised Code, 3877
transfers of money to the fund authorized by the general assembly, 3878
and such amount of the investment earnings of the administrative 3879
building fund created in division (F) of section 154.24 of the 3880
Revised Code as the director of budget and management determines 3881
to be appropriate and in excess of the amounts required to meet 3882
estimated federal arbitrage rebate requirements. Money in the fund 3883
shall be used by the commission for the following purposes:3884

       (1) To pay personnel and other administrative expenses of the 3885
commission;3886

       (2) To pay the cost of conducting evaluations of public 3887
works;3888

       (3) To pay the cost of building design specifications;3889

       (4) To pay the cost of providing project management services;3890

       (5) To pay the cost of operating the local administration 3891
competency certification program prescribed by section 123.24 of 3892
the Revised Code; and3893

       (6) Any other purposes that the executive director of the 3894
commission determines to be necessary for the commission to 3895
execute its duties under this chapter.3896

       Sec. 123.101.        Sec. 123.27.  (A) As used in this section:3897

       "Capital facilities project" means the construction, 3898
reconstruction, improvement, enlargement, alteration, or repair of 3899
a building by a public entity.3900

       "Public entity" includes a state agency and a state 3901
institution of higher education. 3902

       "State institution of higher education" has the same meaning 3903
as in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.3904

       (B) Commencing not later than July 1, 2012, and upon 3905
completion of a capital facilities project that is funded wholly 3906
or in part using state funds, each public entity shall submit a 3907
report about the project to the executive director of 3908
administrative servicesthe Ohio facilities construction 3909
commission. The report shall be submitted in Ohio administrative 3910
knowledge system capital improvement format or in a manner 3911
determined by the executive director and not later than thirty 3912
days after the project is complete. The report shall provide the 3913
total original contract bid, total cost of change orders, total 3914
actual cost of the project, total costs incurred for mediation and 3915
litigation services, and any other data requested by the executive3916
director. The first report submitted pursuant to this division 3917
shall include information about any capital facilities project 3918
completed on or after July 1, 2011. Any capital facilities project 3919
that is funded wholly or in part through appropriations made to 3920
the Ohio school facilities commission, the Ohio public works 3921
commission, or the Ohio cultural facilities commission, or for 3922
which a joint use agreement has been entered into with any public 3923
entity, is exempt from the reporting requirement prescribed under 3924
this division.3925

       (C) Commencing not later than July 1, 2012, and annually 3926
thereafter, the attorney general shall report to the executive3927
director of the Ohio facilities construction commission on any 3928
mediation and litigation costs associated with capital facilities 3929
projects for which a judgment has been rendered. The report shall 3930
be submitted in a manner prescribed by the executive director and 3931
shall contain any information requested by the executive director 3932
related to capital facilities project mediation and litigation 3933
costs.3934

       (D) As soon as practicable after such information is made 3935
available, the executive director of administrative servicesthe 3936
Ohio facilities construction commission shall incorporate the 3937
information reported pursuant to divisions (B) and (C) of this 3938
section into the Ohio administrative knowledge system.3939

       Sec. 124.04.  In addition to those powers enumerated in 3940
Chapters 123. and 125. of the Revised Code and as provided 3941
elsewhere by law, the powers, duties, and functions of the 3942
department of administrative services not specifically vested in 3943
and assigned to, or to be performed by, the state personnel board 3944
of review are hereby vested in and assigned to, and shall be 3945
performed by, the director of administrative services. These 3946
powers, duties, and functions shall include, but shall not be 3947
limited to, the following powers, duties, and functions:3948

       (A) To prepare, conduct, and grade all competitive 3949
examinations for positions in the classified state service of the 3950
state;3951

       (B) To prepare, conduct, and grade all noncompetitive 3952
examinations for positions in the classified state service of the 3953
state;3954

       (C) To prepare eligible lists containing the names of persons 3955
qualified for appointment to positions in the classified state3956
service of the state;3957

       (D) To prepare or amend, in accordance with section 124.14 of 3958
the Revised Code, specifications descriptive of duties, 3959
responsibilities, requirements, and desirable qualifications of 3960
the various classifications of positions in the state service of 3961
the state;3962

       (E) To allocate and reallocate, upon the motion of the 3963
director or upon request of an appointing authority and in 3964
accordance with section 124.14 of the Revised Code, any position, 3965
office, or employment in the state service of the state to the 3966
appropriate classification on the basis of the duties, 3967
responsibilities, requirements, and qualifications of that 3968
position, office, or employment;3969

       (F) To develop and conduct personnel recruitment services and 3970
assist appointing authorities in recruiting qualified applicants3971
for positions in the state service of the state;3972

       (G) To conduct research on specifications, classifications, 3973
and salaries of positions in the state service of the state;3974

       (H) To develop and conduct personnel training programs, 3975
including supervisory training programs and best practices plans, 3976
and to develop merit hiring processes, in cooperation with 3977
appointing authorities for positions in the service of the state;3978

       (I) To include periodically in communications sent to state 3979
employees both of the following:3980

       (1) Information developed under section 2108.34 of the 3981
Revised Code promoting the donation of anatomical gifts under 3982
Chapter 2108. of the Revised Code;3983

       (2) Information about the liver or kidney donor and bone 3984
marrow donor leave granted under section 124.139 of the Revised 3985
Code.3986

       (J) To enter into agreements with universities and colleges 3987
for in-service training of officers and employees in the civil 3988
service and to assist appointing authorities in recruiting 3989
qualified applicants;3990

       (K) To appoint examiners, inspectors, clerks, and other 3991
assistants necessary in the exercise of the powers and performance 3992
of the duties and functions which the director is by law 3993
authorized and required to exercise and perform, and to prescribe 3994
the duties of all of those employees;3995

       (L) To maintain a journal, which shall be open to public 3996
inspection, in which the director shall keep a record of the 3997
director's final decision pertaining to the classification or 3998
reclassification of positions in the classified civil service of 3999
the state and assignment or reassignment of employees in the 4000
classified civil service of the state to specific position 4001
classifications;4002

       (M) To delegate any of the powers, functions, or duties 4003
granted or assigned to the director under this chapter to any 4004
other state agency of this state as the director considers 4005
necessary;4006

       (N) To delegate any of the powers, functions, or duties 4007
granted or assigned to the director under this chapter to any 4008
political subdivision with the concurrence of the legislative 4009
authority of the political subdivision.4010

       (O) To administer a state equal employment opportunity 4011
program.4012

       Sec. 124.06.  No person shall be appointed, removed, 4013
transferred, laid off, suspended, reinstated, promoted, or reduced 4014
as an officer or employee in the civil service, in any manner or 4015
by any means other than those prescribed in this chapter, and the 4016
rules of the director of administrative services for positions in 4017
the service of the state or the municipal or civil service 4018
township civil service commission within their respective 4019
jurisdictions.4020

       Sec. 124.11.  The civil service of the state and the several 4021
counties, cities, civil service townships, city health districts, 4022
general health districts, and city school districts of the state 4023
shall be divided into the unclassified service and the classified 4024
service.4025

       (A) The unclassified service shall comprise the following 4026
positions, which shall not be included in the classified service, 4027
and which shall be exempt from all examinations required by this 4028
chapter:4029

       (1) All officers elected by popular vote or persons appointed 4030
to fill vacancies in those offices;4031

       (2) All election officers as defined in section 3501.01 of 4032
the Revised Code;4033

       (3)(a) The members of all boards and commissions, and heads 4034
of principal departments, boards, and commissions appointed by the 4035
governor or by and with the governor's consent; 4036

       (b) The heads of all departments appointed by a board of 4037
county commissioners;4038

       (c) The members of all boards and commissions and all heads 4039
of departments appointed by the mayor, or, if there is no mayor, 4040
such other similar chief appointing authority of any city or city 4041
school district;4042

       Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(17) or (C) of 4043
this section, this chapter does not exempt the chiefs of police 4044
departments and chiefs of fire departments of cities or civil 4045
service townships from the competitive classified service.4046

       (4) The members of county or district licensing boards or 4047
commissions and boards of revision, and not more than five deputy 4048
county auditors;4049

       (5) All officers and employees elected or appointed by either 4050
or both branches of the general assembly, and employees of the 4051
city legislative authority engaged in legislative duties;4052

       (6) All commissioned, warrant, and noncommissioned officers 4053
and enlisted persons in the Ohio organized militia, including 4054
military appointees in the adjutant general's department;4055

       (7)(a) All presidents, business managers, administrative 4056
officers, superintendents, assistant superintendents, principals, 4057
deans, assistant deans, instructors, teachers, and such employees 4058
as are engaged in educational or research duties connected with 4059
the public school system, colleges, and universities, as 4060
determined by the governing body of the public school system, 4061
colleges, and universities;4062

       (b) The library staff of any library in the state supported 4063
wholly or in part at public expense.4064

       (8) Four clerical and administrative support employees for 4065
each of the elective state officers, four clerical and 4066
administrative support employees for each board of county 4067
commissioners and one such employee for each county commissioner, 4068
and four clerical and administrative support employees for other 4069
elective officers and each of the principal appointive executive 4070
officers, boards, or commissions, except for civil service 4071
commissions, that are authorized to appoint such clerical and 4072
administrative support employees;4073

       (9) The deputies and assistants of state agencies authorized 4074
to act for and on behalf of the agency, or holding a fiduciary or 4075
administrative relation to that agency and those persons employed 4076
by and directly responsible to elected county officials or a 4077
county administrator and holding a fiduciary or administrative 4078
relationship to such elected county officials or county 4079
administrator, and the employees of such county officials whose 4080
fitness would be impracticable to determine by competitive 4081
examination, provided that division (A)(9) of this section shall 4082
not affect those persons in county employment in the classified 4083
service as of September 19, 1961. Nothing in division (A)(9) of 4084
this section applies to any position in a county department of job 4085
and family services created pursuant to Chapter 329. of the 4086
Revised Code.4087

       (10) Bailiffs, constables, official stenographers, and 4088
commissioners of courts of record, deputies of clerks of the 4089
courts of common pleas who supervise or who handle public moneys 4090
or secured documents, and such officers and employees of courts of 4091
record and such deputies of clerks of the courts of common pleas 4092
as the director of administrative servicesappointing authority4093
finds it impracticable to determine their fitness by competitive 4094
examination;4095

       (11) Assistants to the attorney general, special counsel 4096
appointed or employed by the attorney general, assistants to 4097
county prosecuting attorneys, and assistants to city directors of 4098
law;4099

       (12) Such teachers and employees in the agricultural 4100
experiment stations; such students in normal schools, colleges, 4101
and universities of the state who are employed by the state or a 4102
political subdivision of the state in student or intern 4103
classifications; and such unskilled labor positions as the 4104
director of administrative services, with respect to positions in 4105
the service of the state, or any municipal civil service 4106
commission may find it impracticable to include in the competitive 4107
classified service; provided such exemptions shall be by order of 4108
the commission or the director, duly entered on the record of the 4109
commission or the director with the reasons for each such 4110
exemption;4111

       (13) Any physician or dentist who is a full-time employee of 4112
the department of mental health, the department of developmental 4113
disabilities, or an institution under the jurisdiction of either 4114
department; and physicians who are in residency programs at the 4115
institutions;4116

       (14) Up to twenty positions at each institution under the 4117
jurisdiction of the department of mental health or the department 4118
of developmental disabilities that the department director 4119
determines to be primarily administrative or managerial; and up to 4120
fifteen positions in any division of either department, excluding 4121
administrative assistants to the director and division chiefs, 4122
which are within the immediate staff of a division chief and which 4123
the director determines to be primarily and distinctively 4124
administrative and managerial;4125

       (15) Noncitizens of the United States employed by the state, 4126
or its counties or cities, as physicians or nurses who are duly 4127
licensed to practice their respective professions under the laws 4128
of this state, or medical assistants, in mental or chronic disease 4129
hospitals, or institutions;4130

       (16) Employees of the governor's office;4131

       (17) Fire chiefs and chiefs of police in civil service 4132
townships appointed by boards of township trustees under section 4133
505.38 or 505.49 of the Revised Code;4134

       (18) Executive directors, deputy directors, and program 4135
directors employed by boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 4136
mental health services under Chapter 340. of the Revised Code, and 4137
secretaries of the executive directors, deputy directors, and 4138
program directors;4139

       (19) Superintendents, and management employees as defined in 4140
section 5126.20 of the Revised Code, of county boards of 4141
developmental disabilities;4142

       (20) Physicians, nurses, and other employees of a county 4143
hospital who are appointed pursuant to sections 339.03 and 339.06 4144
of the Revised Code;4145

       (21) The executive director of the state medical board, who 4146
is appointed pursuant to division (B) of section 4731.05 of the 4147
Revised Code;4148

       (22) County directors of job and family services as provided 4149
in section 329.02 of the Revised Code and administrators appointed 4150
under section 329.021 of the Revised Code;4151

       (23) A director of economic development who is hired pursuant 4152
to division (A) of section 307.07 of the Revised Code;4153

       (24) Chiefs of construction and compliance, of operations and 4154
maintenance, of worker protection, and of licensing and 4155
certification in the division of laborindustrial compliance in 4156
the department of commerce;4157

       (25) The executive director of a county transit system 4158
appointed under division (A) of section 306.04 of the Revised 4159
Code;4160

       (26) Up to five positions at each of the administrative 4161
departments listed in section 121.02 of the Revised Code and at 4162
the department of taxation, department of the adjutant general, 4163
department of education, Ohio board of regents, bureau of workers' 4164
compensation, industrial commission, state lottery commission, and 4165
public utilities commission of Ohio that the head of that 4166
administrative department or of that other state agency determines 4167
to be involved in policy development and implementation. The head 4168
of the administrative department or other state agency shall set 4169
the compensation for employees in these positions at a rate that 4170
is not less than the minimum compensation specified in pay range 4171
41 but not more than the maximum compensation specified in pay 4172
range 44 of salary schedule E-2 in section 124.152 of the Revised 4173
Code. The authority to establish positions in the unclassified 4174
service under division (A)(26) of this section is in addition to 4175
and does not limit any other authority that an administrative 4176
department or state agency has under the Revised Code to establish 4177
positions, appoint employees, or set compensation.4178

       (27) Employees of the department of agriculture employed 4179
under section 901.09 of the Revised Code;4180

       (28) For cities, counties, civil service townships, city 4181
health districts, general health districts, and city school 4182
districts, the deputies and assistants of elective or principal 4183
executive officers authorized to act for and in the place of their 4184
principals or holding a fiduciary relation to their principals;4185

       (29) Employees who receive intermittent or temporary 4186
appointments under division (B) of section 124.30 of the Revised 4187
Code;4188

       (30) Employees appointed to administrative staff positions 4189
for which an appointing authority is given specific statutory 4190
authority to set compensation;4191

       (31) Employees appointed to highway patrol cadet or highway 4192
patrol cadet candidate classifications;4193

       (32) Employees placed in the unclassified service by another 4194
section of the Revised Code.4195

       (B) The classified service shall comprise all persons in the 4196
employ of the state and the several counties, cities, city health 4197
districts, general health districts, and city school districts of 4198
the state, not specifically included in the unclassified service. 4199
Upon the creation by the board of trustees of a civil service 4200
township civil service commission, the classified service shall 4201
also comprise, except as otherwise provided in division (A)(17) or 4202
(C) of this section, all persons in the employ of a civil service 4203
township police or fire department having ten or more full-time 4204
paid employees. The classified service consists of two classes, 4205
which shall be designated as the competitive class and the 4206
unskilled labor class.4207

       (1) The competitive class shall include all positions and 4208
employments in the state and the counties, cities, city health 4209
districts, general health districts, and city school districts of 4210
the state, and, upon the creation by the board of trustees of a 4211
civil service township of a township civil service commission, all 4212
positions in a civil service township police or fire department 4213
having ten or more full-time paid employees, for which it is 4214
practicable to determine the merit and fitness of applicants by 4215
competitive examinations. Appointments shall be made to, or 4216
employment shall be given in, all positions in the competitive 4217
class that are not filled by promotion, reinstatement, transfer, 4218
or reduction, as provided in this chapter, and the rules of the 4219
director of administrative services, by appointment from those 4220
certified to the appointing officer in accordance with this 4221
chapter.4222

       (2) The unskilled labor class shall include ordinary 4223
unskilled laborers. Vacancies in the labor class for positions in 4224
service of the state shall be filled by appointment from lists of 4225
applicants registered by the director or the director's designee. 4226
Vacancies in the labor class for all other positions shall be 4227
filled by appointment from lists of applicants registered by a 4228
commission. The director or the commission, as applicable, by 4229
rule, shall require an applicant for registration in the labor 4230
class to furnish evidence or take tests as the director or 4231
commission considers proper with respect to age, residence, 4232
physical condition, ability to labor, honesty, sobriety, industry, 4233
capacity, and experience in the work or employment for which 4234
application is made. Laborers who fulfill the requirements shall 4235
be placed on the eligible list for the kind of labor or employment 4236
sought, and preference shall be given in employment in accordance 4237
with the rating received from that evidence or in those tests. 4238
Upon the request of an appointing officer, stating the kind of 4239
labor needed, the pay and probable length of employment, and the 4240
number to be employed, the director or commission, as applicable, 4241
shall certify from the highest on the list double the number to be 4242
employed; from this number, the appointing officer shall appoint 4243
the number actually needed for the particular work. If more than 4244
one applicant receives the same rating, priority in time of 4245
application shall determine the order in which their names shall 4246
be certified for appointment.4247

       (C) A municipal or civil service township civil service 4248
commission may place volunteer firefighters who are paid on a 4249
fee-for-service basis in either the classified or the unclassified 4250
civil service.4251

       (D)(1) This division does not apply to persons in the 4252
unclassified service who have the right to resume positions in the 4253
classified service under sections 4121.121, 5119.071, 5120.38, 4254
5120.381, 5120.382, 5123.08, 5139.02, and 5501.19 of the Revised 4255
Code.4256

       An appointing authority whose employees are paid directly by 4257
warrant of the director of budget and management may appoint a 4258
person who holds a certified position in the classified service 4259
within the appointing authority's agency to a position in the 4260
unclassified service within that agency.(2) A person appointed 4261
pursuant to this divisionwho holds a position in the classified 4262
service and who is appointed to a position in the unclassified 4263
service shall retain the right to resume the position and status 4264
held by the person in the classified service immediately prior to 4265
the person's appointment to the position in the unclassified 4266
service, regardless of the number of positions the person held in 4267
the unclassified service. An employee's right to resume a position 4268
in the classified service may only be exercised when an appointing 4269
authority demotes the employee to a pay range lower than the 4270
employee's current pay range or revokes the employee's appointment 4271
to the unclassified service.and:4272

        (a) That person held a certified position prior to July 1, 4273
2007, in the classified service within the appointing authority's 4274
agency; or4275

        (b) That person held a permanent position on or after July 1, 4276
2007, in the classified service within the appointing authority's 4277
agency.4278

        (3) An employee forfeits the right to resume a position in 4279
the classified service when the:4280

       (a) The employee is removed from the position in the 4281
unclassified service due to incompetence, inefficiency, 4282
dishonesty, drunkenness, immoral conduct, insubordination, 4283
discourteous treatment of the public, neglect of duty, violation 4284
of this chapter or the rules of the director of administrative 4285
services, any other failure of good behavior, any other acts of 4286
misfeasance, malfeasance, or nonfeasance in office, or conviction 4287
of a felony. An employee also forfeits the right to resume a 4288
position in the classified service upon; or4289

       (b) Upon transfer to a different agency.4290

       (4) Reinstatement to a position in the classified service 4291
shall be to a position substantially equal to that position in the 4292
classified service held previously, as certified by the director 4293
of administrative services. If the position the person previously 4294
held in the classified service has been placed in the unclassified 4295
service or is otherwise unavailable, the person shall be appointed 4296
to a position in the classified service within the appointing 4297
authority's agency that the director of administrative services 4298
certifies is comparable in compensation to the position the person 4299
previously held in the classified service. Service in the position 4300
in the unclassified service shall be counted as service in the 4301
position in the classified service held by the person immediately 4302
prior to the person's appointment to the position in the 4303
unclassified service. When a person is reinstated to a position in 4304
the classified service as provided in this division, the person is 4305
entitled to all rights, status, and benefits accruing to the 4306
position in the classified service during the person's time of 4307
service in the position in the unclassified service.4308

       Sec. 124.12. (A) Within ninety days after an appointing 4309
authority appoints an employee to an unclassified position in the 4310
service of the state, the appointing authority shall notify the 4311
department of administrative services of that appointment.4312

       (B) On the date an appointing authority appoints an employee 4313
to an unclassified position in the state service, the appointing 4314
authority shall provide the employee with written information 4315
describing the nature of employment in the unclassified civil 4316
service. Within thirty days after the date an appointing authority 4317
appoints an employee to an unclassified position in the state 4318
service, the appointing authority shall provide the employee with 4319
written information describing the duties of that position. 4320
Failure of the appointing authority to provide the written 4321
information described in this division to the employee does not 4322
confer any additional rights upon the employee in any appellate 4323
body with jurisdiction over an appeal of the employee.4324

       (C) The department shall develop and provide each appointing 4325
authority in the state service of the state with a general written 4326
description of the nature of employment in the unclassified civil 4327
service that shall be provided to employees under division (B) of 4328
this section.4329

       Sec. 124.14.  (A)(1) The director of administrative services 4330
shall establish, and may modify or rescind, by rule, a job 4331
classification plan for all positions, offices, and employments 4332
the salaries of which are paid in whole or in part by the state. 4333
The director shall group jobs within a classification so that the 4334
positions are similar enough in duties and responsibilities to be 4335
described by the same title, to have the same pay assigned with 4336
equity, and to have the same qualifications for selection applied. 4337
The director shall, by rule, assign a classification title to each 4338
classification within the classification plan. However, the 4339
director shall consider in establishing classifications, including 4340
classifications with parenthetical titles, and assigning pay 4341
ranges such factors as duties performed only on one shift, special 4342
skills in short supply in the labor market, recruitment problems, 4343
separation rates, comparative salary rates, the amount of training 4344
required, and other conditions affecting employment. The director 4345
shall describe the duties and responsibilities of the class, 4346
establish the qualifications for being employed in each position 4347
in the class, and file with the secretary of state a copy of 4348
specifications for all of the classifications. The director shall 4349
file new, additional, or revised specifications with the secretary 4350
of state before they are used. 4351

       The director shall, by rule, assign each classification, 4352
either on a statewide basis or in particular counties or state 4353
institutions, to a pay range established under section 124.15 or 4354
section 124.152 of the Revised Code. The director may assign a 4355
classification to a pay range on a temporary basis for a period of 4356
six months. The director may establish, by rule adopted under 4357
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, experimental classification 4358
plans for some or all employees paid directly by warrant of the 4359
director of budget and management. The rule shall include 4360
specifications for each classification within the plan and shall 4361
specifically address compensation ranges, and methods for 4362
advancing within the ranges, for the classifications, which may be 4363
assigned to pay ranges other than the pay ranges established under 4364
section 124.15 or 124.152 of the Revised Code.4365

       (2) The director of administrative services may reassign to a 4366
proper classification those positions that have been assigned to 4367
an improper classification. If the compensation of an employee in 4368
such a reassigned position exceeds the maximum rate of pay for the 4369
employee's new classification, the employee shall be placed in pay 4370
step X and shall not receive an increase in compensation until the 4371
maximum rate of pay for that classification exceeds the employee's 4372
compensation.4373

       (3) The director may reassign an exempt employee, as defined 4374
in section 124.152 of the Revised Code, to a bargaining unit 4375
classification if the director determines that the bargaining unit 4376
classification is the proper classification for that employee. 4377
Notwithstanding Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code or instruments 4378
and contracts negotiated under it, these placements are at the 4379
director's discretion.4380

       (4) The director shall, by rule, assign related 4381
classifications, which form a career progression, to a 4382
classification series. The director shall, by rule, assign each 4383
classification in the classification plan a five-digit number, the 4384
first four digits of which shall denote the classification series 4385
to which the classification is assigned. When a career progression 4386
encompasses more than ten classifications, the director shall, by 4387
rule, identify the additional classifications belonging to a 4388
classification series. The additional classifications shall be 4389
part of the classification series, notwithstanding the fact that 4390
the first four digits of the number assigned to the additional 4391
classifications do not correspond to the first four digits of the 4392
numbers assigned to other classifications in the classification 4393
series.4394

       (5) The director may establish, modify, or rescind a 4395
classification plan for county agencies that elect not to use the 4396
services and facilities of a county personnel department. The 4397
director shall establish any such classification plan by means of 4398
rules adopted under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. The rules 4399
shall include a methodology for the establishment of titles unique 4400
to county agencies, the use of state classification titles and 4401
classification specifications for common positions, the criteria 4402
for a county to meet in establishing its own classification plan, 4403
and the establishment of what constitutes a classification series 4404
for county agencies. The director may assess a county agency that 4405
chooses to use the classification plan a usage fee the director 4406
determines. All usage fees the department of administrative 4407
services receives shall be paid into the state treasury to the 4408
credit of the human resources fund created in section 124.07 of 4409
the Revised Code.4410

       (B) Division (A) of this section and sections 124.15 and 4411
124.152 of the Revised Code do not apply to the following persons, 4412
positions, offices, and employments:4413

       (1) Elected officials;4414

       (2) Legislative employees, employees of the legislative 4415
service commission, employees in the office of the governor, 4416
employees who are in the unclassified civil service and exempt 4417
from collective bargaining coverage in the office of the secretary 4418
of state, auditor of state, treasurer of state, and attorney 4419
general, and employees of the supreme court;4420

       (3) Employees of a county children services board that 4421
establishes compensation rates under section 5153.12 of the 4422
Revised Code;4423

       (4) Any position for which the authority to determine 4424
compensation is given by law to another individual or entity;4425

       (5) Employees of the bureau of workers' compensation whose 4426
compensation the administrator of workers' compensation 4427
establishes under division (B) of section 4121.121 of the Revised 4428
Code.4429

       (C) The director may employ a consulting agency to aid and 4430
assist the director in carrying out this section.4431

       (D)(1) When the director proposes to modify a classification 4432
or the assignment of classes to appropriate pay ranges, the 4433
director shall send written notice of the proposed rule to the 4434
appointing authorities of the affected employees thirty days 4435
before a hearing on the proposed rule. The appointing authorities 4436
shall notify the affected employees regarding the proposed rule. 4437
The director also shall send those appointing authorities notice 4438
of any final rule that is adopted within ten days after adoption.4439

       (2) When the director proposes to reclassify any employee so 4440
that the employee is adversely affected, the director shall give 4441
to the employee affected and to the employee's appointing 4442
authority a written notice setting forth the proposed new 4443
classification, pay range, and salary. Upon the request of any 4444
classified employee in the service of the state who is not serving 4445
in a probationary period, the director shall perform a job audit 4446
to review the classification of the employee's position to 4447
determine whether the position is properly classified. The 4448
director shall give to the employee affected and to the employee's 4449
appointing authority a written notice of the director's 4450
determination whether or not to reclassify the position or to 4451
reassign the employee to another classification. An employee or 4452
appointing authority desiring a hearing shall file a written 4453
request for the hearing with the state personnel board of review 4454
within thirty days after receiving the notice. The board shall set 4455
the matter for a hearing and notify the employee and appointing 4456
authority of the time and place of the hearing. The employee, the 4457
appointing authority, or any authorized representative of the 4458
employee who wishes to submit facts for the consideration of the 4459
board shall be afforded reasonable opportunity to do so. After the 4460
hearing, the board shall consider anew the reclassification and 4461
may order the reclassification of the employee and require the 4462
director to assign the employee to such appropriate classification 4463
as the facts and evidence warrant. As provided in division (A)(1) 4464
of section 124.03 of the Revised Code, the board may determine the 4465
most appropriate classification for the position of any employee 4466
coming before the board, with or without a job audit. The board 4467
shall disallow any reclassification or reassignment classification 4468
of any employee when it finds that changes have been made in the 4469
duties and responsibilities of any particular employee for 4470
political, religious, or other unjust reasons.4471

       (E)(1) Employees of each county department of job and family 4472
services shall be paid a salary or wage established by the board 4473
of county commissioners. The provisions of section 124.18 of the 4474
Revised Code concerning the standard work week apply to employees 4475
of county departments of job and family services. A board of 4476
county commissioners may do either of the following:4477

       (a) Notwithstanding any other section of the Revised Code, 4478
supplement the sick leave, vacation leave, personal leave, and 4479
other benefits of any employee of the county department of job and 4480
family services of that county, if the employee is eligible for 4481
the supplement under a written policy providing for the 4482
supplement;4483

       (b) Notwithstanding any other section of the Revised Code, 4484
establish alternative schedules of sick leave, vacation leave, 4485
personal leave, or other benefits for employees not inconsistent 4486
with the provisions of a collective bargaining agreement covering 4487
the affected employees.4488

       (2) Division (E)(1) of this section does not apply to 4489
employees for whom the state employment relations board 4490
establishes appropriate bargaining units pursuant to section 4491
4117.06 of the Revised Code, except in either of the following 4492
situations:4493

       (a) The employees for whom the state employment relations 4494
board establishes appropriate bargaining units elect no 4495
representative in a board-conducted representation election.4496

       (b) After the state employment relations board establishes 4497
appropriate bargaining units for such employees, all employee 4498
organizations withdraw from a representation election.4499

       (F)(1) Notwithstanding any contrary provision of sections 4500
124.01 to 124.64 of the Revised Code, the board of trustees of 4501
each state university or college, as defined in section 3345.12 of 4502
the Revised Code, shall carry out all matters of governance 4503
involving the officers and employees of the university or college, 4504
including, but not limited to, the powers, duties, and functions 4505
of the department of administrative services and the director of 4506
administrative services specified in this chapter. Officers and 4507
employees of a state university or college shall have the right of 4508
appeal to the state personnel board of review as provided in this 4509
chapter.4510

       (2) Each board of trustees shall adopt rules under section 4511
111.15 of the Revised Code to carry out the matters of governance 4512
described in division (F)(1) of this section. Until the board of 4513
trustees adopts those rules, a state university or college shall 4514
continue to operate pursuant to the applicable rules adopted by 4515
the director of administrative services under this chapter.4516

       (G)(1) Each board of county commissioners may, by a 4517
resolution adopted by a majority of its members, establish a 4518
county personnel department to exercise the powers, duties, and 4519
functions specified in division (G) of this section. As used in 4520
division (G) of this section, "county personnel department" means 4521
a county personnel department established by a board of county 4522
commissioners under division (G)(1) of this section.4523

       (2)(a) Each board of county commissioners, by a resolution 4524
adopted by a majority of its members, may designate the county 4525
personnel department of the county to exercise the powers, duties, 4526
and functions specified in sections 124.01 to 124.64 and Chapter 4527
325. of the Revised Code with regard to employees in the service 4528
of the county, except for the powers and duties of the state 4529
personnel board of review, which powers and duties shall not be 4530
construed as having been modified or diminished in any manner by 4531
division (G)(2) of this section, with respect to the employees for 4532
whom the board of county commissioners is the appointing authority 4533
or co-appointing authority. 4534

       (b) Nothing in division (G)(2) of this section shall be 4535
construed to limit the right of any employee who possesses the 4536
right of appeal to the state personnel board of review to continue 4537
to possess that right of appeal.4538

       (c) Any board of county commissioners that has established a 4539
county personnel department may contract with the department of 4540
administrative services, in accordance with division (H) of this 4541
section, another political subdivision, or an appropriate public 4542
or private entity to provide competitive testing services or other 4543
appropriate services.4544

       (3) After the county personnel department of a county has 4545
been established as described in division (G)(2) of this section, 4546
any elected official, board, agency, or other appointing authority 4547
of that county, upon written notification to the county personnel 4548
department, may elect to use the services and facilities of the 4549
county personnel department. Upon receipt of the notification by 4550
the county personnel department, the county personnel department 4551
shall exercise the powers, duties, and functions as described in 4552
division (G)(2) of this section with respect to the employees of 4553
that elected official, board, agency, or other appointing 4554
authority. 4555

       (4) Each board of county commissioners, by a resolution 4556
adopted by a majority of its members, may disband the county 4557
personnel department. 4558

       (5) Any elected official, board, agency, or appointing 4559
authority of a county may end its involvement with a county 4560
personnel department upon actual receipt by the department of a 4561
certified copy of the notification that contains the decision to 4562
no longer participate.4563

       (6) The director of administrative services may, by rule 4564
adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, 4565
prescribe criteria and procedures for the following:4566

       (a) A requirement that each county personnel department, in 4567
carrying out its duties, shall adhere to merit system principles 4568
with regard to employees of county departments of job and family 4569
services, child support enforcement agencies, and public child 4570
welfare agencies so that there is no threatened loss of federal 4571
funding for these agencies, and a requirement that the county be4572
is financially liable to the state for any loss of federal funds 4573
due to the action or inaction of the county personnel department. 4574
The costs associated with audits conducted to monitor compliance 4575
with division (G)(6)(a) of this section shall be reimbursed to the 4576
department of administrative services as determined by the 4577
director. All money the department receives for these audits shall 4578
be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the human 4579
resources fund created in section 124.07 of the Revised Code.4580

       (b) Authorization for the director of administrative services 4581
to conduct periodic audits and reviews of county personnel 4582
departments to guarantee the uniform application of the powers, 4583
duties, and functions exercised pursuant to division (G)(2)(a) of 4584
this section. The costs of the audits and reviews shall be 4585
reimbursed to the department of administrative services as 4586
determined by the director by the county for which the services 4587
are performed. All money the department receives shall be paid 4588
into the state treasury to the credit of the human resources fund 4589
created in section 124.07 of the Revised Code.4590

       (H) County agencies may contract with the department of 4591
administrative services for any human resources services, 4592
including, but not limited to, establishment and modification of 4593
job classification plans, competitive testing services, and 4594
periodic audits and reviews to guarantee the county's uniform 4595
application of the powers, duties, and functions specified in 4596
sections 124.01 to 124.64 and Chapter 325. of the Revised Code 4597
with regard to employees in the service of the county. Nothing in 4598
this division modifies the powers and duties of the state 4599
personnel board of review with respect to employees in the service 4600
of the county. Nothing in this division limits the right of any 4601
employee who possesses the right of appeal to the state personnel 4602
board of review to continue to possess that right of appeal.4603

       (I) The director of administrative services shall establish 4604
the rate and method of compensation for all employees who are paid 4605
directly by warrant of the director of budget and management and 4606
who are serving in positions that the director of administrative 4607
services has determined impracticable to include in the state job 4608
classification plan. This division does not apply to elected 4609
officials, legislative employees, employees of the legislative 4610
service commission, employees who are in the unclassified civil 4611
service and exempt from collective bargaining coverage in the 4612
office of the secretary of state, auditor of state, treasurer of 4613
state, and attorney general, employees of the courts, employees of 4614
the bureau of workers' compensation whose compensation the 4615
administrator of workers' compensation establishes under division 4616
(B) of section 4121.121 of the Revised Code, or employees of an 4617
appointing authority authorized by law to fix the compensation of 4618
those employees.4619

       (I)(J) The director of administrative services shall set the 4620
rate of compensation for all intermittent, seasonal, temporary, 4621
emergency, and casual employees in the service of the state who 4622
are not considered public employees under section 4117.01 of the 4623
Revised Code. Those employees are not entitled to receive employee 4624
benefits. This rate of compensation shall be equitable in terms of 4625
the rate of employees serving in the same or similar 4626
classifications. This division does not apply to elected 4627
officials, legislative employees, employees of the legislative 4628
service commission, employees who are in the unclassified civil 4629
service and exempt from collective bargaining coverage in the 4630
office of the secretary of state, auditor of state, treasurer of 4631
state, and attorney general, employees of the courts, employees of 4632
the bureau of workers' compensation whose compensation the 4633
administrator establishes under division (B) of section 4121.121 4634
of the Revised Code, or employees of an appointing authority 4635
authorized by law to fix the compensation of those employees.4636

       Sec. 124.231.  (A) As used in this section, "legally blind 4637
person" means any person who qualifies as being blind under any 4638
Ohio or federal statute, or any rule adopted thereunder. As used 4639
in this section, "legally deaf person" means any person who 4640
qualifies as being deaf under any Ohio or federal statute, or any 4641
rule adopted thereunder.4642

       (B) When an examination is to be administered under sections 4643
124.01 to 124.64124.31 of the Revised Code, the director of 4644
administrative services or the director's designee shall whenever 4645
practicable arrange for special examinations to be administered to 4646
legally blind or legally deaf persons applying for positions in 4647
the classified service of the state to ensure that the abilities 4648
of such applicants are properly assessed and that such applicants 4649
are not subject to discrimination because they are legally blind 4650
or legally deaf persons.4651

       Sec. 124.241.  As used in this section, "professional 4652
employee" has the same meaning as in section 5126.20 of the 4653
Revised Code and "registered service employee" means a service 4654
employee, as defined in section 5126.20 of the Revised Code, who 4655
is registered under section 5126.25 of the Revised Code.4656

       County boards of developmental disabilities may hire 4657
professional employees and registered service employees in the 4658
classified service on the basis of the candidates' qualifications 4659
rather than on the basis of the results of ana civil service4660
examination administered by the director of administrative 4661
services pursuant to section 124.23 of the Revised Code.4662

       Sec. 124.25.  The director of administrative services shall 4663
require persons applying for an examination for original 4664
appointment in the service of the state to file with the director 4665
or the director's designee, within reasonable time prior to the 4666
examination, a formal application, in which the applicant shall 4667
state the applicant's name, address, and such other information as 4668
may reasonably be required concerning the applicant's education 4669
and experience. No inquiry shall be made as to religious or 4670
political affiliations or as to racial or ethnic origin of the 4671
applicant, except as necessary to gather equal employment 4672
opportunity or other statistics that, when compiled, will not 4673
identify any specific individual.4674

       Blank forms for applications shall be furnished by the 4675
director or the director's designee without charge to any person 4676
requesting the same. The director or the director's designee may 4677
require in connection with such application such certificate of 4678
persons having knowledge of the applicant as the good of the 4679
service demands. The director or the director's designee may 4680
refuse to appoint or examine an applicant, or, after an 4681
examination, refuse to certify the applicant as eligible, who is 4682
found to lack any of the established preliminary requirements for 4683
the examination, who is addicted to the habitual use of 4684
intoxicating liquors or drugs to excess, who has a pattern of poor 4685
work habits and performance with previous employers, who has been 4686
convicted of a felony, who has been guilty of infamous or 4687
notoriously disgraceful conduct, who has been dismissed from 4688
either branch of the civil service for delinquency or misconduct, 4689
or who has made false statements of any material fact, or 4690
practiced, or attempted to practice, any deception or fraud in the 4691
application or examination, in establishing eligibility, or 4692
securing an appointment.4693

       Sec. 124.26.  From the returns of the examinations for 4694
positions in the service of the state, the director of 4695
administrative services or the director's designee shall prepare 4696
an eligible list of the persons whose general average standing 4697
upon examinations for the class or position is not less than the 4698
minimum fixed by the rules of the director, and who are otherwise 4699
eligible. Those persons shall take rank upon the eligible list as 4700
candidates in the order of their relative excellence as determined 4701
by the examination without reference to priority of the time of 4702
examination. If two or more applicants receive the same mark in an 4703
open competitive examination, priority in the time of filing the 4704
application with the director or the director's designee shall 4705
determine the order in which their names shall be placed on the 4706
eligible list, except that applicants eligible for veteran's 4707
preference under section 124.23 of the Revised Code shall receive 4708
priority in rank on the eligible list over nonveterans on the list 4709
with a rating equal to that of the veteran. Ties among veterans 4710
shall be decided by priority of filing the application. 4711

       . An eligible list expires upon the filling or closing of the 4712
position. An expired eligible list may be used to fill a position 4713
of the same classification within the same appointing authority 4714
for which the list was created. But, in no event shall an expired 4715
list be used more than one year past its expiration date.4716

       Sec. 124.27.  (A) Appointments to all positions in the 4717
classified civil service of the state, that are not filled by 4718
promotion, transfer, or reduction, as provided in sections 124.01 4719
to 124.64 of the Revised Code and the rules of the director 4720
prescribed under those sections, shall be made only from those 4721
persons whose names take rank order on an eligible list, and no 4722
employment, except as provided in those sections, shall be 4723
otherwise given in the classified civil service of this state or 4724
any political subdivision of the state. The appointing authority 4725
shall appoint in the following manner: each time a selection is 4726
made, it shall be from one of the names that ranks in the top 4727
twenty-five per cent of the eligible list. But, in the event that 4728
ten or fewer names are on the eligible list, the appointing 4729
authority may select any of the listed candidates, or if the top 4730
twenty-five per cent of the eligible list is ten or fewer names, 4731
the appointing authority may select from one of the names that 4732
rank in the top ten of the eligible list. Each person who 4733
qualifies for the veteran's preference under section 124.23 of the 4734
Revised Code, who is a resident of this state, and whose name is 4735
on the eligible list for a position is entitled to preference in 4736
original appointment to any such competitive position in the 4737
classified civil service of the state and its civil divisions4738
over all other persons who are eligible for those appointments and 4739
who are standing on the relevant eligible list with a rating equal 4740
to that of the person qualifying for the veteran's preference.4741

       (B) All original and promotional appointments in the civil 4742
service of the state, including appointments made pursuant to 4743
section 124.30 of the Revised Code, but not intermittent 4744
appointments, shall be for a probationary period, not less than 4745
sixty days nor more than one year, to be fixed by the rules of the 4746
director, except as provided in section 124.231 of the Revised 4747
Code, and except for original appointments to a police department 4748
as a police officer or to a fire department as a firefighter which 4749
shall be for a probationary period of one year. No appointment or 4750
promotion is final until the appointee has satisfactorily served 4751
the probationary period. If the service of the probationary 4752
employee is unsatisfactory, the employee may be removed or reduced 4753
at any time during the probationary period. If the appointing 4754
authority decides to remove a probationary employee in the service 4755
of the state, the appointing authority shall communicate the 4756
removal to the director. A probationary employee duly removed or 4757
reduced in position for unsatisfactory service does not have the 4758
right to appeal the removal or reduction under section 124.34 of 4759
the Revised Code.4760

       Sec. 124.30.  (A) PositionsClassified positions in the 4761
classifiedcivil service of the state may be filled without 4762
competition as follows:4763

       (1) Whenever there are urgent reasons for filling a vacancy 4764
in any position in the classified civil service of the state and 4765
the director of administrative services is unable to certify to 4766
the appointing authority, upon its request, a list of persons 4767
eligible for appointment to the position after a competitive 4768
examination, the appointing authority may fill the position by 4769
noncompetitive examination.4770

        A temporary appointment may be made without regard to the 4771
rules of sections 124.01 to 124.64 of the Revised Code. Except as 4772
otherwise provided in this division, the temporary appointment may 4773
not continue longer than one hundred twenty days, and in no case 4774
shall successive temporary appointments be made. A temporary 4775
appointment longer than one hundred twenty days may be made if 4776
necessary by reason of sickness, disability, or other approved 4777
leave of absence of regular officers or employees, in which case 4778
it may continue during the period of sickness, disability, or 4779
other approved leave of absence, subject to the rules of the 4780
director.4781

       (2) In case of a vacancy in a position in the classified 4782
civil service of the state where peculiar and exceptional 4783
qualifications of a scientific, managerial, professional, or 4784
educational character are required, and upon satisfactory evidence 4785
that for specified reasons competition in this special case is 4786
impracticable and that the position can best be filled by a 4787
selection of some designated person of high and recognized 4788
attainments in those qualities, the director may suspend the 4789
provisions of sections 124.01 to 124.64 of the Revised Code that 4790
require competition in this special case, but no suspension shall 4791
be general in its application. All such cases of suspension shall 4792
be reported in the annual report of the director with the reasons 4793
for each suspension. The director shall suspend the provisions 4794
when the director of job and family services provides the 4795
certification under section 5101.051 of the Revised Code that a 4796
position with the department of job and family services can best 4797
be filled if the provisions are suspended.4798

       (3) The acceptance or refusal by an eligible person of a 4799
temporary appointment shall not affect the person's standing on 4800
the eligible list for permanent appointment, nor shall the period 4801
of temporary service be counted as a part of the probationary 4802
service in case of subsequent appointment to a permanent position.4803

       (B) Persons who receive temporary or intermittent 4804
appointments are in the unclassified civil service and serve at 4805
the pleasure of their appointing authority.4806

       Sec. 124.31.  Vacancies in positions in the classified civil4807
service of the state shall be filled insofar as practicable by 4808
promotions. The director of administrative services shall provide 4809
in the director's rules for keeping a record of efficiency for 4810
each employee in the classified civil service of the state, and 4811
for making promotions in the classified civil service of the state 4812
on the basis of merit and by conduct and capacity in office.4813

       Sec. 125.05.  Except as provided in division (F) of this 4814
section, no state agency shall purchase any supplies or services 4815
except as provided in divisions (A) to (D) of this section.4816

       (A) Subject to division (E) of this section, a state agency 4817
may, without competitive selection, make any purchase of supplies 4818
or services that cost twenty-five thousand dollars or less. The 4819
agency may make the purchase directly or may make the purchase 4820
from or through the department of administrative services, 4821
whichever the agency determines. The agency shall adopt written 4822
procedures consistent with the department's purchasing procedures 4823
and shall use those procedures when making purchases under this 4824
division.4825

       (B) Subject to division (E) of this section and in accordance 4826
with section 125.051 of the Revised Code, a state agency may make 4827
purchases of supplies and services that cost more than twenty-five 4828
thousand dollars but less than fifty thousand dollars if the 4829
purchases are made under the direction of an employee of the 4830
agency who is certified by the department to make purchases and if 4831
the purchases comply with the department's purchasing procedures. 4832
Section 127.16 of the Revised Code does not apply to purchases 4833
made under this division. Until the certification effective date 4834
established by the department in rules adopted under section 4835
125.051 of the Revised Code, state agencies may make purchases of 4836
supplies and services that cost more than twenty-five thousand 4837
dollars but less than fifty thousand dollars in the same manner as 4838
provided in division (A) of this section.4839

       (C) Subject to division (E) of this section, a state agency 4840
wanting to purchase supplies or services that cost more than 4841
twenty-five thousand dollars shall, unless otherwise authorized by 4842
law, make the purchase from or through the department. The 4843
department shall make the purchase by competitive selection. If 4844
the director of administrative services determines that it is not 4845
possible or not advantageous to the state for the department to 4846
make the purchase, the department shall grant the agency a release 4847
and permit under section 125.06 of the Revised Code to make the 4848
purchase. Section 127.16 of the Revised Code does not apply to 4849
purchases the department makes under this section.4850

       (D) An agency that has been granted a release and permit to 4851
make a purchase may make the purchase without competitive 4852
selection if after making the purchase the cumulative purchase 4853
threshold as computed under division (E) of section 127.16 of the 4854
Revised Code would:4855

       (1) Be exceeded and the controlling board approves the 4856
purchase;4857

       (2) Not be exceeded and the department of administrative 4858
services approves the purchase.4859

       (E) Not later than the thirty-first day of January of each 4860
even-numbered year, the directors of administrative services and 4861
budget and management shall review and recommend to the general 4862
assembly, if necessary, adjustments to the amounts specified in 4863
divisions (A) to (C) of this section and division (B) of section 4864
127.16 of the Revised Code.4865

       (F) If the eTech Ohio commission, the department of 4866
education, or the Ohio education computer network determines that 4867
it can purchase software services or supplies for specified school 4868
districts at a price less than the price for which the districts 4869
could purchase the same software services or supplies for 4870
themselves, the commission, department, or network shall certify 4871
that fact to the department of administrative services and, acting 4872
as an agent for the specified school districts, shall make that 4873
purchase without following the provisions in divisions (A) to (D) 4874
of this section.4875

       Sec. 125.082.  (A) When purchasing equipment, materials, or 4876
supplies, the general assembly; the offices of all elected state 4877
officers; all departments, boards, offices, commissions, agencies, 4878
institutions, including, without limitation, state-supported 4879
institutions of higher education, and other instrumentalities of 4880
this state; the supreme court; all courts of appeals; and all 4881
courts of common pleas, may purchase recycled products in 4882
accordance with the guidelines adopted under division (B) of this 4883
section if the products are available and meet the performance 4884
specifications of the procuring entities. Purchases of recycled 4885
products shall comply with any rules adopted under division (C) of 4886
this section.4887

       (B) The director of administrative services shall adopt rules 4888
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing 4889
guidelines for the procurement of recycled products pursuant to 4890
division (A) of this section. To the extent practicable, the 4891
guidelines shall do all of the following:4892

       (1) Be consistent with and substantially equivalent to any 4893
relevant regulations adopted by the administrator of the United 4894
States environmental protection agency pursuant to the "Resource 4895
Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976," 90 Stat. 2806, 42 U.S.C.A. 4896
6921, as amended;4897

       (2) Establish the minimum percentage of recycled materials 4898
the various products shall contain in order to be considered 4899
"recycled" for the purposes of division (A) of this section;4900

       (3) So far as practicable and economically feasible, 4901
incorporate specifications for recycled-content materials to 4902
promote the use and purchase of recycled products by state 4903
agencies.4904

       (C) The director may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 4905
119. of the Revised Code establishing a maximum percentage by 4906
which the cost of recycled products purchased under division (A) 4907
of this section may exceed the cost of comparable products made of 4908
virgin materials.4909

       (D) The department of administrative services and the4910
department of natural resourcesenvironmental protection agency4911
annually shall prepare and submit to the governor, president of 4912
the senate, and speaker of the house of representatives a report 4913
that describes, so far as practicable, the value and types of 4914
recycled products that are purchased with moneys disbursed from 4915
the state treasury by the general assembly; the offices of all 4916
elected state officers; and all departments, boards, offices, 4917
commissions, agencies, and institutions of this state.4918

       Sec. 125.14.  (A) The director of administrative services 4919
shall allocate any proceeds from the transfer, sale, or lease of 4920
excess and surplus supplies in the following manner:4921

       (1) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(2) of this 4922
section, the proceeds of such a transfer, sale, or lease shall be 4923
paid into the state treasury to the credit of the investment 4924
recovery fund, which is hereby created.4925

       (2) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(2) of this 4926
section, when supplies originally were purchased with funds from 4927
nongeneral revenue fund sources, the director shall determine what 4928
fund or account originally was used to purchase the supplies, and 4929
the credit for the proceeds from any transfer, sale, or lease of 4930
those supplies shall be transferred to that fund or account. If 4931
the director cannot determine which fund or account originally was 4932
used to purchase the supplies, if the fund or account is no longer 4933
active, or if the proceeds from the transfer, sale, or lease of a 4934
unit of supplies are less than one hundred dollars or any larger 4935
amount the director may establish with the approval of the 4936
director of budget and management, then the proceeds from the 4937
transfer, sale, or lease of such supplies shall be paid into the 4938
state treasury to the credit of the investment recovery fund.4939

       (B) The investment recovery fund shall be used to pay for the 4940
operating expenses of the state surplus property program. Any 4941
amounts in excess of these operating expenses shall periodically 4942
be transferred to the general revenue fund of the state. If 4943
proceeds paid into the investment recovery fund are insufficient 4944
to pay for the program's operating expenses, a service fee may be 4945
charged to state agencies to eliminate the deficit.4946

       (C) Proceeds from the sale of recyclable goods and materials 4947
shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the 4948
recycled materials fund, which is hereby created, except that the 4949
director of natural resourcesenvironmental protection, upon 4950
request, may grant an exemption from this requirement. The chief 4951
of the division of recycling and litter prevention in the 4952
department of natural resourcesdirector shall administer the fund 4953
for the benefit of recycling programs in state agencies.4954

       Sec. 126.14.  The release of any money appropriated for the 4955
purchase of real estate shall be approved by the controlling 4956
board. The release of money appropriated for all other capital 4957
projects is also subject to the approval of the controlling board, 4958
except that the director of budget and management may approve the 4959
release of money appropriated for specific projects in accordance 4960
with the requirements of this section and except that the director 4961
of budget and management may approve the release of unencumbered 4962
capital balances, for a project to repair, remove, or prevent a 4963
public exigency declared to exist by the director of 4964
administrative services under section 123.15123.10 of the Revised 4965
Code, or by the executive director of the Ohio facilities 4966
construction commission under section 123.23 of the Revised Code,4967
in the amount designated in that declaration.4968

       Within sixty days after the effective date of any act 4969
appropriating money for capital projects, the director shall 4970
determine which appropriations are for general projects and which 4971
are for specific projects. Specific projects may include specific 4972
higher education projects that are to be funded from general 4973
purpose appropriations from the higher education improvement fund 4974
created in section 154.21 of the Revised Code. Upon determining 4975
which projects are general and which are specific, the director 4976
shall submit to the controlling board a list that includes a brief 4977
description of and the estimated expenditures for each specific 4978
project. The release of money for any specific higher education 4979
projects that are to be funded from general purpose appropriations 4980
from the higher education improvement fund but that are not 4981
included on the list, and the release of money for any specific 4982
higher education projects included on the list that will exceed 4983
the estimated expenditures by more than ten per cent, are subject 4984
to the approval of the controlling board. The director may create 4985
new appropriation line items and make transfers of appropriations 4986
to them for specific higher education projects included on the 4987
list that are to be funded from general purpose appropriations for 4988
basic renovations that are made from the higher education 4989
improvement fund.4990

       Sec. 140.01.  As used in this chapter:4991

       (A) "Hospital agency" means any public hospital agency or any 4992
nonprofit hospital agency.4993

       (B) "Public hospital agency" means any county, board of 4994
county hospital trustees established pursuant to section 339.02 of 4995
the Revised Code, county hospital commission established pursuant 4996
to section 339.14 of the Revised Code, municipal corporation, new 4997
community authority organized under Chapter 349. of the Revised 4998
Code, joint township hospital district, state or municipal 4999
university or college operating or authorized to operate a 5000
hospital facility, or the state.5001

       (C) "Nonprofit hospital agency" means a corporation or 5002
association not for profit, no part of the net earnings of which 5003
inures or may lawfully inure to the benefit of any private 5004
shareholder or individual, that has authority to own or operate a 5005
hospital facility or provides or is to provide services to one or 5006
more other hospital agencies.5007

       (D) "Governing body" means, in the case of a county, the 5008
board of county commissioners or other legislative body; in the 5009
case of a board of county hospital trustees, the board; in the 5010
case of a county hospital commission, the commission; in the case 5011
of a municipal corporation, the council or other legislative 5012
authority; in the case of a new community authority, its board of 5013
trustees; in the case of a joint township hospital district, the 5014
joint township district hospital board; in the case of a state or 5015
municipal university or college, its board of trustees or board of 5016
directors; in the case of a nonprofit hospital agency, the board 5017
of trustees or other body having general management of the agency; 5018
and, in the case of the state, the director of development or the 5019
Ohio higher educational facility commission.5020

       (E) "Hospital facilities" means buildings, structures and 5021
other improvements, additions thereto and extensions thereof, 5022
furnishings, equipment, and real estate and interests in real 5023
estate, used or to be used for or in connection with one or more 5024
hospitals, emergency, intensive, intermediate, extended, 5025
long-term, or self-care facilities, diagnostic and treatment and 5026
out-patient facilities, facilities related to programs for home 5027
health services, clinics, laboratories, public health centers, 5028
research facilities, and rehabilitation facilities, for or 5029
pertaining to diagnosis, treatment, care, or rehabilitation of 5030
sick, ill, injured, infirm, impaired, disabled, or handicapped 5031
persons, or the prevention, detection, and control of disease, and 5032
also includes education, training, and food service facilities for 5033
health professions personnel, housing facilities for such 5034
personnel and their families, and parking and service facilities 5035
in connection with any of the foregoing; and includes any one, 5036
part of, or any combination of the foregoing; and further includes 5037
site improvements, utilities, machinery, facilities, furnishings, 5038
and any separate or connected buildings, structures, improvements, 5039
sites, utilities, facilities, or equipment to be used in, or in 5040
connection with the operation or maintenance of, or supplementing 5041
or otherwise related to the services or facilities to be provided 5042
by, any one or more of such hospital facilities.5043

       (F) "Costs of hospital facilities" means the costs of 5044
acquiring hospital facilities or interests in hospital facilities, 5045
including membership interests in nonprofit hospital agencies, 5046
costs of constructing hospital facilities, costs of improving one 5047
or more hospital facilities, including reconstructing, 5048
rehabilitating, remodeling, renovating, and enlarging, costs of 5049
equipping and furnishing such facilities, and all financing costs 5050
pertaining thereto, including, without limitation thereto, costs 5051
of engineering, architectural, and other professional services, 5052
designs, plans, specifications and surveys, and estimates of cost, 5053
costs of tests and inspections, the costs of any indemnity or 5054
surety bonds and premiums on insurance, all related direct or 5055
allocable administrative expenses pertaining thereto, fees and 5056
expenses of trustees, depositories, and paying agents for the 5057
obligations, cost of issuance of the obligations and financing 5058
charges and fees and expenses of financial advisors, attorneys, 5059
accountants, consultants and rating services in connection 5060
therewith, capitalized interest on the obligations, amounts 5061
necessary to establish reserves as required by the bond 5062
proceedings, the reimbursement of all moneys advanced or applied 5063
by the hospital agency or others or borrowed from others for the 5064
payment of any item or items of costs of such facilities, and all 5065
other expenses necessary or incident to planning or determining 5066
feasibility or practicability with respect to such facilities, and 5067
such other expenses as may be necessary or incident to the 5068
acquisition, construction, reconstruction, rehabilitation, 5069
remodeling, renovation, enlargement, improvement, equipment, and 5070
furnishing of such facilities, the financing thereof, and the 5071
placing of the same in use and operation, including any one, part 5072
of, or combination of such classes of costs and expenses, and 5073
means the costs of refinancing obligations issued by, or 5074
reimbursement of money advanced by, nonprofit hospital agencies or 5075
others the proceeds of which were used for the payment of costs of 5076
hospital facilities, if the governing body of the public hospital 5077
agency determines that the refinancing or reimbursement advances 5078
the purposes of this chapter, whether or not the refinancing or 5079
reimbursement is in conjunction with the acquisition or 5080
construction of additional hospital facilities.5081

       (G) "Hospital receipts" means all moneys received by or on 5082
behalf of a hospital agency from or in connection with the 5083
ownership, operation, acquisition, construction, improvement, 5084
equipping, or financing of any hospital facilities, including, 5085
without limitation thereto, any rentals and other moneys received 5086
from the lease, sale, or other disposition of hospital facilities, 5087
and any gifts, grants, interest subsidies, or other moneys 5088
received under any federal program for assistance in financing the 5089
costs of hospital facilities, and any other gifts, grants, and 5090
donations, and receipts therefrom, available for financing the 5091
costs of hospital facilities.5092

       (H) "Obligations" means bonds, notes, or other evidences of 5093
indebtedness or obligation, including interest coupons pertaining 5094
thereto, issued or issuable by a public hospital agency to pay 5095
costs of hospital facilities.5096

       (I) "Bond service charges" means principal, interest, and 5097
call premium, if any, required to be paid on obligations.5098

       (J) "Bond proceedings" means one or more ordinances, 5099
resolutions, trust agreements, indentures, and other agreements or 5100
documents, and amendments and supplements to the foregoing, or any 5101
combination thereof, authorizing or providing for the terms, 5102
including any variable interest rates, and conditions applicable 5103
to, or providing for the security of, obligations and the 5104
provisions contained in such obligations.5105

       (K) "Nursing home" has the same meaning as in division (A)(1) 5106
of section 5701.13 of the Revised Code.5107

       (L) "Residential care facility" has the same meaning as in 5108
division (A)(2) of section 5701.13 of the Revised Code.5109

       (M) "Adult care facility" has the same meaning as in division 5110
(A)(3) of section 5701.13 of the Revised Code.5111

       (N) "Independent living facility" means any self-care 5112
facility or other housing facility designed or used as a residence 5113
for elderly persons. An "independent living facility" does not 5114
include a residential facility, or that part of a residential 5115
facility, that is any of the following:5116

       (1) A hospital required to be certified by section 3727.02 of 5117
the Revised Code;5118

       (2) A nursing home or residential care facility;5119

       (3) An adult care facility;5120

       (4) A facility operated by a hospice care program licensed 5121
under section 3712.04 of the Revised Code and used for the 5122
program's hospice patients;5123

        (4) A residential facility licensed by the department of 5124
mental health under section 5119.22 of the Revised Code that 5125
provides accommodations, supervision, and personal care services 5126
for three to sixteen unrelated adults;5127

       (5) A residential facility for the mentally ill licensed by 5128
the department of mental health under section 5119.22 of the 5129
Revised Code that is not a residential facility described in 5130
division (M)(4) of this section;5131

       (6) A facility licensed to provide methadone treatment under 5132
section 3793.11 of the Revised Code;5133

       (7) A facility certified as an alcohol and drug addiction 5134
program under section 3793.06 of the Revised Code;5135

       (8) A residential facility licensed under section 5123.19 of 5136
the Revised Code or a facility providing services under a contract 5137
with the department of developmental disabilities under section 5138
5123.18 of the Revised Code;5139

       (9) A residential facility used as part of a hospital to 5140
provide housing for staff of the hospital or students pursuing a 5141
course of study at the hospital.5142

       Sec. 140.03.  (A) Two or more hospital agencies may enter 5143
into agreements for the acquisition, construction, reconstruction, 5144
rehabilitation, remodeling, renovating, enlarging, equipping, and 5145
furnishing of hospital facilities, or the management, operation, 5146
occupancy, use, maintenance, and repair of hospital facilities, or 5147
for participation in programs, projects, activities, and services 5148
useful to, connected with, supplementing, or otherwise related to 5149
the services provided by, or the operation of, hospital facilities 5150
operated by one or more participating hospital agencies, including 5151
any combination of such purposes, all in such manner as to promote 5152
the public purpose stated in section 140.02 of the Revised Code. A 5153
city health district; general health district; board of alcohol, 5154
drug addiction, and mental health services; county board of 5155
developmental disabilities; the department of mental health; the 5156
department of developmental disabilities; or any public body 5157
engaged in the education or training of health professions 5158
personnel may join in any such agreement for purposes related to 5159
its authority under laws applicable to it, and as such a 5160
participant shall be considered a public hospital agency or 5161
hospital agency for the purposes of this section.5162

       (B) An agreement entered into under authority of this section 5163
shall, where appropriate, provide for:5164

       (1) The manner in which the title to the hospital facilities, 5165
including the sites and interest in real estate pertaining 5166
thereto, is to be held, transferred, or disposed of;5167

       (2) Unless provided for by lease pursuant to section 140.05 5168
of the Revised Code, the method by which such hospital facilities 5169
are to be acquired, constructed, or otherwise improved and by 5170
which they shall be managed, occupied, maintained, and repaired, 5171
including the designation of one of the hospital agencies to have 5172
charge of the details of acquisition, construction, or improvement 5173
pursuant to the contracting procedures prescribed under the law 5174
applicable to one of the participating public hospital agencies;5175

       (3) The management or administration of any such programs, 5176
projects, activities, or services, which may include management or 5177
administration by one of said hospital agencies or a board or 5178
agency thereof;5179

       (4) Annual, or more frequent, reports to the participating 5180
hospital agencies as to the revenues and receipts pertaining to 5181
the subject of the agreement, the expenditures thereof, the status 5182
and application of other funds contributed under such agreement, 5183
and such other matters as may be specified by or pursuant to such 5184
agreement;5185

       (5) The manner of apportionment or sharing of costs of 5186
hospital facilities, any other applicable costs of management, 5187
operation, maintenance, and repair of hospital facilities, and 5188
costs for the programs, projects, activities, and services forming 5189
the subject of the agreement, which apportionment or sharing may 5190
be prescribed in fixed amounts, or determined by ratios, formulas, 5191
or otherwise, and paid as service charges, rentals, or in such 5192
other manner as provided in the agreement, and may include amounts 5193
sufficient to meet the bond service charges and other payments and 5194
deposits required under the bond proceedings for obligations 5195
issued to pay costs of hospital facilities. A hospital agency may 5196
commit itself to make such payments at least for so long as any 5197
such obligations are outstanding. In the apportionment, different 5198
classes of costs or expenses may be apportioned to one or more, 5199
all or less than all, of the participating hospital agencies as 5200
determined under such agreement.5201

       (C) An agreement entered into under authority of this section 5202
may provide for:5203

       (1) An orderly process for making determinations or advising 5204
as to planning, execution, implementation, and operation, which 5205
may include designating one of the hospital agencies, or a board 5206
thereof, for any of such purposes, provisions for a committee, 5207
board, or commission, and for representation thereon, or as may 5208
otherwise be provided;5209

       (2) Securing necessary personnel, including participation of 5210
personnel from the respective hospital agencies;5211

       (3) Standards or conditions for the admission or 5212
participation of patients and physicians;5213

       (4) Conditions for admittance of other hospital agencies to 5214
participation under the agreement;5215

       (5) Fixing or establishing the method of determining charges 5216
to be made for particular services;5217

       (6) The manner of amending, supplementing, terminating, or 5218
withdrawal or removal of any party from, the agreement, and the 5219
term of the agreement, or an indefinite term;5220

       (7) Designation of the applicants for or recipients of any 5221
federal, state, or other aid, assistance, or loans available by 5222
reason of any activities conducted under the agreement;5223

       (8) Designation of one or more of the participating hospital 5224
agencies to maintain, prepare, and submit, on behalf of all 5225
parties to the agreement, any or all records and reports with 5226
regard to the activities conducted under the agreement;5227

       (9) Any incidental use of the hospital facilities, or 5228
services thereof, by participating public hospital agencies for 5229
any of their lawful purposes, which incidental use does not impair 5230
the character of the facilities as hospital facilities for any 5231
purpose of this chapter;5232

       (10) Such other matters as the parties thereto may agree upon 5233
for the purposes of division (A) of this section.5234

       (D) For the purpose of paying or contributing its share under 5235
an agreement made under this section, a public hospital agency 5236
may:5237

       (1) Expend any moneys from its general fund, and from any 5238
other funds not otherwise restricted by law, but including funds 5239
for permanent improvements of hospital facilities of such public 5240
hospital agency where the contribution is to be made toward the 5241
costs of hospital facilities under the agreement, and including 5242
funds derived from levies for, or receipts available for, 5243
operating expenses of hospital facilities or services of such 5244
public hospital agency where the contribution or payment is to be 5245
made toward operating expenses of the hospital facilities or 5246
services under the agreement or for the services provided thereby;5247

       (2) Issue obligations under Chapter 133. or section 140.06, 5248
339.14, 339.15, 513.12, or 3345.12 of the Revised Code, or Section 5249
3 of Article XVIII, Ohio Constitution, if applicable to such 5250
public hospital agency, to pay costs of hospital facilities, or 5251
issue obligations under any other provision of law authorizing 5252
such public hospital agency to issue obligations for any costs of 5253
hospital facilities;5254

       (3) Levy taxes under Chapter 5705. or section 513.13 or 5255
3709.29 of the Revised Code, if applicable to such public hospital 5256
agency, provided that the purpose of such levy may include the 5257
provision of funds for either or both permanent improvements and 5258
current expenses if required for the contribution or payment of 5259
such hospital agency under such agreement, and each such public 5260
hospital agency may issue notes in anticipation of any such levy, 5261
pursuant to the procedures provided in section 5705.191 of the 5262
Revised Code if the levy is solely for current expenses, and in 5263
section 5705.193 of the Revised Code if the levy is all or in part 5264
for permanent improvements;5265

       (4) Contribute real and personal property or interest therein 5266
without necessity for competitive bidding or public auction on 5267
disposition of such property.5268

       (E) Any funds provided by public hospital agencies that are 5269
parties to an agreement entered into under this section shall be 5270
transferred to and placed in a separate fund or funds of such 5271
participating public hospital agency as is designated under the 5272
agreement. The funds shall be applied for the purposes provided in 5273
such agreement and are subject to audit. Pursuant to any 5274
determinations to be made under such agreement, the funds shall be 5275
deposited, invested, and disbursed under the provisions of law 5276
applicable to the public hospital agency in whose custody the 5277
funds are held. This division is subject to the provisions of any 5278
applicable bond proceedings under section 133.08, 140.06, 339.15, 5279
or 3345.12 of the Revised Code or Section 3 of Article XVIII, Ohio 5280
Constitution. The records and reports of such public hospital 5281
agency under Chapter 117. of the Revised Code and sections 3702.51 5282
to 3702.62 of the Revised Code, with respect to the funds shall be 5283
sufficient without necessity for reports thereon by the other 5284
public hospital agencies participating under such agreement.5285

       (F)(1) Prior to its entry into any such agreement, the public 5286
hospital agency must determine, and set forth in a resolution or 5287
ordinance, that the contribution to be made by it under such 5288
agreement will be fair consideration for value and benefit to be 5289
derived by it under such agreement and that the agreement will 5290
promote the public purpose stated in section 140.02 of the Revised 5291
Code.5292

       (2) If the agreement is with a board of county commissioners, 5293
board of county hospital trustees, or county hospital commission 5294
and is an initial agreement for the acquisition or operation of a 5295
county hospital operated by a board of county hospital trustees 5296
under section 339.06 of the Revised Code, the governing body of 5297
the public hospital agency shall submit the agreement, accompanied 5298
by the resolution or ordinance, to the board of county 5299
commissioners for review pursuant to section 339.091 of the 5300
Revised Code. The agreement may be entered into only if the board 5301
of county commissioners adopts a resolution under that section. 5302
The requirements of division (F)(2) of this section do not apply 5303
to the agreement if one or more hospitals classified as general 5304
hospitals by the publicdirector of health council under section 5305
3701.07 of the Revised Code are operating in the same county as 5306
the county hospital.5307

       Sec. 140.05.  (A)(1) A public hospital agency may lease any 5308
hospital facility to one or more hospital agencies for use as a 5309
hospital facility, or to one or more city or general health 5310
districts; boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 5311
services; county boards of developmental disabilities; the 5312
department of mental health; or the department of developmental 5313
disabilities, for uses which they are authorized to make thereof 5314
under the laws applicable to them, or any combination of them, and 5315
they may lease such facilities to or from a hospital agency for 5316
such uses, upon such terms and conditions as are agreed upon by 5317
the parties. Such lease may be for a term of fifty years or less 5318
and may provide for an option of the lessee to renew for a term of 5319
fifty years or less, as therein set forth. Prior to entering into 5320
such lease, the governing body of any public hospital agency 5321
granting such lease must determine, and set forth in a resolution 5322
or ordinance, that such lease will promote the public purpose 5323
stated in section 140.02 of the Revised Code and that the lessor 5324
public hospital agency will be duly benefited thereby.5325

       (2) If the lease is with a board of county commissioners, 5326
board of county hospital trustees, or county hospital commission 5327
and is an agreement for the initial lease of a county hospital 5328
operated by a board of county hospital trustees under section 5329
339.06 of the Revised Code, the governing body of the public 5330
hospital agency shall submit the agreement, accompanied by the 5331
resolution or ordinance, to the board of county commissioners for 5332
review pursuant to section 339.091 of the Revised Code. The 5333
agreement may be entered into only if the board of county 5334
commissioners adopts a resolution under that section. The 5335
requirements of division (A)(2) of this section do not apply to 5336
the lease if one or more hospitals classified as general hospitals 5337
by the publicdirector of health council under section 3701.07 of 5338
the Revised Code are operating in the same county as the county 5339
hospital.5340

       (B) Any lease entered into pursuant to this section shall 5341
provide that in the event that the lessee fails faithfully and 5342
efficiently to administer, maintain, and operate such leased 5343
facilities as hospital facilities, or fails to provide the 5344
services thereof without regard to race, creed, color, or national 5345
origin, or fails to require that any hospital agency using such 5346
facilities or the services thereof shall not discriminate by 5347
reason of race, creed, color, or national origin, after an 5348
opportunity to be heard upon written charges, said lease may be 5349
terminated at the time, in the manner and with consequences 5350
therein provided. If any such lease does not contain terms to the 5351
effect provided in this division, it shall nevertheless be deemed 5352
to contain such terms which shall be implemented as determined by 5353
the governing body of the lessor.5354

       (C) Such lease may provide for rentals commencing at any time 5355
agreed upon, or advance rental, and continuing for such period 5356
therein provided, notwithstanding and without diminution, rebate, 5357
or setoff by reason of time of availability of the hospital 5358
facility for use, delays in construction, failure of completion, 5359
damage or destruction of the hospital facilities, or for any other 5360
reason.5361

       (D) Such lease may provide for the sale or transfer of title 5362
of the leased facilities pursuant to an option to purchase, 5363
lease-purchase, or installment purchase upon terms therein 5364
provided or to be determined as therein provided, which may 5365
include provision for the continued use thereof as a hospital 5366
facility for some reasonable period, taking into account efficient 5367
useful life and other factors, as is provided therein.5368

       (E) Such lease may be entered as part of or in connection 5369
with an agreement pursuant to section 140.03 of the Revised Code. 5370
Any hospital facilities which are the subject of an agreement 5371
entered into under section 140.03 of the Revised Code may be 5372
leased pursuant to this section.5373

       (F) If land acquired by a public hospital agency for a 5374
hospital facility is adjacent to an existing hospital facility 5375
owned by another hospital agency, the public hospital agency may, 5376
in connection with such acquisition or the leasing of such land 5377
and hospital facilities thereon to one or more hospital agencies, 5378
enter into an agreement with the hospital agency which owns such 5379
adjacent hospital facility for the use of common walls in the 5380
construction, operation, or maintenance of hospital facilities of 5381
the public hospital agency. For the purpose of construction, 5382
operation, or maintenance of hospital facilities, a public 5383
hospital agency may acquire by purchase, gift, lease, lease with 5384
option to purchase, lease-purchase, or installment purchase, 5385
easement deed, or other agreement, real estate and interests in 5386
real estate, including rights to use space over, under or upon 5387
real property owned by others, and support, access, common wall, 5388
and other rights in connection therewith. Any public hospital 5389
agency or other political subdivision or any public agency, board, 5390
commission, institution, body, or instrumentality may grant such 5391
real estate, interests, or rights to any hospital agency upon such 5392
terms as are agreed upon without necessity for competitive bidding 5393
or public auction.5394

       Sec. 140.08.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in divisions 5395
(B)(1) and (2) of this section, all hospital facilities purchased, 5396
acquired, constructed, or owned by a public hospital agency, or 5397
financed in whole or in part by obligations issued by a public 5398
hospital agency, and used, or to be used when completed, as 5399
hospital facilities, and the income therefrom, are exempt from all 5400
taxation within this state, including ad valorem and excise taxes, 5401
notwithstanding any other provisions of law, and hospital agencies 5402
are exempt from taxes levied under Chapters 5739. and 5741. of the 5403
Revised Code. The obligations issued hereafter under section 5404
133.08, 140.06, or 339.15 of the Revised Code or Section 3 of 5405
Article XVIII, Ohio Constitution, to pay costs of hospital 5406
facilities or to refund such obligations, and the transfer 5407
thereof, and the interest and other income from such obligations, 5408
including any profit made on the sale thereof, is free from 5409
taxation within the state.5410

       (B)(1) Division (A) of this section does not exempt 5411
independent living facilities from taxes levied on property or 5412
taxes levied under Chapters 5739. and 5741. of the Revised Code. 5413
If an independent living facility or part of such facility becomes 5414
an adult care facility, nursing home, or residential care facility5415
on or after January 10, 1991, a nursing home, residential care 5416
facility, or residential facility described in division (M)(4) of 5417
section 140.01 of the Revised Code, that part of the independent 5418
living facility that is an adult care facility,a nursing home, or5419
residential care facility, or residential facility described in 5420
division (M)(4) of section 140.01 of the Revised Code is exempt 5421
from taxation subject to division (B)(2) of this section on and 5422
after the date it becomes an adult care facility,a nursing home, 5423
or residential care facility, or residential facility described in 5424
division (M)(4) of section 140.01 of the Revised Code.5425

       (2) Division (A) of this section exempts nursing homes, 5426
residential care facilities, and adult careresidential facilities 5427
described in division (M)(4) of section 140.01 of the Revised Code5428
from taxes levied on property and taxes levied under Chapters 5429
5739. and 5741. of the Revised Code only until all obligations 5430
issued to finance such homes or facilities, or all refunding or 5431
series of refundings of those obligations, are redeemed or 5432
otherwise retired.5433

       Sec. 145.01.  As used in this chapter:5434

       (A) "Public employee" means:5435

       (1) Any person holding an office, not elective, under the 5436
state or any county, township, municipal corporation, park 5437
district, conservancy district, sanitary district, health 5438
district, metropolitan housing authority, state retirement board, 5439
Ohio historical society, public library, county law library, union 5440
cemetery, joint hospital, institutional commissary, state 5441
university, or board, bureau, commission, council, committee, 5442
authority, or administrative body as the same are, or have been, 5443
created by action of the general assembly or by the legislative 5444
authority of any of the units of local government named in 5445
division (A)(1) of this section, or employed and paid in whole or 5446
in part by the state or any of the authorities named in division 5447
(A)(1) of this section in any capacity not covered by section 5448
742.01, 3307.01, 3309.01, or 5505.01 of the Revised Code.5449

       (2) A person who is a member of the public employees 5450
retirement system and who continues to perform the same or similar 5451
duties under the direction of a contractor who has contracted to 5452
take over what before the date of the contract was a publicly 5453
operated function. The governmental unit with which the contract 5454
has been made shall be deemed the employer for the purposes of 5455
administering this chapter.5456

       (3) Any person who is an employee of a public employer, 5457
notwithstanding that the person's compensation for that employment 5458
is derived from funds of a person or entity other than the 5459
employer. Credit for such service shall be included as total 5460
service credit, provided that the employee makes the payments 5461
required by this chapter, and the employer makes the payments 5462
required by sections 145.48 and 145.51 of the Revised Code.5463

       (4) A person who elects in accordance with section 145.015 of 5464
the Revised Code to remain a contributing member of the public 5465
employees retirement system.5466

       (5) A person who is an employee of the legal rights service 5467
on September 30, 2012, and continues to be employed by the 5468
nonprofit entity established under Section 319.20 of Am. Sub. H.B. 5469
153 of the 129th general assembly. The nonprofit entity is the 5470
employer for the purpose of this chapter.5471

       In all cases of doubt, the public employees retirement board 5472
shall determine whether any person is a public employee, and its 5473
decision is final.5474

       (B) "Member" means any public employee, other than a public 5475
employee excluded or exempted from membership in the retirement 5476
system by section 145.03, 145.031, 145.032, 145.033, 145.034, 5477
145.035, or 145.38 of the Revised Code. "Member" includes a PERS 5478
retirant who becomes a member under division (C) of section 145.38 5479
of the Revised Code. "Member" also includes a disability benefit 5480
recipient.5481

       (C) "Head of the department" means the elective or appointive 5482
head of the several executive, judicial, and administrative 5483
departments, institutions, boards, and commissions of the state 5484
and local government as the same are created and defined by the 5485
laws of this state or, in case of a charter government, by that 5486
charter.5487

       (D) "Employer" or "public employer" means the state or any 5488
county, township, municipal corporation, park district, 5489
conservancy district, sanitary district, health district, 5490
metropolitan housing authority, state retirement board, Ohio 5491
historical society, public library, county law library, union 5492
cemetery, joint hospital, institutional commissary, state medical 5493
university, state university, or board, bureau, commission, 5494
council, committee, authority, or administrative body as the same 5495
are, or have been, created by action of the general assembly or by 5496
the legislative authority of any of the units of local government 5497
named in this division not covered by section 742.01, 3307.01, 5498
3309.01, or 5505.01 of the Revised Code. In addition, "employer" 5499
means the employer of any public employee.5500

       (E) "Prior service" means all service as a public employee 5501
rendered before January 1, 1935, and all service as an employee of 5502
any employer who comes within the state teachers retirement system 5503
or of the school employees retirement system or of any other 5504
retirement system established under the laws of this state 5505
rendered prior to January 1, 1935, provided that if the employee 5506
claiming the service was employed in any capacity covered by that 5507
other system after that other system was established, credit for 5508
the service may be allowed by the public employees retirement 5509
system only when the employee has made payment, to be computed on 5510
the salary earned from the date of appointment to the date 5511
membership was established in the public employees retirement 5512
system, at the rate in effect at the time of payment, and the 5513
employer has made payment of the corresponding full liability as 5514
provided by section 145.44 of the Revised Code. "Prior service" 5515
also means all service credited for active duty with the armed 5516
forces of the United States as provided in section 145.30 of the 5517
Revised Code.5518

       If an employee who has been granted prior service credit by 5519
the public employees retirement system for service rendered prior 5520
to January 1, 1935, as an employee of a board of education 5521
establishes, before retirement, one year or more of contributing 5522
service in the state teachers retirement system or school 5523
employees retirement system, then the prior service ceases to be 5524
the liability of this system.5525

       If the board determines that a position of any member in any 5526
calendar year prior to January 1, 1935, was a part-time position, 5527
the board shall determine what fractional part of a year's credit 5528
shall be allowed by the following formula:5529

       (1) When the member has been either elected or appointed to 5530
an office the term of which was two or more years and for which an 5531
annual salary is established, the fractional part of the year's 5532
credit shall be computed as follows:5533

       First, when the member's annual salary is one thousand 5534
dollars or less, the service credit for each such calendar year 5535
shall be forty per cent of a year.5536

       Second, for each full one hundred dollars of annual salary 5537
above one thousand dollars, the member's service credit for each 5538
such calendar year shall be increased by two and one-half per 5539
cent.5540

       (2) When the member is paid on a per diem basis, the service 5541
credit for any single year of the service shall be determined by 5542
using the number of days of service for which the compensation was 5543
received in any such year as a numerator and using two hundred 5544
fifty days as a denominator.5545

       (3) When the member is paid on an hourly basis, the service 5546
credit for any single year of the service shall be determined by 5547
using the number of hours of service for which the compensation 5548
was received in any such year as a numerator and using two 5549
thousand hours as a denominator.5550

       (F) "Contributor" means any person who has an account in the 5551
employees' savings fund created by section 145.23 of the Revised 5552
Code. When used in the sections listed in division (B) of section 5553
145.82 of the Revised Code, "contributor" includes any person 5554
participating in a PERS defined contribution plan.5555

       (G) "Beneficiary" or "beneficiaries" means the estate or a 5556
person or persons who, as the result of the death of a member, 5557
contributor, or retirant, qualify for or are receiving some right 5558
or benefit under this chapter.5559

       (H)(1) "Total service credit," except as provided in section 5560
145.37 of the Revised Code, means all service credited to a member 5561
of the retirement system since last becoming a member, including 5562
restored service credit as provided by section 145.31 of the 5563
Revised Code; credit purchased under sections 145.293 and 145.299 5564
of the Revised Code; all the member's prior service credit; all 5565
the member's military service credit computed as provided in this 5566
chapter; all service credit established pursuant to section 5567
145.297 of the Revised Code; and any other service credited under 5568
this chapter. In addition, "total service credit" includes any 5569
period, not in excess of three years, during which a member was 5570
out of service and receiving benefits under Chapters 4121. and 5571
4123. of the Revised Code. For the exclusive purpose of satisfying 5572
the service credit requirement and of determining eligibility for 5573
benefits under sections 145.32, 145.33, 145.331, 145.35, 145.36, 5574
and 145.361 of the Revised Code, "five or more years of total 5575
service credit" means sixty or more calendar months of 5576
contributing service in this system.5577

       (2) "One and one-half years of contributing service credit," 5578
as used in division (B) of section 145.45 of the Revised Code, 5579
also means eighteen or more calendar months of employment by a 5580
municipal corporation that formerly operated its own retirement 5581
plan for its employees or a part of its employees, provided that 5582
all employees of that municipal retirement plan who have eighteen 5583
or more months of such employment, upon establishing membership in 5584
the public employees retirement system, shall make a payment of 5585
the contributions they would have paid had they been members of 5586
this system for the eighteen months of employment preceding the 5587
date membership was established. When that payment has been made 5588
by all such employee members, a corresponding payment shall be 5589
paid into the employers' accumulation fund by that municipal 5590
corporation as the employer of the employees.5591

       (3) Where a member also is a member of the state teachers 5592
retirement system or the school employees retirement system, or 5593
both, except in cases of retirement on a combined basis pursuant 5594
to section 145.37 of the Revised Code or as provided in section 5595
145.383 of the Revised Code, service credit for any period shall 5596
be credited on the basis of the ratio that contributions to the 5597
public employees retirement system bear to total contributions in 5598
all state retirement systems.5599

       (4) Not more than one year of credit may be given for any 5600
period of twelve months.5601

       (5) "Ohio service credit" means credit for service that was 5602
rendered to the state or any of its political subdivisions or any 5603
employer.5604

       (I) "Regular interest" means interest at any rates for the 5605
respective funds and accounts as the public employees retirement 5606
board may determine from time to time.5607

       (J) "Accumulated contributions" means the sum of all amounts 5608
credited to a contributor's individual account in the employees' 5609
savings fund together with any interest credited to the 5610
contributor's account under section 145.471 or 145.472 of the 5611
Revised Code.5612

       (K)(1) "Final average salary" means the quotient obtained by 5613
dividing by three the sum of the three full calendar years of 5614
contributing service in which the member's earnable salary was 5615
highest, except that if the member has a partial year of 5616
contributing service in the year the member's employment 5617
terminates and the member's earnable salary for the partial year 5618
is higher than for any comparable period in the three years, the 5619
member's earnable salary for the partial year shall be substituted 5620
for the member's earnable salary for the comparable period during 5621
the three years in which the member's earnable salary was lowest.5622

       (2) If a member has less than three years of contributing 5623
service, the member's final average salary shall be the member's 5624
total earnable salary divided by the total number of years, 5625
including any fraction of a year, of the member's contributing 5626
service.5627

       (3) For the purpose of calculating benefits payable to a 5628
member qualifying for service credit under division (Z) of this 5629
section, "final average salary" means the total earnable salary on 5630
which contributions were made divided by the total number of years 5631
during which contributions were made, including any fraction of a 5632
year. If contributions were made for less than twelve months, 5633
"final average salary" means the member's total earnable salary.5634

       (L) "Annuity" means payments for life derived from 5635
contributions made by a contributor and paid from the annuity and 5636
pension reserve fund as provided in this chapter. All annuities 5637
shall be paid in twelve equal monthly installments.5638

       (M) "Annuity reserve" means the present value, computed upon 5639
the basis of the mortality and other tables adopted by the board, 5640
of all payments to be made on account of any annuity, or benefit 5641
in lieu of any annuity, granted to a retirant as provided in this 5642
chapter.5643

       (N)(1) "Disability retirement" means retirement as provided 5644
in section 145.36 of the Revised Code.5645

       (2) "Disability allowance" means an allowance paid on account 5646
of disability under section 145.361 of the Revised Code.5647

       (3) "Disability benefit" means a benefit paid as disability 5648
retirement under section 145.36 of the Revised Code, as a 5649
disability allowance under section 145.361 of the Revised Code, or 5650
as a disability benefit under section 145.37 of the Revised Code.5651

       (4) "Disability benefit recipient" means a member who is 5652
receiving a disability benefit.5653

       (O) "Age and service retirement" means retirement as provided 5654
in sections 145.32, 145.33, 145.331, 145.34, 145.37, and 145.46 of 5655
the Revised Code.5656

       (P) "Pensions" means annual payments for life derived from 5657
contributions made by the employer that at the time of retirement 5658
are credited into the annuity and pension reserve fund from the 5659
employers' accumulation fund and paid from the annuity and pension 5660
reserve fund as provided in this chapter. All pensions shall be 5661
paid in twelve equal monthly installments.5662

       (Q) "Retirement allowance" means the pension plus that 5663
portion of the benefit derived from contributions made by the 5664
member.5665

       (R)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (R) of this 5666
section, "earnable salary" means all salary, wages, and other 5667
earnings paid to a contributor by reason of employment in a 5668
position covered by the retirement system. The salary, wages, and 5669
other earnings shall be determined prior to determination of the 5670
amount required to be contributed to the employees' savings fund 5671
under section 145.47 of the Revised Code and without regard to 5672
whether any of the salary, wages, or other earnings are treated as 5673
deferred income for federal income tax purposes. "Earnable salary" 5674
includes the following:5675

       (a) Payments made by the employer in lieu of salary, wages, 5676
or other earnings for sick leave, personal leave, or vacation used 5677
by the contributor;5678

       (b) Payments made by the employer for the conversion of sick 5679
leave, personal leave, and vacation leave accrued, but not used if 5680
the payment is made during the year in which the leave is accrued, 5681
except that payments made pursuant to section 124.383 or 124.386 5682
of the Revised Code are not earnable salary;5683

       (c) Allowances paid by the employer for full maintenance, 5684
consisting of housing, laundry, and meals, as certified to the 5685
retirement board by the employer or the head of the department 5686
that employs the contributor;5687

       (d) Fees and commissions paid under section 507.09 of the 5688
Revised Code;5689

       (e) Payments that are made under a disability leave program 5690
sponsored by the employer and for which the employer is required 5691
by section 145.296 of the Revised Code to make periodic employer 5692
and employee contributions;5693

       (f) Amounts included pursuant to divisions (K)(3) and (Y) of 5694
this section.5695

       (2) "Earnable salary" does not include any of the following:5696

       (a) Fees and commissions, other than those paid under section 5697
507.09 of the Revised Code, paid as sole compensation for personal 5698
services and fees and commissions for special services over and 5699
above services for which the contributor receives a salary;5700

       (b) Amounts paid by the employer to provide life insurance, 5701
sickness, accident, endowment, health, medical, hospital, dental, 5702
or surgical coverage, or other insurance for the contributor or 5703
the contributor's family, or amounts paid by the employer to the 5704
contributor in lieu of providing the insurance;5705

       (c) Incidental benefits, including lodging, food, laundry, 5706
parking, or services furnished by the employer, or use of the 5707
employer's property or equipment, or amounts paid by the employer 5708
to the contributor in lieu of providing the incidental benefits;5709

       (d) Reimbursement for job-related expenses authorized by the 5710
employer, including moving and travel expenses and expenses 5711
related to professional development;5712

       (e) Payments for accrued but unused sick leave, personal 5713
leave, or vacation that are made at any time other than in the 5714
year in which the sick leave, personal leave, or vacation was 5715
accrued;5716

       (f) Payments made to or on behalf of a contributor that are 5717
in excess of the annual compensation that may be taken into 5718
account by the retirement system under division (a)(17) of section 5719
401 of the "Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 5720
U.S.C.A. 401(a)(17), as amended;5721

       (g) Payments made under division (B), (C), or (E) of section 5722
5923.05 of the Revised Code, Section 4 of Substitute Senate Bill 5723
No. 3 of the 119th general assembly, Section 3 of Amended 5724
Substitute Senate Bill No. 164 of the 124th general assembly, or 5725
Amended Substitute House Bill No. 405 of the 124th general 5726
assembly;5727

       (h) Anything of value received by the contributor that is 5728
based on or attributable to retirement or an agreement to retire, 5729
except that payments made on or before January 1, 1989, that are 5730
based on or attributable to an agreement to retire shall be 5731
included in earnable salary if both of the following apply:5732

       (i) The payments are made in accordance with contract 5733
provisions that were in effect prior to January 1, 1986;5734

       (ii) The employer pays the retirement system an amount 5735
specified by the retirement board equal to the additional 5736
liability resulting from the payments.5737

       (3) The retirement board shall determine by rule whether any 5738
compensation not enumerated in division (R) of this section is 5739
earnable salary, and its decision shall be final.5740

       (S) "Pension reserve" means the present value, computed upon 5741
the basis of the mortality and other tables adopted by the board, 5742
of all payments to be made on account of any retirement allowance 5743
or benefit in lieu of any retirement allowance, granted to a 5744
member or beneficiary under this chapter.5745

       (T)(1) "Contributing service" means all service credited to a 5746
member of the system since January 1, 1935, for which 5747
contributions are made as required by sections 145.47, 145.48, and 5748
145.483 of the Revised Code. In any year subsequent to 1934, 5749
credit for any service shall be allowed by the following formula:5750

       (a) For each month for which the member's earnable salary is 5751
two hundred fifty dollars or more, allow one month's credit.5752

       (b) For each month for which the member's earnable salary is 5753
less than two hundred fifty dollars, allow a fraction of a month's 5754
credit. The numerator of this fraction shall be the earnable 5755
salary during the month, and the denominator shall be two hundred 5756
fifty dollars, except that if the member's annual earnable salary 5757
is less than six hundred dollars, the member's credit shall not be 5758
reduced below twenty per cent of a year for a calendar year of 5759
employment during which the member worked each month. Division 5760
(T)(1)(b) of this section shall not reduce any credit earned 5761
before January 1, 1985.5762

       (2) Notwithstanding division (T)(1) of this section, an 5763
elected official who prior to January 1, 1980, was granted a full 5764
year of credit for each year of service as an elected official 5765
shall be considered to have earned a full year of credit for each 5766
year of service regardless of whether the service was full-time or 5767
part-time. The public employees retirement board has no authority 5768
to reduce the credit.5769

       (U) "State retirement board" means the public employees 5770
retirement board, the school employees retirement board, or the 5771
state teachers retirement board.5772

       (V) "Retirant" means any former member who retires and is 5773
receiving a monthly allowance as provided in sections 145.32, 5774
145.33, 145.331, 145.34, and 145.46 of the Revised Code.5775

       (W) "Employer contribution" means the amount paid by an 5776
employer as determined under section 145.48 of the Revised Code.5777

       (X) "Public service terminates" means the last day for which 5778
a public employee is compensated for services performed for an 5779
employer or the date of the employee's death, whichever occurs 5780
first.5781

       (Y) When a member has been elected or appointed to an office, 5782
the term of which is two or more years, for which an annual salary 5783
is established, and in the event that the salary of the office is 5784
increased and the member is denied the additional salary by reason 5785
of any constitutional provision prohibiting an increase in salary 5786
during a term of office, the member may elect to have the amount 5787
of the member's contributions calculated upon the basis of the 5788
increased salary for the office. At the member's request, the 5789
board shall compute the total additional amount the member would 5790
have contributed, or the amount by which each of the member's 5791
contributions would have increased, had the member received the 5792
increased salary for the office the member holds. If the member 5793
elects to have the amount by which the member's contribution would 5794
have increased withheld from the member's salary, the member shall 5795
notify the employer, and the employer shall make the withholding 5796
and transmit it to the retirement system. A member who has not 5797
elected to have that amount withheld may elect at any time to make 5798
a payment to the retirement system equal to the additional amount 5799
the member's contribution would have increased, plus interest on 5800
that contribution, compounded annually at a rate established by 5801
the board and computed from the date on which the last 5802
contribution would have been withheld from the member's salary to 5803
the date of payment. A member may make a payment for part of the 5804
period for which the increased contribution was not withheld, in 5805
which case the interest shall be computed from the date the last 5806
contribution would have been withheld for the period for which the 5807
payment is made. Upon the payment of the increased contributions 5808
as provided in this division, the increased annual salary as 5809
provided by law for the office for the period for which the member 5810
paid increased contributions thereon shall be used in determining 5811
the member's earnable salary for the purpose of computing the 5812
member's final average salary.5813

       (Z) "Five years of service credit," for the exclusive purpose 5814
of satisfying the service credit requirements and of determining 5815
eligibility for benefits under section 145.33 of the Revised Code, 5816
means employment covered under this chapter or under a former 5817
retirement plan operated, recognized, or endorsed by the employer 5818
prior to coverage under this chapter or under a combination of the 5819
coverage.5820

       (AA) "Deputy sheriff" means any person who is commissioned 5821
and employed as a full-time peace officer by the sheriff of any 5822
county, and has been so employed since on or before December 31, 5823
1965; any person who is or has been commissioned and employed as a 5824
peace officer by the sheriff of any county since January 1, 1966, 5825
and who has received a certificate attesting to the person's 5826
satisfactory completion of the peace officer training school as 5827
required by section 109.77 of the Revised Code; or any person 5828
deputized by the sheriff of any county and employed pursuant to 5829
section 2301.12 of the Revised Code as a criminal bailiff or court 5830
constable who has received a certificate attesting to the person's 5831
satisfactory completion of the peace officer training school as 5832
required by section 109.77 of the Revised Code.5833

       (BB) "Township constable or police officer in a township 5834
police department or district" means any person who is 5835
commissioned and employed as a full-time peace officer pursuant to 5836
Chapter 505. or 509. of the Revised Code, who has received a 5837
certificate attesting to the person's satisfactory completion of 5838
the peace officer training school as required by section 109.77 of 5839
the Revised Code.5840

       (CC) "Drug agent" means any person who is either of the 5841
following:5842

       (1) Employed full time as a narcotics agent by a county 5843
narcotics agency created pursuant to section 307.15 of the Revised 5844
Code and has received a certificate attesting to the satisfactory 5845
completion of the peace officer training school as required by 5846
section 109.77 of the Revised Code;5847

       (2) Employed full time as an undercover drug agent as defined 5848
in section 109.79 of the Revised Code and is in compliance with 5849
section 109.77 of the Revised Code.5850

       (DD) "Department of public safety enforcement agent" means a 5851
full-time employee of the department of public safety who is 5852
designated under section 5502.14 of the Revised Code as an 5853
enforcement agent and who is in compliance with section 109.77 of 5854
the Revised Code.5855

       (EE) "Natural resources law enforcement staff officer" means 5856
a full-time employee of the department of natural resources who is 5857
designated a natural resources law enforcement staff officer under 5858
section 1501.013 of the Revised Code and is in compliance with 5859
section 109.77 of the Revised Code.5860

       (FF) "Park officer" means a full-time employee of the 5861
department of natural resources who is designated a park officer 5862
under section 1541.10 of the Revised Code and is in compliance 5863
with section 109.77 of the Revised Code.5864

       (GG) "Forest officer" means a full-time employee of the 5865
department of natural resources who is designated a forest officer 5866
under section 1503.29 of the Revised Code and is in compliance 5867
with section 109.77 of the Revised Code.5868

       (HH) "Preserve officer" means a full-time employee of the 5869
department of natural resources who is designated a preserve 5870
officer under section 1517.10 of the Revised Code and is in 5871
compliance with section 109.77 of the Revised Code.5872

       (II) "Wildlife officer" means a full-time employee of the 5873
department of natural resources who is designated a wildlife 5874
officer under section 1531.13 of the Revised Code and is in 5875
compliance with section 109.77 of the Revised Code.5876

       (JJ) "State watercraft officer" means a full-time employee of 5877
the department of natural resources who is designated a state 5878
watercraft officer under section 1547.521 of the Revised Code and 5879
is in compliance with section 109.77 of the Revised Code.5880

       (KK) "Park district police officer" means a full-time 5881
employee of a park district who is designated pursuant to section 5882
511.232 or 1545.13 of the Revised Code and is in compliance with 5883
section 109.77 of the Revised Code.5884

       (LL) "Conservancy district officer" means a full-time 5885
employee of a conservancy district who is designated pursuant to 5886
section 6101.75 of the Revised Code and is in compliance with 5887
section 109.77 of the Revised Code.5888

       (MM) "Municipal police officer" means a member of the 5889
organized police department of a municipal corporation who is 5890
employed full time, is in compliance with section 109.77 of the 5891
Revised Code, and is not a member of the Ohio police and fire 5892
pension fund.5893

       (NN) "Veterans' home police officer" means any person who is 5894
employed at a veterans' home as a police officer pursuant to 5895
section 5907.02 of the Revised Code and is in compliance with 5896
section 109.77 of the Revised Code.5897

       (OO) "Special police officer for a mental health institution" 5898
means any person who is designated as such pursuant to section 5899
5119.14 of the Revised Code and is in compliance with section 5900
109.77 of the Revised Code.5901

       (PP) "Special police officer for an institution for the 5902
mentally retarded and developmentally disabled" means any person 5903
who is designated as such pursuant to section 5123.13 of the 5904
Revised Code and is in compliance with section 109.77 of the 5905
Revised Code.5906

       (QQ) "State university law enforcement officer" means any 5907
person who is employed full time as a state university law 5908
enforcement officer pursuant to section 3345.04 of the Revised 5909
Code and who is in compliance with section 109.77 of the Revised 5910
Code.5911

       (RR) "House sergeant at arms" means any person appointed by 5912
the speaker of the house of representatives under division (B)(1) 5913
of section 101.311 of the Revised Code who has arrest authority 5914
under division (E)(1) of that section.5915

       (SS) "Assistant house sergeant at arms" means any person 5916
appointed by the house sergeant at arms under division (C)(1) of 5917
section 101.311 of the Revised Code.5918

       (TT) "Regional transit authority police officer" means a 5919
person who is employed full time as a regional transit authority 5920
police officer under division (Y) of section 306.35 of the Revised 5921
Code and is in compliance with section 109.77 of the Revised Code.5922

       (UU) "State highway patrol police officer" means a special 5923
police officer employed full time and designated by the 5924
superintendent of the state highway patrol pursuant to section 5925
5503.09 of the Revised Code or a person serving full time as a 5926
special police officer pursuant to that section on a permanent 5927
basis on October 21, 1997, who is in compliance with section 5928
109.77 of the Revised Code.5929

       (VV) "Municipal public safety director" means a person who 5930
serves full time as the public safety director of a municipal 5931
corporation with the duty of directing the activities of the 5932
municipal corporation's police department and fire department.5933

        (WW) Notwithstanding section 2901.01 of the Revised Code, 5934
"PERS law enforcement officer" means a sheriff or any of the 5935
following whose primary duties are to preserve the peace, protect 5936
life and property, and enforce the laws of this state: a deputy 5937
sheriff, township constable or police officer in a township police 5938
department or district, drug agent, department of public safety 5939
enforcement agent, natural resources law enforcement staff 5940
officer, park officer, forest officer, preserve officer, wildlife 5941
officer, state watercraft officer, park district police officer, 5942
conservancy district officer, veterans' home police officer, 5943
special police officer for a mental health institution, special 5944
police officer for an institution for the mentally retarded and 5945
developmentally disabled, state university law enforcement 5946
officer, municipal police officer, house sergeant at arms, 5947
assistant house sergeant at arms, regional transit authority 5948
police officer, or state highway patrol police officer. PERS law 5949
enforcement officer also includes a person serving as a municipal 5950
public safety director at any time during the period from 5951
September 29, 2005, to March 24, 2009, if the duties of that 5952
service were to preserve the peace, protect life and property, and 5953
enforce the laws of this state.5954

       (XX) "Hamilton county municipal court bailiff" means a person 5955
appointed by the clerk of courts of the Hamilton county municipal 5956
court under division (A)(3) of section 1901.32 of the Revised Code 5957
who is employed full time as a bailiff or deputy bailiff, who has 5958
received a certificate attesting to the person's satisfactory 5959
completion of the peace officer basic training described in 5960
division (D)(1) of section 109.77 of the Revised Code.5961

       (YY) "PERS public safety officer" means a Hamilton county 5962
municipal court bailiff, or any of the following whose primary 5963
duties are other than to preserve the peace, protect life and 5964
property, and enforce the laws of this state: a deputy sheriff, 5965
township constable or police officer in a township police 5966
department or district, drug agent, department of public safety 5967
enforcement agent, natural resources law enforcement staff 5968
officer, park officer, forest officer, preserve officer, wildlife 5969
officer, state watercraft officer, park district police officer, 5970
conservancy district officer, veterans' home police officer, 5971
special police officer for a mental health institution, special 5972
police officer for an institution for the mentally retarded and 5973
developmentally disabled, state university law enforcement 5974
officer, municipal police officer, house sergeant at arms, 5975
assistant house sergeant at arms, regional transit authority 5976
police officer, or state highway patrol police officer. "PERS 5977
public safety officer" also includes a person serving as a 5978
municipal public safety director at any time during the period 5979
from September 29, 2005, to March 24, 2009, if the duties of that 5980
service were other than to preserve the peace, protect life and 5981
property, and enforce the laws of this state.5982

       (ZZ) "Fiduciary" means a person who does any of the 5983
following:5984

       (1) Exercises any discretionary authority or control with 5985
respect to the management of the system or with respect to the 5986
management or disposition of its assets;5987

       (2) Renders investment advice for a fee, direct or indirect, 5988
with respect to money or property of the system;5989

       (3) Has any discretionary authority or responsibility in the 5990
administration of the system.5991

       (AAA) "Actuary" means an individual who satisfies all of the 5992
following requirements:5993

       (1) Is a member of the American academy of actuaries;5994

       (2) Is an associate or fellow of the society of actuaries;5995

       (3) Has a minimum of five years' experience in providing 5996
actuarial services to public retirement plans.5997

       (BBB) "PERS defined benefit plan" means the plan described in 5998
sections 145.201 to 145.79 of the Revised Code.5999

       (CCC) "PERS defined contribution plans" means the plan or 6000
plans established under section 145.81 of the Revised Code.6001

       Sec. 145.012.  (A) "Public employee," as defined in division 6002
(A) of section 145.01 of the Revised Code, does not include any 6003
person:6004

       (1) Who is employed by a private, temporary-help service and 6005
performs services under the direction of a public employer or is 6006
employed on a contractual basis as an independent contractor under 6007
a personal service contract with a public employer;6008

       (2) Who is an emergency employee serving on a temporary basis 6009
in case of fire, snow, earthquake, flood, or other similar 6010
emergency;6011

       (3) Who is employed in a program established pursuant to the 6012
"Job Training Partnership Act," 96 Stat. 1322 (1982), 29 U.S.C.A. 6013
1501;6014

       (4) Who is an appointed member of either the motor vehicle 6015
salvage dealers board or the motor vehicle dealer's board whose 6016
rate and method of payment are determined pursuant to division (J) 6017
of section 124.15 of the Revised Code;6018

       (5) Who is employed as an election worker and paid less than 6019
five hundred dollars per calendar year for that service;6020

       (6) Who is employed as a firefighter in a position requiring 6021
satisfactory completion of a firefighter training course approved 6022
under former section 3303.07 or section 4765.55 of the Revised 6023
Code or conducted under section 3737.33 of the Revised Code except 6024
for the following:6025

       (a) Any firefighter who has elected under section 145.013 of 6026
the Revised Code to remain a contributing member of the public 6027
employees retirement system;6028

       (b) Any firefighter who was eligible to transfer from the 6029
public employees retirement system to the Ohio police and fire 6030
pension fund under section 742.51 or 742.515 of the Revised Code 6031
and did not elect to transfer;6032

       (c) Any firefighter who has elected under section 742.516 of 6033
the Revised Code to transfer from the Ohio police and fire pension 6034
fund to the public employees retirement system.6035

       (7) Who is a member of the board of health of a city or 6036
general health district, which pursuant to sections 3709.051 and 6037
3709.07 of the Revised Code includes a combined health district, 6038
and whose compensation for attendance at meetings of the board is 6039
set forth in division (B) of section 3709.02 or division (B) of 6040
section 3709.05 of the Revised Code, as appropriate;6041

       (8) Who participates in an alternative retirement plan 6042
established under Chapter 3305. of the Revised Code;6043

       (9) Who is a member of the board of directors of a sanitary 6044
district established under Chapter 6115. of the Revised Code;6045

       (10) Who is a member of the unemployment compensation 6046
advisory council;6047

       (11) Who is an employee, officer, or governor-appointed 6048
member of the board of directors of the nonprofit corporation 6049
formed under section 187.01 of the Revised Code;6050

       (12) Who is employed by the nonprofit entity established to 6051
provide advocacy services and a client assistance program for 6052
people with disabilities under Section 319.20 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 6053
of the 129th general assembly and whose employment begins on or 6054
after October 1, 2012.6055

       (B) No inmate of a correctional institution operated by the 6056
department of rehabilitation and correction, no patient in a 6057
hospital for the mentally ill or criminally insane operated by the 6058
department of mental health, no resident in an institution for the 6059
mentally retarded operated by the department of developmental 6060
disabilities, no resident admitted as a patient of a veterans' 6061
home operated under Chapter 5907. of the Revised Code, and no 6062
resident of a county home shall be considered as a public employee 6063
for the purpose of establishing membership or calculating service 6064
credit or benefits under this chapter. Nothing in this division 6065
shall be construed to affect any service credit attained by any 6066
person who was a public employee before becoming an inmate, 6067
patient, or resident at any institution listed in this division, 6068
or the payment of any benefit for which such a person or such a 6069
person's beneficiaries otherwise would be eligible.6070

       Sec. 149.43.  (A) As used in this section:6071

       (1) "Public record" means records kept by any public office, 6072
including, but not limited to, state, county, city, village, 6073
township, and school district units, and records pertaining to the 6074
delivery of educational services by an alternative school in this 6075
state kept by the nonprofit or for-profit entity operating the 6076
alternative school pursuant to section 3313.533 of the Revised 6077
Code. "Public record" does not mean any of the following:6078

       (a) Medical records;6079

       (b) Records pertaining to probation and parole proceedings or 6080
to proceedings related to the imposition of community control 6081
sanctions and post-release control sanctions;6082

       (c) Records pertaining to actions under section 2151.85 and 6083
division (C) of section 2919.121 of the Revised Code and to 6084
appeals of actions arising under those sections;6085

       (d) Records pertaining to adoption proceedings, including the 6086
contents of an adoption file maintained by the department of 6087
health under section 3705.12 of the Revised Code;6088

       (e) Information in a record contained in the putative father 6089
registry established by section 3107.062 of the Revised Code, 6090
regardless of whether the information is held by the department of 6091
job and family services or, pursuant to section 3111.69 of the 6092
Revised Code, the office of child support in the department or a 6093
child support enforcement agency;6094

       (f) Records listed in division (A) of section 3107.42 of the 6095
Revised Code or specified in division (A) of section 3107.52 of 6096
the Revised Code;6097

       (g) Trial preparation records;6098

       (h) Confidential law enforcement investigatory records;6099

       (i) Records containing information that is confidential under 6100
section 2710.03 or 4112.05 of the Revised Code;6101

       (j) DNA records stored in the DNA database pursuant to 6102
section 109.573 of the Revised Code;6103

       (k) Inmate records released by the department of 6104
rehabilitation and correction to the department of youth services 6105
or a court of record pursuant to division (E) of section 5120.21 6106
of the Revised Code;6107

       (l) Records maintained by the department of youth services 6108
pertaining to children in its custody released by the department 6109
of youth services to the department of rehabilitation and 6110
correction pursuant to section 5139.05 of the Revised Code;6111

       (m) Intellectual property records;6112

       (n) Donor profile records;6113

       (o) Records maintained by the department of job and family 6114
services pursuant to section 3121.894 of the Revised Code;6115

       (p) Peace officer, parole officer, probation officer, 6116
bailiff, prosecuting attorney, assistant prosecuting attorney, 6117
correctional employee, community-based correctional facility 6118
employee, youth services employee, firefighter, EMT, or 6119
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 6120
investigation residential and familial information;6121

       (q) In the case of a county hospital operated pursuant to 6122
Chapter 339. of the Revised Code or a municipal hospital operated 6123
pursuant to Chapter 749. of the Revised Code, information that 6124
constitutes a trade secret, as defined in section 1333.61 of the 6125
Revised Code;6126

       (r) Information pertaining to the recreational activities of 6127
a person under the age of eighteen;6128

       (s) Records provided to, statements made by review board 6129
members during meetings of, and all work products of a child 6130
fatality review board acting under sections 307.621 to 307.629 of 6131
the Revised Code, and child fatality review data submitted by the 6132
child fatality review board to the department of health or a 6133
national child death review database, other than the report 6134
prepared pursuant to division (A) of section 307.626 of the 6135
Revised Code;6136

       (t) Records provided to and statements made by the executive 6137
director of a public children services agency or a prosecuting 6138
attorney acting pursuant to section 5153.171 of the Revised Code 6139
other than the information released under that section;6140

       (u) Test materials, examinations, or evaluation tools used in 6141
an examination for licensure as a nursing home administrator that 6142
the board of examiners of nursing home administrators administers 6143
under section 4751.04 of the Revised Code or contracts under that 6144
section with a private or government entity to administer;6145

       (v) Records the release of which is prohibited by state or 6146
federal law;6147

       (w) Proprietary information of or relating to any person that 6148
is submitted to or compiled by the Ohio venture capital authority 6149
created under section 150.01 of the Revised Code;6150

       (x) Information reported and evaluations conducted pursuant 6151
to section 3701.072 of the Revised Code;6152

       (y) Financial statements and data any person submits for any 6153
purpose to the Ohio housing finance agency or the controlling 6154
board in connection with applying for, receiving, or accounting 6155
for financial assistance from the agency, and information that 6156
identifies any individual who benefits directly or indirectly from 6157
financial assistance from the agency;6158

       (z) Records listed in section 5101.29 of the Revised Code;6159

       (aa) Discharges recorded with a county recorder under section 6160
317.24 of the Revised Code, as specified in division (B)(2) of 6161
that section;6162

       (bb) Usage information including names and addresses of 6163
specific residential and commercial customers of a municipally 6164
owned or operated public utility.6165

       (2) "Confidential law enforcement investigatory record" means 6166
any record that pertains to a law enforcement matter of a 6167
criminal, quasi-criminal, civil, or administrative nature, but 6168
only to the extent that the release of the record would create a 6169
high probability of disclosure of any of the following:6170

       (a) The identity of a suspect who has not been charged with 6171
the offense to which the record pertains, or of an information 6172
source or witness to whom confidentiality has been reasonably 6173
promised;6174

       (b) Information provided by an information source or witness 6175
to whom confidentiality has been reasonably promised, which 6176
information would reasonably tend to disclose the source's or 6177
witness's identity;6178

       (c) Specific confidential investigatory techniques or 6179
procedures or specific investigatory work product;6180

       (d) Information that would endanger the life or physical 6181
safety of law enforcement personnel, a crime victim, a witness, or 6182
a confidential information source.6183

       (3) "Medical record" means any document or combination of 6184
documents, except births, deaths, and the fact of admission to or 6185
discharge from a hospital, that pertains to the medical history, 6186
diagnosis, prognosis, or medical condition of a patient and that 6187
is generated and maintained in the process of medical treatment.6188

       (4) "Trial preparation record" means any record that contains 6189
information that is specifically compiled in reasonable 6190
anticipation of, or in defense of, a civil or criminal action or 6191
proceeding, including the independent thought processes and 6192
personal trial preparation of an attorney.6193

       (5) "Intellectual property record" means a record, other than 6194
a financial or administrative record, that is produced or 6195
collected by or for faculty or staff of a state institution of 6196
higher learning in the conduct of or as a result of study or 6197
research on an educational, commercial, scientific, artistic, 6198
technical, or scholarly issue, regardless of whether the study or 6199
research was sponsored by the institution alone or in conjunction 6200
with a governmental body or private concern, and that has not been 6201
publicly released, published, or patented.6202

       (6) "Donor profile record" means all records about donors or 6203
potential donors to a public institution of higher education 6204
except the names and reported addresses of the actual donors and 6205
the date, amount, and conditions of the actual donation.6206

       (7) "Peace officer, parole officer, probation officer, 6207
bailiff, prosecuting attorney, assistant prosecuting attorney, 6208
correctional employee, community-based correctional facility 6209
employee, youth services employee, firefighter, EMT, or 6210
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 6211
investigation residential and familial information" means any 6212
information that discloses any of the following about a peace 6213
officer, parole officer, probation officer, bailiff, prosecuting 6214
attorney, assistant prosecuting attorney, correctional employee, 6215
community-based correctional facility employee, youth services 6216
employee, firefighter, EMT, or investigator of the bureau of 6217
criminal identification and investigation:6218

       (a) The address of the actual personal residence of a peace 6219
officer, parole officer, probation officer, bailiff, assistant 6220
prosecuting attorney, correctional employee, community-based 6221
correctional facility employee, youth services employee, 6222
firefighter, EMT, or an investigator of the bureau of criminal 6223
identification and investigation, except for the state or 6224
political subdivision in which the peace officer, parole officer, 6225
probation officer, bailiff, assistant prosecuting attorney, 6226
correctional employee, community-based correctional facility 6227
employee, youth services employee, firefighter, EMT, or 6228
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 6229
investigation resides;6230

       (b) Information compiled from referral to or participation in 6231
an employee assistance program;6232

       (c) The social security number, the residential telephone 6233
number, any bank account, debit card, charge card, or credit card 6234
number, or the emergency telephone number of, or any medical 6235
information pertaining to, a peace officer, parole officer, 6236
probation officer, bailiff, prosecuting attorney, assistant 6237
prosecuting attorney, correctional employee, community-based 6238
correctional facility employee, youth services employee, 6239
firefighter, EMT, or investigator of the bureau of criminal 6240
identification and investigation;6241

       (d) The name of any beneficiary of employment benefits, 6242
including, but not limited to, life insurance benefits, provided 6243
to a peace officer, parole officer, probation officer, bailiff, 6244
prosecuting attorney, assistant prosecuting attorney, correctional 6245
employee, community-based correctional facility employee, youth 6246
services employee, firefighter, EMT, or investigator of the bureau 6247
of criminal identification and investigation by the peace 6248
officer's, parole officer's, probation officer's, bailiff's, 6249
prosecuting attorney's, assistant prosecuting attorney's, 6250
correctional employee's, community-based correctional facility 6251
employee's, youth services employee's, firefighter's, EMT's, or 6252
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 6253
investigation's employer;6254

       (e) The identity and amount of any charitable or employment 6255
benefit deduction made by the peace officer's, parole officer's, 6256
probation officer's, bailiff's, prosecuting attorney's, assistant 6257
prosecuting attorney's, correctional employee's, community-based 6258
correctional facility employee's, youth services employee's, 6259
firefighter's, EMT's, or investigator of the bureau of criminal 6260
identification and investigation's employer from the peace 6261
officer's, parole officer's, probation officer's, bailiff's, 6262
prosecuting attorney's, assistant prosecuting attorney's, 6263
correctional employee's, community-based correctional facility 6264
employee's, youth services employee's, firefighter's, EMT's, or 6265
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 6266
investigation's compensation unless the amount of the deduction is 6267
required by state or federal law;6268

       (f) The name, the residential address, the name of the 6269
employer, the address of the employer, the social security number, 6270
the residential telephone number, any bank account, debit card, 6271
charge card, or credit card number, or the emergency telephone 6272
number of the spouse, a former spouse, or any child of a peace 6273
officer, parole officer, probation officer, bailiff, prosecuting 6274
attorney, assistant prosecuting attorney, correctional employee, 6275
community-based correctional facility employee, youth services 6276
employee, firefighter, EMT, or investigator of the bureau of 6277
criminal identification and investigation;6278

       (g) A photograph of a peace officer who holds a position or 6279
has an assignment that may include undercover or plain clothes 6280
positions or assignments as determined by the peace officer's 6281
appointing authority.6282

       As used in divisions (A)(7) and (B)(9) of this section, 6283
"peace officer" has the same meaning as in section 109.71 of the 6284
Revised Code and also includes the superintendent and troopers of 6285
the state highway patrol; it does not include the sheriff of a 6286
county or a supervisory employee who, in the absence of the 6287
sheriff, is authorized to stand in for, exercise the authority of, 6288
and perform the duties of the sheriff.6289

       As used in divisions (A)(7) and (B)(5) of this section, 6290
"correctional employee" means any employee of the department of 6291
rehabilitation and correction who in the course of performing the 6292
employee's job duties has or has had contact with inmates and 6293
persons under supervision.6294

        As used in divisions (A)(7) and (B)(5) of this section, 6295
"youth services employee" means any employee of the department of 6296
youth services who in the course of performing the employee's job 6297
duties has or has had contact with children committed to the 6298
custody of the department of youth services.6299

       As used in divisions (A)(7) and (B)(9) of this section, 6300
"firefighter" means any regular, paid or volunteer, member of a 6301
lawfully constituted fire department of a municipal corporation, 6302
township, fire district, or village.6303

       As used in divisions (A)(7) and (B)(9) of this section, "EMT" 6304
means EMTs-basic, EMTs-I, and paramedics that provide emergency 6305
medical services for a public emergency medical service 6306
organization. "Emergency medical service organization," 6307
"EMT-basic," "EMT-I," and "paramedic" have the same meanings as in 6308
section 4765.01 of the Revised Code.6309

       As used in divisions (A)(7) and (B)(9) of this section, 6310
"investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 6311
investigation" has the meaning defined in section 2903.11 of the 6312
Revised Code.6313

       (8) "Information pertaining to the recreational activities of 6314
a person under the age of eighteen" means information that is kept 6315
in the ordinary course of business by a public office, that 6316
pertains to the recreational activities of a person under the age 6317
of eighteen years, and that discloses any of the following:6318

       (a) The address or telephone number of a person under the age 6319
of eighteen or the address or telephone number of that person's 6320
parent, guardian, custodian, or emergency contact person;6321

       (b) The social security number, birth date, or photographic 6322
image of a person under the age of eighteen;6323

       (c) Any medical record, history, or information pertaining to 6324
a person under the age of eighteen;6325

       (d) Any additional information sought or required about a 6326
person under the age of eighteen for the purpose of allowing that 6327
person to participate in any recreational activity conducted or 6328
sponsored by a public office or to use or obtain admission 6329
privileges to any recreational facility owned or operated by a 6330
public office.6331

       (9) "Community control sanction" has the same meaning as in 6332
section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.6333

       (10) "Post-release control sanction" has the same meaning as 6334
in section 2967.01 of the Revised Code.6335

        (11) "Redaction" means obscuring or deleting any information 6336
that is exempt from the duty to permit public inspection or 6337
copying from an item that otherwise meets the definition of a 6338
"record" in section 149.011 of the Revised Code.6339

       (12) "Designee" and "elected official" have the same meanings 6340
as in section 109.43 of the Revised Code.6341

       (B)(1) Upon request and subject to division (B)(8) of this 6342
section, all public records responsive to the request shall be 6343
promptly prepared and made available for inspection to any person 6344
at all reasonable times during regular business hours. Subject to 6345
division (B)(8) of this section, upon request, a public office or 6346
person responsible for public records shall make copies of the 6347
requested public record available at cost and within a reasonable 6348
period of time. If a public record contains information that is 6349
exempt from the duty to permit public inspection or to copy the 6350
public record, the public office or the person responsible for the 6351
public record shall make available all of the information within 6352
the public record that is not exempt. When making that public 6353
record available for public inspection or copying that public 6354
record, the public office or the person responsible for the public 6355
record shall notify the requester of any redaction or make the 6356
redaction plainly visible. A redaction shall be deemed a denial of 6357
a request to inspect or copy the redacted information, except if 6358
federal or state law authorizes or requires a public office to 6359
make the redaction.6360

       (2) To facilitate broader access to public records, a public 6361
office or the person responsible for public records shall organize 6362
and maintain public records in a manner that they can be made 6363
available for inspection or copying in accordance with division 6364
(B) of this section. A public office also shall have available a 6365
copy of its current records retention schedule at a location 6366
readily available to the public. If a requester makes an ambiguous 6367
or overly broad request or has difficulty in making a request for 6368
copies or inspection of public records under this section such 6369
that the public office or the person responsible for the requested 6370
public record cannot reasonably identify what public records are 6371
being requested, the public office or the person responsible for 6372
the requested public record may deny the request but shall provide 6373
the requester with an opportunity to revise the request by 6374
informing the requester of the manner in which records are 6375
maintained by the public office and accessed in the ordinary 6376
course of the public office's or person's duties.6377

       (3) If a request is ultimately denied, in part or in whole, 6378
the public office or the person responsible for the requested 6379
public record shall provide the requester with an explanation, 6380
including legal authority, setting forth why the request was 6381
denied. If the initial request was provided in writing, the 6382
explanation also shall be provided to the requester in writing. 6383
The explanation shall not preclude the public office or the person 6384
responsible for the requested public record from relying upon 6385
additional reasons or legal authority in defending an action 6386
commenced under division (C) of this section.6387

       (4) Unless specifically required or authorized by state or 6388
federal law or in accordance with division (B) of this section, no 6389
public office or person responsible for public records may limit 6390
or condition the availability of public records by requiring 6391
disclosure of the requester's identity or the intended use of the 6392
requested public record. Any requirement that the requester 6393
disclose the requestor's identity or the intended use of the 6394
requested public record constitutes a denial of the request.6395

       (5) A public office or person responsible for public records 6396
may ask a requester to make the request in writing, may ask for 6397
the requester's identity, and may inquire about the intended use 6398
of the information requested, but may do so only after disclosing 6399
to the requester that a written request is not mandatory and that 6400
the requester may decline to reveal the requester's identity or 6401
the intended use and when a written request or disclosure of the 6402
identity or intended use would benefit the requester by enhancing 6403
the ability of the public office or person responsible for public 6404
records to identify, locate, or deliver the public records sought 6405
by the requester.6406

       (6) If any person chooses to obtain a copy of a public record 6407
in accordance with division (B) of this section, the public office 6408
or person responsible for the public record may require that 6409
person to pay in advance the cost involved in providing the copy 6410
of the public record in accordance with the choice made by the 6411
person seeking the copy under this division. The public office or 6412
the person responsible for the public record shall permit that 6413
person to choose to have the public record duplicated upon paper, 6414
upon the same medium upon which the public office or person 6415
responsible for the public record keeps it, or upon any other 6416
medium upon which the public office or person responsible for the 6417
public record determines that it reasonably can be duplicated as 6418
an integral part of the normal operations of the public office or 6419
person responsible for the public record. When the person seeking 6420
the copy makes a choice under this division, the public office or 6421
person responsible for the public record shall provide a copy of 6422
it in accordance with the choice made by the person seeking the 6423
copy. Nothing in this section requires a public office or person 6424
responsible for the public record to allow the person seeking a 6425
copy of the public record to make the copies of the public record.6426

       (7) Upon a request made in accordance with division (B) of 6427
this section and subject to division (B)(6) of this section, a 6428
public office or person responsible for public records shall 6429
transmit a copy of a public record to any person by United States 6430
mail or by any other means of delivery or transmission within a 6431
reasonable period of time after receiving the request for the 6432
copy. The public office or person responsible for the public 6433
record may require the person making the request to pay in advance 6434
the cost of postage if the copy is transmitted by United States 6435
mail or the cost of delivery if the copy is transmitted other than 6436
by United States mail, and to pay in advance the costs incurred 6437
for other supplies used in the mailing, delivery, or transmission.6438

       Any public office may adopt a policy and procedures that it 6439
will follow in transmitting, within a reasonable period of time 6440
after receiving a request, copies of public records by United 6441
States mail or by any other means of delivery or transmission 6442
pursuant to this division. A public office that adopts a policy 6443
and procedures under this division shall comply with them in 6444
performing its duties under this division.6445

       In any policy and procedures adopted under this division, a 6446
public office may limit the number of records requested by a 6447
person that the office will transmit by United States mail to ten 6448
per month, unless the person certifies to the office in writing 6449
that the person does not intend to use or forward the requested 6450
records, or the information contained in them, for commercial 6451
purposes. For purposes of this division, "commercial" shall be 6452
narrowly construed and does not include reporting or gathering 6453
news, reporting or gathering information to assist citizen 6454
oversight or understanding of the operation or activities of 6455
government, or nonprofit educational research.6456

       (8) A public office or person responsible for public records 6457
is not required to permit a person who is incarcerated pursuant to 6458
a criminal conviction or a juvenile adjudication to inspect or to 6459
obtain a copy of any public record concerning a criminal 6460
investigation or prosecution or concerning what would be a 6461
criminal investigation or prosecution if the subject of the 6462
investigation or prosecution were an adult, unless the request to 6463
inspect or to obtain a copy of the record is for the purpose of 6464
acquiring information that is subject to release as a public 6465
record under this section and the judge who imposed the sentence 6466
or made the adjudication with respect to the person, or the 6467
judge's successor in office, finds that the information sought in 6468
the public record is necessary to support what appears to be a 6469
justiciable claim of the person.6470

       (9)(a) Upon written request made and signed by a journalist 6471
on or after December 16, 1999, a public office, or person 6472
responsible for public records, having custody of the records of 6473
the agency employing a specified peace officer, parole officer, 6474
probation officer, bailiff, prosecuting attorney, assistant 6475
prosecuting attorney, correctional employee, youth services 6476
employee, firefighter, EMT, or investigator of the bureau of 6477
criminal identification and investigation shall disclose to the 6478
journalist the address of the actual personal residence of the 6479
peace officer, parole officer, probation officer, bailiff, 6480
prosecuting attorney, assistant prosecuting attorney, correctional 6481
employee, youth services employee, firefighter, EMT, or 6482
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 6483
investigation and, if the peace officer's, parole officer's, 6484
probation officer's, bailiff's, prosecuting attorney's, assistant 6485
prosecuting attorney's, correctional employee's, youth services 6486
employee's, firefighter's, EMT's, or investigator of the bureau of 6487
criminal identification and investigation's spouse, former spouse, 6488
or child is employed by a public office, the name and address of 6489
the employer of the peace officer's, parole officer's, probation 6490
officer's, bailiff's, prosecuting attorney's, assistant 6491
prosecuting attorney's, correctional employee's, youth services 6492
employee's, firefighter's, EMT's, or investigator of the bureau of 6493
criminal identification and investigation's spouse, former spouse, 6494
or child. The request shall include the journalist's name and 6495
title and the name and address of the journalist's employer and 6496
shall state that disclosure of the information sought would be in 6497
the public interest.6498

       (b) Division (B)(9)(a) of this section also applies to 6499
journalist requests for customer information maintained by a 6500
municipally owned or operated public utility, other than social 6501
security numbers and any private financial information such as 6502
credit reports, payment methods, credit card numbers, and bank 6503
account information.6504

       (c) As used in division (B)(9) of this section, "journalist" 6505
means a person engaged in, connected with, or employed by any news 6506
medium, including a newspaper, magazine, press association, news 6507
agency, or wire service, a radio or television station, or a 6508
similar medium, for the purpose of gathering, processing, 6509
transmitting, compiling, editing, or disseminating information for 6510
the general public.6511

       (C)(1) If a person allegedly is aggrieved by the failure of a 6512
public office or the person responsible for public records to 6513
promptly prepare a public record and to make it available to the 6514
person for inspection in accordance with division (B) of this 6515
section or by any other failure of a public office or the person 6516
responsible for public records to comply with an obligation in 6517
accordance with division (B) of this section, the person allegedly 6518
aggrieved may commence a mandamus action to obtain a judgment that 6519
orders the public office or the person responsible for the public 6520
record to comply with division (B) of this section, that awards 6521
court costs and reasonable attorney's fees to the person that 6522
instituted the mandamus action, and, if applicable, that includes 6523
an order fixing statutory damages under division (C)(1) of this 6524
section. The mandamus action may be commenced in the court of 6525
common pleas of the county in which division (B) of this section 6526
allegedly was not complied with, in the supreme court pursuant to 6527
its original jurisdiction under Section 2 of Article IV, Ohio 6528
Constitution, or in the court of appeals for the appellate 6529
district in which division (B) of this section allegedly was not 6530
complied with pursuant to its original jurisdiction under Section 6531
3 of Article IV, Ohio Constitution.6532

       If a requestor transmits a written request by hand delivery 6533
or certified mail to inspect or receive copies of any public 6534
record in a manner that fairly describes the public record or 6535
class of public records to the public office or person responsible 6536
for the requested public records, except as otherwise provided in 6537
this section, the requestor shall be entitled to recover the 6538
amount of statutory damages set forth in this division if a court 6539
determines that the public office or the person responsible for 6540
public records failed to comply with an obligation in accordance 6541
with division (B) of this section.6542

       The amount of statutory damages shall be fixed at one hundred 6543
dollars for each business day during which the public office or 6544
person responsible for the requested public records failed to 6545
comply with an obligation in accordance with division (B) of this 6546
section, beginning with the day on which the requester files a 6547
mandamus action to recover statutory damages, up to a maximum of 6548
one thousand dollars. The award of statutory damages shall not be 6549
construed as a penalty, but as compensation for injury arising 6550
from lost use of the requested information. The existence of this 6551
injury shall be conclusively presumed. The award of statutory 6552
damages shall be in addition to all other remedies authorized by 6553
this section.6554

       The court may reduce an award of statutory damages or not 6555
award statutory damages if the court determines both of the 6556
following:6557

       (a) That, based on the ordinary application of statutory law 6558
and case law as it existed at the time of the conduct or 6559
threatened conduct of the public office or person responsible for 6560
the requested public records that allegedly constitutes a failure 6561
to comply with an obligation in accordance with division (B) of 6562
this section and that was the basis of the mandamus action, a 6563
well-informed public office or person responsible for the 6564
requested public records reasonably would believe that the conduct 6565
or threatened conduct of the public office or person responsible 6566
for the requested public records did not constitute a failure to 6567
comply with an obligation in accordance with division (B) of this 6568
section;6569

       (b) That a well-informed public office or person responsible 6570
for the requested public records reasonably would believe that the 6571
conduct or threatened conduct of the public office or person 6572
responsible for the requested public records would serve the 6573
public policy that underlies the authority that is asserted as 6574
permitting that conduct or threatened conduct.6575

       (2)(a) If the court issues a writ of mandamus that orders the 6576
public office or the person responsible for the public record to 6577
comply with division (B) of this section and determines that the 6578
circumstances described in division (C)(1) of this section exist, 6579
the court shall determine and award to the relator all court 6580
costs.6581

       (b) If the court renders a judgment that orders the public 6582
office or the person responsible for the public record to comply 6583
with division (B) of this section, the court may award reasonable 6584
attorney's fees subject to reduction as described in division 6585
(C)(2)(c) of this section. The court shall award reasonable 6586
attorney's fees, subject to reduction as described in division 6587
(C)(2)(c) of this section when either of the following applies:6588

        (i) The public office or the person responsible for the 6589
public records failed to respond affirmatively or negatively to 6590
the public records request in accordance with the time allowed 6591
under division (B) of this section.6592

        (ii) The public office or the person responsible for the 6593
public records promised to permit the relator to inspect or 6594
receive copies of the public records requested within a specified 6595
period of time but failed to fulfill that promise within that 6596
specified period of time.6597

       (c) Court costs and reasonable attorney's fees awarded under 6598
this section shall be construed as remedial and not punitive. 6599
Reasonable attorney's fees shall include reasonable fees incurred 6600
to produce proof of the reasonableness and amount of the fees and 6601
to otherwise litigate entitlement to the fees. The court may 6602
reduce an award of attorney's fees to the relator or not award 6603
attorney's fees to the relator if the court determines both of the 6604
following:6605

       (i) That, based on the ordinary application of statutory law 6606
and case law as it existed at the time of the conduct or 6607
threatened conduct of the public office or person responsible for 6608
the requested public records that allegedly constitutes a failure 6609
to comply with an obligation in accordance with division (B) of 6610
this section and that was the basis of the mandamus action, a 6611
well-informed public office or person responsible for the 6612
requested public records reasonably would believe that the conduct 6613
or threatened conduct of the public office or person responsible 6614
for the requested public records did not constitute a failure to 6615
comply with an obligation in accordance with division (B) of this 6616
section;6617

       (ii) That a well-informed public office or person responsible 6618
for the requested public records reasonably would believe that the 6619
conduct or threatened conduct of the public office or person 6620
responsible for the requested public records as described in 6621
division (C)(2)(c)(i) of this section would serve the public 6622
policy that underlies the authority that is asserted as permitting 6623
that conduct or threatened conduct.6624

       (D) Chapter 1347. of the Revised Code does not limit the 6625
provisions of this section.6626

       (E)(1) To ensure that all employees of public offices are 6627
appropriately educated about a public office's obligations under 6628
division (B) of this section, all elected officials or their 6629
appropriate designees shall attend training approved by the 6630
attorney general as provided in section 109.43 of the Revised 6631
Code. In addition, all public offices shall adopt a public records 6632
policy in compliance with this section for responding to public 6633
records requests. In adopting a public records policy under this 6634
division, a public office may obtain guidance from the model 6635
public records policy developed and provided to the public office 6636
by the attorney general under section 109.43 of the Revised Code. 6637
Except as otherwise provided in this section, the policy may not 6638
limit the number of public records that the public office will 6639
make available to a single person, may not limit the number of 6640
public records that it will make available during a fixed period 6641
of time, and may not establish a fixed period of time before it 6642
will respond to a request for inspection or copying of public 6643
records, unless that period is less than eight hours.6644

       (2) The public office shall distribute the public records 6645
policy adopted by the public office under division (E)(1) of this 6646
section to the employee of the public office who is the records 6647
custodian or records manager or otherwise has custody of the 6648
records of that office. The public office shall require that 6649
employee to acknowledge receipt of the copy of the public records 6650
policy. The public office shall create a poster that describes its 6651
public records policy and shall post the poster in a conspicuous 6652
place in the public office and in all locations where the public 6653
office has branch offices. The public office may post its public 6654
records policy on the internet web site of the public office if 6655
the public office maintains an internet web site. A public office 6656
that has established a manual or handbook of its general policies 6657
and procedures for all employees of the public office shall 6658
include the public records policy of the public office in the 6659
manual or handbook.6660

       (F)(1) The bureau of motor vehicles may adopt rules pursuant 6661
to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to reasonably limit the number 6662
of bulk commercial special extraction requests made by a person 6663
for the same records or for updated records during a calendar 6664
year. The rules may include provisions for charges to be made for 6665
bulk commercial special extraction requests for the actual cost of 6666
the bureau, plus special extraction costs, plus ten per cent. The 6667
bureau may charge for expenses for redacting information, the 6668
release of which is prohibited by law.6669

       (2) As used in division (F)(1) of this section:6670

       (a) "Actual cost" means the cost of depleted supplies, 6671
records storage media costs, actual mailing and alternative 6672
delivery costs, or other transmitting costs, and any direct 6673
equipment operating and maintenance costs, including actual costs 6674
paid to private contractors for copying services.6675

       (b) "Bulk commercial special extraction request" means a 6676
request for copies of a record for information in a format other 6677
than the format already available, or information that cannot be 6678
extracted without examination of all items in a records series, 6679
class of records, or data base by a person who intends to use or 6680
forward the copies for surveys, marketing, solicitation, or resale 6681
for commercial purposes. "Bulk commercial special extraction 6682
request" does not include a request by a person who gives 6683
assurance to the bureau that the person making the request does 6684
not intend to use or forward the requested copies for surveys, 6685
marketing, solicitation, or resale for commercial purposes.6686

       (c) "Commercial" means profit-seeking production, buying, or 6687
selling of any good, service, or other product.6688

       (d) "Special extraction costs" means the cost of the time 6689
spent by the lowest paid employee competent to perform the task, 6690
the actual amount paid to outside private contractors employed by 6691
the bureau, or the actual cost incurred to create computer 6692
programs to make the special extraction. "Special extraction 6693
costs" include any charges paid to a public agency for computer or 6694
records services.6695

       (3) For purposes of divisions (F)(1) and (2) of this section, 6696
"surveys, marketing, solicitation, or resale for commercial 6697
purposes" shall be narrowly construed and does not include 6698
reporting or gathering news, reporting or gathering information to 6699
assist citizen oversight or understanding of the operation or 6700
activities of government, or nonprofit educational research.6701

       Sec. 152.09.  (A) As used in sections 152.06 and 152.09 to 6702
152.33 of the Revised Code:6703

       (1) "Obligations" means bonds, notes, or other evidences of 6704
obligation, including interest coupons pertaining thereto, issued 6705
pursuant to sections 152.09 to 152.33 of the Revised Code.6706

       (2) "State agencies" means the state of Ohio and branches, 6707
officers, boards, commissions, authorities, departments, 6708
divisions, courts, general assembly, or other units or agencies of 6709
the state. "State agency" also includes counties, municipal 6710
corporations, and governmental entities of this state that enter 6711
into leases with the Ohio building authority pursuant to section 6712
152.31 of the Revised Code or that are designated by law as state 6713
agencies for the purpose of performing a state function that is to 6714
be housed by a capital facility for which the Ohio building 6715
authority is authorized to issue revenue obligations pursuant to 6716
sections 152.09 to 152.33 of the Revised Code.6717

       (3) "Bond service charges" means principal, including 6718
mandatory sinking fund requirements for retirement of obligations, 6719
and interest, and redemption premium, if any, required to be paid 6720
by the Ohio building authority on obligations.6721

       (4) "Capital facilities" means buildings, structures, and 6722
other improvements, and equipment, real estate, and interests in 6723
real estate therefor, within the state, and any one, part of, or 6724
combination of the foregoing, for housing of branches and agencies 6725
of state government, including capital facilities for the purpose 6726
of housing personnel, equipment, or functions, or any combination 6727
thereof that the state agencies are responsible for housing, for 6728
which the Ohio building authority is authorized to issue 6729
obligations pursuant to Chapter 152. of the Revised Code, and 6730
includes storage and parking facilities related to such capital 6731
facilities. For purposes of sections 152.10 to 152.15 of the 6732
Revised Code, "capital facilities" includes community or technical 6733
college capital facilities.6734

       (5) "Cost of capital facilities" means the costs of 6735
assessing, planning, acquiring, constructing, reconstructing, 6736
rehabilitating, remodeling, renovating, enlarging, improving, 6737
altering, maintaining, equipping, furnishing, repairing, painting, 6738
decorating, managing, or operating capital facilities, and the 6739
financing thereof, including the cost of clearance and preparation 6740
of the site and of any land to be used in connection with capital 6741
facilities, the cost of participating in capital facilities 6742
pursuant to section 152.33 of the Revised Code, the cost of any 6743
indemnity and surety bonds and premiums on insurance, all related 6744
direct administrative expenses and allocable portions of direct 6745
costs of the authority and lessee state agencies, cost of 6746
engineering and architectural services, designs, plans, 6747
specifications, surveys, and estimates of cost, legal fees, fees 6748
and expenses of trustees, depositories, and paying agents for the 6749
obligations, cost of issuance of the obligations and financing 6750
charges and fees and expenses of financial advisers and 6751
consultants in connection therewith, interest on obligations from 6752
the date thereof to the time when interest is to be covered from 6753
sources other than proceeds of obligations, amounts that represent 6754
the portion of investment earnings to be rebated or to be paid to 6755
the federal government in order to maintain the exclusion from 6756
gross income for federal income tax purposes of interest on those 6757
obligations pursuant to section 148(f) of the Internal Revenue 6758
Code, amounts necessary to establish reserves as required by the 6759
resolutions or the obligations, trust agreements, or indentures, 6760
costs of audits, the reimbursement of all moneys advanced or 6761
applied by or borrowed from any governmental entity, whether to or 6762
by the authority or others, from whatever source provided, for the 6763
payment of any item or items of cost of the capital facilities, 6764
any share of the cost undertaken by the authority pursuant to 6765
arrangements made with governmental entities under division (J) of 6766
section 152.21 of the Revised Code, and all other expenses 6767
necessary or incident to assessing, planning, or determining the 6768
feasibility or practicability with respect to capital facilities, 6769
and such other expenses as may be necessary or incident to the 6770
assessment, planning, acquisition, construction, reconstruction, 6771
rehabilitation, remodeling, renovation, enlargement, improvement, 6772
alteration, maintenance, equipment, furnishing, repair, painting, 6773
decoration, management, or operation of capital facilities, the 6774
financing thereof and the placing of the same in use and 6775
operation, including any one, part of, or combination of such 6776
classes of costs and expenses.6777

       (6) "Governmental entity" means any state agency, municipal 6778
corporation, county, township, school district, and any other 6779
political subdivision or special district in this state 6780
established pursuant to law, and, except where otherwise 6781
indicated, also means the United States or any of the states or 6782
any department, division, or agency thereof, and any agency, 6783
commission, or authority established pursuant to an interstate 6784
compact or agreement.6785

       (7) "Governing body" means:6786

       (a) In the case of a county, the board of county 6787
commissioners or other legislative authority; in the case of a 6788
municipal corporation, the legislative authority; in the case of a 6789
township, the board of township trustees; in the case of a school 6790
district, the board of education;6791

       (b) In the case of any other governmental entity, the 6792
officer, board, commission, authority, or other body having the 6793
general management of the entity or having jurisdiction or 6794
authority in the particular circumstances.6795

       (8) "Available receipts" means fees, charges, revenues, 6796
grants, subsidies, income from the investment of moneys, proceeds 6797
from the sale of goods or services, and all other revenues or 6798
receipts received by or on behalf of any state agency for which 6799
capital facilities are financed with obligations issued under 6800
Chapter 152. of the Revised Code, any state agency participating 6801
in capital facilities pursuant to section 152.33 of the Revised 6802
Code, or any state agency by which the capital facilities are 6803
constructed or financed; revenues or receipts derived by the 6804
authority from the operation, leasing, or other disposition of 6805
capital facilities, and the proceeds of obligations issued under 6806
Chapter 152. of the Revised Code; and also any moneys appropriated 6807
by a governmental entity, gifts, grants, donations, and pledges, 6808
and receipts therefrom, available for the payment of bond service 6809
charges on such obligations.6810

       (9) "Available community or technical college receipts" means 6811
all money received by a community or technical college or 6812
community or technical college district, including income, 6813
revenues, and receipts from the operation, ownership, or control 6814
of facilities, grants, gifts, donations, and pledges and receipts 6815
therefrom, receipts from fees and charges, the allocated state 6816
share of instruction as defined in section 3333.903333.59 of the 6817
Revised Code, and the proceeds of the sale of obligations, 6818
including proceeds of obligations issued to refund obligations 6819
previously issued, but excluding any special fee, and receipts 6820
therefrom, charged pursuant to division (D) of section 154.21 of 6821
the Revised Code.6822

        (10) "Community or technical college," "college," "community 6823
or technical college district," and "district" have the same 6824
meanings as in section 3333.903333.59 of the Revised Code.6825

       (11) "Community or technical college capital facilities" 6826
means auxiliary facilities, education facilities, and housing and 6827
dining facilities, as those terms are defined in section 3345.12 6828
of the Revised Code, to the extent permitted to be financed by the 6829
issuance of obligations under division (A)(2) of section 3357.112 6830
of the Revised Code, that are authorized by sections 3354.121, 6831
3357.112, and 3358.10 of the Revised Code to be financed by 6832
obligations issued by a community or technical college district, 6833
and for which the Ohio building authority is authorized to issue 6834
obligations pursuant to Chapter 152. of the Revised Code, and 6835
includes any one, part of, or any combination of the foregoing, 6836
and further includes site improvements, utilities, machinery, 6837
furnishings, and any separate or connected buildings, structures, 6838
improvements, sites, open space and green space areas, utilities, 6839
or equipment to be used in, or in connection with the operation or 6840
maintenance of, or supplementing or otherwise related to the 6841
services or facilities to be provided by, such facilities.6842

        (12) "Cost of community or technical college capital 6843
facilities" means the costs of acquiring, constructing, 6844
reconstructing, rehabilitating, remodeling, renovating, enlarging, 6845
improving, equipping, or furnishing community or technical college 6846
capital facilities, and the financing thereof, including the cost 6847
of clearance and preparation of the site and of any land to be 6848
used in connection with community or technical college capital 6849
facilities, the cost of any indemnity and surety bonds and 6850
premiums on insurance, all related direct administrative expenses 6851
and allocable portions of direct costs of the authority, community 6852
or technical college or community or technical college district, 6853
cost of engineering, architectural services, design, plans, 6854
specifications and surveys, estimates of cost, legal fees, fees 6855
and expenses of trustees, depositories, bond registrars, and 6856
paying agents for the obligations, cost of issuance of the 6857
obligations and financing costs and fees and expenses of financial 6858
advisers and consultants in connection therewith, interest on the 6859
obligations from the date thereof to the time when interest is to 6860
be covered by available receipts or other sources other than 6861
proceeds of the obligations, amounts that represent the portion of 6862
investment earnings to be rebated or to be paid to the federal 6863
government in order to maintain the exclusion from gross income 6864
for federal income tax purposes of interest on those obligations 6865
pursuant to section 148(f) of the Internal Revenue Code, amounts 6866
necessary to establish reserves as required by the bond 6867
proceedings, costs of audits, the reimbursements of all moneys 6868
advanced or applied by or borrowed from the community or technical 6869
college, community or technical college district, or others, from 6870
whatever source provided, including any temporary advances from 6871
state appropriations, for the payment of any item or items of cost 6872
of community or technical college facilities, and all other 6873
expenses necessary or incident to planning or determining 6874
feasibility or practicability with respect to such facilities, and 6875
such other expenses as may be necessary or incident to the 6876
acquisition, construction, reconstruction, rehabilitation, 6877
remodeling, renovation, enlargement, improvement, equipment, and 6878
furnishing of community or technical college capital facilities, 6879
the financing thereof and the placing of them in use and 6880
operation, including any one, part of, or combination of such 6881
classes of costs and expenses.6882

       (B) Pursuant to the powers granted to the general assembly 6883
under Section 2i of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, to authorize 6884
the issuance of revenue obligations and other obligations, the 6885
owners or holders of which are not given the right to have excises 6886
or taxes levied by the general assembly for the payment of 6887
principal thereof or interest thereon, the Ohio building authority 6888
may issue obligations, in accordance with Chapter 152. of the 6889
Revised Code, and shall cause the net proceeds thereof, after any 6890
deposits of accrued interest for the payment of bond service 6891
charges and after any deposit of all or such lesser portion as the 6892
authority may direct of the premium received upon the sale of 6893
those obligations for the payment of the bond service charges, to 6894
be applied to the costs of capital facilities designated by or 6895
pursuant to act of the general assembly for housing state agencies 6896
as authorized by Chapter 152. of the Revised Code. The authority 6897
shall provide by resolution for the issuance of such obligations. 6898
The bond service charges and all other payments required to be 6899
made by the trust agreement or indenture securing such obligations 6900
shall be payable solely from available receipts of the authority 6901
pledged thereto as provided in such resolution. The available 6902
receipts pledged and thereafter received by the authority are 6903
immediately subject to the lien of such pledge without any 6904
physical delivery thereof or further act, and the lien of any such 6905
pledge is valid and binding against all parties having claims of 6906
any kind against the authority, irrespective of whether those 6907
parties have notice thereof, and creates a perfected security 6908
interest for all purposes of Chapter 1309. of the Revised Code and 6909
a perfected lien for purposes of any real property interest, all 6910
without the necessity for separation or delivery of funds or for 6911
the filing or recording of the resolution, trust agreement, 6912
indenture, or other agreement by which such pledge is created or 6913
any certificate, statement, or other document with respect 6914
thereto; and the pledge of such available receipts is effective 6915
and the money therefrom and thereof may be applied to the purposes 6916
for which pledged. Every pledge, and every covenant and agreement 6917
made with respect to the pledge, made in the resolution may 6918
therein be extended to the benefit of the owners and holders of 6919
obligations authorized by Chapter 152. of the Revised Code, the 6920
net proceeds of which are to be applied to the costs of capital 6921
facilities, and to any trustee therefor, for the further securing 6922
of the payment of the bond service charges, and all or any rights 6923
under any agreement or lease made under this section may be 6924
assigned for such purpose. Obligations may be issued at one time 6925
or from time to time, and each issue shall be dated, shall mature 6926
at such time or times as determined by the authority not exceeding 6927
forty years from the date of issue, and may be redeemable before 6928
maturity at the option of the authority at such price or prices 6929
and under such terms and conditions as are fixed by the authority 6930
prior to the issuance of the obligations. The authority shall 6931
determine the form of the obligations, fix their denominations, 6932
establish their interest rate or rates, which may be a variable 6933
rate or rates, or the maximum interest rate, and establish within 6934
or without this state a place or places of payment of bond service 6935
charges.6936

       (C) The obligations shall be signed by the authority 6937
chairperson, vice-chairperson, and secretary-treasurer, and the 6938
authority seal shall be affixed. The signatures may be facsimile 6939
signatures and the seal affixed may be a facsimile seal, as 6940
provided by resolution of the authority. Any coupons attached may 6941
bear the facsimile signature of the chairperson. In case any 6942
officer who has signed any obligations, or caused the officer's 6943
facsimile signature to be affixed thereto, ceases to be such 6944
officer before such obligations have been delivered, such 6945
obligations may, nevertheless, be issued and delivered as though 6946
the person who had signed the obligations or caused the person's 6947
facsimile signature to be affixed thereto had not ceased to be 6948
such officer.6949

       Any obligations may be executed on behalf of the authority by 6950
an officer who, on the date of execution, is the proper officer 6951
although on the date of such obligations such person was not the 6952
proper officer.6953

       (D) All obligations issued by the authority shall have all 6954
the qualities and incidents of negotiable instruments and may be 6955
issued in coupon or in registered form, or both, as the authority 6956
determines. Provision may be made for the registration of any 6957
obligations with coupons attached thereto as to principal alone or 6958
as to both principal and interest, their exchange for obligations 6959
so registered, and for the conversion or reconversion into 6960
obligations with coupons attached thereto of any obligations 6961
registered as to both principal and interest, and for reasonable 6962
charges for such registration, exchange, conversion, and 6963
reconversion. The authority may sell its obligations in any manner 6964
and for such prices as it determines, except that the authority 6965
shall sell obligations sold at public or private sale in 6966
accordance with section 152.091 of the Revised Code.6967

       (E) The obligations of the authority, principal, interest, 6968
and any proceeds from their sale or transfer, are exempt from all 6969
taxation within this state.6970

       (F) The authority is authorized to issue revenue obligations 6971
and other obligations under Section 2i of Article VIII, Ohio 6972
Constitution, for the purpose of paying the cost of capital 6973
facilities for housing of branches and agencies of state 6974
government, including capital facilities for the purpose of 6975
housing personnel, equipment, or functions, or any combination 6976
thereof that the state agencies are responsible for housing, as 6977
are authorized by Chapter 152. of the Revised Code, and that are 6978
authorized by the general assembly by the appropriation of lease 6979
payments or other moneys for such capital facilities or by any 6980
other act of the general assembly, but not including the 6981
appropriation of moneys for feasibility studies for such capital 6982
facilities. This division does not authorize the authority to 6983
issue obligations pursuant to Section 2i of Article VIII, Ohio 6984
Constitution, to pay the cost of capital facilities for mental 6985
hygiene and retardation, parks and recreation, or state-supported 6986
or state-assisted institutions of higher education.6987

       (G) The authority is authorized to issue revenue obligations 6988
under Section 2i of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, on behalf of 6989
a community or technical college district and shall cause the net 6990
proceeds thereof, after any deposits of accrued interest for the 6991
payment of bond service charges and after any deposit of all or 6992
such lesser portion as the authority may direct of the premium 6993
received upon the sale of those obligations for the payment of the 6994
bond service charges, to be applied to the cost of community or 6995
technical college capital facilities, provided that the issuance 6996
of such obligations is subject to the execution of a written 6997
agreement in accordance with division (C) of section 3333.906998
3333.59 of the Revised Code for the withholding and depositing of 6999
funds otherwise due the district, or the college it operates, in 7000
respect of its allocated state share of instruction.7001

        The authority shall provide by resolution for the issuance of 7002
such obligations. The bond service charges and all other payments 7003
required to be made by the trust agreement or indenture securing 7004
the obligations shall be payable solely from available community 7005
or technical college receipts pledged thereto as provided in the 7006
resolution. The available community or technical college receipts 7007
pledged and thereafter received by the authority are immediately 7008
subject to the lien of such pledge without any physical delivery 7009
thereof or further act, and the lien of any such pledge is valid 7010
and binding against all parties having claims of any kind against 7011
the authority, irrespective of whether those parties have notice 7012
thereof, and creates a perfected security interest for all 7013
purposes of Chapter 1309. of the Revised Code and a perfected lien 7014
for purposes of any real property interest, all without the 7015
necessity for separation or delivery of funds or for the filing or 7016
recording of the resolution, trust agreement, indenture, or other 7017
agreement by which such pledge is created or any certificate, 7018
statement, or other document with respect thereto; and the pledge 7019
of such available community or technical college receipts is 7020
effective and the money therefrom and thereof may be applied to 7021
the purposes for which pledged. Every pledge, and every covenant 7022
and agreement made with respect to the pledge, made in the 7023
resolution may therein be extended to the benefit of the owners 7024
and holders of obligations authorized by this division, and to any 7025
trustee therefor, for the further securing of the payment of the 7026
bond service charges, and all or any rights under any agreement or 7027
lease made under this section may be assigned for such purpose. 7028
Obligations may be issued at one time or from time to time, and 7029
each issue shall be dated, shall mature at such time or times as 7030
determined by the authority not exceeding forty years from the 7031
date of issue, and may be redeemable before maturity at the option 7032
of the authority at such price or prices and under such terms and 7033
conditions as are fixed by the authority prior to the issuance of 7034
the obligations. The authority shall determine the form of the 7035
obligations, fix their denominations, establish their interest 7036
rate or rates, which may be a variable rate or rates, or the 7037
maximum interest rate, and establish within or without this state 7038
a place or places of payment of bond service charges.7039

       Sec. 152.18.  Whenever the Ohio building authority 7040
constructs, reconstructs, rehabilitates, remodels, renovates, 7041
enlarges, improves, alters, maintains, equips, furnishes, repairs, 7042
paints, or decorates capital facilities pursuant to section 7043
152.19, 152.21, or 152.31 of the Revised Code or buildings, 7044
facilities, and other properties for use and occupancy of persons 7045
pursuant to section 152.04 of the Revised Code, the authority 7046
shall make the necessary plans and specifications, and shall 7047
advertise for bids for all work to be placed under contract once a 7048
week for two consecutive weeks in a newspaper of general 7049
circulation in the county within which the work is to be done, and 7050
shall award the contract to the lowest responsive and responsible 7051
bidder in accordance with section 9.312 of the Revised Code. When 7052
the authority determines, subject to approval by the controlling 7053
board, that a real and present emergency exists or if the cost of 7054
such a contract does not exceed fifty thousand dollars, such a 7055
contract may be awarded without advertising and receipt of bids. A 7056
bid guaranty pursuant to sections 153.54 to 153.571 of the Revised 7057
Code shall be required for any contract under this section.7058

       In all other cases of capital facilities financed by the 7059
authority, the construction, reconstruction, rehabilitation, 7060
remodeling, renovation, enlargement, improvement, alteration, 7061
maintenance, equipping, furnishing, repair, painting, or 7062
decoration of capital facilities by or for the state or any 7063
governmental entity shall be the responsibility of the department 7064
of administrative servicesOhio facilities construction commission7065
or, with the consent of the department of administrative services7066
Ohio facilities construction commission, shall be the 7067
responsibility of the state agency using the capital facility, or 7068
the governmental entity with which a state agency is participating 7069
pursuant to section 152.33 of the Revised Code, and shall be 7070
undertaken by the departmentcommission in compliance with Chapter 7071
153. of the Revised Code, or by such state agency or governmental 7072
entity in accordance with otherwise applicable law. The 7073
rehabilitation, remodeling, renovation, maintenance, equipping, or 7074
furnishing of capital facilities by or for the state or any 7075
governmental entity shall be the responsibility of the department 7076
of administrative services or, with the consent of the department, 7077
the state agency or other governmental entity that is using the 7078
capital facility.7079

       Sec. 152.24.  (A) Except as otherwise provided with respect 7080
to leasing of capital facilities in sections 152.241, 152.242, 7081
152.31, and 152.33 of the Revised Code, the department of 7082
administrative services or, with the consent of the department of 7083
administrative services, the state agency using an office facility 7084
and related storage and parking facilities, or participating in 7085
such facilities pursuant to section 152.33 of the Revised Code, 7086
shall lease any office facility and related storage and parking 7087
facility acquired, purchased, constructed, reconstructed, 7088
rehabilitated, remodeled, renovated, enlarged, improved, altered, 7089
operated, maintained, equipped, furnished, repaired, painted, 7090
decorated, or financed by the Ohio building authority for housing 7091
any state agencies. An agreement between the authority and the 7092
department of administrative services or such using or 7093
participating agency may provide for the transfer of the property 7094
to the state after bonds and notes issued by the authority for the 7095
purpose of the acquisition, purchase, construction, 7096
reconstruction, rehabilitation, remodeling, renovation, 7097
enlargement, improvement, alteration, equipping, furnishing, 7098
repair, painting, decorating, or financing of such building or 7099
facility have been repaid. A lease between the authority and the 7100
department of administrative services or a using or participating 7101
agency shall be for a period not exceeding the then current 7102
two-year period for which appropriations have been made by the 7103
general assembly to the department of administrative services and 7104
the state agencies which will occupy or participate in the office 7105
facility and related storage and parking facility being leased, 7106
and such lease may contain such other terms as the department of 7107
administrative services, or a using or participating agency, and 7108
the authority agree notwithstanding any other provision of law, 7109
including provision that rental payments in amounts at least 7110
sufficient to pay bond service charges payable during the current 7111
two-year lease term shall be an absolute and unconditional 7112
obligation of the department of administrative services, or the 7113
using or participating agency, independent of all other duties 7114
under the lease without setoff or deduction or any other similar 7115
rights or defenses. Such an agreement may provide for renewal of a 7116
lease at the end of each term for another term, not exceeding two 7117
years, provided that no renewal shall be effective until the 7118
effective date of an appropriation enacted by the general assembly 7119
from which the department of administrative services, or the using 7120
or participating agency, may lawfully pay rentals under such 7121
lease. For purposes of this section, the term "lease" may include, 7122
without limitation, any agreement between the department of 7123
administrative services, or the using or participating agency, and 7124
the authority with respect to any costs of capital facilities to 7125
be incurred prior to land acquisition.7126

       (B) If the director of administrative services or the 7127
director of a state agency using or participating in an office 7128
facility and related storage and parking facility certifies that 7129
space in such facility acquired, purchased, constructed, 7130
reconstructed, rehabilitated, remodeled, renovated, enlarged, 7131
improved, altered, operated, maintained, equipped, furnished, 7132
repaired, painted, decorated, or financed by the authority has 7133
become unnecessary for state use, the authority may lease any 7134
excess space in such facility and related storage and parking 7135
facility to any governmental entity.7136

       (C) If space in any office facility leased by the authority 7137
to the department of administrative services is not immediately 7138
necessary for state use, the department of administrative services 7139
may exercise its authority under division (A)(9)(5) of section 7140
123.01 of the Revised Code with respect to such space.7141

       (D) Capital facilities acquired, purchased, constructed, 7142
reconstructed, rehabilitated, remodeled, renovated, enlarged, 7143
improved, altered, operated, maintained, equipped, furnished, 7144
repaired, painted, decorated, or financed by the Ohio building 7145
authority, other than any office facility and related storage and 7146
parking facility required to be leased pursuant to division (A) of 7147
this section, shall be leased to the department of administrative 7148
services, the state agency using the capital facilities, or the 7149
state agency participating in the capital facilities pursuant to 7150
section 152.33 of the Revised Code. The department of 7151
administrative services or the using or participating state agency 7152
may sublease such capital facilities to other state agencies or 7153
other governmental entities. Such parties, including other state 7154
agencies or state-supported or state-assisted institutions of 7155
higher education, may make other agreements for the use, 7156
construction, or operation of such capital facilities in any 7157
manner permitted by the lease or agreement with the authority and 7158
for the charging, collection, and deposit of such revenues and 7159
receipts of the using or participating state agency constituting 7160
available receipts, all upon such terms and conditions as the 7161
parties may agree upon and pursuant to this chapter 7162
notwithstanding other provisions of law affecting the leasing, 7163
acquisition, operation, or disposition of capital facilities by 7164
such parties. Any such lease between the authority and the 7165
department of administrative services or a using or participating 7166
state agency shall be for a period not to exceed the then current 7167
two-year period for which appropriations have been made by the 7168
general assembly to the department of administrative services or 7169
such using or participating state agency. The lease between the 7170
authority and the department of administrative services or the 7171
using or participating state agency may provide for renewal of the 7172
lease at the end of each term for another term, not exceeding two 7173
years, but no renewal shall be effective until the effective date 7174
of an appropriation enacted by the general assembly from which the 7175
department of administrative services or the using or 7176
participating state agency may lawfully pay rentals under such 7177
lease. Any such leases, subleases, or agreements may set forth the 7178
responsibilities of the authority, state agencies, 7179
state-supported, or state-assisted institutions of higher 7180
education, or other governmental entities as to the financing, 7181
assessment, planning, acquisition, purchase, construction, 7182
reconstruction, rehabilitation, remodeling, renovation, 7183
enlargement, improvement, alteration, subleasing, management, 7184
operation, maintenance, equipping, furnishing, repair, painting, 7185
decorating, and insuring of such capital facilities and other 7186
terms and conditions applicable thereto, and any other provisions 7187
mutually agreed upon for the purposes of this chapter. Promptly 7188
upon execution thereof, a signed or conformed copy of each such 7189
lease or sublease or agreement, and any supplement thereto, 7190
between the authority and a governmental entity shall be filed by 7191
the authority with the department of administrative services and 7192
the director of budget and management, and, promptly upon 7193
execution thereof, a signed or conformed copy of each such 7194
sublease or agreement between two governmental entities, not 7195
including the authority, shall be filed with the authority and the 7196
director of budget and management. For purposes of this section, 7197
the term "lease" may include, without limitation, any agreement 7198
between the department of administrative services or the state 7199
agency using or participating in such capital facilities and the 7200
authority with respect to any costs of capital facilities to be 7201
incurred prior to land acquisition.7202

       (E) The transfer of tangible personal property by lease under 7203
authority of this chapter is not a sale as used in Chapter 5739. 7204
of the Revised Code. Any agreement of a governmental entity to 7205
make rental, use, or other payments or payment of purchase price, 7206
in installments or otherwise, or repayments to or on account of 7207
the authority and the obligations issued by the authority, shall 7208
not be deemed to constitute indebtedness, bonded or otherwise, or 7209
bonds, notes, or other evidence of indebtedness of such 7210
governmental entity for the purpose of Chapter 133. of the Revised 7211
Code or any other purpose; such leases and agreements requiring 7212
payments beyond the current fiscal year are continuing contracts 7213
for the purposes of sections 5705.41 and 5705.44 of the Revised 7214
Code.7215

       (F) Any agreement between the department of administrative 7216
services or the state agency using or participating in such 7217
capital facilities and the authority that includes provision for 7218
the use of space by such using or participating state agency or 7219
the department of administrative services, even if executed prior 7220
to land acquisition or completion of construction, improvements, 7221
or financing, shall be a lease for purposes of this chapter and 7222
for all other purposes. No such lease need be recorded or 7223
recordable for purposes of determining its validity or legal 7224
sufficiency.7225

       Sec. 153.01. (A) Whenever any building or structure for the 7226
use of the state or any institution supported in whole or in part 7227
by the state or in or upon the public works of the state that is 7228
administered by the director of administrative servicesOhio 7229
facilities construction commission or by any other state officer 7230
or state agency authorized by law to administer a project, 7231
including an educational institution listed in section 3345.50 of 7232
the Revised Code, is to be erected or constructed, whenever 7233
additions, alterations, or structural or other improvements are to 7234
be made, or whenever heating, cooling, or ventilating plants or 7235
other equipment is to be installed or material supplied therefor, 7236
the estimated cost of which amounts to two hundred thousand 7237
dollars or more, or the amount determined pursuant to section 7238
153.53 of the Revised Code or more, each officer, board, or other 7239
authority upon which devolves the duty of constructing, erecting, 7240
altering, or installing the same, referred to in sections 153.01 7241
to 153.60 of the Revised Code as the public authority, shall cause 7242
to be made, by an architect or engineer whose contract of 7243
employment shall be prepared and approved by the attorney general, 7244
the following:7245

       (1) Full and accurate plans, suitable for the use of 7246
mechanics and other builders in the construction, improvement, 7247
addition, alteration, or installation;7248

       (2) Details to scale and full-sized, so drawn and represented 7249
as to be easily understood;7250

       (3) Definite and complete specifications of the work to be 7251
performed, together with directions that will enable a competent 7252
mechanic or other builder to carry them out and afford bidders all 7253
needful information;7254

       (4) A full and accurate estimate of each item of expense and 7255
the aggregate cost of those items of expense;7256

       (5) A life-cycle cost analysis;7257

       (6) Further data as may be required by the department of 7258
administrative servicesOhio facilities construction commission.7259

       (B) Division (A) of this section shall not be required with 7260
respect to a construction management contract entered into with a 7261
construction manager at risk as described in section 9.334 of the 7262
Revised Code or a design-build contract entered into with a 7263
design-build firm as described in section 153.693 of the Revised 7264
Code.7265

       Sec. 153.011.  (A) Except as provided in division (D) of this 7266
section, whenever any building or structure, including highway 7267
improvements, in whole or in part supported by state capital 7268
funds, including moneys from the education facilities trust fund, 7269
is to be erected or constructed, or whenever additions, 7270
alterations, or structural or other improvements are to be made, 7271
if any steel products are to be purchased for or provided in the 7272
construction, repair, or improvement project, only steel products 7273
as defined in division (F) of this section shall be purchased for 7274
or provided in the project.7275

       (B)(1) No person shall purchase or provide steel products in 7276
violation of division (A) of this section.7277

       (2) Notwithstanding division (B) of section 153.99 of the 7278
Revised Code, no person who purchases steel products in violation 7279
of division (A) of this section shall be held liable in a civil 7280
action commenced under division (C) of this section, or pay a 7281
civil penalty under division (B) of section 153.99 of the Revised 7282
Code, if that person can demonstrate the person's compliance with 7283
division (E) of this section.7284

       (C) Whenever the executive director of administrative 7285
servicesthe Ohio facilities construction commission has 7286
reasonable cause to believe that any person has purchased or 7287
provided steel products in violation of division (A) of this 7288
section, the executive director shall conduct an investigation to 7289
determine whether the person has purchased or provided or is 7290
purchasing or providing steel products in violation of division 7291
(A) of this section. Upon conducting the investigation, if the 7292
executive director finds that the person has purchased or provided 7293
or is purchasing or providing steel products in violation of 7294
division (A) of this section, the executive director shall request 7295
the attorney general to commence a civil action under this section 7296
against the person for violating division (A) of this section. The 7297
remedy provided in this section is concurrent with any other 7298
remedy provided in this chapter, and the existence or exercise of 7299
one remedy does not prevent the exercise of any other. Upon 7300
collection of the civil penalty under division (B) of section 7301
153.99 of the Revised Code, pursuant to an action authorized under 7302
this section, the attorney general shall pay the money collected 7303
to the treasurer of the board of education of the city, local, or 7304
exempted village school district and joint vocational school 7305
district, if one exists, in which the construction, repair, or 7306
improvement project for which the steel products used in violation 7307
of division (A) of this section is located. The treasurer shall 7308
deposit the civil penalty in equal amounts into the school 7309
district's general fund and the joint vocational school district's 7310
general fund. If a joint vocational school district does not exist 7311
where the violation occurred, then the entire sum of the civil 7312
penalty shall be deposited into the school district's general 7313
fund.7314

       (D) Pursuant to section 5525.21 of the Revised Code, the 7315
director of transportation may authorize the purchase or provision 7316
or both of a minimal amount of foreign steel products for use in 7317
contracts for public bridge projects.7318

       The executive director of administrative servicesthe Ohio 7319
facilities construction commission may waive the requirements of 7320
division (A) of this section if the executive director determines 7321
that either division (A) or (B) of section 5525.21 of the Revised 7322
Code is true in connection with a public bridge project. The 7323
executive director shall issue this determination in writing.7324

       (E) The following notice shall be included in boldface type 7325
and capital letters in all bid notifications and specifications 7326
between all parties to any contract authorized under Chapter 153. 7327
of the Revised Code or subject to this section and section 153.99 7328
of the Revised Code: "Domestic steel use requirements as specified 7329
in section 153.011 of the Revised Code apply to this project. 7330
Copies of section 153.011 of the Revised Code can be obtained from7331
any of the officesoffice of the department of administrative 7332
servicesOhio facilities construction commission."7333

       (F) As used in this section:7334

       (1) "Steel products" means products rolled, formed, shaped, 7335
drawn, extruded, forged, cast, fabricated or otherwise similarly 7336
processed, or processed by a combination of two or more of such 7337
operations, and used for load-bearing structural purposes, from 7338
steel made in the United States by the open hearth, basic oxygen, 7339
electric furnace, bessemer or other steel making process.7340

       (2) "United States" means the United States of America and 7341
includes all territory, continental or insular, subject to the 7342
jurisdiction of the United States.7343

       Sec. 153.013.  If a project for the construction, alteration, 7344
or other improvement of a building or structure is administered by 7345
the executive director of administrative servicesthe Ohio 7346
facilities construction commission or by another state agency 7347
authorized to administer a project under this chapter, if the 7348
project is located in a municipal corporation with a population of 7349
at least four hundred thousand that is in a county with a 7350
population of at least one million two hundred thousand, and if a 7351
political subdivision contributes at least one hundred thousand 7352
dollars to the project, then a contractor for the project shall 7353
comply with regulations or ordinances of the political subdivision 7354
that are in effect before July 1, 2009, and that specifically 7355
relate to the employment of residents and local businesses of the 7356
political subdivision in the performance of the work of the 7357
project, and such ordinances or regulations shall be included by 7358
reference unambiguously in the contract between the administering 7359
state agency and the contractor for the project.7360

       Sec. 153.02.  (A) The executive director of administrative 7361
services, on the director's own initiative or upon request of the 7362
Ohio school facilities construction commission, may debar a 7363
contractor from contract awards for public improvements as 7364
referred to in section 153.01 of the Revised Code or for projects 7365
as defined in section 3318.01 of the Revised Code, upon proof that 7366
the contractor has done any of the following:7367

        (1) Defaulted on a contract requiring the execution of a 7368
takeover agreement as set forth in division (B) of section 153.17 7369
of the Revised Code;7370

        (2) Knowingly failed during the course of a contract to 7371
maintain the coverage required by the bureau of workers' 7372
compensation;7373

        (3) Knowingly failed during the course of a contract to 7374
maintain the contractor's drug-free workplace program as required 7375
by the contract;7376

        (4) Knowingly failed during the course of a contract to 7377
maintain insurance required by the contract or otherwise by law, 7378
resulting in a substantial loss to the owner, as owner is referred 7379
to in section 153.01 of the Revised Code, or to the commission and 7380
school district board, as provided in division (F) of section 7381
3318.08 of the Revised Code;7382

        (5) Misrepresented the firm's qualifications in the selection 7383
process set forth in sections 153.65 to 153.71 or section 3318.10 7384
of the Revised Code;7385

        (6) Been convicted of a criminal offense related to the 7386
application for or performance of any public or private contract, 7387
including, but not limited to, embezzlement, theft, forgery, 7388
bribery, falsification or destruction of records, receiving stolen 7389
property, and any other offense that directly reflects on the 7390
contractor's business integrity;7391

        (7) Been convicted of a criminal offense under state or 7392
federal antitrust laws;7393

        (8) Deliberately or willfully submitted false or misleading 7394
information in connection with the application for or performance 7395
of a public contract;7396

        (9) Been debarred from bidding on or participating in a 7397
contract with any state or federal agency.7398

        (B) When the executive director reasonably believes that 7399
grounds for debarment exist, the executive director shall send the 7400
contractor a notice of proposed debarment indicating the grounds 7401
for the proposed debarment and the procedure for requesting a 7402
hearing on the proposed debarment. The hearing shall be conducted 7403
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. If the 7404
contractor does not respond with a request for a hearing in the 7405
manner specified in Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the 7406
executive director shall issue the debarment decision without a 7407
hearing and shall notify the contractor of the decision by 7408
certified mail, return receipt requested.7409

        (C) The executive director shall determine the length of the 7410
debarment period and may rescind the debarment at any time upon 7411
notification to the contractor. During the period of debarment, 7412
the contractor is not eligible to bid for or participate in any 7413
contract for a public improvement as referred to in section 153.01 7414
of the Revised Code or for a project as defined in section 3318.01 7415
of the Revised Code. After the debarment period expires, the 7416
contractor shall be eligible to bid for and participate in such 7417
contracts.7418

        (D) The executive director, through the office of the state 7419
architect, shall maintain a list of all contractors currently 7420
debarred under this section. Any governmental entity awarding a 7421
contract for construction of a public improvement or project may 7422
use a contractor's presence on the debarment list to determine 7423
whether a contractor is responsible or best under section 9.312 or 7424
any other section of the Revised Code in the award of a contract.7425

       Sec. 153.04.  The plans, details, bills of material, 7426
specifications of work, estimates of cost in detail and in the 7427
aggregate, life-cycle cost analysis, form of bid, bid guaranty, 7428
and other data that may be required shall be prepared on such 7429
material and in such manner and form as are prescribed by the 7430
department of administrative servicesOhio facilities construction 7431
commission. The life-cycle costs shall be a primary consideration 7432
in the selection of a design. The same shall be deposited and 7433
safely kept in the office of the owner as defined in section 7434
153.01 of the Revised Code as the property of the state.7435

       Sec. 153.06.  After the proceedings required by sections 7436
153.01 and 153.04 of the Revised Code have been complied with, the 7437
owner referred to in section 153.01 of the Revised Code shall give 7438
public notice of the time and place when and where bids will be 7439
received for performing the labor and furnishing the materials of 7440
such construction, improvement, alteration, addition, or 7441
installation, and a contract awarded, except for materials 7442
manufactured by the state or labor supplied by a county department 7443
of job and family services that may enter into the same. The form 7444
of bid approved by the department of administrative servicesOhio 7445
facilities construction commission shall be used, and a bid shall 7446
be invalid and not considered unless such form is used without 7447
change, alteration, or addition. Bidders may be permitted to bid 7448
upon all the branches of work and materials to be furnished and 7449
supplied, or upon any thereof, or alternately upon all or any 7450
thereof.7451

       Sec. 153.07.  The notice provided for in section 153.06 of 7452
the Revised Code shall be published once each week for three 7453
consecutive weeks in a newspaper of general circulation, or as 7454
provided in section 7.16 of the Revised Code, in the county where 7455
the activity for which bids are submitted is to occur and in such 7456
other newspapers as ordered by the department of administrative 7457
servicesOhio facilities construction commission, the last 7458
publication to be at least eight days preceding the day for 7459
opening the bids, and in such form and with such phraseology as 7460
the departmentcommission orders. Copies of the plans, details, 7461
estimates of cost, and specifications shall be open to public 7462
inspection at all business hours between the day of the first 7463
publication and the day for opening the bids, at the office of the 7464
departmentcommission where the bids are received, and such other 7465
place as may be designated in such notice.7466

       Sec. 153.08.  On the day and at the place named in the notice 7467
provided for in section 153.06 of the Revised Code, the owner 7468
referred to in section 153.01 of the Revised Code shall open the 7469
bids and shall publicly, with the assistance of the architect or 7470
engineer, immediately proceed to tabulate the bids upon duplicate 7471
sheets. The public bid opening may be broadcast by electronic 7472
means pursuant to rules established by the director of 7473
administrative servicesOhio facilities construction commission. A 7474
bid shall be invalid and not considered unless a bid guaranty 7475
meeting the requirements of section 153.54 of the Revised Code and 7476
in the form approved by the department of administrative services7477
commission is filed with such bid. For a bid that is not filed 7478
electronically, the bid and bid guaranty shall be filed in one 7479
sealed envelope. If the bid and bid guaranty are filed 7480
electronically, they must be received electronically before the 7481
deadline published pursuant to section 153.06 of the Revised Code. 7482
For all bids filed electronically, the original, unaltered bid 7483
guaranty shall be made available to the public authority after the 7484
public bid opening. After investigation, which shall be completed 7485
within thirty days, the contract shall be awarded by such owner to 7486
the lowest responsive and responsible bidder in accordance with 7487
section 9.312 of the Revised Code. 7488

       No contract shall be entered into until the industrial 7489
commission has certified that the person so awarded the contract 7490
has complied with sections 4123.01 to 4123.94 of the Revised Code, 7491
until, if the bidder so awarded the contract is a foreign 7492
corporation, the secretary of state has certified that such 7493
corporation is authorized to do business in this state, until, if 7494
the bidder so awarded the contract is a person nonresident of this 7495
state, such person has filed with the secretary of state a power 7496
of attorney designating the secretary of state as its agent for 7497
the purpose of accepting service of summons in any action brought 7498
under section 153.05 of the Revised Code or under sections 4123.01 7499
to 4123.94 of the Revised Code, and until the contract and bond, 7500
if any, are submitted to the attorney general and the attorney 7501
general's approval certified thereon.7502

       No contract shall be entered into unless the bidder possesses 7503
a valid certificate of compliance with affirmative action programs 7504
issued pursuant to section 9.47 of the Revised Code and dated no 7505
earlier than one hundred eighty days prior to the date fixed for 7506
the opening of bids for a particular project.7507

       Sec. 153.09.  If in the opinion of the owner referred to in 7508
section 153.01 of the Revised Code, the award of a contract to the 7509
lowest responsive and responsible bidder is not in the best 7510
interests of the state, the owner may accept another bid so opened 7511
or reject all bids, and advertise for other bids. Such 7512
advertisement shall be for such time, in such form, and in such 7513
newspaper as the departmentOhio facilities construction 7514
commission directs. All contracts shall provide that such owner 7515
may make any change in work or materials on the conditions and in 7516
the manner provided in sections 153.10 and 153.11 of the Revised 7517
Code.7518

       Sec. 153.11.  Whenever the change referred to in section 7519
153.10 of the Revised Code is approved by the owner as defined in 7520
section 153.01 of the Revised Code, accepted in writing by the 7521
contractor, and filed, the same shall be considered as being a 7522
part of the original contract, and the bond theretofore executed 7523
shall be heldincreased or decreased accordingly to include and 7524
cover the samechange in the contract.7525

       Sec. 153.12.  (A) With respect to award of any contract for 7526
the construction, reconstruction, improvement, enlargement, 7527
alteration, repair, painting, or decoration of a public 7528
improvement made by the state, or any county, township, municipal 7529
corporation, school district, or other political subdivision, or 7530
any public board, commission, authority, instrumentality, or 7531
special purpose district of or in the state or a political 7532
subdivision or that is authorized by state law, the award, and 7533
execution of the contract, shall be made within sixty days after 7534
the date on which the bids are opened. The failure to award and 7535
execute the contract within sixty days invalidates the entire bid 7536
proceedings and all bids submitted, unless the time for awarding 7537
and executing the contract is extended by mutual consent of the 7538
owner or its representatives and the bidder whose bid the owner 7539
accepts and with respect to whom the owner subsequently awards and 7540
executes a contract. The public owners referred to in this section 7541
shall include, in the plans and specifications for the project for 7542
which bids are solicited, the estimate of cost. The bid for which 7543
the award is to be made shall be opened at the time and place 7544
named in the advertisement for bids, unless extended by the owner 7545
or its representative or unless, within seventy-two hours prior to 7546
the published time for the opening of bids, excluding Saturdays, 7547
Sundays, and legal holidays, any modification of the plans or 7548
specifications and estimates of cost for the project for which 7549
bids are solicited is issued and mailed or otherwise furnished to 7550
persons who have obtained plans or specifications for the project, 7551
for which the time for opening of bids shall be extended one week, 7552
with no further advertising of bids required. The contractor, upon 7553
request, is entitled to a notice to proceed with the work by the 7554
owner or its representative upon execution of the contract. No 7555
contract to which this section applies shall be entered into if 7556
the price of the contract, or, if the project involves multiple 7557
contracts where the total price of all contracts for the project, 7558
is in excess of ten per cent above the entire estimate thereof, 7559
nor shall the entire cost of the construction, reconstruction, 7560
repair, painting, decorating, improvement, alteration, addition, 7561
or installation, including changes and estimates of expenses for 7562
architects or engineers, exceed in the aggregate the amount 7563
authorized by law.7564

       The unit or lump sum price stated in the contract shall be 7565
used in determining the amount to be paid and shall constitute 7566
full and final compensation for all the work.7567

       Partial payment to the contractor for work performed under 7568
the lump sum price shall be based on a schedule prepared by the 7569
contractor and approved by the architect or engineer who shall 7570
apportion the lump sum price to the major components entering into 7571
or forming a part of the work under the lump sum price.7572

       Partial payments to the contractor for labor performed under 7573
either a unit or lump sum price contract shall be made at the rate 7574
of ninety-two per cent of the estimates prepared by the contractor 7575
and approved by the architect or engineer. All labor performed 7576
after the job is fifty per cent completed shall be paid for at the 7577
rate of one hundred per cent of the estimates submitted by the 7578
contractor and approved by the architect or engineer.7579

       The amounts and time of payments of any public improvements 7580
contract made by the state or any county, township, municipal 7581
corporation, school district, or other political subdivision, or 7582
any public board, commission, authority, instrumentality, or 7583
special purpose district of or in the state or a political 7584
subdivision or that is authorized by state law, except as provided 7585
in section 5525.19 of the Revised Code, shall be governed by this 7586
section and sections 153.13 and 153.14 of the Revised Code. If the 7587
time for awarding the contract is extended by mutual consent, or 7588
if the owner or its representative fails to issue a timely notice 7589
to proceed as required by this section, the owner or its 7590
representative shall issue a change order authorizing delay costs 7591
to the contractor, which does not invalidate the contract. The 7592
amount of such a change order to the owner shall be determined in 7593
accordance with the provisions of the contract for change orders 7594
or force accounts or, if no such provision is set forth in the 7595
contract, the cost to the owner shall be the contractor's actual 7596
costs including wages, labor costs other than wages, wage taxes, 7597
materials, equipment costs and rentals, insurance, and 7598
subcontracts attributable to the delay, plus a reasonable sum for 7599
overhead. In the event of a dispute between the owner and the 7600
contractor concerning such change order, procedures shall be 7601
commenced under the applicable terms of the contract, or, if the 7602
contract contains no provision for resolving the dispute, it shall 7603
be resolved pursuant to the procedures for arbitration in Chapter 7604
2711. of the Revised Code, except as provided in division (B) of 7605
this section. Nothing in this division shall be construed as a 7606
limitation upon the authority of the director of transportation 7607
granted in Chapter 5525. of the Revised Code.7608

       (B) If a dispute arises between the state and a contractor 7609
concerning the terms of a public improvement contract let by the 7610
state or concerning a breach of the contract, and after 7611
administrative remedies provided for in such contract and any 7612
alternative dispute resolution procedures provided in accordance 7613
with guidelines established by the executive director of 7614
administrative servicesthe Ohio facilities construction 7615
commission are exhausted, the contractor may bring an action to 7616
the court of claims in accordance with Chapter 2743. of the 7617
Revised Code. The state or the contractor may request the chief 7618
justice of the supreme court to appoint a referee or panel of 7619
referees in accordance with division (C)(3) of section 2743.03 of 7620
the Revised Code. As used in this division, "dispute" means a 7621
disagreement between the state and the contractor concerning a 7622
public improvement contract let by the state.7623

       Sec. 153.14.  For the construction of those projects, 7624
improvements, and public buildings over which the director of 7625
administrative servicesOhio facilities construction commission7626
has general supervision pursuant to section 123.01123.21 of the 7627
Revised Code, the estimates referred to in section 153.13 of the 7628
Revised Code shall be filed with the executive director by the 7629
owner referred to in section 153.01 or 153.12 of the Revised Code. 7630
Upon completion of a project referred to in section 153.13 of the 7631
Revised Code or any divisible part thereof, the maintenance and 7632
repair of such project or divisible part shall be assumed by the 7633
owner referred to in section 153.01 or 153.12 of the Revised Code.7634

       In addition to all other payments on account of work 7635
performed, there shall be allowed by the owner referred to in 7636
section 153.01 or 153.12 of the Revised Code and paid to the 7637
contractor a sum at the rate of ninety-two per cent of the invoice 7638
costs, not to exceed the bid price in a unit price contract, of 7639
material delivered on the site of the work, or a railroad station, 7640
siding, or other point in the vicinity of the work, or other 7641
approved storage site, provided such materials have been inspected 7642
and found to meet the specifications. The balance of such invoiced 7643
value shall be paid when such material is incorporated into and 7644
becomes a part of such building, construction, addition, 7645
improvement, alteration, or installation. When an estimate is 7646
allowed on account of material delivered on the site of the work 7647
or in the vicinity thereof or under the possession and control of 7648
the contractor but not yet incorporated therein, such material 7649
shall become the property of the owner under the contract, but if 7650
such material is stolen, destroyed, or damaged by casualty before 7651
being used, the contractor shall be required to replace it at his7652
the contractor's own expense.7653

       When the rate of work and amounts involved are so large that 7654
it is considered advisable by the owner or contractor, estimates 7655
and payments shall be made twice each month.7656

       Payment on approved estimates filed with the owner or its 7657
representative shall be made within thirty days. Upon the failure 7658
of the owner or its representative to make such payments within 7659
thirty days, or upon an unauthorized withholding of retainage, 7660
there shall be allowed to the contractor, in addition to any other 7661
remedies allowed by law, interest on such moneys not paid within 7662
thirty days. Interest on the unauthorized withholding of retainage 7663
shall be in addition to any interest earned in the escrow account 7664
set forth in section 153.13 of the Revised Code. The rate of such 7665
interest shall be the average of the prime rate established at the 7666
commercial banks in the city of over one hundred thousand 7667
population that is nearest the construction project. Nothing in 7668
this section shall be construed as a limitation upon the authority 7669
of the director of transportation granted in Chapter 5525. of the 7670
Revised Code.7671

       Sec. 153.16.  (A) The executive director of administrative 7672
servicesthe Ohio facilities construction commission shall 7673
establish policy and procedure guidelines for contract documents 7674
in conjunction with the administration of public works contracts 7675
that the state or any institution supported in whole or in part by 7676
the state enters into for any project subject to sections 153.01 7677
to 153.11 of the Revised Code.7678

       (B) Notwithstanding any contract provision to the contrary, 7679
any claim submitted under a public works contract that the state 7680
or any institution supported in whole or in part by the state 7681
enters into for any project subject to sections 153.01 to 153.11 7682
of the Revised Code shall be resolved within one hundred twenty 7683
days. After the end of this one hundred twenty-day period, the 7684
contractor shall be deemed to have exhausted all administrative 7685
remedies for purposes of division (B) of section 153.12 of the 7686
Revised Code.7687

       Sec. 153.17.  (A) When in the opinion of the owner referred 7688
to in section 153.01 of the Revised Code, the work under any 7689
contract made under any law of the state is neglected by the 7690
contractor or such work is not prosecuted with the diligence and 7691
force specified or intended in the contract, such owner may make 7692
requisition upon the contractor for such additional specific force 7693
or materials to be brought into the work under such contract or to 7694
remove improper materials from the grounds as in their judgment 7695
the contract and its faithful fulfillment requires.7696

       Not less than five days' notice in writing of such action 7697
shall be served upon the contractor or the contractor's agent in 7698
charge of the work. If the contractor fails to comply with such 7699
requisition within fifteen days, such owner with the written 7700
consent of the department of administrative servicesOhio 7701
facilities construction commission, may employ upon the work the 7702
additional force, or supply the special materials or such part of 7703
either as is considered proper, and may remove improper materials 7704
from the grounds.7705

       (B) When the original contractor has defaulted on a contract 7706
and the surety has declined to take over the project, the owner 7707
may contract with one or more takeover contractors to complete 7708
work that was not finished because of the default of the original 7709
contractor. The owner may enter into a contract with a takeover 7710
contractor without competitive bidding or controlling board 7711
approval. Upon execution of a takeover contract, the owner shall 7712
notify the director of budget and management.7713

       When the owner has taken over a project after a default has 7714
occurred, any moneys that the owner receives from the surety as a 7715
settlement for completion of the project shall be deposited in the 7716
original fund from which the capital appropriation for the project 7717
was made. The executive director, without controlling board 7718
approval, may authorize specified additional uses for the moneys 7719
related to completion of the project and may increase the 7720
appropriation authority in the appropriation line item used to 7721
fund the project by an amount equal to the moneys received from 7722
the surety.7723

       Sec. 153.502. (A) Each construction manager at risk and 7724
design-build firm shall establish criteria by which it will 7725
prequalify prospective bidders on subcontracts awarded for work to 7726
be performed under the construction management or design-build 7727
contract. The criteria established by a construction manager at 7728
risk or design-build firm shall be subject to the approval of the 7729
public authority involved in the project and shall be consistent 7730
with the rules adopted by the department of administrative 7731
servicesOhio facilities construction commission pursuant to 7732
section 153.503 of the Revised Code. 7733

       (B) For each subcontract to be awarded, the construction 7734
manager at risk or design-build firm shall identify at least three 7735
prospective bidders that are prequalified to bid on that 7736
subcontract, except that the construction manager at risk or 7737
design-build firm shall identify fewer than three if the 7738
construction manager at risk or design-build firm establishes to 7739
the satisfaction of the public authority that fewer than three 7740
prequalified bidders are available. The public authority shall 7741
verify that each prospective bidder meets the prequalification 7742
criteria and may eliminate any bidder it determines is not 7743
qualified. 7744

       (C) Once the prospective bidders are prequalified and found 7745
acceptable by the public authority, the construction manager at 7746
risk or design-build firm shall solicit proposals from each of 7747
those bidders. The solicitation and selection of a subcontractor 7748
shall be conducted under an open book pricing method. As used in 7749
this division, "open book pricing method" has the same meaning as 7750
in section 9.33 of the Revised Code, in the case of a construction 7751
manager at risk, and the same meaning as in section 153.65 of the 7752
Revised Code, in the case of a design-build firm.7753

       (D) A construction manager at risk or design-build firm shall 7754
not be required to award a subcontract to a low bidder.7755

       Sec. 153.503. The department of administrative servicesOhio 7756
facilities construction commission, pursuant to Chapter 119. of 7757
the Revised Code and not later than June 30, 2012, shall adopt 7758
rules to do all of the following:7759

       (A) Prescribe the procedures and criteria for determining the 7760
best value selection of a construction manager at risk or 7761
design-build firm;7762

       (B) In consultation with the state architect's office, set7763
Set forth standards to be followed by construction managers at 7764
risk and design-build firms when establishing prequalification 7765
criteria pursuant to section 153.502 of the Revised Code;7766

       (C) Prescribe the form for the contract documents to be used 7767
by a construction manager at risk, design-build firm, or general 7768
contractor when entering into a subcontract;7769

       (D) Prescribe the form for the contract documents to be used 7770
by a public authority when entering into a contract with a 7771
construction manager at risk or design-build firm. 7772

       Sec. 153.53.  (A) As used in this section, "rate of 7773
inflation" has the same meaning as in section 107.032 of the 7774
Revised Code.7775

       (B) Five years after the effective date of this section7776
September 29, 2011, and every five years thereafter, the executive7777
director of administrative servicesthe Ohio facilities 7778
construction commission shall evaluate the monetary threshold 7779
specified in section 153.01 of the Revised Code and adopt rules 7780
adjusting that amount based on the average rate of inflation 7781
during each of the previous five years immediately preceding such 7782
adjustment.7783

       Sec. 154.25. (A) As used in this section:7784

       (1) "Available community or technical college receipts" means 7785
all money received by a community or technical college or 7786
community or technical college district, including income, 7787
revenues, and receipts from the operation, ownership, or control 7788
of facilities, grants, gifts, donations, and pledges and receipts 7789
therefrom, receipts from fees and charges, the allocated state 7790
share of instruction as defined in section 3333.903333.59 of the 7791
Revised Code, and the proceeds of the sale of obligations, 7792
including proceeds of obligations issued to refund obligations 7793
previously issued, but excluding any special fee, and receipts 7794
therefrom, charged pursuant to division (D) of section 154.21 of 7795
the Revised Code.7796

       (2) "Community or technical college," "college," "community 7797
or technical college district," and "district" have the same 7798
meanings as in section 3333.903333.59 of the Revised Code.7799

       (3) "Community or technical college capital facilities" means 7800
auxiliary facilities, education facilities, and housing and dining 7801
facilities, as those terms are defined in section 3345.12 of the 7802
Revised Code, to the extent permitted to be financed by the 7803
issuance of obligations under division (A)(2) of section 3357.112 7804
of the Revised Code, that are authorized by sections 3354.121, 7805
3357.112, and 3358.10 of the Revised Code to be financed by 7806
obligations issued by a community or technical college district, 7807
and for which the issuing authority is authorized to issue 7808
obligations pursuant to this section, and includes any one, part 7809
of, or any combination of the foregoing, and further includes site 7810
improvements, utilities, machinery, furnishings, and any separate 7811
or connected buildings, structures, improvements, sites, open 7812
space and green space areas, utilities, or equipment to be used 7813
in, or in connection with the operation or maintenance of, or 7814
supplementing or otherwise related to the services or facilities 7815
to be provided by, such facilities.7816

       (4) "Cost of community or technical college capital 7817
facilities" means the costs of acquiring, constructing, 7818
reconstructing, rehabilitating, remodeling, renovating, enlarging, 7819
improving, equipping, or furnishing community or technical college 7820
capital facilities, and the financing thereof, including the cost 7821
of clearance and preparation of the site and of any land to be 7822
used in connection with community or technical college capital 7823
facilities, the cost of any indemnity and surety bonds and 7824
premiums on insurance, all related direct administrative expenses 7825
and allocable portions of direct costs of the commission and the 7826
issuing authority, community or technical college or community or 7827
technical college district, cost of engineering, architectural 7828
services, design, plans, specifications and surveys, estimates of 7829
cost, legal fees, fees and expenses of trustees, depositories, 7830
bond registrars, and paying agents for obligations, cost of 7831
issuance of obligations and financing costs and fees and expenses 7832
of financial advisers and consultants in connection therewith, 7833
interest on obligations from the date thereof to the time when 7834
interest is to be covered by available receipts or other sources 7835
other than proceeds of those obligations, amounts necessary to 7836
establish reserves as required by the bond proceedings, costs of 7837
audits, the reimbursements of all moneys advanced or applied by or 7838
borrowed from the community or technical college, community or 7839
technical college district, or others, from whatever source 7840
provided, including any temporary advances from state 7841
appropriations, for the payment of any item or items of cost of 7842
community or technical college facilities, and all other expenses 7843
necessary or incident to planning or determining feasibility or 7844
practicability with respect to such facilities, and such other 7845
expenses as may be necessary or incident to the acquisition, 7846
construction, reconstruction, rehabilitation, remodeling, 7847
renovation, enlargement, improvement, equipment, and furnishing of 7848
community or technical college capital facilities, the financing 7849
thereof and the placing of them in use and operation, including 7850
any one, part of, or combination of such classes of costs and 7851
expenses.7852

       (5) "Capital facilities" includes community or technical 7853
college capital facilities.7854

       (6) "Obligations" has the same meaning as in section 154.01 7855
or 3345.12 of the Revised Code, as the context requires.7856

       (B) The issuing authority is authorized to issue revenue 7857
obligations under Section 2i of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, 7858
on behalf of a community or technical college district and shall 7859
cause the net proceeds thereof, after any deposits of accrued 7860
interest for the payment of bond service charges and after any 7861
deposit of all or such lesser portion as the issuing authority may 7862
direct of the premium received upon the sale of those obligations 7863
for the payment of the bond service charges, to be applied to the 7864
cost of community or technical college capital facilities, 7865
provided that the issuance of such obligations is subject to the 7866
execution of a written agreement in accordance with division (C) 7867
of section 3333.903333.59 of the Revised Code for the withholding 7868
and depositing of funds otherwise due the district, or the college 7869
it operates, in respect of its allocated state share of 7870
instruction.7871

       (C) The bond service charges and all other payments required 7872
to be made by the trust agreement or indenture securing the 7873
obligations shall be payable solely from available community or 7874
technical college receipts pledged thereto as provided in the 7875
resolution. The available community or technical college receipts 7876
pledged and thereafter received by the commission are immediately 7877
subject to the lien of such pledge without any physical delivery 7878
thereof or further act, and the lien of any such pledge is valid 7879
and binding against all parties having claims of any kind against 7880
the authority, irrespective of whether those parties have notice 7881
thereof, and creates a perfected security interest for all 7882
purposes of Chapter 1309. of the Revised Code and a perfected lien 7883
for purposes of any real property interest, all without the 7884
necessity for separation or delivery of funds or for the filing or 7885
recording of the resolution, trust agreement, indenture, or other 7886
agreement by which such pledge is created or any certificate, 7887
statement, or other document with respect thereto; and the pledge 7888
of such available community or technical college receipts is 7889
effective and the money therefrom and thereof may be applied to 7890
the purposes for which pledged. Every pledge, and every covenant 7891
and agreement made with respect to the pledge, made in the 7892
resolution may therein be extended to the benefit of the owners 7893
and holders of obligations authorized by this section, and to any 7894
trustee therefor, for the further securing of the payment of the 7895
bond service charges, and all or any rights under any agreement or 7896
lease made under this section may be assigned for such purpose.7897

       (D) This section is to be applied with other applicable 7898
provisions of this chapter.7899

       Sec. 167.04.  (A) The regional council of governments shall 7900
adopt by-laws, by a majority vote of its members, designating the 7901
officers of the council and the method of their selection, 7902
creating a governing board that may act for the council as 7903
provided in the by-laws, and providing for the conduct of its 7904
business.7905

       (B) The by-laws of the regional council of governments shall 7906
provide for the appointment of a fiscal officer, who may hold any 7907
other office or employment with the council, and who shall 7908
receive, deposit, invest, and disburse the funds of the council in 7909
the manner authorized by the by-laws or action by the council.7910

       (C) The by-laws of a regional council of governments the 7911
members of which include, under sections 167.01 and 167.02 of the 7912
Revised Code, at least eight counties may include a provision 7913
authorizing member attendance and voting at council meetings 7914
either in person or by proxy.7915

       (D)(1) Within ten business days after forming a regional 7916
council of governments, the officers of the council shall notify 7917
the auditor of state of the regional council's formation and shall 7918
provide on a form prescribed by the auditor of state the 7919
information regarding the regional council that the auditor of 7920
state considers necessary.7921

       (2) As used in this division, "business day" means a day of 7922
the week, excluding Saturday, Sunday, or a legal holiday as 7923
defined in section 1.14 of the Revised Code.7924

       Sec. 173.14.  As used in sections 173.14 to 173.27 of the 7925
Revised Code:7926

       (A)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(2) of 7927
this section, "long-term care facility" includes any residential 7928
facility that provides personal care services for more than 7929
twenty-four hours for two or more unrelated adults, including all 7930
of the following:7931

       (a) A "nursing home," "residential care facility," or "home 7932
for the aging" as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code;7933

       (b) A facility authorized to provide extended care services 7934
under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 7935
(1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended, including a long-term acute 7936
care hospital that provides medical and rehabilitative care to 7937
patients who require an average length of stay greater than 7938
twenty-five days and is classified by the centers for medicare and 7939
medicaid services as a long-term care hospital pursuant to 42 7940
C.F.R. 412.23(e);7941

       (c) A county home or district home operated pursuant to 7942
Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code;7943

       (d) An "adult careA residential facility" as defined in7944
licensed under section 5119.705119.22 of the Revised Code that 7945
provides accommodations, supervision, and personal care services 7946
for three to sixteen unrelated adults;7947

       (e) A facility approved by the veterans administration under 7948
section 104(a) of the "Veterans Health Care Amendments of 1983," 7949
97 Stat. 993, 38 U.S.C. 630, as amended, and used exclusively for 7950
the placement and care of veterans;7951

       (f) An adult foster home certified under section 5119.692 of 7952
the Revised Code.7953

       (2) "Long-term care facility" does not include a "residential 7954
facility" as defined in section 5119.22 of the Revised Code or a 7955
"residential facility" as defined inlicensed under section 7956
5123.19 of the Revised Code.7957

       (B) "Resident" means a resident of a long-term care facility 7958
and, where appropriate, includes a prospective, previous, or 7959
deceased resident of a long-term care facility.7960

       (C) "Community-based long-term care services" means health 7961
and social services provided to persons in their own homes or in 7962
community care settings, and includes any of the following:7963

       (1) Case management;7964

       (2) Home health care;7965

       (3) Homemaker services;7966

       (4) Chore services;7967

       (5) Respite care;7968

       (6) Adult day care;7969

       (7) Home-delivered meals;7970

       (8) Personal care;7971

       (9) Physical, occupational, and speech therapy;7972

       (10) Transportation;7973

       (11) Any other health and social services provided to persons 7974
that allow them to retain their independence in their own homes or 7975
in community care settings.7976

       (D) "Recipient" means a recipient of community-based 7977
long-term care services and, where appropriate, includes a 7978
prospective, previous, or deceased recipient of community-based 7979
long-term care services.7980

       (E) "Sponsor" means an adult relative, friend, or guardian 7981
who has an interest in or responsibility for the welfare of a 7982
resident or a recipient.7983

       (F) "Personal care services" has the same meaning as in 7984
section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.7985

       (G) "Regional long-term care ombudsperson program" means an 7986
entity, either public or private and nonprofit, designated as a 7987
regional long-term care ombudsperson program by the state 7988
long-term care ombudsperson.7989

       (H) "Representative of the office of the state long-term care 7990
ombudsperson program" means the state long-term care ombudsperson 7991
or a member of the ombudsperson's staff, or a person certified as 7992
a representative of the office under section 173.21 of the Revised 7993
Code.7994

       (I) "Area agency on aging" means an area agency on aging 7995
established under the "Older Americans Act of 1965," 79 Stat. 219, 7996
42 U.S.C.A. 3001, as amended.7997

       Sec. 173.21.  (A) The office of the state long-term care 7998
ombudsperson program, through the state long-term care 7999
ombudsperson and the regional long-term care ombudsperson 8000
programs, shall require each representative of the office to 8001
complete a training and certification program in accordance with 8002
this section and to meet the continuing education requirements 8003
established under this section.8004

       (B) The department of aging shall adopt rules under Chapter 8005
119. of the Revised Code specifying the content of training 8006
programs for representatives of the office of the state long-term 8007
care ombudsperson program. Training for representatives other than 8008
those who are volunteers providing services through regional 8009
long-term care ombudsperson programs shall include instruction 8010
regarding federal, state, and local laws, rules, and policies on 8011
long-term care facilities and community-based long-term care 8012
services; investigative techniques; and other topics considered 8013
relevant by the department and shall consist of the following:8014

       (1) A minimum of forty clock hours of basic instruction, 8015
which shall be completed before the trainee is permitted to handle 8016
complaints without the supervision of a representative of the 8017
office certified under this section;8018

       (2) An additional sixty clock hours of instruction, which 8019
shall be completed within the first fifteen months of employment;8020

       (3) An internship of twenty clock hours, which shall be 8021
completed within the first twenty-four months of employment, 8022
including instruction in, and observation of, basic nursing care 8023
and long-term care provider operations and procedures. The 8024
internship shall be performed at a site that has been approved as 8025
an internship site by the state long-term care ombudsperson.8026

       (4) One of the following, which shall be completed within the 8027
first twenty-four months of employment:8028

       (a) Observation of a survey conducted by the director of 8029
health to certify a facility to receive funds under sections 8030
5111.20 to 5111.32 of the Revised Code;8031

       (b) Observation of an inspection conducted by the director of 8032
mental health to license an adult carea residential facility 8033
under section 5119.735119.22 of the Revised Code that provides 8034
accommodations, supervision, and personal care services for three 8035
to sixteen unrelated adults.8036

       (5) Any other training considered appropriate by the 8037
department.8038

       (C) Persons who for a period of at least six months prior to 8039
June 11, 1990, served as ombudsmen through the long-term care 8040
ombudsperson program established by the department of aging under 8041
division (M) of section 173.01 of the Revised Code shall not be 8042
required to complete a training program. These persons and persons 8043
who complete a training program shall take an examination 8044
administered by the department of aging. On attainment of a 8045
passing score, the person shall be certified by the department as 8046
a representative of the office. The department shall issue the 8047
person an identification card, which the representative shall show 8048
at the request of any person with whom the representative deals 8049
while performing the representative's duties and which shall be 8050
surrendered at the time the representative separates from the 8051
office.8052

       (D) The state ombudsperson and each regional program shall 8053
conduct training programs for volunteers on their respective 8054
staffs in accordance with the rules of the department of aging 8055
adopted under division (B) of this section. Training programs may 8056
be conducted that train volunteers to complete some, but not all, 8057
of the duties of a representative of the office. Each regional 8058
office shall bear the cost of training its representatives who are 8059
volunteers. On completion of a training program, the 8060
representative shall take an examination administered by the 8061
department of aging. On attainment of a passing score, a volunteer 8062
shall be certified by the department as a representative 8063
authorized to perform services specified in the certification. The 8064
department shall issue an identification card, which the 8065
representative shall show at the request of any person with whom 8066
the representative deals while performing the representative's 8067
duties and which shall be surrendered at the time the 8068
representative separates from the office. Except as a supervised 8069
part of a training program, no volunteer shall perform any duty 8070
unless he is certified as a representative having received 8071
appropriate training for that duty.8072

       (E) The state ombudsperson shall provide technical assistance 8073
to regional programs conducting training programs for volunteers 8074
and shall monitor the training programs.8075

       (F) Prior to scheduling an observation of a certification 8076
survey or licensing inspection for purposes of division (B)(4) of 8077
this section, the state ombudsperson shall obtain permission to 8078
have the survey or inspection observed from both the director of 8079
health and the long-term care facility at which the survey or 8080
inspection is to take place.8081

       (G) The department of aging shall establish continuing 8082
education requirements for representatives of the office.8083

       Sec. 173.23.  (A) Representatives of the office of the state 8084
long-term care ombudsperson program are immune from civil or 8085
criminal liability for any action taken in the good faith 8086
performance of their official duties under sections 173.14 to 8087
173.26 of the Revised Code. The department of aging shall ensure 8088
that adequate legal counsel is available to the office of the 8089
state long-term care ombudsperson program for advice and 8090
consultation and that legal representation is provided to any 8091
representative of the office against whom any legal action is 8092
brought in connection with the representative's official duties 8093
under sections 173.14 to 173.26 of the Revised Code.8094

       (B) A person acting in good faith is immune from civil or 8095
criminal liability incident to any of the following: providing 8096
information to the office, participating in registration of a 8097
complaint with the office, participating in investigation of a 8098
complaint by the office, or participating in an administrative or 8099
judicial proceeding resulting from a complaint.8100

       (C) No person shall knowingly register a false complaint with 8101
the office, or knowingly swear or affirm the truth of a false 8102
complaint previously registered, when the statement is made with 8103
purpose to incriminate another.8104

       (D) The attorney general shall provide legal counsel to the 8105
office of the state long-term care ombudsperson program and to the 8106
regional long-term care ombudsperson programs. The attorney 8107
general shall represent any representative of the office and any 8108
representative of a regional program against whom any legal action 8109
is brought in connection with the representative's official duties 8110
under sections 173.14 to 173.26 of the Revised Code.8111

       Sec. 173.26.  (A) Each of the following facilities shall 8112
annually pay to the department of aging six dollars for each bed 8113
maintained by the facility for use by a resident during any part 8114
of the previous year:8115

       (1) Nursing homes, residential care facilities, and homes for 8116
the aging as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code;8117

       (2) Facilities authorized to provide extended care services 8118
under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 8119
(1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended, including a long-term acute 8120
care hospital that provides medical and rehabilitative care to 8121
patients who require an average length of stay greater than 8122
twenty-five days and is classified by the centers for medicare and 8123
medicaid services as a long-term care hospital pursuant to 42 8124
C.F.R. 412.23(e);8125

       (3) County homes and district homes operated pursuant to 8126
Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code;8127

       (4) Adult careResidential facilities as defined inlicensed 8128
under section 5119.705119.22 of the Revised Code that provide 8129
accommodations, supervision, and personal care services for three 8130
to sixteen unrelated adults;8131

       (5) Facilities approved by the Veterans Administration under 8132
Section 104(a) of the "Veterans Health Care Amendments of 1983," 8133
97 Stat. 993, 38 U.S.C. 630, as amended, and used exclusively for 8134
the placement and care of veterans.8135

       The department shall, by rule adopted in accordance with 8136
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, establish deadlines for payments 8137
required by this section. A facility that fails, within ninety 8138
days after the established deadline, to pay a payment required by 8139
this section shall be assessed at two times the original invoiced 8140
payment.8141

       (B) All money collected under this section shall be deposited 8142
in the state treasury to the credit of the office of the state 8143
long-term care ombudsperson program fund, which is hereby created. 8144
Money credited to the fund shall be used solely to pay the costs 8145
of operating the regional long-term care ombudsperson programs.8146

       (C) The state long-term care ombudsperson and the regional 8147
programs may solicit and receive contributions to support the 8148
operation of the office or a regional program, except that no 8149
contribution shall be solicited or accepted that would interfere 8150
with the independence or objectivity of the office or program.8151

       Sec. 173.27.  (A) As used in this section:8152

       (1) "Applicant" means a person who is under final 8153
consideration for employment with the office of the state 8154
long-term care ombudsperson program in a full-time, part-time, or 8155
temporary position that involves providing ombudsperson services 8156
to residents and recipients. "Applicant" includes, but is not 8157
limited to, a person who is under final consideration for 8158
employment as the state long-term care ombudsperson or the head of 8159
a regional long-term care ombudsperson program. "Applicant" does 8160
not include a person who providesseeking to provide ombudsperson 8161
services to residents and recipients as a volunteer without 8162
receiving or expecting to receive any form of remuneration other 8163
than reimbursement for actual expenses.8164

       (2) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 8165
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.8166

       (3) "Disqualifying offense" means any of the following:8167

       (a) A violation of section 959.13, 959.131, 2903.01, 2903.02, 8168
2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.15, 8169
2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2903.341, 2905.01, 8170
2905.02, 2905.05, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 8171
2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 8172
2907.23, 2907.24, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 8173
2907.323, 2907.33, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.04, 2909.22, 2909.23, 8174
2909.24, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 8175
2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.05, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 8176
2913.40, 2913.41, 2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 2913.441, 2913.45, 8177
2913.46, 2913.47, 2913.48, 2913.49, 2913.51, 2917.01, 2917.02, 8178
2917.03, 2917.31, 2919.12, 2919.121, 2919.123, 2919.22, 2919.23, 8179
2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.03, 2921.11, 2921.13, 2921.21, 2921.24, 8180
2921.321, 2921.34, 2921.35, 2921.36, 2921.51, 2923.12, 2923.122, 8181
2923.123, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2923.162, 2923.21, 2923.32, 2923.42, 8182
2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.041, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2925.09, 8183
2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.14, 2925.22, 2925.23, 2925.24, 2925.36, 8184
2925.55, 2925.56, 2927.12, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;8185

       (b) Felonious sexual penetration in violation of former 8186
section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;8187

       (c) A violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it 8188
existed prior to July 1, 1996;8189

       (d) A violation of section 2923.01, 2923.02, or 2923.03 of 8190
the Revised Code when the underlying offense that is the object of 8191
the conspiracy, attempt, or complicity is one of the offenses 8192
listed in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (c) of this section;8193

       (e) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance 8194
or law of this state, any other state, or the United States that 8195
is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in 8196
divisions (A)(3)(a) to (d) of this section.8197

       (4) "Employee" means a person employed by the office of the 8198
state long-term care ombudsperson program in a full-time, 8199
part-time, or temporary position that involves providing 8200
ombudsperson services to residents and recipients. "Employee" 8201
includes the person employed as the state long-term care 8202
ombudsperson and a person employed as the head of a regional 8203
long-term care ombudsperson program. "Employee" does not include a 8204
person who provides ombudsperson services to residents and 8205
recipients as a volunteer without receiving or expecting to 8206
receive any form of remuneration other than reimbursement for 8207
actual expenses.8208

       (5) "Responsible entity" means the following:8209

       (a) In the case of an applicant who is under final 8210
consideration for employment as the state long-term care 8211
ombudsperson or the person employed as the state long-term care 8212
ombudsperson, the director of aging;8213

       (b) In the case of any other applicant or employee, the state 8214
long-term care ombudsperson or the ombudsperson's designee.8215

       (B) The office of the state long-term care ombudsperson 8216
program may not employ an applicant or continue to employ an 8217
employee in a position that involves providing ombudsperson 8218
services to residents and recipients if any of the following 8219
apply:8220

       (1) A review of the databases listed in division (D) of this 8221
section reveals any of the following:8222

       (a) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 8223
of the databases listed in divisions (D)(1) to (5) of this 8224
section;8225

       (b) That there is in the state nurse aide registry 8226
established under section 3721.32 of the Revised Code a statement 8227
detailing findings by the director of health that the applicant or 8228
employee neglected or abused a long-term care facility or 8229
residential care facility resident or misappropriated property of 8230
such a resident;8231

       (c) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 8232
of the databases, if any, specified in rules adopted under this 8233
section and the rules prohibit the office from employing an 8234
applicant or continuing to employ an employee included in such a 8235
database in a position that involves providing ombudsperson 8236
services to residents and recipients.8237

       (2) After the applicant or employee is provided, pursuant to 8238
division (E)(2)(a) of this section, a copy of the form prescribed 8239
pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 8240
and the standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division 8241
(C)(2) of that section, the applicant or employee fails to 8242
complete the form or provide the applicant's or employee's 8243
fingerprint impressions on the standard impression sheet.8244

       (3) Except as provided in rules adopted under this section, 8245
the applicant or employee is found by a criminal records check 8246
required by this section to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty 8247
to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction 8248
for a disqualifying offense.8249

       (C) The responsible entity shall inform each applicant of 8250
both of the following at the time of the applicant's initial 8251
application for employment in a position that involves providing 8252
ombudsperson services to residents and recipients:8253

       (1) That a review of the databases listed in division (D) of 8254
this section will be conducted to determine whether the office of 8255
the state long-term care ombudsperson program is prohibited by 8256
division (B)(1) of this section from employing the applicant in 8257
the position;8258

       (2) That, unless the database review reveals that the 8259
applicant may not be employed in the position, a criminal records 8260
check of the applicant will be conducted and the applicant is 8261
required to provide a set of the applicant's fingerprint 8262
impressions as part of the criminal records check.8263

       (D) As a condition of any applicant's being employed by the 8264
office of the state long-term care ombudsperson program in a 8265
position that involves providing ombudsperson services to 8266
residents and recipients, the responsible entity shall conduct a 8267
database review of the applicant in accordance with rules adopted 8268
under this section. If rules adopted under this section so 8269
require, the responsible entity shall conduct a database review of 8270
an employee in accordance with the rules as a condition of the 8271
office's continuing to employ the employee in a position that 8272
involves providing ombudsperson services to residents and 8273
recipients. A database review shall determine whether the 8274
applicant or employee is included in any of the following:8275

       (1) The excluded parties list system maintained by the United 8276
States general services administration pursuant to subpart 9.4 of 8277
the federal acquisition regulation;8278

       (2) The list of excluded individuals and entities maintained 8279
by the office of inspector general in the United States department 8280
of health and human services pursuant to section 1128 of the 8281
"Social Security Act," 94 Stat. 2619 (1980), 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7, as 8282
amended, and section 1156 of the "Social Security Act," 96 Stat. 8283
388 (1982), 42 U.S.C. 1320c-5, as amended;8284

       (3) The registry of MR/DD employees established under section 8285
5123.52 of the Revised Code;8286

       (4) The internet-based sex offender and child-victim offender 8287
database established under division (A)(11) of section 2950.13 of 8288
the Revised Code;8289

       (5) The internet-based database of inmates established under 8290
section 5120.66 of the Revised Code;8291

       (6) The state nurse aide registry established under section 8292
3721.32 of the Revised Code;8293

       (7) Any other database, if any, specified in rules adopted 8294
under this section.8295

       (E)(1) The state long-term care ombudsperson or the 8296
ombudsperson's designeeAs a condition of any applicant's being 8297
employed by the office of the state long-term care ombudsperson 8298
program in a position that involves providing ombudsperson 8299
services to residents and recipients, the responsible entity shall 8300
request that the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 8301
identification and investigation conduct a criminal records check 8302
with respect to eachof the applicant. If rules adopted under this 8303
section so require, the responsible entity shall request that the 8304
superintendent conduct a criminal records check of an employee at 8305
times specified in the rules as a condition of the office's 8306
continuing to employ the employee in a position that involves 8307
providing ombudsperson services to residents and recipients.8308
However, if the applicant is under final consideration for 8309
employment as the state long-term care ombudsperson, the director 8310
of aging shall request that the superintendent conduct the 8311
criminal records checkthe responsible entity is not required to 8312
request the criminal records check of the applicant or employee if 8313
the office is prohibited by division (B)(1) of this section from 8314
employing the applicant or continuing to employ the employee in a 8315
position that involves providing ombudsperson services to 8316
residents and recipients. If an applicant or employee for whom a 8317
criminal records check request is required underby this division8318
section does not present proof of having been a resident of this 8319
state for the five-year period immediately prior to the date the 8320
criminal records check is requested or provide evidence that 8321
within that five-year period the superintendent has requested 8322
information about the applicant or employee from the federal 8323
bureau of investigation in a criminal records check, the 8324
ombudsperson, designee, or directorresponsible entity shall 8325
request that the superintendent obtain information from the 8326
federal bureau of investigation as part of the criminal records 8327
check of the applicant. Even if an applicant or employee for whom 8328
a criminal records check request is required underby this 8329
divisionsection presents proof of having been a resident of this 8330
state for the five-year period, the ombudsperson, designee, or 8331
directorresponsible entity may request that the superintendent 8332
include information from the federal bureau of investigation in 8333
the criminal records check.8334

       (2) A person required by division (B)(1) of this section to 8335
request a criminal records checkThe responsible entity shall do 8336
bothall of the following:8337

       (a) Provide to each applicant and employee for whom a 8338
criminal records check request is required under that divisionby 8339
this section a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division 8340
(C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a standard 8341
fingerprint impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division 8342
(C)(2) of that section, and obtain;8343

       (b) Obtain the completed form and standard impression sheet 8344
from the applicant or employee;8345

       (b)(c) Forward the completed form and standard impression 8346
sheet to the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 8347
identification and investigation.8348

       (3) An applicant provided the form and fingerprint impression 8349
sheet under division (B)(2)(a) of this section who fails to 8350
complete the form or provide fingerprint impressions shall not be 8351
employed in any position for which a criminal records check is 8352
required by this section.8353

       (C)(1) Except as provided in rules adopted by the director of 8354
aging in accordance with division (F) of this section and subject 8355
to division (C)(2) of this section, the office of the state 8356
long-term care ombudsperson may not employ a person in a position 8357
that involves providing ombudsperson services to residents and 8358
recipients if the person has been convicted of or pleaded guilty 8359
to any of the following:8360

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 8361
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 8362
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 8363
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 8364
2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 8365
2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 8366
2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 8367
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 8368
2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code.8369

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 8370
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 8371
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (C)(1)(a) of 8372
this section.8373

       (2)(a)The office of the state long-term care ombudsperson 8374
program shall pay to the bureau of criminal identification and 8375
investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of 8376
section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each criminal records 8377
check the responsible entity requests under this section. The 8378
office may charge an applicant a fee not exceeding the amount the 8379
office pays to the bureau under this section if the responsible 8380
entity notifies the applicant at the time of initial application 8381
for employment of the amount of the fee.8382

       (F)(1) The office of the state long-term care ombudsperson 8383
program may employ conditionally an applicant for whom a criminal 8384
records check request is required under division (B) ofby this 8385
section prior to obtaining the results of athe criminal records 8386
check regarding the individual, provided that the state long-term 8387
care ombudsperson, ombudsperson's designee, or director of aging 8388
shall request aif the office is not prohibited by division (B)(1) 8389
of this section from employing the applicant in a position that 8390
involves providing ombudsperson services to residents and 8391
recipients and the responsible entity requests the criminal 8392
records check regarding the individual in accordance with division 8393
(B)(1)(E) of this section not later than five business days after 8394
the individualapplicant begins conditional employment.8395

       (b)(2) The office of the state long-term care ombudsperson 8396
program shall terminate the employment of an individualapplicant8397
employed conditionally under division (C)(2)(a)(F)(1) of this 8398
section if the results of the criminal records check request under 8399
division (B) of this section, other than the results of any 8400
request for information from the federal bureau of investigation, 8401
are not obtained within the period ending sixty days after the 8402
date the request for the criminal records check is made. 8403
Regardless of when the results of the criminal records check are 8404
obtained, if the results indicate that the individualapplicant8405
has been convicted of or, pleaded guilty to any of the offenses 8406
listed or described in division (C)(1) of this section, or been 8407
found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 8408
disqualifying offense, the office shall terminate the individual's8409
applicant's employment unless circumstances specified in rules 8410
adopted under this section that permit the office to employ the 8411
applicant exist and the office chooses to employ the individual 8412
pursuant to division (F) of this sectionapplicant. Termination 8413
of employment under this division shall be considered just cause 8414
for discharge for purposes of division (D)(2) of section 4141.29 8415
of the Revised Code if the individualapplicant makes any attempt 8416
to deceive the office about the individual'sapplicant's criminal 8417
record.8418

       (D)(1) The office of the state long-term care ombudsperson 8419
program shall pay to the bureau of criminal identification and 8420
investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of 8421
section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each criminal records 8422
check conducted pursuant to a request made under division (B) of 8423
this section.8424

       (2) The office of the state long-term care ombudsperson 8425
program may charge an applicant a fee not exceeding the amount the 8426
office pays under division (D)(1) of this section. The office may 8427
collect a fee only if the office notifies the applicant at the 8428
time of initial application for employment of the amount of the 8429
fee.8430

       (E)(G) The report of any criminal records check conducted 8431
pursuant to a request made under this section is not a public 8432
record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and 8433
shall not be made available to any person other than the 8434
following:8435

       (1) The individualapplicant or employee who is the subject 8436
of the criminal records check or the individual'sapplicant's or 8437
employee's representative;8438

       (2) The state long-term care ombudsperson, ombudsperson's 8439
designee, director of aging,responsible entity or the 8440
ombudsperson, designee, or director'sresponsible entity's8441
representative;8442

       (3) If the state long-term care ombudsperson designates the 8443
head or other employee of a regional long-term care ombudsperson 8444
program to request a criminal records check under this section, a 8445
representative of the office of the state long-term care 8446
ombudsperson program who is responsible for monitoring the 8447
regional program's compliance with this section;8448

       (4) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 8449
involved in a case dealing with aany of the following:8450

       (a) A denial of employment of the applicant or dealing with 8451
employmentemployee;8452

       (b) Employment or unemployment benefits of the applicant or 8453
employee;8454

       (c) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid program 8455
or a program the department of aging administers.8456

       (F) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 8457
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. 8458
The rules shall specify circumstances under which the office of 8459
the state long-term care ombudsperson program may employ a person 8460
who has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense listed 8461
or described in division (C)(1) of this section but meets personal 8462
character standards set by the director.8463

       (G) The office of the state long-term care ombudsperson 8464
program shall inform each person, at the time of initial 8465
application for a position that involves providing ombudsperson 8466
services to residents and recipients, that the person is required 8467
to provide a set of fingerprint impressions and that a criminal 8468
records check is required to be conducted if the person comes 8469
under final consideration for employment.8470

       (H) In a tort or other civil action for damages that is 8471
brought as the result of an injury, death, or loss to person or 8472
property caused by an individualapplicant or employee who the 8473
office of the state long-term care ombudsperson program employs in 8474
a position that involves providing ombudsperson services to 8475
residents and recipients, all of the following shall apply:8476

       (1) If the office employed the individualapplicant or 8477
employee in good faith and reasonable reliance on the report of a 8478
criminal records check requested under this section, the office 8479
shall not be found negligent solely because of its reliance on the 8480
report, even if the information in the report is determined later 8481
to have been incomplete or inaccurate.8482

       (2) If the office employed the individualapplicant in good 8483
faith on a conditional basis pursuant to division (C)(2)(F) of 8484
this section, the office shall not be found negligent solely 8485
because it employed the individualapplicant prior to receiving 8486
the report of a criminal records check requested under this 8487
section.8488

       (3) If the office in good faith employed the individual8489
applicant or employee according to the personal character 8490
standards established in rules adopted under division (F) of this 8491
section, the office shall not be found negligent solely because 8492
the individual prior to being employed hadapplicant or employee 8493
has been convicted of or, pleaded guilty to an offense listed or 8494
described in division (C)(1) of this section, or been found 8495
eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 8496
disqualifying offense.8497

       (I) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 8498
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. 8499

       (1) The rules may do the following:8500

       (a) Require employees to undergo database reviews and 8501
criminal records checks under this section;8502

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 8503
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, exempt one 8504
or more classes of employees from the requirements;8505

       (c) For the purpose of division (D)(7) of this section, 8506
specify other databases that are to be checked as part of a 8507
database review conducted under this section.8508

       (2) The rules shall specify all of the following:8509

       (a) The procedures for conducting database reviews under this 8510
section;8511

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 8512
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, the times 8513
at which the database reviews and criminal records checks are to 8514
be conducted;8515

       (c) If the rules specify other databases to be checked as 8516
part of the database reviews, the circumstances under which the 8517
office of the state long-term care ombudsperson program is 8518
prohibited from employing an applicant or continuing to employ an 8519
employee who is found by a database review to be included in one 8520
or more of those databases;8521

       (d) Circumstances under which the office of the state 8522
long-term care ombudsperson program may employ an applicant or 8523
employee who is found by a criminal records check required by this 8524
section to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been 8525
found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 8526
disqualifying offense but meets personal character standards.8527

       Sec. 173.391. (A) The department of aging or its designee 8528
shall do all of the following in accordance with Chapter 119. of 8529
the Revised Code:8530

        (1) Certify a person or government entity to provide 8531
community-based long-term care services under a program the 8532
department administers if the person or government entity 8533
satisfies the requirements for certification established by rules 8534
adopted under division (B) of this section and pays the fee, if 8535
any, established by rules adopted under division (G) of this 8536
section;8537

        (2) When required to do so by rules adopted under division 8538
(B) of this section, take one or more of the following 8539
disciplinary actions against a person or government entity 8540
certified under division (A)(1) of this section:8541

        (a) Issue a written warning;8542

        (b) Require the submission of a plan of correction or 8543
evidence of compliance with requirements identified by the 8544
department;8545

        (c) Suspend referrals;8546

        (d) Remove clients;8547

        (e) Impose a fiscal sanction such as a civil monetary penalty 8548
or an order that unearned funds be repaid;8549

        (f) Suspend the certification;8550

       (g) Revoke the certification;8551

        (h) Impose another sanction.8552

        (3) Except as provided in division (E) of this section, hold 8553
hearings when there is a dispute between the department or its 8554
designee and a person or government entity concerning actions the 8555
department or its designee takes regarding a decision not to 8556
certify the person or government entity under division (A)(1) of 8557
this section or a disciplinary action under divisiondivisions8558
(A)(2)(e) to (h) of this section.8559

        (B) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 8560
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing certification 8561
requirements and standards for determining which type of 8562
disciplinary action to take under division (A)(2) of this section 8563
in individual situations. The rules shall establish procedures for 8564
all of the following:8565

        (1) Ensuring that community-based long-term care agencies 8566
comply with section 173.394 of the Revised Code;8567

        (2) Evaluating the services provided by the agencies to 8568
ensure that the services are provided in a quality manner 8569
advantageous to the individual receiving the services;8570

        (3) Determining when to take disciplinary action under 8571
division (A)(2) of this section and which disciplinary action to 8572
take;8573

       (4) Determining what constitutes another sanction for 8574
purposes of division (A)(2)(h) of this section.8575

        (C) The procedures established in rules adopted under 8576
division (B)(2) of this section shall require that all of the 8577
following be considered as part of an evaluation described in 8578
division (B)(2) of this section:8579

        (1) The community-based long-term care agency's experience 8580
and financial responsibility;8581

        (2) The agency's ability to comply with standards for the 8582
community-based long-term care services that the agency provides 8583
under a program the department administers;8584

        (3) The agency's ability to meet the needs of the individuals 8585
served;8586

        (4) Any other factor the director considers relevant.8587

        (D) The rules adopted under division (B)(3) of this section 8588
shall specify that the reasons disciplinary action may be taken 8589
under division (A)(2) of this section include good cause, 8590
including misfeasance, malfeasance, nonfeasance, confirmed abuse 8591
or neglect, financial irresponsibility, or other conduct the 8592
director determines is injurious, or poses a threat, to the health 8593
or safety of individuals being served.8594

       (E) Subject to division (F) of this section, the department 8595
is not required to hold hearings under division (A)(3) of this 8596
section if any of the following conditions apply:8597

       (1) Rules adopted by the director of aging pursuant to this 8598
chapter require the community-based long-term care agency to be a 8599
party to a provider agreement; hold a license, certificate, or 8600
permit; or maintain a certification, any of which is required or 8601
issued by a state or federal government entity other than the 8602
department of aging, and either of the following is the case:8603

       (a) The provider agreement has not been entered into or the 8604
license, certificate, permit, or certification has not been 8605
obtained or maintained.8606

       (b) The provider agreement, license, certificate, permit, or 8607
certification has been denied, revoked, not renewed, or suspended 8608
or has been otherwise restricted.8609

        (2) The agency's certification under this section has been 8610
denied, suspended, or revoked for any of the following reasons:8611

       (a) A government entity of this state, other than the 8612
department of aging, has terminated or refused to renew any of the 8613
following held by, or has denied any of the following sought by, a 8614
community-based long-term care agency: a provider agreement, 8615
license, certificate, permit, or certification. Division (E)(2)(a) 8616
of this section applies regardless of whether the agency has 8617
entered into a provider agreement in, or holds a license, 8618
certificate, permit, or certification issued by, another state.8619

       (b) The agency or a principal owner or manager of the agency 8620
who provides direct care has entered a guilty plea for, or has 8621
been convicted of, an offense materially related to the medicaid 8622
program.8623

        (c) The agency or a principal owner or manager of the agency 8624
who provides direct care has entered a guilty plea for, or been 8625
convicted of, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of 8626
conviction for an offense listed in division (C)(1)(a)divisions 8627
(A)(3)(a) to (d) of section 173.394 of the Revised Code, but only 8628
if none of the personal character standards established by the 8629
departmentdirector in rules adopted under division (F) ofthat8630
section 173.394 of the Revised Code apply.8631

       (d) The United States department of health and human services 8632
has taken adverse action against the agency and that action 8633
impacts the agency's participation in the medicaid program.8634

        (e) The agency has failed to enter into or renew a provider 8635
agreement with the PASSPORT administrative agency, as that term is 8636
defined in section 173.42 of the Revised Code, that administers 8637
programs on behalf of the department of aging in the region of the 8638
state in which the agency is certified to provide services.8639

        (f) The agency has not billed or otherwise submitted a claim 8640
to the department for payment under the medicaid program in at 8641
least two years.8642

        (g) The agency denied or failed to provide the department or 8643
its designee access to the agency's facilities during the agency's 8644
normal business hours for purposes of conducting an audit or 8645
structural compliance review.8646

        (h) The agency has ceased doing business.8647

        (i) The agency has voluntarily relinquished its certification 8648
for any reason.8649

        (3) The agency's provider agreement with the department of 8650
job and family services has been suspended under division (C) of 8651
section 5111.031 of the Revised Code.8652

        (4) The agency's provider agreement with the department of 8653
job and family services is denied or revoked because the agency or 8654
its owner, officer, authorized agent, associate, manager, or 8655
employee has been convicted of an offense that caused the provider 8656
agreement to be suspended under section 5111.031 of the Revised 8657
Code.8658

        (F) If the department does not hold hearings when any 8659
condition described in division (E) of this section applies, the 8660
department may send a notice to the agency describing a decision 8661
not to certify the agency under division (A)(1) of this section or 8662
the disciplinary action the department proposes to take under 8663
division (A)(2)(e) to (h) of this section. The notice shall be 8664
sent to the agency's address that is on record with the department 8665
and may be sent by regular mail.8666

       (G) The director of aging may adopt rules in accordance with 8667
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing a fee to be charged 8668
by the department of aging or its designee for certification 8669
issued under this section.8670

        All fees collected by the department or its designee under 8671
this section shall be deposited in the state treasury to the 8672
credit of the provider certification fund, which is hereby 8673
created. Money credited to the fund shall be used to pay for 8674
community-based long-term care services, administrative costs 8675
associated with community-based long-term care agency 8676
certification under this section, and administrative costs related 8677
to the publication of the Ohio long-term care consumer guide.8678

       Sec. 173.394.  (A) As used in this section:8679

       (1) "Applicant" means a person who is under final 8680
consideration for employment with a community-based long-term care 8681
agency in a full-time, part-time, or temporary position that 8682
involves providing direct care to an individual or is referred to 8683
a community-based long-term care agency by an employment service 8684
for such a position. "Applicant" does not include a person who 8685
provides direct care to an individual as a volunteer without 8686
receiving or expecting to receive any form of remuneration other 8687
than reimbursement for actual expenses.8688

       (2) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 8689
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.8690

       (3) "Disqualifying offense" means any of the following:8691

       (a) A violation of section 959.13, 959.131, 2903.01, 2903.02, 8692
2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.15, 8693
2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2903.341, 2905.01, 8694
2905.02, 2905.05, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 8695
2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 8696
2907.23, 2907.24, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 8697
2907.323, 2907.33, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.04, 2909.22, 2909.23, 8698
2909.24, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 8699
2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.05, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 8700
2913.40, 2913.41, 2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 2913.441, 2913.45, 8701
2913.46, 2913.47, 2913.48, 2913.49, 2913.51, 2917.01, 2917.02, 8702
2917.03, 2917.31, 2919.12, 2919.121, 2919.123, 2919.22, 2919.23, 8703
2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.03, 2921.11, 2921.13, 2921.21, 2921.24, 8704
2921.321, 2921.34, 2921.35, 2921.36, 2921.51, 2923.12, 2923.122, 8705
2923.123, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2923.162, 2923.21, 2923.32, 2923.42, 8706
2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.041, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2925.09, 8707
2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.14, 2925.22, 2925.23, 2925.24, 2925.36, 8708
2925.55, 2925.56, 2927.12, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;8709

       (b) Felonious sexual penetration in violation of former 8710
section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;8711

       (c) A violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it 8712
existed prior to July 1, 1996;8713

       (d) A violation of section 2923.01, 2923.02, or 2923.03 of 8714
the Revised Code when the underlying offense that is the object of 8715
the conspiracy, attempt, or complicity is one of the offenses 8716
listed in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (c) of this section;8717

       (e) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance 8718
or law of this state, any other state, or the United States that 8719
is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in 8720
divisions (A)(3)(a) to (d) of this section.8721

       (4) "Employee" means a person employed by a community-based 8722
long-term care agency in a full-time, part-time, or temporary 8723
position that involves providing direct care to an individual and 8724
a person who works in such a position due to being referred to a 8725
community-based long-term care agency by an employment service. 8726
"Employee" does not include a person who provides direct care to 8727
an individual as a volunteer without receiving or expecting to 8728
receive any form of remuneration other than reimbursement for 8729
actual expenses.8730

       (B) No community-based long-term care agency shall employ an 8731
applicant or continue to employ an employee in a position that 8732
involves providing direct care to an individual if any of the 8733
following apply:8734

       (1) A review of the databases listed in division (D) of this 8735
section reveals any of the following:8736

       (a) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 8737
of the databases listed in divisions (D)(1) to (5) of this 8738
section;8739

       (b) That there is in the state nurse aide registry 8740
established under section 3721.32 of the Revised Code a statement 8741
detailing findings by the director of health that the applicant or 8742
employee neglected or abused a long-term care facility or 8743
residential care facility resident or misappropriated property of 8744
such a resident;8745

       (c) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 8746
of the databases, if any, specified in rules adopted under this 8747
section and the rules prohibit the agency from employing an 8748
applicant or continuing to employ an employee included in such a 8749
database in a position that involves providing direct care to an 8750
individual.8751

       (2) After the applicant or employee is provided, pursuant to 8752
division (E)(2)(a) of this section, a copy of the form prescribed 8753
pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 8754
and the standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division 8755
(C)(2) of that section, the applicant or employee fails to 8756
complete the form or provide the applicant's or employee's 8757
fingerprint impressions on the standard impression sheet.8758

       (3) Except as provided in rules adopted under this section, 8759
the applicant or employee is found by a criminal records check 8760
required by this section to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty 8761
to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction 8762
for a disqualifying offense.8763

       (C) Except as provided by division (F) of this section, the 8764
chief administrator of a community-based long-term care agency 8765
shall inform each applicant of both of the following at the time 8766
of the applicant's initial application for employment or referral 8767
to the agency by an employment service for a position that 8768
involves providing direct care to an individual:8769

       (1) That a review of the databases listed in division (D) of 8770
this section will be conducted to determine whether the agency is 8771
prohibited by division (B)(1) of this section from employing the 8772
applicant in the position;8773

       (2) That, unless the database review reveals that the 8774
applicant may not be employed in the position, a criminal records 8775
check of the applicant will be conducted and the applicant is 8776
required to provide a set of the applicant's fingerprint 8777
impressions as part of the criminal records check.8778

       (D) As a condition of employing any applicant in a position 8779
that involves providing direct care to an individual, the chief 8780
administrator of a community-based long-term care agency shall 8781
conduct a database review of the applicant in accordance with 8782
rules adopted under this section. If rules adopted under this 8783
section so require, the chief administrator of a community-based 8784
long-term care agency shall conduct a database review of an 8785
employee in accordance with the rules as a condition of continuing 8786
to employ the employee in a position that involves providing 8787
direct care to an individual. However, a chief administrator is 8788
not required to conduct a database review of an applicant or 8789
employee if division (F) of this section applies. A database 8790
review shall determine whether the applicant or employee is 8791
included in any of the following:8792

       (1) The excluded parties list system maintained by the United 8793
States general services administration pursuant to subpart 9.4 of 8794
the federal acquisition regulation;8795

       (2) The list of excluded individuals and entities maintained 8796
by the office of inspector general in the United States department 8797
of health and human services pursuant to section 1128 of the 8798
"Social Security Act," 94 Stat. 2619 (1980), 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7, as 8799
amended, and section 1156 of the "Social Security Act," 96 Stat. 8800
388 (1982), 42 U.S.C. 1320c-5, as amended;8801

       (3) The registry of MR/DD employees established under section 8802
5123.52 of the Revised Code;8803

       (4) The internet-based sex offender and child-victim offender 8804
database established under division (A)(11) of section 2950.13 of 8805
the Revised Code;8806

       (5) The internet-based database of inmates established under 8807
section 5120.66 of the Revised Code;8808

       (6) The state nurse aide registry established under section 8809
3721.32 of the Revised Code;8810

       (7) Any other database, if any, specified in rules adopted 8811
under this section.8812

       (E)(1) Except as provided in division (I) of this sectionAs 8813
a condition of employing any applicant in a position that involves 8814
providing direct care to an individual, the chief administrator of 8815
a community-based long-term care agency shall request that the 8816
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 8817
investigation conduct a criminal records check with respect to 8818
eachof the applicant. If rules adopted under this section so 8819
require, the chief administrator of a community-based long-term 8820
care agency shall request that the superintendent conduct a 8821
criminal records check of an employee at times specified in the 8822
rules as a condition of continuing to employ the employee in a 8823
position that involves providing direct care to an individual. 8824
However, the chief administrator is not required to request the 8825
criminal records check of the applicant or employee if division 8826
(F) of this section applies or the agency is prohibited by 8827
division (B)(1) of this section from employing the applicant or 8828
continuing to employ the employee in a position that involves 8829
providing direct care to an individual. If an applicant or 8830
employee for whom a criminal records check request is required 8831
underby this divisionsection does not present proof of having 8832
been a resident of this state for the five-year period immediately 8833
prior to the date the criminal records check is requested or 8834
provide evidence that within that five-year period the 8835
superintendent has requested information about the applicant or 8836
employee from the federal bureau of investigation in a criminal 8837
records check, the chief administrator shall request that the 8838
superintendent obtain information from the federal bureau of 8839
investigation as part of the criminal records check of the 8840
applicant. Even if an applicant or employee for whom a criminal 8841
records check request is required underby this divisionsection8842
presents proof of having been a resident of this state for the 8843
five-year period, the chief administrator may request that the 8844
superintendent include information from the federal bureau of 8845
investigation in the criminal records check.8846

       (2) A person required by division (B)(1) of this section to 8847
request a criminal records checkThe chief administrator shall do 8848
bothall of the following:8849

       (a) Provide to each applicant and employee for whom a 8850
criminal records check request is required under that divisionby 8851
this section a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division 8852
(C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a standard 8853
fingerprint impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division 8854
(C)(2) of that section, and obtain;8855

       (b) Obtain the completed form and standard impression sheet 8856
from the applicant or employee;8857

       (b)(c) Forward the completed form and standard impression 8858
sheet to the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 8859
identification and investigation.8860

       (3) An applicant provided the form and fingerprint impression 8861
sheet under division (B)(2)(a) of this section who fails to 8862
complete the form or provide fingerprint impressions shall not be 8863
employed in any position for which a criminal records check is 8864
required by this section.8865

       (C)(1) Except as provided in rules adopted by the department 8866
of aging in accordance with division (F) of this section and 8867
subject to division (C)(2) of this section, no community-based 8868
long-term care agency shall employ a person in a position that 8869
involves providing direct care to an individual if the person has 8870
been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:8871

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 8872
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 8873
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 8874
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 8875
2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 8876
2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 8877
2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 8878
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 8879
2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code.8880

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 8881
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 8882
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (C)(1)(a) of 8883
this section.8884

       (2)(a)A community-based long-term care agency shall pay to 8885
the bureau of criminal identification and investigation the fee 8886
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the 8887
Revised Code for each criminal records check the agency requests 8888
under this section. An agency may charge an applicant a fee not 8889
exceeding the amount the agency pays to the bureau under this 8890
section if both of the following apply:8891

       (a) The agency notifies the applicant at the time of initial 8892
application for employment of the amount of the fee and that, 8893
unless the fee is paid, the applicant will not be considered for 8894
employment.8895

       (b) The medicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of 8896
the Revised Code does not reimburse the agency for the fee it pays 8897
to the bureau under this section.8898

       (F) Divisions (C) to (E) of this section do not apply with 8899
regard to an applicant or employee if the applicant or employee is 8900
referred to a community-based long-term agency by an employment 8901
service that supplies full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for 8902
positions that involve providing direct care to an individual and 8903
both of the following apply:8904

       (1) The chief administrator of the agency receives from the 8905
employment service confirmation that a review of the databases 8906
listed in division (D) of this section was conducted of the 8907
applicant or employee.8908

       (2) The chief administrator of the agency receives from the 8909
employment service, applicant, or employee a report of the results 8910
of a criminal records check of the applicant or employee that has 8911
been conducted by the superintendent within the one-year period 8912
immediately preceding the following:8913

       (a) In the case of an applicant, the date of the applicant's 8914
referral by the employment service to the agency;8915

       (b) In the case of an employee, the date by which the agency 8916
would otherwise have to request a criminal records check of the 8917
employee under division (E) of this section.8918

       (G)(1) A community-based long-term care agency may employ 8919
conditionally an applicant for whom a criminal records check 8920
request is required under division (B) ofby this section prior to 8921
obtaining the results of athe criminal records check regarding 8922
the individual, provided thatif the agency is not prohibited by 8923
division (B)(1) of this section from employing the applicant in a 8924
position that involves providing direct care to an individual and 8925
either of the following applies:8926

       (a) The chief administrator of the agency shall request a8927
requests the criminal records check regarding the individual in 8928
accordance with division (B)(1)(E) of this section not later than 8929
five business days after the individualapplicant begins 8930
conditional employment.8931

       (b) The applicant is referred to the agency by an employment 8932
service, the employment service or the applicant provides the 8933
chief administrator of the agency a letter that is on the 8934
letterhead of the employment service, the letter is dated and 8935
signed by a supervisor or another designated official of the 8936
employment service, and the letter states all of the following:8937

       (i) That the employment service has requested the 8938
superintendent to conduct a criminal records check regarding the 8939
applicant;8940

       (ii) That the requested criminal records check is to include 8941
a determination of whether the applicant has been convicted of, 8942
pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu 8943
of conviction for a disqualifying offense;8944

       (iii) That the employment service has not received the 8945
results of the criminal records check as of the date set forth on 8946
the letter;8947

       (iv) That the employment service promptly will send a copy of 8948
the results of the criminal records check to the chief 8949
administrator of the agency when the employment service receives 8950
the results. In the circumstances described in division (I)(2) of 8951
this section, a community-based long-term care agency may employ 8952
conditionally an applicant who has been referred to the agency by 8953
an employment service that supplies full-time, part-time, or 8954
temporary staff for positions involving the direct care of 8955
individuals and for whom, pursuant to that division, a criminal 8956
records check is not required under division (B) of this section.8957

       (b)(2) If a community-based long-term care agency employs an 8958
applicant conditionally pursuant to division (G)(1)(b) of this 8959
section, the employment service, on its receipt of the results of 8960
the criminal records check, promptly shall send a copy of the 8961
results to the chief administrator of the agency.8962

       (3) A community-based long-term care agency that employs an8963
individualapplicant conditionally under authority ofpursuant to8964
division (C)(2)(a)(G)(1)(a) or (b) of this section shall terminate 8965
the individual'sapplicant's employment if the results of the 8966
criminal records check request under division (B) of this section 8967
or described in division (I)(2) of this section, other than the 8968
results of any request for information from the federal bureau of 8969
investigation, are not obtained within the period ending sixty 8970
days after the date the request for the criminal records check is 8971
made. Regardless of when the results of the criminal records check 8972
are obtained, if the results indicate that the individual8973
applicant has been convicted of or, pleaded guilty to any of the 8974
offenses listed or described in division (C)(1) of this section, 8975
or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for 8976
a disqualifying offense, the agency shall terminate the 8977
individual'sapplicant's employment unless circumstances 8978
specified in rules adopted under this section that permit the 8979
agency to employ the applicant exist and the agency chooses to 8980
employ the individual pursuant to division (F) of this section8981
applicant. Termination of employment under this division shall be 8982
considered just cause for discharge for purposes of division 8983
(D)(2) of section 4141.29 of the Revised Code if the individual8984
applicant makes any attempt to deceive the agency about the 8985
individual'sapplicant's criminal record.8986

       (D)(1) Each community-based long-term care agency shall pay 8987
to the bureau of criminal identification and investigation the fee 8988
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the 8989
Revised Code for each criminal records check conducted pursuant to 8990
a request made under division (B) of this section.8991

       (2) A community-based long-term care agency may charge an 8992
applicant a fee not exceeding the amount the agency pays under 8993
division (D)(1) of this section. An agency may collect a fee only 8994
if both of the following apply:8995

       (a) The agency notifies the person at the time of initial 8996
application for employment of the amount of the fee and that, 8997
unless the fee is paid, the person will not be considered for 8998
employment;8999

       (b) The medicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of 9000
the Revised Code does not reimburse the agency the fee it pays 9001
under division (D)(1) of this section.9002

       (E)(H) The report of any criminal records check conducted 9003
pursuant to a request made under this section is not a public 9004
record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and 9005
shall not be made available to any person other than the 9006
following:9007

       (1) The individualapplicant or employee who is the subject 9008
of the criminal records check or the individual'sapplicant's or 9009
employee's representative;9010

       (2) The chief administrator of the community-based long-term 9011
care agency requesting the criminal records check or the 9012
administrator's representative;9013

       (3) The administrator of any other facility, agency, or 9014
program that provides direct care to individuals that is owned or 9015
operated by the same entity that owns or operates the 9016
community-based long-term care agency that requested the criminal 9017
records check;9018

       (4) The employment service that requested the criminal 9019
records check;9020

       (5) The director of aging or a person authorized by the 9021
director to monitor a community-based long-term care agency's 9022
compliance with this section;9023

       (5)(6) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary 9024
individual involved in a case dealing with aany of the following:9025

       (a) A denial of employment of the applicant or dealing with 9026
employmentemployee;9027

       (b) Employment or unemployment benefits of the applicant or 9028
employee;9029

       (6) Any person to whom the report is provided pursuant to, 9030
and in accordance with, division (I)(1) or (2) of this section(c) 9031
A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid program or a 9032
program the department of aging administers.9033

       (F) The department of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 9034
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. 9035
The rules shall specify circumstances under which a 9036
community-based long-term care agency may employ a person who has 9037
been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense listed or 9038
described in division (C)(1) of this section but meets personal 9039
character standards set by the department.9040

       (G) The chief administrator of a community-based long-term 9041
care agency shall inform each person, at the time of initial 9042
application for a position that involves providing direct care to 9043
an individual, that the person is required to provide a set of 9044
fingerprint impressions and that a criminal records check is 9045
required to be conducted if the person comes under final 9046
consideration for employment.9047

       (H)(I) In a tort or other civil action for damages that is 9048
brought as the result of an injury, death, or loss to person or 9049
property caused by an individualapplicant or employee who a 9050
community-based long-term care agency employs in a position that 9051
involves providing direct care to individuals, all of the 9052
following shall apply:9053

       (1) If the agency employed the individualapplicant or 9054
employee in good faith and reasonable reliance on the report of a 9055
criminal records check requested under this section, the agency 9056
shall not be found negligent solely because of its reliance on the 9057
report, even if the information in the report is determined later 9058
to have been incomplete or inaccurate;.9059

       (2) If the agency employed the individualapplicant in good 9060
faith on a conditional basis pursuant to division (C)(2)(G) of 9061
this section, the agency shall not be found negligent solely 9062
because it employed the individualapplicant prior to receiving 9063
the report of a criminal records check requested under this 9064
section;.9065

       (3) If the agency in good faith employed the individual9066
applicant or employee according to the personal character 9067
standards established in rules adopted under division (F) of this 9068
section, the agency shall not be found negligent solely because 9069
the individual prior to being employed hadapplicant or employee 9070
has been convicted of or, pleaded guilty to an offense listed or 9071
described in division (C)(1) of this section, or been found 9072
eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 9073
disqualifying offense.9074

       (I)(1) The chief administrator of a community-based long-term 9075
care agency is not required to request that the superintendent of 9076
the bureau of criminal identification and investigation conduct a 9077
criminal records check of an applicant if the applicant has been 9078
referred to the agency by an employment service that supplies 9079
full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for positions involving 9080
the direct care of individuals and both of the following apply:9081

       (a) The chief administrator receives from the employment 9082
service or the applicant a report of the results of a criminal 9083
records check regarding the applicant that has been conducted by 9084
the superintendent within the one-year period immediately 9085
preceding the applicant's referral;9086

       (b) The report of the criminal records check demonstrates 9087
that the person has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an 9088
offense listed or described in division (C)(1) of this section, or 9089
the report demonstrates that the person has been convicted of or 9090
pleaded guilty to one or more of those offenses, but the 9091
community-based long-term care agency chooses to employ the 9092
individual pursuant to division (F) of this section.9093

       (2) The chief administrator of a community-based long-term 9094
care agency is not required to request that the superintendent of 9095
the bureau of criminal identification and investigation conduct a 9096
criminal records check of an applicant and may employ the 9097
applicant conditionally as described in this division, if the 9098
applicant has been referred to the agency by an employment service 9099
that supplies full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for 9100
positions involving the direct care of individuals and if the 9101
chief administrator receives from the employment service or the 9102
applicant a letter from the employment service that is on the 9103
letterhead of the employment service, dated, and signed by a 9104
supervisor or another designated official of the employment 9105
service and that states that the employment service has requested 9106
the superintendent to conduct a criminal records check regarding 9107
the applicant, that the requested criminal records check will 9108
include a determination of whether the applicant has been 9109
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense listed or described 9110
in division (C)(1) of this section, that, as of the date set forth 9111
on the letter, the employment service had not received the results 9112
of the criminal records check, and that, when the employment 9113
service receives the results of the criminal records check, it 9114
promptly will send a copy of the results to the community-based 9115
long-term care agency. If a community-based long-term care agency 9116
employs an applicant conditionally in accordance with this 9117
division, the employment service, upon its receipt of the results 9118
of the criminal records check, promptly shall send a copy of the 9119
results to the community-based long-term care agency, and division 9120
(C)(2)(b) of this section applies regarding the conditional 9121
employment.9122

       (J) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 9123
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section.9124

       (1) The rules may do the following:9125

       (a) Require employees to undergo database reviews and 9126
criminal records checks under this section;9127

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 9128
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, exempt one 9129
or more classes of employees from the requirements;9130

       (c) For the purpose of division (D)(7) of this section, 9131
specify other databases that are to be checked as part of a 9132
database review conducted under this section.9133

       (2) The rules shall specify all of the following:9134

       (a) The procedures for conducting database reviews under this 9135
section;9136

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 9137
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, the times 9138
at which the database reviews and criminal records checks are to 9139
be conducted;9140

       (c) If the rules specify other databases to be checked as 9141
part of the database reviews, the circumstances under which a 9142
community-based long-term care agency is prohibited from employing 9143
an applicant or continuing to employ an employee who is found by a 9144
database review to be included in one or more of those databases;9145

       (d) Circumstances under which a community-based long-term 9146
care agency may employ an applicant or employee who is found by a 9147
criminal records check required by this section to have been 9148
convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for 9149
intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense but 9150
meets personal character standards.9151

       Sec. 173.40.  (A) As used in sections 173.40 to 173.402 of 9152
the Revised Code:9153

       "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 9154
section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.9155

       "PASSPORT program" means the program created under this 9156
section.9157

       "PASSPORT waiver" means the federal medicaid waiver granted 9158
by the United States secretary of health and human services that 9159
authorizes the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program.9160

       "Unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver 9161
component" means the medicaid waiver component authorized by 9162
section 5111.864 of the Revised Code.9163

       (B) There is hereby created the preadmission screening system 9164
providing options and resources today program, or PASSPORT. The 9165
PASSPORT program shall provide home and community-based services 9166
as an alternative to nursing facility placement for individuals 9167
who are aged and disabled and meet the program's applicable 9168
eligibility requirements. Subject to division (C) of this section, 9169
the program shall have a medicaid-funded component and a 9170
state-funded component.9171

       (C)(1) Unless the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT 9172
program is terminated under division (C)(2) of this section, all 9173
of the following apply:9174

       (a) The department of aging shall administer the 9175
medicaid-funded component through a contract entered into with the 9176
department of job and family services under section 5111.91 of the 9177
Revised Code.9178

       (b) The medicaid-funded component shall be operated as a 9179
separate medicaid waiver component. 9180

       (c) For an individual to be eligible for the medicaid-funded 9181
component, the individual must be a medicaid recipient and meet 9182
the additional eligibility requirements applicable to the 9183
individual established in rules adopted under division (C)(1)(d) 9184
of this section.9185

       (d) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 9186
under section 5111.85 of the Revised Code and the director of 9187
aging shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 9188
Revised Code to implement the medicaid-funded component.9189

       (2) If the unified long-term services and support medicaid 9190
waiver component is created, the departments of aging and job and 9191
family services shall work together to determine whether the 9192
medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program should continue 9193
to operate as a separate medicaid waiver component or be 9194
terminated. If the departments determine that the medicaid-funded 9195
component of the PASSPORT program should be terminated, the 9196
medicaid-funded component shall cease to exist on a date the 9197
departments shall specify.9198

       (D)(1) The department of aging shall administer the 9199
state-funded component of the PASSPORT program. The state-funded 9200
component shall not be administered as part of the medicaid 9201
program.9202

       (2) For an individual to be eligible for the state-funded 9203
component, the individual must meet one of the following 9204
requirements and meet the additional eligibility requirements 9205
applicable to the individual established in rules adopted under 9206
division (D)(4) of this section:9207

       (a) The individual must have been enrolled in the 9208
state-funded component on September 1, 1991, (as the state-funded 9209
component was authorized by uncodified law in effect at that time) 9210
and have had one or more applications for enrollment in the 9211
medicaid-funded component (or, if the medicaid-funded component is 9212
terminated under division (C)(2) of this section, the unified 9213
long-term services and support medicaid waiver component) denied.9214

       (b) The individual must have had the individual's enrollment 9215
in the medicaid-funded component (or, if the medicaid-funded 9216
component is terminated under division (C)(2) of this section, the 9217
unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver component) 9218
terminated and the individual must still need the home and 9219
community-based services provided under the PASSPORT program to 9220
protect the individual's health and safety.9221

       (c) The individual must have an application for the 9222
medicaid-funded component (or, if the medicaid-funded component is 9223
terminated under division (C)(2) of this section, the unified 9224
long-term services and support medicaid waiver component) pending 9225
and the department or the department's designee must have 9226
determined that the individual meets the nonfinancial eligibility 9227
requirements of the medicaid-funded component (or, if the 9228
medicaid-funded component is terminated under division (C)(2) of 9229
this section, the unified long-term services and support medicaid 9230
waiver component) and not have reason to doubt that the individual 9231
meets the financial eligibility requirements of the 9232
medicaid-funded component (or, if the medicaid-funded component is 9233
terminated under division (C)(2) of this section, the unified 9234
long-term services and support medicaid waiver component).9235

       (3) An individual who is eligible for the state-funded 9236
component because the individual meets the requirement of division 9237
(D)(2)(c) of this section may participate in the component on that 9238
basis for not more than three monthsninety days.9239

       (4) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 9240
with section 111.15 of the Revised Code to implement the 9241
state-funded component. The additional eligibility requirements 9242
established in the rules may vary for the different groups of 9243
individuals specified in divisions (D)(2)(a), (b), and (c) of this 9244
section.9245

       Sec. 173.42.  (A) As used in sections 173.42 to 173.434 of 9246
the Revised Code:9247

       (1) "Area agency on aging" means a public or private 9248
nonprofit entity designated under section 173.011 of the Revised 9249
Code to administer programs on behalf of the department of aging.9250

       (2) "Department of aging-administered medicaid waiver 9251
component" means each of the following:9252

       (a) The medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program 9253
created under section 173.40 of the Revised Code;9254

       (b) The choices program created under section 173.403 of the 9255
Revised Code;9256

       (c) The medicaid-funded component of the assisted living 9257
program created under section 5111.89 of the Revised Code;9258

       (d) Any other medicaid waiver component, as defined in 9259
section 5111.85 of the Revised Code, that the department of aging 9260
administers pursuant to an interagency agreement with the 9261
department of job and family services under section 5111.91 of the 9262
Revised Code.9263

       (3) "Home and community-based services covered by medicaid 9264
components the department of aging administers" means all of the 9265
following:9266

       (a) Medicaid waiver services available to a participant in a 9267
department of aging-administered medicaid waiver component;9268

       (b) The following medicaid state plan services available to a 9269
participant in a department of aging-administered medicaid waiver 9270
component as specified in rules adopted under section 5111.02 of 9271
the Revised Code:9272

       (i) Home health services;9273

       (ii) Private duty nursing services;9274

       (iii) Durable medical equipment;9275

       (iv) Services of a clinical nurse specialist;9276

       (v) Services of a certified nurse practitioner.9277

       (c) Services available to a participant of the PACE program.9278

       (4) "Long-term care consultation" or "consultation" means the 9279
consultation service made available by the department of aging or 9280
a program administrator through the long-term care consultation 9281
program established pursuant to this section.9282

       (5) "Medicaid" means the medical assistance program 9283
established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code.9284

       (6) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 9285
5111.20 of the Revised Code.9286

       (7) "PACE program" means the component of the medicaid 9287
program the department of aging administers pursuant to section 9288
173.50 of the Revised Code.9289

       (8) "PASSPORT administrative agency" means an entity under 9290
contract with the department of aging to provide administrative 9291
services regarding the PASSPORT program. 9292

       (9) "Program administrator" means an area agency on aging or 9293
other entity under contract with the department of aging to 9294
administer the long-term care consultation program in a geographic 9295
region specified in the contract.9296

       (10) "Representative" means a person acting on behalf of an 9297
individual specified in division (G) of this section. A 9298
representative may be a family member, attorney, hospital social 9299
worker, or any other person chosen to act on behalf of the 9300
individual.9301

       (B) The department of aging shall develop a long-term care 9302
consultation program whereby individuals or their representatives 9303
are provided with long-term care consultations and receive through 9304
these professional consultations information about options 9305
available to meet long-term care needs and information about 9306
factors to consider in making long-term care decisions. The 9307
long-term care consultations provided under the program may be 9308
provided at any appropriate time, as permitted or required under 9309
this section and the rules adopted under it, including either 9310
prior to or after the individual who is the subject of a 9311
consultation has been admitted to a nursing facility or granted 9312
assistance in receiving home and community-based services covered 9313
by medicaid components the department of aging administers.9314

        (C) The long-term care consultation program shall be 9315
administered by the department of aging, except that the 9316
department may have the program administered on a regional basis 9317
by one or more program administrators. The department and each 9318
program administrator shall administer the program in such a 9319
manner that all of the following are included:9320

       (1) Coordination and collaboration with respect to all 9321
available funding sources for long-term care services;9322

       (2) Assessments of individuals regarding their long-term care 9323
service needs;9324

       (3) Assessments of individuals regarding their on-going 9325
eligibility for long-term care services;9326

       (4) Procedures for assisting individuals in obtaining access 9327
to, and coordination of, health and supportive services, including 9328
department of aging-administered medicaid waiver components;9329

       (5) Priorities for using available resources efficiently and 9330
effectively.9331

        (D) The program's long-term care consultations shall be 9332
provided by individuals certified by the department under section 9333
173.422 of the Revised Code.9334

        (E) The information provided through a long-term care 9335
consultation shall be appropriate to the individual's needs and 9336
situation and shall address all of the following:9337

       (1) The availability of any long-term care options open to 9338
the individual;9339

       (2) Sources and methods of both public and private payment 9340
for long-term care services;9341

       (3) Factors to consider when choosing among the available 9342
programs, services, and benefits;9343

       (4) Opportunities and methods for maximizing independence and 9344
self-reliance, including support services provided by the 9345
individual's family, friends, and community.9346

       (F) An individual's long-term care consultation may include 9347
an assessment of the individual's functional capabilities. The 9348
consultation may incorporate portions of the determinations 9349
required under sections 5111.202, 5119.061, and 5123.021 of the 9350
Revised Code and may be provided concurrently with the assessment 9351
required under section 5111.204 of the Revised Code.9352

       (G)(1) Unless an exemption specified in division (I) of this 9353
section is applicable, each of the following shall be provided 9354
with a long-term care consultation:9355

       (a) An individual who applies or indicates an intention to 9356
apply for admission to a nursing facility, regardless of the 9357
source of payment to be used for the individual's care in a 9358
nursing facility;9359

       (b) An individual who requests a long-term care consultation;9360

       (c) An individual identified by the department or a program 9361
administrator as being likely to benefit from a long-term care 9362
consultation.9363

       (2) In addition to the individuals specified in division 9364
(G)(1) of this section, a long-term care consultation may be 9365
provided to a nursing facility resident regardless of the source 9366
of payment being used for the resident's care in the nursing 9367
facility. 9368

       (H)(1) Except as provided in division (H)(2) or (3) of this 9369
section, a long-term care consultation provided pursuant to 9370
division (G) of this section shall be provided as follows:9371

       (a) If the individual for whom the consultation is being 9372
provided has applied for medicaid and the consultation is being 9373
provided concurrently with the assessment required under section 9374
5111.204 of the Revised Code, the consultation shall be completed 9375
in accordance with the applicable time frames specified in that 9376
section for providing a level of care determination based on the 9377
assessment.9378

       (b) In all other cases, the consultation shall be provided 9379
not later than five calendar days after the department or program 9380
administrator receives notice of the reason for which the 9381
consultation is to be provided pursuant to division (G) of this 9382
section.9383

       (2) An individual or the individual's representative may 9384
request that a long-term care consultation be provided on a date 9385
that is later than the date required under division (H)(1)(a) or 9386
(b) of this section.9387

       (3) If a long-term care consultation cannot be completed 9388
within the number of days required by division (H)(1) or (2) of 9389
this section, the department or program administrator may do any 9390
of the following:9391

       (a) In the case of an individual specified in division (G)(1) 9392
of this section, exempt the individual from the consultation 9393
pursuant to rules that may be adopted under division (L) of this 9394
section;9395

       (b) In the case of an applicant for admission to a nursing 9396
facility, provide the consultation after the individual is 9397
admitted to the nursing facility;9398

       (c) In the case of a resident of a nursing facility, provide 9399
the consultation as soon as practicable.9400

       (I) An individual is not required to be provided a long-term 9401
care consultation under division (G)(1) of this section if any of 9402
the following apply:9403

       (1) The department or program administrator has attempted to 9404
provide the consultation, but the individual or the individual's 9405
representative refuses to cooperate;9406

       (2) The individual is to receive care in a nursing facility 9407
under a contract for continuing care as defined in section 173.13 9408
of the Revised Code;9409

       (3) The individual has a contractual right to admission to a 9410
nursing facility operated as part of a system of continuing care 9411
in conjunction with one or more facilities that provide a less 9412
intensive level of services, including a residential care facility 9413
licensed under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, an adult carea 9414
residential facility licensed under sections 5119.70 to 5119.889415
section 5119.22 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 9416
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 9417
unrelated adults, or an independent living arrangement;9418

       (4) The individual is to receive continual care in a home for 9419
the aged exempt from taxation under section 5701.13 of the Revised 9420
Code;9421

       (5) The individual is seeking admission to a facility that is 9422
not a nursing facility with a provider agreement under section 9423
5111.22, 5111.671, or 5111.672 of the Revised Code;9424

       (6) The individual is exempted from the long-term care 9425
consultation requirement by the department or the program 9426
administrator pursuant to rules that may be adopted under division 9427
(L) of this section.9428

        (J) As part of the long-term care consultation program, the 9429
department or program administrator shall assist an individual or 9430
individual's representative in accessing all sources of care and 9431
services that are appropriate for the individual and for which the 9432
individual is eligible, including all available home and 9433
community-based services covered by medicaid components the 9434
department of aging administers. The assistance shall include 9435
providing for the conduct of assessments or other evaluations and 9436
the development of individualized plans of care or services under 9437
section 173.424 of the Revised Code.9438

       (K) No nursing facility for which an operator has a provider 9439
agreement under section 5111.22, 5111.671, or 5111.672 of the 9440
Revised Code shall admit any individual as a resident, unless the 9441
nursing facility has received evidence that a long-term care 9442
consultation has been completed for the individual or division (I) 9443
of this section is applicable to the individual.9444

       (L) The director of aging may adopt any rules the director 9445
considers necessary for the implementation and administration of 9446
this section. The rules shall be adopted in accordance with 9447
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and may specify any or all of the 9448
following:9449

       (1) Procedures for providing long-term care consultations 9450
pursuant to this section;9451

       (2) Information to be provided through long-term care 9452
consultations regarding long-term care services that are 9453
available;9454

       (3) Criteria and procedures to be used to identify and 9455
recommend appropriate service options for an individual receiving 9456
a long-term care consultation;9457

       (4) Criteria for exempting individuals from the long-term 9458
care consultation requirement;9459

       (5) Circumstances under which it may be appropriate to 9460
provide an individual's long-term care consultation after the 9461
individual's admission to a nursing facility rather than before 9462
admission;9463

        (6) Criteria for identifying nursing facility residents who 9464
would benefit from the provision of a long-term care consultation;9465

       (7) A description of the types of information from a nursing 9466
facility that is needed under the long-term care consultation 9467
program to assist a resident with relocation from the facility;9468

       (8) Standards to prevent conflicts of interest relative to 9469
the referrals made by a person who performs a long-term care 9470
consultation, including standards that prohibit the person from 9471
being employed by a provider of long-term care services;9472

       (9) Procedures for providing notice and an opportunity for a 9473
hearing under division (N) of this section.9474

       (M) To assist the department and each program administrator 9475
with identifying individuals who are likely to benefit from a 9476
long-term care consultation, the department and program 9477
administrator may ask to be given access to nursing facility 9478
resident assessment data collected through the use of the resident 9479
assessment instrument specified in rules adopted under section 9480
5111.02 of the Revised Code for purposes of the medicaid program. 9481
Except when prohibited by state or federal law, the department of 9482
health, department of job and family services, or nursing facility 9483
holding the data shall grant access to the data on receipt of the 9484
request from the department of aging or program administrator.9485

       (N)(1) The director of aging, after providing notice and an 9486
opportunity for a hearing, may fine a nursing facility an amount 9487
determined by rules the director shall adopt in accordance with 9488
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for any of the following reasons:9489

       (a) The nursing facility admits an individual, without 9490
evidence that a long-term care consultation has been provided, as 9491
required by this section;9492

       (b) The nursing facility denies a person attempting to 9493
provide a long-term care consultation access to the facility or a 9494
resident of the facility;9495

       (c) The nursing facility denies the department of aging or 9496
program administrator access to the facility or a resident of the 9497
facility, as the department or administrator considers necessary 9498
to administer the program.9499

       (2) In accordance with section 5111.62 of the Revised Code, 9500
all fines collected under division (N)(1) of this section shall be 9501
deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the residents 9502
protection fund.9503

       Sec. 173.45. As used in this section and in sections 173.46 9504
to 173.49 of the Revised Code:9505

        (A) "Adult careResidential facility" has the same meaning as 9506
inmeans a residential facility licensed under section 5119.709507
5119.22 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 9508
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 9509
unrelated adults.9510

       (B) "Community-based long-term care services" has the same 9511
meaning as in section 173.14 of the Revised Code.9512

       (C) "Long-term care facility" means a nursing home or 9513
residential care facility.9514

        (D) "Nursing home" and "residential care facility" have the 9515
same meanings as in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.9516

        (E) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 9517
5111.20 of the Revised Code.9518

       Sec. 173.46. (A) The department of aging shall develop and 9519
publish a guide to long-term care facilities for use by 9520
individuals considering long-term care facility admission and 9521
their families, friends, and advisors. The guide, which shall be 9522
titled the Ohio long-term care consumer guide, may be published in 9523
printed form or in electronic form for distribution over the 9524
internet. The guide may be developed as a continuation or 9525
modification of the guide published by the department prior to 9526
September 29, 2005, under rules adopted under section 173.02 of 9527
the Revised Code.9528

        (B) The Ohio long-term care consumer guide shall include 9529
information on each long-term care facility in this state. For 9530
each facility, the guide shall include the following information, 9531
as applicable to the facility:9532

        (1) Information regarding the facility's compliance with 9533
state statutes and rules and federal statutes and regulations;9534

        (2) Information generated by the centers for medicare and 9535
medicaid services of the United States department of health and 9536
human services from the quality measures developed as part of its 9537
nursing home quality initiative;9538

        (3) Results of the customer satisfaction surveys conducted 9539
under section 173.47 of the Revised Code;9540

        (4) Any other information the department specifies in rules 9541
adopted under section 173.49 of the Revised Code.9542

       (C) The Ohio long-term care consumer guide may include 9543
information on adult careresidential facilities and providers of 9544
community-based long-term care services. The department may adopt 9545
rules under section 173.49 of the Revised Code to specify the 9546
information to be included in the guide pursuant to this division.9547

       Sec. 191.01.  As used in this chapter:9548

       (A) "Business associate," "covered entity," "health plan," 9549
"individually identifiable health information," and "protected 9550
health information" have the same meanings as in 45 C.F.R. 9551
160.103.9552

       (B) "Executive director of the office of health 9553
transformation" or "executive director" means the executive 9554
director of the office of health transformation or the chief 9555
administrative officer of a successor governmental entity 9556
responsible for health system oversight in this state.9557

       (C) "Government program providing public benefits" means any 9558
program administered by a state agency that has been identified, 9559
pursuant to section 191.02 of the Revised Code, by the executive 9560
director of the office of health transformation in consultation 9561
with the individuals specified in that section. 9562

       (D) "Office of health transformation" means the office of 9563
health transformation created by executive order 2011-02K.9564

       (E) "Operating protocol" means a protocol adopted by the 9565
executive director of the office of health transformation or the 9566
executive director's designee under division (D) of section 191.06 9567
of the Revised Code.9568

       (F) "Participating agency" means a state agency that 9569
participates in a health transformation initiative as specified in 9570
the one or more operating protocols adopted for the initiative 9571
under division (D) of section 191.06 of the Revised Code.9572

       (G) "Personally identifiable information" means information 9573
that meets both of the following criteria: 9574

       (1) It identifies an individual or there is a reasonable 9575
basis to believe that it may be used to identify an individual;9576

       (2) It relates to an individual's eligibility for, 9577
application for, or receipt of public benefits from a government 9578
program providing public benefits.9579

       (H) "State agency" means each of the following:9580

       (1) The department of aging;9581

       (2) The department of alcohol and drug addiction services;9582

       (3) The department of development;9583

       (4) The department of developmental disabilities;9584

       (5) The department of education;9585

       (6) The department of health;9586

       (7) The department of insurance;9587

       (8) The department of job and family services;9588

       (9) The department of mental health;9589

       (10) The department of rehabilitation and correction;9590

       (11) The department of taxation;9591

       (12) The department of veterans services;9592

       (13) The department of youth services.9593

       (I) "Unsecured" has the same meaning as in 16 C.F.R. 318.2.9594

       Sec. 191.02.  The executive director of the office of health 9595
transformation, in consultation with all of the following 9596
individuals, shall identify each government program administered 9597
by a state agency that is to be considered a government program 9598
providing public benefits for purposes of section 191.04 of the 9599
Revised Code:9600

       (A) The director of aging;9601

       (B) The director of alcohol and drug addiction services;9602

       (C) The director of development;9603

       (D) The director of developmental disabilities;9604

       (E) The director of health;9605

       (F) The director job and family services;9606

       (G) The director of mental health;9607

       (H) The director of rehabilitation and correction;9608

       (I) The director of veterans services;9609

       (J) The director of youth services;9610

       (K) The administrator of the rehabilitation services 9611
commission;9612

       (L) The administrator of workers' compensation;9613

       (M) The superintendent of insurance;9614

       (N) The superintendent of public instruction;9615

       (O) The tax commissioner.9616

       Sec. 191.04.  (A) In accordance with federal laws governing 9617
the confidentiality of individually identifiable health 9618
information, including the "Health Insurance Portability and 9619
Accountability Act of 1996," 104 Pub. L. No. 191, 110 Stat. 2021, 9620
42 U.S.C. 1320d et seq., as amended, and regulations promulgated 9621
by the United States department of health and human services to 9622
implement the act, a state agency may exchange protected health 9623
information with another state agency relating to eligibility for 9624
or enrollment in a health plan or relating to participation in a 9625
government program providing public benefits if the exchange of 9626
information is necessary for either or both of the following:9627

       (1) Operating a health plan;9628

       (2) Coordinating, or improving the administration or 9629
management of, the health care-related functions of at least one 9630
government program providing public benefits.9631

       (B) For fiscal year 2013 only, a state agency also may 9632
exchange personally identifiable information with another state 9633
agency for purposes related to and in support of a health 9634
transformation initiative identified by the executive director of 9635
the office of health transformation pursuant to division (C) of 9636
section 191.06 of the Revised Code. 9637

       (C) With respect to a state agency that uses or discloses 9638
personally identifiable information, all of the following 9639
conditions apply:9640

       (1) The state agency shall use or disclose the information 9641
only as permitted or required by state and federal law. In 9642
addition, if the information is obtained during fiscal year 2013 9643
from an exchange of personally identifiable information permitted 9644
under division (B) of this section, the agency shall also use or 9645
disclose the information in accordance with all operating 9646
protocols that apply to the use or disclosure. 9647

       (2) If the state agency is a state agency other than the 9648
department of job and family services and it uses or discloses 9649
protected health information relating to a medicaid recipient, the 9650
agency shall comply with all state and federal laws that apply to 9651
the department of job and family services when that department, as 9652
the state's single state agency to supervise the medicaid program 9653
as specified in section 5111.01 of the Revised Code, uses or 9654
discloses protected health information. 9655

       (3) A state agency shall implement administrative, physical, 9656
and technical safeguards for the purpose of protecting the 9657
confidentiality, integrity, and availability of personally 9658
identifiable information the creation, receipt, maintenance, or 9659
transmittal of which is affected or governed by an operating 9660
protocol. 9661

       (4) If a state agency discovers an unauthorized use or 9662
disclosure of unsecured protected health information or unsecured 9663
individually identifiable health information, the state agency 9664
shall, not later than seventy-two hours after the discovery, do 9665
all of the following:9666

       (a) Identify the individuals who are the subject of the 9667
protected health information or individually identifiable health 9668
information;9669

       (b) Report the discovery and the names of all individuals 9670
identified pursuant to division (C)(4)(a) of this section to all 9671
other state agencies and the executive director of the office of 9672
health transformation or the executive director's designee;9673

       (c) Mitigate, to the extent reasonably possible, any 9674
potential adverse effects of the unauthorized use or disclosure.9675

       (5) A state agency shall make available to the executive 9676
director of the office of health transformation or the executive 9677
director's designee, and to any other state or federal 9678
governmental entity required by law to have access on that 9679
entity's request, all internal practices, records, and 9680
documentation relating to personally identifiable information it 9681
receives, uses, or discloses that is affected or governed by an 9682
operating protocol.9683

       (6) On termination or expiration of an operating protocol and 9684
if feasible, a state agency shall return or destroy all personally 9685
identifiable information received directly from or received on 9686
behalf of another state agency. If the personally identifiable 9687
information is not returned or destroyed, the state agency 9688
maintaining the information shall extend the protections set forth 9689
in this section for as long as it is maintained.9690

       (7) If a state agency enters into a subcontract or, when 9691
required by 45 C.F.R. 164.502(e)(2), a business associate 9692
agreement, the subcontract or business associate agreement shall 9693
require the subcontractor or business associate to comply with the 9694
terms of this section as if the subcontractor or business 9695
associate were a state agency.9696

       Sec. 191.06.  (A) The provisions of this section shall apply 9697
only for fiscal year 2013.9698

       (B) The executive director of the office of health 9699
transformation or the executive director's designee may facilitate 9700
the coordination of operations and exchange of information between 9701
state agencies. The purpose of the executive director's authority 9702
under this section is to support agency collaboration for health 9703
transformation purposes, including modernization of the medicaid 9704
program, streamlining of health and human services programs in 9705
this state, and improving the quality, continuity, and efficiency 9706
of health care and health care support systems in this state.9707

       (C) In furtherance of the authority of the executive director 9708
of the office of health transformation under division (B) of this 9709
section, the executive director or the executive director's 9710
designee shall identify each health transformation initiative in 9711
this state that involves the participation of two or more state 9712
agencies and that permits or requires an interagency agreement to 9713
be entered into for purposes of specifying each participating 9714
agency's role in coordinating, operating, or funding the 9715
initiative, or facilitating the exchange of data or other 9716
information for the initiative. The executive director shall 9717
publish a list of the identified health transformation initiatives 9718
on the internet web site maintained by the office of health 9719
transformation.9720

       (D) For each health transformation initiative that is 9721
identified under division (C) of this section, the executive 9722
director or the executive director's designee shall, in 9723
consultation with each participating agency, adopt one or more 9724
operating protocols. Notwithstanding any law enacted by the 9725
general assembly or rule adopted by a state agency, the provisions 9726
in a protocol shall supersede any provisions in an interagency 9727
agreement, including an interagency agreement entered into under 9728
section 5101.10 or 5111.91 of the Revised Code, that differ from 9729
the provisions of the protocol.9730

       (E)(1) An operating protocol adopted under division (D) of 9731
this section shall include both of the following:9732

       (a) All terms necessary to meet the requirements of "other 9733
arrangements" between a covered entity and a business associate 9734
that are referenced in 45 C.F.R. 164.314(a)(2)(ii);9735

       (b) If known, the date on which the protocol will terminate 9736
or expire.9737

       (2) In addition, a protocol may specify the extent to which 9738
each participating agency is responsible and accountable for 9739
completing the tasks necessary for successful completion of the 9740
initiative, including tasks relating to the following components 9741
of the initiative: 9742

       (a) Workflow;9743

       (b) Funding;9744

       (c) Exchange of data or other information that is 9745
confidential pursuant to state or federal law. 9746

       (F) An operating protocol adopted under division (D) of this 9747
section shall have the same force and effect as an interagency 9748
agreement or data sharing agreement, and each participating agency 9749
shall comply with it.9750

       (G) The director of job and family services shall determine 9751
whether a waiver of federal medicaid requirements or a medicaid 9752
state plan amendment is necessary to fulfill the requirements of 9753
this section. If the director determines a waiver or medicaid 9754
state plan amendment is necessary, the director shall apply to the 9755
United States secretary of health and human services for the 9756
waiver or amendment.9757

       Sec. 306.04.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in division 9758
(B) of this section, employees of a county transit board or a 9759
board of county commissioners operating a transit system are 9760
employees of the county. If the system is operated by the board of 9761
county commissioners, the board shall appoint an executive 9762
director, who shall be in the unclassified service.9763

       (B) Any county transit board that established its own civil 9764
service organization and procedure prior to the effective date of 9765
this amendmentOctober 25, 1995, shall continue to operate under 9766
that organization. Appointments and promotions in that system 9767
shall be made, as far as practicable, by competitive examination.9768

       A board that established its own civil service organization 9769
prior to the effective date of this amendmentOctober 25, 1995,9770
shall establish by rule the seniority provisions relating to 9771
street railway and motor bus employees in effect at the time of 9772
the acquisition of the transit system by the county. The vacation, 9773
holiday, and sick leave privileges shall not be regulated by other 9774
provisions of law relating to public employees of the state or 9775
county, except that the transit board, its officers and employees, 9776
shall be subject to the public employees retirement system of the 9777
state and the transit board shall assume any pension obligations 9778
which have been assumed by any publicly owned transit system which 9779
the county may acquire.9780

       (C) A county transit board or board of county commissioners 9781
operating a transit system may:9782

       (1) Acquire in its name by gift, grant, purchase, or 9783
condemnation and hold and operate real estate and interests 9784
therein and personal property suitable for its purposes;9785

       (2) In its name purchase, acquire, construct, enlarge, 9786
improve, equip, repair, maintain, sell, exchange, lease as lessee 9787
or lessor, receive a right of use of, and manage, control, and 9788
operate, in or out of the county, a county transit system 9789
consisting of all real estate and interests therein, personal 9790
property, and a combination thereof, for or related to the 9791
movement of persons including but not limited to street railway, 9792
tramline, subways, rapid transits, monorails, and passenger bus 9793
systems but excluding therefrom trucks, the movement of property 9794
by truck, and facilities designed for use in the movement of 9795
property by truck for hire;9796

       (3) Issue, with the approval of the county commissioners when 9797
the issuance is made by the transit board, revenue bonds of the 9798
county as provided in division (B) of section 306.09 of the 9799
Revised Code, to secure funds to accomplish its purposes. The 9800
principal of and interest on such bonds, together with all other 9801
payments required to be made by the trust agreement or indenture 9802
securing such bonds, shall be paid solely from revenues or other 9803
income accruing to the board from facilities of the county transit 9804
system designated in said agreement or indenture.9805

       (4) Enter into contracts in the exercise of the rights, 9806
powers, and duties conferred upon it, and execute all instruments 9807
necessary in the conduct of its business;9808

       (5) Fix, alter, and charge rates and other charges for the 9809
use of its real estate and interests therein, personal property, 9810
and combinations thereof;9811

       (6) Employ such financial consultants, accountants, 9812
appraisers, consulting engineers, architects, construction 9813
experts, attorneys-at-law, managers and other supervisory 9814
personnel, and other officers, employees, and agents as it 9815
determines necessary to conduct its business, and fix their 9816
compensation and duties;9817

       (7) Pledge, hypothecate, or otherwise encumber its revenues 9818
and other income as security for its obligations and enter into 9819
trust agreements or indentures for the benefit of revenue 9820
bondholders;9821

       (8) Borrow money or accept or contract to accept advances, 9822
loans, gifts, grants, devises, or bequests from and enter into 9823
contracts or agreements with any federal, state, or other 9824
governmental or private source and hold and apply advances, loans, 9825
gifts, grants, devises, or bequests according to the terms thereof 9826
including provisions which are required by such federal, state, or 9827
other governmental or private source to protect the interest of 9828
employees affected by such advances, loans, gifts, grants, 9829
devises, or bequests. Such advances, loans, gifts, grants, or 9830
devises may be subject to any reasonable reservation and any gift, 9831
grant, or devise or real estate may be in fee simple or any lesser 9832
estate. Any advances or loans received from any federal, state, or 9833
other governmental or private source may be repaid in accordance 9834
with the terms of such advance or loan.9835

       (9) Conduct investigations and surveys into the needs of the 9836
public within or without the county for transportation services to 9837
provide for the movement of persons within, into, or from the area 9838
serviced or to be serviced by the county transit system;9839

       (10) Enter into lawful arrangements with the appropriate 9840
federal or state department or agency, county, township, municipal 9841
corporation, or other political subdivision or public agency for 9842
the planning and installation of any public facilities which are 9843
determined necessary in the conduct of its business;9844

       (11) Purchase fire, extended coverage, and liability 9845
insurance for the real estate and interests therein, personal 9846
property and any combination thereof, used by or in connection 9847
with the county transit system and insurance covering the board 9848
and the county transit system and its officers and employees for 9849
liability for damage or injury to persons or property;9850

       (12) Procure and pay all or any part of the cost of group 9851
hospitalization, surgical, major medical, or sickness and accident 9852
insurance, or a combination thereof, for the officers and 9853
employees of the county transit system and their immediate 9854
dependents, issued by an insurance company, duly authorized to do 9855
business in this state;9856

       (13) Sell, lease, release, or otherwise dispose of real 9857
estate or interests therein or personal property owned by it and 9858
grant such easements across its real estate and interests therein 9859
as will not interfere with its use by the county transit system;9860

       (14) Establish rules for the use and operation of the county 9861
transit system including the real estate or interests therein, 9862
personal property or a combination of the foregoing used by or in 9863
connection with such system;9864

       (15) Exercise the power of eminent domain to appropriate any 9865
real estate or interests therein, personal property, franchises, 9866
or any combination thereof, within or without the county, 9867
necessary or proper in the exercise of its powers provided in 9868
sections 306.01 to 306.13 of the Revised Code, as provided in 9869
sections 163.01 to 163.22 of the Revised Code, and subject to 9870
divisions (15)(a), (b), and (c) of this section, provided that a 9871
county transit board or a board of county commissioners operating 9872
a transit system shall not proceed to so appropriate real property 9873
outside its territorial boundaries, until it has served at the 9874
office of the county commissioners of the county in which it is 9875
proposed to appropriate real property, a notice describing the 9876
real property to be taken and the purpose for which it is proposed 9877
to be taken, and such county commissioners have entered on their 9878
journal within thirty days after such service a resolution 9879
approving such appropriation;9880

       (a) Nothing contained in this division authorizes a county 9881
transit board or a board of county commissioners to appropriate 9882
any land, rights, rights-of-way, franchises, or easements 9883
belonging to the state or to a municipal corporation without the 9884
consent of the state or of the municipal corporation, and no 9885
county transit board or board of county commissioners shall 9886
exercise the right of eminent domain to acquire any certificate of 9887
public convenience and necessity, or any part thereof, issued to a 9888
for-hire motor transportation companycarrier by the public 9889
utilities commission of Ohio or by the interstate commerce 9890
commissionfederal motor carrier safety administration of the 9891
United States, or to take or disturb other real estate or 9892
interests therein, personal property, or any combination thereof 9893
belonging to any municipal corporation without the consent of the 9894
legislative authority of such municipal corporation, or take or 9895
disturb real estate or interests therein, personal property, or 9896
any combination thereof belonging to any other political 9897
subdivision, public corporation, public utility, or common 9898
carrier, which is necessary and convenient in the operation of 9899
such political subdivision, public corporation, public utility, or 9900
common carrier unless provision is made for the restoration, 9901
relocation, or duplication of that taken or upon the election of 9902
such political subdivision, public corporation, public utility, or 9903
common carrier for the payment of compensation, if any, at the 9904
sole cost of the county transit system.9905

       (b) If any restoration or duplication proposed to be made 9906
under this division involves a relocation, the new location shall 9907
have at least comparable utilitarian value and effectiveness, and 9908
such relocation shall not impair the ability of the public utility 9909
or common carrier to compete in its original area of operation.9910

       (c) If such restoration or duplication proposed to be made 9911
under this division involves a relocation, the county transit 9912
board or board of county commissioners shall acquire no interest 9913
or right in or to the appropriated property or facility until the 9914
relocated property or facility is available for use and until 9915
marketable title thereto has been transferred to the political 9916
subdivision, public corporation, public utility, or common 9917
carrier. Nothing in this division shall require any board of 9918
county commissioners or county transit board operating a county 9919
transit system to so restore, relocate, or duplicate, if all of 9920
the real estate and interests therein, personal property, and any 9921
combination of the foregoing which is owned by a public utility or 9922
common carrier and used by it or in connection with the movement 9923
of persons, is acquired by exercise of the power of eminent 9924
domain.9925

       (16) When real property is acquired that is located outside 9926
the county and is removed from the tax duplicate, the county 9927
transit board or board of county commissioners operating a transit 9928
system shall pay annually to the county treasurer of the county in 9929
which that property is located, commencing with the first tax year 9930
in which that property is removed from the tax duplicate, an 9931
amount of money in lieu of taxes equal to the smaller of the 9932
following:9933

       (a) The last annual installment of taxes due from the 9934
acquired property before removal from the tax duplicate;9935

       (b) An amount equal to the difference between the combined 9936
revenue from real estate taxes of all the taxing districts in 9937
which the property is located in the tax year immediately prior to 9938
the removal of the acquired property from the tax duplicate, and 9939
either:9940

       (i) The total revenue which would be produced by the tax rate 9941
of each such taxing district in the tax year immediately prior to 9942
the removal of the acquired property from the tax duplicate, 9943
applied to the real estate tax duplicate of each of such taxing 9944
districts in each tax year subsequent to the year of removal; or9945

       (ii) The combined revenue from real estate taxes of all such 9946
taxing districts in each tax year subsequent to the year of 9947
removal, whichever is the greater.9948

       The county transit board or board of county commissioners may 9949
be exempted from such payment by agreement of the affected taxing 9950
district or districts in the county in which the property is 9951
located.9952

       The county auditor of the county in which that property is 9953
located shall apportion each such annual payment to each taxing 9954
district as if the annual payment had been levied and collected as 9955
a tax.9956

       Those annual payments shall never again be made after they 9957
have ceased.9958

       (17) Sue or be sued, plead or be impleaded, and be held 9959
liable in any court of proper jurisdiction for damages received by 9960
reason of negligence, in the same manner and to the same extent as 9961
if the county transit system were privately operated, provided, 9962
that no funds of a county other than those of the county transit 9963
board or, if the transit system is operated by the board of county 9964
commissioners, other than those in the account for the county 9965
transit system created under division (C) of section 306.01 of the 9966
Revised Code, shall be available for the satisfaction of judgments 9967
rendered against that system;9968

       (18) Annually prepare and make available for public 9969
inspection a report in condensed form showing the financial 9970
results of the operation of the county transit system. For systems 9971
operated by a county transit board, copies of this report shall be 9972
furnished to the county commissioners as well as a monthly summary 9973
statement of revenues and expenses for the preceding month 9974
sufficient to show the exact financial condition of the county 9975
transit system as of the last day of the preceding month.9976

       (19) With the approval of the county commissioners when the 9977
action is taken by the transit board, and without competitive 9978
bidding, sell, lease, or grant the right of use of all or a 9979
portion of the county transit system to any other political 9980
subdivision, taxing district, or other public body or agency 9981
having the power to operate a transit system;9982

       (20) Enter into and supervise franchise agreements for the 9983
operation of a county transit system;9984

       (21) Accept the assignment of and then supervise an existing 9985
franchise agreement for the operation of a county transit system.9986

       Sec. 306.36.  (A) The board of trustees of a regional transit 9987
authority may exercise the power of eminent domain to appropriate 9988
any land, rights, rights-of-way, franchise, power lines, 9989
easements, or other property, within or without the territorial 9990
boundaries of the regional transit authority, necessary or proper 9991
for the construction or efficient operation of any transit 9992
facility or access thereto under its jurisdiction pursuant to the 9993
procedure provided in sections 163.01 to 163.22, inclusive, of the 9994
Revised Code, and subject to division (B) of this section, 9995
provided that a regional transit authority shall not proceed to so 9996
appropriate real property outside its territorial boundaries, 9997
until it has served at the office of the county commissioners of 9998
the county in which it is proposed to appropriate real property, a 9999
notice describing the real property to be taken and the purpose 10000
for which it is proposed to be taken, and such county 10001
commissioners have entered on their journal within thirty days 10002
after such service a resolution approving such appropriation.10003

       (B) Nothing contained in sections 306.30 to 306.53, 10004
inclusive, of the Revised Code authorizes a regional transit 10005
authority to appropriate any land, rights, rights-of-way, 10006
franchises, or easements belonging to the state or a municipal 10007
corporation without the consent of the state or municipal 10008
corporation, and no regional transit authority shall exercise the 10009
right of eminent domain to acquire any certificate of public 10010
convenience and necessity, or any part thereof, issued to a 10011
for-hire motor transportation companycarrier by the public 10012
utilities commission of Ohio or by the interstate commerce 10013
commission of the United Statesfederal motor carrier safety 10014
administration, or to take or disturb other property or facilities 10015
belonging to any political subdivision, public corporation, public 10016
utility, or common carrier, which property or facility is 10017
necessary and convenient in the operation of such political 10018
subdivision, public corporation, public utility, or common 10019
carrier, unless provision is made for the restoration, relocation, 10020
or duplication of such property or facility, or upon the election 10021
of such political subdivision, public corporation, public utility, 10022
or common carrier, for the payment of compensation, if any, at the 10023
sole cost of the regional transit authority, provided:10024

       (1) If any restoration or duplication of any property or 10025
facility proposed to be made under this division involves a 10026
relocation of such property or facility the new facility and 10027
location thereof shall be of at least comparable utilitarian value 10028
and effectiveness and such relocation shall not impair the ability 10029
of the public utility or common carrier to compete in its original 10030
area of operation.10031

       (2) If any restoration or duplication of any property or 10032
facility proposed to be made under this division involves a 10033
relocation of such property or facility, the regional transit 10034
authority shall acquire no interest or right in or to the 10035
appropriated property or facility until the relocated property or 10036
facility is available for use and until marketable title thereto 10037
has been transferred to the public utility or common carrier.10038

       (C) When real property is acquired which is located outside 10039
the territorial boundaries of the regional transit authority and 10040
which is removed from the tax duplicate, the regional transit 10041
authority shall pay annually to the county treasurer of the county 10042
in which such property is located, commencing with the first tax 10043
year in which such property is removed from the tax duplicate, an 10044
amount of money in lieu of taxes equal to the smaller of the 10045
following:10046

       (1) The last annual installment of taxes due from the 10047
acquired property before removal from the tax duplicate;10048

       (2) An amount equal to the difference between the combined 10049
revenue from real estate taxes of all the taxing districts in 10050
which such property is located in the tax year immediately prior 10051
to the removal of such acquired property from the tax duplicate, 10052
and either:10053

       (a) The total revenue which would be produced by the tax rate 10054
of each such taxing district in the tax year immediately prior to 10055
the removal of such acquired property from the tax duplicate, 10056
applied to the real estate tax duplicate of each of such taxing 10057
districts in each tax year subsequent to the year of removal; or10058

       (b) The combined revenue from real estate taxes of all such 10059
taxing districts in each tax year subsequent to the year of 10060
removal, whichever is the greater.10061

       The county auditor of each county in which such property is 10062
located shall apportion each such annual payment to each taxing 10063
district as if such annual payment has been levied and collected 10064
as a tax.10065

       Such annual payments shall never again be made after they 10066
have ceased.10067

       The regional transit authority may be exempted from such 10068
payment by agreement of the affected taxing district or districts 10069
in the county in which such property is located.10070

       Sec. 306.55. Beginning July 1, 2011 and until November 5, 10071
2013, the legislative authority of any municipal corporation or 10072
the board of township trustees of any township that has created or 10073
joined a regional transit authority that levies a property tax and 10074
that includes in its membership political subdivisions that are 10075
located in a county having a population of at least four hundred 10076
thousand according to the most recent federal census, may withdraw 10077
the municipal corporation or the unincorporated territory of the 10078
township from the regional transit authority in the manner 10079
provided in this section. The legislative authority of the 10080
municipal corporation or board of township trustees of the 10081
township proposing to withdraw shall adopt a resolution to submit 10082
the question of withdrawing from the regional transit authority to 10083
the electors of the territorymunicipal corporation or the 10084
unincorporated area of the township to be withdrawn and shall 10085
certify the proposal to the board of elections for the purpose of 10086
having the proposal placed on the ballot at the next general 10087
election or at a special election conducted on the day of the next 10088
primary election that occurs not less than ninety days after the 10089
resolution is certified to the board of elections.10090

        Upon certification of a proposal to the board of elections 10091
pursuant to this section, the board of elections shall make the 10092
necessary arrangements for the submission of the question to the 10093
electors of the territory to be withdrawn from the regional 10094
transit authority qualified to vote on the question, and the. For 10095
a municipal corporation, the election shall be held, canvassed, 10096
and certified in the same manner as regular elections for the 10097
election of officers of the subdivisionmunicipal corporation10098
proposing to withdraw from the regional transit authority, except 10099
that the question appearing on the ballot of a municipal 10100
corporation shall read:10101

        "Shall the territory within the ......................... 10102
(Namename of political subdivisionmunicipal corporation to be 10103
withdrawn) be withdrawn from ......................... ......... 10104
(Namename of) regional transit authority)?"10105

       For the unincorporated area of a township, the election shall 10106
be held, canvassed, and certified in the same manner as regular 10107
elections for the election of officers of the township, except 10108
that question shall only be presented to electors of the 10109
unincorporated area of the township and the question appearing on 10110
the ballot of the unincorporated area of the township shall read:10111

       "Shall the territory of the unincorporated area of ...... 10112
(name of township to be withdrawn) be withdrawn from ...... (name 10113
of regional transit authority)?"10114

       The legislative authority of a municipal corporation or board 10115
of trustees of a township, by vote of two-thirds of all members of 10116
the legislative authority or board, may adopt a resolution and 10117
certify that resolution to the board of elections for the combined 10118
purpose of withdrawing from a regional transit authority as 10119
provided in this section and levying a property tax pursuant to 10120
division (XX) of section 5705.19 of the Revised Code for a 10121
municipal corporation and section 5705.72 of the Revised Code for 10122
a township. If the questions are combined, the question appearing 10123
on the ballot shall be as provided in section 5705.252 of the 10124
Revised Code.10125

        If the question is approved by at least a majority of the 10126
electors voting on the question, the withdrawal is effective six 10127
months from the date of the certification of its passage.10128

        The board of elections to which the resolution was certified 10129
shall certify the results of the election to the board or 10130
legislative authority of the subdivision that submitted the 10131
resolution to withdraw and to the board of trustees of the 10132
regional transit authority from which the subdivision proposed to 10133
withdraw. If the question is approved by at least a majority of 10134
the electors voting on the question, the municipal corporation's 10135
or unincorporated area of the township's membership in the 10136
regional transit authority terminates on the thirty-first day of 10137
December of the calendar year in which the election is held.10138

        If the question of withdrawing from the regional transit 10139
authority is approved, the power of the regional transit authority 10140
to levy a tax on taxable property in the affected area of the10141
withdrawing subdivision terminates beginning with the tax year in 10142
which the election is held, and no taxes from the levy may be 10143
charged for collection against such property for that tax year.10144

       Sec. 307.05.  As used in this section, "emergency medical 10145
service organization" has the same meaning as in section 4765.01 10146
of the Revised Code.10147

       A board of county commissioners may operate an ambulance 10148
service organization or emergency medical service organization, 10149
or, in counties with a population of forty thousand or less, may 10150
operate a nonemergency patient transport service organization, or 10151
may enter into a contract with one or more counties, townships, 10152
municipal corporations, nonprofit corporations, joint emergency 10153
medical services districts, fire and ambulance districts, or 10154
private ambulance owners, regardless of whether such counties, 10155
townships, municipal corporations, nonprofit corporations, joint 10156
emergency medical services districts, fire and ambulance 10157
districts, or private ambulance owners are located within or 10158
without the state, in order to furnish or obtain the services of 10159
ambulance service organizations, to furnish or obtain additional 10160
services from ambulance service organizations in times of 10161
emergency, to furnish or obtain the services of emergency medical 10162
service organizations, or, in counties with a population of forty 10163
thousand or less, to furnish or obtain services of nonemergency 10164
patient transport service organizations, or may enter into a 10165
contract with any such entity to furnish or obtain the interchange 10166
of services from ambulance or emergency medical service 10167
organizations, or, within counties with a population of forty 10168
thousand or less, to furnish or obtain the interchange of services 10169
from nonemergency patient transport service organizations, within 10170
the territories of the contracting subdivisions. Except in the 10171
case of a contract with a joint emergency medical services 10172
district to obtain the services of emergency medical service 10173
organizations, such contracts shall not be entered into with a 10174
public agency or nonprofit corporation that receives more than 10175
half of its operating funds from governmental entities with the 10176
intention of directly competing with the operation of other 10177
ambulance service organizations, nonemergency patient transport 10178
service organizations, or emergency medical service organizations 10179
in the county unless the public agency or nonprofit corporation is 10180
awarded the contract after submitting the lowest and best bid to 10181
the board of county commissioners. Any county wishing to commence 10182
operation of a nonemergency patient transport service organization 10183
or wishing to enter into a contract for the first time to furnish 10184
or obtain services from a nonemergency patient transport service 10185
organization on or after March 1, 1993, including a county in 10186
which a private provider has been providing the service, shall 10187
demonstrate the need for public funding for the service to, and 10188
obtain approval from, the state board of emergency medical, fire, 10189
and transportation services or its immediate successor board prior 10190
to operating or funding the organization.10191

       When such an organization is operated by the board, the 10192
organization may be administered by the board, by the county 10193
sheriff, or by another county officer or employee designated by 10194
the board. All rules, including the determining of reasonable 10195
rates, necessary for the establishment, operation, and maintenance 10196
of such an organization shall be adopted by the board.10197

       A contract for services of an ambulance service, nonemergency 10198
patient transport service, or emergency medical service 10199
organization shall include the terms, conditions, and stipulations 10200
as agreed to by the parties to the contract. It may provide for a 10201
fixed annual charge to be paid at the times agreed upon and 10202
stipulated in the contract, or for compensation based upon a 10203
stipulated price for each run, call, or emergency or the number of 10204
persons or pieces of apparatus employed, or the elapsed time of 10205
service required in such run, call, or emergency, or any 10206
combination thereof.10207

       Sec. 307.051.  As used in this section, "emergency medical 10208
service organization" has the same meaning as in section 4766.01 10209
of the Revised Code.10210

       A board of county commissioners, by adoption of an 10211
appropriate resolution, may choose to have the Ohiostate board of 10212
emergency medical, fire, and transportation boardservices license 10213
any emergency medical service organization it operates. If a board 10214
adopts such a resolution, Chapter 4766. of the Revised Code, 10215
except for sections 4766.06 and 4766.99 of the Revised Code, 10216
applies to the county emergency medical service organization. All 10217
rules adopted under the applicable sections of that chapter also 10218
apply to the organization. A board, by adoption of an appropriate 10219
resolution, may remove its emergency medical service organization 10220
from the jurisdiction of the Ohiostate board of emergency10221
medical, fire, and transportation boardservices.10222

       Sec. 307.055.  (A) Subject to the terms and conditions of the 10223
joint resolution creating it, each joint emergency medical 10224
services district may furnish ambulance services and emergency 10225
medical services by one of the following methods:10226

       (1) By operating an emergency medical service organization as 10227
defined in section 4765.01 of the Revised Code;10228

       (2) By contracting for the operation of one or more 10229
facilities pursuant to division (C) or (D) of this section;10230

       (3) By providing necessary services and equipment to the 10231
district either directly or under a contract entered into pursuant 10232
to division (B) of this section;10233

       (4) By providing service through any combination of methods 10234
described in divisions (A)(1) to (3) of this section.10235

       (B) In order to obtain ambulance service, to obtain 10236
additional ambulance service in times of emergency, or to obtain 10237
emergency medical services, a joint emergency medical services 10238
district may enter into a contract, for a period not to exceed 10239
three years, with one or more counties, townships, municipal 10240
corporations, joint fire districts, other governmental units that 10241
provide ambulance service or emergency medical services, nonprofit 10242
corporations, or private ambulance owners, regardless of whether 10243
the entities contracted with are located within or outside this 10244
state, upon such terms as are agreed to, to furnish or receive 10245
ambulance services or the interchange of ambulance services or 10246
emergency medical services within the several territories of the 10247
contracting subdivisions, if the contract is first authorized by 10248
all boards of trustees and legislative authorities in the 10249
territories to be served.10250

       Such a contract may provide for a fixed annual charge to be 10251
paid at the times agreed upon and stipulated in the contract; or 10252
for compensation based on a stipulated price for each run, call, 10253
or emergency or based on the elapsed time of service required for 10254
each run, call, or emergency, or based on any combination of 10255
these.10256

       Expenditures of a district for ambulance service or emergency 10257
medical service, whether pursuant to contract or otherwise, are 10258
lawful expenditures, regardless of whether the district or the 10259
party with which it contracts charges an additional fee to users 10260
of the service.10261

       (C) The board of trustees may enter into a contract with any 10262
person, municipal corporation, township, or other political 10263
subdivision, and any political subdivision may contract with the 10264
board, for the operation and maintenance of emergency medical 10265
services facilities regardless of whether the facilities used are 10266
owned or leased by the district, by another political subdivision, 10267
or by the contractor.10268

       (D) The district may purchase, lease, and maintain all 10269
materials, buildings, land, and equipment, including vehicles, the 10270
board considers necessary for the district.10271

       When the board finds, by resolution, that the district has 10272
personal property that is not needed for public use, or is 10273
obsolete or unfit for the use for which it was acquired, the board 10274
may dispose of the property in the same manner as provided in 10275
section 307.12 of the Revised Code.10276

       (E) Except in the case of a contract with a board of county 10277
commissioners for the provision of services of an emergency 10278
medical service organization, any contract entered into by a joint 10279
emergency medical services district shall conform to the same 10280
bidding requirements that apply to county contracts under sections 10281
307.86 to 307.92 of the Revised Code.10282

       (F) A county participating in a joint district may contribute 10283
any of its rights or interests in real or personal property, 10284
including money, and may contribute services to the district. Any 10285
such contributions shall be made by a written agreement between 10286
the contributing county and the district, specifying the 10287
contribution as well as the rights of the participating counties 10288
in the contributed property. Written agreements shall also be 10289
prepared specifying the rights of participating counties in 10290
property acquired by the district other than by contribution of a 10291
participating county. Written agreements required by this division 10292
may be amended only by written agreement of all parties to the 10293
original agreement.10294

       (G) A district's board of trustees, by adoption of an 10295
appropriate resolution, may choose to have the Ohiostate board of 10296
emergency medical, fire, and transportation boardservices license 10297
any emergency medical service organization the district operates. 10298
If a board adopts such a resolution, Chapter 4766. of the Revised 10299
Code, except for sections 4766.06 and 4766.99 of the Revised Code, 10300
applies to the district emergency medical service organization. 10301
All rules adopted under the applicable sections of that chapter 10302
also apply to the organization. A board, by adoption of an 10303
appropriate resolution, may remove the district emergency medical 10304
service organization from the jurisdiction of the Ohiostate board 10305
of emergency medical, fire, and transportation boardservices.10306

       Sec. 309.09.  (A) The prosecuting attorney shall be the legal 10307
adviser of the board of county commissioners, board of elections, 10308
all other county officers and boards, and all tax-supported public 10309
libraries, and any of them may require written opinions or 10310
instructions from the prosecuting attorney in matters connected 10311
with their official duties. The prosecuting attorney shall 10312
prosecute and defend all suits and actions that any such officer, 10313
board, or tax-supported public library directs or to which it is a 10314
party, and no county officer may employ any other counsel or 10315
attorney at the expense of the county, except as provided in 10316
section 305.14 of the Revised Code. The prosecuting attorney shall 10317
also defend all civil actions in the court of common pleas brought 10318
pursuant to division (B)(1) of section 2743.48 of the Revised 10319
Code.10320

       (B)(1) The prosecuting attorney shall be the legal adviser 10321
for all township officers, boards, and commissions, unless, 10322
subject to division (B)(2) of this section, the township has 10323
adopted a limited home rule government pursuant to Chapter 504. of 10324
the Revised Code and has not entered into a contract to have the 10325
prosecuting attorney serve as the township law director, in which 10326
case, subject to division (B)(2) of this section, the township law 10327
director, whether serving full-time or part-time, shall be the 10328
legal adviser for all township officers, boards, and commissions. 10329
When the board of township trustees finds it advisable or 10330
necessary to have additional legal counsel, it may employ an 10331
attorney other than the township law director or the prosecuting 10332
attorney of the county, either for a particular matter or on an 10333
annual basis, to represent the township and its officers, boards, 10334
and commissions in their official capacities and to advise them on 10335
legal matters. No such legal counsel may be employed, except on 10336
the order of the board of township trustees, duly entered upon its 10337
journal, in which the compensation to be paid for the legal 10338
services shall be fixed. The compensation shall be paid from the 10339
township fund.10340

       Nothing in this division confers any of the powers or duties 10341
of a prosecuting attorney under section 309.08 of the Revised Code 10342
upon a township law director.10343

       (2)(a) If any township in the county served by the 10344
prosecuting attorney has adopted any resolution regarding the 10345
operation of adult entertainment establishments pursuant to the 10346
authority that is granted under section 503.52 of the Revised Code 10347
or if a resolution of that nature has been adopted under section 10348
503.53 of the Revised Code in a township in the county served by 10349
the prosecuting attorney, all of the following apply:10350

       (i) Upon the request of a township in the county that has 10351
adopted, or in which has been adopted, a resolution of that nature 10352
that is made pursuant to division (E)(1)(c) of section 503.52 of 10353
the Revised Code, the prosecuting attorney shall prosecute and 10354
defend on behalf of the township in the trial and argument in any 10355
court or tribunal of any challenge to the validity of the 10356
resolution. If the challenge to the validity of the resolution is 10357
before a federal court, the prosecuting attorney may request the 10358
attorney general to assist the prosecuting attorney in prosecuting 10359
and defending the challenge and, upon the prosecuting attorney's 10360
making of such a request, the attorney general shall assist the 10361
prosecuting attorney in performing that service if the resolution 10362
was drafted in accordance with legal guidance provided by the 10363
attorney general as described in division (B)(2) of section 503.52 10364
of the Revised Code. The attorney general shall provide this 10365
assistance without charge to the township for which the service is 10366
performed. If a township adopts a resolution without the legal 10367
guidance of the attorney general, the attorney general is not 10368
required to provide assistance as described in this division to a 10369
prosecuting attorney.10370

       (ii) Upon the request of a township in the county that has 10371
adopted, or in which has been adopted, a resolution of that nature 10372
that is made pursuant to division (E)(1)(a) of section 503.52 of 10373
the Revised Code, the prosecuting attorney shall prosecute and 10374
defend on behalf of the township a civil action to enjoin the 10375
violation of the resolution in question.10376

       (iii) Upon the request of a township in the county that has 10377
adopted, or in which has been adopted, a resolution of that nature 10378
that is made pursuant to division (E)(1)(b) of section 503.52 of 10379
the Revised Code, the prosecuting attorney shall prosecute and 10380
defend on behalf of the township a civil action under Chapter 10381
3767. of the Revised Code to abate as a nuisance the place in the 10382
unincorporated area of the township at which the resolution is 10383
being or has been violated. Proceeds from the sale of personal 10384
property or contents seized pursuant to the action shall be 10385
applied and deposited in accordance with division (E)(1)(b) of 10386
section 503.52 of the Revised Code.10387

        (b) The provisions of division (B)(2)(a) of this section 10388
apply regarding all townships, including townships that have 10389
adopted a limited home rule government pursuant to Chapter 504. of 10390
the Revised Code, and regardless of whether a township that has so 10391
adopted a limited home rule government has entered into a contract 10392
with the prosecuting attorney as described in division (B) of 10393
section 504.15 of the Revised Code or has appointed a law director 10394
as described in division (A) of that section.10395

       The prosecuting attorney shall prosecute and defend in the 10396
actions and proceedings described in division (B)(2)(a) of this 10397
section without charge to the township for which the services are 10398
performed.10399

       (C) Whenever the board of county commissioners employs an 10400
attorney other than the prosecuting attorney of the county, 10401
without the authorization of the court of common pleas as provided 10402
in section 305.14 of the Revised Code, either for a particular 10403
matter or on an annual basis, to represent the board in its 10404
official capacity and to advise it on legal matters, the board 10405
shall enter upon its journal an order of the board in which the 10406
compensation to be paid for the legal services shall be fixed. The 10407
compensation shall be paid from the county general fund. The total 10408
compensation paid, in any year, by the board for legal services 10409
under this division shall not exceed the total annual compensation 10410
of the prosecuting attorney for that county.10411

       (D) The prosecuting attorney and the board of county 10412
commissioners jointly may contract with a board of park 10413
commissioners under section 1545.07 of the Revised Code for the 10414
prosecuting attorney to provide legal services to the park 10415
district the board of park commissioners operates.10416

       (E) The prosecuting attorney may be, in the prosecuting 10417
attorney's discretion and with the approval of the board of county 10418
commissioners, the legal adviser of a joint fire district created 10419
under section 505.371 of the Revised Code at no cost to the 10420
district or may be the legal adviser to the district under a 10421
contract that the prosecuting attorney and the district enter 10422
into, and that the board of county commissionercommissioners10423
approves, to authorize the prosecuting attorney to provide legal 10424
services to the district.10425

       (F) The prosecuting attorney may be, in the prosecuting 10426
attorney's discretion and with the approval of the board of county 10427
commissioners, the legal adviser of a joint ambulance district 10428
created under section 505.71 of the Revised Code at no cost to the 10429
district or may be the legal adviser to the district under a 10430
contract that the prosecuting attorney and the district enter 10431
into, and that the board of county commissioners approves, to 10432
authorize the prosecuting attorney to provide legal services to 10433
the district.10434

       (G) The prosecuting attorney may be, in the prosecuting 10435
attorney's discretion and with the approval of the board of county 10436
commissioners, the legal adviser of a joint emergency medical 10437
services district created under section 307.052 of the Revised 10438
Code at no cost to the district or may be the legal adviser to the 10439
district under a contract that the prosecuting attorney and the 10440
district enter into, and that the board of county commissioners 10441
approves, to authorize the prosecuting attorney to provide legal 10442
services to the district.10443

       (H) The prosecuting attorney may be, in the prosecuting 10444
attorney's discretion and with the approval of the board of county 10445
commissioners, the legal adviser of a fire and ambulance district 10446
created under section 505.375 of the Revised Code at no cost to 10447
the district or may be the legal adviser to the district under a 10448
contract that the prosecuting attorney and the district enter 10449
into, and that the board of county commissioners approves, to 10450
authorize the prosecuting attorney to provide legal services to 10451
the district.10452

       (I) All money received pursuant to a contract entered into 10453
under division (D), (E), (F), (G), or (H) of this section shall be 10454
deposited into the prosecuting attorney's legal services fund, 10455
which shall be established in the county treasury of each county 10456
in which such a contract exists. Moneys in that fund may be 10457
appropriated only to the prosecuting attorney for the purpose of 10458
providing legal services to a park district, joint fire district, 10459
joint ambulance district, joint emergency medical services 10460
district, or a fire and ambulance district, as applicable, under a 10461
contract entered into under the applicable division.10462

       Sec. 313.121.  (A) As used in this section, "parent" means 10463
either parent, except that if one parent has been designated the 10464
residential parent and legal custodian of the child, "parent" 10465
means the designated residential parent and legal custodian, and 10466
if a person other than a parent is the child's legal guardian, 10467
"parent" means the legal guardian.10468

       (B) If a child under two years of age dies suddenly when in 10469
apparent good health, the death shall be reported immediately to 10470
the coroner of the county in which the death occurred, as required 10471
by section 313.12 of the Revised Code. Except as provided in 10472
division (C) of this section, the coroner or deputy coroner shall 10473
perform an autopsy on the child. The autopsy shall be performed in 10474
accordance with public health council rules adopted by the 10475
director of health under section 313.122 of the Revised Code. The 10476
coroner or deputy coroner may perform research procedures and 10477
tests when performing the autopsy.10478

       (C) A coroner or deputy coroner is not required to perform an 10479
autopsy if the coroner of the county in which the death occurred 10480
or a court with jurisdiction over the deceased body determines 10481
under section 313.131 of the Revised Code that an autopsy is 10482
contrary to the religious beliefs of the child. If the coroner or 10483
the court makes such a determination, the coroner shall notify the 10484
health district or department of health with jurisdiction in the 10485
area in which the child's parent resides. For purposes of this 10486
division, the religious beliefs of the parents of a child shall be 10487
considered to be the religious beliefs of the child.10488

       (D) If the child's parent makes a written or verbal request 10489
for the preliminary results of the autopsy after the results are 10490
available, the coroner, or a person designated by himthe coroner, 10491
shall give the parent an oral statement of the preliminary 10492
results.10493

       The coroner, within a reasonable time after the final results 10494
of the autopsy are reported, shall send written notice of the 10495
results to the state department of health, the health district or 10496
department with jurisdiction in the area in which the child's 10497
parent resides, and, upon the request of a parent of the child, to 10498
the child's attending physician. Upon the written request of a 10499
parent of the child and the payment of the transcript fee required 10500
by section 313.10 of the Revised Code, the coroner shall send 10501
written notice of the final results to that parent. The notice 10502
sent to the state department of health shall include all of the 10503
information specified by rule of the public health councilin 10504
rules adopted under section 313.122 of the Revised Code.10505

       (E) On the occurrence of any of the following, the health 10506
district or department with jurisdiction in the area in which the 10507
child's parent resides shall offer the parent any counseling or 10508
other supportive services it has available:10509

       (1) When it learns through any source that an autopsy is 10510
being performed on a child under two years of age who died 10511
suddenly when in apparent good health;10512

       (2) When it receives notice that the final result of an 10513
autopsy performed pursuant to this section concluded that the 10514
child died of sudden infant death syndrome;10515

       (3) When it is notified by the coroner that, pursuant to 10516
division (C) of this section, an autopsy was not performed.10517

       (F) When a health district or department receives notice that 10518
the final result of an autopsy performed pursuant to this section 10519
concluded that the child died of sudden infant death syndrome or 10520
that, pursuant to division (C) of this section, an autopsy was not 10521
performed but sudden infant death syndrome may have been the cause 10522
of death, it shall offer the child's parent information about 10523
sudden infant death syndrome. The state department of health shall 10524
ensure that current information on sudden infant death syndrome is 10525
available for distribution by health districts and departments.10526

       Sec. 313.122.  The publicdirector of health council, after 10527
reviewing and considering any recommendations made by the Ohio 10528
state coroners association, shall adopt rules in accordance with 10529
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing a protocol governing 10530
the performance of autopsies under section 313.121 of the Revised 10531
Code. The rules shall specify the information derived from an 10532
autopsy that a coroner is required to report to the state 10533
department of health. The public health councildirector shall not 10534
amend the rules adopted under this section unless it notifies the 10535
Ohio state coroners association of the proposed changes and 10536
consults with the association.10537

       Sec. 313.16.  In counties where no coroner's laboratory has 10538
been established or where the coroner's laboratory does not have 10539
the equipment or personnel to follow the protocol established by 10540
rule ofin rules adopted by the publicdirector of health council 10541
adopted under section 313.122 of the Revised Code, the coroner may 10542
request a coroner of a county in which such a laboratory is 10543
established or that has a laboratory able to follow the public 10544
health council'sdirector's protocol to perform necessary 10545
laboratory examinations, the cost of which shall be no greater 10546
than the actual value of the services of technicians and the 10547
materials used in performing such examination. Money derived from 10548
the fees paid for these examinations shall be kept in a special 10549
fund, for the use of the coroner's laboratory, from which fund 10550
replacements can be made. Such funds shall be used to purchase 10551
necessary supplies and equipment for the laboratory and to pay any 10552
associated costs incurred in the administration of this section at 10553
the coroner's discretion.10554

       Sec. 339.091.  Before the board of county commissioners, 10555
board of county hospital trustees, or county hospital commission 10556
may enter into an initial agreement for the acquisition, 10557
operation, or lease under section 140.03, 140.05, 339.09, or 10558
339.14 of the Revised Code of a county hospital operated by a 10559
board of county hospital trustees under section 339.06 of the 10560
Revised Code, the board of county commissioners shall review the 10561
agreement. If it finds that the agreement will meet the needs of 10562
the residents of the county for hospital service, the board of 10563
county commissioners may adopt a resolution authorizing the board 10564
of county commissioners, board of county hospital trustees, or 10565
county hospital commission to enter into the agreement. On 10566
adoption of the resolution, the board of county commissioners, 10567
board of county hospital trustees, or county hospital commission 10568
may enter into the agreement.10569

       The requirements of this section do not apply to an agreement 10570
if one or more hospitals classified as general hospitals by the 10571
publicdirector of health council under section 3701.07 of the 10572
Revised Code are operating in the same county as the county 10573
hospital.10574

       Sec. 340.03.  (A) Subject to rules issued by the director of 10575
mental health after consultation with relevant constituencies as 10576
required by division (L) of section 5119.06 of the Revised Code, 10577
with regard to mental health services, the board of alcohol, drug 10578
addiction, and mental health services shall:10579

       (1) Serve as the community mental health planning agency for 10580
the county or counties under its jurisdiction, and in so doing it 10581
shall:10582

       (a) Evaluate the need for facilities and community mental 10583
health services;10584

       (b) In cooperation with other local and regional planning and 10585
funding bodies and with relevant ethnic organizations, assess the 10586
community mental health needs, set priorities, and develop plans 10587
for the operation of facilities and community mental health 10588
services;10589

       (c) In accordance with guidelines issued by the director of 10590
mental health after consultation with board representatives, 10591
annually develop and submit to the department of mental health a 10592
community mental health plan listing community mental health 10593
needs, including the needs of all residents of the district now 10594
residing in state mental institutions and severely mentally 10595
disabled adults, children, and adolescents; all children subject 10596
to a determination made pursuant to section 121.38 of the Revised 10597
Code; and all the facilities and community mental health services 10598
that are or will be in operation or provided during the period for 10599
which the plan will be in operation in the service district to 10600
meet such needs.10601

       The plan shall include, but not be limited to, a statement of 10602
which of the services listed in section 340.09 of the Revised Code 10603
the board intends to make available. The board must include crisis 10604
intervention services for individuals in an emergency situation in 10605
the plan and explain how the board intends to make such services 10606
available. The plan must also include a statement of the inpatient 10607
and community-based services the board proposes that the 10608
department operate, an assessment of the number and types of 10609
residential facilities needed, such other information as the 10610
department requests, and a budget for moneys the board expects to 10611
receive. The department shall approve or disapprove the plan, in 10612
whole or in part, according to the criteria developed pursuant to 10613
section 5119.61 of the Revised Code. The department's statement of 10614
approval or disapproval shall specify the inpatient and the 10615
community-based services that the department will operate for the 10616
board. Eligibility for state and federal funding shall be 10617
contingent upon an approved plan or relevant part of a plan. 10618

       If a board determines that it is necessary to amend a plan or 10619
an allocation request that has been approved under division 10620
(A)(1)(c) of this section, the board shall submit a proposed 10621
amendment to the director. The director may approve or disapprove 10622
all or part of the amendment. The director shall inform the board 10623
of the reasons for disapproval of all or part of an amendment and 10624
of the criteria that must be met before the amendment may be 10625
approved. The director shall provide the board an opportunity to 10626
present its case on behalf of the amendment. The director shall 10627
give the board a reasonable time in which to meet the criteria, 10628
and shall offer the board technical assistance to help it meet the 10629
criteria.10630

       The board shall implement the plan approved by the 10631
department.10632

       (d) Promote, arrange, and implement working agreements with 10633
social agencies, both public and private, and with judicial 10634
agencies.10635

       (2) Investigate, or request another agency to investigate, 10636
any complaint alleging abuse or neglect of any person receiving 10637
services from a community mental health agency as defined in 10638
section 5122.01 of the Revised Code, or fromalleging abuse or 10639
neglect of a person with mental illness or severe mental 10640
disability residing in a residential facility licensed under 10641
section 5119.22 of the Revised Code. If the investigation 10642
substantiates the charge of abuse or neglect, the board shall take 10643
whatever action it determines is necessary to correct the 10644
situation, including notification of the appropriate authorities. 10645
Upon request, the board shall provide information about such 10646
investigations to the department.10647

       (3) For the purpose of section 5119.611 of the Revised Code, 10648
cooperate with the director of mental health in visiting and 10649
evaluating whether the services of a community mental health 10650
agency satisfy the certification standards established by rules 10651
adopted under that section;10652

       (4) In accordance with criteria established under division 10653
(E) of section 5119.61 of the Revised Code, review and evaluate 10654
the quality, effectiveness, and efficiency of services provided 10655
through its community mental health plan and submit its findings 10656
and recommendations to the department of mental health;10657

       (5) In accordance with section 5119.22 of the Revised Code, 10658
review applications for residential facility licenses and 10659
recommend to the department of mental health approval or 10660
disapproval of applications;10661

       (6) Audit, in accordance with rules adopted by the auditor of 10662
state pursuant to section 117.20 of the Revised Code, at least 10663
annually all programs and services provided under contract with 10664
the board. In so doing, the board may contract for or employ the 10665
services of private auditors. A copy of the fiscal audit report 10666
shall be provided to the director of mental health, the auditor of 10667
state, and the county auditor of each county in the board's 10668
district.10669

       (7) Recruit and promote local financial support for mental 10670
health programs from private and public sources;10671

       (8)(a) Enter into contracts with public and private 10672
facilities for the operation of facility services included in the 10673
board's community mental health plan and enter into contracts with 10674
public and private community mental health agencies for the 10675
provision of community mental health services that are listed in 10676
section 340.09 of the Revised Code and included in the board's 10677
community mental health plan. The board may not contract with a 10678
community mental health agency to provide community mental health 10679
services included in the board's community mental health plan 10680
unless the services are certified by the director of mental health 10681
under section 5119.611 of the Revised Code. Section 307.86 of the 10682
Revised Code does not apply to contracts entered into under this 10683
division. In contracting with a community mental health agency, a 10684
board shall consider the cost effectiveness of services provided 10685
by that agency and the quality and continuity of care, and may 10686
review cost elements, including salary costs, of the services to 10687
be provided. A utilization review process shall be established as 10688
part of the contract for services entered into between a board and 10689
a community mental health agency. The board may establish this 10690
process in a way that is most effective and efficient in meeting 10691
local needs. Until July 1, 2012, a contract with a community 10692
mental health agency or facility, as defined in section 5111.023 10693
of the Revised Code, to provide services listed in division (B) of 10694
that section shall provide for the agency or facility to be paid 10695
in accordance with the contract entered into between the 10696
departments of job and family services and mental health under 10697
section 5111.91 of the Revised Code and any rules adopted under 10698
division (A) of section 5119.61 of the Revised Code.10699

       If either the board or a facility or community mental health 10700
agency with which the board contracts under division (A)(8)(a) of 10701
this section proposes not to renew the contract or proposes 10702
substantial changes in contract terms, the other party shall be 10703
given written notice at least one hundred twenty days before the 10704
expiration date of the contract. During the first sixty days of 10705
this one hundred twenty-day period, both parties shall attempt to 10706
resolve any dispute through good faith collaboration and 10707
negotiation in order to continue to provide services to persons in 10708
need. If the dispute has not been resolved sixty days before the 10709
expiration date of the contract, either party may request that10710
notify the department of mental health of the unresolved dispute. 10711
The director may require both parties to submit the dispute to a 10712
third party with the cost to be shared by the board and the 10713
facility or community mental health agency. The third party shall 10714
issue to the board and, the facility or agency, and the department10715
recommendations on how the dispute may be resolved twenty days 10716
prior to the expiration date of the contract, unless both parties 10717
agree to a time extension. The director shall adopt rules 10718
establishing the procedures of this dispute resolution process.10719

       (b) With the prior approval of the director of mental health, 10720
a board may operate a facility or provide a community mental 10721
health service as follows, if there is no other qualified private 10722
or public facility or community mental health agency that is 10723
immediately available and willing to operate such a facility or 10724
provide the service:10725

       (i) In an emergency situation, any board may operate a 10726
facility or provide a community mental health service in order to 10727
provide essential services for the duration of the emergency;10728

       (ii) In a service district with a population of at least one 10729
hundred thousand but less than five hundred thousand, a board may 10730
operate a facility or provide a community mental health service 10731
for no longer than one year;10732

       (iii) In a service district with a population of less than 10733
one hundred thousand, a board may operate a facility or provide a 10734
community mental health service for no longer than one year, 10735
except that such a board may operate a facility or provide a 10736
community mental health service for more than one year with the 10737
prior approval of the director and the prior approval of the board 10738
of county commissioners, or of a majority of the boards of county 10739
commissioners if the district is a joint-county district.10740

       The director shall not give a board approval to operate a 10741
facility or provide a community mental health service under 10742
division (A)(8)(b)(ii) or (iii) of this section unless the 10743
director determines that it is not feasible to have the department 10744
operate the facility or provide the service.10745

       The director shall not give a board approval to operate a 10746
facility or provide a community mental health service under 10747
division (A)(8)(b)(iii) of this section unless the director 10748
determines that the board will provide greater administrative 10749
efficiency and more or better services than would be available if 10750
the board contracted with a private or public facility or 10751
community mental health agency.10752

       The director shall not give a board approval to operate a 10753
facility previously operated by a person or other government 10754
entity unless the board has established to the director's 10755
satisfaction that the person or other government entity cannot 10756
effectively operate the facility or that the person or other 10757
government entity has requested the board to take over operation 10758
of the facility. The director shall not give a board approval to 10759
provide a community mental health service previously provided by a 10760
community mental health agency unless the board has established to 10761
the director's satisfaction that the agency cannot effectively 10762
provide the service or that the agency has requested the board 10763
take over providing the service.10764

       The director shall review and evaluate a board's operation of 10765
a facility and provision of community mental health service under 10766
division (A)(8)(b) of this section.10767

       Nothing in division (A)(8)(b) of this section authorizes a 10768
board to administer or direct the daily operation of any facility 10769
or community mental health agency, but a facility or agency may 10770
contract with a board to receive administrative services or staff 10771
direction from the board under the direction of the governing body 10772
of the facility or agency.10773

       (9) Approve fee schedules and related charges or adopt a unit 10774
cost schedule or other methods of payment for contract services 10775
provided by community mental health agencies in accordance with 10776
guidelines issued by the department as necessary to comply with 10777
state and federal laws pertaining to financial assistance;10778

       (10) Submit to the director and the county commissioners of 10779
the county or counties served by the board, and make available to 10780
the public, an annual report of the programs under the 10781
jurisdiction of the board, including a fiscal accounting;10782

       (11) Establish, to the extent resources are available, a 10783
community support system, which provides for treatment, support, 10784
and rehabilitation services and opportunities. The essential 10785
elements of the system include, but are not limited to, the 10786
following components in accordance with section 5119.06 of the 10787
Revised Code:10788

       (a) To locate persons in need of mental health services to 10789
inform them of available services and benefits mechanisms;10790

       (b) Assistance for clients to obtain services necessary to 10791
meet basic human needs for food, clothing, shelter, medical care, 10792
personal safety, and income;10793

       (c) Mental health care, including, but not limited to, 10794
outpatient, partial hospitalization, and, where appropriate, 10795
inpatient care;10796

       (d) Emergency services and crisis intervention;10797

       (e) Assistance for clients to obtain vocational services and 10798
opportunities for jobs;10799

       (f) The provision of services designed to develop social, 10800
community, and personal living skills;10801

       (g) Access to a wide range of housing and the provision of 10802
residential treatment and support;10803

       (h) Support, assistance, consultation, and education for 10804
families, friends, consumers of mental health services, and 10805
others;10806

       (i) Recognition and encouragement of families, friends, 10807
neighborhood networks, especially networks that include racial and 10808
ethnic minorities, churches, community organizations, and 10809
meaningful employment as natural supports for consumers of mental 10810
health services;10811

       (j) Grievance procedures and protection of the rights of 10812
consumers of mental health services;10813

       (k) Case management, which includes continual individualized 10814
assistance and advocacy to ensure that needed services are offered 10815
and procured.10816

       (12) Designate the treatment program, agency, or facility for 10817
each person involuntarily committed to the board pursuant to 10818
Chapter 5122. of the Revised Code and authorize payment for such 10819
treatment. The board shall provide the least restrictive and most 10820
appropriate alternative that is available for any person 10821
involuntarily committed to it and shall assure that the services 10822
listed in section 340.09 of the Revised Code are available to 10823
severely mentally disabled persons residing within its service 10824
district. The board shall establish the procedure for authorizing 10825
payment for services, which may include prior authorization in 10826
appropriate circumstances. The board may provide for services 10827
directly to a severely mentally disabled person when life or 10828
safety is endangered and when no community mental health agency is 10829
available to provide the service.10830

       (13) Establish a method for evaluating referrals for 10831
involuntary commitment and affidavits filed pursuant to section 10832
5122.11 of the Revised Code in order to assist the probate 10833
division of the court of common pleas in determining whether there 10834
is probable cause that a respondent is subject to involuntary 10835
hospitalization and what alternative treatment is available and 10836
appropriate, if any;10837

       (14) Ensure that apartments or rooms built, subsidized, 10838
renovated, rented, owned, or leased by the board or a community 10839
mental health agency have been approved as meeting minimum fire 10840
safety standards and that persons residing in the rooms or 10841
apartments are receiving appropriate and necessary services, 10842
including culturally relevant services, from a community mental 10843
health agency. This division does not apply to residential 10844
facilities licensed pursuant to section 5119.22 of the Revised 10845
Code.10846

       (15) Establish a mechanism for involvement of consumer 10847
recommendation and advice on matters pertaining to mental health 10848
services in the alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service 10849
district;10850

       (16) Perform the duties under section 5119.88 of the Revised 10851
Code required by rules adopted under section 5119.61 of the 10852
Revised Code regarding referrals by the board or mental health 10853
agencies under contract with the board of individuals with mental 10854
illness or severe mental disability to adult care facilities and 10855
effective arrangements for ongoing mental health services for the 10856
individuals. The board is accountable in the manner specified in 10857
the rules for ensuring that the ongoing mental health services are 10858
effectively arranged for the individuals.10859

       (B) The board shall establish such rules, operating 10860
procedures, standards, and bylaws, and perform such other duties 10861
as may be necessary or proper to carry out the purposes of this 10862
chapter.10863

       (C) A board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 10864
services may receive by gift, grant, devise, or bequest any 10865
moneys, lands, or property for the benefit of the purposes for 10866
which the board is established, and may hold and apply it 10867
according to the terms of the gift, grant, or bequest. All money 10868
received, including accrued interest, by gift, grant, or bequest 10869
shall be deposited in the treasury of the county, the treasurer of 10870
which is custodian of the alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 10871
health services funds to the credit of the board and shall be 10872
available for use by the board for purposes stated by the donor or 10873
grantor.10874

       (D) No board member or employee of a board of alcohol, drug 10875
addiction, and mental health services shall be liable for injury 10876
or damages caused by any action or inaction taken within the scope 10877
of the board member's official duties or the employee's 10878
employment, whether or not such action or inaction is expressly 10879
authorized by this section, section 340.033, or any other section 10880
of the Revised Code, unless such action or inaction constitutes 10881
willful or wanton misconduct. Chapter 2744. of the Revised Code 10882
applies to any action or inaction by a board member or employee of 10883
a board taken within the scope of the board member's official 10884
duties or employee's employment. For the purposes of this 10885
division, the conduct of a board member or employee shall not be 10886
considered willful or wanton misconduct if the board member or 10887
employee acted in good faith and in a manner that the board member 10888
or employee reasonably believed was in or was not opposed to the 10889
best interests of the board and, with respect to any criminal 10890
action or proceeding, had no reasonable cause to believe the 10891
conduct was unlawful.10892

       (E) The meetings held by any committee established by a board 10893
of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services shall be 10894
considered to be meetings of a public body subject to section 10895
121.22 of the Revised Code.10896

       Sec. 340.091.  Each board of alcohol, drug addiction, and 10897
mental health services shall contract with a community mental 10898
health agency under division (A)(7)(a) of section 340.03 of the 10899
Revised Code for the agency to do all of the following in 10900
accordance with rules adopted under section 5119.61 of the Revised 10901
Code for an individual referred to the agency under division 10902
(C)(D)(2) of section 5119.69 of the Revised Code:10903

       (A) Assess the individual to determine whether to recommend 10904
that a residential state supplement administrative agency 10905
designated under section 5119.69 of the Revised Code determine10906
and, if the agency determines that the environment in which the 10907
individual will be living while receiving residential state 10908
supplement payments is appropriate for the individual's needs and, 10909
if it determines the environment is appropriate, issue thea10910
recommendation to the referring residential state supplement 10911
administrative agency that the referring agency should conclude 10912
that the living environment is appropriate when it makes its 10913
determination regarding the appropriateness of the environment;10914

       (B) Provide ongoing monitoring to ensure that services 10915
provided under section 340.09 of the Revised Code are available to 10916
the individual;10917

       (C) Provide discharge planning to ensure the individual's 10918
earliest possible transition to a less restrictive environment.10919

       Sec. 505.37.  (A) The board of township trustees may 10920
establish all necessary rules to guard against the occurrence of 10921
fires and to protect the property and lives of the citizens 10922
against damage and accidents, and may, with the approval of the 10923
specifications by the prosecuting attorney or, if the township has 10924
adopted limited home rule government under Chapter 504. of the 10925
Revised Code, with the approval of the specifications by the 10926
township's law director, purchase, lease, lease with an option to 10927
purchase, or otherwise provide any fire apparatus, mechanical 10928
resuscitators, or other equipment, appliances, materials, fire 10929
hydrants, and water supply for fire-fighting purposes that seems 10930
advisable to the board. The board shall provide for the care and 10931
maintenance of fire equipment, and, for these purposes, may 10932
purchase, lease, lease with an option to purchase, or construct 10933
and maintain necessary buildings, and it may establish and 10934
maintain lines of fire-alarm communications within the limits of 10935
the township. The board may employ one or more persons to maintain 10936
and operate fire-fighting equipment, or it may enter into an 10937
agreement with a volunteer fire company for the use and operation 10938
of fire-fighting equipment. The board may compensate the members 10939
of a volunteer fire company on any basis and in any amount that it 10940
considers equitable.10941

        When the estimated cost to purchase fire apparatus, 10942
mechanical resuscitators, other equipment, appliances, materials, 10943
fire hydrants, buildings, or fire-alarm communications equipment 10944
or services exceeds fifty thousand dollars, the contract shall be 10945
let by competitive bidding. When competitive bidding is required, 10946
the board shall advertise once a week for not less than two 10947
consecutive weeks in a newspaper of general circulation within the 10948
township. The board may also cause notice to be inserted in trade 10949
papers or other publications designated by it or to be distributed 10950
by electronic means, including posting the notice on the board's 10951
internet web site. If the board posts the notice on its web site, 10952
it may eliminate the second notice otherwise required to be 10953
published in a newspaper of general circulation within the 10954
township, provided that the first notice published in such 10955
newspaper meets all of the following requirements: 10956

       (1) It is published at least two weeks before the opening of 10957
bids.10958

       (2) It includes a statement that the notice is posted on the 10959
board's internet web site.10960

       (3) It includes the internet address of the board's internet 10961
web site.10962

       (4) It includes instructions describing how the notice may be 10963
accessed on the board's internet web site.10964

       The advertisement shall include the time, date, and place 10965
where the clerk of the township, or the clerk's designee, will 10966
read bids publicly. The time, date, and place of bid openings may 10967
be extended to a later date by the board of township trustees, 10968
provided that written or oral notice of the change shall be given 10969
to all persons who have received or requested specifications not 10970
later than ninety-six hours prior to the original time and date 10971
fixed for the opening. The board may reject all the bids or accept 10972
the lowest and best bid, provided that the successful bidder meets 10973
the requirements of section 153.54 of the Revised Code when the 10974
contract is for the construction, demolition, alteration, repair, 10975
or reconstruction of an improvement.10976

       (B) The boards of township trustees of any two or more 10977
townships, or the legislative authorities of any two or more 10978
political subdivisions, or any combination of these, may, through 10979
joint action, unite in the joint purchase, lease, lease with an 10980
option to purchase, maintenance, use, and operation of 10981
fire-fighting equipment, or for any other purpose designated in 10982
sections 505.37 to 505.42 of the Revised Code, and may prorate the 10983
expense of the joint action on any terms that are mutually agreed 10984
upon.10985

       (C) The board of township trustees of any township may, by 10986
resolution, whenever it is expedient and necessary to guard 10987
against the occurrence of fires or to protect the property and 10988
lives of the citizens against damages resulting from their 10989
occurrence, create a fire district of any portions of the township 10990
that it considers necessary. The board may purchase, lease, lease 10991
with an option to purchase, or otherwise provide any fire 10992
apparatus, appliances, materials, fire hydrants, and water supply 10993
for fire-fighting purposes, or may contract for the fire 10994
protection for the fire district as provided in section 9.60 of 10995
the Revised Code. The fire district so created shall be given a 10996
separate name by which it shall be known.10997

       Additional unincorporated territory of the township may be 10998
added to a fire district upon the board's adoption of a resolution 10999
authorizing the addition. A municipal corporation that is within 11000
or adjoining the township may be added to a fire district upon the 11001
board's adoption of a resolution authorizing the addition and the 11002
municipal legislative authority's adoption of a resolution or 11003
ordinance requesting the addition of the municipal corporation to 11004
the fire district.11005

       If the township fire district imposes a tax, additional 11006
unincorporated territory of the township or a municipal 11007
corporation that is within or adjoining the township shall become 11008
part of the fire district only after all of the following have 11009
occurred:11010

       (1) Adoption by the board of township trustees of a 11011
resolution approving the expansion of the territorial limits of 11012
the district and, if the resolution proposes to add a municipal 11013
corporation, adoption by the municipal legislative authority of a 11014
resolution or ordinance requesting the addition of the municipal 11015
corporation to the district;11016

       (2) Adoption by the board of township trustees of a 11017
resolution recommending the extension of the tax to the additional 11018
territory;11019

       (3) Approval of the tax by the electors of the territory 11020
proposed for addition to the district.11021

       Each resolution of the board adopted under division (C)(2) of 11022
this section shall state the name of the fire district, a 11023
description of the territory to be added, and the rate and 11024
termination date of the tax, which shall be the rate and 11025
termination date of the tax currently in effect in the fire 11026
district.11027

       The board of trustees shall certify each resolution adopted 11028
under division (C)(2) of this section to the board of elections in 11029
accordance with section 5705.19 of the Revised Code. The election 11030
required under division (C)(3) of this section shall be held, 11031
canvassed, and certified in the manner provided for the submission 11032
of tax levies under section 5705.25 of the Revised Code, except 11033
that the question appearing on the ballot shall read:11034

       "Shall the territory within ........................ 11035
(description of the proposed territory to be added) be added to 11036
........................ (name) fire district, and a property tax 11037
at a rate of taxation not exceeding ...... (here insert tax rate) 11038
be in effect for .......... (here insert the number of years the 11039
tax is to be in effect or "a continuing period of time," as 11040
applicable)?"11041

       If the question is approved by at least a majority of the 11042
electors voting on it, the joinder shall be effective as of the 11043
first day of July of the year following approval, and on that 11044
date, the township fire district tax shall be extended to the 11045
taxable property within the territory that has been added. If the 11046
territory that has been added is a municipal corporation and if it 11047
had adopted a tax levy for fire purposes, the levy is terminated 11048
on the effective date of the joinder.11049

       Any municipal corporation may withdraw from a township fire 11050
district created under division (C) of this section by the 11051
adoption by the municipal legislative authority of a resolution or 11052
ordinance ordering withdrawal. On the first day of July of the 11053
year following the adoption of the resolution or ordinance of 11054
withdrawal, the municipal corporation withdrawing ceases to be a 11055
part of the district, and the power of the fire district to levy a 11056
tax upon taxable property in the withdrawing municipal corporation 11057
terminates, except that the fire district shall continue to levy 11058
and collect taxes for the payment of indebtedness within the 11059
territory of the fire district as it was composed at the time the 11060
indebtedness was incurred.11061

       Upon the withdrawal of any municipal corporation from a 11062
township fire district created under division (C) of this section, 11063
the county auditor shall ascertain, apportion, and order a 11064
division of the funds on hand, moneys and taxes in the process of 11065
collection except for taxes levied for the payment of 11066
indebtedness, credits, and real and personal property, either in 11067
money or in kind, on the basis of the valuation of the respective 11068
tax duplicates of the withdrawing municipal corporation and the 11069
remaining territory of the fire district.11070

       A board of township trustees may remove unincorporated 11071
territory of the township from the fire district upon the adoption 11072
of a resolution authorizing the removal. On the first day of July 11073
of the year following the adoption of the resolution, the 11074
unincorporated township territory described in the resolution 11075
ceases to be a part of the district, and the power of the fire 11076
district to levy a tax upon taxable property in that territory 11077
terminates, except that the fire district shall continue to levy 11078
and collect taxes for the payment of indebtedness within the 11079
territory of the fire district as it was composed at the time the 11080
indebtedness was incurred.11081

       (D) The board of township trustees of any township, the board 11082
of fire district trustees of a fire district created under section 11083
505.371 of the Revised Code, or the legislative authority of any 11084
municipal corporation may purchase, lease, or lease with an option 11085
to purchase the necessary fire-fighting equipment, buildings, and 11086
sites for the township, fire district, or municipal corporation 11087
and issue securities for that purpose with maximum maturities as 11088
provided in section 133.20 of the Revised Code. The board of 11089
township trustees, board of fire district trustees, or legislative 11090
authority may also construct any buildings necessary to house 11091
fire-fighting equipment and issue securities for that purpose with 11092
maximum maturities as provided in section 133.20 of the Revised 11093
Code.11094

        The board of township trustees, board of fire district 11095
trustees, or legislative authority may issue the securities of the 11096
township, fire district, or municipal corporation, signed by the 11097
board or designated officer of the municipal corporation and 11098
attested by the signature of the township fiscal officer, fire 11099
district clerk, or municipal clerk, covering any deferred payments 11100
and payable at the times provided, which securities shall bear 11101
interest not to exceed the rate determined as provided in section 11102
9.95 of the Revised Code, and shall not be subject to Chapter 133. 11103
of the Revised Code. The legislation authorizing the issuance of 11104
the securities shall provide for levying and collecting annually 11105
by taxation, amounts sufficient to pay the interest on and 11106
principal of the securities. The securities shall be offered for 11107
sale on the open market or given to the vendor or contractor if no 11108
sale is made.11109

       Section 505.40 of the Revised Code does not apply to any 11110
securities issued, or any lease with an option to purchase entered 11111
into, in accordance with this division.11112

       (E) A board of township trustees of any township or a board 11113
of fire district trustees of a fire district created under section 11114
505.371 of the Revised Code may purchase a policy or policies of 11115
liability insurance for the officers, employees, and appointees of 11116
the fire department, fire district, or joint fire district 11117
governed by the board that includes personal injury liability 11118
coverage as to the civil liability of those officers, employees, 11119
and appointees for false arrest, detention, or imprisonment, 11120
malicious prosecution, libel, slander, defamation or other 11121
violation of the right of privacy, wrongful entry or eviction, or 11122
other invasion of the right of private occupancy, arising out of 11123
the performance of their duties.11124

       When a board of township trustees cannot, by deed of gift or 11125
by purchase and upon terms it considers reasonable, procure land 11126
for a township fire station that is needed in order to respond in 11127
reasonable time to a fire or medical emergency, the board may 11128
appropriate land for that purpose under sections 163.01 to 163.22 11129
of the Revised Code. If it is necessary to acquire additional 11130
adjacent land for enlarging or improving the fire station, the 11131
board may purchase, appropriate, or accept a deed of gift for the 11132
land for these purposes.11133

       (F) As used in this division, "emergency medical service 11134
organization" has the same meaning as in section 4766.01 of the 11135
Revised Code.11136

       A board of township trustees, by adoption of an appropriate 11137
resolution, may choose to have the Ohiostate board of emergency11138
medical, fire, and transportation boardservices license any 11139
emergency medical service organization it operates. If the board 11140
adopts such a resolution, Chapter 4766. of the Revised Code, 11141
except for sections 4766.06 and 4766.99 of the Revised Code, 11142
applies to the organization. All rules adopted under the 11143
applicable sections of that chapter also apply to the 11144
organization. A board of township trustees, by adoption of an 11145
appropriate resolution, may remove its emergency medical service 11146
organization from the jurisdiction of the Ohiostate board of 11147
emergency medical, fire, and transportation boardservices.11148

       Sec. 505.375.  (A)(1)(a) The boards of township trustees of 11149
one or more townships and the legislative authorities of one or 11150
more municipal corporations, or the legislative authorities of two 11151
or more municipal corporations, or the boards of township trustees 11152
of two or more townships, may negotiate an agreement to form a 11153
fire and ambulance district for the delivery of both fire and 11154
ambulance services. The agreement shall be ratified by the 11155
adoption of a joint resolution by a majority of the members of 11156
each board of township trustees involved and a majority of the 11157
members of the legislative authority of each municipal corporation 11158
involved. The joint resolution shall specify a date on which the 11159
fire and ambulance district shall come into being.11160

       (b) If a joint fire district created under section 505.371 of 11161
the Revised Code or a joint ambulance district created under 11162
section 505.71 of the Revised Code is dissolved to facilitate the 11163
creation of a fire and ambulance district under division (A)(1)(a) 11164
of this section, the townships and municipal corporations forming 11165
the fire and ambulance district may transfer to the fire and 11166
ambulance district any of the funds on hand, moneys and taxes in 11167
the process of collection, credits, and real and personal property 11168
apportioned to them under division (D) of section 505.371 of the 11169
Revised Code or section 505.71 of the Revised Code, as applicable, 11170
for use by the fire and ambulance district in accordance with this 11171
section.11172

       (2)(a) The board of trustees of a joint ambulance district 11173
created under section 505.71 of the Revised Code and the board of 11174
fire district trustees of a joint fire district created under 11175
section 505.371 of the Revised Code may negotiate to combine their 11176
two joint districts into a single fire and ambulance district for 11177
the delivery of both fire and ambulance services, if the 11178
geographic area covered by the combining joint districts is 11179
exactly the same. Both boards shall adopt a joint resolution 11180
ratifying the agreement and setting a date on which the fire and 11181
ambulance district shall come into being.11182

       (b) On that date, the joint fire district and the joint 11183
ambulance district shall cease to exist, and the power of each to 11184
levy a tax upon taxable property shall terminate, except that any 11185
levy of a tax for the payment of indebtedness within the territory 11186
of the joint fire or joint ambulance district as it was composed 11187
at the time the indebtedness was incurred shall continue to be 11188
collected by the successor fire and ambulance district if the 11189
indebtedness remains unpaid. All funds and other property of the 11190
joint districts shall become the property of the fire and 11191
ambulance district, unless otherwise provided in the negotiated 11192
agreement. The agreement shall provide for the settlement of all 11193
debts and obligations of the joint districts.11194

       (B)(1) The governing body of a fire and ambulance district 11195
created under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section shall be a 11196
board of trustees of at least three but no more than nine members, 11197
appointed as provided in the agreement creating the district. 11198
Members of the board may be compensated at a rate not to exceed 11199
thirty dollars per meeting for not more than fifteen meetings per 11200
year, and may be reimbursed for all necessary expenses incurred, 11201
as provided in the agreement creating the district.11202

       (2) The board shall employ a clerk and other employees as it 11203
considers best, including a fire chief or fire prevention 11204
officers, and shall fix their compensation. Neither this section 11205
nor any other section of the Revised Code requires, or shall be 11206
construed to require, that the fire chief of a fire and ambulance 11207
district be a resident of the district.11208

       Before entering upon the duties of office, the clerk shall 11209
execute a bond, in the amount and with surety to be approved by 11210
the board, payable to the state, conditioned for the faithful 11211
performance of all of the clerk's official duties. The clerk shall 11212
deposit the bond with the presiding officer of the board, who 11213
shall file a copy of it, certified by the presiding officer, with 11214
the county auditor of the county containing the most territory in 11215
the district.11216

       The board also shall provide for the appointment of a fiscal 11217
officer for the district and may enter into agreements with 11218
volunteer fire companies for the use and operation of 11219
fire-fighting equipment. Volunteer firefighters acting under such 11220
an agreement are subject to the requirements for volunteer 11221
firefighters set forth in division (A) of section 505.38 of the 11222
Revised Code.11223

       (3) Employees of the district shall not be removed from 11224
office except as provided by sections 733.35 to 733.39 of the 11225
Revised Code, except that, to initiate removal proceedings, the 11226
board shall designate a private citizen or, if the employee is 11227
employed as a firefighter, the board may designate the fire chief, 11228
to investigate, conduct the proceedings, and prepare the necessary 11229
charges in conformity with those sections, and except that the 11230
board shall perform the functions and duties specified for the 11231
municipal legislative authority under those sections. The board 11232
may pay reasonable compensation to any private citizen hired for 11233
services rendered in the matter.11234

       (4) No person shall be appointed as a permanent full-time 11235
paid member of the district whose duties include fire fighting, or 11236
be appointed as a volunteer firefighter, unless that person has 11237
received a certificate issued under former section 3303.07 or 11238
section 4765.55 of the Revised Code evidencing satisfactory 11239
completion of a firefighter training program. The board may send 11240
its officers and firefighters to schools of instruction designed 11241
to promote the efficiency of firefighters and, if authorized in 11242
advance, may pay their necessary expenses from the funds used for 11243
the maintenance and operation of the district.11244

       The board may choose, by adoption of an appropriate 11245
resolution, to have the Ohiostate board of emergency medical, 11246
fire, and transportation boardservices license any emergency 11247
medical service organization it operates. If the board adopts such 11248
a resolution, Chapter 4766. of the Revised Code, except for 11249
sections 4766.06 and 4766.99 of the Revised Code, applies to the 11250
organization. All rules adopted under the applicable sections of 11251
that chapter also apply to the organization. The board may remove, 11252
by resolution, its emergency medical service organization from the 11253
jurisdiction of the Ohiostate board of emergency medical, fire, 11254
and transportation boardservices.11255

       (C) The board of trustees of a fire and ambulance district 11256
created under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section may exercise 11257
the following powers:11258

       (1) Purchase or otherwise provide any fire apparatus, 11259
mechanical resuscitators, or other fire or ambulance equipment, 11260
appliances, or materials; fire hydrants; and water supply for 11261
firefighting purposes that seems advisable to the board;11262

       (2) Provide for the care and maintenance of equipment and, 11263
for that purpose, purchase, lease, lease with an option to 11264
purchase, or construct and maintain necessary buildings;11265

       (3) Establish and maintain lines of fire-alarm communications 11266
within the limits of the district;11267

       (4) Appropriate land for a fire station or medical emergency 11268
unit needed in order to respond in reasonable time to a fire or 11269
medical emergency, in accordance with Chapter 163. of the Revised 11270
Code;11271

       (5) Purchase, appropriate, or accept a deed or gift of land 11272
to enlarge or improve a fire station or medical emergency unit;11273

       (6) Purchase, lease, lease with an option to purchase, 11274
maintain, and use all materials, equipment, vehicles, buildings, 11275
and land necessary to perform its duties;11276

       (7) Contract for a period not to exceed three years with one 11277
or more townships, municipal corporations, counties, joint fire 11278
districts, joint ambulance districts, governmental agencies, 11279
nonprofit corporations, or private ambulance owners located either 11280
within or outside the state, to furnish or receive ambulance 11281
services or emergency medical services within the several 11282
territories of the contracting parties, if the contract is first 11283
authorized by all boards of trustees and legislative authorities 11284
concerned;11285

       (8) Establish reasonable charges for the use of ambulance or 11286
emergency medical services under the same conditions under which a 11287
board of fire district trustees may establish those charges under 11288
section 505.371 of the Revised Code;11289

       (9) Establish all necessary rules to guard against the 11290
occurrence of fires and to protect property and lives against 11291
damage and accidents;11292

       (10) Adopt a standard code pertaining to fire, fire hazards, 11293
and fire prevention prepared and promulgated by the state or by a 11294
public or private organization that publishes a model or standard 11295
code;11296

       (11) Provide for charges for false alarms at commercial 11297
establishments in the same manner as joint fire districts are 11298
authorized to do under section 505.391 of the Revised Code;11299

       (12) Issue bonds and other evidences of indebtedness, subject 11300
to Chapter 133. of the Revised Code, but only after approval by a 11301
vote of the electors of the district as provided by section 133.18 11302
of the Revised Code;11303

       (13) To provide the services and equipment it considers 11304
necessary, levy a sufficient tax, subject to Chapter 5705. of the 11305
Revised Code, on all the taxable property in the district.11306

       (D) Any municipal corporation or township may join an 11307
existing fire and ambulance district, whether created under 11308
division (A)(1) or (2) of this section, by its legislative 11309
authority's adoption of a resolution requesting the membership and 11310
upon approval of the board of trustees of the district. Any 11311
municipal corporation or township may withdraw from a district, 11312
whether created under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section, by 11313
its legislative authority's adoption of a resolution ordering 11314
withdrawal. Upon its withdrawal, the municipal corporation or 11315
township ceases to be a part of the district, and the district's 11316
power to levy a tax on taxable property in the withdrawing 11317
township or municipal corporation terminates, except that the 11318
district shall continue to levy and collect taxes for the payment 11319
of indebtedness within the territory of the district as it was 11320
composed at the time the indebtedness was incurred.11321

       Upon the withdrawal of any township or municipal corporation 11322
from a district, the county auditor of the county containing the 11323
most territory in the district shall ascertain, apportion, and 11324
order a division of the funds on hand, including funds in the 11325
ambulance and emergency medical services fund, moneys and taxes in 11326
the process of collection, except for taxes levied for the payment 11327
of indebtedness, credits, and real and personal property on the 11328
basis of the valuation of the respective tax duplicates of the 11329
withdrawing municipal corporation or township and the remaining 11330
territory of the district.11331

       (E) As used in this section:11332

       (1) "Governmental agency" includes all departments, boards, 11333
offices, commissions, agencies, colleges, universities, 11334
institutions, and other instrumentalities of this or another 11335
state.11336

       (2) "Emergency medical service organization" has the same 11337
meaning as in section 4766.01 of the Revised Code.11338

       Sec. 505.44.  As used in this section:11339

       (A) "Emergency medical service organization" has the same 11340
meaning as in section 4765.01 of the Revised Code.11341

       (B) "State agency" means all departments, boards, offices, 11342
commissions, agencies, colleges, universities, institutions, and 11343
other instrumentalities of this or another state.11344

       In order to obtain the services of ambulance service 11345
organizations, to obtain additional services from ambulance 11346
service organizations in times of emergency, to obtain the 11347
services of emergency medical service organizations, or, if the 11348
township is located in a county with a population of forty 11349
thousand or less, to obtain the services of nonemergency patient 11350
transport service organizations, a township may enter into a 11351
contract with one or more state agencies, townships, municipal 11352
corporations, counties, nonprofit corporations, joint emergency 11353
medical services districts, fire and ambulance districts, or 11354
private ambulance owners, regardless of whether such state 11355
agencies, townships, municipal corporations, counties, nonprofit 11356
corporations, joint emergency medical services districts, fire and 11357
ambulance districts, or private ambulance owners are located 11358
within or outside the state, upon such terms as are agreed to by 11359
them, to furnish or receive services from ambulance or emergency 11360
medical service organizations or, if the township is located in a 11361
county with a population of forty thousand or less, to furnish or 11362
receive services from nonemergency patient transport service 11363
organizations, or may enter into a contract for the interchange of 11364
services from ambulance or emergency medical service organizations 11365
or, if the township is located in a county with a population of 11366
forty thousand or less, the interchange of services from 11367
nonemergency patient transport service organizations, within the 11368
several territories of the contracting parties, if the contract is 11369
first authorized by the respective boards of township trustees, 11370
the other legislative bodies, or the officer or body authorized to 11371
contract on behalf of the state agency. Such contracts shall not 11372
be entered into with a state agency or nonprofit corporation that 11373
receives more than half of its operating funds from governmental 11374
entities with the intention of directly competing with the 11375
operation of other ambulance, emergency medical, or nonemergency 11376
patient transport service organizations in the township unless the 11377
state agency or nonprofit corporation is awarded the contract 11378
after submitting the lowest and best bid to the board of township 11379
trustees.11380

       The contract may provide for compensation upon such terms as 11381
the parties may agree.11382

       Any township wishing to commence providing or wishing to 11383
enter into a contract for the first time to furnish or obtain 11384
services from nonemergency patient transport service organizations 11385
on or after March 1, 1993, including a township in which a private 11386
provider has been providing the service, shall demonstrate the 11387
need for public funding for the service to, and obtain approval 11388
from, the state board of emergency medical, fire, and 11389
transportation services or its immediate successor board prior to 11390
the establishment of a township-operated or township-funded 11391
service.11392

       Sec. 505.59.  The board of township trustees of a township 11393
that withdraws or proposes by resolution to withdraw the 11394
unincorporated territory of the township from a regional transit 11395
authority under section 306.55 of the Revised Code may levy a tax 11396
on taxable property in the unincorporated area of the township 11397
under section 5705.72 of the Revised Code to provide 11398
transportation services for the movement of persons within, from, 11399
or to the unincorporated area of the township.11400

       Sec. 505.72.  (A) The board of trustees of a joint ambulance 11401
district shall provide for the employment of such employees as it 11402
considers best, and shall fix their compensation. Such employees 11403
shall continue in office until removed as provided by sections 11404
733.35 to 733.39 of the Revised Code. To initiate removal 11405
proceedings, and for such purpose, the board shall designate a 11406
private citizen to investigate the conduct and prepare the 11407
necessary charges in conformity with sections 733.35 to 733.39 of 11408
the Revised Code. The board may pay reasonable compensation to 11409
such person for the person's services.11410

       In case of the removal of an employee of the district, an 11411
appeal may be had from the decision of the board to the court of 11412
common pleas of the county in which such district, or part of it, 11413
is situated, to determine the sufficiency of the cause of removal. 11414
Such appeal from the findings of the board shall be taken within 11415
ten days.11416

       (B) As used in this division, "emergency medical service 11417
organization" has the same meaning as in section 4765.01 of the 11418
Revised Code.11419

       (1) In order to obtain the services of ambulance service 11420
organizations, to obtain additional services from ambulance 11421
service organizations in times of emergency, or to obtain the 11422
services of emergency medical service organizations, a district 11423
may enter into a contract, for a period not to exceed three years, 11424
with one or more townships, municipal corporations, joint fire 11425
districts, nonprofit corporations, any other governmental unit 11426
that provides ambulance services or emergency medical services, or 11427
with private ambulance owners, regardless of whether such 11428
townships, municipal corporations, joint fire districts, nonprofit 11429
corporations, governmental unit, or private ambulance owners are 11430
located within or without this state, upon such terms as are 11431
agreed to, to furnish or receive services from ambulance or 11432
emergency medical service organizations or the interchange of 11433
services from ambulance or emergency medical service organizations 11434
within the several territories of the contracting subdivisions, if 11435
such contract is first authorized by all boards of trustees and 11436
legislative authorities concerned.11437

       The contract may provide for a fixed annual charge to be paid 11438
at the times agreed upon and stipulated in the contract, or for 11439
compensation based upon a stipulated price for each run, call, or 11440
emergency, or the elapsed time of service required in such run, 11441
call, or emergency, or any combination thereof.11442

       (2) Expenditures of a district for the services of ambulance 11443
service organizations or emergency medical service organizations, 11444
whether pursuant to contract or otherwise, are lawful 11445
expenditures, regardless of whether the district or the party with 11446
which it contracts charges additional fees to users of the 11447
services.11448

       (3) A district's board of trustees, by adoption of an 11449
appropriate resolution, may choose to have the Ohiostate board of 11450
emergency medical, fire, and transportation boardservices license 11451
any emergency medical service organization the district operates. 11452
If a board adopts such a resolution, Chapter 4766. of the Revised 11453
Code, except for sections 4766.06 and 4766.99 of the Revised Code, 11454
applies to the district emergency medical service organization. 11455
All rules adopted under the applicable sections of that chapter 11456
also apply to the organization. A board, by adoption of an 11457
appropriate resolution, may remove the district emergency medical 11458
service organization from the jurisdiction of the Ohiostate board 11459
of emergency medical, fire, and transportation boardservices.11460

       (C) Ambulance services or emergency medical services rendered 11461
for a joint ambulance district under this section and section 11462
505.71 of the Revised Code shall be deemed services of the 11463
district. These sections do not authorize suits against a district 11464
or any township or municipal corporation providing or receiving, 11465
or contracting to provide or receive, such services under these 11466
sections for damages for injury or loss to persons or property or 11467
for wrongful death caused by persons providing such services.11468

       Sec. 705.18.  An annual appropriation ordinance shall be 11469
prepared by the legislative authority of a municipal corporation 11470
from estimates submitted by the mayor, the chairmanchairperson of 11471
the commission, or the city manager, as the case may be, in the 11472
manner provided in section 705.17 of the Revised Code for the 11473
annual tax ordinance. The annual appropriation ordinance shall be 11474
submitted to the legislative authority at its first meeting in 11475
Januaryafter the beginning of the municipal corporation's fiscal 11476
year, and the total of any appropriation ordinance passed by such 11477
legislative authority shall not exceed the total balances carried 11478
over from the previous fiscal year plus the estimated revenue of 11479
the current fiscal year. Supplemental appropriations shall not be 11480
made during the current fiscal year except from an contingent fund 11481
regularly set aside by the legislative authority in the annual 11482
appropriation ordinance or unless by an ordinance passed as an 11483
emergency measure.11484

       Sec. 901.54. (A) There is hereby created the office of 11485
farmland preservation within the department of agriculture. The 11486
office shall do all of the following:11487

       (1)(A) Prepare guidelines and criteria for use in the 11488
development of comprehensive local land use plans that encourage 11489
the efficient use of public infrastructure and the preservation of 11490
farmland;11491

       (2)(B) Establish a farmland preservation program to 11492
coordinate and assist local farmland preservation initiatives;11493

       (3) Administer the pilot farmland preservation fund 11494
established in division (B) of this section;11495

       (4)(C) Educate existing agencies and organizations on the 11496
importance of farmland preservation and on the significance of 11497
agriculture and agribusiness to this state's economy;11498

       (5)(D) Serve as a liaison with other farmland preservation 11499
entities operating on a state, regional, or national level;11500

       (6)(E) Prepare an inventory of farmland within this state to 11501
monitor the development of lands within this state having prime 11502
soils or unique microclimates.11503

       (B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the pilot 11504
farmland preservation fund consisting of moneys received by the 11505
office of farmland preservation for the purposes of the fund. The 11506
fund shall be administered by the office of farmland preservation. 11507
Moneys in the fund shall be used to leverage or match other 11508
farmland preservation funds provided from federal, local, or 11509
private sources.11510


       Sec. 955.16.  (A) Dogs that have been seized by the county 11512
dog warden and impounded shall be kept, housed, and fed for three 11513
days for the purpose of redemption, as provided by section 955.18 11514
of the Revised Code, unless any of the following applies:11515

       (1) Immediate humane destruction of the dog is necessary 11516
because of obvious disease or injury. If the diseased or injured 11517
dog is registered, as determined from the current year's 11518
registration list maintained by the warden and the county auditor 11519
of the county where the dog is registered, the necessity of 11520
destroying the dog shall be certified by a licensed veterinarian 11521
or a registered veterinary technician. If the dog is not 11522
registered, the decision to destroy it shall be made by the 11523
warden.11524

       (2) The dog is currently registered on the registration list 11525
maintained by the warden and the auditor of the county where the 11526
dog is registered and the attempts to notify the owner, keeper, or 11527
harborer under section 955.12 of the Revised Code have failed, in 11528
which case the dog shall be kept, housed, and fed for fourteen 11529
days for the purpose of redemption.11530

       (3) The warden has contacted the owner, keeper, or harborer 11531
under section 955.12 of the Revised Code, and the owner, keeper, 11532
or harborer has requested that the dog remain in the pound or 11533
animal shelter until the owner, harborer, or keeper redeems the 11534
dog. The time for such redemption shall be not more than 11535
forty-eight hours following the end of the appropriate redemption 11536
period.11537

       At any time after such periods of redemption, any dog not 11538
redeemed shall be donated to any nonprofit special agency that is 11539
engaged in the training of any type of assistance dogs and that 11540
requests that the dog be donated to it. Any dog not redeemed that 11541
is not requested by such an agency may be sold, except that no dog 11542
sold to a person other than a nonprofit teaching or research 11543
institution or organization of the type described in division (B) 11544
of this section shall be discharged from the pound or animal 11545
shelter until the animal has been registered and furnished with a 11546
valid registration tag.11547

       (B) Any dog that is not redeemed within the applicable period 11548
as specified in this section or section 955.12 of the Revised Code 11549
from the time notice is mailed to its owner, keeper, or harborer 11550
or is posted at the pound or animal shelter, as required by 11551
section 955.12 of the Revised Code, and that is not required to be 11552
donated to a nonprofit special agency engaged in the training of 11553
any type of assistance dogs may, upon payment to the dog warden or 11554
poundkeeper of the sum of three dollars, be sold to any nonprofit 11555
Ohio institution or organization that is certified by the Ohio 11556
publicdirector of health council as being engaged in teaching or 11557
research concerning the prevention and treatment of diseases of 11558
human beings or animals. Any dog that is donated to a nonprofit 11559
special agency engaged in the training of any type of assistance 11560
dogs in accordance with division (A) of this section and any dog 11561
that is sold to any nonprofit teaching or research institution or 11562
organization shall be discharged from the pound or animal shelter 11563
without registration and may be kept by the agency or by the 11564
institution or organization without registration so long as the 11565
dog is being trained, or is being used for teaching and research 11566
purposes.11567

       Any institution or organization certified by the Ohio public 11568
health councildirector that obtains dogs for teaching and 11569
research purposes pursuant to this section shall, at all 11570
reasonable times, make the dogs available for inspection by agents 11571
of the Ohio humane society, appointed pursuant to section 1717.04 11572
of the Revised Code, and agents of county humane societies, 11573
appointed pursuant to section 1717.06 of the Revised Code, in 11574
order that the agents may prevent the perpetration of any act of 11575
cruelty, as defined in section 1717.01 of the Revised Code, to the 11576
dogs.11577

       (C) Any dog that the dog warden or poundkeeper is unable to 11578
dispose of, in the manner provided by this section and section 11579
955.18 of the Revised Code, may be humanely destroyed, except that 11580
no dog shall be destroyed until twenty-four hours after it has 11581
been offered to a nonprofit teaching or research institution or 11582
organization, as provided in this section, that has made a request 11583
for dogs to the dog warden or poundkeeper.11584

       (D) An owner of a dog that is wearing a valid registration 11585
tag who presents the dog to the dog warden or poundkeeper may 11586
specify in writing that the dog shall not be offered to a 11587
nonprofit teaching or research institution or organization, as 11588
provided in this section.11589

       (E) A record of all dogs impounded, the disposition of the 11590
same, the owner's name and address, if known, and a statement of 11591
costs assessed against the dogs shall be kept by the poundkeeper, 11592
and the poundkeeper shall furnish a transcript thereof to the 11593
county treasurer quarterly.11594

       A record of all dogs received and the source that supplied 11595
them shall be kept, for a period of three years from the date of 11596
acquiring the dogs, by all institutions or organizations engaged 11597
in teaching or research concerning the prevention and treatment of 11598
diseases of human beings or animals.11599

       (F) No person shall destroy any dog by the use of a high 11600
altitude decompression chamber or by any method other than a 11601
method that immediately and painlessly renders the dog initially 11602
unconscious and subsequently dead.11603

       Sec. 955.26.  Whenever, in the judgment of the director of 11604
health, any city or general health district board of health, or 11605
persons performing the duties of a board of health, rabies is 11606
prevalent, the director of health, the board, or those persons 11607
shall declare a quarantine of all dogs in the health district or 11608
in a part of it. During the quarantine, the owner, keeper, or 11609
harborer of any dog shall keep it confined on the premises of the 11610
owner, keeper, or harborer, or in a suitable pound or kennel, at 11611
the expense of the owner, keeper, or harborer, except that a dog 11612
may be permitted to leave the premises of its owner, keeper, or 11613
harborer if it is under leash or under the control of a 11614
responsible person. The quarantine order shall be considered an 11615
emergency and need not be published.11616

       When the quarantine has been declared, the director of 11617
health, the board, or those persons may require vaccination for 11618
rabies of all dogs within the health district or part of it. Proof 11619
of rabies vaccination within a satisfactory period shall be 11620
demonstrated to the county auditor before any registration is 11621
issued under section 955.01 of the Revised Code for any dog that 11622
is required to be vaccinated.11623

       The public health councildirector shall determine 11624
appropriate methods of rabies vaccination and satisfactory periods 11625
for purposes of quarantines under this section.11626

       When a quarantine of dogs has been declared in any health 11627
district or part of a health district, the county dog warden and 11628
all other persons having the authority of police officers shall 11629
assist the health authorities in enforcing the quarantine order. 11630
When rabies vaccination has been declared compulsory in any health 11631
district or part of a health district, the dog warden shall assist 11632
the health authorities in enforcing the vaccination order.11633

       Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, a city or 11634
general health district board of health may make orders pursuant 11635
to sections 3709.20 and 3709.21 of the Revised Code requiring the 11636
vaccination of dogs.11637

       Sec. 991.02.  (A) There is hereby created the Ohio 11638
expositions commission, which shall consist of the following11639
thirteenfourteen members: nine members appointed by the governor 11640
with the advice and consent of the senate; the director of 11641
development, the director of natural resources, and the director 11642
of agriculture, or their designated representatives, who shall be 11643
ex officio members with voting rights of suchthe commission; and 11644
the chairmanchairperson of the standing committee in the house of 11645
representatives to which matters dealing with agriculture are 11646
generally referred and the chairmanchairperson of the standing 11647
committee in the senate to which matters dealing with agriculture 11648
are generally referred, who shall be nonvoting members. If the 11649
senate is not in session, recess appointments shall be made by the 11650
governor.11651

       (B) Of the nine members of the commission appointed by the 11652
governor, not more than five shall be from one political party, at 11653
least three members shall receive the major portion of their 11654
income from farming, and at least one member shall, at the time of 11655
his appointment, be a member of the board of directors of an 11656
agricultural society whichthat was organized in compliance with 11657
section 1711.01 or 1711.02 of the Revised Code. Terms of office 11658
shall be for six years, commencing on the second day of December 11659
and ending on the first day of December. Each member shall hold 11660
office from the date of his appointment until the end of the term 11661
for which hethe member was appointed. Any member appointed to 11662
fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for 11663
which histhe member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office 11664
for the remainder of suchthat term. Any member shall continue in 11665
office subsequent to the expiration date of histhe member's term 11666
until histhe member's successor takes office, or until a period 11667
of sixty days has elapsed, whichever occurs first.11668

       The term of each nonvoting, legislative member of the 11669
commission shall be for two years or until the end of the member's 11670
legislative term, whichever occurs first.11671

       (C) The commission shall annually, during the month of 11672
December, select from among its members a chairmanchairperson, a 11673
vice-chairmanvice-chairperson, who in the absence of the chairman11674
chairperson shall carry out histhe chairperson's duties, and a 11675
secretary, who may be a member or employee of the commission, to 11676
record the minutes of its meetings and to carry out such other 11677
duties as may be assigned by the commission, its chairman11678
chairperson, or vice-chairmanits vice-chairperson.11679

       (D) The director of agriculture, the director of natural 11680
resources, and the director of development, or their designated 11681
representatives, and the two legislators appointed to the 11682
commission, as members of the commission shall serve without 11683
compensation.11684

       (E) Each of the members of the commission appointed by the 11685
governor shall be paid the rate established pursuant to division 11686
(J) of section 124.15 of the Revised Code. All members of the 11687
commission are entitled to their actual and necessary expenses 11688
incurred in the performance of their duties as such members, 11689
payable from the appropriations for the commission.11690

       (F) The commission shall hold at least one regular meeting in 11691
each quarter of each calendar year, and shall keep a record of its 11692
proceedings, which shall be open to the public for inspection. 11693
Special meetings may be called by the chairmanchairperson and 11694
shall be called by himthe chairperson upon receipt of a written 11695
request therefor signed by two or more members of the commission. 11696
Written notice of the time and place of each meeting shall be sent 11697
to each member of the commission. Six of the voting members of the 11698
commission shall constitute a quorum.11699

       (G) The commission shall employ and prescribe the powers and 11700
duties of a general manager who shall serve in the unclassified 11701
civil service at a salary fixed pursuant to section 124.14 of the 11702
Revised Code. The general manager may employ such assistant 11703
managers as hethe general manager and the commission may approve. 11704
At no time shall such assistant managers exceed four in number, 11705
one of whom shall be appointed in the classified civil service. 11706
The general manager may, subject to the approval of the 11707
commission, employ a fiscal officer and such other officers, 11708
employees, and consultants with such powers and duties as are 11709
necessary to carry out sections 991.01 to 991.07 of the Revised 11710
Codethis chapter. With the approval of the commission and in 11711
order to implement this chapter, the general manager may employ 11712
and fix the compensation of seasonal employees; these employees 11713
shall be in the unclassified civil service, and the overtime pay 11714
requirements of section 124.18 of the Revised Code do not apply to 11715
them. The general manager shall be considered the appointing 11716
authority of the commission for purposes of Chapter 124. of the 11717
Revised Code.11718

       (H) The governor may remove any appointed voting member of 11719
the commission at any time for inefficiency, neglect of duty, or 11720
malfeasance in office.11721

       Sec. 1121.23. Whenever the approval of the superintendent of 11722
financial institutions is required under Chapters 1101. to 1127. 11723
of the Revised Code, or under an order or supervisory action 11724
issued or taken under those chapters, for a person to serve as an 11725
organizer, incorporator, director, executive officer, or 11726
controlling shareholder of a bank, or to otherwise have a 11727
substantial interest in or participate in the management of a 11728
bank, the superintendent shall request the superintendent of the 11729
bureau of criminal identification and investigation, or a vendor 11730
approved by the bureau, to conduct a criminal records check based 11731
on the person's fingerprints in accordance with division (A)(14) 11732
of section 109.572 of the Revised Code. The superintendent of 11733
financial institutions shall request that criminal record 11734
information from the federal bureau of investigation be obtained 11735
as part of the criminal records check. Any fee required under 11736
division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code shall be 11737
paid by the person who is the subject of the request.11738

       Sec. 1155.03. Whenever the approval of the superintendent of 11739
financial institutions is required under Chapters 1151. to 1157. 11740
of the Revised Code, or under an order or supervisory action 11741
issued or taken under those chapters, for a person to serve as an 11742
organizer, incorporator, director, executive officer, or 11743
controlling person of a savings and loan association, or to 11744
otherwise have a substantial interest in or participate in the 11745
management of a savings and loan association, the superintendent 11746
shall request the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 11747
identification and investigation, or a vendor approved by the 11748
bureau, to conduct a criminal records check based on the person's 11749
fingerprints in accordance with division (A)(14) of section 11750
109.572 of the Revised Code. The superintendent of financial 11751
institutions shall request that criminal record information from 11752
the federal bureau of investigation be obtained as part of the 11753
criminal records check. Any fee required under division (C)(3) of 11754
section 109.572 of the Revised Code shall be paid by the person 11755
who is the subject of the request.11756

       Sec. 1163.05. Whenever the approval of the superintendent of 11757
financial institutions is required under Chapters 1161. to 1165. 11758
of the Revised Code, or under an order or supervisory action 11759
issued or taken under those chapters, for a person to serve as an 11760
organizer, incorporator, director, executive officer, or 11761
controlling person of a savings bank, or to otherwise have a 11762
substantial interest in or participate in the management of a 11763
savings bank, the superintendent shall request the superintendent 11764
of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation, or a 11765
vendor approved by the bureau, to conduct a criminal records check 11766
based on the person's fingerprints in accordance with division 11767
(A)(14) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code. The superintendent 11768
of financial institutions shall request that criminal record 11769
information from the federal bureau of investigation be obtained 11770
as part of the criminal records check. Any fee required under 11771
division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code shall be 11772
paid by the person who is the subject of the request.11773

       Sec. 1315.141. Whenever the approval of the superintendent of 11774
financial institutions is required under sections 1315.01 to 11775
1315.18 of the Revised Code, or under an order or supervisory 11776
action issued or taken under those sections, for a person to serve 11777
as an organizer, incorporator, director, executive officer, or 11778
controlling person of a licensee, or to otherwise have a 11779
substantial interest in or participate in the management of a 11780
licensee, the superintendent shall request the superintendent of 11781
the bureau of criminal identification and investigation, or a 11782
vendor approved by the bureau, to conduct a criminal records check 11783
based on the person's fingerprints in accordance with division 11784
(A)(14) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code. The superintendent 11785
of financial institutions shall request that criminal record 11786
information from the federal bureau of investigation be obtained 11787
as part of the criminal records check. Any fee required under 11788
division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code shall be 11789
paid by the person who is the subject of the request.11790

       Sec. 1321.37.  (A) Application for an original or renewal 11791
license to make short-term loans shall be in writing, under oath, 11792
and in the form prescribed by the superintendent of financial 11793
institutions, and shall contain the name and address of the 11794
applicant, the location where the business of making loans is to 11795
be conducted, and any further information as the superintendent 11796
requires. At the time of making an application for an original 11797
license, the applicant shall pay to the superintendent a 11798
nonrefundable investigation fee of two hundred dollars. No 11799
investigation fee or any portion thereof shall be refunded after 11800
an original license has been issued. The application for an 11801
original or renewal license shall be accompanied by an original or 11802
renewal license fee, for each business location of one thousand 11803
dollars, except that applications for original licenses issued on 11804
or after the first day of July for any year shall be accompanied 11805
by an original license fee of five hundred dollars, and except 11806
that an application for an original or renewal license, for a 11807
nonprofit corporation that is incorporated under Chapter 1702. of 11808
the Revised Code, shall be accompanied by an original or renewal 11809
license fee, for each business location, that is one-half of the 11810
fee otherwise required. All fees paid to the superintendent 11811
pursuant to this division shall be deposited into the state 11812
treasury to the credit of the consumer finance fund.11813

       (B) Upon the filing of an application for an original license 11814
and, with respect to an application filed for a renewal license, 11815
on a schedule determined by the superintendent by rule adopted 11816
pursuant to section 1321.43 of the Revised Code, and the payment 11817
of fees in accordance with division (A) of this section, the 11818
superintendent shall investigate the facts concerning the 11819
applicant and the requirements provided by this division. The 11820
superintendent shall request the superintendent of the bureau of 11821
criminal identification and investigation, or a vendor approved by 11822
the bureau, to conduct a criminal records check based on the 11823
applicant's fingerprints in accordance with division (A)(12) of11824
section 109.572 of the Revised Code. Notwithstanding division (K) 11825
of section 121.08 of the Revised Code, the superintendent of 11826
financial institutions shall request that criminal record 11827
information from the federal bureau of investigation be obtained 11828
as part of the criminal records check. The superintendent of 11829
financial institutions shall conduct a civil records check. The 11830
superintendent shall approve an application and issue an original 11831
or renewal license to the applicant if the superintendent finds 11832
all of the following:11833

       (1) The financial responsibility, experience, reputation, and 11834
general fitness of the applicant are such as to warrant the belief 11835
that the business of making loans will be operated lawfully, 11836
honestly, and fairly under sections 1321.35 to 1321.48 of the 11837
Revised Code and within the purposes of those sections; that the 11838
applicant has fully complied with those sections and any rule or 11839
order adopted or issued pursuant to section 1321.43 of the Revised 11840
Code; and that the applicant is qualified to engage in the 11841
business of making loans under sections 1321.35 to 1321.48 of the 11842
Revised Code.11843

       (2) The applicant is financially sound and has a net worth of 11844
not less than one hundred thousand dollars, or in the case of a 11845
nonprofit corporation that is incorporated under Chapter 1702. of 11846
the Revised Code, a net worth of not less than fifty thousand 11847
dollars. The applicant's net worth shall be computed according to 11848
generally accepted accounting principles.11849

       (3) The applicant has never had revoked a license to make 11850
loans under sections 1321.35 to 1321.48 of the Revised Code, under 11851
former sections 1315.35 to 1315.44 of the Revised Code, or to do 11852
business under sections 1315.21 to 1315.30 of the Revised Code.11853

       (4) Neither the applicant nor any senior officer, or partner 11854
of the applicant, has pleaded guilty to or been convicted of any 11855
criminal offense involving theft, receiving stolen property, 11856
embezzlement, forgery, fraud, passing bad checks, money 11857
laundering, or drug trafficking, or any criminal offense involving 11858
money or securities or any violation of an existing or former law 11859
of this state, any other state, or the United States that 11860
substantially is equivalent to a criminal offense described in 11861
that division. However, if the applicant or any of those other 11862
persons has pleaded guilty to or been convicted of any such 11863
offense other than theft, the superintendent shall not consider 11864
the offense if the applicant has proven to the superintendent, by 11865
a preponderance of the evidence, that the applicant's or other 11866
person's activities and employment record since the conviction 11867
show that the applicant or other person is honest, truthful, and 11868
of good reputation, and there is no basis in fact for believing 11869
that the applicant or other person will commit such an offense 11870
again.11871

        (5) Neither the applicant nor any senior officer, or partner 11872
of the applicant, has been subject to any adverse judgment for 11873
conversion, embezzlement, misappropriation of funds, fraud, 11874
misfeasance or malfeasance, or breach of fiduciary duty, or if the 11875
applicant or any of those other persons has been subject to such a 11876
judgment, the applicant has proven to the superintendent, by a 11877
preponderance of the evidence, that the applicant's or other 11878
person's activities and employment record since the judgment show 11879
that the applicant or other person is honest, truthful, and of 11880
good reputation, and there is no basis in fact for believing that 11881
the applicant or other person will be subject to such a judgment 11882
again.11883

       (C) If the superintendent finds that the applicant does not 11884
meet the requirements of division (B) of this section, or the 11885
superintendent finds that the applicant knowingly or repeatedly 11886
contracts with or employs persons to directly engage in lending 11887
activities who have been convicted of a felony crime listed in 11888
division (B)(5) of this section, the superintendent shall issue an 11889
order denying the application for an original or renewal license 11890
and giving the applicant an opportunity for a hearing on the 11891
denial in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. The 11892
superintendent shall notify the applicant of the denial, the 11893
grounds for the denial, and the applicant's opportunity for a 11894
hearing. If the application is denied, the superintendent shall 11895
return the annual license fee but shall retain the investigation 11896
fee.11897

       (D) No person licensed under sections 1321.35 to 1321.48 of 11898
the Revised Code shall conduct business in this state unless the 11899
licensee has obtained and maintains in effect at all times a 11900
corporate surety bond issued by a bonding company or insurance 11901
company authorized to do business in this state. The bond shall be 11902
in favor of the superintendent and in the penal sum of at least 11903
one hundred thousand dollars, or in the case of a nonprofit 11904
corporation that is incorporated under Chapter 1702. of the 11905
Revised Code, in the amount of fifty thousand dollars. The term of 11906
the bond shall coincide with the term of the license. The licensee 11907
shall file a copy of the bond with the superintendent. The bond 11908
shall be for the exclusive benefit of any borrower injured by a 11909
violation by a licensee or any employee of a licensee, of any 11910
provision of sections 1321.35 to 1321.48 of the Revised Code.11911

       Sec. 1321.53.  (A)(1) An application for a certificate of 11912
registration under sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised Code 11913
shall contain an undertaking by the applicant to abide by those 11914
sections. The application shall be in writing, under oath, and in 11915
the form prescribed by the division of financial institutions, and 11916
shall contain any information that the division may require. 11917
Applicants that are foreign corporations shall obtain and maintain 11918
a license pursuant to Chapter 1703. of the Revised Code before a 11919
certificate is issued or renewed.11920

       (2) Upon the filing of the application and the payment by the 11921
applicant of a nonrefundable two-hundred-dollar investigation fee, 11922
a nonrefundable three-hundred-dollar annual registration fee, and 11923
any additional fee required by the nationwide mortgage licensing 11924
system and registry, the division shall investigate the relevant 11925
facts. If the application involves investigation outside this 11926
state, the applicant may be required by the division to advance 11927
sufficient funds to pay any of the actual expenses of such 11928
investigation, when it appears that these expenses will exceed two 11929
hundred dollars. An itemized statement of any of these expenses 11930
which the applicant is required to pay shall be furnished to the 11931
applicant by the division. No certificate shall be issued unless 11932
all the required fees have been submitted to the division.11933

       (3) All applicants making loans secured by an interest in 11934
real estate shall designate an employee or owner of the applicant 11935
as the applicant's primary point of contact. While acting as the 11936
primary point of contact, the employee or owner shall not be 11937
employed by any other registrant or mortgage broker.11938

       (4) The investigation undertaken upon application shall 11939
include both a civil and criminal records check of the applicant 11940
including any individual whose identity is required to be 11941
disclosed in the application. Where the applicant is a business 11942
entity the superintendent shall have the authority to require a 11943
civil and criminal background check of those persons that in the 11944
determination of the superintendent have the authority to direct 11945
and control the operations of the applicant. 11946

       (5)(a) Notwithstanding division (K) of section 121.08 of the 11947
Revised Code, the superintendent of financial institutions shall 11948
obtain a criminal history records check and, as part of that 11949
records check, request that criminal record information from the 11950
federal bureau of investigation be obtained. To fulfill this 11951
requirement, the superintendent shall do either of the following: 11952

       (i) Request the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 11953
identification and investigation, or a vendor approved by the 11954
bureau, to conduct a criminal records check based on the 11955
applicant's fingerprints or, if the fingerprints are unreadable, 11956
based on the applicant's social security number, in accordance 11957
with division (A)(12) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code; 11958

       (ii) Authorize the nationwide mortgage licensing system and 11959
registry to request a criminal history background check as set 11960
forth in division (C) of section 1321.531 of the Revised Code.11961

       (b) Any fee required under division (C)(3) of section 109.572 11962
of the Revised Code or by the nationwide mortgage licensing system 11963
and registry shall be paid by the applicant.11964

       (6) If an application for a certificate of registration does 11965
not contain all of the information required under division (A) of 11966
this section, and if such information is not submitted to the 11967
division or to the nationwide mortgage licensing system and 11968
registry within ninety days after the superintendent or the 11969
nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry requests the 11970
information in writing, including by electronic transmission or 11971
facsimile, the superintendent may consider the application 11972
withdrawn.11973

       (7) If the division finds that the financial responsibility, 11974
experience, character, and general fitness of the applicant 11975
command the confidence of the public and warrant the belief that 11976
the business will be operated honestly and fairly in compliance 11977
with the purposes of sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised 11978
Code and the rules adopted thereunder, and that the applicant has 11979
the requisite bond or applicable net worth and assets required by 11980
division (B) of this section, the division shall thereupon issue a 11981
certificate of registration to the applicant. The superintendent 11982
shall not use a credit score as the sole basis for a registration 11983
denial.11984

        (a)(i) Certificates of registration issued on or after July 11985
1, 2010, shall annually expire on the thirty-first day of 11986
December, unless renewed by the filing of a renewal application 11987
and payment of a three-hundred-dollar nonrefundable annual 11988
registration fee, any assessment as determined by the 11989
superintendent pursuant to division (A)(7)(a)(ii) of this section, 11990
and any additional fee required by the nationwide mortgage 11991
licensing system and registry, on or before the last day of 11992
December of each year. No other fee or assessment shall be 11993
required of a registrant by the state or any political subdivision 11994
of this state.11995

       (ii) If the renewal fees billed by the superintendent 11996
pursuant to division (A)(7)(a)(i) of this section are less than 11997
the estimated expenditures of the consumer finance section of the 11998
division of financial institutions, as determined by the 11999
superintendent, for the following fiscal year, the superintendent 12000
may assess each registrant at a rate sufficient to equal in the 12001
aggregate the difference between the renewal fees billed and the 12002
estimated expenditures. Each registrant shall pay the assessed 12003
amount to the superintendent prior to the last day of June. In no 12004
case shall the assessment exceed ten cents per each one hundred 12005
dollars of interest (excluding charge-off recoveries), points, 12006
loan origination charges, and credit line charges collected by 12007
that registrant during the previous calendar year. If such an 12008
assessment is imposed, it shall not be less than two hundred fifty 12009
dollars per registrant and shall not exceed thirty thousand 12010
dollars less the total renewal fees paid pursuant to division 12011
(A)(7)(a)(i) of this section by each registrant.12012

       (b) Registrants shall timely file renewal applications on 12013
forms prescribed by the division and provide any further 12014
information that the division may require. If a renewal 12015
application does not contain all of the information required under 12016
this section, and if that information is not submitted to the 12017
division or to the nationwide mortgage licensing system and 12018
registry within ninety days after the superintendent or the 12019
nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry requests the 12020
information in writing, including by electronic transmission or 12021
facsimile, the superintendent may consider the application 12022
withdrawn.12023

       (c) Renewal shall not be granted if the applicant's 12024
certificate of registration is subject to an order of suspension, 12025
revocation, or an unpaid and past due fine imposed by the 12026
superintendent.12027

       (d) If the division finds the applicant does not meet the 12028
conditions set forth in this section, it shall issue a notice of 12029
intent to deny the application, and forthwith notify the applicant 12030
of the denial, the grounds for the denial, and the applicant's 12031
reasonable opportunity to be heard on the action in accordance 12032
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. 12033

       (8) If there is a change of five per cent or more in the 12034
ownership of a registrant, the division may make any investigation 12035
necessary to determine whether any fact or condition exists that, 12036
if it had existed at the time of the original application for a 12037
certificate of registration, the fact or condition would have 12038
warranted the division to deny the application under division 12039
(A)(7) of this section. If such a fact or condition is found, the 12040
division may, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, 12041
revoke the registrant's certificate.12042

       (B) Each registrant that engages in lending under sections 12043
1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised Code shall, if not otherwise 12044
required to be bonded pursuant to section 1321.533 of the Revised 12045
Code, maintain both of the following:12046

       (1) A net worth of at least fifty thousand dollars;12047

       (2) For each certificate of registration, assets of at least 12048
fifty thousand dollars either in use or readily available for use 12049
in the conduct of the business.12050

       (C) Not more than one place of business shall be maintained 12051
under the same certificate, but the division may issue additional 12052
certificates to the same registrant upon compliance with sections 12053
1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised Code, governing the issuance of 12054
a single certificate. No change in the place of business of a 12055
registrant to a location outside the original municipal 12056
corporation shall be permitted under the same certificate without 12057
the approval of a new application, the payment of the registration 12058
fee and, if required by the superintendent, the payment of an 12059
investigation fee of two hundred dollars. When a registrant wishes 12060
to change its place of business within the same municipal 12061
corporation, it shall give written notice of the change in advance 12062
to the division, which shall provide a certificate for the new 12063
address without cost. If a registrant changes its name, prior to 12064
making loans under the new name it shall give written notice of 12065
the change to the division, which shall provide a certificate in 12066
the new name without cost. Sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 of the 12067
Revised Code do not limit the loans of any registrant to residents 12068
of the community in which the registrant's place of business is 12069
situated. Each certificate shall be kept conspicuously posted in 12070
the place of business of the registrant and is not transferable or 12071
assignable.12072

       (D) Sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised Code do not 12073
apply to any of the following:12074

       (1) Entities chartered and lawfully doing business under the 12075
authority of any law of this state, another state, or the United 12076
States as a bank, savings bank, trust company, savings and loan 12077
association, or credit union, or a subsidiary of any such entity, 12078
which subsidiary is regulated by a federal banking agency and is 12079
owned and controlled by such a depository institution;12080

       (2) Life, property, or casualty insurance companies licensed 12081
to do business in this state;12082

       (3) Any person that is a lender making a loan pursuant to 12083
sections 1321.01 to 1321.19 of the Revised Code or a business loan 12084
as described in division (B)(6) of section 1343.01 of the Revised 12085
Code;12086

       (4) Any political subdivision, or any governmental or other 12087
public entity, corporation, instrumentality, or agency, in or of 12088
the United States or any state of the United States, or any entity 12089
described in division (B)(3) of section 1343.01 of the Revised 12090
Code;12091

       (5) A college or university, or controlled entity of a 12092
college or university, as those terms are defined in section 12093
1713.05 of the Revised Code;12094

       (6) A credit union service organization, provided the 12095
organization utilizes services provided by registered mortgage 12096
loan originators or the organization complies with section 12097
1321.522 of the Revised Code and holds a valid letter of exemption 12098
issued by the superintendent.12099

       (E) No person engaged in the business of selling tangible 12100
goods or services related to tangible goods may receive or retain 12101
a certificate under sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised 12102
Code for such place of business.12103

       Sec. 1321.531. (A) An application for a mortgage loan 12104
originator license shall be in writing, under oath, and in the 12105
form prescribed by the superintendent of financial institutions. 12106
The application shall be accompanied by a nonrefundable 12107
application fee of one hundred fifty dollars and all other 12108
required fees, including any fees required by the nationwide 12109
mortgage licensing system and registry.12110

       (B) The superintendent may establish relationships or enter 12111
into contracts with the nationwide mortgage licensing system and 12112
registry, or any entities designated by it, to collect and 12113
maintain records and process transaction fees or other fees 12114
related to mortgage loan originator licensees or other persons 12115
subject to or involved in their licensure.12116

       (C) In connection with applying for a mortgage loan 12117
originator license, the applicant shall furnish to the nationwide 12118
mortgage licensing system and registry the following information 12119
concerning the applicant's identity:12120

       (1) The applicant's fingerprints for submission to the 12121
federal bureau of investigation, and any other governmental agency 12122
or entity authorized to receive such information, for purposes of 12123
a state, national, and international criminal history background 12124
check;12125

       (2) Personal history and experience in a form prescribed by 12126
the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry, along with 12127
authorization for the superintendent and the nationwide mortgage 12128
licensing system and registry to obtain the following:12129

       (a) An independent credit report from a consumer reporting 12130
agency;12131

       (b) Information related to any administrative, civil, or 12132
criminal findings by any governmental jurisdiction.12133

       (D) In order to effectuate the purposes of divisions (C)(1) 12134
and (C)(2)(b) of this section, the superintendent may use the 12135
conference of state bank supervisors, or a wholly owned 12136
subsidiary, as a channeling agent for requesting information from 12137
and distributing information to the United States department of 12138
justice or any other governmental agency. The superintendent may 12139
also use the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry as 12140
a channeling agent for requesting information from and 12141
distributing information to any source related to matters subject 12142
to divisions (C)(2)(a) and (b) of this section.12143

       (E) Upon the filing of the application, payment of the 12144
application fee, and payment of any additional fee, including any 12145
fee required by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and 12146
registry, the superintendent shall investigate the applicant as 12147
set forth in division (E) of this section.12148

       (1)(a) Notwithstanding division (K) of section 121.08 of the 12149
Revised Code, the superintendent shall obtain a criminal history 12150
records check and, as part of that records check, request that 12151
criminal record information from the federal bureau of 12152
investigation be obtained. To fulfill this requirement, the 12153
superintendent shall do either of the following: 12154

       (i) Request the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 12155
identification and investigation, or a vendor approved by the 12156
bureau, to conduct a criminal records check based on the 12157
applicant's fingerprints or, if the fingerprints are unreadable, 12158
based on the applicant's social security number in accordance with 12159
division (A)(12) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code;12160

       (ii) Authorize the nationwide mortgage licensing system and 12161
registry to request a criminal history background check as set 12162
forth in division (C) of this section.12163

       (b) Any fee required under division (C)(3) of section 109.572 12164
of the Revised Code or by the nationwide mortgage licensing system 12165
and registry shall be paid by the applicant.12166

       (2) The superintendent of financial institutions shall 12167
conduct a civil records check.12168

       (3) If, in order to issue a license to an applicant, 12169
additional investigation by the superintendent outside this state 12170
is necessary, the superintendent may require the applicant to 12171
advance sufficient funds to pay the actual expenses of the 12172
investigation, if it appears that these expenses will exceed one 12173
hundred dollars. The superintendent shall provide the applicant 12174
with an itemized statement of the actual expenses that the 12175
applicant is required to pay.12176

       (F) If an application for a mortgage loan originator license 12177
does not contain all of the information required under this 12178
section, and if that information is not submitted to the 12179
superintendent or to the nationwide mortgage licensing system and 12180
registry within ninety days after the superintendent or the 12181
nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry requests the 12182
information in writing, including by electronic transmission or 12183
facsimile, the superintendent may consider the application 12184
withdrawn.12185

       Sec. 1322.03.  (A) An application for a certificate of 12186
registration as a mortgage broker shall be in writing, under oath, 12187
and in the form prescribed by the superintendent of financial 12188
institutions. The application shall be accompanied by a 12189
nonrefundable application fee of five hundred dollars for each 12190
location of an office to be maintained by the applicant in 12191
accordance with division (A) of section 1322.02 of the Revised 12192
Code and any additional fee required by the nationwide mortgage 12193
licensing system and registry. The application shall provide all 12194
of the following:12195

       (1) The location or locations where the business is to be 12196
transacted and whether any location is a residence. If any 12197
location where the business is to be transacted is a residence, 12198
the superintendent may require that the application be accompanied 12199
by a copy of a zoning permit authorizing the use of the residence 12200
for commercial purposes, or by a written opinion or other document 12201
issued by the county or political subdivision where the residence 12202
is located certifying that the use of the residence to transact 12203
business as a mortgage broker is not prohibited by the county or 12204
political subdivision. 12205

       (2)(a) In the case of a sole proprietor, the name and address 12206
of the sole proprietor;12207

       (b) In the case of a partnership, the name and address of 12208
each partner;12209

       (c) In the case of a corporation, the name and address of 12210
each shareholder owning five per cent or more of the corporation;12211

       (d) In the case of any other entity, the name and address of 12212
any person that owns five per cent or more of the entity that will 12213
transact business as a mortgage broker.12214

       (3) Each applicant shall designate an employee or owner of 12215
the applicant as the applicant's operations manager. While acting 12216
as the operations manager, the employee or owner shall be licensed 12217
as a loan originator under sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the 12218
Revised Code and shall not be employed by any other mortgage 12219
broker.12220

       (4) Evidence that the person designated on the application 12221
pursuant to division (A)(3) of this section possesses at least 12222
three years of experience in the residential mortgage and lending 12223
field, which experience may include employment with or as a 12224
mortgage broker or with a depository institution, mortgage lending 12225
institution, or other lending institution, or possesses at least 12226
three years of other experience related specifically to the 12227
business of residential mortgage loans that the superintendent 12228
determines meets the requirements of division (A)(4) of this 12229
section;12230

       (5) Evidence that the person designated on the application 12231
pursuant to division (A)(3) of this section has successfully 12232
completed the pre-licensing instruction requirements set forth in 12233
section 1322.031 of the Revised Code;12234

       (6) Evidence of compliance with the surety bond requirements 12235
of section 1322.05 of the Revised Code and with sections 1322.01 12236
to 1322.12 of the Revised Code;12237

       (7) In the case of a foreign business entity, evidence that 12238
it maintains a license or registration pursuant to Chapter 1703., 12239
1705., 1775., 1776., 1777., 1782., or 1783. of the Revised Code to 12240
transact business in this state;12241

       (8) Evidence that the applicant's operations manager has 12242
successfully completed the written test required under division 12243
(A) of section 1322.051 of the Revised Code;12244

       (9) Any further information that the superintendent requires.12245

       (B) Upon the filing of the application and payment of the 12246
nonrefundable application fee and any fee required by the 12247
nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry, the 12248
superintendent of financial institutions shall investigate the 12249
applicant, and any individual whose identity is required to be 12250
disclosed in the application, as set forth in division (B) of this 12251
section.12252

       (1)(a) Notwithstanding division (K) of section 121.08 of the 12253
Revised Code, the superintendent shall obtain a criminal history 12254
records check and, as part of that records check, request that 12255
criminal record information from the federal bureau of 12256
investigation be obtained. To fulfill this requirement, the 12257
superintendent shall do either of the following:12258

       (i) Request the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 12259
identification and investigation, or a vendor approved by the 12260
bureau, to conduct a criminal records check based on the 12261
applicant's fingerprints or, if the fingerprints are unreadable, 12262
based on the applicant's social security number, in accordance 12263
with division (A)(12) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code;12264

       (ii) Authorize the nationwide mortgage licensing system and 12265
registry to request a criminal history background check. 12266

       (b) Any fee required under division (C)(3) of section 109.572 12267
of the Revised Code or by the nationwide mortgage licensing system 12268
and registry shall be paid by the applicant.12269

       (2) The superintendent shall conduct a civil records check. 12270

       (3) If, in order to issue a certificate of registration to an 12271
applicant, additional investigation by the superintendent outside 12272
this state is necessary, the superintendent may require the 12273
applicant to advance sufficient funds to pay the actual expenses 12274
of the investigation, if it appears that these expenses will 12275
exceed five hundred dollars. The superintendent shall provide the 12276
applicant with an itemized statement of the actual expenses that 12277
the applicant is required to pay.12278

       (C) The superintendent shall pay all funds advanced and 12279
application and renewal fees and penalties the superintendent 12280
receives pursuant to this section and section 1322.04 of the 12281
Revised Code to the treasurer of state to the credit of the 12282
consumer finance fund created in section 1321.21 of the Revised 12283
Code.12284

       (D) If an application for a mortgage broker certificate of 12285
registration does not contain all of the information required 12286
under division (A) of this section, and if that information is not 12287
submitted to the superintendent or to the nationwide mortgage 12288
licensing system and registry within ninety days after the 12289
superintendent or the nationwide mortgage licensing system and 12290
registry requests the information in writing, including by 12291
electronic transmission or facsimile, the superintendent may 12292
consider the application withdrawn.12293

       (E) A mortgage broker certificate of registration and the 12294
authority granted under that certificate is not transferable or 12295
assignable and cannot be franchised by contract or any other 12296
means.12297

       (F) The registration requirements of this chapter apply to 12298
any person acting as a mortgage broker, and no person is exempt 12299
from the requirements of this chapter on the basis of prior work 12300
or employment as a mortgage broker.12301

       (G) The superintendent may establish relationships or enter 12302
into contracts with the nationwide mortgage licensing system and 12303
registry, or any entities designated by it, to collect and 12304
maintain records and process transaction fees or other fees 12305
related to mortgage broker certificates of registration or the 12306
persons associated with a mortgage broker.12307

       Sec. 1322.031. (A) An application for a license as a loan 12308
originator shall be in writing, under oath, and in the form 12309
prescribed by the superintendent of financial institutions. The 12310
application shall be accompanied by a nonrefundable application 12311
fee of one hundred fifty dollars and any additional fee required 12312
by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry.12313

       (B)(1) The application shall provide evidence, acceptable to 12314
the superintendent, that the applicant has successfully completed 12315
at least twenty-four hours of pre-licensing instruction consisting 12316
of all of the following:12317

       (a) Twenty hours of instruction in a course or program of 12318
study reviewed and approved by the nationwide mortgage licensing 12319
system and registry;12320

       (b) Four hours of instruction in a course or program of study 12321
reviewed and approved by the superintendent concerning state 12322
lending laws and the Ohio consumer sales practices act, Chapter 12323
1345. of the Revised Code, as it applies to registrants and 12324
licensees.12325

       (2) Notwithstanding division (B)(1) of this section, until 12326
the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry implements a 12327
review and approval program, the application shall provide 12328
evidence, as determined by the superintendent, that the applicant 12329
has successfully completed at least twenty-four hours of 12330
instruction in a course or program of study approved by the 12331
superintendent that consists of at least all of the following:12332

       (a) Four hours of instruction concerning state and federal 12333
mortgage lending laws, which shall include no less than two hours 12334
on this chapter;12335

       (b) Four hours of instruction concerning the Ohio consumer 12336
sales practices act, Chapter 1345. of the Revised Code, as it 12337
applies to registrants and licensees;12338

       (c) Four hours of instruction concerning the loan application 12339
process;12340

       (d) Two hours of instruction concerning the underwriting 12341
process;12342

       (e) Two hours of instruction concerning the secondary market 12343
for mortgage loans;12344

       (f) Four hours of instruction concerning the loan closing 12345
process;12346

       (g) Two hours of instruction covering basic mortgage 12347
financing concepts and terms;12348

       (h) Two hours of instruction concerning the ethical 12349
responsibilities of a registrant and a licensee, including with 12350
respect to confidentiality, consumer counseling, and the duties 12351
and standards of care created in section 1322.081 of the Revised 12352
Code.12353

       (3) For purposes of division (B)(1)(a) of this section, the 12354
review and approval of a course or program of study includes the 12355
review and approval of the provider of the course or program of 12356
study.12357

       (4) If an applicant held a valid loan originator license 12358
issued by this state at any time during the immediately preceding 12359
five-year period, the applicant shall not be required to complete 12360
any additional pre-licensing instruction. For this purpose, any 12361
time during which the individual is a registered loan originator 12362
shall not be taken into account.12363

       (5) A person having successfully completed the pre-licensing 12364
education requirement reviewed and approved by the nationwide 12365
mortgage licensing system and registry for any state within the 12366
previous five years shall be granted credit toward completion of 12367
the pre-licensing education requirement of this state.12368

       (C) In addition to the information required under division 12369
(B) of this section, the application shall provide both of the 12370
following:12371

       (1) Evidence that the applicant passed a written test that 12372
meets the requirements described in division (B) of section 12373
1322.051 of the Revised Code;12374

       (2) Any further information that the superintendent requires.12375

       (D) Upon the filing of the application and payment of the 12376
application fee and any fee required by the nationwide mortgage 12377
licensing system and registry, the superintendent of financial 12378
institutions shall investigate the applicant as set forth in 12379
division (D) of this section. 12380

        (1)(a) Notwithstanding division (K) of section 121.08 of the 12381
Revised Code, the superintendent shall obtain a criminal history 12382
records check and, as part of the records check, request that 12383
criminal record information from the federal bureau of 12384
investigation be obtained. To fulfill this requirement, the 12385
superintendent shall do either of the following:12386

       (i) Request the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 12387
identification and investigation, or a vendor approved by the 12388
bureau, to conduct a criminal records check based on the 12389
applicant's fingerprints or, if the fingerprints are unreadable, 12390
based on the applicant's social security number, in accordance 12391
with division (A)(12) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code;12392

       (ii) Authorize the nationwide mortgage licensing system and 12393
registry to request a criminal history background check. 12394

       (b) Any fee required under division (C)(3) of section 109.572 12395
of the Revised Code or by the nationwide mortgage licensing system 12396
and registry shall be paid by the applicant.12397

       (2) The superintendent shall conduct a civil records check. 12398

       (3) If, in order to issue a license to an applicant, 12399
additional investigation by the superintendent outside this state 12400
is necessary, the superintendent may require the applicant to 12401
advance sufficient funds to pay the actual expenses of the 12402
investigation, if it appears that these expenses will exceed one 12403
hundred fifty dollars. The superintendent shall provide the 12404
applicant with an itemized statement of the actual expenses that 12405
the applicant is required to pay.12406

       (E)(1) In connection with applying for a loan originator 12407
license, the applicant shall furnish to the nationwide mortgage 12408
licensing system and registry the following information concerning 12409
the applicant's identity:12410

       (a) The applicant's fingerprints for submission to the 12411
federal bureau of investigation, and any other governmental agency 12412
or entity authorized to receive such information, for purposes of 12413
a state, national, and international criminal history background 12414
check;12415

       (b) Personal history and experience in a form prescribed by 12416
the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry, along with 12417
authorization for the superintendent and the nationwide mortgage 12418
licensing system and registry to obtain the following:12419

       (i) An independent credit report from a consumer reporting 12420
agency;12421

       (ii) Information related to any administrative, civil, or 12422
criminal findings by any governmental jurisdiction. 12423

       (2) In order to effectuate the purposes of divisions 12424
(E)(1)(a) and (E)(1)(b)(ii) of this section, the superintendent 12425
may use the conference of state bank supervisors, or a wholly 12426
owned subsidiary, as a channeling agent for requesting information 12427
from and distributing information to the United States department 12428
of justice or any other governmental agency. The superintendent 12429
may also use the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry 12430
as a channeling agent for requesting information from and 12431
distributing information to any source related to matters subject 12432
to those divisions of this section.12433

        (F) The superintendent shall pay all funds advanced and 12434
application and renewal fees and penalties the superintendent 12435
receives pursuant to this section and section 1322.041 of the 12436
Revised Code to the treasurer of state to the credit of the 12437
consumer finance fund created in section 1321.21 of the Revised 12438
Code.12439

       (G) If an application for a loan originator license does not 12440
contain all of the information required under this section, and if 12441
that information is not submitted to the superintendent or to the 12442
nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry within ninety 12443
days after the superintendent or the nationwide mortgage licensing 12444
system and registry requests the information in writing, including 12445
by electronic transmission or facsimile, the superintendent may 12446
consider the application withdrawn.12447

       (H)(1) The business of a loan originator shall principally be 12448
transacted at an office of the mortgage broker with whom the 12449
licensee is employed or associated, which office is registered in 12450
accordance with division (A) of section 1322.02 of the Revised 12451
Code. Each original loan originator license shall be deposited 12452
with and maintained by the mortgage broker at the mortgage 12453
broker's main office. A copy of the license shall be maintained 12454
and displayed at the office where the loan originator principally 12455
transacts business.12456

       (2) If a loan originator's employment or association is 12457
terminated for any reason, the mortgage broker shall return the 12458
original loan originator license to the superintendent within five 12459
business days after the termination. The licensee may request the 12460
transfer of the license to another mortgage broker by submitting a 12461
transfer application, along with a fifteen dollar fee and any fee 12462
required by the national mortgage licensing system and registry, 12463
to the superintendent or may request the superintendent in writing 12464
to hold the license in escrow. Any licensee whose license is held 12465
in escrow shall cease activity as a loan originator. A licensee 12466
whose license is held in escrow shall be required to apply for 12467
renewal annually and to comply with the annual continuing 12468
education requirement.12469

       (3) A mortgage broker may employ or be associated with a loan 12470
originator on a temporary basis pending the transfer of the loan 12471
originator's license to the mortgage broker, if the mortgage 12472
broker receives written confirmation from the superintendent that 12473
the loan originator is licensed under sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 12474
of the Revised Code.12475

       (4) Notwithstanding divisions (H)(1) to (3) of this section, 12476
if a licensee is employed by or associated with a person or entity 12477
listed in division (G)(2) of section 1322.01 of the Revised Code, 12478
all of the following apply:12479

       (a) The licensee shall maintain and display the original loan 12480
originator license at the office where the licensee principally 12481
transacts business;12482

       (b) If the loan originator's employment or association is 12483
terminated, the loan originator shall return the original loan 12484
originator license to the superintendent within five business days 12485
after termination. The licensee may request the transfer of the 12486
license to a mortgage broker or another person or entity listed in 12487
division (G)(2) of section 1322.01 of the Revised Code by 12488
submitting a transfer application, along with a fifteen-dollar fee 12489
and any fee required by the national mortgage licensing system and 12490
registry, to the superintendent or may request the superintendent 12491
in writing to hold the license in escrow. A licensee whose license 12492
is held in escrow shall cease activity as a loan originator. A 12493
licensee whose license is held in escrow shall be required to 12494
apply for renewal annually and to comply with the annual 12495
continuing education requirement.12496

       (c) The licensee may seek to be employed or associated with a 12497
mortgage broker or person or entity listed in division (G)(2) of 12498
section 1322.01 of the Revised Code if the mortgage broker or 12499
person or entity receives written confirmation from the 12500
superintendent that the loan originator is licensed under sections 12501
1322.01 to 1322.12 of the Revised Code.12502

       (I) The superintendent may establish relationships or enter 12503
into contracts with the nationwide mortgage licensing system and 12504
registry, or any entities designated by it, to collect and 12505
maintain records and process transaction fees or other fees 12506
related to loan originator licenses or the persons associated with 12507
a licensee.12508

        (J) A loan originator license, or the authority granted under 12509
that license, is not assignable and cannot be franchised by 12510
contract or any other means.12511

       Sec. 1345.05.  (A) The attorney general shall:12512

       (1) Adopt, amend, and repeal procedural rules;12513

       (2) Adopt as a rule a description of the organization of the 12514
attorney general's office, stating the general courses and methods 12515
of operation of the section of the office of the attorney general, 12516
which is to administer Chapter 1345. of the Revised Code and 12517
methods whereby the public may obtain information or make 12518
submissions or requests, including a description of all forms and 12519
instructions used by that office;12520

       (3) Make available for public inspection all rules and all 12521
other written statements of policy or interpretations adopted or 12522
used by the attorney general in the discharge of the attorney 12523
general's functions, together with all judgments, including 12524
supporting opinions, by courts of this state that determine the 12525
rights of the parties and concerning which appellate remedies have 12526
been exhausted, or lost by the expiration of the time for appeal, 12527
determining that specific acts or practices violate section 12528
1345.02, 1345.03, or 1345.031 of the Revised Code;12529

       (4) Inform consumers and suppliers on a continuing basis of 12530
acts or practices that violate Chapter 1345. of the Revised Code 12531
by, among other things, publishing an informational document 12532
describing acts and practices in connection with residential 12533
mortgages that are unfair, deceptive, or unconscionable, and by 12534
making that information available on the attorney general's 12535
official web site;12536

       (5) Cooperate with state and local officials, officials of 12537
other states, and officials of the federal government in the 12538
administration of comparable statutes;12539

       (6) Report annually on or before the firstthirty-first day 12540
of January to the governor and the general assembly on the 12541
operations of the attorney general in respect to Chapter 1345. of 12542
the Revised Code, and on the acts or practices occurring in this 12543
state that violate such chapter. The report shall include a 12544
statement of investigatory and enforcement procedures and 12545
policies, of the number of investigations and enforcement 12546
proceedings instituted and of their disposition, and of other 12547
activities of the state and of other persons to promote the 12548
purposes of Chapter 1345. of the Revised Code.12549

       (7) In carrying out official duties, the attorney general 12550
shall not disclose publicly the identity of suppliers investigated 12551
or the facts developed in investigations unless these matters have 12552
become a matter of public record in enforcement proceedings, in 12553
public hearings conducted pursuant to division (B)(1) of this 12554
section, or the suppliers investigated have consented in writing 12555
to public disclosure.12556

       (B) The attorney general may:12557

       (1) Conduct research, make inquiries, hold public hearings, 12558
and publish studies relating to consumer transactions;12559

       (2) Adopt, amend, and repeal substantive rules defining with 12560
reasonable specificity acts or practices that violate sections 12561
1345.02, 1345.03, and 1345.031 of the Revised Code. In adopting, 12562
amending, or repealing substantive rules defining acts or 12563
practices that violate section 1345.02 of the Revised Code, due 12564
consideration and great weight shall be given to federal trade 12565
commission orders, trade regulation rules and guides, and the 12566
federal courts' interpretations of subsection 45(a)(1) of the 12567
"Federal Trade Commission Act," 38 Stat. 717 (1914), 15 U.S.C.A. 12568
41, as amended.12569

       In adopting, amending, or repealing such rules concerning a 12570
consumer transaction in connection with a residential mortgage, 12571
the attorney general shall consult with the superintendent of 12572
financial institutions and shall give due consideration to state 12573
and federal statutes, regulations, administrative agency 12574
interpretations, and case law.12575

       (C) In the conduct of public hearings authorized by this 12576
section, the attorney general may administer oaths, subpoena 12577
witnesses, adduce evidence, and require the production of relevant 12578
material. Upon failure of a person without lawful excuse to obey a 12579
subpoena or to produce relevant matter, the attorney general may 12580
apply to a court of common pleas for an order compelling 12581
compliance.12582

       (D) The attorney general may request that an individual who 12583
refuses to testify or to produce relevant material on the ground 12584
that the testimony or matter may incriminate the individual be 12585
ordered by the court to provide the testimony or matter. With the 12586
exception of a prosecution for perjury and an action for damages 12587
under section 1345.07 or 1345.09 of the Revised Code, an 12588
individual who complies with a court order to provide testimony or 12589
matter, after asserting a privilege against self incrimination to 12590
which the individual is entitled by law, shall not be subjected to 12591
a criminal proceeding on the basis of the testimony or matter 12592
discovered through that testimony or matter.12593

       (E) Any person may petition the attorney general requesting 12594
the adoption, amendment, or repeal of a rule. The attorney general 12595
shall prescribe by rule the form for such petitions and the 12596
procedure for their submission, consideration, and disposition. 12597
Within sixty days of submission of a petition, the attorney 12598
general shall either deny the petition in writing, stating the 12599
reasons for the denial, or initiate rule-making proceedings. There 12600
is no right to appeal from such denial of a petition.12601

       (F) All rules shall be adopted subject to Chapter 119. of the 12602
Revised Code.12603

       (G) The informational document published in accordance with 12604
division (A)(4) of this section shall be made available for 12605
distribution to consumers who are applying for a mortgage loan. An 12606
acknowledgement of receipt shall be retained by the lender, 12607
mortgage broker, and loan officer, as applicable, subject to 12608
review by the attorney general and the department of commerce.12609

       Sec. 1501.04.  There is hereby created in the department of 12610
natural resources a recreation and resources commission composed 12611
of the chairperson of the wildlife council created under section 12612
1531.03 of the Revised Code, the chairperson of the parks and 12613
recreation council created under section 1541.40 of the Revised 12614
Code, the chairperson of the waterways safety council created 12615
under section 1547.73 of the Revised Code, the chairperson of the 12616
technical advisory council on oil and gas created under section 12617
1509.38 of the Revised Code, the chairperson of the forestry 12618
advisory council created under section 1503.40 of the Revised 12619
Code, the chairperson of the Ohio soil and water conservation 12620
commission created under section 1515.02 of the Revised Code, the 12621
chairperson of the Ohio natural areas council created under 12622
section 1517.03 of the Revised Code, the chairperson of the Ohio 12623
water advisory council created under section 1521.031 of the 12624
Revised Code, the chairperson of the recycling and litter 12625
prevention advisory council created under section 1502.04 of the 12626
Revised Code, the chairperson of the Ohio geology advisory council 12627
created under section 1505.11 of the Revised Code, and five 12628
members appointed by the governor with the advice and consent of 12629
the senate, not more than three of whom shall belong to the same 12630
political party. The director of natural resources shall be an ex 12631
officio member of the commission, with a voice in its 12632
deliberations, but without the power to vote.12633

       Terms of office of members of the commission appointed by the 12634
governor shall be for five years, commencing on the second day of 12635
February and ending on the first day of February. Each member 12636
shall hold office from the date of appointment until the end of 12637
the term for which the member was appointed.12638

       In the event of the death, removal, resignation, or 12639
incapacity of a member of the commission, the governor, with the 12640
advice and consent of the senate, shall appoint a successor who 12641
shall hold office for the remainder of the term for which the 12642
member's predecessor was appointed. Any member shall continue in 12643
office subsequent to the expiration date of the member's term 12644
until the member's successor takes office, or until a period of 12645
sixty days has elapsed, whichever occurs first.12646

       The governor may remove any appointed member of the 12647
commission for misfeasance, nonfeasance, or malfeasance in office.12648

       The commission shall exercise no administrative function, but 12649
may do any of the following:12650

       (A) Advise with and recommend to the director as to plans and 12651
programs for the management, development, utilization, and 12652
conservation of the natural resources of the state;12653

       (B) Advise with and recommend to the director as to methods 12654
of coordinating the work of the divisions of the department;12655

       (C) Consider and make recommendations upon any matter that 12656
the director may submit to it;12657

       (D) Submit to the governor biennially recommendations for 12658
amendments to the conservation laws of the state.12659

        Each member of the commission, before entering upon the 12660
discharge of the member's duties, shall take and subscribe to an 12661
oath of office, which oath, in writing, shall be filed in the 12662
office of the secretary of state.12663

       The members of the commission shall serve without 12664
compensation, but shall be entitled to receive their actual and 12665
necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their official 12666
duties.12667

       The commission, by a majority vote of all its members, shall 12668
adopt and amend bylaws.12669

       To be eligible for appointment, a person shall be a citizen 12670
of the United States and an elector of the state and shall possess 12671
a knowledge of and have an interest in the natural resources of 12672
this state.12673

       The commission shall hold at least four regular quarterly 12674
meetings each year. Special meetings shall be held at such times 12675
as the bylaws of the commission provide. Notices of all meetings 12676
shall be given in such manner as the bylaws provide. The 12677
commission shall choose annually from among its members a 12678
chairperson to preside over its meetings and a secretary to keep a 12679
record of its proceedings. A majority of the members of the 12680
commission constitutes a quorum. No advice shall be given or 12681
recommendation made without a majority of the members of the 12682
commission concurring in it.12683

       Sec. 1503.012. There is hereby created in the state treasury 12684
the forestry mineral royalties fund. The fund shall consist of 12685
money deposited into it under section 1509.73 of the Revised Code. 12686
Any investment proceeds earned on money in the fund shall be 12687
credited to the fund.12688

       Money in the fund shall be used by the division of forestry 12689
to acquire land and to pay capital costs, including equipment and 12690
repairs and renovations of facilities, that are owned by the state 12691
and administered by the division. Expenditures from the fund for 12692
those purposes shall be approved by the director of natural 12693
resources.12694

       The director of natural resources also may request the 12695
director of budget and management to transfer money from the 12696
forestry mineral royalties fund to the parks mineral royalties 12697
fund created in section 1541.26 of the Revised Code. The director 12698
of budget and management shall transfer the money pursuant to the 12699
request if the director consents to the request. Money that is 12700
transferred to the parks mineral royalties fund shall be used for 12701
the purposes specified in section 1541.26 of the Revised Code.12702

       Sec. 1503.43.  (A) As used in this section:12703

       (1) "Wilderness area" means a contiguous area of relatively 12704
undeveloped state-owned land administered by the division of 12705
forestry and consisting of not less than five thousand acres or of 12706
sufficient size as to make practicable its preservation and use in 12707
an unimpaired condition that either has retained its natural 12708
character and influence or has been substantially restored to a 12709
near natural appearance and that meets both of the following 12710
qualifications:12711

       (a) The area is one in which humankind's past influences are 12712
largely unnoticed;12713

       (b) The area has outstanding opportunities for solitude or 12714
for a primitive and unconfined type of recreation.12715

       (2) "Utility facility" includes, without limitation, towers, 12716
poles, pipes, sewers, tubing, conduits, conductors, cables, 12717
valves, lines, wires, manholes, and appurtenances thereto owned by 12718
a utility facility operator.12719

       (3) "Utility facility operator" means a person or public 12720
authority that supplies any of the following materials or services 12721
by means of a utility facility:12722

       (a) Flammable, toxic, or corrosive gas;12723

       (b) Crude oil, petroleum products, or hazardous liquids;12724

       (c) Coal;12725

       (d) Electricity;12726

       (e) Electronic, telephonic, or telegraphic communications;12727

       (f) Television signals;12728

       (g) Sewage disposal or drainage;12729

       (h) Potable water;12730

       (i) Steam or hot water.12731

       (B) That portion of contiguous state lands located in Scioto 12732
and Adams counties and within the Shawnee state forest and bounded 12733
by forest road seventeen and sunshine ridge to the north, by upper 12734
Twin Creek road to the east and northeast, by United States route 12735
fifty-two to the south, and by lower Twin Creek road to the west 12736
and southwest is hereby designated the Shawnee wilderness area. 12737
Except as otherwise specifically provided by this section or by 12738
rule adopted under this chapter, the provisions of this chapter 12739
apply to the Shawnee wilderness area, and that area shall continue 12740
to be a part of the Shawnee state forest.12741

       (C) The Shawnee wilderness area shall be managed to preserve 12742
natural conditions and ensure the continuance of natural 12743
processes. The chief of the division of forestry, with the 12744
approval of the director of natural resources, shall administer 12745
the Shawnee wilderness area in accordance with a management plan, 12746
which the chief shall develop and adopt within one year after 12747
September 14, 1988. Sixty days prior to adopting a plan, the chief 12748
shall solicit public review and comment on a draft plan. At least 12749
once every ten years, the chief shall conduct a review of the 12750
plan, with public input, and revise the plan as appropriate. The 12751
chief shall make the plan available for review by any person upon 12752
request.12753

       (D) Notwithstanding any other authority granted to the chief 12754
under this chapter, the chief shall include within the management 12755
plan adopted under division (C) of this section prohibitions of 12756
the following activities within the Shawnee wilderness area except 12757
for the areas exempted in division (E) of this section:12758

       (1) Picking, removal, cutting, or alteration in any manner of 12759
any vegetation unless the person first has obtained written 12760
consent from the chief for that activity and the action is 12761
necessary for appropriate public access, the preservation or 12762
restoration of a plant or wildlife species, or the documentation 12763
of scientific values;12764

       (2) Granting of any easement or license, or sale or lease of 12765
any of the land, for any purpose. Division (D)(2) of this section 12766
does not apply to any private easement or license in existence on 12767
September 14, 1988.12768

       (3) Exploration for or extraction of any coal, oil, gas, or 12769
minerals;12770

       (4) Operation, construction, or installation of a utility 12771
facility above or below the surface of the land;12772

       (5) Operation of a commercial enterprise;12773

       (6) Except as provided in division (D)(7) of this section, 12774
construction of a road upon any of the land or use of the land as 12775
a road;12776

       (7) Except as is necessary to meet emergency requirements for 12777
administration of the area:12778

       (a) Landing of an aircraft;12779

       (b) Operation of a motor vehicle, motor boat, other form of 12780
mechanical transport, or motorized equipment;12781

       (c) Construction of any building or other structure;12782

       (d) Use of the land as a temporary road.12783

       (E)(1) The following areas, which now are necessary for the 12784
administration of the Shawnee state forest and the state forest 12785
system, are not subject to the prohibitions of division (D) of 12786
this section:12787

       (a) The Buena Vista manager's residence;12788

       (b) The Buena Vista walnut seed orchard;12789

       (c) The Twin Creek fire tower.12790

       (2) The following areas, which now are necessary for the 12791
administration of the Shawnee state forest and the state forest 12792
system, are not subject to the prohibition established in division 12793
(D)(7)(b) of this section for the purpose of trail maintenance:12794

       (a) The hiking trail west of upper Twin Creek road known as 12795
the wilderness loop;12796

       (b) Buckhorn ridge bridle trail;12797

       (c) Cabbage patch bridle trail.12798

       (3) At any time that the chief makes a determination that it 12799
is no longer necessary for the administration of the Shawnee state 12800
forest or the state forest system for an area excluded in division 12801
(E)(1) or (2) of this section to be excluded, the area shall 12802
become subject to the prohibitions ofestablished in division (D) 12803
of this section or the prohibition established in division 12804
(D)(7)(b) of this section, as applicable.12805

       (F) The chief, in developing a management plan under division 12806
(C) of this section, may not prohibit any hunting, fishing, or 12807
trapping that is done in conformity with Chapters 1531. and 1533. 12808
of the Revised Code or any rules adopted under those chapters.12809

       Sec. 1506.42.  The state, acting through the director of 12810
natural resources, subject to section 1506.46 of the Revised Code, 12811
may enter into agreements with counties, townships, municipal 12812
corporations, park boards, and conservancy districts, other 12813
political subdivisions, or any state departments or divisions for 12814
the purpose of constructing and maintaining projects to control 12815
erosion along the Ohio shoreline of Lake Erie and in any rivers 12816
and bays that are connected with Lake Erie and any other 12817
watercourses that flow into Lake Erie. Such projects also may be 12818
constructed on any Lake Erie island that is situated within the 12819
boundaries of the state.12820

       The cost of such shore erosion projects that are for the 12821
benefit of public littoral property shall be prorated on the basis 12822
of two-thirds of the total cost to the state through 12823
appropriations made to the department of natural resources and 12824
one-third of the cost to the counties, townships, municipal 12825
corporations, park boards, conservancy districts, or other 12826
political subdivisions.12827

       If a shore erosion emergency is declared by the governor, the 12828
state, acting through the director, may spend whatever state funds 12829
are available to alleviate shore erosion, without participation by 12830
any political subdivision, regardless of whether the project will 12831
benefit public or private littoral property.12832

       A board of county commissioners, acting for the county over 12833
which it has jurisdiction, may enter into and carry out agreements 12834
with the director for the construction and maintenance of projects 12835
to control shore erosion. In providing the funds for the county's 12836
proportionate share of the cost of constructing and maintaining 12837
the projects referred to in this section, the board shall be 12838
governed by and may issue and refund bonds in accordance with 12839
Chapter 133. of the Revised Code.12840

       A municipal corporation or a township, acting through the 12841
legislative authority or the board of township trustees, may enter 12842
into and carry out agreements with the director for the purpose of 12843
constructing and maintaining projects to control shore erosion. In 12844
providing the funds for the municipal corporation's or township's 12845
proportionate share of the cost of constructing and maintaining 12846
the projects referred to in this section, a municipal corporation 12847
or township may issue and refund bonds in accordance with Chapter 12848
133. of the Revised Code. The contract shall be executed on behalf 12849
of the municipal corporation or township by the mayor, city 12850
manager, or other chief executive officer who has the authority to 12851
act for the municipal corporation or township.12852

       Conservancy districts may enter into and carry out agreements 12853
with the director, in accordance with the intent of this section, 12854
under the powers conferred upon conservancy districts under 12855
Chapter 6101. of the Revised Code.12856

       Park boards may enter into and carry out agreements with the 12857
director, in accordance with the intent of this section, and issue 12858
bonds for that purpose under the powers conferred upon park 12859
districts under Chapter 1545. of the Revised Code.12860

       The director shall approve and supervise all projects that 12861
are to be constructed in accordance with this section. The 12862
director shall not proceed with the construction of any project 12863
until all funds that are to be paid by the county, township, 12864
municipal corporation, park board, or conservancy district, in 12865
accordance with the terms of the agreement entered into between 12866
the director and the county, township, municipal corporation, park 12867
board, or conservancy district, are in the director's possession 12868
and deposited in the shore erosion fund, which is hereby created 12869
in the state treasury. If the director finds it to be in the best 12870
interests of the state to construct projects as set forth in this 12871
section by the state itself, without the financial contribution of 12872
counties, townships, municipal corporations, park boards, or 12873
conservancy districts, the director may construct the projects.12874

       In deciding whether to assist a county or municipal 12875
corporation in constructing and maintaining a project under this 12876
section, the state, acting through the director, shall consider, 12877
among other factors, whether the county or municipal corporation 12878
has adopted or is in the process of adopting a Lake Erie coastal 12879
erosion area resolution or ordinance under division (D) of section 12880
1506.07 of the Revised Code.12881

       All projects constructed by the state in conformity with 12882
sections 1506.38 to 1506.46 of the Revised Code shall be 12883
constructed subject to sections 153.01 to 153.20 of the Revised 12884
Code, except that the state architect and engineerOhio facilities 12885
construction commission is not required to prepare the plans and 12886
specifications for those projects.12887

       Sec. 1509.071.  (A) When the chief of the division of oil and 12888
gas resources management finds that an owner has failed to comply 12889
with a final nonappealable order issued or compliance agreement 12890
entered into under section 1509.04, the restoration requirements 12891
of section 1509.072, plugging requirements of section 1509.12, or 12892
permit provisions of section 1509.13 of the Revised Code, or rules 12893
and orders relating thereto, the chief shall make a finding of 12894
that fact and declare any surety bond filed to ensure compliance 12895
with those sections and rules forfeited in the amount set by rule 12896
of the chief. The chief thereupon shall certify the total 12897
forfeiture to the attorney general, who shall proceed to collect 12898
the amount of the forfeiture. In addition, the chief may require 12899
an owner, operator, producer, or other person who forfeited a 12900
surety bond to post a new surety bond in the amount of fifteen 12901
thousand dollars for a single well, thirty thousand dollars for 12902
two wells, or fifty thousand dollars for three or more wells.12903

       In lieu of total forfeiture, the surety or owner, at the 12904
surety's or owner's option, may cause the well to be properly 12905
plugged and abandoned and the area properly restored or pay to the 12906
treasurer of state the cost of plugging and abandonment.12907

       (B) All moneys collected because of forfeitures of bonds as 12908
provided in this section shall be deposited in the state treasury 12909
to the credit of the oil and gas well fund created in section 12910
1509.02 of the Revised Code. 12911

       The chief annually shall spend not less than fourteen per 12912
cent of the revenue credited to the fund during the previous 12913
fiscal year for the following purposes:12914

       (1) In accordance with division (D) of this section, to plug 12915
idle and orphaned wells or to restore the land surface properly as 12916
required in section 1509.072 of the Revised Code;12917

       (2) In accordance with division (E) of this section, to 12918
correct conditions that the chief reasonably has determined are 12919
causing imminent health or safety risks at an idle and orphaned 12920
well or a well for which the owner cannot be contacted in order to 12921
initiate a corrective action within a reasonable period of time as 12922
determined by the chief.12923

       Expenditures from the fund shall be made only for lawful 12924
purposes. In addition, expenditures from the fund shall not be 12925
made to purchase real property or to remove a dwelling in order to 12926
access a well.12927

       (C)(1) Upon determining that the owner of a well has failed 12928
to properly plug and abandon it or to properly restore the land 12929
surface at the well site in compliance with the applicable 12930
requirements of this chapter and applicable rules adopted and 12931
orders issued under it or that a well is an abandoned well for 12932
which no funds are available to plug the well in accordance with 12933
this chapter, the chief shall do all of the following:12934

       (a) Determine from the records in the office of the county 12935
recorder of the county in which the well is located the identity 12936
of the owner of the land on which the well is located, the 12937
identity of the owner of the oil or gas lease under which the well 12938
was drilled or the identity of each person owning an interest in 12939
the lease, and the identities of the persons having legal title 12940
to, or a lien upon, any of the equipment appurtenant to the well;12941

       (b) Mail notice to the owner of the land on which the well is 12942
located informing the landowner that the well is to be plugged. If 12943
the owner of the oil or gas lease under which the well was drilled 12944
is different from the owner of the well or if any persons other 12945
than the owner of the well own interests in the lease, the chief 12946
also shall mail notice that the well is to be plugged to the owner 12947
of the lease or to each person owning an interest in the lease, as 12948
appropriate.12949

       (c) Mail notice to each person having legal title to, or a 12950
lien upon, any equipment appurtenant to the well, informing the 12951
person that the well is to be plugged and offering the person the 12952
opportunity to plug the well and restore the land surface at the 12953
well site at the person's own expense in order to avoid forfeiture 12954
of the equipment to this state.12955

       (2) If none of the persons described in division (C)(1)(c) of 12956
this section plugs the well within sixty days after the mailing of 12957
the notice required by that division, all equipment appurtenant to 12958
the well is hereby declared to be forfeited to this state without 12959
compensation and without the necessity for any action by the state 12960
for use to defray the cost of plugging and abandoning the well and 12961
restoring the land surface at the well site.12962

       (D) Expenditures from the fund for the purpose of division 12963
(B)(1) of this section shall be made in accordance with either of 12964
the following:12965

       (1) The expenditures may be made pursuant to contracts 12966
entered into by the chief with persons who agree to furnish all of 12967
the materials, equipment, work, and labor as specified and 12968
provided in such a contract for activities associated with the 12969
restoration or plugging of a well as determined by the chief. The 12970
activities may include excavation to uncover a well, geophysical 12971
methods to locate a buried well when clear evidence of leakage 12972
from the well exists, cleanout of wellbores to remove material 12973
from a failed plugging of a well, plugging operations, 12974
installation of vault and vent systems, including associated 12975
engineering certifications and permits, restoration of property, 12976
and repair of damage to property that is caused by such 12977
activities. Expenditures shall not be used for salaries, 12978
maintenance, equipment, or other administrative purposes, except 12979
for costs directly attributed to the plugging of an idle and 12980
orphaned well. Agents or employees of persons contracting with the 12981
chief for a restoration or plugging project may enter upon any 12982
land, public or private, on which the well is located for the 12983
purpose of performing the work. Prior to such entry, the chief 12984
shall give to the following persons written notice of the 12985
existence of a contract for a project to restore or plug a well, 12986
the names of the persons with whom the contract is made, and the 12987
date that the project will commence: the owner of the well, the 12988
owner of the land upon which the well is located, the owner or 12989
agents of adjoining land, and, if the well is located in the same 12990
township as or in a township adjacent to the excavations and 12991
workings of a mine and the owner or lessee of that mine has 12992
provided written notice identifying those townships to the chief 12993
at any time during the immediately preceding three years, the 12994
owner or lessee of the mine.12995

       (2)(a) The owner of the land on which a well is located who 12996
has received notice under division (C)(1)(b) of this section may 12997
plug the well and be reimbursed by the division of oil and gas 12998
resources management for the reasonable cost of plugging the well. 12999
In order to plug the well, the landowner shall submit an 13000
application to the chief on a form prescribed by the chief and 13001
approved by the technical advisory council on oil and gas created 13002
in section 1509.38 of the Revised Code. The application, at a 13003
minimum, shall require the landowner to provide the same 13004
information as is required to be included in the application for a 13005
permit to plug and abandon under section 1509.13 of the Revised 13006
Code. The application shall be accompanied by a copy of a proposed 13007
contract to plug the well prepared by a contractor regularly 13008
engaged in the business of plugging oil and gas wells. The 13009
proposed contract shall require the contractor to furnish all of 13010
the materials, equipment, work, and labor necessary to plug the 13011
well properly and shall specify the price for doing the work, 13012
including a credit for the equipment appurtenant to the well that 13013
was forfeited to the state through the operation of division 13014
(C)(2) of this section. Expenditures under division (D)(2)(a) of 13015
this section shall be consistent with the expenditures for 13016
activities described in division (D)(1) of this section. The 13017
application also shall be accompanied by the permit fee required 13018
by section 1509.13 of the Revised Code unless the chief, in the 13019
chief's discretion, waives payment of the permit fee. The 13020
application constitutes an application for a permit to plug and 13021
abandon the well for the purposes of section 1509.13 of the 13022
Revised Code.13023

       (b) Within thirty days after receiving an application and 13024
accompanying proposed contract under division (D)(2)(a) of this 13025
section, the chief shall determine whether the plugging would 13026
comply with the applicable requirements of this chapter and 13027
applicable rules adopted and orders issued under it and whether 13028
the cost of the plugging under the proposed contract is 13029
reasonable. If the chief determines that the proposed plugging 13030
would comply with those requirements and that the proposed cost of 13031
the plugging is reasonable, the chief shall notify the landowner 13032
of that determination and issue to the landowner a permit to plug 13033
and abandon the well under section 1509.13 of the Revised Code. 13034
Upon approval of the application and proposed contract, the chief 13035
shall transfer ownership of the equipment appurtenant to the well 13036
to the landowner. The chief may disapprove an application 13037
submitted under division (D)(2)(a) of this section if the chief 13038
determines that the proposed plugging would not comply with the 13039
applicable requirements of this chapter and applicable rules 13040
adopted and orders issued under it, that the cost of the plugging 13041
under the proposed contract is unreasonable, or that the proposed 13042
contract is not a bona fide, arm's length contract.13043

       (c) After receiving the chief's notice of the approval of the 13044
application and permit to plug and abandon a well under division 13045
(D)(2)(b) of this section, the landowner shall enter into the 13046
proposed contract to plug the well. 13047

       (d) Upon determining that the plugging has been completed in 13048
compliance with the applicable requirements of this chapter and 13049
applicable rules adopted and orders issued under it, the chief 13050
shall reimburse the landowner for the cost of the plugging as set 13051
forth in the proposed contract approved by the chief. The 13052
reimbursement shall be paid from the oil and gas well fund. If the 13053
chief determines that the plugging was not completed in accordance 13054
with the applicable requirements, the chief shall not reimburse 13055
the landowner for the cost of the plugging, and the landowner or 13056
the contractor, as applicable, promptly shall transfer back to 13057
this state title to and possession of the equipment appurtenant to 13058
the well that previously was transferred to the landowner under 13059
division (D)(2)(b) of this section. If any such equipment was 13060
removed from the well during the plugging and sold, the landowner 13061
shall pay to the chief the proceeds from the sale of the 13062
equipment, and the chief promptly shall pay the moneys so received 13063
to the treasurer of state for deposit into the oil and gas well 13064
fund.13065

       The chief may establish an annual limit on the number of 13066
wells that may be plugged under division (D)(2) of this section or 13067
an annual limit on the expenditures to be made under that 13068
division.13069

       As used in division (D)(2) of this section, "plug" and 13070
"plugging" include the plugging of the well and the restoration of 13071
the land surface disturbed by the plugging.13072

       (E) Expenditures from the oil and gas well fund for the 13073
purpose of division (B)(2) of this section may be made pursuant to 13074
contracts entered into by the chief with persons who agree to 13075
furnish all of the materials, equipment, work, and labor as 13076
specified and provided in such a contract. The competitive bidding 13077
requirements of Chapter 153. of the Revised Code do not apply if 13078
the chief reasonably determines that an emergency situation exists 13079
requiring immediate action for the correction of the applicable 13080
health or safety risk requires immediate action. A contract or 13081
purchase of materials for purposes of addressing the emergency 13082
situation is not subject to division (B) of section 127.16 of the 13083
Revised Code. The chief, designated representatives of the chief, 13084
and agents or employees of persons contracting with the chief 13085
under this division may enter upon any land, public or private, 13086
for the purpose of performing the work.13087

       (F) Contracts entered into by the chief under this section 13088
are not subject to eitherany of the following:13089

       (1) Chapter 4115. of the Revised Code;13090

       (2) Section 153.54 of the Revised Code, except that the 13091
contractor shall obtain and provide to the chief as a bid guaranty 13092
a surety bond or letter of credit in an amount equal to ten per 13093
cent of the amount of the contract;13094

       (3) Section 4733.17 of the Revised Code.13095

       (G) The owner of land on which a well is located who has 13096
received notice under division (C)(1)(b) of this section, in lieu 13097
of plugging the well in accordance with division (D)(2) of this 13098
section, may cause ownership of the well to be transferred to an 13099
owner who is lawfully doing business in this state and who has met 13100
the financial responsibility requirements established under 13101
section 1509.07 of the Revised Code, subject to the approval of 13102
the chief. The transfer of ownership also shall be subject to the 13103
landowner's filing the appropriate forms required under section 13104
1509.31 of the Revised Code and providing to the chief sufficient 13105
information to demonstrate the landowner's or owner's right to 13106
produce a formation or formations. That information may include a 13107
deed, a lease, or other documentation of ownership or property 13108
rights.13109

       The chief shall approve or disapprove the transfer of 13110
ownership of the well. If the chief approves the transfer, the 13111
owner is responsible for operating the well in accordance with 13112
this chapter and rules adopted under it, including, without 13113
limitation, all of the following:13114

       (1) Filing an application with the chief under section 13115
1509.06 of the Revised Code if the owner intends to drill deeper 13116
or produce a formation that is not listed in the records of the 13117
division for that well;13118

       (2) Taking title to and possession of the equipment 13119
appurtenant to the well that has been identified by the chief as 13120
having been abandoned by the former owner;13121

       (3) Complying with all applicable requirements that are 13122
necessary to drill deeper, plug the well, or plug back the well.13123

       (H) The chief shall issue an order that requires the owner of 13124
a well to pay the actual documented costs of a corrective action 13125
that is described in division (B)(2) of this section concerning 13126
the well. The chief shall transmit the money so recovered to the 13127
treasurer of state who shall deposit the money in the state 13128
treasury to the credit of the oil and gas well fund.13129

       (I) The chief may engage in cooperative projects under this 13130
section with any agency of this state, another state, or the 13131
United States; any other governmental agencies; or any state 13132
university or college as defined in section 3345.27 of the Revised 13133
Code. A contract entered into for purposes of a cooperative 13134
project is not subject to division (B) of section 127.16 of the 13135
Revised Code.13136

       Sec. 1509.36.  Any person adversely affected by an order by 13137
the chief of the division of oil and gas resources management may 13138
appeal to the oil and gas commission for an order vacating or 13139
modifying the order.13140

       The person so appealing to the commission shall be known as 13141
appellant and the chief shall be known as appellee. Appellant and 13142
appellee shall be deemed to be parties to the appeal.13143

       The appeal shall be in writing and shall set forth the order 13144
complained of and the grounds upon which the appeal is based. The 13145
appeal shall be filed with the commission within thirty days after 13146
the date upon which the appellant received notice by certified 13147
mail and, for all other persons adversely affected by the order, 13148
within thirty days after the date of the order complained of. 13149
Notice of the filing of the appeal shall be filed with the chief 13150
within three days after the appeal is filed with the commission.13151

       Upon the filing of the appeal the commission promptly shall 13152
fix the time and place at which the hearing on the appeal will be 13153
held, and shall give the appellant and the chief at least ten 13154
days' written notice thereof by mail. The commission may postpone 13155
or continue any hearing upon its own motion or upon application of 13156
the appellant or of the chief.13157

       The filing of an appeal provided for in this section does not 13158
automatically suspend or stay execution of the order appealed 13159
from, but upon application by the appellant the commission may 13160
suspend or stay the execution pending determination of the appeal 13161
upon such terms as the commission considers proper.13162

       Either party to the appeal or any interested person who, 13163
pursuant to commission rules has been granted permission to 13164
appear, may submit such evidence as the commission considers 13165
admissible.13166

       For the purpose of conducting a hearing on an appeal, the 13167
commission may require the attendance of witnesses and the 13168
production of books, records, and papers, and it may, and at the 13169
request of any party it shall, issue subpoenas for witnesses or 13170
subpoenas duces tecum to compel the production of any books, 13171
records, or papers, directed to the sheriffs of the counties where 13172
the witnesses are found. The subpoenas shall be served and 13173
returned in the same manner as subpoenas in criminal cases are 13174
served and returned. The fees of sheriffs shall be the same as 13175
those allowed by the court of common pleas in criminal cases. 13176
Witnesses shall be paid the fees and mileage provided for under 13177
section 119.094 of the Revised Code. Such fees and mileage 13178
expenses incurred at the request of appellant shall be paid in 13179
advance by the appellant, and the remainder of those expenses 13180
shall be paid out of funds appropriated for the expenses of the 13181
division of oil and gas resources management.13182

       In case of disobedience or neglect of any subpoena served on 13183
any person, or the refusal of any witness to testify to any matter 13184
regarding which the witness may be lawfully interrogated, the 13185
court of common pleas of the county in which the disobedience, 13186
neglect, or refusal occurs, or any judge thereof, on application 13187
of the commission or any member thereof, shall compel obedience by 13188
attachment proceedings for contempt as in the case of disobedience 13189
of the requirements of a subpoena issued from that court or a 13190
refusal to testify therein. Witnesses at such hearings shall 13191
testify under oath, and any member of the commission may 13192
administer oaths or affirmations to persons who so testify.13193

       At the request of any party to the appeal, a stenographic13194
record of the testimony and other evidence submitted shall be 13195
taken by an official court shorthand reporter at the expense of 13196
the party making the request thereforfor the record. The record 13197
shall include all of the testimony and other evidence and the 13198
rulings on the admissibility thereof presented at the hearing. The 13199
commission shall pass upon the admissibility of evidence, but any 13200
party may at the time object to the admission of any evidence and 13201
except to the rulings of the commission thereon, and if the 13202
commission refuses to admit evidence the party offering same may 13203
make a proffer thereof, and such proffer shall be made a part of 13204
the record of the hearing.13205

       If upon completion of the hearing the commission finds that 13206
the order appealed from was lawful and reasonable, it shall make a 13207
written order affirming the order appealed from; if the commission 13208
finds that the order was unreasonable or unlawful, it shall make a 13209
written order vacating the order appealed from and making the 13210
order that it finds the chief should have made. Every order made 13211
by the commission shall contain a written finding by the 13212
commission of the facts upon which the order is based.13213

       Notice of the making of the order shall be given forthwith to 13214
each party to the appeal by mailing a certified copy thereof to 13215
each such party by certified mail.13216

       The order of the commission is final unless vacated by the 13217
court of common pleas of Franklin county in an appeal as provided 13218
for in section 1509.37 of the Revised Code. Sections 1509.01 to 13219
1509.37 of the Revised Code, providing for appeals relating to 13220
orders by the chief or by the commission, or relating to rules 13221
adopted by the chief, do not constitute the exclusive procedure 13222
that any person who believes the person's rights to be unlawfully 13223
affected by those sections or any official action taken thereunder 13224
must pursue in order to protect and preserve those rights, nor do 13225
those sections constitute a procedure that that person must pursue 13226
before that person may lawfully appeal to the courts to protect 13227
and preserve those rights.13228

       Sec. 1533.081. (A) As used in this section:13229

       (1) "Energy" has the same meaning as in section 1551.01 of 13230
the Revised Code.13231

       (2) "Energy facility" means a facility at which energy is 13232
produced.13233

       (B) A person operating an energy facility whose operation may 13234
result in the incidental taking of a wild animal shall obtain a 13235
permit to do so from the chief of the division of wildlife under 13236
this section. The chief shall adopt rules under section 1531.10 of 13237
the Revised Code that are necessary to administer this section.13238

       Sec. 1533.10.  Except as provided in this section or division 13239
(A)(2) of section 1533.12 of the Revised Code, no person shall 13240
hunt any wild bird or wild quadruped without a hunting license. 13241
Each day that any person hunts within the state without procuring 13242
such a license constitutes a separate offense. Except as otherwise 13243
provided in this section, every applicant for a hunting license 13244
who is a resident of the state and eighteen years of age or more 13245
shall procure a resident hunting license or an apprentice resident 13246
hunting license, the fee for which shall be eighteen dollars 13247
unless the rules adopted under division (B) of section 1533.12 of 13248
the Revised Code provide for issuance of a resident hunting 13249
license to the applicant free of charge. Except as provided in 13250
rules adopted under division (B)(2) of that section, each 13251
applicant who is a resident of this state and who at the time of 13252
application is sixty-six years of age or older shall procure a 13253
special senior hunting license, the fee for which shall be 13254
one-half of the regular hunting license fee. Every applicant who 13255
is under the age of eighteen years shall procure a special youth 13256
hunting license or an apprentice youth hunting license, the fee 13257
for which shall be one-half of the regular hunting license fee. 13258

       A resident of this state who owns lands in the state and the 13259
owner's children of any age and grandchildren under eighteen years 13260
of age may hunt on the lands without a hunting license. A resident 13261
of any other state who owns real property in this state, and the 13262
spouse and children living with the property owner, may hunt on 13263
that property without a license, provided that the state of 13264
residence of the real property owner allows residents of this 13265
state owning real property in that state, and the spouse and 13266
children living with the property owner, to hunt without a 13267
license. If the owner of land in this state is a limited liability 13268
company or a limited liability partnership that consists of three 13269
or fewer individual members or partners, as applicable, an 13270
individual member or partner who is a resident of this state and 13271
the member's or partner's children of any age and grandchildren 13272
under eighteen years of age may hunt on the land owned by the 13273
limited liability company or limited liability partnership without 13274
a hunting license. In addition, if the owner of land in this state 13275
is a trust that has a total of three or fewer trustees and 13276
beneficiaries, an individual who is a trustee or beneficiary and 13277
who is a resident of this state and the individual's children of 13278
any age and grandchildren under eighteen years of age may hunt on 13279
the land owned by the trust without a hunting license. The tenant 13280
and children of the tenant, residing on lands in the state, may 13281
hunt on them without a hunting license. 13282

       Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(1) of section 13283
1533.12 of the Revised Code, every applicant for a hunting license 13284
who is a nonresident of the state and who is eighteen years of age 13285
or older shall procure a nonresident hunting license or an 13286
apprentice nonresident hunting license, the fee for which shall be 13287
one hundred twenty-four dollars unless the applicant is a resident 13288
of a state that is a party to an agreement under section 1533.91 13289
of the Revised Code, in which case the fee shall be eighteen 13290
dollars. Apprentice resident hunting licenses, apprentice youth 13291
hunting licenses, and apprentice nonresident hunting licenses are 13292
subject to the requirements established under section 1533.102 of 13293
the Revised Code and rules adopted pursuant to it.13294

       The chief of the division of wildlife may issue a small game 13295
hunting license expiring three days from the effective date of the 13296
license to a nonresident of the state, the fee for which shall be 13297
thirty-nine dollars. No person shall take or possess deer, wild 13298
turkeys, fur-bearing animals, ducks, geese, brant, or any nongame 13299
animal while possessing only a small game hunting license. A small 13300
game hunting license or an apprentice nonresident hunting license 13301
does not authorize the taking or possessing of ducks, geese, or 13302
brant without having obtained, in addition to the small game 13303
hunting license or the apprentice nonresident hunting license, a 13304
wetlands habitat stamp as provided in section 1533.112 of the 13305
Revised Code. A small game hunting license or an apprentice 13306
nonresident hunting license does not authorize the taking or 13307
possessing of deer, wild turkeys, or fur-bearing animals. A 13308
nonresident of the state who wishes to take or possess deer, wild 13309
turkeys, or fur-bearing animals in this state shall procure, 13310
respectively, a deer or wild turkey permit as provided in section 13311
1533.11 of the Revised Code or a fur taker permit as provided in 13312
section 1533.111 of the Revised Code in addition to a nonresident 13313
hunting license, an apprentice nonresident hunting license, a 13314
special youth hunting license, or an apprentice youth hunting 13315
license, as applicable, as provided in this section.13316

       No person shall procure or attempt to procure a hunting 13317
license by fraud, deceit, misrepresentation, or any false 13318
statement.13319

       This section does not authorize the taking and possessing of 13320
deer or wild turkeys without first having obtained, in addition to 13321
the hunting license required by this section, a deer or wild 13322
turkey permit as provided in section 1533.11 of the Revised Code 13323
or the taking and possessing of ducks, geese, or brant without 13324
first having obtained, in addition to the hunting license required 13325
by this section, a wetlands habitat stamp as provided in section 13326
1533.112 of the Revised Code.13327

       This section does not authorize the hunting or trapping of 13328
fur-bearing animals without first having obtained, in addition to 13329
a hunting license required by this section, a fur taker permit as 13330
provided in section 1533.111 of the Revised Code.13331

       No hunting license shall be issued unless it is accompanied 13332
by a written explanation of the law in section 1533.17 of the 13333
Revised Code and the penalty for its violation, including a 13334
description of terms of imprisonment and fines that may be 13335
imposed.13336

       No hunting license, other than an apprentice hunting license, 13337
shall be issued unless the applicant presents to the agent 13338
authorized to issue the license a previously held hunting license 13339
or evidence of having held such a license in content and manner 13340
approved by the chief, a certificate of completion issued upon 13341
completion of a hunter education and conservation course approved 13342
by the chief, or evidence of equivalent training in content and 13343
manner approved by the chief. A previously held apprentice hunting 13344
license does not satisfy the requirement concerning the 13345
presentation of a previously held hunting license or evidence of 13346
it.13347

       No person shall issue a hunting license, except an apprentice 13348
hunting license, to any person who fails to present the evidence 13349
required by this section. No person shall purchase or obtain a 13350
hunting license, other than an apprentice hunting license, without 13351
presenting to the issuing agent the evidence required by this 13352
section. Issuance of a hunting license in violation of the 13353
requirements of this section is an offense by both the purchaser 13354
of the illegally obtained hunting license and the clerk or agent 13355
who issued the hunting license. Any hunting license issued in 13356
violation of this section is void.13357

       The chief, with approval of the wildlife council, shall adopt 13358
rules prescribing a hunter education and conservation course for 13359
first-time hunting license buyers, other than buyers of apprentice 13360
hunting licenses, and for volunteer instructors. The course shall 13361
consist of subjects including, but not limited to, hunter safety 13362
and health, use of hunting implements, hunting tradition and 13363
ethics, the hunter and conservation, the law in section 1533.17 of 13364
the Revised Code along with the penalty for its violation, 13365
including a description of terms of imprisonment and fines that 13366
may be imposed, and other law relating to hunting. Authorized 13367
personnel of the division or volunteer instructors approved by the 13368
chief shall conduct such courses with such frequency and at such 13369
locations throughout the state as to reasonably meet the needs of 13370
license applicants. The chief shall issue a certificate of 13371
completion to each person who successfully completes the course 13372
and passes an examination prescribed by the chief.13373

       Sec. 1541.26.  There is hereby created in the state treasury 13374
the parks mineral royalties fund. The fund shall consist of money 13375
deposited into it under section 1509.73 of the Revised Code and 13376
money transferred to it under section 1503.012 of the Revised 13377
Code. Any investment proceeds earned on money in the fund shall be 13378
credited to the fund. 13379

       Money in the fund shall be used by the division of parks and 13380
recreation to acquire land and to pay capital costs, including 13381
equipment and repairs and renovations of facilities, that are 13382
owned by the state and administered by the division. Expenditures 13383
from the fund shall be approved by the director of natural 13384
resources.13385

       Sec. 1551.33.  (A) The director of development shall appoint 13386
and fix the compensation of the director of the Ohio coal 13387
development office. The director shall serve at the pleasure of 13388
the director of development.13389

       (B) The director of the office shall do all of the following:13390

       (1) Biennially prepare and maintain the Ohio coal development 13391
agenda required under section 1551.34 of the Revised Code;13392

       (2) Propose and support policies for the office consistent 13393
with the Ohio coal development agenda and develop means to 13394
implement the agenda;13395

       (3) Initiate, undertake, and support projects to carry out 13396
the office's purposes and ensure that the projects are consistent 13397
with and meet the selection criteria established by the Ohio coal 13398
development agenda;13399

       (4) Actively encourage joint participation in and, when 13400
feasible, joint funding of the office's projects with governmental 13401
agencies, electric utilities, universities and colleges, other 13402
public or private interests, or any other person;13403

       (5) Establish a table of organization for and employ such 13404
employees and agents as are necessary for the administration and 13405
operation of the office. Any such employees shall be in the 13406
unclassified service and shall serve at the pleasure of the 13407
director of development.13408

       (6) Appoint specified members of and convene the technical 13409
advisory committee established under section 1551.35 of the 13410
Revised Code;13411

       (7) Review, with the assistance of the technical advisory 13412
committee, proposed coal research and development projects as 13413
defined in section 1555.01 of the Revised Code, and coal 13414
development projects, submitted to the office by public utilities 13415
for the purpose of section 4905.304 of the Revised Code. If the 13416
director and the advisory committee determine that any such 13417
facility or project has as its purpose the enhanced use of Ohio 13418
coal in an environmentally acceptable, cost effective manner, 13419
promotes energy conservation, is cost effective, and is 13420
environmentally sound, the director shall submit to the public 13421
utilities commission a report recommending that the commission 13422
allow the recovery of costs associated with the facility or 13423
project under section 4905.304 of the Revised Code and including 13424
the reasons for the recommendation.13425

       (8) Establish such policies, procedures, and guidelines as 13426
are necessary to achieve the office's purposes.13427

       (C) TheWith the approval of the director of development, the13428
director of the office may exercise any of the powers and duties 13429
that the director of the officedevelopment considers appropriate 13430
or desirable to achieve the office's purposes, including, but not 13431
limited to, the powers and duties enumerated in sections 1551.11, 13432
1551.12, and 1551.15 of the Revised Code.13433

       Additionally, the director of the office may make loans to 13434
governmental agencies or persons for projects to carry out the 13435
office's purposes. Fees, charges, rates of interest, times of 13436
payment of interest and principal, and other terms, conditions, 13437
and provisions of the loans shall be such as the director of the 13438
office determines to be appropriate and in furtherance of the 13439
purposes for which the loans are made. The mortgage lien securing 13440
any moneys lent by the director of the office may be subordinate 13441
to the mortgage lien securing any moneys lent or invested by a 13442
financial institution, but shall be superior to that securing any 13443
moneys lent or expended by any other person. The moneys used in 13444
making the loans shall be disbursed upon order of the director of 13445
the office.13446

       Sec. 1555.02.  It is hereby declared to be the public policy 13447
of this state through the operations of the Ohio coal development 13448
office under this chapter to contribute toward one or more of the 13449
following: to provide for the comfort, health, safety, and general 13450
welfare of all employees and other inhabitants of this state 13451
through research and development directed toward the discovery of 13452
new technologies or the demonstration or application of existing 13453
technologies to enable the conversion or use of Ohio coal as a 13454
fuel or chemical feedstock in an environmentally acceptable manner 13455
thereby enhancing the marketability and fostering the use of this 13456
state's vast reserves of coal, to assist in the financing of coal 13457
research and development and coal research and development 13458
projects or facilities for persons doing business in this state 13459
and educational and scientific institutions located in this state, 13460
to create or preserve jobs and employment opportunities or improve 13461
the economic welfare of the people of this state, or to assist and 13462
cooperate with such persons and educational and scientific 13463
institutions in conducting coal research and development. In 13464
furtherance of this public policy, the Ohio coal development 13465
office, with the advice of the technical advisory committee 13466
created in section 1551.35 of the Revised Code and the approval of 13467
the director of development, may make loans, guarantee loans, and 13468
make grants to persons doing business in this state or to 13469
educational or scientific institutions located in this state for 13470
coal research and development projects by such persons or 13471
educational or scientific institutions; may, with the advice of 13472
the technical advisory committee and the approval of the director 13473
of development, request the issuance of coal research and 13474
development general obligations under section 151.07 of the 13475
Revised Code to provide funds for making such loans, loan 13476
guarantees, and grants; and may, with the advice of the technical 13477
advisory committee and the approval of the director of 13478
development, expend moneys credited to the coal research and 13479
development fund created in section 1555.15 of the Revised Code 13480
for the purpose of making such loans, loan guarantees, and grants. 13481
Determinations by the director of the Ohio coal development office 13482
that coal research and development or a coal research and 13483
development facility is a coal research and development project 13484
under this chapter and is consistent with the purposes of Section 13485
15 of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, and this chapter shall be 13486
conclusive as to the validity and enforceability of the coal 13487
research and development general obligations issued to finance 13488
such project and of the authorizations, trust agreements or 13489
indentures, loan agreements, loan guarantee agreements, or grant 13490
agreements, and other agreements made in connection therewith, all 13491
in accordance with their terms.13492

       Sec. 1555.03.  For the purposes of this chapter, the director 13493
of the Ohio coal development office may:13494

       (A) With the advice of the technical advisory committee 13495
created in section 1551.35 of the Revised Code and the approval of 13496
the director of development, make loans, guarantee loans, and make 13497
grants to persons doing business in this state or to educational 13498
or scientific institutions located in this state for coal research 13499
and development projects by any such person or educational or 13500
scientific institution and adopt rules under Chapter 119. of the 13501
Revised Code for making such loans, guarantees, and grants.13502

       (B) In making loans, loan guarantees, and grants under 13503
division (A) of this section and section 1555.04 of the Revised 13504
Code, the director of the office shall ensure that an adequate 13505
portion of the total amount of those loans, loan guarantees, and 13506
grants, as determined by the director with the advice of the 13507
technical advisory committee, is used for conducting research on 13508
fundamental scientific problems related to the utilization of Ohio 13509
coal and shall ensure, to the maximum feasible extent, joint 13510
financial participation by the federal government or other 13511
investors or interested parties in conjunction with any such loan, 13512
loan guarantee, or grant. The director, in each grant agreement or 13513
contract under division (A) of this section, loan contract or 13514
agreement under this division or section 1555.04 of the Revised 13515
Code, and contract of guarantee under section 1555.05 of the 13516
Revised Code, shall require that the facility or project be 13517
maintained and kept in good condition and repair by the person or 13518
educational or scientific institution to whom the grant or loan 13519
was made or for whom the guarantee was made.13520

       (C) From time to time, with the advice of the technical 13521
advisory committee and the approval of the director of 13522
development, request the issuance of coal research and development 13523
general obligations under section 151.07 of the Revised Code, for 13524
any of the purposes set forth in Section 15 of Article VIII, Ohio 13525
Constitution, and subject to the limitations therein upon the 13526
aggregate total amount of obligations that may be outstanding at 13527
any time.13528

       (D) Include as a condition of any loan, loan guarantee, or 13529
grant contract or agreement with any such person or educational or 13530
scientific institution that the director of the office receive, in 13531
addition to payments of principal and interest on any such loan or 13532
service charges for any such guarantee, as appropriate, as 13533
authorized by Section 15,of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, a 13534
reasonable royalty or portion of the income or profits arising out 13535
of the developments, discoveries, or inventions, including patents 13536
or copyrights, that result in whole or in part from coal research 13537
and development projects conducted under any such contract or 13538
agreement, in such amounts and for such period of years as may be 13539
negotiated and provided by the contract or agreement in advance of 13540
the making of the grant, loan, or loan guarantee. Moneys received 13541
by the director of the office under this section may be credited 13542
to the coal research and development bond service fund or used to 13543
make additional loans, loan guarantees, grants, or agreements 13544
under this section.13545

       (E) Employ managers, superintendents, and other employees and 13546
retain or contract with consulting engineers, financial 13547
consultants, accounting experts, architects, and such other 13548
consultants and independent contractors as are necessary in the 13549
judgment of the director of the office to carry out this chapter, 13550
and fix the compensation thereof.13551

       (F) Receive and accept from any federal agency, subject to 13552
the approval of the governor, grants for or in aid of the 13553
construction or operation of any coal research and development 13554
project or for coal research and development, and receive and 13555
accept aid or contributions from any source of money, property, 13556
labor, or other things of value, to be held, used, and applied 13557
only for the purposes for which such grants and contributions are 13558
made.13559

       (G) Purchase fire and extended coverage and liability 13560
insurance for any coal research and development project, insurance 13561
protecting the office and its officers and employees against 13562
liability for damage to property or injury to or death of persons 13563
arising from its operations, and any other insurance the director 13564
of the office determines necessary or proper under this chapter. 13565
Any moneys received by the director from the proceeds of any such 13566
insurance with respect to a coal research and development project 13567
and any moneys received by the director from the proceeds of any 13568
settlement, judgment, foreclosure, or other insurance with respect 13569
to a coal research and development project or facility shall be 13570
credited to the coal research and development bond service fund.13571

       (H) In the exercise of the powers of the director of the 13572
office under this chapter, call to the director's assistance, 13573
temporarily, from time to time, any engineers, technical experts, 13574
financial experts, and other employees in any state department, 13575
agency, or commission, or in the Ohio state university, or other 13576
educational institutions financed wholly or partially by this 13577
state for purposes of assisting the director of the office with 13578
reviewing and evaluating applications for financial assistance 13579
under this chapter, monitoring performance of coal research and 13580
development projects receiving financial assistance under this 13581
chapter, and reviewing and evaluating the progress and findings of 13582
those projects. Such engineers, experts, and employees shall not 13583
receive any additional compensation over that which they receive 13584
from the department, agency, commission, or educational 13585
institution by which they are employed, but they shall be 13586
reimbursed for their actual and necessary expenses incurred while 13587
working under the direction of the director.13588

       (I) Do all acts necessary or proper to carry out the powers 13589
expressly granted in this chapter.13590

       Sec. 1555.04.  (A) With respect to coal research and 13591
development projects financed wholly or partially from a loan or 13592
loan guarantee under this chapter, the director of the Ohio coal 13593
development office, in addition to other powers under this 13594
chapter, with the advice of the technical advisory committee 13595
created in section 1551.35 of the Revised Code and the approval of 13596
the director of development, may enter into loan agreements, 13597
accept notes and other forms of obligation to evidence such 13598
indebtedness and mortgages, liens, pledges, assignments, or other 13599
security interests to secure such indebtedness, which may be prior 13600
or subordinate to or on a parity with other indebtedness, 13601
obligations, mortgages, pledges, assignments, other security 13602
interests, or liens or encumbrances, and take such actions as the 13603
director of the office considers appropriate to protect such 13604
security and safeguard against losses, including, without 13605
limitation, foreclosure and the bidding upon and purchase of 13606
property upon foreclosure or other sale.13607

       (B) The authority granted by this section is cumulative and 13608
supplementary to all other authority granted in this chapter. The 13609
authority granted by this section does not alter or impair any 13610
similar authority granted elsewhere in this chapter with respect 13611
to other projects.13612

       Sec. 1555.05.  (A) Subject to any limitations as to aggregate 13613
amounts thereof that may from time to time be prescribed by the 13614
general assembly and to other applicable provisions of this 13615
chapter, and subject to the one-hundred-million-dollar limitation 13616
provided in Section 15 of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, the 13617
director of the Ohio coal development office, on behalf of this 13618
state, with the advice of the technical advisory committee created 13619
in section 1551.35 of the Revised Code and the approval of the 13620
director of development, may enter into contracts to guarantee the 13621
repayment or payment of the unpaid principal amount of loans made 13622
to pay the costs of coal research and development projects.13623

       (B) The contract of guarantee may make provision for the 13624
conditions of, time for, and manner of fulfillment of the 13625
guarantee commitment, subrogation of this state to the rights of 13626
the parties guaranteed and exercise of such parties' rights by the 13627
state, giving the state the option of making payment of the 13628
principal amount guaranteed in one or more installments and, if 13629
deferred, to pay interest thereon from the source specified in 13630
division (A) of this section, and any other terms or conditions 13631
customary to such guarantees and as the director of the office may 13632
approve, and may contain provisions for securing the guarantee in 13633
the manner consistent with this section, covenants on behalf of 13634
this state to issue obligations under section 1555.08 of the 13635
Revised Code to provide moneys to fulfill such guarantees and 13636
covenants, and covenants restricting the aggregate amount of 13637
guarantees that may be contracted under this section and 13638
obligations that may be issued under section 151.07 of the Revised 13639
Code, and terms pertinent to either, to better secure the parties 13640
guaranteed.13641

       (C) The director of the office may fix service charges for 13642
making a guarantee. Such charges shall be payable at such times 13643
and place and in such amounts and manner as may be prescribed by 13644
the director. Moneys received from such charges shall be credited 13645
to the coal research and development bond service fund.13646

       (D) Any guaranteed parties under this section, by any 13647
suitable form of legal proceedings and except to the extent that 13648
their rights are restricted by the guarantee documents, may 13649
protect and enforce any rights under the laws of this state or 13650
granted by such guarantee or guarantee documents. Such rights 13651
include the right to compel the performance of all duties of the 13652
office required by this section or the guarantee or guarantee 13653
documents; and in the event of default with respect to the payment 13654
of any guarantees, to apply to a court having jurisdiction of the 13655
cause to appoint a receiver to receive and administer the moneys 13656
pledged to such guarantee with full power to pay, and to provide 13657
for payment of, such guarantee, and with such powers, subject to 13658
the direction of the court, as are accorded receivers in general 13659
equity cases, excluding any power to pledge or apply additional 13660
revenues or receipts or other income or moneys of this state. Each 13661
duty of the office and its director and employees required or 13662
undertaken under this section or a guarantee made under this 13663
section is hereby established as a duty of the office and of its 13664
director and each such employee having authority to perform such 13665
duty, specifically enjoined by the law resulting from an office, 13666
trust, or station within the meaning of section 2731.01 of the 13667
Revised Code. The persons who are at the time the director of the 13668
office, or its employees, are not liable in their personal 13669
capacities on any guarantees or contracts to make guarantees by 13670
the director.13671

       Sec. 1555.06.  Upon application by the director of the Ohio 13672
coal development office with the approval of the director of 13673
development, the controlling board, from appropriations available 13674
to the board, may provide funds for surveys or studies by the 13675
office of any proposed coal research and development project 13676
subject to repayment by the office from funds available to it, 13677
within the time fixed by the board. Funds to be repaid shall be 13678
charged by the office to the appropriate coal research and 13679
development project and the amount thereof shall be a cost of the 13680
project. This section does not abrogate the authority of the 13681
controlling board to otherwise provide funds for use by the office 13682
in the exercise of the powers granted to it by this chapter.13683

       Sec. 1571.14.  Any person claiming to be aggrieved or 13684
adversely affected by an order of the chief of the division of oil 13685
and gas resources management made as provided in section 1571.10 13686
or 1571.16 of the Revised Code may appeal to the director of 13687
natural resources for an order vacating or modifying such order. 13688
Upon receipt of the appeal, the director shall appoint an 13689
individual who has knowledge of the laws and rules regarding the 13690
underground storage of gas and who shall act as a hearing officer 13691
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code in hearing the 13692
appeal.13693

       The person appealing to the director shall be known as 13694
appellant and the chief shall be known as appellee. The appellant 13695
and the appellee shall be deemed parties to the appeal.13696

       The appeal shall be in writing and shall set forth the order 13697
complained of and the grounds upon which the appeal is based. The 13698
appeal shall be filed with the director within thirty days after 13699
the date upon which appellant received notice by registered mail 13700
of the making of the order complained of, as required by section 13701
1571.10 of the Revised Code. Notice of the filing of such appeal 13702
shall be delivered by appellant to the chief within three days 13703
after the appeal is filed with the director.13704

       Within seven days after receipt of the notice of appeal the 13705
chief shall prepare and certify to the director at the expense of 13706
appellant a complete transcript of the proceedings out of which 13707
the appeal arises, including a transcript of the testimony 13708
submitted to the chief.13709

       Upon the filing of the appeal the director shall fix the time 13710
and place at which the hearing on the appeal will be held, and 13711
shall give appellant and the chief at least ten days' written 13712
notice thereof by mail. The director may postpone or continue any 13713
hearing upon the director's own motion or upon application of 13714
appellant or of the chief.13715

       The filing of an appeal provided for in this section does not 13716
automatically suspend or stay execution of the order appealed 13717
from, but upon application by the appellant the director may 13718
suspend or stay such execution pending determination of the appeal 13719
upon such terms as the director deems proper.13720

       The hearing officer appointed by the director shall hear the 13721
appeal de novo, and either party to the appeal may submit such 13722
evidence as the hearing officer deems admissible.13723

       For the purpose of conducting a hearing on an appeal, the 13724
hearing officer may require the attendance of witnesses and the 13725
production of books, records, and papers, and may, and at the 13726
request of any party shall, issue subpoenas for witnesses or 13727
subpoenas duces tecum to compel the production of any books, 13728
records, or papers, directed to the sheriffs of the counties where 13729
such witnesses are found, which subpoenas shall be served and 13730
returned in the same manner as subpoenas in criminal cases are 13731
served and returned. The fees of sheriffs shall be the same as 13732
those allowed by the court of common pleas in criminal cases. 13733
Witnesses shall be paid the fees and mileage provided for under 13734
section 119.094 of the Revised Code. Such fee and mileage expenses 13735
incurred at the request of appellant shall be paid in advance by 13736
appellant, and the remainder of such expenses shall be paid out of 13737
funds appropriated for the expenses of the division of oil and gas 13738
resources management.13739

       In case of disobedience or neglect of any subpoena served on 13740
any person, or the refusal of any witness to testify to any matter 13741
regarding which the witness may be lawfully interrogated, the 13742
court of common pleas of the county in which such disobedience, 13743
neglect, or refusal occurs, or any judge thereof, on application 13744
of the director, shall compel obedience by attachment proceedings 13745
for contempt as in the case of disobedience of the requirements of 13746
a subpoena issued from such court or a refusal to testify therein. 13747
Witnesses at such hearings shall testify under oath, and the 13748
hearing officer may administer oaths or affirmations to persons 13749
who so testify.13750

       At the request of any party to the appeal, a stenographic13751
record of the testimony and other evidence submitted shall be 13752
taken by an official court shorthand reporter at the expense of 13753
the party making the request thereforfor the record. The record 13754
shall include all of the testimony and other evidence and the 13755
rulings on the admissibility thereof presented at the hearing. The 13756
hearing officer shall pass upon the admissibility of evidence, but 13757
any party may at the time object to the admission of any evidence 13758
and except to the ruling of the hearing officer thereon, and if 13759
the hearing officer refuses to admit evidence, the party offering 13760
same may make a proffer thereof, and such proffer shall be made a 13761
part of the record of such hearing.13762

       If upon completion of the hearing the hearing officer finds 13763
that the order appealed from was lawful and reasonable, the 13764
hearing officer shall make a written order affirming the order 13765
appealed from. If the hearing officer finds that such order was 13766
unreasonable or unlawful, the hearing officer shall make a written 13767
order vacating the order appealed from and making the order that 13768
it finds the chief should have made. Every order made by the 13769
hearing officer shall contain a written finding by the hearing 13770
officer of the facts upon which the order is based. Notice of the 13771
making of such order shall be given forthwith to each party to the 13772
appeal by mailing a certified copy thereof to each such party by 13773
registered mail.13774

       Sec. 1707.08. (A) The transactions enumerated in section 13775
1707.06 of the Revised Code may be consummated on compliance with 13776
this section and section 1707.11 of the Revised Code.13777

       (B) A description, verified either by the oath of the 13778
individual filing it or of any individual having knowledge of the 13779
facts, shall be filed with the division of securities by the 13780
issuer, or by a majority of the incorporators of the issuer prior 13781
to election of officers if it is an incorporated issuer, or by a 13782
licensed dealer, which description shall be on forms prescribed by 13783
the division and shall set forth:13784

       (1) The name of the issuer;13785

       (2) A brief description of the securities;13786

       (3) The amount of the securities to be offered after the 13787
filing of the description for sale in this state and, if all the 13788
securities are not to be offered by the person filing the 13789
description, then the respective amounts to be offered by others, 13790
so far as those amounts are known, and the names and addresses of 13791
the other offerors;13792

       (4) A brief statement of the facts which show that the 13793
securities are the subject matter of a transaction enumerated in 13794
section 1707.06 of the Revised Code;13795

       (5) The price at which the securities are to be offered for 13796
sale.13797

       (C) The individual who executes the application for 13798
registration by description on behalf of the applicant shall state 13799
the individual's relationship to the applicant and certify all of 13800
the following:13801

        (1) The individual has executed the application on behalf of 13802
the applicant.13803

       (2) The individual is fully authorized to execute and file 13804
the application on behalf of the applicant.13805

        (3) The individual is familiar with the applicant's 13806
application.13807

       (4) To the best of the individual's knowledge, information, 13808
and belief, the statements made in the application are true, and 13809
the documents submitted with the application are true copies of 13810
the original documents.13811

        (D) A registration by description is effective seven business 13812
days after the division receives the description on applicable 13813
forms, together with aany filing fee of fifty dollarsrequired 13814
under this division, if no proceeding is pending under section 13815
1707.13 or 1707.131 of the Revised Code. However, the division may 13816
permit an earlier effective date by rule or by issuing a 13817
certificate of acknowledgment for the registration by description.13818

       For an offering that exceeds fifty thousand dollars, a filing 13819
fee of fifty dollars shall be submitted with the registration by 13820
description.13821

       (E) In order to correct errors or omissions, a registration 13822
by description may be amended by the person that originally filed 13823
it, by the filing, in the same manner as in the case of an 13824
original registration by description, of an amended registration 13825
by description or of an amendment of the original registration by 13826
description.13827

       (F) When transactions in any securities enumerated in section 13828
1707.06 of the Revised Code have been registered and the fees 13829
prescribed by this section have been paid, the transactions may be 13830
consummated so long as the registration remains in full force.13831

       Sec. 1707.391.  When any securities have been sold in 13832
reliance upon division (Q), (W), (X), or (Y) of section 1707.03 of 13833
the Revised Code, section 1707.08 of the Revised Code, or any 13834
other section of this chapter that the division of securities may 13835
specify by rule, but such reliance was improper because the 13836
required filings were not timely or properly made due to excusable 13837
neglect, upon the effective date of an application made to the 13838
division and payment of the requiredany applicable fee, if 13839
required and not already paid, plusand upon payment of a penalty 13840
fee equal to the greater of the required fee or one hundred 13841
dollars, the sale of the securities shall be deemed exempt, 13842
qualified, or registered, as though timely and properly filed. The 13843
application shall become effective upon the expiration of fourteen 13844
days after the date of the filing in question if prior thereto the 13845
division did not give notice to the applicant that the application 13846
was denied based on a finding of lack of excusable neglect. The 13847
division shall promptly adopt and promulgate rules establishing 13848
provisions defining excusable neglect and otherwise establishing 13849
reasonable standards for determining excusable neglect.13850

       The effectiveness of an application under this section does 13851
not relieve anyone who has, other than for excusable neglect, 13852
violated sections 1707.01 to 1707.45 of the Revised Code, or any 13853
previous law in force at the time of sale, from prosecution 13854
thereunder.13855

       Sec. 1733.47. Whenever the approval of the superintendent of 13856
credit unions is required under this chapter, or under an order or 13857
supervisory action issued or taken under this chapter, for a 13858
person to serve as an organizer, incorporator, director, or 13859
executive officer of a credit union, or to otherwise participate 13860
in the management of a credit union, the superintendent shall 13861
request the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 13862
identification and investigation, or a vendor approved by the 13863
bureau, to conduct a criminal records check based on the person's 13864
fingerprints in accordance with division (A)(14) of section 13865
109.572 of the Revised Code. The superintendent of credit unions 13866
shall request that criminal record information from the federal 13867
bureau of investigation be obtained as part of the criminal 13868
records check. Any fee required under division (C)(3) of section 13869
109.572 of the Revised Code shall be paid by the person who is the 13870
subject of the request.13871

       Sec. 1751.01.  As used in this chapter:13872

       (A)(1) "Basic health care services" means the following 13873
services when medically necessary:13874

       (a) Physician's services, except when such services are 13875
supplemental under division (B) of this section;13876

       (b) Inpatient hospital services;13877

       (c) Outpatient medical services;13878

       (d) Emergency health services;13879

       (e) Urgent care services;13880

       (f) Diagnostic laboratory services and diagnostic and 13881
therapeutic radiologic services;13882

       (g) Diagnostic and treatment services, other than 13883
prescription drug services, for biologically based mental 13884
illnesses;13885

       (h) Preventive health care services, including, but not 13886
limited to, voluntary family planning services, infertility 13887
services, periodic physical examinations, prenatal obstetrical 13888
care, and well-child care;13889

       (i) Routine patient care for patients enrolled in an eligible 13890
cancer clinical trial pursuant to section 3923.80 of the Revised 13891
Code.13892

       "Basic health care services" does not include experimental 13893
procedures.13894

        Except as provided by divisions (A)(2) and (3) of this 13895
section in connection with the offering of coverage for diagnostic 13896
and treatment services for biologically based mental illnesses, a 13897
health insuring corporation shall not offer coverage for a health 13898
care service, defined as a basic health care service by this 13899
division, unless it offers coverage for all listed basic health 13900
care services. However, this requirement does not apply to the 13901
coverage of beneficiaries enrolled in medicare pursuant to a 13902
medicare contract, or to the coverage of beneficiaries enrolled in 13903
the federal employee health benefits program pursuant to 5 13904
U.S.C.A. 8905, or to the coverage of medicaid recipients, or to 13905
the coverage of beneficiaries under any federal health care 13906
program regulated by a federal regulatory body, or to the coverage 13907
of beneficiaries under any contract covering officers or employees 13908
of the state that has been entered into by the department of 13909
administrative services.13910

       (2) A health insuring corporation may offer coverage for 13911
diagnostic and treatment services for biologically based mental 13912
illnesses without offering coverage for all other basic health 13913
care services. A health insuring corporation may offer coverage 13914
for diagnostic and treatment services for biologically based 13915
mental illnesses alone or in combination with one or more 13916
supplemental health care services. However, a health insuring 13917
corporation that offers coverage for any other basic health care 13918
service shall offer coverage for diagnostic and treatment services 13919
for biologically based mental illnesses in combination with the 13920
offer of coverage for all other listed basic health care services.13921

       (3) A health insuring corporation that offers coverage for 13922
basic health care services is not required to offer coverage for 13923
diagnostic and treatment services for biologically based mental 13924
illnesses in combination with the offer of coverage for all other 13925
listed basic health care services if all of the following apply:13926

       (a) The health insuring corporation submits documentation 13927
certified by an independent member of the American academy of 13928
actuaries to the superintendent of insurance showing that incurred 13929
claims for diagnostic and treatment services for biologically 13930
based mental illnesses for a period of at least six months 13931
independently caused the health insuring corporation's costs for 13932
claims and administrative expenses for the coverage of basic 13933
health care services to increase by more than one per cent per 13934
year. 13935

       (b) The health insuring corporation submits a signed letter 13936
from an independent member of the American academy of actuaries to 13937
the superintendent of insurance opining that the increase in costs 13938
described in division (A)(3)(a) of this section could reasonably 13939
justify an increase of more than one per cent in the annual 13940
premiums or rates charged by the health insuring corporation for 13941
the coverage of basic health care services.13942

       (c) The superintendent of insurance makes the following 13943
determinations from the documentation and opinion submitted 13944
pursuant to divisions (A)(3)(a) and (b) of this section:13945

       (i) Incurred claims for diagnostic and treatment services for 13946
biologically based mental illnesses for a period of at least six 13947
months independently caused the health insuring corporation's 13948
costs for claims and administrative expenses for the coverage of 13949
basic health care services to increase by more than one per cent 13950
per year.13951

       (ii) The increase in costs reasonably justifies an increase 13952
of more than one per cent in the annual premiums or rates charged 13953
by the health insuring corporation for the coverage of basic 13954
health care services. 13955

       Any determination made by the superintendent under this 13956
division is subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.13957

       (B)(1) "Supplemental health care services" means any health 13958
care services other than basic health care services that a health 13959
insuring corporation may offer, alone or in combination with 13960
either basic health care services or other supplemental health 13961
care services, and includes:13962

       (a) Services of facilities for intermediate or long-term 13963
care, or both;13964

       (b) Dental care services;13965

       (c) Vision care and optometric services including lenses and 13966
frames;13967

       (d) Podiatric care or foot care services;13968

       (e) Mental health services, excluding diagnostic and 13969
treatment services for biologically based mental illnesses;13970

       (f) Short-term outpatient evaluative and crisis-intervention 13971
mental health services;13972

       (g) Medical or psychological treatment and referral services 13973
for alcohol and drug abuse or addiction;13974

       (h) Home health services;13975

       (i) Prescription drug services;13976

       (j) Nursing services;13977

       (k) Services of a dietitian licensed under Chapter 4759. of 13978
the Revised Code;13979

       (l) Physical therapy services;13980

       (m) Chiropractic services;13981

       (n) Any other category of services approved by the 13982
superintendent of insurance.13983

       (2) If a health insuring corporation offers prescription drug 13984
services under this division, the coverage shall include 13985
prescription drug services for the treatment of biologically based 13986
mental illnesses on the same terms and conditions as other 13987
physical diseases and disorders.13988

       (C) "Specialty health care services" means one of the 13989
supplemental health care services listed in division (B) of this 13990
section, when provided by a health insuring corporation on an 13991
outpatient-only basis and not in combination with other 13992
supplemental health care services.13993

       (D) "Biologically based mental illnesses" means 13994
schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, major depressive 13995
disorder, bipolar disorder, paranoia and other psychotic 13996
disorders, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and panic disorder, as 13997
these terms are defined in the most recent edition of the 13998
diagnostic and statistical manual of mental disorders published by 13999
the American psychiatric association.14000

       (E) "Closed panel plan" means a health care plan that 14001
requires enrollees to use participating providers.14002

       (F) "Compensation" means remuneration for the provision of 14003
health care services, determined on other than a fee-for-service 14004
or discounted-fee-for-service basis.14005

       (G) "Contractual periodic prepayment" means the formula for 14006
determining the premium rate for all subscribers of a health 14007
insuring corporation.14008

       (H) "Corporation" means a corporation formed under Chapter 14009
1701. or 1702. of the Revised Code or the similar laws of another 14010
state.14011

       (I) "Emergency health services" means those health care 14012
services that must be available on a seven-days-per-week, 14013
twenty-four-hours-per-day basis in order to prevent jeopardy to an 14014
enrollee's health status that would occur if such services were 14015
not received as soon as possible, and includes, where appropriate, 14016
provisions for transportation and indemnity payments or service 14017
agreements for out-of-area coverage.14018

       (J) "Enrollee" means any natural person who is entitled to 14019
receive health care benefits provided by a health insuring 14020
corporation.14021

       (K) "Evidence of coverage" means any certificate, agreement, 14022
policy, or contract issued to a subscriber that sets out the 14023
coverage and other rights to which such person is entitled under a 14024
health care plan.14025

       (L) "Health care facility" means any facility, except a 14026
health care practitioner's office, that provides preventive, 14027
diagnostic, therapeutic, acute convalescent, rehabilitation, 14028
mental health, mental retardation, intermediate care, or skilled 14029
nursing services.14030

       (M) "Health care services" means basic, supplemental, and 14031
specialty health care services.14032

       (N) "Health delivery network" means any group of providers or 14033
health care facilities, or both, or any representative thereof, 14034
that have entered into an agreement to offer health care services 14035
in a panel rather than on an individual basis.14036

       (O) "Health insuring corporation" means a corporation, as 14037
defined in division (H) of this section, that, pursuant to a 14038
policy, contract, certificate, or agreement, pays for, reimburses, 14039
or provides, delivers, arranges for, or otherwise makes available, 14040
basic health care services, supplemental health care services, or 14041
specialty health care services, or a combination of basic health 14042
care services and either supplemental health care services or 14043
specialty health care services, through either an open panel plan 14044
or a closed panel plan.14045

       "Health insuring corporation" does not include a limited 14046
liability company formed pursuant to Chapter 1705. of the Revised 14047
Code, an insurer licensed under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code if 14048
that insurer offers only open panel plans under which all 14049
providers and health care facilities participating receive their 14050
compensation directly from the insurer, a corporation formed by or 14051
on behalf of a political subdivision or a department, office, or 14052
institution of the state, or a public entity formed by or on 14053
behalf of a board of county commissioners, a county board of 14054
developmental disabilities, an alcohol and drug addiction services 14055
board, a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 14056
services, or a community mental health board, as those terms are 14057
used in Chapters 340. and 5126. of the Revised Code. Except as 14058
provided by division (D) of section 1751.02 of the Revised Code, 14059
or as otherwise provided by law, no board, commission, agency, or 14060
other entity under the control of a political subdivision may 14061
accept insurance risk in providing for health care services. 14062
However, nothing in this division shall be construed as 14063
prohibiting such entities from purchasing the services of a health 14064
insuring corporation or a third-party administrator licensed under 14065
Chapter 3959. of the Revised Code.14066

       (P) "Intermediary organization" means a health delivery 14067
network or other entity that contracts with licensed health 14068
insuring corporations or self-insured employers, or both, to 14069
provide health care services, and that enters into contractual 14070
arrangements with other entities for the provision of health care 14071
services for the purpose of fulfilling the terms of its contracts 14072
with the health insuring corporations and self-insured employers.14073

       (Q) "Intermediate care" means residential care above the 14074
level of room and board for patients who require personal 14075
assistance and health-related services, but who do not require 14076
skilled nursing care.14077

       (R) "Medicaid" has the same meaning as in section 5111.01 of 14078
the Revised Code.14079

       (S) "Medical record" means the personal information that 14080
relates to an individual's physical or mental condition, medical 14081
history, or medical treatment.14082

       (T) "Medicare" means the program established under Title 14083
XVIII of the "Social Security Act" 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 14084
1395, as amended.14085

       (U)(1) "Open panel plan" means a health care plan that 14086
provides incentives for enrollees to use participating providers 14087
and that also allows enrollees to use providers that are not 14088
participating providers.14089

       (2) No health insuring corporation may offer an open panel 14090
plan, unless the health insuring corporation is also licensed as 14091
an insurer under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code, the health 14092
insuring corporation, on June 4, 1997, holds a certificate of 14093
authority or license to operate under Chapter 1736. or 1740. of 14094
the Revised Code, or an insurer licensed under Title XXXIX of the 14095
Revised Code is responsible for the out-of-network risk as 14096
evidenced by both an evidence of coverage filing under section 14097
1751.11 of the Revised Code and a policy and certificate filing 14098
under section 3923.02 of the Revised Code.14099

       (V) "Osteopathic hospital" means a hospital registered under 14100
section 3701.07 of the Revised Code that advocates osteopathic 14101
principles and the practice and perpetuation of osteopathic 14102
medicine by doing any of the following:14103

       (1) Maintaining a department or service of osteopathic 14104
medicine or a committee on the utilization of osteopathic 14105
principles and methods, under the supervision of an osteopathic 14106
physician;14107

       (2) Maintaining an active medical staff, the majority of 14108
which is comprised of osteopathic physicians;14109

       (3) Maintaining a medical staff executive committee that has 14110
osteopathic physicians as a majority of its members.14111

       (W) "Panel" means a group of providers or health care 14112
facilities that have joined together to deliver health care 14113
services through a contractual arrangement with a health insuring 14114
corporation, employer group, or other payor.14115

       (W)(X) "Person" has the same meaning as in section 1.59 of 14116
the Revised Code, and, unless the context otherwise requires, 14117
includes any insurance company holding a certificate of authority 14118
under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code, any subsidiary and 14119
affiliate of an insurance company, and any government agency.14120

       (X)(Y) "Premium rate" means any set fee regularly paid by a 14121
subscriber to a health insuring corporation. A "premium rate" does 14122
not include a one-time membership fee, an annual administrative 14123
fee, or a nominal access fee, paid to a managed health care system 14124
under which the recipient of health care services remains solely 14125
responsible for any charges accessed for those services by the 14126
provider or health care facility.14127

       (Y)(Z) "Primary care provider" means a provider that is 14128
designated by a health insuring corporation to supervise, 14129
coordinate, or provide initial care or continuing care to an 14130
enrollee, and that may be required by the health insuring 14131
corporation to initiate a referral for specialty care and to 14132
maintain supervision of the health care services rendered to the 14133
enrollee.14134

       (Z)(AA) "Provider" means any natural person or partnership of 14135
natural persons who are licensed, certified, accredited, or 14136
otherwise authorized in this state to furnish health care 14137
services, or any professional association organized under Chapter 14138
1785. of the Revised Code, provided that nothing in this chapter 14139
or other provisions of law shall be construed to preclude a health 14140
insuring corporation, health care practitioner, or organized 14141
health care group associated with a health insuring corporation 14142
from employing certified nurse practitioners, certified nurse 14143
anesthetists, clinical nurse specialists, certified nurse 14144
midwives, dietitians, physician assistants, dental assistants, 14145
dental hygienists, optometric technicians, or other allied health 14146
personnel who are licensed, certified, accredited, or otherwise 14147
authorized in this state to furnish health care services.14148

       (AA)(BB) "Provider sponsored organization" means a 14149
corporation, as defined in division (H) of this section, that is 14150
at least eighty per cent owned or controlled by one or more 14151
hospitals, as defined in section 3727.01 of the Revised Code, or 14152
one or more physicians licensed to practice medicine or surgery or 14153
osteopathic medicine and surgery under Chapter 4731. of the 14154
Revised Code, or any combination of such physicians and hospitals. 14155
Such control is presumed to exist if at least eighty per cent of 14156
the voting rights or governance rights of a provider sponsored 14157
organization are directly or indirectly owned, controlled, or 14158
otherwise held by any combination of the physicians and hospitals 14159
described in this division.14160

       (BB)(CC) "Solicitation document" means the written materials 14161
provided to prospective subscribers or enrollees, or both, and 14162
used for advertising and marketing to induce enrollment in the 14163
health care plans of a health insuring corporation.14164

       (CC)(DD) "Subscriber" means a person who is responsible for 14165
making payments to a health insuring corporation for participation 14166
in a health care plan, or an enrollee whose employment or other 14167
status is the basis of eligibility for enrollment in a health 14168
insuring corporation.14169

       (DD)(EE) "Urgent care services" means those health care 14170
services that are appropriately provided for an unforeseen 14171
condition of a kind that usually requires medical attention 14172
without delay but that does not pose a threat to the life, limb, 14173
or permanent health of the injured or ill person, and may include 14174
such health care services provided out of the health insuring 14175
corporation's approved service area pursuant to indemnity payments 14176
or service agreements.14177

       Sec. 1751.02.  (A) Notwithstanding any law in this state to 14178
the contrary, any corporation, as defined in section 1751.01 of 14179
the Revised Code, may apply to the superintendent of insurance for 14180
a certificate of authority to establish and operate a health 14181
insuring corporation. If the corporation applying for a 14182
certificate of authority is a foreign corporation domiciled in a 14183
state without laws similar to those of this chapter, the 14184
corporation must form a domestic corporation to apply for, obtain, 14185
and maintain a certificate of authority under this chapter.14186

       (B) No person shall establish, operate, or perform the 14187
services of a health insuring corporation in this state without 14188
obtaining a certificate of authority under this chapter.14189

       (C) Except as provided by division (D) of this section, no 14190
political subdivision or department, office, or institution of 14191
this state, or corporation formed by or on behalf of any political 14192
subdivision or department, office, or institution of this state, 14193
shall establish, operate, or perform the services of a health 14194
insuring corporation. Nothing in this section shall be construed 14195
to preclude a board of county commissioners, a county board of 14196
developmental disabilities, an alcohol and drug addiction services 14197
board, a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 14198
services, or a community mental health board, or a public entity 14199
formed by or on behalf of any of these boards, from using managed 14200
care techniques in carrying out the board's or public entity's 14201
duties pursuant to the requirements of Chapters 307., 329., 340., 14202
and 5126. of the Revised Code. However, no such board or public 14203
entity may operate so as to compete in the private sector with 14204
health insuring corporations holding certificates of authority 14205
under this chapter.14206

       (D) A corporation formed by or on behalf of a publicly owned, 14207
operated, or funded hospital or health care facility may apply to 14208
the superintendent for a certificate of authority under division 14209
(A) of this section to establish and operate a health insuring 14210
corporation.14211

       (E) A health insuring corporation shall operate in this state 14212
in compliance with this chapter and Chapter 1753. of the Revised 14213
Code, and with sections 3702.51 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code,14214
and shall operate in conformity with its filings with the 14215
superintendent under this chapter, including filings made pursuant 14216
to sections 1751.03, 1751.11, 1751.12, and 1751.31 of the Revised 14217
Code.14218

       (F) An insurer licensed under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code 14219
need not obtain a certificate of authority as a health insuring 14220
corporation to offer an open panel plan as long as the providers 14221
and health care facilities participating in the open panel plan 14222
receive their compensation directly from the insurer. If the 14223
providers and health care facilities participating in the open 14224
panel plan receive their compensation from any person other than 14225
the insurer, or if the insurer offers a closed panel plan, the 14226
insurer must obtain a certificate of authority as a health 14227
insuring corporation.14228

       (G) An intermediary organization need not obtain a 14229
certificate of authority as a health insuring corporation, 14230
regardless of the method of reimbursement to the intermediary 14231
organization, as long as a health insuring corporation or a 14232
self-insured employer maintains the ultimate responsibility to 14233
assure delivery of all health care services required by the 14234
contract between the health insuring corporation and the 14235
subscriber and the laws of this state or between the self-insured 14236
employer and its employees.14237

       Nothing in this section shall be construed to require any 14238
health care facility, provider, health delivery network, or 14239
intermediary organization that contracts with a health insuring 14240
corporation or self-insured employer, regardless of the method of 14241
reimbursement to the health care facility, provider, health 14242
delivery network, or intermediary organization, to obtain a 14243
certificate of authority as a health insuring corporation under 14244
this chapter, unless otherwise provided, in the case of contracts 14245
with a self-insured employer, by operation of the "Employee 14246
Retirement Income Security Act of 1974," 88 Stat. 829, 29 U.S.C.A. 14247
1001, as amended.14248

       (H) Any health delivery network doing business in this state, 14249
including any health delivery network that is functioning as an 14250
intermediary organization doing business in this state, that is 14251
not required to obtain a certificate of authority under this 14252
chapter shall certify to the superintendent annually, not later 14253
than the first day of July, and shall provide a statement signed 14254
by the highest ranking official which includes the following 14255
information:14256

       (1) The health delivery network's full name and the address 14257
of its principal place of business;14258

       (2) A statement that the health delivery network is not 14259
required to obtain a certificate of authority under this chapter 14260
to conduct its business.14261

       (I) The superintendent shall not issue a certificate of 14262
authority to a health insuring corporation that is a provider 14263
sponsored organization unless all health care plans to be offered 14264
by the health insuring corporation provide basic health care 14265
services. Substantially all of the physicians and hospitals with 14266
ownership or control of the provider sponsored organization, as 14267
defined in section 1751.01 of the Revised Code, shall also be 14268
participating providers for the provision of basic health care 14269
services for health care plans offered by the provider sponsored 14270
organization. If a health insuring corporation that is a provider 14271
sponsored organization offers health care plans that do not 14272
provide basic health care services, the health insuring 14273
corporation shall be deemed, for purposes of section 1751.35 of 14274
the Revised Code, to have failed to substantially comply with this 14275
chapter.14276

       Except as specifically provided in this division and in 14277
division (A) of section 1751.28 of the Revised Code, the 14278
provisions of this chapter shall apply to all health insuring 14279
corporations that are provider sponsored organizations in the same 14280
manner that these provisions apply to all health insuring 14281
corporations that are not provider sponsored organizations.14282

       (J) Nothing in this section shall be construed to apply to 14283
any multiple employer welfare arrangement operating pursuant to 14284
Chapter 1739. of the Revised Code.14285

       (K) Any person who violates division (B) of this section, and 14286
any health delivery network that fails to comply with division (H) 14287
of this section, is subject to the penalties set forth in section 14288
1751.45 of the Revised Code.14289

       Sec. 1751.13.  (A)(1)(a) A health insuring corporation shall, 14290
either directly or indirectly, enter into contracts for the 14291
provision of health care services with a sufficient number and 14292
types of providers and health care facilities to ensure that all 14293
covered health care services will be accessible to enrollees from 14294
a contracted provider or health care facility.14295

       (b) A health insuring corporation shall not refuse to 14296
contract with a physician for the provision of health care 14297
services or refuse to recognize a physician as a specialist on the 14298
basis that the physician attended an educational program or a 14299
residency program approved or certified by the American 14300
osteopathic association. A health insuring corporation shall not 14301
refuse to contract with a health care facility for the provision 14302
of health care services on the basis that the health care facility 14303
is certified or accredited by the American osteopathic association 14304
or that the health care facility is an osteopathic hospital as 14305
defined in section 3702.51 of the Revised Code.14306

       (c) Nothing in division (A)(1)(b) of this section shall be 14307
construed to require a health insuring corporation to make a 14308
benefit payment under a closed panel plan to a physician or health 14309
care facility with which the health insuring corporation does not 14310
have a contract, provided that none of the bases set forth in that 14311
division are used as a reason for failing to make a benefit 14312
payment.14313

       (2) When a health insuring corporation is unable to provide a 14314
covered health care service from a contracted provider or health 14315
care facility, the health insuring corporation must provide that 14316
health care service from a noncontracted provider or health care 14317
facility consistent with the terms of the enrollee's policy, 14318
contract, certificate, or agreement. The health insuring 14319
corporation shall either ensure that the health care service be 14320
provided at no greater cost to the enrollee than if the enrollee 14321
had obtained the health care service from a contracted provider or 14322
health care facility, or make other arrangements acceptable to the 14323
superintendent of insurance.14324

       (3) Nothing in this section shall prohibit a health insuring 14325
corporation from entering into contracts with out-of-state 14326
providers or health care facilities that are licensed, certified, 14327
accredited, or otherwise authorized in that state.14328

       (B)(1) A health insuring corporation shall, either directly 14329
or indirectly, enter into contracts with all providers and health 14330
care facilities through which health care services are provided to 14331
its enrollees.14332

       (2) A health insuring corporation, upon written request, 14333
shall assist its contracted providers in finding stop-loss or 14334
reinsurance carriers.14335

       (C) A health insuring corporation shall file an annual 14336
certificate with the superintendent certifying that all provider 14337
contracts and contracts with health care facilities through which 14338
health care services are being provided contain the following:14339

       (1) A description of the method by which the provider or 14340
health care facility will be notified of the specific health care 14341
services for which the provider or health care facility will be 14342
responsible, including any limitations or conditions on such 14343
services;14344

       (2) The specific hold harmless provision specifying 14345
protection of enrollees set forth as follows:14346

       "[Provider/Health Care Facility] agrees that in no event, 14347
including but not limited to nonpayment by the health insuring 14348
corporation, insolvency of the health insuring corporation, or 14349
breach of this agreement, shall [Provider/Health Care Facility] 14350
bill, charge, collect a deposit from, seek remuneration or 14351
reimbursement from, or have any recourse against, a subscriber, 14352
enrollee, person to whom health care services have been provided, 14353
or person acting on behalf of the covered enrollee, for health 14354
care services provided pursuant to this agreement. This does not 14355
prohibit [Provider/Health Care Facility] from collecting 14356
co-insurance, deductibles, or copayments as specifically provided 14357
in the evidence of coverage, or fees for uncovered health care 14358
services delivered on a fee-for-service basis to persons 14359
referenced above, nor from any recourse against the health 14360
insuring corporation or its successor."14361

       (3) Provisions requiring the provider or health care facility 14362
to continue to provide covered health care services to enrollees 14363
in the event of the health insuring corporation's insolvency or 14364
discontinuance of operations. The provisions shall require the 14365
provider or health care facility to continue to provide covered 14366
health care services to enrollees as needed to complete any 14367
medically necessary procedures commenced but unfinished at the 14368
time of the health insuring corporation's insolvency or 14369
discontinuance of operations. The completion of a medically 14370
necessary procedure shall include the rendering of all covered 14371
health care services that constitute medically necessary follow-up 14372
care for that procedure. If an enrollee is receiving necessary 14373
inpatient care at a hospital, the provisions may limit the 14374
required provision of covered health care services relating to 14375
that inpatient care in accordance with division (D)(3) of section 14376
1751.11 of the Revised Code, and may also limit such required 14377
provision of covered health care services to the period ending 14378
thirty days after the health insuring corporation's insolvency or 14379
discontinuance of operations.14380

       The provisions required by division (C)(3) of this section 14381
shall not require any provider or health care facility to continue 14382
to provide any covered health care service after the occurrence of 14383
any of the following:14384

       (a) The end of the thirty-day period following the entry of a 14385
liquidation order under Chapter 3903. of the Revised Code;14386

       (b) The end of the enrollee's period of coverage for a 14387
contractual prepayment or premium;14388

       (c) The enrollee obtains equivalent coverage with another 14389
health insuring corporation or insurer, or the enrollee's employer 14390
obtains such coverage for the enrollee;14391

       (d) The enrollee or the enrollee's employer terminates 14392
coverage under the contract;14393

       (e) A liquidator effects a transfer of the health insuring 14394
corporation's obligations under the contract under division (A)(8) 14395
of section 3903.21 of the Revised Code.14396

       (4) A provision clearly stating the rights and 14397
responsibilities of the health insuring corporation, and of the 14398
contracted providers and health care facilities, with respect to 14399
administrative policies and programs, including, but not limited 14400
to, payments systems, utilization review, quality assurance, 14401
assessment, and improvement programs, credentialing, 14402
confidentiality requirements, and any applicable federal or state 14403
programs;14404

       (5) A provision regarding the availability and 14405
confidentiality of those health records maintained by providers 14406
and health care facilities to monitor and evaluate the quality of 14407
care, to conduct evaluations and audits, and to determine on a 14408
concurrent or retrospective basis the necessity of and 14409
appropriateness of health care services provided to enrollees. The 14410
provision shall include terms requiring the provider or health 14411
care facility to make these health records available to 14412
appropriate state and federal authorities involved in assessing 14413
the quality of care or in investigating the grievances or 14414
complaints of enrollees, and requiring the provider or health care 14415
facility to comply with applicable state and federal laws related 14416
to the confidentiality of medical or health records.14417

       (6) A provision that states that contractual rights and 14418
responsibilities may not be assigned or delegated by the provider 14419
or health care facility without the prior written consent of the 14420
health insuring corporation;14421

       (7) A provision requiring the provider or health care 14422
facility to maintain adequate professional liability and 14423
malpractice insurance. The provision shall also require the 14424
provider or health care facility to notify the health insuring 14425
corporation not more than ten days after the provider's or health 14426
care facility's receipt of notice of any reduction or cancellation 14427
of such coverage.14428

       (8) A provision requiring the provider or health care 14429
facility to observe, protect, and promote the rights of enrollees 14430
as patients;14431

       (9) A provision requiring the provider or health care 14432
facility to provide health care services without discrimination on 14433
the basis of a patient's participation in the health care plan, 14434
age, sex, ethnicity, religion, sexual preference, health status, 14435
or disability, and without regard to the source of payments made 14436
for health care services rendered to a patient. This requirement 14437
shall not apply to circumstances when the provider or health care 14438
facility appropriately does not render services due to limitations 14439
arising from the provider's or health care facility's lack of 14440
training, experience, or skill, or due to licensing restrictions.14441

       (10) A provision containing the specifics of any obligation 14442
on the primary care provider to provide, or to arrange for the 14443
provision of, covered health care services twenty-four hours per 14444
day, seven days per week;14445

       (11) A provision setting forth procedures for the resolution 14446
of disputes arising out of the contract;14447

       (12) A provision stating that the hold harmless provision 14448
required by division (C)(2) of this section shall survive the 14449
termination of the contract with respect to services covered and 14450
provided under the contract during the time the contract was in 14451
effect, regardless of the reason for the termination, including 14452
the insolvency of the health insuring corporation;14453

       (13) A provision requiring those terms that are used in the 14454
contract and that are defined by this chapter, be used in the 14455
contract in a manner consistent with those definitions.14456

       This division does not apply to the coverage of beneficiaries 14457
enrolled in medicare pursuant to a medicare risk contract or 14458
medicare cost contract, or to the coverage of beneficiaries 14459
enrolled in the federal employee health benefits program pursuant 14460
to 5 U.S.C.A. 8905, or to the coverage of medicaid recipients, or 14461
to the coverage of beneficiaries under any federal health care 14462
program regulated by a federal regulatory body, or to the coverage 14463
of beneficiaries under any contract covering officers or employees 14464
of the state that has been entered into by the department of 14465
administrative services.14466

       (D)(1) No health insuring corporation contract with a 14467
provider or health care facility shall contain any of the 14468
following:14469

       (a) A provision that directly or indirectly offers an 14470
inducement to the provider or health care facility to reduce or 14471
limit medically necessary health care services to a covered 14472
enrollee;14473

       (b) A provision that penalizes a provider or health care 14474
facility that assists an enrollee to seek a reconsideration of the 14475
health insuring corporation's decision to deny or limit benefits 14476
to the enrollee;14477

       (c) A provision that limits or otherwise restricts the 14478
provider's or health care facility's ethical and legal 14479
responsibility to fully advise enrollees about their medical 14480
condition and about medically appropriate treatment options;14481

       (d) A provision that penalizes a provider or health care 14482
facility for principally advocating for medically necessary health 14483
care services;14484

       (e) A provision that penalizes a provider or health care 14485
facility for providing information or testimony to a legislative 14486
or regulatory body or agency. This shall not be construed to 14487
prohibit a health insuring corporation from penalizing a provider 14488
or health care facility that provides information or testimony 14489
that is libelous or slanderous or that discloses trade secrets 14490
which the provider or health care facility has no privilege or 14491
permission to disclose.14492

       (f) A provision that violates Chapter 3963. of the Revised 14493
Code.14494

       (2) Nothing in this division shall be construed to prohibit a 14495
health insuring corporation from doing either of the following:14496

       (a) Making a determination not to reimburse or pay for a 14497
particular medical treatment or other health care service;14498

       (b) Enforcing reasonable peer review or utilization review 14499
protocols, or determining whether a particular provider or health 14500
care facility has complied with these protocols.14501

       (E) Any contract between a health insuring corporation and an 14502
intermediary organization shall clearly specify that the health 14503
insuring corporation must approve or disapprove the participation 14504
of any provider or health care facility with which the 14505
intermediary organization contracts.14506

       (F) If an intermediary organization that is not a health 14507
delivery network contracting solely with self-insured employers 14508
subcontracts with a provider or health care facility, the 14509
subcontract with the provider or health care facility shall do all 14510
of the following:14511

       (1) Contain the provisions required by divisions (C) and (G) 14512
of this section, as made applicable to an intermediary 14513
organization, without the inclusion of inducements or penalties 14514
described in division (D) of this section;14515

       (2) Acknowledge that the health insuring corporation is a 14516
third-party beneficiary to the agreement;14517

       (3) Acknowledge the health insuring corporation's role in 14518
approving the participation of the provider or health care 14519
facility, pursuant to division (E) of this section.14520

       (G) Any provider contract or contract with a health care 14521
facility shall clearly specify the health insuring corporation's 14522
statutory responsibility to monitor and oversee the offering of 14523
covered health care services to its enrollees.14524

       (H)(1) A health insuring corporation shall maintain its 14525
provider contracts and its contracts with health care facilities 14526
at one or more of its places of business in this state, and shall 14527
provide copies of these contracts to facilitate regulatory review 14528
upon written notice by the superintendent of insurance.14529

       (2) Any contract with an intermediary organization that 14530
accepts compensation shall include provisions requiring the 14531
intermediary organization to provide the superintendent with 14532
regulatory access to all books, records, financial information, 14533
and documents related to the provision of health care services to 14534
subscribers and enrollees under the contract. The contract shall 14535
require the intermediary organization to maintain such books, 14536
records, financial information, and documents at its principal 14537
place of business in this state and to preserve them for at least 14538
three years in a manner that facilitates regulatory review.14539

       (I)(1) A health insuring corporation shall notify its 14540
affected enrollees of the termination of a contract for the 14541
provision of health care services between the health insuring 14542
corporation and a primary care physician or hospital, by mail, 14543
within thirty days after the termination of the contract.14544

       (a) Notice shall be given to subscribers of the termination 14545
of a contract with a primary care physician if the subscriber, or 14546
a dependent covered under the subscriber's health care coverage, 14547
has received health care services from the primary care physician 14548
within the previous twelve months or if the subscriber or 14549
dependent has selected the physician as the subscriber's or 14550
dependent's primary care physician within the previous twelve 14551
months.14552

       (b) Notice shall be given to subscribers of the termination 14553
of a contract with a hospital if the subscriber, or a dependent 14554
covered under the subscriber's health care coverage, has received 14555
health care services from that hospital within the previous twelve 14556
months.14557

       (2) The health insuring corporation shall pay, in accordance 14558
with the terms of the contract, for all covered health care 14559
services rendered to an enrollee by a primary care physician or 14560
hospital between the date of the termination of the contract and 14561
five days after the notification of the contract termination is 14562
mailed to a subscriber at the subscriber's last known address.14563

       (J) Divisions (A) and (B) of this section do not apply to any 14564
health insuring corporation that, on June 4, 1997, holds a 14565
certificate of authority or license to operate under Chapter 1740. 14566
of the Revised Code.14567

       (K) Nothing in this section shall restrict the governing body 14568
of a hospital from exercising the authority granted it pursuant to 14569
section 3701.351 of the Revised Code.14570

       Sec. 1761.26. Whenever the approval of the superintendent of 14571
credit unions is required under this chapter, or under an order or 14572
supervisory action issued or taken under this chapter, for a 14573
person to serve as an organizer, incorporator, director, or 14574
executive officer of a credit union share guaranty corporation, or 14575
to otherwise participate in the management of such a corporation, 14576
the superintendent shall request the superintendent of the bureau 14577
of criminal identification and investigation, or a vendor approved 14578
by the bureau, to conduct a criminal records check based on the 14579
person's fingerprints in accordance with division (A)(14) of14580
section 109.572 of the Revised Code. The superintendent of credit 14581
unions shall request that criminal record information from the 14582
federal bureau of investigation be obtained as part of the 14583
criminal records check. Any fee required under division (C)(3) of 14584
section 109.572 of the Revised Code shall be paid by the person 14585
who is the subject of the request.14586

       Sec. 1901.18.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in this 14587
division or section 1901.181 of the Revised Code, subject to the 14588
monetary jurisdiction of municipal courts as set forth in section 14589
1901.17 of the Revised Code, a municipal court has original 14590
jurisdiction within its territory in all of the following actions 14591
or proceedings and to perform all of the following functions:14592

       (1) In any civil action, of whatever nature or remedy, of 14593
which judges of county courts have jurisdiction;14594

       (2) In any action or proceeding at law for the recovery of 14595
money or personal property of which the court of common pleas has 14596
jurisdiction;14597

       (3) In any action at law based on contract, to determine, 14598
preserve, and enforce all legal and equitable rights involved in 14599
the contract, to decree an accounting, reformation, or 14600
cancellation of the contract, and to hear and determine all legal 14601
and equitable remedies necessary or proper for a complete 14602
determination of the rights of the parties to the contract;14603

       (4) In any action or proceeding for the sale of personal 14604
property under chattel mortgage, lien, encumbrance, or other 14605
charge, for the foreclosure and marshalling of liens on personal 14606
property of that nature, and for the rendering of personal 14607
judgment in the action or proceeding;14608

       (5) In any action or proceeding to enforce the collection of 14609
its own judgments or the judgments rendered by any court within 14610
the territory to which the municipal court has succeeded, and to 14611
subject the interest of a judgment debtor in personal property to 14612
satisfy judgments enforceable by the municipal court;14613

       (6) In any action or proceeding in the nature of 14614
interpleader;14615

       (7) In any action of replevin;14616

       (8) In any action of forcible entry and detainer;14617

       (9) In any action concerning the issuance and enforcement of 14618
temporary protection orders pursuant to section 2919.26 of the 14619
Revised Code or protection orders pursuant to section 2903.213 of 14620
the Revised Code or the enforcement of protection orders issued by 14621
courts of another state, as defined in section 2919.27 of the 14622
Revised Code;14623

       (10) If the municipal court has a housing or environmental 14624
division, in any action over which the division is given 14625
jurisdiction by section 1901.181 of the Revised Code, provided 14626
that, except as specified in division (B) of that section, no 14627
judge of the court other than the judge of the division shall hear 14628
or determine any action over which the division has jurisdiction;14629

       (11) In any action brought pursuant to division (I) of 14630
section 3733.114781.40 of the Revised Code, if the residential 14631
premises that are the subject of the action are located within the 14632
territorial jurisdiction of the court;14633

       (12) In any civil action as described in division (B)(1) of 14634
section 3767.41 of the Revised Code that relates to a public 14635
nuisance, and, to the extent any provision of this chapter 14636
conflicts or is inconsistent with a provision of that section, the 14637
provision of that section shall control in the civil action;14638

       (13) In a proceeding brought pursuant to section 955.222 of 14639
the Revised Code by the owner of a dog that has been designated as 14640
a nuisance dog, dangerous dog, or vicious dog.14641

       (B) The Cleveland municipal court also shall have 14642
jurisdiction within its territory in all of the following actions 14643
or proceedings and to perform all of the following functions:14644

       (1) In all actions and proceedings for the sale of real 14645
property under lien of a judgment of the municipal court or a lien 14646
for machinery, material, or fuel furnished or labor performed, 14647
irrespective of amount, and, in those actions and proceedings, the 14648
court may proceed to foreclose and marshal all liens and all 14649
vested or contingent rights, to appoint a receiver, and to render 14650
personal judgment irrespective of amount in favor of any party.14651

       (2) In all actions for the foreclosure of a mortgage on real 14652
property given to secure the payment of money or the enforcement 14653
of a specific lien for money or other encumbrance or charge on 14654
real property, when the amount claimed by the plaintiff does not 14655
exceed fifteen thousand dollars and the real property is situated 14656
within the territory, and, in those actions, the court may proceed 14657
to foreclose all liens and all vested and contingent rights and 14658
may proceed to render judgments and make findings and orders 14659
between the parties in the same manner and to the same extent as 14660
in similar actions in the court of common pleas.14661

       (3) In all actions for the recovery of real property situated 14662
within the territory to the same extent as courts of common pleas 14663
have jurisdiction;14664

       (4) In all actions for injunction to prevent or terminate 14665
violations of the ordinances and regulations of the city of 14666
Cleveland enacted or promulgated under the police power of the 14667
city of Cleveland, pursuant to Section 3 of Article XVIII, Ohio 14668
Constitution, over which the court of common pleas has or may have 14669
jurisdiction, and, in those actions, the court may proceed to 14670
render judgments and make findings and orders in the same manner 14671
and to the same extent as in similar actions in the court of 14672
common pleas.14673

       Sec. 1909.11.  A county court judge has jurisdiction in any 14674
action brought pursuant to division (I) of section 3733.114781.4014675
of the Revised Code if the residential premises that are the 14676
subject of the action are located within the territorial 14677
jurisdiction of the judge's county court district.14678

       Sec. 1923.01.  (A) As provided in this chapter, any judge of 14679
a county or municipal court or a court of common pleas, within the 14680
judge's proper area of jurisdiction, may inquire about persons who 14681
make unlawful and forcible entry into lands or tenements and 14682
detain them, and about persons who make a lawful and peaceable 14683
entry into lands or tenements and hold them unlawfully and by 14684
force. If, upon the inquiry, it is found that an unlawful and 14685
forcible entry has been made and the lands or tenements are 14686
detained, or that, after a lawful entry, lands or tenements are 14687
held unlawfully and by force, a judge shall cause the plaintiff in 14688
an action under this chapter to have restitution of the lands or 14689
tenements.14690

       (B) An action shall be brought under this chapter within two 14691
years after the cause of action accrues.14692

       (C) As used in this chapter:14693

       (1) "Tenant" means a person who is entitled under a rental 14694
agreement to the use or occupancy of premises, other than premises 14695
located in a manufactured home park, to the exclusion of others, 14696
except that as used in division (A)(6) of section 1923.02 and 14697
section 1923.051 of the Revised Code, "tenant" includes a 14698
manufactured home park resident.14699

       (2) "Landlord" means the owner, lessor, or sublessor of 14700
premises, or the agent or person the landlord authorizes to manage 14701
premises or to receive rent from a tenant under a rental 14702
agreement, except, if required by the facts of the action to which 14703
the term is applied, "landlord" means a park operator.14704

       (3) "Resident" has the same meaning as in section 3733.0114705
4781.01 of the Revised Code.14706

       (4) "Residential premises" has the same meaning as in section 14707
5321.01 of the Revised Code, except, if required by the facts of 14708
the action to which the term is applied, "residential premises" 14709
has the same meaning as in section 3733.014781.01 of the Revised 14710
Code.14711

       (5) "Rental agreement" means any agreement or lease, written 14712
or oral, that establishes or modifies the terms, conditions, 14713
rules, or other provisions concerning the use or occupancy of 14714
premises by one of the parties to the agreement or lease, except 14715
that "rental agreement," as used in division (A)(13) of section 14716
1923.02 of the Revised Code and where the context requires as used 14717
in this chapter, means a rental agreement as defined in division 14718
(D) of section 5322.01 of the Revised Code.14719

       (6) "Controlled substance" has the same meaning as in section 14720
3719.01 of the Revised Code.14721

       (7) "School premises" has the same meaning as in section 14722
2925.01 of the Revised Code.14723

       (8) "Sexually oriented offense" and "child-victim oriented 14724
offense" have the same meanings as in section 2950.01 of the 14725
Revised Code.14726

       (9) "Recreational vehicle" and "mobile home" have the same 14727
meanings as in section 4501.01 of the Revised Code.14728

       (10) "Manufactured home" has the same meaning as in section 14729
3781.06 of the Revised Code.14730

       (11) "Manufactured home park" has the same meaning as in 14731
section 3733.014781.01 of the Revised Code and also means any 14732
tract of land upon which one or two manufactured or mobile homes 14733
used for habitation are parked, either free of charge or for 14734
revenue purposes, pursuant to rental agreements between the owners 14735
of the manufactured or mobile homes and the owner of the tract of 14736
land.14737

       (12) "Park operator" has the same meaning as in section 14738
3733.014781.01 of the Revised Code and also means a landlord of 14739
premises upon which one or two manufactured or mobile homes used 14740
for habitation are parked, either free of charge or for revenue 14741
purposes, pursuant to rental agreements between the owners of the 14742
manufactured or mobile homes and a landlord who is not licensed as 14743
a manufactured home park operator pursuant to Chapter 3733.4781.14744
of the Revised Code.14745

        (13) "Personal property" means tangible personal property 14746
other than a manufactured home, mobile home, or recreational 14747
vehicle that is the subject of an action under this chapter.14748

       (14) "Preschool or child day-care center premises" has the 14749
same meaning as in section 2950.034 of the Revised Code.14750

       Sec. 1923.02.  (A) Proceedings under this chapter may be had 14751
as follows:14752

       (1) Against tenants or manufactured home park residents 14753
holding over their terms;14754

       (2) Against tenants or manufactured home park residents in 14755
possession under an oral tenancy, who are in default in the 14756
payment of rent as provided in division (B) of this section;14757

       (3) In sales of real estate, on executions, orders, or other 14758
judicial process, when the judgment debtor was in possession at 14759
the time of the rendition of the judgment or decree, by virtue of 14760
which the sale was made;14761

       (4) In sales by executors, administrators, or guardians, and 14762
on partition, when any of the parties to the complaint were in 14763
possession at the commencement of the action, after the sales, so 14764
made on execution or otherwise, have been examined by the proper 14765
court and adjudged legal;14766

       (5) When the defendant is an occupier of lands or tenements, 14767
without color of title, and the complainant has the right of 14768
possession to them;14769

       (6) In any other case of the unlawful and forcible detention 14770
of lands or tenements. For purposes of this division, in addition 14771
to any other type of unlawful and forcible detention of lands or 14772
tenements, such a detention may be determined to exist when both 14773
of the following apply:14774

       (a) A tenant fails to vacate residential premises within 14775
three days after both of the following occur:14776

       (i) The tenant's landlord has actual knowledge of or has 14777
reasonable cause to believe that the tenant, any person in the 14778
tenant's household, or any person on the premises with the consent 14779
of the tenant previously has or presently is engaged in a 14780
violation of Chapter 2925. or 3719. of the Revised Code, or of a 14781
municipal ordinance that is substantially similar to any section 14782
in either of those chapters, which involves a controlled substance 14783
and which occurred in, is occurring in, or otherwise was or is 14784
connected with the premises, whether or not the tenant or other 14785
person has been charged with, has pleaded guilty to or been 14786
convicted of, or has been determined to be a delinquent child for 14787
an act that, if committed by an adult, would be a violation as 14788
described in this division. For purposes of this division, a 14789
landlord has "actual knowledge of or has reasonable cause to 14790
believe" that a tenant, any person in the tenant's household, or 14791
any person on the premises with the consent of the tenant 14792
previously has or presently is engaged in a violation as described 14793
in this division if a search warrant was issued pursuant to 14794
Criminal Rule 41 or Chapter 2933. of the Revised Code; the 14795
affidavit presented to obtain the warrant named or described the 14796
tenant or person as the individual to be searched and particularly 14797
described the tenant's premises as the place to be searched, named 14798
or described one or more controlled substances to be searched for 14799
and seized, stated substantially the offense under Chapter 2925. 14800
or 3719. of the Revised Code or the substantially similar 14801
municipal ordinance that occurred in, is occurring in, or 14802
otherwise was or is connected with the tenant's premises, and 14803
states the factual basis for the affiant's belief that the 14804
controlled substances are located on the tenant's premises; the 14805
warrant was properly executed by a law enforcement officer and any 14806
controlled substance described in the affidavit was found by that 14807
officer during the search and seizure; and, subsequent to the 14808
search and seizure, the landlord was informed by that or another 14809
law enforcement officer of the fact that the tenant or person has 14810
or presently is engaged in a violation as described in this 14811
division and it occurred in, is occurring in, or otherwise was or 14812
is connected with the tenant's premises.14813

       (ii) The landlord gives the tenant the notice required by 14814
division (C) of section 5321.17 of the Revised Code.14815

       (b) The court determines, by a preponderance of the evidence, 14816
that the tenant, any person in the tenant's household, or any 14817
person on the premises with the consent of the tenant previously 14818
has or presently is engaged in a violation as described in 14819
division (A)(6)(a)(i) of this section.14820

       (7) In cases arising out of Chapter 5313. of the Revised 14821
Code. In those cases, the court has the authority to declare a 14822
forfeiture of the vendee's rights under a land installment 14823
contract and to grant any other claims arising out of the 14824
contract.14825

       (8) Against tenants who have breached an obligation that is 14826
imposed by section 5321.05 of the Revised Code, other than the 14827
obligation specified in division (A)(9) of that section, and that 14828
materially affects health and safety. Prior to the commencement of 14829
an action under this division, notice shall be given to the tenant 14830
and compliance secured with section 5321.11 of the Revised Code.14831

       (9) Against tenants who have breached an obligation imposed 14832
upon them by a written rental agreement;14833

       (10) Against manufactured home park residents who have 14834
defaulted in the payment of rent or breached the terms of a rental 14835
agreement with a park operator. Nothing in this division precludes 14836
the commencement of an action under division (A)(12) of this 14837
section when the additional circumstances described in that 14838
division apply.14839

       (11) Against manufactured home park residents who have 14840
committed two material violations of the rules of the manufactured 14841
home park, of the public health councilmanufactured homes 14842
commission, or of applicable state and local health and safety 14843
codes and who have been notified of the violations in compliance 14844
with section 3733.134781.45 of the Revised Code;14845

       (12) Against a manufactured home park resident, or the estate 14846
of a manufactured home park resident, who as a result of death or 14847
otherwise has been absent from the manufactured home park for a 14848
period of thirty consecutive days prior to the commencement of an 14849
action under this division and whose manufactured home or mobile 14850
home, or recreational vehicle that is parked in the manufactured 14851
home park, has been left unoccupied for that thirty-day period, 14852
without notice to the park operator and without payment of rent 14853
due under the rental agreement with the park operator;14854

       (13) Against occupants of self-service storage facilities, as 14855
defined in division (A) of section 5322.01 of the Revised Code, 14856
who have breached the terms of a rental agreement or violated 14857
section 5322.04 of the Revised Code;14858

       (14) Against any resident or occupant who, pursuant to a 14859
rental agreement, resides in or occupies residential premises 14860
located within one thousand feet of any school premises or 14861
preschool or child day-care center premises and to whom both of 14862
the following apply:14863

       (a) The resident's or occupant's name appears on the state 14864
registry of sex offenders and child-victim offenders maintained 14865
under section 2950.13 of the Revised Code.14866

       (b) The state registry of sex offenders and child-victim 14867
offenders indicates that the resident or occupant was convicted of 14868
or pleaded guilty to a sexually oriented offense or a child-victim 14869
oriented offense in a criminal prosecution and was not sentenced 14870
to a serious youthful offender dispositional sentence for that 14871
offense.14872

       (15) Against any tenant who permits any person to occupy 14873
residential premises located within one thousand feet of any 14874
school premises or preschool or child day-care center premises if 14875
both of the following apply to the person:14876

        (a) The person's name appears on the state registry of sex 14877
offenders and child-victim offenders maintained under section 14878
2950.13 of the Revised Code.14879

        (b) The state registry of sex offenders and child-victim 14880
offenders indicates that the person was convicted of or pleaded 14881
guilty to a sexually oriented offense or a child-victim oriented 14882
offense in a criminal prosecution and was not sentenced to a 14883
serious youthful offender dispositional sentence for that offense.14884

       (B) If a tenant or manufactured home park resident holding 14885
under an oral tenancy is in default in the payment of rent, the 14886
tenant or resident forfeits the right of occupancy, and the 14887
landlord may, at the landlord's option, terminate the tenancy by 14888
notifying the tenant or resident, as provided in section 1923.04 14889
of the Revised Code, to leave the premises, for the restitution of 14890
which an action may then be brought under this chapter.14891

       (C)(1) If a tenant or any other person with the tenant's 14892
permission resides in or occupies residential premises that are 14893
located within one thousand feet of any school premises and is a 14894
resident or occupant of the type described in division (A)(14) of 14895
this section or a person of the type described in division (A)(15) 14896
of this section, the landlord for those residential premises, upon 14897
discovery that the tenant or other person is a resident, occupant, 14898
or person of that nature, may terminate the rental agreement or 14899
tenancy for those residential premises by notifying the tenant and 14900
all other occupants, as provided in section 1923.04 of the Revised 14901
Code, to leave the premises.14902

       (2) If a landlord is authorized to terminate a rental 14903
agreement or tenancy pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section 14904
but does not so terminate the rental agreement or tenancy, the 14905
landlord is not liable in a tort or other civil action in damages 14906
for any injury, death, or loss to person or property that 14907
allegedly result from that decision.14908

       (D) This chapter does not apply to a student tenant as 14909
defined by division (H) of section 5321.01 of the Revised Code 14910
when the college or university proceeds to terminate a rental 14911
agreement pursuant to section 5321.031 of the Revised Code.14912

       Sec. 1923.061.  (A) Any defense in an action under this 14913
chapter may be asserted at trial.14914

       (B) In an action for possession of residential premises based 14915
upon nonpayment of the rent or in an action for rent when the 14916
tenant or manufactured home park resident is in possession, the 14917
tenant or resident may counterclaim for any amount hethe tenant 14918
or resident may recover under the rental agreement or under 14919
Chapter 3733.4781. or 5321. of the Revised Code. In that event, 14920
the court from time to time may order the tenant or resident to 14921
pay into court all or part of the past due rent and rent becoming 14922
due during the pendency of the action. After trial and judgment, 14923
the party to whom a net judgment is owed shall be paid first from 14924
the money paid into court, and any balance shall be satisfied as 14925
any other judgment. If no rent remains due after application of 14926
this division, judgment shall be entered for the tenant or 14927
resident in the action for possession. If the tenant or resident 14928
has paid into court an amount greater than that necessary to 14929
satisfy a judgment obtained by the landlord, the balance shall be 14930
returned by the court to the tenant or resident.14931

       Sec. 1923.15.  During any proceeding involving residential 14932
premises under this chapter, the court may order an appropriate 14933
governmental agency to inspect the residential premises. If the 14934
agency determines and the court finds conditions which constitute 14935
a violation of section 3733.104781.38 or 5321.04 of the Revised 14936
Code, and if the premises have been vacated or are to be restored 14937
to the landlord, the court may issue an order forbidding the 14938
re-rental of the property until such conditions are corrected. If 14939
the agency determines and the court finds such conditions, and if 14940
the court finds that the tenant or manufactured home park resident 14941
may remain in possession, the court may order such conditions 14942
corrected. If such conditions have been caused by the tenant or 14943
resident, the court may award damages to the landlord equal to the 14944
reasonable cost of correcting such conditions.14945

       Sec. 2151.86.  (A)(1) The appointing or hiring officer of any 14946
entity that appoints or employs any person responsible for a 14947
child's care in out-of-home care shall request the superintendent 14948
of BCII to conduct a criminal records check with respect to any 14949
person who is under final consideration for appointment or 14950
employment as a person responsible for a child's care in 14951
out-of-home care, except that section 3319.39 of the Revised Code 14952
shall apply instead of this section if the out-of-home care entity 14953
is a public school, educational service center, or chartered 14954
nonpublic school.14955

       (2) At the times specified in this division, the 14956
administrative director of an agency, or attorney, who arranges an 14957
adoption for a prospective adoptive parent shall request the 14958
superintendent of BCII to conduct a criminal records check with 14959
respect to that prospective adoptive parent and a criminal records 14960
check with respect to all persons eighteen years of age or older 14961
who reside with the prospective adoptive parent. The 14962
administrative director or attorney shall request a criminal 14963
records check pursuant to this division at the time of the initial 14964
home study, every four years after the initial home study at the 14965
time of an update, and at the time that an adoptive home study is 14966
completed as a new home study.14967

       (3) Before a recommending agency submits a recommendation to 14968
the department of job and family services on whether the 14969
department should issue a certificate to a foster home under 14970
section 5103.03 of the Revised Code, and every four years 14971
thereafter prior to a recertification under that section, the 14972
administrative director of the agency shall request that the 14973
superintendent of BCII conduct a criminal records check with 14974
respect to the prospective foster caregiver and a criminal records 14975
check with respect to all other persons eighteen years of age or 14976
older who reside with the foster caregiver.14977

       (B)(1) If a person subject to a criminal records check under 14978
division (A)(1) of this section does not present proof that the 14979
person has been a resident of this state for the five-year period 14980
immediately prior to the date upon which the criminal records 14981
check is requested or does not provide evidence that within that 14982
five-year period the superintendent of BCII has requested 14983
information about the person from the federal bureau of 14984
investigation in a criminal records check, the appointing or 14985
hiring officer shall request that the superintendent of BCII 14986
obtain information from the federal bureau of investigation as a 14987
part of the criminal records check, including fingerprint-based 14988
checks of national crime information databases as described in 42 14989
U.S.C. 671. If a person subject to a criminal records check under 14990
division (A)(1) of this section presents proof that the person has 14991
been a resident of this state for that five-year period, the 14992
appointing or hiring officer or attorney may request that the 14993
superintendent of BCII include information from the federal bureau 14994
of investigation in the criminal records check, including 14995
fingerprint-based checks of national crime information databases 14996
as described in 42 U.S.C. 671.14997

       When the administrative director of an agency, or attorney, 14998
who arranges an adoption for a prospective parent requests, at the 14999
time of the initial home study, a criminal records check for a 15000
person pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section, the 15001
administrative director or attorney shall request that the 15002
superintendent of BCII obtain information from the federal bureau 15003
of investigation as part of the criminal records check, including 15004
fingerprint-based checks of national crime information databases 15005
as described in 42 U.S.C. 671, for the person subject to the 15006
criminal records check. In all other cases in which the 15007
administrative director of an agency, or attorney, who arranges an 15008
adoption for a prospective parent requests a criminal records 15009
check for a person pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section, 15010
the administrative director or attorney may request that the 15011
superintendent of BCII include information from the federal bureau 15012
of investigation in the criminal records check, including 15013
fingerprint-based checks of national crime information databases 15014
as described in 42 U.S.C. 671.15015

        When the administrative director of a recommending agency 15016
requests, before submitting a recommendation to the department of 15017
job and family services on whether the department should issue a 15018
certificate to a foster home under section 5103.03 of the Revised 15019
Code, a criminal records check for a person pursuant to division 15020
(A)(3) of this section, the administrative director shall request 15021
that the superintendent of BCII obtain information from the 15022
federal bureau of investigation as part of a criminal records 15023
check, including fingerprint-based checks of national crime 15024
information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 671, for the 15025
person subject to the criminal records check. In all other cases 15026
in which the administrative director of a recommending agency 15027
requests a criminal records check for a person pursuant to 15028
division (A)(3) of this section, the administrative director may 15029
request that the superintendent of BCII include information from 15030
the federal bureau of investigation in the criminal records check, 15031
including fingerprint-based checks of national crime information 15032
databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 671.15033

       Prior to a hearing on a final decree of adoption or 15034
interlocutory order of adoption by a probate court, the 15035
administrative director of an agency, or an attorney, who arranges 15036
an adoption for a prospective parent shall provide to the clerk of 15037
the probate court either of the following:15038

       (a) Any information received pursuant to a request made under 15039
this division from the superintendent of BCII or the federal 15040
bureau of investigation as part of the criminal records check, 15041
including fingerprint-based checks of national crime information 15042
databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 671, for the person subject to 15043
the criminal records check;15044

       (b) Written notification that the person subject to a 15045
criminal records check pursuant to this division failed upon 15046
request to provide the information necessary to complete the form 15047
or failed to provide impressions of the person's fingerprints as 15048
required under division (B)(2) of this section. 15049

       (2) An appointing or hiring officer, administrative director, 15050
or attorney required by division (A) of this section to request a 15051
criminal records check shall provide to each person subject to a 15052
criminal records check a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to 15053
division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a 15054
standard impression sheet to obtain fingerprint impressions 15055
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 109.572 of the 15056
Revised Code, obtain the completed form and impression sheet from 15057
the person, and forward the completed form and impression sheet to 15058
the superintendent of BCII at the time the criminal records check 15059
is requested.15060

       Any person subject to a criminal records check who receives 15061
pursuant to this division a copy of the form prescribed pursuant 15062
to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a 15063
copy of an impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) 15064
of that section and who is requested to complete the form and 15065
provide a set of fingerprint impressions shall complete the form 15066
or provide all the information necessary to complete the form and 15067
shall provide the impression sheet with the impressions of the 15068
person's fingerprints. If a person subject to a criminal records 15069
check, upon request, fails to provide the information necessary to 15070
complete the form or fails to provide impressions of the person's 15071
fingerprints, the appointing or hiring officer shall not appoint 15072
or employ the person as a person responsible for a child's care in 15073
out-of-home care, a probate court may not issue a final decree of 15074
adoption or an interlocutory order of adoption making the person 15075
an adoptive parent, and the department of job and family services 15076
shall not issue a certificate authorizing the prospective foster 15077
caregiver to operate a foster home.15078

       (C)(1) No appointing or hiring officer shall appoint or 15079
employ a person as a person responsible for a child's care in 15080
out-of-home care, the department of job and family services shall 15081
not issue a certificate under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code 15082
authorizing a prospective foster caregiver to operate a foster 15083
home, and no probate court shall issue a final decree of adoption 15084
or an interlocutory order of adoption making a person an adoptive 15085
parent if the person or, in the case of a prospective foster 15086
caregiver or prospective adoptive parent, any person eighteen 15087
years of age or older who resides with the prospective foster 15088
caregiver or prospective adoptive parent previously has been 15089
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the violations described 15090
in division (A)(8)(5) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code, 15091
unless the person meets rehabilitation standards established in 15092
rules adopted under division (F) of this section.15093

       (2) The appointing or hiring officer may appoint or employ a 15094
person as a person responsible for a child's care in out-of-home 15095
care conditionally until the criminal records check required by 15096
this section is completed and the officer receives the results of 15097
the criminal records check. If the results of the criminal records 15098
check indicate that, pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, 15099
the person subject to the criminal records check does not qualify 15100
for appointment or employment, the officer shall release the 15101
person from appointment or employment.15102

       (3) Prior to certification or recertification under section 15103
5103.03 of the Revised Code, the prospective foster caregiver 15104
subject to a criminal records check under division (A)(3) of this 15105
section shall notify the recommending agency of the revocation of 15106
any foster home license, certificate, or other similar 15107
authorization in another state occurring within the five years 15108
prior to the date of application to become a foster caregiver in 15109
this state. The failure of a prospective foster caregiver to 15110
notify the recommending agency of any revocation of that type in 15111
another state that occurred within that five-year period shall be 15112
grounds for denial of the person's foster home application or the 15113
revocation of the person's foster home certification, whichever is 15114
applicable. If a person has had a revocation in another state 15115
within the five years prior to the date of the application, the 15116
department of job and family services shall not issue a foster 15117
home certificate to the prospective foster caregiver.15118

       (D) The appointing or hiring officer, administrative 15119
director, or attorney shall pay to the bureau of criminal 15120
identification and investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to 15121
division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each 15122
criminal records check conducted in accordance with that section 15123
upon a request pursuant to division (A) of this section. The 15124
officer, director, or attorney may charge the person subject to 15125
the criminal records check a fee for the costs the officer, 15126
director, or attorney incurs in obtaining the criminal records 15127
check. A fee charged under this division shall not exceed the 15128
amount of fees the officer, director, or attorney pays for the 15129
criminal records check. If a fee is charged under this division, 15130
the officer, director, or attorney shall notify the person who is 15131
the applicant at the time of the person's initial application for 15132
appointment or employment, an adoption to be arranged, or a 15133
certificate to operate a foster home of the amount of the fee and 15134
that, unless the fee is paid, the person who is the applicant will 15135
not be considered for appointment or employment or as an adoptive 15136
parent or foster caregiver.15137

       (E) The report of any criminal records check conducted by the 15138
bureau of criminal identification and investigation in accordance 15139
with section 109.572 of the Revised Code and pursuant to a request 15140
made under division (A) of this section is not a public record for 15141
the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not 15142
be made available to any person other than the following:15143

       (1) The person who is the subject of the criminal records 15144
check or the person's representative;15145

       (2) The appointing or hiring officer, administrative 15146
director, or attorney requesting the criminal records check or the 15147
officer's, director's, or attorney's representative;15148

       (3) The department of job and family services, a county 15149
department of job and family services, or a public children 15150
services agency;15151

       (4) Any court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 15152
involved in a case dealing with the denial of employment, a final 15153
decree of adoption or interlocutory order of adoption, or a foster 15154
home certificate.15155

       (F) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 15156
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement 15157
this section. The rules shall include rehabilitation standards a 15158
person who has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense 15159
listed in division (A)(8)(5) of section 109.572 of the Revised 15160
Code must meet for an appointing or hiring officer to appoint or 15161
employ the person as a person responsible for a child's care in 15162
out-of-home care, a probate court to issue a final decree of 15163
adoption or interlocutory order of adoption making the person an 15164
adoptive parent, or the department to issue a certificate 15165
authorizing the prospective foster caregiver to operate a foster 15166
home or not revoke a foster home certificate for a violation 15167
specified in section 5103.0328 of the Revised Code.15168

       (G) An appointing or hiring officer, administrative director, 15169
or attorney required by division (A) of this section to request a 15170
criminal records check shall inform each person who is the 15171
applicant, at the time of the person's initial application for 15172
appointment or employment, an adoption to be arranged, or a foster 15173
home certificate, that the person subject to the criminal records 15174
check is required to provide a set of impressions of the person's 15175
fingerprints and that a criminal records check is required to be 15176
conducted and satisfactorily completed in accordance with section 15177
109.572 of the Revised Code.15178

       (H) The department of job and family services may waive the 15179
requirement that a criminal records check based on fingerprints be 15180
conducted for an adult resident of a prospective adoptive or 15181
foster home or the home of a foster caregiver if the recommending 15182
agency documents to the department's satisfaction that the adult 15183
resident is physically unable to comply with the fingerprinting 15184
requirement and poses no danger to foster children or adoptive 15185
children who may be placed in the home. In such cases, the 15186
recommending or approving agency shall request that the bureau of 15187
criminal identification and investigation conduct a criminal 15188
records check using the person's name and social security number.15189

        (I) As used in this section:15190

       (1) "Children's hospital" means any of the following:15191

       (a) A hospital registered under section 3701.07 of the 15192
Revised Code that provides general pediatric medical and surgical 15193
care, and in which at least seventy-five per cent of annual 15194
inpatient discharges for the preceding two calendar years were 15195
individuals less than eighteen years of age;15196

       (b) A distinct portion of a hospital registered under section 15197
3701.07 of the Revised Code that provides general pediatric 15198
medical and surgical care, has a total of at least one hundred 15199
fifty registered pediatric special care and pediatric acute care 15200
beds, and in which at least seventy-five per cent of annual 15201
inpatient discharges for the preceding two calendar years were 15202
individuals less than eighteen years of age;15203

       (c) A distinct portion of a hospital, if the hospital is 15204
registered under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as a 15205
children's hospital and the children's hospital meets all the 15206
requirements of division (I)(1)(a) of this section.15207

       (2) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 15208
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.15209

       (3) "Person responsible for a child's care in out-of-home 15210
care" has the same meaning as in section 2151.011 of the Revised 15211
Code, except that it does not include a prospective employee of 15212
the department of youth services or a person responsible for a 15213
child's care in a hospital or medical clinic other than a 15214
children's hospital.15215

       (4) "Person subject to a criminal records check" means the 15216
following:15217

       (a) A person who is under final consideration for appointment 15218
or employment as a person responsible for a child's care in 15219
out-of-home care;15220

       (b) A prospective adoptive parent;15221

       (c) A prospective foster caregiver;15222

       (d) A person eighteen years old or older who resides with a 15223
prospective foster caregiver or a prospective adoptive parent.15224

       (5) "Recommending agency" means a public children services 15225
agency, private child placing agency, or private noncustodial 15226
agency to which the department of job and family services has 15227
delegated a duty to inspect and approve foster homes.15228

       (6) "Superintendent of BCII" means the superintendent of the 15229
bureau of criminal identification and investigation.15230

       Sec. 2152.121.  (A) If a complaint is filed against a child 15231
alleging that the child is a delinquent child and the case is 15232
transferred pursuant to division (A)(1)(a)(i) or (A)(1)(b)(ii) of 15233
section 2152.12 of the Revised Code, the juvenile court that 15234
transferred the case shall retain jurisdiction for purposes of 15235
making disposition of the child when required under division (B) 15236
of this section.15237

       (B) If a complaint is filed against a child alleging that the 15238
child is a delinquent child, if the case is transferred pursuant 15239
to division (A)(1)(a)(i) or (A)(1)(b)(ii) of section 2152.12 of 15240
the Revised Code, and if the child subsequently is convicted of or 15241
pleads guilty to an offense in that case, the sentence to be 15242
imposed or disposition to be made of the child shall be determined 15243
as follows:15244

       (1) The court in which the child is convicted of or pleads 15245
guilty to the offense shall determine whether, had a complaint 15246
been filed in juvenile court alleging that the child was a 15247
delinquent child for committing an act that would be that offense 15248
if committed by an adult, division (A) of section 2152.12 of the 15249
Revised Code would have required mandatory transfer of the case or 15250
division (B) of that section would have allowed discretionary 15251
transfer of the case. The court shall not consider the factor 15252
specified in division (B)(3) of section 2152.12 of the Revised 15253
Code in making its determination under this division.15254

       (2) If the court in which the child is convicted of or pleads 15255
guilty to the offense determines under division (B)(1) of this 15256
section that, had a complaint been filed in juvenile court 15257
alleging that the child was a delinquent child for committing an 15258
act that would be that offense if committed by an adult, division 15259
(A) of section 2152.12 of the Revised Code would not have required 15260
mandatory transfer of the case, and division (B) of that section 15261
would not have allowed discretionary transfer of the case, the 15262
court shall transfer jurisdiction of the case back to the juvenile 15263
court that initially transferred the case, the court and all other 15264
agencies that have any record of the conviction of the child or 15265
the child's guilty plea shall expunge the conviction or guilty 15266
plea and all records of it, the conviction or guilty plea shall be 15267
considered and treated for all purposes other than as provided in 15268
this section to have never occurred, the conviction or guilty plea 15269
shall be considered and treated for all purposes other than as 15270
provided in this section to have been a delinquent child 15271
adjudication of the child, and the juvenile court shall impose one 15272
or more traditional juvenile dispositions upon the child under 15273
sections 2152.19 and 2152.20 of the Revised Code.15274

       (3) If the court in which the child is convicted of or pleads 15275
guilty to the offense determines under division (B)(1) of this 15276
section that, had a complaint been filed in juvenile court 15277
alleging that the child was a delinquent child for committing an 15278
act that would be that offense if committed by an adult, division 15279
(A) of section 2152.12 of the Revised Code would not have required 15280
mandatory transfer of the case but division (B) of that section 15281
would have allowed discretionary transfer of the case, the court 15282
shall determine the sentence it believes should be imposed upon 15283
the child under Chapter 2929. of the Revised Code, shall impose 15284
that sentence upon the child, and shall stay that sentence pending 15285
completion of the procedures specified in this division. Upon 15286
imposition and staying of the sentence, the court shall transfer 15287
jurisdiction of the case back to the juvenile court that initially 15288
transferred the case and the juvenile court shall proceed in 15289
accordance with this division. In no case may the child waive a 15290
right to a hearing of the type described in division (B)(3)(b) of 15291
this section, regarding a motion filed as described in that 15292
division by the prosecuting attorney in the case. Upon transfer of 15293
jurisdiction of the case back to the juvenile court, both of the 15294
following apply:15295

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (B)(3)(b) of 15296
this section, the juvenile court shall impose a serious youthful 15297
offender dispositional sentence upon the child under division 15298
(D)(1) of section 2152.13 of the Revised Code. In imposing the 15299
adult portion of that sentence, the juvenile court shall consider 15300
and give preference to the sentence imposed upon the child by the 15301
court in which the child was convicted of or pleaded guilty to the 15302
offense. Upon imposing a serious youthful offender dispositional 15303
sentence upon the child as described in this division, the 15304
juvenile court shall notify the court in which the child was 15305
convicted of or pleaded guilty to the offense, the sentence 15306
imposed upon the child by that court shall terminate, the court 15307
and all other agencies that have any record of the conviction of 15308
the child shall expunge the conviction or guilty plea and all 15309
records of it, the conviction or guilty plea shall be considered 15310
and treated for all purposes other than as provided in this 15311
section to have never occurred, and the conviction or guilty plea 15312
shall be considered and treated for all purposes other than as 15313
provided in this section to have been a delinquent child 15314
adjudication of the child.15315

       (b) Upon the transfer, the prosecuting attorney in the case 15316
may file a motion in the juvenile court that objects to the 15317
imposition of a serious youthful offender dispositional sentence 15318
upon the child and requests that the sentence imposed upon the 15319
child by the court in which the child was convicted of or pleaded 15320
guilty to the offense be invoked. Upon the filing of a motion 15321
under this division, the juvenile court shall hold a hearing to 15322
determine whether the child is not amenable to care or 15323
rehabilitation within the juvenile system and whether the safety 15324
of the community may require that the child be subject solely to 15325
adult sanctions. If the juvenile court at the hearing finds that 15326
the child is not amenable to care or rehabilitation within the 15327
juvenile system or that the safety of the community may require 15328
that the child be subject solely to adult sanctions, the court 15329
shall grant the motion. Absent such a finding, the juvenile court 15330
shall deny the motion. In making its decision under this division, 15331
the juvenile court shall consider the factors listed in division 15332
(D) of section 2152.12 of the Revised Code as factors indicating 15333
that the motion should be granted, shall consider the factors 15334
listed in division (E) of that section as factors indicating that 15335
the motion should not be granted, and shall consider whether the 15336
applicable factors listed in division (D) of that section outweigh 15337
the applicable factors listed in division (E) of that section.15338

       If the juvenile court grants the motion of the prosecuting 15339
attorney under this division, the juvenile court shall transfer 15340
jurisdiction of the case back to the court in which the child was 15341
convicted of or pleaded guilty to the offense, and the sentence 15342
imposed by that court shall be invoked. If the juvenile court 15343
denies the motion of the prosecuting attorney under this section, 15344
the juvenile court shall impose a serious youthful offender 15345
dispositional sentence upon the child in accordance with division 15346
(B)(3)(a) of this section. 15347

       (4) If the court in which the child is convicted of or pleads 15348
guilty to the offense determines under division (B)(1) of this 15349
section that, had a complaint been filed in juvenile court 15350
alleging that the child was a delinquent child for committing an 15351
act that would be that offense if committed by an adult, division 15352
(A) of section 2152.12 of the Revised Code would have required 15353
mandatory transfer of the case, the court shall impose sentence 15354
upon the child under Chapter 2929. of the Revised Code. 15355

       Sec. 2152.22.  (A) When a child is committed to the legal 15356
custody of the department of youth services under this chapter, 15357
the juvenile court relinquishes control with respect to the child 15358
so committed, except as provided in divisions (B), (C), (D), and 15359
(H) of this section or in sections 2152.82 to 2152.86 of the 15360
Revised Code. Subject to divisions (B), (C), and (D) of this 15361
section, sections 2151.353 and 2151.412 to 2151.421 of the Revised 15362
Code, sections 2152.82 to 2152.86 of the Revised Code, and any 15363
other provision of law that specifies a different duration for a 15364
dispositional order, all other dispositional orders made by the 15365
court under this chapter shall be temporary and shall continue for 15366
a period that is designated by the court in its order, until 15367
terminated or modified by the court or until the child attains 15368
twenty-one years of age.15369

       The department shall not release the child from a department 15370
facility and as a result shall not discharge the child or order 15371
the child's release on supervised release prior to the expiration 15372
of the minimum period specified by the court in division (A)(1) of 15373
section 2152.16 of the Revised Code and any term of commitment 15374
imposed under section 2152.17 of the Revised Code or prior to the 15375
child's attainment of twenty-one years of age, except upon the 15376
order of a court pursuant to division (B), (C), or (D) of this 15377
section or in accordance with section 5139.54 of the Revised Code.15378

       (B)(1) TheUnless the court grants judicial release under 15379
division (D)(1)(b) of this section, the court that commits a 15380
delinquent child to the department of youth services may grant 15381
judicial release of the child to court supervision under this 15382
division during the first half of the prescribed minimum term for 15383
which the child was committed to the department or, if the child 15384
was committed to the department until the child attains twenty-one 15385
years of age, during the first half of the prescribed period of 15386
commitment that begins on the first day of commitment and ends on 15387
the child's twenty-first birthday, provided any commitment imposed 15388
under division (A), (B), (C), or (D) of section 2152.17 of the 15389
Revised Code has ended.15390

       (2) If the department desires to release a child during a 15391
period specified in division (B)(1) of this section, it shall 15392
request the court that committed the child to grant a judicial 15393
release of the child to court supervision under this division. 15394
During whichever of those periods is applicable, the child or the 15395
parents of the child also may request that court to grant a 15396
judicial release of the child to court supervision. Upon receipt 15397
of a request for a judicial release to court supervision under 15398
this division from the department, the child, or the child's 15399
parent, or upon its own motion, the court that committed the child 15400
shall do one of the following: approve the release by journal 15401
entry; schedule within thirty days after the request is received a 15402
time for a hearing on whether the child is to be released; or 15403
reject the request by journal entry without conducting a hearing.15404

       If the court rejects an initial request for a release under 15405
this division by the child or the child's parent, the child or the 15406
child's parent may make one additional request for a judicial 15407
release to court supervision within the applicable period. The 15408
additional request may be made no earlier than thirty days after 15409
the filing of the prior request for a judicial release to court 15410
supervision. Upon the filing of a second request for a judicial 15411
release to court supervision, the court shall either approve or 15412
disapprove the release by journal entry or schedule within thirty 15413
days after the request is received a time for a hearing on whether 15414
the child is to be released.15415

       (3) If a court schedules a hearing under division (B)(2) of 15416
this section, it may order the department to deliver the child to 15417
the court on the date set for the hearing and may order the 15418
department to present to the court a report on the child's 15419
progress in the institution to which the child was committed and 15420
recommendations for conditions of supervision of the child by the 15421
court after release. The court may conduct the hearing without the 15422
child being present. The court shall determine at the hearing 15423
whether the child should be granted a judicial release to court 15424
supervision.15425

       If the court approves the release under this division, it 15426
shall order its staff to prepare a written treatment and 15427
rehabilitation plan for the child that may include any conditions 15428
of the child's release that were recommended by the department and 15429
approved by the court. The committing court shall send the 15430
juvenile court of the county in which the child is placed a copy 15431
of the recommended plan. The court of the county in which the 15432
child is placed may adopt the recommended conditions set by the 15433
committing court as an order of the court and may add any 15434
additional consistent conditions it considers appropriate. If a 15435
child is granted a judicial release to court supervision, the 15436
release discharges the child from the custody of the department of 15437
youth services.15438

       (C)(1) TheUnless the court grants judicial release under 15439
division (D)(1)(b) of this section, the court that commits a 15440
delinquent child to the department of youth services may grant 15441
judicial release of the child to department of youth services 15442
supervision under this division during the second half of the 15443
prescribed minimum term for which the child was committed to the 15444
department or, if the child was committed to the department until 15445
the child attains twenty-one years of age, during the second half 15446
of the prescribed period of commitment that begins on the first 15447
day of commitment and ends on the child's twenty-first birthday, 15448
provided any commitment imposed under division (A), (B), (C), or 15449
(D) of section 2152.17 of the Revised Code has ended.15450

       (2) If the department desires to release a child during a 15451
period specified in division (C)(1) of this section, it shall 15452
request the court that committed the child to grant a judicial 15453
release to department of youth services supervision. During 15454
whichever of those periods is applicable, the child or the child's 15455
parent also may request the court that committed the child to 15456
grant a judicial release to department of youth services 15457
supervision. Upon receipt of a request for judicial release to 15458
department of youth services supervision, the child, or the 15459
child's parent, or upon its own motion at any time during that 15460
period, the court shall do one of the following: approve the 15461
release by journal entry; schedule a time within thirty days after 15462
receipt of the request for a hearing on whether the child is to be 15463
released; or reject the request by journal entry without 15464
conducting a hearing.15465

       If the court rejects an initial request for release under 15466
this division by the child or the child's parent, the child or the 15467
child's parent may make one or more subsequent requests for a 15468
release within the applicable period, but may make no more than 15469
one request during each period of ninety days that the child is in 15470
a secure department facility after the filing of a prior request 15471
for early release. Upon the filing of a request for release under 15472
this division subsequent to an initial request, the court shall 15473
either approve or disapprove the release by journal entry or 15474
schedule a time within thirty days after receipt of the request 15475
for a hearing on whether the child is to be released.15476

       (3) If a court schedules a hearing under division (C)(2) of 15477
this section, it may order the department to deliver the child to 15478
the court on the date set for the hearing and shall order the 15479
department to present to the court at that time a treatment plan 15480
for the child's post-institutional care. The court may conduct the 15481
hearing without the child being present. The court shall determine 15482
at the hearing whether the child should be granted a judicial 15483
release to department of youth services supervision.15484

       If the court approves the judicial release to department of 15485
youth services supervision, the department shall prepare a written 15486
treatment and rehabilitation plan for the child pursuant to 15487
division (F) of this section that shall include the conditions of 15488
the child's release. It shall send the committing court and the 15489
juvenile court of the county in which the child is placed a copy 15490
of the plan. The court of the county in which the child is placed 15491
may adopt the conditions set by the department as an order of the 15492
court and may add any additional consistent conditions it 15493
considers appropriate, provided that the court may not add any 15494
condition that decreases the level or degree of supervision 15495
specified by the department in its plan, that substantially 15496
increases the financial burden of supervision that will be 15497
experienced by the department, or that alters the placement 15498
specified by the department in its plan. If the court of the 15499
county in which the child is placed adds to the department's plan 15500
any additional conditions, it shall enter those additional 15501
conditions in its journal and shall send to the department a copy 15502
of the journal entry of the additional conditions.15503

       If the court approves the judicial release to department of 15504
youth services supervision, the actual date on which the 15505
department shall release the child is contingent upon the 15506
department finding a suitable placement for the child. If the 15507
child is to be returned to the child's home, the department shall 15508
return the child on the date that the court schedules for the 15509
child's release or shall bear the expense of any additional time 15510
that the child remains in a department facility. If the child is 15511
unable to return to the child's home, the department shall 15512
exercise reasonable diligence in finding a suitable placement for 15513
the child, and the child shall remain in a department facility 15514
while the department finds the suitable placement.15515

       (D)(1) Subject to division (D)(3) of this section, the court 15516
that commits a delinquent child to the department of youth 15517
services may grant judicial release of the child under this 15518
division at any time after the expiration of one of the following 15519
periods of time:15520

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(1)(b) of 15521
this section, if the child was committed to the department for a 15522
prescribed minimum period and a maximum period not to exceed the 15523
child's attainment of twenty-one years, the court may grant 15524
judicial release of the child at any time after the expiration of 15525
the prescribed minimum term for which the child was committed to 15526
the department.15527

       (b) If the child was committed to the department for both one 15528
or more definite periods under division (A), (B), (C), or (D) of 15529
section 2152.17 of the Revised Code and a period of the type 15530
described in division (D)(1)(a) of this section, all of the 15531
prescribed minimum periods of commitment imposed under division 15532
(A), (B), (C), or (D) of section 2152.17 of the Revised Code and 15533
the prescribed period of commitment of the type described in 15534
division (D)(1)(a) of this section shall be aggregated for 15535
purposes of this division, and the court may grant judicial 15536
release of the child at any time after the expiration of one year 15537
after the child begins serving the aggregate period of commitment.15538

       (2) If a court grants a judicial release of a child under 15539
division (D)(1) of this section, the release shall be a judicial 15540
release to department of youth services supervision, if the 15541
release is granted during a period described in division (C)(1) of 15542
this section, and the second and third paragraphs of division 15543
(C)(3) of this section apply regarding the release. In all other 15544
cases, the release shall be a judicial release to court 15545
supervision, and the second paragraph of division (B)(3) of this 15546
section applies regarding the release.15547

       (3) A court at the time of making the disposition of a child 15548
shall provide notice in the order of disposition that the judge is 15549
retaining jurisdiction over the child for the purpose of a 15550
possible grant of judicial release of the child under division 15551
(D)(1) of this section. The failure of a court to provide this 15552
notice does not affect the authority of the court to grant a 15553
judicial release under that division and does not constitute 15554
grounds for setting aside the child's delinquent child 15555
adjudication or disposition or for granting any post-adjudication 15556
relief to the child.15557

       (4) The department of youth services, a child committed to 15558
the department, or the parents of the child, during a period 15559
specified in division (D)(1) of this section, may request the 15560
court that committed the child to grant a judicial release of the 15561
child under that division. Upon receipt of a request for judicial 15562
release of a child under this division from the department, the 15563
child, or the child's parent, or upon its own motion, the court 15564
that committed the child shall do one of the following:15565

       (a) Approve the request by journal entry;15566

       (b) Schedule within thirty days after the request is received 15567
a time for a hearing on whether the child is to be released;15568

       (c) Reject the request by journal entry without conducting a 15569
hearing.15570

       If the court rejects an initial request for a release under 15571
this division by the child or the child's parent, division (C)(2) 15572
of this section applies regarding the making of additional 15573
requests.15574

       If the court schedules a hearing under this division to 15575
consider the judicial release, the first paragraph of division 15576
(B)(3) of this section applies regarding the hearing.15577

       (E) If a child is released under division (B), (C), or (D) of 15578
this section and the court of the county in which the child is 15579
placed has reason to believe that the child's deportment is not in 15580
accordance with the conditions of the child's judicial release, 15581
the court of the county in which the child is placed shall 15582
schedule a time for a hearing to determine whether the child 15583
violated any of the post-release conditions, and, if the child was 15584
released under division (C) of this section or under division (D) 15585
of this section under department supervision, divisions (A) to (E) 15586
of section 5139.52 of the Revised Code apply regarding the child.15587

       If that court determines at the hearing that the child 15588
violated any of the post-release conditions, the court, if it 15589
determines that the violation was a serious violation, may order 15590
the child to be returned to the department for 15591
institutionalization, consistent with the original order of 15592
commitment of the child, or in any case may make any other 15593
disposition of the child authorized by law that the court 15594
considers proper. If the court of the county in which the child is 15595
placed orders the child to be returned to a department of youth 15596
services institution, the time during which the child was held in 15597
a secure department facility prior to the child's judicial release 15598
shall be considered as time served in fulfilling the prescribed 15599
period of institutionalization that is applicable to the child 15600
under the child's original order of commitment. If the court 15601
orders the child returned to a department institution, the child 15602
shall remain in institutional care for a minimum of three months 15603
or until the child successfully completes a revocation program of 15604
a duration of not less than thirty days operated either by the 15605
department or by an entity with which the department has 15606
contracted to provide a revocation program.15607

       (F) The department of youth services, prior to the release of 15608
a child pursuant to division (C) of this section or pursuant to 15609
division (D) of this section on department supervision, shall do 15610
all of the following:15611

       (1) After reviewing the child's rehabilitative progress 15612
history and medical and educational records, prepare a written 15613
treatment and rehabilitation plan for the child that includes 15614
conditions of the release;15615

       (2) Completely discuss the conditions of the plan prepared 15616
pursuant to division (F)(1) of this section and the possible 15617
penalties for violation of the plan with the child and the child's 15618
parents, guardian, or legal custodian;15619

       (3) Have the plan prepared pursuant to division (F)(1) of 15620
this section signed by the child, the child's parents, legal 15621
guardian, or custodian, and any authority or person that is to 15622
supervise, control, and provide supportive assistance to the child 15623
at the time of the child's release pursuant to division (C) or (D) 15624
of this section;15625

       (4) Prior to the child's release, file a copy of the 15626
treatment plan prepared pursuant to division (F)(1) of this 15627
section with the committing court and the juvenile court of the 15628
county in which the child is to be placed.15629

       (G) The department of youth services shall file a written 15630
progress report with the committing court regarding each child 15631
released pursuant to division (C) of this section or released 15632
pursuant to division (D) of this section on judicial release to 15633
department supervision at least once every thirty days unless 15634
specifically directed otherwise by the court. The report shall 15635
indicate the treatment and rehabilitative progress of the child 15636
and the child's family, if applicable, and shall include any 15637
suggestions for altering the program, custody, living 15638
arrangements, or treatment. The department shall retain legal 15639
custody of a child so released until it discharges the child or 15640
until the custody is terminated as otherwise provided by law.15641

       (H) When a child is committed to the legal custody of the 15642
department of youth services, the court retains jurisdiction to 15643
perform the functions specified in section 5139.51 of the Revised 15644
Code with respect to the granting of supervised release by the 15645
release authority and to perform the functions specified in 15646
section 5139.52 of the Revised Code with respect to violations of 15647
the conditions of supervised release granted by the release 15648
authority and to the revocation of supervised release granted by 15649
the release authority.15650

       Sec. 2301.03.  (A) In Franklin county, the judges of the 15651
court of common pleas whose terms begin on January 1, 1953, 15652
January 2, 1953, January 5, 1969, January 5, 1977, and January 2, 15653
1997, and successors, shall have the same qualifications, exercise 15654
the same powers and jurisdiction, and receive the same 15655
compensation as other judges of the court of common pleas of 15656
Franklin county and shall be elected and designated as judges of 15657
the court of common pleas, division of domestic relations. They 15658
shall have all the powers relating to juvenile courts, and all 15659
cases under Chapters 2151. and 2152. of the Revised Code, all 15660
parentage proceedings under Chapter 3111. of the Revised Code over 15661
which the juvenile court has jurisdiction, and all divorce, 15662
dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases 15663
shall be assigned to them. In addition to the judge's regular 15664
duties, the judge who is senior in point of service shall serve on 15665
the children services board and the county advisory board and 15666
shall be the administrator of the domestic relations division and 15667
its subdivisions and departments.15668

       (B) In Hamilton county:15669

       (1) The judge of the court of common pleas, whose term begins 15670
on January 1, 1957, and successors, and the judge of the court of 15671
common pleas, whose term begins on February 14, 1967, and 15672
successors, shall be the juvenile judges as provided in Chapters 15673
2151. and 2152. of the Revised Code, with the powers and 15674
jurisdiction conferred by those chapters.15675

       (2) The judges of the court of common pleas whose terms begin 15676
on January 5, 1957, January 16, 1981, and July 1, 1991, and 15677
successors, shall be elected and designated as judges of the court 15678
of common pleas, division of domestic relations, and shall have 15679
assigned to them all divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal 15680
separation, and annulment cases coming before the court. On or 15681
after the first day of July and before the first day of August of 15682
1991 and each year thereafter, a majority of the judges of the 15683
division of domestic relations shall elect one of the judges of 15684
the division as administrative judge of that division. If a 15685
majority of the judges of the division of domestic relations are 15686
unable for any reason to elect an administrative judge for the 15687
division before the first day of August, a majority of the judges 15688
of the Hamilton county court of common pleas, as soon as possible 15689
after that date, shall elect one of the judges of the division of 15690
domestic relations as administrative judge of that division. The 15691
term of the administrative judge shall begin on the earlier of the 15692
first day of August of the year in which the administrative judge 15693
is elected or the date on which the administrative judge is 15694
elected by a majority of the judges of the Hamilton county court 15695
of common pleas and shall terminate on the date on which the 15696
administrative judge's successor is elected in the following year.15697

       In addition to the judge's regular duties, the administrative 15698
judge of the division of domestic relations shall be the 15699
administrator of the domestic relations division and its 15700
subdivisions and departments and shall have charge of the 15701
employment, assignment, and supervision of the personnel of the 15702
division engaged in handling, servicing, or investigating divorce, 15703
dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases, 15704
including any referees considered necessary by the judges in the 15705
discharge of their various duties.15706

       The administrative judge of the division of domestic 15707
relations also shall designate the title, compensation, expense 15708
allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacations of the 15709
personnel of the division, and shall fix the duties of its 15710
personnel. The duties of the personnel, in addition to those 15711
provided for in other sections of the Revised Code, shall include 15712
the handling, servicing, and investigation of divorce, dissolution 15713
of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases and counseling 15714
and conciliation services that may be made available to persons 15715
requesting them, whether or not the persons are parties to an 15716
action pending in the division.15717

       The board of county commissioners shall appropriate the sum 15718
of money each year as will meet all the administrative expenses of 15719
the division of domestic relations, including reasonable expenses 15720
of the domestic relations judges and the division counselors and 15721
other employees designated to conduct the handling, servicing, and 15722
investigation of divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal 15723
separation, and annulment cases, conciliation and counseling, and 15724
all matters relating to those cases and counseling, and the 15725
expenses involved in the attendance of division personnel at 15726
domestic relations and welfare conferences designated by the 15727
division, and the further sum each year as will provide for the 15728
adequate operation of the division of domestic relations.15729

       The compensation and expenses of all employees and the salary 15730
and expenses of the judges shall be paid by the county treasurer 15731
from the money appropriated for the operation of the division, 15732
upon the warrant of the county auditor, certified to by the 15733
administrative judge of the division of domestic relations.15734

       The summonses, warrants, citations, subpoenas, and other 15735
writs of the division may issue to a bailiff, constable, or staff 15736
investigator of the division or to the sheriff of any county or 15737
any marshal, constable, or police officer, and the provisions of 15738
law relating to the subpoenaing of witnesses in other cases shall 15739
apply insofar as they are applicable. When a summons, warrant, 15740
citation, subpoena, or other writ is issued to an officer, other 15741
than a bailiff, constable, or staff investigator of the division, 15742
the expense of serving it shall be assessed as a part of the costs 15743
in the case involved.15744

       (3) The judge of the court of common pleas of Hamilton county 15745
whose term begins on January 3, 1997, and the successors to that 15746
judge shall each be elected and designated as the drug court judge 15747
of the court of common pleas of Hamilton county. The drug court 15748
judge may accept or reject any case referred to the drug court 15749
judge under division (B)(3) of this section. After the drug court 15750
judge accepts a referred case, the drug court judge has full 15751
authority over the case, including the authority to conduct 15752
arraignment, accept pleas, enter findings and dispositions, 15753
conduct trials, order treatment, and if treatment is not 15754
successfully completed pronounce and enter sentence.15755

       A judge of the general division of the court of common pleas 15756
of Hamilton county and a judge of the Hamilton county municipal 15757
court may refer to the drug court judge any case, and any 15758
companion cases, the judge determines meet the criteria described 15759
under divisions (B)(3)(a) and (b) of this section. If the drug 15760
court judge accepts referral of a referred case, the case, and any 15761
companion cases, shall be transferred to the drug court judge. A 15762
judge may refer a case meeting the criteria described in divisions 15763
(B)(3)(a) and (b) of this section that involves a violation of a 15764
condition of a community control sanction to the drug court judge, 15765
and, if the drug court judge accepts the referral, the referring 15766
judge and the drug court judge have concurrent jurisdiction over 15767
the case.15768

       A judge of the general division of the court of common pleas 15769
of Hamilton county and a judge of the Hamilton county municipal 15770
court may refer a case to the drug court judge under division 15771
(B)(3) of this section if the judge determines that both of the 15772
following apply:15773

       (a) One of the following applies:15774

       (i) The case involves a drug abuse offense, as defined in 15775
section 2925.01 of the Revised Code, that is a felony of the third 15776
or fourth degree if the offense is committed prior to July 1, 15777
1996, a felony of the third, fourth, or fifth degree if the 15778
offense is committed on or after July 1, 1996, or a misdemeanor.15779

       (ii) The case involves a theft offense, as defined in section 15780
2913.01 of the Revised Code, that is a felony of the third or 15781
fourth degree if the offense is committed prior to July 1, 1996, a 15782
felony of the third, fourth, or fifth degree if the offense is 15783
committed on or after July 1, 1996, or a misdemeanor, and the 15784
defendant is drug or alcohol dependent or in danger of becoming 15785
drug or alcohol dependent and would benefit from treatment.15786

       (b) All of the following apply:15787

       (i) The case involves an offense for which a community 15788
control sanction may be imposed or is a case in which a mandatory 15789
prison term or a mandatory jail term is not required to be 15790
imposed.15791

       (ii) The defendant has no history of violent behavior.15792

       (iii) The defendant has no history of mental illness.15793

       (iv) The defendant's current or past behavior, or both, is 15794
drug or alcohol driven.15795

       (v) The defendant demonstrates a sincere willingness to 15796
participate in a fifteen-month treatment process.15797

       (vi) The defendant has no acute health condition.15798

       (vii) If the defendant is incarcerated, the county prosecutor 15799
approves of the referral.15800

       (4) If the administrative judge of the court of common pleas 15801
of Hamilton county determines that the volume of cases pending 15802
before the drug court judge does not constitute a sufficient 15803
caseload for the drug court judge, the administrative judge, in 15804
accordance with the Rules of Superintendence for Courts of Common 15805
Pleas, shall assign individual cases to the drug court judge from 15806
the general docket of the court. If the assignments so occur, the 15807
administrative judge shall cease the assignments when the 15808
administrative judge determines that the volume of cases pending 15809
before the drug court judge constitutes a sufficient caseload for 15810
the drug court judge.15811

       (5) As used in division (B) of this section, "community 15812
control sanction," "mandatory prison term," and "mandatory jail 15813
term" have the same meanings as in section 2929.01 of the Revised 15814
Code.15815

       (C)(1) In Lorain county:15816

       (a) The judges of the court of common pleas whose terms begin 15817
on January 3, 1959, January 4, 1989, and January 2, 1999, and 15818
successors, and the judge of the court of common pleas whose term 15819
begins on February 9, 2009, shall have the same qualifications, 15820
exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, and receive the same 15821
compensation as the other judges of the court of common pleas of 15822
Lorain county and shall be elected and designated as the judges of 15823
the court of common pleas, division of domestic relations. The 15824
judges of the court of common pleas whose terms begin on January 15825
3, 1959, January 4, 1989, and January 2, 1999, and successors, 15826
shall have all of the powers relating to juvenile courts, and all 15827
cases under Chapters 2151. and 2152. of the Revised Code, all 15828
parentage proceedings over which the juvenile court has 15829
jurisdiction, and all divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal 15830
separation, and annulment cases shall be assigned to them, except 15831
cases that for some special reason are assigned to some other 15832
judge of the court of common pleas. From February 9, 2009, through 15833
September 28, 2009, the judge of the court of common pleas whose 15834
term begins on February 9, 2009, shall have all the powers 15835
relating to juvenile courts, and cases under Chapters 2151. and 15836
2152. of the Revised Code, parentage proceedings over which the 15837
juvenile court has jurisdiction, and divorce, dissolution of 15838
marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases shall be assigned 15839
to that judge, except cases that for some special reason are 15840
assigned to some other judge of the court of common pleas.15841

       (b) From January 1, 2006, through September 28, 2009, the 15842
judges of the court of common pleas, division of domestic 15843
relations, in addition to the powers and jurisdiction set forth in 15844
division (C)(1)(a) of this section, shall have jurisdiction over 15845
matters that are within the jurisdiction of the probate court 15846
under Chapter 2101. and other provisions of the Revised Code. 15847

        (c) The judge of the court of common pleas, division of 15848
domestic relations, whose term begins on February 9, 2009, is the 15849
successor to the probate judge who was elected in 2002 for a term 15850
that began on February 9, 2003. After September 28, 2009, the 15851
judge of the court of common pleas, division of domestic 15852
relations, whose term begins on February 9, 2009, shall be the 15853
probate judge.15854

        (2)(a) From February 9, 2009, through September 28, 2009, 15855
with respect to Lorain county, all references in law to the 15856
probate court shall be construed as references to the court of 15857
common pleas, division of domestic relations, and all references 15858
to the probate judge shall be construed as references to the 15859
judges of the court of common pleas, division of domestic 15860
relations.15861

        (b) From February 9, 2009, through September 28, 2009, with 15862
respect to Lorain county, all references in law to the clerk of 15863
the probate court shall be construed as references to the judge 15864
who is serving pursuant to Rule 4 of the Rules of Superintendence 15865
for the Courts of Ohio as the administrative judge of the court of 15866
common pleas, division of domestic relations.15867

       (D) In Lucas county:15868

       (1) The judges of the court of common pleas whose terms begin 15869
on January 1, 1955, and January 3, 1965, and successors, shall 15870
have the same qualifications, exercise the same powers and 15871
jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as other judges of 15872
the court of common pleas of Lucas county and shall be elected and 15873
designated as judges of the court of common pleas, division of 15874
domestic relations. All divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal 15875
separation, and annulment cases shall be assigned to them.15876

       The judge of the division of domestic relations, senior in 15877
point of service, shall be considered as the presiding judge of 15878
the court of common pleas, division of domestic relations, and 15879
shall be charged exclusively with the assignment and division of 15880
the work of the division and the employment and supervision of all 15881
other personnel of the domestic relations division.15882

       (2) The judges of the court of common pleas whose terms begin 15883
on January 5, 1977, and January 2, 1991, and successors shall have 15884
the same qualifications, exercise the same powers and 15885
jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as other judges of 15886
the court of common pleas of Lucas county, shall be elected and 15887
designated as judges of the court of common pleas, juvenile 15888
division, and shall be the juvenile judges as provided in Chapters 15889
2151. and 2152. of the Revised Code with the powers and 15890
jurisdictions conferred by those chapters. In addition to the 15891
judge's regular duties, the judge of the court of common pleas, 15892
juvenile division, senior in point of service, shall be the 15893
administrator of the juvenile division and its subdivisions and 15894
departments and shall have charge of the employment, assignment, 15895
and supervision of the personnel of the division engaged in 15896
handling, servicing, or investigating juvenile cases, including 15897
any referees considered necessary by the judges of the division in 15898
the discharge of their various duties.15899

       The judge of the court of common pleas, juvenile division, 15900
senior in point of service, also shall designate the title, 15901
compensation, expense allowance, hours, leaves of absence, and 15902
vacation of the personnel of the division and shall fix the duties 15903
of the personnel of the division. The duties of the personnel, in 15904
addition to other statutory duties include the handling, 15905
servicing, and investigation of juvenile cases and counseling and 15906
conciliation services that may be made available to persons 15907
requesting them, whether or not the persons are parties to an 15908
action pending in the division.15909

       (3) If one of the judges of the court of common pleas, 15910
division of domestic relations, or one of the judges of the 15911
juvenile division is sick, absent, or unable to perform that 15912
judge's judicial duties or the volume of cases pending in that 15913
judge's division necessitates it, the duties shall be performed by 15914
the judges of the other of those divisions.15915

       (E) In Mahoning county:15916

       (1) The judge of the court of common pleas whose term began 15917
on January 1, 1955, and successors, shall have the same 15918
qualifications, exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, and 15919
receive the same compensation as other judges of the court of 15920
common pleas of Mahoning county, shall be elected and designated 15921
as judge of the court of common pleas, division of domestic 15922
relations, and shall be assigned all the divorce, dissolution of 15923
marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases coming before the 15924
court. In addition to the judge's regular duties, the judge of the 15925
court of common pleas, division of domestic relations, shall be 15926
the administrator of the domestic relations division and its 15927
subdivisions and departments and shall have charge of the 15928
employment, assignment, and supervision of the personnel of the 15929
division engaged in handling, servicing, or investigating divorce, 15930
dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases, 15931
including any referees considered necessary in the discharge of 15932
the various duties of the judge's office.15933

       The judge also shall designate the title, compensation, 15934
expense allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacations of the 15935
personnel of the division and shall fix the duties of the 15936
personnel of the division. The duties of the personnel, in 15937
addition to other statutory duties, include the handling, 15938
servicing, and investigation of divorce, dissolution of marriage, 15939
legal separation, and annulment cases and counseling and 15940
conciliation services that may be made available to persons 15941
requesting them, whether or not the persons are parties to an 15942
action pending in the division.15943

       (2) The judge of the court of common pleas whose term began 15944
on January 2, 1969, and successors, shall have the same 15945
qualifications, exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, and 15946
receive the same compensation as other judges of the court of 15947
common pleas of Mahoning county, shall be elected and designated 15948
as judge of the court of common pleas, juvenile division, and 15949
shall be the juvenile judge as provided in Chapters 2151. and 15950
2152. of the Revised Code, with the powers and jurisdictions 15951
conferred by those chapters. In addition to the judge's regular 15952
duties, the judge of the court of common pleas, juvenile division, 15953
shall be the administrator of the juvenile division and its 15954
subdivisions and departments and shall have charge of the 15955
employment, assignment, and supervision of the personnel of the 15956
division engaged in handling, servicing, or investigating juvenile 15957
cases, including any referees considered necessary by the judge in 15958
the discharge of the judge's various duties.15959

       The judge also shall designate the title, compensation, 15960
expense allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacation of the 15961
personnel of the division and shall fix the duties of the 15962
personnel of the division. The duties of the personnel, in 15963
addition to other statutory duties, include the handling, 15964
servicing, and investigation of juvenile cases and counseling and 15965
conciliation services that may be made available to persons 15966
requesting them, whether or not the persons are parties to an 15967
action pending in the division.15968

       (3) If a judge of the court of common pleas, division of 15969
domestic relations or juvenile division, is sick, absent, or 15970
unable to perform that judge's judicial duties, or the volume of 15971
cases pending in that judge's division necessitates it, that 15972
judge's duties shall be performed by another judge of the court of 15973
common pleas.15974

       (F) In Montgomery county:15975

       (1) The judges of the court of common pleas whose terms begin 15976
on January 2, 1953, and January 4, 1977, and successors, shall 15977
have the same qualifications, exercise the same powers and 15978
jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as other judges of 15979
the court of common pleas of Montgomery county and shall be 15980
elected and designated as judges of the court of common pleas, 15981
division of domestic relations. These judges shall have assigned 15982
to them all divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal separation, 15983
and annulment cases.15984

       The judge of the division of domestic relations, senior in 15985
point of service, shall be charged exclusively with the assignment 15986
and division of the work of the division and shall have charge of 15987
the employment and supervision of the personnel of the division 15988
engaged in handling, servicing, or investigating divorce, 15989
dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases, 15990
including any necessary referees, except those employees who may 15991
be appointed by the judge, junior in point of service, under this 15992
section and sections 2301.12,and 2301.18, and 2301.19 of the 15993
Revised Code. The judge of the division of domestic relations, 15994
senior in point of service, also shall designate the title, 15995
compensation, expense allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and 15996
vacation of the personnel of the division and shall fix their 15997
duties.15998

       (2) The judges of the court of common pleas whose terms begin 15999
on January 1, 1953, and January 1, 1993, and successors, shall 16000
have the same qualifications, exercise the same powers and 16001
jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as other judges of 16002
the court of common pleas of Montgomery county, shall be elected 16003
and designated as judges of the court of common pleas, juvenile 16004
division, and shall be, and have the powers and jurisdiction of, 16005
the juvenile judge as provided in Chapters 2151. and 2152. of the 16006
Revised Code.16007

       In addition to the judge's regular duties, the judge of the 16008
court of common pleas, juvenile division, senior in point of 16009
service, shall be the administrator of the juvenile division and 16010
its subdivisions and departments and shall have charge of the 16011
employment, assignment, and supervision of the personnel of the 16012
juvenile division, including any necessary referees, who are 16013
engaged in handling, servicing, or investigating juvenile cases. 16014
The judge, senior in point of service, also shall designate the 16015
title, compensation, expense allowances, hours, leaves of absence, 16016
and vacation of the personnel of the division and shall fix their 16017
duties. The duties of the personnel, in addition to other 16018
statutory duties, shall include the handling, servicing, and 16019
investigation of juvenile cases and of any counseling and 16020
conciliation services that are available upon request to persons, 16021
whether or not they are parties to an action pending in the 16022
division.16023

       If one of the judges of the court of common pleas, division 16024
of domestic relations, or one of the judges of the court of common 16025
pleas, juvenile division, is sick, absent, or unable to perform 16026
that judge's duties or the volume of cases pending in that judge's 16027
division necessitates it, the duties of that judge may be 16028
performed by the judge or judges of the other of those divisions.16029

       (G) In Richland county:16030

       (1) The judge of the court of common pleas whose term begins 16031
on January 1, 1957, and successors, shall have the same 16032
qualifications, exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, and 16033
receive the same compensation as the other judges of the court of 16034
common pleas of Richland county and shall be elected and 16035
designated as judge of the court of common pleas, division of 16036
domestic relations. That judge shall be assigned and hear all 16037
divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment 16038
cases, all domestic violence cases arising under section 3113.31 16039
of the Revised Code, and all post-decree proceedings arising from 16040
any case pertaining to any of those matters. The division of 16041
domestic relations has concurrent jurisdiction with the juvenile 16042
division of the court of common pleas of Richland county to 16043
determine the care, custody, or control of any child not a ward of 16044
another court of this state, and to hear and determine a request 16045
for an order for the support of any child if the request is not 16046
ancillary to an action for divorce, dissolution of marriage, 16047
annulment, or legal separation, a criminal or civil action 16048
involving an allegation of domestic violence, or an action for 16049
support brought under Chapter 3115. of the Revised Code. Except in 16050
cases that are subject to the exclusive original jurisdiction of 16051
the juvenile court, the judge of the division of domestic 16052
relations shall be assigned and hear all cases pertaining to 16053
paternity or parentage, the care, custody, or control of children, 16054
parenting time or visitation, child support, or the allocation of 16055
parental rights and responsibilities for the care of children, all 16056
proceedings arising under Chapter 3111. of the Revised Code, all 16057
proceedings arising under the uniform interstate family support 16058
act contained in Chapter 3115. of the Revised Code, and all 16059
post-decree proceedings arising from any case pertaining to any of 16060
those matters.16061

       In addition to the judge's regular duties, the judge of the 16062
court of common pleas, division of domestic relations, shall be 16063
the administrator of the domestic relations division and its 16064
subdivisions and departments. The judge shall have charge of the 16065
employment, assignment, and supervision of the personnel of the 16066
domestic relations division, including any magistrates the judge 16067
considers necessary for the discharge of the judge's duties. The 16068
judge shall also designate the title, compensation, expense 16069
allowances, hours, leaves of absence, vacation, and other 16070
employment-related matters of the personnel of the division and 16071
shall fix their duties.16072

        (2) The judge of the court of common pleas whose term begins 16073
on January 3, 2005, and successors, shall have the same 16074
qualifications, exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, and 16075
receive the same compensation as other judges of the court of 16076
common pleas of Richland county, shall be elected and designated 16077
as judge of the court of common pleas, juvenile division, and 16078
shall be, and have the powers and jurisdiction of, the juvenile 16079
judge as provided in Chapters 2151. and 2152. of the Revised Code. 16080
Except in cases that are subject to the exclusive original 16081
jurisdiction of the juvenile court, the judge of the juvenile 16082
division shall not have jurisdiction or the power to hear, and 16083
shall not be assigned, any case pertaining to paternity or 16084
parentage, the care, custody, or control of children, parenting 16085
time or visitation, child support, or the allocation of parental 16086
rights and responsibilities for the care of children or any 16087
post-decree proceeding arising from any case pertaining to any of 16088
those matters. The judge of the juvenile division shall not have 16089
jurisdiction or the power to hear, and shall not be assigned, any 16090
proceeding under the uniform interstate family support act 16091
contained in Chapter 3115. of the Revised Code.16092

       In addition to the judge's regular duties, the judge of the 16093
juvenile division shall be the administrator of the juvenile 16094
division and its subdivisions and departments. The judge shall 16095
have charge of the employment, assignment, and supervision of the 16096
personnel of the juvenile division who are engaged in handling, 16097
servicing, or investigating juvenile cases, including any 16098
magistrates whom the judge considers necessary for the discharge 16099
of the judge's various duties.16100

       The judge of the juvenile division also shall designate the 16101
title, compensation, expense allowances, hours, leaves of absence, 16102
and vacation of the personnel of the division and shall fix their 16103
duties. The duties of the personnel, in addition to other 16104
statutory duties, include the handling, servicing, and 16105
investigation of juvenile cases and providing any counseling, 16106
conciliation, and mediation services that the court makes 16107
available to persons, whether or not the persons are parties to an 16108
action pending in the court, who request the services.16109

       (H) In Stark county, the judges of the court of common pleas 16110
whose terms begin on January 1, 1953, January 2, 1959, and January 16111
1, 1993, and successors, shall have the same qualifications, 16112
exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, and receive the same 16113
compensation as other judges of the court of common pleas of Stark 16114
county and shall be elected and designated as judges of the court 16115
of common pleas, division of domestic relations. They shall have 16116
all the powers relating to juvenile courts, and all cases under 16117
Chapters 2151. and 2152. of the Revised Code, all parentage 16118
proceedings over which the juvenile court has jurisdiction, and 16119
all divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and 16120
annulment cases, except cases that are assigned to some other 16121
judge of the court of common pleas for some special reason, shall 16122
be assigned to the judges.16123

       The judge of the division of domestic relations, second most 16124
senior in point of service, shall have charge of the employment 16125
and supervision of the personnel of the division engaged in 16126
handling, servicing, or investigating divorce, dissolution of 16127
marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases, and necessary 16128
referees required for the judge's respective court.16129

       The judge of the division of domestic relations, senior in 16130
point of service, shall be charged exclusively with the 16131
administration of sections 2151.13, 2151.16, 2151.17, and 2152.71 16132
of the Revised Code and with the assignment and division of the 16133
work of the division and the employment and supervision of all 16134
other personnel of the division, including, but not limited to, 16135
that judge's necessary referees, but excepting those employees who 16136
may be appointed by the judge second most senior in point of 16137
service. The senior judge further shall serve in every other 16138
position in which the statutes permit or require a juvenile judge 16139
to serve.16140

       (I) In Summit county:16141

       (1) The judges of the court of common pleas whose terms begin 16142
on January 4, 1967, and January 6, 1993, and successors, shall 16143
have the same qualifications, exercise the same powers and 16144
jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as other judges of 16145
the court of common pleas of Summit county and shall be elected 16146
and designated as judges of the court of common pleas, division of 16147
domestic relations. The judges of the division of domestic 16148
relations shall have assigned to them and hear all divorce, 16149
dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases 16150
that come before the court. Except in cases that are subject to 16151
the exclusive original jurisdiction of the juvenile court, the 16152
judges of the division of domestic relations shall have assigned 16153
to them and hear all cases pertaining to paternity, custody, 16154
visitation, child support, or the allocation of parental rights 16155
and responsibilities for the care of children and all post-decree 16156
proceedings arising from any case pertaining to any of those 16157
matters. The judges of the division of domestic relations shall 16158
have assigned to them and hear all proceedings under the uniform 16159
interstate family support act contained in Chapter 3115. of the 16160
Revised Code.16161

       The judge of the division of domestic relations, senior in 16162
point of service, shall be the administrator of the domestic 16163
relations division and its subdivisions and departments and shall 16164
have charge of the employment, assignment, and supervision of the 16165
personnel of the division, including any necessary referees, who 16166
are engaged in handling, servicing, or investigating divorce, 16167
dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases. 16168
That judge also shall designate the title, compensation, expense 16169
allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacations of the 16170
personnel of the division and shall fix their duties. The duties 16171
of the personnel, in addition to other statutory duties, shall 16172
include the handling, servicing, and investigation of divorce, 16173
dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases and 16174
of any counseling and conciliation services that are available 16175
upon request to all persons, whether or not they are parties to an 16176
action pending in the division.16177

       (2) The judge of the court of common pleas whose term begins 16178
on January 1, 1955, and successors, shall have the same 16179
qualifications, exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, and 16180
receive the same compensation as other judges of the court of 16181
common pleas of Summit county, shall be elected and designated as 16182
judge of the court of common pleas, juvenile division, and shall 16183
be, and have the powers and jurisdiction of, the juvenile judge as 16184
provided in Chapters 2151. and 2152. of the Revised Code. Except 16185
in cases that are subject to the exclusive original jurisdiction 16186
of the juvenile court, the judge of the juvenile division shall 16187
not have jurisdiction or the power to hear, and shall not be 16188
assigned, any case pertaining to paternity, custody, visitation, 16189
child support, or the allocation of parental rights and 16190
responsibilities for the care of children or any post-decree 16191
proceeding arising from any case pertaining to any of those 16192
matters. The judge of the juvenile division shall not have 16193
jurisdiction or the power to hear, and shall not be assigned, any 16194
proceeding under the uniform interstate family support act 16195
contained in Chapter 3115. of the Revised Code.16196

       The juvenile judge shall be the administrator of the juvenile 16197
division and its subdivisions and departments and shall have 16198
charge of the employment, assignment, and supervision of the 16199
personnel of the juvenile division, including any necessary 16200
referees, who are engaged in handling, servicing, or investigating 16201
juvenile cases. The judge also shall designate the title, 16202
compensation, expense allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and 16203
vacation of the personnel of the division and shall fix their 16204
duties. The duties of the personnel, in addition to other 16205
statutory duties, shall include the handling, servicing, and 16206
investigation of juvenile cases and of any counseling and 16207
conciliation services that are available upon request to persons, 16208
whether or not they are parties to an action pending in the 16209
division.16210

       (J) In Trumbull county, the judges of the court of common 16211
pleas whose terms begin on January 1, 1953, and January 2, 1977, 16212
and successors, shall have the same qualifications, exercise the 16213
same powers and jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as 16214
other judges of the court of common pleas of Trumbull county and 16215
shall be elected and designated as judges of the court of common 16216
pleas, division of domestic relations. They shall have all the 16217
powers relating to juvenile courts, and all cases under Chapters 16218
2151. and 2152. of the Revised Code, all parentage proceedings 16219
over which the juvenile court has jurisdiction, and all divorce, 16220
dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases 16221
shall be assigned to them, except cases that for some special 16222
reason are assigned to some other judge of the court of common 16223
pleas.16224

       (K) In Butler county:16225

       (1) The judges of the court of common pleas whose terms begin 16226
on January 1, 1957, and January 4, 1993, and successors, shall 16227
have the same qualifications, exercise the same powers and 16228
jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as other judges of 16229
the court of common pleas of Butler county and shall be elected 16230
and designated as judges of the court of common pleas, division of 16231
domestic relations. The judges of the division of domestic 16232
relations shall have assigned to them all divorce, dissolution of 16233
marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases coming before the 16234
court, except in cases that for some special reason are assigned 16235
to some other judge of the court of common pleas. The judges of 16236
the division of domestic relations also have concurrent 16237
jurisdiction with judges of the juvenile division of the court of 16238
common pleas of Butler county with respect to and may hear cases 16239
to determine the custody, support, or custody and support of a 16240
child who is born of issue of a marriage and who is not the ward 16241
of another court of this state, cases commenced by a party of the 16242
marriage to obtain an order requiring support of any child when 16243
the request for that order is not ancillary to an action for 16244
divorce, dissolution of marriage, annulment, or legal separation, 16245
a criminal or civil action involving an allegation of domestic 16246
violence, an action for support under Chapter 3115. of the Revised 16247
Code, or an action that is within the exclusive original 16248
jurisdiction of the juvenile division of the court of common pleas 16249
of Butler county and that involves an allegation that the child is 16250
an abused, neglected, or dependent child, and post-decree 16251
proceedings and matters arising from those types of cases. The 16252
judge senior in point of service shall be charged with the 16253
assignment and division of the work of the division and with the 16254
employment and supervision of all other personnel of the domestic 16255
relations division.16256

       The judge senior in point of service also shall designate the 16257
title, compensation, expense allowances, hours, leaves of absence, 16258
and vacations of the personnel of the division and shall fix their 16259
duties. The duties of the personnel, in addition to other 16260
statutory duties, shall include the handling, servicing, and 16261
investigation of divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal 16262
separation, and annulment cases and providing any counseling and 16263
conciliation services that the division makes available to 16264
persons, whether or not the persons are parties to an action 16265
pending in the division, who request the services.16266

       (2) The judges of the court of common pleas whose terms begin 16267
on January 3, 1987, and January 2, 2003, and successors, shall 16268
have the same qualifications, exercise the same powers and 16269
jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as other judges of 16270
the court of common pleas of Butler county, shall be elected and 16271
designated as judges of the court of common pleas, juvenile 16272
division, and shall be the juvenile judges as provided in Chapters 16273
2151. and 2152. of the Revised Code, with the powers and 16274
jurisdictions conferred by those chapters. Except in cases that 16275
are subject to the exclusive original jurisdiction of the juvenile 16276
court, the judges of the juvenile division shall not have 16277
jurisdiction or the power to hear and shall not be assigned, but 16278
shall have the limited ability and authority to certify, any case 16279
commenced by a party of a marriage to determine the custody, 16280
support, or custody and support of a child who is born of issue of 16281
the marriage and who is not the ward of another court of this 16282
state when the request for the order in the case is not ancillary 16283
to an action for divorce, dissolution of marriage, annulment, or 16284
legal separation. The judge of the court of common pleas, juvenile 16285
division, who is senior in point of service, shall be the 16286
administrator of the juvenile division and its subdivisions and 16287
departments. The judge, senior in point of service, shall have 16288
charge of the employment, assignment, and supervision of the 16289
personnel of the juvenile division who are engaged in handling, 16290
servicing, or investigating juvenile cases, including any referees 16291
whom the judge considers necessary for the discharge of the 16292
judge's various duties.16293

       The judge, senior in point of service, also shall designate 16294
the title, compensation, expense allowances, hours, leaves of 16295
absence, and vacation of the personnel of the division and shall 16296
fix their duties. The duties of the personnel, in addition to 16297
other statutory duties, include the handling, servicing, and 16298
investigation of juvenile cases and providing any counseling and 16299
conciliation services that the division makes available to 16300
persons, whether or not the persons are parties to an action 16301
pending in the division, who request the services.16302

       (3) If a judge of the court of common pleas, division of 16303
domestic relations or juvenile division, is sick, absent, or 16304
unable to perform that judge's judicial duties or the volume of 16305
cases pending in the judge's division necessitates it, the duties 16306
of that judge shall be performed by the other judges of the 16307
domestic relations and juvenile divisions.16308

       (L)(1) In Cuyahoga county, the judges of the court of common 16309
pleas whose terms begin on January 8, 1961, January 9, 1961, 16310
January 18, 1975, January 19, 1975, and January 13, 1987, and 16311
successors, shall have the same qualifications, exercise the same 16312
powers and jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as 16313
other judges of the court of common pleas of Cuyahoga county and 16314
shall be elected and designated as judges of the court of common 16315
pleas, division of domestic relations. They shall have all the 16316
powers relating to all divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal 16317
separation, and annulment cases, except in cases that are assigned 16318
to some other judge of the court of common pleas for some special 16319
reason.16320

       (2) The administrative judge is administrator of the domestic 16321
relations division and its subdivisions and departments and has 16322
the following powers concerning division personnel:16323

       (a) Full charge of the employment, assignment, and 16324
supervision;16325

       (b) Sole determination of compensation, duties, expenses, 16326
allowances, hours, leaves, and vacations.16327

       (3) "Division personnel" include persons employed or referees 16328
engaged in hearing, servicing, investigating, counseling, or 16329
conciliating divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal separation 16330
and annulment matters.16331

       (M) In Lake county:16332

       (1) The judge of the court of common pleas whose term begins 16333
on January 2, 1961, and successors, shall have the same 16334
qualifications, exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, and 16335
receive the same compensation as the other judges of the court of 16336
common pleas of Lake county and shall be elected and designated as 16337
judge of the court of common pleas, division of domestic 16338
relations. The judge shall be assigned all the divorce, 16339
dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases 16340
coming before the court, except in cases that for some special 16341
reason are assigned to some other judge of the court of common 16342
pleas. The judge shall be charged with the assignment and division 16343
of the work of the division and with the employment and 16344
supervision of all other personnel of the domestic relations 16345
division.16346

       The judge also shall designate the title, compensation, 16347
expense allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacations of the 16348
personnel of the division and shall fix their duties. The duties 16349
of the personnel, in addition to other statutory duties, shall 16350
include the handling, servicing, and investigation of divorce, 16351
dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases and 16352
providing any counseling and conciliation services that the 16353
division makes available to persons, whether or not the persons 16354
are parties to an action pending in the division, who request the 16355
services.16356

       (2) The judge of the court of common pleas whose term begins 16357
on January 4, 1979, and successors, shall have the same 16358
qualifications, exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, and 16359
receive the same compensation as other judges of the court of 16360
common pleas of Lake county, shall be elected and designated as 16361
judge of the court of common pleas, juvenile division, and shall 16362
be the juvenile judge as provided in Chapters 2151. and 2152. of 16363
the Revised Code, with the powers and jurisdictions conferred by 16364
those chapters. The judge of the court of common pleas, juvenile 16365
division, shall be the administrator of the juvenile division and 16366
its subdivisions and departments. The judge shall have charge of 16367
the employment, assignment, and supervision of the personnel of 16368
the juvenile division who are engaged in handling, servicing, or 16369
investigating juvenile cases, including any referees whom the 16370
judge considers necessary for the discharge of the judge's various 16371
duties.16372

       The judge also shall designate the title, compensation, 16373
expense allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacation of the 16374
personnel of the division and shall fix their duties. The duties 16375
of the personnel, in addition to other statutory duties, include 16376
the handling, servicing, and investigation of juvenile cases and 16377
providing any counseling and conciliation services that the 16378
division makes available to persons, whether or not the persons 16379
are parties to an action pending in the division, who request the 16380
services.16381

       (3) If a judge of the court of common pleas, division of 16382
domestic relations or juvenile division, is sick, absent, or 16383
unable to perform that judge's judicial duties or the volume of 16384
cases pending in the judge's division necessitates it, the duties 16385
of that judge shall be performed by the other judges of the 16386
domestic relations and juvenile divisions.16387

       (N) In Erie county:16388

       (1) The judge of the court of common pleas whose term begins 16389
on January 2, 1971, and the successors to that judge whose terms 16390
begin before January 2, 2007, shall have the same qualifications, 16391
exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, and receive the same 16392
compensation as the other judge of the court of common pleas of 16393
Erie county and shall be elected and designated as judge of the 16394
court of common pleas, division of domestic relations. The judge 16395
shall have all the powers relating to juvenile courts, and shall 16396
be assigned all cases under Chapters 2151. and 2152. of the 16397
Revised Code, parentage proceedings over which the juvenile court 16398
has jurisdiction, and divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal 16399
separation, and annulment cases, except cases that for some 16400
special reason are assigned to some other judge.16401

        On or after January 2, 2007, the judge of the court of common 16402
pleas who is elected in 2006 shall be the successor to the judge 16403
of the domestic relations division whose term expires on January 16404
1, 2007, shall be designated as judge of the court of common 16405
pleas, juvenile division, and shall be the juvenile judge as 16406
provided in Chapters 2151. and 2152. of the Revised Code with the 16407
powers and jurisdictions conferred by those chapters.16408

        (2) The judge of the court of common pleas, general division, 16409
whose term begins on January 1, 2005, and successors, the judge of 16410
the court of common pleas, general division whose term begins on 16411
January 2, 2005, and successors, and the judge of the court of 16412
common pleas, general division, whose term begins February 9, 16413
2009, and successors, shall have assigned to them, in addition to 16414
all matters that are within the jurisdiction of the general 16415
division of the court of common pleas, all divorce, dissolution of 16416
marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases coming before the 16417
court, and all matters that are within the jurisdiction of the 16418
probate court under Chapter 2101., and other provisions, of the 16419
Revised Code.16420

       (O) In Greene county:16421

       (1) The judge of the court of common pleas whose term begins 16422
on January 1, 1961, and successors, shall have the same 16423
qualifications, exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, and 16424
receive the same compensation as the other judges of the court of 16425
common pleas of Greene county and shall be elected and designated 16426
as the judge of the court of common pleas, division of domestic 16427
relations. The judge shall be assigned all divorce, dissolution of 16428
marriage, legal separation, annulment, uniform reciprocal support 16429
enforcement, and domestic violence cases and all other cases 16430
related to domestic relations, except cases that for some special 16431
reason are assigned to some other judge of the court of common 16432
pleas.16433

       The judge shall be charged with the assignment and division 16434
of the work of the division and with the employment and 16435
supervision of all other personnel of the division. The judge also 16436
shall designate the title, compensation, hours, leaves of absence, 16437
and vacations of the personnel of the division and shall fix their 16438
duties. The duties of the personnel of the division, in addition 16439
to other statutory duties, shall include the handling, servicing, 16440
and investigation of divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal 16441
separation, and annulment cases and the provision of counseling 16442
and conciliation services that the division considers necessary 16443
and makes available to persons who request the services, whether 16444
or not the persons are parties in an action pending in the 16445
division. The compensation for the personnel shall be paid from 16446
the overall court budget and shall be included in the 16447
appropriations for the existing judges of the general division of 16448
the court of common pleas.16449

       (2) The judge of the court of common pleas whose term begins 16450
on January 1, 1995, and successors, shall have the same 16451
qualifications, exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, and 16452
receive the same compensation as the other judges of the court of 16453
common pleas of Greene county, shall be elected and designated as 16454
judge of the court of common pleas, juvenile division, and, on or 16455
after January 1, 1995, shall be the juvenile judge as provided in 16456
Chapters 2151. and 2152. of the Revised Code with the powers and 16457
jurisdiction conferred by those chapters. The judge of the court 16458
of common pleas, juvenile division, shall be the administrator of 16459
the juvenile division and its subdivisions and departments. The 16460
judge shall have charge of the employment, assignment, and 16461
supervision of the personnel of the juvenile division who are 16462
engaged in handling, servicing, or investigating juvenile cases, 16463
including any referees whom the judge considers necessary for the 16464
discharge of the judge's various duties.16465

       The judge also shall designate the title, compensation, 16466
expense allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacation of the 16467
personnel of the division and shall fix their duties. The duties 16468
of the personnel, in addition to other statutory duties, include 16469
the handling, servicing, and investigation of juvenile cases and 16470
providing any counseling and conciliation services that the court 16471
makes available to persons, whether or not the persons are parties 16472
to an action pending in the court, who request the services.16473

       (3) If one of the judges of the court of common pleas, 16474
general division, is sick, absent, or unable to perform that 16475
judge's judicial duties or the volume of cases pending in the 16476
general division necessitates it, the duties of that judge of the 16477
general division shall be performed by the judge of the division 16478
of domestic relations and the judge of the juvenile division.16479

       (P) In Portage county, the judge of the court of common 16480
pleas, whose term begins January 2, 1987, and successors, shall 16481
have the same qualifications, exercise the same powers and 16482
jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as the other 16483
judges of the court of common pleas of Portage county and shall be 16484
elected and designated as judge of the court of common pleas, 16485
division of domestic relations. The judge shall be assigned all 16486
divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment 16487
cases coming before the court, except in cases that for some 16488
special reason are assigned to some other judge of the court of 16489
common pleas. The judge shall be charged with the assignment and 16490
division of the work of the division and with the employment and 16491
supervision of all other personnel of the domestic relations 16492
division.16493

       The judge also shall designate the title, compensation, 16494
expense allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacations of the 16495
personnel of the division and shall fix their duties. The duties 16496
of the personnel, in addition to other statutory duties, shall 16497
include the handling, servicing, and investigation of divorce, 16498
dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases and 16499
providing any counseling and conciliation services that the 16500
division makes available to persons, whether or not the persons 16501
are parties to an action pending in the division, who request the 16502
services.16503

       (Q) In Clermont county, the judge of the court of common 16504
pleas, whose term begins January 2, 1987, and successors, shall 16505
have the same qualifications, exercise the same powers and 16506
jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as the other 16507
judges of the court of common pleas of Clermont county and shall 16508
be elected and designated as judge of the court of common pleas, 16509
division of domestic relations. The judge shall be assigned all 16510
divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment 16511
cases coming before the court, except in cases that for some 16512
special reason are assigned to some other judge of the court of 16513
common pleas. The judge shall be charged with the assignment and 16514
division of the work of the division and with the employment and 16515
supervision of all other personnel of the domestic relations 16516
division.16517

       The judge also shall designate the title, compensation, 16518
expense allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacations of the 16519
personnel of the division and shall fix their duties. The duties 16520
of the personnel, in addition to other statutory duties, shall 16521
include the handling, servicing, and investigation of divorce, 16522
dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases and 16523
providing any counseling and conciliation services that the 16524
division makes available to persons, whether or not the persons 16525
are parties to an action pending in the division, who request the 16526
services.16527

       (R) In Warren county, the judge of the court of common pleas, 16528
whose term begins January 1, 1987, and successors, shall have the 16529
same qualifications, exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, 16530
and receive the same compensation as the other judges of the court 16531
of common pleas of Warren county and shall be elected and 16532
designated as judge of the court of common pleas, division of 16533
domestic relations. The judge shall be assigned all divorce, 16534
dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases 16535
coming before the court, except in cases that for some special 16536
reason are assigned to some other judge of the court of common 16537
pleas. The judge shall be charged with the assignment and division 16538
of the work of the division and with the employment and 16539
supervision of all other personnel of the domestic relations 16540
division.16541

       The judge also shall designate the title, compensation, 16542
expense allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacations of the 16543
personnel of the division and shall fix their duties. The duties 16544
of the personnel, in addition to other statutory duties, shall 16545
include the handling, servicing, and investigation of divorce, 16546
dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases and 16547
providing any counseling and conciliation services that the 16548
division makes available to persons, whether or not the persons 16549
are parties to an action pending in the division, who request the 16550
services.16551

       (S) In Licking county, the judges of the court of common 16552
pleas, whose terms begin on January 1, 1991, and January 1, 2005, 16553
and successors, shall have the same qualifications, exercise the 16554
same powers and jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as 16555
the other judges of the court of common pleas of Licking county 16556
and shall be elected and designated as judges of the court of 16557
common pleas, division of domestic relations. The judges shall be 16558
assigned all divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal separation, 16559
and annulment cases, all cases arising under Chapter 3111. of the 16560
Revised Code, all proceedings involving child support, the 16561
allocation of parental rights and responsibilities for the care of 16562
children and the designation for the children of a place of 16563
residence and legal custodian, parenting time, and visitation, and 16564
all post-decree proceedings and matters arising from those cases 16565
and proceedings, except in cases that for some special reason are 16566
assigned to another judge of the court of common pleas. The 16567
administrative judge of the division of domestic relations shall 16568
be charged with the assignment and division of the work of the 16569
division and with the employment and supervision of the personnel 16570
of the division.16571

       The administrative judge of the division of domestic 16572
relations shall designate the title, compensation, expense 16573
allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacations of the 16574
personnel of the division and shall fix the duties of the 16575
personnel of the division. The duties of the personnel of the 16576
division, in addition to other statutory duties, shall include the 16577
handling, servicing, and investigation of divorce, dissolution of 16578
marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases, cases arising 16579
under Chapter 3111. of the Revised Code, and proceedings involving 16580
child support, the allocation of parental rights and 16581
responsibilities for the care of children and the designation for 16582
the children of a place of residence and legal custodian, 16583
parenting time, and visitation and providing any counseling and 16584
conciliation services that the division makes available to 16585
persons, whether or not the persons are parties to an action 16586
pending in the division, who request the services.16587

       (T) In Allen county, the judge of the court of common pleas, 16588
whose term begins January 1, 1993, and successors, shall have the 16589
same qualifications, exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, 16590
and receive the same compensation as the other judges of the court 16591
of common pleas of Allen county and shall be elected and 16592
designated as judge of the court of common pleas, division of 16593
domestic relations. The judge shall be assigned all divorce, 16594
dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases, 16595
all cases arising under Chapter 3111. of the Revised Code, all 16596
proceedings involving child support, the allocation of parental 16597
rights and responsibilities for the care of children and the 16598
designation for the children of a place of residence and legal 16599
custodian, parenting time, and visitation, and all post-decree 16600
proceedings and matters arising from those cases and proceedings, 16601
except in cases that for some special reason are assigned to 16602
another judge of the court of common pleas. The judge shall be 16603
charged with the assignment and division of the work of the 16604
division and with the employment and supervision of the personnel 16605
of the division.16606

       The judge shall designate the title, compensation, expense 16607
allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacations of the 16608
personnel of the division and shall fix the duties of the 16609
personnel of the division. The duties of the personnel of the 16610
division, in addition to other statutory duties, shall include the 16611
handling, servicing, and investigation of divorce, dissolution of 16612
marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases, cases arising 16613
under Chapter 3111. of the Revised Code, and proceedings involving 16614
child support, the allocation of parental rights and 16615
responsibilities for the care of children and the designation for 16616
the children of a place of residence and legal custodian, 16617
parenting time, and visitation, and providing any counseling and 16618
conciliation services that the division makes available to 16619
persons, whether or not the persons are parties to an action 16620
pending in the division, who request the services.16621

       (U) In Medina county, the judge of the court of common pleas 16622
whose term begins January 1, 1995, and successors, shall have the 16623
same qualifications, exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, 16624
and receive the same compensation as other judges of the court of 16625
common pleas of Medina county and shall be elected and designated 16626
as judge of the court of common pleas, division of domestic 16627
relations. The judge shall be assigned all divorce, dissolution of 16628
marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases, all cases arising 16629
under Chapter 3111. of the Revised Code, all proceedings involving 16630
child support, the allocation of parental rights and 16631
responsibilities for the care of children and the designation for 16632
the children of a place of residence and legal custodian, 16633
parenting time, and visitation, and all post-decree proceedings 16634
and matters arising from those cases and proceedings, except in 16635
cases that for some special reason are assigned to another judge 16636
of the court of common pleas. The judge shall be charged with the 16637
assignment and division of the work of the division and with the 16638
employment and supervision of the personnel of the division.16639

       The judge shall designate the title, compensation, expense 16640
allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacations of the 16641
personnel of the division and shall fix the duties of the 16642
personnel of the division. The duties of the personnel, in 16643
addition to other statutory duties, include the handling, 16644
servicing, and investigation of divorce, dissolution of marriage, 16645
legal separation, and annulment cases, cases arising under Chapter 16646
3111. of the Revised Code, and proceedings involving child 16647
support, the allocation of parental rights and responsibilities 16648
for the care of children and the designation for the children of a 16649
place of residence and legal custodian, parenting time, and 16650
visitation, and providing counseling and conciliation services 16651
that the division makes available to persons, whether or not the 16652
persons are parties to an action pending in the division, who 16653
request the services.16654

       (V) In Fairfield county, the judge of the court of common 16655
pleas whose term begins January 2, 1995, and successors, shall 16656
have the same qualifications, exercise the same powers and 16657
jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as the other 16658
judges of the court of common pleas of Fairfield county and shall 16659
be elected and designated as judge of the court of common pleas, 16660
division of domestic relations. The judge shall be assigned all 16661
divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment 16662
cases, all cases arising under Chapter 3111. of the Revised Code, 16663
all proceedings involving child support, the allocation of 16664
parental rights and responsibilities for the care of children and 16665
the designation for the children of a place of residence and legal 16666
custodian, parenting time, and visitation, and all post-decree 16667
proceedings and matters arising from those cases and proceedings, 16668
except in cases that for some special reason are assigned to 16669
another judge of the court of common pleas. The judge also has 16670
concurrent jurisdiction with the probate-juvenile division of the 16671
court of common pleas of Fairfield county with respect to and may 16672
hear cases to determine the custody of a child, as defined in 16673
section 2151.011 of the Revised Code, who is not the ward of 16674
another court of this state, cases that are commenced by a parent, 16675
guardian, or custodian of a child, as defined in section 2151.011 16676
of the Revised Code, to obtain an order requiring a parent of the 16677
child to pay child support for that child when the request for 16678
that order is not ancillary to an action for divorce, dissolution 16679
of marriage, annulment, or legal separation, a criminal or civil 16680
action involving an allegation of domestic violence, an action for 16681
support under Chapter 3115. of the Revised Code, or an action that 16682
is within the exclusive original jurisdiction of the 16683
probate-juvenile division of the court of common pleas of 16684
Fairfield county and that involves an allegation that the child is 16685
an abused, neglected, or dependent child, and post-decree 16686
proceedings and matters arising from those types of cases.16687

       The judge of the domestic relations division shall be charged 16688
with the assignment and division of the work of the division and 16689
with the employment and supervision of the personnel of the 16690
division.16691

       The judge shall designate the title, compensation, expense 16692
allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacations of the 16693
personnel of the division and shall fix the duties of the 16694
personnel of the division. The duties of the personnel of the 16695
division, in addition to other statutory duties, shall include the 16696
handling, servicing, and investigation of divorce, dissolution of 16697
marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases, cases arising 16698
under Chapter 3111. of the Revised Code, and proceedings involving 16699
child support, the allocation of parental rights and 16700
responsibilities for the care of children and the designation for 16701
the children of a place of residence and legal custodian, 16702
parenting time, and visitation, and providing any counseling and 16703
conciliation services that the division makes available to 16704
persons, regardless of whether the persons are parties to an 16705
action pending in the division, who request the services. When the 16706
judge hears a case to determine the custody of a child, as defined 16707
in section 2151.011 of the Revised Code, who is not the ward of 16708
another court of this state or a case that is commenced by a 16709
parent, guardian, or custodian of a child, as defined in section 16710
2151.011 of the Revised Code, to obtain an order requiring a 16711
parent of the child to pay child support for that child when the 16712
request for that order is not ancillary to an action for divorce, 16713
dissolution of marriage, annulment, or legal separation, a 16714
criminal or civil action involving an allegation of domestic 16715
violence, an action for support under Chapter 3115. of the Revised 16716
Code, or an action that is within the exclusive original 16717
jurisdiction of the probate-juvenile division of the court of 16718
common pleas of Fairfield county and that involves an allegation 16719
that the child is an abused, neglected, or dependent child, the 16720
duties of the personnel of the domestic relations division also 16721
include the handling, servicing, and investigation of those types 16722
of cases.16723

       (W)(1) In Clark county, the judge of the court of common 16724
pleas whose term begins on January 2, 1995, and successors, shall 16725
have the same qualifications, exercise the same powers and 16726
jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as other judges of 16727
the court of common pleas of Clark county and shall be elected and 16728
designated as judge of the court of common pleas, domestic 16729
relations division. The judge shall have all the powers relating 16730
to juvenile courts, and all cases under Chapters 2151. and 2152. 16731
of the Revised Code and all parentage proceedings under Chapter 16732
3111. of the Revised Code over which the juvenile court has 16733
jurisdiction shall be assigned to the judge of the division of 16734
domestic relations. All divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal 16735
separation, annulment, uniform reciprocal support enforcement, and 16736
other cases related to domestic relations shall be assigned to the 16737
domestic relations division, and the presiding judge of the court 16738
of common pleas shall assign the cases to the judge of the 16739
domestic relations division and the judges of the general 16740
division.16741

       (2) In addition to the judge's regular duties, the judge of 16742
the division of domestic relations shall serve on the children 16743
services board and the county advisory board.16744

       (3) If the judge of the court of common pleas of Clark 16745
county, division of domestic relations, is sick, absent, or unable 16746
to perform that judge's judicial duties or if the presiding judge 16747
of the court of common pleas of Clark county determines that the 16748
volume of cases pending in the division of domestic relations 16749
necessitates it, the duties of the judge of the division of 16750
domestic relations shall be performed by the judges of the general 16751
division or probate division of the court of common pleas of Clark 16752
county, as assigned for that purpose by the presiding judge of 16753
that court, and the judges so assigned shall act in conjunction 16754
with the judge of the division of domestic relations of that 16755
court.16756

       (X) In Scioto county, the judge of the court of common pleas 16757
whose term begins January 2, 1995, and successors, shall have the 16758
same qualifications, exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, 16759
and receive the same compensation as other judges of the court of 16760
common pleas of Scioto county and shall be elected and designated 16761
as judge of the court of common pleas, division of domestic 16762
relations. The judge shall be assigned all divorce, dissolution of 16763
marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases, all cases arising 16764
under Chapter 3111. of the Revised Code, all proceedings involving 16765
child support, the allocation of parental rights and 16766
responsibilities for the care of children and the designation for 16767
the children of a place of residence and legal custodian, 16768
parenting time, visitation, and all post-decree proceedings and 16769
matters arising from those cases and proceedings, except in cases 16770
that for some special reason are assigned to another judge of the 16771
court of common pleas. The judge shall be charged with the 16772
assignment and division of the work of the division and with the 16773
employment and supervision of the personnel of the division.16774

       The judge shall designate the title, compensation, expense 16775
allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacations of the 16776
personnel of the division and shall fix the duties of the 16777
personnel of the division. The duties of the personnel, in 16778
addition to other statutory duties, include the handling, 16779
servicing, and investigation of divorce, dissolution of marriage, 16780
legal separation, and annulment cases, cases arising under Chapter 16781
3111. of the Revised Code, and proceedings involving child 16782
support, the allocation of parental rights and responsibilities 16783
for the care of children and the designation for the children of a 16784
place of residence and legal custodian, parenting time, and 16785
visitation, and providing counseling and conciliation services 16786
that the division makes available to persons, whether or not the 16787
persons are parties to an action pending in the division, who 16788
request the services.16789

       (Y) In Auglaize county, the judge of the probate and juvenile 16790
divisions of the Auglaize county court of common pleas also shall 16791
be the administrative judge of the domestic relations division of 16792
the court and shall be assigned all divorce, dissolution of 16793
marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases coming before the 16794
court. The judge shall have all powers as administrator of the 16795
domestic relations division and shall have charge of the personnel 16796
engaged in handling, servicing, or investigating divorce, 16797
dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases, 16798
including any referees considered necessary for the discharge of 16799
the judge's various duties.16800

       (Z)(1) In Marion county, the judge of the court of common 16801
pleas whose term begins on February 9, 1999, and the successors to 16802
that judge, shall have the same qualifications, exercise the same 16803
powers and jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as the 16804
other judges of the court of common pleas of Marion county and 16805
shall be elected and designated as judge of the court of common 16806
pleas, domestic relations-juvenile-probate division. Except as 16807
otherwise specified in this division, that judge, and the 16808
successors to that judge, shall have all the powers relating to 16809
juvenile courts, and all cases under Chapters 2151. and 2152. of 16810
the Revised Code, all cases arising under Chapter 3111. of the 16811
Revised Code, all divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal 16812
separation, and annulment cases, all proceedings involving child 16813
support, the allocation of parental rights and responsibilities 16814
for the care of children and the designation for the children of a 16815
place of residence and legal custodian, parenting time, and 16816
visitation, and all post-decree proceedings and matters arising 16817
from those cases and proceedings shall be assigned to that judge 16818
and the successors to that judge. Except as provided in division 16819
(Z)(2) of this section and notwithstanding any other provision of 16820
any section of the Revised Code, on and after February 9, 2003, 16821
the judge of the court of common pleas of Marion county whose term 16822
begins on February 9, 1999, and the successors to that judge, 16823
shall have all the powers relating to the probate division of the 16824
court of common pleas of Marion county in addition to the powers 16825
previously specified in this division, and shall exercise 16826
concurrent jurisdiction with the judge of the probate division of 16827
that court over all matters that are within the jurisdiction of 16828
the probate division of that court under Chapter 2101., and other 16829
provisions, of the Revised Code in addition to the jurisdiction of 16830
the domestic relations-juvenile-probate division of that court 16831
otherwise specified in division (Z)(1) of this section.16832

       (2) The judge of the domestic relations-juvenile-probate 16833
division of the court of common pleas of Marion county or the 16834
judge of the probate division of the court of common pleas of 16835
Marion county, whichever of those judges is senior in total length 16836
of service on the court of common pleas of Marion county, 16837
regardless of the division or divisions of service, shall serve as 16838
the clerk of the probate division of the court of common pleas of 16839
Marion county.16840

       (3) On and after February 9, 2003, all references in law to 16841
"the probate court," "the probate judge," "the juvenile court," or 16842
"the judge of the juvenile court" shall be construed, with respect 16843
to Marion county, as being references to both "the probate 16844
division" and "the domestic relations-juvenile-probate division" 16845
and as being references to both "the judge of the probate 16846
division" and "the judge of the domestic relations- 16847
juvenile-probate division." On and after February 9, 2003, all 16848
references in law to "the clerk of the probate court" shall be 16849
construed, with respect to Marion county, as being references to 16850
the judge who is serving pursuant to division (Z)(2) of this 16851
section as the clerk of the probate division of the court of 16852
common pleas of Marion county.16853

       (AA) In Muskingum county, the judge of the court of common 16854
pleas whose term begins on January 2, 2003, and successors, shall 16855
have the same qualifications, exercise the same powers and 16856
jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as the other 16857
judges of the court of common pleas of Muskingum county and shall 16858
be elected and designated as the judge of the court of common 16859
pleas, division of domestic relations. The judge shall be assigned 16860
all divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and 16861
annulment cases, all cases arising under Chapter 3111. of the 16862
Revised Code, all proceedings involving child support, the 16863
allocation of parental rights and responsibilities for the care of 16864
children and the designation for the children of a place of 16865
residence and legal custodian, parenting time, and visitation, and 16866
all post-decree proceedings and matters arising from those cases 16867
and proceedings, except in cases that for some special reason are 16868
assigned to another judge of the court of common pleas. The judge 16869
shall be charged with the assignment and division of the work of 16870
the division and with the employment and supervision of the 16871
personnel of the division.16872

       The judge shall designate the title, compensation, expense 16873
allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacations of the 16874
personnel of the division and shall fix the duties of the 16875
personnel of the division. The duties of the personnel of the 16876
division, in addition to other statutory duties, shall include the 16877
handling, servicing, and investigation of divorce, dissolution of 16878
marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases, cases arising 16879
under Chapter 3111. of the Revised Code, and proceedings involving 16880
child support, the allocation of parental rights and 16881
responsibilities for the care of children and the designation for 16882
the children of a place of residence and legal custodian, 16883
parenting time, and visitation and providing any counseling and 16884
conciliation services that the division makes available to 16885
persons, whether or not the persons are parties to an action 16886
pending in the division, who request the services.16887

       (BB) In Henry county, the judge of the court of common pleas 16888
whose term begins on January 1, 2005, and successors, shall have 16889
the same qualifications, exercise the same powers and 16890
jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as the other judge 16891
of the court of common pleas of Henry county and shall be elected 16892
and designated as the judge of the court of common pleas, division 16893
of domestic relations. The judge shall have all of the powers 16894
relating to juvenile courts, and all cases under Chapter 2151. or 16895
2152. of the Revised Code, all parentage proceedings arising under 16896
Chapter 3111. of the Revised Code over which the juvenile court 16897
has jurisdiction, all divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal 16898
separation, and annulment cases, all proceedings involving child 16899
support, the allocation of parental rights and responsibilities 16900
for the care of children and the designation for the children of a 16901
place of residence and legal custodian, parenting time, and 16902
visitation, and all post-decree proceedings and matters arising 16903
from those cases and proceedings shall be assigned to that judge, 16904
except in cases that for some special reason are assigned to the 16905
other judge of the court of common pleas.16906

       (CC)(1) In Logan county, the judge of the court of common 16907
pleas whose term begins January 2, 2005, and the successors to 16908
that judge, shall have the same qualifications, exercise the same 16909
powers and jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as the 16910
other judges of the court of common pleas of Logan county and 16911
shall be elected and designated as judge of the court of common 16912
pleas, domestic relations-juvenile-probate division. Except as 16913
otherwise specified in this division, that judge, and the 16914
successors to that judge, shall have all the powers relating to 16915
juvenile courts, and all cases under Chapters 2151. and 2152. of 16916
the Revised Code, all cases arising under Chapter 3111. of the 16917
Revised Code, all divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal 16918
separation, and annulment cases, all proceedings involving child 16919
support, the allocation of parental rights and responsibilities 16920
for the care of children and designation for the children of a 16921
place of residence and legal custodian, parenting time, and 16922
visitation, and all post-decree proceedings and matters arising 16923
from those cases and proceedings shall be assigned to that judge 16924
and the successors to that judge. Notwithstanding any other 16925
provision of any section of the Revised Code, on and after January 16926
2, 2005, the judge of the court of common pleas of Logan county 16927
whose term begins on January 2, 2005, and the successors to that 16928
judge, shall have all the powers relating to the probate division 16929
of the court of common pleas of Logan county in addition to the 16930
powers previously specified in this division and shall exercise 16931
concurrent jurisdiction with the judge of the probate division of 16932
that court over all matters that are within the jurisdiction of 16933
the probate division of that court under Chapter 2101., and other 16934
provisions, of the Revised Code in addition to the jurisdiction of 16935
the domestic relations-juvenile-probate division of that court 16936
otherwise specified in division (CC)(1) of this section.16937

        (2) The judge of the domestic relations-juvenile-probate 16938
division of the court of common pleas of Logan county or the 16939
probate judge of the court of common pleas of Logan county who is 16940
elected as the administrative judge of the probate division of the 16941
court of common pleas of Logan county pursuant to Rule 4 of the 16942
Rules of Superintendence shall be the clerk of the probate 16943
division and juvenile division of the court of common pleas of 16944
Logan county. The clerk of the court of common pleas who is 16945
elected pursuant to section 2303.01 of the Revised Code shall keep 16946
all of the journals, records, books, papers, and files pertaining 16947
to the domestic relations cases.16948

        (3) On and after January 2, 2005, all references in law to 16949
"the probate court," "the probate judge," "the juvenile court," or 16950
"the judge of the juvenile court" shall be construed, with respect 16951
to Logan county, as being references to both "the probate 16952
division" and the "domestic relations-juvenile-probate division" 16953
and as being references to both "the judge of the probate 16954
division" and the "judge of the domestic 16955
relations-juvenile-probate division." On and after January 2, 16956
2005, all references in law to "the clerk of the probate court" 16957
shall be construed, with respect to Logan county, as being 16958
references to the judge who is serving pursuant to division 16959
(CC)(2) of this section as the clerk of the probate division of 16960
the court of common pleas of Logan county.16961

       (DD)(1) In Champaign county, the judge of the court of common 16962
pleas whose term begins February 9, 2003, and the judge of the 16963
court of common pleas whose term begins February 10, 2009, and the 16964
successors to those judges, shall have the same qualifications, 16965
exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, and receive the same 16966
compensation as the other judges of the court of common pleas of 16967
Champaign county and shall be elected and designated as judges of 16968
the court of common pleas, domestic relations-juvenile-probate 16969
division. Except as otherwise specified in this division, those 16970
judges, and the successors to those judges, shall have all the 16971
powers relating to juvenile courts, and all cases under Chapters 16972
2151. and 2152. of the Revised Code, all cases arising under 16973
Chapter 3111. of the Revised Code, all divorce, dissolution of 16974
marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases, all proceedings 16975
involving child support, the allocation of parental rights and 16976
responsibilities for the care of children and the designation for 16977
the children of a place of residence and legal custodian, 16978
parenting time, and visitation, and all post-decree proceedings 16979
and matters arising from those cases and proceedings shall be 16980
assigned to those judges and the successors to those judges. 16981
Notwithstanding any other provision of any section of the Revised 16982
Code, on and after February 9, 2009, the judges designated by this 16983
division as judges of the court of common pleas of Champaign 16984
county, domestic relations-juvenile-probate division, and the 16985
successors to those judges, shall have all the powers relating to 16986
probate courts in addition to the powers previously specified in 16987
this division and shall exercise jurisdiction over all matters 16988
that are within the jurisdiction of probate courts under Chapter 16989
2101., and other provisions, of the Revised Code in addition to 16990
the jurisdiction of the domestic relations-juvenile-probate 16991
division otherwise specified in division (DD)(1) of this section.16992

       (2) On and after February 9, 2009, all references in law to 16993
"the probate court," "the probate judge," "the juvenile court," or 16994
"the judge of the juvenile court" shall be construed with respect 16995
to Champaign county as being references to the "domestic 16996
relations-juvenile-probate division" and as being references to 16997
the "judge of the domestic relations-juvenile-probate division." 16998
On and after February 9, 2009, all references in law to "the clerk 16999
of the probate court" shall be construed with respect to Champaign 17000
county as being references to the judge who is serving pursuant to 17001
Rule 4 of the Rules of Superintendence for the Courts of Ohio as 17002
the administrative judge of the court of common pleas, domestic 17003
relations-juvenile-probate division.17004

       (EE) If a judge of the court of common pleas, division of 17005
domestic relations, or juvenile judge, of any of the counties 17006
mentioned in this section is sick, absent, or unable to perform 17007
that judge's judicial duties or the volume of cases pending in the 17008
judge's division necessitates it, the duties of that judge shall 17009
be performed by another judge of the court of common pleas of that 17010
county, assigned for that purpose by the presiding judge of the 17011
court of common pleas of that county to act in place of or in 17012
conjunction with that judge, as the case may require.17013

       Sec. 2301.18.  The court of common pleas shall appoint a17014
steongraphic reporter as the official shorthand reporter of such17015
the court, who shall hold the appointment for a term not exceeding 17016
three years from the date thereof, unless removed by the court,17017
after a good cause shown, for neglect of duty, misconduct in 17018
office, or incompetency. SuchThe court may appoint assistant 17019
reporters as the business of the court requires for terms not 17020
exceeding three years under one appointment. The official 17021
shorthand reporter and assistant reporters shall take an oath 17022
faithfully and impartially to discharge the duties of such 17023
positiontheir positions.17024

       Sec. 2301.20. Upon the trial of aAll civil orand criminal 17025
actionactions in the court of common pleas, if either party to 17026
the action or his attorney requests the services of a shorthand 17027
reporter, the trial judge shall grant the request, or may order a 17028
full report of the testimony or other proceedings. In either case, 17029
the shorthandshall be recorded. The reporter shall take accurate 17030
shorthand notes of or electronically record the oral testimony or 17031
other oral proceedings. The notes and electronic records shall be 17032
filed in the office of the official shorthand reporter and 17033
carefully preserved for either of the following periods of time:17034

       (A) If the action is not a capital case, the notes and 17035
electronic records shall be preserved for the period of time 17036
specified by the court of common pleas, which period of time shall 17037
not be longer than the period of time that the other records of 17038
the particular action are required to be kept;.17039

       (B) If the action is a capital case, the notes and electronic 17040
records shall be preserved for the longer of ten years or until 17041
the final disposition of the action and exhaustion of all appeals.17042

       Sec. 2301.21.  In every case reportedrecorded as provided in 17043
section 2301.20 of the Revised Code, there shall be taxed for each 17044
day's service of the official or assistant shorthand reporters a 17045
fee of twenty-five dollars, to be collected as other costs in the 17046
case. The fees so collected shall be paid quarterly by the clerk 17047
of the court of common pleas in which the cases were tried into 17048
the treasury of the county and shall be credited by the county 17049
treasurer to the general fund.17050

       Sec. 2301.22.  Each shorthand reporter shall receive suchthe17051
compensation asthat the court of common pleas making the 17052
appointment fixes. SuchThat compensation shall be in place of all 17053
per diem compensation in suchthose courts. In case suchthe17054
appointment is for a term of less than one year, suchthe court 17055
may allow a per diem compensation to be fixed by the court, plus 17056
actual and necessary expenses incurred, for each day such 17057
shorthandthe reporter is actually engaged in taking testimony or 17058
performing other duties under the orders of suchthe court, which 17059
allowance shall be in full payment for all services so rendered.17060

       The county auditor shall issue warrants on the county 17061
treasurer for the payment of suchthe compensation under this 17062
section in equal monthly installments, whenif the compensation is 17063
allowed annually, and when in case of services per diem, for the 17064
amount of the bill approved by the court, from the general fund 17065
upon the presentation of a certified copy of the journal entry of 17066
appointment and compensation of such shorthandthe reporters.17067

       Sec. 2301.23.  When shorthand notes have been taken or an 17068
electronic recording has been made in a case as provided in 17069
section 2301.20 of the Revised Code, if the court, or either party 17070
to the suit or his attorney, requests written transcripts of any 17071
portion of such notes in longhandthe proceeding, the shorthand17072
reporter reporting the case shall make full and accurate 17073
transcripts of the notes for the use of such court or partyor 17074
electronic recording. The court may direct the official shorthand17075
reporter to furnish to the court and the parties copies of 17076
decisions rendered and charges delivered by the court in pending 17077
cases.17078

       When the compensation for transcripts, copies of decisions, 17079
or charges is taxed as a part of the costs, suchthe transcripts, 17080
copies of decisions, and charges shall remain on file with the 17081
papers of the case.17082

       Sec. 2301.24.  The compensation of shorthand reporters for 17083
making written transcripts and copies as provided in section 17084
2301.23 of the Revised Code shall be fixed by the judges of the 17085
court of common pleas of the county whereinin which the trial is17086
hadheld. SuchIf more than one transcript of the same testimony 17087
or proceeding is ordered, the reporter shall make copies of the 17088
transcript at cost pursuant to division (B)(1) of section 149.43 17089
of the Revised Code or shall provide an electronic copy of the 17090
transcript free of charge. The compensation shall be paid 17091
forthwith by the party for whose benefit a transcript is made. The 17092
compensation for transcripts of testimony requested by the 17093
prosecuting attorney during trialor an indigent defendant in 17094
criminal cases or by the trial judge, in either civil or criminal 17095
cases, and for copies of decisions and charges furnished by 17096
direction of the court shall be paid from the county treasury, and 17097
taxed and collected as costs.17098

       Sec. 2301.25.  When ordered by the prosecuting attorney or 17099
the defendant in a criminal trial,case or when ordered by a judge 17100
of the court of common pleas for his use, in either civil or 17101
criminal cases, the costs of transcripts mentioned in section 17102
2301.23 of the Revised Code, shall be taxed as costs in the case, 17103
collected as other costs, whether suchthe transcripts have been 17104
prepaid or not, as provided by section 2301.24 of the Revised 17105
Code, and paid by the clerk of the court of common pleas,17106
quarterly, into the county treasury, and credited to the general 17107
fund. If, upon final judgment, the costs or any part thereof shall 17108
beof the costs are adjudged against a defendant in a criminal 17109
case, hethe defendant shall be allowed credit on the cost bill of 17110
the amount paid by him for the transcript hethe defendant ordered 17111
and, if the costs are finally adjudged against the state, the 17112
defendant shall have histhe defendant's deposit refunded. When 17113
more than one transcript of the same testimony or proceedings is 17114
ordered at the same time by the same party, or by the court, the 17115
compensation for making such additional transcript shall be 17116
one-half the compensation allowed for the first copy, and shall be 17117
paid for in the same manner except that where ordered by the same 17118
party only the cost of the original shall be taxed as costs. All 17119
such transcripts shall be taken and received as prima-facie 17120
evidence of their correctness. WhenIf the testimony of witnesses 17121
is taken before the grand jury by shorthand reporters, they shall 17122
receive for suchthe transcripts as are ordered by the prosecuting 17123
attorney the same compensation per folio and be paid therefor in 17124
the same manner as provided in this section and section 2301.24 of 17125
the Revised Code.17126

       Sec. 2301.26. Shorthand reportersReporters appointed under 17127
sectionssection 2301.18 and 2301.19 of the Revised Code, may be 17128
appointed referees to take and report evidence in causes pending 17129
in any of the courts of this state. In the taking of evidence as 17130
such referees, theythe reporters may administer oaths to 17131
witnesses. They shall be furnished by the board of county 17132
commissioners with a suitable room in the courthouse, and with 17133
stationery, supplies and other equipment necessary infor the 17134
proper discharge of their duties and for the preservation of their17135
stenographic notes and electronic records. SuchThe notes and 17136
electronic records shall be the property of the county and 17137
carefully preserved in the office of the shorthand reporters.17138

       Sec. 2301.27.  (A)(1)(a) The court of common pleas may 17139
establish a county department of probation. The establishment of 17140
the department shall be entered upon the journal of the court, and 17141
the clerk of the court of common pleas shall certify a copy of the 17142
journal entry establishing the department to each elective officer 17143
and board of the county. The department shall consist of a chief 17144
probation officer and the number of other probation officers and 17145
employees, clerks, and stenographers that is fixed from time to 17146
time by the court. The court shall appoint those individuals, fix 17147
their salaries, and supervise their work. 17148

       (b) When appointing a chief probation officer, the court 17149
shall do all of the following:17150

       (i) Publicly advertise the position on the court's web site, 17151
including, but not limited to, the job description, qualifications 17152
for the position, and the application requirements;17153

       (ii) Conduct a competitive hiring process that adheres to 17154
state and federal equal employment opportunity laws;17155

       (iii) Review applicants who meet the posted qualifications 17156
and comply with the application requirements.17157

        (c) The court shall not appoint as a probation officer any 17158
person who does not possess the training, experience, and other 17159
qualifications prescribed by the adult parole authority created by 17160
section 5149.02 of the Revised Code. Probation officers have all 17161
the powers of regular police officers and shall perform any duties 17162
that are designated by the judge or judges of the court. All 17163
positions within the department of probation shall be in the 17164
classified service of the civil service of the county.17165

       (2) If two or more counties desire to jointly establish a 17166
probation department for those counties, the judges of the courts 17167
of common pleas of those counties may establish a probation 17168
department for those counties. If a probation department is 17169
established pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section to serve 17170
more than one county, the judges of the courts of common pleas 17171
that established the department shall designate the county 17172
treasurer of one of the counties served by the department as the 17173
treasurer to whom probation fees paid under section 2951.021 of 17174
the Revised Code are to be appropriated and transferred under 17175
division (A)(2) of section 321.44 of the Revised Code for deposit 17176
into the multicounty probation services fund established under 17177
division (B) of section 321.44 of the Revised Code.17178

       The cost of the administration and operation of a probation 17179
department established for two or more counties shall be prorated 17180
to the respective counties on the basis of population.17181

       (3) Probation officers shall receive, in addition to their 17182
respective salaries, their necessary and reasonable travel and 17183
other expenses incurred in the performance of their duties. Their 17184
salaries and expenses shall be paid monthly from the county 17185
treasury in the manner provided for the payment of the 17186
compensation of other appointees of the court.17187

       (4) ProbationAdult probation officers shall be trained in 17188
accordance with a set of minimum standards that are established by 17189
the adult parole authority of the department of rehabilitation and 17190
correction.17191

       (B)(1) In lieu of establishing a county department of 17192
probation under division (A) of this section and in lieu of 17193
entering into an agreement with the adult parole authority as 17194
described in division (B) of section 2301.32 of the Revised Code, 17195
the court of common pleas may request the board of county 17196
commissioners to contract with, and upon that request the board 17197
may contract with, any nonprofit, public or private agency, 17198
association, or organization for the provision of probation 17199
services and supervisory services for persons placed under 17200
community control sanctions. The contract shall specify that each 17201
individual providing the probation services and supervisory 17202
services shall possess the training, experience, and other 17203
qualifications prescribed by the adult parole authority. The 17204
individuals who provide the probation services and supervisory 17205
services shall not be included in the classified or unclassified 17206
civil service of the county.17207

       (2) In lieu of establishing a county department of probation 17208
under division (A) of this section and in lieu of entering into an 17209
agreement with the adult parole authority as described in division 17210
(B) of section 2301.32 of the Revised Code, the courts of common 17211
pleas of two or more adjoining counties jointly may request the 17212
boards of county commissioners of those counties to contract with, 17213
and upon that request the boards of county commissioners of two or 17214
more adjoining counties jointly may contract with, any nonprofit, 17215
public or private agency, association, or organization for the 17216
provision of probation services and supervisory services for 17217
persons placed under community control sanctions for those 17218
counties. The contract shall specify that each individual 17219
providing the probation services and supervisory services shall 17220
possess the training, experience, and other qualifications 17221
prescribed by the adult parole authority. The individuals who 17222
provide the probation services and supervisory services shall not 17223
be included in the classified or unclassified civil service of any 17224
of those counties.17225

       (C) The chief probation officer may grant permission to a 17226
probation officer to carry firearms when required in the discharge 17227
of official duties if the probation officer has successfully 17228
completed a basic firearm training program that is approved by the 17229
executive director of the Ohio peace officer training commission. 17230
A probation officer who has been granted permission to carry a 17231
firearm in the discharge of official duties, annually shall 17232
successfully complete a firearms requalification program in 17233
accordance with section 109.801 of the Revised Code.17234

       (D) As used in this section and sections 2301.28 to 2301.32 17235
of the Revised Code, "community control sanction" has the same 17236
meaning as in section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.17237

       Sec. 2301.271. (A) The adult parole authority of the 17238
department of rehabilitation and correction shall develop minimum 17239
standards for the training of adult probation officers as provided 17240
by section 2301.27 of the Revised Code. The adult parole authority 17241
shall consult and collaborate with the supreme court in developing 17242
the standards.17243

       (B) Within six months after the effective date of this 17244
sectionSeptember 30, 2011, the department of rehabilitation and 17245
correction shall make available a copy of the minimum standards to 17246
the following entities:17247

       (1) Every municipal court, county court, and court of common 17248
pleas;17249

       (2) Every probation department.17250

       Sec. 2301.571.  (A) A person who has been convicted of or 17251
pleaded guilty to an offense and who is confined in a 17252
community-based correctional facility or district community-based 17253
correctional facility, unless indigent, is financially responsible 17254
for the payment of any medical expense or service requested by and 17255
provided to that person.17256

       (B) Notwithstanding any contrary provision of section 2929.38 17257
of the Revised Code, the facility governing board of a 17258
community-based correctional facility or district community-based 17259
correctional facility shall establish a policy that requires any 17260
person who is not indigent and who is confined in the correctional 17261
facility to pay for any medical treatment or service requested by 17262
and provided to that person. The fee for the medical treatment or 17263
service shall not exceed the actual cost of the treatment or 17264
service provided. No person confined in a community-based 17265
correctional facility or district community-based correctional 17266
facility shall be denied any necessary medical care because of 17267
inability to pay for medical treatment or service.17268

       (C) Any fee paid by a person underNothing in this section 17269
shall be deducted fromcause a community-based correctional 17270
facility or district community-based correctional facility to be 17271
responsible for the payment of any medical or dental costs that 17272
the person is ordered to reimburse under a financial sanction 17273
imposed pursuant to section 2929.28 of the Revised Code or to 17274
repay under a policy adopted underother health care expenses 17275
incurred in connection with an offender who is serving a term in 17276
the facility pursuant to section 2929.372929.16 of the Revised 17277
Code.17278

       Sec. 2305.01.  Except as otherwise provided by this section 17279
or section 2305.03 of the Revised Code, the court of common pleas 17280
has original jurisdiction in all civil cases in which the sum or 17281
matter in dispute exceeds the exclusive original jurisdiction of 17282
county courts and appellate jurisdiction from the decisions of 17283
boards of county commissioners. The court of common pleas shall 17284
not have jurisdiction, in any tort action to which the amounts 17285
apply, to award punitive or exemplary damages that exceed the 17286
amounts set forth in section 2315.21 of the Revised Code. The 17287
court of common pleas shall not have jurisdiction in any tort 17288
action to which the limits apply to enter judgment on an award of 17289
compensatory damages for noneconomic loss in excess of the limits 17290
set forth in section 2315.18 of the Revised Code.17291

       The court of common pleas may on its own motion transfer for 17292
trial any action in the court to any municipal court in the county 17293
having concurrent jurisdiction of the subject matter of, and the 17294
parties to, the action, if the amount sought by the plaintiff does 17295
not exceed one thousand dollars and if the judge or presiding 17296
judge of the municipal court concurs in the proposed transfer. 17297
Upon the issuance of an order of transfer, the clerk of courts 17298
shall remove to the designated municipal court the entire case 17299
file. Any untaxed portion of the common pleas deposit for court 17300
costs shall be remitted to the municipal court by the clerk of 17301
courts to be applied in accordance with section 1901.26 of the 17302
Revised Code, and the costs taxed by the municipal court shall be 17303
added to any costs taxed in the common pleas court.17304

       The court of common pleas has jurisdiction in any action 17305
brought pursuant to division (I) of section 3733.114781.40 of the 17306
Revised Code if the residential premises that are the subject of 17307
the action are located within the territorial jurisdiction of the 17308
court.17309

       The courts of common pleas of Adams, Athens, Belmont, Brown, 17310
Clermont, Columbiana, Gallia, Hamilton, Jefferson, Lawrence, 17311
Meigs, Monroe, Scioto, and Washington counties have jurisdiction 17312
beyond the north or northwest shore of the Ohio river extending to 17313
the opposite shore line, between the extended boundary lines of 17314
any adjacent counties or adjacent state. Each of those courts of 17315
common pleas has concurrent jurisdiction on the Ohio river with 17316
any adjacent court of common pleas that borders on that river and 17317
with any court of Kentucky or of West Virginia that borders on the 17318
Ohio river and that has jurisdiction on the Ohio river under the 17319
law of Kentucky or the law of West Virginia, whichever is 17320
applicable, or under federal law.17321

       Sec. 2305.02. AThe court of common pleas in the county 17322
where the underlying criminal action was initiated has exclusive, 17323
original jurisdiction to hear and determine ana civil action or 17324
proceeding that is commenced by an individual who seeks a 17325
determination by that court that the individual satisfies 17326
divisions (A)(1) to (4)(6) of section 2743.48 of the Revised Code 17327
and that seeks a determination by the court that the offense of 17328
which he was found guilty, including all lesser-included offenses, 17329
either was not committed by him or was not committed by any 17330
person. If thethat court enters the requested determination, it 17331
shall comply with division (B) of that section.17332

       Sec. 2307.89. The following apply to all tort actions for 17333
silicosis or mixed dust disease claims brought against a premises 17334
owner to recover damages or other relief for exposure to silica or 17335
mixed dust on the premises owner's property:17336

       (A) A premises owner is not liable for any injury to any 17337
individual resulting from silica or mixed dust exposure unless 17338
that individual's alleged exposure occurred while the individual 17339
was at the premises owner's property.17340

       (B) If exposure to silica or mixed dust is alleged to have 17341
occurred before January 1, 1972, it is presumed that a premises 17342
owner knew that this state had adopted safe levels of exposure for 17343
silica or mixed dust and that products containing silica or mixed 17344
dust were used on its property only at levels below those safe 17345
levels of exposure. To rebut this presumption, the plaintiff must 17346
prove by a preponderance of the evidence that the premises owner 17347
knew or should have known that the levels of silica or mixed dust 17348
in the immediate breathing zone of the plaintiff regularly 17349
exceeded the threshold limit values adopted by this state and that 17350
the premises owner allowed that condition to persist.17351

       (C)(1) A premises owner is presumed to be not liable for any 17352
injury to any invitee who was engaged to work with, install, or 17353
remove products containing silica or mixed dust on the premises 17354
owner's property if the invitee's employer held itself out as 17355
qualified to perform the work. To rebut this presumption, the 17356
plaintiff must demonstrate by a preponderance of the evidence that 17357
the premises owner had actual knowledge of the potential dangers 17358
of the products containing silica or mixed dust at the time of the 17359
alleged exposure that was superior to the knowledge of both the 17360
invitee and the invitee's employer.17361

       (2) A premises owner that hired a contractor before January 17362
1, 1972, to perform the type of work at the premises owner's 17363
property that the contractor was qualified to perform cannot be 17364
liable for any injury to any individual resulting from silica or 17365
mixed dust exposure caused by any of the contractor's employees or 17366
agents on the premises owner's property unless the premises owner 17367
directed the activity that resulted in the injury or gave or 17368
denied permission for the critical acts that led to the 17369
individual's injury.17370

       (3) If exposure to silica or mixed dust is alleged to have 17371
occurred after January 1, 1972, a premises owner is not liable for 17372
any injury to any individual resulting from that exposure caused 17373
by a contractor's employee or agent on the premises owner's 17374
property unless the plaintiff establishes the premises owner's 17375
intentional violation of an established safety standard that was 17376
in effect at the time of the exposure and that the alleged 17377
violation was in the plaintiff's breathing zone and was the 17378
proximate cause of the plaintiff's medical condition.17379

       (D) As used in this section:17380

       (1) "Threshold limit values" means the maximum allowable 17381
concentration of silica, or other dust, set forth in regulation 17382
247 of the "regulations for the prevention and control of diseases 17383
resulting from exposure to toxic fumes, vapors, mists, gases, and 17384
dusts in order to preserve and protect the public health," as 17385
adopted by the former public health council of the department of 17386
health on January 1, 1947, and set forth by the industrial 17387
commission of Ohio in bulletin no. 203, "specific requirements and 17388
general safety standards of the industrial commission of Ohio for 17389
work shops and factories, chapter XV, ventilation and exhausts," 17390
effective January 3, 1955.17391

       (2) "Established safety standard" means that, for the years 17392
after 1971, the concentration of silica or mixed dust in the 17393
breathing zone of the worker does not exceed the maximum allowable 17394
exposure limits for the eight-hour time-weighted average airborne 17395
concentration as promulgated by the occupational safety and health 17396
administration (OSHA) in effect at the time of the alleged 17397
exposure.17398

       (3) "Employee" means an individual who performs labor or 17399
provides construction services pursuant to a construction 17400
contract, as defined in section 4123.79 of the Revised Code, or a 17401
remodeling or repair contract, whether written or oral, if at 17402
least ten of the following criteria apply:17403

       (a) The individual is required to comply with instructions 17404
from the other contracting party regarding the manner or method of 17405
performing services.17406

       (b) The individual is required by the other contracting party 17407
to have particular training.17408

       (c) The individual's services are integrated into the regular 17409
functioning of the other contracting party.17410

       (d) The individual is required to perform the work 17411
personally.17412

       (e) The individual is hired, supervised, or paid by the other 17413
contracting party.17414

       (f) A continuing relationship exists between the individual 17415
and the other contracting party that contemplates continuing or 17416
recurring work even if the work is not full time.17417

       (g) The individual's hours of work are established by the 17418
other contracting party.17419

       (h) The individual is required to devote full time to the 17420
business of the other contracting party.17421

       (i) The individual is required to perform the work on the 17422
premises of the other contracting party.17423

       (j) The individual is required to follow the order of work 17424
set by the other contracting party.17425

       (k) The individual is required to make oral or written 17426
reports of progress to the other contracting party.17427

       (l) The individual is paid for services on a regular basis, 17428
including hourly, weekly, or monthly.17429

       (m) The individual's expenses are paid for by the other 17430
contracting party.17431

       (n) The individual's tools and materials are furnished by the 17432
other contracting party.17433

       (o) The individual is provided with the facilities used to 17434
perform services.17435

       (p) The individual does not realize a profit or suffer a loss 17436
as a result of the services provided.17437

       (q) The individual is not performing services for a number of 17438
employers at the same time.17439

       (r) The individual does not make the same services available 17440
to the general public.17441

       (s) The other contracting party has a right to discharge the 17442
individual.17443

       (t) The individual has the right to end the relationship with 17444
the other contracting party without incurring liability pursuant 17445
to an employment contract or agreement.17446

       Sec. 2317.02.  The following persons shall not testify in 17447
certain respects:17448

       (A)(1) An attorney, concerning a communication made to the 17449
attorney by a client in that relation or the attorney's advice to 17450
a client, except that the attorney may testify by express consent 17451
of the client or, if the client is deceased, by the express 17452
consent of the surviving spouse or the executor or administrator 17453
of the estate of the deceased client. However, if the client 17454
voluntarily testifies or is deemed by section 2151.421 of the 17455
Revised Code to have waived any testimonial privilege under this 17456
division, the attorney may be compelled to testify on the same 17457
subject.17458

       The testimonial privilege established under this division 17459
does not apply concerning a communication between a client who has 17460
since died and the deceased client's attorney if the communication 17461
is relevant to a dispute between parties who claim through that 17462
deceased client, regardless of whether the claims are by testate 17463
or intestate succession or by inter vivos transaction, and the 17464
dispute addresses the competency of the deceased client when the 17465
deceased client executed a document that is the basis of the 17466
dispute or whether the deceased client was a victim of fraud, 17467
undue influence, or duress when the deceased client executed a 17468
document that is the basis of the dispute.17469

       (2) An attorney, concerning a communication made to the 17470
attorney by a client in that relationship or the attorney's advice 17471
to a client, except that if the client is an insurance company, 17472
the attorney may be compelled to testify, subject to an in camera 17473
inspection by a court, about communications made by the client to 17474
the attorney or by the attorney to the client that are related to 17475
the attorney's aiding or furthering an ongoing or future 17476
commission of bad faith by the client, if the party seeking 17477
disclosure of the communications has made a prima-facie showing of 17478
bad faith, fraud, or criminal misconduct by the client.17479

       (B)(1) A physician or a dentist concerning a communication 17480
made to the physician or dentist by a patient in that relation or 17481
the physician's or dentist's advice to a patient, except as 17482
otherwise provided in this division, division (B)(2), and division 17483
(B)(3) of this section, and except that, if the patient is deemed 17484
by section 2151.421 of the Revised Code to have waived any 17485
testimonial privilege under this division, the physician may be 17486
compelled to testify on the same subject.17487

       The testimonial privilege established under this division 17488
does not apply, and a physician or dentist may testify or may be 17489
compelled to testify, in any of the following circumstances:17490

       (a) In any civil action, in accordance with the discovery 17491
provisions of the Rules of Civil Procedure in connection with a 17492
civil action, or in connection with a claim under Chapter 4123. of 17493
the Revised Code, under any of the following circumstances:17494

       (i) If the patient or the guardian or other legal 17495
representative of the patient gives express consent;17496

       (ii) If the patient is deceased, the spouse of the patient or 17497
the executor or administrator of the patient's estate gives 17498
express consent;17499

       (iii) If a medical claim, dental claim, chiropractic claim, 17500
or optometric claim, as defined in section 2305.113 of the Revised 17501
Code, an action for wrongful death, any other type of civil 17502
action, or a claim under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code is 17503
filed by the patient, the personal representative of the estate of 17504
the patient if deceased, or the patient's guardian or other legal 17505
representative.17506

       (b) In any civil action concerning court-ordered treatment or 17507
services received by a patient, if the court-ordered treatment or 17508
services were ordered as part of a case plan journalized under 17509
section 2151.412 of the Revised Code or the court-ordered 17510
treatment or services are necessary or relevant to dependency, 17511
neglect, or abuse or temporary or permanent custody proceedings 17512
under Chapter 2151. of the Revised Code.17513

       (c) In any criminal action concerning any test or the results 17514
of any test that determines the presence or concentration of 17515
alcohol, a drug of abuse, a combination of them, a controlled 17516
substance, or a metabolite of a controlled substance in the 17517
patient's whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, urine, or 17518
other bodily substance at any time relevant to the criminal 17519
offense in question.17520

       (d) In any criminal action against a physician or dentist. In 17521
such an action, the testimonial privilege established under this 17522
division does not prohibit the admission into evidence, in 17523
accordance with the Rules of Evidence, of a patient's medical or 17524
dental records or other communications between a patient and the 17525
physician or dentist that are related to the action and obtained 17526
by subpoena, search warrant, or other lawful means. A court that 17527
permits or compels a physician or dentist to testify in such an 17528
action or permits the introduction into evidence of patient 17529
records or other communications in such an action shall require 17530
that appropriate measures be taken to ensure that the 17531
confidentiality of any patient named or otherwise identified in 17532
the records is maintained. Measures to ensure confidentiality that 17533
may be taken by the court include sealing its records or deleting 17534
specific information from its records.17535

       (e)(i) If the communication was between a patient who has 17536
since died and the deceased patient's physician or dentist, the 17537
communication is relevant to a dispute between parties who claim 17538
through that deceased patient, regardless of whether the claims 17539
are by testate or intestate succession or by inter vivos 17540
transaction, and the dispute addresses the competency of the 17541
deceased patient when the deceased patient executed a document 17542
that is the basis of the dispute or whether the deceased patient 17543
was a victim of fraud, undue influence, or duress when the 17544
deceased patient executed a document that is the basis of the 17545
dispute.17546

       (ii) If neither the spouse of a patient nor the executor or 17547
administrator of that patient's estate gives consent under 17548
division (B)(1)(a)(ii) of this section, testimony or the 17549
disclosure of the patient's medical records by a physician, 17550
dentist, or other health care provider under division (B)(1)(e)(i) 17551
of this section is a permitted use or disclosure of protected 17552
health information, as defined in 45 C.F.R. 160.103, and an 17553
authorization or opportunity to be heard shall not be required.17554

       (iii) Division (B)(1)(e)(i) of this section does not require 17555
a mental health professional to disclose psychotherapy notes, as 17556
defined in 45 C.F.R. 164.501.17557

       (iv) An interested person who objects to testimony or 17558
disclosure under division (B)(1)(e)(i) of this section may seek a 17559
protective order pursuant to Civil Rule 26.17560

       (v) A person to whom protected health information is 17561
disclosed under division (B)(1)(e)(i) of this section shall not 17562
use or disclose the protected health information for any purpose 17563
other than the litigation or proceeding for which the information 17564
was requested and shall return the protected health information to 17565
the covered entity or destroy the protected health information, 17566
including all copies made, at the conclusion of the litigation or 17567
proceeding.17568

       (2)(a) If any law enforcement officer submits a written 17569
statement to a health care provider that states that an official 17570
criminal investigation has begun regarding a specified person or 17571
that a criminal action or proceeding has been commenced against a 17572
specified person, that requests the provider to supply to the 17573
officer copies of any records the provider possesses that pertain 17574
to any test or the results of any test administered to the 17575
specified person to determine the presence or concentration of 17576
alcohol, a drug of abuse, a combination of them, a controlled 17577
substance, or a metabolite of a controlled substance in the 17578
person's whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, or urine at 17579
any time relevant to the criminal offense in question, and that 17580
conforms to section 2317.022 of the Revised Code, the provider, 17581
except to the extent specifically prohibited by any law of this 17582
state or of the United States, shall supply to the officer a copy 17583
of any of the requested records the provider possesses. If the 17584
health care provider does not possess any of the requested 17585
records, the provider shall give the officer a written statement 17586
that indicates that the provider does not possess any of the 17587
requested records.17588

       (b) If a health care provider possesses any records of the 17589
type described in division (B)(2)(a) of this section regarding the 17590
person in question at any time relevant to the criminal offense in 17591
question, in lieu of personally testifying as to the results of 17592
the test in question, the custodian of the records may submit a 17593
certified copy of the records, and, upon its submission, the 17594
certified copy is qualified as authentic evidence and may be 17595
admitted as evidence in accordance with the Rules of Evidence. 17596
Division (A) of section 2317.422 of the Revised Code does not 17597
apply to any certified copy of records submitted in accordance 17598
with this division. Nothing in this division shall be construed to 17599
limit the right of any party to call as a witness the person who 17600
administered the test to which the records pertain, the person 17601
under whose supervision the test was administered, the custodian 17602
of the records, the person who made the records, or the person 17603
under whose supervision the records were made.17604

       (3)(a) If the testimonial privilege described in division 17605
(B)(1) of this section does not apply as provided in division 17606
(B)(1)(a)(iii) of this section, a physician or dentist may be 17607
compelled to testify or to submit to discovery under the Rules of 17608
Civil Procedure only as to a communication made to the physician 17609
or dentist by the patient in question in that relation, or the 17610
physician's or dentist's advice to the patient in question, that 17611
related causally or historically to physical or mental injuries 17612
that are relevant to issues in the medical claim, dental claim, 17613
chiropractic claim, or optometric claim, action for wrongful 17614
death, other civil action, or claim under Chapter 4123. of the 17615
Revised Code.17616

       (b) If the testimonial privilege described in division (B)(1) 17617
of this section does not apply to a physician or dentist as 17618
provided in division (B)(1)(c) of this section, the physician or 17619
dentist, in lieu of personally testifying as to the results of the 17620
test in question, may submit a certified copy of those results, 17621
and, upon its submission, the certified copy is qualified as 17622
authentic evidence and may be admitted as evidence in accordance 17623
with the Rules of Evidence. Division (A) of section 2317.422 of 17624
the Revised Code does not apply to any certified copy of results 17625
submitted in accordance with this division. Nothing in this 17626
division shall be construed to limit the right of any party to 17627
call as a witness the person who administered the test in 17628
question, the person under whose supervision the test was 17629
administered, the custodian of the results of the test, the person 17630
who compiled the results, or the person under whose supervision 17631
the results were compiled.17632

       (4) The testimonial privilege described in division (B)(1) of 17633
this section is not waived when a communication is made by a 17634
physician to a pharmacist or when there is communication between a 17635
patient and a pharmacist in furtherance of the physician-patient 17636
relation.17637

       (5)(a) As used in divisions (B)(1) to (4) of this section, 17638
"communication" means acquiring, recording, or transmitting any 17639
information, in any manner, concerning any facts, opinions, or 17640
statements necessary to enable a physician or dentist to diagnose, 17641
treat, prescribe, or act for a patient. A "communication" may 17642
include, but is not limited to, any medical or dental, office, or 17643
hospital communication such as a record, chart, letter, 17644
memorandum, laboratory test and results, x-ray, photograph, 17645
financial statement, diagnosis, or prognosis.17646

       (b) As used in division (B)(2) of this section, "health care 17647
provider" means a hospital, ambulatory care facility, long-term 17648
care facility, pharmacy, emergency facility, or health care 17649
practitioner.17650

       (c) As used in division (B)(5)(b) of this section:17651

       (i) "Ambulatory care facility" means a facility that provides 17652
medical, diagnostic, or surgical treatment to patients who do not 17653
require hospitalization, including a dialysis center, ambulatory 17654
surgical facility, cardiac catheterization facility, diagnostic 17655
imaging center, extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy center, home 17656
health agency, inpatient hospice, birthing center, radiation 17657
therapy center, emergency facility, and an urgent care center. 17658
"Ambulatory health care facility" does not include the private 17659
office of a physician or dentist, whether the office is for an 17660
individual or group practice.17661

       (ii) "Emergency facility" means a hospital emergency 17662
department or any other facility that provides emergency medical 17663
services.17664

       (iii) "Health care practitioner" has the same meaning as in 17665
section 4769.01 of the Revised Code.17666

       (iv) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of 17667
the Revised Code.17668

       (v) "Long-term care facility" means a nursing home, 17669
residential care facility, or home for the aging, as those terms 17670
are defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code; an adult care17671
a residential facility, as defined inlicensed under section 17672
5119.705119.22 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 17673
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 17674
unrelated adults; a nursing facility or intermediate care facility 17675
for the mentally retarded, as those terms are defined in section 17676
5111.20 of the Revised Code; a facility or portion of a facility 17677
certified as a skilled nursing facility under Title XVIII of the 17678
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C.A. 1395, as 17679
amended.17680

       (vi) "Pharmacy" has the same meaning as in section 4729.01 of 17681
the Revised Code.17682

       (d) As used in divisions (B)(1) and (2) of this section, 17683
"drug of abuse" has the same meaning as in section 4506.01 of the 17684
Revised Code.17685

       (6) Divisions (B)(1), (2), (3), (4), and (5) of this section 17686
apply to doctors of medicine, doctors of osteopathic medicine, 17687
doctors of podiatry, and dentists.17688

       (7) Nothing in divisions (B)(1) to (6) of this section 17689
affects, or shall be construed as affecting, the immunity from 17690
civil liability conferred by section 307.628 of the Revised Code 17691
or the immunity from civil liability conferred by section 2305.33 17692
of the Revised Code upon physicians who report an employee's use 17693
of a drug of abuse, or a condition of an employee other than one 17694
involving the use of a drug of abuse, to the employer of the 17695
employee in accordance with division (B) of that section. As used 17696
in division (B)(7) of this section, "employee," "employer," and 17697
"physician" have the same meanings as in section 2305.33 of the 17698
Revised Code.17699

       (C)(1) A cleric, when the cleric remains accountable to the 17700
authority of that cleric's church, denomination, or sect, 17701
concerning a confession made, or any information confidentially 17702
communicated, to the cleric for a religious counseling purpose in 17703
the cleric's professional character. The cleric may testify by 17704
express consent of the person making the communication, except 17705
when the disclosure of the information is in violation of a sacred 17706
trust and except that, if the person voluntarily testifies or is 17707
deemed by division (A)(4)(c) of section 2151.421 of the Revised 17708
Code to have waived any testimonial privilege under this division, 17709
the cleric may be compelled to testify on the same subject except 17710
when disclosure of the information is in violation of a sacred 17711
trust.17712

       (2) As used in division (C) of this section:17713

        (a) "Cleric" means a member of the clergy, rabbi, priest, 17714
Christian Science practitioner, or regularly ordained, accredited, 17715
or licensed minister of an established and legally cognizable 17716
church, denomination, or sect.17717

        (b) "Sacred trust" means a confession or confidential 17718
communication made to a cleric in the cleric's ecclesiastical 17719
capacity in the course of discipline enjoined by the church to 17720
which the cleric belongs, including, but not limited to, the 17721
Catholic Church, if both of the following apply:17722

        (i) The confession or confidential communication was made 17723
directly to the cleric.17724

        (ii) The confession or confidential communication was made in 17725
the manner and context that places the cleric specifically and 17726
strictly under a level of confidentiality that is considered 17727
inviolate by canon law or church doctrine.17728

       (D) Husband or wife, concerning any communication made by one 17729
to the other, or an act done by either in the presence of the 17730
other, during coverture, unless the communication was made, or act 17731
done, in the known presence or hearing of a third person competent 17732
to be a witness; and such rule is the same if the marital relation 17733
has ceased to exist;17734

       (E) A person who assigns a claim or interest, concerning any 17735
matter in respect to which the person would not, if a party, be 17736
permitted to testify;17737

       (F) A person who, if a party, would be restricted under 17738
section 2317.03 of the Revised Code, when the property or thing is 17739
sold or transferred by an executor, administrator, guardian, 17740
trustee, heir, devisee, or legatee, shall be restricted in the 17741
same manner in any action or proceeding concerning the property or 17742
thing.17743

       (G)(1) A school guidance counselor who holds a valid educator 17744
license from the state board of education as provided for in 17745
section 3319.22 of the Revised Code, a person licensed under 17746
Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code as a professional clinical 17747
counselor, professional counselor, social worker, independent 17748
social worker, marriage and family therapist or independent 17749
marriage and family therapist, or registered under Chapter 4757. 17750
of the Revised Code as a social work assistant concerning a 17751
confidential communication received from a client in that relation 17752
or the person's advice to a client unless any of the following 17753
applies:17754

       (a) The communication or advice indicates clear and present 17755
danger to the client or other persons. For the purposes of this 17756
division, cases in which there are indications of present or past 17757
child abuse or neglect of the client constitute a clear and 17758
present danger.17759

       (b) The client gives express consent to the testimony.17760

       (c) If the client is deceased, the surviving spouse or the 17761
executor or administrator of the estate of the deceased client 17762
gives express consent.17763

       (d) The client voluntarily testifies, in which case the 17764
school guidance counselor or person licensed or registered under 17765
Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code may be compelled to testify on 17766
the same subject.17767

       (e) The court in camera determines that the information 17768
communicated by the client is not germane to the counselor-client, 17769
marriage and family therapist-client, or social worker-client 17770
relationship.17771

       (f) A court, in an action brought against a school, its 17772
administration, or any of its personnel by the client, rules after 17773
an in-camera inspection that the testimony of the school guidance 17774
counselor is relevant to that action.17775

       (g) The testimony is sought in a civil action and concerns 17776
court-ordered treatment or services received by a patient as part 17777
of a case plan journalized under section 2151.412 of the Revised 17778
Code or the court-ordered treatment or services are necessary or 17779
relevant to dependency, neglect, or abuse or temporary or 17780
permanent custody proceedings under Chapter 2151. of the Revised 17781
Code.17782

       (2) Nothing in division (G)(1) of this section shall relieve 17783
a school guidance counselor or a person licensed or registered 17784
under Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code from the requirement to 17785
report information concerning child abuse or neglect under section 17786
2151.421 of the Revised Code.17787

       (H) A mediator acting under a mediation order issued under 17788
division (A) of section 3109.052 of the Revised Code or otherwise 17789
issued in any proceeding for divorce, dissolution, legal 17790
separation, annulment, or the allocation of parental rights and 17791
responsibilities for the care of children, in any action or 17792
proceeding, other than a criminal, delinquency, child abuse, child 17793
neglect, or dependent child action or proceeding, that is brought 17794
by or against either parent who takes part in mediation in 17795
accordance with the order and that pertains to the mediation 17796
process, to any information discussed or presented in the 17797
mediation process, to the allocation of parental rights and 17798
responsibilities for the care of the parents' children, or to the 17799
awarding of parenting time rights in relation to their children;17800

       (I) A communications assistant, acting within the scope of 17801
the communication assistant's authority, when providing 17802
telecommunications relay service pursuant to section 4931.06 of 17803
the Revised Code or Title II of the "Communications Act of 1934," 17804
104 Stat. 366 (1990), 47 U.S.C. 225, concerning a communication 17805
made through a telecommunications relay service. Nothing in this 17806
section shall limit the obligation of a communications assistant 17807
to divulge information or testify when mandated by federal law or 17808
regulation or pursuant to subpoena in a criminal proceeding.17809

       Nothing in this section shall limit any immunity or privilege 17810
granted under federal law or regulation.17811

       (J)(1) A chiropractor in a civil proceeding concerning a 17812
communication made to the chiropractor by a patient in that 17813
relation or the chiropractor's advice to a patient, except as 17814
otherwise provided in this division. The testimonial privilege 17815
established under this division does not apply, and a chiropractor 17816
may testify or may be compelled to testify, in any civil action, 17817
in accordance with the discovery provisions of the Rules of Civil 17818
Procedure in connection with a civil action, or in connection with 17819
a claim under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code, under any of the 17820
following circumstances:17821

       (a) If the patient or the guardian or other legal 17822
representative of the patient gives express consent.17823

       (b) If the patient is deceased, the spouse of the patient or 17824
the executor or administrator of the patient's estate gives 17825
express consent.17826

       (c) If a medical claim, dental claim, chiropractic claim, or 17827
optometric claim, as defined in section 2305.113 of the Revised 17828
Code, an action for wrongful death, any other type of civil 17829
action, or a claim under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code is 17830
filed by the patient, the personal representative of the estate of 17831
the patient if deceased, or the patient's guardian or other legal 17832
representative.17833

       (2) If the testimonial privilege described in division (J)(1) 17834
of this section does not apply as provided in division (J)(1)(c) 17835
of this section, a chiropractor may be compelled to testify or to 17836
submit to discovery under the Rules of Civil Procedure only as to 17837
a communication made to the chiropractor by the patient in 17838
question in that relation, or the chiropractor's advice to the 17839
patient in question, that related causally or historically to 17840
physical or mental injuries that are relevant to issues in the 17841
medical claim, dental claim, chiropractic claim, or optometric 17842
claim, action for wrongful death, other civil action, or claim 17843
under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code.17844

       (3) The testimonial privilege established under this division 17845
does not apply, and a chiropractor may testify or be compelled to 17846
testify, in any criminal action or administrative proceeding.17847

       (4) As used in this division, "communication" means 17848
acquiring, recording, or transmitting any information, in any 17849
manner, concerning any facts, opinions, or statements necessary to 17850
enable a chiropractor to diagnose, treat, or act for a patient. A 17851
communication may include, but is not limited to, any 17852
chiropractic, office, or hospital communication such as a record, 17853
chart, letter, memorandum, laboratory test and results, x-ray, 17854
photograph, financial statement, diagnosis, or prognosis.17855

       (K)(1) Except as provided under division (K)(2) of this 17856
section, a critical incident stress management team member 17857
concerning a communication received from an individual who 17858
receives crisis response services from the team member, or the 17859
team member's advice to the individual, during a debriefing 17860
session.17861

        (2) The testimonial privilege established under division 17862
(K)(1) of this section does not apply if any of the following are 17863
true:17864

        (a) The communication or advice indicates clear and present 17865
danger to the individual who receives crisis response services or 17866
to other persons. For purposes of this division, cases in which 17867
there are indications of present or past child abuse or neglect of 17868
the individual constitute a clear and present danger.17869

        (b) The individual who received crisis response services 17870
gives express consent to the testimony.17871

       (c) If the individual who received crisis response services 17872
is deceased, the surviving spouse or the executor or administrator 17873
of the estate of the deceased individual gives express consent.17874

        (d) The individual who received crisis response services 17875
voluntarily testifies, in which case the team member may be 17876
compelled to testify on the same subject.17877

        (e) The court in camera determines that the information 17878
communicated by the individual who received crisis response 17879
services is not germane to the relationship between the individual 17880
and the team member.17881

       (f) The communication or advice pertains or is related to any 17882
criminal act.17883

       (3) As used in division (K) of this section:17884

       (a) "Crisis response services" means consultation, risk 17885
assessment, referral, and on-site crisis intervention services 17886
provided by a critical incident stress management team to 17887
individuals affected by crisis or disaster.17888

       (b) "Critical incident stress management team member" or 17889
"team member" means an individual specially trained to provide 17890
crisis response services as a member of an organized community or 17891
local crisis response team that holds membership in the Ohio 17892
critical incident stress management network.17893

       (c) "Debriefing session" means a session at which crisis 17894
response services are rendered by a critical incident stress 17895
management team member during or after a crisis or disaster.17896

       (L)(1) Subject to division (L)(2) of this section and except 17897
as provided in division (L)(3) of this section, an employee 17898
assistance professional, concerning a communication made to the 17899
employee assistance professional by a client in the employee 17900
assistance professional's official capacity as an employee 17901
assistance professional.17902

        (2) Division (L)(1) of this section applies to an employee 17903
assistance professional who meets either or both of the following 17904
requirements:17905

        (a) Is certified by the employee assistance certification 17906
commission to engage in the employee assistance profession;17907

        (b) Has education, training, and experience in all of the 17908
following:17909

        (i) Providing workplace-based services designed to address 17910
employer and employee productivity issues;17911

        (ii) Providing assistance to employees and employees' 17912
dependents in identifying and finding the means to resolve 17913
personal problems that affect the employees or the employees' 17914
performance;17915

       (iii) Identifying and resolving productivity problems 17916
associated with an employee's concerns about any of the following 17917
matters: health, marriage, family, finances, substance abuse or 17918
other addiction, workplace, law, and emotional issues;17919

       (iv) Selecting and evaluating available community resources;17920

        (v) Making appropriate referrals;17921

        (vi) Local and national employee assistance agreements;17922

        (vii) Client confidentiality.17923

        (3) Division (L)(1) of this section does not apply to any of 17924
the following:17925

        (a) A criminal action or proceeding involving an offense 17926
under sections 2903.01 to 2903.06 of the Revised Code if the 17927
employee assistance professional's disclosure or testimony relates 17928
directly to the facts or immediate circumstances of the offense;17929

        (b) A communication made by a client to an employee 17930
assistance professional that reveals the contemplation or 17931
commission of a crime or serious, harmful act;17932

        (c) A communication that is made by a client who is an 17933
unemancipated minor or an adult adjudicated to be incompetent and 17934
indicates that the client was the victim of a crime or abuse;17935

       (d) A civil proceeding to determine an individual's mental 17936
competency or a criminal action in which a plea of not guilty by 17937
reason of insanity is entered;17938

        (e) A civil or criminal malpractice action brought against 17939
the employee assistance professional;17940

        (f) When the employee assistance professional has the express 17941
consent of the client or, if the client is deceased or disabled, 17942
the client's legal representative;17943

        (g) When the testimonial privilege otherwise provided by 17944
division (L)(1) of this section is abrogated under law.17945

       Sec. 2317.422.  (A) Notwithstanding sections 2317.40 and 17946
2317.41 of the Revised Code but subject to division (B) of this 17947
section, the records, or copies or photographs of the records, of 17948
a hospital, homes required to be licensed pursuant to section 17949
3721.01 of the Revised Code, and adult careresidential facilities 17950
required to be licensed pursuant to Chapter 5119.section 5119.2217951
of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, supervision, and 17952
personal care services for three to sixteen unrelated adults, in 17953
lieu of the testimony in open court of their custodian, person who 17954
made them, or person under whose supervision they were made, may 17955
be qualified as authentic evidence if any such person endorses 17956
thereon the person's verified certification identifying such 17957
records, giving the mode and time of their preparation, and 17958
stating that they were prepared in the usual course of the 17959
business of the institution. Such records, copies, or photographs 17960
may not be qualified by certification as provided in this section 17961
unless the party intending to offer them delivers a copy of them, 17962
or of their relevant portions, to the attorney of record for each 17963
adverse party not less than five days before trial. Nothing in 17964
this section shall be construed to limit the right of any party to 17965
call the custodian, person who made such records, or person under 17966
whose supervision they were made, as a witness.17967

       (B) Division (A) of this section does not apply to any 17968
certified copy of the results of any test given to determine the 17969
presence or concentration of alcohol, a drug of abuse, a 17970
combination of them, a controlled substance, or a metabolite of a 17971
controlled substance in a patient's whole blood, blood serum or 17972
plasma, breath, or urine at any time relevant to a criminal 17973
offense that is submitted in a criminal action or proceeding in 17974
accordance with division (B)(2)(b) or (B)(3)(b) of section 2317.02 17975
of the Revised Code.17976

       Sec. 2317.56.  (A) As used in this section:17977

       (1) "Medical emergency" means a condition of a pregnant woman 17978
that, in the reasonable judgment of the physician who is attending 17979
the woman, creates an immediate threat of serious risk to the life 17980
or physical health of the woman from the continuation of the 17981
pregnancy necessitating the immediate performance or inducement of 17982
an abortion.17983

       (2) "Medical necessity" means a medical condition of a 17984
pregnant woman that, in the reasonable judgment of the physician 17985
who is attending the woman, so complicates the pregnancy that it 17986
necessitates the immediate performance or inducement of an 17987
abortion.17988

       (3) "Probable gestational age of the embryo or fetus" means 17989
the gestational age that, in the judgment of a physician, is, with 17990
reasonable probability, the gestational age of the embryo or fetus 17991
at the time that the physician informs a pregnant woman pursuant 17992
to division (B)(1)(b) of this section.17993

       (B) Except when there is a medical emergency or medical 17994
necessity, an abortion shall be performed or induced only if all 17995
of the following conditions are satisfied:17996

       (1) At least twenty-four hours prior to the performance or 17997
inducement of the abortion, a physician meets with the pregnant 17998
woman in person in an individual, private setting and gives her an 17999
adequate opportunity to ask questions about the abortion that will 18000
be performed or induced. At this meeting, the physician shall 18001
inform the pregnant woman, verbally or, if she is hearing 18002
impaired, by other means of communication, of all of the 18003
following:18004

       (a) The nature and purpose of the particular abortion 18005
procedure to be used and the medical risks associated with that 18006
procedure;18007

       (b) The probable gestational age of the embryo or fetus;18008

       (c) The medical risks associated with the pregnant woman 18009
carrying the pregnancy to term.18010

       The meeting need not occur at the facility where the abortion 18011
is to be performed or induced, and the physician involved in the 18012
meeting need not be affiliated with that facility or with the 18013
physician who is scheduled to perform or induce the abortion.18014

       (2) At least twenty-four hours prior to the performance or 18015
inducement of the abortion, one or more physicians or one or more 18016
agents of one or more physicians do each of the following in 18017
person, by telephone, by certified mail, return receipt requested, 18018
or by regular mail evidenced by a certificate of mailing:18019

       (a) Inform the pregnant woman of the name of the physician 18020
who is scheduled to perform or induce the abortion;18021

       (b) Give the pregnant woman copies of the published materials 18022
described in division (C) of this section;18023

       (c) Inform the pregnant woman that the materials given 18024
pursuant to division (B)(2)(b) of this section are provided18025
published by the state and that they describe the embryo or fetus 18026
and list agencies that offer alternatives to abortion. The 18027
pregnant woman may choose to examine or not to examine the 18028
materials. A physician or an agent of a physician may choose to be 18029
disassociated from the materials and may choose to comment or not 18030
comment on the materials.18031

       (3) Prior to the performance or inducement of the abortion, 18032
the pregnant woman signs a form consenting to the abortion and 18033
certifies both of the following on that form:18034

       (a) She has received the information and materials described 18035
in divisions (B)(1) and (2) of this section, and her questions 18036
about the abortion that will be performed or induced have been 18037
answered in a satisfactory manner.18038

       (b) She consents to the particular abortion voluntarily, 18039
knowingly, intelligently, and without coercion by any person, and 18040
she is not under the influence of any drug of abuse or alcohol.18041

       (4) Prior to the performance or inducement of the abortion, 18042
the physician who is scheduled to perform or induce the abortion 18043
or the physician's agent receives a copy of the pregnant woman's 18044
signed form on which she consents to the abortion and that 18045
includes the certification required by division (B)(3) of this 18046
section.18047

       (C) The department of health shall cause to be published18048
publish in English and in Spanish, in a typeface large enough to 18049
be clearly legible, and in an easily comprehensible format, the 18050
following materials on the department's web site:18051

       (1) Materials that inform the pregnant woman about family 18052
planning information, of publicly funded agencies that are 18053
available to assist in family planning, and of public and private 18054
agencies and services that are available to assist her through the 18055
pregnancy, upon childbirth, and while the child is dependent, 18056
including, but not limited to, adoption agencies. The materials 18057
shall be geographically indexed; include a comprehensive list of 18058
the available agencies, a description of the services offered by 18059
the agencies, and the telephone numbers and addresses of the 18060
agencies; and inform the pregnant woman about available medical 18061
assistance benefits for prenatal care, childbirth, and neonatal 18062
care and about the support obligations of the father of a child 18063
who is born alive. The department shall ensure that the materials 18064
described in division (C)(1) of this section are comprehensive and 18065
do not directly or indirectly promote, exclude, or discourage the 18066
use of any agency or service described in this division.18067

       (2) Materials that inform the pregnant woman of the probable 18068
anatomical and physiological characteristics of the zygote, 18069
blastocyte, embryo, or fetus at two-week gestational increments 18070
for the first sixteen weeks of pregnancy and at four-week 18071
gestational increments from the seventeenth week of pregnancy to 18072
full term, including any relevant information regarding the time 18073
at which the fetus possibly would be viable. The department shall 18074
cause these materials to be published only after it consults with 18075
the Ohio state medical association and the Ohio section of the 18076
American college of obstetricians and gynecologists relative to 18077
the probable anatomical and physiological characteristics of a 18078
zygote, blastocyte, embryo, or fetus at the various gestational 18079
increments. The materials shall use language that is 18080
understandable by the average person who is not medically trained, 18081
shall be objective and nonjudgmental, and shall include only 18082
accurate scientific information about the zygote, blastocyte, 18083
embryo, or fetus at the various gestational increments. If the 18084
materials use a pictorial, photographic, or other depiction to 18085
provide information regarding the zygote, blastocyte, embryo, or 18086
fetus, the materials shall include, in a conspicuous manner, a 18087
scale or other explanation that is understandable by the average 18088
person and that can be used to determine the actual size of the 18089
zygote, blastocyte, embryo, or fetus at a particular gestational 18090
increment as contrasted with the depicted size of the zygote, 18091
blastocyte, embryo, or fetus at that gestational increment.18092

       (D) Upon the submission of a request to the department of 18093
health by any person, hospital, physician, or medical facility for 18094
one or more copiescopy of the materials published in accordance 18095
with division (C) of this section, the department shall make the 18096
requested number of copiescopy of the materials available to the 18097
person, hospital, physician, or medical facility that requested 18098
the copiescopy.18099

       (E) If a medical emergency or medical necessity compels the 18100
performance or inducement of an abortion, the physician who will 18101
perform or induce the abortion, prior to its performance or 18102
inducement if possible, shall inform the pregnant woman of the 18103
medical indications supporting the physician's judgment that an 18104
immediate abortion is necessary. Any physician who performs or 18105
induces an abortion without the prior satisfaction of the 18106
conditions specified in division (B) of this section because of a 18107
medical emergency or medical necessity shall enter the reasons for 18108
the conclusion that a medical emergency or medical necessity 18109
exists in the medical record of the pregnant woman.18110

       (F) If the conditions specified in division (B) of this 18111
section are satisfied, consent to an abortion shall be presumed to 18112
be valid and effective.18113

       (G) The performance or inducement of an abortion without the 18114
prior satisfaction of the conditions specified in division (B) of 18115
this section does not constitute, and shall not be construed as 18116
constituting, a violation of division (A) of section 2919.12 of 18117
the Revised Code. The failure of a physician to satisfy the 18118
conditions of division (B) of this section prior to performing or 18119
inducing an abortion upon a pregnant woman may be the basis of 18120
both of the following:18121

       (1) A civil action for compensatory and exemplary damages as 18122
described in division (H) of this section;18123

       (2) Disciplinary action under section 4731.22 of the Revised 18124
Code.18125

       (H)(1) Subject to divisions (H)(2) and (3) of this section, 18126
any physician who performs or induces an abortion with actual 18127
knowledge that the conditions specified in division (B) of this 18128
section have not been satisfied or with a heedless indifference as 18129
to whether those conditions have been satisfied is liable in 18130
compensatory and exemplary damages in a civil action to any 18131
person, or the representative of the estate of any person, who 18132
sustains injury, death, or loss to person or property as a result 18133
of the failure to satisfy those conditions. In the civil action, 18134
the court additionally may enter any injunctive or other equitable 18135
relief that it considers appropriate.18136

       (2) The following shall be affirmative defenses in a civil 18137
action authorized by division (H)(1) of this section:18138

       (a) The physician performed or induced the abortion under the 18139
circumstances described in division (E) of this section.18140

       (b) The physician made a good faith effort to satisfy the 18141
conditions specified in division (B) of this section.18142

       (c) The physician or an agent of the physician requested 18143
copies of the materials published in accordance with division (C) 18144
of this section from the department of health, but the physician 18145
was not able to give a pregnant woman copies of the materials 18146
pursuant to division (B)(2) of this section and to obtain a 18147
certification as described in divisions (B)(3) and (4) of this 18148
section because the department failed to make the requested number 18149
of copies available to the physician or agent in accordance with 18150
division (D) of this section.18151

       (3) An employer or other principal is not liable in damages 18152
in a civil action authorized by division (H)(1) of this section on 18153
the basis of the doctrine of respondeat superior unless either of 18154
the following applies:18155

       (a) The employer or other principal had actual knowledge or, 18156
by the exercise of reasonable diligence, should have known that an 18157
employee or agent performed or induced an abortion with actual 18158
knowledge that the conditions specified in division (B) of this 18159
section had not been satisfied or with a heedless indifference as 18160
to whether those conditions had been satisfied.18161

       (b) The employer or other principal negligently failed to 18162
secure the compliance of an employee or agent with division (B) of 18163
this section.18164

       (4) Notwithstanding division (E) of section 2919.12 of the 18165
Revised Code, the civil action authorized by division (H)(1) of 18166
this section shall be the exclusive civil remedy for persons, or 18167
the representatives of estates of persons, who allegedly sustain 18168
injury, death, or loss to person or property as a result of a 18169
failure to satisfy the conditions specified in division (B) of 18170
this section.18171

       (I) The department of job and family services shall prepare 18172
and conduct a public information program to inform women of all 18173
available governmental programs and agencies that provide services 18174
or assistance for family planning, prenatal care, child care, or 18175
alternatives to abortion.18176

       Sec. 2319.27.  Except as section 147.08 of the Revised Code 18177
governs the fees chargeable by a notary public for services 18178
rendered in connection with depositions, the fees and expenses 18179
chargeable for the taking and certifying of a deposition by a 18180
person who is authorized to do so in this state, including, but 18181
not limited to, a shorthand reporter, stenographer, or person 18182
described in Civil Rule 28, may be established by that person 18183
subject to the qualification specified in this section, and may be 18184
different than the fees and expenses charged for the taking and 18185
certifying of depositions by similar persons in other areas of 18186
this state. Unless, prior to the taking and certifying of a 18187
deposition, the parties who request it agree that the fees or 18188
expenses to be charged may exceed the usual and customary fees or 18189
expenses charged in the particular community for similar services, 18190
such a person shall not charge fees or expenses in connection with 18191
the taking and certifying of the deposition that exceed those 18192
usual and customary fees and expenses.18193

       The person taking and certifying a deposition may retain the 18194
deposition until the fees and expenses that hethe person charged 18195
are paid. HeThe person also shall tax the costs, if any, of a 18196
sheriff or other officer who serves any process in connection with 18197
the taking of a deposition and the fees of the witnesses, and, if 18198
directed by a person entitled to those costs or fees, may retain 18199
the deposition until those costs or fees are paid.18200

       Sec. 2501.02.  Each judge of a court of appeals shall have 18201
been admitted to practice as an attorney at law in this state and 18202
have, for a total of six years preceding the judge's appointment 18203
or commencement of the judge's term, engaged in the practice of 18204
law or served as a judge of a court of record in any jurisdiction 18205
in the United States, or both. At least two of the years of 18206
practice or service that qualify a judge shall have been in this 18207
state. One judge shall be chosen in each court of appeals district 18208
every two years, and shall hold office for six years, beginning on 18209
the ninth day of February next after the judge's election.18210

       In addition to the original jurisdiction conferred by Section 18211
3 of Article IV, Ohio Constitution, the court shall have 18212
jurisdiction upon an appeal upon questions of law to review, 18213
affirm, modify, set aside, or reverse judgments or final orders of 18214
courts of record inferior to the court of appeals within the 18215
district, including the finding, order, or judgment of a juvenile 18216
court that a child is delinquent, neglected, abused, or dependent, 18217
and upon any appeal brought by any party, including a public 18218
children services agency, in relation to a ruling on a motion to 18219
modify a prior dispositional order, for prejudicial error 18220
committed by such lower court.18221

       The court, on good cause shown, may issue writs of 18222
supersedeas in any case, and all other writs, not specially 18223
provided for or prohibited by statute, necessary to enforce the 18224
administration of justice.18225

       Sec. 2501.16.  (A) Each court of appeals may appoint one or 18226
more official shorthand reporters, law clerks, secretaries, and 18227
any other employees that the court considers necessary for its 18228
efficient operation.18229

       The clerk of the court of common pleas, acting as the clerk 18230
of the court of appeals for the county, shall perform the duties 18231
otherwise performed and collect the fees otherwise collected by 18232
the clerk of the court of common pleas, as set forth in section 18233
2303.03 of the Revised Code, and shall maintain the files and 18234
records of the court. The clerk of the court of common pleas, 18235
acting as the clerk of the court of appeals for the county, may 18236
refuse to accept for filing any pleading or paper submitted for 18237
filing by a person who has been found to be a vexatious litigator 18238
under section 2323.52 of the Revised Code and who has failed to 18239
obtain leave from the court of appeals to proceed under that 18240
section. The overhead expenses pertaining to the office of the 18241
clerk of the court of common pleas that result from the clerk's 18242
acting as clerk of the court of appeals for the county, other than 18243
wages and salaries, shall be paid from the funds provided under 18244
sections 2501.18 and 2501.181 of the Revised Code.18245

       Each officer and employee appointed pursuant to this section 18246
shall take an oath of office, serve at the pleasure of the court, 18247
and perform any duties that the court directs. Each shorthand18248
reporter shall have the powers that are vested in official18249
shorthand reporters of the court of common pleas under sections 18250
2301.18 to 2301.26 of the Revised Code. Whenever an opinion, per 18251
curiam, or report of a case has been prepared in accordance with 18252
section 2503.20 of the Revised Code, the official shorthand18253
reporter immediately shall forward one copy of the opinion, per 18254
curiam, or report to the reporter of the supreme court, without 18255
expense to the reporter.18256

       (B) The court of appeals may determine that, for the 18257
efficient operation of the court, additional funds are necessary 18258
to acquire and pay for special projects of the court, including, 18259
but not limited to, the acquisition of additional facilities or 18260
the rehabilitation of existing facilities, the acquisition of 18261
equipment, the hiring and training of staff, the employment of 18262
magistrates, the training and education of judges, acting judges, 18263
and magistrates, community service programs, and other related 18264
services. Upon that determination, the court by rule may charge a 18265
fee, in addition to all other court costs, on the filing of each 18266
case or cause over which the court has jurisdiction.18267

       If the court of appeals offers a special program or service 18268
in cases of a specific type, the court by rule may assess an 18269
additional charge in a case of that type, over and above court 18270
costs, to cover the special program or service. The court shall 18271
adjust the special assessment periodically, but not retroactively, 18272
so that the amount assessed in those cases does not exceed the 18273
actual cost of providing the service or program.18274

       All moneys collected under division (B) of this section shall 18275
be paid to the county treasurer of the county selected as the 18276
principal seat of that court of appeals for deposit into either a 18277
general special projects fund or a fund established for a specific 18278
special project. Moneys from a fund of that nature shall be 18279
disbursed upon an order of the court in an amount no greater than 18280
the actual cost to the court of a project. If a specific fund is 18281
terminated because of the discontinuance of a program or service 18282
established under division (B) of this section, the court may 18283
order that moneys remaining in the fund be transferred to an 18284
account established under this division for a similar purpose.18285

       Sec. 2501.17.  Each officer and employee of a court of 18286
appeals appointed under section 2501.16 of the Revised Code shall 18287
receive the compensation that is fixed by the court of appeals and 18288
payable from the state treasury upon the certificate of the 18289
presiding or administrative judge of the district in which the 18290
officer or employee serves. The additional amount of compensation 18291
that the clerk of the court of common pleas receives for acting as 18292
the clerk of the court of appeals in histhe clerk's county and 18293
assuming the duties of that office and that is equal to one-eighth 18294
of the annual compensation that hethe clerk receives pursuant to 18295
sections 325.08 and 325.18 of the Revised Code for being the clerk 18296
of the court of common pleas is payable from the state treasury 18297
upon the certificate of the presiding or administrative judge of 18298
the district in which the clerk serves.18299

       Shorthand reportersReporters may receive additional 18300
compensation for transcripts of evidence, the fee for the 18301
transcripts to be fixed by the judges of the court of appeals and 18302
paid and collected in the same manner as the fees for transcripts 18303
furnished by official shorthand reporters of the court of common 18304
pleas under section 2301.24 of the Revised Code. Shorthand 18305
reportersReporters appointed for a term of less than one year 18306
shall receive a per diem compensation of not less than thirty 18307
dollars per day. All shorthand reporters shall receive their 18308
actual expenses for traveling when attending court in any county 18309
other than that in which they reside, to be paid as provided by 18310
section 2301.242301.22 of the Revised Code.18311

       Sec. 2743.01.  As used in this chapter:18312

       (A) "State"Subject to sections 2743.021 and 2743.022 of the 18313
Revised Code, "state" means the state of Ohio, including, but not 18314
limited to, the general assembly, the supreme court, the offices 18315
of all elected state officers, and all departments, boards, 18316
offices, commissions, agencies, institutions, and other 18317
instrumentalities of the state. "State" does not include political 18318
subdivisions.18319

       (B) "Political subdivisions" means municipal corporations, 18320
townships, counties, school districts, and all other bodies 18321
corporate and politic responsible for governmental activities only 18322
in geographic areas smaller than that of the state to which the 18323
sovereign immunity of the state attaches.18324

       (C) "Claim for an award of reparations" or "claim" means a 18325
claim for an award of reparations made under sections 2743.51 to 18326
2743.72 of the Revised Code.18327

       (D) "Award of reparations" or "award" means an award made 18328
under sections 2743.51 to 2743.72 of the Revised Code.18329

       (E)(1) "Public duty" includes, but is not limited to, any 18330
statutory, regulatory, or assumed duty concerning any action or 18331
omission of the state involving any of the following:18332

       (a) Permitting, certifying, licensing, inspecting, 18333
investigating, supervising, regulating, auditing, monitoring, law 18334
enforcement, or emergency response activity;18335

       (b) Supervising, rehabilitating, or liquidating corporations 18336
or other business entities.18337

       (2) "Public duty" does not include any action of the state 18338
under circumstances in which a special relationship can be 18339
established between the state and an injured party as provided in 18340
division (A)(3) of section 2743.02 of the Revised Code.18341

       Sec. 2743.02.  (A)(1) The state hereby waives its immunity 18342
from liability, except as provided for the office of the state 18343
fire marshal in division (G)(1) of section 9.60 and division (B) 18344
of section 3737.221 of the Revised Code and subject to division 18345
(H) of this section, and consents to be sued, and have its 18346
liability determined, in the court of claims created in this 18347
chapter in accordance with the same rules of law applicable to 18348
suits between private parties, except that the determination of 18349
liability is subject to the limitations set forth in this chapter 18350
and, in the case of state universities or colleges, in section 18351
3345.40 of the Revised Code, except that the determination of 18352
liability of the department of transportation is subject to 18353
sections 2743.021 and 2743.022 of the Revised Code, and except as 18354
provided in division (A)(2) or (3) of this section. To the extent 18355
that the state has previously consented to be sued, this chapter 18356
has no applicability.18357

       Except in the case of a civil action filed by the state, 18358
filing a civil action in the court of claims results in a complete 18359
waiver of any cause of action, based on the same act or omission,18360
whichthat the filing party has against any officer or employee, 18361
as defined in section 109.36 of the Revised Code. The waiver shall 18362
be void if the court determines that the act or omission was 18363
manifestly outside the scope of the officer's or employee's office 18364
or employment or that the officer or employee acted with malicious 18365
purpose, in bad faith, or in a wanton or reckless manner.18366

       (2) If a claimant proves in the court of claims that an 18367
officer or employee, as defined in section 109.36 of the Revised 18368
Code, would have personal liability for the officer's or 18369
employee's acts or omissions but for the fact that the officer or 18370
employee has personal immunity under section 9.86 of the Revised 18371
Code, the state shall be held liable in the court of claims in any 18372
action that is timely filed pursuant to section 2743.16 of the 18373
Revised Code and that is based upon the acts or omissions.18374

       (3)(a) Except as provided in division (A)(3)(b) of this 18375
section, the state is immune from liability in any civil action or 18376
proceeding involving the performance or nonperformance of a public 18377
duty, including the performance or nonperformance of a public duty 18378
that is owed by the state in relation to any action of an 18379
individual who is committed to the custody of the state.18380

       (b) The state immunity provided in division (A)(3)(a) of this 18381
section does not apply to any action of the state under 18382
circumstances in which a special relationship can be established 18383
between the state and an injured party. A special relationship 18384
under this division is demonstrated if all of the following 18385
elements exist:18386

       (i) An assumption by the state, by means of promises or 18387
actions, of an affirmative duty to act on behalf of the party who 18388
was allegedly injured;18389

       (ii) Knowledge on the part of the state's agents that 18390
inaction of the state could lead to harm;18391

       (iii) Some form of direct contact between the state's agents 18392
and the injured party;18393

       (iv) The injured party's justifiable reliance on the state's 18394
affirmative undertaking.18395

       (B) The state hereby waives the immunity from liability of 18396
all hospitals owned or operated by one or more political 18397
subdivisions and consents for them to be sued, and to have their 18398
liability determined, in the court of common pleas, in accordance 18399
with the same rules of law applicable to suits between private 18400
parties, subject to the limitations set forth in this chapter. 18401
This division is also applicable to hospitals owned or operated by 18402
political subdivisions whichthat have been determined by the 18403
supreme court to be subject to suit prior to July 28, 1975.18404

       (C) Any hospital, as defined in section 2305.113 of the 18405
Revised Code, may purchase liability insurance covering its 18406
operations and activities and its agents, employees, nurses, 18407
interns, residents, staff, and members of the governing board and 18408
committees, and, whether or not such insurance is purchased, may, 18409
to suchthe extent asthat its governing board considers 18410
appropriate, indemnify or agree to indemnify and hold harmless any 18411
such person against expense, including attorney's fees, damage, 18412
loss, or other liability arising out of, or claimed to have arisen 18413
out of, the death, disease, or injury of any person as a result of 18414
the negligence, malpractice, or other action or inaction of the 18415
indemnified person while acting within the scope of the 18416
indemnified person's duties or engaged in activities at the 18417
request or direction, or for the benefit, of the hospital. Any 18418
hospital electing to indemnify suchthose persons, or to agree to 18419
so indemnify, shall reserve suchany funds asthat are necessary, 18420
in the exercise of sound and prudent actuarial judgment, to cover 18421
the potential expense, fees, damage, loss, or other liability. The 18422
superintendent of insurance may recommend, or, if suchthe18423
hospital requests the superintendent to do so, the superintendent 18424
shall recommend, a specific amount for any period that, in the 18425
superintendent's opinion, represents such a judgment. This 18426
authority is in addition to any authorization otherwise provided 18427
or permitted by law.18428

       (D) Recoveries against the state shall be reduced by the 18429
aggregate of insurance proceeds, disability award, or other 18430
collateral recovery received by the claimant. This division does 18431
not apply to civil actions in the court of claims against a state 18432
university or college under the circumstances described in section 18433
3345.40 of the Revised Code. The collateral benefits provisions of 18434
division (B)(2) of that section apply under those circumstances.18435

       (E) The only defendant in original actions in the court of 18436
claims is the state. The state may file a third-party complaint or 18437
counterclaim in any civil action, except a civil action for two18438
ten thousand five hundred dollars or less, that is filed in the 18439
court of claims.18440

       (F) A civil action against an officer or employee, as defined 18441
in section 109.36 of the Revised Code, that alleges that the 18442
officer's or employee's conduct was manifestly outside the scope 18443
of the officer's or employee's employment or official 18444
responsibilities, or that the officer or employee acted with 18445
malicious purpose, in bad faith, or in a wanton or reckless manner 18446
shall first be filed against the state in the court of claims, 18447
whichthat has exclusive, original jurisdiction to determine, 18448
initially, whether the officer or employee is entitled to personal 18449
immunity under section 9.86 of the Revised Code and whether the 18450
courts of common pleas have jurisdiction over the civil action. 18451
The officer or employee may participate in the immunity 18452
determination proceeding before the court of claims to determine 18453
whether the officer or employee is entitled to personal immunity 18454
under section 9.86 of the Revised Code.18455

       The filing of a claim against an officer or employee under 18456
this division tolls the running of the applicable statute of 18457
limitations until the court of claims determines whether the 18458
officer or employee is entitled to personal immunity under section 18459
9.86 of the Revised Code.18460

       (G) WheneverIf a claim lies against an officer or employee 18461
who is a member of the Ohio national guard, and the officer or 18462
employee was, at the time of the act or omission complained of, 18463
subject to the "Federal Tort Claims Act," 60 Stat. 842 (1946), 28 18464
U.S.C. 2671, et seq., then the Federal Tort Claims Act is the 18465
exclusive remedy of the claimant and the state has no liability 18466
under this section.18467

       (H) If an inmate of a state correctional institution has a 18468
claim against the state for the loss of or damage to property and 18469
the amount claimed does not exceed three hundred dollars, before 18470
commencing an action against the state in the court of claims, the 18471
inmate shall file a claim for the loss or damage under the rules 18472
adopted by the director of rehabilitation and correction pursuant 18473
to this division. The inmate shall file the claim within the time 18474
allowed for commencement of a civil action under section 2743.16 18475
of the Revised Code. If the state admits or compromises the claim, 18476
the director shall make payment from a fund designated by the 18477
director for that purpose. If the state denies the claim or does 18478
not compromise the claim at least sixty days prior to expiration 18479
of the time allowed for commencement of a civil action based upon 18480
the loss or damage under section 2743.16 of the Revised Code, the 18481
inmate may commence an action in the court of claims under this 18482
chapter to recover damages for the loss or damage.18483

       The director of rehabilitation and correction shall adopt 18484
rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement 18485
this division.18486

       Sec. 2743.021.  (A) As used in this section and section 18487
2743.022 of the Revised Code:18488

       (1)(a) "Governmental function" means a function of the 18489
department of transportation that is specified in division 18490
(A)(1)(b) of this section or that satisfies any of the following:18491

       (i) A function that is imposed upon the state as an 18492
obligation of sovereignty and is performed by the department of 18493
transportation voluntarily or pursuant to legislative requirement;18494

       (ii) A function that is for the common good of all citizens 18495
of the state;18496

       (iii) A function that promotes or preserves the public peace, 18497
health, safety, or welfare and that involves activities that are 18498
not engaged in or not customarily engaged in by nongovernmental 18499
persons.18500

       (b) "Governmental function" includes, but is not limited to, 18501
the following functions insofar as they are within the 18502
jurisdiction of the department of transportation:18503

       (i) The provision or nonprovision of roadway services;18504

       (ii) The regulation of the use of, and the design, 18505
construction, reconstruction, repair, renovation, and maintenance 18506
of roads, highways, streets, avenues, alleys, sidewalks, bridges, 18507
culverts, aqueducts, viaducts, and public grounds;18508

       (iii) Quasi-judicial, prosecutorial, and quasi-legislative 18509
functions, including, but not limited to, permitting functions;18510

       (iv) The design, construction, reconstruction, repair, 18511
renovation, maintenance, and operation of buildings that are used 18512
in connection with the performance of a governmental function, 18513
including, but not limited to, office buildings, garage 18514
facilities, and rest areas;18515

       (v) The enforcement or nonperformance of any law;18516

       (vi) The regulation of traffic and the erection or 18517
nonerection of traffic signs, signals, or control devices;18518

       (vii) The collection and disposal of solid wastes, as defined 18519
in section 3734.01 of the Revised Code; 18520

       (viii) The provision or nonprovision, planning or design, 18521
construction, or reconstruction of a public improvement, 18522
including, but not limited to, a sewer system;18523

       (ix) The provision or nonprovision of inspection services of 18524
all types, including, but not limited to, inspections in 18525
connection with building, zoning, sanitation, fire, plumbing, and 18526
electrical codes, and the taking of actions in connection with 18527
those types of codes, including, but not limited to, the approval 18528
of plans for the construction of buildings or structures and the 18529
issuance or revocation of building permits or stop work orders in 18530
connection with buildings or structures;18531

       (x) Flood control measures;18532

       (xi) The issuance of revenue obligations;18533

       (xii) The design, construction, reconstruction, renovation, 18534
repair, maintenance, and operation of any recreational area or 18535
facility incident to a highway improvement;18536

       (xiii) A function that the general assembly requires the 18537
department of transportation to perform, including, but not 18538
limited to, any duties, powers, and functions that are conferred 18539
by law on the department of transportation or the director, the 18540
assistant directors, the deputy directors, or the divisions of the 18541
department under Title LV of the Revised Code.18542

       (2) "Proprietary function" means a function of the department 18543
of transportation that satisfies both of the following:18544

       (a) The function is not one described in division 18545
(A)(1)(a)(i) or (ii) of this section and is not one specified in 18546
division (A)(1)(b) of this section;18547

       (b) The function is one that promotes or preserves the public 18548
peace, health, safety, or welfare and that involves activities 18549
that are customarily engaged in by nongovernmental persons.18550

       (B)(1) Notwithstanding any provision in this chapter, the 18551
liability of the department of transportation for damages in a 18552
civil action for injury, death, or loss to person or property 18553
allegedly caused by any act or omission of the department of 18554
transportation or of any of its officers or employees in 18555
connection with a governmental or proprietary function shall be 18556
determined in accordance with this section and section 2743.022 of 18557
the Revised Code. 18558

       (2) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, the 18559
department of transportation is not liable in damages in a civil 18560
action for injury, death, or loss to person or property allegedly 18561
caused by any act or omission of the department of transportation 18562
or of any of its officers or employees in connection with a 18563
governmental or proprietary function.18564

       (C) Subject to section 2743.022 of the Revised Code, the 18565
department of transportation is liable in damages in a civil 18566
action for injury, death, or loss to person or property shown to 18567
be caused by a preponderance of the evidence by any act or 18568
omission of the department of transportation or of any of its 18569
officers or employees in connection with a governmental or 18570
proprietary function, as follows:18571

       (1) The department of transportation is liable for injury, 18572
death, or loss to person or property caused by the negligent 18573
operation of any motor vehicle by any of its officers or employees 18574
while the officer or employee is engaged within the officer's or 18575
employee's scope of employment and authority. 18576

       (2) The department of transportation is liable for injury, 18577
death, or loss to person or property caused by the negligent 18578
performance of acts by any of its officers or employees with 18579
respect to proprietary functions of the department of 18580
transportation.18581

       (3)(a) The department of transportation is liable for injury, 18582
death, or loss to person or property caused by its negligent 18583
failure to keep roads or highways under the jurisdiction of the 18584
department in repair and other negligent failure to remove 18585
obstructions from roads or highways under the jurisdiction of the 18586
department.18587

       (b) As used in division (C)(3)(a) of this section, "road" and 18588
"highway" have the same meanings as in section 5501.01 of the 18589
Revised Code but do not include berms, shoulders, rights-of-way, 18590
or traffic control devices unless the traffic control devices are 18591
mandated by the Ohio manual of uniform traffic control devices.18592

       (4) The department of transportation is liable for injury, 18593
death, or loss to person or property that is caused by the 18594
negligence of any of its officers or employees and that occurs 18595
within or on the grounds of, and is due to patent physical defects 18596
within or on the grounds of, buildings that are used in connection 18597
with the performance of a governmental function of the department 18598
of transportation.18599

       (5) In addition to the circumstances described in divisions 18600
(C)(1) to (4) of this section, the department of transportation is 18601
liable for injury, death, or loss to person or property when civil 18602
liability is expressly imposed upon the department of 18603
transportation by a section of the Revised Code. Civil liability 18604
shall not be construed to exist under another section of the 18605
Revised Code merely because that section imposes a responsibility 18606
or mandatory duty upon the department of transportation, because 18607
that section provides for a criminal penalty, because of a general 18608
authorization in that section that the department of 18609
transportation may sue and be sued, or because that section uses 18610
the term "shall" in a provision pertaining to the department of 18611
transportation.18612

       Sec. 2743.022. (A) In a civil action brought against the 18613
department of transportation or an officer or employee of the 18614
department to recover damages for injury, death, or loss to person 18615
or property allegedly caused by any act or omission in connection 18616
with a governmental or proprietary function, the following 18617
defenses or immunities may be asserted to establish nonliability:18618

        (1) The department is immune from liability if the officer or 18619
employee involved was engaged in the performance of a 18620
quasi-judicial, prosecutorial, or quasi-legislative function.18621

        (2) The department is immune from liability if the conduct of 18622
the officer or employee involved, other than negligent conduct, 18623
that gave rise to the claim of liability was required by law or 18624
authorized by law, or if the conduct of the officer or employee 18625
involved that gave rise to the claim of liability was necessary or 18626
essential to the exercise of the powers of the department or the 18627
officer or employee.18628

        (3) The department is immune from liability if the action or 18629
failure to act by the officer or employee involved that gave rise 18630
to the claim of liability was within the discretion of the officer 18631
or employee with respect to policy-making, planning, or 18632
enforcement powers by virtue of the duties and responsibilities of 18633
the office or position of the officer or employee.18634

        (4) The department is immune from liability if the injury, 18635
death, or loss to person or property resulted from the exercise of 18636
judgment or discretion in determining whether to acquire, or how 18637
to use, equipment, supplies, materials, personnel, facilities, and 18638
other resources unless the judgment or discretion was exercised 18639
with malicious purpose, in bad faith, or in a wanton or reckless 18640
manner.18641

        (5) The officer or employee of the department of 18642
transportation is immune from liability unless one of the 18643
following applies:18644

        (a) The officer's or employee's acts or omissions were 18645
manifestly outside the scope of the officer's or employee's 18646
employment or official responsibilities.18647

        (b) The officer's or employee's acts or omissions were with 18648
malicious purpose, in bad faith, or in a wanton or reckless 18649
manner.18650

        (c) Civil liability is expressly imposed upon the officer or 18651
employee by a section of the Revised Code. Civil liability shall 18652
not be construed to exist under another section of the Revised 18653
Code merely because that section imposes a responsibility or 18654
mandatory duty upon an officer or employee, because that section 18655
provides for a criminal penalty, because of a general 18656
authorization in that section that an officer or employee may sue 18657
and be sued, or because the section uses the term "shall" in a 18658
provision pertaining to an officer or employee.18659

        (B) Any immunity or defense conferred upon an officer or 18660
employee of the department of transportation by division (A)(5) of 18661
this section does not affect or limit any liability of the 18662
department of transportation for an act or omission of the officer 18663
or employee as provided in section 2743.021 of the Revised Code.18664

        (C) An order that denies the department of transportation or 18665
an officer or employee of the department the benefit of an alleged 18666
immunity from liability as provided in this section or any other 18667
provision of the law is a final order.18668

       Sec. 2743.09.  The clerk of the court of claims shall do all 18669
of the following:18670

       (A) Administer oaths and take and certify affidavits, 18671
depositions, and acknowledgments of powers of attorney and other 18672
instruments in writing;18673

       (B) Prepare the dockets, enter and record the orders, 18674
judgments, decisions, awards, and proceedings of the court of 18675
claims and the court of claims commissioners, and issue writs and 18676
process;18677

       (C) Maintain an office in Franklin county in rooms provided 18678
by the supreme court for that purpose;18679

       (D) Keep an appearance docket of civil actions, claims for an 18680
award of reparations, and appeals from decisions of the court of 18681
claims commissioners. The clerk may refuse to accept for filing 18682
any pleading or paper that relates to a civil action in the court 18683
of claims and that is submitted for filing by a person who has 18684
been found to be a vexatious litigator under section 2323.52 of 18685
the Revised Code and who has failed to obtain leave to proceed 18686
under that section.18687

       Upon the commencement of an action or claim, the clerk shall 18688
assign it a number. This number shall be placed on the first page, 18689
and every continuation page, of the appearance docket that 18690
concerns the particular action or claim. In addition, this number 18691
and the names of the parties shall be placed on the case file, and 18692
every paper filed in the action or claim.18693

       At the time the action is commenced the clerk shall enter in 18694
the appearance docket the names of the parties in full and the 18695
names of counsel and shall index the action alphabetically by the 18696
last name of each party. Thereafter, the clerk shall 18697
chronologically note in the appearance docket all process issued 18698
and returns, pleas, motions, papers filed in the action, orders, 18699
verdicts, and judgments. The notations shall be brief but shall 18700
show the date of filing, substance, and journal volume and page of 18701
each order, verdict, and judgment. An action is commenced for 18702
purposes of this division by the filing of a complaint, including 18703
a form complaint under section 2743.10 of the Revised Code or a 18704
petition for removal.18705

       At the time an appeal for an award of reparations is 18706
commenced, the clerk shall enter the full names of the claimant, 18707
the victim, and the attorneys in the appearance docket and shall 18708
index the claim alphabetically by the last name of the claimant 18709
and the victim. Thereafter, the clerk shall chronologically note 18710
in the appearance docket all process issued and returns, motions, 18711
papers filed in the claim, orders, decisions, and awards. The 18712
notations shall be brief but shall show the date of filing, 18713
substance, and journal volume and page of each order. 18714

       (E) Keep all original papers filed in an action or claim in a 18715
separate file folder and a journal in which all orders, verdicts, 18716
and judgments of the court and commissioners shall be recorded;18717

       (F) Charge and collect fees pursuant to section 2303.20 of 18718
the Revised Code, keep a cashbook in which the clerk shall enter 18719
the amounts received, make a report to the clerk of the supreme 18720
court each quarter of the fees received during the preceding 18721
quarter, and pay them monthly into the state treasury;18722

       (G) Appoint stenographers, shorthand reporters, and other 18723
clerical personnel;18724

       (H) Under the direction of the chief justice, establish 18725
procedures for hearing and determining appeals for an award of 18726
reparations pursuant to sections 2743.51 to 2743.72 of the Revised 18727
Code.18728

       Sec. 2743.10.  (A) Civil actions against the state for two18729
ten thousand five hundred dollars or less shall be determined 18730
administratively by the clerk of the court of claims, except that 18731
the clerk is not required to administratively determine a civil 18732
action of that nature if the civil action was commenced by a 18733
person who has been found to be a vexatious litigator under 18734
section 2323.52 of the Revised Code and who has failed to obtain 18735
leave to proceed under that section and if the clerk refused 18736
pursuant to division (D) of section 2743.09 of the Revised Code to 18737
accept for filing any pleading or paper that relates to the civil 18738
action and that was submitted for filing by that person and except 18739
that all civil actions against the state that have been removed to 18740
the court of claims shall be heard and determined by a judge of 18741
the court of claims.18742

       (B) Civil actions covered by division (A) of this section 18743
shall be commenced by filing with the clerk on complaint forms 18744
prescribed by the supreme court. The clerk shall forward copies of 18745
the form complaint to the attorney general and the state 18746
department, board, office, commission, agency, institution, or 18747
other instrumentality whose actions or failure to act are the 18748
subject of complaint. The latter shall investigate the allegations 18749
made in the form complaint and report the results of its 18750
investigation to the clerk within sixty days of receipt of a copy 18751
of the form complaint. The clerk shall forward a copy of the 18752
report to the claimant and give the claimant an opportunity to 18753
respond to the report either in writing or by appearing before the 18754
clerk.18755

       (C) The clerk shall determine the civil action covered by 18756
division (A) of this section and make a report of the decision, 18757
together with findings of fact and conclusions of law, copies of 18758
which shall be mailed to the claimant and the state 18759
instrumentality. Except as otherwise provided in this division, 18760
the determination shall be based upon principles of law applicable 18761
in the court of claims, including, but not limited to, section 18762
3345.40 of the Revised Code if a state university or college is a 18763
defendant in the court of claims.18764

       Rules of evidence shall not be applicable in the 18765
determination. Procedures shall be governed by rules promulgated 18766
by the clerk, shall be informal, and shall be designed to 18767
accommodate persons who are not skilled in the law.18768

       (D) Upon the motion of a party, the court of claims shall 18769
review the determination of the clerk upon the clerk's report and 18770
papers filed in the action and shall enter judgment consistent 18771
with its findings. The judgment shall not be the subject of 18772
further appeal. No civil action arising out of the same 18773
transaction or set of facts may be commenced by the claimant in 18774
the court of claims.18775

       (E) The determination of the clerk pursuant to division (C) 18776
of this section shall be processed pursuant to section 2743.19 of 18777
the Revised Code as if it were a judgment.18778

       Sec. 2743.48.  (A) As used in this section and section 18779
2743.49 of the Revised Code, a "wrongfully imprisoned individual" 18780
means an individual who satisfiesproves each of the following by 18781
clear and convincing evidence:18782

       (1) The individual was charged with a violation of a section 18783
of the Revised Code by an indictment or information prior to, or 18784
on or after, September 24, 1986, and the violation charged was an 18785
aggravated felony or felony.18786

       (2) The individual was found guilty of, but did not plead 18787
guilty to, the particular charge or a lesser-included offense by 18788
the court or jury involved, the offender did not plead guilty or 18789
no contest to the particular charge or a lesser-included offense, 18790
whether or not the guilty or no-contest plea was accepted and 18791
whether or not the guilty or no-contest plea was later withdrawn, 18792
vacated, voided by operation of law, overturned, set aside, or 18793
otherwise invalidated by any court, by executive pardon, or by 18794
post-conviction proceeding, and the offense of which the 18795
individual was found guilty was an aggravated felony or felony.18796

       (3) The individual was sentenced to an indefinite or definite 18797
term of imprisonment in a state correctional institution for the 18798
offense of which the individual was found guilty.18799

       (4) The individual's conviction was vacated or was,18800
dismissed, or reversed on appeal, the prosecuting attorney in the 18801
case cannot or will not seek any further appeal of right or upon 18802
leave of court, and no criminal proceeding is pending, can be 18803
brought, or will be brought by any prosecuting attorney, city 18804
director of law, village solicitor, or other chief legal officer 18805
of a municipal corporation against the individual for any act 18806
associated with that conviction.18807

       (5) Subsequent to sentencing and during or subsequent to 18808
imprisonment, an error in procedure resulted in the individual's 18809
release, or it was determined by athe court of common pleas in 18810
the county where the underlying criminal action was initiated that 18811
the charged offense of which the individual was found guilty, 18812
including all lesser-included offenses, either was not committed 18813
by the individual or was not committed by any person.18814

       (6) At the time of the offense that individual was not 18815
engaging in any other criminal conduct arising out of the incident 18816
for which the individual was initially charged.18817

       (B)(1) When aA person may file a civil action to be declared 18818
a wrongfully imprisoned individual in the court of common pleas in 18819
the county where the underlying criminal action was initiated. 18820
That civil action shall be separate from the underlying finding of 18821
guilt by the court of common pleas. There is no right to a jury 18822
trial in that action. The prosecuting attorney of that county 18823
shall be served with a copy of the complaint and shall defend all 18824
civil actions to determine a person to be a wrongfully imprisoned 18825
individual under this section. Upon the filing of a civil action 18826
to be determined a wrongfully imprisoned individual, the attorney 18827
general shall also be served with a copy of the complaint and 18828
shall be heard.18829

       (2) When the court of common pleas in the county where the 18830
underlying criminal action was initiated determines, on or after 18831
September 24, 1986,in a separate civil action that a person is a 18832
wrongfully imprisoned individual, the court shall provide the 18833
person with a copy of this section and orally inform the person 18834
and the person's attorney of the person's rights under this 18835
section to commence a civil action against the state in the court 18836
of claims because of the person's wrongful imprisonment and to be 18837
represented in that civil action by counsel of the person's own 18838
choice.18839

       (2)(3) The court described in division (B)(1) of this section 18840
shall notify the clerk of the court of claims, in writing and 18841
within seven days after the date of the entry of its determination 18842
that the person is a wrongfully imprisoned individual, of the name 18843
and proposed mailing address of the person and of the fact that 18844
the person has the rights to commence a civil action and to have 18845
legal representation as provided in this section. The clerk of the 18846
court of claims shall maintain in the clerk's office a list of 18847
wrongfully imprisoned individuals for whom notices are received 18848
under this section and shall create files in the clerk's office 18849
for each such individual.18850

       (3)(4) Within sixty days after the date of the entry of a 18851
court of common plea's determination that a person is a wrongfully 18852
imprisoned individualfiling of the complaint for damages in the 18853
court of claims and the finding by the court of claims of the 18854
number of days of wrongful imprisonment in a state correctional 18855
institution, the clerk of the court of claims shall forward a 18856
preliminary judgment to the president of the controlling board 18857
requesting the payment of fifty per cent of the amount described 18858
in division (E)(2)(b) of this section to the wrongfully imprisoned 18859
individual. The board shall take all actions necessary to cause 18860
the payment of that amount out of the emergency purposes special 18861
purpose account of the board.18862

       (5) If an individual was serving at the time of the wrongful 18863
imprisonment concurrent sentences on other convictions that were 18864
not vacated, dismissed, or reversed on appeal, the individual is 18865
not eligible for compensation as described in this section for any 18866
portion of that wrongful imprisonment that occurred during a 18867
concurrent sentence of that nature.18868

       (C)(1) In a civil action under this section, a wrongfully 18869
imprisoned individual has the right to have counsel of the 18870
individual's own choice.18871

       (2) If a wrongfully imprisoned individual who is the subject 18872
of a court determination as described in division (B)(1)(2) of 18873
this section does not commence a civil action under this section 18874
within six months after the entry of that determination, the clerk 18875
of the court of claims shall send a letter to the wrongfully 18876
imprisoned individual, at the address set forth in the notice 18877
received from the court of common pleas pursuant to division 18878
(B)(2)(3) of this section or to any later address provided by the 18879
wrongfully imprisoned individual, that reminds the wrongfully 18880
imprisoned individual of the wrongfully imprisoned individual's 18881
rights under this section. Until the statute of limitations 18882
provided in division (H) of this section expires and unless the 18883
wrongfully imprisoned individual commences a civil action under 18884
this section, the clerk of the court of claims shall send a 18885
similar letter in a similar manner to the wrongfully imprisoned 18886
individual at least once each three months after the sending of 18887
the first reminder.18888

       (D) Notwithstanding any provisions of this chapter to the 18889
contrary, a wrongfully imprisoned individual has and may file a 18890
civil action against the state, in the court of claims, to recover 18891
a sum of money as described in this section, because of the 18892
individual's wrongful imprisonment. The court of claims shall have 18893
exclusive, original jurisdiction over such a civil action. The 18894
civil action shall proceed, be heard, and be determined as 18895
provided in sections 2743.01 to 2743.20 of the Revised Code, 18896
except that if a provision of this section conflicts with a 18897
provision in any of those sections, the provision in this section 18898
controls.18899

       (E)(1) In a civil action as described in division (D) of this 18900
section, the complainant may establish that the claimant is a 18901
wrongfully imprisoned individual by submitting to the court of 18902
claims a certified copy of the judgment entry of the court of 18903
common pleas associated with the claimant's conviction and 18904
sentencing, and a certified copy of the entry of the determination 18905
of athe court of common pleas that the claimant is a wrongfully 18906
imprisoned individual under division (B)(2) of this section. No 18907
other evidence shall be required of the complainant to establish 18908
that the claimant is a wrongfully imprisoned individual, and the 18909
claimant shall be irrebuttablyrebuttably presumed to be a 18910
wrongfully imprisoned individual absent a violation of any 18911
provision of this section or of section 2305.02 of the Revised 18912
Code.18913

       (2) In a civil action as described in division (D) of this 18914
section, upon presentation of requisite proof to the court of 18915
claims, a wrongfully imprisoned individual is entitled to receive 18916
a sum of money that equals the total of each of the following 18917
amounts:18918

       (a) The amount of any fine or court costs imposed and paid, 18919
and the reasonable attorney's fees and other expenses incurred by 18920
the wrongfully imprisoned individual in connection with all 18921
associated criminal proceedings and appeals, and, if applicable, 18922
in connection with obtaining the wrongfully imprisoned 18923
individual's discharge from confinement in the state correctional 18924
institution;18925

       (b) For each full year of imprisonment in the state 18926
correctional institution for the offense of which the wrongfully 18927
imprisoned individual was found guilty, forty thousand three 18928
hundred thirty dollars or the adjusted amount determined by the 18929
auditor of state pursuant to section 2743.49 of the Revised Code, 18930
and for each part of a year of being so imprisoned, a pro-rated 18931
share of forty thousand three hundred thirty dollars or the 18932
adjusted amount determined by the auditor of state pursuant to 18933
section 2743.49 of the Revised Code;18934

       (c) Any loss of wages, salary, or other earned income that 18935
directly resulted from the wrongfully imprisoned individual's 18936
arrest, prosecution, conviction, and wrongful imprisonment;18937

       (d) The amount of the following cost debts the department of 18938
rehabilitation and correction recovered from the wrongfully 18939
imprisoned individual who was in custody of the department or 18940
under the department's supervision:18941

       (i) Any user fee or copayment for services at a detention 18942
facility, including, but not limited to, a fee or copayment for 18943
sick call visits;18944

       (ii) The cost of housing and feeding the wrongfully 18945
imprisoned individual in a detention facility;18946

       (iii) The cost of supervision of the wrongfully imprisoned 18947
individual;18948

       (iv) The cost of any ancillary services provided to the 18949
wrongfully imprisoned individual.18950

       (3) The court of claims shall deduct any known debts owed by 18951
the wrongfully imprisoned individual to the state as described in 18952
division (A) of section 2743.01 of the Revised Code or a political 18953
subdivision under division (B) of section 2743.01 of the Revised 18954
Code from the sum of money described in division (E)(2) of this 18955
section, and those deducted amounts shall be paid to the state or 18956
political subdivision, whichever is applicable.18957

       (F)(1) If the court of claims determines in a civil action as 18958
described in division (D) of this section that the complainant is 18959
a wrongfully imprisoned individual, it shall enter judgment for 18960
the wrongfully imprisoned individual in the amount of the sum of 18961
money to which the wrongfully imprisoned individual is entitled 18962
under division (E)(2) of this section. In determining that sum, 18963
the court of claims shall not take into consideration any expenses 18964
incurred by the state or any of its political subdivisions in 18965
connection with the arrest, prosecution, and imprisonment of the 18966
wrongfully imprisoned individual, including, but not limited to, 18967
expenses for food, clothing, shelter, and medical services. The 18968
court shall reduce that sum by the amount of the payment to the 18969
wrongfully imprisoned individual described in divisiondivisions18970
(B)(3)(4) and (E)(3) of this section.18971

       (2) If the wrongfully imprisoned individual was represented 18972
in the civil action under this section by counsel of the 18973
wrongfully imprisoned individual's own choice, theThe clerk of 18974
the court of claims shall include in the judgment entry referred 18975
to in division (F)(1) of this section an award for the payment of 18976
the court costs, transcripts, expert witness fees, and other18977
reasonable attorney's fees of that counselout-of-pocket 18978
litigation expenses related to the civil action described in 18979
division (D) of this section. These fees shall be paid as provided 18980
in division (G) of this section.18981

       (3) The state consents to be sued by a wrongfully imprisoned 18982
individual because the imprisonment was wrongful, and to liability 18983
on its part because of that fact, only as provided in this 18984
section. However, this section does not affect any liability of 18985
the state or of its employees to a wrongfully imprisoned 18986
individual on a claim for relief that is not based on the fact of 18987
the wrongful imprisonment, including, but not limited to, a claim 18988
for relief that arises out of circumstances occurring during the 18989
wrongfully imprisoned individual's confinement in the state 18990
correctional institution.18991

       (G) The clerk of the court of claims shall forward a 18992
certified copy of a judgment under division (F) of this section to 18993
the president of the controlling board. The board shall take all 18994
actions necessary to cause the payment of the judgment out of the 18995
emergency purposes special purpose account of the board.18996

       (H) To be eligible to recover a sum of money as described in 18997
this section because of wrongful imprisonment, aboth of the 18998
following shall apply to a wrongfully imprisoned individual:18999

       (1) The wrongfully imprisoned individual shall not have been, 19000
prior to September 24, 1986, the subject of an act of the general 19001
assembly that authorized an award of compensation for the wrongful 19002
imprisonment or have been the subject of an action before the 19003
former sundry claims board that resulted in an award of 19004
compensation for the wrongful imprisonment. Additionally, to be 19005
eligible to so recover, the19006

       (2) The wrongfully imprisoned individual shall commence a 19007
civil action under this section in the court of claims no later 19008
than two years after the date of the entry of the determination of 19009
athe court of common pleas that the individual is a wrongfully 19010
imprisoned individual under division (B)(2) of this section.19011

       Sec. 2746.01.  A court of record of this state shall tax as 19012
costs or otherwise require the payment of fees for the following 19013
services rendered or as compensation for the following persons or 19014
any other of the following fees that are applicable in a 19015
particular case:19016

       (A) Appraisers, commissioners, or arbitrators appointed to 19017
make or procure an appraisement or valuation of any property, as 19018
provided in section 2335.02 of the Revised Code; 19019

       (B) Auctioneers appointed to conduct any public auction of 19020
goods, chattels, or lands required to be sold by an officer of the 19021
court, as provided in section 2335.021 of the Revised Code; 19022

       (C) Commissioners appointed to make partition of lands or to 19023
assign dower and appraisers of real or personal property on 19024
execution, replevin, or attachment or to fix the value of exempt 19025
property, as provided in section 2335.01 of the Revised Code; 19026

       (D) Deposit of rent with the clerk of court by a resident of 19027
a manufactured home park, as provided in section 3733.1214781.4219028
of the Revised Code, or by a tenant of residential premises, as 19029
provided in section 5321.08 of the Revised Code;19030

       (E) Interpreters, as provided in section 2335.09 of the 19031
Revised Code;19032

       (F) Fees in a civil action or appeal commenced by an inmate 19033
against a government entity or employee, as provided in section 19034
2969.22 of the Revised Code;19035

       (G) Procurement of a transcript of a judgment or proceeding 19036
or exemplification of a record in an appeal or other civil action, 19037
as provided in section 2303.21 of the Revised Code;19038

       (H) Publication of an advertisement, notice, or proclamation 19039
required to be published by a trustee, assignee, executor, 19040
administrator, receiver, or other officer of the court or a party 19041
in a case or proceeding, as provided in section 7.13 of the 19042
Revised Code;19043

       (I) Publication of calendars, motion dockets, legal 19044
advertisements, and notices, the fees for which are not fixed by 19045
law, as provided in section 2701.09 of the Revised Code;19046

       (J) Sheriffs, as provided in section 311.17 of the Revised 19047
Code;19048

       (K) Township constables or members of the police force of a 19049
township police district or joint police district, as provided in 19050
section 509.15 of the Revised Code;19051

       (L) Witnesses, as follows:19052

       (1) Fees and mileage in civil cases, as provided in section 19053
2335.06 of the Revised Code;19054

       (2) Fees and mileage in criminal cases, as provided in 19055
section 2335.08 of the Revised Code;19056

       (3) Fees in all cases or proceedings not specified in 19057
sections 2335.06 and 2335.08 of the Revised Code, as provided in 19058
section 2335.05 of the Revised Code;19059

       (4) Fees of municipal police officers in state felony cases, 19060
as provided in section 2335.17 of the Revised Code;19061

       (5) Fees in arbitration proceedings, as provided in section 19062
2711.06 of the Revised Code.19063

       (M) In an action to abate a nuisance or to enforce a local 19064
code relating to buildings, the expenses of operating and 19065
conserving the building, as provided in section 3767.41 of the 19066
Revised Code.19067

       Sec. 2746.03.  In addition to any applicable fees or costs 19068
set forth in sections 2746.01 and 2746.02 of the Revised Code or 19069
any other applicable provision of law, the supreme court, a court 19070
of appeals, or the court of claims shall tax as costs or otherwise 19071
require the payment of fees for the following services rendered or 19072
as compensation for the following persons or any other of the 19073
following fees that are applicable in a particular case:19074

       (A) In the supreme court, filing fees, as provided in section 19075
2503.17 of the Revised Code;19076

       (B) In a court of appeals:19077

       (1) Fees collectible by the clerk of a court of common pleas 19078
when acting as the clerk of the court of appeals of the county, as 19079
provided in section 2303.03 of the Revised Code;19080

       (2) Additional filing fees or charges for special projects, 19081
programs, or services, as provided in section 2501.16 of the 19082
Revised Code;19083

       (3) Sheriffs or other officers who serve process, as provided 19084
in section 2501.19 of the Revised Code;19085

       (4) Shorthand reportersReporters, as provided in section 19086
2501.17 of the Revised Code;19087

       (5) The expense of preparing and transcribing the record in 19088
an appeal to the tenth district court of appeals from a ruling of 19089
the director of health under the certificate of need program, as 19090
provided in section 3702.60 of the Revised Code.19091

       (C) In the court of claims:19092

       (1) The fees provided for in section 2743.09 of the Revised 19093
Code;19094

       (2) Witness fees and mileage, as provided in section 2743.06 19095
of the Revised Code.19096

       Sec. 2746.04.  In addition to any applicable fees or costs 19097
set forth in sections 2746.01 and 2746.02 of the Revised Code or 19098
any other applicable provision of law, a court of common pleas 19099
shall tax as costs or otherwise require the payment of fees for 19100
the following services rendered or as compensation for the 19101
following persons or any other of the following fees that are 19102
applicable in a particular case:19103

       (A) The fees provided for in section 2303.20 of the Revised 19104
Code;19105

       (B) Additional fees to computerize the court, make available 19106
computerized legal research services, computerize the office of 19107
the clerk of the court, provide financial assistance to legal aid 19108
societies, support the office of the state public defender, fund 19109
shelters for victims of domestic violence, and special projects of 19110
the court, as provided in section 2303.201 and, for a court that 19111
has a domestic relations division, section 2301.031 of the Revised 19112
Code;19113

       (C) Filing for a divorce decree under section 3105.10 or a 19114
decree of dissolution under section 3105.65 of the Revised Code, 19115
as provided in section 3109.14 of the Revised Code;19116

       (D) Filing of a foreign judgment pursuant to section 2329.022 19117
of the Revised Code, as provided in section 2329.025 of the 19118
Revised Code;19119

       (E) Interpreters, as provided in section 2301.14 of the 19120
Revised Code;19121

       (F) Jurors in civil actions, as provided in section 2335.28 19122
of the Revised Code;19123

       (G) Shorthand reportersReporters, as provided in sections 19124
2301.21 and 2301.24 of the Revised Code;19125

       (H) In a case involving the operation by a nonresident of a 19126
vessel upon the waters in this state, or the operation on the 19127
waters in this state of a vessel owned by a nonresident if 19128
operated with his consent, actual traveling expenses of the 19129
defendant, as provided in section 1547.36 of the Revised Code; 19130

       (I) In a civil case, the expenses of taking a deposition of a 19131
person who is imprisoned in a workhouse, juvenile detention 19132
facility, jail, or state correctional institution within this 19133
state, or who is in the custody of the department of youth 19134
services, as provided in section 2317.06 of the Revised Code;19135

       (J) In proceedings relating to the examination of a judgment 19136
debtor under sections 2333.09 to 2333.27 of the Revised Code, 19137
compensation for clerks, sheriffs, referees, receivers, and 19138
witnesses, as provided in section 2333.27 of the Revised Code;19139

       (K) In an appeal from an order of an agency issued pursuant 19140
to an adjudication under section 119.12 of the Revised Code, the 19141
expense of preparing and transcribing the record;19142

       (L) In a case in which the court issues a protection order 19143
upon a petition alleging that the respondent engaged in domestic 19144
violence against a family or household member, the cost of 19145
supervision of the respondent's exercise of parenting time, 19146
visitation, or companionship rights, as provided in section 19147
3113.31 of the Revised Code;19148

       (M) Upon a petition to have a person involuntarily 19149
institutionalized, the costs of appointed counsel for the 19150
respondent at a full hearing, as provided in section 5123.76 of 19151
the Revised Code;19152

       (N) In a case before the domestic relations division of the 19153
Hamilton county court of common pleas, the expense of serving a 19154
summons, warrant, citation, subpoena, or other writ issued to an 19155
officer other than a bailiff, constable, or staff investigator of 19156
the division, as provided in section 2301.03 of the Revised Code.19157

       Sec. 2903.33.  As used in sections 2903.33 to 2903.36 of the 19158
Revised Code:19159

       (A) "Care facility" means any of the following:19160

       (1) Any "home" as defined in section 3721.10 or 5111.20 of 19161
the Revised Code;19162

       (2) Any "residential facility" as defined in section 5123.19 19163
of the Revised Code;19164

       (3) Any institution or facility operated or provided by the 19165
department of mental health or by the department of developmental 19166
disabilities pursuant to sections 5119.02 and 5123.03 of the 19167
Revised Code;19168

       (4) Any "residential facility" as defined in section 5119.22 19169
of the Revised Code;19170

       (5) Any unit of any hospital, as defined in section 3701.01 19171
of the Revised Code, that provides the same services as a nursing 19172
home, as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code;19173

       (6) Any institution, residence, or facility that provides, 19174
for a period of more than twenty-four hours, whether for a 19175
consideration or not, accommodations to one individual or two 19176
unrelated individuals who are dependent upon the services of 19177
others;19178

       (7) Any "adult care facility" as defined in section 5119.70 19179
of the Revised Code;19180

       (8) Any adult foster home certified under section 5119.692 of 19181
the Revised Code.19182

       (B) "Abuse" means knowingly causing physical harm or 19183
recklessly causing serious physical harm to a person by physical 19184
contact with the person or by the inappropriate use of a physical 19185
or chemical restraint, medication, or isolation on the person.19186

       (C)(1) "Gross neglect" means knowingly failing to provide a 19187
person with any treatment, care, goods, or service that is 19188
necessary to maintain the health or safety of the person when the 19189
failure results in physical harm or serious physical harm to the 19190
person.19191

       (2) "Neglect" means recklessly failing to provide a person 19192
with any treatment, care, goods, or service that is necessary to 19193
maintain the health or safety of the person when the failure 19194
results in serious physical harm to the person.19195

       (D) "Inappropriate use of a physical or chemical restraint, 19196
medication, or isolation" means the use of physical or chemical 19197
restraint, medication, or isolation as punishment, for staff 19198
convenience, excessively, as a substitute for treatment, or in 19199
quantities that preclude habilitation and treatment.19200

       Sec. 2907.29.  Every hospital of this state that offers 19201
organized emergency services shall provide that a physician, a 19202
physician assistant, a clinical nurse specialist, a certified 19203
nurse practitioner, or a certified nurse-midwife is available on 19204
call twenty-four hours each day for the examination of persons 19205
reported to any law enforcement agency to be victims of sexual 19206
offenses cognizable as violations of any provision of sections 19207
2907.02 to 2907.06 of the Revised Code. The physician, physician 19208
assistant, clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse 19209
practitioner, or certified nurse-midwife, upon the request of any 19210
peace officer or prosecuting attorney and with the consent of the 19211
reported victim or upon the request of the reported victim, shall 19212
examine the person for the purposes of gathering physical evidence 19213
and shall complete any written documentation of the physical 19214
examination. The publicdirector of health council shall establish 19215
procedures for gathering evidence under this section.19216

       Each reported victim shall be informed of available venereal 19217
disease, pregnancy, medical, and psychiatric services.19218

       Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a minor may 19219
consent to examination under this section. The consent is not 19220
subject to disaffirmance because of minority, and consent of the 19221
parent, parents, or guardian of the minor is not required for an 19222
examination under this section. However, the hospital shall give 19223
written notice to the parent, parents, or guardian of a minor that 19224
an examination under this section has taken place. The parent, 19225
parents, or guardian of a minor giving consent under this section 19226
are not liable for payment for any services provided under this 19227
section without their consent.19228

       Sec. 2909.21. As used in sections 2909.21 to 2909.342909.3119229
of the Revised Code:19230

       (A) "Act of terrorism" means an act that is committed within 19231
or outside the territorial jurisdiction of this state or the 19232
United States, that constitutes a specified offense if committed 19233
in this state or constitutes an offense in any jurisdiction within 19234
or outside the territorial jurisdiction of the United States 19235
containing all of the essential elements of a specified offense, 19236
and that is intended to do one or more of the following:19237

       (1) Intimidate or coerce a civilian population;19238

       (2) Influence the policy of any government by intimidation or 19239
coercion;19240

       (3) Affect the conduct of any government by the act that 19241
constitutes the offense.19242

       (B) "Biological agent," "delivery system," "toxin," and 19243
"vector" have the same meanings as in section 2917.33 of the 19244
Revised Code.19245

       (C) "Biological weapon" means any biological agent, toxin, 19246
vector, or delivery system or combination of any biological agent 19247
or agents, any toxin or toxins, any vector or vectors, and any 19248
delivery system or systems.19249

       (D) "Chemical weapon" means any one or more of the following:19250

       (1) Any toxic chemical or precursor of a toxic chemical that 19251
is listed in Schedule 1, Schedule 2, or Schedule 3 of the 19252
international "Convention on the Prohibition of the Development, 19253
Production, Stockpiling and Use of Chemical Weapons and on their 19254
Destruction (CWC)," as entered into force on April 29, 1997;19255

       (2) A device specifically designed to cause death or other 19256
harm through the toxic properties of a toxic chemical or precursor 19257
identified in division (D)(1) of this section that would be 19258
created or released as a result of the employment of that device;19259

       (3) Any equipment specifically designed for use directly in 19260
connection with the employment of devices identified in division 19261
(D)(2) of this section.19262

       (E) "Radiological or nuclear weapon" means any device that is 19263
designed to create or release radiation or radioactivity at a 19264
level that is dangerous to human life or in order to cause serious 19265
physical harm to persons as a result of the radiation or 19266
radioactivity created or released.19267

       (F) "Explosive device" has the same meaning as in section 19268
2923.11 of the Revised Code.19269

       (G) "Key component of a binary or multicomponent chemical 19270
system" means the precursor that plays the most important role in 19271
determining the toxic properties of the final product and reacts 19272
rapidly with other chemicals in the binary or multicomponent 19273
chemical system.19274

       (H) "Material assistance" means any of the following:19275

       (1) Membership in an organization on the United States 19276
department of state terrorist exclusion list;19277

       (2) Use of the person's position of prominence within any 19278
country to persuade others to support an organization on the 19279
United States department of state terrorist exclusion list;19280

       (3) Knowingly soliciting funds or other things of value for 19281
an organization on the United States department of state terrorist 19282
exclusion list;19283

       (4) Solicitation of any individual for membership in an 19284
organization on the United States department of state terrorist 19285
exclusion list;19286

       (5) Commission of an act that the person knows, or reasonably 19287
should have known, affords material support or resources to an 19288
organization on the United States department of state terrorist 19289
exclusion list;19290

       (6) Hiring or compensating a person known by the person 19291
hiring or providing the compensation to be a member of an 19292
organization on the United States department of state terrorist 19293
exclusion list or a person known by the person hiring or providing 19294
the compensation to be engaged in planning, assisting, or carrying 19295
out an act of terrorism.19296

       (I) "Material support or resources" means currency, payment 19297
instruments, other financial securities, funds, transfer of funds, 19298
financial services, communications, lodging, training, safe 19299
houses, false documentation or identification, communications 19300
equipment, facilities, weapons, lethal substances, explosives, 19301
personnel, transportation, and other physical assets, except 19302
medicine or religious materials.19303

       (J)(I) "Payment instrument" means a check, draft, money 19304
order, traveler's check, cashier's check, teller's check, or other 19305
instrument or order for the transmission or payment of money, 19306
regardless of whether the item in question is negotiable.19307

       (K)(J) "Peace officer" and "prosecutor" have the same 19308
meanings as in section 2935.01 of the Revised Code.19309

       (L)(K) "Precursor" means any chemical reactant that takes 19310
part at any stage in the production by whatever method of a toxic 19311
chemical, including any key component of a binary or 19312
multicomponent chemical system.19313

       (M)(L) "Response costs" means all costs a political 19314
subdivision incurs as a result of, or in making any response to, a 19315
threat of a specified offense made as described in section 2909.23 19316
of the Revised Code or a specified offense committed as described 19317
in section 2909.24 of the Revised Code, including, but not limited 19318
to, all costs so incurred by any law enforcement officers, 19319
firefighters, rescue personnel, or emergency medical services 19320
personnel of the political subdivision and all costs so incurred 19321
by the political subdivision that relate to laboratory testing or 19322
hazardous material cleanup.19323

       (N)(M) "Specified offense" means any of the following:19324

       (1) A felony offense of violence, a violation of section 19325
2909.04, 2909.081, 2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2909.26, 2909.27, 19326
2909.28, 2909.29, or 2927.24 of the Revised Code, a felony of the 19327
first degree that is not a violation of any provision in Chapter 19328
2925. or 3719. of the Revised Code;19329

       (2) An attempt to commit, complicity in committing, or a 19330
conspiracy to commit an offense listed in division (N)(M)(1) of 19331
this section.19332

       (O)(N) "Toxic chemical" means any chemical that through its 19333
chemical action on life processes can cause death or serious 19334
physical harm to persons or animals, regardless of its origin or 19335
of its method of production and regardless of whether it is 19336
produced in facilities, in munitions, or elsewhere.19337

       (P) "United States department of state terrorist exclusion 19338
list" and "terrorist exclusion list" means the list compiled by 19339
the United States secretary of state, in consultation with or upon 19340
the request of the United States attorney general, that designates 19341
terrorist organizations for immigration purposes. "United States 19342
department of state terrorist exclusion list" and "terrorist 19343
exclusion list" also mean the list of terrorist organizations the 19344
director of public safety prepares pursuant to rules adopted in 19345
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, that is 19346
comprised of lists of organizations officials of the United States 19347
government designate as terrorist, including the "terrorist 19348
exclusion list" described in this division, the list of "foreign 19349
terrorist organizations" the Unites States secretary of state 19350
prepares in consultation with the United States attorney general 19351
and the United States secretary of the treasury, and the list of 19352
charities that support terrorist activities, known as "designated 19353
charities," that the United States department of treasury 19354
compiles.19355

       (Q)(O) "Hazardous radioactive substance" means any substance 19356
or item that releases or is designed to release radiation or 19357
radioactivity at a level dangerous to human life.19358

       Sec. 2909.28.  (A) No person, with the intent to manufacture 19359
a chemical weapon, biological weapon, radiological or nuclear 19360
weapon, or explosive device, shall knowingly assemble or possess 19361
one or more toxins, toxic chemicals, precursors of toxic 19362
chemicals, vectors, biological agents, or hazardous radioactive 19363
substances, including, but not limited to, those listed in rules 19364
the director of public safety adopts, that may be used to 19365
manufacture a chemical weapon, biological weapon, radiological or 19366
nuclear weapon, or explosive device.19367

       (B) In a prosecution under this section, it is not necessary 19368
to allege or prove that the offender assembled or possessed all 19369
chemicals or substances necessary to manufacture a chemical 19370
weapon, biological weapon, radiological or nuclear weapon, or 19371
explosive device. The assembly or possession of a single chemical 19372
or substance, with the intent to use that chemical or substance in 19373
the manufacture of a chemical weapon, biological weapon, 19374
radiological or nuclear weapon, or explosive device, is sufficient 19375
to violate this section.19376

       (C) Whoever violates this section is guilty of illegal 19377
assembly or possession of chemicals or substances for the 19378
manufacture of a chemical weapon, biological weapon, radiological 19379
or nuclear weapon, or explosive device, which is a felony of the 19380
fourth degree.19381

       (D) This section does not apply when the items described in 19382
division (A) of this section are assembled or possessed for a 19383
purpose related to the performance of official duties related to 19384
any military purpose of the United States and any law enforcement 19385
purpose, including any domestic riot control purpose.19386

       Sec. 2927.023.  (A) As used in this section "authorized:19387

       (1) "Authorized recipient of tobacco products" means a person 19388
who is:19389

       (1)(a) Licensed as a cigarette wholesale dealer under section 19390
5743.15 of the Revised Code;19391

       (2)(b) Licensed as a retail dealer as long as the person 19392
purchases cigarettes with the appropriate tax stamp affixed;19393

       (3)(c) An export warehouse proprietor as defined in section 19394
5702 of the Internal Revenue Code;19395

       (4)(d) An operator of a customs bonded warehouse under 19 19396
U.S.C. 1311 or 19 U.S.C. 1555;19397

       (5)(e) An officer, employee, or agent of the federal 19398
government or of this state acting in the person's official 19399
capacity;19400

       (6)(f) A department, agency, instrumentality, or political 19401
subdivision of the federal government or of this state;19402

       (7)(g) A person having a consent for consumer shipment issued 19403
by the tax commissioner under section 5743.71 of the Revised Code.19404

       (2) "Motor carrier" has the same meaning as in section 19405
4923.01 of the Revised Code.19406

       The purpose of this section is to prevent the sale of 19407
cigarettes to minors and to ensure compliance with the Master 19408
Settlement Agreement, as defined in section 1346.01 of the Revised 19409
Code.19410

       (B)(1) No person shall cause to be shipped any cigarettes to 19411
any person in this state other than an authorized recipient of 19412
tobacco products.19413

       (2) No common carrier, contractmotor carrier, or other 19414
person shall knowingly transport cigarettes to any person in this 19415
state that the carrier or other person reasonably believes is not 19416
an authorized recipient of tobacco products. If cigarettes are 19417
transported to a home or residence, it shall be presumed that the 19418
common carrier, contractmotor carrier, or other person knew that 19419
the person to whom the cigarettes were delivered was not an 19420
authorized recipient of tobacco products.19421

       (C) No person engaged in the business of selling cigarettes 19422
who ships or causes to be shipped cigarettes to any person in this 19423
state in any container or wrapping other than the original 19424
container or wrapping of the cigarettes shall fail to plainly and 19425
visibly mark the exterior of the container or wrapping in which 19426
the cigarettes are shipped with the words "cigarettes."19427

       (D) A court shall impose a fine of up to one thousand dollars 19428
for each violation of division (B)(1), (B)(2), or (C) of this 19429
section.19430

       Sec. 2929.01.  As used in this chapter:19431

       (A)(1) "Alternative residential facility" means, subject to 19432
division (A)(2) of this section, any facility other than an 19433
offender's home or residence in which an offender is assigned to 19434
live and that satisfies all of the following criteria:19435

       (a) It provides programs through which the offender may seek 19436
or maintain employment or may receive education, training, 19437
treatment, or habilitation.19438

       (b) It has received the appropriate license or certificate 19439
for any specialized education, training, treatment, habilitation, 19440
or other service that it provides from the government agency that 19441
is responsible for licensing or certifying that type of education, 19442
training, treatment, habilitation, or service.19443

       (2) "Alternative residential facility" does not include a 19444
community-based correctional facility, jail, halfway house, or 19445
prison.19446

       (B) "Basic probation supervision" means a requirement that 19447
the offender maintain contact with a person appointed to supervise 19448
the offender in accordance with sanctions imposed by the court or 19449
imposed by the parole board pursuant to section 2967.28 of the 19450
Revised Code. "Basic probation supervision" includes basic parole 19451
supervision and basic post-release control supervision.19452

       (C) "Cocaine," "hashish," "L.S.D.," and "unit dose" have the 19453
same meanings as in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.19454

       (D) "Community-based correctional facility" means a 19455
community-based correctional facility and program or district 19456
community-based correctional facility and program developed 19457
pursuant to sections 2301.51 to 2301.58 of the Revised Code.19458

       (E) "Community control sanction" means a sanction that is not 19459
a prison term and that is described in section 2929.15, 2929.16, 19460
2929.17, or 2929.18 of the Revised Code or a sanction that is not 19461
a jail term and that is described in section 2929.26, 2929.27, or 19462
2929.28 of the Revised Code. "Community control sanction" includes 19463
probation if the sentence involved was imposed for a felony that 19464
was committed prior to July 1, 1996, or if the sentence involved 19465
was imposed for a misdemeanor that was committed prior to January 19466
1, 2004.19467

       (F) "Controlled substance," "marihuana," "schedule I," and 19468
"schedule II" have the same meanings as in section 3719.01 of the 19469
Revised Code.19470

       (G) "Curfew" means a requirement that an offender during a 19471
specified period of time be at a designated place.19472

       (H) "Day reporting" means a sanction pursuant to which an 19473
offender is required each day to report to and leave a center or 19474
other approved reporting location at specified times in order to 19475
participate in work, education or training, treatment, and other 19476
approved programs at the center or outside the center.19477

       (I) "Deadly weapon" has the same meaning as in section 19478
2923.11 of the Revised Code.19479

       (J) "Drug and alcohol use monitoring" means a program under 19480
which an offender agrees to submit to random chemical analysis of 19481
the offender's blood, breath, or urine to determine whether the 19482
offender has ingested any alcohol or other drugs.19483

       (K) "Drug treatment program" means any program under which a 19484
person undergoes assessment and treatment designed to reduce or 19485
completely eliminate the person's physical or emotional reliance 19486
upon alcohol, another drug, or alcohol and another drug and under 19487
which the person may be required to receive assessment and 19488
treatment on an outpatient basis or may be required to reside at a 19489
facility other than the person's home or residence while 19490
undergoing assessment and treatment.19491

       (L) "Economic loss" means any economic detriment suffered by 19492
a victim as a direct and proximate result of the commission of an 19493
offense and includes any loss of income due to lost time at work 19494
because of any injury caused to the victim, and any property loss, 19495
medical cost, or funeral expense incurred as a result of the 19496
commission of the offense. "Economic loss" does not include 19497
non-economic loss or any punitive or exemplary damages.19498

       (M) "Education or training" includes study at, or in 19499
conjunction with a program offered by, a university, college, or 19500
technical college or vocational study and also includes the 19501
completion of primary school, secondary school, and literacy 19502
curricula or their equivalent.19503

       (N) "Firearm" has the same meaning as in section 2923.11 of 19504
the Revised Code.19505

       (O) "Halfway house" means a facility licensed by the division 19506
of parole and community services of the department of 19507
rehabilitation and correction pursuant to section 2967.14 of the 19508
Revised Code as a suitable facility for the care and treatment of 19509
adult offenders.19510

       (P) "House arrest" means a period of confinement of an 19511
offender that is in the offender's home or in other premises 19512
specified by the sentencing court or by the parole board pursuant 19513
to section 2967.28 of the Revised Code and during which all of the 19514
following apply:19515

       (1) The offender is required to remain in the offender's home 19516
or other specified premises for the specified period of 19517
confinement, except for periods of time during which the offender 19518
is at the offender's place of employment or at other premises as 19519
authorized by the sentencing court or by the parole board.19520

       (2) The offender is required to report periodically to a 19521
person designated by the court or parole board.19522

       (3) The offender is subject to any other restrictions and 19523
requirements that may be imposed by the sentencing court or by the 19524
parole board.19525

       (Q) "Intensive probation supervision" means a requirement 19526
that an offender maintain frequent contact with a person appointed 19527
by the court, or by the parole board pursuant to section 2967.28 19528
of the Revised Code, to supervise the offender while the offender 19529
is seeking or maintaining necessary employment and participating 19530
in training, education, and treatment programs as required in the 19531
court's or parole board's order. "Intensive probation supervision" 19532
includes intensive parole supervision and intensive post-release 19533
control supervision.19534

       (R) "Jail" means a jail, workhouse, minimum security jail, or 19535
other residential facility used for the confinement of alleged or 19536
convicted offenders that is operated by a political subdivision or 19537
a combination of political subdivisions of this state.19538

       (S) "Jail term" means the term in a jail that a sentencing 19539
court imposes or is authorized to impose pursuant to section 19540
2929.24 or 2929.25 of the Revised Code or pursuant to any other 19541
provision of the Revised Code that authorizes a term in a jail for 19542
a misdemeanor conviction.19543

       (T) "Mandatory jail term" means the term in a jail that a 19544
sentencing court is required to impose pursuant to division (G) of 19545
section 1547.99 of the Revised Code, division (E) of section 19546
2903.06 or division (D) of section 2903.08 of the Revised Code, 19547
division (E) or (G) of section 2929.24 of the Revised Code, 19548
division (B) of section 4510.14 of the Revised Code, or division 19549
(G) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or pursuant to any 19550
other provision of the Revised Code that requires a term in a jail 19551
for a misdemeanor conviction.19552

       (U) "Delinquent child" has the same meaning as in section 19553
2152.02 of the Revised Code.19554

       (V) "License violation report" means a report that is made by 19555
a sentencing court, or by the parole board pursuant to section 19556
2967.28 of the Revised Code, to the regulatory or licensing board 19557
or agency that issued an offender a professional license or a 19558
license or permit to do business in this state and that specifies 19559
that the offender has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an 19560
offense that may violate the conditions under which the offender's 19561
professional license or license or permit to do business in this 19562
state was granted or an offense for which the offender's 19563
professional license or license or permit to do business in this 19564
state may be revoked or suspended.19565

       (W) "Major drug offender" means an offender who is convicted 19566
of or pleads guilty to the possession of, sale of, or offer to 19567
sell any drug, compound, mixture, preparation, or substance that 19568
consists of or contains at least one thousand grams of hashish; at 19569
least one hundred grams of cocaine; at least two thousand five 19570
hundred unit doses or two hundred fifty grams of heroin; at least 19571
five thousand unit doses of L.S.D. or five hundred grams of L.S.D. 19572
in a liquid concentrate, liquid extract, or liquid distillate 19573
form; or at least one hundred times the amount of any other 19574
schedule I or II controlled substance other than marihuana that is 19575
necessary to commit a felony of the third degree pursuant to 19576
section 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, or 2925.11 of the Revised Code 19577
that is based on the possession of, sale of, or offer to sell the 19578
controlled substance.19579

       (X) "Mandatory prison term" means any of the following:19580

       (1) Subject to division (X)(2) of this section, the term in 19581
prison that must be imposed for the offenses or circumstances set 19582
forth in divisions (F)(1) to (8) or (F)(12) to (18) of section 19583
2929.13 and division (B) of section 2929.14 of the Revised Code. 19584
Except as provided in sections 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 19585
and 2925.11 of the Revised Code, unless the maximum or another 19586
specific term is required under section 2929.14 or 2929.142 of the 19587
Revised Code, a mandatory prison term described in this division 19588
may be any prison term authorized for the level of offense.19589

       (2) The term of sixty or one hundred twenty days in prison 19590
that a sentencing court is required to impose for a third or 19591
fourth degree felony OVI offense pursuant to division (G)(2) of 19592
section 2929.13 and division (G)(1)(d) or (e) of section 4511.19 19593
of the Revised Code or the term of one, two, three, four, or five 19594
years in prison that a sentencing court is required to impose 19595
pursuant to division (G)(2) of section 2929.13 of the Revised 19596
Code.19597

       (3) The term in prison imposed pursuant to division (A) of 19598
section 2971.03 of the Revised Code for the offenses and in the 19599
circumstances described in division (F)(11) of section 2929.13 of 19600
the Revised Code or pursuant to division (B)(1)(a), (b), or (c), 19601
(B)(2)(a), (b), or (c), or (B)(3)(a), (b), (c), or (d) of section 19602
2971.03 of the Revised Code and that term as modified or 19603
terminated pursuant to section 2971.05 of the Revised Code.19604

       (Y) "Monitored time" means a period of time during which an 19605
offender continues to be under the control of the sentencing court 19606
or parole board, subject to no conditions other than leading a 19607
law-abiding life.19608

       (Z) "Offender" means a person who, in this state, is 19609
convicted of or pleads guilty to a felony or a misdemeanor.19610

       (AA) "Prison" means a residential facility used for the 19611
confinement of convicted felony offenders that is under the 19612
control of the department of rehabilitation and correction but 19613
does not include a violation sanction center operated under 19614
authority of section 2967.141 of the Revised Code.19615

       (BB) "Prison term" includes either of the following sanctions 19616
for an offender:19617

       (1) A stated prison term;19618

       (2) A term in a prison shortened by, or with the approval of, 19619
the sentencing court pursuant to section 2929.143, 2929.20, 19620
2967.26, 5120.031, 5120.032, or 5120.073 of the Revised Code.19621

       (CC) "Repeat violent offender" means a person about whom both 19622
of the following apply:19623

       (1) The person is being sentenced for committing or for 19624
complicity in committing any of the following:19625

       (a) Aggravated murder, murder, any felony of the first or 19626
second degree that is an offense of violence, or an attempt to 19627
commit any of these offenses if the attempt is a felony of the 19628
first or second degree;19629

       (b) An offense under an existing or former law of this state, 19630
another state, or the United States that is or was substantially 19631
equivalent to an offense described in division (CC)(1)(a) of this 19632
section.19633

       (2) The person previously was convicted of or pleaded guilty 19634
to an offense described in division (CC)(1)(a) or (b) of this 19635
section.19636

       (DD) "Sanction" means any penalty imposed upon an offender 19637
who is convicted of or pleads guilty to an offense, as punishment 19638
for the offense. "Sanction" includes any sanction imposed pursuant 19639
to any provision of sections 2929.14 to 2929.18 or 2929.24 to 19640
2929.28 of the Revised Code.19641

       (EE) "Sentence" means the sanction or combination of 19642
sanctions imposed by the sentencing court on an offender who is 19643
convicted of or pleads guilty to an offense.19644

       (FF) "Stated prison term" means the prison term, mandatory 19645
prison term, or combination of all prison terms and mandatory 19646
prison terms imposed by the sentencing court pursuant to section 19647
2929.14, 2929.142, or 2971.03 of the Revised Code or under section 19648
2919.25 of the Revised Code. "Stated prison term" includes any 19649
credit received by the offender for time spent in jail awaiting 19650
trial, sentencing, or transfer to prison for the offense and any 19651
time spent under house arrest or house arrest with electronic 19652
monitoring imposed after earning credits pursuant to section 19653
2967.193 of the Revised Code. If an offender is serving a prison 19654
term as a risk reduction sentence under sections 2929.142 and 19655
5120.036 of the Revised Code, "stated prison term" includes any 19656
period of time by which the prison term imposed upon the offender 19657
is shortened by the offender's successful completion of all 19658
assessment and treatment or programming pursuant to those 19659
sections.19660

       (GG) "Victim-offender mediation" means a reconciliation or 19661
mediation program that involves an offender and the victim of the 19662
offense committed by the offender and that includes a meeting in 19663
which the offender and the victim may discuss the offense, discuss 19664
restitution, and consider other sanctions for the offense.19665

       (HH) "Fourth degree felony OVI offense" means a violation of 19666
division (A) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code that, under 19667
division (G) of that section, is a felony of the fourth degree.19668

       (II) "Mandatory term of local incarceration" means the term 19669
of sixty or one hundred twenty days in a jail, a community-based 19670
correctional facility, a halfway house, or an alternative 19671
residential facility that a sentencing court may impose upon a 19672
person who is convicted of or pleads guilty to a fourth degree 19673
felony OVI offense pursuant to division (G)(1) of section 2929.13 19674
of the Revised Code and division (G)(1)(d) or (e) of section 19675
4511.19 of the Revised Code.19676

       (JJ) "Designated homicide, assault, or kidnapping offense," 19677
"violent sex offense," "sexual motivation specification," 19678
"sexually violent offense," "sexually violent predator," and 19679
"sexually violent predator specification" have the same meanings 19680
as in section 2971.01 of the Revised Code.19681

       (KK) "Sexually oriented offense," "child-victim oriented 19682
offense," and "tier III sex offender/child-victim offender," have 19683
the same meanings as in section 2950.01 of the Revised Code.19684

       (LL) An offense is "committed in the vicinity of a child" if 19685
the offender commits the offense within thirty feet of or within 19686
the same residential unit as a child who is under eighteen years 19687
of age, regardless of whether the offender knows the age of the 19688
child or whether the offender knows the offense is being committed 19689
within thirty feet of or within the same residential unit as the 19690
child and regardless of whether the child actually views the 19691
commission of the offense.19692

       (MM) "Family or household member" has the same meaning as in 19693
section 2919.25 of the Revised Code.19694

       (NN) "Motor vehicle" and "manufactured home" have the same 19695
meanings as in section 4501.01 of the Revised Code.19696

       (OO) "Detention" and "detention facility" have the same 19697
meanings as in section 2921.01 of the Revised Code.19698

       (PP) "Third degree felony OVI offense" means a violation of 19699
division (A) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code that, under 19700
division (G) of that section, is a felony of the third degree.19701

       (QQ) "Random drug testing" has the same meaning as in section 19702
5120.63 of the Revised Code.19703

       (RR) "Felony sex offense" has the same meaning as in section 19704
2967.28 of the Revised Code.19705

       (SS) "Body armor" has the same meaning as in section 19706
2941.1411 of the Revised Code.19707

       (TT) "Electronic monitoring" means monitoring through the use 19708
of an electronic monitoring device.19709

       (UU) "Electronic monitoring device" means any of the 19710
following:19711

        (1) Any device that can be operated by electrical or battery 19712
power and that conforms with all of the following:19713

        (a) The device has a transmitter that can be attached to a 19714
person, that will transmit a specified signal to a receiver of the 19715
type described in division (UU)(1)(b) of this section if the 19716
transmitter is removed from the person, turned off, or altered in 19717
any manner without prior court approval in relation to electronic 19718
monitoring or without prior approval of the department of 19719
rehabilitation and correction in relation to the use of an 19720
electronic monitoring device for an inmate on transitional control 19721
or otherwise is tampered with, that can transmit continuously and 19722
periodically a signal to that receiver when the person is within a 19723
specified distance from the receiver, and that can transmit an 19724
appropriate signal to that receiver if the person to whom it is 19725
attached travels a specified distance from that receiver.19726

        (b) The device has a receiver that can receive continuously 19727
the signals transmitted by a transmitter of the type described in 19728
division (UU)(1)(a) of this section, can transmit continuously 19729
those signals by a wireless or landline telephone connection to a 19730
central monitoring computer of the type described in division 19731
(UU)(1)(c) of this section, and can transmit continuously an 19732
appropriate signal to that central monitoring computer if the 19733
device has been turned off or altered without prior court approval 19734
or otherwise tampered with. The device is designed specifically 19735
for use in electronic monitoring, is not a converted wireless 19736
phone or another tracking device that is clearly not designed for 19737
electronic monitoring, and provides a means of text-based or voice 19738
communication with the person.19739

        (c) The device has a central monitoring computer that can 19740
receive continuously the signals transmitted by a wireless or 19741
landline telephone connection by a receiver of the type described 19742
in division (UU)(1)(b) of this section and can monitor 19743
continuously the person to whom an electronic monitoring device of 19744
the type described in division (UU)(1)(a) of this section is 19745
attached.19746

        (2) Any device that is not a device of the type described in 19747
division (UU)(1) of this section and that conforms with all of the 19748
following:19749

       (a) The device includes a transmitter and receiver that can 19750
monitor and determine the location of a subject person at any 19751
time, or at a designated point in time, through the use of a 19752
central monitoring computer or through other electronic means.19753

        (b) The device includes a transmitter and receiver that can 19754
determine at any time, or at a designated point in time, through 19755
the use of a central monitoring computer or other electronic means 19756
the fact that the transmitter is turned off or altered in any 19757
manner without prior approval of the court in relation to the 19758
electronic monitoring or without prior approval of the department 19759
of rehabilitation and correction in relation to the use of an 19760
electronic monitoring device for an inmate on transitional control 19761
or otherwise is tampered with.19762

        (3) Any type of technology that can adequately track or 19763
determine the location of a subject person at any time and that is 19764
approved by the director of rehabilitation and correction, 19765
including, but not limited to, any satellite technology, voice 19766
tracking system, or retinal scanning system that is so approved.19767

       (VV) "Non-economic loss" means nonpecuniary harm suffered by 19768
a victim of an offense as a result of or related to the commission 19769
of the offense, including, but not limited to, pain and suffering; 19770
loss of society, consortium, companionship, care, assistance, 19771
attention, protection, advice, guidance, counsel, instruction, 19772
training, or education; mental anguish; and any other intangible 19773
loss.19774

       (WW) "Prosecutor" has the same meaning as in section 2935.01 19775
of the Revised Code.19776

       (XX) "Continuous alcohol monitoring" means the ability to 19777
automatically test and periodically transmit alcohol consumption 19778
levels and tamper attempts at least every hour, regardless of the 19779
location of the person who is being monitored.19780

       (YY) A person is "adjudicated a sexually violent predator" if 19781
the person is convicted of or pleads guilty to a violent sex 19782
offense and also is convicted of or pleads guilty to a sexually 19783
violent predator specification that was included in the 19784
indictment, count in the indictment, or information charging that 19785
violent sex offense or if the person is convicted of or pleads 19786
guilty to a designated homicide, assault, or kidnapping offense 19787
and also is convicted of or pleads guilty to both a sexual 19788
motivation specification and a sexually violent predator 19789
specification that were included in the indictment, count in the 19790
indictment, or information charging that designated homicide, 19791
assault, or kidnapping offense.19792

       (ZZ) An offense is "committed in proximity to a school" if 19793
the offender commits the offense in a school safety zone or within 19794
five hundred feet of any school building or the boundaries of any 19795
school premises, regardless of whether the offender knows the 19796
offense is being committed in a school safety zone or within five 19797
hundred feet of any school building or the boundaries of any 19798
school premises.19799

       (AAA) "Human trafficking" means a scheme or plan to which all 19800
of the following apply:19801

       (1) Its object is to subject a victim or victims to 19802
involuntary servitude, as defined in section 2905.31 of the 19803
Revised Code, to compel a victim or victims to engage in sexual 19804
activity for hire, to engage in a performance that is obscene, 19805
sexually oriented, or nudity oriented, or to be a model or 19806
participant in the production of material that is obscene, 19807
sexually oriented, or nudity oriented.19808

       (2) It involves at least two felony offenses, whether or not 19809
there has been a prior conviction for any of the felony offenses, 19810
to which all of the following apply:19811

       (a) Each of the felony offenses is a violation of section 19812
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.32, 2907.21, 2907.22, or 2923.32, division 19813
(A)(1) or (2) of section 2907.323, or division (B)(1), (2), (3), 19814
(4), or (5) of section 2919.22 of the Revised Code or is a 19815
violation of a law of any state other than this state that is 19816
substantially similar to any of the sections or divisions of the 19817
Revised Code identified in this division.19818

       (b) At least one of the felony offenses was committed in this 19819
state.19820

       (c) The felony offenses are related to the same scheme or 19821
plan and are not isolated instances.19822

       (BBB) "Material," "nudity," "obscene," "performance," and 19823
"sexual activity" have the same meanings as in section 2907.01 of 19824
the Revised Code.19825

       (CCC) "Material that is obscene, sexually oriented, or nudity 19826
oriented" means any material that is obscene, that shows a person 19827
participating or engaging in sexual activity, masturbation, or 19828
bestiality, or that shows a person in a state of nudity.19829

       (DDD) "Performance that is obscene, sexually oriented, or 19830
nudity oriented" means any performance that is obscene, that shows 19831
a person participating or engaging in sexual activity, 19832
masturbation, or bestiality, or that shows a person in a state of 19833
nudity.19834

       Sec. 2929.19.  (A) The court shall hold a sentencing hearing 19835
before imposing a sentence under this chapter upon an offender who 19836
was convicted of or pleaded guilty to a felony and before 19837
resentencing an offender who was convicted of or pleaded guilty to 19838
a felony and whose case was remanded pursuant to section 2953.07 19839
or 2953.08 of the Revised Code. At the hearing, the offender, the 19840
prosecuting attorney, the victim or the victim's representative in 19841
accordance with section 2930.14 of the Revised Code, and, with the 19842
approval of the court, any other person may present information 19843
relevant to the imposition of sentence in the case. The court 19844
shall inform the offender of the verdict of the jury or finding of 19845
the court and ask the offender whether the offender has anything 19846
to say as to why sentence should not be imposed upon the offender.19847

       (B)(1) At the sentencing hearing, the court, before imposing 19848
sentence, shall consider the record, any information presented at 19849
the hearing by any person pursuant to division (A) of this 19850
section, and, if one was prepared, the presentence investigation 19851
report made pursuant to section 2951.03 of the Revised Code or 19852
Criminal Rule 32.2, and any victim impact statement made pursuant 19853
to section 2947.051 of the Revised Code.19854

       (2) Subject to division (B)(3) of this section, if the 19855
sentencing court determines at the sentencing hearing that a 19856
prison term is necessary or required, the court shall do all of 19857
the following:19858

       (a) Impose a stated prison term and, if the court imposes a 19859
mandatory prison term, notify the offender that the prison term is 19860
a mandatory prison term;19861

       (b) In addition to any other information, include in the 19862
sentencing entry the name and section reference to the offense or 19863
offenses, the sentence or sentences imposed and whether the 19864
sentence or sentences contain mandatory prison terms, if sentences 19865
are imposed for multiple counts whether the sentences are to be 19866
served concurrently or consecutively, and the name and section 19867
reference of any specification or specifications for which 19868
sentence is imposed and the sentence or sentences imposed for the 19869
specification or specifications;19870

       (c) Notify the offender that the offender will be supervised 19871
under section 2967.28 of the Revised Code after the offender 19872
leaves prison if the offender is being sentenced for a felony of 19873
the first degree or second degree, for a felony sex offense, or 19874
for a felony of the third degree that is not a felony sex offense 19875
and in the commission of which the offender caused or threatened 19876
to cause physical harm to a person. This division applies with 19877
respect to all prison terms imposed for an offense of a type 19878
described in this division, including a term imposed for any such 19879
offense that is a risk reduction sentence, as defined in section 19880
2967.28 of the Revised Code. If a court imposes a sentence 19881
including a prison term of a type described in division (B)(2)(c) 19882
of this section on or after July 11, 2006, the failure of a court 19883
to notify the offender pursuant to division (B)(2)(c) of this 19884
section that the offender will be supervised under section 2967.28 19885
of the Revised Code after the offender leaves prison or to include 19886
in the judgment of conviction entered on the journal a statement 19887
to that effect does not negate, limit, or otherwise affect the 19888
mandatory period of supervision that is required for the offender 19889
under division (B) of section 2967.28 of the Revised Code. Section 19890
2929.191 of the Revised Code applies if, prior to July 11, 2006, a 19891
court imposed a sentence including a prison term of a type 19892
described in division (B)(2)(c) of this section and failed to 19893
notify the offender pursuant to division (B)(2)(c) of this section 19894
regarding post-release control or to include in the judgment of 19895
conviction entered on the journal or in the sentence a statement 19896
regarding post-release control.19897

       (d) Notify the offender that the offender may be supervised 19898
under section 2967.28 of the Revised Code after the offender 19899
leaves prison if the offender is being sentenced for a felony of 19900
the third, fourth, or fifth degree that is not subject to division 19901
(B)(2)(c) of this section. This division applies with respect to 19902
all prison terms imposed for an offense of a type described in 19903
this division, including a term imposed for any such offense that 19904
is a risk reduction sentence, as defined in section 2967.28 of the 19905
Revised Code. Section 2929.191 of the Revised Code applies if, 19906
prior to July 11, 2006, a court imposed a sentence including a 19907
prison term of a type described in division (B)(2)(d) of this 19908
section and failed to notify the offender pursuant to division 19909
(B)(2)(d) of this section regarding post-release control or to 19910
include in the judgment of conviction entered on the journal or in 19911
the sentence a statement regarding post-release control.19912

       (e) Notify the offender that, if a period of supervision is 19913
imposed following the offender's release from prison, as described 19914
in division (B)(2)(c) or (d) of this section, and if the offender 19915
violates that supervision or a condition of post-release control 19916
imposed under division (B) of section 2967.131 of the Revised 19917
Code, the parole board may impose a prison term, as part of the 19918
sentence, of up to one-half of the stated prison term originally 19919
imposed upon the offender. If a court imposes a sentence including 19920
a prison term on or after July 11, 2006, the failure of a court to 19921
notify the offender pursuant to division (B)(2)(e) of this section 19922
that the parole board may impose a prison term as described in 19923
division (B)(2)(e) of this section for a violation of that 19924
supervision or a condition of post-release control imposed under 19925
division (B) of section 2967.131 of the Revised Code or to include 19926
in the judgment of conviction entered on the journal a statement 19927
to that effect does not negate, limit, or otherwise affect the 19928
authority of the parole board to so impose a prison term for a 19929
violation of that nature if, pursuant to division (D)(1) of 19930
section 2967.28 of the Revised Code, the parole board notifies the 19931
offender prior to the offender's release of the board's authority 19932
to so impose a prison term. Section 2929.191 of the Revised Code 19933
applies if, prior to July 11, 2006, a court imposed a sentence 19934
including a prison term and failed to notify the offender pursuant 19935
to division (B)(2)(e) of this section regarding the possibility of 19936
the parole board imposing a prison term for a violation of 19937
supervision or a condition of post-release control.19938

       (f) Require that the offender not ingest or be injected with 19939
a drug of abuse and submit to random drug testing as provided in 19940
section 341.26, 753.33, or 5120.63 of the Revised Code, whichever 19941
is applicable to the offender who is serving a prison term, and 19942
require that the results of the drug test administered under any 19943
of those sections indicate that the offender did not ingest or was 19944
not injected with a drug of abuse.19945

       (g) Include in the offender's sentence a statement notifying 19946
the offender of the information described in division (F)(3) of 19947
section 2929.14 of the Revised Code regarding earned credits under 19948
section 2967.193 of the Revised Code.19949

       (h)(i) Determine, notify the offender of, and include in the 19950
sentencing entry the number of days that the offender has been 19951
confined for any reason arising out of the offense for which the 19952
offender is being sentenced and by which the department of 19953
rehabilitation and correction must reduce the stated prison term 19954
under section 2967.191 of the Revised Code. The court's 19955
calculation shall not include the number of days, if any, that the 19956
offender previously served in the custody of the department of 19957
rehabilitation and correction arising out of the offense for which 19958
the prisoner was convicted and sentenced.19959

        (ii) In making a determination under division (B)(2)(h)(i) of 19960
this section, the court shall consider the arguments of the 19961
parties and conduct a hearing if one is requested.19962

       (iii) The sentencing court retains continuing jurisdiction to 19963
correct any error not previously raised at sentencing in making a 19964
determination under division (B)(2)(h)(i) of this section. The 19965
offender may, at any time after sentencing, file a motion in the 19966
sentencing court to correct any error made in making a 19967
determination under division (B)(2)(h)(i) of this section, and the 19968
court may in its discretion grant or deny that motion. If the 19969
court changes the number of days in its determination or 19970
redetermination, the court shall cause the entry granting that 19971
change to be delivered to the department of rehabilitation and 19972
correction without delay. Sections 2931.15 and 2953.21 of the 19973
Revised Code do not apply to a motion made under this section.19974

        (iv) An inaccurate determination under division (B)(2)(h)(i) 19975
of this section is not grounds for setting aside the offender's 19976
conviction or sentence and does not otherwise render the sentence 19977
void or voidable.19978

       (3)(a) The court shall include in the offender's sentence a 19979
statement that the offender is a tier III sex 19980
offender/child-victim offender, and the court shall comply with 19981
the requirements of section 2950.03 of the Revised Code if any of 19982
the following apply:19983

       (i) The offender is being sentenced for a violent sex offense 19984
or designated homicide, assault, or kidnapping offense that the 19985
offender committed on or after January 1, 1997, and the offender 19986
is adjudicated a sexually violent predator in relation to that 19987
offense.19988

       (ii) The offender is being sentenced for a sexually oriented 19989
offense that the offender committed on or after January 1, 1997, 19990
and the offender is a tier III sex offender/child-victim offender 19991
relative to that offense.19992

       (iii) The offender is being sentenced on or after July 31, 19993
2003, for a child-victim oriented offense, and the offender is a 19994
tier III sex offender/child-victim offender relative to that 19995
offense.19996

       (iv) The offender is being sentenced under section 2971.03 of 19997
the Revised Code for a violation of division (A)(1)(b) of section 19998
2907.02 of the Revised Code committed on or after January 2, 2007.19999

       (v) The offender is sentenced to a term of life without 20000
parole under division (B) of section 2907.02 of the Revised Code.20001

       (vi) The offender is being sentenced for attempted rape 20002
committed on or after January 2, 2007, and a specification of the 20003
type described in section 2941.1418, 2941.1419, or 2941.1420 of 20004
the Revised Code.20005

       (vii) The offender is being sentenced under division 20006
(B)(3)(a), (b), (c), or (d) of section 2971.03 of the Revised Code 20007
for an offense described in those divisions committed on or after 20008
January 1, 2008.20009

       (b) Additionally, if any criterion set forth in divisions 20010
(B)(3)(a)(i) to (vii) of this section is satisfied, in the 20011
circumstances described in division (E) of section 2929.14 of the 20012
Revised Code, the court shall impose sentence on the offender as 20013
described in that division.20014

       (4) If the sentencing court determines at the sentencing 20015
hearing that a community control sanction should be imposed and 20016
the court is not prohibited from imposing a community control 20017
sanction, the court shall impose a community control sanction. The 20018
court shall notify the offender that, if the conditions of the 20019
sanction are violated, if the offender commits a violation of any 20020
law, or if the offender leaves this state without the permission 20021
of the court or the offender's probation officer, the court may 20022
impose a longer time under the same sanction, may impose a more 20023
restrictive sanction, or may impose a prison term on the offender 20024
and shall indicate the specific prison term that may be imposed as 20025
a sanction for the violation, as selected by the court from the 20026
range of prison terms for the offense pursuant to section 2929.14 20027
of the Revised Code.20028

       (5) Before imposing a financial sanction under section 20029
2929.18 of the Revised Code or a fine under section 2929.32 of the 20030
Revised Code, the court shall consider the offender's present and 20031
future ability to pay the amount of the sanction or fine.20032

       (6) If the sentencing court sentences the offender to a 20033
sanction of confinement pursuant to section 2929.14 or 2929.16 of 20034
the Revised Code that is to be served in a local detention 20035
facility, as defined in section 2929.36 of the Revised Code, and 20036
if the local detention facility is covered by a policy adopted 20037
pursuant to section 307.93, 341.14, 341.19, 341.21, 341.23, 20038
753.02, 753.04, 753.16, 2301.56, or 2947.19 of the Revised Code 20039
and section 2929.37 of the Revised Code, both of the following 20040
apply:20041

       (a) The court shall specify both of the following as part of 20042
the sentence:20043

       (i) If the offender is presented with an itemized bill 20044
pursuant to section 2929.37 of the Revised Code for payment of the 20045
costs of confinement, the offender is required to pay the bill in 20046
accordance with that section.20047

       (ii) If the offender does not dispute the bill described in 20048
division (B)(6)(a)(i) of this section and does not pay the bill by 20049
the times specified in section 2929.37 of the Revised Code, the 20050
clerk of the court may issue a certificate of judgment against the 20051
offender as described in that section.20052

       (b) The sentence automatically includes any certificate of 20053
judgment issued as described in division (B)(6)(a)(ii) of this 20054
section.20055

       (7) The failure of the court to notify the offender that a 20056
prison term is a mandatory prison term pursuant to division 20057
(B)(2)(a) of this section or to include in the sentencing entry 20058
any information required by division (B)(2)(b) of this section 20059
does not affect the validity of the imposed sentence or sentences. 20060
If the sentencing court notifies the offender at the sentencing 20061
hearing that a prison term is mandatory but the sentencing entry 20062
does not specify that the prison term is mandatory, the court may 20063
complete a corrected journal entry and send copies of the 20064
corrected entry to the offender and the department of 20065
rehabilitation and correction, or, at the request of the state, 20066
the court shall complete a corrected journal entry and send copies 20067
of the corrected entry to the offender and department of 20068
rehabilitation and correction.20069

       (C)(1) If the offender is being sentenced for a fourth degree 20070
felony OVI offense under division (G)(1) of section 2929.13 of the 20071
Revised Code, the court shall impose the mandatory term of local 20072
incarceration in accordance with that division, shall impose a 20073
mandatory fine in accordance with division (B)(3) of section 20074
2929.18 of the Revised Code, and, in addition, may impose 20075
additional sanctions as specified in sections 2929.15, 2929.16, 20076
2929.17, and 2929.18 of the Revised Code. The court shall not 20077
impose a prison term on the offender except that the court may 20078
impose a prison term upon the offender as provided in division 20079
(A)(1) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code.20080

       (2) If the offender is being sentenced for a third or fourth 20081
degree felony OVI offense under division (G)(2) of section 2929.13 20082
of the Revised Code, the court shall impose the mandatory prison 20083
term in accordance with that division, shall impose a mandatory 20084
fine in accordance with division (B)(3) of section 2929.18 of the 20085
Revised Code, and, in addition, may impose an additional prison 20086
term as specified in section 2929.14 of the Revised Code. In 20087
addition to the mandatory prison term or mandatory prison term and 20088
additional prison term the court imposes, the court also may 20089
impose a community control sanction on the offender, but the 20090
offender shall serve all of the prison terms so imposed prior to 20091
serving the community control sanction.20092

       (D) The sentencing court, pursuant to division (I)(1) of 20093
section 2929.14 of the Revised Code, may recommend placement of 20094
the offender in a program of shock incarceration under section 20095
5120.031 of the Revised Code or an intensive program prison under 20096
section 5120.032 of the Revised Code, disapprove placement of the 20097
offender in a program or prison of that nature, or make no 20098
recommendation. If the court recommends or disapproves placement, 20099
it shall make a finding that gives its reasons for its 20100
recommendation or disapproval.20101

       Sec. 2939.11.  The official shorthand reporter of the county, 20102
or any shorthand reporter designated by the court of common pleas, 20103
at the request of the prosecuting attorney, or any such reporter 20104
designated by the attorney general in investigations conducted by 20105
himthe attorney general, may take shorthand notes of or 20106
electronically record testimony before the grand jury, and furnish 20107
a transcript to the prosecuting attorney or the attorney general, 20108
and to no other person. The shorthand reporter shall withdraw from 20109
the jury room before the jurors begin to express their views or 20110
take their vote on the matter before them. Such reporter shall 20111
take an oath to be administered by the judge after the grand jury 20112
is sworn, imposing an obligation of secrecy to not disclose any 20113
testimony taken or heard except to the grand jury, prosecuting 20114
attorney, or attorney general, unless called upon in court to make 20115
disclosures.20116

       Sec. 2945.371.  (A) If the issue of a defendant's competence 20117
to stand trial is raised or if a defendant enters a plea of not 20118
guilty by reason of insanity, the court may order one or more 20119
evaluations of the defendant's present mental condition or, in the 20120
case of a plea of not guilty by reason of insanity, of the 20121
defendant's mental condition at the time of the offense charged. 20122
An examiner shall conduct the evaluation.20123

       (B) If the court orders more than one evaluation under 20124
division (A) of this section, the prosecutor and the defendant may 20125
recommend to the court an examiner whom each prefers to perform 20126
one of the evaluations. If a defendant enters a plea of not guilty 20127
by reason of insanity and if the court does not designate an 20128
examiner recommended by the defendant, the court shall inform the 20129
defendant that the defendant may have independent expert 20130
evaluation and that, if the defendant is unable to obtain 20131
independent expert evaluation, it will be obtained for the 20132
defendant at public expense if the defendant is indigent.20133

       (C) If the court orders an evaluation under division (A) of 20134
this section, the defendant shall be available at the times and 20135
places established by the examiners who are to conduct the 20136
evaluation. The court may order a defendant who has been released 20137
on bail or recognizance to submit to an evaluation under this 20138
section. If a defendant who has been released on bail or 20139
recognizance refuses to submit to a complete evaluation, the court 20140
may amend the conditions of bail or recognizance and order the 20141
sheriff to take the defendant into custody and deliver the 20142
defendant to a center, program, or facility operated or certified 20143
by the department of mental health or the department of 20144
developmental disabilities where the defendant may be held for 20145
evaluation for a reasonable period of time not to exceed twenty 20146
days.20147

       (D) A defendant who has not been released on bail or 20148
recognizance may be evaluated at the defendant's place of 20149
detention. Upon the request of the examiner, the court may order 20150
the sheriff to transport the defendant to a program or facility 20151
operated or certified by the department of mental health or the 20152
department of developmental disabilities, where the defendant may 20153
be held for evaluation for a reasonable period of time not to 20154
exceed twenty days, and to return the defendant to the place of 20155
detention after the evaluation. A municipal court may make an 20156
order under this division only upon the request of a certified 20157
forensic center examiner.20158

       (E) If a court orders the evaluation to determine a 20159
defendant's mental condition at the time of the offense charged, 20160
the court shall inform the examiner of the offense with which the 20161
defendant is charged.20162

       (F) In conducting an evaluation of a defendant's mental 20163
condition at the time of the offense charged, the examiner shall 20164
consider all relevant evidence. If the offense charged involves 20165
the use of force against another person, the relevant evidence to 20166
be considered includes, but is not limited to, any evidence that 20167
the defendant suffered, at the time of the commission of the 20168
offense, from the "battered woman syndrome."20169

       (G) The examiner shall file a written report with the court 20170
within thirty days after entry of a court order for evaluation, 20171
and the court shall provide copies of the report to the prosecutor 20172
and defense counsel. The report shall include all of the 20173
following:20174

       (1) The examiner's findings;20175

       (2) The facts in reasonable detail on which the findings are 20176
based;20177

       (3) If the evaluation was ordered to determine the 20178
defendant's competence to stand trial, all of the following 20179
findings or recommendations that are applicable:20180

       (a) Whether the defendant is capable of understanding the 20181
nature and objective of the proceedings against the defendant or 20182
of assisting in the defendant's defense;20183

       (b) If the examiner's opinion is that the defendant is 20184
incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 20185
proceedings against the defendant or of assisting in the 20186
defendant's defense, whether the defendant presently is mentally 20187
ill or mentally retarded and, if the examiner's opinion is that 20188
the defendant presently is mentally retarded, whether the 20189
defendant appears to be a mentally retarded person subject to 20190
institutionalization by court order;20191

       (c) If the examiner's opinion is that the defendant is 20192
incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 20193
proceedings against the defendant or of assisting in the 20194
defendant's defense, the examiner's opinion as to the likelihood 20195
of the defendant becoming capable of understanding the nature and 20196
objective of the proceedings against the defendant and of 20197
assisting in the defendant's defense within one year if the 20198
defendant is provided with a course of treatment;20199

       (d) If the examiner's opinion is that the defendant is 20200
incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 20201
proceedings against the defendant or of assisting in the 20202
defendant's defense and that the defendant presently is mentally 20203
ill or mentally retarded, the examiner's recommendation as to the 20204
least restrictive placement or commitment alternative, consistent 20205
with the defendant's treatment needs for restoration to competency 20206
and with the safety of the community;20207

       (e) If the defendant is charged with a misdemeanor offense 20208
that is not an offense of violence and the examiner's opinion is 20209
that the defendant is incapable of understanding the nature and 20210
objective of the proceedings against the defendant or of assisting 20211
in the defendant's defense and that the defendant is presently 20212
mentally ill or mentally retarded, the examiner's recommendation 20213
as to whether the defendant is amenable to engagement in mental 20214
health treatment or developmental disability services.20215

       (4) If the evaluation was ordered to determine the 20216
defendant's mental condition at the time of the offense charged, 20217
the examiner's findings as to whether the defendant, at the time 20218
of the offense charged, did not know, as a result of a severe 20219
mental disease or defect, the wrongfulness of the defendant's acts 20220
charged.20221

       (H) If the examiner's report filed under division (G) of this 20222
section indicates that in the examiner's opinion the defendant is 20223
incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 20224
proceedings against the defendant or of assisting in the 20225
defendant's defense and that in the examiner's opinion the 20226
defendant appears to be a mentally retarded person subject to 20227
institutionalization by court order, the court shall order the 20228
defendant to undergo a separate mental retardation evaluation 20229
conducted by a psychologist designated by the director of 20230
developmental disabilities. Divisions (C) to (F) of this section 20231
apply in relation to a separate mental retardation evaluation 20232
conducted under this division. The psychologist appointed under 20233
this division to conduct the separate mental retardation 20234
evaluation shall file a written report with the court within 20235
thirty days after the entry of the court order requiring the 20236
separate mental retardation evaluation, and the court shall 20237
provide copies of the report to the prosecutor and defense 20238
counsel. The report shall include all of the information described 20239
in divisions (G)(1) to (4) of this section. If the court orders a 20240
separate mental retardation evaluation of a defendant under this 20241
division, the court shall not conduct a hearing under divisions 20242
(B) to (H) of section 2945.37 of the Revised Code regarding that 20243
defendant until a report of the separate mental retardation 20244
evaluation conducted under this division has been filed. Upon the 20245
filing of that report, the court shall conduct the hearing within 20246
the period of time specified in division (C) of section 2945.37 of 20247
the Revised Code.20248

       (I) An examiner appointed under divisions (A) and (B) of this 20249
section or under division (H) of this section to evaluate a 20250
defendant to determine the defendant's competence to stand trial 20251
also may be appointed to evaluate a defendant who has entered a 20252
plea of not guilty by reason of insanity, but an examiner of that 20253
nature shall prepare separate reports on the issue of competence 20254
to stand trial and the defense of not guilty by reason of 20255
insanity.20256

       (J) No statement that a defendant makes in an evaluation or 20257
hearing under divisions (A) to (H) of this section relating to the 20258
defendant's competence to stand trial or to the defendant's mental 20259
condition at the time of the offense charged shall be used against 20260
the defendant on the issue of guilt in any criminal action or 20261
proceeding, but, in a criminal action or proceeding, the 20262
prosecutor or defense counsel may call as a witness any person who 20263
evaluated the defendant or prepared a report pursuant to a 20264
referral under this section. Neither the appointment nor the 20265
testimony of an examiner appointed under this section precludes 20266
the prosecutor or defense counsel from calling other witnesses or 20267
presenting other evidence on competency or insanity issues.20268

       (K) Persons appointed as examiners under divisions (A) and 20269
(B) of this section or under division (H) of this section shall be 20270
paid a reasonable amount for their services and expenses, as 20271
certified by the court. The certified amount shall be paid by the 20272
county in the case of county courts and courts of common pleas and 20273
by the legislative authority, as defined in section 1901.03 of the 20274
Revised Code, in the case of municipal courts.20275

       Sec. 2945.38.  (A) If the issue of a defendant's competence 20276
to stand trial is raised and if the court, upon conducting the 20277
hearing provided for in section 2945.37 of the Revised Code, finds 20278
that the defendant is competent to stand trial, the defendant 20279
shall be proceeded against as provided by law. If the court finds 20280
the defendant competent to stand trial and the defendant is 20281
receiving psychotropic drugs or other medication, the court may 20282
authorize the continued administration of the drugs or medication 20283
or other appropriate treatment in order to maintain the 20284
defendant's competence to stand trial, unless the defendant's 20285
attending physician advises the court against continuation of the 20286
drugs, other medication, or treatment.20287

       (B)(1)(a) If, after taking into consideration all relevant 20288
reports, information, and other evidence, the court finds that the 20289
defendant is incompetent to stand trial and that there is a 20290
substantial probability that the defendant will become competent 20291
to stand trial within one year if the defendant is provided with a 20292
course of treatment, the court shall order the defendant to 20293
undergo treatment. If the defendant has been charged with a felony 20294
offense and if, after taking into consideration all relevant 20295
reports, information, and other evidence, the court finds that the 20296
defendant is incompetent to stand trial, but the court is unable 20297
at that time to determine whether there is a substantial 20298
probability that the defendant will become competent to stand 20299
trial within one year if the defendant is provided with a course 20300
of treatment, the court shall order continuing evaluation and 20301
treatment of the defendant for a period not to exceed four months 20302
to determine whether there is a substantial probability that the 20303
defendant will become competent to stand trial within one year if 20304
the defendant is provided with a course of treatment.20305

       (b) The court order for the defendant to undergo treatment or 20306
continuing evaluation and treatment under division (B)(1)(a) of 20307
this section shall specify that the defendant, if determined to 20308
require mental health treatment or continuing evaluation and 20309
treatment, either shall be committed to the department of mental 20310
health for treatment or continuing evaluation and treatment at a 20311
hospital, facility, or agency, as determined to be clinically 20312
appropriate by the department of mental health andor shall be 20313
committed to a facility certified by the department of mental 20314
health as being qualified to treat mental illness, to a public or 20315
community mental health facility, or to a psychiatrist or another 20316
mental health professional for treatment or continuing evaluation 20317
and treatment. Prior to placing the defendant, the department of 20318
mental health shall obtain court approval for that placement 20319
following a hearing. The court order for the defendant to undergo 20320
treatment or continuing evaluation and treatment under division 20321
(B)(1)(a) of this section shall specify that the defendant, if 20322
determined to require treatment or continuing evaluation and 20323
treatment for a developmental disabilitymental retardation, 20324
shall receive treatment or continuing evaluation and treatment at 20325
an institution or facility operated by the department of 20326
developmental disabilities, at a facility certified by the 20327
department of developmental disabilities as being qualified to 20328
treat mental retardation, at a public or private community mental 20329
retardation facility, or by a psychiatrist or another mental 20330
retardation professional. TheIn any case, the order may restrict 20331
the defendant's freedom of movement as the court considers 20332
necessary. The prosecutor in the defendant's case shall send to 20333
the chief clinical officer of the hospital, facility, or agency 20334
where the defendant is placed by the department of mental health, 20335
or to the managing officer of the institution, the director of the 20336
program or facility, or the person to which the defendant is 20337
committed, copies of relevant police reports and other background 20338
information that pertains to the defendant and is available to the 20339
prosecutor unless the prosecutor determines that the release of 20340
any of the information in the police reports or any of the other 20341
background information to unauthorized persons would interfere 20342
with the effective prosecution of any person or would create a 20343
substantial risk of harm to any person.20344

       In committing the defendant to the department of mental 20345
health, the court shall consider the extent to which the person is 20346
a danger to the person and to others, the need for security, and 20347
the type of crime involved and, if the court finds that 20348
restrictions on the defendant's freedom of movement are necessary, 20349
shall specify the least restrictive limitations on the person's 20350
freedom of movement determined to be necessary to protect public 20351
safety. In determining the place of commitment alternatives for 20352
defendants determined to require treatment or continuing 20353
evaluation and treatment for developmental disabilities, the court 20354
shall consider the extent to which the person is a danger to the 20355
person and to others, the need for security, and the type of crime 20356
involved and shall order the least restrictive alternative 20357
available that is consistent with public safety and treatment 20358
goals. In weighing these factors, the court shall give preference 20359
to protecting public safety.20360

       (c) If the defendant is found incompetent to stand trial, if 20361
the chief clinical officer of the hospital, facility, or agency 20362
where the defendant is placed, or the managing officer of the 20363
institution, the director of the program or facility, or the 20364
person to which the defendant is committed for treatment or 20365
continuing evaluation and treatment under division (B)(1)(b) of 20366
this section determines that medication is necessary to restore 20367
the defendant's competency to stand trial, and if the defendant 20368
lacks the capacity to give informed consent or refuses medication, 20369
the chief clinical officer of the hospital, facility, or agency 20370
where the defendant is placed, or the managing officer of the 20371
institution, the director of the program or facility, or the 20372
person to which the defendant is committed for treatment or 20373
continuing evaluation and treatment may petition the court for 20374
authorization for the involuntary administration of medication. 20375
The court shall hold a hearing on the petition within five days of 20376
the filing of the petition if the petition was filed in a 20377
municipal court or a county court regarding an incompetent 20378
defendant charged with a misdemeanor or within ten days of the 20379
filing of the petition if the petition was filed in a court of 20380
common pleas regarding an incompetent defendant charged with a 20381
felony offense. Following the hearing, the court may authorize the 20382
involuntary administration of medication or may dismiss the 20383
petition.20384

       (d) If the defendant is charged with a misdemeanor offense 20385
that is not an offense of violence, the prosecutor may hold the 20386
charges in abeyance while the defendant engages in mental health 20387
treatment or developmental disability services.20388

       (2) If the court finds that the defendant is incompetent to 20389
stand trial and that, even if the defendant is provided with a 20390
course of treatment, there is not a substantial probability that 20391
the defendant will become competent to stand trial within one 20392
year, the court shall order the discharge of the defendant, unless 20393
upon motion of the prosecutor or on its own motion, the court 20394
either seeks to retain jurisdiction over the defendant pursuant to 20395
section 2945.39 of the Revised Code or files an affidavit in the 20396
probate court for the civil commitment of the defendant pursuant 20397
to Chapter 5122. or 5123. of the Revised Code alleging that the 20398
defendant is a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by 20399
court order or a mentally retarded person subject to 20400
institutionalization by court order. If an affidavit is filed in 20401
the probate court, the trial court shall send to the probate court 20402
copies of all written reports of the defendant's mental condition 20403
that were prepared pursuant to section 2945.371 of the Revised 20404
Code.20405

       The trial court may issue the temporary order of detention 20406
that a probate court may issue under section 5122.11 or 5123.71 of 20407
the Revised Code, to remain in effect until the probable cause or 20408
initial hearing in the probate court. Further proceedings in the 20409
probate court are civil proceedings governed by Chapter 5122. or 20410
5123. of the Revised Code.20411

       (C) No defendant shall be required to undergo treatment, 20412
including any continuing evaluation and treatment, under division 20413
(B)(1) of this section for longer than whichever of the following 20414
periods is applicable:20415

       (1) One year, if the most serious offense with which the 20416
defendant is charged is one of the following offenses:20417

       (a) Aggravated murder, murder, or an offense of violence for 20418
which a sentence of death or life imprisonment may be imposed;20419

       (b) An offense of violence that is a felony of the first or 20420
second degree;20421

       (c) A conspiracy to commit, an attempt to commit, or 20422
complicity in the commission of an offense described in division 20423
(C)(1)(a) or (b) of this section if the conspiracy, attempt, or 20424
complicity is a felony of the first or second degree.20425

       (2) Six months, if the most serious offense with which the 20426
defendant is charged is a felony other than a felony described in 20427
division (C)(1) of this section;20428

       (3) Sixty days, if the most serious offense with which the 20429
defendant is charged is a misdemeanor of the first or second 20430
degree;20431

       (4) Thirty days, if the most serious offense with which the 20432
defendant is charged is a misdemeanor of the third or fourth 20433
degree, a minor misdemeanor, or an unclassified misdemeanor.20434

       (D) Any defendant who is committed pursuant to this section 20435
shall not voluntarily admit the defendant or be voluntarily 20436
admitted to a hospital or institution pursuant to section 5122.02, 20437
5122.15, 5123.69, or 5123.76 of the Revised Code.20438

       (E) Except as otherwise provided in this division, a 20439
defendant who is charged with an offense and is committed by the 20440
court under this section to the department of mental health with 20441
restrictions on the defendant's freedom of movement or is 20442
committed to an institution or facility for the treatment of 20443
developmental disabilitiesmental retardation shall not be granted 20444
unsupervised on-grounds movement, supervised off-grounds movement, 20445
or nonsecured status except in accordance with the court order. 20446
The court may grant a defendant supervised off-grounds movement to 20447
obtain medical treatment or specialized habilitation treatment 20448
services if the person who supervises the treatment or the 20449
continuing evaluation and treatment of the defendant ordered under 20450
division (B)(1)(a) of this section informs the court that the 20451
treatment or continuing evaluation and treatment cannot be 20452
provided at the hospital or facility where the defendant is placed 20453
by the department of mental health or the institution or facility 20454
to which the defendant is committed. The chief clinical officer of 20455
the hospital or facility where the defendant is placed by the 20456
department of mental health or the managing officer of the 20457
institution or director of the facility to which the defendant is 20458
committed, or a designee of any of those persons, may grant a 20459
defendant movement to a medical facility for an emergency medical 20460
situation with appropriate supervision to ensure the safety of the 20461
defendant, staff, and community during that emergency medical 20462
situation. The chief clinical officer of the hospital or facility 20463
where the defendant is placed by the department of mental health 20464
or the managing officer of the institution or director of the 20465
facility to which the defendant is committed shall notify the 20466
court within twenty-four hours of the defendant's movement to the 20467
medical facility for an emergency medical situation under this 20468
division.20469

       (F) The person who supervises the treatment or continuing 20470
evaluation and treatment of a defendant ordered to undergo 20471
treatment or continuing evaluation and treatment under division 20472
(B)(1)(a) of this section shall file a written report with the 20473
court at the following times:20474

       (1) Whenever the person believes the defendant is capable of 20475
understanding the nature and objective of the proceedings against 20476
the defendant and of assisting in the defendant's defense;20477

       (2) For a felony offense, fourteen days before expiration of 20478
the maximum time for treatment as specified in division (C) of 20479
this section and fourteen days before the expiration of the 20480
maximum time for continuing evaluation and treatment as specified 20481
in division (B)(1)(a) of this section, and, for a misdemeanor 20482
offense, ten days before the expiration of the maximum time for 20483
treatment, as specified in division (C) of this section;20484

       (3) At a minimum, after each six months of treatment;20485

       (4) Whenever the person who supervises the treatment or 20486
continuing evaluation and treatment of a defendant ordered under 20487
division (B)(1)(a) of this section believes that there is not a 20488
substantial probability that the defendant will become capable of 20489
understanding the nature and objective of the proceedings against 20490
the defendant or of assisting in the defendant's defense even if 20491
the defendant is provided with a course of treatment.20492

       (G) A report under division (F) of this section shall contain 20493
the examiner's findings, the facts in reasonable detail on which 20494
the findings are based, and the examiner's opinion as to the 20495
defendant's capability of understanding the nature and objective 20496
of the proceedings against the defendant and of assisting in the 20497
defendant's defense. If, in the examiner's opinion, the defendant 20498
remains incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 20499
proceedings against the defendant and of assisting in the 20500
defendant's defense and there is a substantial probability that 20501
the defendant will become capable of understanding the nature and 20502
objective of the proceedings against the defendant and of 20503
assisting in the defendant's defense if the defendant is provided 20504
with a course of treatment, if in the examiner's opinion the 20505
defendant remains mentally ill or mentally retarded, and if the 20506
maximum time for treatment as specified in division (C) of this 20507
section has not expired, the report also shall contain the 20508
examiner's recommendation as to the least restrictive placement or 20509
commitment alternative that is consistent with the defendant's 20510
treatment needs for restoration to competency and with the safety 20511
of the community. The court shall provide copies of the report to 20512
the prosecutor and defense counsel.20513

       (H) If a defendant is committed pursuant to division (B)(1) 20514
of this section, within ten days after the treating physician of 20515
the defendant or the examiner of the defendant who is employed or 20516
retained by the treating facility advises that there is not a 20517
substantial probability that the defendant will become capable of 20518
understanding the nature and objective of the proceedings against 20519
the defendant or of assisting in the defendant's defense even if 20520
the defendant is provided with a course of treatment, within ten 20521
days after the expiration of the maximum time for treatment as 20522
specified in division (C) of this section, within ten days after 20523
the expiration of the maximum time for continuing evaluation and 20524
treatment as specified in division (B)(1)(a) of this section, 20525
within thirty days after a defendant's request for a hearing that 20526
is made after six months of treatment, or within thirty days after 20527
being advised by the treating physician or examiner that the 20528
defendant is competent to stand trial, whichever is the earliest, 20529
the court shall conduct another hearing to determine if the 20530
defendant is competent to stand trial and shall do whichever of 20531
the following is applicable:20532

       (1) If the court finds that the defendant is competent to 20533
stand trial, the defendant shall be proceeded against as provided 20534
by law.20535

       (2) If the court finds that the defendant is incompetent to 20536
stand trial, but that there is a substantial probability that the 20537
defendant will become competent to stand trial if the defendant is 20538
provided with a course of treatment, and the maximum time for 20539
treatment as specified in division (C) of this section has not 20540
expired, the court, after consideration of the examiner's 20541
recommendation, shall order that treatment be continued, may 20542
change the least restrictive limitations on the defendant's 20543
freedom of movementfacility or program at which the treatment is 20544
to be continued, and, if applicable, shall specify whether the 20545
treatment for developmental disabilities is to be continued at the 20546
same or a different facility or institutionprogram.20547

       (3) If the court finds that the defendant is incompetent to 20548
stand trial, if the defendant is charged with an offense listed in 20549
division (C)(1) of this section, and if the court finds that there 20550
is not a substantial probability that the defendant will become 20551
competent to stand trial even if the defendant is provided with a 20552
course of treatment, or if the maximum time for treatment relative 20553
to that offense as specified in division (C) of this section has 20554
expired, further proceedings shall be as provided in sections 20555
2945.39, 2945.401, and 2945.402 of the Revised Code.20556

       (4) If the court finds that the defendant is incompetent to 20557
stand trial, if the most serious offense with which the defendant 20558
is charged is a misdemeanor or a felony other than a felony listed 20559
in division (C)(1) of this section, and if the court finds that 20560
there is not a substantial probability that the defendant will 20561
become competent to stand trial even if the defendant is provided 20562
with a course of treatment, or if the maximum time for treatment 20563
relative to that offense as specified in division (C) of this 20564
section has expired, the court shall dismiss the indictment, 20565
information, or complaint against the defendant. A dismissal under 20566
this division is not a bar to further prosecution based on the 20567
same conduct. The court shall discharge the defendant unless the 20568
court or prosecutor files an affidavit in probate court for civil 20569
commitment pursuant to Chapter 5122. or 5123. of the Revised Code. 20570
If an affidavit for civil commitment is filed, the court may 20571
detain the defendant for ten days pending civil commitment. All of 20572
the following provisions apply to persons charged with a 20573
misdemeanor or a felony other than a felony listed in division 20574
(C)(1) of this section who are committed by the probate court 20575
subsequent to the court's or prosecutor's filing of an affidavit 20576
for civil commitment under authority of this division:20577

       (a) The chief clinical officer of the entity, hospital, or 20578
facility, the managing officer of the institution, the director of 20579
the program, or the person to which the defendant is committed or 20580
admitted shall do all of the following:20581

       (i) Notify the prosecutor, in writing, of the discharge of 20582
the defendant, send the notice at least ten days prior to the 20583
discharge unless the discharge is by the probate court, and state 20584
in the notice the date on which the defendant will be discharged;20585

       (ii) Notify the prosecutor, in writing, when the defendant is 20586
absent without leave or is granted unsupervised, off-grounds 20587
movement, and send this notice promptly after the discovery of the 20588
absence without leave or prior to the granting of the 20589
unsupervised, off-grounds movement, whichever is applicable;20590

       (iii) Notify the prosecutor, in writing, of the change of the 20591
defendant's commitment or admission to voluntary status, send the 20592
notice promptly upon learning of the change to voluntary status, 20593
and state in the notice the date on which the defendant was 20594
committed or admitted on a voluntary status.20595

       (b) Upon receiving notice that the defendant will be granted 20596
unsupervised, off-grounds movement, the prosecutor either shall 20597
re-indict the defendant or promptly notify the court that the 20598
prosecutor does not intend to prosecute the charges against the 20599
defendant.20600

       (I) If a defendant is convicted of a crime and sentenced to a 20601
jail or workhouse, the defendant's sentence shall be reduced by 20602
the total number of days the defendant is confined for evaluation 20603
to determine the defendant's competence to stand trial or 20604
treatment under this section and sections 2945.37 and 2945.371 of 20605
the Revised Code or by the total number of days the defendant is 20606
confined for evaluation to determine the defendant's mental 20607
condition at the time of the offense charged.20608

       Sec. 2945.39.  (A) If a defendant who is charged with an 20609
offense described in division (C)(1) of section 2945.38 of the 20610
Revised Code is found incompetent to stand trial, after the 20611
expiration of the maximum time for treatment as specified in 20612
division (C) of that section or after the court finds that there 20613
is not a substantial probability that the defendant will become 20614
competent to stand trial even if the defendant is provided with a 20615
course of treatment, one of the following applies:20616

       (1) The court or the prosecutor may file an affidavit in 20617
probate court for civil commitment of the defendant in the manner 20618
provided in Chapter 5122. or 5123. of the Revised Code. If the 20619
court or prosecutor files an affidavit for civil commitment, the 20620
court may detain the defendant for ten days pending civil 20621
commitment. If the probate court commits the defendant subsequent 20622
to the court's or prosecutor's filing of an affidavit for civil 20623
commitment, the chief clinical officer of the entity, hospital, or 20624
facility, the managing officer of the institution, the director of 20625
the program, or the person to which the defendant is committed or 20626
admitted shall send to the prosecutor the notices described in 20627
divisions (H)(4)(a)(i) to (iii) of section 2945.38 of the Revised 20628
Code within the periods of time and under the circumstances 20629
specified in those divisions.20630

       (2) On the motion of the prosecutor or on its own motion, the 20631
court may retain jurisdiction over the defendant if, at a hearing, 20632
the court finds both of the following by clear and convincing 20633
evidence:20634

       (a) The defendant committed the offense with which the 20635
defendant is charged.20636

       (b) The defendant is a mentally ill person subject to 20637
hospitalization by court order or a mentally retarded person 20638
subject to institutionalization by court order.20639

       (B) In making its determination under division (A)(2) of this 20640
section as to whether to retain jurisdiction over the defendant, 20641
the court may consider all relevant evidence, including, but not 20642
limited to, any relevant psychiatric, psychological, or medical 20643
testimony or reports, the acts constituting the offense charged, 20644
and any history of the defendant that is relevant to the 20645
defendant's ability to conform to the law.20646

       (C) If the court conducts a hearing as described in division 20647
(A)(2) of this section and if the court does not make both 20648
findings described in divisions (A)(2)(a) and (b) of this section 20649
by clear and convincing evidence, the court shall dismiss the 20650
indictment, information, or complaint against the defendant. Upon 20651
the dismissal, the court shall discharge the defendant unless the 20652
court or prosecutor files an affidavit in probate court for civil 20653
commitment of the defendant pursuant to Chapter 5122. or 5123. of 20654
the Revised Code. If the court or prosecutor files an affidavit 20655
for civil commitment, the court may order that the defendant be 20656
detained for up to ten days pending the civil commitment. If the 20657
probate court commits the defendant subsequent to the court's or 20658
prosecutor's filing of an affidavit for civil commitment, the 20659
chief clinical officer of the entity, hospital, or facility, the 20660
managing officer of the institution, the director of the program,20661
or the person to which the defendant is committed or admitted 20662
shall send to the prosecutor the notices described in divisions 20663
(H)(4)(a)(i) to (iii) of section 2945.38 of the Revised Code 20664
within the periods of time and under the circumstances specified 20665
in those divisions. A dismissal of charges under this division is 20666
not a bar to further criminal proceedings based on the same 20667
conduct.20668

       (D)(1) If the court conducts a hearing as described in 20669
division (A)(2) of this section and if the court makes the 20670
findings described in divisions (A)(2)(a) and (b) of this section 20671
by clear and convincing evidence, the court shall commit the 20672
defendant, if determined to require mental health treatment, 20673
either to the department of mental health for treatment at a 20674
hospital, facility, or agency as determined clinically appropriate 20675
by the department of mental health or to another medical or 20676
psychiatric facility, as appropriate. Prior to placing the 20677
defendant, the department of mental health shall obtain court 20678
approval for that placement. If the court conducts such a hearing 20679
and if it makes those findings by clear and convincing evidence, 20680
the court shall commit the defendant, if determined to require 20681
treatment for developmental disabilitiesmental retardation, to a 20682
facility operated by the department of developmental disabilities, 20683
or another facility, as appropriate. In committing the defendant 20684
to the department of mental health, the court shall specify the 20685
least restrictive limitations on the defendant's freedom of 20686
movement determined to be necessary to protect public safety. In 20687
determining the place and nature of the commitment to a facility 20688
operated by the department of developmental disabilities or 20689
another facility for treatment of developmental disabilities, the 20690
courtIn determining the place of commitment, the court shall 20691
consider the extent to which the person is a danger to the person 20692
and to others, the need for security, and the type of crime 20693
involved and shall order the least restrictive commitment20694
alternative available that is consistent with public safety and 20695
the welfare of the defendant. In weighing these factors, the court 20696
shall give preference to protecting public safety.20697

       (2) If a court makes a commitment of a defendant under 20698
division (D)(1) of this section, the prosecutor shall send to the 20699
hospital, facility, or agency where the defendant is placed by the 20700
department of mental health or to the defendant's place of 20701
commitment all reports of the defendant's current mental condition 20702
and, except as otherwise provided in this division, any other 20703
relevant information, including, but not limited to, a transcript 20704
of the hearing held pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section, 20705
copies of relevant police reports, and copies of any prior arrest 20706
and conviction records that pertain to the defendant and that the 20707
prosecutor possesses. The prosecutor shall send the reports of the 20708
defendant's current mental condition in every case of commitment, 20709
and, unless the prosecutor determines that the release of any of 20710
the other relevant information to unauthorized persons would 20711
interfere with the effective prosecution of any person or would 20712
create a substantial risk of harm to any person, the prosecutor 20713
also shall send the other relevant information. Upon admission of 20714
a defendant committed under division (D)(1) of this section, the 20715
place of commitment shall send to the board of alcohol, drug 20716
addiction, and mental health services or the community mental 20717
health board serving the county in which the charges against the 20718
defendant were filed a copy of all reports of the defendant's 20719
current mental condition and a copy of the other relevant 20720
information provided by the prosecutor under this division, 20721
including, if provided, a transcript of the hearing held pursuant 20722
to division (A)(2) of this section, the relevant police reports, 20723
and the prior arrest and conviction records that pertain to the 20724
defendant and that the prosecutor possesses.20725

       (3) If a court makes a commitment under division (D)(1) of 20726
this section, all further proceedings shall be in accordance with 20727
sections 2945.401 and 2945.402 of the Revised Code.20728

       Sec. 2945.40.  (A) If a person is found not guilty by reason 20729
of insanity, the verdict shall state that finding, and the trial 20730
court shall conduct a full hearing to determine whether the person 20731
is a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court order 20732
or a mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization by 20733
court order. Prior to the hearing, if the trial judge believes 20734
that there is probable cause that the person found not guilty by 20735
reason of insanity is a mentally ill person subject to 20736
hospitalization by court order or mentally retarded person subject 20737
to institutionalization by court order, the trial judge may issue 20738
a temporary order of detention for that person to remain in effect 20739
for ten court days or until the hearing, whichever occurs first.20740

       Any person detained pursuant to a temporary order of 20741
detention issued under this division shall be held in a suitable 20742
facility, taking into consideration the place and type of 20743
confinement prior to and during trial.20744

       (B) The court shall hold the hearing under division (A) of 20745
this section to determine whether the person found not guilty by 20746
reason of insanity is a mentally ill person subject to 20747
hospitalization by court order or a mentally retarded person 20748
subject to institutionalization by court order within ten court 20749
days after the finding of not guilty by reason of insanity. 20750
Failure to conduct the hearing within the ten-day period shall 20751
cause the immediate discharge of the respondent, unless the judge 20752
grants a continuance for not longer than ten court days for good 20753
cause shown or for any period of time upon motion of the 20754
respondent.20755

       (C) If a person is found not guilty by reason of insanity, 20756
the person has the right to attend all hearings conducted pursuant 20757
to sections 2945.37 to 2945.402 of the Revised Code. At any 20758
hearing conducted pursuant to one of those sections, the court 20759
shall inform the person that the person has all of the following 20760
rights:20761

       (1) The right to be represented by counsel and to have that 20762
counsel provided at public expense if the person is indigent, with 20763
the counsel to be appointed by the court under Chapter 120. of the 20764
Revised Code or under the authority recognized in division (C) of 20765
section 120.06, division (E) of section 120.16, division (E) of 20766
section 120.26, or section 2941.51 of the Revised Code;20767

       (2) The right to have independent expert evaluation and to 20768
have that independent expert evaluation provided at public expense 20769
if the person is indigent;20770

       (3) The right to subpoena witnesses and documents, to present 20771
evidence on the person's behalf, and to cross-examine witnesses 20772
against the person;20773

       (4) The right to testify in the person's own behalf and to 20774
not be compelled to testify;20775

       (5) The right to have copies of any relevant medical or 20776
mental health document in the custody of the state or of any place 20777
of commitment other than a document for which the court finds that 20778
the release to the person of information contained in the document 20779
would create a substantial risk of harm to any person.20780

       (D) The hearing under division (A) of this section shall be 20781
open to the public, and the court shall conduct the hearing in 20782
accordance with the Rules of Civil Procedure. The court shall make 20783
and maintain a full transcript and record of the hearing 20784
proceedings. The court may consider all relevant evidence, 20785
including, but not limited to, any relevant psychiatric, 20786
psychological, or medical testimony or reports, the acts 20787
constituting the offense in relation to which the person was found 20788
not guilty by reason of insanity, and any history of the person 20789
that is relevant to the person's ability to conform to the law.20790

       (E) Upon completion of the hearing under division (A) of this 20791
section, if the court finds there is not clear and convincing 20792
evidence that the person is a mentally ill person subject to 20793
hospitalization by court order or a mentally retarded person 20794
subject to institutionalization by court order, the court shall 20795
discharge the person, unless a detainer has been placed upon the 20796
person by the department of rehabilitation and correction, in 20797
which case the person shall be returned to that department.20798

       (F) If, at the hearing under division (A) of this section, 20799
the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that the person 20800
is a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court 20801
order, the court shall commit the person either to the department 20802
of mental health for placementtreatment in a hospital, facility, 20803
or agency as determined clinically appropriate by the department 20804
of mental health or to another medical or psychiatric facility, as 20805
appropriate. Prior to placing the defendant, the department of 20806
mental health shall obtain court approval for that placement. If, 20807
at the hearing under division (A) of this section, the court finds20808
determines by clear and convincing evidence that the person is a 20809
mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization by court 20810
orderrequires treatment for mental retardation, it shall commit 20811
the person to a facility operated by the department of 20812
developmental disabilities or another facility, as appropriate. 20813
Further proceedings shall be in accordance with sections 2945.401 20814
and 2945.402 of the Revised Code. In committing the person to the 20815
department of mental health, the court shall specify the least 20816
restrictive limitations to the defendant's freedom of movement 20817
determined to be necessary to protect public safety. In 20818
determining the place and nature of the commitment of a mentally 20819
retarded person subject to institutionalization by court order, 20820
the court shall consider the extent to which the person is a 20821
danger to the person and to others, the need for security, and the 20822
type of crime involved and shall order the least restrictive 20823
commitment alternative available that is consistent with public 20824
safety and the welfare of the person. In weighing these factors, 20825
the court shall give preference to protecting public safety.20826

       (G) If a court makes a commitment of a person under division 20827
(F) of this section, the prosecutor shall send to the hospital, 20828
facility, or agency where the person is placed by the department 20829
of mental health or to the defendant's place of commitment all 20830
reports of the person's current mental condition, and, except as 20831
otherwise provided in this division, any other relevant 20832
information, including, but not limited to, a transcript of the 20833
hearing held pursuant to division (A) of this section, copies of 20834
relevant police reports, and copies of any prior arrest and 20835
conviction records that pertain to the person and that the 20836
prosecutor possesses. The prosecutor shall send the reports of the 20837
person's current mental condition in every case of commitment, 20838
and, unless the prosecutor determines that the release of any of 20839
the other relevant information to unauthorized persons would 20840
interfere with the effective prosecution of any person or would 20841
create a substantial risk of harm to any person, the prosecutor 20842
also shall send the other relevant information. Upon admission of 20843
a person committed under division (F) of this section, the place 20844
of commitment shall send to the board of alcohol, drug addiction, 20845
and mental health services or the community mental health board 20846
serving the county in which the charges against the person were 20847
filed a copy of all reports of the person's current mental 20848
condition and a copy of the other relevant information provided by 20849
the prosecutor under this division, including, if provided, a 20850
transcript of the hearing held pursuant to division (A) of this 20851
section, the relevant police reports, and the prior arrest and 20852
conviction records that pertain to the person and that the 20853
prosecutor possesses.20854

       (H) A person who is committed pursuant to this section shall 20855
not voluntarily admit the person or be voluntarily admitted to a 20856
hospital or institution pursuant to section 5122.02, 5122.15, 20857
5123.69, or 5123.76 of the Revised Code.20858

       Sec. 2945.401.  (A) A defendant found incompetent to stand 20859
trial and committed pursuant to section 2945.39 of the Revised 20860
Code or a person found not guilty by reason of insanity and 20861
committed pursuant to section 2945.40 of the Revised Code shall 20862
remain subject to the jurisdiction of the trial court pursuant to 20863
that commitment, and to the provisions of this section, until the 20864
final termination of the commitment as described in division 20865
(J)(1) of this section. If the jurisdiction is terminated under 20866
this division because of the final termination of the commitment 20867
resulting from the expiration of the maximum prison term or term 20868
of imprisonment described in division (J)(1)(b) of this section, 20869
the court or prosecutor may file an affidavit for the civil 20870
commitment of the defendant or person pursuant to Chapter 5122. or 20871
5123. of the Revised Code.20872

       (B) A hearing conducted under any provision of sections 20873
2945.37 to 2945.402 of the Revised Code shall not be conducted in 20874
accordance with Chapters 5122. and 5123. of the Revised Code. Any 20875
person who is committed pursuant to section 2945.39 or 2945.40 of 20876
the Revised Code shall not voluntarily admit the person or be 20877
voluntarily admitted to a hospital or institution pursuant to 20878
section 5122.02, 5122.15, 5123.69, or 5123.76 of the Revised Code. 20879
All other provisions of Chapters 5122. and 5123. of the Revised 20880
Code regarding hospitalization or institutionalization shall apply 20881
to the extent they are not in conflict with this chapter. A 20882
commitment under section 2945.39 or 2945.40 of the Revised Code 20883
shall not be terminated and the conditions of the commitment shall 20884
not be changed except as otherwise provided in division (D)(2) of 20885
this section with respect to a mentally retarded person subject to 20886
institutionalization by court order or except by order of the 20887
trial court.20888

       (C) The department of mental health or the institution or,20889
facility, or program to which a defendant or person has been 20890
committed under section 2945.39 or 2945.40 of the Revised Code 20891
shall report in writing to the trial court, at the times specified 20892
in this division, as to whether the defendant or person remains a 20893
mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court order or a 20894
mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization by court 20895
order and, in the case of a defendant committed under section 20896
2945.39 of the Revised Code, as to whether the defendant remains 20897
incompetent to stand trial. The department, institution, or20898
facility, or program shall make the reports after the initial six 20899
months of treatment and every two years after the initial report 20900
is made. The trial court shall provide copies of the reports to 20901
the prosecutor and to the counsel for the defendant or person. 20902
Within thirty days after its receipt pursuant to this division of 20903
a report from the department, institution, or facility, or 20904
program, the trial court shall hold a hearing on the continued 20905
commitment of the defendant or person or on any changes in the 20906
conditions of the commitment of the defendant or person. The 20907
defendant or person may request a change in the conditions of 20908
confinement, and the trial court shall conduct a hearing on that 20909
request if six months or more have elapsed since the most recent 20910
hearing was conducted under this section.20911

       (D)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(2) of 20912
this section, when a defendant or person has been committed under 20913
section 2945.39 or 2945.40 of the Revised Code, at any time after 20914
evaluating the risks to public safety and the welfare of the 20915
defendant or person, the designee of the department of mental 20916
health or the managing officer of the institution or director of 20917
the facility or program to which the defendant or person is 20918
committed may recommend a termination of the defendant's or 20919
person's commitment or a change in the conditions of the 20920
defendant's or person's commitment.20921

       Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(2) of this 20922
section, if the designee of the department of mental health 20923
recommends on-grounds unsupervised movement, off-grounds 20924
supervised movement, or nonsecured status for the defendant or 20925
person or termination of the defendant's or person's commitment, 20926
the following provisions apply:20927

       (a) If the department's designee recommends on-grounds 20928
unsupervised movement or off-grounds supervised movement, the 20929
department's designee shall file with the trial court an 20930
application for approval of the movement and shall send a copy of 20931
the application to the prosecutor. Within fifteen days after 20932
receiving the application, the prosecutor may request a hearing on 20933
the application and, if a hearing is requested, shall so inform 20934
the department's designee. If the prosecutor does not request a 20935
hearing within the fifteen-day period, the trial court shall 20936
approve the application by entering its order approving the 20937
requested movement or, within five days after the expiration of 20938
the fifteen-day period, shall set a date for a hearing on the 20939
application. If the prosecutor requests a hearing on the 20940
application within the fifteen-day period, the trial court shall 20941
hold a hearing on the application within thirty days after the 20942
hearing is requested. If the trial court, within five days after 20943
the expiration of the fifteen-day period, sets a date for a 20944
hearing on the application, the trial court shall hold the hearing 20945
within thirty days after setting the hearing date. At least 20946
fifteen days before any hearing is held under this division, the 20947
trial court shall give the prosecutor written notice of the date, 20948
time, and place of the hearing. At the conclusion of each hearing 20949
conducted under this division, the trial court either shall 20950
approve or disapprove the application and shall enter its order 20951
accordingly.20952

       (b) If the department's designee recommends termination of 20953
the defendant's or person's commitment at any time or if the 20954
department's designee recommends the first of any nonsecured 20955
status for the defendant or person, the department's designee 20956
shall send written notice of this recommendation to the trial 20957
court and to the local forensic center. The local forensic center 20958
shall evaluate the committed defendant or person and, within 20959
thirty days after its receipt of the written notice, shall submit 20960
to the trial court and the department's designee a written report 20961
of the evaluation. The trial court shall provide a copy of the 20962
department's designee's written notice and of the local forensic 20963
center's written report to the prosecutor and to the counsel for 20964
the defendant or person. Upon the local forensic center's 20965
submission of the report to the trial court and the department's 20966
designee, all of the following apply:20967

       (i) If the forensic center disagrees with the recommendation 20968
of the department's designee, it shall inform the department's 20969
designee and the trial court of its decision and the reasons for 20970
the decision. The department's designee, after consideration of 20971
the forensic center's decision, shall either withdraw, proceed 20972
with, or modify and proceed with the recommendation. If the 20973
department's designee proceeds with, or modifies and proceeds 20974
with, the recommendation, the department's designee shall proceed 20975
in accordance with division (D)(1)(b)(iii) of this section.20976

       (ii) If the forensic center agrees with the recommendation of 20977
the department's designee, it shall inform the department's 20978
designee and the trial court of its decision and the reasons for 20979
the decision, and the department's designee shall proceed in 20980
accordance with division (D)(1)(b)(iii) of this section.20981

       (iii) If the forensic center disagrees with the 20982
recommendation of the department's designee and the department's 20983
designee proceeds with, or modifies and proceeds with, the 20984
recommendation or if the forensic center agrees with the 20985
recommendation of the department's designee, the department's 20986
designee shall work with community mental health agencies, 20987
programs, facilities, or boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 20988
mental health services or community mental health boards to 20989
develop a plan to implement the recommendation. If the defendant 20990
or person is on medication, the plan shall include, but shall not 20991
be limited to, a system to monitor the defendant's or person's 20992
compliance with the prescribed medication treatment plan. The 20993
system shall include a schedule that clearly states when the 20994
defendant or person shall report for a medication compliance 20995
check. The medication compliance checks shall be based upon the 20996
effective duration of the prescribed medication, taking into 20997
account the route by which it is taken, and shall be scheduled at 20998
intervals sufficiently close together to detect a potential 20999
increase in mental illness symptoms that the medication is 21000
intended to prevent.21001

       The department's designee, after consultation with the board 21002
of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services or the 21003
community mental health board serving the area, shall send the 21004
recommendation and plan developed under division (D)(1)(b)(iii) of 21005
this section, in writing, to the trial court, the prosecutor, and 21006
the counsel for the committed defendant or person. The trial court 21007
shall conduct a hearing on the recommendation and plan developed 21008
under division (D)(1)(b)(iii) of this section. Divisions (D)(1)(c) 21009
and (d) and (E) to (J) of this section apply regarding the 21010
hearing.21011

       (c) If the department's designee's recommendation is for 21012
nonsecured status or termination of commitment, the prosecutor may 21013
obtain an independent expert evaluation of the defendant's or 21014
person's mental condition, and the trial court may continue the 21015
hearing on the recommendation for a period of not more than thirty 21016
days to permit time for the evaluation.21017

       The prosecutor may introduce the evaluation report or present 21018
other evidence at the hearing in accordance with the Rules of 21019
Evidence.21020

       (d) The trial court shall schedule the hearing on a 21021
department's designee's recommendation for nonsecured status or 21022
termination of commitment and shall give reasonable notice to the 21023
prosecutor and the counsel for the defendant or person. Unless 21024
continued for independent evaluation at the prosecutor's request 21025
or for other good cause, the hearing shall be held within thirty 21026
days after the trial court's receipt of the recommendation and 21027
plan.21028

       (2)(a) Division (D)(1) of this section does not apply to 21029
on-grounds unsupervised movement of a defendant or person who has 21030
been committed under section 2945.39 or 2945.40 of the Revised 21031
Code, who is a mentally retarded person subject to 21032
institutionalization by court order, and who is being provided 21033
residential habilitation, care, and treatment in a facility 21034
operated by the department of developmental disabilities.21035

       (b) If, pursuant to section 2945.39 of the Revised Code, the 21036
trial court commits a defendant who is found incompetent to stand 21037
trial and who is a mentally retarded person subject to 21038
institutionalization by court order, if the defendant is being 21039
provided residential habilitation, care, and treatment in a 21040
facility operated by the department of developmental disabilities, 21041
if an individual who is conducting a survey for the department of 21042
health to determine the facility's compliance with the 21043
certification requirements of the medicaid program under Chapter 21044
5111. of the Revised Code and Title XIX of the "Social Security 21045
Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, cites the 21046
defendant's receipt of the residential habilitation, care, and 21047
treatment in the facility as being inappropriate under the 21048
certification requirements, if the defendant's receipt of the 21049
residential habilitation, care, and treatment in the facility 21050
potentially jeopardizes the facility's continued receipt of 21051
federal medicaid moneys, and if as a result of the citation the 21052
chief clinical officer of the facility determines that the 21053
conditions of the defendant's commitment should be changed, the 21054
department of developmental disabilities may cause the defendant 21055
to be removed from the particular facility and, after evaluating 21056
the risks to public safety and the welfare of the defendant and 21057
after determining whether another type of placement is consistent 21058
with the certification requirements, may place the defendant in 21059
another facility that the department selects as an appropriate 21060
facility for the defendant's continued receipt of residential 21061
habilitation, care, and treatment and that is a no less secure 21062
setting than the facility in which the defendant had been placed 21063
at the time of the citation. Within three days after the 21064
defendant's removal and alternative placement under the 21065
circumstances described in division (D)(2)(b) of this section, the 21066
department of developmental disabilities shall notify the trial 21067
court and the prosecutor in writing of the removal and alternative 21068
placement.21069

       The trial court shall set a date for a hearing on the removal 21070
and alternative placement, and the hearing shall be held within 21071
twenty-one days after the trial court's receipt of the notice from 21072
the department of developmental disabilities. At least ten days 21073
before the hearing is held, the trial court shall give the 21074
prosecutor, the department of developmental disabilities, and the 21075
counsel for the defendant written notice of the date, time, and 21076
place of the hearing. At the hearing, the trial court shall 21077
consider the citation issued by the individual who conducted the 21078
survey for the department of health to be prima-facie evidence of 21079
the fact that the defendant's commitment to the particular 21080
facility was inappropriate under the certification requirements of 21081
the medicaid program under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code and 21082
Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 21083
U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, and potentially jeopardizes the 21084
particular facility's continued receipt of federal medicaid 21085
moneys. At the conclusion of the hearing, the trial court may 21086
approve or disapprove the defendant's removal and alternative 21087
placement. If the trial court approves the defendant's removal and 21088
alternative placement, the department of developmental 21089
disabilities may continue the defendant's alternative placement. 21090
If the trial court disapproves the defendant's removal and 21091
alternative placement, it shall enter an order modifying the 21092
defendant's removal and alternative placement, but that order 21093
shall not require the department of developmental disabilities to 21094
replace the defendant for purposes of continued residential 21095
habilitation, care, and treatment in the facility associated with 21096
the citation issued by the individual who conducted the survey for 21097
the department of health.21098

       (E) In making a determination under this section regarding 21099
nonsecured status or termination of commitment, the trial court 21100
shall consider all relevant factors, including, but not limited 21101
to, all of the following:21102

       (1) Whether, in the trial court's view, the defendant or 21103
person currently represents a substantial risk of physical harm to 21104
the defendant or person or others;21105

       (2) Psychiatric and medical testimony as to the current 21106
mental and physical condition of the defendant or person;21107

       (3) Whether the defendant or person has insight into the 21108
dependant's defendant's or person's condition so that the 21109
defendant or person will continue treatment as prescribed or seek 21110
professional assistance as needed;21111

       (4) The grounds upon which the state relies for the proposed 21112
commitment;21113

       (5) Any past history that is relevant to establish the 21114
defendant's or person's degree of conformity to the laws, rules, 21115
regulations, and values of society;21116

       (6) If there is evidence that the defendant's or person's 21117
mental illness is in a state of remission, the medically suggested 21118
cause and degree of the remission and the probability that the 21119
defendant or person will continue treatment to maintain the 21120
remissive state of the defendant's or person's illness should the 21121
defendant's or person's commitment conditions be altered.21122

       (F) At any hearing held pursuant to division (C) or (D)(1) or 21123
(2) of this section, the defendant or the person shall have all 21124
the rights of a defendant or person at a commitment hearing as 21125
described in section 2945.40 of the Revised Code.21126

       (G) In a hearing held pursuant to division (C) or (D)(1) of 21127
this section, the prosecutor has the burden of proof as follows:21128

       (1) For a recommendation of termination of commitment, to 21129
show by clear and convincing evidence that the defendant or person 21130
remains a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court 21131
order or a mentally retarded person subject to 21132
institutionalization by court order;21133

       (2) For a recommendation for a change in the conditions of 21134
the commitment to a less restrictive status, to show by clear and 21135
convincing evidence that the proposed change represents a threat 21136
to public safety or a threat to the safety of any person.21137

       (H) In a hearing held pursuant to division (C) or (D)(1) or 21138
(2) of this section, the prosecutor shall represent the state or 21139
the public interest.21140

       (I) At the conclusion of a hearing conducted under division 21141
(D)(1) of this section regarding a recommendation from the 21142
designee of the department of mental health, managing officer of 21143
the institution, or director of a facility or program, the trial 21144
court may approve, disapprove, or modify the recommendation and 21145
shall enter an order accordingly.21146

       (J)(1) A defendant or person who has been committed pursuant 21147
to section 2945.39 or 2945.40 of the Revised Code continues to be 21148
under the jurisdiction of the trial court until the final 21149
termination of the commitment. For purposes of division (J) of 21150
this section, the final termination of a commitment occurs upon 21151
the earlier of one of the following:21152

       (a) The defendant or person no longer is a mentally ill 21153
person subject to hospitalization by court order or a mentally 21154
retarded person subject to institutionalization by court order, as 21155
determined by the trial court;21156

       (b) The expiration of the maximum prison term or term of 21157
imprisonment that the defendant or person could have received if 21158
the defendant or person had been convicted of the most serious 21159
offense with which the defendant or person is charged or in 21160
relation to which the defendant or person was found not guilty by 21161
reason of insanity;21162

       (c) The trial court enters an order terminating the 21163
commitment under the circumstances described in division 21164
(J)(2)(a)(ii) of this section.21165

       (2)(a) If a defendant is found incompetent to stand trial and 21166
committed pursuant to section 2945.39 of the Revised Code, if 21167
neither of the circumstances described in divisions (J)(1)(a) and 21168
(b) of this section applies to that defendant, and if a report 21169
filed with the trial court pursuant to division (C) of this 21170
section indicates that the defendant presently is competent to 21171
stand trial or if, at any other time during the period of the 21172
defendant's commitment, the prosecutor, the counsel for the 21173
defendant, or the designee of the department of mental health or 21174
the managing officer of the institution or director of the 21175
facility or program to which the defendant is committed files an 21176
application with the trial court alleging that the defendant 21177
presently is competent to stand trial and requesting a hearing on 21178
the competency issue or the trial court otherwise has reasonable 21179
cause to believe that the defendant presently is competent to 21180
stand trial and determines on its own motion to hold a hearing on 21181
the competency issue, the trial court shall schedule a hearing on 21182
the competency of the defendant to stand trial, shall give the 21183
prosecutor, the counsel for the defendant, and the department's 21184
designee or the managing officer of the institution or the 21185
director of the facility to which the defendant is committed 21186
notice of the date, time, and place of the hearing at least 21187
fifteen days before the hearing, and shall conduct the hearing 21188
within thirty days of the filing of the application or of its own 21189
motion. If, at the conclusion of the hearing, the trial court 21190
determines that the defendant presently is capable of 21191
understanding the nature and objective of the proceedings against 21192
the defendant and of assisting in the defendant's defense, the 21193
trial court shall order that the defendant is competent to stand 21194
trial and shall be proceeded against as provided by law with 21195
respect to the applicable offenses described in division (C)(1) of 21196
section 2945.38 of the Revised Code and shall enter whichever of 21197
the following additional orders is appropriate:21198

       (i) If the trial court determines that the defendant remains 21199
a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court order or 21200
a mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization by 21201
court order, the trial court shall order that the defendant's 21202
commitment to the department of mental health or to an institution 21203
or, facility, or program for the treatment of developmental 21204
disabilitiesmental retardation be continued during the pendency 21205
of the trial on the applicable offenses described in division 21206
(C)(1) of section 2945.38 of the Revised Code.21207

       (ii) If the trial court determines that the defendant no 21208
longer is a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by 21209
court order or a mentally retarded person subject to 21210
institutionalization by court order, the trial court shall order 21211
that the defendant's commitment to the department of mental health 21212
or to an institution or, facility, or program for the treatment of 21213
developmental disabilitiesmental retardation shall not be 21214
continued during the pendency of the trial on the applicable 21215
offenses described in division (C)(1) of section 2945.38 of the 21216
Revised Code. This order shall be a final termination of the 21217
commitment for purposes of division (J)(1)(c) of this section.21218

       (b) If, at the conclusion of the hearing described in 21219
division (J)(2)(a) of this section, the trial court determines 21220
that the defendant remains incapable of understanding the nature 21221
and objective of the proceedings against the defendant or of 21222
assisting in the defendant's defense, the trial court shall order 21223
that the defendant continues to be incompetent to stand trial, 21224
that the defendant's commitment to the department of mental health 21225
or to an institution or, facility, or program for the treatment of 21226
developmental disabilitiesmental retardation shall be continued, 21227
and that the defendant remains subject to the jurisdiction of the 21228
trial court pursuant to that commitment, and to the provisions of 21229
this section, until the final termination of the commitment as 21230
described in division (J)(1) of this section.21231

       Sec. 2953.32.  (A)(1) Except as provided in section 2953.61 21232
of the Revised Code, a first offender may apply to the sentencing 21233
court if convicted in this state, or to a court of common pleas if 21234
convicted in another state or in a federal court, for the sealing 21235
of the conviction record. Application may be made at the 21236
expiration of three years after the offender's final discharge if 21237
convicted of a felony, or at the expiration of one year after the 21238
offender's final discharge if convicted of a misdemeanor.21239

       (2) Any person who has been arrested for any misdemeanor 21240
offense and who has effected a bail forfeiture may apply to the 21241
court in which the misdemeanor criminal case was pending when bail 21242
was forfeited for the sealing of the record of the case. Except as 21243
provided in section 2953.61 of the Revised Code, the application 21244
may be filed at any time after the expiration of one year from the 21245
date on which the bail forfeiture was entered upon the minutes of 21246
the court or the journal, whichever entry occurs first.21247

       (B) Upon the filing of an application under this section, the 21248
court shall set a date for a hearing and shall notify the 21249
prosecutor for the case of the hearing on the application. The 21250
prosecutor may object to the granting of the application by filing 21251
an objection with the court prior to the date set for the hearing. 21252
The prosecutor shall specify in the objection the reasons for 21253
believing a denial of the application is justified. The court 21254
shall direct its regular probation officer, a state probation 21255
officer, or the department of probation of the county in which the 21256
applicant resides to make inquiries and written reports as the 21257
court requires concerning the applicant.21258

       (C)(1) The court shall do each of the following:21259

       (a) Determine whether the applicant is a first offender or 21260
whether the forfeiture of bail was agreed to by the applicant and 21261
the prosecutor in the case. If the applicant applies as a first 21262
offender pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section and has two 21263
or three convictions that result from the same indictment, 21264
information, or complaint, from the same plea of guilty, or from 21265
the same official proceeding, and result from related criminal 21266
acts that were committed within a three-month period but do not 21267
result from the same act or from offenses committed at the same 21268
time, in making its determination under this division, the court 21269
initially shall determine whether it is not in the public interest 21270
for the two or three convictions to be counted as one conviction. 21271
If the court determines that it is not in the public interest for 21272
the two or three convictions to be counted as one conviction, the 21273
court shall determine that the applicant is not a first offender; 21274
if the court does not make that determination, the court shall 21275
determine that the offender is a first offender.21276

       (b) Determine whether criminal proceedings are pending 21277
against the applicant;21278

       (c) If the applicant is a first offender who applies pursuant 21279
to division (A)(1) of this section, determine whether the 21280
applicant has been rehabilitated to the satisfaction of the court;21281

       (d) If the prosecutor has filed an objection in accordance 21282
with division (B) of this section, consider the reasons against 21283
granting the application specified by the prosecutor in the 21284
objection;21285

       (e) Weigh the interests of the applicant in having the 21286
records pertaining to the applicant's conviction sealed against 21287
the legitimate needs, if any, of the government to maintain those 21288
records.21289

       (2) If the court determines, after complying with division 21290
(C)(1) of this section, that the applicant is a first offender or 21291
the subject of a bail forfeiture, that no criminal proceeding is 21292
pending against the applicant, and that the interests of the 21293
applicant in having the records pertaining to the applicant's 21294
conviction or bail forfeiture sealed are not outweighed by any 21295
legitimate governmental needs to maintain those records, and that 21296
the rehabilitation of an applicant who is a first offender 21297
applying pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section has been 21298
attained to the satisfaction of the court, the court, except as 21299
provided in divisions (G) and (H) of this section, shall order all 21300
official records pertaining to the case sealed and, except as 21301
provided in division (F) of this section, all index references to 21302
the case deleted and, in the case of bail forfeitures, shall 21303
dismiss the charges in the case. The proceedings in the case shall 21304
be considered not to have occurred and the conviction or bail 21305
forfeiture of the person who is the subject of the proceedings 21306
shall be sealed, except that upon conviction of a subsequent 21307
offense, the sealed record of prior conviction or bail forfeiture 21308
may be considered by the court in determining the sentence or 21309
other appropriate disposition, including the relief provided for 21310
in sections 2953.31 to 2953.33 of the Revised Code.21311

       (3) Upon the filing of an application under this section, the 21312
applicant, unless indigent, shall pay a fee of fifty dollars. The 21313
court shall pay thirty dollars of the fee into the state treasury. 21314
It shall pay twenty dollars of the fee into the county general 21315
revenue fund if the sealed conviction or bail forfeiture was 21316
pursuant to a state statute, or into the general revenue fund of 21317
the municipal corporation involved if the sealed conviction or 21318
bail forfeiture was pursuant to a municipal ordinance.21319

       (D) Inspection of the sealed records included in the order 21320
may be made only by the following persons or for the following 21321
purposes:21322

       (1) By a law enforcement officer or prosecutor, or the 21323
assistants of either, to determine whether the nature and 21324
character of the offense with which a person is to be charged 21325
would be affected by virtue of the person's previously having been 21326
convicted of a crime;21327

       (2) By the parole or probation officer of the person who is 21328
the subject of the records, for the exclusive use of the officer 21329
in supervising the person while on parole or under a community 21330
control sanction or a post-release control sanction, and in making 21331
inquiries and written reports as requested by the court or adult 21332
parole authority;21333

       (3) Upon application by the person who is the subject of the 21334
records, by the persons named in the application;21335

       (4) By a law enforcement officer who was involved in the 21336
case, for use in the officer's defense of a civil action arising 21337
out of the officer's involvement in that case;21338

       (5) By a prosecuting attorney or the prosecuting attorney's 21339
assistants, to determine a defendant's eligibility to enter a 21340
pre-trial diversion program established pursuant to section 21341
2935.36 of the Revised Code;21342

       (6) By any law enforcement agency or any authorized employee 21343
of a law enforcement agency or by the department of rehabilitation 21344
and correction as part of a background investigation of a person 21345
who applies for employment with the agency as a law enforcement 21346
officer or with the department as a corrections officer;21347

       (7) By any law enforcement agency or any authorized employee 21348
of a law enforcement agency, for the purposes set forth in, and in 21349
the manner provided in, section 2953.321 of the Revised Code;21350

       (8) By the bureau of criminal identification and 21351
investigation or any authorized employee of the bureau for the 21352
purpose of providing information to a board or person pursuant to 21353
division (F) or (G) of section 109.57 of the Revised Code;21354

       (9) By the bureau of criminal identification and 21355
investigation or any authorized employee of the bureau for the 21356
purpose of performing a criminal history records check on a person 21357
to whom a certificate as prescribed in section 109.77 of the 21358
Revised Code is to be awarded;21359

       (10) By the bureau of criminal identification and 21360
investigation or any authorized employee of the bureau for the 21361
purpose of conducting a criminal records check of an individual 21362
pursuant to division (B) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 21363
that was requested pursuant to any of the sections identified in 21364
division (B)(1) of that section;21365

       (11) By the bureau of criminal identification and 21366
investigation, an authorized employee of the bureau, a sheriff, or 21367
an authorized employee of a sheriff in connection with a criminal 21368
records check described in section 311.41 of the Revised Code;21369

       (12) By the attorney general or an authorized employee of the 21370
attorney general or a court for purposes of determining a person's 21371
classification pursuant to Chapter 2950. of the Revised Code;21372

       (13) By a prosecuting attorney or the attorney general, or 21373
the assistants of either, for purposes of defending a civil action 21374
brought pursuant to division (B)(1) of section 2743.48 of the 21375
Revised Code.21376

       When the nature and character of the offense with which a 21377
person is to be charged would be affected by the information, it 21378
may be used for the purpose of charging the person with an 21379
offense.21380

       (E) In any criminal proceeding, proof of any otherwise 21381
admissible prior conviction may be introduced and proved, 21382
notwithstanding the fact that for any such prior conviction an 21383
order of sealing previously was issued pursuant to sections 21384
2953.31 to 2953.36 of the Revised Code.21385

       (F) The person or governmental agency, office, or department 21386
that maintains sealed records pertaining to convictions or bail 21387
forfeitures that have been sealed pursuant to this section may 21388
maintain a manual or computerized index to the sealed records. The 21389
index shall contain only the name of, and alphanumeric identifiers 21390
that relate to, the persons who are the subject of the sealed 21391
records, the word "sealed," and the name of the person, agency, 21392
office, or department that has custody of the sealed records, and 21393
shall not contain the name of the crime committed. The index shall 21394
be made available by the person who has custody of the sealed 21395
records only for the purposes set forth in divisions (C), (D), and 21396
(E) of this section.21397

       (G) Notwithstanding any provision of this section or section 21398
2953.33 of the Revised Code that requires otherwise, a board of 21399
education of a city, local, exempted village, or joint vocational 21400
school district that maintains records of an individual who has 21401
been permanently excluded under sections 3301.121 and 3313.662 of 21402
the Revised Code is permitted to maintain records regarding a 21403
conviction that was used as the basis for the individual's 21404
permanent exclusion, regardless of a court order to seal the 21405
record. An order issued under this section to seal the record of a 21406
conviction does not revoke the adjudication order of the 21407
superintendent of public instruction to permanently exclude the 21408
individual who is the subject of the sealing order. An order 21409
issued under this section to seal the record of a conviction of an 21410
individual may be presented to a district superintendent as 21411
evidence to support the contention that the superintendent should 21412
recommend that the permanent exclusion of the individual who is 21413
the subject of the sealing order be revoked. Except as otherwise 21414
authorized by this division and sections 3301.121 and 3313.662 of 21415
the Revised Code, any school employee in possession of or having 21416
access to the sealed conviction records of an individual that were 21417
the basis of a permanent exclusion of the individual is subject to 21418
section 2953.35 of the Revised Code.21419

       (H) For purposes of sections 2953.31 to 2953.36 of the 21420
Revised Code, DNA records collected in the DNA database and 21421
fingerprints filed for record by the superintendent of the bureau 21422
of criminal identification and investigation shall not be sealed 21423
unless the superintendent receives a certified copy of a final 21424
court order establishing that the offender's conviction has been 21425
overturned. For purposes of this section, a court order is not 21426
"final" if time remains for an appeal or application for 21427
discretionary review with respect to the order.21428

       Sec. 2961.22.  (A)(1) Any prisoner serving a prison term in a 21429
state correctional institution who satisfies all of the following 21430
is eligible to apply to the department of rehabilitation and 21431
correction at a time specified in division (A)(2) of this section 21432
and in accordance with division (D) of this section for a 21433
certificate of achievement and employability:21434

       (a) The prisoner has satisfactorily completed one or more 21435
in-prison vocational programs approved by rule by the department 21436
of rehabilitation and correction.21437

       (b) The prisoner has demonstrated exemplary performance as 21438
determined by completion of one or more cognitive or behavioral 21439
improvement programs approved by rule by the department while 21440
incarcerated in a state correctional institution, while under 21441
supervision, or during both periods of time.21442

       (c) The prisoner has completed community service hours.21443

       (d) The prisoner shows other evidence of achievement and 21444
rehabilitation while under the jurisdiction of the department.21445

       (2) An eligible prisoner may apply to the department of 21446
rehabilitation and correction under division (A)(1) of this 21447
section for a certificate of achievement and employability no 21448
earlier than one year prior to the date scheduled for the release 21449
of the prisoner from department custody and no later than the date 21450
of release of the prisoner.21451

       (B)(1) Any prisoner who has been released from a state 21452
correctional institution, who is under supervision on parole or 21453
under a post-release control sanction, and who satisfies all of 21454
the criteria set forth in division (A)(1) of this section is 21455
eligible to apply to the adult parole authority at a time 21456
specified in division (B)(2) of this section and in accordance 21457
with division (D) of this section for a certificate of achievement 21458
and employability.21459

       (2) An eligible prisoner may apply to the adult parole 21460
authority under division (B)(1) of this section for a certificate 21461
of achievement and employability at any time while the prisoner is 21462
under supervision on parole or under a post-release control 21463
sanction.21464

       (C)(1) An eligible prisoner may apply to the department of 21465
rehabilitation and correction or to the adult parole authority at 21466
a time specified in division (A) or (B) of this section, whichever 21467
is applicable, for a certificate of achievement and employability 21468
that grants the prisoner relief from one or more mandatory civil 21469
impacts that would affect a potential job within a field in which 21470
the prisoner trained as part of the prisoner's in-prison 21471
vocational program. The prisoner shall specify the mandatory civil 21472
impacts from which the prisoner is requesting relief under the 21473
certificate. Upon application by a prisoner in accordance with 21474
this division, if the mandatory civil impact of any licensing 21475
agency would be affected by the issuance of the certificate to the 21476
prisoner, the department or authority shall notify the licensing 21477
agency of the filing of the application, provide the licensing 21478
agency with a copy of the application and all evidence that the 21479
department, authority, or court has regarding the prisoner, and 21480
afford the licensing agency with an opportunity to object in 21481
writing to the issuance of the certificate to the prisoner.21482

       (2) Upon application by a prisoner in accordance with 21483
division (C)(1) of this section, the department of rehabilitation 21484
and correction or the adult parole authority, whichever is 21485
applicable, shall consider the application and all objections to 21486
the issuance of a certificate of achievement and employability to 21487
the prisoner, if any, that were made by a licensing agency under 21488
division (C)(1) of this section. If the department or authority 21489
determines that the prisoner is an eligible prisoner, that the 21490
application was filed at a time specified in division (B) of this 21491
section, and that any licensing agency objections to the issuance 21492
of the certificate to the prisoner are not sufficient to deny the 21493
issuance of the certificate to the prisoner, subject to division 21494
(C)(3) of this section, the department or authority shall issue 21495
the prisoner a certificate of achievement and employability that 21496
grants the prisoner relief from the mandatory civil impacts that 21497
are specified in the prisoner's application and that would affect 21498
a potential job within a field in which the prisoner trained as 21499
part of the prisoner's in-prison vocational program.21500

       (3) The mandatory civil impacts identified in division (A)(1) 21501
of section 2961.01 and in division (B) of section 2961.02 of the 21502
Revised Code shall not be affected by any certificate of 21503
achievement and employability issued under this section. No 21504
certificate of achievement and employability issued to a prisoner 21505
under this section grants the prisoner relief from the mandatory 21506
civil impacts identified in division (A)(1) of section 2961.01 and 21507
in division (B) of section 2961.02 of the Revised Code.21508

       (E) The department of rehabilitation and correction shall 21509
adopt rules that define in-prison vocational programs and 21510
cognitive or behavioral improvement programs that a prisoner may 21511
complete to satisfy the criteria described in divisions (A)(1)(a) 21512
and (b) of this section.21513

       (F) The department of rehabilitation and correction and the 21514
adult parole authority shall not be liable for any claim for 21515
damages arising from the department's or authority's issuance, 21516
denial, or revocation of a certificate of achievement and 21517
employability or for the department's or authority's failure to 21518
revoke a certificate of achievement and employability under the 21519
circumstances described in section 2961.24 of the Revised Code.21520

       Sec. 2967.03.  The adult parole authority may exercise its 21521
functions and duties in relation to the pardon, commutation of 21522
sentence, or reprieve of a convict upon direction of the governor 21523
or upon its own initiative. It may exercise its functions and 21524
duties in relation to the parole of a prisoner who is eligible for 21525
parole upon the initiative of the head of the institution in which 21526
the prisoner is confined or upon its own initiative. When a 21527
prisoner becomes eligible for parole, the head of the institution 21528
in which the prisoner is confined shall notify the authority in 21529
the manner prescribed by the authority. The authority may 21530
investigate and examine, or cause the investigation and 21531
examination of, prisoners confined in state correctional 21532
institutions concerning their conduct in the institutions, their 21533
mental and moral qualities and characteristics, their knowledge of 21534
a trade or profession, their former means of livelihood, their 21535
family relationships, and any other matters affecting their 21536
fitness to be at liberty without being a threat to society.21537

       The authority may recommend to the governor the pardon, 21538
commutation of sentence, medical release, or reprieve of any 21539
convict or prisoner or grant a parole to any prisoner for whom 21540
parole is authorized, if in its judgment there is reasonable 21541
ground to believe that granting a pardon, commutation, medical 21542
release, or reprieve to the convict or paroling the prisoner would 21543
further the interests of justice and be consistent with the 21544
welfare and security of society. However, the authority shall not 21545
recommend a pardon,or commutation of sentence, or medical release 21546
of, or grant a parole to, any convict or prisoner until the 21547
authority has complied with the applicable notice requirements of 21548
sections 2930.16 and 2967.12 of the Revised Code and until it has 21549
considered any statement made by a victim or a victim's 21550
representative that is relevant to the convict's or prisoner's 21551
case and that was sent to the authority pursuant to section 21552
2930.17 of the Revised Code, any other statement made by a victim 21553
or a victim's representative that is relevant to the convict's or 21554
prisoner's case and that was received by the authority after it 21555
provided notice of the pendency of the action under sections 21556
2930.16 and 2967.12 of the Revised Code, and any written statement 21557
of any person submitted to the court pursuant to division (G) of 21558
section 2967.12 of the Revised Code. If a victim, victim's 21559
representative, or the victim's spouse, parent, sibling, or child 21560
appears at a full board hearing of the parole board and gives 21561
testimony as authorized by section 5149.101 of the Revised Code, 21562
the authority shall consider the testimony in determining whether 21563
to grant a parole. The trial judge and prosecuting attorney of the 21564
trial court in which a person was convicted shall furnish to the 21565
authority, at the request of the authority, a summarized statement 21566
of the facts proved at the trial and of all other facts having 21567
reference to the propriety of recommending a pardon, commutation, 21568
or medical release, or granting a parole, together with a 21569
recommendation for or against a pardon, commutation, medical 21570
release, or parole, and the reasons for the recommendation. The 21571
trial judge, the prosecuting attorney, specified law enforcement 21572
agency members, and a representative of the prisoner may appear at 21573
a full board hearing of the parole board and give testimony in 21574
regard to the grant of a parole to the prisoner as authorized by 21575
section 5149.101 of the Revised Code. All state and local 21576
officials shall furnish information to the authority, when so 21577
requested by it in the performance of its duties.21578

       The adult parole authority shall exercise its functions and 21579
duties in relation to the release of prisoners who are serving a 21580
stated prison term in accordance with section 2967.28 of the 21581
Revised Code.21582

       Sec. 2967.05.  (A) As used in this section:21583

       (1) "Imminent danger of death" means that the inmate has a 21584
medically diagnosable condition that will cause death to occur 21585
within a short period of time.21586

       As used in division (A)(1) of this section, "within a short 21587
period of time" means generally within six months.21588

       (2)(a) "Medically incapacitated" means any diagnosable 21589
medical condition, including mental dementia and severe, permanent 21590
medical or cognitive disability, that prevents the inmate from 21591
completing activities of daily living without significant 21592
assistance, that incapacitates the inmate to the extent that 21593
institutional confinement does not offer additional restrictions, 21594
that is likely to continue throughout the entire period of parole, 21595
and that is unlikely to improve noticeably. 21596

       (b) "Medically incapacitated" does not include conditions 21597
related solely to mental illness unless the mental illness is 21598
accompanied by injury, disease, or organic defect.21599

       (3)(a) "Terminal illness" means a condition that satisfies 21600
all of the following criteria:21601

       (i) The condition is irreversible and incurable and is caused 21602
by disease, illness, or injury from which the inmate is unlikely 21603
to recover.21604

       (ii) In accordance with reasonable medical standards and a 21605
reasonable degree of medical certainty, the condition is likely to 21606
cause death to the inmate within twelve months.21607

       (iii) Institutional confinement of the inmate does not offer 21608
additional protections for public safety or against the inmate's 21609
risk to reoffend.21610

       (b) The department of rehabilitation and correction shall 21611
adopt rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to 21612
implement the definition of "terminal illness" in division 21613
(A)(3)(a) of this section.21614

       (B) Upon the recommendation of the director of rehabilitation 21615
and correction, accompanied by a certificate of the attending 21616
physician that an inmate is terminally ill, medically 21617
incapacitated, or in imminent danger of death, the governor may 21618
order the inmate's release as if on parole, reserving the right to 21619
return the inmate to the institution pursuant to this section. If, 21620
subsequent to the inmate's release, the inmate's health improves 21621
so that the inmate is no longer terminally ill, medically 21622
incapacitated, or in imminent danger of death, the inmate shall be 21623
returned, by order of the governor, to the institution from which 21624
the inmate was released. If the inmate violates any rules or 21625
conditions applicable to the inmate, the inmate may be returned to 21626
an institution under the control of the department of 21627
rehabilitation and correction. The governor may direct the adult 21628
parole authority to investigate or cause to be investigated the 21629
inmate and make a recommendation in the manner set forth in 21630
section 2967.03 of the Revised Code. An inmate released under this 21631
section shall be subject to supervision by the adult parole 21632
authority in accordance with any recommendation of the adult 21633
parole authority that is approved by the governor. The adult 21634
parole authority shall adopt rules pursuant to section 119.03 of 21635
the Revised Code to establish the procedure for medical release of 21636
an inmate when an inmate is terminally ill, medically 21637
incapacitated, or in imminent danger of death.21638

       (C) No inmate is eligible for release under this section if 21639
the inmate is serving a death sentence, a sentence of life without 21640
parole, a sentence under Chapter 2971. of the Revised Code for a 21641
felony of the first or second degree, a sentence for aggravated 21642
murder or murder, or a mandatory prison term for an offense of 21643
violence or any specification described in Chapter 2941. of the 21644
Revised Code.21645

       Sec. 2967.14.  (A) The department of rehabilitation and 21646
correction or the adult parole authority may require or allow a 21647
parolee, a releasee, or a prisoner otherwise released from a state 21648
correctional institution to reside in a halfway house or other 21649
suitable community residential center that has been licensed by 21650
the division of parole and community services pursuant to division 21651
(C) of this section during a part or for the entire period of the 21652
offender's or parolee's conditional release or of the releasee's 21653
term of post-release control. The court of common pleas that 21654
placed an offender under a sanction consisting of a term in a 21655
halfway house or in an alternative residential sanction may 21656
require the offender to reside in a halfway house or other 21657
suitable community residential center that is designated by the 21658
court and that has been licensed by the division pursuant to 21659
division (C) of this section during a part or for the entire 21660
period of the offender's residential sanction.21661

       (B) The division of parole and community services may 21662
negotiate and enter into agreements with any public or private 21663
agency or a department or political subdivision of the state that 21664
operates a halfway house, reentry center, or community residential 21665
center that has been licensed by the division pursuant to division 21666
(C) of this section. An agreement under this division shall 21667
provide for the purchase of beds, shall set limits of supervision 21668
and levels of occupancy, and shall determine the scope of services 21669
for all eligible offenders, including those subject to a 21670
residential sanction, as defined in rules adopted by the director 21671
of rehabilitation and correction in accordance with Chapter 119. 21672
of the Revised Code, or those released from prison without 21673
supervision. The payments for beds and services shall not exceed 21674
the total operating costs of the halfway house, reentry center, or 21675
community residential center during the term of an agreement. The 21676
director of rehabilitation and correction shall adopt rules in 21677
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for determining 21678
includable and excludable costs and income to be used in computing 21679
the agency's average daily per capita costs with its facility at 21680
full occupancy.21681

       The departmentdirector of rehabilitation and correction may21682
shall adopt rules providing for the use of no more than ten21683
fifteen per cent of the amount appropriated to the department each 21684
fiscal year for the halfway house, reentry center, and community 21685
residential center program to pay for contracts with licensed 21686
halfway houses for nonresidential services for offenders under the 21687
supervision of the adult parole authority, including but not 21688
limited to, offenders supervised pursuant to an agreement entered 21689
into by the adult parole authority and a court of common pleas 21690
under section 2301.32 of the Revised Code. The nonresidential 21691
services may include, but are not limited to, treatment for 21692
substance abuse, mental health counseling, counseling for sex 21693
offenders, and electronic monitoring services, aftercare, and 21694
other nonresidential services that the director identifies by 21695
rule.21696

       (C) The division of parole and community services may license 21697
a halfway house, reentry center, or community residential center 21698
as a suitable facility for the care and treatment of adult 21699
offenders, including offenders sentenced under section 2929.16 or 21700
2929.26 of the Revised Code, only if the halfway house, reentry 21701
center, or community residential center complies with the 21702
standards that the division adopts in accordance with Chapter 119. 21703
of the Revised Code for the licensure of halfway houses, reentry 21704
centers, and community residential centers. The division shall 21705
annually inspect each licensed halfway house, licensed reentry 21706
center, and licensed community residential center to determine if 21707
it is in compliance with the licensure standards.21708

       Sec. 2967.19.  (A) As used in this section:21709

       (1) "Deadly weapon" and "dangerous ordnance" have the same 21710
meanings as in section 2923.11 of the Revised Code.21711

       (2) "Disqualifying prison term" means any of the following: 21712

       (a) A prison term imposed for aggravated murder, murder, 21713
voluntary manslaughter, involuntary manslaughter, felonious 21714
assault, kidnapping, rape, aggravated arson, aggravated burglary, 21715
or aggravated robbery;21716

       (b) A prison term imposed for complicity in, an attempt to 21717
commit, or conspiracy to commit any offense listed in division 21718
(A)(2)(a) of this section;21719

       (c) A prison term of life imprisonment, including any term of 21720
life imprisonment that has parole eligibility;21721

       (d) A prison term imposed for any felony other than carrying 21722
a concealed weapon an essential element of which is any conduct or 21723
failure to act expressly involving any deadly weapon or dangerous 21724
ordnance;21725

       (e) A prison term imposed for any violation of section 21726
2925.03 of the Revised Code that is a felony of the first or 21727
second degree;21728

       (f) A prison term imposed for engaging in a pattern of 21729
corrupt activity in violation of section 2923.32 of the Revised 21730
Code;21731

       (g) A prison term imposed pursuant to section 2971.03 of the 21732
Revised Code;21733

       (h) A prison term imposed for any sexually oriented offense.21734

       (3) "Eligible prison term" means any prison term that is not 21735
a disqualifying prison term and is not a restricting prison term. 21736

       (4) "Restricting prison term" means any of the following: 21737

       (a) A mandatory prison term imposed under division 21738
(D)(B)(1)(a), (D)(B)(1)(c), (D)(B)(1)(f), (D)(B)(1)(g), 21739
(D)(B)(2), or (D)(B)(7) of section 2929.14 of the Revised Code for 21740
a specification of the type described in that division;21741

       (b) In the case of an offender who has been sentenced to a 21742
mandatory prison term for a specification of the type described in 21743
division (A)(4)(a) of this section, the prison term imposed for 21744
the felony offense for which the specification was stated at the 21745
end of the body of the indictment, count in the indictment, or 21746
information charging the offense;21747

       (c) A prison term imposed for trafficking in persons;21748

       (d) A prison term imposed for any offense that is described 21749
in division (A)(4)(d)(i) of this section if division (A)(4)(d)(ii) 21750
of this section applies to the offender:21751

       (i) The offense is a felony of the first or second degree 21752
that is an offense of violence and that is not described in 21753
division (A)(2)(a) or (b) of this section, an attempt to commit a 21754
felony of the first or second degree that is an offense of 21755
violence and that is not described in division (A)(2)(a) or (b) of 21756
this section if the attempt is a felony of the first or second 21757
degree, or an offense under an existing or former law of this 21758
state, another state, or the United States that is or was 21759
substantially equivalent to any other offense described in this 21760
division. 21761

       (ii) The offender previously was convicted of or pleaded 21762
guilty to any offense listed in division (A)(2) or (A)(4)(d)(i) of 21763
this section. 21764

       (5) "Sexually oriented offense" has the same meaning as in 21765
section 2950.01 of the Revised Code.21766

        (B) The director of the department of rehabilitation and 21767
correction may petitionrecommend in writing to the sentencing 21768
court for the releasethat the court consider releasing from 21769
prison of any offender who, on or after September 30, 2011, is21770
confined in a state correctional institution under, who is serving21771
a stated prison term of one year or more, and who is eligible 21772
under division (C) of this section for a release under this 21773
section and who has served at least eighty per cent of that stated 21774
prison term that remains to be served after the offender becomes 21775
eligible as described in that division. If the director wishes to 21776
submit a petition for releaserecommend that the sentencing court 21777
consider releasing an offender under this section, the director 21778
shall submit the petitionnotify the sentencing court in writing 21779
of the offender's eligibility not earlier than ninety days prior 21780
to the date on which the offender has served eighty per cent of 21781
the offender's stated prison term that remains to be served after 21782
the offender becomes eligible as described in division (C) of this 21783
section. The director's submission of a petition for release under 21784
this sectionthe written notice constitutes a recommendation by 21785
the director that the court strongly consider release of the 21786
offender consistent with the purposes and principles of sentencing 21787
set forth in sections 2929.11 and 2929.13 of the Revised Code. 21788
Only an offender recommended by the director under division (B) of 21789
this section may be considered for early release under this 21790
section.21791

       (C)(1) An offender serving a stated prison term of one year 21792
or more and who has commenced service of that stated prison term 21793
becomes eligible for release from prison under this section only 21794
as described in this division. An offender serving a stated prison 21795
term that includes a disqualifying prison term is not eligible for 21796
release from prison under this section. An offender serving a 21797
stated prison term that consists solely of one or more restricting 21798
prison terms is not eligible for release under this section. An 21799
offender serving a stated prison term of one year or more that 21800
includes one or more restricting prison terms and one or more 21801
eligible prison terms becomes eligible for release under this 21802
section after having fully served eachall restricting prison term21803
terms and having served eighty per cent of the stated prison term 21804
that remains to be served after all restricting prison terms have 21805
been fully served. An offender serving a stated prison term that 21806
consists solely of one or more eligible prison terms becomes 21807
eligible for release under this section upon the offender's 21808
commencement of serviceafter having served eighty per cent of 21809
that stated prison term. After an offender becomes eligible for 21810
release under this section, the director of rehabilitation and 21811
correction may petition for the release of the offender under 21812
division (C)(2) of this section no earlier than ninety days before 21813
the offender has served the portion of the offender's stated 21814
prison term specified in that division. For purposes of 21815
determining an offender's eligibility for release under this 21816
section, if the offender's stated prison term includes consecutive 21817
prison terms, any restricting prison terms shall be deemed served 21818
prior to any eligible prison terms that run consecutively to the 21819
restricting prison terms, and the eligible prison terms are deemed 21820
to commence after all of the restricting prison terms have been 21821
fully served. 21822

       An offender serving a stated prison term oneof one year or 21823
more that includes a mandatory prison term that is not a 21824
disqualifying prison term and is not a restricting prison term is 21825
not automatically ineligible as a result of the offender's service 21826
of that mandatory term for release from prison under this section, 21827
and the offender's eligibility for release from prison under this 21828
section is determined in accordance with this division.21829

       (2) If an offender confined in a state correctional 21830
institution under a stated prison term is eligible for release 21831
under this section as described in division (C)(1) of this 21832
section, the director of the department of rehabilitation and 21833
correction may petitionrecommend in writing that the sentencing 21834
court pursuant to division (B) of this section for the release21835
consider releasing the offender from prison of the offenderunder 21836
this section by submitting to the sentencing court the written 21837
notice described in division (B) of this section.21838

       (D) The director shall include with any petitionnotice21839
submitted to the sentencing court under division (B) of this 21840
section an institutional summary report that covers the offender's 21841
participation while confined in a state correctional institution 21842
in school, training, work, treatment, and other rehabilitative 21843
activities and any disciplinary action taken against the offender 21844
while so confined. The director shall include with the petition a 21845
post-release control assessment and placement plan, when relevant, 21846
andnotice any other documentation requested by the court, if 21847
available. 21848

       (E) When the director submits a petitionwritten notice to a 21849
sentencing court that an offender is eligible to be considered for 21850
early release under this section for release of an offender, the 21851
department promptly shall provide to the prosecuting attorney of 21852
the county in which the offender was indicted a copy of the 21853
petitionwritten notice, a copy of the institutional summary 21854
report, and any other information provided to the court. The 21855
department also promptly shall give written notice of the filing 21856
of the petitionsubmission to any victim of the offender or 21857
victim's representative of any victim of the offender who is 21858
registered with the office of victim's services. 21859

       The department also shall post a copy of the written notice 21860
of the petition on the database it maintains under section 5120.66 21861
of the Revised Code and include information on where a person may 21862
send comments regarding the petitionrecommendation of early 21863
release. 21864

       The information provided to the court, the prosecutor, and 21865
the victim or victim's representative under divisions (D) and (E) 21866
of this section shall include the name and contact information of 21867
a specific department of rehabilitation and correction employee 21868
who is available to answer questions about the offender who is the 21869
subject of the written notice submitted by the director, 21870
including, but not limited to, the offender's institutional 21871
conduct and rehabilitative activities while incarcerated.21872

       (F) Upon receipt of a petition for release of an offender21873
written notice submitted by the director under division (B) of21874
this section, the court may deny the petition withouteither 21875
shall, on its own motion, schedule a hearing to consider releasing 21876
the offender who is the subject of the notice or shall inform the 21877
department that it will not be conducting a hearing relative to 21878
the offender. The court shall not grant a petition foran early21879
release ofto an offender without holding a hearing. If a court 21880
denies a petition for release of an offender withoutdeclines to 21881
hold a hearing relative to an offender with respect to a written 21882
notice submitted by the director, the court may later consider 21883
release of that offender under this section on a subsequent 21884
petition. The court shall enter its ruling withinits own motion 21885
by scheduling a hearing for that purpose. Within thirty days after 21886
the petitionwritten notice is filedsubmitted, the court shall 21887
inform the department whether or not the court is scheduling a 21888
hearing on the offender who is the subject of the notice. 21889

       (G) If the court grantsschedules a hearing onupon receiving21890
a petition for release of an offenderwritten notice submitted 21891
under division (B) of this section or upon its own motion under 21892
division (F) of this section, the court shall notify the head of 21893
the state correctional institution in which the offender is 21894
confined of the hearing prior to the hearing. If the court makes a 21895
journal entry ordering the offender to be conveyed to the hearing, 21896
except as otherwise provided in this division, the head of the 21897
correctional institution shall deliver the offender to the sheriff 21898
of the county in which the hearing is to be held, and the sheriff 21899
shall convey the offender to and from the hearing. Upon the 21900
court's own motion or the motion of the offender or the 21901
prosecuting attorney of the county in which the offender was 21902
indicted, the court may permit the offender to appear at the 21903
hearing by video conferencing equipment if equipment of that 21904
nature is available and compatible.21905

       Upon receipt of notice from a court of a hearing on the 21906
release of an offender under this division, the head of the state 21907
correctional institution in which the offender is confined 21908
immediately shall notify the appropriate person at the department 21909
of rehabilitation and correction of the hearing, and the 21910
department within twenty-four hours after receipt of the notice 21911
shall post on the database it maintains pursuant to section 21912
5120.66 of the Revised Code the offender's name and all of the 21913
information specified in division (A)(1)(c)(i) of that section. If 21914
the court grantsschedules a hearing on a petition for release of 21915
an offender under this section, the court promptly shall give 21916
notice of the hearing to the prosecuting attorney of the county in 21917
which the offender was indicted. Upon receipt of the notice from 21918
the court, the prosecuting attorney shall notify pursuant to 21919
section 2930.16 of the Revised Code any victim of the offender or 21920
the victim's representative of the hearing.21921

       (H) If the court grantsschedules a hearing on a petition for 21922
release of an offender under this section, at the hearing, the 21923
court shall afford the offender and the offender's attorney an 21924
opportunity to present written information and, if present, oral 21925
information relevant to the motionoffender's early release. The 21926
court shall afford a similar opportunity to the prosecuting 21927
attorney, victim or victim's representative, as defined in section 21928
2930.01 of the Revised Code, and any other person the court 21929
determines is likely to present additional relevant information. 21930
If the court pursuant to division (G) of this section permits the 21931
offender to appear at the hearing by video conferencing equipment, 21932
the offender's opportunity to present oral information shall be as 21933
a part of the video conferencing. The court shall consider any 21934
statement of a victim made under section 2930.14 or 2930.17 of the 21935
Revised Code, any victim impact statement prepared under section21936
2947.051 of the Revised Code, and any report, plan, and other 21937
documentation submitted by the director under division (D) of this 21938
section. After ruling on the motionwhether to grant the offender 21939
early release, the court shall notify the victim in accordance 21940
with sections 2930.03 and 2930.16 of the Revised Code. 21941

       (I) If the court grants a petition for release of an offender 21942
early release under this section, it shall order the release of 21943
the offender, shall place the offender under one or more 21944
appropriate community control sanctions, under appropriate 21945
conditions, and under the supervision of the department of 21946
probation that serves the court, and shall reserve the right to 21947
reimpose the sentence that it reduced and from which the offender 21948
was released if the offender violates the sanction. The court 21949
shall not make a release under this section effective prior to the 21950
date on which the offender has served at least eighty per cent of 21951
the offender's stated prison term that remains to be served after 21952
the offender becomes eligible as described in division (C) of this 21953
section. If the sentence under which the offender is confined in a 21954
state correctional institution and from which the offender is 21955
being released was imposed for a felony of the first or second 21956
degree, the court shall consider ordering that the offender be 21957
monitored by means of a global positioning device. If the court 21958
reimposes the sentence that it reduced and from which the offender 21959
was released and if the violation of the sanction is a new 21960
offense, the court may order that the reimposed sentence be served 21961
either concurrently with, or consecutive to, any new sentence 21962
imposed upon the offender as a result of the violation that is a 21963
new offense. The period of all community control sanctions imposed 21964
under this division shall not exceed five years. The court, in its 21965
discretion, may reduce the period of community control sanctions 21966
by the amount of time the offender spent in jail or prison for the 21967
offense. 21968

       If the court grants a petition for release of an offender 21969
early release under this section, it shall notify the appropriate 21970
person at the department of rehabilitation and correction of the 21971
release, and the department shall post notice of the release on 21972
the database it maintains pursuant to section 5120.66 of the 21973
Revised Code.21974

       (J) The department shall adopt under Chapter 119. of the 21975
Revised Code any rules necessary to implement this section.21976

       Sec. 2967.191.  The department of rehabilitation and 21977
correction shall reduce the stated prison term of a prisoner or, 21978
if the prisoner is serving a term for which there is parole 21979
eligibility, the minimum and maximum term or the parole 21980
eligibility date of the prisoner by the total number of days that 21981
the prisoner was confined for any reason arising out of the 21982
offense for which the prisoner was convicted and sentenced, 21983
including confinement in lieu of bail while awaiting trial, 21984
confinement for examination to determine the prisoner's competence 21985
to stand trial or sanity, and confinement while awaiting 21986
transportation to the place where the prisoner is to serve the 21987
prisoner's prison term, as determined by the sentencing court 21988
under division (B)(2)(h)(i) of section 2929.19 of the Revised 21989
Code. The department of rehabilitation and correction also shall 21990
reduce the stated prison term of a prisoner or, if the prisoner is 21991
serving a term for which there is parole eligibility, the minimum 21992
and maximum term or the parole eligibility date of the prisoner by 21993
the total number of days, if any, that the prisoner previously 21994
served in the custody of the department of rehabilitation and 21995
correction arising out of the offense for which the prisoner was 21996
convicted and sentenced.21997

       Sec. 2967.26.  (A)(1) The department of rehabilitation and 21998
correction, by rule, may establish a transitional control program 21999
for the purpose of closely monitoring a prisoner's adjustment to 22000
community supervision during the final one hundred eighty days of 22001
the prisoner's confinement. If the department establishes a 22002
transitional control program under this division, the adult parole 22003
authority may transfer eligible prisoners to transitional control 22004
status under the program during the final one hundred eighty days 22005
of their confinement and under the terms and conditions 22006
established by the department, shall provide for the confinement 22007
as provided in this division of each eligible prisoner so 22008
transferred, and shall supervise each eligible prisoner so 22009
transferred in one or more community control sanctions. Each 22010
eligible prisoner who is transferred to transitional control 22011
status under the program shall be confined in a suitable facility 22012
that is licensed pursuant to division (C) of section 2967.14 of 22013
the Revised Code, or shall be confined in a residence the 22014
department has approved for this purpose and be monitored pursuant 22015
to an electronic monitoring device, as defined in section 2929.01 22016
of the Revised Code. If the department establishes a transitional 22017
control program under this division, the rules establishing the 22018
program shall include criteria that define which prisoners are 22019
eligible for the program, criteria that must be satisfied to be 22020
approved as a residence that may be used for confinement under the 22021
program of a prisoner that is transferred to it and procedures for 22022
the department to approve residences that satisfy those criteria, 22023
and provisions of the type described in division (C) of this 22024
section. At a minimum, the criteria that define which prisoners 22025
are eligible for the program shall provide all of the following:22026

       (a) That a prisoner is eligible for the program if the 22027
prisoner is serving a prison term or term of imprisonment for an 22028
offense committed prior to March 17, 1998, and if, at the time at 22029
which eligibility is being determined, the prisoner would have 22030
been eligible for a furlough under this section as it existed 22031
immediately prior to March 17, 1998, or would have been eligible 22032
for conditional release under former section 2967.23 of the 22033
Revised Code as that section existed immediately prior to March 22034
17, 1998;22035

       (b) That no prisoner who is serving a mandatory prison term 22036
is eligible for the program until after expiration of the 22037
mandatory term;22038

       (c) That no prisoner who is serving a prison term or term of 22039
life imprisonment without parole imposed pursuant to section 22040
2971.03 of the Revised Code is eligible for the program.22041

       (2) At least three weeks prior to transferring to 22042
transitional control under this section a prisoner who is serving 22043
a term of imprisonment or prison term for an offense committed on 22044
or after July 1, 1996, the adultdivision of parole authorityand 22045
community services of the department of rehabilitation and 22046
correction shall give notice of the pendency of the transfer to 22047
transitional control to the court of common pleas of the county in 22048
which the indictment against the prisoner was found and of the 22049
fact that the court may disapprove the transfer of the prisoner to 22050
transitional control and shall include a report prepared by the 22051
head of the state correctional institution in which the prisoner 22052
is confined. The head of the state correctional institution in 22053
which the prisoner is confined, upon the request of the adult 22054
parole authority, shall provide to the authority for inclusion in 22055
the notice sent to the court under this division a report on the 22056
prisoner's conduct in the institution and in any institution from 22057
which the prisoner may have been transferred. The report shall 22058
cover the prisoner's participation in school, vocational training, 22059
work, treatment, and other rehabilitative activities and any 22060
disciplinary action taken against the prisoner. If the court 22061
disapproves of the transfer of the prisoner to transitional 22062
control, the court shall notify the authority of the disapproval 22063
within thirty days after receipt of the notice. If the court 22064
timely disapproves the transfer of the prisoner to transitional 22065
control, the authority shall not proceed with the transfer. If the 22066
court does not timely disapprove the transfer of the prisoner to 22067
transitional control, the authority may transfer the prisoner to 22068
transitional control.22069

       (3) If the victim of an offense for which a prisoner was 22070
sentenced to a prison term or term of imprisonment has requested 22071
notification under section 2930.16 of the Revised Code and has 22072
provided the department of rehabilitation and correction with the 22073
victim's name and address, the adult parole authority, at least 22074
three weeks prior to transferring the prisoner to transitional 22075
control pursuant to this section, shall notify the victim of the 22076
pendency of the transfer and of the victim's right to submit a 22077
statement to the authority regarding the impact of the transfer of 22078
the prisoner to transitional control. If the victim subsequently 22079
submits a statement of that nature to the authority, the authority 22080
shall consider the statement in deciding whether to transfer the 22081
prisoner to transitional control.22082

       (4) The department of rehabilitation and correction, at least 22083
three weeks prior to transferring a prisoner to transitional 22084
control pursuant to this section, shall post on the database it 22085
maintains pursuant to section 5120.66 of the Revised Code the 22086
prisoner's name and all of the information specified in division 22087
(A)(1)(c)(iv) of that section. In addition to and independent of 22088
the right of a victim to submit a statement as described in 22089
division (A)(3) of this section or to otherwise make a statement 22090
and in addition to and independent of any other right or duty of a 22091
person to present information or make a statement, any person may 22092
send to the adult parole authority at any time prior to the 22093
authority's transfer of the prisoner to transitional control a 22094
written statement regarding the transfer of the prisoner to 22095
transitional control. In addition to the information, reports, and 22096
statements it considers under divisions (A)(2) and (3) of this 22097
section or that it otherwise considers, the authority shall 22098
consider each statement submitted in accordance with this division 22099
in deciding whether to transfer the prisoner to transitional 22100
control.22101

       (B) Each prisoner transferred to transitional control under 22102
this section shall be confined in the manner described in division 22103
(A) of this section during any period of time that the prisoner is 22104
not actually working at the prisoner's approved employment, 22105
engaged in a vocational training or another educational program, 22106
engaged in another program designated by the director, or engaged 22107
in other activities approved by the department.22108

       (C) The department of rehabilitation and correction shall 22109
adopt rules for transferring eligible prisoners to transitional 22110
control, supervising and confining prisoners so transferred, 22111
administering the transitional control program in accordance with 22112
this section, and using the moneys deposited into the transitional 22113
control fund established under division (E) of this section.22114

       (D) The department of rehabilitation and correction may adopt 22115
rules for the issuance of passes for the limited purposes 22116
described in this division to prisoners who are transferred to 22117
transitional control under this section. If the department adopts 22118
rules of that nature, the rules shall govern the granting of the 22119
passes and shall provide for the supervision of prisoners who are 22120
temporarily released pursuant to one of those passes. Upon the 22121
adoption of rules under this division, the department may issue 22122
passes to prisoners who are transferred to transitional control 22123
status under this section in accordance with the rules and the 22124
provisions of this division. All passes issued under this division 22125
shall be for a maximum of forty-eight hours and may be issued only 22126
for the following purposes:22127

       (1) To visit a relative in imminent danger of death;22128

       (2) To have a private viewing of the body of a deceased 22129
relative;22130

       (3) To visit with family;22131

       (4) To otherwise aid in the rehabilitation of the prisoner.22132

       (E) The adult parole authority may require a prisoner who is 22133
transferred to transitional control to pay to the division of 22134
parole and community services the reasonable expenses incurred by 22135
the division in supervising or confining the prisoner while under 22136
transitional control. Inability to pay those reasonable expenses 22137
shall not be grounds for refusing to transfer an otherwise 22138
eligible prisoner to transitional control. Amounts received by the 22139
division of parole and community services under this division 22140
shall be deposited into the transitional control fund, which is 22141
hereby created in the state treasury and which hereby replaces and 22142
succeeds the furlough services fund that formerly existed in the 22143
state treasury. All moneys that remain in the furlough services 22144
fund on March 17, 1998, shall be transferred on that date to the 22145
transitional control fund. The transitional control fund shall be 22146
used solely to pay costs related to the operation of the 22147
transitional control program established under this section. The 22148
director of rehabilitation and correction shall adopt rules in 22149
accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code for the use of 22150
the fund.22151

       (F) A prisoner who violates any rule established by the 22152
department of rehabilitation and correction under division (A), 22153
(C), or (D) of this section may be transferred to a state 22154
correctional institution pursuant to rules adopted under division 22155
(A), (C), or (D) of this section, but the prisoner shall receive 22156
credit towards completing the prisoner's sentence for the time 22157
spent under transitional control.22158

       If a prisoner is transferred to transitional control under 22159
this section, upon successful completion of the period of 22160
transitional control, the prisoner may be released on parole or 22161
under post-release control pursuant to section 2967.13 or 2967.28 22162
of the Revised Code and rules adopted by the department of 22163
rehabilitation and correction. If the prisoner is released under 22164
post-release control, the duration of the post-release control, 22165
the type of post-release control sanctions that may be imposed, 22166
the enforcement of the sanctions, and the treatment of prisoners 22167
who violate any sanction applicable to the prisoner are governed 22168
by section 2967.28 of the Revised Code.22169

       Sec. 2967.28.  (A) As used in this section:22170

       (1) "Monitored time" means the monitored time sanction 22171
specified in section 2929.17 of the Revised Code.22172

       (2) "Deadly weapon" and "dangerous ordnance" have the same 22173
meanings as in section 2923.11 of the Revised Code.22174

       (3) "Felony sex offense" means a violation of a section 22175
contained in Chapter 2907. of the Revised Code that is a felony.22176

       (4) "Risk reduction sentence" means a prison term imposed by 22177
a court, when the court recommends pursuant to section 2929.143 of 22178
the Revised Code that the offender serve the sentence under 22179
section 5120.036 of the Revised Code, and the offender may 22180
potentially be released from imprisonment prior to the expiration 22181
of the prison term if the offender successfully completes all 22182
assessment and treatment or programming required by the department 22183
of rehabilitation and correction under section 5120.036 of the 22184
Revised Code.22185

       (B) Each sentence to a prison term for a felony of the first 22186
degree, for a felony of the second degree, for a felony sex 22187
offense, or for a felony of the third degree that is not a felony 22188
sex offense and in the commission of which the offender caused or 22189
threatened to cause physical harm to a person shall include a 22190
requirement that the offender be subject to a period of 22191
post-release control imposed by the parole board after the 22192
offender's release from imprisonment. This division applies with 22193
respect to all prison terms of a type described in this division, 22194
including a term of any such type that is a risk reduction 22195
sentence. If a court imposes a sentence including a prison term of 22196
a type described in this division on or after July 11, 2006, the 22197
failure of a sentencing court to notify the offender pursuant to 22198
division (B)(2)(c) of section 2929.19 of the Revised Code of this 22199
requirement or to include in the judgment of conviction entered on 22200
the journal a statement that the offender's sentence includes this 22201
requirement does not negate, limit, or otherwise affect the 22202
mandatory period of supervision that is required for the offender 22203
under this division. Section 2929.191 of the Revised Code applies 22204
if, prior to July 11, 2006, a court imposed a sentence including a 22205
prison term of a type described in this division and failed to 22206
notify the offender pursuant to division (B)(2)(c) of section 22207
2929.19 of the Revised Code regarding post-release control or to 22208
include in the judgment of conviction entered on the journal or in 22209
the sentence pursuant to division (D)(1) of section 2929.14 of the 22210
Revised Code a statement regarding post-release control. Unless 22211
reduced by the parole board pursuant to division (D) of this 22212
section when authorized under that division, a period of 22213
post-release control required by this division for an offender 22214
shall be of one of the following periods:22215

       (1) For a felony of the first degree or for a felony sex 22216
offense, five years;22217

       (2) For a felony of the second degree that is not a felony 22218
sex offense, three years;22219

       (3) For a felony of the third degree that is not a felony sex 22220
offense and in the commission of which the offender caused or 22221
threatened physical harm to a person, three years.22222

       (C) Any sentence to a prison term for a felony of the third, 22223
fourth, or fifth degree that is not subject to division (B)(1) or 22224
(3) of this section shall include a requirement that the offender 22225
be subject to a period of post-release control of up to three 22226
years after the offender's release from imprisonment, if the 22227
parole board, in accordance with division (D) of this section, 22228
determines that a period of post-release control is necessary for 22229
that offender. This division applies with respect to all prison 22230
terms of a type described in this division, including a term of 22231
any such type that is a risk reduction sentence. Section 2929.191 22232
of the Revised Code applies if, prior to July 11, 2006, a court 22233
imposed a sentence including a prison term of a type described in 22234
this division and failed to notify the offender pursuant to 22235
division (B)(2)(d) of section 2929.19 of the Revised Code 22236
regarding post-release control or to include in the judgment of 22237
conviction entered on the journal or in the sentence pursuant to 22238
division (D)(2) of section 2929.14 of the Revised Code a statement 22239
regarding post-release control. Pursuant to an agreement entered 22240
into under section 2967.29 of the Revised Code, a court of common 22241
pleas or parole board may impose sanctions or conditions on an 22242
offender who is placed on post-release control under this 22243
division.22244

       (D)(1) Before the prisoner is released from imprisonment, the 22245
parole board or, pursuant to an agreement under section 2967.29 of 22246
the Revised Code, the court shall impose upon a prisoner described 22247
in division (B) of this section, shall impose upon a prisoner 22248
described in division (C) of this section who is to be released 22249
before the expiration of the prisoner's stated prison term under a 22250
risk reduction sentence, may impose upon a prisoner described in 22251
division (C) of this section who is not to be released before the 22252
expiration of the prisoner's stated prison term under a risk 22253
reduction sentence, and shall impose upon a prisoner described in 22254
division (B)(2)(b) of section 5120.031 or in division (B)(1) of 22255
section 5120.032 of the Revised Code, one or more post-release 22256
control sanctions to apply during the prisoner's period of 22257
post-release control. Whenever the board or court imposes one or 22258
more post-release control sanctions upon a prisoner, the board or 22259
court, in addition to imposing the sanctions, also shall include 22260
as a condition of the post-release control that the offender not 22261
leave the state without permission of the court or the offender's 22262
parole or probation officer and that the offender abide by the 22263
law. The board or court may impose any other conditions of release 22264
under a post-release control sanction that the board or court 22265
considers appropriate, and the conditions of release may include 22266
any community residential sanction, community nonresidential 22267
sanction, or financial sanction that the sentencing court was 22268
authorized to impose pursuant to sections 2929.16, 2929.17, and 22269
2929.18 of the Revised Code. Prior to the release of a prisoner 22270
for whom it will impose one or more post-release control sanctions 22271
under this division, the parole board or court shall review the 22272
prisoner's criminal history, results from the single validated 22273
risk assessment tool selected by the department of rehabilitation 22274
and correction under section 5120.114 of the Revised Code, all 22275
juvenile court adjudications finding the prisoner, while a 22276
juvenile, to be a delinquent child, and the record of the 22277
prisoner's conduct while imprisoned. The parole board or court 22278
shall consider any recommendation regarding post-release control 22279
sanctions for the prisoner made by the office of victims' 22280
services. After considering those materials, the board or court 22281
shall determine, for a prisoner described in division (B) of this 22282
section, division (B)(2)(b) of section 5120.031, or division 22283
(B)(1) of section 5120.032 of the Revised Code and for a prisoner 22284
described in division (C) of this section who is to be released 22285
before the expiration of the prisoner's stated prison term under a 22286
risk reduction sentence, which post-release control sanction or 22287
combination of post-release control sanctions is reasonable under 22288
the circumstances or, for a prisoner described in division (C) of 22289
this section who is not to be released before the expiration of 22290
the prisoner's stated prison term under a risk reduction sentence, 22291
whether a post-release control sanction is necessary and, if so, 22292
which post-release control sanction or combination of post-release 22293
control sanctions is reasonable under the circumstances. In the 22294
case of a prisoner convicted of a felony of the fourth or fifth 22295
degree other than a felony sex offense, the board or court shall 22296
presume that monitored time is the appropriate post-release 22297
control sanction unless the board or court determines that a more 22298
restrictive sanction is warranted. A post-release control sanction 22299
imposed under this division takes effect upon the prisoner's 22300
release from imprisonment.22301

        Regardless of whether the prisoner was sentenced to the 22302
prison term prior to, on, or after July 11, 2006, prior to the 22303
release of a prisoner for whom it will impose one or more 22304
post-release control sanctions under this division, the parole 22305
board shall notify the prisoner that, if the prisoner violates any 22306
sanction so imposed or any condition of post-release control 22307
described in division (B) of section 2967.131 of the Revised Code 22308
that is imposed on the prisoner, the parole board may impose a 22309
prison term of up to one-half of the stated prison term originally 22310
imposed upon the prisoner.22311

       (2) If a prisoner who is placed on post-release control under 22312
this section is released before the expiration of the prisoner's 22313
stated prison term by reason of credit earned under section 22314
2967.193 of the Revised Code and if the prisoner earned sixty or 22315
more days of credit, the adult parole authority shall supervise 22316
the offender with an active global positioning system device for 22317
the first fourteen days after the offender's release from 22318
imprisonment. This division does not prohibit or limit the 22319
imposition of any post-release control sanction otherwise 22320
authorized by this section.22321

       (3) At any time after a prisoner is released from 22322
imprisonment and during the period of post-release control 22323
applicable to the releasee, the adult parole authority or, 22324
pursuant to an agreement under section 2967.29 of the Revised 22325
Code, the court may review the releasee's behavior under the 22326
post-release control sanctions imposed upon the releasee under 22327
this section. The authority or court may determine, based upon the 22328
review and in accordance with the standards established under 22329
division (E) of this section, that a more restrictive or a less 22330
restrictive sanction is appropriate and may impose a different 22331
sanction. The authority also may recommend that the parole board 22332
or court increase or reduce the duration of the period of 22333
post-release control imposed by the court. If the authority 22334
recommends that the board or court increase the duration of 22335
post-release control, the board or court shall review the 22336
releasee's behavior and may increase the duration of the period of 22337
post-release control imposed by the court up to eight years. If 22338
the authority recommends that the board or court reduce the 22339
duration of control for an offense described in division (B) or 22340
(C) of this section, the board or court shall review the 22341
releasee's behavior and may reduce the duration of the period of 22342
control imposed by the court. In no case shall the board or court 22343
reduce the duration of the period of control imposed for an 22344
offense described in division (B)(1) of this section to a period 22345
less than the length of the stated prison term originally imposed, 22346
and in no case shall the board or court permit the releasee to 22347
leave the state without permission of the court or the releasee's 22348
parole or probation officer.22349

       (E) The department of rehabilitation and correction, in 22350
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt 22351
rules that do all of the following:22352

       (1) Establish standards for the imposition by the parole 22353
board of post-release control sanctions under this section that 22354
are consistent with the overriding purposes and sentencing 22355
principles set forth in section 2929.11 of the Revised Code and 22356
that are appropriate to the needs of releasees;22357

       (2) Establish standards that provide for a period of 22358
post-release control of up to three years for all prisoners 22359
described in division (C) of this section who are to be released 22360
before the expiration of their stated prison term under a risk 22361
reduction sentence and standards by which the parole board can 22362
determine which prisoners described in division (C) of this 22363
section who are not to be released before the expiration of their 22364
stated prison term under a risk reduction sentence should be 22365
placed under a period of post-release control;22366

       (3) Establish standards to be used by the parole board in 22367
reducing the duration of the period of post-release control 22368
imposed by the court when authorized under division (D) of this 22369
section, in imposing a more restrictive post-release control 22370
sanction than monitored time upon a prisoner convicted of a felony 22371
of the fourth or fifth degree other than a felony sex offense, or 22372
in imposing a less restrictive control sanction upon a releasee 22373
based on the releasee's activities including, but not limited to, 22374
remaining free from criminal activity and from the abuse of 22375
alcohol or other drugs, successfully participating in approved 22376
rehabilitation programs, maintaining employment, and paying 22377
restitution to the victim or meeting the terms of other financial 22378
sanctions;22379

       (4) Establish standards to be used by the adult parole 22380
authority in modifying a releasee's post-release control sanctions 22381
pursuant to division (D)(2) of this section;22382

       (5) Establish standards to be used by the adult parole 22383
authority or parole board in imposing further sanctions under 22384
division (F) of this section on releasees who violate post-release 22385
control sanctions, including standards that do the following:22386

       (a) Classify violations according to the degree of 22387
seriousness;22388

       (b) Define the circumstances under which formal action by the 22389
parole board is warranted;22390

       (c) Govern the use of evidence at violation hearings;22391

       (d) Ensure procedural due process to an alleged violator;22392

       (e) Prescribe nonresidential community control sanctions for 22393
most misdemeanor and technical violations;22394

       (f) Provide procedures for the return of a releasee to 22395
imprisonment for violations of post-release control.22396

       (F)(1) Whenever the parole board imposes one or more 22397
post-release control sanctions upon an offender under this 22398
section, the offender upon release from imprisonment shall be 22399
under the general jurisdiction of the adult parole authority and 22400
generally shall be supervised by the field services section 22401
through its staff of parole and field officers as described in 22402
section 5149.04 of the Revised Code, as if the offender had been 22403
placed on parole. If the offender upon release from imprisonment 22404
violates the post-release control sanction or any conditions 22405
described in division (A) of section 2967.131 of the Revised Code 22406
that are imposed on the offender, the public or private person or 22407
entity that operates or administers the sanction or the program or 22408
activity that comprises the sanction shall report the violation 22409
directly to the adult parole authority or to the officer of the 22410
authority who supervises the offender. The authority's officers 22411
may treat the offender as if the offender were on parole and in 22412
violation of the parole, and otherwise shall comply with this 22413
section.22414

       (2) If the adult parole authority or, pursuant to an 22415
agreement under section 2967.29 of the Revised Code, the court 22416
determines that a releasee has violated a post-release control 22417
sanction or any conditions described in division (A) of section 22418
2967.131 of the Revised Code imposed upon the releasee and that a 22419
more restrictive sanction is appropriate, the authority or court 22420
may impose a more restrictive sanction upon the releasee, in 22421
accordance with the standards established under division (E) of 22422
this section or in accordance with the agreement made under 22423
section 2967.29 of the Revised Code, or may report the violation 22424
to the parole board for a hearing pursuant to division (F)(3) of 22425
this section. The authority or court may not, pursuant to this 22426
division, increase the duration of the releasee's post-release 22427
control or impose as a post-release control sanction a residential 22428
sanction that includes a prison term, but the authority or court 22429
may impose on the releasee any other residential sanction, 22430
nonresidential sanction, or financial sanction that the sentencing 22431
court was authorized to impose pursuant to sections 2929.16, 22432
2929.17, and 2929.18 of the Revised Code.22433

       (3) The parole board or, pursuant to an agreement under 22434
section 2967.29 of the Revised Code, the court may hold a hearing 22435
on any alleged violation by a releasee of a post-release control 22436
sanction or any conditions described in division (A) of section 22437
2967.131 of the Revised Code that are imposed upon the releasee. 22438
If after the hearing the board or court finds that the releasee 22439
violated the sanction or condition, the board or court may 22440
increase the duration of the releasee's post-release control up to 22441
the maximum duration authorized by division (B) or (C) of this 22442
section or impose a more restrictive post-release control 22443
sanction. When appropriate, the board or court may impose as a 22444
post-release control sanction a residential sanction that includes 22445
a prison term. The board or court shall consider a prison term as 22446
a post-release control sanction imposed for a violation of 22447
post-release control when the violation involves a deadly weapon 22448
or dangerous ordnance, physical harm or attempted serious physical 22449
harm to a person, or sexual misconduct, or when the releasee 22450
committed repeated violations of post-release control sanctions. 22451
Unless a releasee's stated prison term was reduced pursuant to 22452
section 5120.032 of the Revised Code, the period of a prison term 22453
that is imposed as a post-release control sanction under this 22454
division shall not exceed nine months, and the maximum cumulative 22455
prison term for all violations under this division shall not 22456
exceed one-half of the stated prison term originally imposed upon 22457
the offender as part of this sentence. If a releasee's stated 22458
prison term was reduced pursuant to section 5120.032 of the 22459
Revised Code, the period of a prison term that is imposed as a 22460
post-release control sanction under this division and the maximum 22461
cumulative prison term for all violations under this division 22462
shall not exceed the period of time not served in prison under the 22463
sentence imposed by the court. The period of a prison term that is 22464
imposed as a post-release control sanction under this division 22465
shall not count as, or be credited toward, the remaining period of 22466
post-release control.22467

       If an offender is imprisoned for a felony committed while 22468
under post-release control supervision and is again released on 22469
post-release control for a period of time determined by division 22470
(F)(4)(d) of this section, the maximum cumulative prison term for 22471
all violations under this division shall not exceed one-half of 22472
the total stated prison terms of the earlier felony, reduced by 22473
any prison term administratively imposed by the parole board or 22474
court, plus one-half of the total stated prison term of the new 22475
felony.22476

       (4) Any period of post-release control shall commence upon an 22477
offender's actual release from prison. If an offender is serving 22478
an indefinite prison term or a life sentence in addition to a 22479
stated prison term, the offender shall serve the period of 22480
post-release control in the following manner:22481

       (a) If a period of post-release control is imposed upon the 22482
offender and if the offender also is subject to a period of parole 22483
under a life sentence or an indefinite sentence, and if the period 22484
of post-release control ends prior to the period of parole, the 22485
offender shall be supervised on parole. The offender shall receive 22486
credit for post-release control supervision during the period of 22487
parole. The offender is not eligible for final release under 22488
section 2967.16 of the Revised Code until the post-release control 22489
period otherwise would have ended.22490

       (b) If a period of post-release control is imposed upon the 22491
offender and if the offender also is subject to a period of parole 22492
under an indefinite sentence, and if the period of parole ends 22493
prior to the period of post-release control, the offender shall be 22494
supervised on post-release control. The requirements of parole 22495
supervision shall be satisfied during the post-release control 22496
period.22497

       (c) If an offender is subject to more than one period of 22498
post-release control, the period of post-release control for all 22499
of the sentences shall be the period of post-release control that 22500
expires last, as determined by the parole board or court. Periods 22501
of post-release control shall be served concurrently and shall not 22502
be imposed consecutively to each other.22503

       (d) The period of post-release control for a releasee who 22504
commits a felony while under post-release control for an earlier 22505
felony shall be the longer of the period of post-release control 22506
specified for the new felony under division (B) or (C) of this 22507
section or the time remaining under the period of post-release 22508
control imposed for the earlier felony as determined by the parole 22509
board or court.22510

       Sec. 2981.11. (A)(1) Any property that has been lost, 22511
abandoned, stolen, seized pursuant to a search warrant, or 22512
otherwise lawfully seized or forfeited and that is in the custody 22513
of a law enforcement agency shall be kept safely by the agency, 22514
pending the time it no longer is needed as evidence or for another 22515
lawful purpose, and shall be disposed of pursuant to sections 22516
2981.12 and 2981.13 of the Revised Code.22517

       (2) This chapter does not apply to the custody and disposal 22518
of any of the following:22519

       (a) Vehicles subject to forfeiture under Title XLV of the 22520
Revised Code, except as provided in division (A)(6) of section 22521
2981.12 of the Revised Code;22522

       (b) Abandoned junk motor vehicles or other property of 22523
negligible value;22524

       (c) Property held by a department of rehabilitation and 22525
correction institution that is unclaimed, that does not have an 22526
identified owner, that the owner agrees to dispose of, or that is 22527
identified by the department as having little value;22528

       (d) Animals taken, and devices used in unlawfully taking 22529
animals, under section 1531.20 of the Revised Code;22530

       (e) Controlled substances sold by a peace officer in the 22531
performance of the officer's official duties under section 22532
3719.141 of the Revised Code;22533

       (f) Property recovered by a township law enforcement agency 22534
under sections 505.105 to 505.109 of the Revised Code;22535

       (g) Property held and disposed of under an ordinance of the 22536
municipal corporation or under sections 737.29 to 737.33 of the 22537
Revised Code, except that a municipal corporation that has 22538
received notice of a citizens' reward program as provided in 22539
division (F) of section 2981.12 of the Revised Code and disposes 22540
of property under an ordinance shall pay twenty-five per cent of 22541
any moneys acquired from any sale or auction to the citizens' 22542
reward program.22543

       (B)(1) Each law enforcement agency that has custody of any 22544
property that is subject to this section shall adopt and comply 22545
with a written internal control policy that does all of the 22546
following:22547

       (a) Provides for keeping detailed records as to the amount of 22548
property acquired by the agency and the date property was 22549
acquired;22550

       (b) Provides for keeping detailed records of the disposition 22551
of the property, which shall include, but not be limited to, both 22552
of the following:22553

       (i) The manner in which it was disposed, the date of 22554
disposition, detailed financial records concerning any property 22555
sold, and the name of any person who received the property. The 22556
record shall not identify or enable identification of the 22557
individual officer who seized any item of property.22558

       (ii) The general types of expenditures made with amounts that 22559
are gained from the sale of the property and that are retained by 22560
the agency, including the specific amount expended on each general 22561
type of expenditure, except that the policy shall not provide for 22562
or permit the identification of any specific expenditure that is 22563
made in an ongoing investigation.22564

       (c) Complies with section 2981.13 of the Revised Code if the 22565
agency has a law enforcement trust fund or similar fund created 22566
under that section.22567

       (2) Each law enforcement agency that during any calendar year 22568
has any seized or forfeited property covered by this section in 22569
its custody, including amounts distributed under section 2981.13 22570
of the Revised Code to its law enforcement trust fund or a similar 22571
fund created for the state highway patrol, department of public 22572
safety, department of taxation, or state board of pharmacy, shall 22573
prepare a report covering the calendar year that cumulates all of 22574
the information contained in all of the public records kept by the 22575
agency pursuant to this section for that calendar year. The agency 22576
shall send a copy of the cumulative report to the attorney general 22577
not later than the first day of March in the calendar year 22578
following the calendar year covered by the report.22579

       (3) The records kept under the internal control policy shall 22580
be open to public inspection during the agency's regular business 22581
hours. The policy adopted under this section and each report 22582
received by the attorney general is a public record open for 22583
inspection under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.22584

       (4) Not later than the fifteenth day of April in each 22585
calendar year in which reports are sent to the attorney general 22586
under division (B)(2) of this section, the attorney general shall 22587
send to the president of the senate and the speaker of the house 22588
of representatives a written notice that indicates that the 22589
attorney general received reports that cover the previous calendar 22590
year, that the reports are open for inspection under section 22591
149.43 of the Revised Code, and that the attorney general will 22592
provide a copy of any or all of the reports to the president of 22593
the senate or the speaker of the house of representatives upon 22594
request.22595

       (C) A law enforcement agency with custody of property to be 22596
disposed of under section 2981.12 or 2981.13 of the Revised Code 22597
shall make a reasonable effort to locate persons entitled to 22598
possession of the property, to notify them of when and where it 22599
may be claimed, and to return the property to them at the earliest 22600
possible time. In the absence of evidence identifying persons 22601
entitled to possession, it is sufficient notice to advertise in a 22602
newspaper of general circulation in the county and to briefly 22603
describe the nature of the property in custody and inviting 22604
persons to view and establish their right to it.22605

       (D) As used in sections 2981.11 to 2981.13 of the Revised 22606
Code:22607

       (1) "Citizens' reward program" has the same meaning as in 22608
section 9.92 of the Revised Code.22609

       (2) "Law enforcement agency" includes correctional 22610
institutions.22611

       (3) "Township law enforcement agency" means an organized 22612
police department of a township, a township police district, a 22613
joint police district, or the office of a township constable.22614

       Sec. 2981.14. (A) Nothing in this chapter precludes the head 22615
of a law enforcement agency that seizes property from seeking 22616
forfeiture under federal law. If the property is forfeitable under 22617
this chapter and federal forfeiture is not sought, the property is 22618
subject only to this chapter.22619

       (B) Any law enforcement agency that receives moneys from a 22620
sale of forfeited property under federal law shall deposit, use, 22621
and account for the amounts, including any interest derived, in 22622
accordance with applicable federal law. If the state highway 22623
patrol or the investigative unit of the department of public 22624
safety receives such federal forfeiture moneys, the appropriate 22625
official shall deposit all interest or other earnings derived from 22626
the investment of the moneys into the contraband, forfeiture, and 22627
other fund of the highway patrol treasury contraband fund, the 22628
highway patrol justice contraband fund, the investigative unit 22629
treasury contraband fund, or the departmentinvestigative unit 22630
justice contraband fund, whichever is appropriate.22631

       (C) There is hereby created in the state treasury the highway 22632
patrol treasury contraband fund, the highway patrol justice 22633
contraband fund, the investigative unit treasury contraband fund, 22634
and the investigative unit justice contraband fund. Each fund 22635
shall consist of moneys received under division (B) of this 22636
section and shall be used in accordance with any federal or other 22637
requirements associated with moneys received.22638

       Sec. 3125.41.  (A) As used in this section:22639

       (1) "Cable television service" has the same meaning as in 22640
section 2913.01 of the Revised Code.22641

       (2) "Public utility" means a person or entity, including an 22642
entity owned or operated by a municipal corporation or other 22643
government entity, that is described in division (A) of section 22644
4905.03 of the Revised Code as a telephone company, electric light 22645
company, gas company, natural gas company, water-works company, 22646
heating or cooling company, or sewage disposal system company, or 22647
that is providing cable television service.22648

       (B) Except as provided in section 3125.43 of the Revised 22649
Code, the office of child support shall have access to all of the 22650
following unless release of the information is prohibited by 22651
federal or state law:22652

       (1) Any information in the possession of any officer or 22653
entity of the state or any political subdivision of the state that 22654
would aid the office in locating an absent parent or child 22655
pursuant to section 3125.06 of the Revised Code;22656

       (2) Any information concerning the employment, compensation, 22657
and benefits of any obligor or obligee subject to a support order 22658
in the possession of any person;22659

       (3) The name and address of any obligor or obligee subject to 22660
a support order and the obligor's or obligee's employer in the 22661
customer records of a public utility.22662

       Sec. 3301.55.  (A) A school district, county DD board, or 22663
eligible nonpublic school operating a preschool program shall 22664
house the program in buildings that meet the following 22665
requirements:22666

       (1) The building is operated by the district, county DD 22667
board, or eligible nonpublic school and has been approved by the 22668
division of laborindustrial compliance in the department of 22669
commerce or a certified municipal, township, or county building 22670
department for the purpose of operating a program for preschool 22671
children. Any such structure shall be constructed, equipped, 22672
repaired, altered, and maintained in accordance with applicable 22673
provisions of Chapters 3781. and 3791. and with rules adopted by 22674
the board of building standards under Chapter 3781. of the Revised 22675
Code for the safety and sanitation of structures erected for this 22676
purpose.22677

       (2) The building is in compliance with fire and safety laws 22678
and regulations as evidenced by reports of annual school fire and 22679
safety inspections as conducted by appropriate local authorities.22680

       (3) The school is in compliance with rules established by the 22681
state board of education regarding school food services.22682

       (4) The facility includes not less than thirty-five square 22683
feet of indoor space for each child in the program. Safe play 22684
space, including both indoor and outdoor play space, totaling not 22685
less than sixty square feet for each child using the space at any 22686
one time, shall be regularly available and scheduled for use.22687

       (5) First aid facilities and space for temporary placement or 22688
isolation of injured or ill children are provided.22689

       (B) Each school district, county DD board, or eligible 22690
nonpublic school that operates, or proposes to operate, a 22691
preschool program shall submit a building plan including all 22692
information specified by the state board of education to the board 22693
not later than the first day of September of the school year in 22694
which the program is to be initiated. The board shall determine 22695
whether the buildings meet the requirements of this section and 22696
section 3301.53 of the Revised Code, and notify the superintendent 22697
of its determination. If the board determines, on the basis of the 22698
building plan or any other information, that the buildings do not 22699
meet those requirements, it shall cause the buildings to be 22700
inspected by the department of education. The department shall 22701
make a report to the superintendent specifying any aspects of the 22702
building that are not in compliance with the requirements of this 22703
section and section 3301.53 of the Revised Code and the time 22704
period that will be allowed the district, county DD board, or 22705
school to meet the requirements.22706

       Sec. 3301.75.  (A) As used in this section, "affiliate" has 22707
the same meaning as in section 3333.89 of the Revised Code.22708

       (B) The department of education, in coordination with the 22709
chancellor of the Ohio board of regents, shall do all of the 22710
following:22711

       (1) Make grants to institutions and other organizations as 22712
prescribed by the general assembly for the provision of technical 22713
assistance and other support services to enable school districts, 22714
community schools established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised 22715
Code, other educational institutions, and affiliates to utilize 22716
educational technology;22717

       (2) Establish a reporting system for school districts, 22718
community schools, other educational institutions, affiliates, and 22719
educational technology organizations that receive financial 22720
assistance from the office. The system may require the reporting 22721
of information regarding the manner in which the assistance was 22722
expended, the manner in which the equipment or services purchased 22723
with the assistance is being utilized, the results or outcome of 22724
the utilization, the manner in which the utilization is compatible 22725
with the statewide academic standards adopted by the state board 22726
of education pursuant to section 3301.079 of the Revised Code, and 22727
any other information determined by the office.22728

       (3) Ensure that, where appropriate, products produced by any 22729
entity to which the office provides financial assistance for use 22730
in elementary and secondary education are aligned with the 22731
statewide academic standards adopted by the state board under 22732
section 3301.079 of the Revised Code. 22733

       (4) Promote accessibility to educational products aligned 22734
with the statewide academic standards for school districts, 22735
community schools, and other entities serving grades kindergarten 22736
through twelve.22737

       (5) Execute contracts and other agreements necessary and 22738
desirable to carry out the purposes of this section.22739

       Sec. 3304.14. (A) The governor shall appoint an administrator 22740
of the rehabilitation services commission to serve at the pleasure 22741
of the governor and shall fix the administrator's compensation. 22742
The administrator shall devote the administrator's entire time to 22743
the duties of the administrator's office, shall hold no other 22744
office or position of trust and profit, and shall engage in no 22745
other business during the administrator's term of office. The 22746
governor may grant the administrator the authority to appoint, 22747
remove, and discipline without regard to sex, race, creed, color, 22748
age, or national origin, such other professional, administrative, 22749
and clerical staff members as are necessary to carry out the 22750
functions and duties of the commission.22751

       (B)(1) The administrator shall have exclusive authority to 22752
administer the daily operation and provision of vocational 22753
rehabilitation services under this chapter.22754

       (2) The administrator shall establish a fee schedule for 22755
vocational rehabilitation services in accordance with 34 C.F.R. 22756
361.50.22757

       Sec. 3304.16.  In carrying out the purposes of sections 22758
3304.11 to 3304.27 of the Revised Code, the rehabilitation 22759
services commission:22760

       (A) Shall develop all necessary rules;22761

       (B) Shall prepare and submit to the governor annual reports 22762
of activities and expenditures and, prior to each first regular 22763
session of the general assembly, an estimate of sums required to 22764
carry out the commission's responsibilities;22765

       (C) Shall certify any disbursement of funds available to the 22766
commission for vocational rehabilitation activities;22767

       (D) Shall serve as the sole state agency designated to 22768
administer the plan under the "Rehabilitation Act of 1973," 87 22769
Stat. 355, 29 U.S.C. 701, as amended;22770

       (E) Shall take appropriate action to guarantee rights of and 22771
services to handicapped persons;22772

       (F) Shall consult with and advise other state agencies to 22773
assist them in meeting the needs of handicapped persons more 22774
effectively and to achieve maximum coordination among programs for 22775
the handicapped;22776

       (G) Shall establish an administrative division of consumer 22777
affairs and advocacy within the commission to promote and help 22778
guarantee the rights of handicapped persons;22779

       (H) Shall maintain an inventory of state services that are 22780
available to handicapped persons;22781

       (I) Shall utilize, support, assist, and cooperate with the 22782
governor's committee on employment of the handicapped;22783

       (J) May delegate to any officer or employee of the commission 22784
any necessary powers and duties, except that the commission shall 22785
delegate to the administrator of the commission, as provided in 22786
section 3304.14 of the Revised Code, the power and duty to 22787
administer the daily operation and provision of vocational 22788
rehabilitation services;22789

       (K) May take any other necessary or appropriate action for 22790
cooperation with public and private agencies and organizations 22791
which may include:22792

       (1) Reciprocal agreements with other states to provide for 22793
the vocational rehabilitation of individuals within the states 22794
concerned;22795

       (2) Contracts or other arrangements with public and other 22796
nonprofit agencies and organizations for the construction or 22797
establishment and operation of vocational rehabilitation programs 22798
and facilities;22799

       (3) Cooperative arrangements with the federal government for 22800
carrying out sections 3304.11 to 3304.27 of the Revised Code, the 22801
"Vocational Rehabilitation Act," 41 Stat. 735 (1920), 29 U.S.C. 22802
31, as amended, or other federal statutes pertaining to vocational 22803
rehabilitation, and to this end, may adopt plans and methods of 22804
administration found necessary by the federal government for the 22805
efficient operation of any joint arrangements or the efficient 22806
application of any federal statutes;22807

       (4) Upon the designation of the governor, performing 22808
functions and services for the federal government relating to 22809
individuals under a physical or mental disability.22810

        (L) Shall comply withMay take any requirementsappropriate 22811
action necessary to obtain federal funds in the maximum amount and 22812
most advantageous proportion possible.;22813

       (M) May conduct research and demonstration projects, 22814
including inquiries concerning the causes of blindness and its 22815
prevention, provide training and instruction, including the 22816
establishment and maintenance of research fellowships and 22817
traineeships along with all necessary stipends and allowances, 22818
disseminate information, and provide technical assistance relating 22819
to vocational rehabilitation;22820

       (N) May plan, establish, and operate programs, facilities, 22821
and services relating to vocational rehabilitation;22822

       (O) May accept and hold, invest, reinvest, or otherwise use 22823
gifts made for the purpose of furthering vocational 22824
rehabilitation;22825

       (P) May ameliorate the condition of the aged blind or other 22826
severely disabled individuals by establishing a program of home 22827
visitation by commission employees for the purpose of instruction;22828

       (Q) May establish and manage small business enterprises that 22829
are operated by persons with a substantial handicap to employment, 22830
including blind persons;22831

       (R) May purchase from insurance companies licensed to do 22832
business in this state any insurance deemed necessary by the 22833
commission for the efficient operation of a suitable vending 22834
facility as defined in division (A) of section 3304.28 of the 22835
Revised Code;22836

       (S) May accept directly from any state agency, and any state 22837
agency may transfer directly to the commission, surplus computers 22838
and computer equipment to be used for any purposes the commission 22839
considers appropriate, notwithstanding sections 125.12 to 125.14 22840
of the Revised Code.22841

       Sec. 3304.181.  If the total of all funds available from 22842
nonfederal sources to support the activities of the rehabilitation 22843
services commission does not comply with the expenditure 22844
requirements of 34 C.F.R. 361.60 and 361.62 for those activities 22845
or would cause the state to lose an allotment or fail to receive a 22846
reallotment under 34 C.F.R. 361.65, the commission shallmay22847
solicit additional funds from, and enter into agreements for the 22848
use of those funds with, private or public entities, including 22849
local government entities of this state. The commission shallmay22850
continue to solicit additional funds and enter into agreements 22851
until the total funding available is sufficient for the commission 22852
to receive federal funds at the maximum amount and in the most 22853
advantageous proportion possible.22854

       Any agreement entered into between the commission and a 22855
private or public entity to provide funds under this section shall 22856
be in accordance with 34 C.F.R. 361.28 and section 3304.182 of the 22857
Revised Code.22858

       Sec. 3304.182.  Any agreement between the rehabilitation 22859
services commission and a private or public entity providing funds 22860
under section 3304.181 of the Revised Code may permit the 22861
commission to receive a specified percentage of the funds, but the 22862
percentage shall be not more than twenty-five per cent of the 22863
total funds available under the agreement. The agreement shall not 22864
be for less than six months or be discontinued by the commission 22865
without the commission first providing three months notice of 22866
intent to discontinue the agreement. The commission may terminate 22867
an agreement onlyat any time for goodjust cause. It may 22868
terminate an agreement for any other reason by giving at least 22869
thirty days' notice to the public or private entity.22870

       Any services provided under an agreement entered into under 22871
section 3304.181 of the Revised Code shall be provided by a person 22872
or government entity that meets the accreditation standards 22873
established in rules adopted by the commission under section 22874
3304.16 of the Revised Code.22875

       Sec. 3305.01.  As used in this chapter:22876

       (A) "Public institution of higher education" means a state 22877
university as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, the 22878
northeast Ohio medical university, or a university branch, 22879
technical college, state community college, community college, or 22880
municipal university established or operating under Chapter 3345., 22881
3349., 3354., 3355., 3357., or 3358. of the Revised Code.22882

       (B) "State retirement system" means the public employees 22883
retirement system created under Chapter 145. of the Revised Code, 22884
the state teachers retirement system created under Chapter 3307. 22885
of the Revised Code, or the school employees retirement system 22886
created under Chapter 3309. of the Revised Code.22887

       (C) "Eligible employee" means any person employed as a 22888
full-time employee of a public institution of higher education.22889

       In all cases of doubt, the board of trustees of the public 22890
institution of higher education shall determine whether any person 22891
is an eligible employee for purposes of this chapter, and the 22892
board's decision shall be final.22893

       (D) "Electing employee" means any eligible employee who 22894
elects, pursuant to section 3305.05 or 3305.051 of the Revised 22895
Code, to participate in an alternative retirement plan provided 22896
pursuant to this chapter or an eligible employee who is required 22897
to participate in an alternative retirement plan pursuant to 22898
division (C)(4)(3) of section 3305.05 or division (F) of section 22899
3305.051 of the Revised Code.22900

       (E) "Compensation," for purposes of an electing employee, has 22901
the same meaning as the applicable one of the following:22902

       (1) If the electing employee would be subject to Chapter 145. 22903
of the Revised Code had the employee not made an election pursuant 22904
to section 3305.05 or 3305.051 of the Revised Code, "earnable 22905
salary" as defined in division (R) of section 145.01 of the 22906
Revised Code;22907

       (2) If the electing employee would be subject to Chapter 22908
3307. of the Revised Code had the employee not made an election 22909
pursuant to section 3305.05 or 3305.051 of the Revised Code, 22910
"compensation" as defined in division (L) of section 3307.01 of 22911
the Revised Code;22912

       (3) If the electing employee would be subject to Chapter 22913
3309. of the Revised Code had the employee not made an election 22914
pursuant to section 3305.05 or 3305.051 of the Revised Code, 22915
"compensation" as defined in division (V) of section 3309.01 of 22916
the Revised Code.22917

       (F) "ProviderVendor" means an entity designated under 22918
section 3305.03 of the Revised Code as eligible to be a provider 22919
of investment options for an alternative retirement plan.22920

       (G) "Provider" means, with respect to each public institution 22921
of higher education, a vendor that has entered into an agreement 22922
with that public institution of higher education in accordance 22923
with section 3305.04 of the Revised Code.22924

       Sec. 3305.02.  An alternative retirement program is hereby 22925
established in accordance with this chapter for the purpose of 22926
providing to eligible employees the opportunity of participating 22927
in an alternative retirement plan as an alternative to 22928
participating in a state retirement system. The employer is the 22929
sponsor of each alternative retirement plan offered under this 22930
chapter.22931

       Each alternative retirement plan offered under this program 22932
shall be a defined contribution plan qualified under section 401 22933
(a) of the Internal Revenue Code that provides retirement and, to 22934
the extent applicable, death benefits through investment options. 22935
The options shall be offered to electing employees pursuant to 22936
trust or custodial accounts or pursuant to group or individual 22937
annuity contracts, and certificates issued under group contracts, 22938
and. The options may include life insurance, annuities, variable 22939
annuities, regulated investment trusts, pooled investment funds, 22940
or other forms of investment, at the option of each electing 22941
employee.22942

       Notwithstanding this chapter, any retirement plan established 22943
by a public institution of higher education prior to March 31, 22944
1997, as an alternative to participating in any state retirement 22945
system may continue in effect and be modified without regard to 22946
this chapter for all employees at the public institution eligible 22947
to participate in the plan.22948

       Sec. 3305.03.  (A) The department of insuranceOhio board of 22949
regents shall designate three or morethe entities that are 22950
eligible to provide investment options under alternative 22951
retirement plans establishedmaintained by public institutions of 22952
higher education in accordance with this chapter. An entity shall 22953
be designated a provider under this section if the entity meets. 22954
The board shall accept and review applications from entities 22955
seeking designation as a vendor. The board shall not designate an 22956
entity as a vendor unless the entity meets the requirements 22957
described in division (B) of this section.22958

       (B) To be eligible for designation as a vendor, an entity 22959
must meet both of the following requirements:22960

       (1) It isThe entity must be authorized to conduct business 22961
in this state with regard to the investment options to be offered 22962
under an alternative retirement plan;maintained by a public 22963
institution of higher education.22964

       (2) It providesThe entity must offer the same or similar 22965
investment options to be offered under alternative retirement 22966
plans, as group or individual contracts, or a combination thereof,22967
optional retirement plans, or similar types of plans with respect 22968
to which all of the following apply:22969

       (a) The plans are defined contribution plans that are 22970
qualified plans under Internal Revenue Code 401(a) or 403(b).22971

       (b) The plans are maintained by institutions of higher 22972
education in at least ten other states.22973

       (B)(c) The plans are established as primary retirement plans 22974
that are alternatives to or a component of the applicable state 22975
retirement system.22976

       (C) In designating a provider under this sectiondetermining 22977
whether to designate an entity as a vendor, the department of 22978
insuranceboard of regents shall identify, consider, and evaluate22979
all of the following:22980

       (1) The experience of the providerentity in providing in 22981
other states investment options under alternative retirement 22982
programs in other statesplans, optional retirement plans, or 22983
similar types of plans that meet the requirements of division 22984
(B)(2) of this section;22985

       (2) The potential effectiveness of the providerentity in 22986
recruiting eligible employees to enter into contractsselect that 22987
entity for purposes of participating in an alternative retirement 22988
plan and in retaining those contractsemployees' accounts;22989

       (3) Whether the entity intends to offer a broad range of 22990
investment options to the electing employees;22991

       (4) The suitability of the investment options to the needs 22992
and interests of the electing employees and their beneficiaries;22993

       (5) The capability of the entity to offer sufficient 22994
information to the electing employees and their beneficiaries to 22995
make informed decisions with regard to investment options offered 22996
by the entity;22997

       (6) The capability of the entity to perform in a manner that 22998
is in the best interests of the electing employees and their 22999
beneficiaries;23000

       (7) The fees and expenses associated with the entity's 23001
investment options and the manner in which the entity intends to 23002
disclose those fees and expenses;23003

       (8) The nature and extent of the rights and benefits to be 23004
provided under the investment options;23005

       (4) The relationship between the rights and benefits under 23006
the investment options and the amount of the contributions made 23007
under those options;23008

       (5) The suitability of the rights and benefits under the 23009
investment options to the needs and interests of eligible 23010
employees;23011

       (6)(9) The capability of the providerentity to provide the 23012
rights and benefits under the investment options;23013

       (7)(10) Comments submitted by a public institution of higher 23014
education under section 3305.031 of the Revised Code;23015

       (11) Any other matters itthe board of regents considers 23016
relevant.23017

       (C)(D) The department of insuranceboard of regents shall 23018
periodically reviewconduct periodic reviews of each provider23019
entity designated under division (A) of this sectionas a vendor23020
and the investment options being offered to ensure that the 23021
requirements and purposes of this chapter are being met. If the 23022
departmentThe reviews of a vendor shall occur not less frequently 23023
than once every three years.23024

       If it finds that the providervendor is not in compliance 23025
with any requirementthe requirements of this chapter or the 23026
providervendor is not satisfactorily meeting the purposes of this 23027
chapter, the department mayboard shall rescind the provider's23028
vendor's designation.23029

       (D)(E) Notwithstanding sections 125.01 to 125.11 of the 23030
Revised Code, designation of a providervendor or the execution of 23031
any contractagreement under this chapter is not subject to 23032
competitive bidding under those sections.23033

       Sec. 3305.031.  (A) As part of the process established under 23034
section 3305.03 of the Revised Code for designating an entity as a 23035
vendor and conducting periodic reviews of a vendor, the Ohio board 23036
of regents shall do all of the following:23037

       (1) Provide written notice to each public institution of 23038
higher education that an entity has applied to be designated as a 23039
vendor under section 3305.03 of the Revised Code;23040

       (2) Provide written notice to each public institution of 23041
higher education that a vendor is scheduled for a review;23042

       (3) Establish a comment period of not less than thirty days 23043
during which a public institution of higher education is 23044
authorized to comment about an entity's application for 23045
designation or a vendor's review and to request a meeting with the 23046
board of regents concerning the application or review;23047

       (4) Not later than fourteen days after the board makes a 23048
decision with respect to an application or review, including any 23049
rescission of a vendor's designation, provide written notice to 23050
each public institution of higher education of the board's 23051
decision.23052

       (B) If a meeting is requested by a public institution of 23053
higher education under division (A)(3) of this section, the board 23054
of regents shall do all of the following:23055

       (1) Notify each public institution of higher education of the 23056
meeting and its time and place;23057

       (2) Hold the meeting not less than ten but not more than 23058
thirty days after the end of the comment period;23059

       (3) Continue to accept comments concerning the application or 23060
review, as applicable, until five business days after the meeting 23061
is held.23062

       (C) The board of regents shall adopt rules under section 23063
3305.032 of the Revised Code specifying the method to be used by 23064
public institutions of higher education in submitting comments to 23065
the board concerning an application or review.23066

       Sec. 3305.032.  The Ohio board of regents shall adopt rules 23067
as the board considers necessary to carry out its duties and 23068
responsibilities under this chapter. The rules shall be adopted in 23069
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. The rules may 23070
provide for fees to be charged providers by the board to cover 23071
administrative and marketing expenses of the board.23072

       Sec. 3305.04. (A) The board of trustees of each public 23073
institution of higher education shall adopt an alternative 23074
retirement plan in accordance with this chapter. Each public 23075
institution of higher education shall enter into a contract with 23076
each provider designated pursuant to section 3305.03 of the 23077
Revised Code that is willing to provide investment options under 23078
an alternative retirement plan at that public institution. Each 23079
contract shall provide for termination of the contract if the 23080
provider ceases to be a designated provider. In23081

       In accordance with this chapter, each board may perform such 23082
functions and provide as necessary for the administration of its 23083
alternative retirement plan.23084

       (B)(1) In implementing the alternative retirement plan 23085
established by the board, the public institution of higher 23086
education shall develop agreements to be entered into with 23087
entities designated under section 3305.03 of the Revised Code as 23088
vendors. Each agreement shall include such terms and conditions as 23089
are determined by the public institution of higher education in 23090
its sole discretion.23091

       (2) Except as provided in division (B)(3) of this section, 23092
the public institution of higher education shall enter into 23093
agreements with a minimum of four vendors or, if fewer than four 23094
vendors are available, with the number of vendors available.23095

       (3) Division (B)(2) of this section does not require a public 23096
institution of higher education to enter into an agreement with a 23097
vendor if either of the following is the case:23098

       (a) The vendor is not willing to provide investment options 23099
under the alternative retirement plan at that public institution.23100

       (b) The vendor is not willing to agree to the terms and 23101
conditions of the agreement.23102

       (4) After an agreement has been entered into, both of the 23103
following apply with respect to termination of the agreement with 23104
the provider:23105

       (a) The agreement shall be terminated if the provider ceases 23106
to be an entity designated as a vendor.23107

       (b) The agreement may be terminated if the provider fails to 23108
comply with the terms and conditions of such agreement.23109

       Sec. 3305.05.  (A) As used in this section and section 23110
3305.051 of the Revised Code, "academic or administrative 23111
employee" means any full-time employee not receiving any benefit, 23112
allowance, or other payment granted on the employee's account from 23113
a state retirement system who, before the effective date of this 23114
sectionAugust 1, 2005, met one of the following requirements:23115

       (1) The employee was a member of the faculty of a public 23116
institution of higher education.23117

       (2) The employee was a member of the administrative staff of 23118
a public institution of higher education serving in a position in 23119
the unclassified civil service pursuant to section 124.11 of the 23120
Revised Code.23121

       (3) If section 124.11 of the Revised Code did not apply to 23122
the public institution of higher education, the employee was a 23123
member of the administrative staff of a public institution of 23124
higher education serving in a position comparable to a position in 23125
the unclassified civil service.23126

       In all cases of doubt, the board of trustees of the public 23127
institution of higher education shall determine whether any person 23128
is an academic or administrative employee for purposes of this 23129
chapter, and the board's decision shall be final.23130

       (B)(1) Each person who, on the effective date of this section23131
August 1, 2005, is an eligible employee of a public institution of 23132
higher education and has accrued less than five years of service 23133
credit in a state retirement system may, not later than one 23134
hundred twenty days after the effective date of this section23135
August 1, 2005, make an election to participate in an alternative 23136
retirement plan available at the employing public institution, 23137
unless, prior to the effective date of this sectionAugust 1, 23138
2005, the person had an opportunity pursuant to former section 23139
3305.05 of the Revised Code to make such an election as an 23140
academic or administrative employee of that public institution of 23141
higher education.23142

       (2) An eligible employee whose employment with a public 23143
institution of higher education commences on or after the 23144
effective date of this sectionAugust 1, 2005, may, not later than 23145
one hundred twenty days after the starting date of the employment, 23146
make an election to participate in an alternative retirement plan 23147
available at the employing public institution.23148

        (3) An eligible employee who, on or after the effective date 23149
of this sectionAugust 1, 2005, terminates employment at one 23150
public institution of higher education and subsequently is 23151
employed by another public institution of higher education in a 23152
position for which an alternative retirement plan is available 23153
may, not later than one hundred twenty days after the starting 23154
date of the employment, elect to participate in an alternative 23155
retirement plan available at that public institution.23156

        (C)(1) An eligible employee who makes an election under 23157
division (B) of this section shall submit the election in writing 23158
to the designated officer of the employee's employing public 23159
institution of higher education. Once submitted, the election is 23160
irrevocable while the eligible employee continues to be employed 23161
by the public institution of higher education. Not later than ten 23162
days after the election becomes irrevocable, the officer shall 23163
file a certified copy of the election with the state retirement 23164
system to which, apart from the election, the employee's 23165
employment would be subject.23166

        Each public institution of higher education that employs a 23167
person eligible to make an election under division (B) of this 23168
section shall notify, in writing, within ten days of the person's 23169
employment, the state retirement system that applies to that 23170
employment in the manner specified by that state retirement 23171
system. The notice shall include the person's name and address. 23172
The notice shall be given not later than ten days after the first 23173
date the person is on the institution's payroll.23174

        (2) Elections made under division (B) of this section take 23175
effect as follows:23176

        (a) An election under division (B)(1) of this section is 23177
effective as of the date on which the employee's election to 23178
participate in the alternative retirement plan becomes 23179
irrevocable.23180

        (b) An election under division (B)(2) or (3) of this section 23181
is effective as of the electing employee's starting date of 23182
employment.23183

        (3) An eligible employee's election under division (B) of 23184
this section applies to the employee's employment in all positions 23185
at that public institution, unless the employee terminates 23186
employment at the public institution and does not return to 23187
employment in any position at that public institution prior to one 23188
yearfor at least three hundred sixty-five days after the date of 23189
termination.23190

        (4) An eligible employee who makes an election under division 23191
(B) of this section is forever barred from claiming or purchasing 23192
service credit under any state retirement system for the period of 23193
employment while the election is in effect.23194

        (D)(1) An eligible employee who fails to make an election 23195
under division (B) of this section within the one-hundred-twenty 23196
day election period shall be deemed to have elected to participate 23197
in the state retirement system that applies to the employee's 23198
employment.23199

        (2) An eligible employee who fails to make an election under 23200
division (B) of this section shall not be permitted to make an 23201
election for employment in any other position at the public 23202
institution of higher education while employed at that public 23203
institution, unless the employee terminates employment at the 23204
public institution and does not return to employment in any 23205
position at the public institution prior to one yearfor at least 23206
three hundred sixty-five days after the date of termination.23207

       Sec. 3305.053.  The board of trustees of a public institution 23208
of higher education shall permit an employee who makes an election 23209
under section 3305.05 or 3305.051 of the Revised Code to do all of 23210
the following:23211

       (A) Select, from among the providers that have entered into a 23212
contractan agreement with the public institution of higher 23213
education under section 3305.04 of the Revised Code, the provider 23214
of an investment option for that employee;23215

       (B) Except as permitted under division (C) of this section, 23216
contract with only one provider in any plan year;23217

       (C) ChangeSubject to any terms and conditions established by 23218
the public institution of higher education, change the provider 23219
selected under division (A) of this section at the following 23220
times:23221

       (1) Once during the first payroll period in any plan year;23222

       (2) Any time the provider that the employee selected ceases, 23223
under division (C) of section 3305.03 of the Revised Code, to be 23224
designatedany time during the plan year.23225

       (D)(C) If under division (C)(B) of this section an employee 23226
changes providers, the employee may direct the provider shallto23227
transfer to the new provider the employee's account balance either 23228
in whole or in part, as directed by the employee, except that the 23229
provider is not required to immediately transfer any part of the 23230
account invested at the employee's election in a fixed annuity 23231
account if the contract with the employee under which the 23232
investment was made permits the provider to make such a transfer 23233
over a period of time not exceeding ten years and the contract was 23234
filed with and approved by the department of insurance pursuant to 23235
section 3911.011 of the Revised Code.23236

       Sec. 3305.06.  (A) Each electing employee shall contribute an 23237
amount, which shall be a certain percentage of the employee's 23238
compensation, to the provider of the investment option the 23239
employee has selected. This percentage shall be the percentage the 23240
electing employee would have otherwise been required to contribute 23241
to the state retirement system that applies to the employee's 23242
position, except that the percentage shall not be less than three 23243
per cent. Employee contributions under this division may be 23244
treated as employer contributions in accordance with Internal 23245
Revenue Code 414(h).23246

       (B) Each public institution of higher education employing an 23247
electing employee shall contribute a percentage of the employee's 23248
compensation to the provider of the investment option the employee 23249
has selected. This percentage shall be equal to the percentage 23250
that the public institution of higher education would otherwise 23251
contribute on behalf of that employee to the state retirement 23252
system that would otherwise cover that employee's position, less 23253
the percentage contributed by the public institution of higher 23254
education under division (D) of this section.23255

       (C)(1) In no event shall the amount contributed by the 23256
electing employee pursuant to division (A) of this section and on 23257
the electing employee's behalf pursuant to division (B) of this 23258
section be less than the amount necessary to qualify the plan as a 23259
state retirement system pursuant to Internal Revenue Code 23260
3121(B)(b)(7) and the regulations adopted thereunder.23261

       (2) The full amount of the electing employee's contribution 23262
under division (A) of this section and the full amount of the 23263
employer's contribution made on behalf of that employee under 23264
division (B) of this section shall be paid to the appropriate 23265
provider for application to the electing employee's investment 23266
option.23267

       (D) Each public institution of higher education employing an 23268
electing employee shall contribute on behalf of that employee to 23269
the state retirement system that otherwise applies to the electing 23270
employee's position a percentage of the electing employee's 23271
compensation to mitigate any negative financial impact of the 23272
alternative retirement program on the state retirement system. The 23273
percentage shall be six per cent, except that the percentage may 23274
be adjusted by the Ohio retirement study council to reflect the 23275
determinations made by actuarial studies conducted under section 23276
171.07 of the Revised Code. Any adjustment shall become effective 23277
on the first day of the second month following submission of the 23278
actuarial study to the Ohio board of regents under section 171.07 23279
of the Revised Code.23280

       Contributions on behalf of an electing employee shall 23281
continue in accordance with this division until the occurrence of 23282
the following:23283

       (1) If the electing employee would be subject to Chapter 145. 23284
of the Revised Code had the employee not made an election pursuant 23285
to section 3305.05 or 3305.051 of the Revised Code, until the 23286
unfunded actuarial accrued liability for all benefits, except 23287
health care benefits provided under section 145.325 or 145.58 of 23288
the Revised Code and benefit increases provided after March 31, 23289
1997, is fully amortized, as determined by the annual actuarial 23290
valuation prepared under section 145.22 of the Revised Code;23291

       (2) If the electing employee would be subject to Chapter 23292
3307. of the Revised Code had the employee not made an election 23293
pursuant to section 3305.05 or 3305.051 of the Revised Code, until 23294
the unfunded actuarial accrued liability for all benefits, except 23295
health care benefits provided under section 3307.39 or 3307.61 of 23296
the Revised Code and benefit increases provided after March 31, 23297
1997, is fully amortized, as determined by the annual actuarial 23298
valuation prepared under section 3307.51 of the Revised Code;23299

       (3) If the electing employee would be subject to Chapter 23300
3309. of the Revised Code had the employee not made an election 23301
pursuant to section 3305.05 or 3305.051 of the Revised Code, until 23302
the unfunded actuarial accrued liability for all benefits, except 23303
health care benefits provided under section 3309.375 or 3309.69 of 23304
the Revised Code and benefit increases provided after March 31, 23305
1997, is fully amortized, as determined by the annual actuarial 23306
valuation prepared under section 3309.21 of the Revised Code.23307

       Sec. 3313.603.  (A) As used in this section:23308

       (1) "One unit" means a minimum of one hundred twenty hours of 23309
course instruction, except that for a laboratory course, "one 23310
unit" means a minimum of one hundred fifty hours of course 23311
instruction.23312

       (2) "One-half unit" means a minimum of sixty hours of course 23313
instruction, except that for physical education courses, "one-half 23314
unit" means a minimum of one hundred twenty hours of course 23315
instruction.23316

       (B) Beginning September 15, 2001, except as required in 23317
division (C) of this section and division (C) of section 3313.614 23318
of the Revised Code, the requirements for graduation from every 23319
high school shall include twenty units earned in grades nine 23320
through twelve and shall be distributed as follows:23321

       (1) English language arts, four units;23322

       (2) Health, one-half unit;23323

       (3) Mathematics, three units;23324

       (4) Physical education, one-half unit;23325

       (5) Science, two units until September 15, 2003, and three 23326
units thereafter, which at all times shall include both of the 23327
following:23328

       (a) Biological sciences, one unit;23329

       (b) Physical sciences, one unit.23330

       (6) Social studies, three units, which shall include both of 23331
the following:23332

       (a) American history, one-half unit;23333

       (b) American government, one-half unit.23334

       (7) Elective units, seven units until September 15, 2003, and 23335
six units thereafter.23336

       Each student's electives shall include at least one unit, or 23337
two half units, chosen from among the areas of 23338
business/technology, fine arts, and/or foreign language.23339

       (C) Beginning with students who enter ninth grade for the 23340
first time on or after July 1, 2010, except as provided in 23341
divisions (D) to (F) of this section, the requirements for 23342
graduation from every public and chartered nonpublic high school 23343
shall include twenty units that are designed to prepare students 23344
for the workforce and college. The units shall be distributed as 23345
follows:23346

       (1) English language arts, four units;23347

       (2) Health, one-half unit, which shall include instruction in 23348
nutrition and the benefits of nutritious foods and physical 23349
activity for overall health;23350

       (3) Mathematics, four units, which shall include one unit of 23351
algebra II or the equivalent of algebra II;23352

       (4) Physical education, one-half unit;23353

       (5) Science, three units with inquiry-based laboratory 23354
experience that engages students in asking valid scientific 23355
questions and gathering and analyzing information, which shall 23356
include the following, or their equivalent:23357

       (a) Physical sciences, one unit;23358

       (b) Life sciences, one unit;23359

       (c) Advanced study in one or more of the following sciences, 23360
one unit:23361

       (i) Chemistry, physics, or other physical science;23362

       (ii) Advanced biology or other life science;23363

       (iii) Astronomy, physical geology, or other earth or space 23364
science.23365

       (6) Social studies, three units, which shall include both of 23366
the following:23367

       (a) American history, one-half unit;23368

       (b) American government, one-half unit.23369

       Each school shall integrate the study of economics and 23370
financial literacy, as expressed in the social studies academic 23371
content standards adopted by the state board of education under 23372
division (A)(1) of section 3301.079 of the Revised Code and the 23373
academic content standards for financial literacy and 23374
entrepreneurship adopted under division (A)(2) of that section, 23375
into one or more existing social studies credits required under 23376
division (C)(6) of this section, or into the content of another 23377
class, so that every high school student receives instruction in 23378
those concepts. In developing the curriculum required by this 23379
paragraph, schools shall use available public-private partnerships 23380
and resources and materials that exist in business, industry, and 23381
through the centers for economics education at institutions of 23382
higher education in the state.23383

       (7) Five units consisting of one or any combination of 23384
foreign language, fine arts, business, career-technical education, 23385
family and consumer sciences, technology, agricultural education, 23386
a junior reserve officer training corps (JROTC) program approved 23387
by the congress of the United States under title 10 of the United 23388
States Code, or English language arts, mathematics, science, or 23389
social studies courses not otherwise required under division (C) 23390
of this section.23391

       Ohioans must be prepared to apply increased knowledge and 23392
skills in the workplace and to adapt their knowledge and skills 23393
quickly to meet the rapidly changing conditions of the 23394
twenty-first century. National studies indicate that all high 23395
school graduates need the same academic foundation, regardless of 23396
the opportunities they pursue after graduation. The goal of Ohio's 23397
system of elementary and secondary education is to prepare all 23398
students for and seamlessly connect all students to success in 23399
life beyond high school graduation, regardless of whether the next 23400
step is entering the workforce, beginning an apprenticeship, 23401
engaging in post-secondary training, serving in the military, or 23402
pursuing a college degree.23403

        The Ohio core curriculum is the standard expectation for all 23404
students entering ninth grade for the first time at a public or 23405
chartered nonpublic high school on or after July 1, 2010. A 23406
student may satisfy this expectation through a variety of methods, 23407
including, but not limited to, integrated, applied, 23408
career-technical, and traditional coursework.23409

       Whereas teacher quality is essential for student success in 23410
completing the Ohio core curriculum, the general assembly shall 23411
appropriate funds for strategic initiatives designed to strengthen 23412
schools' capacities to hire and retain highly qualified teachers 23413
in the subject areas required by the curriculum. Such initiatives 23414
are expected to require an investment of $120,000,000 over five 23415
years.23416

       Stronger coordination between high schools and institutions 23417
of higher education is necessary to prepare students for more 23418
challenging academic endeavors and to lessen the need for academic 23419
remediation in college, thereby reducing the costs of higher 23420
education for Ohio's students, families, and the state. The state 23421
board and the chancellor of the Ohio board of regents shall 23422
develop policies to ensure that only in rare instances will 23423
students who complete the Ohio core curriculum require academic 23424
remediation after high school.23425

       School districts, community schools, and chartered nonpublic 23426
schools shall integrate technology into learning experiences 23427
across the curriculum in order to maximize efficiency, enhance 23428
learning, and prepare students for success in the 23429
technology-driven twenty-first century. Districts and schools 23430
shall use distance and web-based course delivery as a method of 23431
providing or augmenting all instruction required under this 23432
division, including laboratory experience in science. Districts 23433
and schools shall utilize technology access and electronic 23434
learning opportunities provided by the eTech Ohio commission23435
department of education, the chancellor, the Ohio learning network23436
technology consortium, education technology centers, public 23437
television stations, and other public and private providers.23438

       (D) Except as provided in division (E) of this section, a 23439
student who enters ninth grade on or after July 1, 2010, and 23440
before July 1, 2014, may qualify for graduation from a public or 23441
chartered nonpublic high school even though the student has not 23442
completed the Ohio core curriculum prescribed in division (C) of 23443
this section if all of the following conditions are satisfied:23444

       (1) After the student has attended high school for two years, 23445
as determined by the school, the student and the student's parent, 23446
guardian, or custodian sign and file with the school a written 23447
statement asserting the parent's, guardian's, or custodian's 23448
consent to the student's graduating without completing the Ohio 23449
core curriculum and acknowledging that one consequence of not 23450
completing the Ohio core curriculum is ineligibility to enroll in 23451
most state universities in Ohio without further coursework.23452

       (2) The student and parent, guardian, or custodian fulfill 23453
any procedural requirements the school stipulates to ensure the 23454
student's and parent's, guardian's, or custodian's informed 23455
consent and to facilitate orderly filing of statements under 23456
division (D)(1) of this section.23457

       (3) The student and the student's parent, guardian, or 23458
custodian and a representative of the student's high school 23459
jointly develop an individual career plan for the student that 23460
specifies the student matriculating to a two-year degree program, 23461
acquiring a business and industry credential, or entering an 23462
apprenticeship.23463

       (4) The student's high school provides counseling and support 23464
for the student related to the plan developed under division 23465
(D)(3) of this section during the remainder of the student's high 23466
school experience.23467

       (5) The student successfully completes, at a minimum, the 23468
curriculum prescribed in division (B) of this section.23469

       The department of education, in collaboration with the 23470
chancellor, shall analyze student performance data to determine if 23471
there are mitigating factors that warrant extending the exception 23472
permitted by division (D) of this section to high school classes 23473
beyond those entering ninth grade before July 1, 2014. The 23474
department shall submit its findings and any recommendations not 23475
later than August 1, 2014, to the speaker and minority leader of 23476
the house of representatives, the president and minority leader of 23477
the senate, the chairpersons and ranking minority members of the 23478
standing committees of the house of representatives and the senate 23479
that consider education legislation, the state board of education, 23480
and the superintendent of public instruction.23481

       (E) Each school district and chartered nonpublic school 23482
retains the authority to require an even more rigorous minimum 23483
curriculum for high school graduation than specified in division 23484
(B) or (C) of this section. A school district board of education, 23485
through the adoption of a resolution, or the governing authority 23486
of a chartered nonpublic school may stipulate any of the 23487
following:23488

        (1) A minimum high school curriculum that requires more than 23489
twenty units of academic credit to graduate;23490

        (2) An exception to the district's or school's minimum high 23491
school curriculum that is comparable to the exception provided in 23492
division (D) of this section but with additional requirements, 23493
which may include a requirement that the student successfully 23494
complete more than the minimum curriculum prescribed in division 23495
(B) of this section;23496

        (3) That no exception comparable to that provided in division 23497
(D) of this section is available.23498

       (F) A student enrolled in a dropout prevention and recovery 23499
program, which program has received a waiver from the department, 23500
may qualify for graduation from high school by successfully 23501
completing a competency-based instructional program administered 23502
by the dropout prevention and recovery program in lieu of 23503
completing the Ohio core curriculum prescribed in division (C) of 23504
this section. The department shall grant a waiver to a dropout 23505
prevention and recovery program, within sixty days after the 23506
program applies for the waiver, if the program meets all of the 23507
following conditions:23508

       (1) The program serves only students not younger than sixteen 23509
years of age and not older than twenty-one years of age.23510

       (2) The program enrolls students who, at the time of their 23511
initial enrollment, either, or both, are at least one grade level 23512
behind their cohort age groups or experience crises that 23513
significantly interfere with their academic progress such that 23514
they are prevented from continuing their traditional programs.23515

       (3) The program requires students to attain at least the 23516
applicable score designated for each of the assessments prescribed 23517
under division (B)(1) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code or, 23518
to the extent prescribed by rule of the state board under division 23519
(D)(6) of section 3301.0712 of the Revised Code, division (B)(2) 23520
of that section.23521

       (4) The program develops an individual career plan for the 23522
student that specifies the student's matriculating to a two-year 23523
degree program, acquiring a business and industry credential, or 23524
entering an apprenticeship.23525

       (5) The program provides counseling and support for the 23526
student related to the plan developed under division (F)(4) of 23527
this section during the remainder of the student's high school 23528
experience.23529

       (6) The program requires the student and the student's 23530
parent, guardian, or custodian to sign and file, in accordance 23531
with procedural requirements stipulated by the program, a written 23532
statement asserting the parent's, guardian's, or custodian's 23533
consent to the student's graduating without completing the Ohio 23534
core curriculum and acknowledging that one consequence of not 23535
completing the Ohio core curriculum is ineligibility to enroll in 23536
most state universities in Ohio without further coursework.23537

       (7) Prior to receiving the waiver, the program has submitted 23538
to the department an instructional plan that demonstrates how the 23539
academic content standards adopted by the state board under 23540
section 3301.079 of the Revised Code will be taught and assessed.23541

       If the department does not act either to grant the waiver or 23542
to reject the program application for the waiver within sixty days 23543
as required under this section, the waiver shall be considered to 23544
be granted.23545

       (G) Every high school may permit students below the ninth 23546
grade to take advanced work. If a high school so permits, it shall 23547
award high school credit for successful completion of the advanced 23548
work and shall count such advanced work toward the graduation 23549
requirements of division (B) or (C) of this section if the 23550
advanced work was both:23551

       (1) Taught by a person who possesses a license or certificate 23552
issued under section 3301.071, 3319.22, or 3319.222 of the Revised 23553
Code that is valid for teaching high school;23554

       (2) Designated by the board of education of the city, local, 23555
or exempted village school district, the board of the cooperative 23556
education school district, or the governing authority of the 23557
chartered nonpublic school as meeting the high school curriculum 23558
requirements.23559

        Each high school shall record on the student's high school 23560
transcript all high school credit awarded under division (G) of 23561
this section. In addition, if the student completed a seventh- or 23562
eighth-grade fine arts course described in division (K) of this 23563
section and the course qualified for high school credit under that 23564
division, the high school shall record that course on the 23565
student's high school transcript.23566

       (H) The department shall make its individual academic career 23567
plan available through its Ohio career information system web site 23568
for districts and schools to use as a tool for communicating with 23569
and providing guidance to students and families in selecting high 23570
school courses.23571

        (I) Units earned in English language arts, mathematics, 23572
science, and social studies that are delivered through integrated 23573
academic and career-technical instruction are eligible to meet the 23574
graduation requirements of division (B) or (C) of this section.23575

       (J) The state board, in consultation with the chancellor, 23576
shall adopt a statewide plan implementing methods for students to 23577
earn units of high school credit based on a demonstration of 23578
subject area competency, instead of or in combination with 23579
completing hours of classroom instruction. The state board shall 23580
adopt the plan not later than March 31, 2009, and commence phasing 23581
in the plan during the 2009-2010 school year. The plan shall 23582
include a standard method for recording demonstrated proficiency 23583
on high school transcripts. Each school district and community 23584
school shall comply with the state board's plan adopted under this 23585
division and award units of high school credit in accordance with 23586
the plan. The state board may adopt existing methods for earning 23587
high school credit based on a demonstration of subject area 23588
competency as necessary prior to the 2009-2010 school year.23589

       (K) This division does not apply to students who qualify for 23590
graduation from high school under division (D) or (F) of this 23591
section, or to students pursuing a career-technical instructional 23592
track as determined by the school district board of education or 23593
the chartered nonpublic school's governing authority. 23594
Nevertheless, the general assembly encourages such students to 23595
consider enrolling in a fine arts course as an elective.23596

       Beginning with students who enter ninth grade for the first 23597
time on or after July 1, 2010, each student enrolled in a public 23598
or chartered nonpublic high school shall complete two semesters or 23599
the equivalent of fine arts to graduate from high school. The 23600
coursework may be completed in any of grades seven to twelve. Each 23601
student who completes a fine arts course in grade seven or eight 23602
may elect to count that course toward the five units of electives 23603
required for graduation under division (C)(7) of this section, if 23604
the course satisfied the requirements of division (G) of this 23605
section. In that case, the high school shall award the student 23606
high school credit for the course and count the course toward the 23607
five units required under division (C)(7) of this section. If the 23608
course in grade seven or eight did not satisfy the requirements of 23609
division (G) of this section, the high school shall not award the 23610
student high school credit for the course but shall count the 23611
course toward the two semesters or the equivalent of fine arts 23612
required by this division.23613

       (L) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this section, 23614
the board of education of each school district and the governing 23615
authority of each chartered nonpublic school may adopt a policy to 23616
excuse from the high school physical education requirement each 23617
student who, during high school, has participated in 23618
interscholastic athletics, marching band, or cheerleading for at 23619
least two full seasons or in the junior reserve officer training 23620
corps for at least two full school years. If the board or 23621
authority adopts such a policy, the board or authority shall not 23622
require the student to complete any physical education course as a 23623
condition to graduate. However, the student shall be required to 23624
complete one-half unit, consisting of at least sixty hours of 23625
instruction, in another course of study. In the case of a student 23626
who has participated in the junior reserve officer training corps 23627
for at least two full school years, credit received for that 23628
participation may be used to satisfy the requirement to complete 23629
one-half unit in another course of study.23630

       Sec. 3313.65.  (A) As used in this section and section 23631
3313.64 of the Revised Code:23632

       (1) A person is "in a residential facility" if the person is 23633
a resident or a resident patient of an institution, home, or other 23634
residential facility that is:23635

       (a) Licensed as a nursing home, residential care facility, or 23636
home for the aging by the director of health under section 3721.02 23637
of the Revised Code;23638

       (b) Licensed as an adult care facility by the director of 23639
mental health under sections 5119.70 to 5119.88 of the Revised 23640
Code;23641

       (c) Maintained as a county home or district home by the board 23642
of county commissioners or a joint board of county commissioners 23643
under Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code;23644

       (d)(c) Operated or administered by a board of alcohol, drug 23645
addiction, and mental health services under section 340.03 or 23646
340.06 of the Revised Code, or provides residential care pursuant 23647
to contracts made under section 340.03 or 340.033 of the Revised 23648
Code;23649

       (e)(d) Maintained as a state institution for the mentally ill 23650
under Chapter 5119. of the Revised Code;23651

       (f)(e) Licensed by the department of mental health under 23652
section 5119.20 or 5119.22 of the Revised Code;23653

       (g)(f) Licensed as a residential facility by the department 23654
of developmental disabilities under section 5123.19 of the Revised 23655
Code;23656

       (h)(g) Operated by the veteran's administration or another 23657
agency of the United States government;23658

       (i)(h) Operated by the Ohio veterans' home.23659

       (2) A person is "in a correctional facility" if any of the 23660
following apply:23661

       (a) The person is an Ohio resident and is:23662

       (i) Imprisoned, as defined in section 1.05 of the Revised 23663
Code;23664

       (ii) Serving a term in a community-based correctional 23665
facility or a district community-based correctional facility;23666

       (iii) Required, as a condition of parole, a post-release 23667
control sanction, a community control sanction, transitional 23668
control, or early release from imprisonment, as a condition of 23669
shock parole or shock probation granted under the law in effect 23670
prior to July 1, 1996, or as a condition of a furlough granted 23671
under the version of section 2967.26 of the Revised Code in effect 23672
prior to March 17, 1998, to reside in a halfway house or other 23673
community residential center licensed under section 2967.14 of the 23674
Revised Code or a similar facility designated by the court of 23675
common pleas that established the condition or by the adult parole 23676
authority.23677

       (b) The person is imprisoned in a state correctional 23678
institution of another state or a federal correctional institution 23679
but was an Ohio resident at the time the sentence was imposed for 23680
the crime for which the person is imprisoned.23681

       (3) A person is "in a juvenile residential placement" if the 23682
person is an Ohio resident who is under twenty-one years of age 23683
and has been removed, by the order of a juvenile court, from the 23684
place the person resided at the time the person became subject to 23685
the court's jurisdiction in the matter that resulted in the 23686
person's removal.23687

       (4) "Community control sanction" has the same meaning as in 23688
section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.23689

       (5) "Post-release control sanction" has the same meaning as 23690
in section 2967.01 of the Revised Code.23691

       (B) If the circumstances described in division (C) of this 23692
section apply, the determination of what school district must 23693
admit a child to its schools and what district, if any, is liable 23694
for tuition shall be made in accordance with this section, rather 23695
than section 3313.64 of the Revised Code.23696

       (C) A child who does not reside in the school district in 23697
which the child's parent resides and for whom a tuition obligation 23698
previously has not been established under division (C)(2) of 23699
section 3313.64 of the Revised Code shall be admitted to the 23700
schools of the district in which the child resides if at least one 23701
of the child's parents is in a residential or correctional 23702
facility or a juvenile residential placement and the other parent, 23703
if living and not in such a facility or placement, is not known to 23704
reside in this state.23705

       (D) Regardless of who has custody or care of the child, 23706
whether the child resides in a home, or whether the child receives 23707
special education, if a district admits a child under division (C) 23708
of this section, tuition shall be paid to that district as 23709
follows:23710

       (1) If the child's parent is in a juvenile residential 23711
placement, by the district in which the child's parent resided at 23712
the time the parent became subject to the jurisdiction of the 23713
juvenile court;23714

       (2) If the child's parent is in a correctional facility, by 23715
the district in which the child's parent resided at the time the 23716
sentence was imposed;23717

       (3) If the child's parent is in a residential facility, by 23718
the district in which the parent resided at the time the parent 23719
was admitted to the residential facility, except that if the 23720
parent was transferred from another residential facility, tuition 23721
shall be paid by the district in which the parent resided at the 23722
time the parent was admitted to the facility from which the parent 23723
first was transferred;23724

       (4) In the event of a disagreement as to which school 23725
district is liable for tuition under division (C)(1), (2), or (3) 23726
of this section, the superintendent of public instruction shall 23727
determine which district shall pay tuition.23728

       (E) If a child covered by division (D) of this section 23729
receives special education in accordance with Chapter 3323. of the 23730
Revised Code, the tuition shall be paid in accordance with section 23731
3323.13 or 3323.14 of the Revised Code. Tuition for children who 23732
do not receive special education shall be paid in accordance with 23733
division (J) of section 3313.64 of the Revised Code.23734

       Sec. 3313.71.  School physicians may make examinations, which 23735
shall include tests to determine the existence of hearing defects, 23736
and diagnoses of all children referred to them. They may make such 23737
examination of teachers and other school employees and inspection 23738
of school buildings as in their opinion the protection of health 23739
of the pupils, teachers, and other school employees requires.23740

       Boards of education shall require and provide, in accordance 23741
with section 3313.67 of the Revised Code, such tests and 23742
examinations for tuberculosis of pupils in selected grades and of 23743
school employees as may be required by the Ohio publicdirector of23744
health council.23745

       Boards may require annual tuberculin tests of any grades. All 23746
pupils with positive reactions to the test shall have chest x-rays 23747
and all positive reactions and x-ray findings shall be reported 23748
promptly to the county record bureau of tuberculosis cases 23749
provided for in section 339.74 of the Revised Code. Boards shall 23750
waive the required test where a pupil presents a written statement 23751
from the pupil's family physician certifying that such test has 23752
been given and that such pupil is free from tuberculosis in a 23753
communicable stage, or that such test is inadvisable for medical 23754
reasons, or from the pupil's parent or guardian objecting to such 23755
test because of religious convictions.23756

       Whenever a pupil, teacher, or other school employee is found 23757
to be ill or suffering from tuberculosis in a communicable stage 23758
or other communicable disease, the school physician shall promptly 23759
send such pupil, teacher, or other school employee home, with a 23760
statement, in the case of a pupil, to the pupil's parents or 23761
guardian, briefly setting forth the discovered facts, and advising 23762
that the family physician be consulted. School physicians shall 23763
keep accurate card-index records of all examinations, and said 23764
records, that they may be uniform throughout the state, shall be 23765
according to the form prescribed by the state board of education, 23766
and the reports shall be made according to the method of said 23767
form. If the parent or guardian of any pupil or any teacher or 23768
other school employee, after notice from the board of education, 23769
furnishes within two weeks thereafter the written certificate of 23770
any reputable physician that the pupil, teacher, or other school 23771
employee has been examined, in such cases the service of the 23772
school physician shall be dispensed with, and such certificate 23773
shall be furnished by such parent or guardian, as required by the 23774
board of education. Such individual records shall not be open to 23775
the public and shall be solely for the use of the boards of 23776
education and boards of health officer. If any teacher or other 23777
school employee is found to have tuberculosis in a communicable 23778
stage or other communicable disease, the teacher's or employee's 23779
employment shall be discontinued or suspended upon such terms as 23780
to salary as the board deems just until the school physician has 23781
certified to a recovery from such disease. The methods of making 23782
the tuberculin tests and chest x-rays required by this section 23783
shall be such as are approved by the director of health.23784

       Sec. 3313.976.  (A) No private school may receive scholarship 23785
payments from parents pursuant to section 3313.979 of the Revised 23786
Code until the chief administrator of the private school registers 23787
the school with the superintendent of public instruction. The 23788
state superintendent shall register any school that meets the 23789
following requirements:23790

       (1) The school is located within the boundaries of the pilot 23791
project school district;23792

       (2) The school indicates in writing its commitment to follow 23793
all requirements for a state-sponsored scholarship program 23794
specified under sections 3313.974 to 3313.979 of the Revised Code, 23795
including, but not limited to, the requirements for admitting 23796
students pursuant to section 3313.977 of the Revised Code;23797

       (3) The school meets all state minimum standards for 23798
chartered nonpublic schools in effect on July 1, 1992, except that 23799
the state superintendent at the superintendent's discretion may 23800
register nonchartered nonpublic schools meeting the other 23801
requirements of this division;23802

       (4) The school does not discriminate on the basis of race, 23803
religion, or ethnic background;23804

       (5) The school enrolls a minimum of ten students per class or 23805
a sum of at least twenty-five students in all the classes offered;23806

       (6) The school does not advocate or foster unlawful behavior 23807
or teach hatred of any person or group on the basis of race, 23808
ethnicity, national origin, or religion;23809

       (7) The school does not provide false or misleading 23810
information about the school to parents, students, or the general 23811
public;23812

       (8) For students in grades kindergarten through eight with 23813
family incomes at or below two hundred per cent of the federal 23814
poverty guidelines, as defined in section 5104.46 of the Revised 23815
Code, the school agrees not to charge any tuition to low-income 23816
families receiving ninety per cent of the scholarship amount 23817
through the scholarship program, pursuant to division (A) of 23818
section 3313.978 of the Revised Code, in excess of ten per cent of23819
the scholarship amount established pursuant to division (C)(1) of 23820
section 3313.978 of the Revised Code, excluding any increase 23821
described in division (C)(2) of that section. The school shall 23822
permit any such tuition, at the discretion of the parent, to be 23823
satisfied by the low-income family's provision of in-kind 23824
contributions or services.23825

       (9) For students in grades kindergarten through eight with 23826
family incomes above two hundred per cent of the federal poverty 23827
guidelines, whose scholarship amounts are less than the actual 23828
tuition charge of the school, the school agrees not to charge any 23829
tuition to low-income families receiving a seventy-five per cent 23830
scholarship amount through the scholarship program, pursuant to 23831
division (A) of section 3313.978 of the Revised Code, in excess of 23832
the difference between the actual tuition charge of the school and 23833
seventy-five per cent of the scholarship amount established 23834
pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 3313.978 of the Revised 23835
Code, excluding any increase described in division (C)(2) of that 23836
section. The school shall permit such tuition, at the discretion 23837
of the parent, to be satisfied by the low-income family's 23838
provision of in-kind contributions or services.23839

       (10) The school agrees not to charge any tuition to families 23840
of students in grades nine through twelve receiving a scholarship 23841
in excess of the actual tuition charge of the school less 23842
seventy-five or ninety per cent of the scholarship amount 23843
established pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 3313.978 of the 23844
Revised Code, as applicable, excluding any increase described in 23845
division (C)(2) of that section.23846

       (11) Notwithstanding division (K) of section 3301.0711 of the 23847
Revised Code, the school annually administers the assessments 23848
prescribed by section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code to each 23849
scholarship student enrolled in the school in accordance with 23850
section 3301.0711 of the Revised Code and reports to the 23851
department of education the results of each such assessment 23852
administered to each scholarship student.23853

       (B) The state superintendent shall revoke the registration of 23854
any school if, after a hearing, the superintendent determines that 23855
the school is in violation of any of the provisions of division 23856
(A) of this section.23857

       (C) Any public school located in a school district adjacent 23858
to the pilot project district may receive scholarship payments on 23859
behalf of parents pursuant to section 3313.979 of the Revised Code 23860
if the superintendent of the district in which such public school 23861
is located notifies the state superintendent prior to the first 23862
day of March that the district intends to admit students from the 23863
pilot project district for the ensuing school year pursuant to 23864
section 3327.06 of the Revised Code.23865

       (D) Any parent wishing to purchase tutorial assistance from 23866
any person or governmental entity pursuant to the pilot project 23867
program under sections 3313.974 to 3313.979 of the Revised Code 23868
shall apply to the state superintendent. The state superintendent 23869
shall approve providers who appear to possess the capability of 23870
furnishing the instructional services they are offering to 23871
provide.23872

       Sec. 3313.978.  (A) Annually by the first day of November, 23873
the superintendent of public instruction shall notify the pilot 23874
project school district of the number of initial scholarships that 23875
the state superintendent will be awarding in each of grades 23876
kindergarten through twelve.23877

       The state superintendent shall provide information about the 23878
scholarship program to all students residing in the district, 23879
shall accept applications from any such students until such date 23880
as shall be established by the state superintendent as a deadline 23881
for applications, and shall establish criteria for the selection 23882
of students to receive scholarships from among all those applying 23883
prior to the deadline, which criteria shall give preference to 23884
students from low-income families. For each student selected, the 23885
state superintendent shall also determine whether the student 23886
qualifies for seventy-five or ninety per cent of the scholarship 23887
amount. Students whose family income is at or above two hundred 23888
per cent of the maximum income level established by the state 23889
superintendent for low-income families shall qualify for 23890
seventy-five per cent of the scholarship amount and students whose 23891
family income is below two hundred per cent of that maximum income 23892
level shall qualify for ninety per cent of the scholarship amount.23893
The state superintendent shall notify students of their selection 23894
prior to the fifteenth day of January and whether they qualify for 23895
seventy-five or ninety per cent of the scholarship amount.23896

       (1) A student receiving a pilot project scholarship may 23897
utilize it at an alternative public school by notifying the 23898
district superintendent, at any time before the beginning of the 23899
school year, of the name of the public school in an adjacent 23900
school district to which the student has been accepted pursuant to 23901
section 3327.06 of the Revised Code.23902

       (2) A student may decide to utilize a pilot project 23903
scholarship at a registered private school in the district if all 23904
of the following conditions are met:23905

       (a) By the fifteenth day of February of the preceding school 23906
year, or at any time prior to the start of the school year, the 23907
parent makes an application on behalf of the student to a 23908
registered private school.23909

       (b) The registered private school notifies the parent and the 23910
state superintendent as follows that the student has been 23911
admitted:23912

       (i) By the fifteenth day of March of the preceding school 23913
year if the student filed an application by the fifteenth day of 23914
February and was admitted by the school pursuant to division (A) 23915
of section 3313.977 of the Revised Code;23916

       (ii) Within one week of the decision to admit the student if 23917
the student is admitted pursuant to division (C) of section 23918
3313.977 of the Revised Code.23919

       (c) The student actually enrolls in the registered private 23920
school to which the student was first admitted or in another 23921
registered private school in the district or in a public school in 23922
an adjacent school district.23923

       (B) The state superintendent shall also award in any school 23924
year tutorial assistance grants to a number of students equal to 23925
the number of students who receive scholarships under division (A) 23926
of this section. Tutorial assistance grants shall be awarded 23927
solely to students who are enrolled in the public schools of the 23928
district in a grade level covered by the pilot project. Tutorial 23929
assistance grants may be used solely to obtain tutorial assistance 23930
from a provider approved pursuant to division (D) of section 23931
3313.976 of the Revised Code.23932

       All students wishing to obtain tutorial assistance grants 23933
shall make application to the state superintendent by the first 23934
day of the school year in which the assistance will be used. The 23935
state superintendent shall award assistance grants in accordance 23936
with criteria the superintendent shall establish. For each student 23937
awarded a grant, the state superintendent shall also determine 23938
whether the student qualifies for seventy-five or ninety per cent 23939
of the grant amount and so notify the student. Students whose 23940
family income is at or above two hundred per cent of the maximum 23941
income level established by the state superintendent for 23942
low-income families shall qualify for seventy-five per cent of the 23943
grant amount and students whose family income is below two hundred 23944
per cent of that maximum income level shall qualify for ninety per 23945
cent of the grant amount.23946

       (C)(1) In the case of basic scholarships for students in 23947
grades kindergarten through eight, the scholarship amount shall 23948
not exceed the lesser of the tuition charges of the alternative 23949
school the scholarship recipient attends or three thousand dollars 23950
before fiscal year 2007, three thousand four hundred fifty dollars 23951
in fiscal year 2007 through fiscal year 2011, and four thousand 23952
two hundred fifty dollars in fiscal year 2012 and thereafter.23953

       In the case of basic scholarships for students in grades nine 23954
through twelve, the scholarship amount shall not exceed the lesser 23955
of the tuition charges of the alternative school the scholarship 23956
recipient attends or two thousand seven hundred dollars before 23957
fiscal year 2007, three thousand four hundred fifty dollars in 23958
fiscal year 2007 through fiscal year 2011, and five thousand 23959
dollars in fiscal year 2012 and thereafter.23960

       (2) The state superintendent shall provide for an increase in 23961
the basic scholarship amount in the case of any student who is a 23962
mainstreamed student with a disability and shall further increase 23963
such amount in the case of any separately educated student with a 23964
disability. Such increases shall take into account the 23965
instruction, related services, and transportation costs of 23966
educating such students.23967

       (3) In the case of tutorial assistance grants, the grant 23968
amount shall not exceed the lesser of the provider's actual 23969
charges for such assistance or:23970

       (a) Before fiscal year 2007, a percentage established by the 23971
state superintendent, not to exceed twenty per cent, of the amount 23972
of the pilot project school district's average basic scholarship 23973
amount;23974

       (b) In fiscal year 2007 and thereafter, four hundred dollars.23975

       (4) No scholarship or tutorial assistance grant shall be 23976
awarded unless the state superintendent determines that 23977
twenty-five or ten per cent, as applicable, of the amount 23978
specified for such scholarship or grant pursuant to division 23979
(C)(1), (2), or (3) of this section will be furnished by a 23980
political subdivision, a private nonprofit or for profit entity, 23981
or another person. Only seventy-five or ninety per cent of such 23982
amounts, as applicable, shall be paid from state funds pursuant to 23983
section 3313.979 of the Revised Code.23984

       (D)(1) Annually by the first day of November, the state 23985
superintendent shall estimate the maximum per-pupil scholarship 23986
amounts for the ensuing school year. The state superintendent 23987
shall make this estimate available to the general public at the 23988
offices of the district board of education together with the forms 23989
required by division (D)(2) of this section.23990

       (2) Annually by the fifteenth day of January, the chief 23991
administrator of each registered private school located in the 23992
pilot project district and the principal of each public school in 23993
such district shall complete a parental information form and 23994
forward it to the president of the board of education. The 23995
parental information form shall be prescribed by the department of 23996
education and shall provide information about the grade levels 23997
offered, the numbers of students, tuition amounts, achievement 23998
test results, and any sectarian or other organizational 23999
affiliations.24000

       (E)(1) Only for the purpose of administering the pilot 24001
project scholarship program, the department may request from any 24002
of the following entities the data verification code assigned 24003
under division (D)(2) of section 3301.0714 of the Revised Code to 24004
any student who is seeking a scholarship under the program:24005

        (a) The school district in which the student is entitled to 24006
attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised 24007
Code;24008

        (b) If applicable, the community school in which the student 24009
is enrolled;24010

        (c) The independent contractor engaged to create and maintain 24011
data verification codes.24012

        (2) Upon a request by the department under division (E)(1) of 24013
this section for the data verification code of a student seeking a 24014
scholarship or a request by the student's parent for that code, 24015
the school district or community school shall submit that code to 24016
the department or parent in the manner specified by the 24017
department. If the student has not been assigned a code, because 24018
the student will be entering kindergarten during the school year 24019
for which the scholarship is sought, the district shall assign a 24020
code to that student and submit the code to the department or 24021
parent by a date specified by the department. If the district does 24022
not assign a code to the student by the specified date, the 24023
department shall assign a code to the student.24024

       The department annually shall submit to each school district 24025
the name and data verification code of each student residing in 24026
the district who is entering kindergarten, who has been awarded a 24027
scholarship under the program, and for whom the department has 24028
assigned a code under this division.24029

       (3) The department shall not release any data verification 24030
code that it receives under division (E) of this section to any 24031
person except as provided by law.24032

       (F) Any document relative to the pilot project scholarship 24033
program that the department holds in its files that contains both 24034
a student's name or other personally identifiable information and 24035
the student's data verification code shall not be a public record 24036
under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.24037

       (G)(1) The department annually shall compile the scores 24038
attained by scholarship students enrolled in registered private 24039
schools on the assessments administered to the students pursuant 24040
to division (A)(11) of section 3313.976 of the Revised Code. The 24041
scores shall be aggregated as follows:24042

       (a) By school district, which shall include all scholarship 24043
students residing in the pilot project school district who are 24044
enrolled in a registered private school and were required to take 24045
an assessment pursuant to division (A)(11) of section 3313.976 of 24046
the Revised Code;24047

       (b) By registered private school, which shall include all 24048
scholarship students enrolled in that school who were required to 24049
take an assessment pursuant to division (A)(11) of section 24050
3313.976 of the Revised Code.24051

       (2) The department shall disaggregate the student performance 24052
data described in division (G)(1) of this section according to the 24053
following categories:24054

       (a) Age;24055

       (b) Race and ethnicity;24056

       (c) Gender;24057

       (d) Students who have participated in the scholarship program 24058
for three or more years;24059

       (e) Students who have participated in the scholarship program 24060
for more than one year and less than three years;24061

       (f) Students who have participated in the scholarship program 24062
for one year or less;24063

       (g) Economically disadvantaged students.24064

       (3) The department shall post the student performance data 24065
required under divisions (G)(1) and (2) of this section on its web 24066
site and shall include that data in the information about the 24067
scholarship program provided to students under division (A) of 24068
this section. In reporting student performance data under this 24069
division, the department shall not include any data that is 24070
statistically unreliable or that could result in the 24071
identification of individual students. For this purpose, the 24072
department shall not report performance data for any group that 24073
contains less than ten students.24074

       (4) The department shall provide the parent of each 24075
scholarship student enrolled in a registered private school with 24076
information comparing the student's performance on the assessments 24077
administered pursuant to division (A)(11) of section 3313.976 of 24078
the Revised Code with the average performance of similar students 24079
enrolled in the building operated by the pilot project school 24080
district that the scholarship student would otherwise attend. In 24081
calculating the performance of similar students, the department 24082
shall consider age, grade, race and ethnicity, gender, and 24083
socioeconomic status.24084

       Sec. 3313.979.  Each scholarship to be used for payments to a 24085
registered private school is payable to the parents of the student 24086
entitled to the scholarship. Each scholarship to be used for 24087
payments to a public school in an adjacent school district is 24088
payable to the school district of attendance by the superintendent 24089
of public instruction. Each grant to be used for payments to an 24090
approved tutorial assistance provider is payable to the approved 24091
tutorial assistance provider.24092

       (A)(1) By the fifteenth day of each month of the school year 24093
that any scholarship students are enrolled in a registered private 24094
school, the chief administrator of that school shall notify the 24095
state superintendent of:24096

       (a) The number of scholarship students who were reported to 24097
the school district as having been admitted by that private school 24098
pursuant to division (A)(2)(b) of section 3313.978 of the Revised 24099
Code and who were still enrolled in the private school as of the 24100
first day of such month, and the numbers of such students who 24101
qualify for seventy-five and ninety per cent of the scholarship 24102
amount;24103

       (b) The number of scholarship students who were reported to 24104
the school district as having been admitted by another private 24105
school pursuant to division (A)(2)(b) of section 3313.978 of the 24106
Revised Code and since the date of admission have transferred to 24107
the school providing the notification under division (A)(1) of 24108
this section, and the numbers of such students who qualify for 24109
seventy-five and ninety per cent of the scholarship amount.24110

       (2) From time to time, the state superintendent shall make a 24111
payment to the parent of each student entitled to a scholarship. 24112
Each payment shall include for each student reported under 24113
division (A)(1) of this section, a portion of seventy-five or 24114
ninety per cent, as applicable, of the scholarship amount 24115
specified in divisions (C)(1) and (2) of section 3313.978 of the 24116
Revised Code. This amount shall be proportionately reduced in the 24117
case of any such student who is not enrolled in a registered 24118
private school for the entire school year.24119

       (3) The first payment under this division shall be made by 24120
the last day of November and shall equal one-third of seventy-five 24121
or ninety per cent, as applicable, of the estimated total amount 24122
that will be due to the parent for the school year pursuant to 24123
division (A)(2) of this section.24124

       (B) The state superintendent, on behalf of the parents of a 24125
scholarship student enrolled in a public school in an adjacent 24126
school district pursuant to section 3327.06 of the Revised Code, 24127
shall make the tuition payments required by that section to the 24128
school district admitting the student, except that, 24129
notwithstanding sections 3323.13, 3323.14, and 3327.06 of the 24130
Revised Code, the total payments in any school year shall not 24131
exceed seventy-five or ninety per cent, as applicable, of the 24132
scholarship amount provided in divisions (C)(1) and (2) of section 24133
3313.978 of the Revised Code.24134

       (C) Whenever an approved provider provides tutorial 24135
assistance to a student, the state superintendent shall pay the 24136
approved provider for such costs upon receipt of a statement 24137
specifying the services provided and the costs of the services, 24138
which statement shall be signed by the provider and verified by 24139
the chief administrator having supervisory control over the 24140
tutoring site. The total payments to any approved provider under 24141
this division for all provider services to any individual student 24142
in any school year shall not exceed seventy-five or ninety per 24143
cent, as applicable, of the grant amount provided in division 24144
(C)(3) of section 3313.978 of the Revised Code.24145

       Sec. 3314.074. Divisions (A) and (B) of this section apply 24146
only to the extent permitted under Chapter 1702. of the Revised 24147
Code.24148

       (A) If any community school established under this chapter 24149
permanently closes and ceases its operation as a community school, 24150
the assets of that school shall be distributed first to the 24151
retirement funds of employees of the school, employees of the 24152
school, and private creditors who are owed compensation, and then 24153
any remaining funds shall be paid to the department of education 24154
for redistribution to the school districts in which the students 24155
who were enrolled in the school at the time it ceased operation 24156
were entitled to attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of 24157
the Revised Code. The amount distributed to each school district 24158
shall be proportional to the district's share of the total 24159
enrollment in the community school.24160

       (B) If a community school closes and ceases to operate as a 24161
community school and the school has received computer hardware or 24162
software from the former Ohio SchoolNet commission or the former24163
eTech Ohio commission, such hardware or software shall be returned24164
turned over to the eTech Ohio commissiondepartment of education, 24165
and the eTech Ohio commissionwhich shall redistribute the 24166
hardware and software, to the extent such redistribution is 24167
possible, to school districts in conformance with the provisions 24168
of the programs operated and administered by the eTech Ohio 24169
commission.24170

       (C) If the assets of the school are insufficient to pay all 24171
persons or entities to whom compensation is owed, the 24172
prioritization of the distribution of the assets to individual 24173
persons or entities within each class of payees may be determined 24174
by decree of a court in accordance with this section and Chapter 24175
1702. of the Revised Code.24176

       Sec. 3317.06.  Moneys paid to school districts under division 24177
(E) of section 3317.024 of the Revised Code shall be used for the 24178
following independent and fully severable purposes:24179

       (A) To purchase such secular textbooks or electronic 24180
textbooks as have been approved by the superintendent of public 24181
instruction for use in public schools in the state and to loan 24182
such textbooks or electronic textbooks to pupils attending 24183
nonpublic schools within the district or to their parents and to 24184
hire clerical personnel to administer such lending program. Such 24185
loans shall be based upon individual requests submitted by such 24186
nonpublic school pupils or parents. Such requests shall be 24187
submitted to the school district in which the nonpublic school is 24188
located. Such individual requests for the loan of textbooks or 24189
electronic textbooks shall, for administrative convenience, be 24190
submitted by the nonpublic school pupil or the pupil's parent to 24191
the nonpublic school, which shall prepare and submit collective 24192
summaries of the individual requests to the school district. As 24193
used in this section:24194

       (1) "Textbook" means any book or book substitute that a pupil 24195
uses as a consumable or nonconsumable text, text substitute, or 24196
text supplement in a particular class or program in the school the 24197
pupil regularly attends.24198

       (2) "Electronic textbook" means any book or book substitute 24199
that a student accesses through the use of a computer or other 24200
electronic medium or that is available through an internet-based 24201
provider of course content, or any other material that contributes 24202
to the learning process through electronic means.24203

       (B) To provide speech and hearing diagnostic services to 24204
pupils attending nonpublic schools within the district. Such 24205
service shall be provided in the nonpublic school attended by the 24206
pupil receiving the service.24207

       (C) To provide physician, nursing, dental, and optometric 24208
services to pupils attending nonpublic schools within the 24209
district. Such services shall be provided in the school attended 24210
by the nonpublic school pupil receiving the service.24211

       (D) To provide diagnostic psychological services to pupils 24212
attending nonpublic schools within the district. Such services 24213
shall be provided in the school attended by the pupil receiving 24214
the service.24215

       (E) To provide therapeutic psychological and speech and 24216
hearing services to pupils attending nonpublic schools within the 24217
district. Such services shall be provided in the public school, in 24218
nonpublic schools, in public centers, or in mobile units located 24219
on or off of the nonpublic premises. If such services are provided 24220
in the public school or in public centers, transportation to and 24221
from such facilities shall be provided by the school district in 24222
which the nonpublic school is located.24223

       (F) To provide guidance, counseling, and social work services 24224
to pupils attending nonpublic schools within the district. Such 24225
services shall be provided in the public school, in nonpublic 24226
schools, in public centers, or in mobile units located on or off 24227
of the nonpublic premises. If such services are provided in the 24228
public school or in public centers, transportation to and from 24229
such facilities shall be provided by the school district in which 24230
the nonpublic school is located.24231

       (G) To provide remedial services to pupils attending 24232
nonpublic schools within the district. Such services shall be 24233
provided in the public school, in nonpublic schools, in public 24234
centers, or in mobile units located on or off of the nonpublic 24235
premises. If such services are provided in the public school or in 24236
public centers, transportation to and from such facilities shall 24237
be provided by the school district in which the nonpublic school 24238
is located.24239

       (H) To supply for use by pupils attending nonpublic schools 24240
within the district such standardized tests and scoring services 24241
as are in use in the public schools of the state;24242

       (I) To provide programs for children who attend nonpublic 24243
schools within the district and are children with disabilities as 24244
defined in section 3323.01 of the Revised Code or gifted children. 24245
Such programs shall be provided in the public school, in nonpublic 24246
schools, in public centers, or in mobile units located on or off 24247
of the nonpublic premises. If such programs are provided in the 24248
public school or in public centers, transportation to and from 24249
such facilities shall be provided by the school district in which 24250
the nonpublic school is located.24251

       (J) To hire clerical personnel to assist in the 24252
administration of programs pursuant to divisions (B), (C), (D), 24253
(E), (F), (G), and (I) of this section and to hire supervisory 24254
personnel to supervise the providing of services and textbooks 24255
pursuant to this section.24256

       (K) To purchase or lease any secular, neutral, and 24257
nonideological computer application software designed to assist 24258
students in performing a single task or multiple related tasks, 24259
device management software, learning management software, 24260
site-licensing, digital video on demand (DVD), wide area 24261
connectivity and related technology as it relates to internet 24262
access, mathematics or science equipment and materials, 24263
instructional materials, and school library materials that are in 24264
general use in the public schools of the state and loan such items 24265
to pupils attending nonpublic schools within the district or to 24266
their parents, and to hire clerical personnel to administer the 24267
lending program. Only such items that are incapable of diversion 24268
to religious use and that are susceptible of loan to individual 24269
pupils and are furnished for the use of individual pupils shall be 24270
purchased and loaned under this division. As used in this section, 24271
"instructional materials" means prepared learning materials that 24272
are secular, neutral, and nonideological in character and are of 24273
benefit to the instruction of school children, and may include 24274
educational resources and services developed by the eTech Ohio 24275
commission.24276

       (L) To purchase or lease instructional equipment, including 24277
computer hardware and related equipment in general use in the 24278
public schools of the state, for use by pupils attending nonpublic 24279
schools within the district and to loan such items to pupils 24280
attending nonpublic schools within the district or to their 24281
parents, and to hire clerical personnel to administer the lending 24282
program. "Computer hardware and related equipment" includes 24283
desktop computers and workstations; laptop computers, computer 24284
tablets, and other mobile handheld devices; and their operating 24285
systems and accessories.24286

       (M) To purchase mobile units to be used for the provision of 24287
services pursuant to divisions (E), (F), (G), and (I) of this 24288
section and to pay for necessary repairs and operating costs 24289
associated with these units.24290

       (N) To reimburse costs the district incurred to store the 24291
records of a chartered nonpublic school that closes. 24292
Reimbursements under this division shall be made one time only for 24293
each chartered nonpublic school that closes.24294

       (O) To purchase life-saving medical or other emergency 24295
equipment for placement in nonpublic schools within the district 24296
or to maintain such equipment.24297

       Clerical and supervisory personnel hired pursuant to division 24298
(J) of this section shall perform their services in the public 24299
schools, in nonpublic schools, public centers, or mobile units 24300
where the services are provided to the nonpublic school pupil, 24301
except that such personnel may accompany pupils to and from the 24302
service sites when necessary to ensure the safety of the children 24303
receiving the services.24304

       All services provided pursuant to this section may be 24305
provided under contract with educational service centers, the 24306
department of health, city or general health districts, or private 24307
agencies whose personnel are properly licensed by an appropriate 24308
state board or agency.24309

       Transportation of pupils provided pursuant to divisions (E), 24310
(F), (G), and (I) of this section shall be provided by the school 24311
district from its general funds and not from moneys paid to it 24312
under division (E) of section 3317.024 of the Revised Code unless 24313
a special transportation request is submitted by the parent of the 24314
child receiving service pursuant to such divisions. If such an 24315
application is presented to the school district, it may pay for 24316
the transportation from moneys paid to it under division (E) of 24317
section 3317.024 of the Revised Code.24318

       No school district shall provide health or remedial services 24319
to nonpublic school pupils as authorized by this section unless 24320
such services are available to pupils attending the public schools 24321
within the district.24322

       Materials, equipment, computer hardware or software, 24323
textbooks, electronic textbooks, and health and remedial services 24324
provided for the benefit of nonpublic school pupils pursuant to 24325
this section and the admission of pupils to such nonpublic schools 24326
shall be provided without distinction as to race, creed, color, or 24327
national origin of such pupils or of their teachers.24328

       No school district shall provide services, materials, or 24329
equipment that contain religious content for use in religious 24330
courses, devotional exercises, religious training, or any other 24331
religious activity.24332

       As used in this section, "parent" includes a person standing 24333
in loco parentis to a child.24334

       Notwithstanding section 3317.01 of the Revised Code, payments 24335
shall be made under this section to any city, local, or exempted 24336
village school district within which is located one or more 24337
nonpublic elementary or high schools and any payments made to 24338
school districts under division (E) of section 3317.024 of the 24339
Revised Code for purposes of this section may be disbursed without 24340
submission to and approval of the controlling board.24341

       The allocation of payments for materials, equipment, 24342
textbooks, electronic textbooks, health services, and remedial 24343
services to city, local, and exempted village school districts 24344
shall be on the basis of the state board of education's estimated 24345
annual average daily membership in nonpublic elementary and high 24346
schools located in the district.24347

       Payments made to city, local, and exempted village school 24348
districts under this section shall be equal to specific 24349
appropriations made for the purpose. All interest earned by a 24350
school district on such payments shall be used by the district for 24351
the same purposes and in the same manner as the payments may be 24352
used.24353

       The department of education shall adopt guidelines and 24354
procedures under which such programs and services shall be 24355
provided, under which districts shall be reimbursed for 24356
administrative costs incurred in providing such programs and 24357
services, and under which any unexpended balance of the amounts 24358
appropriated by the general assembly to implement this section may 24359
be transferred to the auxiliary services personnel unemployment 24360
compensation fund established pursuant to section 4141.47 of the 24361
Revised Code. The department shall also adopt guidelines and 24362
procedures limiting the purchase and loan of the items described 24363
in division (K) of this section to items that are in general use 24364
in the public schools of the state, that are incapable of 24365
diversion to religious use, and that are susceptible to individual 24366
use rather than classroom use. Within thirty days after the end of 24367
each biennium, each board of education shall remit to the 24368
department all moneys paid to it under division (E) of section 24369
3317.024 of the Revised Code and any interest earned on those 24370
moneys that are not required to pay expenses incurred under this 24371
section during the biennium for which the money was appropriated 24372
and during which the interest was earned. If a board of education 24373
subsequently determines that the remittal of moneys leaves the 24374
board with insufficient money to pay all valid expenses incurred 24375
under this section during the biennium for which the remitted 24376
money was appropriated, the board may apply to the department of 24377
education for a refund of money, not to exceed the amount of the 24378
insufficiency. If the department determines the expenses were 24379
lawfully incurred and would have been lawful expenditures of the 24380
refunded money, it shall certify its determination and the amount 24381
of the refund to be made to the director of job and family 24382
services who shall make a refund as provided in section 4141.47 of 24383
the Revised Code.24384

       Each school district shall label materials, equipment, 24385
computer hardware or software, textbooks, and electronic textbooks 24386
purchased or leased for loan to a nonpublic school under this 24387
section, acknowledging that they were purchased or leased with 24388
state funds under this section. However, a district need not label 24389
materials, equipment, computer hardware or software, textbooks, or 24390
electronic textbooks that the district determines are consumable 24391
in nature or have a value of less than two hundred dollars.24392

       Sec. 3317.50.  The eTech Ohio telecommunity education fund is 24393
hereby created in the state treasury. The fund shall consist of 24394
certain excess local exchange telephone company contributions 24395
transferred from the reserve fund of the Ohio telecommunications 24396
advisory board pursuant to an agreement between the public 24397
utilities commission of Ohio and the Ohio department of education. 24398
The fund shall be used by the department of education and the 24399
chancellor of the Ohio board of regents, in the amounts 24400
appropriated, to finance technology grants to state-chartered 24401
elementary and secondary schools. Investment earnings of the fund 24402
shall be credited to the fund.24403

       Sec. 3317.51.  (A) The distance learning fund is hereby 24404
created in the state treasury. The fund shall consist of moneys 24405
paid to the eTech Ohio commission by any telephone company as a 24406
part of a settlement agreement between such company and the public 24407
utilities commission in fiscal year 1995 in part to establish 24408
distance learning throughout the state. The commissionchancellor 24409
of the Ohio board of regents shall administer the fund and expend 24410
moneys from it to finance technology grants to eligible schools 24411
chartered by the state board of education to establish distance 24412
learning in those schools. Chartered schools are eligible for 24413
funds if they are within the service area of the telephone 24414
company. Investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to the 24415
fund.24416

       (B) For purposes of this section, "distance learning" means 24417
the creation of a learning environment involving a school setting 24418
and at least one other location outside of the school which allows 24419
for information available at one site to be accessed at the other 24420
through the use of such educational applications as one-way or 24421
two-way transmission of data, voice, and video, singularly or in 24422
appropriate combinations.24423

       Sec. 3318.034.  (A) This section applies to both of the 24424
following:24425

       (1) Any school district that has not executed an agreement 24426
for a project under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised 24427
Code prior to June 24, 2008;24428

       (2) Any school district that is eligible for additional 24429
assistance under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code 24430
pursuant to division (B)(2) of section 3318.04 of the Revised 24431
Code.24432

       Notwithstanding any provision of this chapter to the 24433
contrary, with the approval of the Ohio school facilities 24434
commission, any school district to which this section applies may 24435
opt to divide the district's entire classroom facilities needs, as 24436
those needs are jointly determined by the staff of the commission 24437
and the school district, into discrete segments and shall comply 24438
with all of the provisions of those sections unless otherwise 24439
provided in this section.24440

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, each 24441
segment shall comply with all of the following:24442

       (1) The segment shall consist of the new construction of one 24443
or more entire buildings or the complete renovation of one or more 24444
entire existing buildings, with any necessary additions to that 24445
building.24446

       (2) The segment shall not include any construction of or 24447
renovation or repair to any building that does not complete the 24448
needs of the district with respect to that particular building at 24449
the time the segment is completed.24450

       (3) The segment shall consist of new construction, 24451
renovations, additions, reconstruction, or repair of classroom 24452
facilities to the extent that the school district portion, as 24453
determined under section 3318.032 of the Revised Code, is an 24454
amount not less than the product of 0.040 times the district's 24455
valuation at the time the agreement for the segment is executed, 24456
unless the district previously has undertaken a segment under this 24457
section and the district's portion of the estimated basic project 24458
cost of the remainder of its entire classroom facilities needs, as 24459
determined jointly by the staff of the commission and the 24460
district, is less than the amount otherwise required by this 24461
division.24462

       (C) A district described in division (A)(2) of this section 24463
that has not received the additional assistance authorized under 24464
division (B)(2) of section 3318.04 of the Revised Code may 24465
undertake a segment, with commission approval, for the purpose of 24466
renovating or replacing work performed on a facility under the 24467
district's prior project. The commission may approve that segment 24468
if the commission determines that the renovation or replacement is 24469
necessary to protect the facility. The basic project cost of the 24470
segment shall be allocated between the state and the district in 24471
accordance with section 3318.032 of the Revised Code. However, the 24472
requirements of division (B) of this section shall not apply to a 24473
segment undertaken under this division. 24474

       (D) The commission shall conditionally approve and seek 24475
controlling board approval in accordance with division (A) of 24476
section 3318.04 of the Revised Code of each segment.24477

       (E) The school district's maintenance levy requirement, as 24478
defined in section 3318.18 of the Revised Code,(1) When 24479
undertaking a segment under this section, a school district may 24480
elect to prorate its full maintenance amount by setting aside for 24481
maintenance the amount calculated under division (E)(2) of this 24482
section to maintain the classroom facilities acquired under the 24483
segment, if the district will use one or more of the alternative 24484
methods authorized in sections 3318.051, 3318.052, and 3318.084 of 24485
the Revised Code to generate the entire amount calculated under 24486
that division. If the district so elects, the commission and the 24487
district shall include in the agreement entered into under section 24488
3318.08 of the Revised Code a statement specifying that the 24489
district will use the amount calculated under that division only 24490
to maintain the classroom facilities acquired under the segment.24491

       (2) The commission shall calculate the amount for a school 24492
district to maintain the classroom facilities acquired under a 24493
segment as follows:24494

       The full maintenance amount X (the school district's portion 24495
of the basic project cost for the segment / the school district's 24496
portion of the basic project cost for the district's entire 24497
classroom facilities needs, as determined jointly by the staff of 24498
the commission and the district)24499

       (3) A school district may elect to prorate its full 24500
maintenance amount for any number of segments, provided the 24501
district will use one or more of the alternative methods 24502
authorized in sections 3318.051, 3318.052, and 3318.084 of the 24503
Revised Code to generate the entire amount calculated under 24504
division (E)(2) of this section to maintain the classroom 24505
facilities acquired under each segment for which it so elects. If 24506
the district cannot use one or more of those alternative methods 24507
to generate the entire amount calculated under that division, the 24508
district shall levy the tax described in division (B) of section 24509
3318.05 of the Revised Code or an extension of that tax under 24510
section 3318.061 of the Revised Code in an amount necessary to 24511
generate the remainder of its full maintenance amount. The 24512
commission shall calculate the remainder of the district's full 24513
maintenance amount as follows:24514

       The full maintenance amount - the sum of the amounts 24515
calculated for the district under division (E)(2) of this section 24516
for each prior segment of the district's project24517

       (4) In no case shall the sum of the amounts calculated for a 24518
school district's maintenance of classroom facilities under 24519
divisions (E)(2) and (3) of this section exceed the amount that 24520
would have been required for maintenance if the district had 24521
elected to undertake its project in its entirety instead of 24522
segmenting the project under this section.24523

       (5) If a school district commenced a segment under this 24524
section prior to the effective date of this amendment but has not 24525
completed that segment, and has not levied the tax described in 24526
division (B) of section 3318.05 of the Revised Code or an 24527
extension of that tax under section 3318.061 of the Revised Code, 24528
the district may request approval from the commission to prorate 24529
its full maintenance amount in accordance with divisions (E)(1) to 24530
(4) of this section. If the commission approves the request, the 24531
commission and the district shall amend the agreement entered into 24532
under section 3318.08 of the Revised Code to reflect the change.24533

       (F) If a school district levies the tax described in division 24534
(B) of section 3318.05 of the Revised Code or an extension of that 24535
tax under section 3318.061 of the Revised Code, the tax shall run 24536
for twenty-three years from the date the first segment for which 24537
the tax is initially levied is undertaken; however, the. The24538
maintenance levy requirement, as defined in section 3318.18 of the 24539
Revised Code, does not apply to a segment undertaken under 24540
division (C) of this section.24541

       (G) As used in this section, "full maintenance amount" means 24542
the amount of total revenue that a school district likely would 24543
generate by one-half mill of the tax described in division (B) of 24544
section 3318.05 of the Revised Code over the entire 24545
twenty-three-year period required under that section, as 24546
determined by the commission in consultation with the department 24547
of taxation.24548

       Sec. 3318.08.  Except in the case of a joint vocational 24549
school district that receives assistance under sections 3318.40 to 24550
3318.45 of the Revised Code, if the requisite favorable vote on 24551
the election is obtained, or if the school district board has 24552
resolved to apply the proceeds of a property tax levy or the 24553
proceeds of an income tax, or a combination of proceeds from such 24554
taxes, as authorized in section 3318.052 of the Revised Code, the 24555
Ohio school facilities commission, upon certification to it of 24556
either the results of the election or the resolution under section 24557
3318.052 of the Revised Code, shall enter into a written agreement 24558
with the school district board for the construction and sale of 24559
the project. In the case of a joint vocational school district 24560
that receives assistance under sections 3318.40 to 3318.45 of the 24561
Revised Code, if the school district board of education and the 24562
school district electors have satisfied the conditions prescribed 24563
in division (D)(1) of section 3318.41 of the Revised Code, the 24564
commission shall enter into an agreement with the school district 24565
board for the construction and sale of the project. In either 24566
case, the agreement shall include, but need not be limited to, the 24567
following provisions:24568

       (A) The sale and issuance of bonds or notes in anticipation 24569
thereof, as soon as practicable after the execution of the 24570
agreement, in an amount equal to the school district's portion of 24571
the basic project cost, including any securities authorized under 24572
division (J) of section 133.06 of the Revised Code and dedicated 24573
by the school district board to payment of the district's portion 24574
of the basic project cost of the project; provided, that if at 24575
that time the county treasurer of each county in which the school 24576
district is located has not commenced the collection of taxes on 24577
the general duplicate of real and public utility property for the 24578
year in which the controlling board approved the project, the 24579
school district board shall authorize the issuance of a first 24580
installment of bond anticipation notes in an amount specified by 24581
the agreement, which amount shall not exceed an amount necessary 24582
to raise the net bonded indebtedness of the school district as of 24583
the date of the controlling board's approval to within five 24584
thousand dollars of the required level of indebtedness for the 24585
preceding year. In the event that a first installment of bond 24586
anticipation notes is issued, the school district board shall, as 24587
soon as practicable after the county treasurer of each county in 24588
which the school district is located has commenced the collection 24589
of taxes on the general duplicate of real and public utility 24590
property for the year in which the controlling board approved the 24591
project, authorize the issuance of a second and final installment 24592
of bond anticipation notes or a first and final issue of bonds.24593

       The combined value of the first and second installment of 24594
bond anticipation notes or the value of the first and final issue 24595
of bonds shall be equal to the school district's portion of the 24596
basic project cost. The proceeds of any such bonds shall be used 24597
first to retire any bond anticipation notes. Otherwise, the 24598
proceeds of such bonds and of any bond anticipation notes, except 24599
the premium and accrued interest thereon, shall be deposited in 24600
the school district's project construction fund. In determining 24601
the amount of net bonded indebtedness for the purpose of fixing 24602
the amount of an issue of either bonds or bond anticipation notes, 24603
gross indebtedness shall be reduced by moneys in the bond 24604
retirement fund only to the extent of the moneys therein on the 24605
first day of the year preceding the year in which the controlling 24606
board approved the project. Should there be a decrease in the tax 24607
valuation of the school district so that the amount of 24608
indebtedness that can be incurred on the tax duplicates for the 24609
year in which the controlling board approved the project is less 24610
than the amount of the first installment of bond anticipation 24611
notes, there shall be paid from the school district's project 24612
construction fund to the school district's bond retirement fund to 24613
be applied against such notes an amount sufficient to cause the 24614
net bonded indebtedness of the school district, as of the first 24615
day of the year following the year in which the controlling board 24616
approved the project, to be within five thousand dollars of the 24617
required level of indebtedness for the year in which the 24618
controlling board approved the project. The maximum amount of 24619
indebtedness to be incurred by any school district board as its 24620
share of the cost of the project is either an amount that will 24621
cause its net bonded indebtedness, as of the first day of the year 24622
following the year in which the controlling board approved the 24623
project, to be within five thousand dollars of the required level 24624
of indebtedness, or an amount equal to the required percentage of 24625
the basic project costs, whichever is greater. All bonds and bond 24626
anticipation notes shall be issued in accordance with Chapter 133. 24627
of the Revised Code, and notes may be renewed as provided in 24628
section 133.22 of the Revised Code.24629

       (B) The transfer of such funds of the school district board 24630
available for the project, together with the proceeds of the sale 24631
of the bonds or notes, except premium, accrued interest, and 24632
interest included in the amount of the issue, to the school 24633
district's project construction fund;24634

       (C) For all school districts except joint vocational school 24635
districts that receive assistance under sections 3318.40 to 24636
3318.45 of the Revised Code, the following provisions as 24637
applicable:24638

       (1) If section 3318.052 of the Revised Code applies, the 24639
earmarking of the proceeds of a tax levied under section 5705.21 24640
of the Revised Code for general permanent improvements or under 24641
section 5705.218 of the Revised Code for the purpose of permanent 24642
improvements, or the proceeds of a school district income tax 24643
levied under Chapter 5748. of the Revised Code, or the proceeds 24644
from a combination of those two taxes, in an amount to pay all or 24645
part of the service charges on bonds issued to pay the school 24646
district portion of the project and an amount equivalent to all or 24647
part of the tax required under division (B) of section 3318.05 of 24648
the Revised Code;24649

       (2) If section 3318.052 of the Revised Code does not apply, 24650
one of the following:24651

       (a) The levy of the tax authorized at the election for the 24652
payment of maintenance costs, as specified in division (B) of 24653
section 3318.05 of the Revised Code;24654

       (b) If the school district electors have approved a 24655
continuing tax for general permanent improvements under section 24656
5705.21 of the Revised Code and that tax can be used for 24657
maintenance, the earmarking of an amount of the proceeds from such 24658
tax for maintenance of classroom facilities as specified in 24659
division (B) of section 3318.05 of the Revised Code;24660

       (c) If, in lieu of the tax otherwise required under division 24661
(B) of section 3318.05 of the Revised Code, the commission has 24662
approved the transfer of money to the maintenance fund in 24663
accordance with section 3318.051 of the Revised Code, a 24664
requirement that the district board comply with the provisions 24665
that section. The district board may rescind the provision 24666
prescribed under division (C)(2)(c) of this section only so long 24667
as the electors of the district have approved, in accordance with 24668
section 3318.063 of the Revised Code, the levy of a tax for the 24669
maintenance of the classroom facilities acquired under the 24670
district's project and that levy continues to be collected as 24671
approved by the electors.24672

       (D) For joint vocational school districts that receive 24673
assistance under sections 3318.40 to 3318.45 of the Revised Code, 24674
provision for deposit of school district moneys dedicated to 24675
maintenance of the classroom facilities acquired under those 24676
sections as prescribed in section 3318.43 of the Revised Code;24677

       (E) Dedication of any local donated contribution as provided 24678
for under section 3318.084 of the Revised Code, including a 24679
schedule for depositing such moneys applied as an offset of the 24680
district's obligation to levy the tax described in division (B) of 24681
section 3318.05 of the Revised Code as required under division 24682
(D)(2) of section 3318.084 of the Revised Code;24683

       (F) Ownership of or interest in the project during the period 24684
of construction, which shall be divided between the commission and 24685
the school district board in proportion to their respective 24686
contributions to the school district's project construction fund;24687

       (G) Maintenance of the state's interest in the project until 24688
any obligations issued for the project under section 3318.26 of 24689
the Revised Code are no longer outstanding;24690

       (H) The insurance of the project by the school district from 24691
the time there is an insurable interest therein and so long as the 24692
state retains any ownership or interest in the project pursuant to 24693
division (F) of this section, in such amounts and against such 24694
risks as the commission shall require; provided, that the cost of 24695
any required insurance until the project is completed shall be a 24696
part of the basic project cost;24697

       (I) The certification by the director of budget and 24698
management that funds are available and have been set aside to 24699
meet the state's share of the basic project cost as approved by 24700
the controlling board pursuant to either section 3318.04 or 24701
division (B)(1) of section 3318.41 of the Revised Code;24702

       (J) Authorization of the school district board to advertise 24703
for and receive construction bids for the project, for and on 24704
behalf of the commission, and to award contracts in the name of 24705
the state subject to approval by the commission;24706

       (K) Provisions for the disbursement of moneys from the school 24707
district's project account upon issuance by the commission or the 24708
commission's designated representative of vouchers for work done 24709
to be certified to the commission by the treasurer of the school 24710
district board;24711

       (L) Disposal of any balance left in the school district's 24712
project construction fund upon completion of the project;24713

       (M) Limitations upon use of the project or any part of it so 24714
long as any obligations issued to finance the project under 24715
section 3318.26 of the Revised Code are outstanding;24716

       (N) Provision for vesting the state's interest in the project 24717
to the school district board when the obligations issued to 24718
finance the project under section 3318.26 of the Revised Code are 24719
outstanding;24720

       (O) Provision for deposit of an executed copy of the 24721
agreement in the office of the commission;24722

       (P) Provision for termination of the contract and release of 24723
the funds encumbered at the time of the conditional approval, if 24724
the proceeds of the sale of the bonds of the school district board 24725
are not paid into the school district's project construction fund 24726
and if bids for the construction of the project have not been 24727
taken within such period after the execution of the agreement as 24728
may be fixed by the commission;24729

       (Q) Provision for the school district to maintain the project 24730
in accordance with a plan approved by the commission and to comply 24731
with the plan;24732

       (R) Provision that all state funds reserved and encumbered to 24733
pay the state share of the cost of the project and the funds 24734
provided by the school district to pay for its share of the 24735
project cost, including the respective shares of the cost of a 24736
segment if the project is divided into segments, be spent on the 24737
construction and acquisition of the project or segment 24738
simultaneously in proportion to the state's and the school 24739
district's respective shares of that basic project cost as 24740
determined under section 3318.032 of the Revised Code or, if the 24741
district is a joint vocational school district, under section 24742
3318.42 of the Revised Code. However, if the school district 24743
certifies to the commission that expenditure by the school 24744
district is necessary to maintain the federal tax status or 24745
tax-exempt status of notes or bonds issued by the school district 24746
to pay for its share of the project cost or to comply with 24747
applicable temporary investment periods or spending exceptions to 24748
rebate as provided for under federal law in regard to those notes 24749
or bonds, the school district may commit to spend, or spend, a 24750
greater portion of the funds it provides during any specific 24751
period than would otherwise be required under this division.24752

       (S) A provision stipulating that the commission may prohibit 24753
the district from proceeding with any project if the commission 24754
determines that the site is not suitable for construction 24755
purposes. The commission may perform soil tests in its 24756
determination of whether a site is appropriate for construction 24757
purposes.24758

       (T) A provision stipulating that, unless otherwise authorized 24759
by the commission, any contingency reserve portion of the 24760
construction budget prescribed by the commission shall be used 24761
only to pay costs resulting from unforeseen job conditions, to 24762
comply with rulings regarding building and other codes, to pay 24763
costs related to design clarifications or corrections to contract 24764
documents, and to pay the costs of settlements or judgments 24765
related to the project as provided under section 3318.086 of the 24766
Revised Code;24767

       (U) Provision stipulating that for continued release of 24768
project funds the school district board shall comply with section 24769
3313.41 of the Revised Code throughout the project and shall 24770
notify the department of education and the Ohio community school 24771
association when the board plans to dispose of facilities by sale 24772
under that section;24773

       (V) Provision that the commission shall not approve a 24774
contract for demolition of a facility until the school district 24775
board has complied with section 3313.41 of the Revised Code 24776
relative to that facility, unless demolition of that facility is 24777
to clear a site for construction of a replacement facility 24778
included in the district's project.24779

       Sec. 3318.10.  When such working drawings, specifications, 24780
and estimates of cost have been approved by the school district 24781
board and the Ohio school facilities commission, the treasurer of 24782
the school district board shall advertise for construction bids in 24783
accordance with section 3313.46 of the Revised Code. Such notices 24784
shall state that plans and specifications for the project are on 24785
file in the office of the commission and such other place as may 24786
be designated in such notice, and the time and place when and 24787
where bids therefor will be received.24788

       The form of proposal to be submitted by bidders shall be 24789
supplied by the commission. Bidders may be permitted to bid upon 24790
all the branches of work and materials to be furnished and 24791
supplied, upon any branch thereof, or upon all or any thereof.24792

       When the construction bids for all branches of work and 24793
materials have been tabulated, the commission shall cause to be 24794
prepared a revised estimate of the basic project cost based upon 24795
the lowest responsible bids received. If such revised estimate 24796
exceeds the estimated basic project cost as approved by the 24797
controlling board pursuant to section 3318.04 or division (B)(1) 24798
of section 3318.41 of the Revised Code, no contracts may be 24799
entered into pursuant to this section unless such revised estimate 24800
is approved by the commission and by the controlling board. When 24801
such revised estimate has been prepared, and after such approvals 24802
are given, if necessary, and if the school district board has 24803
caused to be transferred to the project construction fund the 24804
proceeds from the sale of the first or first and final installment 24805
of its bonds or bond anticipation notes pursuant to the provision 24806
of the written agreement required by division (B) of section 24807
3318.08 of the Revised Code, and when the director of budget and 24808
management has certified that there is a balance in the 24809
appropriation, not otherwise obligated to pay precedent 24810
obligations, pursuant to which the state's share of such revised 24811
estimate is required to be paid, the contract for all branches of 24812
work and materials to be furnished and supplied, or for any branch 24813
thereof as determined by the school district board, shall be 24814
awarded by the school district board to the lowest responsible 24815
bidder subject to the approval of the commission. Such award shall 24816
be made within sixty days after the date on which the bids are 24817
opened, and the successful bidder shall enter into a contract 24818
within ten days after the successful bidder is notified of the 24819
award of the contract.24820

       Subject to the approval of the commission, the school 24821
district board may reject all bids and readvertise. Any contract 24822
made under this section shall be made in the name of the state and 24823
executed on its behalf by the president and treasurer of the 24824
school district board.24825

       The provisions of sections 9.312 and 3313.46 of the Revised 24826
Code, which are applicable to construction contracts of boards of 24827
education, shall apply to construction contracts for the project.24828

       The remedies afforded to any subcontractor, materials 24829
supplier, laborer, mechanic, or persons furnishing material or 24830
machinery for the project under sections 1311.26 to 1311.32 of the 24831
Revised Code, shall apply to contracts entered into under this 24832
section and the itemized statement required by section 1311.26 of 24833
the Revised Code shall be filed with the school district board.24834

       Notwithstanding any other requirement of this section, a 24835
school district, with the approval of the commission, may utilize 24836
any otherwise lawful alternative construction delivery method for 24837
the construction of the project.24838

       Sec. 3318.30.  (A) There is hereby created the Ohio school 24839
facilities commission as an independent agency of the state within 24840
the Ohio facilities construction commission, which is created 24841
under section 123.20 of the Revised Code. The Ohio school 24842
facilities commission shall administer the provision of financial 24843
assistance to school districts for the acquisition or construction 24844
of classroom facilities in accordance with sections 3318.01 to 24845
3318.33 of the Revised Code.24846

       The Ohio school facilities commission is a body corporate and 24847
politic, an agency of state government and an instrumentality of 24848
the state, performing essential governmental functions of this 24849
state. The carrying out of the purposes and the exercise by the 24850
Ohio school facilities commission of its powers conferred by 24851
sections 3318.01 to 3318.33 of the Revised Code are essential 24852
public functions and public purposes of the state. The Ohio school 24853
facilities commission may, in its own name, sue and be sued, enter 24854
into contracts, and perform all the powers and duties given to it 24855
by sections 3318.01 to 3318.33 of the Revised Code, but it does 24856
not have and shall not exercise the power of eminent domain. In 24857
its discretion and as it determines appropriate, the Ohio school 24858
facilities commission may delegate to any of its members, 24859
executive director, or other employees any of the Ohio school 24860
facilities commission's powers and duties to carry out its 24861
functions.24862

       (B) The Ohio school facilities commission shall consist of 24863
seven members, three of whom are voting members. The voting 24864
members of the Ohio school facilities commission shall be the 24865
director of the office of budget and management, the director of 24866
administrative services, and the superintendent of public 24867
instruction, or their designees. Of the nonvoting members, two 24868
shall be members of the senate appointed by the president of the 24869
senate, and two shall be members of the house of representatives 24870
appointed by the speaker of the house. Each of the appointees of 24871
the president, and each of the appointees of the speaker, shall be 24872
members of different political parties.24873

       Nonvoting members shall serve as members of the Ohio school 24874
facilities commission during the legislative biennium for which 24875
they are appointed, except that any such member who ceases to be a 24876
member of the legislative house from which the member was 24877
appointed shall cease to be a member of the Ohio school facilities24878
commission. Each nonvoting member shall be appointed within 24879
thirty-one days of the end of the term of that member's 24880
predecessor. Such members may be reappointed. Vacancies of 24881
nonvoting members shall be filled in the manner provided for 24882
original appointments.24883

       Members of the Ohio school facilities commission shall serve 24884
without compensation.24885

       After the initial nonvoting members of the Ohio school 24886
facilities commission have been appointed, the Ohio school 24887
facilities commission shall meet and organize by electing voting 24888
members as the chairperson and vice-chairperson of the Ohio school 24889
facilities commission, who shall hold their offices until the next 24890
organizational meeting of the Ohio school facilities commission. 24891
Organizational meetings of the Ohio school facilities commission 24892
shall be held at the first meeting of each calendar year. At each 24893
organizational meeting, the Ohio school facilities commission 24894
shall elect from among its voting members a chairperson and 24895
vice-chairperson, who shall serve until the next annual 24896
organizational meeting. The Ohio school facilities commission 24897
shall adopt rules pursuant to section 111.15 of the Revised Code 24898
for the conduct of its internal business and shall keep a journal 24899
of its proceedings. Including the organizational meeting, the Ohio 24900
school facilities commission shall meet at least once each 24901
calendar quarter.24902

       Two voting members of the Ohio school facilities commission 24903
constitute a quorum, and the affirmative vote of two members is 24904
necessary for approval of any action taken by the Ohio school 24905
facilities commission. A vacancy in the membership of the Ohio 24906
school facilities commission does not impair a quorum from 24907
exercising all the rights and performing all the duties of the 24908
Ohio school facilities commission. Meetings of the Ohio school 24909
facilities commission may be held anywhere in the state and shall 24910
be held in compliance with section 121.22 of the Revised Code.24911

       (C) The Ohio school facilities commission shall file an 24912
annual report of its activities and finances with the governor, 24913
speaker of the house of representatives, president of the senate, 24914
and chairpersons of the house and senate finance committees.24915

       (D) The Ohio school facilities commission shall be exempt 24916
from the requirements of sections 101.82 to 101.87 of the Revised 24917
Code.24918

       (E) The Ohio school facilities commission may share employees 24919
and facilities with the Ohio facilities construction commission.24920

       Sec. 3318.31.  (A) The Ohio school facilities commission may 24921
perform any act and ensure the performance of any function 24922
necessary or appropriate to carry out the purposes of, and 24923
exercise the powers granted under, Chapter 3318. of the Revised 24924
Code, including any of the following:24925

       (1) Adopt, amend, and rescind, pursuant to section 111.15 of 24926
the Revised Code, rules for the administration of programs 24927
authorized under Chapter 3318. of the Revised Code.24928

       (2) Contract with, retain the services of, or designate, and 24929
fix the compensation of, such agents, accountants, consultants, 24930
advisers, and other independent contractors as may be necessary or 24931
desirable to carry out the programs authorized under Chapter 3318. 24932
of the Revised Code, or authorize the executive director to 24933
perform such powers and duties.24934

       (3) Receive and accept any gifts, grants, donations, and 24935
pledges, and receipts therefrom, to be used for the programs 24936
authorized under Chapter 3318. of the Revised Code.24937

       (4) Make and enter into all contracts, commitments, and 24938
agreements, and execute all instruments, necessary or incidental 24939
to the performance of its duties and the execution of its rights 24940
and powers under Chapter 3318. of the Revised Code, or authorize 24941
the executive director to perform such powers and duties.24942

       (5) Request the director of administrative servicesOhio 24943
facilities construction commission to debar a contractor as 24944
provided in section 153.02 of the Revised Code.24945

       (B) The Ohio school facilities commission shall appoint and 24946
fix the compensation of an executive director who shall serve at 24947
the pleasure of the Ohio school facilities commission. The 24948
executive director shall exercise all powers that the Ohio school 24949
facilities commission possesses, supervise the operations of the 24950
Ohio school facilities commission and perform such other duties as 24951
delegated by the Ohio school facilities commission. The executive 24952
director also shall employ and fix the compensation of such 24953
employees as will facilitate the activities and purposes of the 24954
Ohio school facilities commission, who shall serve at the pleasure 24955
of the executive director. The employees of the Ohio school 24956
facilities commission shall be exempt from Chapter 4117. of the 24957
Revised Code and shall not be public employees as defined in 24958
section 4117.01 of the Revised Code.24959

       (C) The Ohio school facilities commission may adopt, amend, 24960
and rescind rules pertaining to the administration of the 24961
construction of school facilities of the state under Chapter 119. 24962
of the Revised Code.24963

       (D) The attorney general shall serve as the legal 24964
representative for the Ohio school facilities commission and may 24965
appoint other counsel as necessary for that purpose in accordance 24966
with section 109.07 of the Revised Code.24967

       Sec. 3318.36.  (A)(1) As used in this section:24968

       (a) "Ohio school facilities commission," "classroom 24969
facilities," "school district," "school district board," "net 24970
bonded indebtedness," "required percentage of the basic project 24971
costs," "basic project cost," "valuation," and "percentile" have 24972
the same meanings as in section 3318.01 of the Revised Code.24973

       (b) "Required level of indebtedness" means five per cent of 24974
the school district's valuation for the year preceding the year in 24975
which the commission and school district enter into an agreement 24976
under division (B) of this section, plus [two one-hundredths of 24977
one per cent multiplied by (the percentile in which the district 24978
ranks minus one)].24979

       (c) "Local resources" means any moneys generated in any 24980
manner permitted for a school district board to raise the school 24981
district portion of a project undertaken with assistance under 24982
sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code.24983

       (d) "Tangible personal property phase-out impacted district" 24984
means a school district for which the taxable value of its 24985
tangible personal property certified under division (A)(2) of 24986
section 3317.021 of the Revised Code for tax year 2005, excluding 24987
the taxable value of public utility personal property, made up 24988
eighteen per cent or more of its total taxable value for tax year 24989
2005 as certified under that section.24990

       (2) For purposes of determining the required level of 24991
indebtedness, the required percentage of the basic project costs 24992
under division (C)(1) of this section, and priority for assistance 24993
under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code, the 24994
percentile ranking of a school district with which the commission 24995
has entered into an agreement under this section between the first 24996
day of July and the thirty-first day of August in each fiscal year 24997
is the percentile ranking calculated for that district for the 24998
immediately preceding fiscal year, and the percentile ranking of a 24999
school district with which the commission has entered into such 25000
agreement between the first day of September and the thirtieth day 25001
of June in each fiscal year is the percentile ranking calculated 25002
for that district for the current fiscal year. However, in the 25003
case of a tangible personal property phase-out impacted district, 25004
the district's priority for assistance under sections 3318.01 to 25005
3318.20 of the Revised Code and its portion of the basic project 25006
cost under those sections shall be determined in the manner 25007
prescribed, respectively, in divisions (B)(3)(b) and (E)(1)(b) of 25008
this section. 25009

       (B)(1) There is hereby established the school building 25010
assistance expedited local partnership program. Under the program, 25011
the Ohio school facilities commission may enter into an agreement 25012
with the school district board of any school district under which 25013
the school district board may proceed with the new construction or 25014
major repairs of a part of the school district's classroom 25015
facilities needs, as determined under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 25016
of the Revised Code, through the expenditure of local resources 25017
prior to the school district's eligibility for state assistance 25018
under those sections and may apply that expenditure toward meeting 25019
the school district's portion of the basic project cost of the 25020
total of the school district's classroom facilities needs, as 25021
determined under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code 25022
and as recalculated under division (E) of this section, that are 25023
eligible for state assistance under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of 25024
the Revised Code when the school district becomes eligible for 25025
that assistance. Any school district that is reasonably expected 25026
to receive assistance under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the 25027
Revised Code within two fiscal years from the date the school 25028
district adopts its resolution under division (B) of this section 25029
shall not be eligible to participate in the program established 25030
under this section.25031

       (2) To participate in the program, a school district board 25032
shall first adopt a resolution certifying to the commission the 25033
board's intent to participate in the program.25034

       The resolution shall specify the approximate date that the 25035
board intends to seek elector approval of any bond or tax measures 25036
or to apply other local resources to use to pay the cost of 25037
classroom facilities to be constructed under this section. The 25038
resolution may specify the application of local resources or 25039
elector-approved bond or tax measures after the resolution is 25040
adopted by the board, and in such case the board may proceed with 25041
a discrete portion of its project under this section as soon as 25042
the commission and the controlling board have approved the basic 25043
project cost of the district's classroom facilities needs as 25044
specified in division (D) of this section. The board shall submit 25045
its resolution to the commission not later than ten days after the 25046
date the resolution is adopted by the board.25047

       The commission shall not consider any resolution that is 25048
submitted pursuant to division (B)(2) of this section, as amended 25049
by this amendment, sooner than September 14, 2000.25050

       (3) For purposes of determining when a district that enters 25051
into an agreement under this section becomes eligible for 25052
assistance under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code, 25053
the commission shall use one of the following as applicable:25054

       (a) Except for a tangible personal property phase-out 25055
impacted district, the district's percentile ranking determined at 25056
the time the district entered into the agreement under this 25057
section, as prescribed by division (A)(2) of this section;25058

       (b) For a tangible personal property phase-out impacted 25059
district, the lesser of (i) the district's percentile ranking 25060
determined at the time the district entered into the agreement 25061
under this section, as prescribed by division (A)(2) of this 25062
section, or (ii) the district's current percentile ranking under 25063
section 3318.011 of the Revised Code.25064

       (4) Any project under this section shall comply with section 25065
3318.03 of the Revised Code and with any specifications for plans 25066
and materials for classroom facilities adopted by the commission 25067
under section 3318.04 of the Revised Code.25068

       (5) If a school district that enters into an agreement under 25069
this section has not begun a project applying local resources as 25070
provided for under that agreement at the time the district is 25071
notified by the commission that it is eligible to receive state 25072
assistance under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code, 25073
all assessment and agreement documents entered into under this 25074
section are void.25075

       (6) Only construction of or repairs to classroom facilities 25076
that have been approved by the commission and have been therefore 25077
included as part of a district's basic project cost qualify for 25078
application of local resources under this section.25079

       (C) Based on the results of on-site visits and assessment, 25080
the commission shall determine the basic project cost of the 25081
school district's classroom facilities needs. The commission shall 25082
determine the school district's portion of such basic project 25083
cost, which shall be the greater of:25084

       (1) The required percentage of the basic project costs, 25085
determined based on the school district's percentile ranking;25086

       (2) An amount necessary to raise the school district's net 25087
bonded indebtedness, as of the fiscal year the commission and the 25088
school district enter into the agreement under division (B) of 25089
this section, to within five thousand dollars of the required 25090
level of indebtedness.25091

       (D)(1) When the commission determines the basic project cost 25092
of the classroom facilities needs of a school district and the 25093
school district's portion of that basic project cost under 25094
division (C) of this section, the project shall be conditionally 25095
approved. Such conditional approval shall be submitted to the 25096
controlling board for approval thereof. The controlling board 25097
shall forthwith approve or reject the commission's determination, 25098
conditional approval, and the amount of the state's portion of the 25099
basic project cost; however, no state funds shall be encumbered 25100
under this section. Upon approval by the controlling board, the 25101
school district board may identify a discrete part of its 25102
classroom facilities needs, which shall include only new 25103
construction of or additions or major repairs to a particular 25104
building, to address with local resources. Upon identifying a part 25105
of the school district's basic project cost to address with local 25106
resources, the school district board may allocate any available 25107
school district moneys to pay the cost of that identified part, 25108
including the proceeds of an issuance of bonds if approved by the 25109
electors of the school district.25110

       All local resources utilized under this division shall first 25111
be deposited in the project construction account required under 25112
section 3318.08 of the Revised Code.25113

       (2) Unless the school district board exercises its option 25114
under division (D)(3) of this section, for a school district to 25115
qualify for participation in the program authorized under this 25116
section, one of the following conditions shall be satisfied:25117

       (a) The electors of the school district by a majority vote 25118
shall approve the levy of taxes outside the ten-mill limitation 25119
for a period of twenty-three years at the rate of not less than 25120
one-half mill for each dollar of valuation to be used to pay the 25121
cost of maintaining the classroom facilities included in the basic 25122
project cost as determined by the commission. The form of the 25123
ballot to be used to submit the question whether to approve the 25124
tax required under this division to the electors of the school 25125
district shall be the form for an additional levy of taxes 25126
prescribed in section 3318.361 of the Revised Code, which may be 25127
combined in a single ballot question with the questions prescribed 25128
under section 5705.218 of the Revised Code.25129

       (b) As authorized under division (C) of section 3318.05 of 25130
the Revised Code, the school district board shall earmark from the 25131
proceeds of a permanent improvement tax levied under section 25132
5705.21 of the Revised Code, an amount equivalent to the 25133
additional tax otherwise required under division (D)(2)(a) of this 25134
section for the maintenance of the classroom facilities included 25135
in the basic project cost as determined by the commission.25136

       (c) As authorized under section 3318.051 of the Revised Code, 25137
the school district board shall, if approved by the commission, 25138
annually transfer into the maintenance fund required under section 25139
3318.05 of the Revised Code the amount prescribed in section 25140
3318.051 of the Revised Code in lieu of the tax otherwise required 25141
under division (D)(2)(a) of this section for the maintenance of 25142
the classroom facilities included in the basic project cost as 25143
determined by the commission.25144

        (d) If the school district board has rescinded the agreement 25145
to make transfers under section 3318.051 of the Revised Code, as 25146
provided under division (F) of that section, the electors of the 25147
school district, in accordance with section 3318.063 of the 25148
Revised Code, first shall approve the levy of taxes outside the 25149
ten-mill limitation for the period specified in that section at a 25150
rate of not less than one-half mill for each dollar of valuation.25151

       (e) The school district board shall apply the proceeds of a 25152
tax to leverage bonds as authorized under section 3318.052 of the 25153
Revised Code or dedicate a local donated contribution in the 25154
manner described in division (B) of section 3318.084 of the 25155
Revised Code in an amount equivalent to the additional tax 25156
otherwise required under division (D)(2)(a) of this section for 25157
the maintenance of the classroom facilities included in the basic 25158
project cost as determined by the commission.25159

       (3) A school district board may opt to delay taking any of 25160
the actions described in division (D)(2) of this section until the 25161
school district becomes eligible for state assistance under 25162
sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code. In order to 25163
exercise this option, the board shall certify to the commission a 25164
resolution indicating the board's intent to do so prior to 25165
entering into an agreement under division (B) of this section.25166

       (4) If pursuant to division (D)(3) of this section a district 25167
board opts to delay levying an additional tax until the district 25168
becomes eligible for state assistance, it shall submit the 25169
question of levying that tax to the district electors as follows:25170

       (a) In accordance with section 3318.06 of the Revised Code if 25171
it will also be necessary pursuant to division (E) of this section 25172
to submit a proposal for approval of a bond issue;25173

       (b) In accordance with section 3318.361 of the Revised Code 25174
if it is not necessary to also submit a proposal for approval of a 25175
bond issue pursuant to division (E) of this section.25176

       (5) No state assistance under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of 25177
the Revised Code shall be released until a school district board 25178
that adopts and certifies a resolution under division (D) of this 25179
section also demonstrates to the satisfaction of the commission 25180
compliance with the provisions of division (D)(2) of this section.25181

       Any amount required for maintenance under division (D)(2) of 25182
this section shall be deposited into a separate fund as specified 25183
in division (B) of section 3318.05 of the Revised Code.25184

       (E)(1) If the school district becomes eligible for state 25185
assistance under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code 25186
based on its percentile ranking under division (B)(3) of this 25187
section, the commission shall conduct a new assessment of the 25188
school district's classroom facilities needs and shall recalculate 25189
the basic project cost based on this new assessment. The basic 25190
project cost recalculated under this division shall include the 25191
amount of expenditures made by the school district board under 25192
division (D)(1) of this section. The commission shall then 25193
recalculate the school district's portion of the new basic project 25194
cost, which shall be one of the following as applicable:25195

       (a) Except for a tangible personal property phase-out 25196
impacted district, the percentage of the original basic project 25197
cost assigned to the school district as its portion under division 25198
(C) of this section;25199

       (b) For a tangible personal property phase-out impacted 25200
district, the lesser of (i) the percentage of the original basic 25201
project cost assigned to the school district as its portion under 25202
division (C) of this section, or (ii) the percentage of the new 25203
basic project cost determined under section 3318.032 of the 25204
Revised Code using the district's current percentile ranking under 25205
section 3318.011 of the Revised Code. The25206

       The commission shall deduct the expenditure of school 25207
district moneys made under division (D)(1) of this section from 25208
the school district's portion of the basic project cost as 25209
recalculated under this division. If the amount of school district 25210
resources applied by the school district board to the school 25211
district's portion of the basic project cost under this section is 25212
less than the total amount of such portion as recalculated under 25213
this division, the school district board by a majority vote of all 25214
of its members shall, if it desires to seek state assistance under 25215
sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code, adopt a 25216
resolution as specified in section 3318.06 of the Revised Code to 25217
submit to the electors of the school district the question of 25218
approval of a bond issue in order to pay any additional amount of 25219
school district portion required for state assistance. Any tax 25220
levy approved under division (D) of this section satisfies the 25221
requirements to levy the additional tax under section 3318.06 of 25222
the Revised Code.25223

       (2) If the amount of school district resources applied by the 25224
school district board to the school district's portion of the 25225
basic project cost under this section is more than the total 25226
amount of such portion as recalculated under this division (E)(1) 25227
of this section, within one year after the school district's 25228
portion is so recalculated under division (E)(1) of this section25229
the commission may grant to the school district the difference 25230
between the two calculated portions, but at no time shall the 25231
commission expend any state funds on a project in an amount 25232
greater than the state's portion of the basic project cost as 25233
recalculated under this division (E)(1) of this section.25234

       Any reimbursement under this division shall be only for local 25235
resources the school district has applied toward construction cost 25236
expenditures for the classroom facilities approved by the 25237
commission, which shall not include any financing costs associated 25238
with that construction.25239

       The school district board shall use any moneys reimbursed to 25240
the district under this division to pay off any debt service the 25241
district owes for classroom facilities constructed under its 25242
project under this section before such moneys are applied to any 25243
other purpose. However, the district board first may deposit 25244
moneys reimbursed under this division into the district's general 25245
fund or a permanent improvement fund to replace local resources 25246
the district withdrew from those funds, as long as, and to the 25247
extent that, those local resources were used by the district for 25248
constructing classroom facilities included in the district's basic 25249
project cost.25250

       (3) A tangible personal property phase-out impacted district 25251
shall receive credit under division (E) of this section for the 25252
expenditure of local resources pursuant to any prior agreement 25253
authorized by this section, notwithstanding any recalculation of 25254
its average taxable value.25255

       Sec. 3318.37.  (A)(1) As used in this section:25256

       (a) "Full maintenance amount" has the same meaning as in 25257
section 3318.034 of the Revised Code.25258

       (b) "Large land area school district" means a school district 25259
with a territory of greater than three hundred square miles in any 25260
percentile as determined under section 3318.011 of the Revised 25261
Code.25262

       (b)(c) "Low wealth school district" means a school district 25263
in the first through seventy-fifth percentiles as determined under 25264
section 3318.011 of the Revised Code.25265

       (c)(d) A "school district with an exceptional need for 25266
immediate classroom facilities assistance" means a low wealth or 25267
large land area school district with an exceptional need for new 25268
facilities in order to protect the health and safety of all or a 25269
portion of its students.25270

       (2) No school district that participates in the school 25271
building assistance expedited local partnership program under 25272
section 3318.36 of the Revised Code shall receive assistance under 25273
the program established under this section unless the following 25274
conditions are satisfied:25275

       (a) The district board adopted a resolution certifying its 25276
intent to participate in the school building assistance expedited 25277
local partnership program under section 3318.36 of the Revised 25278
Code prior to September 14, 2000.25279

       (b) The district was selected by the Ohio school facilities 25280
commission for participation in the school building assistance 25281
expedited local partnership program under section 3318.36 of the 25282
Revised Code in the manner prescribed by the commission under that 25283
section as it existed prior to September 14, 2000.25284

       (B)(1) There is hereby established the exceptional needs 25285
school facilities assistance program. Under the program, the Ohio 25286
school facilities commission may set aside from the moneys 25287
annually appropriated to it for classroom facilities assistance 25288
projects up to twenty-five per cent for assistance to school 25289
districts with exceptional needs for immediate classroom 25290
facilities assistance.25291

       (2)(a) After consulting with education and construction 25292
experts, the commission shall adopt guidelines for identifying 25293
school districts with an exceptional need for immediate classroom 25294
facilities assistance.25295

       (b) The guidelines shall include application forms and 25296
instructions for school districts to use in applying for 25297
assistance under this section.25298

       (3) The commission shall evaluate the classroom facilities, 25299
and the need for replacement classroom facilities from the 25300
applications received under this section. The commission, 25301
utilizing the guidelines adopted under division (B)(2)(a) of this 25302
section, shall prioritize the school districts to be assessed.25303

       Notwithstanding section 3318.02 of the Revised Code, the 25304
commission may conduct on-site evaluation of the school districts 25305
prioritized under this section and approve and award funds until 25306
such time as all funds set aside under division (B)(1) of this 25307
section have been encumbered. However, the commission need not 25308
conduct the evaluation of facilities if the commission determines 25309
that a district's assessment conducted under section 3318.36 of 25310
the Revised Code is sufficient for purposes of this section.25311

       (4) Notwithstanding division (A) of section 3318.05 of the 25312
Revised Code, the school district's portion of the basic project 25313
cost under this section shall be the "required percentage of the 25314
basic project costs," as defined in division (K) of section 25315
3318.01 of the Revised Code.25316

       (5) Except as otherwise specified in this section, any 25317
project undertaken with assistance under this section shall comply 25318
with all provisions of sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised 25319
Code. A school district may receive assistance under sections 25320
3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code for the remainder of the 25321
district's classroom facilities needs as assessed under this 25322
section when the district is eligible for such assistance pursuant 25323
to section 3318.02 of the Revised Code, but any classroom facility 25324
constructed with assistance under this section shall not be 25325
included in a district's project at that time unless the 25326
commission determines the district has experienced the increased 25327
enrollment specified in division (B)(1) of section 3318.04 of the 25328
Revised Code.25329

       (C) No school district shall receive assistance under this 25330
section for a classroom facility that has been included in the 25331
discrete part of the district's classroom facilities needs 25332
identified and addressed in the district's project pursuant to an 25333
agreement entered into under section 3318.36 of the Revised Code, 25334
unless the district's entire classroom facilities plan consists of 25335
only a single building designed to house grades kindergarten 25336
through twelve.25337

       (D)(1) When undertaking a project under this section, a 25338
school district may elect to prorate its full maintenance amount 25339
by setting aside for maintenance the amount calculated under 25340
division (D)(2) of this section to maintain the classroom 25341
facilities acquired under the project, if the district will use 25342
one or more of the alternative methods authorized in sections 25343
3318.051, 3318.052, and 3318.084 of the Revised Code to generate 25344
the entire amount calculated under that division. If the district 25345
so elects, the commission and the district shall include in the 25346
agreement entered into under section 3318.08 of the Revised Code a 25347
statement specifying that the district will use the amount 25348
calculated under that division only to maintain the classroom 25349
facilities acquired under the project under this section.25350

       (2) The commission shall calculate the amount for a school 25351
district to maintain the classroom facilities acquired under a 25352
project under this section as follows:25353

       The full maintenance amount X (the school district's portion 25354
of the basic project cost under this section / the school 25355
district's portion of the basic project cost for the district's 25356
entire classroom facilities needs, as determined jointly by the 25357
staff of the commission and the district)25358

       (3) A school district may elect to prorate its full 25359
maintenance amount for any number of projects under this section, 25360
provided the district will use one or more of the alternative 25361
methods authorized in sections 3318.051, 3318.052, and 3318.084 of 25362
the Revised Code to generate the entire amount calculated under 25363
division (D)(2) of this section to maintain the classroom 25364
facilities acquired under each project for which it so elects. If 25365
the district cannot use one or more of those alternative methods 25366
to generate the entire amount calculated under that division, the 25367
district shall levy the tax described in division (B) of section 25368
3318.05 of the Revised Code or an extension of that tax under 25369
section 3318.061 of the Revised Code in an amount necessary to 25370
generate the remainder of its full maintenance amount. The 25371
commission shall calculate the remainder of the district's full 25372
maintenance amount as follows:25373

       The full maintenance amount - the sum of the amounts 25374
calculated for the district under division (D)(2) of this section 25375
for each of the district's prior projects under this section25376

       (4) In no case shall the sum of the amounts calculated for a 25377
school district's maintenance of classroom facilities under 25378
divisions (D)(2) and (3) of this section exceed the amount that 25379
would have been required for maintenance if the district had 25380
elected to meet its entire classroom facilities needs with a 25381
project under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code and 25382
had not undertaken one or more projects under this section.25383

       (5) If a school district commenced a project under this 25384
section prior to the effective date of this amendment but has not 25385
completed that project, and has not levied the tax described in 25386
division (B) of section 3318.05 of the Revised Code or an 25387
extension of that tax under section 3318.061 of the Revised Code, 25388
the district may request approval from the commission to prorate 25389
its full maintenance amount in accordance with divisions (D)(1) to 25390
(4) of this section. If the commission approves the request, the 25391
commission and the district shall amend the agreement entered into 25392
under section 3318.08 of the Revised Code to reflect the change.25393

       Sec. 3319.22.  (A)(1) The state board of education shall 25394
issue the following educator licenses:25395

       (a) A resident educator license, which shall be valid for 25396
four years, except that the state board, on a case-by-case basis, 25397
may extend the license's duration as necessary to enable the 25398
license holder to complete the Ohio teacher residency program 25399
established under section 3319.223 of the Revised Code;25400

       (b) A professional educator license, which shall be valid for 25401
five years and shall be renewable;25402

       (c) A senior professional educator license, which shall be 25403
valid for five years and shall be renewable;25404

       (d) A lead professional educator license, which shall be 25405
valid for five years and shall be renewable.25406

       (2) The state board may issue any additional educator 25407
licenses of categories, types, and levels the board elects to 25408
provide. 25409

       (3) The state board shall adopt rules establishing the 25410
standards and requirements for obtaining each educator license 25411
issued under this section.25412

       (B) The rules adopted under this section shall require at 25413
least the following standards and qualifications for the educator 25414
licenses described in division (A)(1) of this section:25415

       (1) An applicant for a resident educator license shall hold 25416
at least a bachelor's degree from an accredited teacher 25417
preparation program or be a participant in the teach for America 25418
program and meet the qualifications required under section 25419
3319.227 of the Revised Code.25420

       (2) An applicant for a professional educator license shall:25421

       (a) Hold at least a bachelor's degree from an institution of 25422
higher education accredited by a regional accrediting 25423
organization;25424

       (b) Have successfully completed the Ohio teacher residency 25425
program established under section 3319.223 of the Revised Code, if 25426
the applicant's current or most recently issued license is a 25427
resident educator license issued under this section or an 25428
alternative resident educator license issued under section 3319.26 25429
of the Revised Code.25430

       (3) An applicant for a senior professional educator license 25431
shall:25432

       (a) Hold at least a master's degree from an institution of 25433
higher education accredited by a regional accrediting 25434
organization;25435

       (b) Have previously held a professional educator license 25436
issued under this section or section 3319.222 or under former 25437
section 3319.22 of the Revised Code;25438

       (c) Meet the criteria for the accomplished or distinguished 25439
level of performance, as described in the standards for teachers 25440
adopted by the state board under section 3319.61 of the Revised 25441
Code.25442

       (4) An applicant for a lead professional educator license 25443
shall:25444

       (a) Hold at least a master's degree from an institution of 25445
higher education accredited by a regional accrediting 25446
organization;25447

       (b) Have previously held a professional educator license or a 25448
senior professional educator license issued under this section or 25449
a professional educator license issued under section 3319.222 or 25450
former section 3319.22 of the Revised Code;25451

       (c) Meet the criteria for the distinguished level of 25452
performance, as described in the standards for teachers adopted by 25453
the state board under section 3319.61 of the Revised Code;25454

       (d) Either hold a valid certificate issued by the national 25455
board for professional teaching standards or meet the criteria for 25456
a master teacher or other criteria for a lead teacher adopted by 25457
the educator standards board under division (F)(4) or (5) of 25458
section 3319.61 of the Revised Code.25459

       (C) The state board shall align the standards and 25460
qualifications for obtaining a principal license with the 25461
standards for principals adopted by the state board under section 25462
3319.61 of the Revised Code. 25463

       (D) If the state board requires any examinations for educator 25464
licensure, the department of education shall provide the results 25465
of such examinations received by the department to the chancellor 25466
of the Ohio board of regents, in the manner and to the extent 25467
permitted by state and federal law.25468

       (E) Any rules the state board of education adopts, amends, or 25469
rescinds for educator licenses under this section, division (D) of 25470
section 3301.07 of the Revised Code, or any other law shall be 25471
adopted, amended, or rescinded under Chapter 119. of the Revised 25472
Code except as follows:25473

       (1) Notwithstanding division (D) of section 119.03 and 25474
division (A)(1) of section 119.04 of the Revised Code, in the case 25475
of the adoption of any rule or the amendment or rescission of any 25476
rule that necessitates institutions' offering preparation programs 25477
for educators and other school personnel that are approved by the 25478
chancellor of the Ohio board of regents under section 3333.048 of 25479
the Revised Code to revise the curriculum of those programs, the 25480
effective date shall not be as prescribed in division (D) of 25481
section 119.03 and division (A)(1) of section 119.04 of the 25482
Revised Code. Instead, the effective date of such rules, or the 25483
amendment or rescission of such rules, shall be the date 25484
prescribed by section 3333.048 of the Revised Code.25485

       (2) Notwithstanding the authority to adopt, amend, or rescind 25486
emergency rules in division (F) of section 119.03 of the Revised 25487
Code, this authority shall not apply to the state board of 25488
education with regard to rules for educator licenses.25489

       (F)(1) The rules adopted under this section establishing 25490
standards requiring additional coursework for the renewal of any 25491
educator license shall require a school district and a chartered 25492
nonpublic school to establish local professional development 25493
committees. In a nonpublic school, the chief administrative 25494
officer shall establish the committees in any manner acceptable to 25495
such officer. The committees established under this division shall 25496
determine whether coursework that a district or chartered 25497
nonpublic school teacher proposes to complete meets the 25498
requirement of the rules. The department of education shall 25499
provide technical assistance and support to committees as the 25500
committees incorporate the professional development standards 25501
adopted by the state board of education pursuant to section 25502
3319.61 of the Revised Code into their review of coursework that 25503
is appropriate for license renewal. The rules shall establish a 25504
procedure by which a teacher may appeal the decision of a local 25505
professional development committee.25506

       (2) In any school district in which there is no exclusive 25507
representative established under Chapter 4117. of the Revised 25508
Code, the professional development committees shall be established 25509
as described in division (F)(2) of this section.25510

       Not later than the effective date of the rules adopted under 25511
this section, the board of education of each school district shall 25512
establish the structure for one or more local professional 25513
development committees to be operated by such school district. The 25514
committee structure so established by a district board shall 25515
remain in effect unless within thirty days prior to an anniversary 25516
of the date upon which the current committee structure was 25517
established, the board provides notice to all affected district 25518
employees that the committee structure is to be modified. 25519
Professional development committees may have a district-level or 25520
building-level scope of operations, and may be established with 25521
regard to particular grade or age levels for which an educator 25522
license is designated.25523

       Each professional development committee shall consist of at 25524
least three classroom teachers employed by the district, one 25525
principal employed by the district, and one other employee of the 25526
district appointed by the district superintendent. For committees 25527
with a building-level scope, the teacher and principal members 25528
shall be assigned to that building, and the teacher members shall 25529
be elected by majority vote of the classroom teachers assigned to 25530
that building. For committees with a district-level scope, the 25531
teacher members shall be elected by majority vote of the classroom 25532
teachers of the district, and the principal member shall be 25533
elected by a majority vote of the principals of the district, 25534
unless there are two or fewer principals employed by the district, 25535
in which case the one or two principals employed shall serve on 25536
the committee. If a committee has a particular grade or age level 25537
scope, the teacher members shall be licensed to teach such grade 25538
or age levels, and shall be elected by majority vote of the 25539
classroom teachers holding such a license and the principal shall 25540
be elected by all principals serving in buildings where any such 25541
teachers serve. The district superintendent shall appoint a 25542
replacement to fill any vacancy that occurs on a professional 25543
development committee, except in the case of vacancies among the 25544
elected classroom teacher members, which shall be filled by vote 25545
of the remaining members of the committee so selected.25546

       Terms of office on professional development committees shall 25547
be prescribed by the district board establishing the committees. 25548
The conduct of elections for members of professional development 25549
committees shall be prescribed by the district board establishing 25550
the committees. A professional development committee may include 25551
additional members, except that the majority of members on each 25552
such committee shall be classroom teachers employed by the 25553
district. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior 25554
to the expiration date of the term for which a predecessor was 25555
appointed shall hold office as a member for the remainder of that 25556
term.25557

       The initial meeting of any professional development 25558
committee, upon election and appointment of all committee members, 25559
shall be called by a member designated by the district 25560
superintendent. At this initial meeting, the committee shall 25561
select a chairperson and such other officers the committee deems 25562
necessary, and shall adopt rules for the conduct of its meetings. 25563
Thereafter, the committee shall meet at the call of the 25564
chairperson or upon the filing of a petition with the district 25565
superintendent signed by a majority of the committee members 25566
calling for the committee to meet.25567

       (3) In the case of a school district in which an exclusive 25568
representative has been established pursuant to Chapter 4117. of 25569
the Revised Code, professional development committees shall be 25570
established in accordance with any collective bargaining agreement 25571
in effect in the district that includes provisions for such 25572
committees.25573

       If the collective bargaining agreement does not specify a 25574
different method for the selection of teacher members of the 25575
committees, the exclusive representative of the district's 25576
teachers shall select the teacher members.25577

       If the collective bargaining agreement does not specify a 25578
different structure for the committees, the board of education of 25579
the school district shall establish the structure, including the 25580
number of committees and the number of teacher and administrative 25581
members on each committee; the specific administrative members to 25582
be part of each committee; whether the scope of the committees 25583
will be district levels, building levels, or by type of grade or 25584
age levels for which educator licenses are designated; the lengths 25585
of terms for members; the manner of filling vacancies on the 25586
committees; and the frequency and time and place of meetings. 25587
However, in all cases, except as provided in division (F)(4) of 25588
this section, there shall be a majority of teacher members of any 25589
professional development committee, there shall be at least five 25590
total members of any professional development committee, and the 25591
exclusive representative shall designate replacement members in 25592
the case of vacancies among teacher members, unless the collective 25593
bargaining agreement specifies a different method of selecting 25594
such replacements.25595

       (4) Whenever an administrator's coursework plan is being 25596
discussed or voted upon, the local professional development 25597
committee shall, at the request of one of its administrative 25598
members, cause a majority of the committee to consist of 25599
administrative members by reducing the number of teacher members 25600
voting on the plan.25601

       (G)(1) The department of education, educational service 25602
centers, county boards of developmental disabilities, regional 25603
professional development centers, special education regional 25604
resource centers, college and university departments of education, 25605
head start programs, the eTech Ohio commission, and the Ohio 25606
education computer network may establish local professional 25607
development committees to determine whether the coursework 25608
proposed by their employees who are licensed or certificated under 25609
this section or section 3319.222 of the Revised Code, or under the 25610
former version of either section as it existed prior to October 25611
16, 2009, meet the requirements of the rules adopted under this 25612
section. They may establish local professional development 25613
committees on their own or in collaboration with a school district 25614
or other agency having authority to establish them.25615

       Local professional development committees established by 25616
county boards of developmental disabilities shall be structured in 25617
a manner comparable to the structures prescribed for school 25618
districts in divisions (F)(2) and (3) of this section, as shall 25619
the committees established by any other entity specified in 25620
division (G)(1) of this section that provides educational services 25621
by employing or contracting for services of classroom teachers 25622
licensed or certificated under this section or section 3319.222 of 25623
the Revised Code, or under the former version of either section as 25624
it existed prior to October 16, 2009. All other entities specified 25625
in division (G)(1) of this section shall structure their 25626
committees in accordance with guidelines which shall be issued by 25627
the state board.25628

       (2) Any public agency that is not specified in division 25629
(G)(1) of this section but provides educational services and 25630
employs or contracts for services of classroom teachers licensed 25631
or certificated under this section or section 3319.222 of the 25632
Revised Code, or under the former version of either section as it 25633
existed prior to October 16, 2009, may establish a local 25634
professional development committee, subject to the approval of the 25635
department of education. The committee shall be structured in 25636
accordance with guidelines issued by the state board.25637

       Sec. 3319.235.  (A) The standards for the preparation of 25638
teachers adopted under section 3333.048 of the Revised Code shall 25639
require any institution that provides a course of study for the 25640
training of teachers to ensure that graduates of such course of 25641
study are skilled at integrating educational technology in the 25642
instruction of children, as evidenced by the graduate having 25643
either demonstrated proficiency in such skills in a manner 25644
prescribed by the department of education or completed a course 25645
that includes training in such skills.25646

       (B) The eTech Ohio commissionchancellor of the Ohio board of 25647
regents, in consultation with the department of education, shall 25648
establish model professional development programs to assist 25649
teachers who completed their teacher preparation prior to the 25650
effective date of division (A) of this section to become skilled 25651
at integrating educational technology in the instruction of 25652
children. The commissionchancellor and department shall provide 25653
technical assistance to school districts wishing to establish such 25654
programs.25655

       (C) The chancellor may make grants to institutions of higher 25656
education and other organizations for the provision of 25657
professional development programs related to the implementation of 25658
educational technology, including use of the distance learning 25659
clearinghouse established under sections 3333.81 to 3333.88 of the 25660
Revised Code.25661

       Sec. 3333.04.  The chancellor of the Ohio board of regents 25662
shall:25663

       (A) Make studies of state policy in the field of higher 25664
education and formulate a master plan for higher education for the 25665
state, considering the needs of the people, the needs of the 25666
state, and the role of individual public and private institutions 25667
within the state in fulfilling these needs;25668

       (B)(1) Report annually to the governor and the general 25669
assembly on the findings from the chancellor's studies and the 25670
master plan for higher education for the state;25671

       (2) Report at least semiannually to the general assembly and 25672
the governor the enrollment numbers at each state-assisted 25673
institution of higher education.25674

       (C) Approve or disapprove the establishment of new branches 25675
or academic centers of state colleges and universities;25676

       (D) Approve or disapprove the establishment of state 25677
technical colleges or any other state institution of higher 25678
education;25679

       (E) Recommend the nature of the programs, undergraduate, 25680
graduate, professional, state-financed research, and public 25681
services which should be offered by the state colleges, 25682
universities, and other state-assisted institutions of higher 25683
education in order to utilize to the best advantage their 25684
facilities and personnel;25685

       (F) Recommend to the state colleges, universities, and other 25686
state-assisted institutions of higher education graduate or 25687
professional programs, including, but not limited to, doctor of 25688
philosophy, doctor of education, and juris doctor programs, that 25689
could be eliminated because they constitute unnecessary 25690
duplication, as shall be determined using the process developed 25691
pursuant to this division, or for other good and sufficient cause. 25692
Prior to recommending a program for elimination, the chancellor 25693
shall request the board of regents to hold at least one public 25694
hearing on the matter and advise the chancellor on whether the 25695
program should be recommended for elimination. The board shall 25696
provide notice of each hearing within a reasonable amount of time 25697
prior to its scheduled date. Following the hearing, the board 25698
shall issue a recommendation to the chancellor. The chancellor 25699
shall consider the board's recommendation but shall not be 25700
required to accept it.25701

       For purposes of determining the amounts of any state 25702
instructional subsidies paid to state colleges, universities, and 25703
other state-assisted institutions of higher education, the 25704
chancellor may exclude students enrolled in any program that the 25705
chancellor has recommended for elimination pursuant to this 25706
division except that the chancellor shall not exclude any such 25707
student who enrolled in the program prior to the date on which the 25708
chancellor initially commences to exclude students under this 25709
division.25710

       The chancellor and state colleges, universities, and other 25711
state-assisted institutions of higher education shall jointly 25712
develop a process for determining which existing graduate or 25713
professional programs constitute unnecessary duplication.25714

       (G) Recommend to the state colleges, universities, and other 25715
state-assisted institutions of higher education programs which 25716
should be added to their present programs;25717

       (H) Conduct studies for the state colleges, universities, and 25718
other state-assisted institutions of higher education to assist 25719
them in making the best and most efficient use of their existing 25720
facilities and personnel;25721

       (I) Make recommendations to the governor and general assembly 25722
concerning the development of state-financed capital plans for 25723
higher education; the establishment of new state colleges, 25724
universities, and other state-assisted institutions of higher 25725
education; and the establishment of new programs at the existing 25726
state colleges, universities, and other institutions of higher 25727
education;25728

       (J) Review the appropriation requests of the public community 25729
colleges and the state colleges and universities and submit to the 25730
office of budget and management and to the chairpersons of the 25731
finance committees of the house of representatives and of the 25732
senate the chancellor's recommendations in regard to the biennial 25733
higher education appropriation for the state, including 25734
appropriations for the individual state colleges and universities 25735
and public community colleges. For the purpose of determining the 25736
amounts of instructional subsidies to be paid to state-assisted 25737
colleges and universities, the chancellor shall define "full-time 25738
equivalent student" by program per academic year. The definition 25739
may take into account the establishment of minimum enrollment 25740
levels in technical education programs below which support 25741
allowances will not be paid. Except as otherwise provided in this 25742
section, the chancellor shall make no change in the definition of 25743
"full-time equivalent student" in effect on November 15, 1981, 25744
which would increase or decrease the number of subsidy-eligible 25745
full-time equivalent students, without first submitting a fiscal 25746
impact statement to the president of the senate, the speaker of 25747
the house of representatives, the legislative service commission, 25748
and the director of budget and management. The chancellor shall 25749
work in close cooperation with the director of budget and 25750
management in this respect and in all other matters concerning the 25751
expenditures of appropriated funds by state colleges, 25752
universities, and other institutions of higher education.25753

       (K) Seek the cooperation and advice of the officers and 25754
trustees of both public and private colleges, universities, and 25755
other institutions of higher education in the state in performing 25756
the chancellor's duties and making the chancellor's plans, 25757
studies, and recommendations;25758

       (L) Appoint advisory committees consisting of persons 25759
associated with public or private secondary schools, members of 25760
the state board of education, or personnel of the state department 25761
of education;25762

       (M) Appoint advisory committees consisting of college and 25763
university personnel, or other persons knowledgeable in the field 25764
of higher education, or both, in order to obtain their advice and 25765
assistance in defining and suggesting solutions for the problems 25766
and needs of higher education in this state;25767

       (N) Approve or disapprove all new degrees and new degree 25768
programs at all state colleges, universities, and other 25769
state-assisted institutions of higher education;25770

       (O) Adopt such rules as are necessary to carry out the 25771
chancellor's duties and responsibilities. The rules shall 25772
prescribe procedures for the chancellor to follow when taking 25773
actions associated with the chancellor's duties and 25774
responsibilities and shall indicate which types of actions are 25775
subject to those procedures. The procedures adopted under this 25776
division shall be in addition to any other procedures prescribed 25777
by law for such actions. However, if any other provision of the 25778
Revised Code or rule adopted by the chancellor prescribes 25779
different procedures for such an action, the procedures adopted 25780
under this division shall not apply to that action to the extent 25781
they conflict with the procedures otherwise prescribed by law. The 25782
procedures adopted under this division shall include at least the 25783
following:25784

       (1) Provision for public notice of the proposed action;25785

        (2) An opportunity for public comment on the proposed action, 25786
which may include a public hearing on the action by the board of 25787
regents;25788

        (3) Methods for parties that may be affected by the proposed 25789
action to submit comments during the public comment period;25790

       (4) Submission of recommendations from the board of regents 25791
regarding the proposed action, at the request of the chancellor;25792

        (5) Written publication of the final action taken by the 25793
chancellor and the chancellor's rationale for the action;25794

       (6) A timeline for the process described in divisions (O)(1) 25795
to (5) of this section.25796

       (P) Establish and submit to the governor and the general 25797
assembly a clear and measurable set of goals and timetables for 25798
their achievement for each program under the chancellor's 25799
supervision that is designed to accomplish any of the following:25800

       (1) Increased access to higher education;25801

       (2) Job training;25802

       (3) Adult literacy;25803

       (4) Research;25804

       (5) Excellence in higher education;25805

       (6) Reduction in the number of graduate programs within the 25806
same subject area.25807

       In July of each odd-numbered year, the chancellor shall 25808
submit to the governor and the general assembly a report on 25809
progress made toward these goals.25810

       (Q) Make recommendations to the governor and the general 25811
assembly regarding the design and funding of the student financial 25812
aid programs specified in sections 3333.12, 3333.122, 3333.21 to 25813
3333.26, and 5910.02 of the Revised Code;25814

       (R)(Q) Participate in education-related state or federal 25815
programs on behalf of the state and assume responsibility for the 25816
administration of such programs in accordance with applicable 25817
state or federal law;25818

       (S)(R) Adopt rules for student financial aid programs as 25819
required by sections 3333.12, 3333.122, 3333.21 to 3333.26, 25820
3333.28, and 5910.02 of the Revised Code, and perform any other 25821
administrative functions assigned to the chancellor by those 25822
sections;25823

       (T)(S) Conduct enrollment audits of state-supported 25824
institutions of higher education;25825

       (U)(T) Appoint consortia of college and university personnel 25826
to advise or participate in the development and operation of 25827
statewide collaborative efforts, including the Ohio supercomputer 25828
center, the Ohio academic resources network, OhioLink, and the 25829
Ohio learning network. For each consortium, the chancellor shall 25830
designate a college or university to serve as that consortium's 25831
fiscal agent, financial officer, and employer. Any funds 25832
appropriated for the consortia shall be distributed to the fiscal 25833
agents for the operation of the consortia. A consortium shall 25834
follow the rules of the college or university that serves as its 25835
fiscal agent. The chancellor may restructure existing consortia, 25836
appointed under this division, in accordance with procedures 25837
adopted under divisions (D)(O)(1) to (6) of this section.25838

       (V)(U) Adopt rules establishing advisory duties and 25839
responsibilities of the board of regents not otherwise prescribed 25840
by law;25841

       (W)(V) Respond to requests for information about higher 25842
education from members of the general assembly and direct staff to 25843
conduct research or analysis as needed for this purpose.25844

       Sec. 3333.041. (A) On or before the last day of December of 25845
each year, the chancellor of the Ohio board of regents shall 25846
submit a report to the governor and, in accordance with section 25847
101.68 of the Revised Code, the general assembly, the state board 25848
of education, and the board of education of each city, exempted 25849
village, and local school district on thea report or reports 25850
concerning all of the following:25851

       (1) The status of graduates of Ohio school districts at25852
state-assisted colleges or universitiesstate institutions of 25853
higher education during the twelve-month period ending on the 25854
thirtieth day of September of the current calendar year. The 25855
report shall list, by school district, the number of graduates of 25856
each school district who attended such a college or university25857
state institution of higher education and the percentage of each 25858
district's graduates enrolled in such a college or university25859
state institution of higher education during the reporting period 25860
who were required during such period by the college or university, 25861
as a prerequisite to enrolling in those courses generally required 25862
for first-year students, to enroll in a remedial course in 25863
English, including composition or reading, mathematics, and any 25864
other area designated by the boardchancellor. The chancellor also 25865
shall make the information described in division (A)(1) of this 25866
section available to the board of education of each city, exempted 25867
village, and local school district.25868

       Each state-assisted college and universitystate institution 25869
of higher education shall, by the first day of November of each 25870
year, submit to the chancellor in the form specified by the 25871
chancellor the information the chancellor requires to compile the 25872
report.25873

       (2) Aggregate academic growth data for students assigned to 25874
graduates of teacher preparation programs approved under section 25875
3333.048 of the Revised Code who teach English language arts or 25876
mathematics in any of grades four to eight in a public school in 25877
Ohio. For this purpose, the chancellor shall use the value-added 25878
progress dimension prescribed by section 3302.021 of the Revised 25879
Code. The chancellor shall aggregate the data by graduating class 25880
for each approved teacher preparation program, except that if a 25881
particular class has ten or fewer graduates to which this section 25882
applies, the chancellor shall report the data for a group of 25883
classes over a three-year period. In no case shall the report 25884
identify any individual graduate. The department of education 25885
shall share any data necessary for the report with the chancellor.25886

       (3) The following information with respect to the Ohio 25887
tuition trust authority:25888

       (a) The name of each investment manager that is a minority 25889
business enterprise or a women's business enterprise with which 25890
the chancellor contracts;25891

       (b) The amount of assets managed by investment managers that 25892
are minority business enterprises or women's business enterprises, 25893
expressed as a percentage of assets managed by investment managers 25894
with which the chancellor has contracted;25895

       (c) Efforts by the chancellor to increase utilization of 25896
investment managers that are minority business enterprises or 25897
women's business enterprises.25898

       (4) The status of implementation of faculty improvement 25899
programs under section 3345.28 of the Revised Code. The report 25900
shall include, but need not be limited to, the following: the 25901
number of professional leave grants made by each institution; the 25902
purpose of each professional leave; and a statement of the cost to 25903
the institution of each professional leave, to the extent that the 25904
cost exceeds the salary of the faculty member on professional 25905
leave.25906

       (5) The number and types of biobased products purchased under 25907
section 125.092 of the Revised Code and the amount of money spent 25908
by state institutions of higher education for those biobased 25909
products as that information is provided to the chancellor under 25910
division (A) of section 3345.692 of the Revised Code.25911

       (6) A description of dual enrollment programs, as defined in 25912
section 3313.6013 of the Revised Code, that are offered by school 25913
districts, community schools established under Chapter 3314. of 25914
the Revised Code, STEM schools established under Chapter 3326. of 25915
the Revised Code, college-preparatory boarding schools established 25916
under Chapter 3328. of the Revised Code, and chartered nonpublic 25917
high schools. The chancellor also shall post the information on 25918
the chancellor's web site.25919

        (7) The academic and economic impact of the Ohio innovation 25920
partnership established under section 3333.61 of the Revised Code. 25921
At a minimum, the report shall include the following:25922

        (a) Progress and performance metrics for each initiative that 25923
received an award in the previous fiscal year;25924

        (b) Economic indicators of the impact of each initiative, and 25925
all initiatives as a whole, on the regional economies and the 25926
statewide economy;25927

        (c) The chancellor's strategy in assigning choose Ohio first 25928
scholarships among state universities and colleges and how the 25929
actual awards fit that strategy.25930

        (8) The academic and economic impact of the Ohio 25931
co-op/internship program established under section 3333.72 of the 25932
Revised Code. At a minimum, the report shall include the 25933
following:25934

        (a) Progress and performance metrics for each initiative that 25935
received an award in the previous fiscal year;25936

        (b) Economic indicators of the impact of each initiative, and 25937
all initiatives as a whole, on the regional economies and the 25938
statewide economy;25939

        (c) The chancellor's strategy in allocating awards among 25940
state institutions of higher education and how the actual awards 25941
fit that strategy.25942

       (B) As used in this section, "state-assisted college or 25943
university" means a state university or college as defined in 25944
division (A)(1) of section 3345.12 of the Revised Code, community 25945
colleges, state community colleges, university branches, and 25946
technical colleges.:25947

       (1) "Minority business enterprise" has the same meaning as in 25948
section 122.71 of the Revised Code.25949

       (2) "State institution of higher education" and "state 25950
university" have the same meanings as in section 3345.011 of the 25951
Revised Code.25952

       (3) "State university or college" has the same meaning as in 25953
section 3345.12 of the Revised Code.25954

        (4) "Women's business enterprise" means a business, or a 25955
partnership, corporation, limited liability company, or joint 25956
venture of any kind, that is owned and controlled by women who are 25957
United States citizens and residents of this state.25958

       Sec. 3333.123.  (A) As used in this section:25959

        (1) "The Ohio college opportunity grant program" means the 25960
program established under section 3333.122 of the Revised Code.25961

        (2) "Rules for the Ohio college opportunity grant program" 25962
means the rules authorized in division (S)(R) of section 3333.04 25963
of the Revised Code for the implementation of the program.25964

        (B) In adopting rules for the Ohio college opportunity grant 25965
program, the chancellor of the Ohio board of regents may include 25966
provisions that give preferential or priority funding to 25967
low-income students who in their primary and secondary school work 25968
participate in or complete rigorous academic coursework, attain 25969
passing scores on the assessments prescribed in section 3301.0710 25970
of the Revised Code, or meet other high academic performance 25971
standards determined by the chancellor to reduce the need for 25972
remediation and ensure academic success at the postsecondary 25973
education level. Any such rules shall include a specification of 25974
procedures needed to certify student achievement of primary and 25975
secondary standards as well as the timeline for implementation of 25976
the provisions authorized by this section.25977

       Sec. 3333.21.  As used in sections 3333.21 to 3333.23 of the 25978
Revised Code, "term" and "academic year" mean "term" and "academic 25979
year" as defined by the chancellor of the Ohio board of regents.25980

       The chancellor shall establish and administer an academic 25981
scholarship program. Under the program, a total of one thousand 25982
new scholarships shall be awarded annually in the amount of not 25983
less than two thousand dollars per award. At least one such new 25984
scholarship shall be awarded annually to a student in each public 25985
high school and joint vocational school and each nonpublic high 25986
school for which the state board of education prescribes minimum 25987
standards in accordance with section 3301.07 of the Revised Code.25988

       To be eligible for the award of a scholarship, a student 25989
shall be a resident of Ohio and shall be enrolled as a full-time 25990
undergraduate student in an Ohio institution of higher education 25991
that meets the requirements of Title VI of the "Civil Rights Act 25992
of 1964" and is state-assisted, is nonprofit and holds a 25993
certificate of authorization issued under section 1713.02 of the 25994
Revised Code, is a private institution exempt from regulation 25995
under Chapter 3332. of the Revised Code as prescribed in section 25996
3333.046 of the Revised Code, or holds a certificate of 25997
registration and program authorization issued under section 25998
3332.05 of the Revised Code and awards an associate or bachelor's 25999
degree. Students who attend an institution holding a certificate 26000
of registration shall be enrolled in a program leading to an 26001
associate or bachelor's degree for which associate or bachelor's 26002
degree program the institution has program authorization to offer 26003
the program issued under section 3332.05 of the Revised Code.26004

       "Resident" and "full-time student" shall be defined in rules 26005
adopted by the chancellor.26006

       The chancellor shall award the scholarships on the basis of a 26007
formula designed by the chancellor to identify students with the 26008
highest capability for successful college study. The formula shall 26009
weigh the factor of achievement, as measured by grade point 26010
average, and the factor of ability, as measured by performance on 26011
a competitive examination specified by the chancellor. Students 26012
receiving scholarships shall be known as "Ohio academic scholars."26013
Annually, not later than the thirty-first day of July, the 26014
chancellor shall report to the governor and the general assembly 26015
on the performance of current Ohio academic scholars and the 26016
effectiveness of the formula.26017

       Sec. 3333.90.        Sec. 3333.59.  (A) As used in this section:26018

       (1) "Allocated state share of instruction" means, for any 26019
fiscal year, the amount of the state share of instruction 26020
appropriated to the Ohio board of regents by the general assembly 26021
that is allocated to a community or technical college or community 26022
or technical college district for such fiscal year.26023

       (2) "Issuing authority" has the same meaning as in section 26024
154.01 of the Revised Code.26025

       (3) "Bond service charges" has the same meaning as in section 26026
154.01 of the Revised Code.26027

       (4) "Chancellor" means the chancellor of the Ohio board of 26028
regents.26029

       (5) "Community or technical college" or "college" means any 26030
of the following state-supported or state-assisted institutions of 26031
higher education:26032

       (a) A community college as defined in section 3354.01 of the 26033
Revised Code;26034

       (b) A technical college as defined in section 3357.01 of the 26035
Revised Code;26036

       (c) A state community college as defined in section 3358.01 26037
of the Revised Code.26038

       (6) "Community or technical college district" or "district" 26039
means any of the following institutions of higher education that 26040
are state-supported or state-assisted:26041

       (a) A community college district as defined in section 26042
3354.01 of the Revised Code;26043

       (b) A technical college district as defined in section 26044
3357.01 of the Revised Code;26045

       (c) A state community college district as defined in section 26046
3358.01 of the Revised Code. 26047

       (7) "Credit enhancement facilities" has the same meaning as 26048
in section 133.01 of the Revised Code.26049

       (8) "Obligations" has the meaning as in section 154.01 or 26050
3345.12 of the Revised Code, as the context requires.26051

       (B) The board of trustees of any community or technical 26052
college district authorizing the issuance of obligations under 26053
section 3354.12, 3354.121, 3357.11, 3357.112, or 3358.10 of the 26054
Revised Code, or for whose benefit and on whose behalf the issuing 26055
authority proposes to issue obligations under section 154.25 of 26056
the Revised Code, may adopt a resolution requesting the chancellor 26057
to enter into an agreement with the community or technical college 26058
district and the primary paying agent or fiscal agent for such 26059
obligations, providing for the withholding and deposit of funds 26060
otherwise due the district or the community or technical college 26061
it operates in respect of its allocated state share of 26062
instruction, for the payment of bond service charges on such 26063
obligations.26064

       The board of trustees shall deliver to the chancellor a copy 26065
of the resolution and any additional pertinent information the 26066
chancellor may require.26067

       The chancellor and the office of budget and management, and 26068
the issuing authority in the case of obligations to be issued by 26069
the issuing authority, shall evaluate each request received from a 26070
community or technical college district under this section. The 26071
chancellor, with the advice and consent of the director of budget 26072
and management and the issuing authority in the case of 26073
obligations to be issued by the issuing authority, shall approve 26074
each request if all of the following conditions are met:26075

       (1) Approval of the request will enhance the marketability of 26076
the obligations for which the request is made;26077

       (2) The chancellor and the office of budget and management, 26078
and the issuing authority in the case of obligations to be issued 26079
by the issuing authority, have no reason to believe the requesting 26080
community or technical college district or the community or 26081
technical college it operates will be unable to pay when due the 26082
bond service charges on the obligations for which the request is 26083
made, and bond service charges on those obligations are therefore 26084
not anticipated to be paid pursuant to this section from the 26085
allocated state share of instruction for purposes of Section 17 of 26086
Article VIII, Ohio Constitution.26087

       (3) Any other pertinent conditions established in rules 26088
adopted under division (H) of this section.26089

       (C) If the chancellor approves the request of a community or 26090
technical college district to withhold and deposit funds pursuant 26091
to this section, the chancellor shall enter into a written 26092
agreement with the district and the primary paying agent or fiscal 26093
agent for the obligations, which agreement shall provide for the 26094
withholding of funds pursuant to this section for the payment of 26095
bond service charges on those obligations. The agreement may also 26096
include both of the following:26097

       (1) Provisions for certification by the district to the 26098
chancellor, prior to the deadline for payment of the applicable 26099
bond service charges, whether the district and the community or 26100
technical college it operates are able to pay those bond service 26101
charges when due;26102

       (2) Requirements that the district or the community or 26103
technical college it operates deposits amounts for the payment of 26104
those bond service charges with the primary paying agent or fiscal 26105
agent for the obligations prior to the date on which the bond 26106
service charges are due to the owners or holders of the 26107
obligations.26108

       (D) Whenever a district or the community or technical college 26109
it operates notifies the chancellor that it will not be able to 26110
pay the bond service charges when they are due, subject to the 26111
withholding provisions of this section, or whenever the applicable 26112
paying agent or fiscal agent notifies the chancellor that it has 26113
not timely received from a district or from the college it 26114
operates the full amount needed for payment of the bond service 26115
charges when due to the holders or owners of such obligations, the 26116
chancellor shall immediately contact the district or college and 26117
the paying agent or fiscal agent to confirm that the district and 26118
the college are not able to make the required payment by the date 26119
on which it is due.26120

       If the chancellor confirms that the district and the college 26121
are not able to make the payment and the payment will not be made 26122
pursuant to a credit enhancement facility, the chancellor shall 26123
promptly pay to the applicable primary paying agent or fiscal 26124
agent the lesser of the amount due for bond service charges or the 26125
amount of the next periodic distribution scheduled to be made to 26126
the district or to the college in respect of its allocated state 26127
share of instruction. If this amount is insufficient to pay the 26128
total amount then due the agent for the payment of bond service 26129
charges, the chancellor shall continue to pay to the agent from 26130
each periodic distribution thereafter, and until the full amount 26131
due the agent for unpaid bond service charges is paid in full, the 26132
lesser of the remaining amount due the agent for bond service 26133
charges or the amount of the next periodic distribution scheduled 26134
to be made to the district or college in respect of its allocated 26135
state share of instruction.26136

       (E) The chancellor may make any payments under this section 26137
by direct deposit of funds by electronic transfer.26138

       Any amount received by a paying agent or fiscal agent under 26139
this section shall be applied only to the payment of bond service 26140
charges on the obligations of the community or technical college 26141
district or community or technical college subject to this section 26142
or to the reimbursement of the provider of a credit enhancement 26143
facility that has paid the bond service charges.26144

       (F) The chancellor may make payments under this section to 26145
paying agents or fiscal agents during any fiscal biennium of the 26146
state only from and to the extent that money is appropriated to 26147
the board of regents by the general assembly for distribution 26148
during such biennium for the state share of instruction and only 26149
to the extent that a portion of the state share of instruction has 26150
been allocated to the community or technical college district or 26151
community or technical college. Obligations of the issuing 26152
authority or of a community or technical college district to which 26153
this section is made applicable do not constitute an obligation or 26154
a debt or a pledge of the faith, credit, or taxing power of the 26155
state, and the holders or owners of those obligations have no 26156
right to have excises or taxes levied or appropriations made by 26157
the general assembly for the payment of bond service charges on 26158
the obligations, and the obligations shall contain a statement to 26159
that effect. The agreement for or the actual withholding and 26160
payment of money under this section does not constitute the 26161
assumption by the state of any debt of a community or technical 26162
college district or a community or technical college, and bond 26163
service charges on the related obligations are not anticipated to 26164
be paid from the state general revenue fund for purposes of 26165
Section 17 of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution.26166

       (G) In the case of obligations subject to the withholding 26167
provisions of this section, the issuing community or technical 26168
college district, or the issuing authority in the case of 26169
obligations issued by the issuing authority, shall appoint a 26170
paying agent or fiscal agent who is not an officer or employee of 26171
the district or college.26172

       (H) The chancellor, with the advice and consent of the office 26173
of budget and management, may adopt reasonable rules not 26174
inconsistent with this section for the implementation of this 26175
section to secure payment of bond service charges on obligations 26176
issued by a community or technical college district or by the 26177
issuing authority for the benefit of a community or technical 26178
college district or the community or technical college it 26179
operates. Those rules shall include criteria for the evaluation 26180
and approval or denial of community or technical college district 26181
requests for withholding under this section.26182

       (I) The authority granted by this section is in addition to 26183
and not a limitation on any other authorizations granted by or 26184
pursuant to law for the same or similar purposes.26185

       Sec. 3333.60.  As used in sections 3333.61 to 3333.703333.6926186
of the Revised Code:26187

       (A) "State university or college" has the same meaning as in 26188
section 3345.12 of the Revised Code.26189

       (B) "State university" and "state institution of higher 26190
education" have the same meanings as in section 3345.011 of the 26191
Revised Code.26192

       Sec. 3333.61.  The chancellor of the Ohio board of regents 26193
shall establish and administer the Ohio innovation partnership, 26194
which shall consist of the choose Ohio first scholarship program 26195
and the Ohio research scholars program. Under the programs, the 26196
chancellor, subject to approval by the controlling board, shall 26197
make awards to state universities or colleges for programs and 26198
initiatives that recruit students and scientists in the fields of 26199
science, technology, engineering, mathematics, and medicine to 26200
state universities or colleges, in order to enhance regional 26201
educational and economic strengths and meet the needs of the 26202
state's regional economies. Awards may be granted for programs and 26203
initiatives to be implemented by a state university or college 26204
alone or in collaboration with other state institutions of higher 26205
education, nonpublic Ohio universities and colleges, or other 26206
public or private Ohio entities. If the chancellor makes an award 26207
to a program or initiative that is intended to be implemented by a 26208
state university or college in collaboration with other state 26209
institutions of higher education or nonpublic Ohio universities or 26210
colleges, the chancellor may provide that some portion of the 26211
award be received directly by the collaborating universities or 26212
colleges consistent with all terms of the Ohio innovation 26213
partnership.26214

       The choose Ohio first scholarship program shall assign a 26215
number of scholarships to state universities and colleges to 26216
recruit Ohio residents as undergraduate, or as provided in section 26217
3333.66 of the Revised Code graduate, students in the fields of 26218
science, technology, engineering, mathematics, and medicine, or in 26219
science, technology, engineering, mathematics, or medical 26220
education. Choose Ohio first scholarships shall be awarded to 26221
each participating eligible student as a grant to the state 26222
university or college the student is attending and shall be 26223
reflected on the student's tuition bill. Choose Ohio first 26224
scholarships are student-centered grants from the state to 26225
students to use to attend a university or college and are not 26226
grants from the state to universities or colleges.26227

       Notwithstanding any other provision of this section or 26228
sections 3333.62 to 3333.703333.69 of the Revised Code, a 26229
nonpublic four-year Ohio institution of higher education may 26230
submit a proposal for choose Ohio first scholarships or Ohio 26231
research scholars grants. If the chancellor awards a nonpublic 26232
institution scholarships or grants, the nonpublic institution 26233
shall comply with all requirements of this section, sections 26234
3333.62 to 3333.703333.69 of the Revised Code, and the rules 26235
adopted under this section that apply to state universities or 26236
colleges awarded choose Ohio first scholarships or Ohio research 26237
scholars grants.26238

       The Ohio research scholars program shall award grants to use 26239
in recruiting scientists to the faculties of state universities or 26240
colleges.26241

       The chancellor shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 26242
119. of the Revised Code to administer the programs.26243

       Sec. 3333.71.  As used in sections 3333.71 to 3333.803333.7926244
of the Revised Code:26245

       (A) "Cooperative education program" means a partnership 26246
between students, institutions of higher education, and employers 26247
that formally integrates students' academic study with work 26248
experience in cooperating employer organizations and that meets 26249
all of the following conditions:26250

       (1) Alternates or combines periods of academic study and work 26251
experience in appropriate fields as an integral part of student 26252
education;26253

       (2) Provides students with compensation from the cooperative 26254
employer in the form of wages or salaries for work performed;26255

       (3) Evaluates each participating student's performance in the 26256
cooperative position, both from the perspective of the student's 26257
institution of higher education and the student's cooperative 26258
employer;26259

       (4) Provides participating students with academic credit from 26260
the institution of higher education upon successful completion of 26261
their cooperative education;26262

       (5) Is part of an overall degree or certificate program for 26263
which a percentage of the total program acceptable to the 26264
chancellor of the Ohio board of regents involves cooperative 26265
education.26266

       (B) "Internship program" means a partnership between 26267
students, institutions of higher education, and employers that 26268
formally integrates students' academic study with work or 26269
community service experience and that does both of the following:26270

       (1) Offers internships of specified and definite duration;26271

       (2) Evaluates each participating student's performance in the 26272
internship position, both from the perspective of the student's 26273
institution of higher education and the student's internship 26274
employer.26275

       An internship program may provide participating students with 26276
academic credit upon successful completion of the internship, and 26277
may provide students with compensation in the form of wages or 26278
salaries, stipends, or scholarships.26279

       (C) "Nonpublic university or college" means a nonprofit 26280
institution holding a certificate of authorization issued under 26281
Chapter 1713. of the Revised Code.26282

       (D) "State institution of higher education" has the same 26283
meaning as in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.26284

       Sec. 3333.72.  The chancellor of the Ohio board of regents 26285
shall establish and administer the Ohio co-op/internship program 26286
to promote and encourage cooperative education programs or 26287
internship programs at Ohio institutions of higher education for 26288
the purpose of recruiting Ohio students to stay in the state, and 26289
recruiting Ohio residents who left Ohio to attend out-of-state 26290
institutions of higher education back to Ohio institutions of 26291
higher education, to participate in high quality academic programs 26292
that use cooperative education programs or significant internship 26293
programs, in order to support the growth of Ohio's businesses by 26294
providing businesses with Ohio's most talented students and 26295
providing Ohio graduates with job opportunities with Ohio's 26296
growing companies.26297

       The chancellor, subject to approval by the controlling board, 26298
shall make awards to state institutions of higher education for 26299
new or existing programs and initiatives meeting the goals of the 26300
Ohio co-op/internship program. Awards may be granted for programs 26301
and initiatives to be implemented by a state institution of higher 26302
education alone or in collaboration with other state institutions 26303
of higher education or nonpublic Ohio universities and colleges. 26304
If the chancellor makes an award to a program or initiative that 26305
is intended to be implemented by a state institution of higher 26306
education in collaboration with other state institutions of higher 26307
education or nonpublic Ohio universities or colleges, the 26308
chancellor may provide that some portion of the award be received 26309
directly by the collaborating universities or colleges consistent 26310
with all terms of the Ohio co-op/internship program.26311

       The Ohio co-op/internship program shall support the creation 26312
and maintenance of high quality academic programs that utilize an 26313
intensive cooperative education or internship program for students 26314
at state institutions of higher education, or assign a number of 26315
scholarships to institutions to recruit Ohio residents as students 26316
in a high quality academic program, or both. If scholarships are 26317
included in an award to an institution of higher education, the 26318
scholarships shall be awarded to each participating eligible 26319
student as a grant to the state institution of higher education 26320
the student is attending and shall be reflected on the student's 26321
tuition bill.26322

        Notwithstanding any other provision of this section or 26323
sections 3333.73 to 3333.803333.79 of the Revised Code, an Ohio 26324
four-year nonpublic university or college may submit a proposal as 26325
lead applicant or co-lead applicant for an award under the Ohio 26326
co-op/internship program if the proposal is to be implemented in 26327
collaboration with a state institution of higher education. If the 26328
chancellor grants a nonpublic university or college an award, the 26329
nonpublic university or college shall comply with all requirements 26330
of this section, sections 3333.73 to 3333.803333.79 of the 26331
Revised Code, and the rules adopted under this section that apply 26332
to state institutions of higher education that receive awards 26333
under the program.26334

       The chancellor shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 26335
119. of the Revised Code to administer the Ohio co-op/internship 26336
program.26337

       Sec. 3333.82.  (A) The chancellor of the Ohio board of 26338
regents shall establish a clearinghouse of interactive distance 26339
learning courses and other distance learning courses delivered via 26340
a computer-based method offered by school districts, community 26341
schools, STEM schools, state institutions of higher education, 26342
private colleges and universities, and other nonprofit and 26343
for-profit course providers for sharing with other school 26344
districts, community schools, STEM schools, state institutions of 26345
higher education, private colleges and universities, and 26346
individuals for the fee set pursuant to section 3333.84 of the 26347
Revised Code. The chancellor shall not be responsible for the 26348
content of courses offered through the clearinghouse; however, all 26349
such courses shall be delivered only in accordance with technical 26350
specifications approved by the chancellor and on a common 26351
statewide platform administered by the chancellor.26352

       The clearinghouse's distance learning program for students in 26353
grades kindergarten to twelve shall be based on the following 26354
principles:26355

       (1) All Ohio students shall have access to high quality 26356
distance learning courses at any point in their educational 26357
careers.26358

       (2) All students shall be able to customize their education 26359
using distance learning courses offered through the clearinghouse 26360
and no student shall be denied access to any course in the 26361
clearinghouse in which the student is eligible to enroll.26362

       (3) Students may take distance learning courses for all or 26363
any portion of their curriculum requirements and may utilize a 26364
combination of distance learning courses and courses taught in a 26365
traditional classroom setting.26366

       (4) Students may earn an unlimited number of academic credits 26367
through distance learning courses.26368

       (5) Students may take distance learning courses at any time 26369
of the calendar year.26370

       (6) Student advancement to higher coursework shall be based 26371
on a demonstration of subject area competency instead of 26372
completion of any particular number of hours of instruction.26373

       (B) To offer a course through the clearinghouse, a course 26374
provider shall apply to the chancellor in a form and manner 26375
prescribed by the chancellor. The application for each course 26376
shall describe the course of study in as much detail as required 26377
by the chancellor, whether an instructor is provided, the 26378
qualification and credentials of the instructor, the number of 26379
hours of instruction, and any other information required by the 26380
chancellor. The chancellor may require course providers to include 26381
in their applications information recommended by the state board 26382
of education under former section 3353.30 of the Revised Code.26383

       (C) The chancellor shall review the technical specifications 26384
of each application submitted under division (B) of this section. 26385
In reviewing applications, the chancellor may consult with the 26386
department of education; however, the responsibility to either 26387
approve or not approve a course for the clearinghouse belongs to 26388
the chancellor. The chancellor may request additional information 26389
from a course provider that submits an application under division 26390
(B) of this section, if the chancellor determines that such 26391
information is necessary. The chancellor may negotiate changes in 26392
the proposal to offer a course, if the chancellor determines that 26393
changes are necessary in order to approve the course.26394

       (D) The chancellor shall catalog each course approved for the 26395
clearinghouse, through a print or electronic medium, displaying 26396
the following:26397

       (1) Information necessary for a student and the student's 26398
parent, guardian, or custodian and the student's school district, 26399
community school, STEM school, college, or university to decide 26400
whether to enroll in or subscribe to the course;26401

       (2) Instructions for enrolling in that course, including 26402
deadlines for enrollment.26403

       (E) Any expenses related to the installation of a course into 26404
the common statewide platform shall be borne by the course 26405
provider. 26406

       (F) The eTech Ohio commission, in consultation with the26407
chancellor and the state board, shall distribute information to 26408
students and parents describing the clearinghouse. The information 26409
shall be provided in an easily understandable format.26410

       Sec. 3353.01.        Sec. 3333.89.  As used in this chaptersections 26411
3333.90 to 3333.92 of the Revised Code:26412

       (A) "Educational television or radio" means television or 26413
radio programs which serve the educational needs of the community 26414
and which meet the requirements of the federal communications 26415
commission for noncommercial educational television or radio.26416

       (B) "Educational telecommunications network" means a system 26417
of connected educational television, radio, or radio reading 26418
service facilities and coordinated programs established and 26419
operated or controlled by the eTech Ohio commission, pursuant to 26420
this chapter.26421

       (C) "Transmission" means the sending out of television, 26422
radio, or radio reading service programs, either directly to the 26423
public, or to broadcasting stations or services for simultaneous 26424
broadcast or rebroadcast.26425

       (D) "Transmission facilities" means structures, equipment, 26426
material, and services used in the transmission of educational 26427
television, radio, or radio reading service programs.26428

       (E) "Interconnection facilities" means the equipment, 26429
material, and services used to link one location to another 26430
location or to several locations by means of telephone line, 26431
coaxial cable, microwave relays, or other available technologies.26432

       (F) "Broadcasting station" means a properly licensed 26433
noncommercial educational television or radio station, 26434
appropriately staffed and equipped to produce programs or lessons 26435
and to broadcast programs.26436

       (G) "Radio reading service" means a nonprofit organization 26437
that disseminates news and other information to blind and 26438
physically handicapped persons.26439

       (H) "Affiliate" means an educational telecommunication 26440
entity, including a television or radio broadcasting station or 26441
radio reading service.26442

       Sec. 3333.90.  (A) The chancellor of the Ohio board of 26443
regents shall do all of the following regarding the management and 26444
oversight of the state's educational telecommunications 26445
activities: 26446

       (1) Own or operate transmission facilities and 26447
interconnection facilities, or contract for transmission 26448
facilities and interconnection facilities, for an educational 26449
television, radio, or radio reading service network;26450

       (2) Establish standards for interconnection facilities used 26451
by the chancellor in the transmission of educational television, 26452
radio, or radio reading service programming;26453

       (3) Enter into agreements with noncommercial educational 26454
television or radio broadcasting stations or radio reading 26455
services for the operation of the interconnection;26456

       (4) Enter into agreements with noncommercial educational 26457
television or radio broadcasting stations or radio reading 26458
services for the production and use of educational television, 26459
radio, or radio reading service programs to be transmitted by the 26460
educational telecommunications network;26461

       (5) Act as consultant with educational television and 26462
educational radio stations and radio reading services toward 26463
coordination within the state of the distribution of federal funds 26464
that may become available for equipment for educational 26465
broadcasting or radio reading services;26466

       (6) Make payments to noncommercial Ohio educational 26467
television or radio broadcasting stations or radio reading 26468
services to sustain the operation of such stations or services;26469

       (7) Execute contracts and other agreements necessary and 26470
desirable to carry out the purposes of this section.26471

       (B) Sections 9.331 to 9.335 and Chapters 123., 124., 125., 26472
and 153. of the Revised Code do not apply to contracts, programs, 26473
projects, or activities of the chancellor carried out under this 26474
section.26475

       (C) All employees of the former eTech Ohio commission who 26476
transferred to the office of the chancellor, as a result of the 26477
transfer to the chancellor of the state's educational 26478
telecommunications activities upon the effective date of this 26479
section, and who when employed by that commission or a predecessor 26480
agency were included in a bargaining unit established under 26481
Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code, shall continue to be included 26482
in that bargaining unit, are public employees as defined in 26483
section 4117.01 of the Revised Code, and may collectively bargain 26484
with the chancellor in accordance with that chapter. Otherwise, 26485
any employee hired by the chancellor on or after the effective 26486
date of this section, either to fill vacancies or to fill new 26487
positions related to the chancellor's duties under this section, 26488
shall be exempt from Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code and shall 26489
not be public employees as defined in section 4117.01 of the 26490
Revised Code.26491

       Sec. 3353.05.        Sec. 3333.91.  Any taxing authority as defined in 26492
section 5705.01 of the Revised Code located in a county may pay to 26493
any noncommercial educational television or radio broadcasting 26494
station or radio reading service located in the county or serving 26495
any part of the county an amount not to exceed five cents annually 26496
on each one thousand dollars of the total value of all property 26497
within the county as listed and assessed for taxation at the close 26498
of the fiscal year immediately preceding the year in which the 26499
payment is made.26500

       Sec. 3353.06.        Sec. 3333.92.  (A) The affiliates services fund is 26501
hereby created in the state treasury. The eTech Ohio commission26502
chancellor of the Ohio board of regents shall deposit any money it 26503
receives for services provided to affiliates to the credit of the 26504
fund, including:26505

       (1) Reimbursements for services provided to stations;26506

       (2) Charges levied for maintenance of telecommunications, 26507
broadcasting, or transmission equipment;26508

       (3) Contract or grant payments from affiliates.26509

       (B) The commissionchancellor shall use money credited to the 26510
affiliates services fund for any commission operating purposes, 26511
including:26512

       (1) The purchase, repair, or maintenance of 26513
telecommunications, broadcasting, or transmission equipment;26514

       (2) The purchase or lease of educational programming;26515

       (3) The purchase of tape and maintenance of a media library;26516

       (4) Professional development programs and services;26517

       (5) Administrative expenses.26518

       Sec. 3353.07.        Sec. 3333.93.  (A) There is hereby created the Ohio 26519
government telecommunications service. The Ohio government 26520
telecommunications service shall provide the state government and 26521
affiliated organizations with multimedia support including audio, 26522
visual, and internet services, multimedia streaming, and hosting 26523
multimedia programs.26524

       Services relating to the official activities of the general 26525
assembly and the executive offices provided by the Ohio government 26526
telecommunications service shall be funded through grants to a 26527
public television broadcasting station that will manage the staff 26528
and provide the services of the Ohio government telecommunications 26529
service. The Ohio educational television stations shall select a 26530
member station to manage the Ohio government telecommunications 26531
service. The Ohio government telecommunications service shall 26532
receive grants from, or contract with, any of the three branches 26533
of Ohio government, and their affiliates, to provide additional 26534
services. Services provided by the Ohio government 26535
telecommunications service shall not be used for political 26536
purposes included in campaign materials, or otherwise used to 26537
influence an election, legislation, issue, judicial decision, or 26538
other policy of state government.26539

       (B)(1) There is hereby created the legislative programming 26540
committee of the Ohio government telecommunications service that 26541
shall consist of the president of the senate, speaker of the house 26542
of representatives, minority leader of the senate, and minority 26543
leader of the house of representatives, or their designees, and 26544
the clerks of the senate and house of representatives as 26545
nonvoting, ex officio members. By a vote of a majority of its 26546
members, the program committee may add additional members to the 26547
committee.26548

       (2) The legislative programming committee shall adopt rules 26549
that govern the operation of the Ohio government 26550
telecommunications service relating to the general assembly and 26551
any affiliated organizations.26552

       Sec. 3353.11.        Sec. 3333.94.  There is hereby created in the state 26553
treasury the governmental telecommunications operating fund. The 26554
fund shall consist of money received from contract services of the 26555
Ohio government telecommunications service and shall be used for 26556
operations or equipment breakdowns related to the service. Only 26557
the Ohio government telecommunications service may authorize the 26558
spending of money in the fund. All investment earnings of the fund 26559
shall be credited to the fund. Once the fund has a balance of 26560
zero, the fund shall cease to exist.26561

       Sec. 3345.12.  (A) As used in this section and sections 26562
3345.07 and 3345.11 of the Revised Code, in other sections of the 26563
Revised Code that make reference to this section unless the 26564
context does not permit, and in related bond proceedings unless 26565
otherwise expressly provided:26566

       (1) "State university or college" means each of the state 26567
universities identified in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code 26568
and the northeast Ohio medical university, and includes its board 26569
of trustees.26570

       (2) "Institution of higher education" or "institution" means 26571
a state university or college, or a community college district, 26572
technical college district, university branch district, or state 26573
community college, and includes the applicable board of trustees 26574
or, in the case of a university branch district, any other 26575
managing authority.26576

       (3) "Housing and dining facilities" means buildings, 26577
structures, and other improvements, and equipment, real estate, 26578
and interests in real estate therefor, to be used for or in 26579
connection with dormitories or other living quarters and 26580
accommodations, or related dining halls or other food service and 26581
preparation facilities, for students, members of the faculty, 26582
officers, or employees of the institution of higher education, and 26583
their spouses and families.26584

       (4) "Auxiliary facilities" means buildings, structures, and 26585
other improvements, and equipment, real estate, and interests in 26586
real estate therefor, to be used for or in connection with student 26587
activity or student service facilities, housing and dining 26588
facilities, dining halls, and other food service and preparation 26589
facilities, vehicular parking facilities, bookstores, athletic and 26590
recreational facilities, faculty centers, auditoriums, assembly 26591
and exhibition halls, hospitals, infirmaries and other medical and 26592
health facilities, research, and continuing education facilities.26593

       (5) "Education facilities" means buildings, structures, and 26594
other improvements, and equipment, real estate, and interests in 26595
real estate therefor, to be used for or in connection with, 26596
classrooms or other instructional facilities, libraries, 26597
administrative and office facilities, and other facilities, other 26598
than auxiliary facilities, to be used directly or indirectly for 26599
or in connection with the conduct of the institution of higher 26600
education.26601

       (6) "Facilities" means housing and dining facilities, 26602
auxiliary facilities, or education facilities, and includes any 26603
one, part of, or any combination of such facilities, and further 26604
includes site improvements, utilities, machinery, furnishings, and 26605
any separate or connected buildings, structures, improvements, 26606
sites, open space and green space areas, utilities or equipment to 26607
be used in, or in connection with the operation or maintenance of, 26608
or supplementing or otherwise related to the services or 26609
facilities to be provided by, such facilities.26610

       (7) "Obligations" means bonds or notes or other evidences of 26611
obligation, including interest coupons pertaining thereto, 26612
authorized to be issued under this section or section 3345.07, 26613
3345.11, 3354.121, 3355.091, 3357.112, or 3358.10 of the Revised 26614
Code.26615

       (8) "Bond service charges" means principal, including any 26616
mandatory sinking fund or redemption requirements for the 26617
retirement of obligations or assurances, interest, or interest 26618
equivalent and other accreted amounts, and any call premium 26619
required to be paid on obligations or assurances.26620

       (9) "Bond proceedings" means the resolutions, trust 26621
agreement, indenture, and other agreements and credit enhancement 26622
facilities, and amendments and supplements to the foregoing, or 26623
any one or more or combination thereof, authorizing, awarding, or 26624
providing for the terms and conditions applicable to, or providing 26625
for the security or liquidity of, obligations or assurances, and 26626
the provisions contained in those obligations or assurances.26627

       (10) "Costs of facilities" means the costs of acquiring, 26628
constructing, reconstructing, rehabilitating, remodeling, 26629
renovating, enlarging, improving, equipping, or furnishing 26630
facilities, and the financing thereof, including the cost of 26631
clearance and preparation of the site and of any land to be used 26632
in connection with facilities, the cost of any indemnity and 26633
surety bonds and premiums on insurance, all related direct 26634
administrative expenses and allocable portions of direct costs of 26635
the institution of higher education or state agency, cost of 26636
engineering, architectural services, design, plans, specifications 26637
and surveys, estimates of cost, legal fees, fees and expenses of 26638
trustees, depositories, bond registrars, and paying agents for the 26639
obligations, cost of issuance of the obligations and financing 26640
costs and fees and expenses of financial advisers and consultants 26641
in connection therewith, interest on the obligations from the date 26642
thereof to the time when interest is to be covered by available 26643
receipts or other sources other than proceeds of the obligations, 26644
amounts necessary to establish reserves as required by the bond 26645
proceedings, costs of audits, the reimbursements of all moneys 26646
advanced or applied by or borrowed from the institution or others, 26647
from whatever source provided, including any temporary advances 26648
from state appropriations, for the payment of any item or items of 26649
cost of facilities, and all other expenses necessary or incident 26650
to planning or determining feasibility or practicability with 26651
respect to facilities, and such other expenses as may be necessary 26652
or incident to the acquisition, construction, reconstruction, 26653
rehabilitation, remodeling, renovation, enlargement, improvement, 26654
equipment, and furnishing of facilities, the financing thereof and 26655
the placing of them in use and operation, including any one, part 26656
of, or combination of such classes of costs and expenses.26657

       (11) "Available receipts" means all moneys received by the 26658
institution of higher education, including income, revenues, and 26659
receipts from the operation, ownership, or control of facilities 26660
or entrepreneurial projects, grants, gifts, donations, and pledges 26661
and receipts therefrom, receipts from fees and charges, and the 26662
proceeds of the sale of obligations or assurances, including 26663
proceeds of obligations or assurances issued to refund obligations 26664
or assurances previously issued, but excluding any special fee, 26665
and receipts therefrom, charged pursuant to division (D) of 26666
section 154.21 of the Revised Code.26667

       (12) "Credit enhancement facilities" has the meaning given in 26668
division (H) of section 133.01 of the Revised Code.26669

       (13) "Financing costs" has the meaning given in division (K) 26670
of section 133.01 of the Revised Code.26671

       (14) "Interest" or "interest equivalent" has the meaning 26672
given in division (R) of section 133.01 of the Revised Code.26673

       (15) "Assurances" means bonds, notes, or other evidence of 26674
indebtedness, including interest coupons pertaining thereto, 26675
authorized to be issued under section 3345.36 of the Revised Code.26676

       (16) "Entrepreneurial project" has the same meaning as in 26677
section 3345.36 of the Revised Code.26678

        (17) "Costs of entrepreneurial projects" means any costs 26679
related to the establishment or development of entrepreneurial 26680
projects pursuant to a resolution adopted under section 3345.36 of 26681
the Revised Code.26682

       (B) Obligations issued under section 3345.07 or 3345.11 of 26683
the Revised Code by a state university or college shall be 26684
authorized by resolution of its board of trustees. Obligations 26685
issued by any other institution of higher education shall be 26686
authorized by resolution of its board of trustees, or managing 26687
directors in the case of certain university branch districts, as 26688
applicable. Sections 9.96 and 9.98 to 9.983 of the Revised Code 26689
apply to obligations and assurances. Obligations and assurances 26690
may be issued to pay costs of facilities or entrepreneurial 26691
projects even if the institution anticipates the possibility of a 26692
future state appropriation to pay all or a portion of such costs.26693

       (C) Obligations and assurances shall be secured by a pledge 26694
of and lien on all or such part of the available receipts of the 26695
institution of higher education as it provides for in the bond 26696
proceedings, excluding moneys raised by taxation and state 26697
appropriations except as permitted by section 3333.903333.59 of 26698
the Revised Code. Such pledge and lien may be made prior to all 26699
other expenses, claims, or payments, excepting any pledge of such 26700
available receipts previously made to the contrary and except as 26701
provided by any existing restrictions on the use thereof, or such 26702
pledge and lien may be made subordinate to such other expenses, 26703
claims, or payments, as provided in the bond proceedings. 26704
Obligations or assurances may be additionally secured by covenants 26705
of the institution to make, fix, adjust, collect, and apply such 26706
charges, rates, fees, rentals, and other items of available 26707
receipts as will produce pledged available receipts sufficient to 26708
meet bond service charges, reserve, and other requirements 26709
provided for in the bond proceedings. Notwithstanding this and any 26710
other sections of the Revised Code, the holders or owners of the 26711
obligations or assurances shall not be given the right and shall 26712
have no right to have excises or taxes levied by the general 26713
assembly for the payment of bond service charges thereon, and each 26714
such obligation or assurance shall bear on its face a statement to 26715
that effect and to the effect that the right to such payment is 26716
limited to the available receipts and special funds pledged to 26717
such purpose under the bond proceedings.26718

       All pledged available receipts and funds and the proceeds of 26719
obligations or assurances are trust funds and, subject to the 26720
provisions of this section and the applicable bond proceedings, 26721
shall be held, deposited, invested, reinvested, disbursed, 26722
applied, and used to such extent, in such manner, at such times, 26723
and for such purposes, as are provided in the bond proceedings.26724

       (D) The bond proceedings for obligations or assurances shall 26725
provide for the purpose thereof and the principal amount or 26726
maximum principal amount, and provide for or authorize the manner 26727
of determining the principal maturity or maturities, the sale 26728
price including any permitted discount, the interest rate or 26729
rates, which may be a variable rate or rates, or the maximum 26730
interest rate, the date of the obligations or assurances and the 26731
date or dates of payment of interest thereon, their denominations, 26732
the manner of sale thereof, and the establishment within or 26733
without the state of a place or places of payment of bond service 26734
charges. The bond proceedings also shall provide for a pledge of 26735
and lien on available receipts of the institution of higher 26736
education as provided in division (C) of this section, and a 26737
pledge of and lien on such fund or funds provided in the bond 26738
proceedings arising from available receipts, which pledges and 26739
liens may provide for parity with obligations or assurances 26740
theretofore or thereafter issued by the institution. The available 26741
receipts so pledged and thereafter received by the institution and 26742
the funds so pledged are immediately subject to the lien of such 26743
pledge without any physical delivery thereof or further act, and 26744
the lien of any such pledge is valid and binding against all 26745
parties having claims of any kind against the institution, 26746
irrespective of whether such parties have notice thereof, and 26747
shall create a perfected security interest for all purposes of 26748
Chapter 1309. of the Revised Code, without the necessity for 26749
separation or delivery of funds or for the filing or recording of 26750
the bond proceedings by which such pledge is created or any 26751
certificate, statement, or other document with respect thereto; 26752
and the pledge of such available receipts and funds shall be 26753
effective and the money therefrom and thereof may be applied to 26754
the purposes for which pledged without necessity for any act of 26755
appropriation.26756

       (E) The bond proceedings may contain additional provisions 26757
customary or appropriate to the financing or to the obligations or 26758
assurances or to particular obligations and assurances, including:26759

       (1) The acquisition, construction, reconstruction, equipment, 26760
furnishing, improvement, operation, alteration, enlargement, 26761
maintenance, insurance, and repair of facilities or 26762
entrepreneurial projects, and the duties of the institution of 26763
higher education with reference thereto;26764

       (2) The terms of the obligations or assurances, including 26765
provisions for their redemption prior to maturity at the option of 26766
the institution of higher education at such price or prices and 26767
under such terms and conditions as are provided in the bond 26768
proceedings;26769

       (3) Limitations on the purposes to which the proceeds of the 26770
obligations or assurances may be applied;26771

       (4) The rates or rentals or other charges for the use of or 26772
right to use the facilities or entrepreneurial projects financed 26773
by the obligations or assurances, or other properties the revenues 26774
or receipts from which are pledged to the obligations or 26775
assurances, and rules for assuring any applicable use and 26776
occupancy thereof, including limitations upon the right to modify 26777
such rates, rentals, other charges, or regulations;26778

       (5) The use and expenditure of the pledged available receipts 26779
in such manner and to such extent as shall be determined, which 26780
may include provision for the payment of the expenses of 26781
operation, maintenance, and repair of facilities or 26782
entrepreneurial projects so that such expenses, or part thereof, 26783
shall be paid or provided as a charge prior or subsequent to the 26784
payment of bond service charges and any other payments required to 26785
be made by the bond proceedings;26786

       (6) Limitations on the issuance of additional obligations or 26787
assurances;26788

       (7) The terms of any trust agreement or indenture securing 26789
the obligations or assurances or under which the same may be 26790
issued;26791

       (8) The deposit, investment, and application of funds, and 26792
the safeguarding of funds on hand or on deposit without regard to 26793
Chapter 131. or 135. of the Revised Code, and any bank or trust 26794
company or other financial institution that acts as depository of 26795
any moneys under the bond proceedings shall furnish such 26796
indemnifying bonds or pledge such securities as required by the 26797
bond proceedings or otherwise by the institution of higher 26798
education;26799

       (9) The binding effect of any or every provision of the bond 26800
proceedings upon such officer, board, commission, authority, 26801
agency, department, or other person or body as may from time to 26802
time have the authority under law to take such actions as may be 26803
necessary to perform all or any part of the duty required by such 26804
provision;26805

       (10) Any provision that may be made in a trust agreement or 26806
indenture;26807

       (11) Any other or additional agreements with respect to the 26808
facilities of the institution of higher education or its 26809
entrepreneurial projects, their operation, the available receipts 26810
and funds pledged, and insurance of facilities or entrepreneurial 26811
projects and of the institution, its officers and employees.26812

       (F) Such obligations or assurances may have the seal of the 26813
institution of higher education or a facsimile thereof affixed 26814
thereto or printed thereon and shall be executed by such officers 26815
as are designated in the bond proceedings, which execution may be 26816
by facsimile signatures. Any obligations or assurances may be 26817
executed by an officer who, on the date of execution, is the 26818
proper officer although on the date of such obligations or 26819
assurances such person was not the proper officer. In case any 26820
officer whose signature or a facsimile of whose signature appears 26821
on any such obligation or assurance ceases to be such officer 26822
before delivery thereof, such signature or facsimile is 26823
nevertheless valid and sufficient for all purposes as if the 26824
person had remained such officer until such delivery; and in case 26825
the seal of the institution has been changed after a facsimile of 26826
the seal has been imprinted on such obligations or assurances, 26827
such facsimile seal continues to be sufficient as to such 26828
obligations or assurances and obligations or assurances issued in 26829
substitution or exchange therefor.26830

       (G) All such obligations or assurances are negotiable 26831
instruments and securities under Chapter 1308. of the Revised 26832
Code, subject to the provisions of the bond proceedings as to 26833
registration. The obligations or assurances may be issued in 26834
coupon or in registered form, or both. Provision may be made for 26835
the registration of any obligations or assurances with coupons 26836
attached thereto as to principal alone or as to both principal and 26837
interest, their exchange for obligations or assurances so 26838
registered, and for the conversion or reconversion into 26839
obligations or assurances with coupons attached thereto of any 26840
obligations or assurances registered as to both principal and 26841
interest, and for reasonable charges for such registration, 26842
exchange, conversion, and reconversion.26843

       (H) Pending preparation of definitive obligations or 26844
assurances, the institution of higher education may issue interim 26845
receipts or certificates which shall be exchanged for such 26846
definitive obligations or assurances.26847

       (I) Such obligations or assurances may be secured 26848
additionally by a trust agreement or indenture between the 26849
institution of higher education and a corporate trustee, which may 26850
be any trust company or bank having the powers of a trust company 26851
within or without this state but authorized to exercise trust 26852
powers within this state. Any such agreement or indenture may 26853
contain the resolution authorizing the issuance of the obligations 26854
or assurances, any provisions that may be contained in the bond 26855
proceedings as authorized by this section, and other provisions 26856
which are customary or appropriate in an agreement or indenture of 26857
such type, including:26858

       (1) Maintenance of each pledge, trust agreement, and 26859
indenture, or other instrument comprising part of the bond 26860
proceedings until the institution of higher education has fully 26861
paid the bond service charges on the obligations or assurances 26862
secured thereby, or provision therefor has been made;26863

       (2) In the event of default in any payments required to be 26864
made by the bond proceedings, or any other agreement of the 26865
institution of higher education made as a part of the contract 26866
under which the obligations or assurances were issued, enforcement 26867
of such payments or agreement by mandamus, the appointment of a 26868
receiver, suit in equity, action at law, or any combination of the 26869
foregoing;26870

       (3) The rights and remedies of the holders of obligations or 26871
assurances and of the trustee, and provisions for protecting and 26872
enforcing them, including limitations on rights of individual 26873
holders of obligations or assurances;26874

       (4) The replacement of any obligations or assurances that 26875
become mutilated or are destroyed, lost, or stolen;26876

       (5) Such other provisions as the trustee and the institution 26877
of higher education agree upon, including limitations, conditions, 26878
or qualifications relating to any of the foregoing.26879

       (J) Each duty of the institution of higher education and its 26880
officers or employees, undertaken pursuant to the bond proceedings 26881
or any related agreement or lease made under authority of law, is 26882
hereby established as a duty of such institution, and of each such 26883
officer or employee having authority to perform such duty, 26884
specially enjoined by law resulting from an office, trust, or 26885
station within the meaning of section 2731.01 of the Revised Code. 26886
The persons who are at the time the members of the board of 26887
trustees or the managing directors of the institution or its 26888
officers or employees are not liable in their personal capacities 26889
on such obligations or assurances, or lease, or other agreement of 26890
the institution.26891

       (K) The authority to issue obligations or assurances includes 26892
authority to:26893

       (1) Issue obligations or assurances in the form of bond 26894
anticipation notes and to renew them from time to time by the 26895
issuance of new notes. Such notes are payable solely from the 26896
available receipts and funds that may be pledged to the payment of 26897
such bonds, or from the proceeds of such bonds or renewal notes, 26898
or both, as the institution of higher education provides in its 26899
resolution authorizing such notes. Such notes may be additionally 26900
secured by covenants of the institution to the effect that it will 26901
do such or all things necessary for the issuance of such bonds or 26902
renewal notes in appropriate amount, and either exchange such 26903
bonds or renewal notes therefor or apply the proceeds thereof to 26904
the extent necessary, to make full payment of the bond service 26905
charges on such notes at the time or times contemplated, as 26906
provided in such resolution. Subject to the provisions of this 26907
division, all references to obligations or assurances in this 26908
section apply to such anticipation notes.26909

       (2) Issue obligations or assurances to refund, including 26910
funding and retirement of, obligations or assurances previously 26911
issued to pay costs of facilities or entrepreneurial projects. 26912
Such obligations or assurances may be issued in amounts sufficient 26913
for payment of the principal amount of the obligations or 26914
assurances to be so refunded, any redemption premiums thereon, 26915
principal maturities of any obligations or assurances maturing 26916
prior to the redemption of any other obligations or assurances on 26917
a parity therewith to be so refunded, interest accrued or to 26918
accrue to the maturity date or dates of redemption of such 26919
obligations or assurances, and any expenses incurred or to be 26920
incurred in connection with such refunding or the issuance of the 26921
obligations or assurances.26922

       (L) Obligations and assurances are lawful investments for 26923
banks, societies for savings, savings and loan associations, 26924
deposit guarantee associations, trust companies, trustees, 26925
fiduciaries, insurance companies, including domestic for life and 26926
domestic not for life, trustees or other officers having charge of 26927
sinking and bond retirement or other special funds of political 26928
subdivisions and taxing districts of this state, the commissioners 26929
of the sinking fund, the administrator of workers' compensation in 26930
accordance with the investment policy approved by the bureau of 26931
workers' compensation board of directors pursuant to section 26932
4121.12 of the Revised Code, the state teachers retirement system, 26933
the public employees retirement system, the school employees 26934
retirement system, and the Ohio police and fire pension fund, 26935
notwithstanding any other provisions of the Revised Code or rules 26936
adopted pursuant thereto by any state agency with respect to 26937
investments by them, and are also acceptable as security for the 26938
deposit of public moneys.26939

       (M) All facilities or entrepreneurial projects purchased, 26940
acquired, constructed, or owned by an institution of higher 26941
education, or financed in whole or in part by obligations or 26942
assurances issued by an institution, and used for the purposes of 26943
the institution or other publicly owned and controlled college or 26944
university, is public property used exclusively for a public 26945
purpose, and such property and the income therefrom is exempt from 26946
all taxation and assessment within this state, including ad 26947
valorem and excise taxes. The obligations or assurances, the 26948
transfer thereof, and the income therefrom, including any profit 26949
made on the sale thereof, are at all times free from taxation 26950
within the state. The transfer of tangible personal property by 26951
lease under authority of this section or section 3345.07, 3345.11, 26952
3345.36, 3354.121, 3355.091, 3357.112, or 3358.10 of the Revised 26953
Code is not a sale as used in Chapter 5739. of the Revised Code.26954

       (N) The authority granted by this section is cumulative with 26955
the authority granted to institutions of higher education under 26956
Chapter 154. of the Revised Code, and nothing in this section 26957
impairs or limits the authority granted by Chapter 154. of the 26958
Revised Code. In any lease, agreement, or commitment made by an 26959
institution of higher education under Chapter 154. of the Revised 26960
Code, it may agree to restrict or subordinate any pledge it may 26961
thereafter make under authority of this section.26962

       (O) Title to lands acquired under this section and sections 26963
3345.07 and 3345.11 of the Revised Code by a state university or 26964
college shall be taken in the name of the state.26965

       (P) Except where costs of facilities or entrepreneurial 26966
projects are to be paid in whole or in part from funds 26967
appropriated by the general assembly, section 125.81 of the 26968
Revised Code and the requirement for certification with respect 26969
thereto under section 153.04 of the Revised Code do not apply to 26970
such facilities or entrepreneurial projects.26971

       (Q) A state university or college may sell or lease lands or 26972
interests in land owned by it or by the state for its use, or 26973
facilities authorized to be acquired or constructed by it under 26974
section 3345.07 or 3345.11 of the Revised Code, to permit the 26975
purchasers or lessees thereof to acquire, construct, equip, 26976
furnish, reconstruct, alter, enlarge, remodel, renovate, 26977
rehabilitate, improve, maintain, repair, or maintain and operate 26978
thereon and to provide by lease or otherwise to such institution, 26979
facilities authorized in section 3345.07 or 3345.11 of the Revised 26980
Code or entrepreneurial projects authorized under section 3345.36 26981
of the Revised Code. Such land or interests therein shall be sold 26982
for such appraised value, or leased, and on such terms as the 26983
board of trustees determines. All deeds or other instruments 26984
relating to such sales or leases shall be executed by such officer 26985
of the state university or college as the board of trustees 26986
designates. The state university or college shall hold, invest, or 26987
use the proceeds of such sales or leases for the same purposes for 26988
which proceeds of borrowings may be used under sections 3345.07 26989
and 3345.11 of the Revised Code or, if the proceeds relate to the 26990
sale or lease of entrepreneurial projects, for purposes of section 26991
3345.36 of the Revised Code.26992

       (R) An institution of higher education may pledge available 26993
receipts, to the extent permitted by division (C) of this section 26994
with respect to obligations, to secure the payments to be made by 26995
it under any lease, lease with option to purchase, or 26996
lease-purchase agreement authorized under this section or section 26997
3345.07, 3345.11, 3345.36, 3354.121, 3355.091, 3357.112, or 26998
3358.10 of the Revised Code.26999

       Sec. 3345.16.  The board of trustees of a state college or 27000
university may receive, and hold in trust, for the use and benefit 27001
of the college or university any grant or devise of land, and 27002
donation or bequest of money or other personal property, to be 27003
applied to the general or special use of the college or 27004
university, including use for student loan and scholarship 27005
purposes, unless otherwise directed in the donation or bequest.27006

       The board of trustees of a state college or university may 27007
utilize trust funds to invest in property, real and personal, as a 27008
portion of the holdings in the endowment portfolio under the trust 27009
powers imparted to the board of trustees. Such property, real and 27010
personal, acquired for investment purposes shall be managed by the 27011
board of trustees in the same manner as are other investments in 27012
the college's or university's endowment portfolio. The board of 27013
trustees may lease, lease back, or otherwise contract for the use 27014
of such property in such manner as to provide earning power for 27015
the college or university investment portfolio. Sections 123.01, 27016
123.04123.02, 123.15123.10, and 123.47123.13 of the Revised 27017
Code do not apply to properties, real and personal, held under 27018
this section as earning-power properties in the college or 27019
university endowment portfolio.27020

       Notwithstanding any provision of the Revised Code to the 27021
contrary, the title in properties, real and personal, purchased by 27022
a board of trustees as an investment and held in the college's or 27023
university's endowment portfolio shall not be vested in the state, 27024
but shall be held in trust by the board.27025

       Sec. 3345.28.  The board of trustees of any state university, 27026
medical university, technical college, state community college, 27027
community college, or the board of trustees or managing authority 27028
of any university branch may establish and administer a faculty 27029
improvement program, under which any full-time faculty member with 27030
at least seven academic years of teaching service at the college, 27031
university, or branch may be granted professional leave for a 27032
period not to exceed one academic year to engage in further 27033
education, research, or any other purpose approved by the board. A 27034
board of trustees or managing authority that establishes such a 27035
program shall, by rule, adopt a definition of "academic years of 27036
teaching service" and of "full-time faculty member."27037

       No such board or authority shall pay any faculty member for 27038
or during a period of professional leave any salary exceeding the 27039
amount that would have been paid to such faculty member for 27040
performing the faculty member's regular duties during the period 27041
of the leave. No faculty member shall, by virtue of being on 27042
professional leave, suffer a reduction or termination of the 27043
faculty member's regular employee retirement or insurance benefits 27044
or of any other benefit or privilege being received as a faculty 27045
member at the college, university, or branch where the faculty 27046
member is employed. Whenever such a benefit would be reduced 27047
because of a reduction in the faculty member's salary during the 27048
period of professional leave, the faculty member shall be given a 27049
chance to have the benefit increased to its normal level, in 27050
accordance with rules adopted by the board of trustees or the 27051
managing authority. A faculty member who has been granted 27052
professional leave shall complete another seven years of service 27053
at the college, university, or branch at which the faculty member 27054
is employed before becoming eligible for another grant of 27055
professional leave at that college, university, or branch. 27056
Professional leave taken as part of a faculty improvement program 27057
established under this section shall not be deemed to be in lieu 27058
of released time or assigned duty in connection with a specific 27059
research, scholarly, or creative program.27060

       Boards of trustees and managing authorities may accept moneys 27061
from any person, political subdivision, or the federal government 27062
to support a faculty improvement program, and may establish such 27063
additional rules as are necessary to establish and administer it.27064

       Each grant of professional leave shall be in accordance with 27065
a professional improvement policy for professional leaves that has 27066
been approved by the board of trustees or the managing authority. 27067
No professional leave shall be granted that requires a 27068
compensating addition to the permanent faculty or staff of the 27069
college, university, or branch. No professional leave shall be 27070
approved unless a specific plan for the professional improvement 27071
of the faculty member while on leave has been submitted to and 27072
accepted by the president of the university, college, or branch. 27073
At the completion of the leave, the faculty member shall submit to 27074
the president a report detailing the attainments of the faculty 27075
member under this professional improvement plan.27076

       Not later than the thirtieth day of June of each year, the 27077
chancellor of the board of regents shall report to the 27078
chairpersons of the education committees of the house of 27079
representatives and the senate on the status of implementation of 27080
faculty improvement programs. The report shall include, but need 27081
not be limited to, the following: the number of professional leave 27082
grants made by each institution; the purpose of each professional 27083
leave; and a statement of the cost to the institution of each 27084
professional leave, to the extent that such cost exceeds the 27085
salary of the faculty member on professional leave.27086

       Sec. 3345.50.  Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in 27087
sections 123.01 and 123.15123.10 of the Revised Code, a state 27088
university, a state community college, or the northeast Ohio 27089
medical university not certified pursuant to section 123.17123.2427090
of the Revised Code may administer any capital facilities project 27091
for the construction, reconstruction, improvement, renovation, 27092
enlargement, or alteration of a public improvement under its 27093
jurisdiction for which the total amount of funds expected to be 27094
appropriated by the general assembly does not exceed four million 27095
dollars without the supervision, control, or approval of the 27096
department of administrative servicesOhio facilities construction 27097
commission as specified in those sections, if both of the 27098
following occur:27099

       (A) Within sixty days after the effective date of the section 27100
of an act in which the general assembly initially makes an 27101
appropriation for the project, the board of trustees of the 27102
institution notifies the chancellor of the Ohio board of regents 27103
in writing of its intent to administer the capital facilities 27104
project;27105

       (B) The board of trustees complies with the guidelines 27106
established pursuant to section 153.16 of the Revised Code and all 27107
laws that govern the selection of consultants, preparation and 27108
approval of contract documents, receipt of bids, and award of 27109
contracts with respect to the project.27110

       The chancellor shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 27111
119. of the Revised Code that establish criteria for the 27112
administration by any such institution of higher education of a 27113
capital facilities project for which the total amount of funds 27114
expected to be appropriated by the general assembly exceeds four 27115
million dollars. The criteria, to be developed with the department 27116
of administrative servicesOhio facilities construction commission27117
and higher education representatives selected by the chancellor, 27118
shall include such matters as the adequacy of the staffing levels 27119
and expertise needed for the institution to administer the 27120
project, past performance of the institution in administering such 27121
projects, and the amount of institutional or other nonstate money 27122
to be used in financing the project. The chancellor and the 27123
department of administrative servicesOhio facilities construction 27124
commission shall approve the request of any such institution of 27125
higher education that seeks to administer any such capital 27126
facilities project and meets the criteria set forth in the rules 27127
and in the requirements of division (B) of this section.27128

       Sec. 3345.51.  (A) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary 27129
in sections 123.01123.20 and 123.15123.21 of the Revised Code, a 27130
state university, the northeast Ohio medical university, or a 27131
state community college may administer any capital facilities 27132
project for the construction, reconstruction, improvement, 27133
renovation, enlargement, or alteration of a public improvement 27134
under its jurisdiction for which funds are appropriated by the 27135
general assembly without the supervision, control, or approval of 27136
the department of administrative servicesOhio facilities 27137
construction commission as specified in those sections, if all of 27138
the following occur:27139

       (1) The institution is certified by the state architect27140
commission under section 123.17123.24 of the Revised Code;27141

       (2) Within sixty days after the effective date of the section 27142
of an act in which the general assembly initially makes an 27143
appropriation for the project, the board of trustees of the 27144
institution notifies the chancellor of the Ohio board of regents 27145
in writing of its request to administer the capital facilities 27146
project and the chancellor approves that request pursuant to 27147
division (B) of this section;27148

       (3) The board of trustees passes a resolution stating its 27149
intent to comply with section 153.13 of the Revised Code and the 27150
guidelines established pursuant to section 153.16 of the Revised 27151
Code and all laws that govern the selection of consultants, 27152
preparation and approval of contract documents, receipt of bids, 27153
and award of contracts with respect to the project.27154

       (B) The chancellor shall adopt rules in accordance with 27155
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that establish criteria for the 27156
administration by any such institution of higher education of a 27157
capital facilities project for which the general assembly 27158
appropriates funds. The criteria, to be developed with the 27159
department of administrative servicescommission and higher 27160
education representatives selected by the chancellor, shall 27161
include such matters as the adequacy of the staffing levels and 27162
expertise needed for the institution to administer the project, 27163
past performance of the institution in administering such 27164
projects, and the amount of institutional or other nonstate money 27165
to be used in financing the project. The chancellor shall approve 27166
the request of any such institution of higher education that seeks 27167
to administer any such capital facilities project and meets the 27168
criteria set forth in the rules and the requirements of division 27169
(A) of this section.27170

       (C) Any institution that administers a capital facilities 27171
project under this section shall conduct biennial audits for the 27172
duration of the project to ensure that the institution is 27173
complying with Chapters 9., 123., and 153. of the Revised Code and 27174
that the institution is using its certification issued under 27175
section 123.17123.24 of the Revised Code appropriately. The 27176
chancellor, in consultation with higher education representatives 27177
selected by the chancellor, shall adopt rules in accordance with 27178
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that establish criteria for the 27179
conduct of the audits. The criteria shall include documentation 27180
necessary to determine compliance with Chapters 9., 123., and 153. 27181
of the Revised Code and a method to determine whether an 27182
institution is using its certification issued under section 123.1727183
123.24 of the Revised Code appropriately.27184

       (D) The chancellor, in consultation with higher education 27185
representatives selected by the chancellor, shall adopt rules in 27186
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing 27187
criteria for monitoring capital facilities projects administered 27188
by institutions under this section. The criteria shall include the 27189
following:27190

       (1) Conditions under which the chancellor may revoke the 27191
authority of an institution to administer a capital facilities 27192
project under this section, including the failure of an 27193
institution to maintain a sufficient number of employees who have 27194
successfully completed the certification program under section 27195
123.17123.24 of the Revised Code;27196

       (2) A process for institutions to remedy any problems found 27197
by an audit conducted pursuant to division (C) of this section, 27198
including the improper use of state funds or violations of Chapter 27199
9., 123., or 153. of the Revised Code.27200

       (E) If the chancellor revokes an institution's authority to 27201
administer a capital facilities project, the department of 27202
administrative servicescommission shall administer the capital 27203
facilities project. The chancellor also may require an 27204
institution, for which the chancellor revoked authority to 27205
administer a capital facilities project, to acquire a new local 27206
administration competency certification pursuant to section 123.1727207
123.24 of the Revised Code.27208

       Sec. 3345.54. (A) As used in this section:27209

       (1) "Auxiliary facilities" has the same meaning as in section 27210
3345.12 of the Revised Code.27211

       (2) "Conduit entity" means an organization described in 27212
section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code qualified as a 27213
public charity under section 509(a)(2) or 509(a)(3) of the 27214
Internal Revenue Code, or any other appropriate legal entity 27215
selected by the state institution, whose corporate purpose allows 27216
it to perform the functions and obligations of a conduit entity 27217
pursuant to the terms of a financing agreement.27218

       (3) "Conveyed property" means auxiliary facilities conveyed 27219
by a state institution to a conduit entity pursuant to a financing 27220
agreement.27221

       (4) "Financing agreement" means a contract described in 27222
division (C) of this section. 27223

       (5) "Independent funding source" means a private entity that 27224
enters into a financing agreement with a conduit entity and a 27225
state institution.27226

       (6) "State institution" means a state institution of higher 27227
education as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.27228

       (B) The board of trustees of a state institution, with the 27229
approval of the chancellor of the Ohio board of regents and the 27230
controlling board, may enter into a financing agreement with a 27231
conduit entity and an independent funding source selected either 27232
through a competitive selection process or by direct negotiations, 27233
and may convey to the conduit entity title to any auxiliary 27234
facilities owned by the state institution pursuant to the terms of 27235
a financing agreement.27236

       (C) A financing agreement under this section is a written 27237
contract entered into among a state institution, a conduit entity, 27238
and an independent funding source that provides for:27239

       (1) The conveyance of auxiliary facilities owned by a state 27240
institution to the conduit entity for consideration deemed 27241
adequate by the state institution;27242

       (2) The lease of the conveyed property by the conduit entity 27243
to the independent funding source and leaseback of the conveyed 27244
property to the conduit entity for a term not to exceed 27245
ninety-nine years; 27246

       (3) Such other terms and conditions that may be negotiated 27247
and agreed upon by the parties, including, but not limited to, 27248
terms regarding:27249

       (a) Payment to the state institution by the conduit entity of 27250
revenues received by it from the operations of the conveyed 27251
property in excess of the payments it is required to make to the 27252
independent funding source under the lease-leaseback arrangement 27253
described in division (C)(2) of this section;27254

       (b) Pledge, assignment, or creation of a lien in favor of the 27255
independent funding source by the conduit entity of any revenues 27256
derived from the conveyed property;27257

       (c) Reverter or conveyance of title to the conveyed property 27258
to the state institution when the conveyed property is no longer 27259
subject to a lease with the independent funding source.27260

       (4) Terms and conditions required by the chancellor or the 27261
controlling board as a condition of approval of the financing 27262
agreement. 27263

       (D) The state institution and the conduit entity may enter 27264
into such other management agreements or other contracts regarding 27265
the conveyed property the parties deem appropriate, including 27266
agreements pursuant to which the state institution may maintain or 27267
administer the conveyed property and collect and disburse revenues 27268
from the conveyed property on behalf of the conduit entity.27269

       (E) The parties may modify or extend the term of the 27270
financing agreement with the approval of the chancellor and the 27271
controlling board.27272

       (F) The conveyed property shall retain its exemption from 27273
property taxes and assessments as though title to the conveyed 27274
property were held by the state institution during any part of a 27275
tax year that title is held by the state institution or the 27276
conduit entity and, if held by the conduit entity, remains subject 27277
to the lease-leaseback arrangement described in division (C)(2) of 27278
this section. However, as a condition of the continued exemption 27279
of the conveyed property during the term of the lease-leaseback 27280
arrangement the conduit entity shall apply for and maintain the 27281
exemption as provided by law.27282

       (G) Nothing in this section is intended to abrogate, amend, 27283
limit, or replace any existing authority state institutions may 27284
have with respect to the conveyance, lease, lease-leaseback, 27285
finance, or acquisition of auxiliary facilities including, but not 27286
limited to, authority granted under sections 3345.07, 3345.11, and 27287
3345.12 of the Revised Code.27288

       Sec. 3345.69.  (A) As used in this section:27289

       (1) "State institution of higher education" has the same 27290
meaning as in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.27291

       (2) "Board of trustees of a state institution of higher 27292
education" has the same meaning as in section 3345.61 of the 27293
Revised Code.27294

       (B) The chairperson of the interuniversity council of Ohio 27295
and the secretary of the Ohio association of community colleges 27296
shall assist in coordinating the organization and operation of a 27297
committee to carry out this section. The committee shall be 27298
comprised of the presidents of the state institutions of higher 27299
education or their designees. The committee, in consultation with 27300
the office of energy services of the department of administrative 27301
servicesOhio facilities construction commission, shall develop 27302
guidelines for the board of trustees of each state institution of 27303
higher education to use in ensuring energy efficiency and 27304
conservation in on- and off-campus buildings. Initial guidelines 27305
shall be adopted not later than ninety days after the effective 27306
date of this section. At a minimum, guidelines under this section 27307
shall do all of the following:27308

       (1) Include a goal to reduce on- and off-campus building 27309
energy consumption by at least twenty per cent by 2014, using 27310
calendar year 2004 as the benchmark year, while recognizing the 27311
diverse nature and different energy demands and uses of such 27312
buildings and measures already taken to increase building energy 27313
efficiency and conservation;27314

       (2) Prescribe minimum energy efficiency and conservation 27315
standards for any new, on- or off-campus capital improvement 27316
project with a construction cost of one hundred thousand dollars 27317
or more, which standards shall be based on general building type 27318
and cost-effectiveness;27319

       (3) Prescribe minimum energy efficiency and conservation 27320
standards for the leasing of an off-campus space of at least 27321
twenty-thousand square feet;27322

       (4) Incorporate best practices into energy efficiency and 27323
conservation standards and plans;27324

       (5) Provide that each board develop its own fifteen-year plan 27325
for phasing in energy efficiency and conservation projects;27326

       (6) Provide that project impact assessments include the 27327
fiscal effects of energy efficiency and conservation 27328
recommendations and plans;27329

       (7) Establish mechanisms for each board to report 27330
periodically to the committee on its progress relative to the 27331
guidelines.27332

       (C) The board of trustees of a state institution of higher 27333
education shall adopt rules under section 111.15 of the Revised 27334
Code to carry out the guidelines established pursuant to division 27335
(B) of this section, including in the execution of the board's 27336
authority under sections 3345.62 to 3345.66 of the Revised Code.27337

       Sec. 3345.692.  (A) Not later than September 15, 2010, and 27338
the fifteenth day of September each year thereafter, a state 27339
institution of higher education shall prepare and submit to the 27340
chancellor of the board of regents a report that describes the 27341
number and types of biobased products purchased under section 27342
125.092 of the Revised Code and the amount of money spent by the 27343
state institution of higher education for those biobased products.27344

       (B) Not later than September 30, 2010, and the thirtieth day 27345
of September each year thereafter, the chancellor of the board of 27346
regents shall prepare and submit to the governor, the president of 27347
the senate, and the speaker of the house of representatives a 27348
report that describes the number and types of biobased products 27349
purchased under section 125.092 of the Revised Code and the amount 27350
of money spent by state institutions of higher education for those 27351
biobased products as that information is provided to the 27352
chancellor under division (A) of this section.27353

       (C) As used in this section, "state institution of higher 27354
education" has the same meaning as in section 3345.011 of the 27355
Revised Code.27356

       Sec. 3347.03.  Each commission created by section 3347.01 of 27357
the Revised Code may acquire property of any kind by purchase, 27358
gift, or devise and hold and use any such property, or may use 27359
state lands at their respective universities upon consent of the 27360
respective boards of trustees thereof, for the erection, 27361
remodeling, or improving and equipping of buildings for suitable 27362
housing, dormitory, dining hall, and recreational accommodations, 27363
referred to as "buildings" in sections 3347.03 to 3347.08 of the 27364
Revised Code, for students, instructors, members of the faculty, 27365
the administration and maintenance staff of the universities with 27366
which each commission is identified, and their families. The 27367
construction, remodeling, or improving of any such buildings shall 27368
be in accordance with plans and specifications approved by the 27369
commission and with sections 153.01 and 153.04 to 153.20 of the 27370
Revised Code, except that the commission may act in all instances 27371
where the department of administrative servicesOhio facilities 27372
construction commission is mentioned in such sections.27373

       Sec. 3383.02.  (A) There is hereby created the Ohio cultural 27374
facilities commission. The commission shall engage in and provide 27375
for the development, performance, and presentation or making 27376
available of culture and professional sports and athletics to the 27377
public in this state, and the provision of training or education 27378
in culture, by the exercise of its powers under this chapter, 27379
including the provision, operation, management, and cooperative 27380
use of Ohio cultural facilities and Ohio sports facilities. The 27381
commission is a body corporate and politic, an agency of state 27382
government and an instrumentality of the state, performing 27383
essential governmental functions of this state. The carrying out 27384
of the purposes and the exercise by the commission of its powers 27385
conferred by this chapter are essential public functions and 27386
public purposes of the state and of state government. The 27387
commission may, in its own name, sue and be sued, enter into 27388
contracts, and perform all the powers and duties given to it by 27389
this chapter; however, it does not have and shall not exercise the 27390
power of eminent domain.27391

       (B) The commission shall consist of twelve members, nine of 27392
whom shall be voting members and three of whom shall be nonvoting 27393
members. The nine voting members shall be appointed by the 27394
governor, with the advice and consent of the senate, from 27395
different geographical regions of the state. In addition, one of 27396
the voting members shall represent the state architectOhio 27397
facilities construction commission. Not more than five of the 27398
members appointed by the governor shall be affiliated with the 27399
same political party. The nonvoting members shall be the staff 27400
director of the Ohio arts council, a member of the senate 27401
appointed by the president of the senate, and a member of the 27402
house of representatives appointed by the speaker of the house.27403

       (C) Of the five initial appointments made by the governor, 27404
one shall be for a term expiring December 31, 1989, two shall be 27405
for terms expiring December 31, 1990, and two shall be for terms 27406
expiring December 31, 1991. Of the initial appointments of the 27407
sixth and seventh voting members made by the governor, one shall 27408
be for a term expiring December 31, 2003, and one shall be for a 27409
term expiring December 31, 2004. Of the initial appointments of 27410
the eighth and ninth voting members made by the governor, one 27411
shall be for a term expiring December 31, 2007, and one shall be 27412
for a term expiring December 31, 2008. These voting members shall 27413
be appointed within sixty days after the effective date of this 27414
amendmentSeptember 29, 2005. Thereafter, each such term shall be 27415
for three years, commencing on the first day of January and ending 27416
on the thirty-first day of December. Each appointment by the 27417
president of the senate and by the speaker of the house of 27418
representatives shall be for the balance of the then legislative 27419
biennium. Each member shall hold office from the date of the 27420
member's appointment until the end of the term for which the 27421
member was appointed. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy 27422
occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which the 27423
member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the 27424
remainder of such term. Any member shall continue in office 27425
subsequent to the expiration date of the member's term until the 27426
member's successor takes office, or until a period of sixty days 27427
has elapsed, whichever occurs first.27428

       (D) Members of the commission shall serve without 27429
compensation.27430

       (E) Organizational meetings of the commission shall be held 27431
at the first meeting of each calendar year. At each organizational 27432
meeting, the commission shall elect from among its voting members 27433
a chairperson, a vice-chairperson, and a secretary-treasurer, who 27434
shall serve until the next annual meeting. The commission shall 27435
adopt rules pursuant to section 111.15 of the Revised Code for the 27436
conduct of its internal business and shall keep a journal of its 27437
proceedings.27438

       (F) Five voting members of the commission constitute a 27439
quorum, and the affirmative vote of five members is necessary for 27440
approval of any action taken by the commission. A vacancy in the 27441
membership of the commission does not impair a quorum from 27442
exercising all the rights and performing all the duties of the 27443
commission. Meetings of the commission may be held anywhere in the 27444
state, and shall be held in compliance with section 121.22 of the 27445
Revised Code.27446

       (G) All expenses incurred in carrying out this chapter are 27447
payable solely from money accrued under this chapter or 27448
appropriated for these purposes by the general assembly, and the 27449
commission shall incur no liability or obligation beyond such 27450
money.27451

       (H) The commission shall file an annual report of its 27452
activities and finances with the governor, director of budget and 27453
management, speaker of the house of representatives, president of 27454
the senate, and chairpersons of the house and senate finance 27455
committees.27456

       (I) There is hereby established in the state treasury the 27457
Ohio cultural facilities commission administration fund. All 27458
revenues of the commission shall be credited to that fund and to 27459
any accounts created in that fund with the commission's approval. 27460
All expenses of the commission, including reimbursement of, or 27461
payment to, any other fund or any governmental agency for advances 27462
made or services rendered to or on behalf of the commission, shall 27463
be paid from that fund as determined by or pursuant to directions 27464
of the commission. All investment earnings of that fund shall be 27465
credited to it and shall be allocated among any accounts created 27466
in the fund in the manner determined by the commission.27467

       (J) Title to all real property and lesser interests in real 27468
property acquired by the commission, including leasehold and other 27469
interests, pursuant to this chapter shall be taken in the name of 27470
the state and shall be held for the use and benefit of the 27471
commission. The commission shall not mortgage such real property 27472
and interests in real property. Title to other property and 27473
interests in it acquired by the commission pursuant to this 27474
chapter shall be taken in its name.27475

       Sec. 3383.07.  (A) The department of administrative services27476
Ohio facilities construction commission shall provide for the 27477
construction of a cultural project in conformity with Chapter 153. 27478
of the Revised Code, except as follows:27479

       (1) For a cultural project other than a state historical 27480
facility, construction services may be provided on behalf of the 27481
state by the Ohio cultural facilities commission, or by a 27482
governmental agency or a cultural organization that occupies, will 27483
occupy, or is responsible for the Ohio cultural facility, as 27484
determined by the Ohio cultural facilities commission. For a 27485
project receiving a state appropriation of fifty thousand dollars 27486
or less, the Ohio cultural facilities commission may delegate to 27487
its executive director the authority to approve the provision of 27488
construction services by such an agency or organization, but not 27489
the authority to disapprove that provision. Construction services 27490
to be provided by a governmental agency or a cultural organization 27491
shall be specified in an agreement between the Ohio cultural 27492
facilities commission and the governmental agency or cultural 27493
organization. The agreement, or any actions taken under it, are 27494
not subject to Chapter 123. or 153. of the Revised Code, except 27495
for sections 123.081 and 153.011 of the Revised Code, and shall be 27496
subject to Chapter 4115. of the Revised Code.27497

       (2) For a cultural project that is a state historical 27498
facility, construction services may be provided by the Ohio 27499
cultural facilities commission or by a cultural organization that 27500
occupies, will occupy, or is responsible for the facility, as 27501
determined by the Ohio cultural facilities commission. For a 27502
facility receiving a state appropriation of fifty thousand dollars 27503
or less, the Ohio cultural facilities commission may delegate to 27504
its executive director the authority to approve the provision of 27505
construction services by such an organization, but not the 27506
authority to disapprove that provision. The construction services 27507
to be provided by the cultural organization shall be specified in 27508
an agreement between the Ohio cultural facilities commission and 27509
the cultural organization. That agreement, and any actions taken 27510
under it, are not subject to Chapter 123., 153., or 4115. of the 27511
Revised Code.27512

       (B) For an Ohio sports facility that is financed in part by 27513
obligations issued pursuant to Chapter 154. of the Revised Code, 27514
construction services shall be provided on behalf of the state by 27515
or at the direction of the governmental agency or nonprofit 27516
corporation that will own or be responsible for the management of 27517
the facility, all as determined by the Ohio cultural facilities 27518
commission. For a facility receiving a state appropriation of 27519
fifty thousand dollars or less, the Ohio cultural facilities27520
commission may delegate to its executive director the authority to 27521
approve the provision of construction services by or at the 27522
direction of the agency or corporation, but not the authority to 27523
disapprove that provision. Any construction services to be 27524
provided by a governmental agency or nonprofit corporation shall 27525
be specified in an agreement between the Ohio cultural facilities27526
commission and the governmental agency or nonprofit corporation. 27527
That agreement, and any actions taken under it, are not subject to 27528
Chapter 123. or 153. of the Revised Code, except for sections 27529
123.081 and 153.011 of the Revised Code, and shall be subject to 27530
Chapter 4115. of the Revised Code.27531

       (C) General building services for an Ohio cultural facility 27532
shall be provided by the Ohio cultural facilities commission or by 27533
a cultural organization that occupies, will occupy, or is 27534
responsible for the facility, as determined by the Ohio cultural 27535
facilities commission. For a facility receiving a state 27536
appropriation of fifty thousand dollars or less, the Ohio cultural 27537
facilities commission may delegate to its executive director the 27538
authority to approve the provision of general building services by 27539
such an organization, but not the authority to disapprove that 27540
provision. Alternatively, the Ohio building authority may elect to 27541
provide those services for Ohio cultural facilities financed with 27542
proceeds of state bonds issued by the authority. The costs of 27543
management and general building services shall be paid by the 27544
cultural organization that occupies, will occupy, or is 27545
responsible for the facility as provided in an agreement between 27546
the Ohio cultural facilities commission and the cultural 27547
organization, except that the state may pay for general building 27548
services for state-owned cultural facilities constructed on 27549
state-owned land.27550

       General building services for an Ohio sports facility shall 27551
be provided by or at the direction of the governmental agency or 27552
nonprofit corporation that will be responsible for the management 27553
of the facility, all as determined by the Ohio cultural facilities27554
commission. For a facility receiving a state appropriation of 27555
fifty thousand dollars or less, the Ohio cultural facilities27556
commission may delegate to its executive director the authority to 27557
approve the provision of general building services by or at the 27558
direction of the agency or corporation, but not the authority to 27559
disapprove that provision. Any general building services to be 27560
provided by a governmental agency or nonprofit corporation for an 27561
Ohio sports facility shall be specified in an agreement between 27562
the Ohio cultural facilities commission and the governmental 27563
agency or nonprofit corporation. That agreement, and any actions 27564
taken under it, are not subject to Chapter 123. or 153. of the 27565
Revised Code, except for sections 123.081 and 153.011 of the 27566
Revised Code, and shall be subject to Chapter 4115. of the Revised 27567
Code.27568

       (D) This division does not apply to a state historical 27569
facility. No state funds, including any state bond proceeds, shall 27570
be spent on the construction of any cultural project under this 27571
chapter unless, with respect to the cultural project and to the 27572
Ohio cultural facility related to the project, all of the 27573
following apply:27574

       (1) The Ohio cultural facilities commission has determined 27575
that there is a need for the cultural project and the Ohio 27576
cultural facility related to the project in the region of the 27577
state in which the Ohio cultural facility is located or for which 27578
the facility is proposed. For a project receiving a state 27579
appropriation of fifty thousand dollars or less, the Ohio cultural 27580
facilities commission may delegate to its executive director the 27581
authority to determine need but only in the affirmative.27582

       (2) The Ohio cultural facilities commission has determined 27583
that, as an indication of substantial regional support for the 27584
cultural project, the cultural organization has made provision 27585
satisfactory to the Ohio cultural facilities commission, in its 27586
sole discretion, for local contributions amounting to not less 27587
than fifty per cent of the total state funding for the cultural 27588
project. For a project receiving a state appropriation of fifty 27589
thousand dollars or less, the Ohio cultural facilities commission 27590
may delegate to its executive director the authority to determine 27591
the adequacy of the regional support but only in the affirmative.27592

       (3) The general assembly has specifically authorized the 27593
spending of money on, or made an appropriation for, the 27594
construction of the cultural project, or for rental payments 27595
relating to the financing of the construction of the cultural 27596
project. Authorization to spend money, or an appropriation, for 27597
planning the cultural project does not constitute authorization to 27598
spend money on, or an appropriation for, construction of the 27599
cultural project.27600

       (E) No state funds, including any state bond proceeds, shall 27601
be spent on the construction of any state historical facility 27602
under this chapter unless the general assembly has specifically 27603
authorized the spending of money on, or made an appropriation for, 27604
the construction of the state historical project related to the 27605
facility, or for rental payments relating to the financing of the 27606
construction of the state historical project. Authorization to 27607
spend money, or an appropriation, for planning the state 27608
historical project does not constitute authorization to spend 27609
money on, or an appropriation for, the construction of the state 27610
historical project.27611

       (F) State funds shall not be used to pay or reimburse more 27612
than fifteen per cent of the initial estimated construction cost 27613
of an Ohio sports facility, excluding any site acquisition cost, 27614
and no state funds, including any state bond proceeds, shall be 27615
spent on any Ohio sports facility under this chapter unless, with 27616
respect to that facility, all of the following apply:27617

       (1) The Ohio cultural facilities commission has determined 27618
that there is a need for the facility in the region of the state 27619
for which the facility is proposed to provide the function of an 27620
Ohio sports facility as provided for in this chapter. For a 27621
facility receiving a state appropriation of fifty thousand dollars 27622
or less, the Ohio cultural facilities commission may delegate to 27623
its executive director the authority to determine need but only in 27624
the affirmative.27625

       (2) As an indication of substantial local support for the 27626
facility, the Ohio cultural facilities commission has received a 27627
financial and development plan satisfactory to it, and provision 27628
has been made, by agreement or otherwise, satisfactory to the Ohio 27629
cultural facilities commission, for a contribution amounting to 27630
not less than eighty-five per cent of the total estimated 27631
construction cost of the facility, excluding any site acquisition 27632
cost, from sources other than the state. For a facility receiving 27633
a state appropriation of fifty thousand dollars or less, the Ohio 27634
cultural facilities commission may delegate to its executive 27635
director the authority to evaluate the financial and development 27636
plan and the contribution and to determine their adequacy but only 27637
in the affirmative.27638

       (3) The general assembly has specifically authorized the 27639
spending of money on, or made an appropriation for, the 27640
construction of the facility, or for rental payments relating to 27641
state financing of all or a portion of the costs of constructing 27642
the facility. Authorization to spend money, or an appropriation, 27643
for planning or determining the feasibility of or need for the 27644
facility does not constitute authorization to spend money on, or 27645
an appropriation for, costs of constructing the facility.27646

       (4) If state bond proceeds are being used for the Ohio sports 27647
facility, the state or a governmental agency owns or has 27648
sufficient property interests in the facility or in the site of 27649
the facility or in the portion or portions of the facility 27650
financed from proceeds of state bonds, which may include, but is 27651
not limited to, the right to use or to require the use of the 27652
facility for the presentation of sport and athletic events to the 27653
public at the facility.27654

       (G) In addition to the requirements of division (F) of this 27655
section, no state funds, including any state bond proceeds, shall 27656
be spent on any Ohio sports facility that is a motorsports 27657
complex, unless, with respect to that facility, both of the 27658
following apply:27659

       (1) Motorsports events shall be presented at the facility 27660
pursuant to a lease entered into with the owner of the facility. 27661
The term of the lease shall be for a period of not less than the 27662
greater of the useful life of the portion of the facility financed 27663
from proceeds of state bonds as determined using the guidelines 27664
for maximum maturities as provided under divisions (B) and (C) of 27665
section 133.20 of the Revised Code, or the period of time 27666
remaining to the date of payment or provision for payment of 27667
outstanding state bonds allocable to costs of the facility, all as 27668
determined by the director of budget and management and certified 27669
by the director to the Ohio cultural facilities commission and to 27670
the treasurer of state. 27671

       (2) Any motorsports organization that commits to using the 27672
facility for an established period of time shall give the 27673
political subdivision in which the facility is located not less 27674
than six months' advance notice if the organization intends to 27675
cease utilizing the facility prior to the expiration of that 27676
established period. Such a motorsports organization shall be 27677
liable to the state for any state funds used on the construction 27678
costs of the facility.27679

       (H) In addition to the requirements of division (F) of this 27680
section, no state bond proceeds shall be spent on any Ohio sports 27681
facility that is a tennis facility, unless the owner or manager of 27682
the facility provides contractual commitments from a national or 27683
international professional tennis organization in a form 27684
acceptable to the cultural facilities commission that assures that 27685
one or more sanctioned professional tennis events will be 27686
presented at the facility during each year that the bonds remain 27687
outstanding.27688

       Sec. 3701.021.  (A) The publicdirector of health council27689
shall adopt, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, 27690
such rules as are necessary to carry out sections 3701.021 to 27691
3701.0210 of the Revised Code, including, but not limited to, 27692
rules to establish the following:27693

       (1) Medical and financial eligibility requirements for the 27694
program for medically handicapped children;27695

       (2) Eligibility requirements for providers of services for 27696
medically handicapped children;27697

       (3) Procedures to be followed by the department of health in 27698
disqualifying providers for violating requirements adopted under 27699
division (A)(2) of this section;27700

       (4) Procedures to be used by the department regarding 27701
application for diagnostic services under division (B) of section 27702
3701.023 of the Revised Code and payment for those services under 27703
division (E) of that section;27704

       (5) Standards for the provision of service coordination by 27705
the department of health and city and general health districts;27706

       (6) Procedures for the department to use to determine the 27707
amount to be paid annually by each county for services for 27708
medically handicapped children and to allow counties to retain 27709
funds under divisions (A)(2) and (3) of section 3701.024 of the 27710
Revised Code;27711

       (7) Financial eligibility requirements for services for Ohio 27712
residents twenty-one years of age or older who have cystic 27713
fibrosis;27714

       (8) Criteria for payment of approved providers who provide 27715
services for medically handicapped children;27716

       (9) Criteria for the department to use in determining whether 27717
the payment of health insurance premiums of participants in the 27718
program for medically handicapped children is cost-effective;27719

       (10) Procedures for appeal of denials of applications under 27720
divisions (A) and (D) of section 3701.023 of the Revised Code, 27721
disqualification of providers, and amounts paid for services;27722

       (11) Terms of appointment for members of the medically 27723
handicapped children's medical advisory council created in section 27724
3701.025 of the Revised Code;27725

       (12) Eligibility requirements for the hemophilia program, 27726
including income and hardship requirements;27727

       (13) If a manufacturer discount program is established under 27728
division (J)(1) of section 3701.023 of the Revised Code, 27729
procedures for administering the program, including criteria and 27730
other requirements for participation in the program by 27731
manufacturers of drugs and nutritional formulas.27732

       (B) The department of health shall develop a manual of 27733
operational procedures and guidelines for the program for 27734
medically handicapped children to implement sections 3701.021 to 27735
3701.0210 of the Revised Code.27736

       Sec. 3701.023.  (A) The department of health shall review 27737
applications for eligibility for the program for medically 27738
handicapped children that are submitted to the department by city 27739
and general health districts and physician providers approved in 27740
accordance with division (C) of this section. The department shall 27741
determine whether the applicants meet the medical and financial 27742
eligibility requirements established by the publicdirector of27743
health council pursuant to division (A)(1) of section 3701.021 of 27744
the Revised Code, and by the department in the manual of 27745
operational procedures and guidelines for the program for 27746
medically handicapped children developed pursuant to division (B) 27747
of that section. Referrals of potentially eligible children for 27748
the program may be submitted to the department on behalf of the 27749
child by parents, guardians, public health nurses, or any other 27750
interested person. The department of health may designate other 27751
agencies to refer applicants to the department of health.27752

       (B) In accordance with the procedures established in rules 27753
adopted under division (A)(4) of section 3701.021 of the Revised 27754
Code, the department of health shall authorize a provider or 27755
providers to provide to any Ohio resident under twenty-one years 27756
of age, without charge to the resident or the resident's family 27757
and without restriction as to the economic status of the resident 27758
or the resident's family, diagnostic services necessary to 27759
determine whether the resident has a medically handicapping or 27760
potentially medically handicapping condition.27761

       (C) The department of health shall review the applications of 27762
health professionals, hospitals, medical equipment suppliers, and 27763
other individuals, groups, or agencies that apply to become 27764
providers. The department shall enter into a written agreement 27765
with each applicant who is determined, pursuant to the 27766
requirements set forth in rules adopted under division (A)(2) of 27767
section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, to be eligible to be a 27768
provider in accordance with the provider agreement required by the 27769
medical assistance program established under section 5111.01 of 27770
the Revised Code. No provider shall charge a medically handicapped 27771
child or the child's parent or guardian for services authorized by 27772
the department under division (B) or (D) of this section.27773

       The department, in accordance with rules adopted under 27774
division (A)(3) of section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, may 27775
disqualify any provider from further participation in the program 27776
for violating any requirement set forth in rules adopted under 27777
division (A)(2) of that section. The disqualification shall not 27778
take effect until a written notice, specifying the requirement 27779
violated and describing the nature of the violation, has been 27780
delivered to the provider and the department has afforded the 27781
provider an opportunity to appeal the disqualification under 27782
division (H) of this section.27783

       (D) The department of health shall evaluate applications from 27784
city and general health districts and approved physician providers 27785
for authorization to provide treatment services, service 27786
coordination, and related goods to children determined to be 27787
eligible for the program for medically handicapped children 27788
pursuant to division (A) of this section. The department shall 27789
authorize necessary treatment services, service coordination, and 27790
related goods for each eligible child in accordance with an 27791
individual plan of treatment for the child. As an alternative, the 27792
department may authorize payment of health insurance premiums on 27793
behalf of eligible children when the department determines, in 27794
accordance with criteria set forth in rules adopted under division 27795
(A)(9) of section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, that payment of 27796
the premiums is cost-effective.27797

       (E) The department of health shall pay, from appropriations 27798
to the department, any necessary expenses, including but not 27799
limited to, expenses for diagnosis, treatment, service 27800
coordination, supportive services, transportation, and accessories 27801
and their upkeep, provided to medically handicapped children, 27802
provided that the provision of the goods or services is authorized 27803
by the department under division (B) or (D) of this section. Money 27804
appropriated to the department of health may also be expended for 27805
reasonable administrative costs incurred by the program. The 27806
department of health also may purchase liability insurance 27807
covering the provision of services under the program for medically 27808
handicapped children by physicians and other health care 27809
professionals.27810

       Payments made to providers by the department of health 27811
pursuant to this division for inpatient hospital care, outpatient 27812
care, and all other medical assistance furnished to eligible 27813
recipients shall be made in accordance with rules adopted by the 27814
publicdirector of health council pursuant to division (A) of 27815
section 3701.021 of the Revised Code.27816

       The departments of health and job and family services shall 27817
jointly implement procedures to ensure that duplicate payments are 27818
not made under the program for medically handicapped children and 27819
the medical assistance program established under section 5111.01 27820
of the Revised Code and to identify and recover duplicate 27821
payments.27822

       (F) At the time of applying for participation in the program 27823
for medically handicapped children, a medically handicapped child 27824
or the child's parent or guardian shall disclose the identity of 27825
any third party against whom the child or the child's parent or 27826
guardian has or may have a right of recovery for goods and 27827
services provided under division (B) or (D) of this section. The 27828
department of health shall require a medically handicapped child 27829
who receives services from the program or the child's parent or 27830
guardian to apply for all third-party benefits for which the child 27831
may be eligible and require the child, parent, or guardian to 27832
apply all third-party benefits received to the amount determined 27833
under division (E) of this section as the amount payable for goods 27834
and services authorized under division (B) or (D) of this section. 27835
The department is the payer of last resort and shall pay for 27836
authorized goods or services, up to the amount determined under 27837
division (E) of this section for the authorized goods or services, 27838
only to the extent that payment for the authorized goods or 27839
services is not made through third-party benefits. When a third 27840
party fails to act on an application or claim for benefits by a 27841
medically handicapped child or the child's parent or guardian, the 27842
department shall pay for the goods or services only after ninety 27843
days have elapsed since the date the child, parents, or guardians 27844
made an application or claim for all third-party benefits. 27845
Third-party benefits received shall be applied to the amount 27846
determined under division (E) of this section. Third-party 27847
payments for goods and services not authorized under division (B) 27848
or (D) of this section shall not be applied to payment amounts 27849
determined under division (E) of this section. Payment made by the 27850
department shall be considered payment in full of the amount 27851
determined under division (E) of this section. Medicaid payments 27852
for persons eligible for the medical assistance program 27853
established under section 5111.01 of the Revised Code shall be 27854
considered payment in full of the amount determined under division 27855
(E) of this section.27856

       (G) The department of health shall administer a program to 27857
provide services to Ohio residents who are twenty-one or more 27858
years of age who have cystic fibrosis and who meet the eligibility 27859
requirements established by thein rules ofadopted by the public27860
director of health council pursuant to division (A)(7) of section 27861
3701.021 of the Revised Code, subject to all provisions of this 27862
section, but not subject to section 3701.024 of the Revised Code.27863

       (H) The department of health shall provide for appeals, in 27864
accordance with rules adopted under section 3701.021 of the 27865
Revised Code, of denials of applications for the program for 27866
medically handicapped children under division (A) or (D) of this 27867
section, disqualification of providers, or amounts paid under 27868
division (E) of this section. Appeals under this division are not 27869
subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.27870

       The department may designate ombudspersons to assist 27871
medically handicapped children or their parents or guardians, upon 27872
the request of the children, parents, or guardians, in filing 27873
appeals under this division and to serve as children's, parents', 27874
or guardians' advocates in matters pertaining to the 27875
administration of the program for medically handicapped children 27876
and eligibility for program services. The ombudspersons shall 27877
receive no compensation but shall be reimbursed by the department, 27878
in accordance with rules of the office of budget and management, 27879
for their actual and necessary travel expenses incurred in the 27880
performance of their duties.27881

       (I) The department of health, and city and general health 27882
districts providing service coordination pursuant to division 27883
(A)(2) of section 3701.024 of the Revised Code, shall provide 27884
service coordination in accordance with the standards set forth in 27885
the rules adopted under section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, 27886
without charge, and without restriction as to economic status.27887

       (J)(1) The department of health may establish a manufacturer 27888
discount program under which a manufacturer of a drug or 27889
nutritional formula is permitted to enter into an agreement with 27890
the department to provide a discount on the price of the drug or 27891
nutritional formula distributed to medically handicapped children 27892
participating in the program for medically handicapped children. 27893
The program shall be administered in accordance with rules adopted 27894
under section 3701.021 of the Revised Code.27895

       (2) If a manufacturer enters into an agreement with the 27896
department as described in division (J)(1) of this section, the 27897
manufacturer and the department may negotiate the amount and terms 27898
of the discount.27899

       (3) In lieu of establishing a discount program as described 27900
in division (J)(1) of this section, the department and a 27901
manufacturer of a drug or nutritional formula may discuss a 27902
donation of drugs, nutritional formulas, or money by the 27903
manufacturer to the department.27904

       Sec. 3701.024.  (A)(1) Under a procedure established in rules 27905
adopted under section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, the department 27906
of health shall determine the amount each county shall provide 27907
annually for the program for medically handicapped children, based 27908
on a proportion of the county's total general property tax 27909
duplicate, not to exceed one-tenth of a mill, and charge the 27910
county for any part of expenses incurred under the program for 27911
treatment services on behalf of medically handicapped children 27912
having legal settlement in the county that is not paid from 27913
federal funds or through the medical assistance program 27914
established under section 5111.01 of the Revised Code. The 27915
department shall not charge the county for expenses exceeding the 27916
difference between the amount determined under division (A)(1) of 27917
this section and any amounts retained under divisions (A)(2) and 27918
(3) of this section.27919

       All amounts collected by the department under division (A)(1) 27920
of this section shall be deposited into the state treasury to the 27921
credit of the medically handicapped children-county assessment 27922
fund, which is hereby created. The fund shall be used by the 27923
department to comply with sections 3701.021 to 3701.028 of the 27924
Revised Code.27925

       (2) The department, in accordance with rules adopted under 27926
section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, may allow each county to 27927
retain up to ten per cent of the amount determined under division 27928
(A)(1) of this section to provide funds to city or general health 27929
districts of the county with which the districts shall provide 27930
service coordination, public health nursing, or transportation 27931
services for medically handicapped children.27932

       (3) In addition to any amount retained under division (A)(2) 27933
of this section, the department, in accordance with rules adopted 27934
under section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, may allow counties 27935
that it determines have significant numbers of potentially 27936
eligible medically handicapped children to retain an amount equal 27937
to the difference between:27938

       (a) Twenty-five per cent of the amount determined under 27939
division (A)(1) of this section;27940

       (b) Any amount retained under division (A)(2) of this 27941
section.27942

       Counties shall use amounts retained under division (A)(3) of 27943
this section to provide funds to city or general health districts 27944
of the county with which the districts shall conduct outreach 27945
activities to increase participation in the program for medically 27946
handicapped children.27947

       (4) Prior to any increase in the millage charged to a county, 27948
the publicdirector of health council shall hold a public hearing 27949
on the proposed increase and shall give notice of the hearing to 27950
each board of county commissioners that would be affected by the 27951
increase at least thirty days prior to the date set for the 27952
hearing. Any county commissioner may appear and give testimony at 27953
the hearing. Any increase in the millage any county is required to 27954
provide for the program for medically handicapped children shall 27955
be determined, and notice of the amount of the increase shall be 27956
provided to each affected board of county commissioners, no later 27957
than the first day of June of the fiscal year next preceding the 27958
fiscal year in which the increase will take effect.27959

       (B) Each board of county commissioners shall establish a 27960
medically handicapped children's fund and shall appropriate 27961
thereto an amount, determined in accordance with division (A)(1) 27962
of this section, for the county's share in providing medical, 27963
surgical, and other aid to medically handicapped children residing 27964
in such county and for the purposes specified in divisions (A)(2) 27965
and (3) of this section. Each county shall use money retained 27966
under divisions (A)(2) and (3) of this section only for the 27967
purposes specified in those divisions.27968

       Sec. 3701.025.  There is hereby created the medically 27969
handicapped children's medical advisory council consisting of 27970
twenty-one members to be appointed by the director of health for 27971
terms set in accordance with rules adopted by the public health 27972
councildirector under division (A)(11) of section 3701.021 of the 27973
Revised Code. The medically handicapped children's medical 27974
advisory council shall advise the director regarding the 27975
administration of the program for medically handicapped children, 27976
the suitable quality of medical practice for providers, and the 27977
requirements for medical eligibility for the program.27978

       All members of the council shall be licensed physicians, 27979
surgeons, dentists, and other professionals in the field of 27980
medicine, representative of the various disciplines involved in 27981
the treatment of children with medically handicapping conditions, 27982
and representative of the treatment facilities involved, such as 27983
hospitals, private and public health clinics, and private 27984
physicians' offices, and shall be eligible for the program.27985

       Members of the council shall receive no compensation, but 27986
shall receive their actual and necessary travel expenses incurred 27987
in the performance of their official duties in accordance with the 27988
rules of the office of budget and management.27989

       Sec. 3701.03.  (A) The director of health shall perform 27990
duties that are incident to the director's position as chief 27991
executive officer of the department of health. The director shall 27992
administer the laws relating to health and sanitation and the 27993
rules of the department of health. The director may designate 27994
employees of the department and, during a public health emergency, 27995
other persons to administer the laws and rules on the director's 27996
behalf.27997

       (B) Nothing in this section authorizes any action that 27998
prevents the fulfillment of duties or impairs the exercise of 27999
authority established by law for any other person or entity.28000

       (C) The director shall prepare sanitary and public health 28001
rules for consideration by the public health council and submit to 28002
the council recommendations for new legislation. The director 28003
shall sit at meetings of the council but shall have no vote.28004

       Sec. 3701.05.  The director of health shall keep the public 28005
health council, health officials, and the general public fully 28006
informed in a printed annual report in regard to the work of the 28007
department of health and on the progress that is being made in 28008
studying the cause and prevention of disease and such kindred 28009
subjects as may contribute to the welfare of the people of the 28010
state.28011

       Sec. 3701.07.  (A) The publicdirector of health council28012
shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 28013
Code defining and classifying hospitals and dispensaries and 28014
providing for the reporting of information by hospitals and 28015
dispensaries. Except as otherwise provided in the Revised Code, 28016
the rules providing for the reporting of information shall not 28017
require inclusion of any confidential patient data or any 28018
information concerning the financial condition, income, expenses, 28019
or net worth of the facilities other than that financial 28020
information already contained in those portions of the medicare or 28021
medicaid cost report that is necessary for the department of 28022
health to certify the per diem cost under section 3701.62 of the 28023
Revised Code. The rules may require the reporting of information 28024
in the following categories:28025

       (1) Information needed to identify and classify the 28026
institution;28027

       (2) Information on facilities and type and volume of services 28028
provided by the institution;28029

       (3) The number of beds listed by category of care provided;28030

       (4) The number of licensed or certified professional 28031
employees by classification;28032

       (5) The number of births that occurred at the institution the 28033
previous calendar year;28034

       (6) Any other information that the councildirector considers 28035
relevant to the safety of patients served by the institution.28036

       Every hospital and dispensary, public or private, annually 28037
shall register with and report to the department of health. 28038
Reports shall be submitted in the manner prescribed in rules 28039
adopted under this division.28040

       (B) Every governmental entity or private nonprofit 28041
corporation or association whose employees or representatives are 28042
defined as residents' rights advocates under divisions (E)(1) and 28043
(2) of section 3721.10 of the Revised Code shall register with the 28044
department of health on forms furnished by the director of health 28045
and shall provide such reasonable identifying information as the 28046
director may prescribe.28047

       The department shall compile a list of the governmental 28048
entities, corporations, or associations registering under this 28049
division and shall update the list annually. Copies of the list 28050
shall be made available to nursing home administrators as defined 28051
in division (C) of section 3721.10 of the Revised Code and to 28052
adult care facility managers as defined in section 5119.70 of the 28053
Revised Code.28054

       Sec. 3701.072. (A) As used in this chapter:28055

        (1) "Bioterrorism" has the same meaning as in section 28056
3701.232 of the Revised Code.28057

        (2) "Surveillance" in the public health service means the 28058
systematic collection, analysis, interpretation, and dissemination 28059
of health data on an ongoing basis, to gain knowledge of the 28060
pattern of disease occurrence and potential in a community in 28061
order to control and prevent disease in the community.28062

       (3) "Trauma center" has the same meaning as in section 28063
4765.01 of the Revised Code.28064

        (B) The publicdirector of health council shall adopt rules 28065
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that require a 28066
trauma center to report information to the director of health 28067
describing the trauma center's preparedness and capacity to 28068
respond to disasters, mass casualties, and bioterrorism. The 28069
council'sdirector's rules may require the reporting of any 28070
information the councildirector considers necessary for an 28071
accurate description of a trauma center's preparedness and 28072
capacity to respond to disasters, mass casualties, and 28073
bioterrorism. Information reported pursuant to this division is 28074
not a public record under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.28075

        (C) Upon request, the department of health shall provide a 28076
summary report of the public health council's rules adopted 28077
pursuant to this section.28078

       (D) The director shall review all information received 28079
pursuant to this section. After reviewing the information, the 28080
director may conduct an evaluation of a trauma center's 28081
preparedness and capacity to respond to disasters, mass 28082
casualties, and bioterrorism. An evaluation conducted pursuant to 28083
this division is not a public record under section 149.43 of the 28084
Revised Code.28085

       Sec. 3701.11.  The director of health and the secretary of 28086
the public health council shall have power to administer oaths in 28087
all parts of the state so far as the exercise of such power is 28088
incidental to the performance of the duties of the director or of 28089
the council.28090

       Sec. 3701.132.  The department of health is hereby designated 28091
as the state agency to administer the "special supplemental 28092
nutrition program for women, infants, and children" established 28093
under the "Child Nutrition Act of 1966," 80 Stat. 885, 42 U.S.C. 28094
1786, as amended. The publicdirector of health council may adopt 28095
rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as necessary 28096
for administering the program. The rules may include civil money 28097
penalties for violations of the rules.28098

       In determining eligibility for services provided under the 28099
program, the department may use the application form established 28100
under section 5111.013 of the Revised Code for the healthy start 28101
program. The department may require applicants to furnish their 28102
social security numbers.28103

       If the department determines that a vendor has committed an 28104
act with respect to the program that federal statutes or 28105
regulations or state statutes or rules prohibit, the department 28106
shall take action against the vendor in the manner required by 7 28107
C.F.R. part 246, including imposition of a civil money penalty in 28108
accordance with 7 C.F.R. 246.12, or rules adopted under this 28109
section.28110

       Sec. 3701.146. (A) In taking actions regarding tuberculosis, 28111
the director of health has all of the following duties and powers:28112

       (1) The director shall maintain registries of hospitals, 28113
clinics, physicians, or other care providers to whom the director 28114
shall refer persons who make inquiries to the department of health 28115
regarding possible exposure to tuberculosis.28116

       (2) The director shall engage in tuberculosis surveillance 28117
activities, including the collection and analysis of 28118
epidemiological information relative to the frequency of 28119
tuberculosis infection, demographic and geographic distribution of 28120
tuberculosis cases, and trends pertaining to tuberculosis.28121

       (3) The director shall maintain a tuberculosis registry to 28122
record the incidence of tuberculosis in this state.28123

       (4) The director may appoint physicians to serve as 28124
tuberculosis consultants for geographic regions of the state 28125
specified by the director. Each tuberculosis consultant shall act 28126
in accordance with rules the director establishes and shall be 28127
responsible for advising and assisting physicians and other health 28128
care practitioners who participate in tuberculosis control 28129
activities and for reviewing medical records pertaining to the 28130
treatment provided to individuals with tuberculosis.28131

       (B)(1) The public health councildirector shall adopt rules 28132
establishing standards for the following:28133

       (a) Performing tuberculosis screenings;28134

       (b) Performing examinations of individuals who have been 28135
exposed to tuberculosis and individuals who are suspected of 28136
having tuberculosis;28137

       (c) Providing treatment to individuals with tuberculosis;28138

       (d) Preventing individuals with communicable tuberculosis 28139
from infecting other individuals;28140

       (e) Performing laboratory tests for tuberculosis and studies 28141
of the resistance of tuberculosis to one or more drugs;28142

       (f) Selecting laboratories that provide in a timely fashion 28143
the results of a laboratory test for tuberculosis. The standards 28144
shall include a requirement that first consideration be given to 28145
laboratories located in this state.28146

       (2) Rules adopted pursuant to this section shall be adopted 28147
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and may be 28148
consistent with any recommendations or guidelines on tuberculosis 28149
issued by the United States centers for disease control and 28150
prevention or by the American thoracic society. The rules shall 28151
apply to county or district tuberculosis control units, physicians 28152
who examine and treat individuals for tuberculosis, and 28153
laboratories that perform tests for tuberculosis.28154

       Sec. 3701.161.  The director of health shall make necessary 28155
arrangements for the production and distribution of diphtheria 28156
antitoxin. Such antitoxin shall in all respects be equal in purity 28157
and potency to the standard of requirements of the United States 28158
public health service for antitoxin for interstate commerce. 28159
Diphtheria antitoxin shall be distributed in accordance with rules 28160
the public health councildirector adopts pursuant to Chapter 119. 28161
of the Revised Code.28162

       Sec. 3701.20.  (A) In accordance with rules adopted by the 28163
public health council, under division (C) of this section, the 28164
director of health shall establish, promote, and maintain the Ohio 28165
poison control network; designate regions within the network; and 28166
designate poison prevention and treatment centers within each 28167
region. The purposes of the network are to:28168

       (1) Reduce the mortality resulting from and the expenditures 28169
incurred because of accidental, homicidal, suicidal, occupational, 28170
or environmental poisoning;28171

       (2) Educate the public and health care professionals 28172
concerning the prevention and treatment of exposure to poison;28173

       (3) Organize poison prevention and treatment activities on a 28174
regional basis to avoid duplication and waste.28175

       (B) To be eligible for designation as a poison prevention and 28176
treatment center and to retain the designation, a center must 28177
maintain compliance with the standards established by the public 28178
health councildirector pursuant to division (C) of this section. 28179
A poison prevention and treatment center may be operated by an 28180
individual, hospital, institution of higher education, political 28181
subdivision, association, corporation, or public or private 28182
agency.28183

       (C) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the 28184
public health councildirector shall adopt rules that do the 28185
following:28186

       (1) Establish guidelines, based on population density and 28187
other relevant factors, and procedures to be followed by the 28188
director of health in designating poison control network regions 28189
and centers;28190

       (2) Establish standards for the operation of poison 28191
prevention and treatment centers;28192

       (3) Establish standards and procedures to be followed by the 28193
director of health in making grants to poison prevention and 28194
treatment centers;28195

       (4) Establish procedures, other than those prescribed by 28196
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, for reconsideration, at the 28197
request of the entity affected, of the denial or revocation of a 28198
designation as a poison prevention and treatment center.28199

       (D) In accordance with rules adopted by the public health 28200
councilunder division (C) of this section, the director of health 28201
shall make grants to poison prevention and treatment centers. A 28202
center is not eligible for a grant unless, prior to receiving the 28203
grant, the entity that operates the center agrees in writing that 28204
the level of the total funds, labor, and services devoted by the 28205
entity to the center during the period of the grant will 28206
approximate, as determined by the director of health, the level of 28207
the total funds, labor, and services devoted to the center by that 28208
entity in the fiscal year preceding the fiscal year in which the 28209
grant begins.28210

       (E) Each poison prevention and treatment center shall do all 28211
of the following:28212

       (1) Maintain and staff a twenty-four-hour per day, toll-free, 28213
telephone line to respond to inquiries and provide information 28214
about poison prevention and treatment and available services;28215

       (2) Provide specialized treatment, consultation, information, 28216
and educational programs to health care professionals and the 28217
public;28218

       (3) Compile information on the types and frequency of 28219
treatment it provides.28220

       A center may provide the services described in divisions 28221
(E)(1) and (2) of this section either directly or through contract 28222
with other facilities, as the director of health considers 28223
appropriate. Each center shall take measures to ensure the 28224
confidentiality of information about individuals to whom treatment 28225
or services are provided.28226

       (F) The director of health may revoke the designation of a 28227
poison treatment and control center, or deny an application for 28228
designation, if the center or applicant fails to meet or maintain 28229
the standards established by rule of the public health councilin 28230
rules adopted under division (C) of this section. The entity 28231
seeking the designation may have the revocation or denial 28232
reconsidered in accordance with rules adopted by the public health 28233
councilunder division (C) of this section.28234

       (G)(1) A poison prevention and treatment center, its 28235
officers, employees, volunteers, or other persons associated with 28236
the center, and a person, organization, or institution that 28237
advises or assists a poison prevention and treatment center are 28238
not liable in damages in a tort action for harm that allegedly 28239
arises from advice or assistance rendered to any person unless the 28240
advice or assistance is given in a manner that constitutes willful 28241
or wanton misconduct or intentionally tortious conduct.28242

       (2) This section does not create, and shall not be construed 28243
as creating, a new cause of action or substantive legal right 28244
against a poison prevention and treatment center, its officers, 28245
employees, volunteers, or other persons associated with the 28246
center, or a person, organization, or institution that advises or 28247
assists a poison prevention and treatment center.28248

       (3) This section does not affect, and shall not be construed 28249
as affecting, any immunities from civil liability or defenses 28250
conferred by any other section of the Revised Code or available at 28251
common law, to which a poison prevention and treatment center, its 28252
officers, employees, volunteers, or other persons associated with 28253
the center or a person, organization, or institution that advises 28254
or assists a poison prevention and treatment center may be 28255
entitled under circumstances not specified by this section.28256

       (H) The director shall annually report to the general 28257
assembly findings and recommendations concerning the 28258
effectiveness, impact, and benefits of the poison prevention and 28259
treatment centers.28260

       Sec. 3701.201. (A) As used in this section, "bioterrorism" 28261
has the same meaning as in section 3701.232 of the Revised Code.28262

        (B) The publicdirector of health council shall adopt rules 28263
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code under which a 28264
poison prevention and treatment center or other health-related 28265
entity is required to report events that may be caused by 28266
bioterrorism, epidemic or pandemic disease, or established or 28267
novel infectious agents or biological or chemical toxins posing a 28268
risk of human fatality or disability. Rules adopted under this 28269
section may require a report of any of the following:28270

       (1) An unexpected pattern or increase in the number of 28271
telephone inquiries or requests to provide information about 28272
poison prevention and treatment and available services;28273

       (2) An unexpected pattern or increase in the number of 28274
requests to provide specialized treatment, consultation, 28275
information, and educational programs to health care professionals 28276
and the public;28277

       (3) An unexpected pattern or increase in the number of 28278
requests for information on established or novel infectious agents 28279
or biological or chemical toxins posing a risk of human fatality 28280
or disability that is relatively uncommon and may have been caused 28281
by bioterrorism.28282

       (C) Each poison prevention and treatment center and other 28283
health-related entity shall comply with any reporting requirement 28284
established in rules adopted under division (B) of this section.28285

       (D) Information reported under this section that is protected 28286
health information pursuant to section 3701.17 of the Revised Code 28287
shall be released only in accordance with that section. 28288
Information that does not identify an individual may be released 28289
in summary, statistical, or aggregate form.28290

       Sec. 3701.21.  (A) As used in this section:28291

       (1) "Amblyopia" means reduced vision in an eye that has not 28292
received adequate use during early childhood.28293

       (2) "501(c) organization" means an organization exempt from 28294
federal income taxation pursuant to 26 U.S.C.A. 501(a) and (c).28295

       (B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the save 28296
our sight fund. The fund shall consist of voluntary contributions 28297
deposited as provided in section 4503.104 of the Revised Code. All 28298
investment earnings from the fund shall be credited to the fund.28299

       (C) The director of health shall use the money in the save 28300
our sight fund as follows:28301

       (1) To provide support to 501(c) organizations that offer 28302
vision services in all counties of the state and have demonstrated 28303
experience in the delivery of vision services to do one or more of 28304
the following:28305

       (a) Implement a voluntary children's vision screening 28306
training and certification program for volunteers, child care 28307
providers, nurses, teachers, health care professionals practicing 28308
in primary care settings, and others serving children;28309

       (b) Provide materials for the program implemented under 28310
division (C)(1)(a) of this section;28311

       (c) Develop and implement a registry and targeted voluntary 28312
case management system to determine whether children with 28313
amblyopia are receiving professional eye care and to provide their 28314
parents with information and support regarding their child's 28315
vision care;28316

       (d) Establish a matching grant program for the purchase and 28317
distribution of protective eyewear to children;28318

       (e) Provide vision health and safety programs and materials 28319
for classrooms.28320

       (2) For the purpose of section 4503.104 of the Revised Code, 28321
to develop and distribute informational materials on the 28322
importance of eye care and safety to the registrar of motor 28323
vehicles and each deputy registrar;28324

       (3) To pay costs incurred by the director in administering 28325
the fund;28326

       (4) To reimburse the bureau of motor vehicles for the 28327
administrative costs incurred in performing its duties under 28328
section 4503.104 of the Revised Code.28329

       (D) A 501(c) organization seeking funding from the save our 28330
sight fund for any of the projects specified in division (C) of 28331
this section shall submit a request for the funding to the 28332
director in accordance with rules adopted under division (E) of 28333
this section. The director shall determine the appropriateness of 28334
and approve or disapprove projects for funding and approve or 28335
disapprove the disbursement of money from the save our sight fund.28336

       (E) The public health councildirector shall adopt rules in 28337
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this 28338
section. The rules shall include the parameters of the projects 28339
specified in division (C)(1) of this section that may be funded 28340
with money in the save our sight fund and procedures for 501(c) 28341
organizations to request funding from the fund.28342

       Sec. 3701.221.  (A) The director of health shall have charge 28343
of the public health laboratory authorized by section 3701.22 of 28344
the Revised Code. The director may employ an assistant for the 28345
laboratory who shall be a person skilled in chemistry and 28346
bacteriology, and receive compensation as the director determines. 28347
All expenses of the laboratory shall be paid from appropriations 28348
made for the department of health.28349

       (B) The public health councildirector, in accordance with 28350
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt, and may amend or 28351
rescind, rules establishing reasonable fees for services the 28352
laboratory performs. The councildirector need not prescribe fees 28353
where the councildirector believes that charging fees would 28354
significantly and adversely affect the public health. All fees 28355
collected for services the laboratory performs shall be deposited 28356
into the state treasury to the credit of the "laboratory handling 28357
fee fund," which is hereby created for the purpose of defraying 28358
expenses of operating the laboratory.28359

       Sec. 3701.23. (A) As used in this section, "health care 28360
provider" means any person or government entity that provides 28361
health care services to individuals. "Health care provider" 28362
includes, but is not limited to, hospitals, medical clinics and 28363
offices, special care facilities, medical laboratories, 28364
physicians, pharmacists, dentists, physician assistants, 28365
registered and licensed practical nurses, laboratory technicians, 28366
emergency medical service organization personnel, and ambulance 28367
service organization personnel.28368

       (B) Boards of health, health authorities or officials, health 28369
care providers in localities in which there are no health 28370
authorities or officials, and coroners or medical examiners shall 28371
report promptly to the department of health the existence of any 28372
of the following:28373

        (1) Asiatic cholera;28374

        (2) Yellow fever;28375

        (3) Diphtheria;28376

        (4) Typhus or typhoid fever;28377

        (5) As specified by the publicdirector of health council, 28378
other contagious or infectious diseases, illnesses, health 28379
conditions, or unusual infectious agents or biological toxins 28380
posing a risk of human fatality or disability.28381

       (C) No person shall fail to comply with the reporting 28382
requirements established under division (B) of this section.28383

        (D) The reports required by this section shall be submitted 28384
on forms, as required by statute or rule, and in the manner the 28385
director of health prescribes.28386

       (E) Information reported under this section that is protected 28387
health information pursuant to section 3701.17 of the Revised Code 28388
shall be released only in accordance with that section. 28389
Information that does not identify an individual may be released 28390
in summary, statistical, or aggregate form.28391

       Sec. 3701.232. (A) As used in this section:28392

        (1) "Bioterrorism" means the intentional use of any 28393
microorganism, virus, infectious substance, or biological product 28394
that may be engineered as a result of biotechnology, or any 28395
naturally occurring or bioengineered component of a microorganism, 28396
virus, infectious substance, or biological product, to cause 28397
death, disease, or other biological malfunction in a human, 28398
animal, plant, or other living organism as a means of influencing 28399
the conduct of government or intimidating or coercing a 28400
population.28401

        (2) "Pharmacist" means an individual licensed under Chapter 28402
4729. of the Revised Code to engage in the practice of pharmacy as 28403
a pharmacist.28404

        (3) "Pharmacy" and "prescription" have the same meanings as 28405
in section 4729.01 of the Revised Code.28406

        (B) The publicdirector of health council shall adopt rules 28407
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code under which a 28408
pharmacy or pharmacist is required to report significant changes 28409
in medication usage that may be caused by bioterrorism, epidemic 28410
or pandemic disease, or established or novel infectious agents or 28411
biological toxins posing a risk of human fatality or disability. 28412
Rules adopted under this section may require a report of any of 28413
the following:28414

        (1) An unexpected increase in the number of prescriptions for 28415
antibiotics;28416

        (2) An unexpected increase in the number of prescriptions for 28417
medication to treat fever or respiratory or gastrointestinal 28418
complaints;28419

       (3) An unexpected increase in sales of, or the number of 28420
requests for information on, over-the-counter medication to treat 28421
fever or respiratory or gastrointestinal complaints;28422

        (4) Any prescription for medication used to treat a disease 28423
that is relatively uncommon and may have been caused by 28424
bioterrorism.28425

       (C) No person shall fail to comply with any reporting 28426
requirement established in rules adopted under division (B) of 28427
this section.28428

        (D) Information reported under this section that is protected 28429
health information pursuant to section 3701.17 of the Revised Code 28430
shall be released only in accordance with that section. 28431
Information that does not identify an individual may be released 28432
in summary, statistical, or aggregate form.28433

       Sec. 3701.24.  (A) As used in this section and sections 28434
3701.241 to 3701.249 of the Revised Code:28435

       (1) "AIDS" means the illness designated as acquired 28436
immunodeficiency syndrome.28437

       (2) "HIV" means the human immunodeficiency virus identified 28438
as the causative agent of AIDS.28439

       (3) "AIDS-related condition" means symptoms of illness 28440
related to HIV infection, including AIDS-related complex, that are 28441
confirmed by a positive HIV test.28442

       (4) "HIV test" means any test for the antibody or antigen to 28443
HIV that has been approved by the director of health under 28444
division (B) of section 3701.241 of the Revised Code.28445

       (5) "Health care facility" has the same meaning as in section 28446
1751.01 of the Revised Code.28447

       (6) "Director" means the director of health or any employee 28448
of the department of health acting on the director's behalf.28449

       (7) "Physician" means a person who holds a current, valid 28450
certificate issued under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code 28451
authorizing the practice of medicine or surgery and osteopathic 28452
medicine and surgery.28453

       (8) "Nurse" means a registered nurse or licensed practical 28454
nurse who holds a license or certificate issued under Chapter 28455
4723. of the Revised Code.28456

       (9) "Anonymous test" means an HIV test administered so that 28457
the individual to be tested can give informed consent to the test 28458
and receive the results by means of a code system that does not 28459
link the identity of the individual tested to the request for the 28460
test or the test results.28461

       (10) "Confidential test" means an HIV test administered so 28462
that the identity of the individual tested is linked to the test 28463
but is held in confidence to the extent provided by sections 28464
3701.24 to 3701.248 of the Revised Code.28465

       (11) "Health care provider" means an individual who provides 28466
diagnostic, evaluative, or treatment services. Pursuant to Chapter 28467
119. of the Revised Code, the public health councildirector may 28468
adopt rules further defining the scope of the term "health care 28469
provider."28470

       (12) "Significant exposure to body fluids" means a 28471
percutaneous or mucous membrane exposure of an individual to the 28472
blood, semen, vaginal secretions, or spinal, synovial, pleural, 28473
peritoneal, pericardial, or amniotic fluid of another individual.28474

       (13) "Emergency medical services worker" means all of the 28475
following:28476

       (a) A peace officer;28477

       (b) An employee of an emergency medical service organization 28478
as defined in section 4765.01 of the Revised Code;28479

       (c) A firefighter employed by a political subdivision;28480

       (d) A volunteer firefighter, emergency operator, or rescue 28481
operator;28482

       (e) An employee of a private organization that renders rescue 28483
services, emergency medical services, or emergency medical 28484
transportation to accident victims and persons suffering serious 28485
illness or injury.28486

       (14) "Peace officer" has the same meaning as in division (A) 28487
of section 109.71 of the Revised Code, except that it also 28488
includes a sheriff and the superintendent and troopers of the 28489
state highway patrol.28490

       (B) Persons designated by rule adopted by the public health 28491
councildirector under section 3701.241 of the Revised Code shall 28492
report promptly every case of AIDS, every AIDS-related condition, 28493
and every confirmed positive HIV test to the department of health 28494
on forms and in a manner prescribed by the director. In each 28495
county the director shall designate the health commissioner of a 28496
health district in the county to receive the reports.28497

       (C) No person shall fail to comply with the reporting 28498
requirements established under division (B) of this section.28499

        (D) Information reported under this section that identifies 28500
an individual is confidential and may be released only with the 28501
written consent of the individual except as the director 28502
determines necessary to ensure the accuracy of the information, as 28503
necessary to provide treatment to the individual, as ordered by a 28504
court pursuant to section 3701.243 or 3701.247 of the Revised 28505
Code, or pursuant to a search warrant or a subpoena issued by or 28506
at the request of a grand jury, prosecuting attorney, city 28507
director of law or similar chief legal officer of a municipal 28508
corporation, or village solicitor, in connection with a criminal 28509
investigation or prosecution. Information that does not identify 28510
an individual may be released in summary, statistical, or 28511
aggregate form.28512

       Sec. 3701.241.  (A) The director of health shall develop and 28513
administer the following:28514

       (1) A surveillance system to determine the number of cases of 28515
AIDS and the HIV infection rate in various population groups;28516

       (2) Counseling and testing programs for groups determined by 28517
the director to be at risk of HIV infection, including procedures 28518
for both confidential and anonymous tests, counseling training 28519
programs for health care providers, and development of counseling 28520
guidelines;28521

       (3) A confidential partner notification system to alert and 28522
counsel sexual contacts of individuals with HIV infection;28523

       (4) Risk reduction and education programs for groups 28524
determined by the director to be at risk of HIV infection, and, in 28525
consultation with a wide range of community leaders, education 28526
programs for the public;28527

       (5) Pilot programs for the long-term care of individuals with 28528
AIDS or AIDS-related condition, including care in nursing homes 28529
and in alternative settings;28530

       (6) Programs to expand regional outpatient treatment of 28531
individuals with AIDS or AIDS-related condition;28532

       (7) A program to assist communities, including communities of 28533
less than one hundred thousand population, in establishing AIDS 28534
task forces and support groups for individuals with AIDS, 28535
AIDS-related condition, and HIV infection. The program may include 28536
the award of grants if they are matched by local funds.28537

       Information obtained or maintained under the partner 28538
notification system is not a public record under section 149.43 of 28539
the Revised Code and may be released only in accordance with 28540
division (C) of section 3701.243 of the Revised Code.28541

       (B) The director shall:28542

       (1) Approve a test or tests to be used to determine whether 28543
an individual has HIV infection, define a confirmed positive test 28544
result, and develop guidelines for interpreting test results;28545

       (2) Establish sites for confidential and anonymous HIV tests, 28546
and prepare a list of sites where an individual may obtain an 28547
anonymous test;28548

       (3) Prepare a list of counseling services;28549

       (4) Make available a copy of the list of anonymous testing 28550
sites or a copy of the list of counseling services to anyone who 28551
requests it.28552

       (C) The director of health shall require the director or 28553
administrator of each site where anonymous or confidential HIV 28554
tests are given to submit a report every three months evaluating 28555
from an epidemiologic perspective the effectiveness of the HIV 28556
testing program at that site. Not later than January 31, 1991, and 28557
each year thereafter, the director of health shall make a report 28558
evaluating the anonymous and confidential testing programs 28559
throughout the state with regard to their effectiveness as 28560
epidemiologic programs. The report shall be submitted to the 28561
speaker of the house of representatives and the president of the 28562
senate and shall be made available to the public.28563

       The publicdirector of health council shall adopt rules 28564
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for the 28565
implementation of the requirements of division (B)(1) of this 28566
section and division (D) of section 3701.24 of the Revised Code.28567

       (D) The director of health shall administer funds received 28568
under Title XXVI of the "Public Health Services Act," 104 Stat. 28569
576 (1990), 42 U.S.C.A. 2601, as amended, for programs to improve 28570
the quality and availability of care for individuals with AIDS, 28571
AIDS-related condition, and HIV infection. In administering these 28572
funds, the director may enter into contracts with any person or 28573
entity for the purpose of administering the programs, including 28574
contracts with the department of job and family services for 28575
establishment of a program of reimbursement of drugs used for 28576
treatment and care of such individuals. The director of health may 28577
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 28578
and issue orders as necessary for administration of the funds. If 28579
the department of job and family services enters into a contract 28580
under this division, the director of job and family services may 28581
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as 28582
necessary for carrying out the department's duties under the 28583
contract.28584

       Sec. 3701.242.  (A) An HIV test may be performed by or on the 28585
order of a health care provider who, in the exercise of the 28586
provider's professional judgment, determines the test to be 28587
necessary for providing diagnosis and treatment to the individual 28588
to be tested, if the individual or the individual's parent or 28589
guardian has given consent to the provider for medical or other 28590
health care treatment. The health care provider shall inform the 28591
individual of the individual's right under division (D) of this 28592
section to an anonymous test.28593

       (B) A minor may consent to be given an HIV test. The consent 28594
is not subject to disaffirmance because of minority. The parents 28595
or guardian of a minor giving consent under this division are not 28596
liable for payment and shall not be charged for an HIV test given 28597
to the minor without the consent of a parent or the guardian.28598

       (C) The health care provider ordering an HIV test shall 28599
provide post-test counseling for an individual who receives an 28600
HIV-positive test result. The publicdirector of health council28601
may adopt rules, pursuant to recommendations from the director of 28602
health and in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code,28603
specifying the information to be provided in post-test counseling.28604

       (D) An individual shall have the right to an anonymous test. 28605
A health care facility or health care provider that does not 28606
provide anonymous testing shall refer an individual requesting an 28607
anonymous test to a site where it is available.28608

       (E) Divisions (B) to (D) of this section do not apply to the 28609
performance of an HIV test in any of the following circumstances:28610

       (1) When the test is performed in a medical emergency by a 28611
nurse or physician and the test results are medically necessary to 28612
avoid or minimize an immediate danger to the health or safety of 28613
the individual to be tested or another individual, except that 28614
post-test counseling shall be given to the individual if the 28615
individual receives an HIV-positive test result;28616

       (2) When the test is performed for the purpose of research if 28617
the researcher does not know and cannot determine the identity of 28618
the individual tested;28619

       (3) When the test is performed by a person who procures, 28620
processes, distributes, or uses a human body part from a deceased 28621
person donated for a purpose specified in Chapter 2108. of the 28622
Revised Code, if the test is medically necessary to ensure that 28623
the body part is acceptable for its intended purpose;28624

       (4) When the test is performed on a person incarcerated in a 28625
correctional institution under the control of the department of 28626
rehabilitation and correction if the head of the institution has 28627
determined, based on good cause, that a test is necessary;28628

       (5) When the test is performed in accordance with section 28629
2907.27 of the Revised Code;28630

       (6) When the test is performed on an individual after the 28631
infection control committee of a health care facility, or other 28632
body of a health care facility performing a similar function 28633
determines that a health care provider, emergency medical services 28634
worker, or peace officer, while rendering health or emergency care 28635
to an individual, has sustained a significant exposure to the body 28636
fluids of that individual, and the individual has refused to give 28637
consent for testing.28638

       Sec. 3701.248.  (A) As used in this section:28639

       (1) "Contagious or infectious disease" means a disease 28640
specified by rulein rules adopted by the publicdirector of28641
health council pursuant to division (F) of this section.28642

       (2) "Patient" means either of the following:28643

       (a) A person, whether alive or dead, who has been treated, or 28644
handled, or transported for medical care by an emergency medical 28645
services worker;28646

       (b) A deceased person whose body is handled by a funeral 28647
services worker.28648

       (3) "Significant exposure" means:28649

       (a) A percutaneous or mucous membrane exposure of an 28650
individual to the blood, semen, vaginal secretions, or spinal, 28651
synovial, pleural, peritoneal, pericardial, or amniotic fluid of 28652
another person;28653

       (b) Exposure to a contagious or infectious disease.28654

       (4) "Funeral services worker" means a person licensed as a 28655
funeral director or embalmer under Chapter 4717. of the Revised 28656
Code or an individual responsible for the direct final disposition 28657
of a deceased person.28658

       (B)(1) An emergency medical services worker or funeral 28659
services worker who believes that significant exposure has 28660
occurred through the worker's contact with a patient may submit to 28661
the health care facility or coroner that received the patient a 28662
written request to be notified of the results of any test 28663
performed on the patient to determine the presence of a contagious 28664
or infectious disease. The request shall include:28665

       (a) The name, address, and telephone number of the individual 28666
submitting the request;28667

       (b) The name of the individual's employer, or, in the case of 28668
a volunteer emergency medical services worker, the entity for 28669
which the worker volunteers, and the individual's supervisor;28670

       (c) The date, time, location, and manner of the exposure.28671

       (2) The request for notification that is submitted by an 28672
emergency medical services worker pursuant to division (B)(1) of 28673
this section is valid for ten days after it is made. If at the end 28674
of that ten-day period no test has been performed to determine the 28675
presence of a contagious or infectious disease, no diagnosis has 28676
been made, or the result of the test is negative, the health care 28677
facility or coroner shall notify the emergency medical services 28678
worker. The notification shall not include the name of the 28679
patient. If necessary, the request may be renewed in accordance 28680
with the same procedures and requirements as the original request.28681

       (3) A health care facility or coroner shall respond 28682
immediately to a request for notification submitted pursuant to 28683
division (B)(1) of this section by a funeral services worker. If 28684
no test has been performed to determine the presence of a 28685
contagious or infectious disease, no diagnosis has been made, or 28686
the result of a test that was performed is negative, the health 28687
care facility or coroner shall immediately notify the funeral 28688
services worker. The notification shall not include the name of 28689
the patient.28690

       On receipt of notification that no test has been performed to 28691
determine the presence of a contagious or infectious disease in a 28692
patient, the funeral services worker may have a test performed on 28693
the patient. The test shall be performed in accordance with rules 28694
adopted by the department of health pursuant to division (G) of 28695
this section.28696

       The consent of the patient's family is not required for 28697
performance of a test pursuant to division (B)(3) of this section.28698

       (C) The health care facility or coroner that receives a 28699
written request for notification shall give an oral notification 28700
of the presence of a contagious or infectious disease, or of a 28701
confirmed positive test result, if known, to the person who made 28702
the request and the person's supervisor and to the infection 28703
control committee or other body described in division (E)(6) of 28704
section 3701.242 of the Revised Code within two days after 28705
determining the presence of a contagious or infectious disease or 28706
after a confirmed positive test result. A written notification 28707
shall follow oral notification within three days. If a contagious 28708
or infectious disease is present, or the test results are 28709
confirmed positive, both the oral and written notification shall 28710
include the name of the disease, its signs and symptoms, the date 28711
of exposure, the incubation period, the mode of transmission of 28712
the disease, the medical precautions necessary to prevent 28713
transmission to other persons, and the appropriate prophylaxis, 28714
treatment, and counseling for the disease. The notification shall 28715
not include the name of the patient.28716

       If the request is made by an emergency medical services 28717
worker and the information is not available from the health care 28718
facility to which the request is made because the patient has been 28719
transferred from that health care facility, the facility shall 28720
assist the emergency medical services worker in locating the 28721
patient and securing the requested information from the health 28722
care facility that treated or is treating the patient. If the 28723
patient has died, the health care facility shall give the 28724
emergency medical services worker the name and address of the 28725
coroner who received the patient.28726

       (D) Each health care facility and coroner shall develop 28727
written procedures to implement the notification procedures 28728
required by this section. A health care facility or coroner may 28729
take measures in addition to those required in this section to 28730
notify emergency medical services workers and funeral services 28731
workers of possible exposure to a contagious or infectious disease 28732
as long as the confidentiality of the information is maintained.28733

       (E) No person shall knowingly fail to comply with division 28734
(C) of this section.28735

       (F) The publicdirector of health council shall adopt rules 28736
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that specify 28737
the diseases that are reasonably likely to be transmitted by air 28738
or blood during the normal course of duties performed by an 28739
emergency medical services worker or funeral services worker. In 28740
adopting such rules, the councildirector shall consider the types 28741
of contact that typically occur between patients and emergency 28742
medical services workers and funeral services workers.28743

       (G) The department of health shall adopt rules in accordance 28744
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code specifying the procedures a 28745
funeral services worker must follow when having a test performed 28746
on a patient pursuant to division (B)(3) of this section. The 28747
rules shall specify how and by whom the test is to be performed. 28748
The rules shall require the funeral services worker or the funeral 28749
services worker's employer to pay the cost of the test. No health 28750
care facility shall be required to perform the test.28751

       Sec. 3701.341.  (A) The publicdirector of health council, 28752
pursuant to Chapter 119. and consistent with section 2317.56 of 28753
the Revised Code, shall adopt rules relating to abortions and the 28754
following subjects:28755

       (1) Post-abortion procedures to protect the health of the 28756
pregnant woman;28757

       (2) Pathological reports;28758

       (3) Humane disposition of the product of human conception;28759

       (4) Counseling.28760

       (B) The director of health shall implement the rules and 28761
shall apply to the court of common pleas for temporary or 28762
permanent injunctions restraining a violation or threatened 28763
violation of the rules. This action is an additional remedy not 28764
dependent on the adequacy of the remedy at law.28765

       Sec. 3701.342.  After consultation with the public health 28766
standards task force established under section 3701.343 of the 28767
Revised Code, the publicdirector of health council shall adopt 28768
rules establishing minimum standards and optimum achievable 28769
standards for boards of health and local health departments. The 28770
minimum standards shall assure that boards of health and local 28771
health departments provide for:28772

       (A) Analysis and prevention of communicable disease;28773

       (B) Analysis of the causes of, and appropriate treatment for, 28774
the leading causes of morbidity and mortality;28775

       (C) The administration and management of the local health 28776
department;28777

       (D) Access to primary health care by medically underserved 28778
individuals;28779

       (E) Environmental health management programs;28780

       (F) Health promotion services designed to encourage 28781
individual and community wellness.28782

       The public health councildirector shall adopt rules 28783
establishing a formula for distribution of state health district 28784
subsidy funds to boards of health and local health departments. 28785
The formula shall provide no subsidy funds to a board or 28786
department unless it meets minimum standards and shall provide 28787
higher funding levels for boards and districts that meet optimum 28788
achievable standards.28789

       Notwithstanding section 119.03 of the Revised Code, rules 28790
adopted under this section shall not take effect unless approved 28791
by concurrent resolution of the general assembly.28792

       Sec. 3701.343.  The chairmandirector of the public health28793
council shall, with the advice of the association of Ohio health 28794
commissioners and the director of health, appoint a public health 28795
standards task force to assist and advise the public health 28796
councildirector in formulating and evaluating the standards 28797
established under section 3701.342 of the Revised Code for the 28798
provision of public health services. The task force shall 28799
recommend its standards for all categories mentioned in section 28800
3701.342 of the Revised Code on or before March 1, 1983.28801

       The task force shall have nine members, consisting of:28802

       (A) A sanitarian registered in accordance with Chapter 4736. 28803
of the Revised Code;28804

       (B) A registered nurse licensed in accordance with Chapter 28805
4723. of the Revised Code;28806

       (C) A physician licensed in accordance withwho is authorized 28807
under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and 28808
surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery;28809

       (D) Three health commissioners;28810

       (E) Two representatives of the department of health;28811

       (F) One individual with recognized ability in public health 28812
law, public health laboratories, epidemiology, nutrition, or 28813
health education.28814

       The public health standards task force shall complete its 28815
work within three years after the effective date of this section 28816
and shall cease to exist upon completion of its work, provided, 28817
that the public health council may reconstitute the public health 28818
standards task force, for the purpose of reviewing, evaluating, 28819
and revising the standards mandated in section 3701.342 of the 28820
Revised Code.28821

       Members of the task force shall elect a chairmanchairperson. 28822
Five members of the task force constitute a quorum and six votes 28823
are necessary to validate an action.28824

       Within ninety days of the effective date of this section, the 28825
chairman of the public health council shall make the appointments 28826
to the task force. Within sixty days of their appointment, the 28827
task force members shall meet, organize, and begin their work.28828
Vacancies occurring on the task force shall be filled in the same 28829
manner as the initial appointments.28830

       Members of the task force shall serve without compensation, 28831
but may be reimbursed for necessary expenses.28832

       Sec. 3701.344.  As used in this section and sections 28833
3701.345, 3701.346, and 3701.347 of the Revised Code:28834

       (A) "Private water system" means any water system for the 28835
provision of water for human consumption, if such system has fewer 28836
than fifteen service connections and does not regularly serve an 28837
average of at least twenty-five individuals daily at least sixty 28838
days out of the year. A private water system includes any well, 28839
spring, cistern, pond, or hauled water and any equipment for the 28840
collection, transportation, filtration, disinfection, treatment, 28841
or storage of such water extending from and including the source 28842
of the water to the point of discharge from any pressure tank or 28843
other storage vessel; to the point of discharge from the water 28844
pump where no pressure tank or other storage vessel is present; 28845
or, in the case of multiple service connections serving more than 28846
one dwelling, to the point of discharge from each service 28847
connection. "Private water system" does not include the water 28848
service line extending from the point of discharge to a structure.28849

       (B) Notwithstanding section 3701.347 of the Revised Code and 28850
subject to division (C) of this section, rules adopted by the28851
publicdirector of health council regarding private water systems 28852
shall provide for the following:28853

       (1) Except as otherwise provided in this division, boards of 28854
health of city or general health districts shall be given the 28855
exclusive power to establish fees in accordance with section 28856
3709.09 of the Revised Code for administering and enforcing such 28857
rules. Such fees shall establish a different rate for 28858
administering and enforcing the rules relative to private water 28859
systems serving single-family dwelling houses and nonsingle-family 28860
dwelling houses. Except for an amount established by the public 28861
health councildirector, pursuant to division (B)(5) of this 28862
section, for each new private water system installation, no 28863
portion of any fee for administering and enforcing such rules 28864
shall be returned to the department of health. If the director of 28865
health determines that a board of health of a city or general 28866
health district is unable to administer and enforce a private 28867
water system program in the district, the director shall 28868
administer and enforce such a program in the district and 28869
establish fees for such administration and enforcement.28870

       (2) Boards of health of city or general health districts 28871
shall be given the exclusive power to determine the number of 28872
inspections necessary for determining the safe drinking 28873
characteristics of a private water system.28874

       (3) Private water systems contractors, as a condition of 28875
doing business in this state, shall annually register with, and 28876
comply with surety bonding requirements of, the department of 28877
health. No such contractor shall be permitted to register if the 28878
contractor fails to comply with all applicable rules adopted by 28879
the public health councildirector and the board of health of the 28880
city or general health district. The annual registration fee for 28881
private water systems contractors shall be sixty-five dollars. The 28882
public health councildirector, by rule adopted in accordance with 28883
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, may increase the annual 28884
registration fee. Before January 1, 1993, the fee shall not be 28885
increased by more than fifty per cent of the amount prescribed by 28886
this section.28887

       (4) BoardsSubject to rules adopted by the director, boards28888
of health of city or general health districts subject to such 28889
rules of the public health council shall have the option of 28890
determining whether bacteriological examinations shall be 28891
performed at approved laboratories of the state or at approved 28892
private laboratories.28893

       (5) The public health councildirector may establish fees for 28894
each new private water system installation, which shall be 28895
collected by the appropriate board of health and transmitted to 28896
the director of health pursuant to section 3709.092 of the Revised 28897
Code.28898

       (6) All fees received by the director of health under 28899
divisions (B)(1), (3), and (5) of this section shall be deposited 28900
in the state treasury to the credit of the general operations fund 28901
created in section 3701.83 of the Revised Code for use in the 28902
administration and enforcement of sections 3701.344 to 3701.347 of 28903
the Revised Code and the rules pertaining to private water systems 28904
adopted under those sections or section 3701.34 of the Revised 28905
Code.28906

       (C) To the extent that rules adopted under division (B) of 28907
this section require health districts to follow specific 28908
procedures or use prescribed forms, no such procedure or form 28909
shall be implemented until it is approved by majority vote of an 28910
approval board of health commissioners, hereby created. Members of 28911
the board shall be the officers of the association of Ohio health 28912
commissioners, or any successor organization, and membership on 28913
the board shall be coterminous with holding an office of the 28914
association. No health district is required to follow a procedure 28915
or use a form required by a rule adopted under division (B) of 28916
this section without the approval of the board.28917

       (D) A board of health shall collect well log filing fees on 28918
behalf of the division of soil and water resources in the 28919
department of natural resources in accordance with section 1521.05 28920
of the Revised Code and rules adopted under it. The fees shall be 28921
submitted to the division quarterly as provided in those rules.28922

       Sec. 3701.345.  Any applicant for a permit to construct, 28923
develop, install, or modify a private water system required by 28924
rules adopted by the publicdirector of health council under 28925
sections 3701.34 andsection 3701.347 of the Revised Code may 28926
apply to the board of health of the city or general health 28927
district administering and enforcing the private water supply 28928
program in the health district in which the private water system 28929
is or is to be located or, if the health district is not 28930
administering and enforcing the program, may apply to the 28931
department of health for a variance from such rules governing the 28932
design, construction, development, installation, or modification 28933
of private water systems. The application for a variance shall be 28934
made in writing and shall include a statement of the particular 28935
rule or rules from which a variance is sought, a description of 28936
the proposed system or modification, and the necessity for the 28937
variance. The board of health or the department of health shall 28938
not grant a variance unless the applicant demonstrates that:28939

       (A) There will be an unusual and unnecessary hardship in 28940
complying with the rules from which the variance is sought;28941

       (B) Contamination of the private water system will not occur 28942
as a result of construction and operation of the system as 28943
proposed by the variance application;28944

       (C) The health of persons using water from the private water 28945
system will not be endangered as a result of construction and 28946
operation of the system as proposed by the variance application; 28947
and28948

       (D) No other technically feasible and economically reasonable 28949
means exist for obtaining water from the proposed type of water 28950
source.28951

       Sec. 3701.347.  Notwithstanding division (E) of section 28952
6111.42 of the Revised Code, rules adopted under such division and 28953
in effect on December 14, 1978, shall continue in effect until 28954
repealed by the environmental protection agency or superseded by 28955
rules ofadopted by the publicdirector of health council as 28956
hereinafter provided, as fully as if such section had not been 28957
amended by Amended Substitute Senate Bill No. 445 of the 112th 28958
general assembly on such date. Insofar as these rules affect wells 28959
for the provision of water for human consumption not used or for 28960
use by a public water system, they shall remain in effect 28961
notwithstanding repeal by the environmental protection agency 28962
until the public health councildirector adopts rules superseding 28963
them which prescribe uniform standards and procedures for the 28964
design, construction, inspection, installation, development, 28965
maintenance, and abandonment of private water systems, to protect 28966
the health of the persons served by such water systems and to 28967
establish fees at a level calculated to pay the cost of 28968
administering and enforcing such rules by the director health or 28969
by boards of health of city and general health districts approved 28970
by the director of health. For purposes of this section "public 28971
water system" has the meaning ascribed to it in section 6109.01 of 28972
the Revised Code.28973

       Sec. 3701.352.  No person shall violate any rule the public 28974
health council, director of health, or department of health adopts 28975
or any order the director or department of health issues under 28976
this chapter to prevent a threat to the public caused by a 28977
pandemic, epidemic, or bioterrorism event.28978

       Sec. 3701.40.  The publicdirector of health council shall by 28979
rule prescribe minimum standards for the maintenance and operation 28980
of hospitals and medical facilities which shall receive federal 28981
aid for construction under the state plan provided for by section 28982
3701.39 of the Revised Code.28983

       Boards of trustees or directors of institutions required to 28984
comply with sections 3701.01, 3701.04, 3701.08, 3701.09, and 28985
3701.37 to 3701.45 of the Revised Code shall have the right to 28986
select the professional staff members of such institutions and to 28987
select and employ interns, nurses, and other personnel, and no 28988
rules, regulations, or standards of the director of health or the 28989
public health council adopted or promulgated severally or jointly 28990
shall be valid which, if enforced, would interfere in such 28991
selection or employment.28992

       The director of health may petition the common pleas court of 28993
the county in which any hospital or medical facility is located 28994
for an order enjoining any person, firm, partnership, association, 28995
corporation, or other entity, private or public, from operating a 28996
hospital or medical facility in violation of any rules adopted 28997
under this section. Irrespective of any other remedy the director 28998
may have in law or equity the court has jurisdiction to grant such 28999
injunctive relief upon a showing that the respondent named in the 29000
petition is operating in violation of such rules.29001

       Sec. 3701.503.  As used in sections 3701.504 to 3701.509 of 29002
the Revised Code:29003

       (A) "Parent" means either parent, unless the parents are 29004
separated or divorced or their marriage has been dissolved or 29005
annulled, in which case "parent" means the parent who is the 29006
residential parent and legal custodian.29007

       (B) "Guardian" has the same meaning as in section 2111.01 of 29008
the Revised Code.29009

       (C) "Custodian" means, except as used in division (A) of this 29010
section, a government agency or an individual, other than the 29011
parent or guardian, with legal or permanent custody of a child as 29012
defined in section 2151.011 of the Revised Code.29013

       (D) "Hearing screening" means the identification of newborns 29014
and infants who may have a hearing impairment, through the use of 29015
a physiologic test.29016

       (E) "Hearing evaluation" means evaluation through the use of 29017
audiological procedures by an audiologist or physician.29018

       (F) "Hearing impairment" means a loss of hearing in one or 29019
both ears in the frequency region important for speech recognition 29020
and comprehension.29021

       (G) "Newborn" means a child who is less than thirty days old.29022

       (H) "Infant" means a child who is at least thirty days but 29023
less than twenty-four months old.29024

       (I) "Freestanding birthing center" has the same meaning as in 29025
section 3702.513702.141 of the Revised Code.29026

       (J) "Physician" means an individual authorized under Chapter 29027
4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or 29028
osteopathic medicine and surgery.29029

       (K) "Audiologist" means an individual authorized under 29030
section 4753.07 of the Revised Code to practice audiology.29031

       (L) "Hospital" means a hospital that has a maternity unit or 29032
newborn nursery.29033

       (M) "Maternity unit" means any unit or place in a hospital 29034
where women are regularly received and provided care during all or 29035
part of the maternity cycle, except that "maternity unit" does not 29036
include an emergency department or similar place dedicated to 29037
providing emergency health care.29038

       (N) "Board of health" means the board of health of a city or 29039
general health district or the authority having the duties of a 29040
board of health under section 3709.05 of the Revised Code.29041

       Sec. 3701.507.  (A) To assist in implementing sections 29042
3701.503 to 3701.509 of the Revised Code, the medically 29043
handicapped children's medical advisory council created in section 29044
3701.025 of the Revised Code shall appoint a permanent infant 29045
hearing screening subcommittee. The subcommittee shall consist of 29046
the following members:29047

       (1) One otolaryngologist;29048

       (2) One neonatologist;29049

       (3) One pediatrician;29050

       (4) One neurologist;29051

       (5) One hospital administrator;29052

       (6) Two or more audiologists who are experienced in infant 29053
hearing screening and evaluation;29054

       (7) One speech-language pathologist licensed under section 29055
4753.07 of the Revised Code;29056

       (8) Two persons who are each a parent of a hearing-impaired 29057
child;29058

       (9) One geneticist;29059

       (10) One epidemiologist;29060

       (11) One adult who is deaf or hearing impaired;29061

       (12) One representative from an organization for the deaf or 29062
hearing impaired;29063

       (13) One family advocate;29064

       (14) One nurse from a well-baby neonatal nursery;29065

       (15) One nurse from a special care neonatal nursery;29066

       (16) One teacher of the deaf who works with infants and 29067
toddlers;29068

       (17) One representative of the health insurance industry;29069

       (18) One representative of the bureau for children with 29070
medical handicaps;29071

       (19) One representative of the department of education;29072

       (20) One representative of the Ohio department of job and 29073
family services who has responsibilities regarding medicaid;29074

       (21) Any other person the advisory council appoints.29075

       (B) The infant hearing subcommittee shall:29076

       (1) Consult with the director of health regarding the 29077
administration of sections 3701.503 to 3701.509 of the Revised 29078
Code;29079

       (2) Advise and make recommendations regarding proposed rules 29080
prior to their adoption by the public health councildirector29081
under section 3701.508 of the Revised Code;29082

       (3) Consult with the director of health and advise and make 29083
recommendations regarding program development and implementation 29084
under sections 3701.503 to 3701.509 of the Revised Code, including 29085
all of the following:29086

       (a) Establishment under section 3701.504 of the Revised Code 29087
of the statewide hearing screening, tracking, and early 29088
intervention program to identify newborn and infant hearing 29089
impairment;29090

       (b) Identification of locations where hearing evaluations may 29091
be conducted;29092

       (c) Recommendations for methods and techniques of hearing 29093
screening and hearing evaluation;29094

       (d) Referral, data recording and compilation, and procedures 29095
to encourage follow-up hearing care;29096

       (e) Maintenance of a register of newborns and infants who do 29097
not pass the hearing screening;29098

       (f) Preparation of the information required by section 29099
3701.506 of the Revised Code and any other information the public 29100
health council requires the department of health to provide.29101

       Sec. 3701.508.  (A) The publicdirector of health council29102
shall adopt rules governing the statewide hearing screening, 29103
tracking, and early intervention program established under section 29104
3701.504 of the Revised Code, including rules that do all of the 29105
following:29106

       (1) Specify how hospitals and freestanding birthing centers 29107
are to comply with the requirements of section 3701.505 of the 29108
Revised Code, including methods to be used for hearing screening, 29109
except that with regard to the physiologic equipment to be used 29110
for hearing screening, the rules may require only that the 29111
equipment be capable of giving reliable results and may not 29112
specify particular equipment or a particular type of equipment;29113

       (2) Provide that no newborn or infant shall be required to 29114
undergo a hearing screening if the parent, guardian, or custodian 29115
of the newborn or infant objects on the grounds that the screening 29116
conflicts with the parent's, guardian's, or custodian's religious 29117
tenets and practices;29118

       (3) Provide for situations in which the parent, guardian, or 29119
custodian of a newborn or infant objects to a hearing screening 29120
for reasons other than religious tenets and practices;29121

       (4) Specify how the department of health will determine 29122
whether a person is financially unable to pay for a hearing 29123
screening and define "third-party payer" for the purpose of 29124
reimbursement of hearing screening by the department under section 29125
3701.505 of the Revised Code;29126

       (5) Specify an inexpensive and efficient format and 29127
procedures for the submission of hearing screening information 29128
from hospitals and freestanding birthing centers to the department 29129
of health;29130

       (6) Specify a procedure whereby the department may conduct 29131
timely reviews of hearing screening information submissions for 29132
purposes of quality assurance, training, and disease prevention 29133
and control;29134

       (7) Specify any additional information that hospitals and 29135
freestanding birthing centers are to provide to the medically 29136
handicapped children's medical advisory council's infant hearing 29137
screening subcommittee under section 3701.509 of the Revised Code.29138

       (B) In addition to the rules adopted under division (A) of 29139
this section, the councildirector shall adopt rules that specify 29140
the training that must be completed by persons who will conduct 29141
hearing screenings. In adopting these rules, the councildirector29142
shall consider incorporating cost-saving training methods, 29143
including computer-assisted learning and on-site training. Neither 29144
the rules nor the director of health may establish a minimum 29145
educational level for persons conducting hearing screenings.29146

       (C) All rules adopted under this section shall be adopted in 29147
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and shall be 29148
adopted so as to take effect not later than six months after the 29149
effective date of this sectionAugust 1, 2002.29150

       Sec. 3701.509.  (A) The department of health shall develop a 29151
mechanism to analyze and interpret the hearing screening 29152
information to be reported under division (B) of this section. The 29153
department shall notify all hospitals and freestanding birthing 29154
centers subject to the reporting requirements of the date the 29155
department anticipates that the mechanism will be complete. After 29156
the mechanism is complete, the department shall notify each 29157
hospital and freestanding birthing center subject to the reporting 29158
requirement of the date by which the hospital or center must 29159
submit its first report.29160

       (B) Subject to division (A) of this section and in accordance 29161
with rules adopted by the publicdirector of health council under 29162
section 3701.508 of the Revised Code, each hospital and 29163
freestanding birthing center that has conducted a hearing 29164
screening required by section 3701.505 of the Revised Code shall 29165
provide to the department of health for use by the medically 29166
handicapped children's medical advisory council's infant hearing 29167
screening subcommittee information specifying all of the 29168
following:29169

       (1) The number of newborns born in the hospital or 29170
freestanding birthing center and the number of newborns and 29171
infants not screened because they were transferred to another 29172
hospital;29173

       (2) The number of newborns and infants referred to the 29174
hospital or freestanding birthing center for a hearing screening 29175
and the number of those newborns and infants who received a 29176
hearing screening;29177

       (3) The number of newborns and infants who did not pass the 29178
hearing screenings conducted by the hospital or freestanding 29179
birthing center;29180

       (4) Any other information concerning the program established 29181
under section 3701.504 of the Revised Code.29182

       (C) The department of health shall conduct a timely review of 29183
the information submitted by hospitals and freestanding birthing 29184
centers in accordance with rules adopted by the public health 29185
councildirector under section 3701.508 of the Revised Code.29186

       (D) The infant hearing screening subcommittee, with the 29187
support of the department of health, shall compile and summarize 29188
the information submitted to the department by hospitals and 29189
freestanding birthing centers under division (B) of this section. 29190
Beginning with the first year after the mechanism developed under 29191
division (A) of this section is complete, the subcommittee shall 29192
annually prepare and transmit a report to the director of health, 29193
the speaker of the house of representatives, and the president of 29194
the senate. The council shall make the report available to the 29195
public.29196

       (E) The department and all members of the subcommittee shall 29197
maintain the confidentiality of patient-identifying information 29198
submitted under division (B) of this section and section 3701.505 29199
of the Revised Code. The information is not a public record under 29200
section 149.43 of the Revised Code, except to the extent that the 29201
information is used in preparing reports under this section.29202

       Nothing in this division prohibits the department from 29203
providing patient-identifying information to other entities as it 29204
considers necessary to implement the statewide tracking and early 29205
intervention components of the program established under section 29206
3701.504 of the Revised Code. Any entity that receives 29207
patient-identifying information from the department shall maintain 29208
the confidentiality of the information.29209

       Sec. 3701.57.  All prosecutions and proceedings by the 29210
department of health for the violation of sections 3701.01 to 29211
3701.56, 3705.01 to 3705.29, 3707.06, 3709.01 to 3709.04, 3709.07 29212
to 3709.11, 3709.13, 3709.17, 3709.18, and 3709.21 to 3709.36 of 29213
the Revised Code, or for the violation of any of the orders or 29214
rules of the department, shall be instituted by the director of 29215
health. Except as provided in division (C) of section 3701.571 of 29216
the Revised Code, all fines or judgments the department collects 29217
shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the general 29218
revenue fund.29219

       The director of health, the board of health of a general or 29220
city health district, or any person charged with enforcing the 29221
rules of the department of health as provided in section 3701.56 29222
of the Revised Code may petition the court of common pleas for 29223
injunctive or other appropriate relief requiring any person 29224
violating a rule adopted by the public health council under 29225
section 3701.34 of the Revised Code or any order issued by the 29226
director of health under this chapter to comply with such rule or 29227
order. The court of common pleas of the county in which the 29228
offense is alleged to be occurring may grant such injunctive or 29229
other appropriate relief as the equities of the case require.29230

       Sec. 3701.63. (A) As used in this section and section 3701.64 29231
of the Revised Code:29232

        (1) "Child day-care center," "type A family day-care home," 29233
and "certified type B family day-care home" have the same meanings 29234
as in section 5104.01 of the Revised Code.29235

       (2) "Child care facility" means a child day-care center, a 29236
type A family day-care home, or a certified type B family day-care 29237
home.29238

        (3) "Freestanding birthing center" has the same meaning as in 29239
section 3702.513702.141 of the Revised Code.29240

       (4) "Hospital" means a hospital classified pursuant to rules 29241
adopted under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as a general 29242
hospital or children's hospital.29243

        (5) "Maternity unit" means any unit or place in a hospital 29244
where women are regularly received and provided care during all or 29245
part of the maternity cycle, except that "maternity unit" does not 29246
include an emergency department or similar place dedicated to 29247
providing emergency health care.29248

       (6) "Parent" means either parent, unless the parents are 29249
separated or divorced or their marriage has been dissolved or 29250
annulled, in which case "parent" means the parent who is the 29251
residential parent and legal custodian of the child. "Parent" also 29252
means a prospective adoptive parent with whom a child is placed.29253

       (7) "Shaken Baby Syndrome" means signs and symptoms, 29254
including, but not limited to, retinal hemorrhages in one or both 29255
eyes, subdural hematoma, or brain swelling, resulting from the 29256
violent shaking or the shaking and impacting of the head of an 29257
infant or small child.29258

        (B) The director of health shall establish the shaken baby 29259
syndrome education program by doing all of the following:29260

       (1) By not later than one year after February 29, 2008, 29261
developing educational materials that present readily 29262
comprehendible information on shaken baby syndrome;29263

        (2) Making available on the department of health web site in 29264
an easily accessible format the educational materials developed 29265
under division (B)(1) of this section;29266

        (3) Beginning in 2009, annually assessing the effectiveness 29267
of the shaken baby syndrome education program by evaluating the 29268
reports received pursuant to section 5101.135 of the Revised Code.29269

       (C) In meeting the requirements under division (B) of this 29270
section, the director shall not develop educational materials that 29271
will impose an administrative or financial burden on any of the 29272
entities or persons listed in section 3701.64 of the Revised Code.29273

       Sec. 3701.74.  (A) As used in this section and section 29274
3701.741 of the Revised Code:29275

       (1) "Ambulatory care facility" means a facility that provides 29276
medical, diagnostic, or surgical treatment to patients who do not 29277
require hospitalization, including a dialysis center, ambulatory 29278
surgical facility, cardiac catheterization facility, diagnostic 29279
imaging center, extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy center, home 29280
health agency, inpatient hospice, birthing center, radiation 29281
therapy center, emergency facility, and an urgent care center. 29282
"Ambulatory care facility" does not include the private office of 29283
a physician or dentist, whether the office is for an individual or 29284
group practice.29285

       (2) "Chiropractor" means an individual licensed under Chapter 29286
4734. of the Revised Code to practice chiropractic.29287

       (3) "Emergency facility" means a hospital emergency 29288
department or any other facility that provides emergency medical 29289
services.29290

       (4) "Health care practitioner" means all of the following:29291

       (a) A dentist or dental hygienist licensed under Chapter 29292
4715. of the Revised Code;29293

       (b) A registered or licensed practical nurse licensed under 29294
Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code;29295

       (c) An optometrist licensed under Chapter 4725. of the 29296
Revised Code;29297

       (d) A dispensing optician, spectacle dispensing optician, 29298
contact lens dispensing optician, or spectacle-contact lens 29299
dispensing optician licensed under Chapter 4725. of the Revised 29300
Code;29301

       (e) A pharmacist licensed under Chapter 4729. of the Revised 29302
Code;29303

       (f) A physician;29304

       (g) A physician assistant authorized under Chapter 4730. of 29305
the Revised Code to practice as a physician assistant;29306

       (h) A practitioner of a limited branch of medicine issued a 29307
certificate under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code;29308

       (i) A psychologist licensed under Chapter 4732. of the 29309
Revised Code;29310

       (j) A chiropractor;29311

       (k) A hearing aid dealer or fitter licensed under Chapter 29312
4747. of the Revised Code;29313

       (l) A speech-language pathologist or audiologist licensed 29314
under Chapter 4753. of the Revised Code;29315

       (m) An occupational therapist or occupational therapy 29316
assistant licensed under Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code;29317

       (n) A physical therapist or physical therapy assistant 29318
licensed under Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code;29319

       (o) A professional clinical counselor, professional 29320
counselor, social worker, or independent social worker licensed, 29321
or a social work assistant registered, under Chapter 4757. of the 29322
Revised Code;29323

       (p) A dietitian licensed under Chapter 4759. of the Revised 29324
Code;29325

       (q) A respiratory care professional licensed under Chapter 29326
4761. of the Revised Code;29327

       (r) An emergency medical technician-basic, emergency medical 29328
technician-intermediate, or emergency medical technician-paramedic 29329
certified under Chapter 4765. of the Revised Code.29330

       (5) "Health care provider" means a hospital, ambulatory care 29331
facility, long-term care facility, pharmacy, emergency facility, 29332
or health care practitioner.29333

       (6) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of 29334
the Revised Code.29335

       (7) "Long-term care facility" means a nursing home, 29336
residential care facility, or home for the aging, as those terms 29337
are defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code; an adult care29338
a residential facility, as defined inlicensed under section 29339
5119.705119.22 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 29340
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 29341
unrelated adults; a nursing facility or intermediate care facility 29342
for the mentally retarded, as those terms are defined in section 29343
5111.20 of the Revised Code; a facility or portion of a facility 29344
certified as a skilled nursing facility under Title XVIII of the 29345
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C.A. 1395, as 29346
amended.29347

       (8) "Medical record" means data in any form that pertains to 29348
a patient's medical history, diagnosis, prognosis, or medical 29349
condition and that is generated and maintained by a health care 29350
provider in the process of the patient's health care treatment.29351

       (9) "Medical records company" means a person who stores, 29352
locates, or copies medical records for a health care provider, or 29353
is compensated for doing so by a health care provider, and charges 29354
a fee for providing medical records to a patient or patient's 29355
representative.29356

       (10) "Patient" means either of the following:29357

       (a) An individual who received health care treatment from a 29358
health care provider;29359

       (b) A guardian, as defined in section 1337.11 of the Revised 29360
Code, of an individual described in division (A)(10)(a) of this 29361
section.29362

       (11) "Patient's personal representative" means a minor 29363
patient's parent or other person acting in loco parentis, a 29364
court-appointed guardian, or a person with durable power of 29365
attorney for health care for a patient, the executor or 29366
administrator of the patient's estate, or the person responsible 29367
for the patient's estate if it is not to be probated. "Patient's 29368
personal representative" does not include an insurer authorized 29369
under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code to do the business of 29370
sickness and accident insurance in this state, a health insuring 29371
corporation holding a certificate of authority under Chapter 1751. 29372
of the Revised Code, or any other person not named in this 29373
division.29374

       (12) "Pharmacy" has the same meaning as in section 4729.01 of 29375
the Revised Code.29376

       (13) "Physician" means a person authorized under Chapter 29377
4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery, 29378
osteopathic medicine and surgery, or podiatric medicine and 29379
surgery.29380

       (14) "Authorized person" means a person to whom a patient has 29381
given written authorization to act on the patient's behalf 29382
regarding the patient's medical record.29383

       (B) A patient, a patient's personal representative or an 29384
authorized person who wishes to examine or obtain a copy of part 29385
or all of a medical record shall submit to the health care 29386
provider a written request signed by the patient, personal 29387
representative, or authorized person dated not more than one year 29388
before the date on which it is submitted. The request shall 29389
indicate whether the copy is to be sent to the requestor, 29390
physician or chiropractor, or held for the requestor at the office 29391
of the health care provider. Within a reasonable time after 29392
receiving a request that meets the requirements of this division 29393
and includes sufficient information to identify the record 29394
requested, a health care provider that has the patient's medical 29395
records shall permit the patient to examine the record during 29396
regular business hours without charge or, on request, shall 29397
provide a copy of the record in accordance with section 3701.741 29398
of the Revised Code, except that if a physician or chiropractor 29399
who has treated the patient determines for clearly stated 29400
treatment reasons that disclosure of the requested record is 29401
likely to have an adverse effect on the patient, the health care 29402
provider shall provide the record to a physician or chiropractor 29403
designated by the patient. The health care provider shall take 29404
reasonable steps to establish the identity of the person making 29405
the request to examine or obtain a copy of the patient's record.29406

       (C) If a health care provider fails to furnish a medical 29407
record as required by division (B) of this section, the patient, 29408
personal representative, or authorized person who requested the 29409
record may bring a civil action to enforce the patient's right of 29410
access to the record.29411

       (D)(1) This section does not apply to medical records whose 29412
release is covered by section 173.20 or 3721.13 of the Revised 29413
Code, by Chapter 1347. or 5122. of the Revised Code, by 42 C.F.R. 29414
part 2, "Confidentiality of Alcohol and Drug Abuse Patient 29415
Records," or by 42 C.F.R. 483.10.29416

       (2) Nothing in this section is intended to supersede the 29417
confidentiality provisions of sections 2305.24, 2305.25, 2305.251, 29418
and 2305.252 of the Revised Code.29419

       Sec. 3701.77. (A) The department of health may establish, 29420
promote, and maintain a lupus education and awareness program with 29421
an emphasis on at-risk communities to raise public awareness, 29422
educate consumers, and educate and train health professionals, 29423
human services providers, and other audiences.29424

       (B) The department, in creating and implementing the program, 29425
may do all of the following:29426

       (1) Provide sufficient staff and appropriate training to 29427
implement the program;29428

       (2) Establish a grant program to support nonprofit voluntary 29429
health organizations with expertise in lupus to increase public 29430
awareness and enhance health professional education and 29431
understanding of the symptoms and consequences of lupus and the 29432
populations most at risk;29433

       (3) Establish an intergovernmental council and advisory panel 29434
to oversee the implementation of the program;29435

       (4) Identify the appropriate entities to carry out the 29436
program;29437

       (5) Base the program on the most current scientific 29438
information and findings;29439

       (6) Work with government entities, community and business 29440
leaders, community organizations, health and human services 29441
providers, and national, state, and local lupus organizations, 29442
such as the lupus foundation of America, inc., to coordinate 29443
efforts to maximize state resources in the areas of lupus 29444
education and awareness;29445

       (7) Identify and use other successful lupus education and 29446
awareness programs and procure related materials and services from 29447
organizations with appropriate expertise and knowledge of lupus.29448

       (C) The department may accept gifts, grants, and donations 29449
from the federal government, foundations, organizations, medical 29450
schools, and other entities for fulfilling the obligations of the 29451
program.29452

       (D) The department may seek any federal waiver that may be 29453
necessary to maximize funds from the federal government to 29454
implement the program.29455

       Sec. 3701.771. (A)(1) The department of health may conduct a 29456
needs assessment to identify all of the following:29457

       (a) The level of statewide health professional and public 29458
awareness about lupus;29459

       (b) The existence of lupus education, awareness, and 29460
treatment programs and related technical assistance available in 29461
the state and nationwide;29462

       (c) The lupus-related educational and support service needs 29463
of health care providers in the state, including physicians, 29464
nurses, health plans, and other health professionals and health 29465
care entities;29466

       (d) The needs of people with lupus, their families, and 29467
caregivers, including health care providers, physicians, nurses, 29468
health plans, and other health professionals and health care 29469
entities;29470

       (e) The services available to individuals with lupus, 29471
including the existence and availability of lupus treatment and 29472
specialty care, lupus support groups, and other related care and 29473
management services.29474

       (2) Based on the needs assessment, the department may develop 29475
and maintain a directory of lupus-related services and health care 29476
providers with specialization in services to diagnose and treat 29477
lupus. The department may disseminate the directory to all 29478
stakeholders, including individuals with lupus, families, 29479
representatives from voluntary organizations, health 29480
professionals, health plans, and state and local health agencies.29481

       (B) The department may undertake activities to raise public 29482
awareness about the symptoms of lupus, personal risk factors, and 29483
options for diagnosing and treating the disease with a particular 29484
focus on populations at elevated risk for lupus. Such activities 29485
may include, but are not limited to, the following:29486

       (1) Implementing a statewide campaign to educate the general 29487
public about lupus by utilizing print, radio, and television 29488
public service announcements, advertisements, posters, and other 29489
materials;29490

       (2) Disseminating health information and conducting 29491
individual risk assessments at public events, such as health fairs 29492
and community forums sponsored by the department;29493

       (3) Distributing information through local health 29494
departments; schools; area agencies on aging; employer wellness 29495
programs; physicians and other health professionals; hospitals and 29496
health plans; health, nonprofit, and community-based 29497
organizations; and regional offices of the department.29498

       Sec. 3701.772. (A) The department of health may establish a 29499
program to award grants to educate and train physicians, health 29500
professionals, and other service providers on the most current, 29501
accurate scientific and medical information on lupus diagnosis, 29502
treatment, and therapeutic decision-making, including medical best 29503
practices for detecting and treating the disease in special 29504
populations, risks and benefits of medications, and research 29505
advances. If a program to award grants is established, the 29506
department shall allocate the total amount available for the 29507
grants in amounts that are proportionate to the populations of the 29508
areas served by the Ohio chapters of the lupus foundation of 29509
America, inc.29510

        To be eligible for a grant, an applicant must be affiliated 29511
with the foundation.29512

       (B) Each grant recipient shall do all of the following:29513

       (1) Develop health professional educational materials that 29514
identify the latest scientific and medical information and 29515
clinical applications;29516

       (2) Work to increase knowledge among physicians, nurses, and 29517
other health and human services professionals about the importance 29518
of lupus diagnosis, treatment, and rehabilitation;29519

       (3) Use available curricula for training of health and human 29520
services providers and community leaders on lupus detection and 29521
treatment;29522

       (4) Support continuing medical education programs in all 29523
geographical areas of the state presented by the leading state 29524
academic institutions by providing the most current information;29525

       (5) Provide workshops and seminars for in-depth professional 29526
development in the field of care and management of lupus patients 29527
to bring the latest information on clinical advances to health 29528
care providers;29529

       (6) Conduct statewide conferences on lupus at appropriate 29530
intervals;29531

       (7) Prepare an annual report that describes the recipient's 29532
use of the grant and submit a copy of the report to the 29533
department.29534

       Sec. 3701.773. (A) If the department of health establishes 29535
the intergovernmental council as permitted by division (B)(3) of 29536
section 3701.77 of the Revised Code, the department shall seek to 29537
ensure coordination of lupus education and awareness efforts. The 29538
director of health shall serve as the council's chairperson. The 29539
council shall include representatives from appropriate state 29540
departments and agencies, including entities with responsibility 29541
for health disparities, medicaid, public health programs, 29542
education, and public welfare.29543

       (B) The council shall do all of the following:29544

       (1) Provide oversight to the lupus education and awareness 29545
program, as well as other lupus programs conducted by the 29546
department;29547

       (2) Develop and issue grant applications and policies and 29548
procedures for programs aimed at health professionals and the 29549
public;29550

       (3) Establish a mechanism for sharing information on lupus 29551
among all officials and employees involved in carrying out 29552
lupus-related programs;29553

       (4) Assist the department and other offices in developing and 29554
coordinating plans for education and health promotion on lupus and 29555
ensure that issues related to lupus are integrated into other 29556
statewide plans;29557

       (5) Prepare an annual report that describes educational 29558
initiatives on lupus sponsored by the state and make 29559
recommendations for new educational initiatives on lupus. The 29560
report shall be transmitted to the general assembly and be made 29561
available to the public.29562

       Sec. 3701.774. (A) If the department of health establishes 29563
the advisory panel as permitted by division (B)(3) of section 29564
3701.77 of the Revised Code, the department shall coordinate the 29565
panel to provide input and counsel regarding the lupus education 29566
and awareness program.29567

       (B) If the panel is established, all of the following apply:29568

       (1) Individuals and organizations may submit to the 29569
department nominations for appointments to the panel. Each panel 29570
member shall have familiarity with lupus and issues that surround 29571
lupus.29572

       (2) The panel shall be comprised of the following members to 29573
be appointed by the director of health:29574

       (a) At least three individuals with lupus;29575

       (b) Not more than two representatives from the department;29576

       (c) At least five individuals from lupus nonprofit health 29577
organizations, with preference given to individuals from the lupus 29578
foundation of America, inc.;29579

       (d) At least five scientists or clinicians with experience in 29580
lupus who participate in various fields of scientific endeavor, 29581
including the fields of biomedical research, social, 29582
translational, behavioral and epidemiological research, and public 29583
health.29584

       (3) The department shall select from among the panel members 29585
one member to serve as chairperson of the panel.29586

       Members of the panel shall serve terms of two years each. 29587
Members may be named to serve a total of two terms and terms may 29588
be consecutive.29589

       A majority of the members of the panel constitutes a quorum. 29590
A majority vote of a quorum is required for any official action of 29591
the panel.29592

       The panel shall meet at the call of the panel chairperson, 29593
but not fewer than four times per year.29594

       All members shall serve without compensation, but may be 29595
reimbursed for actual, necessary expenses incurred in the 29596
performance of their duties.29597

       (4) The panel shall be responsible for advising the 29598
department and the intergovernmental council with respect to the 29599
implementation of the lupus education and awareness program. The 29600
department shall consult with the advisory panel on a regular 29601
basis.29602

       Sec. 3701.775. There is hereby created in the state treasury 29603
the lupus education and awareness program fund. If the department 29604
of health establishes the lupus education and awareness program, 29605
as authorized under section 3701.77 of the Revised Code, all 29606
moneys accepted under division (C) of that section shall be 29607
credited to the fund. Money in the fund shall be used solely to 29608
administer the lupus education and awareness program.29609

       Sec. 3701.87.  The governor may authorize the department of 29610
health to enter into an agreement on behalf of the state with the 29611
United States secretary of health, education, and welfarehuman 29612
services whereby the department may serve as the agency for review 29613
of proposed capital expenditures by health care facilities 29614
pursuant to section 1122 of the "Social Security Act" as amended 29615
by Public Law 92-603, 42 U.S.C. 1320a-1, and the regulations 29616
adopted thereunder. Such agreement shall be subject to and include 29617
the following terms and conditions:29618

       (A) All applications, notices, requests for information, and 29619
other official communications shall be on written forms prescribed 29620
by and approved by the director of health and approved by the 29621
public health council.29622

       (B) The councildirector, subject to Chapter 119. of the 29623
Revised Code, shall propose, modify, amend, and adopt rules, 29624
standards, guidelines, and official policies which are consistent 29625
with federal law, as it deems necessary to implement the capital 29626
expenditures review program.29627

       (C) The director shall make all findings and recommendations 29628
required by federal law and shall give due consideration to the 29629
findings, reviews, and comments of areawide health planning 29630
agencies performing reviews pursuant to section 314 (b)(2) of the 29631
"Public Health Service Act," 42 U.S.C. 246, or the appropriate 29632
health systems agency.29633

       (D) The findings and recommendations of the director shall be 29634
in writing and shall clearly specify the provisions of the state 29635
health facilities plan with which any application is found to be 29636
inconsistent. Any applicant adversely affected by the findings and 29637
recommendations of the director may request a hearing before the 29638
councildirector pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. The 29639
findings and recommendations of the councildirector are an 29640
adjudication as defined in Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and 29641
may be appealed as provided in that chapter.29642

       Sec. 3701.881.  (A) As used in this section:29643

       (1) "Applicant" means both of the following:29644

       (a) Aa person who is under final consideration for 29645
appointment to or employment with a home health agency in a 29646
position as a person responsible for the care, custody, or control 29647
of a child;29648

       (b) A person who is under final consideration for employment 29649
with a home health agency in a full-time, part-time, or temporary 29650
position that involves providing direct care to an older adult29651
individual or is referred to a home health agency by an employment 29652
service for such a position. With regard to persons providing 29653
direct care to older adults, "applicant" does not include a person 29654
who provides direct care as a volunteer without receiving or 29655
expecting to receive any form of remuneration other than 29656
reimbursement for actual expenses.29657

       (2) "Criminal records check" and "older adult" havehas the 29658
same meaningsmeaning as in section 109.572 of the Revised Code.29659

       (3) "Direct care" means any of the following:29660

       (a) Any service identified in divisions (A)(6)(a) to (f) of 29661
this section that is provided in a patient's place of residence 29662
used as the patient's home;29663

       (b) Any activity that requires the person performing the 29664
activity to be routinely alone with a patient or to routinely have 29665
access to a patient's personal property or financial documents 29666
regarding a patient;29667

       (c) For each home health agency individually, any other 29668
routine service or activity that the chief administrator of the 29669
home health agency designates as direct care.29670

       (4) "Disqualifying offense" means any of the following:29671

       (a) One or more violations of section 959.13, 2903.01, 29672
2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 29673
2903.15, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2903.341, 29674
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 29675
2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 29676
2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.24, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 29677
2907.322, 2907.323, 2907.33, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.04, 2909.22, 29678
2909.23, 2909.24, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 29679
2913.02, 2913.04, 2913.05, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 29680
2913.40, 2913.41, 2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 2913.441, 2913.45, 29681
2913.46, 2913.47, 2913.48, 2913.49, 2913.51, 2917.01, 2917.02, 29682
2917.03, 2917.12, 2917.31, 2919.12, 2919.121, 2919.123, 2919.22, 29683
2919.23, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.03, 2921.11, 2921.13, 2921.21, 29684
2921.24, 2921.321, 2921.34, 2921.35, 2921.36, 2921.51, 2923.12, 29685
2923.122, 2923.123, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2923.162, 2923.21, 2923.32, 29686
2923.42, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.041, 2925.05, 2925.06, 29687
2925.09, 2925.13, 2925.14, 2925.22, 2925.23, 2925.24, 2925.36, 29688
2925.55, 2925.56, 2927.12, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;29689

       (b) One or more violations of felonious sexual penetration 29690
under former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;29691

       (c) One or more violations of section 2905.04 of the Revised 29692
Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996;29693

       (d) One violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code when 29694
the violation is not a minor drug possession offense;29695

       (e) Two or more violations of section 2925.11 of the Revised 29696
Code, regardless of whether any of the violations are a minor drug 29697
possession offense;29698

       (f) One or more violations of section 2923.01, 2923.02, or 29699
2923.03 of the Revised Code when the underlying offense that is 29700
the object of the conspiracy, attempt, or complicity is one of the 29701
offenses listed in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (e) of this section;29702

       (g) One or more violations of an existing or former municipal 29703
ordinance or law of this state, any other state, or the United 29704
States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses 29705
listed in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (f) of this section.29706

       (5) "Employee" means a person employed by a home health 29707
agency in a full-time, part-time, or temporary position that 29708
involves providing direct care to an individual and a person who 29709
works in such a position due to being referred to a home health 29710
agency by an employment service.29711

       (6) "Home health agency" means a person or government entity, 29712
other than a nursing home, residential care facility, or hospice 29713
care program, that has the primary function of providing any of 29714
the following services to a patient at a place of residence used 29715
as the patient's home:29716

       (a) Skilled nursing care;29717

       (b) Physical therapy;29718

       (c) Speech-language pathology;29719

       (d) Occupational therapy;29720

       (e) Medical social services;29721

       (f) Home health aide services.29722

       (4)(7) "Home health aide services" means any of the following 29723
services provided by an individual employed with or contracted for 29724
byemployee of a home health agency:29725

       (a) Hands-on bathing or assistance with a tub bath or shower;29726

       (b) Assistance with dressing, ambulation, and toileting;29727

       (c) Catheter care but not insertion;29728

       (d) Meal preparation and feeding.29729

       (5)(8) "Hospice care program" has the same meaning as in 29730
section 3712.01 of the Revised Code.29731

       (6)(9) "Medical social services" means services provided by a 29732
social worker under the direction of a patient's attending 29733
physician.29734

       (7)(10) "Minor drug possession offense" has the same meaning 29735
as in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.29736

       (8)(11) "Nursing home," "residential care facility," and 29737
"skilled nursing care" have the same meanings as in section 29738
3721.01 of the Revised Code.29739

       (9)(12) "Occupational therapy" has the same meaning as in 29740
section 4755.04 of the Revised Code.29741

       (10)(13) "Physical therapy" has the same meaning as in 29742
section 4755.40 of the Revised Code.29743

       (11)(14) "Social worker" means a person licensed under 29744
Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code to practice as a social worker 29745
or independent social worker.29746

       (12)(15) "Speech-language pathology" has the same meaning as 29747
in section 4753.01 of the Revised Code.29748

       (B) No home health agency shall employ an applicant or 29749
continue to employ an employee in a position that involves 29750
providing direct care to an individual if any of the following 29751
apply:29752

       (1) A review of the databases listed in division (D) of this 29753
section reveals any of the following:29754

       (a) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 29755
of the databases listed in divisions (D)(1) to (5) of this 29756
section;29757

       (b) That there is in the state nurse aide registry 29758
established under section 3721.32 of the Revised Code a statement 29759
detailing findings by the director of health that the applicant or 29760
employee neglected or abused a long-term care facility or 29761
residential care facility resident or misappropriated property of 29762
such a resident;29763

       (c) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 29764
of the databases, if any, specified in rules adopted under this 29765
section and the rules prohibit the home health agency from 29766
employing an applicant or continuing to employ an employee 29767
included in such a database in a position that involves providing 29768
direct care to an individual.29769

       (2) After the applicant or employee is provided, pursuant to 29770
division (E)(2)(a) of this section, a copy of the form prescribed 29771
pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 29772
and the standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division 29773
(C)(2) of that section, the applicant or employee fails to 29774
complete the form or provide the applicant's or employee's 29775
fingerprint impressions on the standard impression sheet.29776

       (3) Except as provided in rules adopted under this section, 29777
the applicant or employee is found by a criminal records check 29778
required by this section to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty 29779
to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction 29780
for a disqualifying offense.29781

       (C) Except as provided by division (F) of this section, the 29782
chief administrator of a home health agency shall inform each 29783
applicant of both of the following at the time of the applicant's 29784
initial application for employment or referral to the home health 29785
agency by an employment service for a position that involves 29786
providing direct care to an individual:29787

       (1) That a review of the databases listed in division (D) of 29788
this section will be conducted to determine whether the home 29789
health agency is prohibited by division (B)(1) of this section 29790
from employing the applicant in the position;29791

       (2) That, unless the database review reveals that the 29792
applicant may not be employed in the position, a criminal records 29793
check of the applicant will be conducted and the applicant is 29794
required to provide a set of the applicant's fingerprint 29795
impressions as part of the criminal records check.29796

       (D) As a condition of employing any applicant in a position 29797
that involves providing direct care to an individual, the chief 29798
administrator of a home health agency shall conduct a database 29799
review of the applicant in accordance with rules adopted under 29800
this section. If rules adopted under this section so require, the 29801
chief administrator of a home health agency shall conduct a 29802
database review of an employee in accordance with the rules as a 29803
condition of continuing to employ the employee in a position that 29804
involves providing direct care to an individual. However, the 29805
chief administrator is not required to conduct a database review 29806
of an applicant or employee if division (F) of this section 29807
applies. A database review shall determine whether the applicant 29808
or employee is included in any of the following:29809

       (1) The excluded parties list system maintained by the United 29810
States general services administration pursuant to subpart 9.4 of 29811
the federal acquisition regulation;29812

       (2) The list of excluded individuals and entities maintained 29813
by the office of inspector general in the United States department 29814
of health and human services pursuant to section 1128 of the 29815
"Social Security Act," 94 Stat. 2619 (1980), 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7, as 29816
amended, and section 1156 of the "Social Security Act," 96 Stat. 29817
388 (1982), 42 U.S.C. 1320c-5, as amended;29818

       (3) The registry of MR/DD employees established under section 29819
5123.52 of the Revised Code;29820

       (4) The internet-based sex offender and child-victim offender 29821
database established under division (A)(11) of section 2950.13 of 29822
the Revised Code;29823

       (5) The internet-based database of inmates established under 29824
section 5120.66 of the Revised Code;29825

       (6) The state nurse aide registry established under section 29826
3721.32 of the Revised Code;29827

       (7) Any other database, if any, specified in rules adopted 29828
under this section.29829

       (E)(1) Except as provided in division (I) of this sectionAs 29830
a condition of employing any applicant in a position that involves 29831
providing direct care to an individual, the chief administrator of 29832
a home health agency shall request the superintendent of the 29833
bureau of criminal identification and investigation to conduct a 29834
criminal records check with respect to eachof the applicant. If 29835
the position may involve both responsibility for the care, 29836
custody, or control of a child and provision of direct care to an 29837
older adult, the chief administrator shall request that the 29838
superintendent conduct a single criminal records check for the 29839
applicant.If rules adopted under this section so require, the 29840
chief administrator of a home health agency shall request the 29841
superintendent to conduct a criminal records check of an employee 29842
at times specified in the rules as a condition of continuing to 29843
employ the employee in a position that involves providing direct 29844
care to an individual. However, the chief administrator is not 29845
required to request the criminal records check of the applicant or 29846
the employee if division (F) of this section applies or the home 29847
health agency is prohibited by division (B)(1) of this section 29848
from employing the applicant or continuing to employ the employee 29849
in a position that involves providing direct care to an 29850
individual. If an applicant or employee for whom a criminal 29851
records check request is required underby this divisionsection29852
does not present proof of having been a resident of this state for 29853
the five-year period immediately prior to the date upon which the 29854
criminal records check is requested or does not provide evidence 29855
that within that five-year period the superintendent has requested 29856
information about the applicant from the federal bureau of 29857
investigation in a criminal records check, the chief administrator 29858
shall request that the superintendent obtain information from the 29859
federal bureau of investigation as a part of the criminal records 29860
check for the applicant. Even if an applicant or employee for whom 29861
a criminal records check request is required underby this29862
divisionsection presents proof that the applicant or employee has 29863
been a resident of this state for that five-year period, the chief 29864
administrator may request that the superintendent include 29865
information from the federal bureau of investigation in the 29866
criminal records check.29867

       (2) Any person required by division (B)(1) of this section to 29868
request a criminal records checkThe chief administrator shall 29869
providedo all of the following:29870

       (a) Provide to each applicant and employee for whom a 29871
criminal records check request is required under that divisionby 29872
this section a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division 29873
(C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a standard 29874
impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that29875
section 109.572 of the Revised Code, obtain;29876

       (b) Obtain the completed form and standard impression sheet 29877
from each applicant, and forwardemployee;29878

       (c) Forward the completed form and standard impression sheet 29879
to the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 29880
investigation at the time the chief administrator requests athe29881
criminal records check pursuant to division (B)(1) of this 29882
section.29883

       (3) An applicant who receives pursuant to division (B)(2) of 29884
this section a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division 29885
(C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a copy of an 29886
impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that 29887
section and who is requested to complete the form and provide a 29888
set of fingerprint impressions shall complete the form or provide 29889
all the information necessary to complete the form and shall 29890
provide the impression sheets with the impressions of the 29891
applicant's fingerprints. If an applicant, upon request, fails to 29892
provide the information necessary to complete the form or fails to 29893
provide fingerprint impressions, the home health agency shall not 29894
employ that applicant for any position for which a criminal 29895
records check is required by division (B)(1) of this section.29896

       (C)(1) Except as provided in rules adopted by the department 29897
of health in accordance with division (F) of this section and 29898
subject to division (C)(3) of this section, no home health agency 29899
shall employ a person as a person responsible for the care, 29900
custody, or control of a child if the person previously has been 29901
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:29902

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 29903
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 29904
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 29905
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 29906
2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 29907
2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 29908
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 29909
2925.06, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, a violation of section 29910
2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, a 29911
violation of section 2919.23 of the Revised Code that would have 29912
been a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it 29913
existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the violation been committed 29914
prior to that date, a violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised 29915
Code that is not a minor drug possession offense, or felonious 29916
sexual penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the 29917
Revised Code;29918

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 29919
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 29920
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (C)(1)(a) of 29921
this section.29922

       (2) Except as provided in rules adopted by the department of 29923
health in accordance with division (F) of this section and subject 29924
to division (C)(3) of this section, no home health agency shall 29925
employ a person in a position that involves providing direct care 29926
to an older adult if the person previously has been convicted of 29927
or pleaded guilty to any of the following:29928

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 29929
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 29930
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 29931
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 29932
2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 29933
2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 29934
2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 29935
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 29936
2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code.29937

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 29938
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 29939
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (C)(2)(a) of 29940
this section.29941

       (3)(a)A home health agency shall pay to the bureau of 29942
criminal identification and investigation the fee prescribed 29943
pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 29944
for each criminal records check the agency requests under this 29945
section. A home health agency may charge an applicant a fee not 29946
exceeding the amount the agency pays to the bureau under this 29947
section if both of the following apply:29948

       (a) The home health agency notifies the applicant at the time 29949
of initial application for employment of the amount of the fee and 29950
that, unless the fee is paid, the applicant will not be considered 29951
for employment.29952

       (b) The medicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of 29953
the Revised Code does not reimburse the home health agency for the 29954
fee it pays to the bureau under this section.29955

       (F) Divisions (C) to (E) of this section do not apply with 29956
regard to an applicant or employee if the applicant or employee is 29957
referred to a home health agency by an employment service that 29958
supplies full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for positions 29959
that involve providing direct care to an individual and both of 29960
the following apply:29961

       (1) The chief administrator of the home health agency 29962
receives from the employment service confirmation that a review of 29963
the databases listed in division (D) of this section was conducted 29964
with regard to the applicant or employee.29965

       (2) The chief administrator of the home health agency 29966
receives from the employment service, applicant, or employee a 29967
report of the results of a criminal records check of the applicant 29968
or employee that has been conducted by the superintendent within 29969
the one-year period immediately preceding the following:29970

       (a) In the case of an applicant, the date of the applicant's 29971
referral by the employment service to the home health agency;29972

       (b) In the case of an employee, the date by which the home 29973
health agency would otherwise have to request a criminal records 29974
check of the employee under division (E) of this section.29975

       (G)(1) A home health agency may employ conditionally an 29976
applicant for whom a criminal records check request is required29977
under division (B) ofby this section as a person responsible for 29978
the care, custody, or control of a child until the criminal 29979
records check regarding the applicant required by this section is 29980
completed and the agency receivesbefore obtaining the results of 29981
the criminal records check if the agency is not prohibited by 29982
division (B) of this section from employing the applicant in a 29983
position that involves providing direct care to an individual and 29984
either of the following applies:29985

       (a) The chief administrator of the home health agency 29986
requests the criminal records check in accordance with division 29987
(E) of this section not later than five business days after the 29988
applicant begins conditional employment.29989

       (b) The applicant is referred to the home health agency by an 29990
employment service, the employment service or the applicant 29991
provides the chief administrator of the agency a letter that is on 29992
the letterhead of the employment service, the letter is dated and 29993
signed by a supervisor or another designated official of the 29994
employment service, and the letter states all of the following:29995

       (i) That the employment service has requested the 29996
superintendent to conduct a criminal records check regarding the 29997
applicant;29998

       (ii) That the requested criminal records check is to include 29999
a determination of whether the applicant has been convicted of, 30000
pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu 30001
of conviction for a disqualifying offense;30002

       (iii) That the employment service has not received the 30003
results of the criminal records check as of the date set forth on 30004
the letter;30005

       (iv) That the employment service promptly will send a copy of 30006
the results of the criminal records check to the chief 30007
administrator of the home health agency when the employment 30008
service receives the results.30009

       (2) If a home health agency employs an applicant 30010
conditionally pursuant to division (G)(1)(b) of this section, the 30011
employment service, on its receipt of the results of the criminal 30012
records check, promptly shall send a copy of the results to the 30013
chief administrator of the agency. If the results of the criminal 30014
records check indicate that, pursuant to division (C)(1) of this 30015
section, the applicant does not qualify for employment, the agency 30016
shall release the applicant from employment unless the agency 30017
chooses to employ the applicant pursuant to division (F) of this 30018
section.30019

       (b)(i) A home health agency may employ conditionally an 30020
applicant for whom a criminal records check request is required 30021
under division (B) of this section in a position that involves 30022
providing direct care to an older adult or in a position that 30023
involves both responsibility for the care, custody, and control of 30024
a child and the provision of direct care to older adults prior to 30025
obtaining the results of a criminal records check regarding the 30026
individual, provided that the agency shall request a criminal 30027
records check regarding the individual in accordance with division 30028
(B)(1) of this section not later than five business days after the 30029
individual begins conditional employment. In the circumstances 30030
described in division (I)(2) of this section, a home health agency 30031
may employ conditionally in a position that involves providing 30032
direct care to an older adult an applicant who has been referred 30033
to the home health agency by an employment service that supplies 30034
full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for positions involving 30035
the direct care of older adults and for whom, pursuant to that 30036
division, a criminal records check is not required under division 30037
(B) of this section. In the circumstances described in division 30038
(I)(4) of this section, a home health agency may employ 30039
conditionally in a position that involves both responsibility for 30040
the care, custody, and control of a child and the provision of 30041
direct care to older adults an applicant who has been referred to 30042
the home health agency by an employment service that supplies 30043
full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for positions involving 30044
both responsibility for the care, custody, and control of a child 30045
and the provision of direct care to older adults and for whom, 30046
pursuant to that division, a criminal records check is not 30047
required under division (B) of this section.30048

       (ii)(3) A home health agency that employs an individual30049
applicant conditionally under authority ofpursuant to division30050
(C)(3)(b)(i)(G)(1)(a) or (b) of this section shall terminate the30051
individual'sapplicant's employment if the results of the criminal 30052
records check requested under division (B)(1) of this section or 30053
described in division (I)(2) or (4) of this section, other than 30054
the results of any request for information from the federal bureau 30055
of investigation, are not obtained within the period ending thirty 30056
days after the date the request for the criminal records check is 30057
made. Regardless of when the results of the criminal records check 30058
are obtained, if the individual was employed conditionally in a 30059
position that involves the provision of direct care to older 30060
adults and the results indicate that the individualapplicant has 30061
been convicted of or, pleaded guilty to any of the offenses listed 30062
or described in division (C)(2) of this section, or if the 30063
individual was employed conditionally in a position that involves 30064
both responsibility for the care, custody, and control of a child 30065
and the provision of direct care to older adults and the results 30066
indicate that the individual has been convicted of or pleaded 30067
guilty to any of the offenses listed or described in division 30068
(C)(1) or (2) of this section, or been found eligible for 30069
intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense, 30070
the home health agency shall terminate the individual's30071
applicant's employment unless circumstances specified in rules 30072
adopted under this section that permit the agency to employ the 30073
applicant exist and the agency chooses to employ the individual 30074
pursuant to division (F) of this sectionapplicant. Termination of 30075
employment under this division shall be considered just cause for 30076
discharge for purposes of division (D)(2) of section 4141.29 of 30077
the Revised Code if the individualapplicant makes any attempt to 30078
deceive the home health agency about the individual'sapplicant's30079
criminal record.30080

       (D)(1) Each home health agency shall pay to the bureau of 30081
criminal identification and investigation the fee prescribed 30082
pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 30083
for each criminal records check conducted in accordance with that 30084
section upon the request pursuant to division (B)(1) of this 30085
section of the chief administrator of the home health agency.30086

       (2) A home health agency may charge an applicant a fee for 30087
the costs it incurs in obtaining a criminal records check under 30088
this section, unless the medical assistance program established 30089
under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code reimburses the agency for 30090
the costs. A fee charged under division (D)(2) of this section 30091
shall not exceed the amount of fees the agency pays under division 30092
(D)(1) of this section. If a fee is charged under division (D)(2) 30093
of this section, the agency shall notify the applicant at the time 30094
of the applicant's initial application for employment of the 30095
amount of the fee and that, unless the fee is paid, the agency 30096
will not consider the applicant for employment.30097

       (E)(H) The report of any criminal records check conducted by 30098
the bureau of criminal identification and investigation in 30099
accordance with section 109.572 of the Revised Code and pursuant 30100
to a request made under division (B)(1) of this section is not a 30101
public record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised 30102
Code and shall not be made available to any person other than the 30103
following:30104

       (1) The individualapplicant or employee who is the subject 30105
of the criminal records check or the individual'sapplicant's or 30106
employee's representative;30107

       (2) The home health agency requesting the criminal records 30108
check or its representative;30109

       (3) The administrator of any other facility, agency, or 30110
program that provides direct care to older adultsindividuals that 30111
is owned or operated by the same entity that owns or operates the 30112
home health agency that requested the criminal records check;30113

       (4) The employment service that requested the criminal 30114
records check;30115

       (5) Any court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 30116
involved in a case dealing with aany of the following:30117

       (a) A denial of employment of the applicant or dealing with 30118
employmentemployee;30119

       (b) Employment or unemployment benefits of the applicant or 30120
employee;30121

       (5) Any person to whom the report is provided pursuant to, 30122
and in accordance with, division (I)(1), (2), (3), or (4) of this 30123
section(c) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid 30124
program.30125

       (F) The department of health shall adopt rules in accordance 30126
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. 30127
The rules shall specify circumstances under which the home health 30128
agency may employ a person who has been convicted of or pleaded 30129
guilty to an offense listed or described in division (C)(1) of 30130
this section but who meets standards in regard to rehabilitation 30131
set by the department or employ a person who has been convicted of 30132
or pleaded guilty to an offense listed or described in division 30133
(C)(2) of this section but meets personal character standards set 30134
by the department.30135

       (G) Any person required by division (B)(1) of this section to 30136
request a criminal records check shall inform each person, at the 30137
time of initial application for employment that the person is 30138
required to provide a set of fingerprint impressions and that a 30139
criminal records check is required to be conducted and 30140
satisfactorily completed in accordance with section 109.572 of the 30141
Revised Code if the person comes under final consideration for 30142
appointment or employment as a precondition to employment for that 30143
position.30144

       (H)(I) In a tort or other civil action for damages that is 30145
brought as the result of an injury, death, or loss to person or 30146
property caused by an individualapplicant or employee who a home 30147
health agency employs in a position that involves providing direct 30148
care to older adultsan individual, all of the following shall 30149
apply:30150

       (1) If the home health agency employed the individual30151
applicant or employee in good faith and reasonable reliance on the 30152
report of a criminal records check requested under this section, 30153
the agency shall not be found negligent solely because of its 30154
reliance on the report, even if the information in the report is 30155
determined later to have been incomplete or inaccurate;.30156

       (2) If the home health agency employed the individual30157
applicant in good faith on a conditional basis pursuant to 30158
division (C)(3)(b)(G) of this section, the agency shall not be 30159
found negligent solely because it employed the individual30160
applicant prior to receiving the report of a criminal records 30161
check requested under this section;.30162

       (3) If the home health agency in good faith employed the 30163
individualapplicant or employee according to the personal 30164
character standards established in rules adopted under division 30165
(F) of this section, the agency shall not be found negligent 30166
solely because the individual prior to being employedapplicant or 30167
employee had been convicted of or, pleaded guilty to an, or been 30168
found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 30169
disqualifying offense listed or described in division (C)(1) or 30170
(2) of this section.30171

       (I)(1) The chief administrator of a home health agency is not 30172
required to request that the superintendent of the bureau of 30173
criminal identification and investigation conduct a criminal 30174
records check of an applicant for a position that involves the 30175
provision of direct care to older adults if the applicant has been 30176
referred to the agency by an employment service that supplies 30177
full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for positions involving 30178
the direct care of older adults and both of the following apply:30179

       (a) The chief administrator receives from the employment 30180
service or the applicant a report of the results of a criminal 30181
records check regarding the applicant that has been conducted by 30182
the superintendent within the one-year period immediately 30183
preceding the applicant's referral;30184

       (b) The report of the criminal records check demonstrates 30185
that the person has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an 30186
offense listed or described in division (C)(2) of this section, or 30187
the report demonstrates that the person has been convicted of or 30188
pleaded guilty to one or more of those offenses, but the home 30189
health agency chooses to employ the individual pursuant to 30190
division (F) of this section.30191

       (2) The chief administrator of a home health agency is not 30192
required to request that the superintendent of the bureau of 30193
criminal identification and investigation conduct a criminal 30194
records check of an applicant for a position that involves 30195
providing direct care to older adults and may employ the applicant 30196
conditionally in a position of that nature as described in this 30197
division, if the applicant has been referred to the agency by an 30198
employment service that supplies full-time, part-time, or 30199
temporary staff for positions involving the direct care of older 30200
adults and if the chief administrator receives from the employment 30201
service or the applicant a letter from the employment service that 30202
is on the letterhead of the employment service, dated, and signed 30203
by a supervisor or another designated official of the employment 30204
service and that states that the employment service has requested 30205
the superintendent to conduct a criminal records check regarding 30206
the applicant, that the requested criminal records check will 30207
include a determination of whether the applicant has been 30208
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense listed or described 30209
in division (C)(2) of this section, that, as of the date set forth 30210
on the letter, the employment service had not received the results 30211
of the criminal records check, and that, when the employment 30212
service receives the results of the criminal records check, it 30213
promptly will send a copy of the results to the home health 30214
agency. If a home health agency employs an applicant conditionally 30215
in accordance with this division, the employment service, upon its 30216
receipt of the results of the criminal records check, promptly 30217
shall send a copy of the results to the home health agency, and 30218
division (C)(3)(b) of this section applies regarding the 30219
conditional employment.30220

       (3) The chief administrator of a home health agency is not 30221
required to request that the superintendent of the bureau of 30222
criminal identification and investigation conduct a criminal 30223
records check of an applicant for a position that involves both 30224
responsibility for the care, custody, and control of a child and 30225
the provision of direct care to older adults if the applicant has 30226
been referred to the agency by an employment service that supplies 30227
full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for positions involving 30228
both responsibility for the care, custody, and control of a child 30229
and the provision of direct care to older adults and both of the 30230
following apply:30231

       (a) The chief administrator receives from the employment 30232
service or applicant a report of a criminal records check of the 30233
type described in division (I)(1)(a) of this section;30234

       (b) The report of the criminal records check demonstrates 30235
that the person has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an 30236
offense listed or described in division (C)(1) or (2) of this 30237
section, or the report demonstrates that the person has been 30238
convicted of or pleaded guilty to one or more of those offenses, 30239
but the home health agency chooses to employ the individual 30240
pursuant to division (F) of this section.30241

       (4) The chief administrator of a home health agency is not 30242
required to request that the superintendent of the bureau of 30243
criminal identification and investigation conduct a criminal 30244
records check of an applicant for a position that involves both 30245
responsibility for the care, custody, and control of a child and 30246
the provision of direct care to older adults and may employ the 30247
applicant conditionally in a position of that nature as described 30248
in this division, if the applicant has been referred to the agency 30249
by an employment service that supplies full-time, part-time, or 30250
temporary staff for positions involving both responsibility for 30251
the care, custody, and control of a child and the direct care of 30252
older adults and if the chief administrator receives from the 30253
employment service or the applicant a letter from the employment 30254
service that is on the letterhead of the employment service, 30255
dated, and signed by a supervisor or another designated official 30256
of the employment service and that states that the employment 30257
service has requested the superintendent to conduct a criminal 30258
records check regarding the applicant, that the requested criminal 30259
records check will include a determination of whether the 30260
applicant has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense 30261
listed or described in division (C)(1) or (2) of this section, 30262
that, as of the date set forth on the letter, the employment 30263
service had not received the results of the criminal records 30264
check, and that, when the employment service receives the results 30265
of the criminal records check, it promptly will send a copy of the 30266
results to the home health agency. If a home health agency employs 30267
an applicant conditionally in accordance with this division, the 30268
employment service, upon its receipt of the results of the 30269
criminal records check, promptly shall send a copy of the results 30270
to the home health agency, and division (C)(3)(b) of this section 30271
applies regarding the conditional employment.30272

       (J) The director of health shall adopt rules in accordance 30273
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. 30274

       (1) The rules may do the following:30275

       (a) Require employees to undergo database reviews and 30276
criminal records checks under this section;30277

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 30278
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, exempt one 30279
or more classes of employees from the requirements;30280

       (c) For the purpose of division (D)(7) of this section, 30281
specify other databases that are to be checked as part of a 30282
database review conducted under this section.30283

       (2) The rules shall specify all of the following:30284

       (a) The procedures for conducting database reviews under this 30285
section;30286

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 30287
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, the times 30288
at which the database reviews and criminal records checks are to 30289
be conducted;30290

       (c) If the rules specify other databases to be checked as 30291
part of the database reviews, the circumstances under which a home 30292
health agency is prohibited from employing an applicant or 30293
continuing to employ an employee who is found by a database review 30294
to be included in one or more of those databases;30295

       (d) Circumstances under which a home health agency may employ 30296
an applicant or employee who is found by a criminal records check 30297
required by this section to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty 30298
to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction 30299
for a disqualifying offense but meets personal character 30300
standards.30301

       Sec. 185.01.        Sec. 3701.92.  As used in this chaptersections 30302
3701.921 to 3701.929 of the Revised Code:30303

       (A) "Advanced practice nurse" has the same meaning as in 30304
section 4723.01 of the Revised Code.30305

       (B) "Collaboration" has the same meaning as in section 30306
4723.01 of the Revised Code.30307

       (C) "Patient centered medical home education advisory group" 30308
means the entity established under section 185.033701.924 of the 30309
Revised Code to implement and administer the patient centered 30310
medical home education pilot project.30311

       (D) "Patient centered medical home education program" means 30312
the program established under section 3701.921 of the Revised Code 30313
and any pilot projects operated pursuant to that section.30314

       (E) "Patient centered medical home education pilot project" 30315
means the pilot project established under section 185.023701.92330316
of the Revised Code.30317

       (F) "Physician assistant" has the same meaning as in section 30318
4730.01 of the Revised Code.30319

       Sec. 3701.921.  There is hereby established the patient 30320
centered medical home education program in the department of 30321
health. For the purpose of advancing education in the patient 30322
centered medical home model of care, the director of health may 30323
implement and administer the program pursuant to sections 3701.922 30324
to 3701.929 of the Revised Code. The patient centered medical home 30325
model of care is an enhanced model of primary care in which care 30326
teams attend to the multifaceted needs of patients, providing 30327
whole person comprehensive and coordinate patient centered care.30328

       To the extent that funds are available, the program shall 30329
include the patient centered medical home education pilot project 30330
and may include any other pilot projects the director establishes 30331
pursuant to division (A)(3) of section 3701.922 of the Revised 30332
Code.30333

       Sec. 3701.922.  (A) The director of health may do any of the 30334
following to implement and administer the patient centered medical 30335
home education program:30336

       (1) Develop and implement programs of education or training 30337
on the patient centered medical home model of care or other 30338
similar enhanced models of coordinated patient centered care that 30339
are intended to address the multifaceted needs of patients and 30340
provide whole person comprehensive and coordinated patient 30341
centered care;30342

       (2) Advise, consult, cooperate with, and assist, by contract 30343
or other arrangement, government agencies or institutions or 30344
private organizations, corporations, or associations in the 30345
development and promotion of programs pertaining to the evaluation 30346
and implementation of the patient centered medical home model of 30347
care or other similar enhanced models of coordinated patient 30348
centered care;30349

       (3) Establish pilot projects that do any of the following:30350

       (a) Evaluate or implement the patient centered medical home 30351
model of care or other similar enhanced models of coordinated 30352
patient centered care;30353

       (b) Provide education or training on the patient centered 30354
medical home model of care or other similar enhanced models of 30355
coordinated patient centered care.30356

       (4) Seek and administer state funds or grants from other 30357
sources to carry out any functions of the patient centered medical 30358
home education program.30359

        Any funds or grants received by the director for purposes of 30360
the program shall be used for the program.30361

       (B) The director may adopt rules as necessary to implement 30362
and administer the patient centered medical home education 30363
program, including rules that define what constitutes a "patient 30364
centered medical home" for purposes of an entity authorized to 30365
provide care coordination services. The rules shall be adopted in 30366
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.30367

       Sec. 185.02.        Sec. 3701.923. (A) There is hereby established the 30368
patient centered medical home education pilot project. The pilot 30369
project shall be implemented and administered by the patient 30370
centered medical home education advisory group.30371

       (B) The pilot project shall be operated to advance medical 30372
education in the patient centered medical home model of care. The 30373
patient centered medical home model of care is an enhanced model 30374
of primary care in which care teams attend to the multifaceted 30375
needs of patients, providing whole person comprehensive and 30376
coordinated patient centered care.30377

       (C)To the extent that funds are available, the director of 30378
health shall establish the patient centered medical home education 30379
pilot project. If the director establishes the project, all of the 30380
following apply:30381

       (1) The director shall select practices led by physicians and 30382
primary care practices led by advanced practice nurses to 30383
participate in the project. The director may consider the 30384
recommendations of the advisory group made in accordance with 30385
section 3701.925 of the Revised Code, but may not select a 30386
practice unless the practice complies with any applicable 30387
requirements under section 3701.926 of the Revised Code.30388

       (2) The director shall conduct the project in a manner that 30389
advances education in the patient centered medical home model of 30390
care.30391

       (3) The director shall evaluate all of the following:30392

       (a) Learning opportunities generated by the project;30393

        (b) Training of physicians and advanced practice nurses under 30394
the project;30395

       (c) Costs of the project;30396

       (d) The extent to which the project met the expected outcomes 30397
developed under division (A) of section 3701.924 of the Revised 30398
Code.30399

       (4) The director shall assess and review results of the 30400
project.30401

       (5) The director shall recommend best practices and 30402
opportunities for improving technology, education, comprehensive 30403
training, consultation, and technical assistance for health care 30404
service providers in the patient centered medical home model of 30405
care.30406

       (B) The director may contract with an entity that has 30407
significant experience in assisting physician-led practices and 30408
advanced practice nurse-led primary care practices in 30409
transitioning to the patient centered medical home model of care. 30410
The contract shall require the entity to do both of the following:30411

       (1) Provide, to each practice that enters into a contract 30412
with the director pursuant to section 3701.927 of the Revised 30413
Code, comprehensive training, consultation, and technical 30414
assistance in the operation of a patient centered medical home, 30415
including assistance with leadership training, scheduling changes, 30416
staff support, and care management for chronic health conditions;30417

       (2) Assist the director in identifying necessary financial 30418
and operational requirements and any barriers or challenges 30419
associated with transitioning to a patient centered medical home 30420
model of care.30421

       (C) The project established under this section shall begin 30422
not later than the date the first practice enters into a contract 30423
with the director pursuant to section 3701.927 of the Revised Code 30424
and shall cease not later than the date the final report is 30425
submitted pursuant to division (B)(3) of section 3701.929 of the 30426
Revised Code.30427

       (D) The pilot project shall not be operated in a manner that 30428
requires a patient, unless otherwise required by the Revised Code, 30429
to receive a referral from a physician in a practice selected for 30430
inclusion in the pilot project under division (A)(1) of this30431
section 185.05 of the Revised Code as a condition of being 30432
authorized to receive specialized health care services from an 30433
individual licensed or certified under Title XLVII of the Revised 30434
Code to provide those services.30435

       Sec. 185.03.        Sec. 3701.924. (A) The patient centered medical home 30436
education advisory group is hereby created for the purpose of 30437
implementing and administeringadvising the director of health on 30438
the implementation and administration of the patient centered 30439
medical home pilot projecteducation program. The advisory group 30440
shall develop and provide to the director a set of expected 30441
outcomes for the pilot project. The advisory group shall consider 30442
and provide other recommendations to the director and complete 30443
other duties as the director considers appropriate. 30444

       (B) The advisory group shall consist of the following voting30445
members:30446

       (1) The following members appointed by the director of 30447
health:30448

       (1)(a) One individual with expertise in the training and 30449
education of primary care physicians who is appointedrecommended30450
by the dean of the university of Toledo college of medicine;30451

       (2)(b) One individual with expertise in the training and 30452
education of primary care physicians who is appointedrecommended30453
by the dean of the Boonshoft school of medicine at Wright state 30454
university;30455

       (3)(c) One individual with expertise in the training and 30456
education of primary care physicians who is appointedrecommended30457
by the president and dean of the northeast Ohio medical 30458
university;30459

       (4)(d) One individual with expertise in the training and 30460
education of primary care physicians who is appointedrecommended30461
by the dean of the Ohio university college of osteopathic 30462
medicine;30463

       (5)(e) Two individuals appointedrecommended by the governing 30464
board of the Ohio academy of family physicians;30465

       (6)(f) One individual appointedrecommended by the governing 30466
board of the Ohio chapter of the American college of physicians;30467

       (7)(g) One individual appointedrecommended by the governing 30468
board of the Ohio chapter of the American academy of pediatrics;30469

       (8)(h) One individual appointedrecommended by the governing 30470
board of the Ohio osteopathic association;30471

       (9)(i) One individual with expertise in the training and 30472
education of advanced practice nurses who is appointed, 30473
recommended by the governing board of the Ohio council of deans 30474
and directors of baccalaureate and higher degree programs in 30475
nursing;30476

       (10)(j) One individual appointedrecommended by the governing 30477
board of the Ohio nurses association;30478

       (11)(k) One individual appointedrecommended by the governing 30479
board of the Ohio association of advanced practice nurses;30480

       (12)(l) One individual appointedrecommended by the governing 30481
board of the Ohio council for home care and hospice;30482

       (13)(m) One individual appointedrecommended by the 30483
superintendent of insurance;30484

       (n) An employee of the department of health;30485

       (o) Not more than five additional members who have relevant 30486
expertise that the director considers appropriate.30487

       (C)(2) The advisory group shall consist of the following 30488
nonvoting, ex officio members:30489

       (1)(a) The executive director of the state medical board, or 30490
the director's designee;30491

       (2)(b) The executive director of the board of nursing or the 30492
director's designee;30493

       (3)(c) The chancellor of the Ohio board of regents, or the 30494
chancellor's designee;30495

       (4)(d) The individual within the department of job and family 30496
services who serves as the director of medicaid, or the director's 30497
designee;30498

       (5) The director of health or the director's designee.30499

       (D) Advisory group members who are appointed shall serve at 30500
the pleasure of their appointing authorities. Terms of office of 30501
appointed members shall be three years, except that a member's 30502
term ends if the pilot project ceases operation during the 30503
member's term.30504

       (C)(1) In making the original appointments of the members 30505
specified in divisions (B)(1)(a) to (m) of this section, the 30506
director shall appoint the member who served in that capacity in 30507
the patient centered medical home advisory group, as it existed 30508
immediately prior to the effective date of this section. If for 30509
any reason the member who served immediately prior to the 30510
effective date of this section is unable to serve on the advisory 30511
group, the director shall request from the specified recommending 30512
authority a list of not less than two persons qualified to serve 30513
as members of the advisory group. The director shall appoint as a 30514
member one person from the list submitted by the recommending 30515
authority.30516

        (2) The advisory group members specified in divisions 30517
(B)(1)(a) to (m) of this section shall serve at the pleasure of 30518
the director, in consultation with their respective recommending 30519
authorities. 30520

       (3) Vacancies shall be filled in the manner provided for 30521
original appointments.30522

       (D) Members shall serve without compensation, except to the 30523
extent that serving on the advisory group is considered part of 30524
their regular employment duties.30525

       (E) The advisory group shall selectdirector may appoint from 30526
among itsthe members of the advisory group a chairperson and 30527
vice-chairperson. The advisory group may select any other officers 30528
it considers necessary to conduct its business.30529

       A majority of the members of the advisory group constitutes a 30530
quorum for the transaction of official business. A majority of a 30531
quorum is necessary for the advisory group to take any action, 30532
except that when one or more members of a quorum are required to 30533
abstain from voting as provided in division (C)(1)(d) or (C)(2)(c) 30534
of section 185.05 of the Revised Code, the number of members 30535
necessary for a majority of a quorum shall be reduced accordingly30536
make any recommendations to the director.30537

       The advisory group shall meet as necessary to fulfill its 30538
duties. The times and places for the meetings shall be selected by 30539
the chairpersonat the call of the director. The director shall 30540
call the advisory group to meet not less than annually to discuss 30541
or consider recommendations to the director on the administration 30542
of the patient centered medical home education program.30543

       (F) Sections 101.82 to 101.87 of the Revised Code do not 30544
apply to the advisory group.30545

       Sec. 185.05.        Sec. 3701.925. (A) The patient centered medical home 30546
education advisory group shall accept applications for inclusion 30547
in the patient centered medical home education pilot project from 30548
primary care practices with educational affiliations, as 30549
determined by the advisory group, with one or more of the 30550
following:30551

       (1) The Boonshoft school of medicine at Wright state 30552
university;30553

       (2) The university of Toledo college of medicine;30554

       (3) The northeast Ohio medical university;30555

       (4) The Ohio university college of osteopathic medicine;30556

       (5) The college of nursing at the university of Toledo;30557

        (6) The Wright state university college of nursing and 30558
health;30559

       (7) The college of nursing at Kent state university;30560

        (8) The university of Akron college of nursing;30561

       (9) The school of nursing at Ohio university.30562

       (B)(1) Subject to division (C)(1) of this section, the 30563
advisory group shall selectrecommend to the director of health30564
for inclusion in the pilot project not moreless than the 30565
following number of physician practices led by physicians:30566

       (a) Ten practices affiliated with the Boonshoft school of 30567
medicine at Wright state university;30568

       (b) Ten practices affiliated with the university of Toledo 30569
college of medicine;30570

       (c) Ten practices affiliated with the northeast Ohio medical 30571
university;30572

       (d) Ten practices affiliated with the centers for osteopathic 30573
research and education of the Ohio university college of 30574
osteopathic medicine.30575

       (2) Subject to division (C)(2) of this section, the advisory 30576
group shall selectrecommend to the director of health for 30577
inclusion in the pilot project not less than the following number 30578
of advanced practice nurse primary care practices led by advanced 30579
practice nurses:30580

        (a) One practice affiliated with the college of nursing at 30581
the university of Toledo;30582

        (b) One practice affiliated with the Wright state university 30583
college of nursing and health;30584

        (c) One practice affiliated with the college of nursing at 30585
Kent state university or the university of Akron college of 30586
nursing;30587

        (d) One practice affiliated with the school of nursing at 30588
Ohio university. 30589

       (C)(1) All of the following apply with respect to the 30590
selectionrecommendation of physicianphysician-led practices 30591
under division (B) of this section:30592

       (a) The advisory group shall strive to select physician30593
recommend physician-led practices in such a manner that the pilot 30594
project includes a diverse range of primary care specialties, 30595
including practices specializing in pediatrics, geriatrics, 30596
general internal medicine, or family medicine.30597

       (b) When evaluating an application, the advisory group shall 30598
consider the percentage of patients in the physicianphysician-led30599
practice who are part of a medically underserved population, 30600
including medicaid recipients and individuals without health 30601
insurance.30602

       (c) The advisory group shall selectrecommend not fewer than 30603
six practices that serve rural areas of this state, as those areas 30604
are determined by the advisory group.30605

       (d) A member of the advisory group shall abstain from 30606
participating in any vote taken regarding the selection30607
recommendation of a physicianphysician-led practice if the 30608
member would receive any financial benefit from having the 30609
practice included in the pilot project.30610

       (2) All of the following apply with respect to the selection30611
recommendation of advanced practice nursenurse-led primary care 30612
practices under division (B) of this section:30613

       (a) When evaluating an application, the advisory group shall 30614
consider the percentage of patients in the advanced practice nurse30615
nurse-led primary care practice who are part of a medically 30616
underserved population, including medicaid recipients and 30617
individuals without health insurance.30618

       (b) If the advisory group determines that it has not received 30619
an application from a sufficiently qualified advanced practice 30620
nursenurse-led primary care practice affiliated with a particular 30621
institution specified in division (B)(2) of this section, the 30622
advisory group shall make the selectionsrecommendations required 30623
under that division in such a manner that the greatest possible 30624
number of those institutions are representedrecommended to be 30625
included in the pilot project. To be selectedrecommended in this 30626
manner, a practice remains subject to the eligibility requirements 30627
specified in division (B) of section 185.063701.926 of the 30628
Revised Code. As specified in division (B)(2) of this section, the 30629
number of practices selectedrecommended for inclusion in the 30630
pilot project shall be at least four.30631

       (c) A member of the advisory group shall abstain from 30632
participating in any vote taken regarding the selection30633
recommendation of an advanced practice nursenurse-led primary 30634
care practice if the member would receive any financial benefit 30635
from having the practice included in the pilot project. 30636

       (D) The advisory group shall provide a copy of all 30637
applications received under this section to the director of health 30638
after making recommendations under division (B)(1) of this 30639
section.30640

       Sec. 185.06.        Sec. 3701.926. (A) To be eligible for inclusion in the 30641
patient centered medical home education pilot project, a physician30642
physician-led practice shall meet all of the following 30643
requirements: 30644

       (1) Consist of physicians who are board-certified in family 30645
medicine, general pediatrics, or internal medicine, as those 30646
designations are issued by a medical specialty certifying board 30647
recognized by the American board of medical specialties or 30648
American osteopathic association; 30649

       (2) Be capable of adapting the practice during the period in 30650
which the practice receives funding fromparticipates in the 30651
patient centered medical home education advisory grouppilot 30652
project in such a manner that the practice is fully compliant with 30653
the minimum standards for operation of a patient centered medical 30654
home, as those standards are established by the advisory group30655
director of health; 30656

        (3) Have submitted an application to participate in the 30657
project established under former section 185.05 of the Revised 30658
Code not later than April 15, 2011.30659

       (4) Meet any other criteria established by the advisory group30660
director as part of the selection process.30661

       (B) To be eligible for inclusion in the pilot project, an 30662
advanced practice nursenurse-led primary care practice shall meet 30663
all of the following requirements:30664

        (1) Consist of advanced practice nurses who meet, each of 30665
whom meets all of the following requirements:30666

        (a) HoldHolds a certificate to prescribe issued under 30667
section 4723.48 of the Revised Code;30668

       (b) AreIs board-certified as a family nurse practitioner or 30669
adult nurse practitioner by the American academy of nurse 30670
practitioners or American nurses credentialing center, 30671
board-certified as a geriatric nurse practitioner or women's 30672
health nurse practitioner by the American nurses credentialing 30673
center, or is board-certified as a pediatric nurse practitioner by 30674
the American nurses credentialing center or pediatric nursing 30675
certification board;30676

        (c) Has a collaboration agreementCollaborates under a 30677
standard care arrangement with a physician with board 30678
certification as specified in division (A)(1) of this section and 30679
who is an active participant on the health care team. 30680

       (2) Be capable of adapting the primary care practice during 30681
the period in which the practice receives funding from30682
participates in the advisory groupproject in such a manner that 30683
the practice is fully compliant with the minimum standards for 30684
operation of a patient centered medical home, as those standards 30685
are established by the advisory groupdirector;30686

        (3) Have submitted an application to participate in the 30687
project established under former section 185.05 of the Revised 30688
Code not later than April 15, 2011.30689

       (4) Meet any other criteria established by the advisory group30690
director as part of the selection process. 30691

       Sec. 185.07.        Sec. 3701.927. The patient centered medical home 30692
education advisory groupdirector of health shall enter into a 30693
contract with each primary care practice selected by the director30694
for inclusion in the patient centered medical home education pilot 30695
project. The contract shall specify the terms and conditions for 30696
inclusion in the pilot project, including a requirement that the 30697
practice provide comprehensive, coordinated primary care services 30698
to patients and serve as the patients' medical home. The contract 30699
shall also require the practice to participate in the training of 30700
medical students, advanced practice nursing students, orphysician 30701
assistant students, and primary care medical residents.30702

       The director may include as part of the contract any other 30703
requirements necessary for a practice to be included in the 30704
project, including requirements regarding the number of patients 30705
served who are medicaid recipients and individuals without health 30706
insurance.30707

       Sec. 185.09.        Sec. 3701.928. (A) The director of health or, at the 30708
director's request, the patient centered medical home education 30709
advisory group shall jointlymay work with all medical and,30710
nursing, and physician assistant schools or programs in this state 30711
to develop appropriate curricula designed to prepare primary care 30712
physicians and, advanced practice nurses, and physician assistants30713
to practice within the patient centered medical home model of 30714
care. In developing the curricula, the director or advisory group, 30715
medical schools, and nursingand the schools or programs shall 30716
include all of the following:30717

       (1) Components for use at the medical student, advanced 30718
practice nursing student, physician assistant student, and primary 30719
care resident training levels;30720

       (2) Components that reflect, as appropriate, the special 30721
needs of patients who are part of a medically underserved 30722
population, including medicaid recipients, individuals without 30723
health insurance, individuals with disabilities, individuals with 30724
chronic health conditions, and individuals within racial or ethnic 30725
minority groups;30726

       (3) Components that include training in interdisciplinary 30727
cooperation between physicians and, advanced practice nurses, and 30728
physician assistants in the patient centered medical home model of 30729
care, including curricula ensuring that a common conception of a 30730
patient centered medical home model of care is provided to medical 30731
students, advanced practice nurses, physician assistants, and 30732
primary care residents.30733

       (B) The director or advisory group shallmay work in 30734
association with the medical and, nursing, and physician assistant30735
schools or programs to identify funding sources to ensure that the 30736
curricula developed under division (A) of this section are 30737
accessible to medical students, advanced practice nursing 30738
students, physician assistant students, and primary care 30739
residents. The director or advisory group shall consider 30740
scholarship options or incentives provided to students in addition 30741
to those provided under the choose Ohio first scholarship program 30742
operated under section 3333.61 of the Revised Code.30743

       Sec. 185.12.        Sec. 3701.929. (A) The patient centered medical home 30744
education advisory groupIf the director of health establishes the 30745
patient centered medical home education pilot project, the 30746
director shall prepare reports of its findings and recommendations 30747
from the patient centered medical home education pilot project. 30748
Each report shall include an evaluation of the learning 30749
opportunities generated by the pilot project, the physicians and 30750
advanced practice nurses trained in the pilot project, the costs 30751
of the pilot project, and the extent to which the pilot project 30752
has met the set of expected outcomes developed under division (A) 30753
of section 185.033701.924 of the Revised Code.30754

       (B) The reports shall be completed in accordance with the 30755
following schedule:30756

       (1) An interim report not later than six months after the 30757
date on which the first funding is releasedlast primary care 30758
practice selected to participate in the project enters into a 30759
contract with the department of health pursuant to section 185.1130760
3701.927 of the Revised Code;30761

       (2) An update of the interim report not later than one year 30762
after the date on which the first funding is releasedspecified 30763
under division (B)(1) of this section;30764

       (3) A final report not later than two years after the date on 30765
which the first funding is releasedspecified under division 30766
(B)(1) of this section.30767

       (C) The advisory groupdirector shall submit each of the 30768
reports to the governor and, in accordance with section 101.68 of 30769
the Revised Code, to the general assembly.30770

       Sec. 3701.93. Subject to available funds, the director of 30771
health shall establish the Ohio violent death reporting system to 30772
collect and maintain information, data, and records regarding 30773
violent deaths in Ohio.30774

       Sec. 3701.931. The Ohio violent death reporting system shall 30775
do all of the following regarding violent death information, data, 30776
and records maintained in the system:30777

        (A) Monitor the incidence and causes of the various types of 30778
violent deaths;30779

        (B) Make appropriate epidemiologic studies of the violent 30780
deaths;30781

        (C) Analyze trends and patterns in, and circumstances related 30782
to, the violent deaths;30783

        (D) With the assistance of the advisory group established 30784
pursuant to section 3701.932 of the Revised Code, recommend 30785
actions to relevant entities to prevent violent deaths and make 30786
any other such recommendations the director of health determines 30787
necessary.30788

       Sec. 3701.932. The director of health shall establish an 30789
advisory group of interested parties and stakeholders to recommend 30790
actions to relevant entities to prevent violent deaths, and make 30791
other recommendations the director determines necessary, in 30792
accordance with division (D) of section 3701.931 of the Revised 30793
Code.30794

       Sec. 3701.933. The data collection model used by the Ohio 30795
violent death reporting system shall follow the data collection 30796
model used by the United States centers for disease control and 30797
prevention national violent death reporting system and any other 30798
data collection model set forth by the director of health pursuant 30799
to section 3701.934 of the Revised Code.30800

       Sec. 3701.934. The director of health, pursuant to rules 30801
adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall 30802
do all of the following:30803

        (A) Specify the types of violent deaths that shall be 30804
included in the Ohio violent death reporting system;30805

        (B) Specify the information, data, and records to be 30806
collected for use by the Ohio violent death reporting system;30807

        (C) Specify the sources from which the information, data, and 30808
records are to be collected for use by the Ohio violent death 30809
reporting system;30810

        (D) If determined appropriate by the director, set forth any 30811
other data collection model to be used by the Ohio violent death 30812
reporting system. 30813

       Sec. 3701.935.  The director of health shall collect 30814
information about violent deaths in Ohio only from existing 30815
sources related to violent crimes and shall not conduct 30816
independent criminal investigations in order to obtain 30817
information, data, or records for use by the Ohio violent death 30818
reporting system.30819

       Sec. 3701.936. At the request of the director of health, 30820
every department, agency, and political subdivision of the state 30821
shall provide information, data, records, and otherwise assist in 30822
the execution of sections 3701.93 to 3701.9314 of the Revised 30823
Code.30824

       Sec. 3701.937. At the request of the director of health, any 30825
individual or entity not specified in section 3701.936 of the 30826
Revised Code, at the individual's or entity's discretion, may 30827
provide information, data, records, and otherwise assist in the 30828
execution of sections 3701.93 to 3701.9314 of the Revised Code. 30829
Any information, data, and records provided to the director by any 30830
other individual or entity shall contain only information, data, 30831
or records that are available or reasonably drawn from any 30832
information, data, and record developed and kept in the normal 30833
course of business.30834

       Sec. 3701.938. Notwithstanding any section of the Revised 30835
Code pertaining to confidentiality, any individual, public social 30836
service agency, or public agency that provides services to 30837
individuals or families, law enforcement agency, coroner, or 30838
public entity that provided services to an individual whose death 30839
is the type of death specified by the director of health under 30840
section 3701.934 of the Revised Code shall provide information, 30841
data, records, and otherwise assist in the execution of sections 30842
3701.93 to 3701.9314 of the Revised Code.30843

       Sec. 3701.9310. Except as otherwise provided in section 30844
3701.9212 of the Revised Code, all of the following are not public 30845
records under section 149.43 of the Revised Code, shall be 30846
confidential, and shall be published only in statistical form:30847

        (A) Information, data, and records collected for use and 30848
maintained by the Ohio violent death reporting system including, 30849
but not limited to, medical records, law enforcement investigative 30850
records, coroner investigative records, laboratory reports, and 30851
other records concerning a decedent;30852

        (B) Work products created in carrying out the purposes of the 30853
Ohio violent death reporting system.30854

       Sec. 3701.9311. Information, data, and records collected for 30855
use and maintained by, and all work products created in carrying 30856
out the purposes of, the Ohio violent death reporting system shall 30857
not be subject to subpoena or discovery while in the possession of 30858
the system or admissible in any criminal or civil proceeding if 30859
obtained through, or from, the system.30860

       Sec. 3701.9312. The director of health, pursuant to rules 30861
adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall 30862
establish standards and procedures to make available to 30863
researchers confidential information collected by the Ohio violent 30864
death reporting system. Researchers complying with those standards 30865
and procedures also shall comply with the confidentiality 30866
requirements of section 3701.9310 of the Revised Code.30867

       Sec. 3701.9314. The director of health may adopt rules in 30868
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code necessary to 30869
establish, maintain, and carry out the purposes of the Ohio 30870
violent death reporting system under sections 3701.93 to 3701.9314 30871
of the Revised Code.30872

       Sec. 3702.141.  (A) As used in this section:30873

       (1) "Existing health care facility" means a health care 30874
facility that is licensed or otherwise approved to practice in 30875
this state, in accordance with applicable law, is staffed and 30876
equipped to provide health care services, and actively provides 30877
health services or has not been actively providing health services 30878
for less than twelve consecutive months.30879

       (2) "Freestanding birthing center" means any facility in 30880
which deliveries routinely occur, regardless of whether the 30881
facility is located on the campus of another health care facility, 30882
and which is not licensed under Chapter 3711. of the Revised Code 30883
as a level one, two, or three maternity unit or a limited 30884
maternity unit.30885

       (3) "Health care facility" and "health service" have the same 30886
meanings as in section 3702.51 of the Revised Codemeans:30887

       (a) A hospital registered under section 3701.07 of the 30888
Revised Code;30889

       (b) A nursing home licensed under section 3721.02 of the 30890
Revised Code, or by a political subdivision certified under 30891
section 3721.09 of the Revised Code;30892

       (c) A county home or a county nursing home as defined in 30893
section 5155.31 of the Revised Code that is certified under Title 30894
XVIII or XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 30895
U.S.C.A. 301, as amended;30896

       (d) A freestanding dialysis center;30897

       (e) A freestanding inpatient rehabilitation facility;30898

       (f) An ambulatory surgical facility;30899

       (g) A freestanding cardiac catheterization facility;30900

       (h) A freestanding birthing center;30901

       (i) A freestanding or mobile diagnostic imaging center;30902

       (j) A freestanding radiation therapy center.30903

       A health care facility does not include the offices of 30904
private physicians and dentists whether for individual or group 30905
practice, residential facilities licensed under section 5123.19 of 30906
the Revised Code, or an institution for the sick that is operated 30907
exclusively for patients who use spiritual means for healing and 30908
for whom the acceptance of medical care is inconsistent with their 30909
religious beliefs, accredited by a national accrediting 30910
organization, exempt from federal income taxation under section 30911
501 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, 100 Stat. 2085, 26 30912
U.S.C.A. 1, as amended, and providing twenty-four hour nursing 30913
care pursuant to the exemption in division (E) of section 4723.32 30914
of the Revised Code from the licensing requirements of Chapter 30915
4723. of the Revised Code.30916

       (4) "Health service" means a clinically related service, such 30917
as a diagnostic, treatment, rehabilitative, or preventive service.30918

       (B) Section 3702.14 of the Revised Code shall not be 30919
construed to require any existing health care facility that is 30920
conducting an activity specified in section 3702.11 of the Revised 30921
Code, which activity was initiated on or before March 20, 1997, to 30922
alter, upgrade, or otherwise improve the structure or fixtures of 30923
the facility in order to comply with any rule adopted under 30924
section 3702.11 of the Revised Code relating to that activity, 30925
unless one of the following applies:30926

       (1) The facility initiates a construction, renovation, or 30927
reconstruction project that involves a capital expenditure of at 30928
least fifty thousand dollars, not including expenditures for 30929
equipment or staffing or operational costs, and that directly 30930
involves the area in which the existing service is conducted.30931

       (2) The facility initiates another activity specified in 30932
section 3702.11 of the Revised Code.30933

       (3) The facility initiates a service level designation change 30934
for obstetric and newborn care.30935

       (4) The facility proposes to add a cardiac catheterization 30936
laboratory to an existing cardiac catheterization service.30937

       (5)(4) The facility proposes to add an open-heart operating 30938
room to an existing open-heart surgery service.30939

       (6)(5) The director of health determines, by clear and 30940
convincing evidence, that failure to comply with the rule would 30941
create an imminent risk to the health and welfare of any patient.30942

       (C) If division (B)(4)(3) or (5)(4) of this section applies, 30943
any alteration, upgrade, or other improvement required shall apply 30944
only to the proposed addition to the existing service if the cost 30945
of the addition is less than the capital expenditure threshold set 30946
forth in division (B)(1) of this section. 30947

       (D) No person or government entity shall divide or otherwise 30948
segment a construction, renovation, or reconstruction project in 30949
order to evade application of the capital expenditure threshold 30950
set forth in division (B)(1) of this section.30951

       Sec. 3702.31.  (A) The quality monitoring and inspection fund 30952
is hereby created in the state treasury. The director of health 30953
shall use the fund to administer and enforce this section and 30954
sections 3702.11 to 3702.20, 3702.30, 3702.301, and 3702.32, and 30955
3702.33 of the Revised Code and rules adopted pursuant to those 30956
sections. The director shall deposit in the fund any moneys 30957
collected pursuant to this section or section 3702.32 of the 30958
Revised Code. All investment earnings of the fund shall be 30959
credited to the fund.30960

       (B) The director of health shall adopt rules pursuant to 30961
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing fees for both of the 30962
following:30963

       (1) Initial and renewal license applications submitted under 30964
section 3702.30 of the Revised Code. The fees established under 30965
division (B)(1) of this section shall not exceed the actual and 30966
necessary costs of performing the activities described in division 30967
(A) of this section.30968

       (2) Inspections conducted under section 3702.15 or 3702.30 of 30969
the Revised Code. The fees established under division (B)(2) of 30970
this section shall not exceed the actual and necessary costs 30971
incurred during an inspection, including any indirect costs 30972
incurred by the department for staff, salary, or other 30973
administrative costs. The director of health shall provide to each 30974
health care facility or provider inspected pursuant to section 30975
3702.15 or 3702.30 of the Revised Code a written statement of the 30976
fee. The statement shall itemize and total the costs incurred. 30977
Within fifteen days after receiving a statement from the director, 30978
the facility or provider shall forward the total amount of the fee 30979
to the director.30980

       (3) The fees described in divisions (B)(1) and (2) of this 30981
section shall meet both of the following requirements:30982

       (a) For each service described in section 3702.11 of the 30983
Revised Code, the fee shall not exceed one thousand seven hundred 30984
fifty dollars annually, except that the total fees charged to a 30985
health care provider under this section shall not exceed five 30986
thousand dollars annually.30987

       (b) The fee shall exclude any costs reimbursable by the 30988
United States centers for medicare and medicaid services as part 30989
of the certification process for the medicare program established 30990
under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 30991
(1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 1395, as amended, and the medicaid program 30992
established under Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 30993
286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396.30994

       (4) The director shall not establish a fee for any service 30995
for which a licensure or inspection fee is paid by the health care 30996
provider to a state agency for the same or similar licensure or 30997
inspection.30998

       Sec. 3702.51.  As used in sections 3702.51 to 3702.62 of the 30999
Revised Code:31000

       (A) "Applicant" means any person that submits an application 31001
for a certificate of need and who is designated in the application 31002
as the applicant.31003

       (B) "Person" means any individual, corporation, business 31004
trust, estate, firm, partnership, association, joint stock 31005
company, insurance company, government unit, or other entity.31006

       (C) "Certificate of need" means a written approval granted by 31007
the director of health to an applicant to authorize conducting a 31008
reviewable activity.31009

       (D) "Health serviceService area" means a geographic region 31010
designated by the director of health under section 3702.58 of the 31011
Revised Codethe current and projected primary and secondary 31012
service areas to which the long-term care facility is, or will be, 31013
providing long-term care services.31014

       (E) "HealthPrimary service area" means a clinically related 31015
service, such as a diagnostic, treatment, rehabilitative, or 31016
preventive servicethe geographic region, usually comprised of the 31017
Ohio zip code in which the long-term care facility is located and 31018
contiguous zip codes, from which approximately seventy-five to 31019
eighty per cent of the facility's residents currently originate or 31020
are expected to originate.31021

       (F) "HealthSecondary service agencyarea" means an agency 31022
designated to serve a health service area in accordance with 31023
section 3702.58 of the Revised Codethe geographic region, usually 31024
comprised of Ohio zip codes not included in the primary service 31025
area, excluding isolated exceptions, from which the facility's 31026
remaining residents currently originate or are expected to 31027
originate.31028

       (G) "Health care facility" means:31029

       (1) A hospital registered under section 3701.07 of the 31030
Revised Code;31031

       (2) A nursing home licensed under section 3721.02 of the 31032
Revised Code, or by a political subdivision certified under 31033
section 3721.09 of the Revised Code;31034

       (3) A county home or a county nursing home as defined in 31035
section 5155.31 of the Revised Code that is certified under Title 31036
XVIII or XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 31037
U.S.C.A. 301, as amended;31038

       (4) A freestanding dialysis center;31039

       (5) A freestanding inpatient rehabilitation facility;31040

       (6) An ambulatory surgical facility;31041

       (7) A freestanding cardiac catheterization facility;31042

       (8) A freestanding birthing center;31043

       (9) A freestanding or mobile diagnostic imaging center;31044

       (10) A freestanding radiation therapy center.31045

       A health care facility does not include the offices of 31046
private physicians and dentists whether for individual or group 31047
practice, residential facilities licensed under section 5123.19 of 31048
the Revised Code, or an institution for the sick that is operated 31049
exclusively for patients who use spiritual means for healing and 31050
for whom the acceptance of medical care is inconsistent with their 31051
religious beliefs, accredited by a national accrediting 31052
organization, exempt from federal income taxation under section 31053
501 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, 100 Stat. 2085, 26 31054
U.S.C.A. 1, as amended, and providing twenty-four hour nursing 31055
care pursuant to the exemption in division (E) of section 4723.32 31056
of the Revised Code from the licensing requirements of Chapter 31057
4723. of the Revised Code.31058

       (H) "Medical equipment" means a single unit of medical 31059
equipment or a single system of components with related functions 31060
that is used to provide health services.31061

       (I) "Third-party payer" means a health insuring corporation 31062
licensed under Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code, a health 31063
maintenance organization as defined in division (K)(I) of this 31064
section, an insurance company that issues sickness and accident 31065
insurance in conformity with Chapter 3923. of the Revised Code, a 31066
state-financed health insurance program under Chapter 3701., 31067
4123., or 5111. of the Revised Code, or any self-insurance plan.31068

       (J)(H) "Government unit" means the state and any county, 31069
municipal corporation, township, or other political subdivision of 31070
the state, or any department, division, board, or other agency of 31071
the state or a political subdivision.31072

       (K)(I) "Health maintenance organization" means a public or 31073
private organization organized under the law of any state that is 31074
qualified under section 1310(d) of Title XIII of the "Public 31075
Health Service Act," 87 Stat. 931 (1973), 42 U.S.C. 300e-9.31076

       (L)(J) "Existing healthlong-term care facility" means either 31077
of the following:31078

       (1) A healthlong-term care facility that is licensed or 31079
otherwise authorized to operate in this state in accordance with 31080
applicable law, including a county home or a county nursing home 31081
that is certified as of February 1, 2008, under Title XVIII or 31082
Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 31083
U.S.C. 301, as amended, is staffed and equipped to provide health31084
long-term care services, and is actively providing health31085
long-term care services;31086

       (2) A healthlong-term care facility that is licensed or 31087
otherwise authorized to operate in this state in accordance with 31088
applicable law, including a county home or a county nursing home 31089
that is certified as of February 1, 2008, under Title XVIII or 31090
Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 31091
U.S.C. 301, as amended, or that has beds registered under section 31092
3701.07 of the Revised Code as skilled nursing beds or long-term 31093
care beds and has provided long-term care services for at least 31094
three hundred sixty-five consecutive days within the twenty-four 31095
months immediately preceding the date a certificate of need 31096
application is filed with the director of health.31097

       (M)(K) "State" means the state of Ohio, including, but not 31098
limited to, the general assembly, the supreme court, the offices 31099
of all elected state officers, and all departments, boards, 31100
offices, commissions, agencies, institutions, and other 31101
instrumentalities of the state of Ohio. "State" does not include 31102
political subdivisions.31103

       (N)(L) "Political subdivision" means a municipal corporation, 31104
township, county, school district, and all other bodies corporate 31105
and politic responsible for governmental activities only in 31106
geographic areas smaller than that of the state to which the 31107
sovereign immunity of the state attaches.31108

       (O)(M) "Affected person" means:31109

       (1) An applicant for a certificate of need, including an 31110
applicant whose application was reviewed comparatively with the 31111
application in question;31112

       (2) The person that requested the reviewability ruling in 31113
question;31114

       (3) Any person that resides or regularly uses health31115
long-term care facilities within the geographicservice area 31116
served or to be served by the healthlong-term care services that 31117
would be provided under the certificate of need or reviewability 31118
ruling in question;31119

       (4) Any healthlong-term care facility that is located in the 31120
health service area where the healthlong-term care services would 31121
be provided under the certificate of need or reviewability ruling 31122
in question;31123

       (5) Third-party payers that reimburse healthlong-term care 31124
facilities for services in the health service area where the 31125
healthlong-term care services would be provided under the 31126
certificate of need or reviewability ruling in question;.31127

       (6) Any other person who testified at a public hearing held 31128
under division (B) of section 3702.52 of the Revised Code or 31129
submitted written comments in the course of review of the 31130
certificate of need application in question.31131

       (P) "Osteopathic hospital" means a hospital registered under 31132
section 3701.07 of the Revised Code that advocates osteopathic 31133
principles and the practice and perpetuation of osteopathic 31134
medicine by doing any of the following:31135

       (1) Maintaining a department or service of osteopathic 31136
medicine or a committee on the utilization of osteopathic 31137
principles and methods, under the supervision of an osteopathic 31138
physician;31139

       (2) Maintaining an active medical staff, the majority of 31140
which is comprised of osteopathic physicians;31141

       (3) Maintaining a medical staff executive committee that has 31142
osteopathic physicians as a majority of its members.31143

       (Q) "Ambulatory surgical facility" has the same meaning as in 31144
section 3702.30 of the Revised Code.31145

       (R) Except as provided in division (S) of this section, 31146
"reviewable activity" means any of the following activities:31147

       (1) The establishment, development, or construction of a new 31148
long-term care facility;31149

       (2) The replacement of an existing long-term care facility;31150

       (3) The renovation of a long-term care facility that involves 31151
a capital expenditure of two million dollars or more, not 31152
including expenditures for equipment, staffing, or operational 31153
costs;31154

       (4) Either of the following changes in long-term care bed 31155
capacity:31156

       (a) An increase in bed capacity;31157

       (b) A relocation of beds from one physical facility or site 31158
to another, excluding the relocation of beds within a long-term 31159
care facility or among buildings of a long-term care facility at 31160
the same site.31161

       (5) Any change in the health services, bed capacity, or site, 31162
or any other failure to conduct the reviewable activity in 31163
substantial accordance with the approved application for which a 31164
certificate of need concerning long-term care beds was granted, if 31165
the change is made within five years after the implementation of 31166
the reviewable activity for which the certificate was granted;31167

       (6) The expenditure of more than one hundred ten per cent of 31168
the maximum expenditure specified in a certificate of need 31169
concerning long-term care beds.31170

       (S) "Reviewable activity" does not include any of the 31171
following activities:31172

       (1) Acquisition of computer hardware or software;31173

       (2) Acquisition of a telephone system;31174

       (3) Construction or acquisition of parking facilities;31175

       (4) Correction of cited deficiencies that are in violation of 31176
federal, state, or local fire, building, or safety laws and rules 31177
and that constitute an imminent threat to public health or safety;31178

       (5) Acquisition of an existing health care facility that does 31179
not involve a change in the number of the beds, by service, or in 31180
the number or type of health services;31181

       (6) Correction of cited deficiencies identified by 31182
accreditation surveys of the joint commission on accreditation of 31183
healthcare organizations or of the American osteopathic 31184
association;31185

       (7) Acquisition of medical equipment to replace the same or 31186
similar equipment for which a certificate of need has been issued 31187
if the replaced equipment is removed from service;31188

       (8) Mergers, consolidations, or other corporate 31189
reorganizations of health care facilities that do not involve a 31190
change in the number of beds, by service, or in the number or type 31191
of health services;31192

       (9) Construction, repair, or renovation of bathroom 31193
facilities;31194

       (10) Construction of laundry facilities, waste disposal 31195
facilities, dietary department projects, heating and air 31196
conditioning projects, administrative offices, and portions of 31197
medical office buildings used exclusively for physician services;31198

       (11) Acquisition of medical equipment to conduct research 31199
required by the United States food and drug administration or 31200
clinical trials sponsored by the national institute of health. Use 31201
of medical equipment that was acquired without a certificate of 31202
need under division (S)(11) of this section and for which 31203
premarket approval has been granted by the United States food and 31204
drug administration to provide services for which patients or 31205
reimbursement entities will be charged shall be a reviewable 31206
activity.31207

       (12) Removal of asbestos from a health care facility.31208

       Only that portion of a project that meets the requirements of 31209
this division is not a reviewable activity.31210

       (T) "Small rural hospital" means a hospital that is located 31211
within a rural area, has fewer than one hundred beds, and to which 31212
fewer than four thousand persons were admitted during the most 31213
recent calendar year.31214

       (U) "Children's hospital" means any of the following:31215

       (1) A hospital registered under section 3701.07 of the 31216
Revised Code that provides general pediatric medical and surgical 31217
care, and in which at least seventy-five per cent of annual 31218
inpatient discharges for the preceding two calendar years were 31219
individuals less than eighteen years of age;31220

       (2) A distinct portion of a hospital registered under section 31221
3701.07 of the Revised Code that provides general pediatric 31222
medical and surgical care, has a total of at least one hundred 31223
fifty registered pediatric special care and pediatric acute care 31224
beds, and in which at least seventy-five per cent of annual 31225
inpatient discharges for the preceding two calendar years were 31226
individuals less than eighteen years of age;31227

       (3) A distinct portion of a hospital, if the hospital is 31228
registered under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as a 31229
children's hospital and the children's hospital meets all the 31230
requirements of division (U)(1) of this section.31231

       (V)(N) "Long-term care facility" means any of the following:31232

       (1) A nursing home licensed under section 3721.02 of the 31233
Revised Code or by a political subdivision certified under section 31234
3721.09 of the Revised Code;31235

       (2) The portion of any facility, including a county home or 31236
county nursing home, that is certified as a skilled nursing 31237
facility or a nursing facility under Title XVIII or XIX of the 31238
"Social Security Act";31239

       (3) The portion of any hospital that contains beds registered 31240
under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as skilled nursing beds 31241
or long-term care beds.31242

       (W)(O) "Long-term care bed" or "bed" means a bed in a 31243
long-term care facilitythat is categorized as one of the 31244
following:31245

        (1) A bed that is located in a facility that is a nursing 31246
home licensed under section 3721.02 of the Revised Code or a 31247
facility licensed by a political subdivision certified under 31248
section 3721.09 of the Revised Code and is included in the 31249
authorized maximum licensed capacity of the facility;31250

       (2) A bed that is located in the portion of any facility, 31251
including a county home or county nursing home, that is certified 31252
as a skilled nursing facility under the medicare program or a 31253
nursing facility under the medicaid program and is included in the 31254
authorized maximum certified capacity of that portion of the 31255
facility;31256

       (3) A bed that is registered under section 3701.07 of the 31257
Revised Code as a skilled nursing bed, a long-term care bed, or a 31258
special skilled nursing bed;31259

       (4) A bed in a county home or county nursing home that has 31260
been certified under section 5155.38 of the Revised Code as having 31261
been in operation on July 1, 1993, and is eligible for licensure 31262
as a nursing home bed;31263

       (5) A bed held as an approved bed under a certificate of need 31264
approved by the director.31265

       A bed cannot simultaneously be both a bed described in 31266
division (O)(1), (2), (3), or (4) of this section and a bed 31267
described in division (O)(5) of this section.31268

       (X) "Freestanding birthing center" means any facility in 31269
which deliveries routinely occur, regardless of whether the 31270
facility is located on the campus of another health care facility, 31271
and which is not licensed under Chapter 3711. of the Revised Code 31272
as a level one, two, or three maternity unit or a limited 31273
maternity unit.31274

       (Y)(1)(P) "Reviewability ruling" means a ruling issued by the 31275
director of health under division (A) of section 3702.52 of the 31276
Revised Code as to whether a particular proposed project is or is 31277
not a reviewable activity.31278

       (2) "Nonreviewability ruling" means a ruling issued under 31279
that division that a particular proposed project is not a 31280
reviewable activity.31281

       (Z)(1) "Metropolitan statistical area" means an area of this 31282
state designated a metropolitan statistical area or primary 31283
metropolitan statistical area in United States office of 31284
management and budget bulletin no. 93-17, June 30, 1993, and its 31285
attachments.31286

       (2) "Rural area" means any area of this state not located 31287
within a metropolitan statistical area.31288

       (AA)(Q) "County nursing home" has the same meaning as in 31289
section 5155.31 of the Revised Code.31290

       (BB)(R) "Principal participant" means both of the following:31291

       (1) A person who has an ownership or controlling interest of 31292
at least five per cent in an applicant, in a healthlong-term care 31293
facility that is the subject of an application for a certificate 31294
of need, or in the owner or operator of the applicant or such a 31295
facility;31296

       (2) An officer, director, trustee, or general partner of an 31297
applicant, of a healthlong-term care facility that is the subject 31298
of an application for a certificate of need, or of the owner or 31299
operator of the applicant or such a facility.31300

       (CC)(S) "Actual harm but not immediate jeopardy deficiency" 31301
means a deficiency that, under 42 C.F.R. 488.404, either 31302
constitutes a pattern of deficiencies resulting in actual harm 31303
that is not immediate jeopardy or represents widespread 31304
deficiencies resulting in actual harm that is not immediate 31305
jeopardy.31306

       (DD)(T) "Immediate jeopardy deficiency" means a deficiency 31307
that, under 42 C.F.R. 488.404, either constitutes a pattern of 31308
deficiencies resulting in immediate jeopardy to resident health or 31309
safety or represents widespread deficiencies resulting in 31310
immediate jeopardy to resident health or safety.31311

       (U) "Existing bed" or "existing long-term care bed" means a 31312
bed from an existing long-term care facility, a bed described in 31313
division (O)(5) of this section, or a bed correctly reported as a 31314
long-term care bed pursuant to section 5155.38 of the Revised 31315
Code.31316

       Sec. 3702.511. (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this 31317
section, the following activities are reviewable under sections 31318
3702.51 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code:31319

       (1) Establishment, development, or construction of a new 31320
long-term care facility;31321

       (2) Replacement of an existing long-term care facility;31322

       (3) Renovation of or addition to a long-term care facility 31323
that involves a capital expenditure of two million dollars or 31324
more, not including expenditures for equipment, staffing, or 31325
operational costs;31326

       (4) Either of the following changes in long-term care bed 31327
capacity:31328

       (a) An increase in bed capacity;31329

       (b) A relocation of beds from one physical facility or site 31330
to another, excluding relocation of beds within a long-term care 31331
facility or among buildings of a long-term care facility at the 31332
same site.31333

       (5) Any change in the bed capacity or site, or any other 31334
failure to conduct a reviewable activity in substantial accordance 31335
with the approved application for which a certificate of need 31336
concerning long-term care beds was granted, if the change is made 31337
within five years after the implementation of the reviewable 31338
activity for which the certificate was granted;31339

       (6) Expenditure of more than one hundred ten per cent of the 31340
maximum expenditure specified in a certificate of need concerning 31341
long-term care beds.31342

       (B) The following activities are not subject to review under 31343
sections 3702.51 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code:31344

       (1) Acquisition of computer hardware or software;31345

       (2) Acquisition of a telephone system;31346

       (3) Construction or acquisition of parking facilities;31347

       (4) Correction of cited deficiencies that constitute an 31348
imminent threat to public health or safety and are in violation of 31349
federal, state, or local fire, building, or safety statutes, 31350
ordinances, rules, or regulations;31351

       (5) Acquisition of an existing long-term care facility that 31352
does not involve a change in the number of the beds;31353

       (6) Mergers, consolidations, or other corporate 31354
reorganizations of long-term care facilities that do not involve a 31355
change in the number of beds;31356

       (7) Construction, repair, or renovation of bathroom 31357
facilities;31358

       (8) Construction of laundry facilities, waste disposal 31359
facilities, dietary department projects, heating and air 31360
conditioning projects, administrative offices, and portions of 31361
medical office buildings used exclusively for physician services;31362

       (9) Removal of asbestos from a health care facility.31363

       Only that portion of a project that is described in this 31364
division is not reviewable.31365

       Sec. 3702.52.  The director of health shall administer a 31366
state certificate of need program in accordance with sections 31367
3702.51 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code and rules adopted under 31368
those sections.31369

       (A) The director shall issue rulings on whether a particular 31370
proposed project is a reviewable activity. The director shall 31371
issue a ruling not later than forty-five days after receiving a 31372
request for a ruling accompanied by the information needed to make 31373
the ruling. If the director does not issue a ruling in that time, 31374
the project shall be considered to have been ruled not a 31375
reviewable activity.31376

       (B)(1) Each application for a certificate of need shall be 31377
submitted to the director on forms and in the manner prescribed by 31378
the director. Each application shall include a plan for obligating 31379
the capital expenditures or implementing the proposed project on a 31380
timely basis in accordance with section 3702.5253702.524 of the 31381
Revised Code. Each application shall also include all other 31382
information required by rules adopted under division (B) of 31383
section 3702.57 of the Revised Code.31384

       (2) Each application shall be accompanied by the application 31385
fee established in rules adopted under division (G) of section 31386
3702.57 of the Revised Code. Application fees received by the 31387
director under this division shall be deposited into the state 31388
treasury to the credit of the certificate of need fund, which is 31389
hereby created. The director shall use the fund only to pay the 31390
costs of administering sections 3702.11 to 3702.20, 3702.30, and 31391
3702.51 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code and rules adopted under 31392
those sections. An application fee is nonrefundable unless the 31393
director determines that the application cannot be accepted.31394

       (3) The director shall review applications for certificates 31395
of need. As part of a review, the director shall determine whether 31396
an application is complete. The director shall not consider an 31397
application to be complete unless the application meets all 31398
criteria for a complete application specified in rules adopted 31399
under section 3702.57 of the Revised Code. The director shall mail 31400
to the applicant a written notice that the application is 31401
complete, or a written request for additional information, not 31402
later than thirty days after receiving an application or a 31403
response to an earlier request for information. Except as provided 31404
in section 3702.5233702.522 of the Revised Code, the director 31405
shall not make more than two requests for additional information. 31406
The director's determination that an application is not complete 31407
is final and not subject to appeal.31408

       The director may conduct a public informational hearing in 31409
the course of reviewing any application for a certificate of need, 31410
and shall conduct one if requested to do so by any affected person 31411
not later than fifteen days after the director mails the notice 31412
that the application is complete. The hearing shall be conducted 31413
in the community in which the activities authorized by the 31414
certificate of need would be carried out. Any affected person may 31415
testify at the hearing. The director may, with the health service 31416
agency's consent, designate a health service agency to conduct the 31417
hearing.31418

       (4) Except during a public hearing or as necessary to comply 31419
with a subpoena issued under division (E)(F) of this section, 31420
after a notice of completeness has been received, no person shall 31421
make revisions to information that was submitted to the director 31422
before the director mailed the notice of completeness or knowingly 31423
discuss in person or by telephone the merits of the application 31424
with the director. A person may supplement an application after a 31425
notice of completeness has been received by submitting clarifying 31426
information to the director. If one or more persons request a 31427
meeting in person or by telephone, the director shall make a 31428
reasonable effort to invite interested parties to the meeting or 31429
conference call.31430

       (C) All of the following apply to the process of granting or 31431
denying a certificate of need:31432

        (1) If the project proposed in a certificate of need 31433
application meets all of the applicable certificate of need 31434
criteria for approval under sections 3702.51 to 3702.62 of the 31435
Revised Code and the rules adopted under those sections, the 31436
director shall grant a certificate of need for all or part of the 31437
project that is the subject of the application by the applicable 31438
deadline specified in division (C)(4) of this section or any 31439
extension of it under division (C)(5) of this section.31440

       (2) The director's grant of a certificate of need does not 31441
affect, and sets no precedent for, the director's decision to 31442
grant or deny other applications for similar reviewable activities 31443
proposed to be conducted in the same or different health service 31444
areas.31445

       (3) If the director receives written objections to an 31446
application from anyAny affected person may submit written 31447
comments regarding an application. The director shall consider all 31448
written comments received by the thirtieth day after mailing the 31449
notice of completeness, the director shall notify the applicant 31450
and assign a hearing examiner to conduct an adjudication hearing 31451
concerning the application in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 31452
Revised Code. Inor, in the case of applications under comparative 31453
review, if the director receives written objections to any of the 31454
applications from any affected person by the thirtieth day after 31455
the director mails the last notice of completeness, the director 31456
shall notify all of the applicants and appoint a hearing examiner 31457
to conduct a consolidated adjudication hearing concerning the 31458
applications in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. 31459
The hearing examiner shall be employed by or under contract with 31460
the department of health.31461

       The adjudication hearings may be conducted in the health 31462
service area in which the reviewable activity is proposed to be 31463
conducted. Consolidated adjudication hearings for applications in 31464
comparative review may be conducted in the geographic region in 31465
which all of the reviewable activities will be conducted. The 31466
applicant, the director, and the affected persons that filed 31467
objections to the application shall be parties to the hearing. If 31468
none of the affected persons that submitted written objections to 31469
the application appears or prosecutes the hearing, the hearing 31470
examiner shall dismiss the hearing and the director shall grant a 31471
certificate of need for all or part of the project that is the 31472
subject of the application if the proposed project meets all of 31473
the applicable certificate of need criteria for approval under 31474
sections 3702.51 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code and the rules 31475
adopted under those sections. The affected persons bear the burden 31476
of proving by a preponderance of evidence that the project is not 31477
needed or that granting the certificate would not be in accordance 31478
with sections 3702.51 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code or the rules 31479
adopted under those sections.31480

       (4) Except as provided in division (C)(5) of this section, 31481
the director shall grant or deny certificate of need applications 31482
for which an adjudication hearing is not conducted under division 31483
(C)(3) of this section not later than sixty days after mailing the 31484
notice of completeness or, in the case of an application proposing 31485
addition of long-term care beds, not later than sixty days after 31486
such other time as is specified in rules adopted under section 31487
3702.57 of the Revised Code. Except as provided in division (C)(5) 31488
of this section, the director shall grant or deny certificate of 31489
need applications for which an adjudication hearing is conducted 31490
under division (C)(3) of this section not later than thirty days 31491
after the expiration of the time for filing objections to the 31492
report and recommendation of the hearing examiner under section 31493
119.09 of the Revised Code. The director shall base decisions 31494
concerning applications for which an adjudication hearing is 31495
conducted under division (C)(3) of this section on the report and 31496
recommendations of the hearing examiner.31497

       (5) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(6) of this 31498
section, the director or the applicant may extend the deadline 31499
prescribed in division (C)(4) of this section once, for no longer 31500
than thirty days, by written notice before the end of the deadline 31501
prescribed by division (C)(4) of this section. An extension by the 31502
director under division (C)(5) of this section shall apply to all 31503
applications that are in comparative review.31504

       (6) No applicant in a comparative review may extend the 31505
deadline specified in division (C)(4) of this section. 31506

       (7) If the director does not grant or deny the certificate by 31507
the applicable deadline specified in division (C)(4) of this 31508
section or any extension of it under division (C)(5) of this 31509
section, the certificate shall be considered to have been granted. 31510

       (8) In granting a certificate of need, the director shall 31511
specify as the maximum capital expenditure the certificate holder 31512
may obligate under the certificate a figure equal to one hundred 31513
ten per cent of the approved project cost.31514

       (9) In granting a certificate of need, the director may grant 31515
the certificate with conditions that must be met by the holder of 31516
the certificate.31517

       (D) When a certificate of need application is approved for a 31518
project under which the beds are relocated, a number of beds equal 31519
to the number relocated shall cease to be operated in the 31520
long-term care facility from which they were relocated, except 31521
that the beds may continue to be operated for not more than 31522
fifteen days to allow relocation of residents to the facility to 31523
which the beds have been relocated. Notwithstanding section 31524
3721.03 of the Revised Code, if the relocated beds are in a home 31525
licensed under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, the facility's 31526
license is automatically reduced by the number of beds relocated 31527
effective fifteen days after the beds are relocated. If the beds 31528
are in a facility that is certified as a skilled nursing facility 31529
or nursing facility under Title XVIII or XIX of the "Social 31530
Security Act," the certification for the beds shall be 31531
surrendered. If the beds are registered under section 3701.07 of 31532
the Revised Code as skilled nursing beds or long-term care beds, 31533
the director shall remove the beds from registration not later 31534
than fifteen days after the beds are relocated.31535

       (E) The director shall monitor the activities of persons 31536
granted certificates of need during the period beginning with the 31537
granting of the certificate of need and ending five years after 31538
implementation of the activity for which the certificate was 31539
granted.31540

       (E)(F) When reviewing applications for certificates of need, 31541
considering appeals under section 3702.60 of the Revised Code, or 31542
monitoring activities of persons granted certificates of need, the 31543
director may issue and enforce, in the manner provided in section 31544
119.09 of the Revised Code, subpoenas and subpoenas duces tecum to 31545
compel the production ofa person to testify and produce documents 31546
relevant to review of the application, consideration of the 31547
appeal, or monitoring of the activities. In addition, the director 31548
or the director's designee, which may include a health service 31549
agency, may visit the sites where the activities are or will be 31550
conducted.31551

       (F)(G) The director may withdraw certificates of need.31552

       (G) The director shall conduct, on a regular basis, health 31553
system data collection and analysis activities and prepare 31554
reports. The director shall make recommendations based upon these 31555
activities to the public health council concerning the adoption of 31556
appropriate rules under section 3702.57 of the Revised Code.(H)31557
All healthlong-term care facilities and other health care 31558
providers shall submit to the director, upon request, any 31559
information prescribed by rules adopted under division (H) of 31560
section 3702.57 of the Revised Code that is necessary to conduct 31561
reviews of certificate of need applications and to develop 31562
recommendations for criteria for reviews, and that is prescribed 31563
by rules adopted under division (H) of section 3702.57 of the 31564
Revised Code.31565

       (H)(I) Any decision to grant or deny a certificate of need 31566
shall consider the special needs and circumstances resulting from 31567
moral and ethical values and the free exercise of religious rights 31568
of healthlong-term care facilities administered by religious 31569
organizations, and the special needs and circumstances of inner 31570
city and rural communities.31571

       Sec. 3702.522.        Sec. 3702.521.  (A) Reviews of applications for 31572
certificates of need to recategorize hospital beds to skilled 31573
nursing beds shall be conducted in accordance with this division 31574
and rules adopted by the publicdirector of health council.31575

       (1) No hospital recategorizing beds shall apply for a 31576
certificate of need for more than twenty skilled nursing beds.31577

       (2) No beds for which a certificate of need is requested 31578
under this division shall be reviewed under or counted in any 31579
formula developed under public health council rules adopted by the 31580
director for the purpose of determining the number of long-term 31581
care beds that may be needed within the state.31582

       (3) No beds shall be approved under this division unless the 31583
hospital certifies and demonstrates in the application that the 31584
beds will be dedicated to patients with a length of stay of no 31585
more than thirty days.31586

       (4) No beds shall be approved under this division unless the 31587
hospital can satisfactorily demonstrate in the application that it 31588
is routinely unable to place the patients planned for the beds in 31589
accessible skilled nursing facilities.31590

       (5) In developing rules to implement this division, the31591
public health councildirector shall give special attention to the 31592
required documentation of the need for such beds, including the 31593
efforts made by the hospital to place patients in suitable skilled 31594
nursing facilities, and special attention to the appropriate size 31595
of units with such beds given the historical pattern of the 31596
applicant hospital's documented difficulty in placing skilled 31597
nursing patients.31598

       (B) To assist the director of healthFor assistance in 31599
monitoring the use of hospital beds recategorized as skilled 31600
nursing beds after August 5, 1989, the public health council31601
director shall adopt rules specifying appropriate quarterly 31602
procedures for reporting to the department of health.31603

       (C) A patient may stay in a hospital bed that, after August 31604
5, 1989, has been recategorized as a skilled nursing bed for more 31605
than thirty days if the hospital is able to demonstrate that it 31606
made a good faith effort to place the patient in an accessible 31607
skilled nursing facility acceptable to the patient within the 31608
thirty-day period, but was unable to do so.31609

       (D) No hospital bed recategorized after August 5, 1989, as a 31610
skilled nursing bed shall be covered by a provider agreement under 31611
the medical assistance program established under Chapter 5111. of 31612
the Revised Code.31613

       (E) Nothing in this section requires a hospital to place a 31614
patient in any nursing home if the patient does not wish to be 31615
placed in the nursing home. Nothing in this section limits the 31616
ability of a hospital to file a certificate of need application 31617
for the addition of long-term care beds that meet the definition 31618
of "home" in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code. Nothing in this 31619
section limits the ability of the director to grant certificates 31620
of need necessary for hospitals to engage in demonstration 31621
projects authorized by the federal government for the purpose of 31622
enhancing long-term quality of care and cost containment. Nothing 31623
in this section limits the ability of hospitals to develop swing 31624
bed programs in accordance with federal regulations.31625

       No hospital that is granted a certificate of need after 31626
August 5, 1989, to recategorize hospital beds as skilled nursing 31627
beds is subject to sections 3721.01 to 3721.09 of the Revised 31628
Code. If the portion of the hospital in which the recategorized 31629
beds are located is certified as a skilled nursing facility under 31630
Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 31631
U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, that portion of the hospital is subject 31632
to sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 and sections 3721.21 to 3721.34 of 31633
the Revised Code. If the beds are registered pursuant to section 31634
3701.07 of the Revised Code as long-term care beds, the beds are 31635
subject to sections 3721.50 to 3721.58 of the Revised Code.31636

       (F) The public health council shall adopt rules authorizing 31637
the creation of one or more nursing home placement clearinghouses. 31638
Any public or private agency or facility may apply to the 31639
department of health to serve as a nursing home placement 31640
clearinghouse, and the rules shall provide the procedure for 31641
application and process for designation of clearinghouses.31642

       The department may approve one or more clearinghouses, but in 31643
no event shall there be more than one nursing home placement 31644
clearinghouse in each county. Any nursing home may list with a 31645
nursing home placement clearinghouse the services it provides and 31646
the types of patients it is approved for and equipped to serve. 31647
The clearinghouse shall make reasonable efforts to update its 31648
information at least every six months.31649

       If an appropriate clearinghouse has been designated, each 31650
hospital granted a certificate of need after August 5, 1989, to 31651
recategorize hospital beds as skilled nursing beds shall, and any 31652
other hospital may, utilize the nursing home placement 31653
clearinghouse prior to admitting a patient to a skilled nursing 31654
bed within the hospital and prior to keeping a patient in a 31655
skilled nursing bed within a hospital in excess of thirty days.31656

       The department shall provide at least annually to all 31657
hospitals a list of the designated nursing home placement 31658
clearinghouses.31659

       Sec. 3702.523.        Sec. 3702.522.  A person who has an application for 31660
a certificate of need pending with the director of health may 31661
revise the application to change the site of the proposed project 31662
unless either of the following applies:31663

       (A) The director, under section 3702.52 of the Revised Code, 31664
has mailed the applicant a written notice that the application is 31665
complete.31666

       (B) The application is subject to a comparative review under 31667
section 3702.593 of the Revised Code.31668

       The only revision that may be made in the revised application 31669
is the site of the proposed project. The revised site of the 31670
proposed project must be located in the same county as the site of 31671
the proposed project specified in the original application. The 31672
director may not accept a revised application if it includes 31673
revisions other than the site of the proposed project or if the 31674
revised site is located in a different county than the county in 31675
which the site specified in the original application is located. 31676

       A revised application shall be accompanied by an additional, 31677
non-refundablenonrefundable fee equal to twenty-five per cent of 31678
the fee charged under section 3702.52 of the Revised Code for the 31679
original application. The additional fee shall be deposited into 31680
the certificate of need fund created under section 3702.52 of the 31681
Revised Code. 31682

       On acceptance of a revised application, the director shall 31683
continue to review the application as revised in accordance with 31684
section 3702.52 of the Revised Code to determine whether it is 31685
complete and, if necessary and regardless of whether the director 31686
previously made two requests for additional information, may make 31687
a final written request to the applicant for additional 31688
information not later than thirty days after the date the director 31689
accepts the revised application.31690

       Sec. 3702.524.        Sec. 3702.523.  (A) Except as provided in division 31691
(B) of this section, a certificate of need granted on or after 31692
April 20, 1995, is not transferable prior to the completion of the 31693
reviewable activity for which it was granted. If any person 31694
holding a certificate of need issued on or after that date31695
transfers the certificate of need to another person before the 31696
reviewable activity is completed, or enters into an agreement that 31697
contemplates the transfer of the certificate of need on the 31698
completion of the reviewable activity, the certificate of need is 31699
void. If the controlling interest in an entity that holds a 31700
certificate of need issued on or after that date is transferred 31701
prior to the completion of the reviewable activity, the 31702
certificate of need is void.31703

       (B) Division (A) of this section does not prohibit the 31704
transfer of a certificate of need issued on or after April 20, 31705
1995, between affiliated or related persons, as defined in rules 31706
adopted under section 3702.57 of the Revised Code, if the transfer 31707
does not result in a change in the person that holds the ultimate 31708
controlling interest, as defined in the rules, in the certificate 31709
of need.31710

       The transfer of a healthlong-term care facility after the 31711
completion of a reviewable activity for which a certificate of 31712
need was issued on or after April 20, 1995, is not a transfer of 31713
the certificate of need, unless the facility is transferred 31714
pursuant to an agreement entered into prior to the completion of 31715
the reviewable activity.31716

       Sec. 3702.525.        Sec. 3702.524.  (A) Not later than twenty-four 31717
months after the date the director of health mails the notice that 31718
the certificate of need has been granted or, if the grant or 31719
denial of the certificate of need is appealed under section 31720
3702.60 of the Revised Code, not later than twenty-four months 31721
after issuance of an order granting the certificate that is not 31722
subject to further appeal, each person holding a certificate of 31723
need granted on or after April 20, 1995, shall:31724

       (1) If the project for which the certificate of need was 31725
granted primarily involves construction and is to be financed 31726
primarily through external borrowing of funds, secure financial 31727
commitment for the stated purpose of developing the project and 31728
commence construction that continues uninterrupted except for 31729
interruptions or delays that are unavoidable due to reasons beyond 31730
the person's control, including labor strikes, natural disasters, 31731
material shortages, or comparable events;31732

       (2) If the project for which the certificate of need was 31733
granted primarily involves construction and is to be financed 31734
primarily internally, receive formal approval from the holder's 31735
board of directors or trustees or other governing authority to 31736
commit specified funds for implementation of the project and 31737
commence construction that continues uninterrupted except for 31738
interruptions or delays that are unavoidable due to reasons beyond 31739
the person's control, including labor strikes, natural disasters, 31740
material shortages, or comparable events;31741

       (3) If the project for which the certificate of need was 31742
granted primarily involves acquisition of medical equipment, enter 31743
into a contract to purchase or lease the equipment and to accept 31744
the equipment at the site for which the certificate was granted;31745

       (4) If the project for which the certificate of need was 31746
granted involves no capital expenditure or only minor renovations 31747
to existing structures, provide the healthlong-term care service 31748
or activity by the means specified in the approved application for 31749
the certificate;31750

       (5)(4) If the project for which the certificate of need was 31751
granted primarily involves leasing a building or space that 31752
requires only minor renovations to the existing space, execute a 31753
lease and provide the healthlong-term care service or activity by 31754
the means specified in the approved application for the 31755
certificate;31756

       (6)(5) If the project for which the certificate of need was 31757
granted primarily involves leasing a building or space that has 31758
not been constructed or requires substantial renovations to 31759
existing space, commence construction for the purpose of 31760
implementing the reviewable activity that continues uninterrupted 31761
except for interruptions or delays that are unavoidable due to 31762
reasons beyond the person's control, including labor strikes, 31763
natural disasters, material shortages, or comparable events.31764

       (B) The twenty-four-month period specified in division (A) of 31765
this section shall not be extended by any means, including the 31766
granting of a subsequent or replacement certificate of need. Each 31767
person holding a certificate of need granted on or after April 20, 31768
1995, shall provide the director of health documentation of 31769
compliance with that division not later than the earlier of thirty 31770
days after complying with that division or five days after the 31771
twenty-four-month period expires. Not later than the earlier of 31772
fifteen days after receiving the documentation or fifteen days 31773
after the twenty-four-month period expires, the director shall 31774
send by certified mail a notice to the holder of the certificate 31775
of need specifying whether the holder has complied with division 31776
(A) of this section.31777

       (C) Notwithstanding division (B) of this section, the 31778
twenty-four-month period specified in division (A) of this section 31779
shall be extended for an additional twenty-four months for any 31780
certificate of need granted for the purchase and relocation of 31781
licensed nursing home beds on February 26, 1999.31782

       (D) A certificate of need granted on or after April 20, 1995,31783
expires, regardless of whether the director sends a notice under 31784
division (B) of this section, if the holder fails to comply with 31785
division (A) or (C) of this section or to provide information 31786
under division (B) of this section as necessary for the director 31787
to determine compliance. The determination by the director that a 31788
certificate of need has expired is final and not appealable under 31789
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.31790

       Sec. 3702.526.        Sec. 3702.525.  Every six months after complying 31791
with section 3702.5253702.524 of the Revised Code, the holder of 31792
the certificate of need shall demonstrate to the director of 31793
health, in the form and manner required by rules adopted under 31794
section 3702.57 of the Revised Code, that reasonable progress is 31795
being made toward the completion of the reviewable activity. If 31796
the director determines, in accordance with standards specified in 31797
the rules, that reasonable progress is not being made, hethe 31798
director shall withdraw the certificate of need.31799

       Sec. 3702.526. (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this 31800
section, the director of health shall accept an application for a 31801
replacement certificate of need for an activity described in 31802
division (A)(5) of section 3702.511 of the Revised Code to replace 31803
an approved certificate of need for that activity if all of the 31804
following conditions are met:31805

       (1) The applicant is the same as the applicant for the 31806
approved certificate of need or an affiliated or related person as 31807
described in division (B) of section 3702.523 of the Revised Code.31808

       (2) The source of any long-term care beds to be relocated is 31809
the same as in the approved certificate of need.31810

       (3) The application for the approved certificate of need was 31811
not subject to comparative review under section 3702.593 of the 31812
Revised Code.31813

       (B) The director shall not accept an application for a 31814
replacement certificate that proposes to increase the number of 31815
long-term care beds to be relocated specified in the application 31816
for the approved certificate of need.31817

       (C) For the purpose of determining whether long-term care 31818
beds are from an existing long-term care facility, the director 31819
shall consider the date of filing of the application for a 31820
replacement certificate to be the same as the date of filing of 31821
the original application for the approved certificate of need.31822

       (D) Any long-term care beds that were approved in the 31823
approved certificate of need remain approved in the application 31824
for a replacement certificate.31825

       (E) The applicant shall submit with the application for a 31826
replacement certificate a nonrefundable fee equal to the 31827
application fee for the approved certificate of need.31828

       (F) Upon approval of the application for a replacement 31829
certificate, the original certificate of need is automatically 31830
voided.31831

       Sec. 3702.527.  A bed described in division (O)(5) of section 31832
3702.51 of the Revised Code may be converted to a bed described in 31833
division (O)(1), (2), (3), or (4) of that section only as provided 31834
in the certificate of need under which the beds were approved or 31835
its replacement certificate of need.31836

       Sec. 3702.53.  (A) No person shall carry out any reviewable 31837
activity unless a certificate of need for such activity has been 31838
granted under sections 3702.51 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code or 31839
the person is exempted by division (S)(B) of section 3702.5131840
3702.511 or section 3702.5210 or 3702.62 of the Revised Code from 31841
the requirement that a certificate of need be obtained. No person 31842
shall carry out any reviewable activity if a certificate of need 31843
authorizing that activity has been withdrawn by the director of 31844
health under section 3702.52 or 3702.5263702.525 of the Revised 31845
Code. No person shall carry out a reviewable activity if the 31846
certificate of need authorizing that activity is void pursuant to 31847
section 3702.5243702.523 of the Revised Code or has expired 31848
pursuant to section 3702.5253702.524 of the Revised Code.31849

       (B) No person shall separate portions of any proposal for any 31850
reviewable activity to evade the requirements of sections 3702.51 31851
to 3702.62 of the Revised Code.31852

       (C) No person granted a certificate of need shall carry out 31853
the reviewable activity authorized by the certificate of need 31854
other than in substantial accordance with the approved application 31855
for the certificate of need.31856

       Sec. 3702.531.  The director of health shall evaluate and may 31857
investigate evidence that appears to demonstrate that any person 31858
has violated section 3702.53 of the Revised Code. If the director 31859
elects to conduct an investigation, hethe director shall mail to 31860
the alleged violator by certified mail, return receipt requested, 31861
a notice that an investigation is underway.31862

       When conducting an investigation under this section, the 31863
director may request any relevant information pertaining to the 31864
alleged violation, including the total operating cost of the 31865
activity in question during the period of the alleged violation 31866
and the total capital cost associated with implementation of the 31867
activity. A person shall provide information requested by the 31868
director not later than forty-five days after receiving the 31869
director's request. The director also may issue and enforce, in 31870
the manner provided in Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, subpoenas 31871
duces tecum to compel the production of documents relevant to the 31872
alleged violation. The subpoenas may be served in any manner 31873
authorized by the rules of civil procedure.31874

       The director or histhe director's designee, which may 31875
include a health service agency, may conduct a site visit to 31876
investigate an alleged violation of section 3702.53 of the Revised 31877
Code.31878

       Each investigation under this section shall be conducted in a 31879
manner that protects patient confidentiality. Names or other 31880
identifying information about any patient shall not be made public 31881
without the written consent of the patient or histhe patient's31882
guardian, or, if the patient is a minor, histhe patient's parent 31883
or guardian.31884

       Sec. 3702.54.  Except as provided in section 3702.541 of the 31885
Revised Code, divisions (A) and (B) of this section apply when the 31886
director of health determines that a person has violated section 31887
3702.53 of the Revised Code.31888

       (A) The director shall impose a civil penalty on the person 31889
in an amount equal to the greatest of the following:31890

       (1) Three thousand dollars;31891

       (2) Five per cent of the operating cost of the activity that 31892
constitutes the violation during the period of time it was 31893
conducted in violation of section 3702.53 of the Revised Code;31894

       (3) If a certificate of need was granted, two per cent of the 31895
total approved capital cost associated with implementation of the 31896
activity for which the certificate of need was granted.31897

       In no event, however, shall the penalty exceed two hundred 31898
fifty thousand dollars.31899

       (B)(1) Notwithstanding section 3702.52 of the Revised Code, 31900
the director shall refuse to accept for review any application for 31901
a certificate of need filed by or on behalf of the person, or any 31902
successor to the person or entity related to the person, for a 31903
period of not less than one year and not more than three years 31904
after the director mails the notice of the director's 31905
determination under section 3702.532 of the Revised Code or, if 31906
the determination is appealed under section 3702.60 of the Revised 31907
Code, the issuance of the order upholding the determination that 31908
is not subject to further appeal. In determining the length of 31909
time during which applications will not be accepted, the director 31910
may consider any of the following:31911

       (a) The nature and magnitude of the violation;31912

       (b) The ability of the person to have averted the violation;31913

       (c) Whether the person disclosed the violation to the 31914
director before the director commenced his investigation;31915

       (d) The person's history of compliance with sections 3702.51 31916
to 3702.62 and the rules adopted under section 3702.57 of the 31917
Revised Code;31918

       (e) Any community hardship that may result from refusing to 31919
accept future applications from the person.31920

       (2) Notwithstanding the one-year minimum imposed by division 31921
(B)(1) of this section, the director may establish a period of 31922
less than one year during which the director will refuse to accept 31923
certificate of need applications if, after reviewing all 31924
information available to the director, the director determines and 31925
expressly indicates in the notice mailed under section 3702.532 of 31926
the Revised Code that refusing to accept applications for a longer 31927
period would result in hardship to the community in which the 31928
person provides healthlong-term care services. The director's 31929
finding of community hardship shall not affect the granting or 31930
denial of any future certificate of need application filed by the 31931
person.31932

       Sec. 3702.55.  A person that the director of health 31933
determines has violated section 3702.53 of the Revised Code shall 31934
cease conducting the activity that constitutes the violation or 31935
utilizing the equipment or facility resulting from the violation 31936
not later than thirty days after the person receives the notice 31937
mailed under section 3702.532 of the Revised Code or, if the 31938
person appeals the director's determination under section 3702.60 31939
of the Revised Code, thirty days after the person receives an 31940
order upholding the director's determination that is not subject 31941
to further appeal. 31942

       If any person determined to have violated section 3702.53 of 31943
the Revised Code fails to cease conducting an activity or using31944
equipment or a facility as required by this section or if the 31945
person continues to seek payment or reimbursement for services 31946
rendered or costs incurred in conducting the activity as 31947
prohibited by section 3702.56 of the Revised Code, in addition to 31948
the penalties imposed under section 3702.54 or 3702.541 of the 31949
Revised Code:31950

       (A) The director of health may refuse to include any beds 31951
involved in the activity in the bed capacity of a hospital for 31952
purposes of registration under section 3701.07 of the Revised 31953
Code;31954

       (B) The director of health may refuse to license, or may 31955
revoke a license or reduce bed capacity previously granted to, a 31956
hospice care program under section 3712.04 of the Revised Code; a 31957
nursing home, rest homeresidential care facility, or home for the 31958
aging under section 3721.02 of the Revised Code; or any beds 31959
within any of those facilities that are involved in the activity;31960

       (C) A political subdivision certified under section 3721.09 31961
of the Revised Code may refuse to license, or may revoke a license 31962
or reduce bed capacity previously granted to, a nursing home, rest 31963
homeresidential care facility, or home for the aging, or any beds 31964
within any of those facilities that are involved in the activity;31965

       (D) The director of mental health may refuse to license under 31966
section 5119.20 of the Revised Code, or may revoke a license or 31967
reduce bed capacity previously granted to, a hospital receiving 31968
mentally ill persons or beds within such a hospital that are 31969
involved in the activity;31970

       (E) The department of job and family services may refuse to 31971
enter into a provider agreement that includes a facility, beds, or 31972
services that result from the activity.31973

       Sec. 3702.56.  No third-party payer or other person or 31974
government entity is required to pay, and no person shall seek or 31975
accept payment or reimbursement for, any service rendered or costs 31976
incurred in conducting an activity during the period of time in 31977
which the activity was conducted in violation of section 3702.53 31978
of the Revised Code. Each person that accepts any amount in 31979
violation of this division shall refund that amount on request of 31980
the person or government entity that paid it.31981

       Sec. 3702.57.  (A) The publicdirector of health council31982
shall adopt rules establishing procedures and criteria for reviews 31983
of applications for certificates of need and issuance, denial, or 31984
withdrawal of certificates.31985

       (1) In adopting rules that establish criteria for reviews of 31986
applications of certificates of need, the councildirector shall 31987
consider the availability of and need for long-term care beds to 31988
provide care and treatment to persons diagnosed as having 31989
traumatic brain injuries and shall prescribe criteria for 31990
reviewing applications that propose to add long-term care beds to 31991
provide care and treatment to persons diagnosed as having 31992
traumatic brain injuries.31993

       (2) The criteria for reviews of applications for certificates 31994
of need shall relate to the need for the reviewable activity and 31995
shall pertain to all of the following matters:31996

       (a) The impact of the reviewable activity on the cost and 31997
quality of healthlong-term care services in the relevant 31998
geographicservice area, including, but not limited, to the 31999
historical and projected utilization of the services to which the 32000
application pertains and the effect of the reviewable activity on 32001
utilization of other providers of similar services;32002

       (b) The quality of the services to be provided as the result 32003
of the activity, as evidenced by the historical performance of the 32004
persons that will be involved in providing the services and by the 32005
provisions that are proposed in the application to ensure quality, 32006
including but not limited to adequate available personnel, 32007
available ancillary and support services, available equipment, 32008
size and configuration of physical plant, and relations with other 32009
providers;32010

       (c) The impact of the reviewable activity on the availability 32011
and accessibility of the type of services proposed in the 32012
application to the population of the relevant geographicservice32013
area, and the level of access to the services proposed in the 32014
application that will be provided to medically underserved 32015
individuals such as recipients of public assistance and 32016
individuals who have no health insurance or whose health insurance 32017
is insufficient;32018

       (d) The activity's short- and long-term financial feasibility 32019
and cost-effectiveness, the impact of the activity on the 32020
applicant's costs and charges, and a comparison of the applicant's 32021
costs and charges with those of providers of similar services in 32022
the applicant's proposed service area;32023

       (e) The advantages, disadvantages, and costs of alternatives 32024
to the reviewable activity;32025

       (f) The impact of the activity on all other providers of 32026
similar services in the health service area or other relevant 32027
geographicservice area, including the impact on their 32028
utilization, market share, and financial status;32029

       (g) The historical performance of the applicant and related 32030
or affiliated parties in complying with previously granted 32031
certificates of need and any applicable certification, 32032
accreditation, or licensure requirements;32033

       (h) The relationship of the activity to the current edition 32034
of the state health resources plan issued under section 3702.521 32035
of the Revised Code;32036

       (i) The historical performance of the applicant and related 32037
or affiliated parties in providing cost-effective healthlong-term32038
care services;32039

       (j)(i) The special needs and circumstances of the applicant 32040
or population proposed to be served by the proposed project, 32041
including research activities, prevalence of particular diseases, 32042
unusual demographic characteristics, cost-effective contractual 32043
affiliations, and other special circumstances;32044

       (k)(j) The appropriateness of the zoning status of the 32045
proposed site of the activity;32046

       (l)(k) The participation by the applicant in research 32047
conducted by the United States food and drug administration or 32048
clinical trials sponsored by the national institutes of health.32049

       (3) The criteria for reviews of applications shall include a 32050
formula for determining each county's long-term care bed need for 32051
purposes of section 3702.593 of the Revised Code and may include 32052
other formulas for determining need for beds.32053

        Any rules prescribing criteria that establish ratios of beds 32054
to population shall specify the bases for establishing the ratios 32055
or mitigating factors or exceptions to the ratios.32056

       (B) The councildirector shall adopt rules specifying all of 32057
the following:32058

       (1) Information that must be provided in applications for 32059
certificates of need;32060

       (2) Procedures for reviewing applications for completeness of 32061
information;32062

       (3) Criteria for determining that the application is 32063
complete.32064

       (C) The councildirector shall adopt rules specifying 32065
requirements that holders of certificates of need must meet in 32066
order for the certificates to remain valid and establishing 32067
definitions and requirements for obligation of capital 32068
expenditures and implementation of projects authorized by 32069
certificates of need.32070

       (D) The councildirector shall adopt rules establishing 32071
criteria and procedures under which the director of health may 32072
withdraw a certificate of need if the holder fails to meet 32073
requirements for continued validity of the certificate.32074

       (E) The councildirector shall adopt rules establishing 32075
procedures under which the department of health shall monitor 32076
project implementation activities of holders of certificates of 32077
need. The rules adopted under this division also may establish 32078
procedures for monitoring implementation activities of persons 32079
that have received nonreviewability rulings.32080

       (F) The councildirector shall adopt rules establishing 32081
procedures under which the director of health shall review 32082
certificates of need whose holders exceed or appear likely to 32083
exceed an expenditure maximum specified in a certificate.32084

       (G) The councildirector shall adopt rules establishing 32085
certificate of need application fees sufficient to pay the costs 32086
incurred by the department for administering sections 3702.51 to 32087
3702.62 of the Revised Code and to pay health service agencies for 32088
the functions they perform under division (D)(5) of section 32089
3702.58 of the Revised Code. Unless rules are adopted under this 32090
division establishing different application fees, the application 32091
fee for a project not involving a capital expenditure shall be 32092
three thousand dollars and the application fee for a project 32093
involving a capital expenditure shall be nine-tenths of one per 32094
cent of the capital expenditure proposed subject to a minimum of 32095
three thousand dollars and a maximum of twenty thousand dollars.32096

       (H) The councildirector shall adopt rules specifying 32097
information that is necessary to conduct reviews of certificate of 32098
need applications and to develop recommendations for criteria for 32099
reviews that healthlong-term care facilities and other health 32100
care providers are to submit to the director under division (G)(H)32101
of section 3702.52 of the Revised Code.32102

       (I) The councildirector shall adopt rules defining 32103
"affiliated person," "related person," and "ultimate controlling 32104
interest" for purposes of section 3702.5243702.523 of the Revised 32105
Code.32106

       (J) The councildirector shall adopt rules prescribing 32107
requirements for holders of certificates of need to demonstrate to 32108
the director under section 3702.5263702.525 of the Revised Code 32109
that reasonable progress is being made toward completion of the 32110
reviewable activity and establishing standards by which the 32111
director shall determine whether reasonable progress is being 32112
made.32113

       (K) The public health councildirector shall adopt all rules 32114
under divisions (A) to (J) of this section in accordance with 32115
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. The councildirector may adopt 32116
other rules as necessary to carry out the purposes of sections 32117
3702.51 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code.32118

       Sec. 3702.59.  (A) The director of health shall accept for 32119
review certificate of need applications as provided in sections 32120
3702.592, 3702.593, and 3702.594 of the Revised Code.32121

       (B)(1) The director shall not approve an application for a 32122
certificate of need for the addition of long-term care beds to an 32123
existing healthlong-term care facility or for the development of 32124
a new healthlong-term care facility if any of the following 32125
apply:32126

       (a) The existing healthlong-term care facility in which the 32127
beds are being placed has one or more waivers for life safety code 32128
deficiencies, one or more state fire code violations, or one or 32129
more state building code violations, and the project identified in 32130
the application does not propose to correct all life safety code 32131
deficiencies for which a waiver has been granted, all state fire 32132
code violations, and all state building code violations at the 32133
existing healthlong-term care facility in which the beds are 32134
being placed;32135

       (b) During the sixty-month period preceding the filing of the 32136
application, a notice of proposed license revocation was issued 32137
under section 3721.03 of the Revised Code for the existing health32138
long-term care facility in which the beds are being placed or a 32139
nursing home owned or operated by the applicant or a principal 32140
participant.32141

        (c) During the period that precedes the filing of the 32142
application and is encompassed by the three most recent standard 32143
surveys of the existing healthlong-term care facility in which 32144
the beds are being placed, any of the following occurred:32145

       (i) The facility was cited on three or more separate 32146
occasions for final, nonappealable actual harm but not immediate 32147
jeopardy deficiencies.32148

        (ii) The facility was cited on two or more separate occasions 32149
for final, nonappealable immediate jeopardy deficiencies.32150

        (iii) The facility was cited on two separate occasions for 32151
final, nonappealable actual harm but not immediate jeopardy 32152
deficiencies and on one occasion for a final, nonappealable 32153
immediate jeopardy deficiency.32154

       (d) More than two nursing homes owned or operated in this 32155
state by the applicant or a principal participant or, if the 32156
applicant or a principal participant owns or operates more than 32157
twenty nursing homes in this state, more than ten per cent of 32158
those nursing homes, were each cited during the period that 32159
precedes the filing of the application for the certificate of need 32160
and is encompassed by the three most recent standard surveys of 32161
the nursing homes that were so cited in any of the following 32162
manners:32163

       (i) On three or more separate occasions for final, 32164
nonappealable actual harm but not immediate jeopardy deficiencies;32165

       (ii) On two or more separate occasions for final, 32166
nonappealable immediate jeopardy deficiencies;32167

       (iii) On two separate occasions for final, nonappealable 32168
actual harm but not immediate jeopardy deficiencies and on one 32169
occasion for a final, nonappealable immediate jeopardy deficiency.32170

        (2) In applying divisions (B)(1)(a) to (d) of this section, 32171
the director shall not consider deficiencies or violations cited 32172
before the applicant or a principal participant acquired or began 32173
to own or operate the healthlong-term care facility at which the 32174
deficiencies or violations were cited. The director may disregard 32175
deficiencies and violations cited after the healthlong-term care 32176
facility was acquired or began to be operated by the applicant or 32177
a principal participant if the deficiencies or violations were 32178
attributable to circumstances that arose under the previous owner 32179
or operator and the applicant or principal participant has 32180
implemented measures to alleviate the circumstances. In the case 32181
of an application proposing development of a new healthlong-term32182
care facility by relocation of beds, the director shall not 32183
consider deficiencies or violations that were solely attributable 32184
to the physical plant of the existing healthlong-term care 32185
facility from which the beds are being relocated.32186

       (C) The director also shall accept for review any application 32187
for the conversion of infirmary beds to long-term care beds if the 32188
infirmary meets all of the following conditions:32189

       (1) Is operated exclusively by a religious order;32190

       (2) Provides care exclusively to members of religious orders 32191
who take vows of celibacy and live by virtue of their vows within 32192
the orders as if related;32193

       (3) Was providing care exclusively to members of such a 32194
religious order on January 1, 1994.32195

       (D) Notwithstanding division (C)(2) of this section, a 32196
facility that has been granted a certificate of need under 32197
division (C) of this section may provide care to any of the 32198
following family members of the individuals described in division 32199
(C)(2) of this section: mothers, fathers, brothers, sisters, 32200
brothers-in-law, sisters-in-law, or children.32201

        The long-term care beds in a facility that have been granted 32202
a certificate of need under division (C) of this section may not 32203
be relocated pursuant to sections 3702.592 to 3702.594 of the 32204
Revised Code.32205

       Sec. 3702.592. (A) The director of health shall accept, for 32206
review under section 3702.52 of the Revised Code, certificate of 32207
need applications for any of the following purposes if the 32208
proposed increase in beds is attributable solely to a replacement 32209
or relocation of existing beds from an existing healthlong-term32210
care facility within the same county:32211

       (1) Approval of beds in a new healthlong-term care facility 32212
or an increase of beds in an existing healthlong-term care 32213
facility if the beds are proposed to be licensed as nursing home 32214
beds under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code;32215

       (2) Approval of beds in a new county home or new county 32216
nursing home, or an increase of beds in an existing county home or 32217
existing county nursing home if the beds are proposed to be 32218
certified as skilled nursing facility beds under the medicare 32219
program, Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 286 32220
(1965), 42 U.S.C. 1395, as amended, or nursing facility beds under 32221
the medicaid program, Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 32222
Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396, as amended;32223

       (3) An increase of hospital beds registered pursuant to 32224
section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as long-term care beds;32225

       (4) An increase of hospital beds registered pursuant to 32226
section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as special skilled nursing 32227
beds that were originally authorized by and are operated in 32228
accordance with section 3702.5223702.521 of the Revised Code.32229

       (B) The director shall accept applications described in 32230
division (A) of this section at any time.32231

       Sec. 3702.593. (A) At the times specified in this section, 32232
the director of health shall accept, for review under section 32233
3702.52 of the Revised Code, certificate of need applications for 32234
any of the following purposes if the proposed increase in beds is 32235
attributable solely to relocation of existing beds from an 32236
existing healthlong-term care facility in a county with excess 32237
beds to a healthlong-term care facility in a county in which 32238
there are fewer long-term care beds than the county's bed need:32239

       (1) Approval of beds in a new healthlong-term care facility 32240
or an increase of beds in an existing healthlong-term care 32241
facility if the beds are proposed to be licensed as nursing home 32242
beds under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code;32243

       (2) Approval of beds in a new county home or new county 32244
nursing home, or an increase of beds in an existing county home or 32245
existing county nursing home if the beds are proposed to be 32246
certified as skilled nursing facility beds under the medicare 32247
program, Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 286 32248
(1965), 42 U.S.C. 1395, as amended, or nursing facility beds under 32249
the medicaid program, Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 32250
Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396, as amended;32251

       (3) An increase of hospital beds registered pursuant to 32252
section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as long-term care beds.32253

       (B) For the purpose of implementing this section, the 32254
director shall do all of the following:32255

       (1) DetermineNot later than April 1, 2012, and every four 32256
years thereafter, determine the long-term care bed supply for each 32257
county, which shall consist of all of the following:32258

       (a) Nursing home beds licensed under Chapter 3721. of the 32259
Revised Code;32260

       (b) Beds certified as skilled nursing facility beds under the 32261
medicare program or nursing facility beds under the medicaid 32262
program;32263

       (c) Beds in any portion of a hospital that are properly 32264
registered under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as skilled 32265
nursing beds, long-term care beds, or special skilled nursing 32266
beds;32267

       (d) Beds in a county home or county nursing home that are 32268
certified under section 5155.38 of the Revised Code as having been 32269
in operation on July 1, 1993, and are eligible for licensure as 32270
nursing home beds;32271

       (d)(e) Beds held as approved long-term care beds under a 32272
certificate of need approved by the directordescribed in division 32273
(O)(5) of section 3702.51 of the Revised Code.32274

       (2) Determine the long-term care bed occupancy rate for the 32275
state at the time the determination is made;32276

       (3) For each county, determine the county's bed need by 32277
identifying the number of long-term care beds that would be needed 32278
in the county in order for the statewide occupancy rate for a 32279
projected population aged sixty-five and older to be ninety per 32280
cent.32281

       In determining each county's bed need, the director shall use 32282
the formula developed in rules adopted under section 3702.57 of 32283
the Revised Code. The director's first determination after the 32284
effective date of this section shall be made not later than April 32285
1, 2010. The second determination shall be made not later than 32286
April 1, 2012. Thereafter, aA determination shall be made every 32287
four years. After each determination is made, the director shall 32288
publish the county's bed need on the web site maintained by the 32289
department of health.32290

       (C) The director's consideration of a certificate of need 32291
that would increase the number of beds in a county shall be 32292
consistent with the county's bed need determined under division 32293
(B) of this section except as follows:32294

       (1) If a county's occupancy rate is less than eighty-five per 32295
cent, the county shall be considered to have no need for 32296
additional beds.32297

       (2) Even if a county is determined not to need any additional 32298
long-term care beds, the director may approve an increase in beds 32299
equal to up to ten per cent of the county's bed supply if the 32300
county's occupancy rate is greater than ninety per cent.32301

       (D)(1) Applications made under this section shall be subject 32302
to comparative review. The review period for the first comparative32303
review process after the effective date of this section shall 32304
begin July 1, 2010, and end June 30, 2012. The next review period 32305
shall begin July 1, 2012, and end June 30, 2016. Thereafter, the 32306
review period for each comparative review process shall begin on 32307
the first day of July following the end of the previous review 32308
period and shall be four years.32309

       (2) Certificate of need applications shall be accepted during 32310
the first month of the review period and reviewed from the first 32311
day of the review period through the thirtieth day of April of the 32312
following year.32313

       (3) Except for the first review period after the effective 32314
date of this sectionOctober 16, 2009, each review period may 32315
consist of two phases. The first phase of the review period shall 32316
be the period during which the director accepts and reviews 32317
certificate of need applications as provided in division (D)(2) of 32318
this section. If the director determines that there will be 32319
acceptance and review of additional certificate of need 32320
applications, the second phase of the review period shall begin on 32321
the first day of July of the third year of the review period. The 32322
second phase shall be limited to acceptance and review of 32323
applications for redistribution of beds made available pursuant to 32324
division (G)(2)(I) of this section. During the period between the 32325
first and second phases of the review period, the director shall 32326
act in accordance with division (H)(I) of this section.32327

       (E) The director shall consider certificate of need 32328
applications in accordance with all of the following:32329

       (1) The number of beds approved for a county shall include 32330
only beds available for relocation from another county and shall 32331
not exceed the bed need of the receiving county;32332

       (2) The director shall consider the existence of community 32333
resources serving persons who are age sixty-five or older or 32334
disabled that are demonstrably effective in providing alternatives 32335
to long-term care facility placement.32336

       (3) The director shall approve relocation of beds from a 32337
county only if, after the relocation, the number of beds remaining 32338
in the county will exceed the county's bed need by at least one 32339
hundred beds;32340

       (4) The director shall approve relocation of beds from a 32341
healthlong-term care facility only if, after the relocation, the 32342
number of beds in the facility's service area is at least equal to 32343
the state bed need rate. For purposes of this division, a 32344
facility's service area shall be either of the following:32345

       (a) The census tract in which the facility is located, if the 32346
facility is located in an area designated by the United States 32347
secretary of health and human services as a health professional 32348
shortage area under the "Public Health Service Act," 88 Stat. 682 32349
(1944), 42 U.S.C. 254(e), as amended;32350

       (b) The area that is within a fifteen-mile radius of the 32351
facility's location, if the facility is not located in a health 32352
professional shortage area.32353

       (F) Applications made under this section are subject to 32354
comparative review if two or more applications are submitted 32355
during the same review period and any of the following applies:32356

       (1) The applications propose to relocate beds from the same 32357
county and the number of beds for which certificates of need are 32358
being requested totals more than the number of beds available in 32359
the county from which the beds are to be relocated.32360

       (2) The applications propose to relocate beds to the same 32361
county and the number of beds for which certificates of need are 32362
being requested totals more than the number of beds needed in the 32363
county to which the beds are to be relocated.32364

       (3) The applications propose to relocate beds from the same 32365
service area and the number of beds left in the service area from 32366
which the beds are being relocated would be less than the state 32367
bed need rate determined by the director.32368

       (G) In determining which applicants should receive preference 32369
in the comparative review process, the director shall consider all 32370
of the following as weighted priorities:32371

       (1) Whether the beds will be part of a continuing care 32372
retirement community;32373

       (2) Whether the beds will serve an underserved population, 32374
such as low-income individuals, individuals with disabilities, or 32375
individuals who are members of racial or ethnic minority groups;32376

       (3) Whether the project in which the beds will be included 32377
will provide alternatives to institutional care, such as adult 32378
day-care, home health care, respite or hospice care, mobile meals, 32379
residential care, independent living, or congregate living 32380
services;32381

       (4) Whether the healthlong-term care facility's owner or 32382
operator will participate in medicaid waiver programs for 32383
alternatives to institutional care;32384

       (5) Whether the project in which the beds will be included 32385
will reduce alternatives to institutional care by converting 32386
residential care beds or other alternative care beds to long-term 32387
care beds;32388

       (6) Whether the facility in which the beds will be placed has 32389
positive resident and family satisfaction surveys;32390

       (7) Whether the facility in which the beds will be placed has 32391
fewer than fifty long-term care beds;32392

       (8) Whether the healthlong-term care facility in which the 32393
beds will be placed is located within the service area of a 32394
hospital and is designed to accept patients for rehabilitation 32395
after an in-patient hospital stay;32396

       (9) Whether the healthlong-term care facility in which the 32397
beds will be placed is or proposes to become a nurse aide training 32398
and testing site;32399

       (10) The rating, under the centers for medicare and medicaid 32400
services' five star nursing home quality rating system, of the 32401
healthlong-term care facility in which the beds will be placed.32402

       (G)(1) When a certificate of need application is approved 32403
during the initial phase of a four-year review period, on 32404
completion of the project under which the beds are relocated, that 32405
number of beds shall cease to be operated in the health care 32406
facility from which they were relocated and, if the licensure or 32407
certification of those beds cannot be or is not transferred to the 32408
facility to which the beds are relocated, the licensure or 32409
certification shall be surrendered.32410

       (2) In(H) A person who has submitted an application under 32411
this section that is not subject to comparative review may revise 32412
the site of the proposed project pursuant to section 3702.522 of 32413
the Revised Code.32414

       (I) When a certificate of need application is approved during 32415
the initial phase of a four-year review period, in addition to the 32416
actions required by division (G)(1)(D) of this section 3702.52 of 32417
the Revised Code, the healthlong-term care facility from which 32418
the beds were relocated shall reduce the number of beds operated 32419
in the facility by a number of beds equal to at least ten per cent 32420
of the number of beds relocated and shall surrender the licensure 32421
or certification of those beds. If these beds are in a home 32422
licensed under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, the long-term 32423
care facility shall have the beds removed from the license. If the 32424
beds are in a facility that is certified as a skilled nursing 32425
facility or nursing facility under Title XVIII or XIX of the 32426
"Social Security Act," the facility shall surrender the 32427
certification of these beds. If the beds are registered as skilled 32428
nursing beds or long-term care beds under section 3701.07 of the 32429
Revised Code, the long-term care facility shall surrender the 32430
registration for these beds. This reduction shall be made not 32431
later than the completion date of the project for which the beds 32432
were relocated.32433

       (H)(J)(1) Once approval of certificate of need applications 32434
in the first phase of a four-year review period is complete, the 32435
director shall make a new determination of the bed need for each 32436
county by reducing the county's bed need by the number of beds 32437
approved for relocation to the county. The new bed-need 32438
determination shall be made not later than the first day of April 32439
of the third year of the review period.32440

       (2) The director may publish on the department's web site the 32441
remaining bed need for counties that will be considered for 32442
redistribution of beds that, in accordance with division (G)(2)(I)32443
of this section, have ceased or will cease to be operated. The 32444
director shall base the determination of whether to include a 32445
county on all of the following:32446

       (a) The statewide number of beds that, in accordance with 32447
division (G)(2)(I) of this section, have ceased or will cease to 32448
be operated;32449

       (b) The county's remaining bed need;32450

       (c) The county's bed occupancy rate.32451

       (I)(K) If the director publishes the remaining bed need for a 32452
county under division (H)(J)(2) of this section, the director may, 32453
beginning on the first day of the second phase of the review 32454
period, accept certificate of need applications for redistribution 32455
to healthlong-term care facilities in that county of beds that 32456
have ceased or will cease operation in accordance with division 32457
(G)(2)(I) of this section. The total number of beds approved for 32458
redistribution in the second phase of a review period shall not 32459
exceed the number that have ceased or will cease operation in 32460
accordance with division (G)(2)(I) of this section. Beds that are 32461
not approved for redistribution during the second phase of a 32462
review period shall not be available for redistribution at any 32463
future time.32464

       Sec. 3702.594.  (A) The director of health shall accept, for 32465
review under section 3702.52 of the Revised Code, certificate of 32466
need applications for an increase in beds in an existing nursing 32467
home if all of the following conditions are met:32468

       (1) The proposed increase is attributable solely to a 32469
relocation of licensed nursing home beds from an existing nursing 32470
home to another existing nursing home located in a county that is 32471
contiguous to the county from which the beds are to be relocated; 32472

       (2) Not more than a total of thirty nursing home beds are 32473
proposed for relocation to the same existing nursing home 32474
regardless of the number of applications filed. Once the 32475
cumulative total of beds relocated under this section to a nursing 32476
home reaches thirty, no further applications under this section 32477
will be accepted until the period of monitoring specified in 32478
division (E) of section 3702.52 of the Revised Code of the most 32479
recent reviewable activity implemented under this section has 32480
expired; 32481

       (3) After the proposed relocation, there will be existing 32482
nursing home beds remaining in the county from which the beds are 32483
relocated;32484

       (4) The beds are proposed to be licensed as nursing home beds 32485
under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code.32486

       (B) The director shall accept applications described in 32487
division (A) of this section at any time.32488

       Sec. 3702.60.  (A) Any affected person may appeal a 32489
reviewability ruling issued on or after April 20, 1995, to the 32490
director of health in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 32491
Code, and the director shall provide an adjudication hearing in 32492
accordance with that chapter. An affected person may appeal the 32493
director's ruling in the adjudication hearing to the tenth 32494
district court of appeals.32495

       (B) The certificate of need applicant or another affected 32496
person may appeal to the director in accordance with Chapter 119. 32497
of the Revised Code a decision issued by the director on or after 32498
April 20, 1995, to grant or deny a certificate of need application 32499
for which an adjudication hearing was not conducted under section 32500
3702.52 of the Revised Code, and the director shall provide an 32501
adjudication hearing in accordance with that chapter. The 32502
certificate of need applicant or other affected person that 32503
appeals the director's decision to grant or deny a certificate of 32504
need application must prove by a preponderance of the evidence 32505
that the director's decision is not in accordance with sections 32506
3702.52 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code or rules adopted under 32507
those sections. The certificate of need applicant or an affected 32508
person that was a party to and participated in an adjudication 32509
hearing conducted under this division or section 3702.52 of the 32510
Revised Code may appeal to the tenth district court of appeals the 32511
decision issued by the director following the adjudication 32512
hearing. No person may appeal to the director or a court the 32513
director's granting of a certificate of need prior to June 30, 32514
1995, under the version of section 3702.52 of the Revised Code in 32515
effect immediately prior to that date due to failure to submit 32516
timely written objections, no person may appeal to the director or 32517
a court the director's granting of a certificate of need under 32518
division (C)(1) of section 3702.52 of the Revised Code.32519

       (C) The certificate of need holder may appeal to the director 32520
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code a decision 32521
issued by the director under section 3702.52 or 3702.5263702.52532522
of the Revised Code on or after April 20, 1995, to withdraw a 32523
certificate of need, and the director shall provide an 32524
adjudication hearing in accordance with that chapter. The person 32525
may appeal the director's ruling in the adjudication hearing to 32526
the tenth district court of appeals.32527

       (D) Any person determined by the director to have violated 32528
section 3702.53 of the Revised Code may appeal that determination, 32529
or the penalties imposed under section 3702.54 or 3702.541 of the 32530
Revised Code, to the director in accordance with Chapter 119. of 32531
the Revised Code, and the director shall provide an adjudication 32532
hearing in accordance with that chapter. The person may appeal the 32533
director's ruling in the adjudication hearing to the tenth 32534
district court of appeals.32535

       (E) Each person appealing under this section to the director 32536
shall file with the director, not later than thirty days after the 32537
decision, ruling, or determination of the director was mailed, a 32538
notice of appeal designating the decision, ruling, or 32539
determination appealed from.32540

       (F) Each person appealing under this section to the tenth 32541
district court of appeals shall file with the court, not later 32542
than thirty days after the date the director's adjudication order 32543
was mailed, a notice of appeal designating the order appealed 32544
from. The appellant also shall file notice with the director not 32545
later than thirty days after the date the order was mailed.32546

       (1) Not later than thirty days after receipt of the notice of 32547
appeal, the director shall prepare and certify to the court the 32548
complete record of the proceedings out of which the appeal arises. 32549
The expense of preparing and transcribing the record shall be 32550
taxed as part of the costs of the appeal. In the event that the 32551
record or a part thereof is not certified within the time 32552
prescribed by this division, the appellant may apply to the court 32553
for an order that the record be certified.32554

       (2) In hearing the appeal, the court shall consider only the 32555
evidence contained in the record certified to it by the director. 32556
The court may remand the matter to the director for the admission 32557
of additional evidence on a finding that the additional evidence 32558
is material, newly discovered, and could not with reasonable 32559
diligence have been ascertained before the hearing before the 32560
director. Except as otherwise provided by statute, the court shall 32561
give the hearing on the appeal preference over all other civil 32562
matters, irrespective of the position of the proceedings on the 32563
calendar of the court.32564

       (3) The court shall affirm the director's order if it finds, 32565
upon consideration of the entire record and any additional 32566
evidence admitted under division (F)(2) of this section, that the 32567
order is supported by reliable, probative, and substantial 32568
evidence and is in accordance with law. In the absence of such a 32569
finding, it shall reverse, vacate, or modify the order.32570

       (4) If the court determines that the director committed 32571
material procedural error, the court shall remand the matter to 32572
the director for further consideration or action.32573

       (G) The court may award reasonable attorney's fees against 32574
the appellant if it determines that the appeal was frivolous. 32575
Sections 119.092, 119.093, and 2335.39 of the Revised Code do not 32576
apply to adjudication hearings under this section or section 32577
3702.52 of the Revised Code and judicial appeals under this 32578
section.32579

       (H) No person may intervene in an appeal brought under this 32580
section.32581

       Sec. 3702.62. (A) Any action pursuant to section 140.03, 32582
140.04, 140.05, 307.091, 313.21, 339.01, 339.021, 339.03, 339.06, 32583
339.08, 339.09, 339.12, 339.14, 513.05, 513.07, 513.08, 513.081, 32584
513.12, 513.15, 513.17, 513.171, 749.02, 749.03, 749.14, 749.16, 32585
749.20, 749.25, 749.28, 749.35, 1751.06, or 3707.29 of the Revised 32586
Code shall be taken in accordance with sections 3702.51 to 3702.61 32587
of the Revised Code.32588

       (B) A nursing home certified as an intermediate care facility 32589
for the mentally retarded under Title XIX of the "Social Security 32590
Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, that is 32591
required to apply for licensure as a residential facility under 32592
section 5123.19 of the Revised Code is not, with respect to the 32593
portion of the home certified as an intermediate care facility for 32594
the mentally retarded, subject to sectionsSections 3702.51 to 32595
3702.61 of the Revised Code do not apply to any part of long-term 32596
care facility's campus that is certified as an intermediate care 32597
facility for the mentally retarded under Title XIX of the "Social 32598
Security Act," 79 Stat. 343 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396 et seq., as 32599
amended.32600

       Sec. 3703.01. (A) Except as otherwise provided in this 32601
section, the division of laborindustrial compliance in the 32602
department of commerce shall do all of the following:32603

       (1) Inspect all nonresidential buildings within the meaning 32604
of section 3781.06 of the Revised Code;32605

       (2) Condemn all unsanitary or defective plumbing that is 32606
found in connection with those places;32607

       (3) Order changes in plumbing necessary to insure the safety 32608
of the public health.32609

       (B)(1)(a) The division of laborindustrial compliance, boards 32610
of health of city and general health districts, and county 32611
building departments shall not inspect plumbing or collect fees 32612
for inspecting plumbing in particular types of buildings in any 32613
municipal corporation that is certified by the board of building 32614
standards under section 3781.10 of the Revised Code to exercise 32615
enforcement authority for plumbing in those types of buildings.32616

       (b) The division shall not inspect plumbing or collect fees 32617
for inspecting plumbing in particular types of buildings in any 32618
health district that employs one or more plumbing inspectors 32619
certified pursuant to division (D) of this section to enforce 32620
Chapters 3781. and 3791. of the Revised Code and the rules adopted 32621
pursuant to those chapters relating to plumbing in those types of 32622
buildings.32623

        (c) The division shall not inspect plumbing or collect fees 32624
for inspecting plumbing in particular types of buildings in any 32625
health district where the county building department is authorized 32626
to inspect those types of buildings pursuant to a contract 32627
described in division (C)(1) of this section.32628

       (d) The division shall not inspect plumbing or collect fees 32629
for inspecting plumbing in particular types of buildings in any 32630
health district where the board of health has entered into a 32631
contract with the board of health of another district to conduct 32632
inspections pursuant to division (C)(2) of this section.32633

       (2) No county building department shall inspect plumbing or 32634
collect fees for inspecting plumbing in any type of building in a 32635
health district unless the department is authorized to inspect 32636
that type of building pursuant to a contract described in division 32637
(C)(1) of this section.32638

        (3) No municipal corporation shall inspect plumbing or 32639
collect fees for inspecting plumbing in types of buildings for 32640
which it is not certified by the board of building standards under 32641
section 3781.10 of the Revised Code to exercise enforcement 32642
authority.32643

       (4) No board of health of a health district shall inspect 32644
plumbing or collect fees for inspecting plumbing in types of 32645
buildings for which it does not have a plumbing inspector 32646
certified pursuant to division (D) of this section.32647

       (C)(1) The board of health of a health district may enter 32648
into a contract with a board of county commissioners to authorize 32649
the county building department to inspect plumbing in buildings 32650
within the health district. The contract may designate that the 32651
department inspect either residential or nonresidential buildings, 32652
as those terms are defined in section 3781.06 of the Revised Code, 32653
or both types of buildings, so long as the department employs or 32654
contracts with a plumbing inspector certified pursuant to division 32655
(D) of this section to inspect the types of buildings the contract 32656
designates. The board of health may enter into a contract 32657
regardless of whether the health district employs any certified 32658
plumbing inspectors to enforce Chapters 3781. and 3791. of the 32659
Revised Code.32660

        (2) The board of health of a health district, regardless of 32661
whether it employs any certified plumbing inspectors to enforce 32662
Chapters 3781. and 3791. of the Revised Code, may enter into a 32663
contract with the board of health of another health district to 32664
authorize that board to inspect plumbing in buildings within the 32665
contracting board's district. The contract may designate the 32666
inspection of either residential or nonresidential buildings as 32667
defined in section 3781.06 of the Revised Code, or both types of 32668
buildings, so long as the board that performs the inspections 32669
employs a plumbing inspector certified pursuant to division (D) of 32670
this section to inspect the types of buildings the contract 32671
designates.32672

       (D) The superintendent of laborindustrial compliance shall 32673
adopt rules prescribing minimum qualifications based on education, 32674
training, experience, or demonstrated ability, that the 32675
superintendent shall use in certifying or recertifying plumbing 32676
inspectors to do plumbing inspections for health districts and 32677
county building departments that are authorized to perform 32678
inspections pursuant to a contract under division (C)(1) of this 32679
section, and for continuing education of plumbing inspectors. 32680
Those minimum qualifications shall be related to the types of 32681
buildings for which a person seeks certification.32682

       (E) The superintendent may enter into reciprocal 32683
registration, licensure, or certification agreements with other 32684
states and other agencies of this state relative to plumbing 32685
inspectors if both of the following apply:32686

        (1) The requirements for registration, licensure, or 32687
certification of plumbing inspectors under the laws of the other 32688
state or laws administered by the other agency are substantially 32689
equal to the requirements the superintendent adopts under division 32690
(D) of this section for certifying plumbing inspectors.32691

        (2) The other state or agency extends similar reciprocity to 32692
persons certified under this chapter.32693

       (F) The superintendent may select and contract with one or 32694
more persons to do all of the following regarding examinations for 32695
certification of plumbing inspectors:32696

        (1) Prepare, administer, score, and maintain the 32697
confidentiality of the examination;32698

        (2) Maintain responsibility for all expenses required to 32699
comply with division (F)(1) of this section;32700

        (3) Charge each applicant a fee for administering the 32701
examination in an amount the superintendent authorizes;32702

       (4) Design the examination for certification of plumbing 32703
inspectors to determine an applicant's competence to inspect 32704
plumbing.32705

       (G) Standards and methods prescribed in local plumbing 32706
regulations shall not be less than those prescribed in Chapters 32707
3781. and 3791. of the Revised Code and the rules adopted pursuant 32708
to those chapters.32709

        (H) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, the 32710
division shall make a plumbing inspection of any building or other 32711
place that there is reason to believe is in a condition to be a 32712
menace to the public health.32713

       Sec. 3703.03.  In the administration of sections 3703.01 to 32714
3703.08 of the Revised Code, the division of laborindustrial 32715
compliance shall enforce rules governing plumbing adopted by the 32716
board of building standards under authority of sections 3781.10 32717
and 3781.11 of the Revised Code, and register those persons 32718
engaged in or at the plumbing business.32719

       Plans and specifications for all plumbing to be installed in 32720
or for buildings coming within such sections shall be submitted to 32721
and approved by the division before the contract for plumbing is 32722
let.32723

       Sec. 3703.04.  The superintendent of laborindustrial 32724
compliance shall appoint such number of plumbing inspectors as is 32725
required. The inspectors shall be practical plumbers with at least 32726
seven years' experience, and skilled and well-trained in matters 32727
pertaining to sanitary regulations concerning plumbing work.32728

       Sec. 3703.05.  Plumbing inspectors employed by the division 32729
of laborindustrial compliance assigned to the enforcement of 32730
sections 3703.01 to 3703.08 of the Revised Code may, between 32731
sunrise and sunset, enter any building where there is good and 32732
sufficient reason to believe that the sanitary condition of the 32733
premises endangers the public health, for the purpose of making an 32734
inspection to ascertain the condition of the premises.32735

       Sec. 3703.06.  When any building is found to be in a sanitary 32736
condition or when changes which are ordered, under authority of 32737
this chapter, in the plumbing, drainage, or ventilation have been 32738
made, and after a thorough inspection and approval by the 32739
superintendent of laborindustrial compliance, the superintendent 32740
shall issue a certificate, which shall be posted in a conspicuous 32741
place for the benefit of the public at large. Upon notification by 32742
the superintendent, the certificate shall be revoked for any 32743
violation of those sections.32744

       Sec. 3703.07.  No plumbing work shall be done in any building 32745
or place coming within the jurisdiction of the division of labor32746
industrial compliance, except in cases of repairs or leaks in 32747
existing plumbing, until a permit has been issued by the division.32748

       Before granting such permit, an application shall be made by 32749
the owner of the property or by the person, firm, or corporation 32750
which is to do the work. The application shall be made on a form 32751
prepared by the division for the purpose, and each application 32752
shall be accompanied by a fee of twenty-seven dollars, and an 32753
additional fee of seven dollars for each trap, vented fixture, 32754
appliance, or device. Each application also shall be accompanied 32755
by a plan approval fee of eighteen dollars for work containing one 32756
through twenty fixtures; thirty-six dollars for work containing 32757
twenty-one through forty fixtures; and fifty-four dollars for work 32758
containing forty-one or more fixtures.32759

       Whenever a reinspection is made necessary by the failure of 32760
the applicant or plumbing contractor to have the work ready for 32761
inspection when so reported, or by reason of faulty or improper 32762
installation, the person shall pay a fee of forty-five dollars for 32763
each reinspection.32764

       All fees collected pursuant to this section shall be paid 32765
into the state treasury to the credit of the laborindustrial 32766
compliance operating fund created in section 121.084 of the 32767
Revised Code.32768

       The superintendent of laborindustrial compliance, by rule 32769
adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, may 32770
increase the fees required by this section and may establish fees 32771
to pay the costs of the division to fulfill its duties established 32772
by this chapter, including, but not limited to, fees for 32773
administering a program for continuing education for, and 32774
certifying and recertifying plumbing inspectors. The fees shall 32775
bear some reasonable relationship to the cost of administering and 32776
enforcing the provisions of this chapter.32777

       Sec. 3703.08.  Any owner, agent, or manager of a building in 32778
which an inspection is made by the division of laborindustrial 32779
compliance, a board of health of a health district, or a certified 32780
department of building inspection of a municipal corporation or a 32781
county shall have the entire system of drainage and ventilation 32782
repaired, as the division, board of health, or department of 32783
building inspection directs by its order. After due notice to 32784
repair that work is given, the owner, agent, or manager shall 32785
notify the public authority that issued the order when the work is 32786
ready for its inspection. No person shall fail to have the work 32787
ready for inspection at the time specified in the notice.32788

       Sec. 3703.10.  All prosecutions and proceedings by the 32789
division of laborindustrial compliance for the violation of 32790
sections 3703.01 to 3703.08 of the Revised Code, or for the 32791
violation of any of the orders or rules of the division under 32792
those sections, shall be instituted by the superintendent of 32793
laborindustrial compliance. All fines or judgments collected by 32794
the division shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit 32795
of the laborindustrial compliance operating fund created by 32796
section 121.084 of the Revised Code.32797

       The superintendent, the board of health of a general or city 32798
health district, or any person charged with enforcing the rules of 32799
the division adopted under sections 3703.01 to 3703.08 of the 32800
Revised Code may petition the court of common pleas for injunctive 32801
or other appropriate relief requiring any person violating a rule 32802
adopted or order issued by the superintendent under those sections 32803
to comply with the rule or order. The court of common pleas of the 32804
county in which the offense is alleged to be occurring may grant 32805
injunctive or other appropriate relief.32806

       The superintendent may do all of the following:32807

       (A) Deny an applicant certification as a plumbing inspector;32808

       (B) Suspend or revoke the certification of a plumbing 32809
inspector;32810

       (C) Examine any certified plumbing inspector under oath;32811

       (D) Examine the records and books of any certified plumbing 32812
inspector if the superintendent finds the material to be examined 32813
relevant to a determination described in division (A), (B), or (C) 32814
of this section.32815

       Sec. 3703.21.  (A) Within ninety days after September 16, 32816
2004, the superintendent of laborindustrial compliance shall 32817
appoint a backflow advisory board consisting of not more than ten 32818
members, who shall serve at the pleasure of the superintendent. 32819
The superintendent shall appoint a representative from the 32820
plumbing section of the division of laborindustrial compliance, 32821
three representatives recommended by the plumbing administrator of 32822
the division of laborindustrial compliance, a representative of 32823
the drinking water program of the Ohio environmental protection 32824
agency, three representatives recommended by the director of 32825
environmental protection, and not more than two members who are 32826
not employed by the plumbing or water industry.32827

       The board shall advise the superintendent on matters 32828
pertaining to the training and certification of backflow 32829
technicians.32830

       (B) The superintendent shall adopt rules in accordance with 32831
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to provide for the certification 32832
of backflow technicians. The rules shall establish all of the 32833
following requirements, specifications, and procedures:32834

       (1) Requirements and procedures for the initial certification 32835
of backflow technicians, including eligibility criteria and 32836
application requirements and fees;32837

       (2) Specifications concerning and procedures for taking 32838
examinations required for certification as a backflow technician, 32839
including eligibility criteria to take the examination and 32840
application requirements and fees for taking the examination;32841

       (3) Specifications concerning and procedures for renewing a 32842
certification as a backflow technician, including eligibility 32843
criteria, application requirements, and fees for renewal;32844

       (4) Specifications concerning and procedures for both of the 32845
following:32846

       (a) Approval of training agencies authorized to teach 32847
required courses to candidates for certification as backflow 32848
technicians or continuing education courses to certified backflow 32849
technicians;32850

       (b) Renewal of the approval described in division (B)(4)(a) 32851
of this section.32852

       (5) Education requirements that candidates for initial 32853
certification as backflow technicians must satisfy and continuing 32854
education requirements that certified backflow technicians must 32855
satisfy;32856

       (6) Grounds and procedures for denying, suspending, or 32857
revoking certification, or denying the renewal of certification, 32858
as a backflow technician;32859

       (7) Procedures for issuing administrative orders for the 32860
remedy of any violation of this section or any rule adopted 32861
pursuant to division (B) of this section, including, but not 32862
limited to, procedures for assessing a civil penalty authorized 32863
under division (D) of this section;32864

       (8) Any provision the superintendent determines is necessary 32865
to administer or enforce this section.32866

       (C) No individual shall engage in the installation, testing, 32867
or repair of any isolation backflow prevention device unless that 32868
individual possesses a valid certification as a backflow 32869
technician. This division does not apply with respect to the 32870
installation, testing, or repair of any containment backflow 32871
prevention device.32872

       (D) Whoever violates division (C) of this section or any rule 32873
adopted pursuant to division (B) of this section shall pay a civil 32874
penalty of not more than five thousand dollars for each day that 32875
the violation continues. The superintendent may, by order, assess 32876
a civil penalty under this division, or may request the attorney 32877
general to bring a civil action to impose the civil penalty in the 32878
court of common pleas of the county in which the violation 32879
occurred or where the violator resides.32880

       (E) Any action taken under a rule adopted pursuant to 32881
division (B)(6) of this section is subject to the appeal process 32882
of Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. An administrative order 32883
issued pursuant to rules adopted under division (B)(7) of this 32884
section and an appeal to that type of administrative order shall 32885
be executed in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.32886

       (F) As used in this section:32887

       (1) "Isolation backflow prevention device" means a device for 32888
the prevention of the backflow of liquids, solids, or gases that 32889
is regulated by the building code adopted pursuant to section 32890
3781.10 of the Revised Code and rules adopted pursuant to this 32891
section.32892

       (2) "Containment backflow prevention device" means a device 32893
for the prevention of the backflow of liquids, solids, or gases 32894
that is installed by the supplier of, or as a requirement of, any 32895
public water system as defined in division (A) of section 6109.01 32896
of the Revised Code.32897

       Sec. 3703.99.  Whoever violates sections 3703.01 to 3703.08 32898
of the Revised Code, or any rule the division of laborindustrial 32899
compliance is required to enforce under such sections, shall be 32900
fined not less than ten nor more than one hundred dollars or 32901
imprisoned for not less than ten nor more than ninety days, or 32902
both. No person shall be imprisoned under this section for the 32903
first offense, and the prosecution always shall be as for a first 32904
offense unless the affidavit upon which the prosecution is 32905
instituted contains the allegation that the offense is a second or 32906
repeated offense.32907

       Sec. 3704.035. (A) There is hereby created in the state 32908
treasury the Title V clean air fund. Except as otherwise provided 32909
in division (K) of section 3745.11 of the Revised Code, all moneys 32910
collected under divisions (C), (D), (F), (G), (H), (I), and (J)32911
division (B) of that section and under section 3745.111 of the 32912
Revised Code, and any gifts, grants, or contributions received by 32913
the director of environmental protection for the purposes of the 32914
fund, shall be credited to the fund. The director shall expend 32915
moneys from the fund exclusively to pay the cost of administering 32916
and enforcing the laws of this state pertaining to the prevention, 32917
control, and abatement of air pollution and rules adopted and 32918
terms and conditions of permits, variances, and orders issued 32919
under those laws, except that the director shall not expend moneys 32920
credited to the fund for the administration and enforcement of 32921
motor vehicle inspection and maintenance programs and requirements 32922
under sections 3704.14, 3704.141, 3704.16, 3704.161, and 3704.162 32923
of the Revised Code.32924

       Specifically, theThe director shall expend all moneys 32925
credited to the fund from fees assessed under section 3745.11 of 32926
the Revised Code pursuant to the Title V permit program 32927
established under section 3704.036 of the Revised Code, and from 32928
any gifts, grants, or contributions received for the purposes of 32929
that program, solely to administer and enforce thatthe Title V32930
program pursuant to the federal Clean Air Act, this chapter, and 32931
rules adopted under it, except as costs relating to enforcement 32932
are limited by the federal Clean Air Act. The director shall 32933
establish separate and distinct accounting for all such moneys.32934

       (B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 32935
non-Title V clean air fund. All money collected under divisions 32936
(D), (F), (G), (H), (I), and (J) of section 3745.11 of the Revised 32937
Code shall be credited to the fund. In addition, any gifts, 32938
grants, or contributions received by the director for the purposes 32939
of the fund shall be credited to the fund.32940

       The director shall expend money in the fund exclusively to 32941
pay the cost of administering and enforcing the laws of this state 32942
pertaining to the prevention, control, and abatement of air 32943
pollution, rules adopted under those laws, and terms and 32944
conditions of permits, variances, and orders issued under those 32945
laws. However, the director shall not expend money credited to the 32946
fund for the administration and enforcement of the Title V permit 32947
program established under this chapter and rules adopted under it 32948
or motor vehicle inspection and maintenance programs established 32949
under sections 3704.14, 3704.141, 3704.16, 3704.161, and 3704.162 32950
of the Revised Code.32951

       (C) The director shall report biennially to the general 32952
assembly the amounts of fees and other moneys credited to the fund32953
funds under this section and the amounts expended from itthem for 32954
each of the various air pollution control programs.32955

       Sec. 3705.24.  (A)(1) The publicdirector of health council32956
shall, in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code, 32957
adopt rules prescribing fees for the following items or services 32958
provided by the state office of vital statistics:32959

       (a) Except as provided in division (A)(4) of this section:32960

       (i) A certified copy of a vital record or a certification of 32961
birth;32962

       (ii) A search by the office of vital statistics of its files 32963
and records pursuant to a request for information, regardless of 32964
whether a copy of a record is provided;32965

       (iii) A copy of a record provided pursuant to a request.32966

       (b) Replacement of a birth certificate following an adoption, 32967
legitimation, paternity determination or acknowledgement, or court 32968
order;32969

       (c) Filing of a delayed registration of a vital record;32970

       (d) Amendment of a vital record that is requested later than 32971
one year after the filing date of the vital record;32972

       (e) Any other documents or services for which the public 32973
health councildirector considers the charging of a fee 32974
appropriate.32975

       (2) Fees prescribed under division (A)(1)(a) of this section 32976
shall not be less than twelve dollars.32977

       (3) Fees prescribed under division (A)(1) of this section 32978
shall be collected in addition to any fees required by sections 32979
3109.14 and 3705.242 of the Revised Code.32980

       (4) Fees prescribed under division (A) of this section shall 32981
not apply to certifications issued under division (H) of this 32982
section or copies provided under section 3705.241 of the Revised 32983
Code.32984

       (B) In addition to the fees prescribed under division (A) of 32985
this section or section 3709.09 of the Revised Code, the office of 32986
vital statistics, the board of health of a city or general health 32987
district, or a local registrar of vital statistics who is not a 32988
salaried employee of a city or general health district shall 32989
charge a five-dollar fee for each certified copy of a vital record 32990
and each certification of birth. This fee shall be deposited in 32991
the general operations fund created under section 3701.83 of the 32992
Revised Code and be used to support the operations, the 32993
modernization, and the automation of the vital records program in 32994
this state. A board of health or a local registrar shall forward 32995
all fees collected under this division to the department of health 32996
not later than thirty days after the end of each calendar quarter.32997

       (C) Except as otherwise provided in division (H) of this 32998
section, and except as provided in section 3705.241 of the Revised 32999
Code, fees collected by the director of health under sections 33000
3705.01 to 3705.29 of the Revised Code shall be paid into the 33001
state treasury to the credit of the general operations fund 33002
created by section 3701.83 of the Revised Code. Except as provided 33003
in division (B) or (I) of this section, money generated by the 33004
fees shall be used only for administration and enforcement of this 33005
chapter and the rules adopted under it. Amounts submitted to the 33006
department of health for copies of vital records or services in 33007
excess of the fees imposed by this section shall be dealt with as 33008
follows:33009

       (1) An overpayment of two dollars or less shall be retained 33010
by the department and deposited in the state treasury to the 33011
credit of the general operations fund created by section 3701.83 33012
of the Revised Code.33013

       (2) An overpayment in excess of two dollars shall be returned 33014
to the person who made the overpayment.33015

       (D) If a local registrar is a salaried employee of a city or 33016
a general health district, any fees the local registrar receives 33017
pursuant to section 3705.23 of the Revised Code shall be paid into 33018
the general fund of the city or the health fund of the general 33019
health district.33020

       Each local registrar of vital statistics, or each health 33021
district where the local registrar is a salaried employee of the 33022
district, shall be entitled to a fee for each birth, fetal death, 33023
death, or military service certificate properly and completely 33024
made out and registered with the local registrar or district and 33025
correctly copied and forwarded to the office of vital statistics 33026
in accordance with the population of the primary registration 33027
district at the last federal census. The fee for each birth, fetal 33028
death, death, or military service certificate shall be:33029

       (1) In primary registration districts of over two hundred 33030
fifty thousand, twenty cents;33031

       (2) In primary registration districts of over one hundred 33032
twenty-five thousand and less than two hundred fifty thousand, 33033
sixty cents;33034

       (3) In primary registration districts of over fifty thousand 33035
and less than one hundred twenty-five thousand, eighty cents;33036

       (4) In primary registration districts of less than fifty 33037
thousand, one dollar.33038

       (E) The director of health shall annually certify to the 33039
county treasurers of the several counties the number of birth, 33040
fetal death, death, and military service certificates registered 33041
from their respective counties with the names of the local 33042
registrars and the amounts due each registrar and health district 33043
at the rates fixed in this section. Such amounts shall be paid by 33044
the treasurer of the county in which the registration districts 33045
are located. No fees shall be charged or collected by registrars 33046
except as provided by this chapter and section 3109.14 of the 33047
Revised Code.33048

       (F) A probate judge shall be paid a fee of fifteen cents for 33049
each certified abstract of marriage prepared and forwarded by the 33050
probate judge to the department of health pursuant to section 33051
3705.21 of the Revised Code. The fee shall be in addition to the 33052
fee paid for a marriage license and shall be paid by the 33053
applicants for the license.33054

       (G) The clerk of a court of common pleas shall be paid a fee 33055
of one dollar for each certificate of divorce, dissolution, and 33056
annulment of marriage prepared and forwarded by the clerk to the 33057
department pursuant to section 3705.21 of the Revised Code. The 33058
fee for the certified abstract of divorce, dissolution, or 33059
annulment of marriage shall be added to the court costs allowed in 33060
these cases.33061

       (H) The fee for an heirloom certification of birth issued 33062
pursuant to division (B)(2) of section 3705.23 of the Revised Code 33063
shall be an amount prescribed by rule by the director of health 33064
plus any fee required by section 3109.14 of the Revised Code. In 33065
setting the amount of the fee, the director shall establish a 33066
surcharge in addition to an amount necessary to offset the expense 33067
of processing heirloom certifications of birth. The fee prescribed 33068
by the director of health pursuant to this division shall be 33069
deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the heirloom 33070
certification of birth fund which is hereby created. Money 33071
credited to the fund shall be used by the office of vital 33072
statistics to offset the expense of processing heirloom 33073
certifications of birth. However, the money collected for the 33074
surcharge, subject to the approval of the controlling board, shall 33075
be used for the purposes specified by the family and children 33076
first council pursuant to section 121.37 of the Revised Code.33077

       (I)(1) Four dollars of each fee collected by the board of 33078
health of a city or general health district for a certified copy 33079
of a vital record or a certification of birth shall be transferred 33080
to the office of vital statistics not later than thirty days after 33081
the end of each calendar quarter. The amount collected shall be 33082
used to support public health systems. Of each four dollars 33083
collected, one dollar shall be used by the director of health to 33084
pay subsidies to boards of health. The subsidies shall be 33085
distributed in accordance with the same formula established under 33086
section 3701.342 of the Revised Code for the distribution of state 33087
health district subsidy funds to boards of health and local health 33088
departments.33089

       (2) Four dollars of each fee collected by a local registrar 33090
of vital statistics who is not a salaried employee of a city or 33091
general health district, for a certified copy of a vital record or 33092
certification of birth, shall be transferred to the office of 33093
vital statistics not later than thirty days after the end of each 33094
calendar quarter. The amount collected shall be used to support 33095
public health systems.33096

       Sec. 3705.30.  (A) As used in this section:33097

       (1) "Freestanding birthing center" has the same meaning as in 33098
section 3702.513702.141 of the Revised Code.33099

       (2) "Hospital" means a hospital classified under section 33100
3701.07 of the Revised Code as a general hospital or children's 33101
hospital.33102

       (3) "Physician" means an individual authorized under Chapter 33103
4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or 33104
osteopathic medicine and surgery.33105

       (B) The director of health shall establish and, if funds for 33106
this purpose are available, implement a statewide birth defects 33107
information system for the collection of information concerning 33108
congenital anomalies, stillbirths, and abnormal conditions of 33109
newborns.33110

       (C) If the system is implemented under division (B) of this 33111
section, all of the following apply:33112

       (1) The director may require each physician, hospital, and 33113
freestanding birthing center to report to the system information 33114
concerning all patients under five years of age with a primary 33115
diagnosis of a congenital anomaly or abnormal condition. The 33116
director shall not require a hospital, freestanding birthing 33117
center, or physician to report to the system any information that 33118
is reported to the director or department of health under another 33119
provision of the Revised Code or Administrative Code.33120

       (2) On request, each physician, hospital, and freestanding 33121
birthing center shall give the director or authorized employees of 33122
the department of health access to the medical records of any 33123
patient described in division (C)(1) of this section. The 33124
department shall pay the costs of copying any medical records 33125
pursuant to this division.33126

       (3) The director may review vital statistics records and 33127
shall consider expanding the list of congenital anomalies and 33128
abnormal conditions of newborns reported on birth certificates 33129
pursuant to section 3705.08 of the Revised Code.33130

       (D) A physician, hospital, or freestanding birthing center 33131
that provides information to the system under division (C) of this 33132
section shall not be subject to criminal or civil liability for 33133
providing the information.33134

       Sec. 3706.19.  (A) There is hereby created in the Ohio air 33135
quality development authority the office of ombudsmanombudsperson33136
for the small business stationary source technical and 33137
environmental compliance assistance program created under section 33138
3704.18 of the Revised Code. The office shall exercise its duties 33139
independently of any other state agency.33140

       (B) Not later than one year after the effective date of this 33141
section, theThe governor, with the advice and consent of the 33142
senate, shall appoint the initial ombudsmanombudsperson. The33143
ombudsmanombudsperson shall serve for a term of four years. The 33144
person who is appointed to serve as the ombudsmanombudsperson33145
shall be experienced in management and in working with private 33146
enterprise and government entities, knowledgeable in the areas of 33147
arbitration and negotiation, experienced in interpreting statutory 33148
and regulatory law, and knowledgeable in investigation techniques 33149
and procedures, recordkeeping, and report writing. The ombudsman33150
ombudsperson may be the highest ranking managerial employee of the 33151
authority.33152

       (C) The ombudsmanombudsperson shall do all of the following:33153

       (1) Ensure that the goals of the program are being met;33154

       (2) Conduct independent evaluations of all aspects of the 33155
program;33156

       (3) Review the development and implementation of air 33157
pollution control requirements that have an impact on small 33158
businesses in the state and provide comments and recommendations, 33159
as appropriate, to the environmental protection agency and the 33160
United States environmental protection agency;33161

       (4) Facilitate and promote the participation of small 33162
businesses in the development of rules to be adopted under Chapter 33163
3704. of the Revised Code that affect small businesses;33164

       (5) Aid in the dissemination of information, including air 33165
pollution requirements and control technologies, to small 33166
businesses and other interested persons;33167

       (6) Provide free, confidential assistance on individual 33168
source problems and grievances presented by small businesses;33169

       (7) Aid in investigating and resolving complaints against, 33170
and disputes involving, the agency from small businesses;33171

       (8) Refer small businesses to the appropriate specialist in 33172
the program from whom they may obtain information and assistance 33173
on affordable alternative technologies, process changes, and 33174
products and operational methods to help reduce air pollution and 33175
accidental releases;33176

       (9) Work with trade associations and small businesses to 33177
effect voluntary compliance with the federal Clean Air Act, 33178
Chapter 3704. of the Revised Code, and rules adopted under it;33179

       (10) Work with other states to establish a network for 33180
sharing information on small businesses and their efforts to 33181
comply with the federal Clean Air Act and state and local air 33182
pollution control laws;33183

       (11) Seek public and private funding sources that can 33184
financially assist small businesses that are in need of moneys to 33185
comply with air pollution control laws;33186

       (12) Conduct studies to evaluate the impacts of the federal 33187
Clean Air Act on the state's economy, local economies, and small 33188
businesses.33189

       (D) There is hereby created in the state treasury the small 33190
business ombudsmanombudsperson fund, which shall consist of 33191
moneys transferred to it from the Title V clean air fund created 33192
in section 3704.035 of the Revised Code. Moneys in the fund shall 33193
be used exclusively for the purposes of this section.33194

       The director of environmental protection and the executive 33195
director of the authority annually shall determine the amount of 33196
moneys necessary for the operation of the office of the ombudsman33197
ombudsperson. Thereafter, the director shall request the director 33198
of budget and management to, and that director shall, transfer 33199
that amount of moneys from the Title V clean air fund to the small 33200
business ombudsmanombudsperson fund.33201

       (E) There is hereby created in the state treasury the small 33202
business assistance fund, which shall consist of moneys credited 33203
to it under division (K) of section 3745.11 of the Revised Code. 33204
The ombudsmanombudsperson shall use moneys in the fund solely to 33205
provide financial assistance to small businesses that have one 33206
hundred or fewer employees and that are having financial 33207
difficulty complying with the "Clean Air Act Amendments of 1990," 33208
104 Stat. 2399, 42 U.S.C.A. 7401, and regulations adopted under 33209
it.33210

       In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the33211
ombudsmanombudsperson shall adopt rules establishing procedures 33212
and requirements governing grants awarded under this division.33213

       Sec. 3709.03.  (A) There is hereby created in each general 33214
health district a district advisory council. A council shall 33215
consist of the president of the board of county commissioners, the 33216
chief executive of each municipal corporation not constituting a 33217
city health district, and the president of the board of township 33218
trustees of each township. The board of county commissioners, the 33219
legislative body of a municipal corporation, and the board of 33220
township trustees of a township may select an alternate from among 33221
themselves to serve if the president, the chief executive, or the 33222
president of the board of township trustees is unable to attend 33223
any meeting of the district advisory council. When attending a 33224
meeting on behalf of a council member, the alternate may vote on 33225
any matter on which the member is authorized to vote.33226

       The council shall organize by selecting a chair and secretary 33227
from among its members. The council shall adopt bylaws governing 33228
its meetings, the transaction of business, and voting procedures.33229

       The council shall meet annually in March at a place 33230
determined by the chair and the health commissioner for the 33231
purpose of electing the chair and the secretary, making necessary 33232
appointments to the board of health, receiving and considering the 33233
annual or special reports from the board of health, and making 33234
recommendations to the board of health or to the department of 33235
health in regard to matters for the betterment of health and 33236
sanitation within the district or for needed legislation. The 33237
secretary of the council shall notify the district health 33238
commissioner and the director of health of the proceedings of such 33239
meeting.33240

       Special meetings of the council shall be held on the order of 33241
any of the following:33242

       (1) The director of health;33243

       (2) The board of health;33244

       (3) The lesser of five or a majority of district advisory 33245
council members.33246

       The district health commissioner shall attend all meetings of 33247
the council.33248

       (B) The district advisory council shall appoint four members 33249
of the board of health, and the remaining member shall be 33250
appointed by the health district licensing council established 33251
under section 3709.41 of the Revised Code. At least one member of 33252
the board of health shall be a physician. Appointments shall be 33253
made with due regard to equal representation of all parts of the 33254
district.33255

       (C) If at an annual or special meeting at which a member of 33256
the board of health is to be appointed fewer than a majority of 33257
the members of the district council are present, the council, by 33258
the majority vote of council members present, may organize an 33259
executive committee to make the appointment. An executive 33260
committee shall consist of five council members, including the 33261
president of the board of county commissioners, the council chair, 33262
the council secretary, and two additional council members selected 33263
by majority affirmative vote of the council members present at the 33264
meeting. The additional members selected shall include one 33265
representative of municipal corporations in the district that are 33266
not city health districts and one representative of townships in 33267
the district. If an individual is eligible for more than one 33268
position on the executive committee due to holding a particular 33269
office, the individual shall fill one position on the committee 33270
and the other position shall be filled by a member selected by a 33271
majority affirmative vote of the council members present at the 33272
meeting. A council member's alternate for annual meetings may 33273
serve as the member's alternate at meetings of the executive 33274
committee.33275

       Not later than thirty days after an executive committee is 33276
organized, the committee shall meet and the council chair shall 33277
present to the committee the matter of appointing a member of the 33278
board of health. The committee shall appoint the board member by 33279
majority affirmative vote. In the case of a combined health 33280
district, the executive committee shall appoint only members of 33281
the board of health that are to be appointed by the district 33282
advisory council, unless the contract for administration of health 33283
affairs in the combined district provides otherwise. If a majority 33284
affirmative vote is not reached within thirty days after the 33285
executive committee is organized, the director of health shall 33286
appoint the member of the board of health under the authority 33287
conferred by section 3709.03 of the Revised Code.33288

       If the council fails to meet or appoint a member of the board 33289
of health as required by this section or section 3709.02 of the 33290
Revised Code, the director of health, with the consent of the 33291
public health council, may appoint the member.33292

       Sec. 3709.04.  If in any general health district the district 33293
advisory council fails to meet or to select a board of health, the 33294
director of health may, with the consent of the public health 33295
council, appoint a board of health for such district which shall 33296
have and exercise all powers conferred on a board of health of a 33297
general health district.33298

       Sec. 3709.06.  If any city fails to establish a board of 33299
health under section 3709.05 of the Revised Code, the director of 33300
health, with the approval of the public health council, may 33301
appoint a health commissioner for such city, and fix histhe 33302
commissioner's salary and term of office. Such commissioner shall 33303
have the same powers and perform the duties granted to or imposed 33304
upon a board of health of a city health district, except that 33305
rules, regulations, or orders of a general nature, made by himthe 33306
commissioner and required to be published, shall be approved by 33307
the director. The salary of such commissioner and all necessary 33308
expenses incurred by himthe commissioner in performing the duties 33309
of the board shall be paid by and be a valid claim against such 33310
city.33311

       Sec. 3709.085.  (A) The board of health of a city or general 33312
health district may enter into a contract with any political 33313
subdivision or other governmental agency to obtain or provide all 33314
or part of any services, including, but not limited to, 33315
enforcement services, for the purposes of Chapter 3704. of the 33316
Revised Code, the rules adopted and orders made pursuant thereto, 33317
or any other ordinances or rules for the prevention, control, and 33318
abatement of air pollution.33319

       (B)(1) As used in division (B)(2) of this section:33320

       (a) "Semipublic disposal system" means a disposal system that 33321
treats the sanitary sewage discharged from publicly or privately 33322
owned buildings or places of assemblage, entertainment, 33323
recreation, education, correction, hospitalization, housing, or 33324
employment, but does not include a disposal system that treats 33325
sewage in amounts of more than twenty-five thousand gallons per 33326
day; a disposal system for the treatment of sewage that is exempt 33327
from the requirements of section 6111.04 of the Revised Code 33328
pursuant to division (F)(7) of that section; or a disposal system 33329
for the treatment of industrial waste.33330

       (b) Terms defined in section 6111.01 of the Revised Code have 33331
the same meanings as in that section.33332

       (2) The board of health of a city or general health district 33333
may enter into a contract with the environmental protection agency 33334
to conduct on behalf of the agency inspection or enforcement 33335
services, for the purposes of Chapter 6111. of the Revised Code 33336
and rules adopted thereunder, for the disposal or treatment of 33337
sewage from semipublic disposal systems. The board of health of a 33338
city or general health district may charge a fee established 33339
pursuant to section 3709.09 of the Revised Code to be paid by the 33340
owner or operator of a semipublic disposal system for inspections 33341
conducted by the board pursuant to a contract entered into under 33342
division (B)(2) of this section, except that the board shall not 33343
charge a fee for those inspections conducted at any recreational 33344
vehicle park, recreation camp, or combined park-camp that is 33345
licensed under section 3729.05 of the Revised Code or at any 33346
manufactured home park that is licensed under section 3733.0333347
4781.27 of the Revised Code.33348

       Sec. 3709.09.  (A) The board of health of a city or general 33349
health district may, by rule, establish a uniform system of fees 33350
to pay the costs of any services provided by the board.33351

       The fee for issuance of a certified copy of a vital record or 33352
a certification of birth shall not be less than the fee prescribed 33353
for the same service under division (A)(1) of section 3705.24 of 33354
the Revised Code and shall include the fees required by division 33355
(B) of section 3705.24 and section 3109.14 of the Revised Code.33356

       Fees for services provided by the board for purposes 33357
specified in sections 3701.344, 3711.10, 3718.06, 3729.07, 33358
3730.03, and 3749.04 of the Revised Code shall be established in 33359
accordance with rules adopted under division (B) of this section. 33360
The district advisory council, in the case of a general health 33361
district, and the legislative authority of the city, in the case 33362
of a city health district, may disapprove any fee established by 33363
the board of health under this division, and any such fee, as 33364
disapproved, shall not be charged by the board of health.33365

       (B) The publicdirector of health council shall adopt rules 33366
under section 111.15 of the Revised Code that establish fee 33367
categories and a uniform methodology for use in calculating the 33368
costs of services provided for purposes specified in sections 33369
3701.344, 3711.10, 3718.06, 3729.07, 3730.03, and 3749.04 of the 33370
Revised Code. In adopting the rules, the public health council33371
director shall consider recommendations it receives from advisory 33372
boards established either by statute or the director of health for 33373
entities subject to the fees.33374

       (C) Except when a board of health establishes a fee by 33375
adopting a rule as an emergency measure, the board of health shall 33376
hold a public hearing regarding each proposed fee for a service 33377
provided by the board for a purpose specified in section 3701.344, 33378
3711.10, 3718.06, 3729.07, 3730.03, or 3749.04 of the Revised 33379
Code. If a public hearing is held, at least twenty days prior to 33380
the public hearing the board shall give written notice of the 33381
hearing to each entity affected by the proposed fee. The notice 33382
shall be mailed to the last known address of each entity and shall 33383
specify the date, time, and place of the hearing and the amount of 33384
the proposed fee.33385

       (D) If payment of a fee established under this section is not 33386
received by the day on which payment is due, the board of health 33387
shall assess a penalty. The amount of the penalty shall be equal 33388
to twenty-five per cent of the applicable fee.33389

       (E) All rules adopted by a board of health under this section 33390
shall be adopted, recorded, and certified as are ordinances of 33391
municipal corporations and the record thereof shall be given in 33392
all courts the same effect as is given such ordinances, but the 33393
advertisements of such rules shall be by publication in one 33394
newspaper of general circulation within the health district. 33395
Publication shall be made once a week for two consecutive weeks or 33396
as provided in section 7.16 of the Revised Code, and such rules 33397
shall take effect and be in force ten days from the date of the 33398
first publication.33399

       Sec. 3709.092. (A) A board of health of a city or general 33400
health district shall transmit to the director of health all fees 33401
or additional amounts that the public health councildirector33402
requires to be collected under sections 3701.344, 3718.06, 33403
3729.07, and 3749.04 of the Revised Code. The fees and amounts 33404
shall be transmitted according to the following schedule:33405

       (1) For fees and amounts received by the board on or after 33406
the first day of January but not later than the thirty-first day 33407
of March, transmit the fees and amounts not later than the 33408
fifteenth day of May; 33409

       (2) For fees and amounts received by the board on or after 33410
the first day of April but not later than the thirtieth day of 33411
June, transmit the fees and amounts not later than the fifteenth 33412
day of August; 33413

       (3) For fees and amounts received by the board on or after 33414
the first day of July but not later than the thirtieth day of 33415
September, transmit the fees and amounts not later than the 33416
fifteenth day of November; 33417

       (4) For fees and amounts received by the board on or after 33418
the first day of October but not later than the thirty-first day 33419
of December, transmit the fees and amounts not later than the 33420
fifteenth day of February of the following year. 33421

       (B) The director shall deposit the fees and amounts received 33422
under this section into the state treasury to the credit of the 33423
general operations fund created in section 3701.83 of the Revised 33424
Code. Each amount shall be used solely for the purpose for which 33425
it was collected.33426

       Sec. 3709.32.  The president of each board of health 33427
providing health services in one or more health districts and the 33428
chief executive officer of each health department providing health 33429
services in one or more health districts shall, on or before the 33430
first day of March of each year, certify the amounts expended 33431
during the preceding calendar year which qualify for state health 33432
district subsidy funds under section 3701.342 of the Revised Code 33433
and rules ofadopted by the publicdirector of health council. The 33434
director of health shall certify the amount payable under the 33435
state health district subsidy funds distribution formula adopted 33436
by the publicdirector of health council under section 3701.342 of 33437
the Revised Code to the director of budget and management for 33438
payment. Payment shall not be made unless:33439

       (A) The board or department has provided such information 33440
concerning services and costs as is requested by the director of 33441
health;33442

       (B) The certificate of the board of health or health 33443
department has been endorsed by the director of health;33444

       (C) The board or department has complied with section 33445
3701.342 of the Revised Code and public health council rules 33446
adopted by the director of health;33447

       (D) The municipal corporations and townships composing the 33448
health district have provided adequate local funding for public 33449
health services. The publicdirector of health council shall 33450
determine what constitutes adequate local funding, and may grant 33451
an exception to this requirement to a municipal corporation or 33452
township if unusually severe economic conditions prevent it from 33453
receiving adequate tax revenues to help support minimally 33454
acceptable public health services.33455

       No state health district subsidy funds shall be granted to 33456
any board or department that decreases its appropriation for 33457
public health services in anticipation of using state funds to 33458
provide public health services normally supported by local 33459
revenues.33460

       Sec. 3709.35.  If the director of health findscharges that 33461
the health commissioner or a member of the board of health of a 33462
health district is guilty of misfeasance, malfeasance, or 33463
nonfeasance or has failed to perform any or all of the duties 33464
required by sections 3701.10, 3701.29, 3701.81, 3707.08, 3707.14, 33465
3707.16, 3707.47, and 3709.01 to 3709.36 of the Revised Code, the 33466
director shall prefer a charge against the commissioner or board 33467
member before the public health council and shall notify the 33468
commissioner or board member as to the time and place at which 33469
such charges will be heard. If the councildirector, after 33470
hearing, finds the commissioner or board member guilty of the 33471
charge, it may remove such commissioner or member from office.33472

       If the lesser of three or one-fifth of the members of a 33473
district advisory council have reason to believe a member of the 33474
board of health of a general health district is guilty of 33475
misfeasance, malfeasance, or nonfeasance or has failed to perform 33476
any or all of the duties required by sections 3701.10, 3701.29, 33477
3701.81, 3707.14, 3707.16, 3707.47, and 3709.01 to 3709.36 of the 33478
Revised Code, the district advisory council members shall prefer a 33479
charge against the board member before the district advisory 33480
council and shall notify the board member as to the time and place 33481
at which such charges will be heard. If a majority of the council, 33482
after hearing, finds the board member guilty of the charge, it may 33483
remove the member from office.33484

       When any member of the board of health of a general or city 33485
health district is removed from office, the district advisory 33486
council or the chief executive of the city, upon notice of such 33487
removal, shall within thirty days after receipt of such notice 33488
fill the vacancy in accordance with section 3709.03 or 3709.05 of 33489
the Revised Code.33490

       Sec. 3710.01.  As used in this chapter:33491

       (A) "Asbestos" means the asbestiform varieties of chrysotile 33492
or serpentine, amosite or cummingtonitegrunerite, crocidolite or 33493
riebeckite, actinolite, tremolite, and anthophylite.33494

       (B) "Asbestos hazard abatement activity" means any activity 33495
involving the removal, renovation, enclosure, repair, or 33496
encapsulation of reasonably related friable asbestos-containing 33497
materials in an amount greater than fifty linear feet or fifty 33498
square feet. "Asbestos hazard abatement activity" also includes 33499
any such activity involving such asbestos-containing materials in 33500
an amount of fifty linear or fifty square feet or less if, when 33501
combined with any other reasonably related activity in terms of 33502
time and location of the activity, the total amount is in an 33503
amount greater than fifty linear or fifty square feet.33504

       (C) "Asbestos hazard abatement contractor" means a business 33505
entity or public entity that engages in or intends to engage in 33506
asbestos hazard abatement activities and that employs or 33507
supervises one or more asbestos hazard abatement specialists for 33508
asbestos hazard abatement activities. "Asbestos hazard abatement 33509
contractor" does not mean an employee of an asbestos hazard 33510
abatement contractor, a general contractor who subcontracts to an 33511
asbestos hazard abatement contractor an asbestos hazard abatement 33512
activity, or any individual who engages in asbestos hazard 33513
abatement activity in histhe individual's own home.33514

       (D) "Asbestos hazard abatement project" means one or more 33515
asbestos hazard abatement activities that are conducted by one 33516
asbestos hazard abatement contractor and that are reasonably 33517
related to each other.33518

       (E) "Asbestos hazard abatement specialist" means a person 33519
with responsibility for the oversight or supervision of asbestos 33520
hazard abatement activities, including asbestos hazard abatement 33521
project managers, hazard abatement project supervisors and 33522
foremen, and employees of school districts or other governmental 33523
or public entities who coordinate or directly supervise or oversee 33524
asbestos hazard abatement activities performed by school district, 33525
governmental, or other public employees in school district, 33526
governmental, or other public buildings.33527

       (F) "Asbestos hazard evaluation specialist" means a person 33528
responsible for the identification, detection, and assessment of 33529
asbestos-containing materials, the determination of appropriate 33530
response actions, or the preparation of asbestos management plans 33531
for the purpose of protecting the public health from the hazards 33532
associated with exposure to asbestos, including the performance of 33533
air and bulk sampling. This category of specialists includes 33534
management planners, health professionals, industrial hygienists, 33535
private consultants, or other individuals involved in asbestos 33536
risk identification or assessment or regulatory activities.33537

       (G) "Business entity" means a partnership, firm, association, 33538
corporation, sole proprietorship, or other business concern.33539

       (H) "Public entity" means the state or any of its political 33540
subdivisions or any agency or instrumentality of either.33541

       (I) "License" means a document issued by the department of 33542
health to a business entity or public entity affirming that the 33543
entity has met the requirements set forth in this chapter to 33544
engage in asbestos hazard abatement activities as an asbestos 33545
hazard abatement contractor.33546

       (J) "Certificate" means:33547

       (1) A document issued by the department to an individual 33548
affirming that the individual has successfully completed the 33549
training and other requirements set forth in this chapter to 33550
qualify as an asbestos hazard abatement specialist, an asbestos 33551
hazard evaluation specialist, an asbestos hazard abatement worker, 33552
an asbestos hazard abatement project designer, an asbestos hazard 33553
abatement air-monitoring technician, an approved asbestos hazard 33554
training provider, or other category of asbestos hazard specialist 33555
that the public health councildirector establishes by rule; or33556

       (2) A document issued by a training institution in accordance 33557
with rules adopted by the public health councildirector affirming 33558
that an individual has successfully completed the instruction 33559
required in all categories as provided in sections 3710.07 and 33560
3710.10 of the Revised Code.33561

       (K) "Person" means any individual, business entity, 33562
governmental body, or other public or private entity.33563

       (L) "Encapsulate" means to coat, bind, or resurface walls, 33564
ceilings, pipes, or other structures to prevent friable asbestos 33565
from becoming airborne.33566

       (M) "Friable asbestos-containing material" means any material 33567
that contains more than one per cent asbestos by weight and that 33568
can be crumbled, pulverized, or reduced to powder, when dry, by 33569
hand pressure.33570

       (N) "Enclosure" means the permanent confinement of friable 33571
asbestos-containing materials with an airtight barrier in an area 33572
not used as an air plenum.33573

       (O) "Renovation" means the removal or stripping of friable 33574
asbestos-containing materials used on any pipe, duct, boiler, 33575
tank, reactor, turbine, furnace, or load supporting member.33576

       (P) "Asbestos hazard abatement worker" means the person 33577
responsible in a nonsupervisory capacity for the performance of an 33578
asbestos hazard abatement activity.33579

       (Q) "Asbestos hazard abatement project designer" means the 33580
person responsible for the determination of the workscope, work 33581
sequence, or performance standards for an asbestos hazard 33582
abatement activity, including preparation of specifications, 33583
plans, and contract documents.33584

       (R) "Director" means the director of health or histhe 33585
director's authorized representative.33586

       (S) "Clearance air sampling" means an air sampling performed 33587
after the completion of any asbestos hazard abatement activity and 33588
prior to the reoccupation of the contained work area by the public 33589
and conducted for the purpose of protecting the public from the 33590
health hazards associated with exposure to friable 33591
asbestos-containing material.33592

       (T) "Asbestos hazard abatement air-monitoring technician" 33593
means the person who is responsible for environmental monitoring 33594
or work area clearance air sampling, including air monitoring 33595
performed to determine completion of response actions under the 33596
rules set forth in 40 C.F.R. 763 Subpart E, adopted by the United 33597
States environmental protection agency pursuant to the "Asbestos 33598
Hazard Emergency Response Act of 1986," Pub. L. 99-519, 100 Stat. 33599
2970. "Asbestos hazard abatement air-monitoring technician" does 33600
not mean an industrial hygienist or industrial hygienist in 33601
training, certified by the American board of industrial hygiene.33602

       Sec. 3710.02.  (A) Subject toIn accordance with Chapter 119. 33603
of the Revised Code, the publicdirector of health council shall, 33604
as itthe director determines necessary, adopt rules to carry out 33605
this chapter. The rules shall include all of the following:33606

       (1) Criteria and procedures for the certification of asbestos 33607
hazard abatement specialists, asbestos hazard evaluation 33608
specialists, asbestos hazard abatement workers, asbestos hazard 33609
abatement project designers, and asbestos hazard abatement 33610
air-monitoring technicians by the director of health;33611

       (2) Criteria and procedures for the director to examine the 33612
records of licensees, certificate holders, and asbestos hazard 33613
abatement training schools;33614

       (3) Procedures and criteria in addition to those provided in 33615
this chapter for the approval of courses for asbestos hazard 33616
training;33617

       (4) Fees for licenses, certifications, and course approvals 33618
in excess of the levels set in section 3710.05 of the Revised Code 33619
and fees for the certification of asbestos hazard abatement 33620
air-monitoring technicians;33621

       (5) Levels of asbestos exposure or other circumstances 33622
constituting a public health emergency that authorize the director 33623
to issue an emergency order under division (B) of section 3710.13 33624
of the Revised Code;33625

       (6) Employee training standards, work practices that reduce 33626
the risk of contamination and recontamination of the environment, 33627
record-keeping requirements, action levels, project clearance 33628
levels, and other requirements that asbestos hazard abatement 33629
contractors, asbestos hazard abatement specialists, asbestos 33630
hazard evaluation specialists, asbestos hazard abatement project 33631
designers, asbestos hazard abatement air-monitoring technicians, 33632
asbestos hazard abatement workers, and other persons involved with 33633
asbestos hazard abatement activities must follow for the 33634
prevention of hazard to the public;33635

       (7) Worker protection equipment and practices and other 33636
health and safety standards for employees and agents of public 33637
entities coming in contact with asbestos through asbestos hazard 33638
abatement activity;33639

       (8) Standards of acceptable conduct for licensees and 33640
certificate holders engaged in asbestos hazard abatement or 33641
evaluation activities and acts and omissions that constitute 33642
grounds for the suspension or revocation of a license or 33643
certificate, or the denial of an application or renewal of a 33644
license or certificate in addition to those otherwise provided in 33645
this chapter;33646

       (9) Training requirements for asbestos hazard abatement 33647
project designers and asbestos hazard abatement air-monitoring 33648
technicians;33649

       (10)(a) Subject to the condition specified in division 33650
(A)(10)(b) of this section, a standard requiring that the amount 33651
of asbestos contained in the air in areas accessible to the public 33652
in buildings that are owned, operated, or leased by a public 33653
entity be not more than ten thousand asbestos fibers longer than 33654
five microns per cubic meter of air calculated as an eight-hour 33655
time-weighted average, which is measured during periods of normal 33656
building occupancy, and a requirement that measurement of airborne 33657
asbestos be made by either or both of the following methods, 33658
provided that results derived by use of the method described in 33659
division (A)(10)(a)(i) of this section supersede results derived 33660
by use of the method described in division (A)(10)(a)(ii) of this 33661
section if both methods are used and the methods yield conflicting 33662
results concerning the presence of fibers in the tested air that 33663
may not be asbestos:33664

       (i) Transmission electron microscopy in the manner described 33665
in the measurement protocol established by the United States 33666
environmental protection agency as set forth in 40 C.F.R. 763;33667

       (ii) Optical phase contrast microscopy in the manner 33668
described in the measurement protocol established by the United 33669
States occupational safety and health administration as set forth 33670
in 29 C.F.R. 1910.33671

       (b) The public health councildirector periodically shall 33672
review the standard required by division (A)(10)(a) of this 33673
section and determine whether and how it should be amended and how 33674
it shall be used in conjunction with visual and physical 33675
assessment of asbestos-containing materials located in buildings 33676
that are owned, operated, or leased by a public entity to 33677
determine appropriate and cost-effective response actions to such 33678
asbestos-containing materials and shall amend the standard if it 33679
determines that such action is necessary.33680

       (11) Other rules that the public health councildirector33681
determines necessary for the implementation of this chapter and to 33682
protect the public health from the hazards associated with 33683
exposure to asbestos.33684

       (B) The director shall do all of the following:33685

       (1) Administer and enforce this chapter and the rules of the 33686
public health council adopted pursuant thereto;33687

       (2) Develop comprehensive programs and policies for the 33688
control and prevention of nonoccupational exposure of the public 33689
to friable asbestos-containing materials;33690

       (3) Ensure that persons are trained and licensed or 33691
certified, where appropriate, in accordance with this chapter and 33692
the rules of the public health council adopted pursuant thereto;33693

       (4) Examine those records of licensed asbestos hazard 33694
abatement contractors, certified asbestos hazard abatement 33695
specialists, asbestos hazard evaluation specialists, asbestos 33696
hazard abatement project designers, asbestos hazard abatement 33697
air-monitoring technicians, and asbestos hazard training courses 33698
in accordance with rules adopted by the public health council33699
director as hethe director determines necessary to determine 33700
compliance with this chapter and the rules of the public health 33701
council adopted pursuant thereto;33702

       (5) Prohibit and prevent improper asbestos hazard abatement 33703
procedures and require the modification or alteration of asbestos 33704
abatement procedures as they relate to this chapter and the rules 33705
of the public health council adopted pursuant thereto;33706

       (6) Collect and disseminate health education information 33707
relating to safe management of asbestos hazards;33708

       (7) Accept and administer grants from the federal government 33709
and other sources, both public and private, for carrying out any 33710
of histhe director's functions;33711

       (8) As hethe director determines appropriate, conduct 33712
on-site inspections at any location where an asbestos hazard 33713
abatement activity is planned, in progress, or has been completed, 33714
at any location where a public health emergency may occur, is 33715
occurring, or has occurred, or to evaluate the performance or 33716
compliance of any person subject to this chapter;33717

       (9) Conduct an on-site audit of each asbestos hazard training 33718
provider approved pursuant to this chapter, at least once 33719
biennially, during an actual course conducted by the provider 33720
within the state;33721

       (10) Cooperate and assist in investigations, as such relate 33722
to this chapter, conducted by local law enforcement agencies, the 33723
Ohio environmental protection agency, the United States 33724
occupational safety and health administration, and other local, 33725
state, and federal agencies.33726

       Sec. 3710.04.  (A) To qualify for an asbestos hazard 33727
abatement contractor's license, a business entity or public entity 33728
shall meet the requirements of this section.33729

       (B) Each employee or agent of the business entity or public 33730
entity applying for a license who will come in contact with 33731
asbestos or will be responsible for an asbestos hazard abatement 33732
project shall:33733

       (1) Be familiar with all applicable state and federal 33734
standards for asbestos hazard abatement projects;33735

       (2) Have successfully completed the course of instruction on 33736
asbestos hazard abatement activities, for their particular 33737
certification, approved by the department of health pursuant to 33738
section 3710.10 of the Revised Code, have passed an examination 33739
approved by the department, and demonstrate to the department that 33740
hethe employee or agent is capable of complying with all 33741
applicable standards of this state, the United States 33742
environmental protection agency, and the United States 33743
occupational safety and health administration.33744

       (C) A business entity or public entity applying for an 33745
asbestos hazard abatement contractor's license shall, in addition 33746
to the other requirements of this section, provide at least one 33747
asbestos hazard abatement specialist, certified pursuant to this 33748
chapter and the rules of the public health council adopted 33749
pursuant theretounder it, for each asbestos hazard abatement 33750
project, and demonstrate to the satisfaction of the department 33751
that hethe applicant:33752

       (1) Has access to at least one asbestos disposal site 33753
approved by the Ohio environmental protection agency that is 33754
sufficient for the deposit of all asbestos waste that hethe 33755
applicant will generate during the term of the license;33756

       (2) Is sufficiently qualified to safely remove asbestos, 33757
demonstrated by reliability as an asbestos hazard abatement 33758
contractor, possesses a work program that prevents the 33759
contamination or recontamination of the environment and protects 33760
the public health from the hazards of exposure to asbestos, 33761
possesses evidence of certification of each individual employee or 33762
agent who will be responsible for others who may come in contact 33763
with friable asbestos-containing materials, possesses evidence of 33764
training of workers required by section 3710.07 of the Revised 33765
Code, and has prior successful experience in asbestos hazard 33766
abatement projects or equivalent qualifications as determined by 33767
rulein accordance with rules adopted by the publicdirector of33768
health council;33769

       (3) Possesses a worker protection program consistent with 33770
requirements established by the public health councildirector if 33771
the contractor is a public entity, and a worker protection program 33772
consistent with the requirements of the United States occupational 33773
safety and health administration if the contractor is a business 33774
entity;33775

       (4) Is registered as a business entity with the secretary of 33776
state.33777

       (D) No applicant for licensure as an asbestos hazard 33778
abatement contractor, in order to meet the requirements of this 33779
chapter, shall list an employee of another contractor.33780

       (E) The business entity or public entity shall meet any other 33781
standards that the public health councildirector, by rule, sets.33782

       (F) Nothing in this chapter or the rules adopted pursuant 33783
thereto relating to asbestos hazard abatement project designers 33784
shall be interpreted as authorizing or permitting an individual 33785
who is certified as an asbestos hazard abatement project designer 33786
to perform the services of a registered architect or professional 33787
engineer unless that person is registered under Chapter 4703. or 33788
4733. of the Revised Code to perform such services.33789

       Sec. 3710.05.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in this 33790
chapter, no person shall engage in any asbestos hazard abatement 33791
activities in this state unless licensed or certified pursuant to 33792
this chapter.33793

       (B) To apply for licensure as an asbestos abatement 33794
contractor or certification as an asbestos hazard abatement 33795
specialist, an asbestos hazard evaluation specialist, an asbestos 33796
hazard abatement project designer, or an asbestos hazard abatement 33797
air-monitoring technician, a person shall do all of the following:33798

       (1) Submit a completed application to the department of 33799
health, on a form provided by the department;33800

       (2) Pay the requisite fee as provided in division (D) of this 33801
section;33802

       (3) Submit any other information the publicdirector of33803
health council by rule requires.33804

       (C) The application form for a business entity or public 33805
entity applying for an asbestos hazard abatement contractor's 33806
license shall include all of the following:33807

       (1) A description of the protective clothing and respirators 33808
that the public entity will use to comply with rules adopted by 33809
the public health councildirector and that the business entity 33810
will use to comply with requirements of the United States 33811
occupational safety and health administration;33812

       (2) A description of procedures the business entity or public 33813
entity will use for the selection, utilization, handling, removal, 33814
and disposal of clothing to prevent contamination or 33815
recontamination of the environment and to protect the public 33816
health from the hazards associated with exposure to asbestos;33817

       (3) The name and address of each asbestos disposal site that 33818
the business entity or public entity might use during the year;33819

       (4) A description of the site decontamination procedures that 33820
the business entity or public entity will use;33821

       (5) A description of the asbestos hazard abatement procedures 33822
that the business entity or public entity will use;33823

       (6) A description of the procedures that the business entity 33824
or public entity will use for handling waste containing asbestos;33825

       (7) A description of the air-monitoring procedures that the 33826
business entity or public entity will use to prevent contamination 33827
or recontamination of the environment and to protect the public 33828
health from the hazards of exposure to asbestos;33829

       (8) A description of the final clean-up procedures that the 33830
business entity or public entity will use;33831

       (9) A list of all partners, owners, and officers of the 33832
business entity along with their social security numbers;33833

       (10) The federal tax identification number of the business 33834
entity or the public entity.33835

       (D) The fees to be charged to each public entity and business 33836
entity and their employees and agents for licensure, 33837
certification, approval, and renewal of licenses, certifications, 33838
and approvals granted under this chapter, subject to division 33839
(A)(4) of section 3710.02 of the Revised Code, are:33840

       (1) Seven hundred fifty dollars for asbestos hazard abatement 33841
contractors;33842

       (2) Two hundred dollars for asbestos hazard abatement project 33843
designers;33844

       (3) Fifty dollars for asbestos hazard abatement workers;33845

       (4) Two hundred dollars for asbestos hazard abatement 33846
specialists;33847

       (5) Two hundred dollars for asbestos hazard evaluation 33848
specialists; and33849

       (6) Nine hundred dollars for approval or renewal of asbestos 33850
hazard training providers.33851

       (E) Notwithstanding division (A) of this section, no business 33852
entity which engages in asbestos hazard abatement activities 33853
solely at its own place of business is required to be licensed as 33854
an asbestos hazard abatement contractor provided that the business 33855
entity is required to and does comply with all applicable 33856
standards of the United States environmental protection agency and 33857
the United States occupational safety and health administration 33858
and provided further that all persons employed by the business 33859
entity on the activity meet the requirements of this chapter.33860

       Sec. 3710.051.  No person shall enter into an agreement to 33861
perform any aspect of an asbestos hazard abatement project unless 33862
the agreement is written and contains at least all of the 33863
following:33864

       (A) A requirement that all persons working on the project are 33865
licensed or certified by the department of health as required by 33866
this chapter;33867

       (B) A requirement that all project clearance levels and 33868
sampling be in accordance with the public health council rules 33869
adopted by the director of health;33870

       (C) A requirement that all clearance air-monitoring be 33871
conducted by asbestos hazard abatement air-monitoring technicians 33872
or asbestos hazard evaluation specialists certified by the 33873
department.33874

       Sec. 3710.06.  (A) Within fifteen business days after 33875
receiving an application, the department of health shall 33876
acknowledge receipt of the application and notify the applicant of 33877
any deficiency in the application. Within sixty calendar days 33878
after receiving a completed application, including all additional 33879
information requested by the department, the department shall 33880
issue a license or certificate or deny the application. The 33881
department shall issue only one license or certificate that is in 33882
effect at one time to a business entity and its principal officers 33883
and a public entity and its principal officers.33884

       (B)(1) The department shall deny an application if it 33885
determines that the applicant has not demonstrated the ability to 33886
comply fully with all applicable federal and state requirements 33887
and all requirements, procedures, and standards established by the 33888
publicdirector of health council in this chapter.33889

       (2) The department shall deny any application for an asbestos 33890
hazard abatement contractor's license if the applicant or an 33891
officer or employee of the applicant has been convicted of a 33892
felony under any state or federal law designed to protect the 33893
environment.33894

       (3) The department shall send all denials of an application 33895
by certified mail to the applicant. If the department receives a 33896
timely request for a hearing from the applicant, as provided in 33897
division (D) of section 3710.13 of the Revised Code, the 33898
department shall hold a hearing in accordance with Chapter 119. of 33899
the Revised Code.33900

       (C) In an emergency that results from a sudden, unexpected 33901
event that is not a planned asbestos hazard abatement project, the 33902
department may waive the requirements for a license or 33903
certificate. For the purposes of this division, "emergency" 33904
includes operations necessitated by nonroutine failures of 33905
equipment or by actions of fire and emergency medical personnel 33906
pursuant to duties within their official capacities. Any person 33907
who performs an asbestos hazard abatement activity under emergency 33908
conditions shall notify the director within three days after 33909
performance thereof.33910

       (D) Each license or certificate issued under this chapter 33911
expires one year after the date of issue, but each licensee or 33912
certificate holder may apply to the department for the extension 33913
of histhe holder's license or certificate under the standard 33914
renewal procedures of Chapter 4745. of the Revised Code.33915

       To qualify for renewal of a license or certificate issued 33916
under this chapter, each licensee or certificate holder shall send 33917
the appropriate renewal fee set forth in division (D) of section 33918
3710.05 of the Revised Code or as adopted by rule by the public 33919
health councildirector pursuant to division (A)(4) of section 33920
3710.02 of the Revised Code.33921

       Certificate holders also shall successfully complete an 33922
annual renewal course approved by the department pursuant to 33923
section 3710.10 of the Revised Code.33924

       (E) The department may charge a fee in addition to those 33925
specified in division (D) of section 3710.05 of the Revised Code 33926
or in rule ofrules adopted by the public health councildirector33927
pursuant to division (A)(4) of section 3710.02 of the Revised Code 33928
if the licensee or certificate holder applies for renewal after 33929
the expiration thereof or requests a reissuance of any license or 33930
certificate, provided that no such fee shall exceed the original 33931
fees by more than fifty per cent.33932

       Sec. 3710.07.  (A) Prior to engaging in any asbestos hazard 33933
abatement project, an asbestos hazard abatement contractor shall 33934
do all of the following:33935

       (1) Prepare a written respiratory protection program as 33936
defined by the publicdirector of health council pursuant to rule, 33937
and make the program available to the department of health, and 33938
workers at the job site if the contractor is a public entity or 33939
prepare a written respiratory protection program, consistent with 33940
29 C.F.R. 1910.134 and make the program available to the 33941
department, and workers at the job site if the contractor is a 33942
business entity;33943

       (2) Ensure that each worker who will be involved in any 33944
asbestos hazard abatement project has been examined within the 33945
preceding year and has been declared by a physician to be 33946
physically capable of working while wearing a respirator;33947

       (3) Ensure that each of the contractor's employees or agents 33948
who will come in contact with asbestos-containing materials or 33949
will be responsible for an asbestos hazard abatement project 33950
receives the appropriate certification or licensure required by 33951
this chapter and the following training:33952

       (a) An initial course approved by the department pursuant to 33953
section 3710.10 of the Revised Code, completed before engaging in 33954
any asbestos hazard abatement project; and33955

       (b) An annual review course approved by the department 33956
pursuant to section 3710.10 of the Revised Code.33957

       (B) After obtaining or renewing a license, an asbestos hazard 33958
abatement contractor shall notify the department, on a form 33959
approved by the director of health, at least ten days before 33960
beginning each asbestos hazard abatement project conducted during 33961
the term of the contractor's license.33962

       (C) In addition to any other fee imposed under this chapter, 33963
an asbestos hazard abatement contractor shall pay, at the time of 33964
providing notice under division (B) of this section, the 33965
department a fee of sixty-five dollars for each asbestos hazard 33966
abatement project conducted.33967

       Sec. 3710.08.  (A) An asbestos hazard abatement contractor 33968
engaging in any asbestos hazard abatement project shall, during 33969
the course of the project:33970

       (1) Conduct each project in a manner that is in compliance 33971
with the requirements the director of environmental protection 33972
adopts pursuant to section 3704.03 of the Revised Code and the 33973
asbestos requirements of the United States occupational safety and 33974
health administration set forth in 29 C.F.R. 1926.58;33975

       (2) Comply with all applicable rules adopted by the public33976
director of health council pursuant to section 3710.02 of the 33977
Revised Code.33978

       (B) An asbestos hazard abatement contractor that is a public 33979
entity shall:33980

       (1) Provide workers with protective clothing and equipment 33981
and ensure that the workers involved in any asbestos hazard 33982
abatement project use the items properly. Protective clothing and 33983
equipment shall include:33984

       (a) Respirators approved by the national institute of 33985
occupational safety and health. These respirators shall be fit 33986
tested in accordance with requirements of the United States 33987
occupational safety and health administration set forth in 29 33988
C.F.R. 1926.58(h). At the request of an employee, the asbestos 33989
hazard abatement contractor shall provide the employee with a 33990
powered air purifying respirator, in which case, the testing 33991
requirements of division (B)(1)(a) of this section do not apply.33992

       (b) Items required by the publicdirector of health council33993
by rule as provided in division (A)(7) of section 3710.02 of the 33994
Revised Code.33995

       (2) Comply with all applicable standards of conduct and 33996
requirements adopted by the public health council and the director 33997
of health pursuant to section 3710.02 of the Revised Code.33998

       (C) An asbestos hazard abatement specialist engaging in any 33999
asbestos hazard abatement project shall, during the course of the 34000
project:34001

       (1) Conduct each project in a manner that will meet 34002
decontamination procedures, project containment procedures, and 34003
asbestos fiber dispersal methods as provided in division (A)(6) of 34004
section 3710.02 of the Revised Code;34005

       (2) Ensure that workers utilize, handle, remove, and dispose 34006
of the disposable clothing provided by abatement contractors in a 34007
manner that will prevent contamination or recontamination of the 34008
environment and protect the public health from the hazards of 34009
exposure to asbestos;34010

       (3) Ensure that workers utilize protective clothing and 34011
equipment and comply with the applicable health and safety 34012
standards set forth in division (A) of section 3710.08 of the 34013
Revised Code;34014

       (4) Ensure that there is no smoking, eating, or drinking in 34015
the work area;34016

       (5) Comply with all applicable standards of conduct and 34017
requirements adopted by the public health council and director of 34018
health pursuant to section 3710.02 of the Revised Code.34019

       (D) An asbestos hazard evaluation specialist engaged in the 34020
identification, detection, and assessment of asbestos-containing 34021
materials, the determination of appropriate response actions, or 34022
other activities associated with an abatement project or the 34023
preparation of management plans, shall comply with the applicable 34024
standards of conduct and requirements adopted by the public health 34025
council and the director of health pursuant to section 3710.02 of 34026
the Revised Code.34027

       (E) Every asbestos hazard abatement worker shall comply with 34028
all applicable standards adopted by the publicdirector of health34029
council pursuant to section 3710.02 of the Revised Code.34030

       (F) The department may, on a case-by-case basis, approve an 34031
alternative to the worker protection requirements of divisions 34032
(A), (B), and (C) of this section for an asbestos hazard abatement 34033
project conducted by a public entity, provided that the asbestos 34034
hazard abatement contractor submits the alternative procedure to 34035
the department in writing and demonstrates to the satisfaction of 34036
the department that the proposed alternative procedure provides 34037
equivalent worker protection.34038

       Sec. 3710.09.  (A) As a means of protecting the public, each 34039
asbestos hazard abatement contractor licensed under this chapter 34040
shall maintain records of all asbestos hazard abatement projects 34041
which hethe contractor performs and make these records available 34042
to the department of health upon request. The licensee shall 34043
maintain the records for at least thirty years.34044

       (B) The records required by this section shall include all of 34045
the following:34046

       (1) The name, social security number, and address of the 34047
person who supervised the asbestos hazard abatement project;34048

       (2) The names and social security numbers of all workers at 34049
the job site;34050

       (3) The location and description of the asbestos hazard 34051
abatement project and the amount of asbestos-containing material 34052
that was removed;34053

       (4) The starting and completion dates of each asbestos hazard 34054
abatement project;34055

       (5) A summary of the procedures that were used to comply with 34056
all applicable federal, state, and local standards;34057

       (6) The name and address of each asbestos disposal site where 34058
the waste containing asbestos was deposited;34059

       (7) Any other information that the publicdirector of health 34060
council, by rule, requires.34061

       Sec. 3710.10.  (A) No person other than the department of 34062
health shall conduct or offer to conduct any initial or review 34063
training course or examination required by this chapter unless 34064
that person is approved to sponsor the courses and examinations 34065
under this section. In conducting any such course or examination, 34066
the department and the approved person shall administer the 34067
courses and examinations according to the United States 34068
environmental protection agency "Model Accreditation Plan," 40 34069
C.F.R. 763, Subpart E, Appendix C, and the rules of the public34070
director of health council adopted pursuant to division (A)(3) of 34071
section 3710.02 of the Revised Code. A person may apply for 34072
approval or renewal of a course on the health and safety aspects 34073
of asbestos hazard abatement activities which meets the 34074
requirements of division (A)(3) of section 3710.07 of the Revised 34075
Code by submitting a written application on forms provided by the 34076
department.34077

       (B) In order to obtain or renew department approval, a person 34078
sponsoring a course shall substantially satisfy all of the 34079
following criteria:34080

       (1) Provide courses of instruction and examinations that meet 34081
the requirements of division (A) of this section;34082

       (2) Ensure that instruction is given or supervised by 34083
personnel with sufficient education and experience as determined, 34084
by rule,in rules adopted by the public health councildirector;34085

       (3) Maintain lists of students trained and the dates on which 34086
training occurred for at least twenty years, and make this 34087
information available to the department upon request.34088

       (C) In order to obtain or renew department approval, a person 34089
sponsoring an initial course or a review course annually shall 34090
apply to the department for approval. In applying, the person 34091
shall submit the fee set forth in division (D) of section 3710.05 34092
of the Revised Code along with any increase in fee adopted 34093
pursuant to division (A)(4) of section 3710.02 of the Revised 34094
Code.34095

       (D)(1) The department shall act or acknowledge receipt of an 34096
application within ten working days after receiving the 34097
application.34098

       (2) The department shall act on the application within ninety 34099
days after it is complete.34100

       (3) The department shall grant contingent approval of an 34101
application if the department determines the course substantially 34102
satisfies or will substantially satisfy the criteria in this 34103
chapter and the rules adopted by the public health council34104
director.34105

       (4) The department may deny or revoke approval of a course if 34106
the department determines the course does not or will not 34107
substantially satisfy the criteria in this chapter or the rules 34108
adopted by the public health councildirector.34109

       (5) The department shall grant final approval of a course 34110
only after an on-site audit by the department which reveals that 34111
the course substantially satisfies the criteria in this chapter 34112
and the rules adopted by the public health councildirector. 34113
Course approvals expire one year from the date of final approval 34114
under division (D)(5) of this section.34115

       (E) Each course approval issued under this section expires 34116
one year after the date of issue, but a person who received 34117
approval may apply to the department for renewal under the 34118
standard renewal procedures of Chapter 4745. of the Revised Code. 34119
The fee prescribed in section 3710.05 of the Revised Code must 34120
accompany the application.34121

       Sec. 3710.12.  Subject to the hearing provisions of this 34122
chapter, the department of health may deny, suspend, or revoke any 34123
license or certificate, or renewal thereof, if the licensee or 34124
certificate holder:34125

       (A) Fraudulently or deceptively obtains or attempts to obtain 34126
a license or certificate;34127

       (B) Fails at any time to meet the qualifications for a 34128
license or certificate;34129

       (C) Is violating or threatening to violate any provisions of 34130
any of the following:34131

       (1) This chapter or the rules of the public health council or34132
director of health adopted pursuant thereto;34133

       (2) The "National Emission Standard for Hazardous Air 34134
Pollutants" regulations of the United States environmental 34135
protection agency as the regulations pertain to asbestos; or34136

       (3) The regulations of the United States occupational safety 34137
and health administration as the regulations pertain to asbestos.34138

       Sec. 3710.13.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in Chapter 34139
119. of the Revised Code or this section, before the department of 34140
health takes any action under section 3710.12 of the Revised Code, 34141
it shall give the licensee or certificate holder against whom 34142
action is contemplated an opportunity for a hearing.34143

       Except as otherwise provided in this section, the department 34144
shall give notice and hold the hearing in accordance with Chapter 34145
119. of the Revised Code.34146

       (B) The department, without notice or hearing and in 34147
accordance with the rules ofadopted by the publicdirector of34148
health council, may issue an order requiring any action necessary 34149
to meet a public health emergency involving asbestos. Any person 34150
to whom an order is directed shall immediately comply with the 34151
order. Upon application to the director of health, the person 34152
shall be afforded a hearing as soon as possible, but no more than 34153
twenty days after receipt of the application by the director.34154

       (C) If the director determines, pursuant to division (B) of 34155
this section, that a public health emergency exists, hethe 34156
director may order, without a hearing, the denial, suspension, or 34157
revocation of any license or certificate issued under this chapter 34158
of the parties involved, provided that an opportunity for a 34159
hearing is provided to the affected party as soon as reasonably 34160
possible.34161

       (D) All proceedings under this chapter are subject to Chapter 34162
119. of the Revised Code, except that:34163

       (1) Upon the request of a licensee or certificate holder, the 34164
location of an adjudicatory hearing is the county seat of the 34165
county in which the licensee or certificate holder conducts 34166
business.34167

       (2) The director shall notify, by certified mail or personal 34168
delivery, a licensee or certificate holder that hethe licensee or 34169
certificate holder is entitled to a hearing if hethe licensee or 34170
certificate holder requests it, in writing, within ten days of the 34171
time that hethe licensee or certificate holder receives the 34172
notice. If the licensee or certificate holder requests such a 34173
hearing, the director shall set the hearing date no later than ten 34174
days after the director receives the request.34175

       (3) The director shall not apply for or receive a 34176
postponement or continuation of an adjudication hearing. If a 34177
licensee or certificate holder requests a postponement or 34178
continuation of an adjudication hearing, the director only shall 34179
grant the request if the licensee or certificate holder 34180
demonstrates extreme hardship in complying with the hearing date. 34181
If the director grants a postponement or continuation on the 34182
grounds of extreme hardship, the director shall include in the 34183
record of the case, the nature and cause of the extreme hardship.34184

       (4) In lieu of an adjudicatory hearing required by this 34185
chapter, a licensee or certificate holder, by no later than the 34186
date set for a hearing pursuant to division (A)(3) of this 34187
section, may by written request to the director, request that the 34188
matter be resolved by the licensee or certificate holder 34189
submitting documents, papers, and other written evidence to the 34190
director to support histhe licensee's or certificate holder's34191
claim.34192

       (5) If the director appoints a referee or an examiner to 34193
conduct a hearing, all of the following apply:34194

       (a) The examiner or referee shall serve, by certified mail 34195
and within three business days of the conclusion of the hearing, a 34196
copy of the written adjudication report and histhe referee's or 34197
examiner's recommendations, on the director and the affected 34198
licensee or certificate holder or the licensee's or certificate 34199
holder's attorney or other representative of record.34200

       (b) The licensee or certificate holder, within three business 34201
days of receipt of the report under division (D)(5)(a) of this 34202
section, may file with the director written objections to the 34203
report and recommendations.34204

       (c) The director shall consider any objections received under 34205
division (D)(5)(b) of this section prior to approving, modifying, 34206
or disapproving the report and recommendations. Within six 34207
business days of receiving the report under division (D)(5)(a) of 34208
this section, the director shall serve histhe director's order, 34209
by certified mail, on the affected licensee or certificate holder 34210
or the licensee's or certificate holder's attorney or other 34211
representative of record.34212

       (6) If the director conducts an adjudicatory hearing under 34213
this chapter, hethe director shall serve histhe director's34214
decision, by certified mail and within three business days of the 34215
conclusion of the hearing, on the affected licensee or certificate 34216
holder or the licensee's or certificate holder's attorney or other 34217
representative of record.34218

       (7) If no hearing is held, the director shall issue an order, 34219
by certified mail and within three business days of the last date 34220
possible for a hearing, based upon the record available to himthe 34221
director, to the affected licensee or certificate holder or the 34222
licensee's or certificate holder's attorney or other 34223
representative of record.34224

       (8) A licensee or certificate holder shall file a notice of 34225
appeal to an adverse adjudication decision within fifteen days 34226
after receipt of the director's order.34227

       Sec. 3710.17.  (A) Where any person is certified or licensed 34228
by the department of health to engage in asbestos hazard abatement 34229
or evaluation activity pursuant to this chapter, the liability of 34230
that person when performing such activity in accordance with 34231
procedures established pursuant to state or federal law for an 34232
injury to any individual or property caused or related to this 34233
activity shall be limited to acts or omissions of the person 34234
during the course of performing the activity which can be shown, 34235
based on a preponderance of the evidence, to have been negligent. 34236
For the purposes of this section, the demonstration that acts or 34237
omissions of a person performing asbestos hazard abatement or 34238
evaluation activities were in accordance with generally accepted 34239
practice and with procedures established by state or federal law 34240
at the time the abatement or evaluation activity was performed 34241
creates a rebuttable presumption that the acts or omissions were 34242
not negligent.34243

       (B) Where any person contracts with a certified asbestos 34244
hazard abatement specialist, asbestos hazard evaluation 34245
specialist, or other category of asbestos hazard specialist 34246
established by the publicdirector of health council, or a 34247
licensed asbestos hazard abatement contractor, the liability of 34248
that person for asbestos-related injuries caused by histhe 34249
person's contractee in the performance of asbestos hazard 34250
abatement or evaluation activities shall be limited to those 34251
asbestos-related injuries arising from acts which the person knew 34252
or could reasonably have been expected to know were not in 34253
accordance with generally accepted practice or with procedures 34254
established by state or federal law at the time the abatement 34255
activity took place.34256

       (C) Notwithstanding any other provisions of the Revised Code 34257
or rules of a court to the contrary, this section governs all 34258
claims for asbestos-related injuries arising from asbestos hazard 34259
abatement or evaluation activities.34260

       Sec. 3711.04. Each person seeking to operate a maternity 34261
unit, newborn care nursery, or maternity home shall apply to the 34262
director of health for a license under this chapter. The 34263
application shall be submitted in the form and manner prescribed 34264
by the public health councildirector in rules adopted under 34265
section 3711.12 of the Revised Code.34266

       A single application and license is required if an applicant 34267
will operate both a maternity unit and newborn care nursery.34268

       Sec. 3711.06. The director of health shall inspect each 34269
maternity unit, newborn care nursery, or maternity home for which 34270
a person has applied for an initial license under section 3711.04 34271
of the Revised Code prior to issuing the license. Inspections 34272
shall be conducted in accordance with inspection criteria, 34273
procedures, and guidelines adopted by the public health council34274
director under section 3711.12 of the Revised Code.34275

       Sec. 3711.08. A license issued under this chapter is valid 34276
for three years, unless earlier revoked or suspended under section 34277
3711.14 of the Revised Code. The license may be renewed in the 34278
manner prescribed by the publicdirector of health council in 34279
rules adopted under section 3711.12 of the Revised Code. The 34280
license renewal fee specified in the rules shall be paid not later 34281
than sixty days after the director of health mails an invoice for 34282
the fee to the license holder. A penalty of ten per cent of the 34283
amount of the renewal fee shall be assessed for each month the fee 34284
is overdue.34285

       Sec. 3711.12. (A) The publicdirector of health council shall 34286
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as 34287
the councildirector considers necessary to implement the 34288
requirements of this chapter for licensure and operation of 34289
maternity units, newborn care nurseries, and maternity homes. The 34290
rules shall include provisions for the following:34291

       (1) Licensure application forms and procedures;34292

       (2) Renewal procedures, including procedures that address the 34293
right of the director of health, at the director's sole 34294
discretion, to conduct an inspection prior to renewal of a 34295
license;34296

       (3) Initial license fees and license renewal fees;34297

       (4) Fees for inspections conducted by the director under 34298
section 3711.10 of the Revised Code;34299

       (5) Safety standards, quality-of-care standards, and 34300
quality-of-care data reporting requirements;34301

       (6) Reporting and auditing requirements;34302

       (7) Inspection criteria, procedures, and guidelines;34303

       (8) Any other rules necessary to implement this chapter.34304

       (B) When adopting rules under this section, the public health 34305
councildirector shall give consideration to recommendations 34306
regarding obstetric and newborn care issued by the American 34307
college of obstetricians and gynecologists; American academy of 34308
pediatrics; American academy of family physicians; American 34309
society of anesthesiologists; American college of nurse-midwives; 34310
United States centers for disease control and prevention; 34311
association of women's health, obstetric and neonatal nurses; and 34312
association of perioperative registered nurses, or their successor 34313
organizations. The councildirector shall also consider the 34314
recommendations of the maternity and newborn advisory council 34315
established in section 3711.20 of the Revised Code.34316

       Sec. 3711.21. The maternity and newborn advisory council 34317
shall do all of the following:34318

       (A) Advise and consult with the director of health in the 34319
development of rules to be presented to the public health council 34320
for proposed adoptionadopted under this chapter;34321

       (B) Advise and consult with the director concerning the 34322
implementation and enforcement of this chapter;34323

       (C) Advise and consult with the director in the development 34324
of inspection criteria, procedures, and guidelines to be used in 34325
enforcement of this chapter;34326

       (D) Advise and consult with the director regarding 34327
recommendations to be presented to the public health council34328
regarding improving maternity and newborn care in this state;34329

       (E) Prepare and submit to the director an annual report 34330
evaluating the department's enforcement of this chapter.34331

       Sec. 3712.03.  (A) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the 34332
Revised Code, the publicdirector of health council shall adopt, 34333
and may amend and rescind, rules:34334

       (1) Providing for the licensing of persons or public agencies 34335
providing hospice care programs within this state by the 34336
department of health and for the suspension and revocation of 34337
licenses;34338

       (2) Establishing a license fee and license renewal fee, 34339
neither of which shall, except as provided in division (B) of this 34340
section, exceed six hundred dollars. The fees shall cover the 34341
three-year period during which an existing license is valid as 34342
provided in division (B) of section 3712.04 of the Revised Code.34343

       (3) Establishing an inspection fee not to exceed, except as 34344
provided in division (B) of this section, one thousand seven 34345
hundred fifty dollars;34346

       (4) Establishing requirements for hospice care program 34347
facilities and services;34348

       (5) Providing for a waiver of the requirement for the 34349
provision of physical, occupational, or speech or language therapy 34350
contained in division (A)(2) of section 3712.01 of the Revised 34351
Code when the requirement would create a hardship because such 34352
therapy is not readily available in the geographic area served by 34353
the provider of a hospice care program;34354

       (6) Providing for the granting of licenses to provide hospice 34355
care programs to persons and public agencies that are accredited 34356
or certified to provide such programs by an entity whose standards 34357
for accreditation or certification equal or exceed those provided 34358
for licensure under this chapter and rules adopted under it;34359

       (7) Establishing interpretive guidelines for each rule.34360

       (B) Subject to the approval of the controlling board, the34361
public health councildirector may establish fees in excess of the 34362
maximum amounts specified in this section, provided that the fees 34363
do not exceed those amounts by greater than fifty per cent.34364

       (C) The department of health shall:34365

       (1) Grant, suspend, and revoke licenses for hospice care 34366
programs in accordance with this chapter and rules adopted under 34367
it;34368

       (2) Make such inspections as are necessary to determine 34369
whether hospice care program facilities and services meet the 34370
requirements of this chapter and rules adopted under it; and34371

       (3) Implement and enforce this chapter and rules adopted 34372
under it.34373

       Sec. 3712.04.  (A) Every person or public agency that 34374
proposes to provide a hospice care program shall apply to the 34375
department of health for a license. Application shall be made on 34376
forms prescribed and provided by the department, shall include 34377
such information as the department requires, and shall be 34378
accompanied by the license fee established by rules of the public34379
director of health council adopted under division (A) of section 34380
3712.03 of the Revised Code.34381

       The department shall grant a license to the applicant if the 34382
applicant is in compliance with this chapter and rules adopted 34383
under it.34384

       (B) A license granted under this section shall be valid for 34385
three years. Application for renewal of a license shall be made at 34386
least ninety days before the expiration of the license in the same 34387
manner as for an initial license. The department shall renew the 34388
license if the applicant meets the requirements of this chapter 34389
and rules adopted under it.34390

       (C) Subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the 34391
department may suspend or revoke a license if the licensee made 34392
any material misrepresentation in the application for the license 34393
or no longer meets the requirements of this chapter or rules 34394
adopted under it.34395

       (D) A hospital, nursing home, home for the aged, county 34396
medical care facility, or other health facility or agency that 34397
provides a hospice care program shall be licensed to provide a 34398
hospice care program under this section.34399

       (E) A nursing home licensed under Chapter 3721. of the 34400
Revised Code that does not hold itself out to be a hospice, does 34401
not hold itself out as providing a hospice care program, does not 34402
use the term hospice to describe or refer to its activities or 34403
facilities, and that does not provide all of the services 34404
enumerated in division (A) of section 3712.01 of the Revised Code 34405
is not subject to the licensing provisions of this chapter.34406

       Sec. 3712.09.  (A) As used in this section:34407

       (1) "Applicant" means a person who is under final 34408
consideration for employment with a hospice care program in a 34409
full-time, part-time, or temporary position that involves 34410
providing direct care to an older adult. "Applicant" does not 34411
include a person who provides direct care as a volunteer without 34412
receiving or expecting to receive any form of remuneration other 34413
than reimbursement for actual expenses.34414

       (2) "Criminal records check" and "older adult" havehas the 34415
same meaningsmeaning as in section 109.572 of the Revised Code.34416

       (3) "Older adult" means a person age sixty or older.34417

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (I) of this section, 34418
the chief administrator of a hospice care program shall request 34419
that the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification 34420
and investigation conduct a criminal records check with respect to34421
of each applicant. If an applicant for whom a criminal records 34422
check request is required under this division does not present 34423
proof of having been a resident of this state for the five-year 34424
period immediately prior to the date the criminal records check is 34425
requested or provide evidence that within that five-year period 34426
the superintendent has requested information about the applicant 34427
from the federal bureau of investigation in a criminal records 34428
check, the chief administrator shall request that the 34429
superintendent obtain information from the federal bureau of 34430
investigation as part of the criminal records check of the 34431
applicant. Even if an applicant for whom a criminal records check 34432
request is required under this division presents proof of having 34433
been a resident of this state for the five-year period, the chief 34434
administrator may request that the superintendent include 34435
information from the federal bureau of investigation in the 34436
criminal records check.34437

       (2) A person required by division (B)(1) of this section to 34438
request a criminal records check shall do both of the following:34439

       (a) Provide to each applicant for whom a criminal records 34440
check request is required under that division a copy of the form 34441
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the 34442
Revised Code and a standard fingerprint impression sheet 34443
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section, and obtain 34444
the completed form and impression sheet from the applicant;34445

       (b) Forward the completed form and impression sheet to the 34446
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 34447
investigation.34448

       (3) An applicant provided the form and fingerprint impression 34449
sheet under division (B)(2)(a) of this section who fails to 34450
complete the form or provide fingerprint impressions shall not be 34451
employed in any position for which a criminal records check is 34452
required by this section.34453

       (C)(1) Except as provided in rules adopted by the public34454
director of health council in accordance with division (F) of this 34455
section and subject to division (C)(2) of this section, no hospice 34456
care program shall employ a person in a position that involves 34457
providing direct care to an older adult if the person has been 34458
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:34459

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 34460
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 34461
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 34462
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 34463
2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 34464
2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 34465
2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 34466
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 34467
2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code.34468

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 34469
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 34470
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (C)(1)(a) of 34471
this section.34472

       (2)(a) A hospice care program may employ conditionally an 34473
applicant for whom a criminal records check request is required 34474
under division (B) of this section prior to obtaining the results 34475
of a criminal records check regarding the individual, provided 34476
that the program shall request a criminal records check regarding 34477
the individual in accordance with division (B)(1) of this section 34478
not later than five business days after the individual begins 34479
conditional employment. In the circumstances described in division 34480
(I)(2) of this section, a hospice care program may employ 34481
conditionally an applicant who has been referred to the hospice 34482
care program by an employment service that supplies full-time, 34483
part-time, or temporary staff for positions involving the direct 34484
care of older adults and for whom, pursuant to that division, a 34485
criminal records check is not required under division (B) of this 34486
section.34487

       (b) A hospice care program that employs an individual 34488
conditionally under authority of division (C)(2)(a) of this 34489
section shall terminate the individual's employment if the results 34490
of the criminal records check requested under division (B) of this 34491
section or described in division (I)(2) of this section, other 34492
than the results of any request for information from the federal 34493
bureau of investigation, are not obtained within the period ending 34494
thirty days after the date the request is made. Regardless of when 34495
the results of the criminal records check are obtained, if the 34496
results indicate that the individual has been convicted of or 34497
pleaded guilty to any of the offenses listed or described in 34498
division (C)(1) of this section, the program shall terminate the 34499
individual's employment unless the program chooses to employ the 34500
individual pursuant to division (F) of this section. Termination 34501
of employment under this division shall be considered just cause 34502
for discharge for purposes of division (D)(2) of section 4141.29 34503
of the Revised Code if the individual makes any attempt to deceive 34504
the program about the individual's criminal record.34505

       (D)(1) Each hospice care program shall pay to the bureau of 34506
criminal identification and investigation the fee prescribed 34507
pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 34508
for each criminal records check conducted pursuant to a request 34509
made under division (B) of this section.34510

       (2) A hospice care program may charge an applicant a fee not 34511
exceeding the amount the program pays under division (D)(1) of 34512
this section. A program may collect a fee only if both of the 34513
following apply:34514

       (a) The program notifies the person at the time of initial 34515
application for employment of the amount of the fee and that, 34516
unless the fee is paid, the person will not be considered for 34517
employment;34518

       (b) The medical assistance program established under Chapter 34519
5111. of the Revised Code does not reimburse the program the fee 34520
it pays under division (D)(1) of this section.34521

       (E) The report of a criminal records check conducted pursuant 34522
to a request made under this section is not a public record for 34523
the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not 34524
be made available to any person other than the following:34525

       (1) The individual who is the subject of the criminal records 34526
check or the individual's representative;34527

       (2) The chief administrator of the program requesting the 34528
criminal records check or the administrator's representative;34529

       (3) The administrator of any other facility, agency, or 34530
program that provides direct care to older adults that is owned or 34531
operated by the same entity that owns or operates the hospice care 34532
program;34533

       (4) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 34534
involved in a case dealing with a denial of employment of the 34535
applicant or dealing with employment or unemployment benefits of 34536
the applicant;34537

       (5) Any person to whom the report is provided pursuant to, 34538
and in accordance with, division (I)(1) or (2) of this section.34539

       (F) The publicdirector of health council shall adopt rules 34540
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement 34541
this section. The rules shall specify circumstances under which a 34542
hospice care program may employ a person who has been convicted of 34543
or pleaded guilty to an offense listed or described in division 34544
(C)(1) of this section but meets personal character standards set 34545
by the councildirector.34546

       (G) The chief administrator of a hospice care program shall 34547
inform each individual, at the time of initial application for a 34548
position that involves providing direct care to an older adult, 34549
that the individual is required to provide a set of fingerprint 34550
impressions and that a criminal records check is required to be 34551
conducted if the individual comes under final consideration for 34552
employment.34553

       (H) In a tort or other civil action for damages that is 34554
brought as the result of an injury, death, or loss to person or 34555
property caused by an individual who a hospice care program 34556
employs in a position that involves providing direct care to older 34557
adults, all of the following shall apply:34558

       (1) If the program employed the individual in good faith and 34559
reasonable reliance on the report of a criminal records check 34560
requested under this section, the program shall not be found 34561
negligent solely because of its reliance on the report, even if 34562
the information in the report is determined later to have been 34563
incomplete or inaccurate;34564

       (2) If the program employed the individual in good faith on a 34565
conditional basis pursuant to division (C)(2) of this section, the 34566
program shall not be found negligent solely because it employed 34567
the individual prior to receiving the report of a criminal records 34568
check requested under this section;34569

       (3) If the program in good faith employed the individual 34570
according to the personal character standards established in rules 34571
adopted under division (F) of this section, the program shall not 34572
be found negligent solely because the individual prior to being 34573
employed had been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense 34574
listed or described in division (C)(1) of this section.34575

       (I)(1) The chief administrator of a hospice care program is 34576
not required to request that the superintendent of the bureau of 34577
criminal identification and investigation conduct a criminal 34578
records check of an applicant if the applicant has been referred 34579
to the program by an employment service that supplies full-time, 34580
part-time, or temporary staff for positions involving the direct 34581
care of older adults and both of the following apply:34582

       (a) The chief administrator receives from the employment 34583
service or the applicant a report of the results of a criminal 34584
records check regarding the applicant that has been conducted by 34585
the superintendent within the one-year period immediately 34586
preceding the applicant's referral;34587

       (b) The report of the criminal records check demonstrates 34588
that the person has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an 34589
offense listed or described in division (C)(1) of this section, or 34590
the report demonstrates that the person has been convicted of or 34591
pleaded guilty to one or more of those offenses, but the hospice 34592
care program chooses to employ the individual pursuant to division 34593
(F) of this section.34594

       (2) The chief administrator of a hospice care program is not 34595
required to request that the superintendent of the bureau of 34596
criminal identification and investigation conduct a criminal 34597
records check of an applicant and may employ the applicant 34598
conditionally as described in this division, if the applicant has 34599
been referred to the program by an employment service that 34600
supplies full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for positions 34601
involving the direct care of older adults and if the chief 34602
administrator receives from the employment service or the 34603
applicant a letter from the employment service that is on the 34604
letterhead of the employment service, dated, and signed by a 34605
supervisor or another designated official of the employment 34606
service and that states that the employment service has requested 34607
the superintendent to conduct a criminal records check regarding 34608
the applicant, that the requested criminal records check will 34609
include a determination of whether the applicant has been 34610
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense listed or described 34611
in division (C)(1) of this section, that, as of the date set forth 34612
on the letter, the employment service had not received the results 34613
of the criminal records check, and that, when the employment 34614
service receives the results of the criminal records check, it 34615
promptly will send a copy of the results to the hospice care 34616
program. If a hospice care program employs an applicant 34617
conditionally in accordance with this division, the employment 34618
service, upon its receipt of the results of the criminal records 34619
check, promptly shall send a copy of the results to the hospice 34620
care program, and division (C)(2)(b) of this section applies 34621
regarding the conditional employment.34622

       Sec. 3713.01.  As used in sections 3713.01 to 3713.10 of the 34623
Revised Code:34624

       (A) "Person" has the same meaning as used in division (C) of 34625
section 1.59 of the Revised Code and also means any limited 34626
company, limited liability partnership, joint stock company, or 34627
other association.34628

       (B) "Bedding" means any upholstered furniture, any mattress, 34629
upholstered spring, comforter, bolster, pad, cushion, pillow, 34630
mattress protector, quilt, and any other upholstered article, to 34631
be used for sleeping, resting, or reclining purposes, and any 34632
glider, hammock, or other substantially similar article that is 34633
wholly or partly upholstered.34634

       (C) "Secondhand" means any article, or material, or portion 34635
thereof of which prior use has been made in any manner whatsoever.34636

       (D) "Remade, repaired, or renovated articles not for sale" 34637
means any article that is remade, repaired, or renovated for and 34638
is returned to the owner for the owner's own use.34639

       (E) "Sale," "sell," or "sold" shall, in the corresponding 34640
tense, mean sell, offer to sell, or deliver or consign in sale, or 34641
possess with intent to sell, or deliver in sale.34642

       (F) "Upholstered furniture" means any article of furniture 34643
wholly or partly stuffed or filled with material and that is used 34644
or intended for use for sitting, resting, or reclining purposes.34645

       (G) "Stuffed toy" means any article intended for use as a 34646
plaything or for an educational or recreational purpose that is 34647
wholly or partially stuffed with material.34648

       (H) "Tag" or "label" means any material prescribed by the 34649
superintendent of laborindustrial compliance to be attached to an 34650
article that contains information required under this chapter.34651

       Sec. 3713.02. (A) Except as provided in section 3713.05 of 34652
the Revised Code, no person shall import, manufacture, renovate, 34653
wholesale, or reupholster stuffed toys or articles of bedding in 34654
this state without first registering to do so with the 34655
superintendent of laborindustrial compliance in accordance with 34656
section 3713.05 of the Revised Code.34657

       (B) No person shall manufacture, offer for sale, sell, 34658
deliver, or possess for the purpose of manufacturing, selling, or 34659
delivering, an article of bedding or a stuffed toy that is not 34660
labeled in accordance with section 3713.08 of the Revised Code.34661

       (C) No person shall manufacture, offer for sale, sell, 34662
deliver, or possess for the purpose of manufacturing, selling, or 34663
delivering, an article of bedding or a stuffed toy that is falsely 34664
labeled.34665

       (D) No person shall sell or offer for sale any secondhand 34666
article of bedding or any secondhand stuffed toy that has not been 34667
sanitized in accordance with section 3713.08 of the Revised Code.34668

       (E) The possession of any article of bedding or stuffed toy 34669
in the course of business by a person required to obtain 34670
registration under this chapter, or by that person's agent or 34671
servant shall be prima-facie evidence of the person's intent to 34672
sell the article of bedding or stuffed toy.34673

       Sec. 3713.03. The superintendent of laborindustrial 34674
compliance in the department of commerce shall administer and 34675
enforce this chapter.34676

       Sec. 3713.04.  (A) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the 34677
Revised Code, the superintendent of laborindustrial compliance34678
shall:34679

       (1) Adopt rules pertaining to the definition, name, and 34680
description of materials necessary to carry out this chapter;34681

       (2) Determine the testing standards, fees, and charges to be 34682
paid for making any test or analysis required pursuant to section 34683
3713.08 of the Revised Code.34684

       (B) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the 34685
superintendent may adopt rules regarding the following:34686

       (1) Establishing an initial application fee or an annual 34687
registration renewal fee not more than fifty per cent higher than 34688
the fees set forth in section 4713.05 of the Revised Code;34689

       (2) Establishing standards, on a reciprocal basis, for the 34690
acceptance of labels and laboratory analyses from other states 34691
where the labeling requirements and laboratory analysis standards 34692
are substantially equal to the requirements of this state, 34693
provided the other state extends similar reciprocity to labels and 34694
laboratory analysis conducted under this chapter;34695

       (3) Any other rules necessary to administer and carry out 34696
this chapter.34697

       (C) The superintendent may do any of the following:34698

       (1) Issue administrative orders, conduct hearings, and take 34699
all actions necessary under the authority of Chapter 119. of the 34700
Revised Code for the administration of this chapter. The authority 34701
granted under this division shall include the authority to 34702
suspend, revoke, or deny registration under this chapter.34703

       (2) Establish and maintain facilities within the department 34704
of commerce to make tests and analysis of materials used in the 34705
manufacture of bedding and stuffed toys. The superintendent also 34706
may designate established laboratories in various sections of the 34707
state that are qualified to make these tests. If the 34708
superintendent exercises this authority, the superintendent shall 34709
adopt rules to determine the fees and charges to be paid for 34710
making the tests or analyses authorized under this section.34711

       (3) Exercise such other powers and duties as are necessary to 34712
carry out the purpose and intent of this chapter.34713

       Sec. 3713.05. (A) Applications to register to import, 34714
manufacture, renovate, wholesale, make, or reupholster stuffed 34715
toys or bedding in this state shall be made in writing on forms 34716
provided by the superintendent of laborindustrial compliance. The 34717
application shall be accompanied by a registration fee of fifty 34718
dollars per person unless the applicant engages only in 34719
renovation, in which case the registration fee shall be 34720
thirty-five dollars.34721

       (B) Upon receipt of the application and the appropriate fee, 34722
the superintendent shall register the applicant and assign a 34723
registration number to the registrant.34724

       (C) Notwithstanding section 3713.02 of the Revised Code and 34725
division (A) of this section, the following are exempt from 34726
registration:34727

       (1) An organization described in section 501(c)(3) of the 34728
"Internal Revenue Code of 1986," and exempt from income tax under 34729
section 501(a) of that code and that is operated exclusively to 34730
provide recreation or social services;34731

       (2) A person who is not regularly engaged in the business of 34732
manufacturing, making, wholesaling, or importing stuffed toys but 34733
who manufactures or makes stuffed toys as a leisure pursuit and 34734
who sells one hundred or fewer stuffed toys within one calendar 34735
year;34736

       (3) A person who is not regularly engaged in the business of 34737
manufacturing, making, wholesaling, or importing quilts, 34738
comforters, pillows, or cushions, but who manufactures or makes 34739
these items as a leisure pursuit and who sells five or fewer 34740
quilts, ten or fewer comforters, or twenty or fewer pillows or 34741
cushions within one calendar year.34742

       (D) Notwithstanding division (C)(2) or (3) of this section, a 34743
person exempt under that division must attach a label to each 34744
stuffed toy that contains all of the following information:34745

       (1) The person's name and address;34746

       (2) A statement that the person is not registered by the 34747
state of Ohio;34748

       (3) A statement that the contents of the product have not 34749
been inspected.34750

       Sec. 3713.06. (A) Any person required to register under 34751
division (A) of section 3713.02 of the Revised Code who imports 34752
bedding or stuffed toys into this state for retail sale or use in 34753
this state and any person required to register under division (A) 34754
of section 3713.02 of the Revised Code who manufactures bedding or 34755
stuffed toys in this state for retail sale or use in this state 34756
shall submit a report to the superintendent of laborindustrial 34757
compliance, in a form and manner prescribed by the superintendent. 34758
The form shall be submitted once every six months and shall show 34759
the total number of items of bedding or stuffed toys imported into 34760
this state or manufactured in this state. Each report shall be 34761
accompanied by a fee of four cents for each item of bedding or 34762
stuffed toy imported into this state or manufactured in this 34763
state.34764

       (B) Every importer, manufacturer, or wholesaler of stuffed 34765
toys or articles of bedding, and every mobile home and 34766
recreational vehicle dealer, conversion van dealer, secondhand 34767
dealer, and auction house shall retain records, designated by the 34768
superintendent in rule, for the time period established in rule.34769

       (C) Every importer, manufacturer, or wholesaler of stuffed 34770
toys or articles of bedding, and every mobile home and 34771
recreational vehicle dealer, conversion van dealer, secondhand 34772
dealer, and auction house shall make sufficient investigation of 34773
its records to ensure that the information reported to the 34774
superintendent under division (A) of this section is accurate.34775

       Sec. 3713.07. (A) Registration obtained under this chapter 34776
expires annually on the last day of the month in the month that 34777
the registration was obtained. The superintendent of labor34778
industrial compliance shall renew the registration in accordance 34779
with Chapter 4745. of the Revised Code.34780

       (B) Failure on the part of any registrant to renew 34781
registration prior to its expiration, when notified as required in 34782
this section, shall not deprive the person of the right to renewal 34783
within the ninety days that follow expiration, but the fee to be 34784
paid for renewal after its expiration shall be one hundred dollars 34785
plus the standard registration fee for the registrant.34786

       (C) If a registrant fails to renew registration within ninety 34787
days of the date that it expired, the former registrant shall 34788
comply with the registration requirements under section 3713.05 of 34789
the Revised Code to obtain valid registration.34790

       Sec. 3713.08. (A) All persons required to register under 34791
division (A) of section 3713.02 of the Revised Code manufacturing, 34792
making, or wholesaling bedding or stuffed toys, or both, that are 34793
sold or offered for sale shall have the material content of their 34794
products tested and analyzed at an established laboratory 34795
designated by the superintendent of laborindustrial compliance34796
before the bedding or stuffed toys are sold or offered for sale.34797

       (B) Every stuffed toy or item of bedding sold or offered for 34798
sale shall have a label affixed to it that reports the contents of 34799
the stuffed toy or bedding material in conformity with 34800
requirements established by the superintendent, a registration 34801
number, and any other identifying information as required by the 34802
superintendent.34803

       (C) The seller of any secondhand articles of bedding or 34804
stuffed toys shall sanitize all items in accordance with rules 34805
established by the superintendent prior to the sale of or the 34806
offering for sale of any secondhand articles.34807

       (D) This section does not apply to any of the following:34808

       (1) Persons who meet the qualifications of division (C)(2) or 34809
(3) of section 3713.05 of the Revised Code;34810

       (2) The sale of furniture more than fifty years old;34811

       (3) The sale of furniture from the home of the owner directly 34812
to the purchaser.34813

       Sec. 3713.09. (A) The superintendent of laborindustrial 34814
compliance may appoint inspectors and periodically inspect and 34815
investigate any establishment where bedding or stuffed toys are 34816
manufactured, made, remade, renovated, repaired, sanitized, sold, 34817
or offered for sale, or where previously used material is 34818
processed for use in the manufacture of bedding or stuffed toys.34819

       (1) Each inspector shall make a written report to the 34820
superintendent of each examination and inspection complete with 34821
the inspector's findings and recommendations. Inspectors may place 34822
"off sale" any article of bedding or stuffed toy offered for sale, 34823
or found in the possession of any person with the intent to sell, 34824
in violation of section 3713.02 of the Revised Code. Inspectors 34825
shall perform other duties related to inspection and examination 34826
as prescribed by the superintendent.34827

       (2) When articles are placed "off sale" under division (A)(1) 34828
of this section, they shall be tagged, and the tag shall not be 34829
removed except by an authorized representative of the division of 34830
laborindustrial compliance after the violator demonstrates to the 34831
satisfaction of the superintendent proof of compliance with the 34832
requirements of section 3713.08 of the Revised Code.34833

       (B)(1) When an inspector has cause to believe that any 34834
bedding or stuffed toy is not tagged or labeled in accordance with 34835
section 3713.08 of the Revised Code, the inspector may open any 34836
seam of the bedding or stuffed toy in question to examine the 34837
material used or contained within it and take a reasonable amount 34838
of the material for testing and analysis and, if necessary, 34839
examine any and all purchase records in order to determine the 34840
contents or the kind of material used in the bedding or stuffed 34841
toy in question. An inspector may seize and hold evidence of any 34842
article of bedding, stuffed toy, or material manufactured, made, 34843
possessed, renovated, remade, or repaired, sold, or offered for 34844
sale contrary to this chapter.34845

       (2) Immediately after seizing articles believed to be in 34846
violation of this chapter, the inspector immediately shall report 34847
the seizure to the superintendent. The superintendent shall hold a 34848
hearing in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code or 34849
make a ruling in the matter. If the superintendent finds that the 34850
article of bedding, stuffed toy, or material is not in violation 34851
of this chapter, the superintendent shall order the item or items 34852
returned to the owner. If the superintendent finds a violation of 34853
this chapter, the superintendent may do either of the following:34854

       (a) Return the articles to the owner for proper treatment, 34855
tagging or labeling, or other action as ordered by the 34856
superintendent, subject to the requirement that the articles be 34857
reinspected at cost to the owner, prior to being sold or offered 34858
for sale;34859

       (b) Report the violation to the appropriate prosecuting 34860
attorney or city law director.34861

       (C) The superintendent, at reasonable times and upon 34862
reasonable notice, may examine or cause to be examined the records 34863
of any importer, manufacturer, or wholesaler of stuffed toys or 34864
articles of bedding, mobile home and recreational vehicle dealer, 34865
conversion van dealer, secondhand dealer, or auction house to 34866
determine compliance with this chapter. The superintendent may 34867
enter into contracts, pursuant to procedures prescribed by the 34868
superintendent, with persons to examine these records to determine 34869
compliance with this chapter. These persons may collect and remit 34870
to the superintendent any amounts due under this chapter.34871

       (D) Records audited pursuant to division (C) of this section 34872
are confidential and shall not be disclosed except as required by 34873
section 149.43 of the Revised Code, or as the superintendent finds 34874
necessary for the proper administration of this chapter.34875

       (E) In the case of any investigation or examination, or both, 34876
that requires investigation or examination outside of this state 34877
of any importer, manufacturer, or wholesaler of stuffed toys or 34878
articles of bedding, or of any mobile home or recreational vehicle 34879
dealer, conversion van dealer, secondhand dealer, or auction 34880
house, the superintendent may require the investigated or examined 34881
person to pay the actual expense of the investigation or 34882
examination. The superintendent shall provide an itemized 34883
statement of actual expenses to the investigated or examined 34884
person.34885

       (F) Whenever the superintendent has reason to believe, from 34886
the superintendent's own information, upon complaint, or 34887
otherwise, that any person has engaged in, is engaging in, or is 34888
about to engage in any practice prohibited by this chapter, or 34889
when the superintendent has reason to believe that it is necessary 34890
for public health and safety, the superintendent may do any of the 34891
following:34892

       (1) Investigate violations of this chapter, and for that 34893
purpose, may subpoena witnesses in connection with the 34894
investigation. The superintendent may make application to the 34895
appropriate court of common pleas for an order enjoining the 34896
violation of this chapter, and upon a showing by the 34897
superintendent that any registrant or person acting in a manner 34898
that requires registration has violated or is about to violate 34899
this chapter, an injunction, restraining order, or other order as 34900
may be appropriate shall be granted by the court.34901

       (2) Compel by subpoena the attendance of witnesses to testify 34902
in relation to any matter over which the superintendent has 34903
jurisdiction and that is the subject of inquiry and investigation 34904
by the superintendent, and require the production of any book, 34905
paper, or document pertaining to the matter. In case any person 34906
fails to file any statement or report, obey any subpoena, give 34907
testimony, or produce any books, records, or papers as required by 34908
a subpoena, the court of common pleas of any county in the state, 34909
upon application made to it by the superintendent, shall compel 34910
obedience by attachment proceedings for contempt.34911

       (3) Suspend or revoke the registration of any importer, 34912
manufacturer, or wholesaler of stuffed toys or articles of 34913
bedding, mobile home or recreational vehicle dealer, conversion 34914
van dealer, secondhand dealer, or auction house;34915

       (4) Submit evidence of the violation or violations to any 34916
city prosecutor, city director of law, or prosecuting attorney 34917
with authority to prosecute. If the city prosecutor, city director 34918
of law, or prosecuting attorney with authority to prosecute fails 34919
to prosecute, the superintendent shall submit the evidence to the 34920
attorney general who may proceed with the prosecution.34921

       Sec. 3713.10.  All money collected under this chapter shall 34922
be deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the labor34923
industrial compliance operating fund created under section 121.084 34924
of the Revised Code.34925

       Sec. 3714.073. (A) In addition to the fee levied under 34926
division (A)(1) of section 3714.07 of the Revised Code, beginning 34927
July 1, 2005, there is hereby levied on the disposal of 34928
construction and demolition debris at a construction and 34929
demolition debris facility that is licensed under this chapter or 34930
at a solid waste facility that is licensed under Chapter 3734. of 34931
the Revised Code the following fees:34932

       (1) A fee of twelve and one-half cents per cubic yard or 34933
twenty-five cents per ton, as applicable, the proceeds of which 34934
shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the soil 34935
and water conservation district assistance fund created in section 34936
1515.14 of the Revised Code;34937

        (2) A fee of thirty-seven and one-half cents per cubic yard 34938
or seventy-five cents per ton, as applicable, the proceeds of 34939
which shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of 34940
the recycling and litter prevention fund created in section 34941
1502.023736.03 of the Revised Code.34942

        (B) The owner or operator of a construction and demolition 34943
debris facility or a solid waste facility, as a trustee of the 34944
state, shall collect the fees levied under this section and remit 34945
the money from the fees in the manner that is established in 34946
divisions (A)(2) and (3) of section 3714.07 of the Revised Code 34947
for the fee that is levied under division (A)(1) of that section 34948
and may enter into an agreement for the quarterly payment of the 34949
fees in the manner established in division (B) of that section for 34950
the quarterly payment of the fee that is levied under division 34951
(A)(1) of that section.34952

        (C) The money that is collected from a construction and 34953
demolition debris facility or a solid waste facility and remitted 34954
to a board of health or the director of environmental protection, 34955
as applicable, pursuant to this section shall be transmitted by 34956
the board or director to the treasurer of state not later than 34957
forty-five days after the receipt of the money to be credited to 34958
the soil and water conservation district assistance fund or the 34959
recycling and litter prevention fund, as applicable.34960

       (D) This section does not apply to the disposal of 34961
construction and demolition debris at a solid waste facility that 34962
is licensed under Chapter 3734. of the Revised Code if the owner 34963
or operator of the facility chooses to collect fees on the 34964
disposal of the construction and demolition debris that are 34965
identical to the fees that are collected under Chapters 343. and 34966
3734. of the Revised Code on the disposal of solid wastes at that 34967
facility.34968

       (E) This section does not apply to the disposal of source 34969
separated materials that are exclusively composed of reinforced or 34970
nonreinforced concrete, asphalt, clay tile, building or paving 34971
brick, or building or paving stone at a construction and 34972
demolition debris facility that is licensed under this chapter 34973
when either of the following applies:34974

       (1) The materials are placed within the limits of 34975
construction and demolition debris placement at the facility as 34976
specified in the license issued to the facility under section 34977
3714.06 of the Revised Code, are not placed within the unloading 34978
zone of the facility, and are used as a fire prevention measure in 34979
accordance with rules adopted by the director under section 34980
3714.02 of the Revised Code.34981

       (2) The materials are not placed within the unloading zone of 34982
the facility or within the limits of construction and demolition 34983
debris placement at the facility as specified in the license 34984
issued to the facility under section 3714.06 of the Revised Code, 34985
but are used as fill material, either alone or in conjunction with 34986
clean soil, sand, gravel, or other clean aggregates, in legitimate 34987
fill operations for construction purposes at the facility or to 34988
bring the facility up to a consistent grade.34989

       Sec. 3715.01.  (A) As used in this chapter:34990

       (1) "Public health council" means the public health council 34991
established by section 3701.33 of the Revised Code.34992

       (2) "Person" means an individual, partnership, corporation, 34993
or association.34994

       (3)(2) "Food" means:34995

       (a) Articles used for food or drink for humans or animals;34996

       (b) Chewing gum;34997

       (c) Articles used for components of any such articles.34998

       (4)(3) "Drug" means:34999

       (a) Articles recognized in the United States pharmacopoeia 35000
and national formulary, or any supplement to them;35001

       (b) Articles intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, 35002
mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease in humans or 35003
animals;35004

       (c) Articles, other than food, intended to affect the 35005
structure or any function of the body of humans or other animals;35006

       (d) Articles intended for use as a component of any of the 35007
foregoing articles, other than devices or their components, parts, 35008
or accessories.35009

       (5)(4) "Device," except when used in division (B)(1) of this 35010
section and in division (A)(10) of section 3715.52, division (F) 35011
of section 3715.60, division (A)(5) of section 3715.64, and 35012
division (C) of section 3715.67 of the Revised Code, means any 35013
instrument, apparatus, implement, machine, contrivance, implant, 35014
in vitro reagent, or other similar or related article, including 35015
any component, part, or accessory, that is any of the following:35016

       (a) Recognized in the United States pharmacopoeia and 35017
national formulary, or any supplement to them;35018

       (b) Intended for use in the diagnosis of disease or other 35019
conditions, or in the cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention 35020
of disease in humans or animals;35021

       (c) Intended to affect the structure or any function of the 35022
body of humans or animals, and that does not achieve any of its 35023
principal intended purposes through chemical action within or on 35024
the body of humans or animals and is not dependent upon being 35025
metabolized for the achievement of any of its principal intended 35026
purposes.35027

       (6)(5) "Cosmetic" means:35028

       (a) Articles intended to be rubbed, poured, sprinkled, or 35029
sprayed on, introduced into, or otherwise applied to the human 35030
body or any part thereof for cleansing, beautifying, promoting 35031
attractiveness, or altering the appearance;35032

       (b) Articles intended for use as a component of any such 35033
article, except that "cosmetic" does not include soap.35034

       (7)(6) "Label" means a display of written, printed, or 35035
graphic matter upon the immediate container, exclusive of package 35036
liners, of any article.35037

       Any word, statement, or other information required by this 35038
chapter to appear on the label must appear on the outside 35039
container or wrapper, if any, of the retail package of the 35040
article, or the label must be easily legible through the outside 35041
container or wrapper.35042

       (8)(7) "Labeling" means all labels and other written, 35043
printed, or graphic matter:35044

       (a) Upon an article or any of its containers or wrappers;35045

       (b) Accompanying such article.35046

       (9)(8) "Advertisement" means all representations disseminated 35047
in any manner or by any means, other than by labeling, for the 35048
purpose of inducing, or that are likely to induce, directly or 35049
indirectly, the purchase of food, drugs, devices, or cosmetics.35050

       (10)(9) "New drug" means:35051

       (a) Any drug the composition of which is such that the drug 35052
is not generally recognized among experts qualified by scientific 35053
training and experience to evaluate the safety of drugs, as safe 35054
for use under the conditions prescribed, recommended, or suggested 35055
in the labeling thereof;35056

       (b) Any drug the composition of which is such that the drug, 35057
as a result of investigation to determine its safety for use under 35058
such conditions, has become so recognized, but that has not, other 35059
than in an investigation, been used to a material extent or for a 35060
material time under such conditions.35061

       (11)(10) "Contaminated with filth" applies to any food, drug, 35062
device, or cosmetic that has not been protected as far as may be 35063
necessary by all reasonable means from dust, dirt, and all foreign 35064
or injurious substances.35065

       (12)(11) "Honey" means the nectar and saccharine exudation of 35066
plants that has been gathered, modified, and stored in a honeycomb 35067
by honeybees.35068

       (13)(12) "Finished dosage form" means the form of a drug that 35069
is, or is intended to be, dispensed or administered to humans or 35070
animals and requires no further manufacturing or processing other 35071
than packaging, reconstituting, or labeling.35072

       (14)(13)(a) "Manufacture" means the planting, cultivating, 35073
harvesting, processing, making, preparing, or otherwise engaging 35074
in any part of the production of a drug by propagating, 35075
compounding, converting, or processing, either directly or 35076
indirectly by extracting from substances of natural origin, or 35077
independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination 35078
of extraction and chemical synthesis, and includes the following:35079

       (i) Any packaging or repackaging of the drug or labeling or 35080
relabeling of its container, the promotion and marketing of the 35081
drug, and other activities incident to production;35082

       (ii) The preparation and promotion of commercially available 35083
products from bulk compounds for resale by pharmacies, licensed 35084
health professionals authorized to prescribe drugs, or other 35085
persons.35086

       (b) "Manufacture" does not include the preparation, 35087
compounding, packaging, or labeling of a drug by a pharmacist as 35088
an incident to either of the following:35089

       (i) Dispensing a drug in the usual course of professional 35090
practice;35091

       (ii) Providing a licensed health professional authorized to 35092
prescribe drugs with a drug for the purpose of administering to 35093
patients or for using the drug in treating patients in the 35094
professional's office.35095

       (15)(14) "Dangerous drug" has the same meaning as in section 35096
4729.01 of the Revised Code.35097

       (16)(15) "Generically equivalent drug" means a drug that 35098
contains identical amounts of the identical active ingredients, 35099
but not necessarily containing the same inactive ingredients, that 35100
meets the identical compendial or other applicable standard of 35101
identity, strength, quality, and purity, including potency, and 35102
where applicable, content uniformity, disintegration times, or 35103
dissolution rates, as the prescribed brand name drug and the 35104
manufacturer or distributor holds, if applicable, either an 35105
approved new drug application or an approved abbreviated new drug 35106
application unless other approval by law or from the federal food 35107
and drug administration is required.35108

       No drug shall be considered a generically equivalent drug for 35109
the purposes of this chapter if it has been listed by the federal 35110
food and drug administration as having proven bioequivalence 35111
problems.35112

       (17)(16) "Licensed health professional authorized to 35113
prescribe drugs" and "prescriber" have the same meanings as in 35114
section 4729.01 of the Revised Code.35115

       (18)(17) "Home" means the primary residence occupied by the 35116
residence's owner, on the condition that the residence contains 35117
only one stove or oven used for cooking, which may be a double 35118
oven, designed for common residence usage and not for commercial 35119
usage, and that the stove or oven be operated in an ordinary 35120
kitchen within the residence.35121

       (19)(18) "Potentially hazardous food" means a food that is 35122
natural or synthetic, to which any of the following apply:35123

       (a) It has a pH level greater than 4.6 when measured at 35124
seventy-five degrees fahrenheit or twenty-four degrees celsius.35125

       (b) It has a water activity value greater than 0.85.35126

       (c) It requires temperature control because it is in a form 35127
capable of supporting the rapid and progressive growth of 35128
infectious or toxigenic microorganisms, the growth and toxin 35129
production of clostridium botulinium, or in the case of raw shell 35130
eggs, the growth of salmonella enteritidis.35131

       (20)(19) "Cottage food production operation" means a person 35132
who, in the person's home, produces food items that are not 35133
potentially hazardous foods, including bakery products, jams, 35134
jellies, candy, fruit butter, and similar products specified in 35135
rules adopted pursuant to section 3715.025 of the Revised Code.35136

       (B) For the purposes of sections 3715.52 to 3715.72 of the 35137
Revised Code:35138

       (1) If an article is alleged to be misbranded because the 35139
labeling is misleading, or if an advertisement is alleged to be 35140
false because it is misleading, then in determining whether the 35141
labeling or advertisement is misleading, there shall be taken into 35142
account, among other things, not only representations made or 35143
suggested by statement, word, design, device, sound, or in any 35144
combination thereof, but also the extent to which the labeling or 35145
advertisement fails to reveal facts material in the light of such 35146
representations or material with respect to consequence which may 35147
result from the use of the article to which the labeling or 35148
advertisement relates under the conditions of use prescribed in 35149
the labeling or advertisement thereof or under such conditions of 35150
use as are customary or usual.35151

       (2) The provisions regarding the selling of food, drugs, 35152
devices, or cosmetics include the manufacture, production, 35153
processing, packing, exposure, offer, possession, and holding of 35154
any such article for sale; and the sale, dispensing, and giving of 35155
any such article, and the supplying or applying of any such 35156
articles in the conduct of any food, drug, or cosmetic 35157
establishment. The provisions do not prohibit a licensed health 35158
professional authorized to prescribe drugs from administering or 35159
personally furnishing a drug or device to a patient.35160

       (3) The representation of a drug, in its labeling or 35161
advertisement, as an antiseptic is a representation that it is a 35162
germicide, except in the case of a drug purporting to be, or 35163
represented as, an antiseptic for inhibitory use as a wet 35164
dressing, ointment, dusting powder, or other use that involves 35165
prolonged contact with the body.35166

       (4) Whenever jurisdiction is vested in the director of 35167
agriculture or the state board of pharmacy, the jurisdiction of 35168
the board shall be limited to the sale, offering for sale, giving 35169
away, delivery, or dispensing in any manner of drugs at the 35170
wholesale and retail levels or to the consumer and shall be 35171
exclusive in the case of such sale, offering for sale, giving 35172
away, delivery, or dispensing in any manner of drugs at the 35173
wholesale and retail levels or to the consumer in any place where 35174
prescriptions are dispensed or compounded.35175

       (5) To assist in effectuating the provisions of those 35176
sections, the director of agriculture or state board of pharmacy 35177
may request assistance or data from any government or private 35178
agency or individual.35179

       Sec. 3715.025. (A) A cottage food production operation shall 35180
not process acidified foods, low acid canned foods, or potentially 35181
hazardous foods.35182

       (B) The director of agriculture shall adopt rules in 35183
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code specifying the 35184
food items a cottage food production operation may produce that 35185
are in addition to the food items identified by name in division 35186
(A)(20)(19) of section 3715.01 of the Revised Code. The director 35187
shall not adopt rules that permit a cottage food production 35188
operation to produce any food that is a potentially hazardous 35189
food.35190

       Sec. 3715.60.  Food is misbranded within the meaning of 35191
sections 3715.01, 3715.02, 3715.022, and 3715.52 to 3715.72 of the 35192
Revised Code, if:35193

       (A) Its labeling is false or misleading in any particular.35194

       (B) It is offered for sale under the name of another food.35195

       (C) Its container is so made, formed, or filled as to be 35196
misleading.35197

       (D) It is an imitation of another food, unless its label 35198
bears in type of uniform size and prominence, the word 35199
"imitation," and immediately thereafter the name of the food 35200
imitated.35201

       (E) When it is in package form, it does not bear a label 35202
containing:35203

       (1) The name and place of business of the manufacturer, 35204
packer, or distributor;35205

       (2) An accurate statement of the quantity of the contents in 35206
terms of weight, measure, or numerical count; provided, that 35207
reasonable variations shall be permitted, and exemptions as to 35208
small packages shall be established by rules adopted by the 35209
director of agriculture;35210

       (3) In the case of food subject to section 3715.023 of the 35211
Revised Code, the information specified in that section.35212

       (F) Any word, statement, or other information required by or 35213
under authority of sections 3715.01, 3715.02, and 3715.52 to 35214
3715.72 of the Revised Code, to appear on the label or labeling is 35215
not prominently placed thereon with such conspicuousness as 35216
compared with other words, statements, designs, or devices, in the 35217
labeling, and in such terms as to render it likely to be read and 35218
understood by the ordinary individual under customary conditions 35219
of purchase and use.35220

       (G) It purports to be, or is represented as, a food for which 35221
a definition and standard of identity have been prescribed by 35222
statute, or by any rule adopted under an existing statute, or by 35223
rule as provided by section 3715.02 of the Revised Code, unless:35224

       (1) It conforms to such definition and standard.35225

       (2) Its label bears the name of the food specified in the 35226
definition and standard, and, insofar as may be required by such 35227
statute or rules, the common names of optional ingredients, other 35228
than spices, flavoring, and coloring, present in such food.35229

       (H) It purports to be or is represented as:35230

       (1) A food for which a standard of quality has been 35231
prescribed by rule as provided by section 3715.02 of the Revised 35232
Code and its quality falls below the standard unless its label 35233
bears, in the manner and form that the rules specify, a statement 35234
that it falls below the standard;35235

       (2) A food for which a standard or standards of fill of 35236
container have been prescribed by rule as provided by section 35237
3715.02 of the Revised Code, and it falls below the standard of 35238
fill of container applicable thereto, unless its label bears, in 35239
the manner and form that the rules specify, a statement that it 35240
falls below the standard.35241

       (I) It is not subject to the provisions of division (G) of 35242
this section, unless it bears labeling clearly giving:35243

       (1) The common or usual name of the food, if any;35244

       (2) In case it is fabricated from two or more ingredients, 35245
the common or usual name of each ingredient; except that spices, 35246
flavorings, and colorings, other than those sold as such, may be 35247
designated as spices, flavorings, and colorings, without naming 35248
each; provided, that, to the extent that compliance with the 35249
requirements of division (I)(2) of this section is impractical or 35250
results in deception or unfair competition, exemptions shall be 35251
established by rules adopted by the director; and provided that 35252
these requirements shall not apply to any carbonated beverage of 35253
which a full and correct statement of the ingredients, to the 35254
extent prescribed by division (I)(2) of this section, has been 35255
filed under oath with the director.35256

       (J) It purports to be or is represented to be for special 35257
dietary uses, unless its label bears such information concerning 35258
its vitamin, mineral, and other dietary properties as is provided 35259
by rules proposedadopted by the director and adopted by the 35260
public health council, as necessary, in order to fully inform 35261
purchasers as to its value for such uses.35262

       (K) It bears or contains any artificial flavoring, artificial 35263
coloring, or chemical preservative, unless it bears labeling 35264
stating that fact; provided, that to the extent that compliance 35265
with the requirements of this division is impracticable, 35266
exemptions shall be established by rules proposedadopted by the 35267
director and adopted by the public health council.35268

       Sec. 3715.61.  (A) Whenever the director of agriculture finds 35269
after investigation that the distribution in this state of any 35270
class of food may, by reason of contamination with microorganisms 35271
during manufacture, processing, or packing thereof in any 35272
locality, be injurious to health, and that such injurious nature 35273
cannot be adequately determined after such articles have entered 35274
commerce, and in such case only, hethe director shall propose 35275
regulations for adoption by the public health counciladopt rules35276
providing for the issuance, to manufacturers, processor, or 35277
packers of such class of food in such locality, of permits to 35278
which shall be attached such conditions governing the manufacture, 35279
processing, or packing of such class food, for such temporary 35280
period of time, as may be necessary to protect the public health; 35281
and after the effective date of such regulations, and during such 35282
temporary period, no person shall introduce or deliver for 35283
introduction into commerce any such food manufactured, processed, 35284
or packed by any such manufacturer, processor, or packer unless 35285
such manufacturer, processor, or packer holds a permit issued by 35286
the director as provided by such regulationsrules.35287

       (B) The director is authorized to suspend immediately upon 35288
notice any permit issued under authority of this section if it is 35289
found that any of the conditions of the permit have been violated. 35290
The holder of a permit so suspended shall be privileged at any 35291
time to apply for the reinstatement of such permit, and the 35292
director shall, immediately after prompt hearing and on inspection 35293
of the establishment, reinstate such permit if it is found that 35294
adequate measures have been taken to comply with and maintain the 35295
conditions of the permit, as originally issued, or as amended.35296

       (C) The director shall have access to any factory or 35297
establishment, the operator of which holds a permit from the 35298
director for the purpose of ascertaining whether or not the 35299
conditions of the permit are being complied with, and denial of 35300
access for such inspection shall be ground for suspension of the 35301
permit until such access is freely given by the operator.35302

       Sec. 3715.62.  Any poisonous or deleterious substance added 35303
to any food, except where such substance is required in the 35304
production thereof or cannot be avoided by good manufacturing 35305
practice, shall be unsafe for purposes of the application of 35306
division (B) of section 3715.59 of the Revised Code, but when such 35307
substance is so required or cannot be so avoided, the director of 35308
agriculture shall propose regulations for adoption by the public 35309
health counciladopt rules limiting the quantity therein or 35310
thereon to such extent as the director finds necessary for the 35311
protection of public health, and any quantity exceeding the limits 35312
so fixed shall also be deemed to be unsafe for purposes of the 35313
application of division (B) of section 3715.59 of the Revised 35314
Code. While such a regulation is in effect limiting the quantity 35315
of any such substance in the case of any food, such food shall 35316
not, by reason of bearing or containing any added amount of such 35317
substance, be considered to be adulterated within the meaning of 35318
division (A) of section 3715.59 of the Revised Code. In 35319
determining the quantity of such added substance to be tolerated 35320
in or on different articles of food, the director shall take into 35321
account the extent to which the use of such substance is required 35322
or cannot be avoided in the production of each such article and 35323
the other ways in which the consumer may be affected by the same 35324
or other poisonous or deleterious substances.35325

       Sec. 3715.68.  (A) An advertisement of food, drug, device, or 35326
cosmetic is false if it is false or misleading in any particular.35327

       (B) For the purpose of sections 3715.01 and 3715.52 to 35328
3715.72 of the Revised Code, the advertisement of a drug or device 35329
representing it to have any effect in albuminuria, appendicitis, 35330
arteriosclerosis, blood poison, bone disease, Bright's disease, 35331
cancer, carbuncles, cholecystitis, diabetes, diphtheria, dropsy, 35332
erysipelas, gallstones, heart and vascular diseases, high blood 35333
pressure, mastoiditis, measles, meningitis, mumps, nephritis, 35334
otitis media, paralysis, pneumonia, poliomyelitis (infantile 35335
paralysis), prostate gland disorders, pyelitis, scarlet fever, 35336
sexual impotence, sinus infection, tuberculosis, tumors, typhoid, 35337
uremia, venereal disease, is also false, except that no 35338
advertisement not in violation of division (A) of this section is 35339
false under this division if it is disseminated only to members of 35340
the medical, dental, pharmaceutical, or veterinary profession, or 35341
appears only in the scientific periodicals of these professions; 35342
provided, that whenever the director of agriculture determines 35343
that an advance in medical science has made any type of 35344
self-medication safe as to any of the diseases named above, the 35345
director shall propose regulations for adoption by the public 35346
health counciladopt rules authorizing the advertisement of drugs 35347
having curative or therapeutic effect for such disease, subject to 35348
such conditions and restrictions as the director may deem 35349
necessary in the interests of public health; provided, that this 35350
division shall not be construed as indicating that self-medication 35351
for diseases other than those named in this section is safe or 35352
efficacious.35353

       Sec. 3716.01.  As used in sections 3716.01 to 3716.07, 35354
inclusive, of the Revised Code:35355

       (A) "Department" means the department of health.35356

       (B) "Director" means the director of health.35357

       (C) "Person" includes an individual, partnership, 35358
corporation, or association.35359

       (D) "Hazardous substance" means any substance or mixture of 35360
substances which is toxic, corrosive, an irritant, strong 35361
sensitizer, flammable, or which generates pressure through 35362
decomposition, heat, or other means, if such substance or mixture 35363
of substances may cause substantial personal injury or illness 35364
during any customary or reasonably anticipated handling or use.35365

       (E) "Toxic" applies to any substance which has the inherent 35366
capacity to produce bodily injury to man through ingestion, 35367
inhalation, or absorption through any body surface.35368

       (F)(1) "Highly toxic" means any substance which falls within 35369
any of the following categories:35370

       (a) Produces death within fourteen days in half or more than 35371
half of a group of ten or more laboratory white rats each weighing 35372
between two hundred and three hundred grams, at a single dose of 35373
fifty milligrams or less per kilogram of body weight, when orally 35374
administered;35375

       (b) Produces death within fourteen days in half or more than 35376
half of a group of ten or more laboratory white rats each weighing 35377
between two hundred and three hundred grams, when inhaled 35378
continuously for a period of one hour or less at an atmospheric 35379
concentration of two hundred parts per million by volume or less 35380
of gas, vapor, mist, or dust provided such concentration is likely 35381
to be encountered by mana human being when the substance is used 35382
in any reasonably foreseeable manner;35383

       (c) Produces death within fourteen days in half or more than 35384
half of a group of ten or more rabbits tested in a dosage of two 35385
hundred milligrams or less per kilogram of body weight, when 35386
administered by continuous contact with the bare skin for 35387
twenty-four hours or less.35388

       (2) If the director finds that available data on human 35389
experience with any substance indicates results different from 35390
those obtained on animals in the above named dosages or 35391
concentrations, the human data shall take precedence.35392

       (G) "Corrosive" means any substance which in contact with 35393
living tissue will cause destruction of tissue by chemical action; 35394
but shall not refer to action on inanimate surfaces.35395

       (H) "Irritant" means any substance not corrosive within the 35396
meaning of division (G) of this section which on immediate, 35397
prolonged, or repeated contact with normal living tissue will 35398
induce a local inflammatory reaction.35399

       (I) "Strong sensitizer" means any substance which will cause 35400
on normal living tissue, through an allergic or photodynamic 35401
process, a hypersensitivity which becomes evident on reapplication 35402
of the same substance and which is designated as such by the 35403
director. Before designating any substance as a strong sensitizer, 35404
the director shall, after public hearing following due notice, 35405
find that the frequency of occurrence and severity of the reaction 35406
indicate a significant potential for causing hypersensitivity.35407

       (J) "Extremely flammable" applies to any substance which has 35408
a flash point at or below twenty degrees Fahrenheit as determined 35409
by the tagliabue open cut tester.35410

       (K) "Flammable" applies to any substance which has a flash 35411
point of above twenty degrees to and including eighty degrees 35412
Fahrenheit, as determined by the tagliabue open cut tester; except 35413
that the flammability of the contents of self-pressurized 35414
containers shall be determined by methods generally applicable to 35415
such containers and established by regulation of the public health 35416
councildirector.35417

       (L) "Label" means a display of written, printed, or graphic 35418
matter upon or attached to the immediate package or container of 35419
any substance. Any word, statement, or other information required 35420
by sections 3716.01 to 3716.07, inclusive, of the Revised Code, to 35421
appear on the label must also appear (1) on the outside container 35422
or wrapper, if any, unless it is easily legible through the 35423
outside container or wrapper, and (2) on all accompanying 35424
literature where there are directions for use, written or 35425
otherwise.35426

       (M) "Immediate container" does not include package liners.35427

       (N) "Misbranded package" means any container of a hazardous 35428
substance intended or suitable for household use which fails to 35429
bear a label:35430

       (1) Which states conspicuously:35431

       (a) The name and place of business of the manufacturer, 35432
packer, or distributor;35433

       (b) The common or usual name, or the chemical name or the 35434
recognized generic name (not trade name only) of the hazardous 35435
substance or of each component which contributes substantially to 35436
its hazard;35437

       (c) The signal word "DANGER" on substances which are 35438
extremely flammable, corrosive, or which:35439

       (i) Produce death within fourteen days in half or more than 35440
half of a group of ten or more laboratory white rats each weighing 35441
between two hundred and three hundred grams, at a single dose of 35442
one gram or less per kilogram of body weight, when orally 35443
administered;35444

       (ii) Produce death within fourteen days in half or more than 35445
half of a group of ten or more laboratory white rats each weighing 35446
between two hundred and three hundred grams, when inhaled 35447
continuously for a period of one hour or less at an atmospheric 35448
concentration of two thousand parts per million by volume of gas, 35449
vapor, mist, or dust, provided such concentration is likely to be 35450
encountered by mana human being when the substances are used in 35451
any reasonably foreseeable manner;35452

       (iii) Produce death within fourteen days in half or more than 35453
half of a group of ten or more rabbits tested in a dosage of one 35454
gram or less per kilogram of body weight, when administered by 35455
continuous contact with the bare skin for twenty-four hours or 35456
less;35457

       (iv) If the director finds that available data on human 35458
experience with any substance indicates results different from 35459
those obtained on animals in the above named dosages or 35460
concentrations, hethe director may require the use of the signal 35461
word "DANGER" on such substance or permit use of the signal word 35462
"WARNING" or "CAUTION" on such substance.35463

       (d) The signal word "WARNING" or "CAUTION" on all other 35464
hazardous substances;35465

       (e) An affirmative statement of the principal hazard or 35466
hazards, such as "Flammable," "Vapor Harmful," "Causes Burns," 35467
"Absorbed Through Skin," or similar wording descriptive of the 35468
hazard;35469

       (f) Precautionary measures describing the action to be 35470
followed or avoided;35471

       (g) Instructions, when necessary, for the first-aid treatment 35472
in case of contact or exposure, if the substance is hazardous 35473
through contact or exposure;35474

       (h) The word "poison" for any hazardous substance which is 35475
defined as "highly toxic" by division (F) of this section;35476

       (i) Instructions for handling and storage of packages which 35477
require special care in handling or storage;35478

       (j) The statement "Keep out of the reach of children," or its 35479
practical equivalent.35480

       (2) On which any statements required under division (N) (1) 35481
of this section are located prominently and are in the English 35482
language in legible type in contrast by typography, layout, or 35483
color with other printed matter on the label.35484

       The public health councildirector shall, by regulations, 35485
provide for minimum information which shall appear on the labels 35486
for small packages, which labels need not include all of the 35487
information required by this section. The director may permit less 35488
than the foregoing statement of the hazard or precautionary 35489
measures for labels of hazardous substances presenting only minor 35490
hazards; and the term "misbranded package" does not apply to 35491
packages of economic poisons subject to the "Federal Insecticide, 35492
Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act," 61 Stat. 163 (1947), 7 U.S.C.A. 35493
135, nor to packages of foods, drugs, and cosmetics subject to the 35494
"Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act," nor to sections 3715.01 to 35495
3715.72, inclusive, of the Revised Code.35496

       Sec. 3716.03.  The director of health shall:35497

       (A) Propose and submit regulations for adoption by the public 35498
health council, subject to sections 119.01 to 119.13, inclusive,35499
Adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code,35500
for the efficient enforcement of section 3716.02 of the Revised 35501
Code;35502

       (B) Conduct examinations, inspections, and investigations for 35503
the purpose of establishing such regulations, through such 35504
officers of the department of health or the boards of health, as35505
hethe director delegates;35506

       (C) Designate officers and employees to enter at reasonable 35507
times any factory, warehouse, or establishment in which hazardous 35508
substances are held, or to enter any vehicle being used to 35509
transport or hold such hazardous substance:35510

       (1) For the purpose of determining the nature of such 35511
substances;35512

       (2) To inspect or copy all records showing the movement of 35513
any such hazardous substance, or the holding thereof during or 35514
after such movement, and the quantity, shipper, and consignee 35515
thereof; provided, evidence obtained under this subdivision shall 35516
not be used in a criminal prosecution of the person from whom 35517
obtained;35518

       (D) Inspect and sample, upon tender of reasonable price for 35519
such sample, at reasonable times and within reasonable limits and 35520
in a reasonable manner, finished hazardous substances in retail 35521
packages and labeling thereon in such factory, warehouse, 35522
establishment, or vehicle.35523

       Sec. 3717.01.  As used in this chapter:35524

       (A) "Ohio uniform food safety code" means the food safety and 35525
related standards adopted under section 3717.05 of the Revised 35526
Code.35527

       (B) "Food" means any raw, cooked, or processed edible 35528
substance used or intended for use in whole or in part for human 35529
consumption. "Food" includes ice, water or any other beverage, 35530
food ingredients, and chewing gum.35531

       (C) "Retail food establishment" means a premises or part of a 35532
premises where food is stored, processed, prepared, manufactured, 35533
or otherwise held or handled for retail sale. Except when 35534
expressly provided otherwise, "retail food establishment" includes 35535
a mobile retail food establishment, seasonal retail food 35536
establishment, and temporary retail food establishment.35537

       As used in this division:35538

       (1) "Retail" means the sale of food to a person who is the 35539
ultimate consumer.35540

       (2) "Prepared" means any action that affects a food, 35541
including receiving and maintaining it at the temperature at which 35542
it was received.35543

       (D) "Seasonal retail food establishment" means a retail food 35544
establishment, other than a mobile retail food establishment, that 35545
is operated for not more than six months in a licensing period.35546

       (E) "Temporary retail food establishment" means a retail food 35547
establishment that is operated at an event for not more than five 35548
consecutive days, except when operated for more than five 35549
consecutive days pursuant to division (E)(2) of section 3717.23 of 35550
the Revised Code.35551

       (F) "Food service operation" means a place, location, site, 35552
or separate area where food intended to be served in individual 35553
portions is prepared or served for a charge or required donation. 35554
As used in this division, "served" means a response made to an 35555
order for one or more individual portions of food in a form that 35556
is edible without washing, cooking, or additional preparation and 35557
"prepared" means any action that affects a food other than 35558
receiving or maintaining it at the temperature at which it was 35559
received.35560

       Except when expressly provided otherwise, "food service 35561
operation" includes a catering food service operation, food 35562
delivery sales operation, mobile food service operation, seasonal 35563
food service operation, temporary food service operation, and 35564
vending machine location.35565

       (G) "Catering food service operation" means a food service 35566
operation where food is prepared for serving at a function or 35567
event held at an off-premises site, for a charge determined on a 35568
per-function or per-event basis.35569

       (H) "Food delivery sales operation" means a food service 35570
operation from which individual portions of food are ordered by a 35571
customer, prepared at another food service operation or a retail 35572
food establishment, and delivered to the customer by a person 35573
other than an employee of the food service operation or retail 35574
food establishment that prepared the food.35575

       (I) "Mobile food service operation" means a food service 35576
operation that is operated from a movable vehicle, portable 35577
structure, or watercraft and that routinely changes location, 35578
except that if the operation remains at any one location for more 35579
than forty consecutive days, the operation is no longer a mobile 35580
food service operation. "Mobile food service operation" includes a 35581
food service operation that does not remain at any one location 35582
for more than forty consecutive days and serves, in a manner 35583
consistent with division (F) of this section, only frozen 35584
desserts; beverages, nuts, popcorn, candy, or similar confections; 35585
bakery products identified in section 911.01 of the Revised Code; 35586
or any combination of those items.35587

       (J) "Seasonal food service operation" means a food service 35588
operation, other than a mobile food service operation, that is 35589
operated for not more than six months in a licensing period.35590

       (K) "Temporary food service operation" means a food service 35591
operation that is operated at an event for not more than five 35592
consecutive days, except when operated for more than five 35593
consecutive days pursuant to division (E)(2) of section 3717.43 of 35594
the Revised Code.35595

       (L) "Vending machine location" means an area or room where 35596
one or more vending machines are installed and operated, except 35597
that if the machines within an area are separated by more than one 35598
hundred fifty feet, each area separated by that distance 35599
constitutes a separate vending machine location. As used in this 35600
division, "vending machine" means a self-service device that 35601
automatically dispenses on the insertion of currency, tokens, or 35602
similar means a predetermined unit serving of food, either in bulk 35603
or in package, without having to be replenished after each use.35604

       (M) "Board of health" means a board of health of a city or 35605
general health district or the authority having the duties of a 35606
board of health under section 3709.05 of the Revised Code.35607

       (N) "Government entity" means this state, a political 35608
subdivision of this state, another state, or a political 35609
subdivision or other local government body of another state.35610

       (O) "Licensor" means one of the following:35611

       (1) A board of health approved under section 3717.11 of the 35612
Revised Code;35613

       (2) The director of agriculture acting pursuant to section 35614
3717.11 of the Revised Code with respect to the licensing of 35615
retail food establishments;35616

       (3) The director of health acting pursuant to section 3717.11 35617
of the Revised Code with respect to the licensing of food service 35618
operations.35619

       (P) "Licensing period" means the first day of March to the 35620
last day of February of the next succeeding year.35621

       (Q) "Mobile retail food establishment" means a retail food 35622
establishment that is operated from a movable vehicle or other 35623
portable structure, and that routinely changes location, except 35624
that if the establishment operates from any one location for more 35625
than forty consecutive days, the establishment is no longer a 35626
mobile retail food establishment.35627

       (R) "Unprocessed," when used with respect to fruits and 35628
vegetables, means that the fruits and vegetables are not processed 35629
beyond merely rough trimming and rinsing.35630

       (S) "Cottage food production operation" has the same meaning 35631
as in division (A)(20)(19) of section 3715.01 of the Revised Code.35632

       Sec. 3717.04.  The director of agriculture, the public health 35633
council, and the director of health have the exclusive power in 35634
this state to adopt rules regarding retail food establishments and 35635
food service operations. The rules adopted under this chapter 35636
shall be applied uniformly throughout this state.35637

       All rules adopted under this chapter shall be adopted in 35638
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. Subject to the 35639
approval of the joint committee on agency rule review, portions of 35640
the rules may be adopted by referencing all or any part of any 35641
federal regulations pertaining to food safety.35642

       Sec. 3717.05.  (A) The director of agriculture and the public35643
director of health council shall adopt rules establishing 35644
standards for safe food handling and sanitation in retail food 35645
establishments and food service operations. The rules shall be 35646
compiled as the Ohio uniform food safety code, which shall be used 35647
by the licensors of retail food establishments and food service 35648
operations in ensuring the safe handling of food in this state. 35649
All scientific provisions of the Ohio uniform food safety code 35650
that are relevant to both retail food establishments and food 35651
service operations shall be adopted by the director of agriculture 35652
and the publicdirector of health council with each other's 35653
concurrence.35654

       The Ohio uniform food safety code shall include the 35655
following:35656

       (1) Criteria for sanitation in retail food establishments and 35657
food service operations;35658

       (2) Criteria for equipment in retail food establishments and 35659
food service operations;35660

       (3) Criteria for reviewing the facility layout and equipment 35661
specifications of retail food establishments and food service 35662
operations;35663

       (4) A definition of "potentially hazardous" as it pertains to 35664
food in retail food establishments and to food in food service 35665
operations;35666

       (5) Criteria to be used in evaluating the primary business of 35667
a person or government entity for purposes of determining whether 35668
the person or entity should be licensed as a retail food 35669
establishment or food service operation.35670

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this section, 35671
if a model food code is established by the United States food and 35672
drug administration, the Ohio uniform food safety code shall be 35673
based on the most current version of the food and drug 35674
administration's model food code. If the food and drug 35675
administration adopts, modifies, or rescinds a provision in the 35676
model food code, not later than twelve months after the 35677
administration's action, the director of agriculture and public35678
director of health council shall adopt, amend, or rescind 35679
provisions in the Ohio uniform food safety code to ensure that it 35680
continues to conform with the model food code.35681

       (2) The Ohio uniform food safety code may contain or omit 35682
provisions that do not correspond to the food and drug 35683
administration's model food code if the director of agriculture or 35684
the publicdirector of health council, with each other's 35685
concurrence, determines either of the following:35686

       (a) That rules can be adopted under this chapter that provide 35687
protection at least as effective as that which would be provided 35688
by basing the rules on the model food code;35689

       (b) That local conditions warrant the adoption of standards 35690
that are different from the model food code.35691

       Sec. 3717.07.  (A) For purposes of establishing a licensing 35692
fee under sections 3717.25 and 3717.45 of the Revised Code, the 35693
director of agriculture and the publicdirector of health council35694
shall adopt rules establishing uniform methodologies for use in 35695
calculating the costs of licensing retail food establishments in 35696
the categories specified by the director of agriculture and the 35697
costs of licensing food service operations in the categories 35698
specified by the councildirector of health. In adopting the 35699
rules, the director of agriculture and the publicdirector of35700
health council shall consider any recommendations received from 35701
advisory boards or other entities representing the interests of 35702
retail food establishments and food service operations.35703

       (B) The rules shall include provisions that do all of the 35704
following:35705

       (1) Provide for calculations to be made according to fiscal 35706
years rather than licensing periods;35707

       (2) Limit the direct costs that may be attributed to the use 35708
of sanitarians by establishing appropriate statewide averages that 35709
may not be exceeded;35710

       (3) Limit the indirect costs that may be included in the 35711
calculation of fees to an amount that does not exceed thirty per 35712
cent of the cost of the licensing program;35713

       (4) Provide for a proportionate reduction in the fees to be 35714
charged if a licensor included anticipated costs in the 35715
immediately preceding calculation of licensing fees and the total 35716
amount of the anticipated costs was not incurred;35717

       (5) Provide for a proportionate reduction in the fees to be 35718
charged if it is discovered through an audit by the auditor of 35719
state or through any other means that the licensor has charged or 35720
is charging a licensing fee that exceeds the amount that should 35721
have been charged;35722

       (6) Provide for a twenty per cent reduction in the fees to be 35723
charged when the reduction is imposed as a penalty under division 35724
(C) of section 3717.071 of the Revised Code;35725

       (7) With regard to any fees charged for licensing vending 35726
machine locations, the rules shall prohibit a licensor from 35727
increasing fees by a percentage of increase over the previous 35728
year's fee that exceeds the percentage of increase in the consumer 35729
price index for all urban consumers (United States city average, 35730
all items), prepared by the United States department of labor, 35731
bureau of labor statistics, for the immediately preceding calendar 35732
year.35733

       Sec. 3717.45.  (A) A licensor may charge fees for issuing and 35734
renewing food service operation licenses. Any licensing fee 35735
charged shall be used solely for the administration and 35736
enforcement of the provisions of this chapter and the rules 35737
adopted under it applicable to food service operations.35738

       Any licensing fee charged under this section shall be based 35739
on the licensor's costs of regulating food service operations, as 35740
determined according to the uniform methodologies established 35741
under section 3717.07 of the Revised Code. If the licensor is a 35742
board of health, a fee may be disapproved by the district advisory 35743
council in the case of a general health district or the 35744
legislative authority of the city in the case of a city health 35745
district. A disapproved fee shall not be charged by the board of 35746
health.35747

        Except when a licensing fee is established as an emergency 35748
measure, the licensor shall hold a public hearing regarding the 35749
proposed fee. At least twenty days prior to holding a public 35750
hearing, the licensor shall give written notice of the hearing to 35751
each person or government entity holding a food service operation 35752
license that may be affected by the proposed fee. The notice shall 35753
be mailed to the last known address of the licensee and shall 35754
specify the date, time, and place of the hearing and the amount of 35755
the proposed fee. On request, the licensor shall provide the 35756
completed uniform methodology used in the calculation of the 35757
licensor's costs and the proposed fee.35758

       (B) In addition to licensing fees, a licensor may charge fees 35759
for the following:35760

       (1) Review of facility layout and equipment specifications 35761
pertaining to food service operations, other than mobile and 35762
temporary food service operations, or similar reviews conducted 35763
for vending machine locations;35764

       (2) Any necessary collection and bacteriological examination 35765
of samples from food service operations, or similar services 35766
specified in rules adopted under this chapter by the public35767
director of health council;35768

       (3) Attendance at a course of study offered by the licensor 35769
in food protection as it pertains to food service operations, if 35770
the course is approved under section 3717.09 of the Revised Code.35771

       (C)(1) The public health councildirector may determine by 35772
rule an amount to be collected from applicants for food service 35773
operation licenses for use by the director of health in 35774
administering and enforcing the provisions of this chapter and the 35775
rules adopted under it applicable to food service operations. 35776
Licensors shall collect the amount prior to issuing an applicant's 35777
new or renewed license. If a licensing fee is charged under this 35778
section, the licensor shall collect the amount at the same time 35779
the fee is collected. Licensors are not required to provide notice 35780
or hold public hearings regarding amounts to be collected.35781

       (2) A licensor shall certify the amount collected under 35782
division (C)(1) of this section and transmit the amount to the 35783
treasurer of state according to the following schedule:35784

       (a) For amounts received by the licensor on or after the 35785
first day of January but not later than the thirty-first day of 35786
March, transmit the amounts not later than the fifteenth day of 35787
May;35788

       (b) For amounts received by the licensor on or after the 35789
first day of April but not later than the thirtieth day of June, 35790
transmit the amounts not later than the fifteenth day of August;35791

       (c) For amounts received by the licensor on or after the 35792
first day of July but not later than the thirtieth day of 35793
September, transmit the amounts not later than the fifteenth day 35794
of November;35795

       (d) For amounts received by the licensor on or after the 35796
first day of October but not later than the thirty-first day of 35797
December, transmit the amounts not later than the fifteenth day of 35798
February of the following year.35799

       (3) All amounts received under division (C)(2) of this 35800
section shall be deposited into the general operations fund 35801
created in section 3701.83 of the Revised Code. The director shall 35802
use the amounts solely for the administration and enforcement of 35803
the provisions of this chapter and the rules adopted under it 35804
applicable to food service operations.35805

       (4) The director may submit recommendations to the public 35806
health council regarding the amounts collected under division 35807
(C)(1) of this section. When making recommendations, the director 35808
shall submit a report stating the current and projected expenses 35809
of administering and enforcing the provisions of this chapter and 35810
the rules adopted under it applicable to food service operations 35811
and the total of all amounts that have been deposited in the 35812
general operations fund pursuant to division (C)(3) of this 35813
section. The director may include in the report any 35814
recommendations for modifying the department's administration and 35815
enforcement of the provisions of this chapter and the rules 35816
adopted under it applicable to food service operations.35817


       Sec. 3717.51.  Pursuant to section 3717.04 of the Revised 35819
Code, the publicdirector of health council shall adopt rules 35820
regarding food service operations, as follows:35821

       (A) Licensing categories for food service operations and 35822
licensing requirements for each category;35823

       (B) Standards and procedures, including a schedule of 35824
frequency, for conducting inspections of food service operations;35825

       (C) Standards and procedures for conducting investigations of 35826
complaints pertaining to food service operations;35827

       (D) Procedures to be used by the director of health in 35828
approving courses of study for persons seeking certification in 35829
food protection, standards that must be met to receive and 35830
maintain the director's approval, and procedures for withdrawing 35831
the director's approval of a course if the standards for approval 35832
are no longer being met;35833

       (E) Standards for the provision of assistance to choking 35834
victims;35835

       (F) Any other matter the councildirector considers relevant 35836
to the administration and enforcement of the provisions of this 35837
chapter applicable to food service operations.35838

       Sec. 3718.02. (A) The publicdirector of health council, in 35839
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt, and 35840
subsequently may amend and rescind, rules of general application 35841
throughout the state to administer this chapter. Rules adopted 35842
under division (A) of this section shall do at least all of the 35843
following:35844

       (1) Require that the appropriate board of health approve or 35845
disapprove the installation, operation, and alteration of a sewage 35846
treatment system if it is not connected to a sanitary sewerage 35847
system;35848

        (2) Require a board of health, or other person as established 35849
by rule, to conduct a site evaluation for any proposed 35850
installation of a sewage treatment system;35851

        (3) Prescribe standards for the siting, design, installation, 35852
operation, monitoring, maintenance, and abandonment of sewage 35853
treatment systems that may be used in this state and for the 35854
progressive or incremental alteration or repair of an existing 35855
sewage treatment system or the progressive or incremental 35856
installation of a new system to replace an existing sewage 35857
treatment system. The rules shall be adopted so as to establish a 35858
preference for the repair of an existing sewage treatment system, 35859
when technically and economically feasible, rather than its 35860
replacement with a new system. The standards shall include at a 35861
minimum all of the following:35862

        (a) Soil absorption specifications and vertical separation 35863
distances.35864

       (i) Soil absorption specifications established in rules shall 35865
include standards regarding the sizing of sewage treatment systems 35866
in use in the state.35867

       (ii) In establishing soil absorption specifications and 35868
vertical separation distances, the rules shall identify those soil 35869
conditions that present a low or moderate risk of inadequate 35870
treatment or dispersal of sewage from sewage treatment systems. 35871
For low and moderate risk conditions, the required vertical 35872
separation distance shall not exceed eighteen inches except as 35873
authorized pursuant to rules adopted under divisions 35874
(A)(3)(a)(iii) and (iv) of this section.35875

       In addition, the rules shall identify those soil conditions 35876
that present a high risk of inadequate treatment or dispersal of 35877
sewage. For such high risk conditions, the vertical separation 35878
distance shall be set at a depth from twenty-four to thirty-six 35879
inches and shall not be lowered unless a reduction of vertical 35880
separation is granted in accordance with rules adopted under 35881
division (A)(3)(a)(iii) of this section.35882

       (iii) The rules shall establish options to be utilized by a 35883
board of health when approving the reductions of or compliance 35884
with vertical separation distances that are established in rules 35885
adopted under division (A)(3)(a)(ii) of this section. The options 35886
for a board of health in providing such approval shall include, 35887
but not be limited to: the use where deemed appropriate for a 35888
particular site of subsurface interceptor drains, perimeter 35889
drains, or engineered drainage; pretreatment of sewage; or soil 35890
elevation.35891

       (iv) The rules shall provide that a board of health may 35892
petition the director to increase the vertical separation 35893
distances required for sewage treatment systems in the applicable 35894
health district or a portion of the district when conditions 35895
present a high risk of inadequate treatment or dispersal of 35896
sewage. The rules also shall provide that the director may approve 35897
such a request upon a demonstration by the board of health that 35898
unusual or unique local conditions relating to terrain, bedrock, 35899
water table, soil fragments, or soil textures require the 35900
establishment of greater vertical separation distances within the 35901
jurisdiction of the board of health or a portion thereof. If, 35902
under the rules, the director of health approves a greater 35903
vertical separation distance, a board of health still may approve 35904
a reduction of that vertical separation distance for an individual 35905
sewage treatment system pursuant to rules adopted under division 35906
(A)(3)(a)(iii) of this section. Further, if, under the rules, the 35907
director approves a greater vertical separation distance, a person 35908
who is denied permission by a board of health to install or 35909
replace a sewage treatment system as a result of the director's 35910
approval may request a hearing in accordance with section 3718.11 35911
of the Revised Code.35912

        (b) Specifications for the quality of treated sewage effluent 35913
from household sewage treatment systems that is applied to soil on 35914
the property where a household sewage treatment system is located. 35915
The specifications established in the rules for the quality of 35916
effluent from discharging systems shall comply with discharge 35917
requirements imposed by the national pollutant discharge 35918
elimination system permit program established under section 35919
6111.03 of the Revised Code and rules adopted under it.35920

       (c) Requirements for the reasonable maintenance of a system 35921
according to maintenance requirements approved by the director of 35922
health as recommended by the sewage treatment system technical 35923
advisory committee or according to accepted standards and 35924
practices established in rules, as applicable. The requirements 35925
may include standards for service contracts or other arrangements 35926
that assure regular maintenance and upkeep of the system. In 35927
determining the reasonableness of a maintenance requirement, the 35928
director shall consider a manufacturer's maintenance requirements 35929
as well as all other maintenance alternatives.35930

       (4) Prescribe procedures for notification to boards of health 35931
of the approval of a sewage treatment system or components of a 35932
system by the director of health under section 3718.04 of the 35933
Revised Code;35934

       (5) Prescribe criteria and procedures under which boards of 35935
health shall issue installation permits, operation permits, and 35936
alteration permits for sewage treatment systems. The rules shall 35937
require as a condition of an installation permit that the 35938
installer of a system must warrant that the system was installed 35939
in accordance with all applicable rules and design requirements. 35940
In addition, the rules shall require a board of health, not later 35941
than sixty days after the issuance of an installation, operation, 35942
or alteration permit, to notify the director that the permit was 35943
issued. The rules shall require the notification to be in a format 35944
prescribed by the director and to include information related to 35945
the issuance of the permit. With the assistance of the department 35946
of health, a board of health, to the extent practicable, shall 35947
computerize the process of the issuance of permits for sewage 35948
treatment systems.35949

       (6) Require a board of health to inspect a sewage treatment 35950
system not later than twelve months after its installation to 35951
ensure that the system is operating properly. The rules shall 35952
require a board of health, not later than sixty days after the 35953
inspection, to certify to the director on a form provided by the 35954
director that the inspection was performed.35955

        (7) Require each board of health to develop a program for the 35956
administration of maintenance requirements established in rules 35957
adopted under division (A)(3)(c) of this section. The rules shall 35958
include requirements and procedures under which a person may 35959
demonstrate the required maintenance of a system in lieu of having 35960
an inspection conducted when an inspection otherwise is required. 35961
The rules shall require a board of health to provide written 35962
notice to a person that is demonstrating maintenance of a system 35963
in lieu of an inspection that if proof of the required maintenance 35964
of the system is not provided as required by rules, the system is 35965
subject to inspection by the board and the reasonable cost of the 35966
inspection must be paid by the person. The rules shall authorize a 35967
board of health to inspect any sewage treatment system if there is 35968
a good-faith complaint regarding the system, there is probable 35969
cause for the inspection, or proof of the required maintenance of 35970
the system has not been provided as required by rules. In 35971
addition, the rules shall authorize a board of health to inspect a 35972
sewage treatment system without prior notice in any instance in 35973
which the board has probable cause to believe that the system is 35974
endangering or threatening to endanger public health. The rules 35975
shall require that the reasonable costs for sewage effluent 35976
testing or evaluation be paid by the owner of a sewage treatment 35977
system that is being investigated. Further, the rules shall 35978
establish a methodology for determining the reasonable costs of an 35979
inspection in accordance with section 3709.09 of the Revised Code. 35980
The rules shall allow, but shall not require, a board of health to 35981
continue an inspection program that was established by the board 35982
prior to the effective date of the rules, provided that the 35983
program authorizes a person to demonstrate the required 35984
maintenance of a system in lieu of an inspection.35985

       (8) Require a board of health to register installers, service 35986
providers, and septage haulers that perform work within the health 35987
district; prescribe criteria and procedures for the registration; 35988
and prescribe criteria for a demonstration of competency as a part 35989
of the registration. The rules shall establish uniform statewide 35990
bonding requirements or other financial security requirements for 35991
installers, service providers, and septage haulers as a condition 35992
of registration within any health district. The rules shall 35993
establish a methodology by which the required amount of a bond or 35994
other security may be calculated for each installer, service 35995
provider, and septage hauler. The methodology, at a minimum, shall 35996
consider the number of systems installed or serviced and the type 35997
of system installed or serviced by an installer, service provider, 35998
or septage hauler on an annual basis. The rules shall provide that 35999
no board of health shall require an additional or different bond 36000
or security requirement as a condition of registration beyond the 36001
bonding and security requirements established in the rules adopted 36002
under division (A)(8) of this section.36003

       The rules shall establish a cost methodology for determining 36004
the fee for the registration of an installer, service provider, or 36005
septage hauler in any health district.36006

        (9) Prescribe requirements for the collection, 36007
transportation, disposal, and land application of domestic septage 36008
in this state from a sewage treatment system;36009

        (10) Require boards of health to maintain records that are 36010
determined necessary to ascertain compliance with this chapter and 36011
the rules adopted under it;36012

       (11) Require the manufacturer of a sewage treatment system 36013
that is authorized for use in this state in rules adopted under 36014
this section or that is approved for use in this state under 36015
section 3718.04 of the Revised Code to provide instructions for 36016
the operation and maintenance of the system. The rules shall 36017
provide that a board of health may require a copy of a 36018
manufacturer's instructions for the operation and maintenance of a 36019
system to be filed with the board prior to the installation and 36020
use of the system in the health district in which the board has 36021
jurisdiction. In addition, the rules shall require a board of 36022
health and a manufacturer to provide a copy of the operation and 36023
maintenance instructions, if available, when a board of health or 36024
a manufacturer receives a written request for instructions.36025

       (12) Prescribe criteria for the provision of written evidence 36026
of compliance with rules pertaining to sewage treatment for 36027
purposes of sections 711.05 and 711.10 of the Revised Code;36028

       (13) Pursuant to divisions (A)(1) and (3) of this section, 36029
prescribe standards for the siting, design, installation, 36030
operation, monitoring, maintenance, and abandonment of small flow 36031
on-site sewage treatment systems that may be used in this state;36032

       (14) Prescribe minimum criteria and procedures under which 36033
boards of health may establish household sewage treatment district 36034
management programs for the purpose of providing a responsive 36035
approach toward preventing or solving sewage treatment problems 36036
resulting from household sewage treatment systems within the 36037
districts established under the program. For purposes of division 36038
(A)(14) of this section, a board of health may enter into a 36039
contract with any entity to administer a household sewage 36040
treatment district management program.36041

       (15) Prescribe standards for the use of subsurface 36042
interceptor drains, perimeter drains, and engineered drainage to 36043
remove or divert any subsurface water from an area to be used for 36044
soil absorption of sewage in the soil of a sewage treatment 36045
system;36046

       (16) Prescribe standards for the inspection of septage 36047
hauling truck tanks by boards of health, including, but not 36048
limited to, tank seal safety specifications;36049

       (17) Establish standards and testing methods to ensure that 36050
all septic tanks, other disposal component tanks, dosing tanks, 36051
pump vaults, household sewage treatment disposal system holding 36052
tanks and privy vaults, or other applicable sewage disposal system 36053
components manufactured after the effective date of this section36054
September 17, 2010, and used in this state are watertight and 36055
structurally sound;36056

       (18) Require a board of health to give notice and an 36057
opportunity for a hearing, pursuant to section 3718.11 of the 36058
Revised Code, to an affected property owner regarding any of the 36059
following:36060

       (a) The denial of an installation, operation, or alteration 36061
permit for a sewage treatment system;36062

       (b) The imposition of a condition on the installation of a 36063
sewage treatment system;36064

       (c) The required replacement of a sewage treatment system;36065

       (d) Any other final order or decision of a board of health 36066
that is made under this chapter concerning which a property owner 36067
is claiming to be aggrieved or adversely affected.36068

       The rules also shall establish procedures for giving such 36069
notice and for conducting the hearing required in rules adopted 36070
under division (A)(18) of this section.36071

       (19) Prescribe standards for the regulation of gray water 36072
recycling systems;36073

       (20) Prohibit a sewage treatment system from causing a public 36074
health nuisance;36075

       (21) Define economic impact for purposes of division (B) of 36076
this section and section 3718.022 of the Revised Code.36077

        The councildirector may adopt other rules under division (A) 36078
of this section that itthe director determines are necessary to 36079
implement this chapter and to protect the public health and 36080
welfare.36081

        At least sixty days prior to adopting a rule under division 36082
(A) of this section, the councildirector shall provide boards of 36083
health and any other interested parties an opportunity to comment 36084
on the rule.36085

        (B)(1) In accordance with section 3709.20 or 3709.21 of the 36086
Revised Code, as applicable, and subject to review by and approval 36087
of the director under division (C) of section 3718.05 of the 36088
Revised Code, a board of health may adopt rules necessary for the 36089
public health providing for more stringent standards than those 36090
established in rules of the public health council adopted by the 36091
director under division (A) of this section. In proposing or 36092
adopting the rules, a board of health shall consider and document 36093
the economic impact of the rules on property owners within the 36094
applicable health district.36095

       (2) A board that intends to adopt rules shall notify the 36096
department of health of the proposed rules and submit a copy of 36097
the proposed rules and the documentation of the economic impact of 36098
the rules at least ninety days prior to the proposed date of 36099
adoption. The director shall approve or disapprove any such 36100
proposed rule within ninety days after receiving a copy of the 36101
proposed rule from the board of health. 36102

       (3) In reviewing a proposed rule, the director shall approve 36103
the rule if all of the following apply:36104

       (a) The proposed rule is not in conflict with this chapter or 36105
rules adopted under it.36106

       (b) The proposed rule is authorized by division (B) of this 36107
section.36108

       (c) The proposed rule is no less stringent than rules adopted 36109
by the public health councildirector.36110

       (d) Unless otherwise authorized by this chapter or rules 36111
adopted under it, the proposed rule does not require design 36112
changes to a sewage treatment system, or component thereof, that 36113
differ from a design authorized in rules adopted under division 36114
(A) of this section, including rules adopted under division (A)(1) 36115
or (A)(3)(a)(iii) or (iv) of this section, or approved by the 36116
director under section 3718.04 of the Revised Code.36117

       (e) The proposed rule does not require operation or 36118
maintenance procedures for a sewage treatment system that conflict 36119
with operation or maintenance procedures authorized in rules 36120
adopted under division (A) of this section, including rules 36121
adopted under division (A)(1) or (A)(3)(a)(iii) or (iv) of this 36122
section, or approved by the director under section 3718.04 of the 36123
Revised Code.36124

        (4) If a board of health fails to submit a proposed rule to 36125
the director or fails to demonstrate that the board has considered 36126
the economic impact of the proposed rule, the rule shall have no 36127
force or effect and is not enforceable.36128

       Sec. 3718.021. (A) A board of health may regulate the siting, 36129
design, installation, operation, monitoring, maintenance, and 36130
abandonment of small flow on-site sewage treatment systems in 36131
accordance with rules adopted by the publicdirector of health 36132
council under division (A)(13) of section 3718.02 of the Revised 36133
Code. If a board of health chooses to regulate small flow on-site 36134
sewage treatment systems, the board first shall send written 36135
notification to the director of health and the director of 36136
environmental protection.36137

       (B) If a board of health chooses to regulate small flow 36138
on-site sewage treatment systems under division (A) of this 36139
section and later determines that it no longer wants to regulate 36140
those systems, the board shall notify the director of health and 36141
the director of environmental protection. Upon the receipt of the 36142
notification by the director of environmental protection, the 36143
board of health shall cease regulating small flow on-site sewage 36144
treatment systems, and the environmental protection agency shall 36145
regulate those systems.36146

       (C) If after a survey conducted under section 3718.07 of the 36147
Revised Code the director of health finds that a board of health 36148
that has chosen to regulate small flow on-site sewage treatment 36149
systems is not complying with the rules adopted under division 36150
(A)(13) of section 3718.02 of the Revised Code, the director shall 36151
notify the director of environmental protection and the board of 36152
health. Upon receipt of the notification, the board shall cease 36153
regulating small flow on-site sewage treatment systems, and the 36154
environmental protection agency shall regulate those systems.36155

       Sec. 3718.022. Notwithstanding any provision in this chapter 36156
to the contrary, in adopting rules under division (A) of section 36157
3718.02 of the Revised Code, the publicdirector of health council36158
shall consider the economic impact of the rules on property 36159
owners, the state of available technology, and the nature and 36160
economics of the available alterativesalternatives.36161

       Sec. 3718.05. The director of health shall do all of the 36162
following:36163

        (A) Administer and enforce this chapter and the rules of the 36164
public health council adopted under it;36165

        (B) Examine records of boards of health, in accordance with 36166
rules adopted by the councildirector, that are determined 36167
necessary to ascertain compliance with this chapter and rules 36168
adopted under it;36169

        (C) Review and approve or disapprove rules proposed by boards 36170
of health under division (B) of section 3718.02 of the Revised 36171
Code. The director shall not disapprove a proposed rule unless the 36172
director determines that the proposed rule conflicts with this 36173
chapter or rules adopted under division (A) of section 3718.02 of 36174
the Revised Code by the public health council or fails to promote 36175
public health or environmental protection. If the director 36176
disapproves a proposed rule, the director shall provide a written 36177
explanation of the director's disapproval to the board of health 36178
that proposed the rule.36179

        (D) Survey boards of health as required by section 3718.07 of 36180
the Revised Code;36181

        (E) Develop with the sewage treatment system technical 36182
advisory committee standards, guidelines, and protocols for use by 36183
the director in approving or disapproving a sewage treatment 36184
system under section 3718.04 of the Revised Code and an 36185
application form for use by applicants for that approval, 36186
including identification of the information that must be included 36187
with the form;36188

       (F) Provide instructions on the operation and maintenance of 36189
a sewage treatment system. The director shall provide the 36190
operation and maintenance instructions on the department of 36191
health's web site. In addition, the director shall provide a copy 36192
of the operation and maintenance instructions when the director 36193
receives a written request for the instructions.36194

       (G) Develop educational programs, in conjunction with boards 36195
of health, to educate owners of sewage treatment systems regarding 36196
the proper operation and maintenance of those systems.36197

       Sec. 3718.06. (A)(1) A board of health shall establish fees 36198
in accordance with section 3709.09 of the Revised Code for the 36199
purpose of carrying out its duties under this chapter and rules 36200
adopted under it, including fees for installation permits, 36201
operation permits, and alteration permits issued by the board. All 36202
fees so established and collected by the board shall be deposited 36203
in a special fund of the district to be used exclusively by the 36204
board in carrying out those duties.36205

       (2)(B) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, 36206
the publicdirector of health council may establish by rule a fee 36207
to be collected from applicants for installation permits and 36208
alteration permits issued under rules adopted under this chapter. 36209
The director of health shall use not more than seventy-five per 36210
cent of the proceeds from that fee for administering and enforcing 36211
this chapter and the rules adopted under it by the council36212
director. The director shall use not less than twenty-five per 36213
cent of the proceeds from that fee to establish a program in 36214
cooperation with boards of health to fund installation and 36215
evaluation of sewage treatment system new technology pilot 36216
projects through grants or other agreements. In the selection of 36217
pilot projects, the director shall consult with the sewage 36218
treatment system technical advisory committee. A board of health 36219
shall collect and transmit the fee to the director pursuant to 36220
section 3709.092 of the Revised Code. 36221

        (B) The director may submit recommendations to the public 36222
health council regarding the amount of the fee collected under 36223
division (A)(2) of this section for installation and alteration 36224
permits. When making the recommendations, the director shall 36225
submit a report stating the current and projected expenses of 36226
administering and enforcing this chapter and the rules adopted 36227
under it and of the sewage treatment system new technology pilot 36228
projects program established under this section and the total of 36229
all money that has been deposited to the credit of the general 36230
operations fund under division (A)(2) of this section. The 36231
director may include in the report any recommendations for 36232
modifying the requirements established under this chapter and the 36233
rules adopted under it by the council.36234


       Sec. 3718.07. The director of health shall survey each city 36236
and general health district at least once every three years to 36237
determine whether there is substantial compliance with the 36238
requirements of this chapter pertaining to health districts and 36239
the applicable rules adopted by the public health councildirector36240
under this chapter. Upon determining that there is substantial 36241
compliance, the director shall place the district on an approved 36242
list. The director may resurvey an approved district if it is 36243
determined by the director to be necessary and may remove from the 36244
list a district that is found not to be substantially complying 36245
with the requirements of this chapter pertaining to health 36246
districts and the applicable rules.36247

        If the director determines that a district is not eligible to 36248
be placed on the approved list or to continue on the list after a 36249
resurvey, the director shall certify that determination to the 36250
board of health, and the director shall carry out the duties of 36251
the unapproved health district under this chapter and the 36252
applicable rules adopted under it within the district or shall 36253
contract with an approved health district to conduct those duties 36254
until the unapproved district is placed on or returned to the 36255
approved list. The director or the contracting district shall have 36256
within the unapproved district the authority to exercise powers 36257
and perform duties granted to or imposed on the board under this 36258
chapter and the applicable rules adopted under it.36259

        Until the unapproved district is placed on or returned to the 36260
approved list, the director or the contracting district shall 36261
collect all fees payable to the board of health under this chapter 36262
and all such fees previously paid to the unapproved district that 36263
have not been expended or encumbered. The director shall deposit 36264
those fees in the state treasury to the credit of a special fund, 36265
which is hereby created, to be used by the director for the 36266
purpose of carrying out the duties of the unapproved health 36267
district under this chapter and the applicable rules adopted under 36268
it. A contracting district shall deposit those fees to the credit 36269
of its fund created under section 3718.06 of the Revised Code to 36270
be used by the district for the purpose of carrying out the duties 36271
of the unapproved district under this chapter and the applicable 36272
rules adopted under it. The director or contracting district shall 36273
repay to the unapproved district any balance remaining in the 36274
applicable fund from all sources when the unapproved district is 36275
placed on or returned to the approved list by the director.36276

       If a health district is removed from the approved list under 36277
this section and the board of health of the district is regulating 36278
small flow on-site sewage treatment systems in the district under 36279
section 3718.021 of the Revised Code, the director of 36280
environmental protection shall regulate those systems in that 36281
district in accordance with division (C) of that section.36282

       Sec. 3718.09. (A) A board of health may issue, modify, 36283
suspend, or revoke enforcement orders to a registration or permit 36284
holder or other person directing the holder or person to abate a 36285
violation of this chapter, any rule adopted or order issued under 36286
it, or a condition of a registration or permit issued under it 36287
within a specified, reasonable time. If an order issued under this 36288
division is neglected or disregarded, the applicable board of 36289
health may proceed in accordance with section 3707.02 of the 36290
Revised Code.36291

        (B) The health commissioner or the commissioner's designated 36292
representative, without prior notice or hearing and in accordance 36293
with the rules ofadopted by the publicdirector of health 36294
council, may issue an emergency order requiring any action 36295
necessary to meet a public health emergency or to prevent or abate 36296
an imminent and substantial threat to surface water or ground 36297
water regarding domestic septage management or regarding a sewage 36298
treatment system that is being operated in a manner that does not 36299
comply with this chapter or rules adopted under it. A person to 36300
whom such an emergency order is issued immediately shall comply 36301
with the order. A person so ordered may apply to the issuer of the 36302
order for a hearing, which shall be held as soon as possible, but 36303
not later than twenty days after the issuer's receipt of the 36304
application for a hearing.36305

       Sec. 3719.06.  (A)(1) A licensed health professional 36306
authorized to prescribe drugs, if acting in the course of 36307
professional practice, in accordance with the laws regulating the 36308
professional's practice, and in accordance with rules adopted by 36309
the state board of pharmacy, may, except as provided in division 36310
(A)(2) or (3) of this section, do the following:36311

       (a) Prescribe schedule II, III, IV, and V controlled 36312
substances;36313

       (b) Administer or personally furnish to patients schedule II, 36314
III, IV, and V controlled substances;36315

       (c) Cause schedule II, III, IV, and V controlled substances 36316
to be administered under the prescriber's direction and 36317
supervision.36318

       (2) A licensed health professional authorized to prescribe 36319
drugs who is a clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, 36320
or certified nurse practitioner is subject to both of the 36321
following:36322

       (a) A schedule II controlled substance may be prescribed only 36323
in accordance with division (C) of section 4723.481 of the Revised 36324
Code.36325

       (b) No schedule II controlled substance shall be personally 36326
furnished to any patient.36327

       (3) A licensed health professional authorized to prescribe 36328
drugs who is a physician assistant shall not prescribe or 36329
personally furnish to patients anyis subject to all of the 36330
following:36331

       (a) A controlled substance that is notmay be prescribed or 36332
personally furnished only if it is included in the 36333
physician-delegated prescriptive authority granted to the 36334
physician assistant in accordance with Chapter 4730. of the 36335
Revised Code.36336

       (b) A schedule II controlled substance may be prescribed only 36337
in accordance with division (B)(4) of section 4730.41 and section 36338
4730.411 of the Revised Code.36339

       (c) No schedule II controlled substance shall be personally 36340
furnished to any patient.36341

       (B) No licensed health professional authorized to prescribe 36342
drugs shall prescribe, administer, or personally furnish a 36343
schedule III anabolic steroid for the purpose of human muscle 36344
building or enhancing human athletic performance and no pharmacist 36345
shall dispense a schedule III anabolic steroid for either purpose, 36346
unless it has been approved for that purpose under the "Federal 36347
Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act," 52 Stat. 1040 (1938), 21 U.S.C.A. 36348
301, as amended. 36349

       (C) Each written prescription shall be properly executed, 36350
dated, and signed by the prescriber on the day when issued and 36351
shall bear the full name and address of the person for whom, or 36352
the owner of the animal for which, the controlled substance is 36353
prescribed and the full name, address, and registry number under 36354
the federal drug abuse control laws of the prescriber. If the 36355
prescription is for an animal, it shall state the species of the 36356
animal for which the controlled substance is prescribed.36357

       Sec. 3721.01.  (A) As used in sections 3721.01 to 3721.09 and 36358
3721.99 of the Revised Code:36359

       (1)(a) "Home" means an institution, residence, or facility 36360
that provides, for a period of more than twenty-four hours, 36361
whether for a consideration or not, accommodations to three or 36362
more unrelated individuals who are dependent upon the services of 36363
others, including a nursing home, residential care facility, home 36364
for the aging, and a veterans' home operated under Chapter 5907. 36365
of the Revised Code.36366

       (b) "Home" also means both of the following:36367

       (i) Any facility that a person, as defined in section 3702.51 36368
of the Revised Code, proposes for certification as a skilled 36369
nursing facility or nursing facility under Title XVIII or XIX of 36370
the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, 36371
as amended, and for which a certificate of need, other than a 36372
certificate to recategorize hospital beds as described in section 36373
3702.5223702.521 of the Revised Code or division (R)(7)(d) of the 36374
version of section 3702.51 of the Revised Code in effect 36375
immediately prior to April 20, 1995, has been granted to the 36376
person under sections 3702.51 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code after 36377
August 5, 1989;36378

       (ii) A county home or district home that is or has been 36379
licensed as a residential care facility.36380

       (c) "Home" does not mean any of the following:36381

       (i) Except as provided in division (A)(1)(b) of this section, 36382
a public hospital or hospital as defined in section 3701.01 or 36383
5122.01 of the Revised Code;36384

       (ii) A residential facility for mentally ill persons as 36385
defined underin section 5119.22 of the Revised Code;36386

       (iii) A residential facility as defined in section 5123.19 of 36387
the Revised Code;36388

       (iv) An adult care facility as defined in section 5119.70 of 36389
the Revised Code;36390

       (v) An alcohol or drug addiction program as defined in 36391
section 3793.01 of the Revised Code;36392

       (vi)(v) A facility licensed to provide methadone treatment 36393
under section 3793.11 of the Revised Code;36394

       (vii)(vi) A facility providing services under contract with 36395
the department of developmental disabilities under section 5123.18 36396
of the Revised Code unless section 5123.192 of the Revised Code 36397
makes the facility subject to the requirements of this chapter;36398

       (viii)(vii) A facility operated by a hospice care program 36399
licensed under section 3712.04 of the Revised Code that is used 36400
exclusively for care of hospice patients;36401

       (ix)(viii) A facility, infirmary, or other entity that is 36402
operated by a religious order, provides care exclusively to 36403
members of religious orders who take vows of celibacy and live by 36404
virtue of their vows within the orders as if related, and does not 36405
participate in the medicare program established under Title XVIII 36406
of the "Social Security Act" or the medical assistance program 36407
established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code and Title XIX 36408
of the "Social Security Act," if on January 1, 1994, the facility, 36409
infirmary, or entity was providing care exclusively to members of 36410
the religious order;36411

       (x)(ix) A county home or district home that has never been 36412
licensed as a residential care facility.36413

       (2) "Unrelated individual" means one who is not related to 36414
the owner or operator of a home or to the spouse of the owner or 36415
operator as a parent, grandparent, child, grandchild, brother, 36416
sister, niece, nephew, aunt, uncle, or as the child of an aunt or 36417
uncle.36418

       (3) "Mental impairment" does not mean mental illness as 36419
defined in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code or mental 36420
retardation as defined in section 5123.01 of the Revised Code.36421

       (4) "Skilled nursing care" means procedures that require 36422
technical skills and knowledge beyond those the untrained person 36423
possesses and that are commonly employed in providing for the 36424
physical, mental, and emotional needs of the ill or otherwise 36425
incapacitated. "Skilled nursing care" includes, but is not limited 36426
to, the following:36427

       (a) Irrigations, catheterizations, application of dressings, 36428
and supervision of special diets;36429

       (b) Objective observation of changes in the patient's 36430
condition as a means of analyzing and determining the nursing care 36431
required and the need for further medical diagnosis and treatment;36432

       (c) Special procedures contributing to rehabilitation;36433

       (d) Administration of medication by any method ordered by a 36434
physician, such as hypodermically, rectally, or orally, including 36435
observation of the patient after receipt of the medication;36436

       (e) Carrying out other treatments prescribed by the physician 36437
that involve a similar level of complexity and skill in 36438
administration.36439

       (5)(a) "Personal care services" means services including, but 36440
not limited to, the following:36441

       (i) Assisting residents with activities of daily living;36442

       (ii) Assisting residents with self-administration of 36443
medication, in accordance with rules adopted under section 3721.04 36444
of the Revised Code;36445

       (iii) Preparing special diets, other than complex therapeutic 36446
diets, for residents pursuant to the instructions of a physician 36447
or a licensed dietitian, in accordance with rules adopted under 36448
section 3721.04 of the Revised Code.36449

       (b) "Personal care services" does not include "skilled 36450
nursing care" as defined in division (A)(4) of this section. A 36451
facility need not provide more than one of the services listed in 36452
division (A)(5)(a) of this section to be considered to be 36453
providing personal care services.36454

       (6) "Nursing home" means a home used for the reception and 36455
care of individuals who by reason of illness or physical or mental 36456
impairment require skilled nursing care and of individuals who 36457
require personal care services but not skilled nursing care. A 36458
nursing home is licensed to provide personal care services and 36459
skilled nursing care.36460

       (7) "Residential care facility" means a home that provides 36461
either of the following:36462

       (a) Accommodations for seventeen or more unrelated 36463
individuals and supervision and personal care services for three 36464
or more of those individuals who are dependent on the services of 36465
others by reason of age or physical or mental impairment;36466

       (b) Accommodations for three or more unrelated individuals, 36467
supervision and personal care services for at least three of those 36468
individuals who are dependent on the services of others by reason 36469
of age or physical or mental impairment, and, to at least one of 36470
those individuals, any of the skilled nursing care authorized by 36471
section 3721.011 of the Revised Code.36472

       (8) "Home for the aging" means a home that provides services 36473
as a residential care facility and a nursing home, except that the 36474
home provides its services only to individuals who are dependent 36475
on the services of others by reason of both age and physical or 36476
mental impairment.36477

       The part or unit of a home for the aging that provides 36478
services only as a residential care facility is licensed as a 36479
residential care facility. The part or unit that may provide 36480
skilled nursing care beyond the extent authorized by section 36481
3721.011 of the Revised Code is licensed as a nursing home.36482

       (9) "County home" and "district home" mean a county home or 36483
district home operated under Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code.36484

       (B) The publicdirector of health council may further 36485
classify homes. For the purposes of this chapter, any residence, 36486
institution, hotel, congregate housing project, or similar 36487
facility that meets the definition of a home under this section is 36488
such a home regardless of how the facility holds itself out to the 36489
public.36490

       (C) For purposes of this chapter, personal care services or 36491
skilled nursing care shall be considered to be provided by a 36492
facility if they are provided by a person employed by or 36493
associated with the facility or by another person pursuant to an 36494
agreement to which neither the resident who receives the services 36495
nor the resident's sponsor is a party.36496

       (D) Nothing in division (A)(4) of this section shall be 36497
construed to permit skilled nursing care to be imposed on an 36498
individual who does not require skilled nursing care.36499

       Nothing in division (A)(5) of this section shall be construed 36500
to permit personal care services to be imposed on an individual 36501
who is capable of performing the activity in question without 36502
assistance.36503

       (E) Division (A)(1)(c)(ix)(viii) of this section does not 36504
prohibit a facility, infirmary, or other entity described in that 36505
division from seeking licensure under sections 3721.01 to 3721.09 36506
of the Revised Code or certification under Title XVIII or XIX of 36507
the "Social Security Act." However, such a facility, infirmary, or 36508
entity that applies for licensure or certification must meet the 36509
requirements of those sections or titles and the rules adopted 36510
under them and obtain a certificate of need from the director of 36511
health under section 3702.52 of the Revised Code.36512

       (F) Nothing in this chapter, or rules adopted pursuant to it, 36513
shall be construed as authorizing the supervision, regulation, or 36514
control of the spiritual care or treatment of residents or 36515
patients in any home who rely upon treatment by prayer or 36516
spiritual means in accordance with the creed or tenets of any 36517
recognized church or religious denomination.36518

       Sec. 3721.011.  (A) In addition to providing accommodations, 36519
supervision, and personal care services to its residents, a 36520
residential care facility may do the following:36521

       (1) Provide the following skilled nursing care to its 36522
residents:36523

       (a) Supervision of special diets;36524

       (b) Application of dressings, in accordance with rules 36525
adopted under section 3721.04 of the Revised Code;36526

       (c) Subject to division (B)(1) of this section, 36527
administration of medication.36528

       (2) Subject to division (C) of this section, provide other 36529
skilled nursing care on a part-time, intermittent basis for not 36530
more than a total of one hundred twenty days in a twelve-month 36531
period;36532

        (3) Provide skilled nursing care for more than one hundred 36533
twenty days in a twelve-month period to a resident when the 36534
requirements of division (D) of this section are met.36535

       A residential care facility may not admit or retain an 36536
individual requiring skilled nursing care that is not authorized 36537
by this section. A residential care facility may not provide 36538
skilled nursing care beyond the limits established by this 36539
section.36540

       (B)(1) A residential care facility may admit or retain an 36541
individual requiring medication, including biologicals, only if 36542
the individual's personal physician has determined in writing that 36543
the individual is capable of self-administering the medication or 36544
the facility provides for the medication to be administered to the 36545
individual by a home health agency certified under Title XVIII of 36546
the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 620 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1395, as 36547
amended; a hospice care program licensed under Chapter 3712. of 36548
the Revised Code; or a member of the staff of the residential care 36549
facility who is qualified to perform medication administration. 36550
Medication may be administered in a residential care facility only 36551
by the following persons authorized by law to administer 36552
medication:36553

       (a) A registered nurse licensed under Chapter 4723. of the 36554
Revised Code;36555

       (b) A licensed practical nurse licensed under Chapter 4723. 36556
of the Revised Code who holds proof of successful completion of a 36557
course in medication administration approved by the board of 36558
nursing and who administers the medication only at the direction 36559
of a registered nurse or a physician authorized under Chapter 36560
4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or 36561
osteopathic medicine and surgery;36562

       (c) A medication aide certified under Chapter 4723. of the 36563
Revised Code;36564

       (d) A physician authorized under Chapter 4731. of the Revised 36565
Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and 36566
surgery.36567

       (2) In assisting a resident with self-administration of 36568
medication, any member of the staff of a residential care facility 36569
may do the following:36570

       (a) Remind a resident when to take medication and watch to 36571
ensure that the resident follows the directions on the container;36572

       (b) Assist a resident by taking the medication from the 36573
locked area where it is stored, in accordance with rules adopted 36574
pursuant to section 3721.04 of the Revised Code, and handing it to 36575
the resident. If the resident is physically unable to open the 36576
container, a staff member may open the container for the resident.36577

       (c) Assist a physically impaired but mentally alert resident, 36578
such as a resident with arthritis, cerebral palsy, or Parkinson's 36579
disease, in removing oral or topical medication from containers 36580
and in consuming or applying the medication, upon request by or 36581
with the consent of the resident. If a resident is physically 36582
unable to place a dose of medicine to the resident's mouth without 36583
spilling it, a staff member may place the dose in a container and 36584
place the container to the mouth of the resident.36585

       (C) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, a 36586
residential care facility may admit or retain individuals who 36587
require skilled nursing care beyond the supervision of special 36588
diets, application of dressings, or administration of medication, 36589
only if the care will be provided on a part-time, intermittent 36590
basis for not more than a total of one hundred twenty days in any 36591
twelve-month period. In accordance with Chapter 119. of the 36592
Revised Code, the publicdirector of health council shall adopt 36593
rules specifying what constitutes the need for skilled nursing 36594
care on a part-time, intermittent basis. The councildirector36595
shall adopt rules that are consistent with rules pertaining to 36596
home health care adopted by the director of job and family 36597
services for the medicaid program established under Chapter 5111. 36598
of the Revised Code. Skilled nursing care provided pursuant to 36599
this division may be provided by a home health agency certified 36600
under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," a hospice care 36601
program licensed under Chapter 3712. of the Revised Code, or a 36602
member of the staff of a residential care facility who is 36603
qualified to perform skilled nursing care.36604

       A residential care facility that provides skilled nursing 36605
care pursuant to this division shall do both of the following:36606

       (1) Evaluate each resident receiving the skilled nursing care 36607
at least once every seven days to determine whether the resident 36608
should be transferred to a nursing home;36609

       (2) Meet the skilled nursing care needs of each resident 36610
receiving the care.36611

       (D)(1) A residential care facility may admit or retain an 36612
individual who requires skilled nursing care for more than one 36613
hundred twenty days in any twelve-month period only if the 36614
facility has entered into a written agreement with each of the 36615
following:36616

        (a) The individual or individual's sponsor;36617

        (b) The individual's personal physician;36618

        (c) Unless the individual's personal physician oversees the 36619
skilled nursing care, the provider of the skilled nursing care;36620

        (d) If the individual is a hospice patient as defined in 36621
section 3712.01 of the Revised Code, a hospice care program 36622
licensed under Chapter 3712. of the Revised Code. 36623

       (2) The agreement required by division (D)(1) of this section 36624
shall include all of the following provisions:36625

        (a) That the individual will be provided skilled nursing care 36626
in the facility only if a determination has been made that the 36627
individual's needs can be met at the facility;36628

       (b) That the individual will be retained in the facility only 36629
if periodic redeterminations are made that the individual's needs 36630
are being met at the facility;36631

       (c) That the redeterminations will be made according to a 36632
schedule specified in the agreement;36633

        (d) If the individual is a hospice patient, that the 36634
individual has been given an opportunity to choose the hospice 36635
care program that best meets the individual's needs;36636

       (e) Unless the individual is a hospice patient, that the 36637
individual's personal physician has determined that the skilled 36638
nursing care the individual needs is routine.36639

       (E) Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter, a 36640
residential care facility in which residents receive skilled 36641
nursing care pursuant to this section is not a nursing home.36642

       Sec. 3721.02. (A) As used in this section, "residential 36643
facility" means a residential facility licensed under section 36644
5119.22 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 36645
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 36646
unrelated adults.36647

        (B) The director of health shall license homes and establish 36648
procedures to be followed in inspecting and licensing homes. The 36649
director may inspect a home at any time. Each home shall be 36650
inspected by the director at least once prior to the issuance of a 36651
license and at least once every fifteen months thereafter. The 36652
state fire marshal or a township, municipal, or other legally 36653
constituted fire department approved by the marshal shall also 36654
inspect a home prior to issuance of a license, at least once every 36655
fifteen months thereafter, and at any other time requested by the 36656
director. A home does not have to be inspected prior to issuance 36657
of a license by the director, state fire marshal, or a fire 36658
department if ownership of the home is assigned or transferred to 36659
a different person and the home was licensed under this chapter 36660
immediately prior to the assignment or transfer. The director may 36661
enter at any time, for the purposes of investigation, any 36662
institution, residence, facility, or other structure that has been 36663
reported to the director or that the director has reasonable cause 36664
to believe is operating as a nursing home, residential care 36665
facility, or home for the aging without a valid license required 36666
by section 3721.05 of the Revised Code or, in the case of a county 36667
home or district home, is operating despite the revocation of its 36668
residential care facility license. The director may delegate the 36669
director's authority and duties under this chapter to any 36670
division, bureau, agency, or official of the department of health.36671

       (B)(C) A single facility may be licensed both as a nursing 36672
home pursuant to this chapter and as an adult carea residential36673
facility pursuant to Chapter 5119.section 5119.22 of the Revised 36674
Code if the director determines that the part or unit to be 36675
licensed as a nursing home can be maintained separate and discrete 36676
from the part or unit to be licensed as an adult carea 36677
residential facility.36678

       (C)(D) In determining the number of residents in a home for 36679
the purpose of licensing, the director shall consider all the 36680
individuals for whom the home provides accommodations as one group 36681
unless one of the following is the case:36682

       (1) The home is a home for the aging, in which case all the 36683
individuals in the part or unit licensed as a nursing home shall 36684
be considered as one group, and all the individuals in the part or 36685
unit licensed as a rest home shall be considered as another group.36686

       (2) The home is both a nursing home and an adult carea 36687
residential facility. In that case, all the individuals in the 36688
part or unit licensed as a nursing home shall be considered as one 36689
group, and all the individuals in the part or unit licensed as an 36690
adult care facility shall be considered as another group.36691

       (3) The home maintains, in addition to a nursing home or 36692
residential care facility, a separate and discrete part or unit 36693
that provides accommodations to individuals who do not require or 36694
receive skilled nursing care and do not receive personal care 36695
services from the home, in which case the individuals in the 36696
separate and discrete part or unit shall not be considered in 36697
determining the number of residents in the home if the separate 36698
and discrete part or unit is in compliance with the Ohio basic 36699
building code established by the board of building standards under 36700
Chapters 3781. and 3791. of the Revised Code and the home permits 36701
the director, on request, to inspect the separate and discrete 36702
part or unit and speak with the individuals residing there, if 36703
they consent, to determine whether the separate and discrete part 36704
or unit meets the requirements of this division.36705

       (D)(E)(1) The director of health shall charge the following 36706
application fee and annual renewal licensing and inspection fee 36707
for each fifty persons or part thereof of a home's licensed 36708
capacity:36709

       (a) For state fiscal year 2010, two hundred twenty dollars;36710

       (b) For state fiscal year 2011, two hundred seventy dollars;36711

       (c) For each state fiscal year thereafter, three hundred 36712
twenty dollars. 36713

       (2) All fees collected by the director for the issuance or 36714
renewal of licenses shall be deposited into the state treasury to 36715
the credit of the general operations fund created in section 36716
3701.83 of the Revised Code for use only in administering and 36717
enforcing this chapter and rules adopted under it.36718

       (E)(F)(1) Except as otherwise provided in this section, the 36719
results of an inspection or investigation of a home that is 36720
conducted under this section, including any statement of 36721
deficiencies and all findings and deficiencies cited in the 36722
statement on the basis of the inspection or investigation, shall 36723
be used solely to determine the home's compliance with this 36724
chapter or another chapter of the Revised Code in any action or 36725
proceeding other than an action commenced under division (I) of 36726
section 3721.17 of the Revised Code. Those results of an 36727
inspection or investigation, that statement of deficiencies, and 36728
the findings and deficiencies cited in that statement shall not be 36729
used in any court or in any action or proceeding that is pending 36730
in any court and are not admissible in evidence in any action or 36731
proceeding unless that action or proceeding is an appeal of an 36732
action by the department of health under this chapter or is an 36733
action by any department or agency of the state to enforce this 36734
chapter or another chapter of the Revised Code.36735

       (2) Nothing in division (E)(1) of this section prohibits the 36736
results of an inspection or investigation conducted under this 36737
section from being used in a criminal investigation or 36738
prosecution.36739

       Sec. 3721.03.  (A) As used in this section, "person" has the 36740
same meaning as in section 1.59 of the Revised Code.36741

        (B) The director of health shall enforce the provisions of 36742
sections 3721.01 to 3721.13 and 3721.99 of the Revised Code and 36743
may issue orders to secure compliance with the provisions of these 36744
sections and the rules adopted under them. The director may hold 36745
hearings, issue subpoenas, compel testimony, and make 36746
adjudications. 36747

       The director may issue an order revoking a license in the 36748
event the director finds, upon hearing or opportunity afforded 36749
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, that any of the 36750
following apply to a person, county home, or district home 36751
licensed under section 3721.07 of the Revised Code:36752

       (1) Has violated any of the provisions of Chapter 3721. of 36753
the Revised Code or rules adopted by the public health council36754
director under it; 36755

       (2) Has violated any order issued by the director; 36756

       (3) Is not, or any of its principals are not suitable, 36757
morally or financially to operate such an institution; 36758

       (4) Is not furnishing humane, kind, and adequate treatment 36759
and care;36760

       (5) Has had a long-standing pattern of violations of this 36761
chapter or the rules adopted under it that has caused physical, 36762
emotional, mental, or psychosocial harm to one or more residents. 36763

       Upon the issuance of any order of revocation, the person 36764
whose license is revoked, or the county home or district home that 36765
has its license revoked, may appeal in accordance with Chapter 36766
119. of the Revised Code.36767

        (C) Once the director notifies a person, county home, or 36768
district home licensed to operate a home that the license may be 36769
revoked or issues any order under this section, the person, county 36770
home, or district home shall not assign or transfer to another 36771
person or entity the right to operate the home. This prohibition 36772
shall remain in effect until proceedings under Chapter 119. of the 36773
Revised Code concerning the order or license revocation have been 36774
concluded or the director notifies the person, county home, or 36775
district home that the prohibition has been lifted.36776

        If a license is revoked under this section, the former 36777
license holder shall not assign or transfer or consent to 36778
assignment or transfer of the right to operate the home. Any 36779
attempted assignment or transfer to another person or entity is 36780
void.36781

       On revocation of a license, the former licensee shall take 36782
all necessary steps to cease operation of the home.36783

       The director of health shall not accept a certificate of need 36784
application under section 3702.52 of the Revised Code regarding a 36785
home if the license to operate the home has been revoked under 36786
this section.36787

       Sec. 3721.032. The state fire marshal shall enforce all 36788
statutes and rules pertaining to fire safety in homes and shall 36789
adopt rules pertaining to fire safety in homes as the marshal 36790
determines necessary. The rules adopted by the marshal shall be in 36791
addition to those fire safety rules that the board of building 36792
standards and the publicdirector of health council are empowered 36793
to adopt. In the event of a dispute between the marshal and 36794
another officer having responsibilities under sections 3721.01 to 36795
3721.09 of the Revised Code with respect to the interpretation or 36796
application of a specific fire safety statute or rule, the 36797
interpretation of the marshal shall prevail.36798

       Sec. 3721.04.  (A) The publicdirector of health council36799
shall adopt and publish rules governing the operation of homes, 36800
which shall have uniform application throughout the state, and 36801
shall prescribe standards for homes with respect to, but not 36802
limited to, the following matters:36803

       (1) The minimum space requirements for occupants and 36804
equipping of the buildings in which homes are housed so as to 36805
ensure healthful, safe, sanitary, and comfortable conditions for 36806
all residents, so long as they are not inconsistent with Chapters 36807
3781. and 3791. of the Revised Code or with any rules adopted by 36808
the board of building standards and by the state fire marshal;36809

       (2) The number and qualifications of personnel, including 36810
management and nursing staff, for each class of home, and the 36811
qualifications of nurse aides, as defined in section 3721.21 of 36812
the Revised Code, used by long-term care facilities, as defined in 36813
that section;36814

       (3) The medical, rehabilitative, and recreational services to 36815
be provided by each class of home;36816

       (4) Dietetic services, including but not limited to 36817
sanitation, nutritional adequacy, and palatability of food;36818

       (5) The personal and social services to be provided by each 36819
class of home;36820

       (6) The business and accounting practices to be followed and 36821
the type of patient and business records to be kept by such homes;36822

       (7) The operation of adult day-care programs provided by and 36823
on the same site as homes licensed under this chapter;36824

       (8) The standards and procedures to be followed by 36825
residential care facilities in admitting and retaining a resident 36826
who requires the application of dressings, including requirements 36827
for charting and evaluating on a weekly basis;36828

       (9) The requirements for conducting weekly evaluations of 36829
residents receiving skilled nursing care in residential care 36830
facilities.36831

       (B) The public health councildirector may adopt whatever 36832
additional rules are necessary to carry out or enforce the 36833
provisions of sections 3721.01 to 3721.09 and 3721.99 of the 36834
Revised Code.36835

       (C) The following apply to the public health councildirector36836
when adopting rules under division (A)(1) of this section 36837
regarding the equipping of the buildings in which homes are 36838
housed:36839

       (1) The rules shall not require that each resident sleeping 36840
room, or a percentage of the resident sleeping rooms, have a 36841
bathtub or shower that is directly accessible from or exclusively 36842
for the room.36843

       (2) The rules shall require that the privacy and dignity of 36844
residents be protected when the residents are transported to and 36845
from bathing facilities, prepare for bathing, and bathe.36846

       (D) The following apply to the public health councildirector36847
when adopting rules under division (A)(2) of this section 36848
regarding the number and qualifications of personnel in homes:36849

       (1) When adopting rules applicable to residential care 36850
facilities, the public health councildirector shall take into 36851
consideration the effect that the following may have on the number 36852
of personnel needed:36853

        (a) Provision of personal care services;36854

       (b) Provision of part-time, intermittent skilled nursing care 36855
pursuant to division (C) of section 3721.011 of the Revised Code;36856

        (c) Provision of skilled nursing care to residents pursuant 36857
to division (D) of section 3721.011 of the Revised Code.36858

       (2) When adopting rules applicable to nursing homes, the 36859
public health councildirector shall require each nursing home to 36860
do both of the following:36861

       (a) Have sufficient direct care staff on each shift to meet 36862
the needs of the residents in an appropriate and timely manner;36863

       (b) Have the following individuals provide a minimum daily 36864
average of two and one-half hours of direct care per resident:36865

       (i) Registered nurses, including registered nurses who 36866
perform administrative and supervisory duties;36867

       (ii) Licensed practical nurses, including licensed practical 36868
nurses who perform administrative and supervisory duties;36869

       (iii) Nurse aides.36870

       (3) The rules prescribing qualifications of nurse aides used 36871
by long-term care facilities, as those terms are defined in 36872
section 3721.21 of the Revised Code, shall be no less stringent 36873
than the requirements, guidelines, and procedures established by 36874
the United States secretary of health and human services under 36875
sectionssection 1819 and 1919 of the "Social Security Act," 4936876
101 Stat. 6201330-160 (19351987), 42 U.S.C. 3011395i-3, as 36877
amended, and section 1919 of the "Social Security Act," 101 Stat. 36878
1330-182 (1987), 42 U.S.C. 1396r, as amended.36879

       (E) The following apply to the director when adopting rules 36880
under division (A)(2) of this section regarding the number and 36881
qualifications of personnel in nursing homes or rules under 36882
division (A)(5) of this section regarding social services to be 36883
provided by nursing homes:36884

        (1) The rules shall not prescribe the number of individuals 36885
licensed as social workers under Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code 36886
that a nursing home with one hundred twenty or fewer beds must 36887
employ.36888

        (2) The rules shall require each nursing home with more than 36889
one hundred twenty beds to employ on a full-time basis one 36890
individual licensed as a social worker under Chapter 4757. of the 36891
Revised Code.36892

        (3) The rules shall require each nursing home to offer its 36893
residents medically related social services that assist the 36894
residents in attaining or maintaining their highest practicable 36895
physical, mental, and psychosocial well-being.36896

       Sec. 3721.07.  Every person desiring to operate a home and 36897
the superintendent or administrator of each county home or 36898
district home for which a license as a residential care facility 36899
is sought shall apply for a license to the director of health. The 36900
director shall issue a license for the home, if after 36901
investigation of the applicant and, if required by section 3721.02 36902
of the Revised Code, inspection of the home, the following 36903
requirements or conditions are satisfied or complied with:36904

       (A) The applicant has not been convicted of a felony or a 36905
crime involving moral turpitude;36906

       (B) The applicant is not violating any of the rules made36907
adopted by the publicdirector of health council or any order 36908
issued by the director of health;36909

       (C) The applicant has not had a license to operate the home 36910
revoked pursuant to section 3721.03 of the Revised Code because of 36911
any act or omission that jeopardized a resident's health, welfare, 36912
or safety nor has the applicant had a long-standing pattern of 36913
violations of this chapter or rules adopted under it that caused 36914
physical, emotional, mental, or psychosocial harm to one or more 36915
residents.36916

        (D) The buildings in which the home is housed have been 36917
approved by the state fire marshal or a township, municipal, or 36918
other legally constituted fire department approved by the marshal. 36919
In the approval of a home such agencies shall apply standards 36920
prescribed by the board of building standards, and by the state 36921
fire marshal, and by section 3721.071 of the Revised Code.36922

       (E) The applicant, if it is an individual, or the principal 36923
participants, if it is an association or a corporation, is or are 36924
suitable financially and morally to operate a home;36925

       (F) The applicant is equipped to furnish humane, kind, and 36926
adequate treatment and care;36927

       (G) The home does not maintain or contain:36928

       (1) Facilities for the performance of major surgical 36929
procedures;36930

       (2) Facilities for providing therapeutic radiation;36931

       (3) An emergency ward;36932

       (4) A clinical laboratory unless it is under the supervision 36933
of a clinical pathologist who is a licensed physician in this 36934
state;36935

       (5) Facilities for radiological examinations unless such 36936
examinations are performed only by a person licensed to practice 36937
medicine, surgery, or dentistry in this state.36938

       (H) The home does not accept or treat outpatients, except 36939
upon the written orders of a physician licensed in this state, 36940
maternity cases, boarding children, and does not house transient 36941
guests, other than participants in an adult day-care program, for 36942
twenty-four hours or less;36943

       (I) The home is in compliance with sections 3721.28 and 36944
3721.29 of the Revised Code.36945

       When the director issues a license, the license shall remain 36946
in effect until revoked by the director or voided at the request 36947
of the applicant; provided, there shall be an annual renewal fee 36948
payable during the month of January of each calendar year. Any 36949
licensed home that does not pay its renewal fee in January shall 36950
pay, beginning the first day of February, a late fee of one 36951
hundred dollars for each week or part thereof that the renewal fee 36952
is not paid. If either the renewal fee or the late fee is not paid 36953
by the fifteenth day of February, the director may, in accordance 36954
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, revoke the home's license.36955

        If, under division (B)(5) of section 3721.03 of the Revised 36956
Code, the license of a person has been revoked or the license of a 36957
county home or district home to operate as a residential care 36958
facility has been revoked, the director of health shall not issue 36959
a license to the person or home at any time. A person whose 36960
license is revoked, and a county home or district home that has 36961
its license as a residential care facility revoked other than 36962
under division (B)(5) of section 3721.03 of the Revised Code, for 36963
any reason other than nonpayment of the license renewal fee or 36964
late fees shall not be issued a new license under this chapter 36965
until a period of one year following the date of revocation has 36966
elapsed.36967

       Any applicant who is denied a license may appeal in 36968
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.36969

       Sec. 3721.071.  The buildings in which a home is housed shall 36970
be equipped with both an automatic fire extinguishing system and 36971
fire alarm system. Such systems shall conform to standards set 36972
forth in the regulations of the board of building standards and 36973
the state fire marshal.36974

       The time for compliance with the requirements imposed by this 36975
section shall be January 1, 1975, except that the date for 36976
compliance with the automatic fire extinguishing requirements is 36977
extended to January 1, 1976, provided the buildings of the home 36978
are otherwise in compliance with fire safety laws and regulations 36979
and:36980

       (A) The home within thirty days after August 4, 1975, files a 36981
written plan with the state fire marshal's office that:36982

       (1) Outlines the interim safety procedures which shall be 36983
carried out to reduce the possibility of a fire;36984

       (2) Provides evidence that the home has entered into an 36985
agreement for a fire safety inspection to be conducted not less 36986
than monthly by a qualified independent safety engineer consultant 36987
or a township, municipal, or other legally constituted fire 36988
department, or by a township or municipal fire prevention officer;36989

       (3) Provides verification that the home has entered into a 36990
valid contract for the installation of an automatic fire 36991
extinguishing system or fire alarm system, or both, as required to 36992
comply with this section;36993

       (4) Includes a statement regarding the expected date for the 36994
completion of the fire extinguishing system or fire alarm system, 36995
or both.36996

       (B) Inspections by a qualified independent safety engineer 36997
consultant or a township, municipal, or other legally constituted 36998
fire department, or by a township or municipal fire prevention 36999
officer are initiated no later than sixty days after August 4, 37000
1975, and are conducted no less than monthly thereafter, and 37001
reports of the consultant, fire department, or fire prevention 37002
officer identifying existing hazards and recommended corrective 37003
actions are submitted to the state fire marshal, the division of 37004
laborindustrial compliance in the department of commerce, and the 37005
department of health.37006

       It is the express intent of the general assembly that the 37007
department of job and family services shall terminate payments 37008
under Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 37009
42 U.S.C. 301, as amended, to those homes which do not comply with 37010
the requirements of this section for the submission of a written 37011
fire safety plan and the deadline for entering into contracts for 37012
the installation of systems.37013

       Sec. 3721.121.  (A) As used in this section:37014

       (1) "Adult day-care program" means a program operated 37015
pursuant to rules adopted by the publicdirector of health council37016
under section 3721.04 of the Revised Code and provided by and on 37017
the same site as homes licensed under this chapter.37018

       (2) "Applicant" means a person who is under final 37019
consideration for employment with a home or adult day-care program 37020
in a full-time, part-time, or temporary position that involves 37021
providing direct care to an older adult. "Applicant" does not 37022
include a person who provides direct care as a volunteer without 37023
receiving or expecting to receive any form of remuneration other 37024
than reimbursement for actual expenses.37025

       (3) "Criminal records check" and "older adult" havehas the 37026
same meaningsmeaning as in section 109.572 of the Revised Code.37027

       (4) "Home" means a home as defined in section 3721.10 of the 37028
Revised Code.37029

       (5) "Older adult" means a person age sixty or older.37030

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (I) of this section, 37031
the chief administrator of a home or adult day-care program shall 37032
request that the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 37033
identification and investigation conduct a criminal records check 37034
with respect toof each applicant. If an applicant for whom a 37035
criminal records check request is required under this division 37036
does not present proof of having been a resident of this state for 37037
the five-year period immediately prior to the date the criminal 37038
records check is requested or provide evidence that within that 37039
five-year period the superintendent has requested information 37040
about the applicant from the federal bureau of investigation in a 37041
criminal records check, the chief administrator shall request that 37042
the superintendent obtain information from the federal bureau of 37043
investigation as part of the criminal records check of the 37044
applicant. Even if an applicant for whom a criminal records check 37045
request is required under this division presents proof of having 37046
been a resident of this state for the five-year period, the chief 37047
administrator may request that the superintendent include 37048
information from the federal bureau of investigation in the 37049
criminal records check.37050

       (2) A person required by division (B)(1) of this section to 37051
request a criminal records check shall do both of the following:37052

       (a) Provide to each applicant for whom a criminal records 37053
check request is required under that division a copy of the form 37054
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the 37055
Revised Code and a standard fingerprint impression sheet 37056
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section, and obtain 37057
the completed form and impression sheet from the applicant;37058

       (b) Forward the completed form and impression sheet to the 37059
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 37060
investigation.37061

       (3) An applicant provided the form and fingerprint impression 37062
sheet under division (B)(2)(a) of this section who fails to 37063
complete the form or provide fingerprint impressions shall not be 37064
employed in any position for which a criminal records check is 37065
required by this section.37066

       (C)(1) Except as provided in rules adopted by the director of 37067
health in accordance with division (F) of this section and subject 37068
to division (C)(2) of this section, no home or adult day-care 37069
program shall employ a person in a position that involves 37070
providing direct care to an older adult if the person has been 37071
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:37072

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 37073
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 37074
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 37075
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 37076
2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 37077
2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 37078
2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 37079
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 37080
2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code.37081

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 37082
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 37083
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (C)(1)(a) of 37084
this section.37085

       (2)(a) A home or an adult day-care program may employ 37086
conditionally an applicant for whom a criminal records check 37087
request is required under division (B) of this section prior to 37088
obtaining the results of a criminal records check regarding the 37089
individual, provided that the home or program shall request a 37090
criminal records check regarding the individual in accordance with 37091
division (B)(1) of this section not later than five business days 37092
after the individual begins conditional employment. In the 37093
circumstances described in division (I)(2) of this section, a home 37094
or adult day-care program may employ conditionally an applicant 37095
who has been referred to the home or adult day-care program by an 37096
employment service that supplies full-time, part-time, or 37097
temporary staff for positions involving the direct care of older 37098
adults and for whom, pursuant to that division, a criminal records 37099
check is not required under division (B) of this section.37100

       (b) A home or adult day-care program that employs an 37101
individual conditionally under authority of division (C)(2)(a) of 37102
this section shall terminate the individual's employment if the 37103
results of the criminal records check requested under division (B) 37104
of this section or described in division (I)(2) of this section, 37105
other than the results of any request for information from the 37106
federal bureau of investigation, are not obtained within the 37107
period ending thirty days after the date the request is made. 37108
Regardless of when the results of the criminal records check are 37109
obtained, if the results indicate that the individual has been 37110
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the offenses listed or 37111
described in division (C)(1) of this section, the home or program 37112
shall terminate the individual's employment unless the home or 37113
program chooses to employ the individual pursuant to division (F) 37114
of this section. Termination of employment under this division 37115
shall be considered just cause for discharge for purposes of 37116
division (D)(2) of section 4141.29 of the Revised Code if the 37117
individual makes any attempt to deceive the home or program about 37118
the individual's criminal record.37119

       (D)(1) Each home or adult day-care program shall pay to the 37120
bureau of criminal identification and investigation the fee 37121
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the 37122
Revised Code for each criminal records check conducted pursuant to 37123
a request made under division (B) of this section.37124

       (2) A home or adult day-care program may charge an applicant 37125
a fee not exceeding the amount the home or program pays under 37126
division (D)(1) of this section. A home or program may collect a 37127
fee only if both of the following apply:37128

       (a) The home or program notifies the person at the time of 37129
initial application for employment of the amount of the fee and 37130
that, unless the fee is paid, the person will not be considered 37131
for employment;37132

       (b) The medical assistance program established under Chapter 37133
5111. of the Revised Code does not reimburse the home or program 37134
the fee it pays under division (D)(1) of this section.37135

       (E) The report of any criminal records check conducted 37136
pursuant to a request made under this section is not a public 37137
record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and 37138
shall not be made available to any person other than the 37139
following:37140

       (1) The individual who is the subject of the criminal records 37141
check or the individual's representative;37142

       (2) The chief administrator of the home or program requesting 37143
the criminal records check or the administrator's representative;37144

       (3) The administrator of any other facility, agency, or 37145
program that provides direct care to older adults that is owned or 37146
operated by the same entity that owns or operates the home or 37147
program;37148

       (4) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 37149
involved in a case dealing with a denial of employment of the 37150
applicant or dealing with employment or unemployment benefits of 37151
the applicant;37152

       (5) Any person to whom the report is provided pursuant to, 37153
and in accordance with, division (I)(1) or (2) of this section;37154

       (6) The board of nursing for purposes of accepting and 37155
processing an application for a medication aide certificate issued 37156
under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code.37157

       (F) In accordance with section 3721.11 of the Revised Code, 37158
the director of health shall adopt rules to implement this 37159
section. The rules shall specify circumstances under which a home 37160
or adult day-care program may employ a person who has been 37161
convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense listed or described 37162
in division (C)(1) of this section but meets personal character 37163
standards set by the director.37164

       (G) The chief administrator of a home or adult day-care 37165
program shall inform each individual, at the time of initial 37166
application for a position that involves providing direct care to 37167
an older adult, that the individual is required to provide a set 37168
of fingerprint impressions and that a criminal records check is 37169
required to be conducted if the individual comes under final 37170
consideration for employment.37171

       (H) In a tort or other civil action for damages that is 37172
brought as the result of an injury, death, or loss to person or 37173
property caused by an individual who a home or adult day-care 37174
program employs in a position that involves providing direct care 37175
to older adults, all of the following shall apply:37176

       (1) If the home or program employed the individual in good 37177
faith and reasonable reliance on the report of a criminal records 37178
check requested under this section, the home or program shall not 37179
be found negligent solely because of its reliance on the report, 37180
even if the information in the report is determined later to have 37181
been incomplete or inaccurate;37182

       (2) If the home or program employed the individual in good 37183
faith on a conditional basis pursuant to division (C)(2) of this 37184
section, the home or program shall not be found negligent solely 37185
because it employed the individual prior to receiving the report 37186
of a criminal records check requested under this section;37187

       (3) If the home or program in good faith employed the 37188
individual according to the personal character standards 37189
established in rules adopted under division (F) of this section, 37190
the home or program shall not be found negligent solely because 37191
the individual prior to being employed had been convicted of or 37192
pleaded guilty to an offense listed or described in division 37193
(C)(1) of this section.37194

       (I)(1) The chief administrator of a home or adult day-care 37195
program is not required to request that the superintendent of the 37196
bureau of criminal identification and investigation conduct a 37197
criminal records check of an applicant if the applicant has been 37198
referred to the home or program by an employment service that 37199
supplies full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for positions 37200
involving the direct care of older adults and both of the 37201
following apply:37202

       (a) The chief administrator receives from the employment 37203
service or the applicant a report of the results of a criminal 37204
records check regarding the applicant that has been conducted by 37205
the superintendent within the one-year period immediately 37206
preceding the applicant's referral;37207

       (b) The report of the criminal records check demonstrates 37208
that the person has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an 37209
offense listed or described in division (C)(1) of this section, or 37210
the report demonstrates that the person has been convicted of or 37211
pleaded guilty to one or more of those offenses, but the home or 37212
adult day-care program chooses to employ the individual pursuant 37213
to division (F) of this section.37214

       (2) The chief administrator of a home or adult day-care 37215
program is not required to request that the superintendent of the 37216
bureau of criminal identification and investigation conduct a 37217
criminal records check of an applicant and may employ the 37218
applicant conditionally as described in this division, if the 37219
applicant has been referred to the home or program by an 37220
employment service that supplies full-time, part-time, or 37221
temporary staff for positions involving the direct care of older 37222
adults and if the chief administrator receives from the employment 37223
service or the applicant a letter from the employment service that 37224
is on the letterhead of the employment service, dated, and signed 37225
by a supervisor or another designated official of the employment 37226
service and that states that the employment service has requested 37227
the superintendent to conduct a criminal records check regarding 37228
the applicant, that the requested criminal records check will 37229
include a determination of whether the applicant has been 37230
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense listed or described 37231
in division (C)(1) of this section, that, as of the date set forth 37232
on the letter, the employment service had not received the results 37233
of the criminal records check, and that, when the employment 37234
service receives the results of the criminal records check, it 37235
promptly will send a copy of the results to the home or adult 37236
day-care program. If a home or adult day-care program employs an 37237
applicant conditionally in accordance with this division, the 37238
employment service, upon its receipt of the results of the 37239
criminal records check, promptly shall send a copy of the results 37240
to the home or adult day-care program, and division (C)(2)(b) of 37241
this section applies regarding the conditional employment.37242

       Sec. 3721.13.  (A) The rights of residents of a home shall 37243
include, but are not limited to, the following:37244

       (1) The right to a safe and clean living environment pursuant 37245
to the medicare and medicaid programs and applicable state laws 37246
and regulations prescribedrules adopted by the publicdirector of37247
health council;37248

       (2) The right to be free from physical, verbal, mental, and 37249
emotional abuse and to be treated at all times with courtesy, 37250
respect, and full recognition of dignity and individuality;37251

       (3) Upon admission and thereafter, the right to adequate and 37252
appropriate medical treatment and nursing care and to other 37253
ancillary services that comprise necessary and appropriate care 37254
consistent with the program for which the resident contracted. 37255
This care shall be provided without regard to considerations such 37256
as race, color, religion, national origin, age, or source of 37257
payment for care.37258

       (4) The right to have all reasonable requests and inquiries 37259
responded to promptly;37260

       (5) The right to have clothes and bed sheets changed as the 37261
need arises, to ensure the resident's comfort or sanitation;37262

       (6) The right to obtain from the home, upon request, the name 37263
and any specialty of any physician or other person responsible for 37264
the resident's care or for the coordination of care;37265

       (7) The right, upon request, to be assigned, within the 37266
capacity of the home to make the assignment, to the staff 37267
physician of the resident's choice, and the right, in accordance 37268
with the rules and written policies and procedures of the home, to 37269
select as the attending physician a physician who is not on the 37270
staff of the home. If the cost of a physician's services is to be 37271
met under a federally supported program, the physician shall meet 37272
the federal laws and regulations governing such services.37273

       (8) The right to participate in decisions that affect the 37274
resident's life, including the right to communicate with the 37275
physician and employees of the home in planning the resident's 37276
treatment or care and to obtain from the attending physician 37277
complete and current information concerning medical condition, 37278
prognosis, and treatment plan, in terms the resident can 37279
reasonably be expected to understand; the right of access to all 37280
information in the resident's medical record; and the right to 37281
give or withhold informed consent for treatment after the 37282
consequences of that choice have been carefully explained. When 37283
the attending physician finds that it is not medically advisable 37284
to give the information to the resident, the information shall be 37285
made available to the resident's sponsor on the resident's behalf, 37286
if the sponsor has a legal interest or is authorized by the 37287
resident to receive the information. The home is not liable for a 37288
violation of this division if the violation is found to be the 37289
result of an act or omission on the part of a physician selected 37290
by the resident who is not otherwise affiliated with the home.37291

       (9) The right to withhold payment for physician visitation if 37292
the physician did not visit the resident;37293

       (10) The right to confidential treatment of personal and 37294
medical records, and the right to approve or refuse the release of 37295
these records to any individual outside the home, except in case 37296
of transfer to another home, hospital, or health care system, as 37297
required by law or rule, or as required by a third-party payment 37298
contract;37299

       (11) The right to privacy during medical examination or 37300
treatment and in the care of personal or bodily needs;37301

       (12) The right to refuse, without jeopardizing access to 37302
appropriate medical care, to serve as a medical research subject;37303

       (13) The right to be free from physical or chemical 37304
restraints or prolonged isolation except to the minimum extent 37305
necessary to protect the resident from injury to self, others, or 37306
to property and except as authorized in writing by the attending 37307
physician for a specified and limited period of time and 37308
documented in the resident's medical record. Prior to authorizing 37309
the use of a physical or chemical restraint on any resident, the 37310
attending physician shall make a personal examination of the 37311
resident and an individualized determination of the need to use 37312
the restraint on that resident.37313

       Physical or chemical restraints or isolation may be used in 37314
an emergency situation without authorization of the attending 37315
physician only to protect the resident from injury to self or 37316
others. Use of the physical or chemical restraints or isolation 37317
shall not be continued for more than twelve hours after the onset 37318
of the emergency without personal examination and authorization by 37319
the attending physician. The attending physician or a staff 37320
physician may authorize continued use of physical or chemical 37321
restraints for a period not to exceed thirty days, and at the end 37322
of this period and any subsequent period may extend the 37323
authorization for an additional period of not more than thirty 37324
days. The use of physical or chemical restraints shall not be 37325
continued without a personal examination of the resident and the 37326
written authorization of the attending physician stating the 37327
reasons for continuing the restraint.37328

       If physical or chemical restraints are used under this 37329
division, the home shall ensure that the restrained resident 37330
receives a proper diet. In no event shall physical or chemical 37331
restraints or isolation be used for punishment, incentive, or 37332
convenience.37333

       (14) The right to the pharmacist of the resident's choice and 37334
the right to receive pharmaceutical supplies and services at 37335
reasonable prices not exceeding applicable and normally accepted 37336
prices for comparably packaged pharmaceutical supplies and 37337
services within the community;37338

       (15) The right to exercise all civil rights, unless the 37339
resident has been adjudicated incompetent pursuant to Chapter 37340
2111. of the Revised Code and has not been restored to legal 37341
capacity, as well as the right to the cooperation of the home's 37342
administrator in making arrangements for the exercise of the right 37343
to vote;37344

       (16) The right of access to opportunities that enable the 37345
resident, at the resident's own expense or at the expense of a 37346
third-party payer, to achieve the resident's fullest potential, 37347
including educational, vocational, social, recreational, and 37348
habilitation programs;37349

       (17) The right to consume a reasonable amount of alcoholic 37350
beverages at the resident's own expense, unless not medically 37351
advisable as documented in the resident's medical record by the 37352
attending physician or unless contradictory to written admission 37353
policies;37354

       (18) The right to use tobacco at the resident's own expense 37355
under the home's safety rules and under applicable laws and rules 37356
of the state, unless not medically advisable as documented in the 37357
resident's medical record by the attending physician or unless 37358
contradictory to written admission policies;37359

       (19) The right to retire and rise in accordance with the 37360
resident's reasonable requests, if the resident does not disturb 37361
others or the posted meal schedules and upon the home's request 37362
remains in a supervised area, unless not medically advisable as 37363
documented by the attending physician;37364

       (20) The right to observe religious obligations and 37365
participate in religious activities; the right to maintain 37366
individual and cultural identity; and the right to meet with and 37367
participate in activities of social and community groups at the 37368
resident's or the group's initiative;37369

       (21) The right upon reasonable request to private and 37370
unrestricted communications with the resident's family, social 37371
worker, and any other person, unless not medically advisable as 37372
documented in the resident's medical record by the attending 37373
physician, except that communications with public officials or 37374
with the resident's attorney or physician shall not be restricted. 37375
Private and unrestricted communications shall include, but are not 37376
limited to, the right to:37377

       (a) Receive, send, and mail sealed, unopened correspondence;37378

       (b) Reasonable access to a telephone for private 37379
communications;37380

       (c) Private visits at any reasonable hour.37381

       (22) The right to assured privacy for visits by the spouse, 37382
or if both are residents of the same home, the right to share a 37383
room within the capacity of the home, unless not medically 37384
advisable as documented in the resident's medical record by the 37385
attending physician;37386

       (23) The right upon reasonable request to have room doors 37387
closed and to have them not opened without knocking, except in the 37388
case of an emergency or unless not medically advisable as 37389
documented in the resident's medical record by the attending 37390
physician;37391

       (24) The right to retain and use personal clothing and a 37392
reasonable amount of possessions, in a reasonably secure manner, 37393
unless to do so would infringe on the rights of other residents or 37394
would not be medically advisable as documented in the resident's 37395
medical record by the attending physician;37396

       (25) The right to be fully informed, prior to or at the time 37397
of admission and during the resident's stay, in writing, of the 37398
basic rate charged by the home, of services available in the home, 37399
and of any additional charges related to such services, including 37400
charges for services not covered under the medicare or medicaid 37401
program. The basic rate shall not be changed unless thirty days'37402
notice is given to the resident or, if the resident is unable to 37403
understand this information, to the resident's sponsor.37404

       (26) The right of the resident and person paying for the care 37405
to examine and receive a bill at least monthly for the resident's 37406
care from the home that itemizes charges not included in the basic 37407
rates;37408

       (27)(a) The right to be free from financial exploitation;37409

       (b) The right to manage the resident's own personal financial 37410
affairs, or, if the resident has delegated this responsibility in 37411
writing to the home, to receive upon written request at least a 37412
quarterly accounting statement of financial transactions made on 37413
the resident's behalf. The statement shall include:37414

       (i) A complete record of all funds, personal property, or 37415
possessions of a resident from any source whatsoever, that have 37416
been deposited for safekeeping with the home for use by the 37417
resident or the resident's sponsor;37418

       (ii) A listing of all deposits and withdrawals transacted, 37419
which shall be substantiated by receipts which shall be available 37420
for inspection and copying by the resident or sponsor.37421

       (28) The right of the resident to be allowed unrestricted 37422
access to the resident's property on deposit at reasonable hours, 37423
unless requests for access to property on deposit are so 37424
persistent, continuous, and unreasonable that they constitute a 37425
nuisance;37426

       (29) The right to receive reasonable notice before the 37427
resident's room or roommate is changed, including an explanation 37428
of the reason for either change.37429

       (30) The right not to be transferred or discharged from the 37430
home unless the transfer is necessary because of one of the 37431
following:37432

       (a) The welfare and needs of the resident cannot be met in 37433
the home.37434

       (b) The resident's health has improved sufficiently so that 37435
the resident no longer needs the services provided by the home.37436

       (c) The safety of individuals in the home is endangered.37437

       (d) The health of individuals in the home would otherwise be 37438
endangered.37439

       (e) The resident has failed, after reasonable and appropriate 37440
notice, to pay or to have the medicare or medicaid program pay on 37441
the resident's behalf, for the care provided by the home. A 37442
resident shall not be considered to have failed to have the 37443
resident's care paid for if the resident has applied for medicaid, 37444
unless both of the following are the case:37445

       (i) The resident's application, or a substantially similar 37446
previous application, has been denied by the county department of 37447
job and family services.37448

       (ii) If the resident appealed the denial pursuant to division 37449
(C) of section 5101.35 of the Revised Code, the director of job 37450
and family services has upheld the denial.37451

       (f) The home's license has been revoked, the home is being 37452
closed pursuant to section 3721.08, sections 5111.35 to 5111.62, 37453
or section 5155.31 of the Revised Code, or the home otherwise 37454
ceases to operate.37455

       (g) The resident is a recipient of medicaid, and the home's 37456
participation in the medicaid program is involuntarily terminated 37457
or denied.37458

       (h) The resident is a beneficiary under the medicare program, 37459
and the home's participation in the medicare program is 37460
involuntarily terminated or denied.37461

       (31) The right to voice grievances and recommend changes in 37462
policies and services to the home's staff, to employees of the 37463
department of health, or to other persons not associated with the 37464
operation of the home, of the resident's choice, free from 37465
restraint, interference, coercion, discrimination, or reprisal. 37466
This right includes access to a residents' rights advocate, and 37467
the right to be a member of, to be active in, and to associate 37468
with persons who are active in organizations of relatives and 37469
friends of nursing home residents and other organizations engaged 37470
in assisting residents.37471

       (32) The right to have any significant change in the 37472
resident's health status reported to the resident's sponsor. As 37473
soon as such a change is known to the home's staff, the home shall 37474
make a reasonable effort to notify the sponsor within twelve 37475
hours.37476

       (B) A sponsor may act on a resident's behalf to assure that 37477
the home does not deny the residents' rights under sections 37478
3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code.37479

       (C) Any attempted waiver of the rights listed in division (A) 37480
of this section is void.37481

       Sec. 3721.21.  As used in sections 3721.21 to 3721.34 of the 37482
Revised Code:37483

       (A) "Long-term care facility" means either of the following:37484

       (1) A nursing home as defined in section 3721.01 of the 37485
Revised Code, other than a nursing home or part of a nursing home 37486
certified as an intermediate care facility for the mentally 37487
retarded under Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 37488
620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended;37489

       (2) A facility or part of a facility that is certified as a 37490
skilled nursing facility or a nursing facility under Title XVIII 37491
or XIX of the "Social Security Act."37492

       (B) "Residential care facility" has the same meaning as in 37493
section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.37494

       (C) "Abuse" means knowingly causing physical harm or 37495
recklessly causing serious physical harm to a resident by physical 37496
contact with the resident or by use of physical or chemical 37497
restraint, medication, or isolation as punishment, for staff 37498
convenience, excessively, as a substitute for treatment, or in 37499
amounts that preclude habilitation and treatment.37500

       (D) "Neglect" means recklessly failing to provide a resident 37501
with any treatment, care, goods, or service necessary to maintain 37502
the health or safety of the resident when the failure results in 37503
serious physical harm to the resident. "Neglect" does not include 37504
allowing a resident, at the resident's option, to receive only 37505
treatment by spiritual means through prayer in accordance with the 37506
tenets of a recognized religious denomination.37507

       (E) "Misappropriation" means depriving, defrauding, or 37508
otherwise obtaining the real or personal property of a resident by 37509
any means prohibited by the Revised Code, including violations of 37510
Chapter 2911. or 2913. of the Revised Code.37511

       (F) "Resident" includes a resident, patient, former resident 37512
or patient, or deceased resident or patient of a long-term care 37513
facility or a residential care facility.37514

       (G) "Physical restraint" has the same meaning as in section 37515
3721.10 of the Revised Code.37516

       (H) "Chemical restraint" has the same meaning as in section 37517
3721.10 of the Revised Code.37518

       (I) "Nursing and nursing-related services" means the personal 37519
care services and other services not constituting skilled nursing 37520
care that are specified in rules the publicdirector of health 37521
council shall adopt in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 37522
Code.37523

       (J) "Personal care services" has the same meaning as in 37524
section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.37525

       (K)(1) Except as provided in division (K)(2) of this section, 37526
"nurse aide" means an individual who provides nursing and 37527
nursing-related services to residents in a long-term care 37528
facility, either as a member of the staff of the facility for 37529
monetary compensation or as a volunteer without monetary 37530
compensation.37531

       (2) "Nurse aide" does not include either of the following:37532

        (a) A licensed health professional practicing within the 37533
scope of the professional's license;37534

        (b) An individual providing nursing and nursing-related 37535
services in a religious nonmedical health care institution, if the 37536
individual has been trained in the principles of nonmedical care 37537
and is recognized by the institution as being competent in the 37538
administration of care within the religious tenets practiced by 37539
the residents of the institution.37540

       (L) "Licensed health professional" means all of the 37541
following:37542

       (1) An occupational therapist or occupational therapy 37543
assistant licensed under Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code;37544

       (2) A physical therapist or physical therapy assistant 37545
licensed under Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code;37546

       (3) A physician authorized under Chapter 4731. of the Revised 37547
Code to practice medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and 37548
surgery, or podiatry;37549

       (4) A physician assistant authorized under Chapter 4730. of 37550
the Revised Code to practice as a physician assistant;37551

       (5) A registered nurse or licensed practical nurse licensed 37552
under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code;37553

       (6) A social worker or independent social worker licensed 37554
under Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code or a social work assistant 37555
registered under that chapter;37556

       (7) A speech-language pathologist or audiologist licensed 37557
under Chapter 4753. of the Revised Code;37558

       (8) A dentist or dental hygienist licensed under Chapter 37559
4715. of the Revised Code;37560

       (9) An optometrist licensed under Chapter 4725. of the 37561
Revised Code;37562

       (10) A pharmacist licensed under Chapter 4729. of the Revised 37563
Code;37564

       (11) A psychologist licensed under Chapter 4732. of the 37565
Revised Code;37566

       (12) A chiropractor licensed under Chapter 4734. of the 37567
Revised Code;37568

       (13) A nursing home administrator licensed or temporarily 37569
licensed under Chapter 4751. of the Revised Code;37570

       (14) A professional counselor or professional clinical 37571
counselor licensed under Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code.37572

       (M) "Religious nonmedical health care institution" means an 37573
institution that meets or exceeds the conditions to receive 37574
payment under the medicare program established under Title XVIII 37575
of the "Social Security Act" for inpatient hospital services or 37576
post-hospital extended care services furnished to an individual in 37577
a religious nonmedical health care institution, as defined in 37578
section 1861(ss)(1) of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 37579
(1965), 42 U.S.C. 1395x(ss)(1), as amended.37580

       (N) "Competency evaluation program" means a program through 37581
which the competency of a nurse aide to provide nursing and 37582
nursing-related services is evaluated.37583

       (O) "Training and competency evaluation program" means a 37584
program of nurse aide training and evaluation of competency to 37585
provide nursing and nursing-related services.37586

       Sec. 3721.28.  (A)(1) Each nurse aide used by a long-term 37587
care facility on a full-time, temporary, per diem, or other basis 37588
on July 1, 1989, shall be provided by the facility a competency 37589
evaluation program approved by the director of health under 37590
division (A) of section 3721.31 of the Revised Code or conducted 37591
by himthe director under division (C) of that section. Each 37592
long-term care facility using a nurse aide on July 1, 1989, shall 37593
provide the nurse aide the preparation necessary to complete the 37594
competency evaluation program by January 1, 1990.37595

       (2) Each nurse aide used by a long-term care facility on a 37596
full-time, temporary, per diem, or other basis on January 1, 1990, 37597
who either was not used by the facility on July 1, 1989, or was 37598
used by the facility on July 1, 1989, but had not successfully 37599
completed a competency evaluation program by January 1, 1990, 37600
shall be provided by the facility a competency evaluation program 37601
approved by the director under division (A) of section 3721.31 of 37602
the Revised Code or conducted by himthe director under division 37603
(C) of that section. Each long-term care facility using a nurse 37604
aide described in division (A)(2) of this section shall provide 37605
the nurse aide the preparation necessary to complete the 37606
competency evaluation program by October 1, 1990, and shall assist 37607
the nurse aide in registering for the program.37608

       (B) Effective June 1, 1990, no long-term care facility shall 37609
use an individual as a nurse aide for more than four months unless 37610
the individual is competent to provide the services hethe 37611
individual is to provide, the facility has received from the nurse 37612
aide registry established under section 3721.32 of the Revised 37613
Code the information concerning the individual provided through 37614
the registry, and one of the following is the case:37615

       (1) The individual was used by a facility as a nurse aide on 37616
a full-time, temporary, per diem, or other basis at any time 37617
during the period commencing July 1, 1989, and ending January 1, 37618
1990, and successfully completed, not later than October 1, 1990, 37619
a competency evaluation program approved by the director under 37620
division (A) of section 3721.31 of the Revised Code or conducted 37621
by himthe director under division (C) of that section.37622

       (2) The individual has successfully completed a training and 37623
competency evaluation program approved by the director under 37624
division (A) of section 3721.31 of the Revised Code or conducted 37625
by himthe director under division (C) of that section or has met 37626
the conditions specified in division (F) of this section and, in 37627
addition, if the training and competency evaluation program or the 37628
training, instruction, or education the individual completed in 37629
meeting the conditions specified in division (F) of this section 37630
was conducted by or in a long-term care facility, or if the 37631
director pursuant to division (E) of section 3721.31 of the 37632
Revised Code so requires, the individual has successfully 37633
completed a competency evaluation program conducted by the 37634
director.37635

       (3) Prior to July 1, 1989, if the long-term care facility is 37636
certified as a skilled nursing facility or a nursing facility 37637
under Title XVIII or XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 37638
620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, or prior to January 1, 37639
1990, if the facility is not so certified, the individual 37640
completed a program that the director determines included a 37641
competency evaluation component no less stringent than the 37642
competency evaluation programs approved by himthe director under 37643
division (A) of section 3721.31 of the Revised Code or conducted 37644
by himthe director under division (C) of that section, and was 37645
otherwise comparable to the training and competency evaluation 37646
programs being approved by the director under division (A) of that 37647
section.37648

       (4) The individual is listed in a nurse aide registry 37649
maintained by another state and that state certifies that its 37650
program for training and evaluation of competency of nurse aides 37651
complies with Titles XVIII and XIX of the "Social Security Act" 37652
and regulations adopted thereunder.37653

       (5) Prior to July 1, 1989, the individual was found competent 37654
to serve as a nurse aide after the completion of a course of nurse 37655
aide training of at least one hundred hours' duration.37656

       (6) The individual is enrolled in a prelicensure program of 37657
nursing education approved by the board of nursing or by an agency 37658
of another state that regulates nursing education, has provided 37659
the long-term care facility with a certificate from the program 37660
indicating that the individual has successfully completed the 37661
courses that teach basic nursing skills including infection 37662
control, safety and emergency procedures, and personal care, and 37663
has successfully completed a competency evaluation program 37664
conducted by the director under division (C) of section 3721.31 of 37665
the Revised Code.37666

       (7) The individual has the equivalent of twelve months or 37667
more of full-time employment in the preceding five years as a 37668
hospital aide or orderly and has successfully completed a 37669
competency evaluation program conducted by the director under 37670
division (C) of section 3721.31 of the Revised Code.37671

       (C) Effective June 1, 1990, no long-term care facility shall 37672
continue for longer than four months to use as a nurse aide an 37673
individual who previously met the requirements of division (B) of 37674
this section but since most recently doing so has not performed 37675
nursing and nursing-related services for monetary compensation for 37676
twenty-four consecutive months, unless the individual successfully 37677
completes additional training and competency evaluation by 37678
complying with divisions (C)(1) and (2) of this section:37679

       (1) Doing one of the following:37680

       (a) Successfully completing a training and competency 37681
evaluation program approved by the director under division (A) of 37682
section 3721.31 of the Revised Code or conducted by himthe 37683
director under division (C) of that section;37684

       (b) Successfully completing a training and competency 37685
evaluation program described in division (B)(4) of this section;37686

       (c) Meeting the requirements specified in division (B)(6) or 37687
(7) of this section.37688

       (2) If the training and competency evaluation program 37689
completed under division (C)(1)(a) of this section was conducted 37690
by or in a long-term care facility, or if the director pursuant to 37691
division (E) of section 3721.31 of the Revised Code so requires, 37692
successfully completing a competency evaluation program conducted 37693
by the director.37694

       (D)(1) The four-month periods provided for in divisions (B) 37695
and (C) of this section include any time, on or after June 1, 37696
1990, that an individual is used as a nurse aide on a full-time, 37697
temporary, per diem, or any other basis by the facility or any 37698
other long-term care facility.37699

       (2) During the four-month period provided for in division (B) 37700
of this section, during which a long-term care facility may, 37701
subject to division (E) of this section, use as a nurse aide an 37702
individual who does not have the qualifications specified in 37703
divisions (B)(1) to (7) of this section, a facility shall require 37704
the individual to comply with divisions (D)(2)(a) and (b) of this 37705
section:37706

       (a) Participate in one of the following:37707

       (i) If the individual has successfully completed a training 37708
and competency evaluation program approved by the director under 37709
division (A) of section 3721.31 of the Revised Code, and the 37710
program was conducted by or in a long-term care facility, or the 37711
director pursuant to division (E) of section 3721.31 of the 37712
Revised Code so requires, a competency evaluation program 37713
conducted by the director;37714

       (ii) If the individual is enrolled in a prelicensure program 37715
of nursing education described in division (B)(6) of this section 37716
and has completed or is working toward completion of the courses 37717
described in that division, or the individual has the experience 37718
described in division (B)(7) of this section, a competency 37719
evaluation program conducted by the director;37720

       (iii) A training and competency evaluation program approved 37721
by the director under division (A) of section 3721.31 of the 37722
Revised Code or conducted by himthe director under division (C) 37723
of that section.37724

       (b) If the individual participates in or has successfully 37725
completed a training and competency evaluation program under 37726
division (D)(2)(a)(iii) of this section that is conducted by or in 37727
a long-term care facility, or the director pursuant to division 37728
(E) of section 3721.31 of the Revised Code so requires, paticipate37729
participate in a competency evaluation program conducted by the 37730
director.37731

       (3) During the four-month period provided for in division (C) 37732
of this section, during which a long-term care facility may, 37733
subject to division (E) of this section, use as a nurse aide an 37734
individual who does not have the qualifications specified in 37735
divisions (C)(1) and (2) of this section, a facility shall require 37736
the individual to comply with divisions (D)(3)(a) and (b) of this 37737
section:37738

       (a) Participate in one of the following:37739

       (i) If the individual has successfully completed a training 37740
and competency evaluation program approved by the director, and 37741
the program was conducted by or in a long-term care facility, or 37742
the director pursuant to division (E) of section 3721.31 of the 37743
Revised Code so requires, a competency evaluation program 37744
conducted by the director;37745

       (ii) If the individual is enrolled in a prelicensure program 37746
of nursing education described in division (B)(6) of this section 37747
and has completed or is working toward completion of the courses 37748
described in that division, or the individual has the experience 37749
described in division (B)(7) of this section, a competency 37750
evaluation program conducted by the director;37751

       (iii) A training and competency evaluation program approved 37752
or conducted by the director.37753

       (b) If the individual participates in or has successfully 37754
completed a training and competency evaluation program under 37755
division (D)(3)(a)(iii) of this section that is conducted by or in 37756
a long-term care facility, or the director pursuant to division 37757
(E) of section 3721.31 of the Revised Code so requires, 37758
participate in a competency evaluation program conducted by the 37759
director.37760

       (E) A long-term care facility shall not permit an individual 37761
used by the facility as a nurse aide while participating in a 37762
training and competency evaluation program to provide nursing and 37763
nursing-related services unless both of the following are the 37764
case:37765

       (1) The individual has completed the number of hours of 37766
training that he must completebe completed prior to providing 37767
services to residents as prescribed by rules that shall be adopted 37768
by the director in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 37769
Code;37770

       (2) The individual is under the personal supervision of a 37771
registered or licensed practical nurse licensed under Chapter 37772
4723. of the Revised Code.37773

       (F) An individual shall be considered to have satisfied the 37774
requirement, under division (B)(2) of this section, of having 37775
successfully completed a training and competency evaluation 37776
program conducted or approved by the director, if the individual 37777
meets both of the following conditions:37778

       (1) The individual, as of July 1, 1989, completed at least 37779
sixty hours divided between skills training and classroom 37780
instruction in the topic areas described in divisions (B)(1) to 37781
(8) of section 3721.30 of the Revised Code;37782

       (2) The individual received, as of that date, at least the 37783
difference between seventy-five hours and the number of hours 37784
actually spent in training and competency evaluation in supervised 37785
practical nurse aide training or regular in-service nurse aide 37786
education.37787

       (G) The public health councildirector shall adopt rules in 37788
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code specifying 37789
persons, in addition to the director, who may establish competence 37790
of nurse aides under division (B)(5) of this section, and 37791
establishing criteria for determining whether an individual meets 37792
the conditions specified in division (F) of this section.37793

       (H) The rules adopted pursuant to divisions (E)(1) and (G) of 37794
this section shall be no less stringent than the requirements, 37795
guidelines, and procedures established by the United States 37796
secretary of health and human services under sections 1819 and 37797
1919 of the "Social Security Act."37798

       Sec. 3721.29.  In addition to competency evaluation programs 37799
and training and competency evaluation programs required by this 37800
chapter, each long-term care facility shall provide both of the 37801
following to each nurse aide it uses:37802

       (A) An orientation program that includes at least an 37803
explanation of the organizational structure of the facility, its 37804
policies and procedures, its philosophy of care, a description of 37805
its resident population, and an enumeration of its employee rules;37806

       (B) Regular performance review and in-service education to 37807
assure that individuals working in the facility as nurse aides are 37808
competent to perform the nursing and nursing-related services they 37809
perform. In-service education shall include training for nurse 37810
aides providing nursing and nursing-related services to residents 37811
and patients with cognitive impairments.37812

       The publicdirector of health council shall adopt rules to 37813
implement the purposes of this section. The rules shall be no less 37814
stringent than the requirements, guidelines, and procedures 37815
established by the United States secretary of health and human 37816
services under sections 1819 and 1919 of the "Social Security 37817
Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended.37818

       Sec. 3721.50.  As used in sections 3721.50 to 3721.58 of the 37819
Revised Code:37820

       (A) "Bed surrender" means the following:37821

        (1) In the case of a nursing home, the removal of a bed from 37822
a nursing home's licensed capacity in a manner that reduces the 37823
total licensed capacity of all nursing homes;37824

        (2) In the case of a hospital, the removal of a hospital bed 37825
from registration under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as a 37826
skilled nursing facility bed or long-term care bed in a manner 37827
that reduces the total number of hospital beds registered under 37828
that section as skilled nursing facility beds or long-term care 37829
beds.37830

        (B) "Change of operator" means an entering operator becoming 37831
the operator of a nursing home or hospital in the place of the 37832
exiting operator.37833

       (1) Actions that constitute a change of operator include the 37834
following:37835

       (a) A change in an exiting operator's form of legal 37836
organization, including the formation of a partnership or 37837
corporation from a sole proprietorship;37838

       (b) A transfer of all the exiting operator's ownership 37839
interest in the operation of the nursing home or hospital to the 37840
entering operator, regardless of whether ownership of any or all 37841
of the real property or personal property associated with the 37842
nursing home or hospital is also transferred;37843

       (c) A lease of the nursing home or hospital to the entering 37844
operator or the exiting operator's termination of the exiting 37845
operator's lease;37846

       (d) If the exiting operator is a partnership, dissolution of 37847
the partnership;37848

       (e) If the exiting operator is a partnership, a change in 37849
composition of the partnership unless both of the following apply:37850

       (i) The change in composition does not cause the 37851
partnership's dissolution under state law.37852

       (ii) The partners agree that the change in composition does 37853
not constitute a change in operator.37854

       (f) If the operator is a corporation, dissolution of the 37855
corporation, a merger of the corporation into another corporation 37856
that is the survivor of the merger, or a consolidation of one or 37857
more other corporations to form a new corporation.37858

       (2) The following, alone, do not constitute a change of 37859
operator:37860

       (a) A contract for an entity to manage a nursing home or 37861
hospital as the operator's agent, subject to the operator's 37862
approval of daily operating and management decisions;37863

       (b) A change of ownership, lease, or termination of a lease 37864
of real property or personal property associated with a nursing 37865
home or hospital if an entering operator does not become the 37866
operator in place of an exiting operator;37867

       (c) If the operator is a corporation, a change of one or more 37868
members of the corporation's governing body or transfer of 37869
ownership of one or more shares of the corporation's stock, if the 37870
same corporation continues to be the operator.37871

       (C) "Effective date of a change of operator" means the day an 37872
entering operator becomes the operator of a nursing home or 37873
hospital.37874

       (D) "Entering operator" means the person or government entity 37875
that will become the operator of a nursing home or hospital on the 37876
effective date of a change of operator.37877

       (E) "Exiting operator" means an operator that will cease to 37878
be the operator of a nursing home or hospital on the effective 37879
date of a change of operator.37880

       (F) "Franchise permit fee rate" means the following:37881

       (1) For fiscal year 2012, eleven dollars and forty-seven 37882
cents;37883

       (2) For fiscal year 2013 and each fiscal year thereafter, 37884
eleven dollars and sixty-seven cents.37885

       (G) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of 37886
the Revised Code.37887

       (H) "Hospital long-term care unit" means any distinct part of 37888
a hospital in which any of the following beds are located:37889

       (1) Beds registered pursuant to section 3701.07 of the 37890
Revised Code as skilled nursing facility beds or long-term care 37891
beds;37892

       (2) Beds licensed as nursing home beds under section 3721.02 37893
or 3721.09 of the Revised Code.37894

       (I) "Indirect guarantee percentage" means the percentage 37895
specified in section 1903(w)(4)(C)(ii) of the "Social Security 37896
Act," 120 Stat. 2994 (2006), 42 U.S.C. 1396b(w)(4)(C)(ii) that is 37897
to be used in determining whether a class of providers is 37898
indirectly held harmless for any portion of the costs of a 37899
broad-based health-care-related tax. If the indirect guarantee 37900
percentage changes during a fiscal year, the indirect guarantee 37901
percentage is the following:37902

       (1) For the part of the fiscal year before the change takes 37903
effect, the percentage in effect before the change;37904

       (2) For the part of the fiscal year beginning with the date 37905
the indirect guarantee percentage changes, the new percentage.37906

       (J) "Inpatient days" means all days during which a resident 37907
of a nursing facility, regardless of payment source, occupies a 37908
bed in the nursing facility that is included in the facility's 37909
certified capacity under Title XIX. Therapeutic or hospital leave 37910
days for which payment is made under section 5111.26 of the 37911
Revised Code are considered inpatient days proportionate to the 37912
percentage of the facility's per resident per day rate paid for 37913
those days.37914

       (K) "Medicaid" has the same meaning as in section 5111.01 of 37915
the Revised Code.37916

       (L) "Medicaid day" means all days during which a resident who 37917
is a medicaid recipient occupies a bed in a nursing facility that 37918
is included in the facility's certified capacity under Title XIX. 37919
Therapeutic or hospital leave days for which payment is made under 37920
section 5111.26 of the Revised Code are considered medicaid days 37921
proportionate to the percentage of the nursing facility's per 37922
resident per day rate for those days.37923

       (M)(K) "Medicare" means the program established by Title 37924
XVIII.37925

       (N)(L) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 37926
5111.20 of the Revised Code.37927

       (O)(M)(1) "Nursing home" means all of the following:37928

       (a) A nursing home licensed under section 3721.02 or 3721.09 37929
of the Revised Code, including any part of a home for the aging 37930
licensed as a nursing home;37931

       (b) A facility or part of a facility, other than a hospital, 37932
that is certified as a skilled nursing facility under Title XVIII;37933

       (c) A nursing facility, other than a portion of a hospital 37934
certified as a nursing facility.37935

       (2) "Nursing home" does not include anyeither of the 37936
following:37937

       (a) A county home, county nursing home, or district home 37938
operated pursuant to Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code;37939

       (b) A nursing home maintained and operated by the department 37940
of veterans services under section 5907.01 of the Revised Code;37941

       (c) A nursing home or part of a nursing home licensed under 37942
section 3721.02 or 3721.09 of the Revised Code that is certified 37943
as an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded under 37944
Title XIX.37945

       (P)(N) "Operator" means the person or government entity 37946
responsible for the daily operating and management decisions for a 37947
nursing home or hospital.37948

       (Q)(O) "Title XIX" means Title XIX of the "Social Security 37949
Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396, as amended.37950

       (R)(P) "Title XVIII" means Title XVIII of the "Social 37951
Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1395, as amended.37952

       Sec. 3721.51.  The department of job and family services 37953
shall do all of the following:37954

       (A) Subject to sections 3721.512, 3721.513, and 3721.531 of 37955
the Revised Code and divisions (C) and (D) of this section and for 37956
the purposes specified in section 3721.56 of the Revised Code, 37957
determine an annual franchise permit fee on each nursing home in 37958
an amount equal to the franchise permit fee rate multiplied by the 37959
product of the following:37960

       (1) The number of beds licensed as nursing home beds, plus 37961
any other beds certified as skilled nursing facility beds under 37962
Title XVIII or nursing facility beds under Title XIX on the first 37963
day of May of the calendar year in which the fee is determined 37964
pursuant to division (A) of section 3721.53 of the Revised Code;37965

       (2) The number of days in the fiscal year beginning on the 37966
first day of July of the calendar year in which the fee is 37967
determined pursuant to division (A) of section 3721.53 of the 37968
Revised Code.37969

       (B) Subject to sections 3721.512, 3721.513, and 3721.531 of 37970
the Revised Code and divisions (C) and (D) of this section and for 37971
the purposes specified in section 3721.56 of the Revised Code, 37972
determine an annual franchise permit fee on each hospital in an 37973
amount equal to the franchise permit fee rate multiplied by the 37974
product of the following:37975

       (1) The number of beds registered pursuant to section 3701.07 37976
of the Revised Code as skilled nursing facility beds or long-term 37977
care beds, plus any other beds licensed as nursing home beds under 37978
section 3721.02 or 3721.09 of the Revised Code, on the first day 37979
of May of the calendar year in which the fee is determined 37980
pursuant to division (A) of section 3721.53 of the Revised Code;37981

       (2) The number of days in the fiscal year beginning on the 37982
first day of July of the calendar year in which the fee is 37983
determined pursuant to division (A) of section 3721.53 of the 37984
Revised Code.37985

       (C) If the total amount of the franchise permit fee assessed 37986
under divisions (A) and (B) of this section for a fiscal year 37987
exceeds the indirect guarantee percentage of the actual net 37988
patient revenue for all nursing homes and hospital long-term care 37989
units for that fiscal year and seventy-five per cent or more of 37990
the combined total number of nursing homes and hospital long-term 37991
care units receive enhanced medicaid payments or other state 37992
payments equal to seventy-five per cent or more of their total 37993
franchise permit fee assessments, do both of the following:37994

       (1) Recalculate the assessments under divisions (A) and (B) 37995
of this section using a per bed per day rate equal to the indirect 37996
guarantee percentage of actual net patient revenue for all nursing 37997
homes and hospital long-term care units for that fiscal year;37998

       (2) Refund the difference between the amount of the franchise 37999
permit fee assessed for that fiscal year under divisions (A) and 38000
(B) of this section and the amount recalculated under division 38001
(C)(1) of this section as a credit against the assessments imposed 38002
under divisions (A) and (B) of this section for the subsequent 38003
fiscal year.38004

       (D) If the United States centers for medicare and medicaid 38005
services determines that the franchise permit fee established by 38006
sections 3721.50 to 3721.58 of the Revised Code is an 38007
impermissible health care-related tax under section 1903(w) of the 38008
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 1396b(w), as 38009
amended, take all necessary actions to cease implementation of 38010
sections 3721.50 to 3721.58 of the Revised Code in accordance with 38011
rules adopted under section 3721.58 of the Revised Code.38012

       Sec. 3723.06.  (A) The director of health shall license radon 38013
testers, mitigation specialists, and mitigation contractors. Each 38014
applicant for a license shall submit a completed application to 38015
the director on a form the director shall prescribe and furnish.38016

       (B) In accordance with rules adopted by the public health 38017
council under section 3723.09 of the Revised Code, the director 38018
shall issue the appropriate license to each applicant that pays 38019
the license fee prescribed by the councildirector, meets the 38020
licensing criteria established by the councildirector, and 38021
complies with any other licensing and training requirements 38022
established by the councildirector. An individual, business 38023
entity, or government entity may hold more than one license issued 38024
under this section, but a separate application is required for 38025
each license.38026

       (C) Notwithstanding division (B) of this section, the 38027
director shall issue a radon mitigation contractor license on 38028
request to the holder of a radon mitigation specialist license if 38029
the license holder is the owner or chief stockholder of a business 38030
entity for which hethe license holder is the only individual who 38031
will work as a radon mitigation specialist. The licensing criteria 38032
and any other licensing and training requirements the individual 38033
was required to meet to qualify for the radon mitigation 38034
specialist license are hereby deemed to satisfy any and all 38035
criteria and requirements for a radon mitigation contractor 38036
license. A license issued under this division shall expire at the 38037
same time as the individual's radon mitigation specialist license. 38038
No license fee shall be imposed for a license issued under this 38039
division.38040

       (D) A license issued under this section expires biennially 38041
and may be renewed by the director in accordance with criteria and 38042
procedures established by the public health councilin rules 38043
adopted under section 3723.09 of the Revised Code and on payment 38044
of the license renewal fee prescribed by the councilin those 38045
rules.38046

       (E) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the 38047
director may do either of the following:38048

       (1) Refuse to issue a license to an individual, business 38049
entity, or government entity that does not meet the requirements 38050
of this chapter or the rules adopted under it or has been in 38051
violation of those requirements;38052

       (2) Suspend, revoke, or refuse to renew the license of an 38053
individual, business entity, or government entity that is or has 38054
been in violation of the requirements of this chapter or the rules 38055
adopted under it.38056

       Sec. 3723.07.  The director of health shall approve all of 38057
the following:38058

       (A) Licensure training courses for radon testers and 38059
mitigation specialists;38060

       (B) Training courses for employees of mitigation contractors;38061

       (C) Radon laboratories.38062

       Each applicant for approval shall submit a completed 38063
application to the director on a form the director shall prescribe 38064
and furnish.38065

       In accordance with rules adopted by the public health council38066
under section 3723.09 of the Revised Code, the director shall 38067
issue the appropriate approval to each applicant that pays the 38068
approval fee prescribed by the councildirector and meets the 38069
criteria for approval established by the councildirector.38070

       In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the 38071
director may refuse to issue an approval and may revoke or suspend 38072
an approval issued under this section if the operator of the 38073
course or laboratory fails to meet the criteria established by the 38074
public health councildirector.38075

       Sec. 3723.09.  (A) To protect the health of individuals 38076
inhabiting, occupying, or frequenting buildings, the public38077
director of health council shall adopt rules to implement the 38078
requirements of this chapter. All rules adopted under this section 38079
shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 38080
Code.38081

       (B) The public health councildirector shall adopt rules 38082
establishing criteria and procedures to be followed by the 38083
director of health infor issuing and renewing licenses under 38084
section 3723.06 of the Revised Code to radon testers, mitigation 38085
specialists, and mitigation contractors. The rules may require 38086
that all applicants for licensure as a radon tester or mitigation 38087
specialist pass an examination. If an examination is required, the 38088
rules may require applicants to pass an examination conducted by 38089
the department or an appropriate examination conducted by the 38090
United States environmental protection agency.38091

       (C) The public health councildirector shall adopt rules 38092
establishing criteria and procedures to be followed by the 38093
director of health infor approving training courses under section 38094
3723.07 of the Revised Code. The rules may require that 38095
participants in training courses pass an examination conducted by 38096
the operator of the course and may require that the examinations 38097
be approved by the director of health.38098

       (D) The public health councildirector shall adopt rules 38099
establishing criteria and procedures to be followed by the 38100
director of health infor approving radon laboratories under 38101
section 3723.07 of the Revised Code.38102

       (E) The public health councildirector shall adopt rules 38103
establishing reasonable fees for licenses, license renewals, radon 38104
laboratory approvals, and training course approvals.38105

       (F) The public health councildirector shall adopt rules 38106
establishing standards to be followed by licensed radon testers, 38107
mitigation specialists, and mitigation contractors for the 38108
prevention of hazards to the public health, including standards 38109
for worker protection, record keeping, and training of employees 38110
of licensed radon mitigation contractors.38111

       (G) The public health councildirector shall adopt rules 38112
establishing procedures to be followed by any individual, business 38113
entity, or government entity licensed by another state to practice 38114
as a radon tester, mitigation specialist, or mitigation contractor 38115
in providing notice to the director of health prior to commencing 38116
practice in this state pursuant to section 3723.03 of the Revised 38117
Code.38118

       (H) The public health councildirector may adopt rules that 38119
require licensed radon testers and mitigation specialists to 38120
report to the director of health, by street address, radon test 38121
results that indicate the presence of radon at a level considered 38122
to be dangerous as determined by the councildirector. The rules 38123
may require the reporting of screening measurements, follow-up 38124
measurements, post-mitigation measurements, and, if it is known 38125
that radon mitigation has been performed, the methods of 38126
mitigation that were used. Any information required to be reported 38127
to the director under these rules is not a public record under 38128
section 149.43 of the Revised Code, and shall not be released 38129
except in aggregate statistical form.38130

       Sec. 3725.02.  (A) No person other than a hospital shall 38131
collect plasma, regardless of the use for which the plasma is 38132
intended, except at a plasmapheresis center holding a current, 38133
valid certificate of approval issued by the director of health.38134

       Whoever violates this division is guilty of a misdemeanor of 38135
the fourth degree.38136

       (B) The public health councildirector shall adopt such rules 38137
as are necessary to carry out this chapter.38138

       Sec. 3727.01. (A) As used in this section, "health 38139
maintenance organization" means a public or private organization 38140
organized under the law of any state that is qualified under 38141
section 1310(d) of Title XIII of the "Public Health Service Act," 38142
87 Stat. 931 (1973), 42 U.S.C. 300e-9, or that does all of the 38143
following:38144

       (1) Provides or otherwise makes available to enrolled 38145
participants health care services including at least the following 38146
basic health care services: usual physician services, 38147
hospitalization, laboratory, x-ray, emergency and preventive 38148
service, and out-of-area coverage;38149

       (2) Is compensated, except for copayments, for the provision 38150
of basic health care services to enrolled participants by a 38151
payment that is paid on a periodic basis without regard to the 38152
date the health care services are provided and that is fixed 38153
without regard to the frequency, extent, or kind of health service 38154
actually provided;38155

       (3) Provides physician services primarily in either of the 38156
following ways:38157

       (a) Directly through physicians who are either employees or 38158
partners of the organization;38159

       (b) Through arrangements with individual physicians or one or 38160
more groups of physicians organized on a group-practice or 38161
individual-practice basis.38162

       (B) As used in this chapter:38163

       (1) "Children's hospital" has the same meaning as in section 38164
3702.51 of the Revised Codemeans any of the following:38165

       (a) A hospital registered under section 3701.07 of the 38166
Revised Code that provides general pediatric medical and surgical 38167
care, and in which at least seventy-five per cent of annual 38168
inpatient discharges for the preceding two calendar years were 38169
individuals less than eighteen years of age; 38170

       (b) A distinct portion of a hospital registered under section 38171
3701.07 of the Revised Code that provides general pediatric 38172
medical and surgical care, has a total of at least one hundred 38173
fifty registered pediatric special care and pediatric acute care 38174
beds, and in which at least seventy-five per cent of annual 38175
inpatient discharges for the preceding two calendar years were 38176
individuals less than eighteen years of age; 38177

       (c) A distinct portion of a hospital, if the hospital is 38178
registered under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as a 38179
children's hospital and the children's hospital meets all the 38180
requirements of division (B)(1)(a) of this section.38181

        (2) "Hospital" means an institution classified as a hospital 38182
under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code in which are provided to 38183
inpatients diagnostic, medical, surgical, obstetrical, 38184
psychiatric, or rehabilitation care for a continuous period longer 38185
than twenty-four hours or a hospital operated by a health 38186
maintenance organization. "Hospital" does not include a facility 38187
licensed under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, a health care 38188
facility operated by the department of mental health or the 38189
department of developmental disabilities, a health maintenance 38190
organization that does not operate a hospital, the office of any 38191
private licensed health care professional, whether organized for 38192
individual or group practice, or a clinic that provides ambulatory 38193
patient services and where patients are not regularly admitted as 38194
inpatients. "Hospital" also does not include an institution for 38195
the sick that is operated exclusively for patients who use 38196
spiritual means for healing and for whom the acceptance of medical 38197
care is inconsistent with their religious beliefs, accredited by a 38198
national accrediting organization, exempt from federal income 38199
taxation under section 501 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, 38200
100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 1, as amended, and providing 38201
twenty-four hour nursing care pursuant to the exemption in 38202
division (E) of section 4723.32 of the Revised Code from the 38203
licensing requirements of Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code.38204

       (3) "Joint commission" means the commission formerly known as 38205
the joint commission on accreditation of healthcare organizations 38206
or the joint commission on accreditation of hospitals.38207

       Sec. 3727.42.  (A) Every hospital shall compile and make 38208
available for inspection by the public a price information list 38209
containing the information specified in division (B) of this 38210
section and shall periodically update the list to maintain current 38211
information. The price information list shall be compiled and made 38212
available in a format that complies with the electronic 38213
transaction standards and code sets adopted by the United States 38214
secretary of health and human services under 42 U.S.C. 1320d-2.38215

        (B) Each price information list required by division (A) of 38216
this section shall contain all of the following information:38217

       (1) The usual and customary room and board charges for each 38218
level of care within the hospital, including but not limited to 38219
private rooms, semiprivate rooms, other multiple patient rooms, 38220
and intensive care and other specialty units;38221

       (2) Rates charged for nursing care, if the hospital charges 38222
separately for nursing care;38223

       (3) The usual and customary charges, stated separately for 38224
inpatients and outpatients if different charges are imposed, for 38225
any of the following services provided by the hospital:38226

       (a) The thirty most common x-ray and radiological procedures;38227

       (b) The thirty most common laboratory procedures;38228

       (c) Emergency room services;38229

       (d) Operating room services;38230

       (e) Delivery room services;38231

       (f) Physical, occupational, and pulmonary therapy services;38232

       (g) Any other services designated as high volume services by 38233
a rule which shall be adopted by the publicdirector of health 38234
council.38235

        (4) The hospital's billing policies, including whether the 38236
hospital charges interest on an amount not paid in full by any 38237
person or government entity and the interest rate charged;38238

        (5) Whether or not the charges listed include fees for the 38239
services of hospital-based anesthesiologists, radiologists, 38240
pathologists, and emergency room physicians and, if a charge does 38241
not include such fees, how such fee information can be obtained.38242

       (C) Every hospital shall do all of the following with the 38243
price information list required by this section:38244

       (1) At the time of admission, or as soon as practical 38245
thereafter, inform each patient of the availability of the list 38246
and on request provide the patient with a free copy of the list;38247

       (2) On request, provide a paper copy of the list to any 38248
person or governmental agency, subject to payment of a reasonable 38249
fee for copying and processing;38250

       (3) Make the list available free of charge on the hospital's 38251
internet web site.38252

       Sec. 3729.01.  As used in this chapter:38253

       (A) "Camp operator" means the operator of a recreational 38254
vehicle park, recreation camp, combined park-camp, or temporary 38255
park-camp.38256

       (B) "Campsite user" means a person who enters into a campsite 38257
use agreement with a camp operator for the use of a campsite at a 38258
recreational vehicle park, recreation camp, combined park-camp, or 38259
temporary park-camp.38260

       (C) "Combined park-camp" means any tract of land upon which a 38261
combination of five or more self-contained recreational vehicles 38262
or portable camping units are placed and includes any roadway, 38263
building, structure, vehicle, or enclosure used or intended for 38264
use as part of the park facilities. A tract of land that is 38265
subdivided for lease or other contract of the individual lots is a 38266
combined park-camp if a combination of five or more recreational 38267
vehicles or portable camping units are placed on it for 38268
recreation, vacation, or business purposes.38269

       "Combined park-camp" does not include any tract of land used 38270
solely as a temporary park-camp or solely as a manufactured home 38271
park.38272

       (D) "Dependent recreational vehicle" means a recreational 38273
vehicle other than a self-contained recreational vehicle. 38274
"Dependent recreational vehicle" includes a park model.38275

       (E) "Development" means any artificial change to improved or 38276
unimproved real estate, including, without limitation, buildings 38277
or structures, dredging, filling, grading, paving, excavation or 38278
drilling operations, or storage of equipment or materials, and the 38279
construction, expansion, or substantial alteration of a 38280
recreational vehicle park, recreation camp, or combined park-camp, 38281
for which plan review is required under division (A) of section 38282
3729.03 of the Revised Code. "Development" does not include the 38283
building, construction, erection, or manufacture of any building 38284
to which section 3781.06 of the Revised Code is applicable.38285

       (F) "Director of health" means the director of health or the 38286
director's authorized representative.38287

       (G) "Flood" or "flooding" means either of the following:38288

       (1) A general and temporary condition of partial or complete 38289
inundation of normally dry land areas from any of the following:38290

       (a) The overflow of inland or tidal waters;38291

       (b) The unusual and rapid accumulation or runoff of surface 38292
waters from any source;38293

       (c) Mudslides that are proximately caused by flooding as 38294
defined in division (G)(1)(b) of this section and that are akin to 38295
a river of liquid and flowing mud on the surface of normally dry 38296
land areas, as when earth is carried by a current of water and 38297
deposited along the path of the current.38298

       (2) The collapse or subsidence of land along the shore of a 38299
lake or other body of water as a result of erosion or undermining 38300
that is caused by waves or currents of water exceeding anticipated 38301
cyclical levels or that is suddenly caused by an unusually high 38302
water level in a natural body of water, and that is accompanied by 38303
a severe storm, by an unanticipated force of nature, such as a 38304
flash flood, by an abnormal tidal surge, or by some similarly 38305
unusual and unforeseeable event, that results in flooding as 38306
defined in division (G)(1)(a) of this section.38307

       (H) "Flood plain" means the area adjoining any river, stream, 38308
watercourse, or lake that has been or may be covered by flood 38309
water.38310

       (I) "Licensor" means either the board of health of a city or 38311
general health district, or the authority having the duties of a 38312
board of health in any city as authorized by section 3709.05 of 38313
the Revised Code, or the director of health, when required under 38314
division (B) of section 3729.06 of the Revised Code. "Licensor" 38315
also means an authorized representative of any of those entities 38316
or of the director.38317

       (J) "Manufactured home park" has the same meaning as in 38318
section 3733.014781.01 of the Revised Code.38319

       (K) "One-hundred-year flood" means a flood having a one per 38320
cent chance of being equaled or exceeded in any given year.38321

       (L) "One-hundred-year flood plain" means that portion of a 38322
flood plain inundated by a one-hundred-year flood.38323

       (M) "Operator" means the person who has responsible charge of 38324
a recreational vehicle park, recreation camp, combined park-camp, 38325
or temporary park-camp and who is licensed under this chapter.38326

       (N) "Park model" means a recreational vehicle that meets the 38327
American national standard institute standard A119.5(1988) for 38328
park trailers, is built on a single chassis, has a gross trailer 38329
area of not more than four hundred square feet when set up, is 38330
designed for seasonal or temporary living quarters, and may be 38331
connected to utilities necessary for operation of installed 38332
features and appliances.38333

       (O) "Person" has the same meaning as in section 1.59 of the 38334
Revised Code and also includes this state, any political 38335
subdivision of this state, and any other state or local body of 38336
this state.38337

       (P) "Portable camping units" means dependent recreational 38338
vehicles, tents, portable sleeping equipment, and similar camping 38339
equipment used for travel, recreation, vacation, or business 38340
purposes.38341

       (Q) "Recreation camp" means any tract of land upon which five 38342
or more portable camping units are placed and includes any 38343
roadway, building, structure, vehicle, or enclosure used or 38344
intended for use as a part of the facilities of the camp. A tract 38345
of land that is subdivided for lease or other contract of the 38346
individual lots is a recreation camp if five or more portable 38347
camping units are placed on it for recreation, vacation, or 38348
business purposes.38349

       "Recreation camp" does not include any tract of land used 38350
solely for the storage or display for sale of dependent 38351
recreational vehicles, solely as a temporary park-camp, or solely 38352
as a manufactured home park.38353

       (R) "Recreational vehicle" has the same meaning as in section 38354
4501.01 of the Revised Code.38355

       (S) "Recreational vehicle park" means any tract of land used 38356
for parking five or more self-contained recreational vehicles and 38357
includes any roadway, building, structure, vehicle, or enclosure 38358
used or intended for use as part of the park facilities and any 38359
tract of land that is subdivided for lease or other contract of 38360
the individual lots for the express or implied purpose of placing 38361
self-contained recreational vehicles for recreation, vacation, or 38362
business purposes.38363

       "Recreational vehicle park" does not include any tract of 38364
land used solely for the storage or display for sale of 38365
self-contained recreational vehicles, solely as a temporary 38366
park-camp, or solely as a manufactured home park.38367

       (T) "Self-contained recreational vehicle" means a 38368
recreational vehicle that can operate independent of connections 38369
to sewer and water and has plumbing fixtures or appliances all of 38370
which are connected to sewage holding tanks located within the 38371
vehicle. "Self-contained recreational vehicle" includes a park 38372
model.38373

       (U) "Substantially alter" means a change in the layout or 38374
design of a recreational vehicle park, recreation camp, combined 38375
park-camp, or temporary park-camp, including, without limitation, 38376
the movement of utilities or changes in established streets, lots, 38377
or sites or in other facilities.38378

       (V) "Temporary park-camp" means any tract of land used for a 38379
period not to exceed a total of twenty-one days per calendar year 38380
for the purpose of parking five or more recreational vehicles, 38381
dependent recreational vehicles, or portable camping units, or any 38382
combination thereof, for one or more periods of time that do not 38383
exceed seven consecutive days or parts thereof.38384

       (W) "Tract" means a contiguous area of land that consists of 38385
one or more parcels, lots, or sites that have been separately 38386
surveyed regardless of whether the individual parcels, lots, or 38387
sites have been recorded and regardless of whether the one or more 38388
parcels, lots, or sites are under common or different ownership.38389

       Sec. 3729.02.  (A) The publicdirector of health council, 38390
subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt rules of 38391
uniform application throughout the state governing the review of 38392
plans and issuance of licenses for and the location, layout, 38393
construction, drainage, sanitation, safety, and operation of 38394
recreational vehicle parks, recreation camps, and combined 38395
park-camps. The rules shall not apply to the construction, 38396
erection, or manufacture of any building to which section 3781.06 38397
of the Revised Code is applicable.38398

       (B) The public health councildirector, subject to Chapter 38399
119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt rules of uniform application 38400
throughout the state governing the review of plans and issuance of 38401
licenses for and the layout, sanitation, safety, and operation of 38402
temporary park-camps. The rules shall not apply to the 38403
construction, erection, or manufacture of any building to which 38404
section 3781.06 of the Revised Code is applicable.38405

       Sec. 3729.03.  (A) No person shall cause development to occur 38406
within any portion of a recreational vehicle park, recreation 38407
camp, or combined park-camp until the plans for the development 38408
have been submitted to and reviewed and approved by the director 38409
of health. This division does not require that plans be submitted 38410
to the director for approval for the replacement of recreational 38411
vehicles or portable camping units on previously approved sites in 38412
a recreational vehicle park, recreation camp, or combined 38413
park-camp when no development is to occur in connection with the 38414
replacement. Within thirty days after receipt of the plans, all 38415
supporting documents and materials required to complete the 38416
review, and the applicable plan review fee established under 38417
division (D) of this section, the director shall approve or 38418
disapprove the plans.38419

       (B) Any person aggrieved by the director's disapproval of a 38420
set of plans under division (A) of this section may request a 38421
hearing on the matter within thirty days after receipt of the 38422
director's notice of the disapproval. The hearing shall be held in 38423
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. Thereafter, the 38424
disapproval may be appealed in the manner provided in section 38425
119.12 of the Revised Code.38426

       (C) The director shall establish a system by which 38427
development occurring within a recreational vehicle park, 38428
recreation camp, or combined park-camp is inspected or verified in 38429
accordance with rules adopted under division (A) of section 38430
3729.02 of the Revised Code to ensure that the development 38431
complies with the plans approved under division (A) of this 38432
section.38433

       (D) The public health councildirector shall establish fees 38434
for reviewing plans under division (A) of this section and 38435
conducting inspections under division (C) of this section.38436

       (E) The director shall charge the appropriate fees 38437
established under division (D) of this section for reviewing plans 38438
under division (A) of this section and conducting inspections 38439
under division (C) of this section. All such plan review and 38440
inspection fees received by the director shall be transmitted to 38441
the treasurer of state and shall be credited to the general 38442
operations fund created in section 3701.83 of the Revised Code. 38443
Moneys so credited to the fund shall be used only for the purpose 38444
of administering and enforcing this chapter and rules adopted 38445
under it.38446

       (F) Plan approvals issued under this section do not 38447
constitute an exemption from the land use and building 38448
requirements of the political subdivision in which the 38449
recreational vehicle park, recreation camp, or combined park-camp 38450
is or is to be located.38451

       Sec. 3729.04.  (A) No person shall cause development to occur 38452
within any portion of a recreational vehicle park, recreation 38453
camp, combined park-camp, or temporary park-camp that is located 38454
within a one-hundred-year flood plain in a municipal corporation 38455
unless the person first obtains a permit therefor from the 38456
municipal corporation in accordance with the flood plain 38457
management ordinance of the municipal corporation.38458

       (B) No person shall cause development to occur within any 38459
portion of a recreational vehicle park, recreation camp, combined 38460
park-camp, or temporary park-camp that is located within a 38461
one-hundred-year flood plain in an unincorporated area unless the 38462
person first obtains a permit therefor from the board of county 38463
commissioners of the county in which the development is to occur 38464
in accordance with the flood plain management resolution of the 38465
county adopted under section 307.37 of the Revised Code.38466

       (C) If development for which a permit is required under 38467
division (A) or (B) of this section is to occur on a site where a 38468
recreational vehicle or portable camping unit is or is to be 38469
located, the owner of the recreational vehicle or portable camping 38470
unit and the operator of the recreational vehicle park, recreation 38471
camp, or combined park-camp shall jointly obtain the permit. Each 38472
of the persons to whom a permit is jointly issued is responsible 38473
for compliance with the provisions of the approved permit that are 38474
applicable to that person.38475

       If development for which a permit is required under division 38476
(A) or (B) of this section is to occur within a temporary 38477
park-camp on a site where a recreational vehicle or portable 38478
camping unit is or is to be located, the owner of the temporary 38479
park-camp shall obtain the permit.38480

       (D) Fees established by a municipal corporation or county for 38481
the issuance of permits under division (A) or (B) of this section 38482
are not subject to regulation by the publicdirector of health38483
council.38484

       Sec. 3729.07.  The licensor of a recreational vehicle park, 38485
recreation camp, or combined park-camp may charge a fee for an 38486
annual license to operate such a park, camp, or park-camp. In the 38487
case of a temporary park-camp, the licensor may charge a fee for a 38488
license to operate the temporary park-camp for the period 38489
specified in division (A) of section 3729.05 of the Revised Code. 38490
The fees for both types of licenses shall be determined in 38491
accordance with section 3709.09 of the Revised Code and shall 38492
include the cost of licensing and all inspections.38493

       Except for the fee for a temporary park-camp license, the fee 38494
also shall include any additional amount determined by rule of the 38495
publicdirector of health council, which shall be collected and 38496
transmitted by the board of health to the director of health38497
pursuant to section 3709.092 of the Revised Code and used only for 38498
the purpose of administering and enforcing this chapter and rules 38499
adopted under it. The portion of any fee retained by the board of 38500
health shall be paid into a special fund and used only for the 38501
purpose of administering and enforcing this chapter and rules 38502
adopted under it.38503

       Sec. 3729.08.  The licensor of the health district in which a 38504
recreational vehicle park, recreation camp, combined park-camp, or 38505
temporary park-camp is or is to be located, in accordance with 38506
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, may refuse to grant, may 38507
suspend, or may revoke any license granted to any person for 38508
failure to comply with this chapter or with any rule adopted by 38509
the publicdirector of health council under section 3729.02 of the 38510
Revised Code.38511

       Sec. 3730.10.  (A) Not later than ninety days after the 38512
effective date of this section, the publicThe director of health 38513
council shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 38514
Revised Code as necessary for the implementation and enforcement 38515
of this chapter. The rules shall include all of the following:38516

       (1) Safety and sanitation standards and procedures to be 38517
followed to prevent the transmission of infectious diseases during 38518
the performance of tattooing and body piercing procedures;38519

       (2) Standards and procedures to be followed for appropriate 38520
disinfection and sterilization of all invasive equipment or parts 38521
of equipment used in tattooing procedures, body piercing 38522
procedures, and ear piercing procedures performed with an ear 38523
piercing gun;38524

       (3) Procedures for suspending and revoking approvals under 38525
section 3730.05 of the Revised Code.38526

       (B) The rules adopted under division (A)(1) of this section 38527
shall establish universal blood and body fluid precautions to be 38528
used by any individual who performs tattooing or body piercing 38529
procedures. The precautions shall include all of the following:38530

       (1) The appropriate use of hand washing;38531

       (2) The handling and disposal of all needles and other sharp 38532
instruments used in tattooing or body piercing procedures;38533

       (3) The wearing and disposal of gloves and other protective 38534
garments and devices.38535

       (C) The rules adopted under division (A) of this section may 38536
include standards and procedures to be followed by a business that 38537
offers tattooing or body piercing services to ensure that the 38538
individuals who perform tattooing or body piercing procedures for 38539
the business are adequately trained to perform the procedures 38540
properly.38541

       Sec. 3733.41.  As used in sections 3733.41 to 3733.49 of the 38542
Revised Code:38543

       (A) "Agricultural labor camp" means one or more buildings or 38544
structures, trailers, tents, or vehicles, together with any land 38545
appertaining thereto, established, operated, or used as temporary 38546
living quarters for two or more families or five or more persons 38547
intending to engage in or engaged in agriculture or related food 38548
processing, whether occupancy is by rent, lease, or mutual 38549
agreement. "Agricultural labor camp" does not include a hotel or 38550
motel, or a manufactured home park regulated pursuant to section 38551
3733.01sections 4781.26 to 4781.52 of the Revised Code, and rules 38552
adopted thereunder.38553

       (B) "Board of health" means the board of health of a city or 38554
general health district or the authority having the duties of a 38555
board of health in any city as authorized by section 3709.05 of 38556
the Revised Code or an authorized representative of the board of 38557
health.38558

       (C) "Director" means the director of the department of health 38559
or the authorized representative of the director of health.38560

       (D) "Licensor" means the director of health.38561

       (E) "Person" means the state, any political subdivision, 38562
public or private corporation, partnership, association, trust, 38563
individual, or other entity.38564

       (F) "Public health council" means the public health council 38565
as created by section 3701.33 of the Revised Code.38566

       Sec. 3733.42.  The publicdirector of health council, subject 38567
to sections 119.01 to 119.13 of the Revised Code, shall adopt 38568
rules having a uniform application throughout the state, governing 38569
the issuance of licenses, location, layout, construction, approval 38570
of plans, sanitation, safety, operation, use, and maintenance of 38571
agricultural labor camps. The rules shall establish minimum 38572
standards of habitability with which a licensee shall comply in 38573
operating an agricultural labor camp. The rules shall establish, 38574
beyond minimum standards of habitability, additional standards of 38575
habitability for those camps and shall establish priorities for 38576
those additional standards with which a licensee may voluntary38577
voluntarily comply.38578

       In addition to meeting the requirements of section 119.03 of 38579
the Revised Code, the director of health shall mail a notice of 38580
the date, time, and place of any hearing on the adoption, 38581
amendment, or rescission of such rules and the full text of the 38582
proposed rule, amendment, or rule to be rescinded, at least thirty 38583
days prior to the hearing date, to all persons currently 38584
authorized or licensed to operate camps by the department of 38585
health, or authorized or licensed to operate camps in the previous 38586
calendar year.38587

       Sec. 3734.01.  As used in this chapter:38588

       (A) "Board of health" means the board of health of a city or 38589
general health district or the authority having the duties of a 38590
board of health in any city as authorized by section 3709.05 of 38591
the Revised Code.38592

       (B) "Director" means the director of environmental 38593
protection.38594

       (C) "Health district" means a city or general health district 38595
as created by or under authority of Chapter 3709. of the Revised 38596
Code.38597

       (D) "Agency" means the environmental protection agency.38598

       (E) "Solid wastes" means such unwanted residual solid or 38599
semisolid material as results from industrial, commercial, 38600
agricultural, and community operations, excluding earth or 38601
material from construction, mining, or demolition operations, or 38602
other waste materials of the type that normally would be included 38603
in demolition debris, nontoxic fly ash and bottom ash, including 38604
at least ash that results from the combustion of coal and ash that 38605
results from the combustion of coal in combination with scrap 38606
tires where scrap tires comprise not more than fifty per cent of 38607
heat input in any month, spent nontoxic foundry sand, and slag and 38608
other substances that are not harmful or inimical to public 38609
health, and includes, but is not limited to, garbage, scrap tires, 38610
combustible and noncombustible material, street dirt, and debris. 38611
"Solid wastes" does not include any material that is an infectious 38612
waste or a hazardous waste.38613

       (F) "Disposal" means the discharge, deposit, injection, 38614
dumping, spilling, leaking, emitting, or placing of any solid 38615
wastes or hazardous waste into or on any land or ground or surface 38616
water or into the air, except if the disposition or placement 38617
constitutes storage or treatment or, if the solid wastes consist 38618
of scrap tires, the disposition or placement constitutes a 38619
beneficial use or occurs at a scrap tire recovery facility 38620
licensed under section 3734.81 of the Revised Code.38621

       (G) "Person" includes the state, any political subdivision 38622
and other state or local body, the United States and any agency or 38623
instrumentality thereof, and any legal entity defined as a person 38624
under section 1.59 of the Revised Code.38625

       (H) "Open burning" means the burning of solid wastes in an 38626
open area or burning of solid wastes in a type of chamber or 38627
vessel that is not approved or authorized in rules adopted by the 38628
director under section 3734.02 of the Revised Code or, if the 38629
solid wastes consist of scrap tires, in rules adopted under 38630
division (V) of this section or section 3734.73 of the Revised 38631
Code, or the burning of treated or untreated infectious wastes in 38632
an open area or in a type of chamber or vessel that is not 38633
approved in rules adopted by the director under section 3734.021 38634
of the Revised Code.38635

       (I) "Open dumping" means the depositing of solid wastes into 38636
a body or stream of water or onto the surface of the ground at a 38637
site that is not licensed as a solid waste facility under section 38638
3734.05 of the Revised Code or, if the solid wastes consist of 38639
scrap tires, as a scrap tire collection, storage, monocell, 38640
monofill, or recovery facility under section 3734.81 of the 38641
Revised Code; the depositing of solid wastes that consist of scrap 38642
tires onto the surface of the ground at a site or in a manner not 38643
specifically identified in divisions (C)(2) to (5), (7), or (10) 38644
of section 3734.85 of the Revised Code; the depositing of 38645
untreated infectious wastes into a body or stream of water or onto 38646
the surface of the ground; or the depositing of treated infectious 38647
wastes into a body or stream of water or onto the surface of the 38648
ground at a site that is not licensed as a solid waste facility 38649
under section 3734.05 of the Revised Code.38650

       (J) "Hazardous waste" means any waste or combination of 38651
wastes in solid, liquid, semisolid, or contained gaseous form that 38652
in the determination of the director, because of its quantity, 38653
concentration, or physical or chemical characteristics, may do 38654
either of the following:38655

       (1) Cause or significantly contribute to an increase in 38656
mortality or an increase in serious irreversible or incapacitating 38657
reversible illness;38658

       (2) Pose a substantial present or potential hazard to human 38659
health or safety or to the environment when improperly stored, 38660
treated, transported, disposed of, or otherwise managed.38661

       "Hazardous waste" includes any substance identified by 38662
regulation as hazardous waste under the "Resource Conservation and 38663
Recovery Act of 1976," 90 Stat. 2806, 42 U.S.C.A. 6921, as 38664
amended, and does not include any substance that is subject to the 38665
"Atomic Energy Act of 1954," 68 Stat. 919, 42 U.S.C.A. 2011, as 38666
amended.38667

       (K) "Treat" or "treatment," when used in connection with 38668
hazardous waste, means any method, technique, or process designed 38669
to change the physical, chemical, or biological characteristics or 38670
composition of any hazardous waste; to neutralize the waste; to 38671
recover energy or material resources from the waste; to render the 38672
waste nonhazardous or less hazardous, safer to transport, store, 38673
or dispose of, or amenable for recovery, storage, further 38674
treatment, or disposal; or to reduce the volume of the waste. When 38675
used in connection with infectious wastes, "treat" or "treatment" 38676
means any method, technique, or process designed to render the 38677
wastes noninfectious, including, without limitation, steam 38678
sterilization and incineration, or, in the instance of wastes 38679
identified in division (R)(7) of this section, to substantially 38680
reduce or eliminate the potential for the wastes to cause 38681
lacerations or puncture wounds.38682

       (L) "Manifest" means the form used for identifying the 38683
quantity, composition, origin, routing, and destination of 38684
hazardous waste during its transportation from the point of 38685
generation to the point of disposal, treatment, or storage.38686

       (M) "Storage," when used in connection with hazardous waste, 38687
means the holding of hazardous waste for a temporary period in 38688
such a manner that it remains retrievable and substantially 38689
unchanged physically and chemically and, at the end of the period, 38690
is treated; disposed of; stored elsewhere; or reused, recycled, or 38691
reclaimed in a beneficial manner. When used in connection with 38692
solid wastes that consist of scrap tires, "storage" means the 38693
holding of scrap tires for a temporary period in such a manner 38694
that they remain retrievable and, at the end of that period, are 38695
beneficially used; stored elsewhere; placed in a scrap tire 38696
monocell or monofill facility licensed under section 3734.81 of 38697
the Revised Code; processed at a scrap tire recovery facility 38698
licensed under that section or a solid waste incineration or 38699
energy recovery facility subject to regulation under this chapter; 38700
or transported to a scrap tire monocell, monofill, or recovery 38701
facility, any other solid waste facility authorized to dispose of 38702
scrap tires, or a facility that will beneficially use the scrap 38703
tires, that is located in another state and is operating in 38704
compliance with the laws of the state in which the facility is 38705
located.38706

       (N) "Facility" means any site, location, tract of land, 38707
installation, or building used for incineration, composting, 38708
sanitary landfilling, or other methods of disposal of solid wastes 38709
or, if the solid wastes consist of scrap tires, for the 38710
collection, storage, or processing of the solid wastes; for the 38711
transfer of solid wastes; for the treatment of infectious wastes; 38712
or for the storage, treatment, or disposal of hazardous waste.38713

       (O) "Closure" means the time at which a hazardous waste 38714
facility will no longer accept hazardous waste for treatment, 38715
storage, or disposal, the time at which a solid waste facility 38716
will no longer accept solid wastes for transfer or disposal or, if 38717
the solid wastes consist of scrap tires, for storage or 38718
processing, or the effective date of an order revoking the permit 38719
for a hazardous waste facility or the registration certificate, 38720
permit, or license for a solid waste facility, as applicable. 38721
"Closure" includes measures performed to protect public health or 38722
safety, to prevent air or water pollution, or to make the facility 38723
suitable for other uses, if any, including, but not limited to, 38724
the removal of processing residues resulting from solid wastes 38725
that consist of scrap tires; the establishment and maintenance of 38726
a suitable cover of soil and vegetation over cells in which 38727
hazardous waste or solid wastes are buried; minimization of 38728
erosion, the infiltration of surface water into such cells, the 38729
production of leachate, and the accumulation and runoff of 38730
contaminated surface water; the final construction of facilities 38731
for the collection and treatment of leachate and contaminated 38732
surface water runoff, except as otherwise provided in this 38733
division; the final construction of air and water quality 38734
monitoring facilities, except as otherwise provided in this 38735
division; the final construction of methane gas extraction and 38736
treatment systems; or the removal and proper disposal of hazardous 38737
waste or solid wastes from a facility when necessary to protect 38738
public health or safety or to abate or prevent air or water 38739
pollution. With regard to a solid waste facility that is a scrap 38740
tire facility, "closure" includes the final construction of 38741
facilities for the collection and treatment of leachate and 38742
contaminated surface water runoff and the final construction of 38743
air and water quality monitoring facilities only if those actions 38744
are determined to be necessary.38745

       (P) "Premises" means either of the following:38746

       (1) Geographically contiguous property owned by a generator;38747

       (2) Noncontiguous property that is owned by a generator and 38748
connected by a right-of-way that the generator controls and to 38749
which the public does not have access. Two or more pieces of 38750
property that are geographically contiguous and divided by public 38751
or private right-of-way or rights-of-way are a single premises.38752

       (Q) "Post-closure" means that period of time following 38753
closure during which a hazardous waste facility is required to be 38754
monitored and maintained under this chapter and rules adopted 38755
under it, including, without limitation, operation and maintenance 38756
of methane gas extraction and treatment systems, or the period of 38757
time after closure during which a scrap tire monocell or monofill 38758
facility licensed under section 3734.81 of the Revised Code is 38759
required to be monitored and maintained under this chapter and 38760
rules adopted under it.38761

       (R) "Infectious wastes" includes all of the following 38762
substances or categories of substances:38763

       (1) Cultures and stocks of infectious agents and associated 38764
biologicals, including, without limitation, specimen cultures, 38765
cultures and stocks of infectious agents, wastes from production 38766
of biologicals, and discarded live and attenuated vaccines;38767

       (2) Laboratory wastes that were, or are likely to have been, 38768
in contact with infectious agents that may present a substantial 38769
threat to public health if improperly managed;38770

       (3) Pathological wastes, including, without limitation, human 38771
and animal tissues, organs, and body parts, and body fluids and 38772
excreta that are contaminated with or are likely to be 38773
contaminated with infectious agents, removed or obtained during 38774
surgery or autopsy or for diagnostic evaluation, provided that, 38775
with regard to pathological wastes from animals, the animals have 38776
or are likely to have been exposed to a zoonotic or infectious 38777
agent;38778

       (4) Waste materials from the rooms of humans, or the 38779
enclosures of animals, that have been isolated because of 38780
diagnosed communicable disease that are likely to transmit 38781
infectious agents. Such waste materials from the rooms of humans 38782
do not include any wastes of patients who have been placed on 38783
blood and body fluid precautions under the universal precaution 38784
system established by the centers for disease control in the 38785
public health service of the United States department of health 38786
and human services, except to the extent specific wastes generated 38787
under the universal precautions system have been identified as 38788
infectious wastes by rules adopted under division (R)(8) of this 38789
section.38790

       (5) Human and animal blood specimens and blood products that 38791
are being disposed of, provided that, with regard to blood 38792
specimens and blood products from animals, the animals were or are 38793
likely to have been exposed to a zoonotic or infectious agent. 38794
"Blood products" does not include patient care waste such as 38795
bandages or disposable gowns that are lightly soiled with blood or 38796
other body fluids unless those wastes are soiled to the extent 38797
that the generator of the wastes determines that they should be 38798
managed as infectious wastes.38799

       (6) Contaminated carcasses, body parts, and bedding of 38800
animals that were intentionally exposed to infectious agents from 38801
zoonotic or human diseases during research, production of 38802
biologicals, or testing of pharmaceuticals, and carcasses and 38803
bedding of animals otherwise infected by zoonotic or infectious 38804
agents that may present a substantial threat to public health if 38805
improperly managed;38806

       (7) Sharp wastes used in the treatment, diagnosis, or 38807
inoculation of human beings or animals or that have, or are likely 38808
to have, come in contact with infectious agents in medical, 38809
research, or industrial laboratories, including, without 38810
limitation, hypodermic needles and syringes, scalpel blades, and 38811
glass articles that have been broken;38812

       (8) Any other waste materials generated in the diagnosis, 38813
treatment, or immunization of human beings or animals, in research 38814
pertaining thereto, or in the production or testing of 38815
biologicals, that the publicdirector of health council created in 38816
section 3701.33 of the Revised Code, by rules adopted in 38817
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, identifies as 38818
infectious wastes after determining that the wastes present a 38819
substantial threat to human health when improperly managed because 38820
they are contaminated with, or are likely to be contaminated with, 38821
infectious agents.38822

       (S) "Infectious agent" means a type of microorganism, 38823
helminth, or virus that causes, or significantly contributes to 38824
the cause of, increased morbidity or mortality of human beings.38825

       (T) "Zoonotic agent" means a type of microorganism, helminth, 38826
or virus that causes disease in vertebrate animals and that is 38827
transmissible to human beings and causes or significantly 38828
contributes to the cause of increased morbidity or mortality of 38829
human beings.38830

       (U) "Solid waste transfer facility" means any site, location, 38831
tract of land, installation, or building that is used or intended 38832
to be used primarily for the purpose of transferring solid wastes 38833
that were generated off the premises of the facility from vehicles 38834
or containers into other vehicles for transportation to a solid 38835
waste disposal facility. "Solid waste transfer facility" does not 38836
include any facility that consists solely of portable containers 38837
that have an aggregate volume of fifty cubic yards or less nor any 38838
facility where legitimate recycling activities are conducted.38839

       (V) "Beneficially use" means to use a scrap tire in a manner 38840
that results in a commodity for sale or exchange or in any other 38841
manner authorized as a beneficial use in rules adopted by the 38842
director in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.38843

       (W) "Commercial car," "commercial tractor," "farm machinery," 38844
"motor bus," "vehicles," "motor vehicle," and "semitrailer" have 38845
the same meanings as in section 4501.01 of the Revised Code.38846

       (X) "Construction equipment" means road rollers, traction 38847
engines, power shovels, power cranes, and other equipment used in 38848
construction work, or in mining or producing or processing 38849
aggregates, and not designed for or used in general highway 38850
transportation.38851

       (Y) "Motor vehicle salvage dealer" has the same meaning as in 38852
section 4738.01 of the Revised Code.38853

       (Z) "Scrap tire" means an unwanted or discarded tire.38854

       (AA) "Scrap tire collection facility" means any facility that 38855
meets all of the following qualifications:38856

       (1) The facility is used for the receipt and storage of whole 38857
scrap tires from the public prior to their transportation to a 38858
scrap tire storage, monocell, monofill, or recovery facility 38859
licensed under section 3734.81 of the Revised Code; a solid waste 38860
incineration or energy recovery facility subject to regulation 38861
under this chapter; a premises within the state where the scrap 38862
tires will be beneficially used; or a scrap tire storage, 38863
monocell, monofill, or recovery facility, any other solid waste 38864
disposal facility authorized to dispose of scrap tires, or a 38865
facility that will beneficially use the scrap tires, that is 38866
located in another state, and that is operating in compliance with 38867
the laws of the state in which the facility is located.38868

       (2) The facility exclusively stores scrap tires in portable 38869
containers.38870

       (3) The aggregate storage of the portable containers in which 38871
the scrap tires are stored does not exceed five thousand cubic 38872
feet.38873

       (BB) "Scrap tire monocell facility" means an individual site 38874
within a solid waste landfill that is used exclusively for the 38875
environmentally sound storage or disposal of whole scrap tires or 38876
scrap tires that have been shredded, chipped, or otherwise 38877
mechanically processed.38878

       (CC) "Scrap tire monofill facility" means an engineered 38879
facility used or intended to be used exclusively for the storage 38880
or disposal of scrap tires, including at least facilities for the 38881
submergence of whole scrap tires in a body of water.38882

       (DD) "Scrap tire recovery facility" means any facility, or 38883
portion thereof, for the processing of scrap tires for the purpose 38884
of extracting or producing usable products, materials, or energy 38885
from the scrap tires through a controlled combustion process, 38886
mechanical process, or chemical process. "Scrap tire recovery 38887
facility" includes any facility that uses the controlled 38888
combustion of scrap tires in a manufacturing process to produce 38889
process heat or steam or any facility that produces usable heat or 38890
electric power through the controlled combustion of scrap tires in 38891
combination with another fuel, but does not include any solid 38892
waste incineration or energy recovery facility that is designed, 38893
constructed, and used for the primary purpose of incinerating 38894
mixed municipal solid wastes and that burns scrap tires in 38895
conjunction with mixed municipal solid wastes, or any tire 38896
retreading business, tire manufacturing finishing center, or tire 38897
adjustment center having on the premises of the business a single, 38898
covered scrap tire storage area at which not more than four 38899
thousand scrap tires are stored.38900

       (EE) "Scrap tire storage facility" means any facility where 38901
whole scrap tires are stored prior to their transportation to a 38902
scrap tire monocell, monofill, or recovery facility licensed under 38903
section 3734.81 of the Revised Code; a solid waste incineration or 38904
energy recovery facility subject to regulation under this chapter; 38905
a premises within the state where the scrap tires will be 38906
beneficially used; or a scrap tire storage, monocell, monofill, or 38907
recovery facility, any other solid waste disposal facility 38908
authorized to dispose of scrap tires, or a facility that will 38909
beneficially use the scrap tires, that is located in another 38910
state, and that is operating in compliance with the laws of the 38911
state in which the facility is located.38912

       (FF) "Used oil" means any oil that has been refined from 38913
crude oil, or any synthetic oil, that has been used and, as a 38914
result of that use, is contaminated by physical or chemical 38915
impurities. "Used oil" includes only those substances identified 38916
as used oil by the United States environmental protection agency 38917
under the "Used Oil Recycling Act of 1980," 94 Stat. 2055, 42 38918
U.S.C.A. 6901a, as amended.38919

       (GG) "Accumulated speculatively" has the same meaning as in 38920
rules adopted by the director under section 3734.12 of the Revised 38921
Code.38922

       Sec. 3734.131.  (A)(1) Except as provided in divisions (D)(1) 38923
and (2) of this section, no person shall transport any solid 38924
wastes from outside this state to a solid waste facility in this 38925
state unless that person has first irrevocably consented in 38926
writing to the jurisdiction of the courts of this state and 38927
service of process in this state, including, without limitation, 38928
summonses and subpoenas, for any civil or criminal proceeding 38929
arising out of or relating to the wastes that are shipped to a 38930
facility in this state.38931

       (2) The original of the consent-to-jurisdiction document 38932
shall be legible and shall be filed with the director of 38933
environmental protection on a form provided by the director. A 38934
legible copy of the completed document shall be filed with the 38935
owner or operator of each solid waste facility to which the wastes 38936
are transported. A consent-to-jurisdiction document applies only 38937
to shipments into this state of wastes described in division 38938
(A)(1) of this section.38939

       (3) All consent-to-jurisdiction documents required under 38940
division (A)(1) or (3) of this section shall be refiled during the 38941
month of December, 1995, and during the month of December of every 38942
fourth year thereafter. Except as provided in division (D)(1) of 38943
this section, after December 31, 1995, or after the thirty-first 38944
day of December of every fourth year thereafter, whichever is 38945
applicable, no person shall continue to transport any solid wastes 38946
from outside this state to a solid waste facility in this state 38947
unless the person refiles with the director and the owner or 38948
operator of each facility to which the wastes are transported 38949
consent-to-jurisdiction documents, in the manner prescribed in 38950
division (A)(2) of this section, during the month of December next 38951
preceding the period for which the refiled document is required.38952

       (4) If the address of a person changes from that listed on 38953
the current consent-to-jurisdiction document filed under division 38954
(A)(1) or (3) of this section, the person shall file amended 38955
consent-to-jurisdiction documents containing the new address with 38956
the director and the owner or operator of each facility to which 38957
the wastes are transported.38958

       (5)(a) Except as provided in division (D)(1) of this section, 38959
no person identified in divisions (D)(2)(a) to (d) of this section 38960
shall transport any solid wastes from outside this state to a 38961
solid waste facility in this state unless the person has first 38962
filed a notification and authorization document naming the 38963
person's agent who is authorized to accept service of process in 38964
this state, including, without limitation, summonses and 38965
subpoenas, for any civil or criminal proceeding arising out of or 38966
relating to the wastes that are shipped to a facility in this 38967
state.38968

       The original of the notification and authorization document 38969
shall be legible and shall be filed with the director on a form 38970
provided by the director. A legible copy of the completed document 38971
shall be filed with the owner or operator of each solid waste 38972
facility to which the wastes are transported.38973

       (b) All notification and authorization documents required 38974
under division (A)(5) of this section shall be refiled during the 38975
month of December, 1995, and during the month of December of every 38976
fourth year thereafter. Except as provided in division (D)(1) of 38977
this section, after December 31, 1995, or after the thirty-first 38978
day of December of every fourth year thereafter, whichever is 38979
applicable, no person identified in divisions (D)(2)(a) to (d) of 38980
this section shall continue to transport any solid wastes from 38981
outside this state to a solid waste facility in this state unless 38982
the person refiles with the director and the owner or operator of 38983
each facility to which the wastes are transported notification and 38984
authorization documents, in the manner prescribed in division 38985
(A)(5)(a) of this section, during the month of December next 38986
preceding the period for which the refiled document is required.38987

       (c) If a person's agent or the address of a person's agent 38988
changes from that listed on the current notification and 38989
authorization document filed under division (A)(5)(a) or (b) of 38990
this section, the person shall file amended notification and 38991
authorization documents containing the name and address of the new 38992
agent or the agent's new address with the director and the owner 38993
or operator of each facility to which the wastes are transported.38994

       (B) A person who enters this state pursuant to a summons, 38995
subpoena, or other form of process authorized by this section is 38996
not subject to arrest or the service of process, whether civil or 38997
criminal, in connection with other matters that arose before his 38998
entrance into this state pursuant to the summons, subpoena, or 38999
other form of process authorized by this section.39000

       (C)(1) Except as provided in division (D)(1) of this section, 39001
no owner, operator, or employee of a solid waste facility shall 39002
accept for treatment, transfer, storage, or disposal at the 39003
facility any solid wastes from outside the boundaries of this 39004
state unless the facility has received a copy of the 39005
consent-to-jurisdiction document or notification and authorization 39006
document required under this section and applicable to the wastes.39007

       (2) The owner or operator of a solid waste facility shall 39008
keep the consent-to-jurisdiction documents and the notification 39009
and authorization documents filed with him under this section at 39010
the facility in such a location and manner that they are readily 39011
accessible to the director or his authorized representative, and 39012
the board of health having jurisdiction over the facility and its 39013
authorized representative, for the purposes of sections 3734.07 39014
and 3734.10 of the Revised Code.39015

       (D)(1) Divisions (A), (B), and (C) of this section do not 39016
apply to the transportation, transfer, or disposal of solid wastes 39017
from residential premises located less than ten miles outside the 39018
boundaries of this state.39019

       (2) Divisions (A)(1) to (4) of this section do not apply to 39020
any of the following:39021

       (a) A corporation incorporated under the laws of this state 39022
that has appointed a statutory agent pursuant to section 1701.07 39023
of the Revised Code;39024

       (b) A foreign corporation licensed to transact business in 39025
this state that has appointed a designated agent pursuant to 39026
section 1703.041 of the Revised Code;39027

       (c) A nonresident motor carrier that has designated an agent 39028
pursuant to, as defined in section 4919.774923.01 of the Revised 39029
Code, that is a nonresident;39030

       (d) Any other person who is a resident of this state.39031

       Sec. 3734.15.  (A) No person shall transport hazardous waste 39032
anywhere in this state unless hethe person has first registered 39033
with and obtained a uniform permit from the public utilities 39034
commission in accordance with section 4905.80Chapter 4921. of the 39035
Revised Code.39036

       For the purposes of this section, "registered transporter" 39037
means any person who is registered with and has received a uniform 39038
permit from the public utilities commission pursuant to section 39039
4905.80Chapter 4921. of the Revised Code.39040

       (B) A registered transporter of hazardous waste shall be 39041
responsible for the safe delivery of any hazardous waste that he39042
the registered transporter transports from such time as hethe 39043
registered transporter obtains the waste until hethe registered 39044
transporter delivers it to a treatment, storage, or disposal 39045
facility specified in division (F) of section 3734.02 of the 39046
Revised Code, as recorded on the manifest required in division (B) 39047
of section 3734.12 of the Revised Code. Any registered transporter 39048
who violates this chapter or any rule adopted under the chapter 39049
while transporting hazardous waste shall be liable for any damage 39050
or injury caused by the violation and for the costs of rectifying 39051
the violation and conditions caused by the violation.39052

       (C) No person who generates hazardous waste shall cause the 39053
waste to be transported by any person who is not a registered 39054
transporter. No person shall accept for treatment, storage, or 39055
disposal any hazardous waste from an unregistered transporter. Any 39056
person who is requested to accept such waste for treatment, 39057
storage, or disposal shall notify the director, the board of 39058
health in histhe person's location, and the public utilities 39059
commission of the request.39060

       If a generator causes an unregistered transporter to 39061
transport the hazardous waste, the generator of the waste, the 39062
transporter, and any person who accepts the waste for treatment, 39063
storage, or disposal shall be jointly and severally liable for any 39064
damage or injury caused by the handling of the waste and for the 39065
costs of rectifying their violation and conditions caused by their 39066
violation.39067

       Sec. 3734.51.  There is hereby created within the 39068
environmental protection agency the solid waste management 39069
advisory council consisting of the directors of environmental 39070
protection,and development, and natural resources, or their 39071
designees, as members ex officio, one member of the senate to be 39072
appointed by the president of the senate, one member of the house 39073
of representatives to be appointed by the speaker of the house of 39074
representatives, and fourteen members to be appointed by the 39075
governor with the advice and consent of the senate. Of the 39076
appointed members, one shall be an employee of a health district 39077
whose duties include enforcement of the solid waste provisions of 39078
this chapter, two shall represent the interests of counties, two 39079
shall represent the interests of municipal corporations, two shall 39080
represent the interests of townships, one shall represent the 39081
interests of county solid waste management districts, one shall 39082
represent the interests of joint solid waste management districts, 39083
one shall represent the interests of industrial generators of 39084
solid wastes, one shall be from the private recycling industry, 39085
one shall be from the private solid waste management industry, one 39086
shall be from a statewide environmental advocacy organization, and 39087
one shall represent the public. Within ninety days after June 24, 39088
1988, the governor shall make the initial appointments to the 39089
advisory council. Of those initial appointments, six shall be for 39090
a term ending June 24, 1989, and six shall be for a term ending 39091
June 24, 1990. The governor shall make the initial appointments to 39092
the advisory council of the members representing county and joint 39093
solid waste management districts within ninety days after the 39094
effective date of this amendment. Of the initial appointments of 39095
the members representing solid waste management districts, one 39096
shall be for a term ending June 24, 1993, and one shall be for a 39097
term ending June 24, 1994. Thereafter, termsTerms of office shall 39098
be for two years with each term ending on the same day of the same 39099
month as did the term that it succeeds. Each member shall hold 39100
office from the date of his appointment until the end of the term 39101
for which hethe member was appointed. Members may be reappointed. 39102
Vacancies shall be filled in the manner provided for original 39103
appointments. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring 39104
prior to the expiration of the term for which histhe member's39105
predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the remainder of 39106
that term. A member shall continue in office subsequent to the 39107
expiration of histhe member's term or until a period of sixty 39108
days has elapsed, whichever occurs first.39109

       The advisory council shall hold at least four regular 39110
quarterly meetings each year. Special meetings may be held at the 39111
behest of the chairmanchairperson or a majority of the members. 39112
The director of environmental protection shall serve as chairman39113
chairperson of the advisory council. The advisory council annually 39114
shall select from among its members a vice-chairmanchairperson39115
and a secretary to keep a record of its proceedings. A majority 39116
vote of the members of the advisory council is necessary to take 39117
action on any matter.39118

       Serving as an appointed member of the advisory council does 39119
not constitute holding a public office or position of employment 39120
under the laws of this state and does not constitute grounds for 39121
removal of public officers or employees from their offices or 39122
positions of employment. The governor may remove an appointed 39123
member of the advisory council at any time for misfeasance, 39124
nonfeasance, or malfeasance in office.39125

       Appointed members of the advisory council shall serve without 39126
compensation for attending council meetings. Members of the 39127
advisory council shall be reimbursed for their actual and 39128
necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their duties as 39129
members of the council from moneys appropriated to the 39130
environmental protection agency for administration and enforcement 39131
of the solid waste provisions of this chapter.39132

       The advisory council shall do all of the following:39133

       (A) Advise and assist the director of environmental 39134
protection with preparation of the state solid waste management 39135
plan and periodic revisions to the plan under section 3734.50 of 39136
the Revised Code;39137

       (B) Approve or disapprove the draft state solid waste 39138
management plan and periodic revisions prior to adoption of the 39139
plan under section 3734.50 of the Revised Code;39140

       (C) Annually review implementation of the state solid waste 39141
management plan and the solid waste management plans of county and 39142
joint solid waste management districts approved or ordered to be 39143
implemented under section 3734.521 or 3734.55 of the Revised Code 39144
or amendments to those plans approved or ordered to be implemented 39145
under section 3734.521 or 3734.56 of the Revised Code, and report 39146
its findings to the director.39147

       Sec. 3734.55.  (A) Upon completion of its draft solid waste 39148
management plan under section 3734.54 of the Revised Code, the 39149
solid waste management policy committee of a county or joint solid 39150
waste management district shall send a copy of the draft plan to 39151
the director of environmental protection for preliminary review 39152
and comment. Within forty-five days after receiving the draft 39153
plan, the director shall provide the committee with a written, 39154
nonbinding advisory opinion regarding the draft plan and any 39155
recommended changes to it that the director considers necessary to 39156
effect its approval. After receipt of the director's written 39157
opinion, the committee may make such revisions to the draft plan 39158
based on the director's opinion as it considers appropriate. Upon 39159
receipt of the director's opinion and after making any such 39160
revisions to the draft plan, the committee shall prepare and 39161
publish in at least one newspaper of general circulation within 39162
the county or joint district a public notice that describes the 39163
draft plan, specifies the location where it is available for 39164
review, and establishes a period of thirty days for comments 39165
concerning the draft plan. The committee shall send written notice 39166
of the draft plan to adjacent county and joint districts and shall 39167
make it available for review by those districts, by the board of 39168
county commissioners of each county forming the district, by all 39169
municipal corporations and townships within the county or joint 39170
district, and by the public. The committee also shall send written 39171
notice of the plan to the director and to the fifty industrial, 39172
commercial, or institutional generators of solid wastes within the 39173
district that generate the largest quantities of solid wastes, as 39174
determined by the board, and their local trade associations. The 39175
board shall make good faith efforts to identify those generators 39176
within the district and their local trade associations, but the 39177
nonprovision of notice under this division to a particular 39178
industrial, commercial, or institutional generator or local trade 39179
association does not invalidate the proceedings under this 39180
section. All such written notices shall include the date, time, 39181
and location of the public hearing; the dates when the comment 39182
period begins and ends; and a description of the plan that 39183
includes, without limitation, the proposed amount of the fees to 39184
be levied under the plan pursuant to division (B) of section 39185
3734.57 or division (A) of section 3734.573 of the Revised Code, 39186
if any, and an indication as to whether the provision required to 39187
be included in the plan under division (E)(1) of section 3734.53 39188
of the Revised Code authorizes the board of county commissioners 39189
or directors of the district to establish, or precludes the board 39190
from establishing, facility designations under section 343.014 of 39191
the Revised Code. Within fifteen days after expiration of the 39192
comment period, the committee shall conduct a public hearing 39193
concerning the draft plan and, at least fifteen days before the 39194
hearing, shall publish in at least one newspaper of general 39195
circulation within the county or joint district a notice 39196
containing the time and place of the hearing and the location 39197
where the draft plan is available for review.39198

       (B) After the public hearing, the committee may modify the 39199
draft plan based upon the public's comments and shall adopt or 39200
reject it by a majority vote. Within thirty days after adoption of 39201
the draft plan, the committee shall deliver a copy of it to the 39202
board of county commissioners of each county forming the district 39203
and to the legislative authority of each municipal corporation and 39204
township under the jurisdiction of the district. Within ninety 39205
days after receiving a copy of the draft plan adopted by the 39206
committee, each such board and legislative authority shall approve 39207
or disapprove the draft plan, by ordinance or resolution, and 39208
deliver a copy of the ordinance or resolution to the committee.39209

       The solid waste management policy committee of a county 39210
district or a joint district formed by two or three counties shall 39211
declare the draft plan to be ratified as the solid waste 39212
management plan of the district upon determining that the board of 39213
county commissioners of each county forming the district has 39214
approved the draft plan and that the legislative authorities of a 39215
combination of municipal corporations and townships with a 39216
combined population within the county or joint district comprising 39217
at least sixty per cent of the total population of the district 39218
have approved the draft plan, provided that in the case of a 39219
county district, that combination shall include the municipal 39220
corporation having the largest population within the boundaries of 39221
the district, and provided further that in the case of a joint 39222
district formed by two or three counties, that combination shall 39223
include for each county forming the joint district the municipal 39224
corporation having the largest population within the boundaries of 39225
both the county in which the municipal corporation is located and 39226
the joint district. The solid waste management policy committee of 39227
a joint district formed by four or more counties shall declare the 39228
draft plan to be ratified as the solid waste management plan of 39229
the joint district upon determining that the boards of county 39230
commissioners of a majority of the counties forming the district 39231
have approved the draft plan; that, in each of a majority of the 39232
counties forming the joint district, the draft plan has been 39233
approved by the municipal corporation having the largest 39234
population within the county and the joint district; and that the 39235
legislative authorities of a combination of municipal corporations 39236
and townships with a combined population within the joint district 39237
comprising at least sixty per cent of the total population of the 39238
joint district have approved the draft plan.39239

       For the purposes of this division and division (C)(2) of this 39240
section, only the population of the unincorporated area of a 39241
township shall be considered. For the purpose of determining the 39242
largest municipal corporation within each county under this 39243
division and division (C)(2) of this section, a municipal 39244
corporation that is located in more than one solid waste 39245
management district, but that is under the jurisdiction of one 39246
county or joint solid waste management district in accordance with 39247
division (A) of section 3734.52 of the Revised Code shall be 39248
considered to be within the boundaries of the county in which a 39249
majority of the population of the municipal corporation resides.39250

       (C)(1) Upon ratification of the draft plan under division (B) 39251
of this section, the committee shall submit it to the director for 39252
review and approval for compliance with the requirements of 39253
divisions (A), (B), (D), and (E)(1) of section 3734.53 of the 39254
Revised Code. The director, by order, shall approve or disapprove 39255
the plan within ninety days after its submission. The director 39256
shall include with an order disapproving a plan a statement 39257
outlining the deficiencies in the plan and directing the committee 39258
to submit, within ninety days after issuance of the order, a 39259
revised plan that remedies those deficiencies, except that if the 39260
committee, by resolution, requests an extension of the time for 39261
submission of a revised plan, the director, for good cause shown, 39262
may grant one such extension for a period of not more than sixty 39263
additional days.39264

       (2) Within sixty days after issuance of the order 39265
disapproving its plan, the committee shall prepare a draft revised 39266
plan, adopt a draft revised plan by a majority vote, and deliver a 39267
copy of the draft revised plan to the board of county 39268
commissioners of each county forming the district and to the 39269
legislative authority of each municipal corporation and township 39270
under the jurisdiction of the district. Within twenty-one days 39271
after the delivery of the draft revised plan, each such board and 39272
legislative authority shall approve or disapprove the draft 39273
revised plan, by ordinance or resolution, and deliver a copy of 39274
the ordinance or resolution to the committee. In the case of a 39275
county district or a joint district formed by two or three 39276
counties, the committee shall declare the draft revised plan to be 39277
ratified as the solid waste management plan of the county or joint 39278
district upon determining that the board of county commissioners 39279
of each county forming the district has approved the draft revised 39280
plan and that the legislative authorities of a combination of 39281
municipal corporations and townships with a combined population 39282
within the district comprising at least sixty per cent of the 39283
total population of the district have approved the draft revised 39284
plan, provided that in the case of a county district, that 39285
combination shall include the municipal corporation having the 39286
largest population within the boundaries of the district, and 39287
provided further that in the case of a joint district formed by 39288
two or three counties, that combination shall include for each 39289
county forming the joint district the municipal corporation having 39290
the largest population within the boundaries of both the county in 39291
which the municipal corporation is located and the joint district. 39292
In the case of a joint district formed by four or more counties, 39293
the committee shall declare the draft revised plan to be ratified 39294
as the solid waste management plan of the joint district upon 39295
determining that the boards of county commissioners of a majority 39296
of the counties forming the district have approved the draft 39297
revised plan; that, in each of a majority of the counties forming 39298
the joint district, the draft revised plan has been approved by 39299
the municipal corporation having the largest population within the 39300
county and the joint district; and that the legislative 39301
authorities of a combination of municipal corporations and 39302
townships with a combined population within the joint district 39303
comprising at least sixty per cent of the total population of the 39304
joint district have approved the draft revised plan. Upon 39305
ratification of the draft revised plan, the committee shall submit 39306
it to the director for approval in accordance with division (C)(1) 39307
of this section. The director, by order, shall approve or 39308
disapprove the draft revised plan within thirty days after 39309
receiving it.39310

       (3) Notwithstanding section 119.06 of the Revised Code, the 39311
director may approve or disapprove a plan or revised plan 39312
submitted under division (C)(1) or (2) of this section by issuance 39313
of a final order that is effective upon issuance, without the 39314
necessity to hold any adjudication hearing in connection with the 39315
order and without issuance of a proposed action under section 39316
3745.07 of the Revised Code. In any appeal taken under section 39317
3745.04 of the Revised Code pertaining to the director's 39318
disapproval of the solid waste management plan or revised plan of 39319
a county or joint district, the solid waste management policy 39320
committee of the county or joint district and the director shall 39321
be the parties. Upon a showing by the policy committee that there 39322
is a substantial likelihood that it will prevail on the merits, 39323
the environmental review appeals commission, within thirty days 39324
after filing of the notice of appeal under that section and 39325
pending final determination of the appeal, may grant temporary 39326
relief from the director's order disapproving the district's plan, 39327
including the issuance of appropriate orders to the director to 39328
refrain from acting under division (D) of this section.39329

       (4) After approval of the plan or revised plan by the 39330
director, the board of county commissioners of a county district 39331
or board of directors of a joint district shall implement the plan 39332
in compliance with the implementation schedule contained in the 39333
approved plan.39334

       The committee annually shall review implementation of the 39335
plan approved under this section or section 3734.521 of the 39336
Revised Code and subsequent amended plans approved under section 39337
3734.521 or 3734.56 of the Revised Code and report its findings 39338
and recommendations regarding implementation of the plan to the 39339
board of county commissioners or board of directors of the 39340
district.39341

       (D) If the director finds that a county or joint solid waste 39342
management district has failed to obtain approval of its solid 39343
waste management plan within eighteen months after the applicable 39344
date prescribed for submission of its plan under division (A) of 39345
section 3734.54 of the Revised Code or within twenty-four months 39346
after that date if the date for submission was extended under that 39347
division, the director shall prepare a solid waste management plan 39348
for the county or joint district that complies with divisions (A) 39349
and (D) of section 3734.53 of the Revised Code. The plan shall not 39350
contain any of the provisions required or authorized to be 39351
included in plans submitted by districts under division (B), (C), 39352
or (E) of that section. Upon completion of the plan, the director 39353
shall issue an order in accordance with Chapter 3745. of the 39354
Revised Code directing the board of county commissioners or board 39355
of directors of the district to implement the plan in compliance 39356
with the implementation schedule contained in it.39357

       Within thirty days after the effective date of the order to 39358
implement the plan, the board of county commissioners or board of 39359
directors of the district shall determine whether the solid waste 39360
management policy committee of the district should continue to 39361
exist to monitor implementation of the plan or for the purposes of 39362
division (B) of section 3734.57 or section 3734.574 of the Revised 39363
Code. The board, by resolution, may abolish the committee if it 39364
determines that the committee is not necessary for any of those 39365
purposes. If the board of county commissioners or directors of a 39366
district that has so abolished the policy committee of the 39367
district finds that it is necessary or appropriate for the 39368
district to consider levying fees under section 3734.574 of the 39369
Revised Code, the board shall reestablish and convene the policy 39370
committee to initiate proceedings to levy the fees. If the fees 39371
are levied, the policy committee shall continue to exist for as 39372
long as the district is levying the fees. If, after a policy 39373
committee is convened to initiate proceedings to levy those fees, 39374
the fees are not levied or are abolished under section 3734.574 of 39375
the Revised Code, the board, by resolution, may abolish the 39376
committee if it determines that the committee is not necessary to 39377
monitor implementation of the plan.39378

       (E) If the director finds that the board of county 39379
commissioners or the board of directors of a district has 39380
materially failed to implement the district's plan or amended plan 39381
approved under division (C) of this section or section 3734.521 or 39382
3734.56 of the Revised Code, or prepared and ordered to be 39383
implemented under division (D) of this section or section 3734.521 39384
or 3734.56 of the Revised Code, in compliance with the 39385
implementation schedule contained in the plan or amended plan, the 39386
director shall issue an enforcement order under division (A) of 39387
section 3734.13 of the Revised Code directing the board to comply 39388
with the implementation schedule in the plan or amended plan 39389
within a specified, reasonable time. If the director finds that 39390
the board of county commissioners or directors of a district for 39391
which the provision included in the district's initial or amended 39392
plan approved under section 3734.521, 3734.55, or 3734.56 of the 39393
Revised Code pursuant to division (E)(1) or (2)(b) or (c) of 39394
section 3734.53 of the Revised Code, or an amendment to the 39395
district's approved initial or amended plan adopted and ratified 39396
under division (F) of section 3734.56 of the Revised Code, 39397
precludes the board from establishing facility designations under 39398
section 343.014 of the Revised Code has initiated proceedings to 39399
establish facility designations in violation of that section and 39400
the district's initial or amended plan, the director shall issue 39401
an enforcement order under division (A) of section 3734.13 of the 39402
Revised Code directing the board, at the board's discretion, to 39403
either abandon the proceedings or suspend them until after the 39404
board has adopted and obtained ratification of an amendment to the 39405
district's initial or amended plan under division (F) of section 39406
3734.56 of the Revised Code that authorizes the board to establish 39407
facility designations under section 343.014 of the Revised Code. 39408
If the director finds that a board of county commissioners or 39409
directors of a district for which the provision included in the 39410
district's initial or amended plan approved under section 39411
3734.521, 3734.55, or 3734.56 of the Revised Code pursuant to 39412
division (E)(1) or (2)(b) or (c) of section 3734.53 of the Revised 39413
Code, or an amendment to the district's approved initial or 39414
amended plan adopted and ratified under division (F) of section 39415
3734.56 of the Revised Code, authorizes the board to establish 39416
facility designations under section 343.014 of the Revised Code 39417
has established facility designations under section 343.014 of the 39418
Revised Code or continued facility designations under section 39419
343.015 of the Revised Code and subsequently has initiated 39420
proceedings to terminate any such facility designations in 39421
violation of section 343.014 of the Revised Code and the 39422
district's initial or amended plan, the director shall issue an 39423
enforcement order under division (A) of section 3734.13 of the 39424
Revised Code directing the board, at the board's discretion, to 39425
either abandon the proceedings or adopt and obtain ratification of 39426
an amendment to the district's initial or amended plan under 39427
division (F) of section 3734.56 of the Revised Code that precludes 39428
the board from establishing facility designations under section 39429
343.014 of the Revised Code.39430

       (F) The director shall maintain a record of the county and 39431
joint solid waste management district solid waste management plans 39432
and amended plans that the director has approved or ordered to be 39433
implemented under this section, section 3734.521, and section 39434
3734.56 of the Revised Code. Upon determining that each county 39435
within the state is subject to such a plan or amended plan, the 39436
director shall notify the chief of recycling and litter prevention 39437
in the department of natural resources of that fact.39438

       (G)(1) As used in divisions (C)(4), (D)(1) and (2), and (E) 39439
of this section and section 3734.521 of the Revised Code, any 39440
reference to a board of county commissioners of a county or a 39441
board of directors of a joint solid waste management district is 39442
deemed to include the board of trustees of a regional solid waste 39443
management authority formed under section 343.011 of the Revised 39444
Code.39445

       (2) As used in this section and sections 3734.521 and 3734.57 39446
of the Revised Code, "deliver" includes mailing as well as 39447
delivery by a means other than mailing.39448

       Sec. 3734.79.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this 39449
section, each application for a permit submitted under sections 39450
3734.76 to 3734.78 of the Revised Code shall be accompanied by a 39451
nonrefundable application fee of four hundred dollars that shall 39452
be credited to the scrap tire management fund created in section 39453
3734.82 of the Revised Code. If a permit is issued, the amount of 39454
the application fee paid shall be deducted from the amount of the 39455
applicable permit fee due under division (G)(R) of section 3745.11 39456
of the Revised Code.39457

       (B) Division (A) of this section does not apply to an 39458
application for a permit for a scrap tire storage facility 39459
submitted under section 3734.76 of the Revised Code if the owner 39460
or operator of the facility or proposed facility is a motor 39461
vehicle salvage dealer licensed under Chapter 4738. of the Revised 39462
Code.39463

       Sec. 3734.82.  (A) The annual fee for a scrap tire recovery 39464
facility license issued under section 3734.81 of the Revised Code 39465
shall be in accordance with the following schedule:39466

Daily Design Annual 39467
Input Capacity License 39468
(Tons) Fee 39469

1 or less $  100 39470
2 to 25 500 39471
26 to 50 1,000 39472
51 to 100 1,500 39473
101 to 200 2,500 39474
201 to 500 3,500 39475
501 or more 5,500 39476

       For the purpose of determining the applicable license fee 39477
under this division, the daily design input capacity shall be the 39478
quantity of scrap tires the facility is designed to process daily 39479
as set forth in the registration certificate or permit for the 39480
facility, and any modifications to the permit, if applicable, 39481
issued under section 3734.78 of the Revised Code.39482

       (B) The annual fee for a scrap tire monocell or monofill 39483
facility license shall be in accordance with the following 39484
schedule:39485

Authorized Maximum Annual 39486
Daily Waste Receipt License 39487
(Tons) Fee 39488
100 or less $ 5,000 39489
101 to 200  12,500 39490
201 to 500  30,000 39491
501 or more  60,000 39492

       For the purpose of determining the applicable license fee 39493
under this division, the authorized maximum daily waste receipt 39494
shall be the maximum amount of scrap tires the facility is 39495
authorized to receive daily that is established in the permit for 39496
the facility, and any modification to that permit, issued under 39497
section 3734.77 of the Revised Code.39498

       (C)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(2) of 39499
this section, the annual fee for a scrap tire storage facility 39500
license shall equal one thousand dollars times the number of acres 39501
on which scrap tires are to be stored at the facility during the 39502
license year, as set forth on the application for the annual 39503
license, except that the total annual license fee for any such 39504
facility shall not exceed three thousand dollars.39505

       (2) The annual fee for a scrap tire storage facility license 39506
for a storage facility that is owned or operated by a motor 39507
vehicle salvage dealer licensed under Chapter 4738. of the Revised 39508
Code is one hundred dollars.39509

       (D)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(2) of 39510
this section, the annual fee for a scrap tire collection facility 39511
license is two hundred dollars.39512

       (2) The annual fee for a scrap tire collection facility 39513
license for a collection facility that is owned or operated by a 39514
motor vehicle salvage dealer licensed under Chapter 4738. of the 39515
Revised Code is fifty dollars.39516

       (E) Except as otherwise provided in divisions (C)(2) and 39517
(D)(2) of this section, the same fees apply to private operators 39518
and to the state and its political subdivisions and shall be paid 39519
within thirty days after the issuance of a license. The fees 39520
include the cost of licensing, all inspections, and other costs 39521
associated with the administration of the scrap tire provisions of 39522
this chapter and rules adopted under them. Each license shall 39523
specify that it is conditioned upon payment of the applicable fee 39524
to the board of health or the director of environmental 39525
protection, as appropriate, within thirty days after the issuance 39526
of the license.39527

       (F) The board of health shall retain fifteen thousand dollars 39528
of each license fee collected by the board under division (B) of 39529
this section, or the entire amount of any such fee that is less 39530
than fifteen thousand dollars, and the entire amount of each 39531
license fee collected by the board under divisions (A), (C), and 39532
(D) of this section. The moneys retained shall be paid into a 39533
special fund, which is hereby created in each health district, and 39534
used solely to administer and enforce the scrap tire provisions of 39535
this chapter and rules adopted under them. The remainder, if any, 39536
of each license fee collected by the board under division (B) of 39537
this section shall be transmitted to the director within 39538
forty-five days after receipt of the fee.39539

       (G) The director shall transmit the moneys received by the 39540
director from license fees collected under division (B) of this 39541
section to the treasurer of state to be credited to the scrap tire 39542
management fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury. 39543
The fund shall consist of all federal moneys received by the 39544
environmental protection agency for the scrap tire management 39545
program; all grants, gifts, and contributions made to the director 39546
for that program; and all other moneys that may be provided by law 39547
for that program. The director shall use moneys in the fund as 39548
follows:39549

       (1) Expend amounts determined necessary by the director to 39550
implement, administer, and enforce the scrap tire provisions of 39551
this chapter and rules adopted under them;39552

       (2) During each fiscal year, request the director of budget 39553
and management to, and the director of budget and management 39554
shall, transfer one million dollars to the scrap tire grant fund 39555
created in section 1502.123734.822 of the Revised Code for 39556
supporting market development activities for scrap tires and 39557
synthetic rubber from tire manufacturing processes and tire 39558
recycling processes. In addition, during a fiscal year, the 39559
director of environmental protection may request the director of 39560
budget and management to, and the director of budget and 39561
management shall, transfer up to an additional five hundred 39562
thousand dollars to the scrap tire grant fund for scrap tire 39563
amnesty events and scrap tire cleanup events.39564

       (3) After the expenditures and transfers are made under 39565
divisions (G)(1) and (2) of this section, expend the balance of 39566
the money in the scrap tire management fund remaining in each 39567
fiscal year to conduct removal actions under section 3734.85 of 39568
the Revised Code and to provide grants to boards of health under 39569
section 3734.042 of the Revised Code.39570

       Sec. 1502.12.        Sec. 3734.822. (A) There is hereby created in the 39571
state treasury the scrap tire grant fund, consisting of moneys 39572
transferred to the fund under section 3734.82 of the Revised Code. 39573
The chief of the division of recycling and litter prevention, with 39574
the approval of the director of natural resources,environmental 39575
protection may make grants from the fund for the following 39576
purposes:39577

       (1) Supporting market development activities for scrap tires 39578
and synthetic rubber from tire manufacturing processes and tire 39579
recycling processes;39580

       (2) Supporting scrap tire amnesty and cleanup events 39581
sponsored by solid waste management districts. 39582

       Grants awarded under division (A)(1) of this section may be 39583
awarded to individuals, businesses, and entities certified under 39584
division (A) of section 1502.043736.04 of the Revised Code.39585

       (B) Projects and activities that are eligible for grants 39586
under division (A)(1) of this section shall be evaluated for 39587
funding using, at a minimum, the following criteria:39588

       (1) The degree to which a proposed project contributes to the 39589
increased use of scrap tires generated in this state;39590

       (2) The degree of local financial support for a proposed 39591
project;39592

       (3) The technical merit and quality of a proposed project.39593

       Sec. 3735.37.  A metropolitan housing authority shall keep an 39594
accurate account of all its activities and of all receipts and 39595
expenditures and make an annual report thereof to the director of 39596
developmentof these publicly available. All moneys received in 39597
excess of operating expenditures shall be devoted to the payment 39598
of interest and sinking fund charges for the retirement of 39599
indebtedness, whether secured by mortgage or otherwise, and from 39600
the excess there shall be set aside such fund as the authority 39601
deems proper for the purpose of covering repairs, depreciation, 39602
and reserves. Whatever balance then remains shall be applied to 39603
the reduction of rentals thereafter falling due.39604

       Sec. 1502.01.        Sec. 3736.01.  As used in this chapter:39605

       (A) "Litter" means garbage, trash, waste, rubbish, ashes, 39606
cans, bottles, wire, paper, cartons, boxes, automobile parts, 39607
furniture, glass, or anything else of an unsightly or unsanitary 39608
nature thrown, dropped, discarded, placed, or deposited by a 39609
person on public property, on private property not owned by the 39610
person, or in or on waters of the state unless one of the 39611
following applies:39612

       (1) The person has been directed to do so by a public 39613
official as part of a litter collection drive.39614

       (2) The person has thrown, dropped, discarded, placed, or 39615
deposited the material in a receptacle in a manner that prevented 39616
its being carried away by the elements.39617

       (3) The person has been issued a permit or license covering 39618
the material pursuant to Chapter 3734. or 6111. of the Revised 39619
Code.39620

       (B) "Recycling" means the process of collecting, sorting, 39621
cleansing, treating, and reconstituting waste or other discarded 39622
materials for the purpose of recovering and reusing the materials.39623

       (C) "Agency of the state" includes, but is not limited to, an 39624
"agency" subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and a "state 39625
university or college" as defined in section 3345.12 of the 39626
Revised Code.39627

       (D) "Source reduction" means activities that decrease the 39628
initial production of waste materials at their point of origin.39629

       (E) "Enterprise" means a business with its principal place of 39630
business in this state and that proposes to engage in research and 39631
development or recycling in this state.39632

       (F) "Research and development" means inquiry, 39633
experimentation, or demonstration to advance basic scientific or 39634
technical knowledge or the application, adaptation, or use of 39635
existing or newly discovered scientific or technical knowledge 39636
regarding recycling, source reduction, or litter prevention.39637

       (G) "Recyclables" means waste materials that are collected, 39638
separated, or processed and used as raw materials or products.39639

       (H) "Recycling market development" means activities that 39640
stimulate the demand for recycled products, provide for a 39641
consistent supply of recyclables to meet the needs of recycling 39642
industries, or both.39643

       (I) "Solid waste management districts" means solid waste 39644
management districts established under Chapter 343. of the Revised 39645
Code.39646

       (J) "Synthetic rubber" means produced or extended rubber and 39647
products made from a synthetic rubber base material originating 39648
from petrochemical feedstocks, including scrap tires, tire molds, 39649
automobile engine belts, brake pads and hoses, weather stripping, 39650
fittings, electrical insulation, and other molded objects and 39651
parts.39652

       Sec. 1502.03.        Sec. 3736.02.  (A) The chiefdirector of the division 39653
of recycling and litter preventionenvironmental protection shall 39654
establish and implement statewide source reduction, recycling, 39655
recycling market development, and litter prevention programs that 39656
are consistent with the state solid waste management plan adopted 39657
under section 3734.50 of the Revised Code. The programs shall39658
include all of the following:39659

       (1) The assessment of waste generation within the state and 39660
implementation of source reduction practices;39661

       (2) The implementation of recycling and recycling market 39662
development activities and projects, including all of the 39663
following:39664

       (a) Collection of recyclables;39665

       (b) Separation of recyclables;39666

       (c) Processing of recyclables;39667

       (d) Facilitation and encouragement of the use of recyclables 39668
and products made with recyclables;39669

       (e) Education and training concerning recycling and products 39670
manufactured with recyclables;39671

       (f) Public awareness campaigns to promote recycling;39672

       (g) Other activities and projects that promote recycling and 39673
recycling market development.39674

       (3) Litter prevention assistance to enforce antilitter laws, 39675
educate the public, and stimulate collection and containment of 39676
litter;39677

       (4) Research and development regarding source reduction, 39678
recycling, and litter prevention, including, without limitation, 39679
research and development regarding materials or products 39680
manufactured with recyclables.39681

       (B) The chief, with the approval of the director of natural 39682
resources, may enter into contracts or other agreements and may 39683
execute any instruments necessary or incidental to the discharge 39684
of the chief'sdirector's responsibilities under this chapter.39685

       Sec. 1502.02.        Sec. 3736.03.  (A) There is hereby created in the 39686
department of natural resources the division of recycling and 39687
litter prevention to be headed by the chief of recycling and 39688
litter prevention.39689

       (B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 39690
recycling and litter prevention fund, consisting of moneys 39691
distributed to it from fees, including the fee levied under 39692
division (A)(2) of section 3714.073 of the Revised Code, gifts, 39693
donations, grants, reimbursements, and other sources, including 39694
investment earnings.39695

       (C)(B) The chiefdirector of recycling and litter prevention39696
environmental protection shall do all of the following:39697

       (1) Use moneys credited to the fund exclusively for the 39698
purposes set forth in sections 1502.033736.02, 1502.043736.04, 39699
3736.05, and 1502.053745.014 of the Revised Code, with particular 39700
emphasis on programs relating to recycling;39701

       (2) Expend for administration of the division not more than 39702
ten per cent of any fiscal year's appropriation to the division, 39703
excluding the amount assessed to the division for direct and 39704
indirect central support charges;39705

       (3) Require recipients of grants under section 1502.0539706
3736.05 of the Revised Code, as a condition of receiving and 39707
retaining them, to do all of the following:39708

       (a) Create a separate account for the grants and any cash 39709
donations received that qualify for the donor credit allowed by 39710
section 5733.064 of the Revised Code;39711

       (b) Make expenditures from the account exclusively for the 39712
purposes for which the grants were received;39713

       (c) Use any auditing and accounting practices the chief39714
director considers necessary regarding the account;39715

       (d) Report to the chiefdirector information regarding the 39716
amount and donor of cash donations received as described by 39717
section 5733.064 of the Revised Code;39718

       (e) Use grants received to supplement and not to replace any 39719
existing funding for such purposes.39720

       (4)(3) Report to the tax commissioner information the chief39721
director receives pursuant to division (C)(3)(B)(2)(d) of this 39722
section.39723

       Sec. 1502.04.        Sec. 3736.04.  There is hereby created within the 39724
division of recycling and litter preventionenvironmental 39725
protection agency the recycling and litter prevention advisory 39726
council consisting of thirteen members. The speaker of the house 39727
of representatives shall appoint one member of the house of 39728
representatives to the council, and the president of the senate 39729
shall appoint one member of the senate to the council. If the 39730
president of the senate belongs to the same political party as the 39731
speaker of the house of representatives, the president shall 39732
appoint a member of the senate who belongs to a different 39733
political party as recommended by the minority leader of the 39734
senate. The speaker of the house of representatives and the 39735
president of the senate shall make their initial appointments to 39736
the council within sixty days after July 20, 1994. Each member 39737
appointed by the speaker of the house of representatives or the 39738
president of the senate shall serve for a term of office of three 39739
years. The appropriate appointing authority may fill any vacancy 39740
occurring during the term of any member whom the appointing 39741
authority has appointed to the advisory council.39742

       The remaining eleven members shall be appointed by the 39743
governor with the advice and consent of the senate and shall be 39744
persons with knowledge of or experience in recycling or litter 39745
prevention programs. The council shall have broad-based 39746
representation of interests including agriculture, labor, the 39747
environment, manufacturing, wholesale and retail industry, and the 39748
public. One of the business members shall be from the commercial 39749
recycling industry, and another shall be from an industry required 39750
to pay taxes under section 5733.065 of the Revised Code. The 39751
director of natural resourcesenvironmental protection shall not 39752
be a member of the council. The governor shall make initial 39753
appointments to the council within thirty days after October 20, 39754
1987. Of the governor's initial appointments to the council, five 39755
shall be for a term of one year, and six shall be for a term of 39756
two years. Thereafter, termsTerms of office shall be for three 39757
years. Each member appointed by the governor shall hold office 39758
from the date of the member's appointment until the end of the 39759
term for which the member was appointed. In the event of death, 39760
removal, resignation, or incapacity of a member of the council 39761
appointed by the governor, the governor, with the advice and 39762
consent of the senate, shall appoint a successor who shall hold 39763
office for the remainder of the term for which the successor's 39764
predecessor was appointed. A member shall continue in office 39765
subsequent to the expiration date of the member's term until the 39766
member's successor takes office, or until a period of sixty days 39767
has elapsed, whichever occurs first. The governor at any time may 39768
remove any of the governor's appointees from the council for 39769
misfeasance, nonfeasance, or malfeasance in office.39770

       Members of the council may be reappointed.39771

       The council shall hold at least four regular quarterly 39772
meetings each year. Special meetings may be held at the behest of 39773
the chairperson or a majority of the members. The council annually 39774
shall select from among its members a chairperson, a 39775
vice-chairperson, and a secretary to keep a record of its 39776
proceedings.39777

       A majority vote of the members of the council is necessary to 39778
take action inon any matter.39779

       A member of the council shall serve without compensation for 39780
attending council meetings, but shall be reimbursed for all 39781
traveling, hotel, and other ordinary and necessary expenses 39782
incurred in the performance of the member's work as a member of 39783
the council.39784

       Membership on the council does not constitute holding a 39785
public office or position of employment under the laws of this 39786
state and does not constitute grounds for removal of public 39787
officers or employees from their offices or positions of 39788
employment.39789

       The council shall do all of the following:39790

       (A) In conjunction with the chief of recycling and litter 39791
prevention and withWith the approval of the director of natural 39792
resourcesenvironmental protection, establish criteria by which to 39793
certify, and certify, agencies of the state, municipal 39794
corporations with a population of more than fifty thousand, 39795
counties, and solid waste management districts as eligible to 39796
receive grants under section 1502.053736.05 of the Revised Code;39797

       (B) In conjunction with the chief and withWith the approval 39798
of the director, establish criteria by which to certify, and 39799
certify, political subdivisions for receipt of special grants for 39800
activities or projects that are intended to accomplish the 39801
purposes of any of the programs established under section 1502.0339802
3736.02 of the Revised Code;39803

       (C) Advise the chiefdirector in carrying out the chief's39804
director's duties under this chapter.39805

       Sec. 1502.05.        Sec. 3736.05.  (A) The chiefdirector of recycling 39806
and litter preventionenvironmental protection, pursuant to 39807
division (A) of section 1502.043736.04 of the Revised Code and 39808
with the approval of the director of natural resources, may make 39809
grants from the recycling and litter prevention fund created in 39810
section 1502.023736.03 of the Revised Code to accomplish the 39811
purposes of the programs established under section 1502.033736.0239812
of the Revised Code.39813

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, the 39814
chief, with the approval of the director, may require any eligible 39815
applicant certified by the recycling and litter prevention 39816
advisory council under division (A) of section 1502.043736.04 of 39817
the Revised Code that applies for a grant for an activity or 39818
project that is intended to further the purposes of any program 39819
established under division (A)(1), (2), or (4) of section 1502.0339820
3736.02 of the Revised Code to provide a matching contribution of 39821
not more than fifty per cent of the grant.39822

       (C) Notwithstanding division (B) of this section, any grant 39823
awarded under division (A) of this section to foster cooperative 39824
research and development regarding recycling or the cooperative 39825
establishment or expansion of private recycling facilities or 39826
programs shall be made in conjunction with a contribution to the 39827
project by a cooperating enterprise that maintains or proposes to 39828
maintain a relevant research and development or recycling facility 39829
or program in this state or by an agency of the state, provided 39830
that funding provided by a state agency shall not be provided from 39831
general revenue funds appropriated by the general assembly. No 39832
grant made under division (A) of this section for the purposes 39833
described in this division shall exceed the contribution made by 39834
the cooperating enterprise or state agency. The chiefdirector may 39835
consider cooperating contributions in the form of state of the art 39836
new equipment or in other forms if the chiefdirector determines 39837
that the contribution is essential to the successful 39838
implementation of the project.39839

       Grants made under division (A) of this section for the 39840
purposes described in this division shall be made in such form and 39841
conditioned on such terms as the chiefdirector considers to be 39842
appropriate.39843

       (D)(1) The chief, with the approval of the director, may 39844
require any eligible applicant certified by the recycling and 39845
litter prevention advisory council under division (A) of section 39846
1502.043736.04 of the Revised Code that applies for a grant that 39847
is intended to further the purposes of the program established 39848
under division (A)(3) of section 1502.033736.02 of the Revised 39849
Code, except any eligible applicant that is or is located in a 39850
county that has a per capita income equal to or below ninety per 39851
cent of the median county per capita income of the state as 39852
determined by the chiefdirector using the most recently available 39853
figures from the United States census bureau, to provide a 39854
matching contribution as follows:39855

       (a) Up to ten per cent of the grant from any eligible 39856
applicant that is or is located in a county that has a per capita 39857
income above ninety per cent of the median county per capita 39858
income of the state, but equal to or below one hundred per cent of 39859
the median county per capita income of the state;39860

       (b) Up to twenty per cent of the grant from any eligible 39861
applicant that is or is located in a county that has a per capita 39862
income above the median county per capita income of the state.39863

       (2) If the eligible applicant is a joint solid waste 39864
management district or is filing a joint application on behalf of 39865
two or more counties, the matching contribution required under 39866
division (D)(1) of this section shall be the average of the 39867
matching contributions of all of the counties covered by the 39868
application as determined in accordance with that division. The 39869
matching contribution of a county that has a per capita income 39870
equal to or below ninety per cent of the median county per capita 39871
income of the state shall be included as zero in calculating the 39872
average matching contribution.39873

       (E) After receiving notice from theThe director of 39874
environmental protection that each county within the state is 39875
subject to the solid waste management plan of a solid waste 39876
management district, the chief shall ensure that not less than 39877
fifty per cent of the moneys distributed as grants under this 39878
section shall be expended for the purposes of recycling and 39879
recycling market development.39880

       (F) No information that is submitted to, acquired by, or 39881
exchanged with employees of the environmental protection agency 39882
who administer or provide services under this section and that is 39883
submitted, acquired, or exchanged in order to obtain a grant 39884
pursuant to division (A) of this section shall be used in any 39885
manner for the purpose of the enforcement of any requirement 39886
established in an environmental law or used as evidence in any 39887
judicial or administrative enforcement proceeding unless that 39888
information reveals a clear and immediate danger to the 39889
environment or to the health, safety, or welfare of the public.39890

       (G) Nothing in this section confers immunity on persons from 39891
enforcement that is based on information that is obtained by the 39892
director or the director's authorized representatives who are not 39893
employees of the agency who administer or provide services under 39894
this section.39895

       (H) As used in this section, "environmental law" means a law 39896
that is administered by the environmental protection agency.39897

       Sec. 1502.06.        Sec. 3736.06.  (A) Agencies of the state certified 39898
pursuant to section 1502.043736.04 of the Revised Code as 39899
eligible to receive a grant shall designate an employee as the 39900
liaison with the chiefdirector of recycling and litter prevention39901
environmental protection to cooperate with himthe director in 39902
carrying out histhe director's duties under this chapter.39903

       (B) The executive and legislative authorities of municipal 39904
corporations, counties, and townships and the boards of park 39905
commissioners of township park districts created under section 39906
511.18 of the Revised Code, boards of park commissioners of park 39907
districts created under section 1545.04 of the Revised Code, and 39908
boards of education of city, exempted village, local, and joint 39909
vocational school districts may participate in the programs 39910
established under section 1502.033736.02 of the Revised Code.39911

       Sec. 1502.07.        Sec. 3736.07.  No person, agency of the state, 39912
municipal corporation, county, or township shall sell or offer for 39913
sale any beer or mixed beverages as defined in section 4301.01 of 39914
the Revised Code, or any soft drink as defined in section 913.22 39915
of the Revised Code, in a metal container that is so designed that 39916
it may be opened by removing from the container a part of the 39917
container without using a separate opener. However, nothing in 39918
this section prohibits the sale or offering for sale of a 39919
container the only detachable part of which is a piece of tape or 39920
other similar adhesive material.39921

       Sec. 1502.99.        Sec. 3736.99.  Whoever violates section 1502.0739922
3736.07 of the Revised Code is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. Each 39923
day of violation constitutes a separate offense.39924

       Sec. 3737.83.  The fire marshal shall, as part of the state 39925
fire code, adopt rules to:39926

       (A) Establish minimum standards of performance for fire 39927
protection equipment and fire fighting equipment;39928

       (B) Establish minimum standards of training, fix minimum 39929
qualifications, and require certificates for all persons who 39930
engage in the business for profit of installing, testing, 39931
repairing, or maintaining fire protection equipment;39932

       (C) Provide for the issuance of certificates required under 39933
division (B) of this section and establish the fees to be charged 39934
for such certificates. A certificate shall be granted, renewed, or 39935
revoked according to rules the fire marshal shall adopt.39936

       (D) Establish minimum standards of flammability for consumer 39937
goods in any case where the federal government or any department 39938
or agency thereof has established, or may from time to time 39939
establish standards of flammability for consumer goods. The 39940
standards established by the fire marshal shall be identical to 39941
the minimum federal standards.39942

       In any case where the federal government or any department or 39943
agency thereof, establishes standards of flammability for consumer 39944
goods subsequent to the adoption of a flammability standard by the 39945
fire marshal, standards previously adopted by the fire marshal 39946
shall not continue in effect to the extent such standards are not 39947
identical to the minimum federal standards.39948

       With respect to the adoption of minimum standards of 39949
flammability, this division shall supersede any authority granted 39950
a political subdivision by any other section of the Revised Code.39951

       (E) Establish minimum standards pursuant to section 5104.05 39952
of the Revised Code for fire prevention and fire safety in child 39953
day-care centers and in type A family day-care homes, as defined 39954
in section 5104.01 of the Revised Code.39955

       (F) Establish minimum standards for fire prevention and 39956
safety an adult group home seeking licensure as an adult care 39957
facility must meet under section 5119.71 of the Revised Code. The 39958
fire marshal shall adopt the rules under this division in 39959
consultation with the directors of mental health and aging and 39960
interested parties designated by the directors of mental health 39961
and aging.39962

       Sec. 3737.841.  As used in this section and section 3737.842 39963
of the Revised Code:39964

       (A) "Public occupancy" means all of the following:39965

       (1) Any state correctional institution as defined in section 39966
2967.01 of the Revised Code and any county, multicounty, 39967
municipal, or municipal-county jail or workhouse;39968

       (2) Any hospital as defined in section 3727.01 of the Revised 39969
Code, any hospital licensed by the department of mental health 39970
under section 5119.20 of the Revised Code, and any institution, 39971
hospital, or other place established, controlled, or supervised by 39972
the department of mental health under Chapter 5119. of the Revised 39973
Code;39974

       (3) Any nursing home, residential care facility, or home for 39975
the aging as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code and 39976
any adult careresidential facility as defined inlicensed under39977
section 5119.705119.22 of the Revised Code that provides 39978
accommodations, supervision, and personal care services for three 39979
to sixteen unrelated adults;39980

       (4) Any child day-care center and any type A family day-care 39981
home as defined in section 5104.01 of the Revised Code;39982

       (5) Any public auditorium or stadium;39983

       (6) Public assembly areas of hotels and motels containing 39984
more than ten articles of seating furniture.39985

       (B) "Sell" includes sell, offer or expose for sale, barter, 39986
trade, deliver, give away, rent, consign, lease, possess for sale, 39987
or dispose of in any other commercial manner.39988

       (C) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, 39989
"seating furniture" means any article of furniture, including 39990
children's furniture, that can be used as a support for an 39991
individual, or an individual's limbs or feet, when sitting or 39992
resting in an upright or reclining position and that either:39993

       (1) Is made with loose or attached cushions or pillows;39994

       (2) Is stuffed or filled in whole or in part with any filling 39995
material;39996

       (3) Is or can be stuffed or filled in whole or in part with 39997
any substance or material, concealed by fabric or any other 39998
covering.39999

       "Seating furniture" includes the cushions or pillows 40000
belonging to or forming a part of the furniture, the structural 40001
unit, and the filling material and its container or covering.40002

       (D) "Seating furniture" does not include, except if intended 40003
for use by children or in facilities designed for the care or 40004
treatment of humans, any of the following:40005

       (1) Cushions or pads intended solely for outdoor use;40006

       (2) Any article with a smooth surface that contains no more 40007
than one-half inch of filling material, if that article does not 40008
have an upholstered horizontal surface meeting an upholstered 40009
vertical surface;40010

       (3) Any article manufactured solely for recreational use or 40011
physical fitness purposes, including weight-lifting benches, 40012
gymnasium mats or pads, and sidehorses.40013

       (E) "Filling material" means cotton, wool, kapok, feathers, 40014
down, hair, liquid, or any other natural or artificial material or 40015
substance that is used or can be used as stuffing in seating 40016
furniture.40017

       Sec. 3742.01.  As used in this chapter:40018

       (A) "Board of health" means the board of health of a city or 40019
general health district or the authority having the duties of a 40020
board of health under section 3709.05 of the Revised Code.40021

       (B) "Child care facility" means each area of any of the 40022
following in which child care, as defined in section 5104.01 of 40023
the Revised Code, is provided to children under six years of age:40024

       (1) A child day-care center, type A family day-care home, or 40025
type B family day-care home as defined in section 5104.01 of the 40026
Revised Code;40027

        (2) A type C family day-care home authorized to provide child 40028
care by Sub. H.B. 62 of the 121st general assembly, as amended by 40029
Am. Sub. S.B. 160 of the 121st general assembly and Sub. H.B. 407 40030
of the 123rd general assembly;40031

       (3) A preschool program or school child program as defined in 40032
section 3301.52 of the Revised Code.40033

       (C) "Clearance examination" means an examination to determine 40034
whether the lead hazards in a residential unit, child care 40035
facility, or school have been sufficiently controlled. A clearance 40036
examination includes a visual assessment, collection, and analysis 40037
of environmental samples.40038

       (D) "Clearance technician" means a person, other than a 40039
licensed lead inspector or licensed lead risk assessor, who 40040
performs a clearance examination.40041

       (E) "Clinical laboratory" means a facility for the 40042
biological, microbiological, serological, chemical, 40043
immunohematological, hematological, biophysical, cytological, 40044
pathological, or other examination of substances derived from the 40045
human body for the purpose of providing information for the 40046
diagnosis, prevention, or treatment of any disease, or in the 40047
assessment or impairment of the health of human beings. "Clinical 40048
laboratory" does not include a facility that only collects or 40049
prepares specimens, or serves as a mailing service, and does not 40050
perform testing.40051

       (F) "Encapsulation" means the coating and sealing of surfaces 40052
with durable surface coating specifically formulated to be 40053
elastic, able to withstand sharp and blunt impacts, long-lasting, 40054
and resilient, while also resistant to cracking, peeling, algae, 40055
fungus, and ultraviolet light, so as to prevent any part of 40056
lead-containing paint from becoming part of house dust or 40057
otherwise accessible to children.40058

       (G) "Enclosure" means the resurfacing or covering of surfaces 40059
with durable materials such as wallboard or paneling, and the 40060
sealing or caulking of edges and joints, so as to prevent or 40061
control chalking, flaking, peeling, scaling, or loose 40062
lead-containing substances from becoming part of house dust or 40063
otherwise accessible to children.40064

       (H) "Environmental lead analytical laboratory" means a 40065
facility that analyzes air, dust, soil, water, paint, film, or 40066
other substances, other than substances derived from the human 40067
body, for the presence and concentration of lead.40068

       (I) "HEPA" means the designation given to a product, device, 40069
or system that has been equipped with a high-efficiency 40070
particulate air filter, which is a filter capable of removing 40071
particles of 0.3 microns or larger from air at 99.97 per cent or 40072
greater efficiency.40073

       (J) "Interim controls" means a set of measures designed to 40074
reduce temporarily human exposure or likely human exposure to lead 40075
hazards. Interim controls include specialized cleaning, repairs, 40076
painting, temporary containment, ongoing lead hazard maintenance 40077
activities, and the establishment and operation of management and 40078
resident education programs.40079

       (K)(1) "Lead abatement" means a measure or set of measures 40080
designed for the single purpose of permanently eliminating lead 40081
hazards. "Lead abatement" includes all of the following:40082

       (a) Removal of lead-based paint and lead-contaminated dust;40083

       (b) Permanent enclosure or encapsulation of lead-based paint;40084

       (c) Replacement of surfaces or fixtures painted with 40085
lead-based paint;40086

       (d) Removal or permanent covering of lead-contaminated soil;40087

       (e) Preparation, cleanup, and disposal activities associated 40088
with lead abatement.40089

       (2) "Lead abatement" does not include any of the following:40090

       (a) Preventive treatments performed pursuant to section 40091
3742.41 of the Revised Code;40092

        (b) Implementation of interim controls;40093

        (c) Activities performed by a property owner on a residential 40094
unit to which both of the following apply:40095

       (i) It is a freestanding single-family home used as the 40096
property owner's private residence.40097

       (ii) No child under six years of age who has lead poisoning 40098
resides in the unit.40099

       (L) "Lead abatement contractor" means any individual who 40100
engages in or intends to engage in lead abatement and employs or 40101
supervises one or more lead abatement workers, including on-site 40102
supervision of lead abatement projects, or prepares 40103
specifications, plans, or documents for a lead abatement project.40104

       (M) "Lead abatement project" means one or more lead abatement 40105
activities that are conducted by a lead abatement contractor and 40106
are reasonably related to each other.40107

       (N) "Lead abatement project designer" means a person who is 40108
responsible for designing lead abatement projects and preparing a 40109
pre-abatement plan for all designed projects.40110

       (O) "Lead abatement worker" means an individual who is 40111
responsible in a nonsupervisory capacity for the performance of 40112
lead abatement.40113

       (P) "Lead-based paint" means any paint or other similar 40114
surface-coating substance containing lead at or in excess of the 40115
level that is hazardous to human health, as that level is40116
established by rule of the public health councilin rules adopted40117
under section 3742.50 of the Revised Code.40118

       (Q) "Lead-contaminated dust" means dust that contains an area 40119
or mass concentration of lead at or in excess of the level that is 40120
hazardous to human health, as that level is established by rule of 40121
the public health councilin rules adopted under section 3742.50 40122
of the Revised Code.40123

       (R) "Lead-contaminated soil" means soil that contains lead at 40124
or in excess of the level that is hazardous to human health, as 40125
that level is established by rule of the public health councilin 40126
rules adopted under section 3742.50 of the Revised Code.40127

       (S) "Lead hazard" means material that is likely to cause lead 40128
exposure and endanger an individual's health as determined by the 40129
publicdirector of health council in rules adopted under section 40130
3742.50 of the Revised Code. "Lead hazard" includes lead-based 40131
paint, lead-contaminated dust, lead-contaminated soil, and 40132
lead-contaminated water pipes.40133

       (T) "Lead inspection" means a surface-by-surface 40134
investigation to determine the presence of lead-based paint. The 40135
inspection shall use a sampling or testing technique approved by 40136
the public health councildirector in rules adopted by the council40137
under section 3742.03 of the Revised Code. A licensed lead 40138
inspector or laboratory approved under section 3742.09 of the 40139
Revised Code shall certify in writing the precise results of the 40140
inspection.40141

       (U) "Lead inspector" means any individual who conducts a lead 40142
inspection, provides professional advice regarding a lead 40143
inspection, or prepares a report explaining the results of a lead 40144
inspection.40145

       (V) "Lead poisoning" means the level of lead in human blood 40146
that is hazardous to human health, as specified in rules adopted 40147
under section 3742.50 of the Revised Code.40148

       (W) "Lead risk assessment" means an on-site investigation to 40149
determine and report the existence, nature, severity, and location 40150
of lead hazards in a residential unit, child care facility, or 40151
school, including information gathering from the unit, facility, 40152
or school's current owner's knowledge regarding the age and 40153
painting history of the unit, facility, or school and occupancy by 40154
children under six years of age, visual inspection, limited wipe 40155
sampling or other environmental sampling techniques, and any other 40156
activity as may be appropriate.40157

       (X) "Lead risk assessor" means a person who is responsible 40158
for developing a written inspection, risk assessment, and analysis 40159
plan; conducting inspections for lead hazards in a residential 40160
unit, child care facility, or school; interpreting results of 40161
inspections and risk assessments; identifying hazard control 40162
strategies to reduce or eliminate lead exposures; and completing a 40163
risk assessment report.40164

       (Y) "Lead-safe renovation" means the supervision or 40165
performance of services for the general improvement of all or part 40166
of an existing structure, including a residential unit, child care 40167
facility, or school, when the services are supervised or performed 40168
by a lead-safe renovator.40169

        (Z) "Lead-safe renovator" means a person who has successfully 40170
completed a training program in lead-safe renovation approved 40171
under section 3742.47 of the Revised Code.40172

       (AA) "Manager" means a person, who may be the same person as 40173
the owner, responsible for the daily operation of a residential 40174
unit, child care facility, or school.40175

       (BB) "Permanent" means an expected design life of at least 40176
twenty years.40177

       (CC) "Replacement" means an activity that entails removing 40178
components such as windows, doors, and trim that have lead hazards 40179
on their surfaces and installing components free of lead hazards.40180

        (DD) "Residential unit" means a dwelling or any part of a 40181
building being used as an individual's private residence.40182

       (EE) "School" means a public or nonpublic school in which 40183
children under six years of age receive education.40184

       Sec. 3742.02.  (A) No person shall do any of the following:40185

       (1) Violate any provision of this chapter or the rules 40186
adopted pursuant to it;40187

       (2) Apply or cause to be applied any lead-based paint on or 40188
inside a residential unit, child care facility, or school, unless 40189
the publicdirector of health council has determined by rule under 40190
section 3742.50 of the Revised Code that no suitable substitute 40191
exists;40192

       (3) Interfere with an investigation conducted by the director 40193
of health or a board of health in accordance with section 3742.35 40194
of the Revised Code.40195

       (B) No person shall knowingly authorize or employ an 40196
individual to perform lead abatement on a residential unit, child 40197
care facility, or school unless the individual who will perform 40198
the lead abatement holds a valid license issued under section 40199
3742.05 of the Revised Code.40200

       (C) No person shall do any of the following when a 40201
residential unit, child care facility, or school is involved:40202

       (1) Perform a lead inspection without a valid lead inspector 40203
license issued under section 3742.05 of the Revised Code;40204

       (2) Perform a lead risk assessment or provide professional 40205
advice regarding lead abatement without a valid lead risk assessor 40206
license issued under section 3742.05 of the Revised Code;40207

       (3) Act as a lead abatement contractor without a valid lead 40208
abatement contractor's license issued under section 3742.05 of the 40209
Revised Code;40210

       (4) Act as a lead abatement project designer without a valid 40211
lead abatement project designer license issued under section 40212
3742.05 of the Revised Code;40213

       (5) Perform lead abatement without a valid lead abatement 40214
worker license issued under section 3742.05 of the Revised Code;40215

       (6) Effective one year after April 7, 2003, perform a 40216
clearance examination without a valid clearance technician license 40217
issued under section 3742.05 of the Revised Code, unless the 40218
person holds a valid lead inspector license or valid lead risk 40219
assessor license issued under that section;40220

        (7) Perform lead training for the licensing purposes of this 40221
chapter without a valid approval from the director of health under 40222
section 3742.08 of the Revised Code;40223

       (8) Perform interim controls without complying with 24 C.F.R. 40224
Part 35.40225

       Sec. 3742.03.  The publicdirector of health council shall 40226
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 40227
for the administration and enforcement of sections 3742.01 to 40228
3742.19 and 3742.99 of the Revised Code. The rules shall specify 40229
all of the following:40230

       (A) Procedures to be followed by a lead abatement contractor, 40231
lead abatement project designer, lead abatement worker, lead 40232
inspector, or lead risk assessor licensed under section 3742.05 of 40233
the Revised Code for undertaking lead abatement activities and 40234
procedures to be followed by a clearance technician, lead 40235
inspector, or lead risk assessor in performing a clearance 40236
examination;40237

       (B)(1) Requirements for training and licensure, in addition 40238
to those established under section 3742.08 of the Revised Code, to 40239
include levels of training and periodic refresher training for 40240
each class of worker, and to be used for licensure under section 40241
3742.05 of the Revised Code. Except in the case of clearance 40242
technicians, these requirements shall include at least twenty-four 40243
classroom hours of training based on the Occupational Safety and 40244
Health Act training program for lead set forth in 29 C.F.R. 40245
1926.62. For clearance technicians, the training requirements to 40246
obtain an initial license shall not exceed six hours and the 40247
requirements for refresher training shall not exceed two hours 40248
every four years. In establishing the training and licensure 40249
requirements, the public health councildirector shall consider 40250
the core of information that is needed by all licensed persons, 40251
and establish the training requirements so that persons who would 40252
seek licenses in more than one area would not have to take 40253
duplicative course work.40254

       (2) Persons certified by the American board of industrial 40255
hygiene as a certified industrial hygienist or as an industrial 40256
hygienist-in-training, and persons registered as a sanitarian or 40257
sanitarian-in-training under Chapter 4736. of the Revised Code, 40258
shall be exempt from any training requirements for initial 40259
licensure established under this chapter, but shall be required to 40260
take any examinations for licensure required under section 3742.05 40261
of the Revised Code.40262

       (C) Fees for licenses issued under section 3742.05 of the 40263
Revised Code and for their renewal;40264

       (D) Procedures to be followed by lead inspectors, lead 40265
abatement contractors, environmental lead analytical laboratories, 40266
lead risk assessors, lead abatement project designers, and lead 40267
abatement workers to prevent public exposure to lead hazards and 40268
ensure worker protection during lead abatement projects;40269

       (E)(1) Record-keeping and reporting requirements for clinical 40270
laboratories, environmental lead analytical laboratories, lead 40271
inspectors, lead abatement contractors, lead risk assessors, lead 40272
abatement project designers, and lead abatement workers for lead 40273
abatement projects and record-keeping and reporting requirements 40274
for clinical laboratories, environmental lead analytical 40275
laboratories, and clearance technicians for clearance 40276
examinations;40277

       (2) Record-keeping and reporting requirements regarding lead 40278
poisoning for physicians, in addition to the requirements of 40279
section 3701.25 of the Revised Code;40280

       (3) Information that is required to be reported under rules 40281
based on divisions (E)(1) and (2) of this section and that is a 40282
medical record is not a public record under section 149.43 of the 40283
Revised Code and shall not be released, except in aggregate 40284
statistical form.40285

       (F) Environmental sampling techniques for use in collecting 40286
samples of air, water, dust, paint, and other materials;40287

       (G) Requirements for a respiratory protection plan prepared 40288
in accordance with section 3742.07 of the Revised Code;40289

       (H) Requirements under which a manufacturer of encapsulants 40290
must demonstrate evidence of the safety and durability of its 40291
encapsulants by providing results of testing from an independent 40292
laboratory indicating that the encapsulants meet the standards 40293
developed by the "E06.23.30 task group on encapsulants," which is 40294
the task group of the lead hazards associated with buildings 40295
subcommittee of the performance of buildings committee of the 40296
American society for testing and materials.40297

       Sec. 3742.04.  (A) The director of health shall do all of the 40298
following:40299

       (1) Administer and enforce the requirements of sections 40300
3742.01 to 3742.19 and 3742.99 of the Revised Code and the rules 40301
adopted pursuant to those sections;40302

       (2) Examine records and reports submitted by lead inspectors, 40303
lead abatement contractors, lead risk assessors, lead abatement 40304
project designers, lead abatement workers, and clearance 40305
technicians in accordance with section 3742.05 of the Revised Code 40306
to determine whether the requirements of this chapter are being 40307
met;40308

       (3) Examine records and reports submitted by physicians, 40309
clinical laboratories, and environmental lead analytical 40310
laboratories under section 3701.25 or 3742.09 of the Revised Code;40311

       (4) Issue approval to manufacturers of encapsulants that have 40312
done all of the following:40313

       (a) Submitted an application for approval to the director on 40314
a form prescribed by the director;40315

       (b) Paid the application fee established by the director;40316

       (c) Submitted results from an independent laboratory 40317
indicating that the manufacturer's encapsulants satisfy the 40318
requirements established in rules adopted under division (H) of 40319
section 3742.03 of the Revised Code;40320

       (d) Complied with rules adopted by the public health council40321
director regarding durability and safety to workers and residents.40322

       (5) Establish liaisons and cooperate with the directors or 40323
agencies in states having lead abatement, licensing, 40324
accreditation, certification, and approval programs to promote 40325
consistency between the requirements of this chapter and those of 40326
other states in order to facilitate reciprocity of the programs 40327
among states;40328

       (6) Establish a program to monitor and audit the quality of 40329
work of lead inspectors, lead risk assessors, lead abatement 40330
project designers, lead abatement contractors, lead abatement 40331
workers, and clearance technicians. The director may refer 40332
improper work discovered through the program to the attorney 40333
general for appropriate action.40334

       (B) In addition to any other authority granted by this 40335
chapter, the director of health may do any of the following:40336

       (1) Employ persons who have received training from a program 40337
the director has determined provides the necessary background. The 40338
appropriate training may be obtained in a state that has an 40339
ongoing lead abatement program under which it conducts educational 40340
programs.40341

       (2) Cooperate with the United States environmental protection 40342
agency in any joint oversight procedures the agency may propose 40343
for laboratories that offer lead analysis services and are 40344
accredited under the agency's laboratory accreditation program;40345

       (3) Advise, consult, cooperate with, or enter into contracts 40346
or cooperative agreements with any person, government entity, 40347
interstate agency, or the federal government as the director 40348
considers necessary to fulfill the requirements of this chapter 40349
and the rules adopted under it.40350

       Sec. 3742.05.  (A)(1) The director of health shall issue lead 40351
inspector, lead abatement contractor, lead risk assessor, lead 40352
abatement project designer, lead abatement worker, and clearance 40353
technician licenses. The director shall issue a license to an 40354
applicant who meets all of the following requirements:40355

       (a) Submits an application to the director on a form 40356
prescribed by the director;40357

       (b) Meets the licensing and training requirements established 40358
by the public health councilin rules adopted under section 40359
3742.03 of the Revised Code;40360

       (c) Successfully completes the licensing examination for the 40361
applicant's area of expertise administered under section 3742.08 40362
of the Revised Code and any training required by the director 40363
under that section;40364

       (d) Pays the license fee established by the public health 40365
councilin rules adopted under section 3742.03 of the Revised 40366
Code;40367

       (e) Provides the applicant's social security number and any 40368
information the director may require to demonstrate the 40369
applicant's compliance with this chapter and the rules adopted 40370
under it.40371

       (2) An individual may hold more than one license issued under 40372
this section, but a separate application is required for each 40373
license.40374

       (B) A license issued under this section expires two years 40375
after the date of issuance. The director shall renew a license in 40376
accordance with the standard renewal procedure set forth in 40377
Chapter 4745. of the Revised Code, if the licensee does all of the 40378
following:40379

       (1) Continues to meet the requirements of division (A) of 40380
this section;40381

       (2) Demonstrates compliance with procedures to prevent public 40382
exposure to lead hazards and for worker protection during lead 40383
abatement projects established by rulein rules adopted by the 40384
public health council under section 3742.03 of the Revised Code;40385

       (3) Meets the record-keeping and reporting requirements for 40386
lead abatement projects or clearance examinations established by 40387
rulein rules adopted by the public health council under section 40388
3742.03 of the Revised Code;40389

       (4) Pays the license renewal fee established by rulein rules40390
adopted by the public health council under section 3742.03 of the 40391
Revised Code.40392

       (C) An individual licensed, certified, or otherwise approved 40393
under the law of another state to perform functions substantially 40394
similar to those of a lead inspector, lead abatement contractor, 40395
lead risk assessor, lead abatement project designer, lead 40396
abatement worker, or clearance technician may apply to the 40397
director of health for licensure in accordance with the procedures 40398
set forth in division (A) of this section. The director shall 40399
license an individual under this division on a determination that 40400
the standards for licensure, certification, or approval in that 40401
state are at least substantially equivalent to those established 40402
by this chapter and the rules adopted under it. The director may 40403
require an examination for licensure under this division.40404

       Sec. 3742.30. Each child at risk of lead poisoning shall 40405
undergo a blood lead screening test to determine whether the child 40406
has lead poisoning. The at-risk children shall undergo the test at 40407
times determined by rules the publicdirector of health council40408
shall adopt in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 40409
that are consistent with the guidelines established by the centers 40410
for disease control and prevention in the public health service of 40411
the United States department of health and human services. The 40412
rules shall specify which children are at risk of lead poisoning.40413

       Neither this section nor the rules adopted under it affect 40414
the coverage of blood lead screening tests by any publicly funded 40415
health program, including the medicaid program established by 40416
Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code. Neither this section nor the 40417
rules adopted under it apply to a child if a parent of the child 40418
objects to the test on the grounds that the test conflicts with 40419
the parent's religious tenets and practices.40420

       Sec. 3742.47.  (A) A person seeking approval of a training 40421
program in either essential maintenance practices or lead-safe 40422
renovation shall apply for approval to the director of health. The 40423
application shall be made on a form prescribed by the director and 40424
shall include the fee established under division (B) of this 40425
section. The director shall issue approval to the applicant if the 40426
applicant demonstrates to the satisfaction of the director that 40427
the training program will meet the following requirements and any 40428
other training program requirements established by rules adopted 40429
under section 3742.50 of the Revised Code:40430

       (1) Conducts the training program in a period of time that 40431
does not exceed six hours;40432

        (2) Administers an examination established by rule of the40433
public health councildirector at the end of the training program 40434
to each person who completes the training;40435

       (3) Grades each examination not later than one week after its 40436
completion and determines whether the person who took the 40437
examination received a passing score;40438

       (4) Not later than one week after the examination is 40439
completed provides written proof of training program completion to 40440
each person who completes the program and passes the examination.40441

       (B) The director of health shall establish an application fee 40442
for approving training programs under this section. The fee shall 40443
be reasonable and shall not exceed the expenses incurred in 40444
conducting the approval of training programs. An application fee 40445
submitted under division (A) of this section is nonrefundable.40446

       Sec. 3742.50.  (A) The publicdirector of health council40447
shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 40448
Code establishing all of the following:40449

       (1) Procedures necessary for the development and operation of 40450
the child lead poisoning prevention program established under 40451
section 3742.31 of the Revised Code;40452

       (2) Standards and procedures for conducting investigations 40453
and risk assessments under sections 3742.35 and 3742.36 of the 40454
Revised Code;40455

       (3) Standards and procedures for issuing lead hazard control 40456
orders under section 3742.37 of the Revised Code, including 40457
standards and procedures for determining appropriate deadlines for 40458
complying with lead hazard control orders;40459

       (4) The level of lead in human blood that is hazardous to 40460
human health, consistent with the guidelines issued by the centers 40461
for disease control and prevention in the public health service of 40462
the United States department of health and human services;40463

       (5) The level of lead in paint, dust, and soil that is 40464
hazardous to human health;40465

       (6) Standards and procedures to be followed when implementing 40466
preventive treatments for the control of lead hazards pursuant to 40467
section 3742.41 of the Revised Code that are based on information 40468
from the United States environmental protection agency, department 40469
of housing and urban development, occupational safety and health 40470
administration, or other agencies with recommendations or 40471
guidelines regarding implementation of preventive treatments;40472

       (7) Standards that must be met to pass a clearance 40473
examination;40474

       (8) Procedures for approving under section 3742.47 of the 40475
Revised Code training programs in essential maintenance practices 40476
and lead-safe renovation and requirements, in addition to those 40477
specified in section 3742.47 of the Revised Code, that a program 40478
must meet to receive approval;40479

       (9) The examination to be administered by a training program 40480
approved under section 3742.47 of the Revised Code and the 40481
examination's passing score.40482

       (B) The public health councildirector shall establish 40483
procedures for revising its rules to ensure that the child lead 40484
poisoning prevention activities conducted under this chapter 40485
continue to meet the requirements necessary to obtain any federal 40486
funding available for those activities, including requirements 40487
established by the United States environmental protection agency, 40488
United States department of housing and urban development, or any 40489
other federal agency with jurisdiction over activities pertaining 40490
to child lead poisoning prevention.40491

       Sec. 3743.04.  (A) The license of a manufacturer of fireworks 40492
is effective for one year beginning on the first day of December. 40493
The state fire marshal shall issue or renew a license only on that 40494
date and at no other time. If a manufacturer of fireworks wishes 40495
to continue manufacturing fireworks at the designated fireworks 40496
plant after its then effective license expires, it shall apply no 40497
later than the first day of October for a new license pursuant to 40498
section 3743.02 of the Revised Code. The state fire marshal shall 40499
send a written notice of the expiration of its license to a 40500
licensed manufacturer at least three months before the expiration 40501
date.40502

       (B) If, during the effective period of its licensure, a 40503
licensed manufacturer of fireworks wishes to construct, locate, or 40504
relocate any buildings or other structures on the premises of its 40505
fireworks plant, to make any structural change or renovation in 40506
any building or other structure on the premises of its fireworks 40507
plant, or to change the nature of its manufacturing of fireworks 40508
so as to include the processing of fireworks, the manufacturer 40509
shall notify the state fire marshal in writing. The state fire 40510
marshal may require a licensed manufacturer also to submit 40511
documentation, including, but not limited to, plans covering the 40512
proposed construction, location, relocation, structural change or 40513
renovation, or change in manufacturing of fireworks, if the state 40514
fire marshal determines the documentation is necessary for 40515
evaluation purposes in light of the proposed construction, 40516
location, relocation, structural change or renovation, or change 40517
in manufacturing of fireworks.40518

       Upon receipt of the notification and additional documentation 40519
required by the state fire marshal, the state fire marshal shall 40520
inspect the premises of the fireworks plant to determine if the 40521
proposed construction, location, relocation, structural change or 40522
renovation, or change in manufacturing of fireworks conforms to 40523
sections 3743.02 to 3743.08 of the Revised Code and the rules 40524
adopted by the state fire marshal pursuant to section 3743.05 of 40525
the Revised Code. The state fire marshal shall issue a written 40526
authorization to the manufacturer for the construction, location, 40527
relocation, structural change or renovation, or change in 40528
manufacturing of fireworks if the state fire marshal determines, 40529
upon the inspection and a review of submitted documentation, that 40530
the construction, location, relocation, structural change or 40531
renovation, or change in manufacturing of fireworks conforms to 40532
those sections and rules. Upon authorizing a change in 40533
manufacturing of fireworks to include the processing of fireworks, 40534
the state fire marshal shall make notations on the manufacturer's 40535
license and in the list of licensed manufacturers in accordance 40536
with section 3743.03 of the Revised Code.40537

       On or before June 1, 1998, a licensed manufacturer shall 40538
install, in every licensed building in which fireworks are 40539
manufactured, stored, or displayed and to which the public has 40540
access, interlinked fire detection, smoke exhaust, and smoke 40541
evacuation systems that are approved by the superintendent of 40542
laborindustrial compliance, and shall comply with floor plans 40543
showing occupancy load limits and internal circulation and egress 40544
patterns that are approved by the state fire marshal and 40545
superintendent, and that are submitted under seal as required by 40546
section 3791.04 of the Revised Code. Notwithstanding section 40547
3743.59 of the Revised Code, the construction and safety 40548
requirements established in this division are not subject to any 40549
variance, waiver, or exclusion.40550

       (C) The license of a manufacturer of fireworks authorizes the 40551
manufacturer to engage only in the following activities:40552

       (1) The manufacturing of fireworks on the premises of the 40553
fireworks plant as described in the application for licensure or 40554
in the notification submitted under division (B) of this section, 40555
except that a licensed manufacturer shall not engage in the 40556
processing of fireworks unless authorized to do so by its license.40557

       (2) To possess for sale at wholesale and sell at wholesale 40558
the fireworks manufactured by the manufacturer, to persons who are 40559
licensed wholesalers of fireworks, to out-of-state residents in 40560
accordance with section 3743.44 of the Revised Code, to residents 40561
of this state in accordance with section 3743.45 of the Revised 40562
Code, or to persons located in another state provided the 40563
fireworks are shipped directly out of this state to them by the 40564
manufacturer. A person who is licensed as a manufacturer of 40565
fireworks on June 14, 1988, also may possess for sale and sell 40566
pursuant to division (C)(2) of this section fireworks other than 40567
those the person manufactures. The possession for sale shall be on 40568
the premises of the fireworks plant described in the application 40569
for licensure or in the notification submitted under division (B) 40570
of this section, and the sale shall be from the inside of a 40571
licensed building and from no other structure or device outside a 40572
licensed building. At no time shall a licensed manufacturer sell 40573
any class of fireworks outside a licensed building.40574

       (3) Possess for sale at retail and sell at retail the 40575
fireworks manufactured by the manufacturer, other than 1.4G 40576
fireworks as designated by the state fire marshal in rules adopted 40577
pursuant to division (A) of section 3743.05 of the Revised Code, 40578
to licensed exhibitors in accordance with sections 3743.50 to 40579
3743.55 of the Revised Code, and possess for sale at retail and 40580
sell at retail the fireworks manufactured by the manufacturer, 40581
including 1.4G fireworks, to out-of-state residents in accordance 40582
with section 3743.44 of the Revised Code, to residents of this 40583
state in accordance with section 3743.45 of the Revised Code, or 40584
to persons located in another state provided the fireworks are 40585
shipped directly out of this state to them by the manufacturer. A 40586
person who is licensed as a manufacturer of fireworks on June 14, 40587
1988, may also possess for sale and sell pursuant to division 40588
(C)(3) of this section fireworks other than those the person 40589
manufactures. The possession for sale shall be on the premises of 40590
the fireworks plant described in the application for licensure or 40591
in the notification submitted under division (B) of this section, 40592
and the sale shall be from the inside of a licensed building and 40593
from no other structure or device outside a licensed building. At 40594
no time shall a licensed manufacturer sell any class of fireworks 40595
outside a licensed building.40596

       A licensed manufacturer of fireworks shall sell under 40597
division (C) of this section only fireworks that meet the 40598
standards set by the consumer product safety commission or by the 40599
American fireworks standard laboratories or that have received an 40600
EX number from the United States department of transportation.40601

       (D) The license of a manufacturer of fireworks shall be 40602
protected under glass and posted in a conspicuous place on the 40603
premises of the fireworks plant. Except as otherwise provided in 40604
this division, the license is not transferable or assignable. A 40605
license may be transferred to another person for the same 40606
fireworks plant for which the license was issued if the assets of 40607
the plant are transferred to that person by inheritance or by a 40608
sale approved by the state fire marshal. The license is subject to 40609
revocation in accordance with section 3743.08 of the Revised Code.40610

       (E) The state fire marshal shall not place the license of a 40611
manufacturer of fireworks in a temporarily inactive status while 40612
the holder of the license is attempting to qualify to retain the 40613
license.40614

       (F) Each licensed manufacturer of fireworks that possesses 40615
fireworks for sale and sells fireworks under division (C) of 40616
section 3743.04 of the Revised Code, or a designee of the 40617
manufacturer, whose identity is provided to the state fire marshal 40618
by the manufacturer, annually shall attend a continuing education 40619
program. The state fire marshal shall develop the program and the 40620
state fire marshal or a person or public agency approved by the 40621
state fire marshal shall conduct it. A licensed manufacturer or 40622
the manufacturer's designee who attends a program as required 40623
under this division, within one year after attending the program, 40624
shall conduct in-service training as approved by the state fire 40625
marshal for other employees of the licensed manufacturer regarding 40626
the information obtained in the program. A licensed manufacturer 40627
shall provide the state fire marshal with notice of the date, 40628
time, and place of all in-service training. For any program 40629
conducted under this division, the state fire marshal shall, in 40630
accordance with rules adopted by the state fire marshal under 40631
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, establish the subjects to be 40632
taught, the length of classes, the standards for approval, and 40633
time periods for notification by the licensee to the state fire 40634
marshal of any in-service training.40635

       (G) A licensed manufacturer shall maintain comprehensive 40636
general liability insurance coverage in the amount and type 40637
specified under division (B)(2) of section 3743.02 of the Revised 40638
Code at all times. Each policy of insurance required under this 40639
division shall contain a provision requiring the insurer to give 40640
not less than fifteen days' prior written notice to the state fire 40641
marshal before termination, lapse, or cancellation of the policy, 40642
or any change in the policy that reduces the coverage below the 40643
minimum required under this division. Prior to canceling or 40644
reducing the amount of coverage of any comprehensive general 40645
liability insurance coverage required under this division, a 40646
licensed manufacturer shall secure supplemental insurance in an 40647
amount and type that satisfies the requirements of this division 40648
so that no lapse in coverage occurs at any time. A licensed 40649
manufacturer who secures supplemental insurance shall file 40650
evidence of the supplemental insurance with the state fire marshal 40651
prior to canceling or reducing the amount of coverage of any 40652
comprehensive general liability insurance coverage required under 40653
this division.40654

       (H) The state fire marshal shall adopt rules for the 40655
expansion or contraction of a licensed premises and for approval 40656
of such expansions or contractions. The boundaries of a licensed 40657
premises, including any geographic expansion or contraction of 40658
those boundaries, shall be approved by the state fire marshal in 40659
accordance with rules the state fire marshal adopts. If the 40660
licensed premises consists of more than one parcel of real estate, 40661
those parcels shall be contiguous unless an exception is allowed 40662
pursuant to division (I) of this section.40663

       (I)(1) A licensed manufacturer may expand its licensed 40664
premises within this state to include not more than two storage 40665
locations that are located upon one or more real estate parcels 40666
that are noncontiguous to the licensed premises as that licensed 40667
premises exists on the date a licensee submits an application as 40668
described below, if all of the following apply:40669

       (a) The licensee submits an application to the state fire 40670
marshal and an application fee of one hundred dollars per storage 40671
location for which the licensee is requesting approval.40672

       (b) The identity of the holder of the license remains the 40673
same at the storage location.40674

       (c) The storage location has received a valid certificate of 40675
zoning compliance as applicable and a valid certificate of 40676
occupancy for each building or structure at the storage location 40677
issued by the authority having jurisdiction to issue the 40678
certificate for the storage location, and those certificates 40679
permit the distribution and storage of fireworks regulated under 40680
this chapter at the storage location and in the buildings or 40681
structures. The storage location shall be in compliance with all 40682
other applicable federal, state, and local laws and regulations.40683

       (d) Every building or structure located upon the storage 40684
location is separated from occupied residential and nonresidential 40685
buildings or structures, railroads, highways, or any other 40686
buildings or structures on the licensed premises in accordance 40687
with the distances specified in the rules adopted by the state 40688
fire marshal pursuant to section 3743.05 of the Revised Code.40689

       (e) Neither the licensee nor any person holding, owning, or 40690
controlling a five per cent or greater beneficial or equity 40691
interest in the licensee has been convicted of or pleaded guilty 40692
to a felony under the laws of this state, any other state, or the 40693
United States, after September 29, 2005.40694

       (f) The state fire marshal approves the application for 40695
expansion.40696

       (2) The state fire marshal shall approve an application for 40697
expansion requested under division (I)(1) of this section if the 40698
state fire marshal receives the application fee and proof that the 40699
requirements of divisions (I)(1)(b) to (e) of this section are 40700
satisfied. The storage location shall be considered part of the 40701
original licensed premises and shall use the same distinct number 40702
assigned to the original licensed premises with any additional 40703
designations as the state fire marshal deems necessary in 40704
accordance with section 3743.03 of the Revised Code.40705

       (J)(1) A licensee who obtains approval for the use of a 40706
storage location in accordance with division (I) of this section 40707
shall use the storage location exclusively for the following 40708
activities, in accordance with division (C) of this section:40709

       (a) The packaging, assembling, or storing of fireworks, which 40710
shall only occur in buildings or structures approved for such 40711
hazardous uses by the building code official having jurisdiction 40712
for the storage location or, for 1.4G fireworks, in containers or 40713
trailers approved for such hazardous uses by the state fire 40714
marshal if such containers or trailers are not subject to 40715
regulation by the building code adopted in accordance with Chapter 40716
3781. of the Revised Code. All such storage shall be in accordance 40717
with the rules adopted by the state fire marshal under division 40718
(G) of section 3743.05 of the Revised Code for the packaging, 40719
assembling, and storage of fireworks.40720

       (b) Distributing fireworks to other parcels of real estate 40721
located on the manufacturer's licensed premises, to licensed 40722
wholesalers or other licensed manufacturers in this state or to 40723
similarly licensed persons located in another state or country;40724

       (c) Distributing fireworks to a licensed exhibitor of 40725
fireworks pursuant to a properly issued permit in accordance with 40726
section 3743.54 of the Revised Code.40727

       (2) A licensed manufacturer shall not engage in any sales 40728
activity, including the retail sale of fireworks otherwise 40729
permitted under division (C)(2) or (C)(3) of this section, or 40730
pursuant to section 3743.44 or 3743.45 of the Revised Code, at the 40731
storage location approved under this section.40732

       (3) A storage location may not be relocated for a minimum 40733
period of five years after the storage location is approved by the 40734
state fire marshal in accordance with division (I) of this 40735
section.40736

       (K) The licensee shall prohibit public access to the storage 40737
location. The state fire marshal shall adopt rules to describe the 40738
acceptable measures a manufacturer shall use to prohibit access to 40739
the storage site.40740

       Sec. 3743.06.  In addition to conforming to the rules of the 40741
fire marshal adopted pursuant to section 3743.05 of the Revised 40742
Code, licensed manufacturers of fireworks shall operate their 40743
fireworks plants in accordance with the following:40744

       (A) Signs indicating that smoking is generally forbidden and 40745
trespassing is prohibited on the premises of a fireworks plant 40746
shall be posted on the premises in a manner determined by the fire 40747
marshal.40748

       (B) Reasonable precautions shall be taken to protect the 40749
premises of a fireworks plant from trespass, loss, theft, or 40750
destruction. Only persons employed by the manufacturer, authorized 40751
governmental personnel, and persons who have obtained permission 40752
from a member of the manufacturer's office to be on the premises, 40753
are to be allowed to enter and remain on the premises.40754

       (C) Smoking or the carrying of pipes, cigarettes, or cigars, 40755
matches, lighters, other flame-producing items, or open flame on, 40756
or the carrying of a concealed source of ignition into, the 40757
premises of a fireworks plant is prohibited, except that a 40758
manufacturer may permit smoking in specified lunchrooms or 40759
restrooms in buildings or other structures in which no 40760
manufacturing, handling, sales, or storage of fireworks takes 40761
place. "NO SMOKING" signs shall be posted on the premises as 40762
required by the fire marshal.40763

       (D) Fire and explosion prevention and other reasonable safety 40764
measures and precautions shall be implemented by a manufacturer.40765

       (E) Persons shall not be permitted to have in their 40766
possession or under their control, while they are on the premises 40767
of the fireworks plant, any intoxicating liquor, beer, or 40768
controlled substance, and they shall not be permitted to enter or 40769
remain on the premises if they are found to be under the influence 40770
of any intoxicating liquor, beer, or controlled substance.40771

       (F) A manufacturer shall conform to all building, safety, and 40772
zoning statutes, ordinances, rules, or other enactments that apply 40773
to the premises of its fireworks plant.40774

       (G) Each fireworks plant shall have at least one class 1 40775
magazine that is approved by the bureau of alcohol, tobacco, and 40776
firearms of the United States department of the treasury and that 40777
is otherwise in conformity with federal law. This division does 40778
not apply to fireworks plants existing on or before August 3, 40779
1931.40780

       (H) Awnings, tents, and canopies shall not be used as 40781
facilities for the sale or storage of fireworks. This division 40782
does not prohibit the use of an awning or canopy attached to a 40783
public access showroom for storing nonflammable shopping 40784
convenience items such as shopping carts or baskets or providing a 40785
shaded area for patrons waiting to enter the public sales area.40786

       (I) Fireworks may be stored in trailers if the trailers are 40787
properly enclosed, secured, and grounded and are separated from 40788
any structure to which the public is admitted by a distance that 40789
will, in the fire marshal's judgment, allow fire-fighting 40790
equipment to have full access to the structures on the licensed 40791
premises. Such trailers may be moved into closer proximity to any 40792
structure only to accept or discharge cargo for a period not to 40793
exceed forty-eight hours. Only two such trailers may be placed in 40794
such closer proximity at any one time. At no time may trailers be 40795
used for conducting sales of any class of fireworks, nor may 40796
members of the public have access to the trailers.40797

       Storage areas for fireworks that are in the same building 40798
where fireworks are displayed and sold to the public shall be 40799
separated from the areas to which the public has access by an 40800
appropriately rated fire wall.40801

       (J) A fire suppression system as defined in section 3781.108 40802
of the Revised Code may be turned off only for repair, drainage of 40803
the system to prevent damage by freezing during the period of 40804
time, approved by the fire marshal, that the facility is closed to 40805
all public access during winter months, or maintenance of the 40806
system. If any repair or maintenance is necessary during times 40807
when the facility is open for public access and business as 40808
approved by the fire marshal, the licensed manufacturer shall 40809
notify in advance the appropriate insurance company and fire chief 40810
or fire prevention officer regarding the nature of the maintenance 40811
or repair and the time when it will be performed.40812

       (K) If any fireworks item is removed from its original 40813
package or is manufactured with any fuse other than a safety fuse 40814
approved by the consumer product safety commission, then the item 40815
shall be covered completely by repackaging or bagging or it shall 40816
otherwise be covered so as to prevent ignition prior to sale.40817

       (L) A safety officer shall be present during regular business 40818
hours at a building open to the public during the period 40819
commencing fourteen days before, and ending two days after, each 40820
fourth day of July. The officer shall be highly visible, enforce 40821
this chapter and any applicable building codes to the extent the 40822
officer is authorized by law, and be one of the following:40823

       (1) A deputy sheriff;40824

       (2) A law enforcement officer of a municipal corporation, 40825
township, or township or joint police district;40826

       (3) A private uniformed security guard registered under 40827
section 4749.06 of the Revised Code.40828

       (M) All doors of all buildings on the licensed premises shall 40829
swing outward.40830

       (N) All wholesale and commercial sales of fireworks shall be 40831
packaged, shipped, placarded, and transported in accordance with 40832
United States department of transportation regulations applicable 40833
to the transportation, and the offering for transportation, of 40834
hazardous materials. For purposes of this division, "wholesale and 40835
commercial sales" includes all sales for resale and any nonretail 40836
sale made in furtherance of a commercial enterprise. For purposes 40837
of enforcement of these regulations under section 4905.834923.9940838
of the Revised Code, any sales transaction exceeding one thousand 40839
pounds shall be rebuttably presumed to be a wholesale or 40840
commercial sale.40841

       Sec. 3743.19.  In addition to conforming to the rules of the 40842
fire marshal adopted pursuant to section 3743.18 of the Revised 40843
Code, licensed wholesalers of fireworks shall conduct their 40844
business operations in accordance with the following:40845

       (A) A wholesaler shall conduct its business operations from 40846
the location described in its application for licensure or in a 40847
notification submitted under division (B) of section 3743.17 of 40848
the Revised Code.40849

       (B) Signs indicating that smoking is generally forbidden and 40850
trespassing is prohibited on the premises of a wholesaler shall be 40851
posted on the premises as determined by the fire marshal.40852

       (C) Reasonable precautions shall be taken to protect the 40853
premises of a wholesaler from trespass, loss, theft, or 40854
destruction.40855

       (D) Smoking or the carrying of pipes, cigarettes, or cigars, 40856
matches, lighters, other flame-producing items, or open flame on, 40857
or the carrying of a concealed source of ignition into, the 40858
premises of a wholesaler is prohibited, except that a wholesaler 40859
may permit smoking in specified lunchrooms or restrooms in 40860
buildings or other structures in which no sales, handling, or 40861
storage of fireworks takes place. "NO SMOKING" signs shall be 40862
posted on the premises as required by the fire marshal.40863

       (E) Fire and explosion prevention and other reasonable safety 40864
measures and precautions shall be implemented by a wholesaler.40865

       (F) Persons shall not be permitted to have in their 40866
possession or under their control, while they are on the premises 40867
of a wholesaler, any intoxicating liquor, beer, or controlled 40868
substance, and they shall not be permitted to enter or remain on 40869
the premises if they are found to be under the influence of any 40870
intoxicating liquor, beer, or controlled substance.40871

       (G) A wholesaler shall conform to all building, safety, and 40872
zoning statutes, ordinances, rules, or other enactments that apply 40873
to its premises.40874

       (H) Each building used in the sale of fireworks shall be kept 40875
open to the public for at least four hours each day between the 40876
hours of eight a.m. and five p.m., five days of each week, every 40877
week of the year. Upon application from a licensed wholesaler, the 40878
fire marshal may waive any of the requirements of this division.40879

       (I) Awnings, tents, or canopies shall not be used as 40880
facilities for the storage or sale of fireworks. This division 40881
does not prohibit the use of an awning or canopy attached to a 40882
public access showroom for storing nonflammable shopping 40883
convenience items such as shopping carts or baskets or providing a 40884
shaded area for patrons waiting to enter the public sales area.40885

       (J) 1.4G fireworks may be stored in trailers if the trailers 40886
are properly enclosed, secured, and grounded and are separated 40887
from any structure to which the public is admitted by a distance 40888
that will, in the fire marshal's judgment, allow fire-fighting 40889
equipment to have full access to the structures on the licensed 40890
premises. Such trailers may be moved into closer proximity to any 40891
structure only to accept or discharge cargo for a period not to 40892
exceed forty-eight hours. Only two such trailers may be placed in 40893
such closer proximity at any one time. At no time may trailers be 40894
used for conducting sales of any class of fireworks nor may 40895
members of the public have access to the trailers.40896

       Storage areas for fireworks that are in the same building 40897
where fireworks are displayed and sold to the public shall be 40898
separated from the areas to which the public has access by an 40899
appropriately rated fire wall. If the licensee installs and 40900
properly maintains an early suppression fast response sprinkler 40901
system or equivalent fire suppression system as described in the 40902
fire code adopted by the fire marshal in accordance with section 40903
3737.82 of the Revised Code throughout the structure, a fire 40904
barrier wall may be substituted for a fire wall between the areas 40905
to which the public has access and the storage portions of the 40906
structure.40907

       (K) A fire suppression system as defined in section 3781.108 40908
of the Revised Code may be turned off only for repair, drainage of 40909
the system to prevent damage by freezing during the period of 40910
time, approved by the fire marshal under division (I) of this 40911
section, that the facility is closed to public access during 40912
winter months, or maintenance of the system. If any repair or 40913
maintenance is necessary during times when the facility is open 40914
for public access and business, the licensed wholesaler shall 40915
notify in advance the appropriate insurance company and fire chief 40916
or fire prevention officer regarding the nature of the maintenance 40917
or repair and the time when it will be performed.40918

       (L) If any fireworks item is removed from its original 40919
package or is manufactured with any fuse other than a fuse 40920
approved by the consumer product safety commission, then the item 40921
shall be covered completely by repackaging or bagging or it shall 40922
otherwise be covered so as to prevent ignition prior to sale.40923

       (M) A safety officer shall be present during regular business 40924
hours at a building open to the public during the period 40925
commencing fourteen days before, and ending two days after, each 40926
fourth day of July. The officer shall be highly visible, enforce 40927
this chapter and any applicable building codes to the extent the 40928
officer is authorized by law, and be one of the following:40929

       (1) A deputy sheriff;40930

       (2) A law enforcement officer of a municipal corporation, 40931
township, or township or joint police district;40932

       (3) A private uniformed security guard registered under 40933
section 4749.06 of the Revised Code.40934

       (N) All doors of all buildings on the licensed premises shall 40935
swing outward.40936

       (O) All wholesale and commercial sales of fireworks shall be 40937
packaged, shipped, placarded, and transported in accordance with 40938
United States department of transportation regulations applicable 40939
to the transportation, and the offering for transportation, of 40940
hazardous materials. For purposes of this division, "wholesale and 40941
commercial sales" includes all sales for resale and any nonretail 40942
sale made in furtherance of a commercial enterprise. For purposes 40943
of enforcement of these regulations under section 4905.834923.9940944
of the Revised Code, any sales transaction exceeding one thousand 40945
pounds shall be rebuttably presumed to be a wholesale or 40946
commercial sale.40947

       Sec. 3743.25.  (A)(1) Except as described in division (A)(2) 40948
of this section, all retail sales of 1.4G fireworks by a licensed 40949
manufacturer or wholesaler shall only occur from an approved 40950
retail sales showroom on a licensed premises or from a 40951
representative sample showroom as described in this section on a 40952
licensed premises. For the purposes of this section, a retail sale 40953
includes the transfer of the possession of the 1.4G fireworks from 40954
the licensed manufacturer or wholesaler to the purchaser of the 40955
fireworks.40956

       (2) Sales of 1.4G fireworks to a licensed exhibitor for a 40957
properly permitted exhibition shall occur in accordance with the 40958
provisions of the Revised Code and rules adopted by the state fire 40959
marshal under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. Such rules shall 40960
specify, at a minimum, that the licensed exhibitor holds a license 40961
under section 3743.51 of the Revised Code, that the exhibitor 40962
possesses a valid exhibition permit issued in accordance with 40963
section 3743.54 of the Revised Code, and that the fireworks 40964
shipped are to be used at the specifically permitted exhibition.40965

       (B) All wholesale sales of fireworks by a licensed 40966
manufacturer or wholesaler shall only occur from a licensed 40967
premises to persons who intend to resell the fireworks purchased 40968
at wholesale. A wholesale sale by a licensed manufacturer or 40969
wholesaler may occur as follows:40970

       (1) The direct sale and shipment of fireworks to a person 40971
outside of this state;40972

       (2) From an approved retail sales showroom as described in 40973
this section;40974

       (3) From a representative sample showroom as described in 40975
this section;40976

       (4) By delivery of wholesale fireworks to a purchaser at a 40977
licensed premises outside of a structure or building on that 40978
premises. All other portions of the wholesale sales transaction 40979
may occur at any location on a licensed premises.40980

       (5) Any other method as described in rules adopted by the 40981
state fire marshal under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.40982

       (C) A licensed manufacturer or wholesaler shall only sell 40983
1.4G fireworks from a representative sample showroom or a retail 40984
sales showroom. Each licensed premises shall only contain one 40985
sales structure.40986

       A representative sample showroom shall consist of a structure 40987
constructed and maintained in accordance with the nonresidential 40988
building code adopted under Chapter 3781. of the Revised Code and 40989
the fire code adopted under section 3737.82 of the Revised Code 40990
for a use and occupancy group that permits mercantile sales. A 40991
representative sample showroom shall not contain any pyrotechnics, 40992
pyrotechnic materials, fireworks, explosives, explosive materials, 40993
or any similar hazardous materials or substances. A representative 40994
sample showroom shall be used only for the public viewing of 40995
fireworks product representations, including paper materials, 40996
packaging materials, catalogs, photographs, or other similar 40997
product depictions. The delivery of product to a purchaser of 40998
fireworks at a licensed premises that has a representative sample 40999
structure shall not occur inside any structure on a licensed 41000
premises. Such product delivery shall occur on the licensed 41001
premises in a manner prescribed by rules adopted by the state fire 41002
marshal pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. 41003

       If a manufacturer or wholesaler elects to conduct sales from 41004
a retail sales showroom, the showroom structures, to which the 41005
public may have any access and in which employees are required to 41006
work, on all licensed premises, shall comply with the following 41007
safety requirements:41008

       (1) A fireworks showroom that is constructed or upon which 41009
expansion is undertaken on and after June 30, 1997, shall be 41010
equipped with interlinked fire detection, fire suppression, smoke 41011
exhaust, and smoke evacuation systems that are approved by the 41012
superintendent of laborindustrial compliance in the department of 41013
commerce.41014

       (2) A fireworks showroom that first begins to operate on or 41015
after June 30, 1997, and to which the public has access for retail 41016
purposes shall not exceed five thousand square feet in floor area.41017

       (3) A newly constructed or an existing fireworks showroom 41018
structure that exists on September 23, 2008, but that, on or after 41019
September 23, 2008, is altered or added to in a manner requiring 41020
the submission of plans, drawings, specifications, or data 41021
pursuant to section 3791.04 of the Revised Code, shall comply with 41022
a graphic floor plan layout that is approved by the state fire 41023
marshal and superintendent showing width of aisles, parallel 41024
arrangement of aisles to exits, number of exits per wall, maximum 41025
occupancy load, evacuation plan for occupants, height of storage 41026
or display of merchandise, and other information as may be 41027
required by the state fire marshal and superintendent.41028

       (4) A fireworks showroom structure that exists on June 30, 41029
1997, shall be in compliance on or after June 30, 1997, with floor 41030
plans showing occupancy load limits and internal circulation and 41031
egress patterns that are approved by the state fire marshal and 41032
superintendent, and that are submitted under seal as required by 41033
section 3791.04 of the Revised Code.41034

       (D) The safety requirements established in division (C) of 41035
this section are not subject to any variance, waiver, or exclusion 41036
pursuant to this chapter or any applicable building code.41037

       Sec. 3745.01.  There is hereby created the environmental 41038
protection agency, headed by the director of environmental 41039
protection. The agency, under the supervision of the director, 41040
shall administer the laws pertaining to chemical emergency 41041
planning, community right-to-know, and toxic chemical release 41042
reporting; the cessation of chemical handling operations; the 41043
prevention, control, and abatement of air and water pollution; 41044
public water supply; comprehensive water resource management 41045
planning; products that contain mercury as defined in section 41046
3734.61 of the Revised Code; and the disposal and treatment of 41047
solid wastes, infectious wastes, construction and demolition 41048
debris, hazardous waste, sewage, industrial waste, and other 41049
wastes. The director may do all of the following:41050

       (A) Provide such methods of administration, appoint such 41051
personnel, make such reports, and take such other action as may be 41052
necessary to comply with the requirements of the federal laws and 41053
regulations pertaining to chemical emergency planning, community 41054
right-to-know, and toxic chemical release reporting; air and water 41055
pollution control; public water supply; water resource planning; 41056
and waste disposal and treatment;41057

       (B) Procure by contract the temporary or intermittent 41058
services of experts or consultants, or organizations thereof, when 41059
those services are to be performed on a part-time or 41060
fee-for-service basis and do not involve the performance of 41061
administrative duties;41062

       (C) Advise, consult, cooperate, and enter into contracts or 41063
agreements, including consensual administrative order agreements,41064
with any other agencies of the state, the federal government, 41065
other states, and interstate agencies, and persons and with 41066
affected groups, political subdivisions, and industries in 41067
furtherance of the purposes of this chapter and Chapters 3704., 41068
3714., 3734., 3751., 3752., 6109., and 6111. of the Revised Code;41069

       (D) Establish advisory boards in accordance with section 41070
121.13 of the Revised Code;41071

       (E) Accept on behalf of the state any grant, gift, or 41072
contribution made for toxic chemical release reporting, air or 41073
water pollution control, public water supply, water resource 41074
planning, waste disposal or treatment, or related purposes, and 41075
expend it for those purposes;41076

       (F) Make an annual report to the governor and the general 41077
assembly on activities and expenditures as well as recommendations 41078
for such additional legislation as the director considers 41079
appropriate to carry out the director's duties or accomplish the 41080
purposes of this section;41081

       (G) Enter into environmental covenants in accordance with 41082
sections 5301.80 to 5301.92 of the Revised Code, and grant or 41083
accept easements or sell real property pursuant to section 41084
3734.22, 3734.24, 3734.25, or 3734.26 of the Revised Code, as 41085
applicable.41086

       The agency shall utilize the laboratory facilities of the 41087
department of health and other state institutions and agencies to 41088
the maximum extent that the utilization is practicable, 41089
economical, and technically satisfactory.41090

       The director shall maintain and keep available for public 41091
inspection, at the director's principal office, a current register 41092
of all applications filed for permits, leases, licenses, 41093
variances, certificates, and approval of plans and specifications 41094
and of publicly owned treatment works pretreatment programs under 41095
the director's jurisdiction, hearings pending, the director's 41096
final action thereon, and the dates on which the filings, 41097
hearings, and final actions occur. The director shall maintain and 41098
keep available for public inspection at the director's principal 41099
office all plans, reports, and other documents required to be 41100
filed with the emergency response commission under Chapter 3750. 41101
of the Revised Code and rules adopted under it, and all reports 41102
and other documents required to be filed with the director under 41103
Chapter 3751. of the Revised Code and rules adopted under it, 41104
subject to the requirements of those chapters and rules adopted 41105
under them for the protection of trade secrets and confidential 41106
business information from disclosure to persons not authorized 41107
under those laws to receive trade secret or confidential business 41108
information.41109

       Sec. 3745.05. (A) In hearing the appeal, if an adjudication 41110
hearing was conducted by the director of environmental protection 41111
in accordance with sections 119.09 and 119.10 of the Revised Code 41112
or conducted by a board of health, the environmental review 41113
appeals commission is confined to the record as certified to it by 41114
the director or the board of health, as applicable. The commission 41115
may grant a request for the admission of additional evidence when 41116
satisfied that such additional evidence is newly discovered and 41117
could not with reasonable diligence have been ascertained prior to 41118
the hearing before the director or the board, as applicable. If no 41119
adjudication hearing was conducted in accordance with sections 41120
119.09 and 119.10 of the Revised Code or conducted by a board of 41121
health, the commission shall conduct a hearing de novo on the 41122
appeal.41123

       For the purpose of conducting a de novo hearing, or where the 41124
commission has granted a request for the admission of additional 41125
evidence, the commission may require the attendance of witnesses 41126
and the production of written or printed materials.41127

       When conducting a de novo hearing, or when a request for the 41128
admission of additional evidence has been granted, the commission 41129
may, and at the request of any party it shall, issue subpoenas for 41130
witnesses or for books, papers, correspondence, memoranda, 41131
agreements, or other documents or records relevant or material to 41132
the inquiry directed to the sheriff of the counties where the 41133
witnesses or documents or records are found, which subpoenas shall 41134
be served and returned in the same manner as those allowed by the 41135
court of common pleas in criminal cases.41136

       (B) The fees of sheriffs shall be the same as those allowed 41137
by the court of common pleas in criminal cases. Witnesses shall be 41138
paid the fees and mileage provided for under section 119.094 of 41139
the Revised Code. The fee and mileage expenses incurred at the 41140
request of the appellant shall be paid in advance by the 41141
appellant, and the remainder of the expenses shall be paid out of 41142
funds appropriated for the expenses of the commission.41143

       (C) In case of disobedience or neglect of any subpoena served 41144
on any person, or the refusal of any witness to testify to any 41145
matter regarding which the witness may be lawfully interrogated, 41146
the court of common pleas of the county in which the disobedience, 41147
neglect, or refusal occurs, or any judge thereof, on application 41148
of the commission or any member thereof, may compel obedience by 41149
attachment proceedings for contempt as in the case of disobedience 41150
of the requirements of a subpoena issued from the court or a 41151
refusal to testify therein.41152

       (D) A witness at any hearing shall testify under oath or 41153
affirmation, which any member of the commission may administer. A 41154
witness, if the witness requests, shall be permitted to be 41155
accompanied, represented, and advised by an attorney, whose 41156
participation in the hearing shall be limited to the protection of 41157
the rights of the witness, and who may not examine or 41158
cross-examine witnesses. A witness shall be advised of the right 41159
to counsel before the witness is interrogated.41160

       (E) A stenographic record of the testimony and other evidence 41161
submitted shall be taken by an official court shorthand reporter. 41162
The record shall include all of the testimony and other evidence 41163
and the rulings on the admissibility thereof presented at the 41164
hearing. The commission shall pass upon the admissibility of 41165
evidence, but any party may at the time object to the admission of 41166
any evidence and except to the rulings of the commission thereon, 41167
and if the commission refuses to admit evidence the party offering 41168
same may make a proffer thereof, and such proffer shall be made a 41169
part of the record of such hearing.41170

       Any party may request the stenographic record of the hearing. 41171
Promptly after receiving such a request, the commission shall 41172
prepare and provide the stenographic record of the hearing to the 41173
party who requested it. The commission may charge a fee to the 41174
party who requested the stenographic record that does not exceed 41175
the cost to the commission for preparing and transcribing or 41176
transmitting it.41177

       (F) If, upon completion of the hearing, the commission finds 41178
that the action appealed from was lawful and reasonable, it shall 41179
make a written order affirming the action, or if the commission 41180
finds that the action was unreasonable or unlawful, it shall make 41181
a written order vacating or modifying the action appealed from.41182

       The commission shall issue a written order affirming, 41183
vacating, or modifying an action pursuant to the following 41184
schedule:41185

       (1) For an appeal that was filed with the commission before 41186
April 15, 2008, the commission shall issue a written order not 41187
later than December 15, 2009.41188

       (2) For all other appeals that have been filed with the 41189
commission as of October 15, 2009, the commission shall issue a 41190
written order not later than July 15, 2010.41191

       (3) For an appeal that is filed with the commission after 41192
October 15, 2009, the commission shall issue a written order not 41193
later than twelve months after the filing of the appeal with the 41194
commission.41195

       (G) Every order made by the commission shall contain a 41196
written finding by the commission of the facts upon which the 41197
order is based. Notice of the making of the order shall be given 41198
forthwith to each party to the appeal by mailing a certified copy 41199
thereof to each party by certified mail, with a statement of the 41200
time and method by which an appeal may be perfected.41201

       (H) The order of the commission is final unless vacated or 41202
modified upon judicial review.41203

       Sec. 3745.11.  (A) Applicants for and holders of permits, 41204
licenses, variances, plan approvals, and certifications issued by 41205
the director of environmental protection pursuant to Chapters 41206
3704., 3734., 6109., and 6111. of the Revised Code shall pay a fee 41207
to the environmental protection agency for each such issuance and 41208
each application for an issuance as provided by this section. No 41209
fee shall be charged for any issuance for which no application has 41210
been submitted to the director.41211

       (B) Each person who is issued a permit to install prior to 41212
July 1, 2003, pursuant to rules adopted under division (F) of 41213
section 3704.03 of the Revised Code shall pay the fees specified 41214
in the following schedules:41215

       (1) Fuel-burning equipment (boilers)41216

Input capacity (maximum)   41217
(million British thermal units per hour) Permit to install 41218

Greater than 0, but less than 10 $ 200 41219
10 or more, but less than 100     400 41220
100 or more, but less than 300     800 41221
300 or more, but less than 500    1500 41222
500 or more, but less than 1000    2500 41223
1000 or more, but less than 5000  4000 41224
5000 or more  6000 41225

       Units burning exclusively natural gas, number two fuel oil, 41226
or both shall be assessed a fee that is one-half of the applicable 41227
amount established in division (F)(1) of this section.41228

       (2) Incinerators41229

Input capacity (pounds per hour) Permit to install 41230

0 to 100 $ 100 41231
101 to 500     400 41232
501 to 2000     750 41233
2001 to 20,000    1000 41234
more than 20,000    2500 41235

       (3)(a) Process41236

Process weight rate (pounds per hour) Permit to install 41237

0 to 1000 $ 200 41238
1001 to 5000     400 41239
5001 to 10,000     600 41240
10,001 to 50,000     800 41241
more than 50,000    1000 41242

       In any process where process weight rate cannot be 41243
ascertained, the minimum fee shall be assessed.41244

       (b) Notwithstanding division (B)(3)(a) of this section, any 41245
person issued a permit to install pursuant to rules adopted under 41246
division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code shall pay the 41247
fees established in division (B)(3)(c) of this section for a 41248
process used in any of the following industries, as identified by 41249
the applicable four-digit standard industrial classification code 41250
according to the Standard Industrial Classification Manual 41251
published by the United States office of management and budget in 41252
the executive office of the president, 1972, as revised:41253

       1211 Bituminous coal and lignite mining;41254

       1213 Bituminous coal and lignite mining services;41255

       1411 Dimension stone;41256

       1422 Crushed and broken limestone;41257

       1427 Crushed and broken stone, not elsewhere classified;41258

       1442 Construction sand and gravel;41259

       1446 Industrial sand;41260

       3281 Cut stone and stone products;41261

       3295 Minerals and earth, ground or otherwise treated.41262

       (c) The fees established in the following schedule apply to 41263
the issuance of a permit to install pursuant to rules adopted 41264
under division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code for a 41265
process listed in division (B)(3)(b) of this section:41266

Process weight rate (pounds per hour) Permit to install 41267

0 to 1000 $ 200 41268
10,001 to 50,000   300 41269
50,001 to 100,000   400 41270
100,001 to 200,000   500 41271
200,001 to 400,000   600 41272
400,001 or more   700 41273

       (4) Storage tanks41274

Gallons (maximum useful capacity) Permit to install 41275

0 to 20,000 $ 100 41276
20,001 to 40,000   150 41277
40,001 to 100,000   200 41278
100,001 to 250,000   250 41279
250,001 to 500,000   350 41280
500,001 to 1,000,000     500 41281
1,000,001 or greater     750 41282

       (5) Gasoline/fuel dispensing facilities41283

For each gasoline/fuel dispensing Permit to install 41284
facility $ 100 41285

       (6) Dry cleaning facilities41286

For each dry cleaning facility Permit to install 41287
(includes all units at the facility) $ 100 41288

       (7) Registration status41289

For each source covered Permit to install 41290
by registration status $  75 41291

       (C)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(2) of 41292
this section, beginning July 1, 1994, each person who owns or 41293
operates an air contaminant source and who is required to apply 41294
for and obtain a Title V permit under section 3704.036 of the 41295
Revised Code shall pay the fees set forth in this division (C)(1) 41296
of this section. For the purposes of thatthis division, total 41297
emissions of air contaminants may be calculated using engineering 41298
calculations, emissions factors, material balance calculations, or 41299
performance testing procedures, as authorized by the director.41300

       The following fees shall be assessed on the total actual 41301
emissions from a source in tons per year of the regulated 41302
pollutants particulate matter, sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, 41303
organic compounds, and lead:41304

       (a)(1) Fifteen dollars per ton on the total actual emissions 41305
of each such regulated pollutant during the period July through 41306
December 1993, to be collected no sooner than July 1, 1994;41307

       (b)(2) Twenty dollars per ton on the total actual emissions 41308
of each such regulated pollutant during calendar year 1994, to be 41309
collected no sooner than April 15, 1995;41310

       (c)(3) Twenty-five dollars per ton on the total actual 41311
emissions of each such regulated pollutant in calendar year 1995, 41312
and each subsequent calendar year, to be collected no sooner than 41313
the fifteenth day of April of the year next succeeding the 41314
calendar year in which the emissions occurred.41315

       The fees levied under this division (C)(1) of this section do 41316
not apply to that portion of the emissions of a regulated 41317
pollutant at a facility that exceed four thousand tons during a 41318
calendar year.41319

       (2)(C)(1) The fees assessed under division (C)(1)(B) of this 41320
section are for the purpose of providing funding for the Title V 41321
permit program.41322

       (3)(2) The fees assessed under division (C)(1)(B) of this 41323
section do not apply to emissions from any electric generating 41324
unit designated as a Phase I unit under Title IV of the federal 41325
Clean Air Act prior to calendar year 2000. Those fees shall be 41326
assessed on the emissions from such a generating unit commencing 41327
in calendar year 2001 based upon the total actual emissions from 41328
the generating unit during calendar year 2000 and shall continue 41329
to be assessed each subsequent calendar year based on the total 41330
actual emissions from the generating unit during the preceding 41331
calendar year.41332

       (4)(3) The director shall issue invoices to owners or 41333
operators of air contaminant sources who are required to pay a fee 41334
assessed under division (C)(B) or (D) of this section. Any such 41335
invoice shall be issued no sooner than the applicable date when 41336
the fee first may be collected in a year under the applicable 41337
division, shall identify the nature and amount of the fee 41338
assessed, and shall indicate that the fee is required to be paid 41339
within thirty days after the issuance of the invoice.41340

       (D)(1) Except as provided in division (D)(3) of this section, 41341
from January 1, 1994, through December 31, 2003, each person who 41342
owns or operates an air contaminant source; who is required to 41343
apply for a permit to operate pursuant to rules adopted under 41344
division (G), or a variance pursuant to division (H), of section 41345
3704.03 of the Revised Code; and who is not required to apply for 41346
and obtain a Title V permit under section 3704.036 of the Revised 41347
Code shall pay a single fee based upon the sum of the actual 41348
annual emissions from the facility of the regulated pollutants 41349
particulate matter, sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, organic 41350
compounds, and lead in accordance with the following schedule:41351

Total tons per year 41352
of regulated pollutants Annual fee 41353
emitted per facility 41354
More than 0, but less than 50    $ 75 41355
50 or more, but less than 100     300 41356
100 or more     700 41357

       (2) Except as provided in division (D)(3) of this section, 41358
beginning January 1, 2004, each person who owns or operates an air 41359
contaminant source; who is required to apply for a permit to 41360
operate pursuant to rules adopted under division (G), or a 41361
variance pursuant to division (H), of section 3704.03 of the 41362
Revised Code; and who is not required to apply for and obtain a 41363
Title V permit under section 3704.03 of the Revised Code shall pay 41364
a single fee based upon the sum of the actual annual emissions 41365
from the facility of the regulated pollutants particulate matter, 41366
sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, organic compounds, and lead in 41367
accordance with the following schedule:41368

Total tons per year 41369
of regulated pollutants Annual fee 41370
emitted per facility 41371
More than 0, but less than 10    $ 100 41372
10 or more, but less than 50      200 41373
50 or more, but less than 100      300 41374
100 or more      700 41375

       (3)(a) As used in division (D) of this section, "synthetic 41376
minor facility" means a facility for which one or more permits to 41377
install or permits to operate have been issued for the air 41378
contaminant sources at the facility that include terms and 41379
conditions that lower the facility's potential to emit air 41380
contaminants below the major source thresholds established in 41381
rules adopted under section 3704.036 of the Revised Code.41382

       (b) Beginning January 1, 2000, through June 30, 2014, each 41383
person who owns or operates a synthetic minor facility shall pay 41384
an annual fee based on the sum of the actual annual emissions from 41385
the facility of particulate matter, sulfur dioxide, nitrogen 41386
dioxide, organic compounds, and lead in accordance with the 41387
following schedule:41388

Combined total tons 41389
per year of all regulated Annual fee 41390
pollutants emitted per facility 41391

Less than 10 $ 170 41392
10 or more, but less than 20   340 41393
20 or more, but less than 30   670 41394
30 or more, but less than 40 1,010 41395
40 or more, but less than 50 1,340 41396
50 or more, but less than 60 1,680 41397
60 or more, but less than 70 2,010 41398
70 or more, but less than 80 2,350 41399
80 or more, but less than 90 2,680 41400
90 or more, but less than 100 3,020 41401
100 or more 3,350 41402

       (4) The fees assessed under division (D)(1) of this section 41403
shall be collected annually no sooner than the fifteenth day of 41404
April, commencing in 1995. The fees assessed under division (D)(2) 41405
of this section shall be collected annually no sooner than the 41406
fifteenth day of April, commencing in 2005. The fees assessed 41407
under division (D)(3) of this section shall be collected no sooner 41408
than the fifteenth day of April, commencing in 2000. The fees 41409
assessed under division (D) of this section in a calendar year 41410
shall be based upon the sum of the actual emissions of those 41411
regulated pollutants during the preceding calendar year. For the 41412
purpose of division (D) of this section, emissions of air 41413
contaminants may be calculated using engineering calculations, 41414
emission factors, material balance calculations, or performance 41415
testing procedures, as authorized by the director. The director, 41416
by rule, may require persons who are required to pay the fees 41417
assessed under division (D) of this section to pay those fees 41418
biennially rather than annually.41419

       (E)(1) Consistent with the need to cover the reasonable costs 41420
of the Title V permit program, the director annually shall 41421
increase the fees prescribed in division (C)(1)(B) of this section 41422
by the percentage, if any, by which the consumer price index for 41423
the most recent calendar year ending before the beginning of a 41424
year exceeds the consumer price index for calendar year 1989. Upon 41425
calculating an increase in fees authorized by division (E)(1) of 41426
this section, the director shall compile revised fee schedules for 41427
the purposes of division (C)(1)(B) of this section and shall make 41428
the revised schedules available to persons required to pay the 41429
fees assessed under that division and to the public.41430

       (2) For the purposes of division (E)(1) of this section:41431

       (a) The consumer price index for any year is the average of 41432
the consumer price index for all urban consumers published by the 41433
United States department of labor as of the close of the 41434
twelve-month period ending on the thirty-first day of August of 41435
that year.41436

       (b) If the 1989 consumer price index is revised, the director 41437
shall use the revision of the consumer price index that is most 41438
consistent with that for calendar year 1989.41439

       (F) Each person who is issued a permit to install pursuant to 41440
rules adopted under division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised 41441
Code on or after July 1, 2003, shall pay the fees specified in the 41442
following schedules:41443

       (1) Fuel-burning equipment (boilers, furnaces, or process 41444
heaters used in the process of burning fuel for the primary 41445
purpose of producing heat or power by indirect heat transfer)41446

Input capacity (maximum) 41447
(million British thermal units per hour) Permit to install 41448
Greater than 0, but less than 10    $ 200 41449
10 or more, but less than 100      400 41450
100 or more, but less than 300     1000 41451
300 or more, but less than 500     2250 41452
500 or more, but less than 1000     3750 41453
1000 or more, but less than 5000     6000 41454
5000 or more     9000 41455

       Units burning exclusively natural gas, number two fuel oil, 41456
or both shall be assessed a fee that is one-half the applicable 41457
amount shown in division (F)(1) of this section.41458

       (2) Combustion turbines and stationary internal combustion 41459
engines designed to generate electricity41460

Generating capacity (mega watts) Permit to install 41461
0 or more, but less than 10    $  25 41462
10 or more, but less than 25      150 41463
25 or more, but less than 50      300 41464
50 or more, but less than 100      500 41465
100 or more, but less than 250     1000 41466
250 or more     2000 41467

       (3) Incinerators41468

Input capacity (pounds per hour) Permit to install 41469
0 to 100    $ 100 41470
101 to 500      500 41471
501 to 2000     1000 41472
2001 to 20,000     1500 41473
more than 20,000     3750 41474

       (4)(a) Process41475

Process weight rate (pounds per hour) Permit to install 41476
0 to 1000    $ 200 41477
1001 to 5000      500 41478
5001 to 10,000      750 41479
10,001 to 50,000     1000 41480
more than 50,000     1250 41481

       In any process where process weight rate cannot be 41482
ascertained, the minimum fee shall be assessed. A boiler, furnace, 41483
combustion turbine, stationary internal combustion engine, or 41484
process heater designed to provide direct heat or power to a 41485
process not designed to generate electricity shall be assessed a 41486
fee established in division (F)(4)(a) of this section. A 41487
combustion turbine or stationary internal combustion engine 41488
designed to generate electricity shall be assessed a fee 41489
established in division (F)(2) of this section.41490

       (b) Notwithstanding division (F)(4)(a) of this section, any 41491
person issued a permit to install pursuant to rules adopted under 41492
division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code shall pay the 41493
fees set forth in division (F)(4)(c) of this section for a process 41494
used in any of the following industries, as identified by the 41495
applicable two-digit, three-digit, or four-digit standard 41496
industrial classification code according to the Standard 41497
Industrial Classification Manual published by the United States 41498
office of management and budget in the executive office of the 41499
president, 1987, as revised:41500

        Major group 10, metal mining;41501

       Major group 12, coal mining;41502

       Major group 14, mining and quarrying of nonmetallic minerals;41503

       Industry group 204, grain mill products;41504

       2873 Nitrogen fertilizers;41505

       2874 Phosphatic fertilizers;41506

       3281 Cut stone and stone products;41507

       3295 Minerals and earth, ground or otherwise treated;41508

       4221 Grain elevators (storage only);41509

       5159 Farm related raw materials;41510

       5261 Retail nurseries and lawn and garden supply stores.41511

       (c) The fees set forth in the following schedule apply to the 41512
issuance of a permit to install pursuant to rules adopted under 41513
division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code for a process 41514
identified in division (F)(4)(b) of this section:41515

Process weight rate (pounds per hour) Permit to install 41516
0 to 10,000   $  200 41517
10,001 to 50,000      400 41518
50,001 to 100,000      500 41519
100,001 to 200,000      600 41520
200,001 to 400,000      750 41521
400,001 or more      900 41522

       (5) Storage tanks41523

Gallons (maximum useful capacity) Permit to install 41524
0 to 20,000   $  100 41525
20,001 to 40,000      150 41526
40,001 to 100,000      250 41527
100,001 to 500,000      400 41528
500,001 or greater      750 41529

       (6) Gasoline/fuel dispensing facilities41530

For each gasoline/fuel 41531
dispensing facility (includes all Permit to install 41532
units at the facility)     $ 100 41533

       (7) Dry cleaning facilities41534

For each dry cleaning 41535
facility (includes all units Permit to install 41536
at the facility)     $ 100 41537

       (8) Registration status41538

For each source covered Permit to install 41539
by registration status     $  75 41540

       (G) An owner or operator who is responsible for an asbestos 41541
demolition or renovation project pursuant to rules adopted under 41542
section 3704.03 of the Revised Code shall pay the fees set forth 41543
in the following schedule:41544

Action Fee 41545
Each notification $75 41546
Asbestos removal $3/unit 41547
Asbestos cleanup $4/cubic yard 41548

For purposes of this division, "unit" means any combination of 41549
linear feet or square feet equal to fifty.41550

       (H) A person who is issued an extension of time for a permit 41551
to install an air contaminant source pursuant to rules adopted 41552
under division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code shall 41553
pay a fee equal to one-half the fee originally assessed for the 41554
permit to install under this section, except that the fee for such 41555
an extension shall not exceed two hundred dollars.41556

       (I) A person who is issued a modification to a permit to 41557
install an air contaminant source pursuant to rules adopted under 41558
section 3704.03 of the Revised Code shall pay a fee equal to 41559
one-half of the fee that would be assessed under this section to 41560
obtain a permit to install the source. The fee assessed by this 41561
division only applies to modifications that are initiated by the 41562
owner or operator of the source and shall not exceed two thousand 41563
dollars.41564

       (J) Notwithstanding division (B) or (F) of this section, a 41565
person who applies for or obtains a permit to install pursuant to 41566
rules adopted under division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised 41567
Code after the date actual construction of the source began shall 41568
pay a fee for the permit to install that is equal to twice the fee 41569
that otherwise would be assessed under the applicable division 41570
unless the applicant received authorization to begin construction 41571
under division (W) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code. This 41572
division only applies to sources for which actual construction of 41573
the source begins on or after July 1, 1993. The imposition or 41574
payment of the fee established in this division does not preclude 41575
the director from taking any administrative or judicial 41576
enforcement action under this chapter, Chapter 3704., 3714., 41577
3734., or 6111. of the Revised Code, or a rule adopted under any 41578
of them, in connection with a violation of rules adopted under 41579
division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code.41580

       As used in this division, "actual construction of the source" 41581
means the initiation of physical on-site construction activities 41582
in connection with improvements to the source that are permanent 41583
in nature, including, without limitation, the installation of 41584
building supports and foundations and the laying of underground 41585
pipework.41586

       (K) Fifty(1) Money received under division (B) of this 41587
section shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of 41588
the Title V clean air fund created in section 3704.035 of the 41589
Revised Code. Annually, fifty cents per ton of each fee assessed 41590
under division (C)(B) of this section on actual emissions from a 41591
source and received by the environmental protection agency 41592
pursuant to that division shall be deposited intotransferred 41593
using an interstate transfer voucher to the state treasury to the 41594
credit of the small business assistance fund created in section 41595
3706.19 of the Revised Code. The remainder of the moneysIn 41596
addition, annually, the amount of money necessary for the 41597
operation of the office of ombudsperson as determined under 41598
division (B) of that section shall be transferred to the state 41599
treasury to the credit of the small business ombudsperson fund 41600
created by that section.41601

       (2) Money received by the division pursuant to that division 41602
and moneys received by the agency pursuant to divisions (D), (F), 41603
(G), (H), (I), and (J) of this section shall be deposited in the 41604
state treasury to the credit of the non-Title V clean air fund 41605
created in section 3704.035 of the Revised Code.41606

       (L)(1)(a) Except as otherwise provided in division (L)(1)(b) 41607
or (c) of this section, a person issued a water discharge permit 41608
or renewal of a water discharge permit pursuant to Chapter 6111. 41609
of the Revised Code shall pay a fee based on each point source to 41610
which the issuance is applicable in accordance with the following 41611
schedule:41612

Design flow discharge (gallons per day) Fee  41613
0 to 1000 $  0 41614
1,001 to 5000 100 41615
5,001 to 50,000 200 41616
50,001 to 100,000 300 41617
100,001 to 300,000 525 41618
over 300,000 750 41619

       (b) Notwithstanding the fee schedule specified in division 41620
(L)(1)(a) of this section, the fee for a water discharge permit 41621
that is applicable to coal mining operations regulated under 41622
Chapter 1513. of the Revised Code shall be two hundred fifty 41623
dollars per mine.41624

       (c) Notwithstanding the fee schedule specified in division 41625
(L)(1)(a) of this section, the fee for a water discharge permit 41626
for a public discharger identified by I in the third character of 41627
the permittee's NPDES permit number shall not exceed seven hundred 41628
fifty dollars.41629

       (2) A person applying for a plan approval for a wastewater 41630
treatment works pursuant to section 6111.44, 6111.45, or 6111.46 41631
of the Revised Code shall pay a fee of one hundred dollars plus 41632
sixty-five one-hundredths of one per cent of the estimated project 41633
cost through June 30, 2014, and one hundred dollars plus 41634
two-tenths of one per cent of the estimated project cost on and 41635
after July 1, 2014, except that the total fee shall not exceed 41636
fifteen thousand dollars through June 30, 2014, and five thousand 41637
dollars on and after July 1, 2014. The fee shall be paid at the 41638
time the application is submitted.41639

       (3) A person issued a modification of a water discharge 41640
permit shall pay a fee equal to one-half the fee that otherwise 41641
would be charged for a water discharge permit, except that the fee 41642
for the modification shall not exceed four hundred dollars.41643

       (4) A person who has entered into an agreement with the 41644
director under section 6111.14 of the Revised Code shall pay an 41645
administrative service fee for each plan submitted under that 41646
section for approval that shall not exceed the minimum amount 41647
necessary to pay administrative costs directly attributable to 41648
processing plan approvals. The director annually shall calculate 41649
the fee and shall notify all persons who have entered into 41650
agreements under that section, or who have applied for agreements, 41651
of the amount of the fee.41652

       (5)(a)(i) Not later than January 30, 2012, and January 30, 41653
2013, a person holding an NPDES discharge permit issued pursuant 41654
to Chapter 6111. of the Revised Code with an average daily 41655
discharge flow of five thousand gallons or more shall pay a 41656
nonrefundable annual discharge fee. Any person who fails to pay 41657
the fee at that time shall pay an additional amount that equals 41658
ten per cent of the required annual discharge fee.41659

       (ii) The billing year for the annual discharge fee 41660
established in division (L)(5)(a)(i) of this section shall consist 41661
of a twelve-month period beginning on the first day of January of 41662
the year preceding the date when the annual discharge fee is due. 41663
In the case of an existing source that permanently ceases to 41664
discharge during a billing year, the director shall reduce the 41665
annual discharge fee, including the surcharge applicable to 41666
certain industrial facilities pursuant to division (L)(5)(c) of 41667
this section, by one-twelfth for each full month during the 41668
billing year that the source was not discharging, but only if the 41669
person holding the NPDES discharge permit for the source notifies 41670
the director in writing, not later than the first day of October 41671
of the billing year, of the circumstances causing the cessation of 41672
discharge.41673

       (iii) The annual discharge fee established in division 41674
(L)(5)(a)(i) of this section, except for the surcharge applicable 41675
to certain industrial facilities pursuant to division (L)(5)(c) of 41676
this section, shall be based upon the average daily discharge flow 41677
in gallons per day calculated using first day of May through 41678
thirty-first day of October flow data for the period two years 41679
prior to the date on which the fee is due. In the case of NPDES 41680
discharge permits for new sources, the fee shall be calculated 41681
using the average daily design flow of the facility until actual 41682
average daily discharge flow values are available for the time 41683
period specified in division (L)(5)(a)(iii) of this section. The 41684
annual discharge fee may be prorated for a new source as described 41685
in division (L)(5)(a)(ii) of this section.41686

       (b) An NPDES permit holder that is a public discharger shall 41687
pay the fee specified in the following schedule:41688

Average daily Fee due by 41689
discharge flow January 30, 41690
2012, and 41691
January 30, 2013 41692

5,000 to 49,999 $ 200 41693
50,000 to 100,000 500 41694
100,001 to 250,000 1,050 41695
250,001 to 1,000,000 2,600 41696
1,000,001 to 5,000,000 5,200 41697
5,000,001 to 10,000,000 10,350 41698
10,000,001 to 20,000,000 15,550 41699
20,000,001 to 50,000,000 25,900 41700
50,000,001 to 100,000,000 41,400 41701
100,000,001 or more 62,100 41702

       Public dischargers owning or operating two or more publicly 41703
owned treatment works serving the same political subdivision, as 41704
"treatment works" is defined in section 6111.01 of the Revised 41705
Code, and that serve exclusively political subdivisions having a 41706
population of fewer than one hundred thousand shall pay an annual 41707
discharge fee under division (L)(5)(b) of this section that is 41708
based on the combined average daily discharge flow of the 41709
treatment works.41710

       (c) An NPDES permit holder that is an industrial discharger, 41711
other than a coal mining operator identified by P in the third 41712
character of the permittee's NPDES permit number, shall pay the 41713
fee specified in the following schedule:41714

Average daily Fee due by 41715
discharge flow January 30, 41716
2012, and 41717
January 30, 2013 41718

5,000 to 49,999 $ 250 41719
50,000 to 250,000 1,200 41720
250,001 to 1,000,000 2,950 41721
1,000,001 to 5,000,000 5,850 41722
5,000,001 to 10,000,000 8,800 41723
10,000,001 to 20,000,000 11,700 41724
20,000,001 to 100,000,000 14,050 41725
100,000,001 to 250,000,000 16,400 41726
250,000,001 or more 18,700 41727

       In addition to the fee specified in the above schedule, an 41728
NPDES permit holder that is an industrial discharger classified as 41729
a major discharger during all or part of the annual discharge fee 41730
billing year specified in division (L)(5)(a)(ii) of this section 41731
shall pay a nonrefundable annual surcharge of seven thousand five 41732
hundred dollars not later than January 30, 2012, and not later 41733
than January 30, 2013. Any person who fails to pay the surcharge 41734
at that time shall pay an additional amount that equals ten per 41735
cent of the amount of the surcharge.41736

       (d) Notwithstanding divisions (L)(5)(b) and (c) of this 41737
section, a public discharger identified by I in the third 41738
character of the permittee's NPDES permit number and an industrial 41739
discharger identified by I, J, L, V, W, X, Y, or Z in the third 41740
character of the permittee's NPDES permit number shall pay a 41741
nonrefundable annual discharge fee of one hundred eighty dollars 41742
not later than January 30, 2012, and not later than January 30, 41743
2013. Any person who fails to pay the fee at that time shall pay 41744
an additional amount that equals ten per cent of the required fee.41745

       (6) Each person obtaining a national pollutant discharge 41746
elimination system general or individual permit for municipal 41747
storm water discharge shall pay a nonrefundable storm water 41748
discharge fee of one hundred dollars per square mile of area 41749
permitted. The fee shall not exceed ten thousand dollars and shall 41750
be payable on or before January 30, 2004, and the thirtieth day of 41751
January of each year thereafter. Any person who fails to pay the 41752
fee on the date specified in division (L)(6) of this section shall 41753
pay an additional amount per year equal to ten per cent of the 41754
annual fee that is unpaid.41755

       (7) The director shall transmit all moneys collected under 41756
division (L) of this section to the treasurer of state for deposit 41757
into the state treasury to the credit of the surface water 41758
protection fund created in section 6111.038 of the Revised Code.41759

       (8) As used in division (L) of this section:41760

       (a) "NPDES" means the federally approved national pollutant 41761
discharge elimination system program for issuing, modifying, 41762
revoking, reissuing, terminating, monitoring, and enforcing 41763
permits and imposing and enforcing pretreatment requirements under 41764
Chapter 6111. of the Revised Code and rules adopted under it.41765

       (b) "Public discharger" means any holder of an NPDES permit 41766
identified by P in the second character of the NPDES permit number 41767
assigned by the director.41768

       (c) "Industrial discharger" means any holder of an NPDES 41769
permit identified by I in the second character of the NPDES permit 41770
number assigned by the director.41771

       (d) "Major discharger" means any holder of an NPDES permit 41772
classified as major by the regional administrator of the United 41773
States environmental protection agency in conjunction with the 41774
director.41775

       (M) Through June 30, 2014, a person applying for a license or 41776
license renewal to operate a public water system under section 41777
6109.21 of the Revised Code shall pay the appropriate fee 41778
established under this division at the time of application to the 41779
director. Any person who fails to pay the fee at that time shall 41780
pay an additional amount that equals ten per cent of the required 41781
fee. The director shall transmit all moneys collected under this 41782
division to the treasurer of state for deposit into the drinking 41783
water protection fund created in section 6109.30 of the Revised 41784
Code.41785

        Except as provided in division (M)(4) of this section, fees 41786
required under this division shall be calculated and paid in 41787
accordance with the following schedule:41788

       (1) For the initial license required under division (A)(1) of41789
section 6109.21 of the Revised Code for any public water system 41790
that is a community water system as defined in section 6109.01 of 41791
the Revised Code, and for each license renewal required for such a 41792
system prior to January 31, 2014, the fee is:41793

Number of service connections Fee amount 41794
Not more than 49    $ 112 41795
50 to 99      176 41796

Number of service connections Average cost per connection 41797
100 to 2,499 $ 1.92 41798
2,500 to 4,999   1.48 41799
5,000 to 7,499   1.42 41800
7,500 to 9,999   1.34 41801
10,000 to 14,999   1.16 41802
15,000 to 24,999   1.10 41803
25,000 to 49,999   1.04 41804
50,000 to 99,999   .92 41805
100,000 to 149,999   .86 41806
150,000 to 199,999   .80 41807
200,000 or more   .76 41808

       A public water system may determine how it will pay the total 41809
amount of the fee calculated under division (M)(1) of this 41810
section, including the assessment of additional user fees that may 41811
be assessed on a volumetric basis.41812

       As used in division (M)(1) of this section, "service 41813
connection" means the number of active or inactive pipes, 41814
goosenecks, pigtails, and any other fittings connecting a water 41815
main to any building outlet.41816

       (2) For the initial license required under division (A)(2) of41817
section 6109.21 of the Revised Code for any public water system 41818
that is not a community water system and serves a nontransient 41819
population, and for each license renewal required for such a 41820
system prior to January 31, 2014, the fee is:41821

Population served Fee amount 41822
Fewer than 150 $    112 41823
150 to 299      176 41824
300 to 749      384 41825
750 to 1,499      628 41826
1,500 to 2,999    1,268 41827
3,000 to 7,499    2,816 41828
7,500 to 14,999    5,510 41829
15,000 to 22,499    9,048 41830
22,500 to 29,999   12,430 41831
30,000 or more   16,820 41832

       As used in division (M)(2) of this section, "population 41833
served" means the total number of individuals having access to the 41834
water supply during a twenty-four-hour period for at least sixty 41835
days during any calendar year. In the absence of a specific 41836
population count, that number shall be calculated at the rate of 41837
three individuals per service connection.41838

       (3) For the initial license required under division (A)(3) of41839
section 6109.21 of the Revised Code for any public water system 41840
that is not a community water system and serves a transient 41841
population, and for each license renewal required for such a 41842
system prior to January 31, 2014, the fee is:41843

  Number of wells or sources, other than surface water, supplying system Fee amount 41844
1 $112 41845
2  112 41846
3  176 41847
4  278 41848
5  568 41849
System designated as using a 41850
surface water source  792 41851

       As used in division (M)(3) of this section, "number of wells 41852
or sources, other than surface water, supplying system" means 41853
those wells or sources that are physically connected to the 41854
plumbing system serving the public water system.41855

       (4) A public water system designated as using a surface water 41856
source shall pay a fee of seven hundred ninety-two dollars or the 41857
amount calculated under division (M)(1) or (2) of this section, 41858
whichever is greater.41859

       (N)(1) A person applying for a plan approval for a public 41860
water supply system under section 6109.07 of the Revised Code 41861
shall pay a fee of one hundred fifty dollars plus thirty-five 41862
hundredths of one per cent of the estimated project cost, except 41863
that the total fee shall not exceed twenty thousand dollars 41864
through June 30, 2014, and fifteen thousand dollars on and after 41865
July 1, 2014. The fee shall be paid at the time the application is 41866
submitted.41867

       (2) A person who has entered into an agreement with the 41868
director under division (A)(2) of section 6109.07 of the Revised 41869
Code shall pay an administrative service fee for each plan 41870
submitted under that section for approval that shall not exceed 41871
the minimum amount necessary to pay administrative costs directly 41872
attributable to processing plan approvals. The director annually 41873
shall calculate the fee and shall notify all persons that have 41874
entered into agreements under that division, or who have applied 41875
for agreements, of the amount of the fee.41876

       (3) Through June 30, 2014, the following fee, on a per survey 41877
basis, shall be charged any person for services rendered by the 41878
state in the evaluation of laboratories and laboratory personnel 41879
for compliance with accepted analytical techniques and procedures 41880
established pursuant to Chapter 6109. of the Revised Code for 41881
determining the qualitative characteristics of water:41882

microbiological 41883
MMO-MUG $2,000 41884
MF 2,100 41885
MMO-MUG and MF 2,550 41886
organic chemical 5,400 41887
trace metals 5,400 41888
standard chemistry 2,800 41889
limited chemistry 1,550 41890

       On and after July 1, 2014, the following fee, on a per survey 41891
basis, shall be charged any such person:41892

microbiological $ 1,650 41893
organic chemicals 3,500 41894
trace metals 3,500 41895
standard chemistry 1,800 41896
limited chemistry 1,000 41897

The fee for those services shall be paid at the time the request 41898
for the survey is made. Through June 30, 2014, an individual 41899
laboratory shall not be assessed a fee under this division more 41900
than once in any three-year period unless the person requests the 41901
addition of analytical methods or analysts, in which case the 41902
person shall pay eighteen hundred dollars for each additional 41903
survey requested.41904

       As used in division (N)(3) of this section:41905

        (a) "MF" means microfiltration.41906

        (b) "MMO" means minimal medium ONPG.41907

        (c) "MUG" means 4-methylumbelliferyl-beta-D-glucuronide.41908

        (d) "ONPG" means o-nitrophenyl-beta-D-galactopyranoside.41909

       The director shall transmit all moneys collected under this 41910
division to the treasurer of state for deposit into the drinking 41911
water protection fund created in section 6109.30 of the Revised 41912
Code.41913

        (O) Any person applying to the director forto take an41914
examination for certification as an operator of a water supply 41915
system or wastewater system under Chapter 6109. or 6111. of the 41916
Revised Code that is administered by the director, at the time the 41917
application is submitted, shall pay an application fee of 41918
forty-five dollars through November 30, 2014, and twenty-five 41919
dollars on and after December 1, 2014. Upon approval from the 41920
director that the applicant is eligible to take the examination 41921
therefor, the applicant shall pay a fee in accordance with the 41922
following schedule through November 30, 2014:41923

Class A operator $35 80 41924
Class I operator  60 105 41925
Class II operator  75 120 41926
Class III operator  85 130 41927
Class IV operator  100 145 41928

       On and after December 1, 2014, the applicant shall pay a fee 41929
in accordance with the following schedule:41930

Class A operator $25 50 41931
Class I operator $45 70 41932
Class II operator  55 80 41933
Class III operator  65 90 41934
Class IV operator  75 100 41935

       Any person applying to the director for certification as an 41936
operator of a water supply system or wastewater system who has 41937
passed an examination administered by an examination provider 41938
approved by the director shall pay a certification fee of 41939
forty-five dollars.41940

       A person shall pay a biennial certification renewal fee for 41941
each applicable class of certification in accordance with the 41942
following schedule:41943

Class A operator $25 41944
Class I operator  35 41945
Class II operator  45 41946
Class III operator  55 41947
Class IV operator  65 41948

        If a certification renewal fee is received by the director 41949
more than thirty days, but not more than one year after the 41950
expiration date of the certification, the person shall pay a 41951
certification renewal fee in accordance with the following 41952
schedule:41953

Class A operator $45 41954
Class I operator  55 41955
Class II operator  65 41956
Class III operator  75 41957
Class IV operator  85 41958

       A person who requests a replacement certificate shall pay a 41959
fee of twenty-five dollars at the time the request is made.41960

       Any person applying to be a water supply system or wastewater 41961
treatment system examination provider shall pay an application fee 41962
of five hundred dollars. Any person approved by the director as a 41963
water supply system or wastewater treatment system examination 41964
provider shall pay an annual fee that is equal to ten per cent of 41965
the fees that the provider assesses and collects for administering 41966
water supply system or wastewater treatment system certification 41967
examinations in this state for the calendar year. The fee shall be 41968
paid not later than forty-five days after the end of a calendar 41969
year.41970

       The director shall transmit all moneys collected under this 41971
division to the treasurer of state for deposit into the drinking 41972
water protection fund created in section 6109.30 of the Revised 41973
Code.41974

       (P) Any person submitting an application for an industrial 41975
water pollution control certificate under section 6111.31 of the 41976
Revised Code, as that section existed before its repeal by H.B. 95 41977
of the 125th general assembly, shall pay a nonrefundable fee of 41978
five hundred dollars at the time the application is submitted. The 41979
director shall transmit all moneys collected under this division 41980
to the treasurer of state for deposit into the surface water 41981
protection fund created in section 6111.038 of the Revised Code. A 41982
person paying a certificate fee under this division shall not pay 41983
an application fee under division (S)(1) of this section. On and 41984
after June 26, 2003, persons shall file such applications and pay 41985
the fee as required under sections 5709.20 to 5709.27 of the 41986
Revised Code, and proceeds from the fee shall be credited as 41987
provided in section 5709.212 of the Revised Code.41988

       (Q) Except as otherwise provided in division (R) of this 41989
section, a person issued a permit by the director for a new solid 41990
waste disposal facility other than an incineration or composting 41991
facility, a new infectious waste treatment facility other than an 41992
incineration facility, or a modification of such an existing 41993
facility that includes an increase in the total disposal or 41994
treatment capacity of the facility pursuant to Chapter 3734. of 41995
the Revised Code shall pay a fee of ten dollars per thousand cubic 41996
yards of disposal or treatment capacity, or one thousand dollars, 41997
whichever is greater, except that the total fee for any such 41998
permit shall not exceed eighty thousand dollars. A person issued a 41999
modification of a permit for a solid waste disposal facility or an 42000
infectious waste treatment facility that does not involve an 42001
increase in the total disposal or treatment capacity of the 42002
facility shall pay a fee of one thousand dollars. A person issued 42003
a permit to install a new, or modify an existing, solid waste 42004
transfer facility under that chapter shall pay a fee of two 42005
thousand five hundred dollars. A person issued a permit to install 42006
a new or to modify an existing solid waste incineration or 42007
composting facility, or an existing infectious waste treatment 42008
facility using incineration as its principal method of treatment, 42009
under that chapter shall pay a fee of one thousand dollars. The 42010
increases in the permit fees under this division resulting from 42011
the amendments made by Amended Substitute House Bill 592 of the 42012
117th general assembly do not apply to any person who submitted an 42013
application for a permit to install a new, or modify an existing, 42014
solid waste disposal facility under that chapter prior to 42015
September 1, 1987; any such person shall pay the permit fee 42016
established in this division as it existed prior to June 24, 1988. 42017
In addition to the applicable permit fee under this division, a 42018
person issued a permit to install or modify a solid waste facility 42019
or an infectious waste treatment facility under that chapter who 42020
fails to pay the permit fee to the director in compliance with 42021
division (V) of this section shall pay an additional ten per cent 42022
of the amount of the fee for each week that the permit fee is 42023
late.42024

       Permit and late payment fees paid to the director under this 42025
division shall be credited to the general revenue fund.42026

       (R)(1) A person issued a registration certificate for a scrap 42027
tire collection facility under section 3734.75 of the Revised Code 42028
shall pay a fee of two hundred dollars, except that if the 42029
facility is owned or operated by a motor vehicle salvage dealer 42030
licensed under Chapter 4738. of the Revised Code, the person shall 42031
pay a fee of twenty-five dollars.42032

       (2) A person issued a registration certificate for a new 42033
scrap tire storage facility under section 3734.76 of the Revised 42034
Code shall pay a fee of three hundred dollars, except that if the 42035
facility is owned or operated by a motor vehicle salvage dealer 42036
licensed under Chapter 4738. of the Revised Code, the person shall 42037
pay a fee of twenty-five dollars.42038

       (3) A person issued a permit for a scrap tire storage 42039
facility under section 3734.76 of the Revised Code shall pay a fee 42040
of one thousand dollars, except that if the facility is owned or 42041
operated by a motor vehicle salvage dealer licensed under Chapter 42042
4738. of the Revised Code, the person shall pay a fee of fifty 42043
dollars.42044

       (4) A person issued a permit for a scrap tire monocell or 42045
monofill facility under section 3734.77 of the Revised Code shall 42046
pay a fee of ten dollars per thousand cubic yards of disposal 42047
capacity or one thousand dollars, whichever is greater, except 42048
that the total fee for any such permit shall not exceed eighty 42049
thousand dollars.42050

       (5) A person issued a registration certificate for a scrap 42051
tire recovery facility under section 3734.78 of the Revised Code 42052
shall pay a fee of one hundred dollars.42053

       (6) A person issued a permit for a scrap tire recovery 42054
facility under section 3734.78 of the Revised Code shall pay a fee 42055
of one thousand dollars.42056

       (7) In addition to the applicable registration certificate or 42057
permit fee under divisions (R)(1) to (6) of this section, a person 42058
issued a registration certificate or permit for any such scrap 42059
tire facility who fails to pay the registration certificate or 42060
permit fee to the director in compliance with division (V) of this 42061
section shall pay an additional ten per cent of the amount of the 42062
fee for each week that the fee is late.42063

       (8) The registration certificate, permit, and late payment 42064
fees paid to the director under divisions (R)(1) to (7) of this 42065
section shall be credited to the scrap tire management fund 42066
created in section 3734.82 of the Revised Code.42067

       (S)(1) Except as provided by divisions (L), (M), (N), (O), 42068
(P), and (S)(2) of this section, division (A)(2) of section 42069
3734.05 of the Revised Code, section 3734.79 of the Revised Code, 42070
and rules adopted under division (T)(1) of this section, any 42071
person applying for a registration certificate under section 42072
3734.75, 3734.76, or 3734.78 of the Revised Code or a permit, 42073
variance, or plan approval under Chapter 3734. of the Revised Code 42074
shall pay a nonrefundable fee of fifteen dollars at the time the 42075
application is submitted.42076

       Except as otherwise provided, any person applying for a 42077
permit, variance, or plan approval under Chapter 6109. or 6111. of 42078
the Revised Code shall pay a nonrefundable fee of one hundred 42079
dollars at the time the application is submitted through June 30, 42080
2014, and a nonrefundable fee of fifteen dollars at the time the 42081
application is submitted on and after July 1, 2014. Except as 42082
provided in division (S)(3) of this section, through June 30, 42083
2014, any person applying for a national pollutant discharge 42084
elimination system permit under Chapter 6111. of the Revised Code 42085
shall pay a nonrefundable fee of two hundred dollars at the time 42086
of application for the permit. On and after July 1, 2014, such a 42087
person shall pay a nonrefundable fee of fifteen dollars at the 42088
time of application.42089

       In addition to the application fee established under division 42090
(S)(1) of this section, any person applying for a national 42091
pollutant discharge elimination system general storm water 42092
construction permit shall pay a nonrefundable fee of twenty 42093
dollars per acre for each acre that is permitted above five acres 42094
at the time the application is submitted. However, the per acreage 42095
fee shall not exceed three hundred dollars. In addition, any 42096
person applying for a national pollutant discharge elimination 42097
system general storm water industrial permit shall pay a 42098
nonrefundable fee of one hundred fifty dollars at the time the 42099
application is submitted.42100

       The director shall transmit all moneys collected under 42101
division (S)(1) of this section pursuant to Chapter 6109. of the 42102
Revised Code to the treasurer of state for deposit into the 42103
drinking water protection fund created in section 6109.30 of the 42104
Revised Code.42105

       The director shall transmit all moneys collected under 42106
division (S)(1) of this section pursuant to Chapter 6111. of the 42107
Revised Code and under division (S)(3) of this section to the 42108
treasurer of state for deposit into the surface water protection 42109
fund created in section 6111.038 of the Revised Code.42110

       If a registration certificate is issued under section 42111
3734.75, 3734.76, or 3734.78 of the Revised Code, the amount of 42112
the application fee paid shall be deducted from the amount of the 42113
registration certificate fee due under division (R)(1), (2), or 42114
(5) of this section, as applicable.42115

       If a person submits an electronic application for a 42116
registration certificate, permit, variance, or plan approval for 42117
which an application fee is established under division (S)(1) of 42118
this section, the person shall pay the applicable application fee 42119
as expeditiously as possible after the submission of the 42120
electronic application. An application for a registration 42121
certificate, permit, variance, or plan approval for which an 42122
application fee is established under division (S)(1) of this 42123
section shall not be reviewed or processed until the applicable 42124
application fee, and any other fees established under this 42125
division, are paid.42126

       (2) Division (S)(1) of this section does not apply to an 42127
application for a registration certificate for a scrap tire 42128
collection or storage facility submitted under section 3734.75 or 42129
3734.76 of the Revised Code, as applicable, if the owner or 42130
operator of the facility or proposed facility is a motor vehicle 42131
salvage dealer licensed under Chapter 4738. of the Revised Code.42132

       (3) A person applying for coverage under a national pollutant 42133
discharge elimination system general discharge permit for 42134
household sewage treatment systems shall pay the following fees:42135

       (a) A nonrefundable fee of two hundred dollars at the time of 42136
application for initial permit coverage;42137

       (b) A nonrefundable fee of one hundred dollars at the time of 42138
application for a renewal of permit coverage.42139

       (T) The director may adopt, amend, and rescind rules in 42140
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that do all of 42141
the following:42142

       (1) Prescribe fees to be paid by applicants for and holders 42143
of any license, permit, variance, plan approval, or certification 42144
required or authorized by Chapter 3704., 3734., 6109., or 6111. of 42145
the Revised Code that are not specifically established in this 42146
section. The fees shall be designed to defray the cost of 42147
processing, issuing, revoking, modifying, denying, and enforcing 42148
the licenses, permits, variances, plan approvals, and 42149
certifications.42150

       The director shall transmit all moneys collected under rules 42151
adopted under division (T)(1) of this section pursuant to Chapter 42152
6109. of the Revised Code to the treasurer of state for deposit 42153
into the drinking water protection fund created in section 6109.30 42154
of the Revised Code.42155

       The director shall transmit all moneys collected under rules 42156
adopted under division (T)(1) of this section pursuant to Chapter 42157
6111. of the Revised Code to the treasurer of state for deposit 42158
into the surface water protection fund created in section 6111.038 42159
of the Revised Code.42160

       (2) Exempt the state and political subdivisions thereof, 42161
including education facilities or medical facilities owned by the 42162
state or a political subdivision, or any person exempted from 42163
taxation by section 5709.07 or 5709.12 of the Revised Code, from 42164
any fee required by this section;42165

       (3) Provide for the waiver of any fee, or any part thereof, 42166
otherwise required by this section whenever the director 42167
determines that the imposition of the fee would constitute an 42168
unreasonable cost of doing business for any applicant, class of 42169
applicants, or other person subject to the fee;42170

       (4) Prescribe measures that the director considers necessary 42171
to carry out this section.42172

       (U) When the director reasonably demonstrates that the direct 42173
cost to the state associated with the issuance of a permit to 42174
install, license, variance, plan approval, or certification 42175
exceeds the fee for the issuance or review specified by this 42176
section, the director may condition the issuance or review on the 42177
payment by the person receiving the issuance or review of, in 42178
addition to the fee specified by this section, the amount, or any 42179
portion thereof, in excess of the fee specified under this 42180
section. The director shall not so condition issuances for which 42181
fees area fee is prescribed in divisions (B)(7) anddivision42182
(L)(1)(b) of this section.42183

       (V) Except as provided in divisions (L), (M), and (P) of this 42184
section or unless otherwise prescribed by a rule of the director 42185
adopted pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, all fees 42186
required by this section are payable within thirty days after the 42187
issuance of an invoice for the fee by the director or the 42188
effective date of the issuance of the license, permit, variance, 42189
plan approval, or certification. If payment is late, the person 42190
responsible for payment of the fee shall pay an additional ten per 42191
cent of the amount due for each month that it is late.42192

       (W) As used in this section, "fuel-burning equipment," 42193
"fuel-burning equipment input capacity," "incinerator," 42194
"incinerator input capacity," "process," "process weight rate," 42195
"storage tank," "gasoline dispensing facility," "dry cleaning 42196
facility," "design flow discharge," and "new source treatment 42197
works" have the meanings ascribed to those terms by applicable 42198
rules or standards adopted by the director under Chapter 3704. or 42199
6111. of the Revised Code.42200

       (X) As used in divisions (B), (C), (D), (E), (F), (H), (I), 42201
and (J) of this section, and in any other provision of this 42202
section pertaining to fees paid pursuant to Chapter 3704. of the 42203
Revised Code:42204

       (1) "Facility," "federal Clean Air Act," "person," and "Title 42205
V permit" have the same meanings as in section 3704.01 of the 42206
Revised Code.42207

       (2) "Title V permit program" means the following activities 42208
as necessary to meet the requirements of Title V of the federal 42209
Clean Air Act and 40 C.F.R. part 70, including at least:42210

       (a) Preparing and adopting, if applicable, generally 42211
applicable rules or guidance regarding the permit program or its 42212
implementation or enforcement;42213

       (b) Reviewing and acting on any application for a Title V 42214
permit, permit revision, or permit renewal, including the 42215
development of an applicable requirement as part of the processing 42216
of a permit, permit revision, or permit renewal;42217

       (c) Administering the permit program, including the 42218
supporting and tracking of permit applications, compliance 42219
certification, and related data entry;42220

       (d) Determining which sources are subject to the program and 42221
implementing and enforcing the terms of any Title V permit, not 42222
including any court actions or other formal enforcement actions;42223

       (e) Emission and ambient monitoring;42224

       (f) Modeling, analyses, or demonstrations;42225

       (g) Preparing inventories and tracking emissions;42226

       (h) Providing direct and indirect support to small business 42227
stationary sources to determine and meet their obligations under 42228
the federal Clean Air Act pursuant to the small business 42229
stationary source technical and environmental compliance 42230
assistance program required by section 507 of that act and 42231
established in sections 3704.18, 3704.19, and 3706.19 of the 42232
Revised Code.42233

       (Y)(1) Except as provided in divisions (Y)(2), (3), and (4) 42234
of this section, each sewage sludge facility shall pay a 42235
nonrefundable annual sludge fee equal to three dollars and fifty 42236
cents per dry ton of sewage sludge, including the dry tons of 42237
sewage sludge in materials derived from sewage sludge, that the 42238
sewage sludge facility treats or disposes of in this state. The 42239
annual volume of sewage sludge treated or disposed of by a sewage 42240
sludge facility shall be calculated using the first day of January 42241
through the thirty-first day of December of the calendar year 42242
preceding the date on which payment of the fee is due.42243

       (2)(a) Except as provided in division (Y)(2)(d) of this 42244
section, each sewage sludge facility shall pay a minimum annual 42245
sewage sludge fee of one hundred dollars.42246

       (b) The annual sludge fee required to be paid by a sewage 42247
sludge facility that treats or disposes of exceptional quality 42248
sludge in this state shall be thirty-five per cent less per dry 42249
ton of exceptional quality sludge than the fee assessed under 42250
division (Y)(1) of this section, subject to the following 42251
exceptions:42252

       (i) Except as provided in division (Y)(2)(d) of this section, 42253
a sewage sludge facility that treats or disposes of exceptional 42254
quality sludge shall pay a minimum annual sewage sludge fee of one 42255
hundred dollars.42256

       (ii) A sewage sludge facility that treats or disposes of 42257
exceptional quality sludge shall not be required to pay the annual 42258
sludge fee for treatment or disposal in this state of exceptional 42259
quality sludge generated outside of this state and contained in 42260
bags or other containers not greater than one hundred pounds in 42261
capacity.42262

       A thirty-five per cent reduction for exceptional quality 42263
sludge applies to the maximum annual fees established under 42264
division (Y)(3) of this section.42265

       (c) A sewage sludge facility that transfers sewage sludge to 42266
another sewage sludge facility in this state for further treatment 42267
prior to disposal in this state shall not be required to pay the 42268
annual sludge fee for the tons of sewage sludge that have been 42269
transferred. In such a case, the sewage sludge facility that 42270
disposes of the sewage sludge shall pay the annual sludge fee. 42271
However, the facility transferring the sewage sludge shall pay the 42272
one-hundred-dollar minimum fee required under division (Y)(2)(a) 42273
of this section.42274

       In the case of a sewage sludge facility that treats sewage 42275
sludge in this state and transfers it out of this state to another 42276
entity for disposal, the sewage sludge facility in this state 42277
shall be required to pay the annual sludge fee for the tons of 42278
sewage sludge that have been transferred.42279

       (d) A sewage sludge facility that generates sewage sludge 42280
resulting from an average daily discharge flow of less than five 42281
thousand gallons per day is not subject to the fees assessed under 42282
division (Y) of this section.42283

       (3) No sewage sludge facility required to pay the annual 42284
sludge fee shall be required to pay more than the maximum annual 42285
fee for each disposal method that the sewage sludge facility uses. 42286
The maximum annual fee does not include the additional amount that 42287
may be charged under division (Y)(5) of this section for late 42288
payment of the annual sludge fee. The maximum annual fee for the 42289
following methods of disposal of sewage sludge is as follows:42290

       (a) Incineration: five thousand dollars;42291

       (b) Preexisting land reclamation project or disposal in a 42292
landfill: five thousand dollars;42293

       (c) Land application, land reclamation, surface disposal, or 42294
any other disposal method not specified in division (Y)(3)(a) or 42295
(b) of this section: twenty thousand dollars.42296

       (4)(a) In the case of an entity that generates sewage sludge 42297
or a sewage sludge facility that treats sewage sludge and 42298
transfers the sewage sludge to an incineration facility for 42299
disposal, the incineration facility, and not the entity generating 42300
the sewage sludge or the sewage sludge facility treating the 42301
sewage sludge, shall pay the annual sludge fee for the tons of 42302
sewage sludge that are transferred. However, the entity or 42303
facility generating or treating the sewage sludge shall pay the 42304
one-hundred-dollar minimum fee required under division (Y)(2)(a) 42305
of this section.42306

       (b) In the case of an entity that generates sewage sludge and 42307
transfers the sewage sludge to a landfill for disposal or to a 42308
sewage sludge facility for land reclamation or surface disposal, 42309
the entity generating the sewage sludge, and not the landfill or 42310
sewage sludge facility, shall pay the annual sludge fee for the 42311
tons of sewage sludge that are transferred.42312

       (5) Not later than the first day of April of the calendar 42313
year following March 17, 2000, and each first day of April 42314
thereafter, the director shall issue invoices to persons who are 42315
required to pay the annual sludge fee. The invoice shall identify 42316
the nature and amount of the annual sludge fee assessed and state 42317
the first day of May as the deadline for receipt by the director 42318
of objections regarding the amount of the fee and the first day of 42319
July as the deadline for payment of the fee.42320

       Not later than the first day of May following receipt of an 42321
invoice, a person required to pay the annual sludge fee may submit 42322
objections to the director concerning the accuracy of information 42323
regarding the number of dry tons of sewage sludge used to 42324
calculate the amount of the annual sludge fee or regarding whether 42325
the sewage sludge qualifies for the exceptional quality sludge 42326
discount established in division (Y)(2)(b) of this section. The 42327
director may consider the objections and adjust the amount of the 42328
fee to ensure that it is accurate.42329

       If the director does not adjust the amount of the annual 42330
sludge fee in response to a person's objections, the person may 42331
appeal the director's determination in accordance with Chapter 42332
119. of the Revised Code.42333

       Not later than the first day of June, the director shall 42334
notify the objecting person regarding whether the director has 42335
found the objections to be valid and the reasons for the finding. 42336
If the director finds the objections to be valid and adjusts the 42337
amount of the annual sludge fee accordingly, the director shall 42338
issue with the notification a new invoice to the person 42339
identifying the amount of the annual sludge fee assessed and 42340
stating the first day of July as the deadline for payment.42341

       Not later than the first day of July, any person who is 42342
required to do so shall pay the annual sludge fee. Any person who 42343
is required to pay the fee, but who fails to do so on or before 42344
that date shall pay an additional amount that equals ten per cent 42345
of the required annual sludge fee.42346

       (6) The director shall transmit all moneys collected under 42347
division (Y) of this section to the treasurer of state for deposit 42348
into the surface water protection fund created in section 6111.038 42349
of the Revised Code. The moneys shall be used to defray the costs 42350
of administering and enforcing provisions in Chapter 6111. of the 42351
Revised Code and rules adopted under it that govern the use, 42352
storage, treatment, or disposal of sewage sludge.42353

       (7) Beginning in fiscal year 2001, and every two years 42354
thereafter, the director shall review the total amount of moneys 42355
generated by the annual sludge fees to determine if that amount 42356
exceeded six hundred thousand dollars in either of the two 42357
preceding fiscal years. If the total amount of moneys in the fund 42358
exceeded six hundred thousand dollars in either fiscal year, the 42359
director, after review of the fee structure and consultation with 42360
affected persons, shall issue an order reducing the amount of the 42361
fees levied under division (Y) of this section so that the 42362
estimated amount of moneys resulting from the fees will not exceed 42363
six hundred thousand dollars in any fiscal year.42364

       If, upon review of the fees under division (Y)(7) of this 42365
section and after the fees have been reduced, the director 42366
determines that the total amount of moneys collected and 42367
accumulated is less than six hundred thousand dollars, the 42368
director, after review of the fee structure and consultation with 42369
affected persons, may issue an order increasing the amount of the 42370
fees levied under division (Y) of this section so that the 42371
estimated amount of moneys resulting from the fees will be 42372
approximately six hundred thousand dollars. Fees shall never be 42373
increased to an amount exceeding the amount specified in division 42374
(Y)(7) of this section.42375

       Notwithstanding section 119.06 of the Revised Code, the 42376
director may issue an order under division (Y)(7) of this section 42377
without the necessity to hold an adjudicatory hearing in 42378
connection with the order. The issuance of an order under this 42379
division is not an act or action for purposes of section 3745.04 42380
of the Revised Code.42381

       (8) As used in division (Y) of this section:42382

       (a) "Sewage sludge facility" means an entity that performs 42383
treatment on or is responsible for the disposal of sewage sludge.42384

       (b) "Sewage sludge" means a solid, semi-solid, or liquid 42385
residue generated during the treatment of domestic sewage in a 42386
treatment works as defined in section 6111.01 of the Revised Code. 42387
"Sewage sludge" includes, but is not limited to, scum or solids 42388
removed in primary, secondary, or advanced wastewater treatment 42389
processes. "Sewage sludge" does not include ash generated during 42390
the firing of sewage sludge in a sewage sludge incinerator, grit 42391
and screenings generated during preliminary treatment of domestic 42392
sewage in a treatment works, animal manure, residue generated 42393
during treatment of animal manure, or domestic septage.42394

       (c) "Exceptional quality sludge" means sewage sludge that 42395
meets all of the following qualifications:42396

       (i) Satisfies the class A pathogen standards in 40 C.F.R. 42397
503.32(a);42398

       (ii) Satisfies one of the vector attraction reduction 42399
requirements in 40 C.F.R. 503.33(b)(1) to (b)(8);42400

       (iii) Does not exceed the ceiling concentration limitations 42401
for metals listed in table one of 40 C.F.R. 503.13;42402

       (iv) Does not exceed the concentration limitations for metals 42403
listed in table three of 40 C.F.R. 503.13.42404

       (d) "Treatment" means the preparation of sewage sludge for 42405
final use or disposal and includes, but is not limited to, 42406
thickening, stabilization, and dewatering of sewage sludge.42407

       (e) "Disposal" means the final use of sewage sludge, 42408
including, but not limited to, land application, land reclamation, 42409
surface disposal, or disposal in a landfill or an incinerator.42410

       (f) "Land application" means the spraying or spreading of 42411
sewage sludge onto the land surface, the injection of sewage 42412
sludge below the land surface, or the incorporation of sewage 42413
sludge into the soil for the purposes of conditioning the soil or 42414
fertilizing crops or vegetation grown in the soil.42415

       (g) "Land reclamation" means the returning of disturbed land 42416
to productive use.42417

       (h) "Surface disposal" means the placement of sludge on an 42418
area of land for disposal, including, but not limited to, 42419
monofills, surface impoundments, lagoons, waste piles, or 42420
dedicated disposal sites.42421

       (i) "Incinerator" means an entity that disposes of sewage 42422
sludge through the combustion of organic matter and inorganic 42423
matter in sewage sludge by high temperatures in an enclosed 42424
device.42425

       (j) "Incineration facility" includes all incinerators owned 42426
or operated by the same entity and located on a contiguous tract 42427
of land. Areas of land are considered to be contiguous even if 42428
they are separated by a public road or highway.42429

       (k) "Annual sludge fee" means the fee assessed under division 42430
(Y)(1) of this section.42431

       (l) "Landfill" means a sanitary landfill facility, as defined 42432
in rules adopted under section 3734.02 of the Revised Code, that 42433
is licensed under section 3734.05 of the Revised Code.42434

       (m) "Preexisting land reclamation project" means a 42435
property-specific land reclamation project that has been in 42436
continuous operation for not less than five years pursuant to 42437
approval of the activity by the director and includes the 42438
implementation of a community outreach program concerning the 42439
activity.42440

       Sec. 3745.112.  During the month of August 1997, and 42441
biennially thereafter, the director of environmental protection 42442
shall enter into a contract for the performance of an independent 42443
evaluation of the Title V permit program to be conducted under the 42444
supervision of an independent certified public accountant. The 42445
evaluation shall review the finances, operations, revenues, costs, 42446
and expenditures of the Title V permit program under section 42447
3704.036 of the Revised Code and the Title V clean air fund 42448
created in section 3704.035 of the Revised Code. The findings of 42449
each such evaluation shall be set forth in a written report that 42450
shall include, without limitation, all of the following:42451

       (A) A review and analysis of all expenditures from the Title 42452
V clean air fund for the Title V permit program;42453

       (B) A review and analysis of all costs incurred by the 42454
environmental protection agency designated by the director to be 42455
costs of the Title V permit program;42456

       (C) A review and analysis of all expenditures from the Title 42457
V clean air fund for costs not designated by the director as costs 42458
of the Title V permit program;42459

       (D) A review and analysis of the adequacy of the fees 42460
assessed under division (C)(B) of section 3745.11 for meeting the 42461
costs of the Title V permit program during the period reviewed by 42462
the evaluation.42463

       Upon completion of the written report of each evaluation 42464
required by this section, the director shall provide copies of the 42465
report to the governor and the general assembly and shall make 42466
copies of it available to the public.42467

       The reasonable and necessary expenses for conducting an 42468
evaluation required under this section are hereby deemed to be 42469
reasonable costs to administer the Title V permit program and 42470
shall be paid from moneys credited to the Title V clean air fund 42471
arising from the fees assessed under division (C)(B) of section 42472
3745.11 of the Revised Code.42473

       Sec. 3748.04.  The publicdirector of health council, in 42474
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt and 42475
may amend or rescind rules doing all of the following:42476

       (A) Listing types of radioactive material for which licensure 42477
by its handler is required and types of radiation-generating 42478
equipment for which registration by its handler is required, and 42479
establishing requirements governing them. Rules adopted under 42480
division (A) of this section shall be compatible with applicable 42481
federal regulations and shall establish all of the following, 42482
without limitation:42483

       (1) Requirements governing both of the following:42484

       (a) The licensing and inspection of handlers of radioactive 42485
material. Standards established in rules adopted under division 42486
(A)(1)(a) of this section regarding byproduct material or any 42487
activity that results in the production of that material, to the 42488
extent practicable, shall be equivalent to or more stringent than 42489
applicable standards established by the United States nuclear 42490
regulatory commission.42491

       (b) The registration and inspection of handlers of 42492
radiation-generating equipment. Standards established in rules 42493
adopted under division (A)(1)(b) of this section, to the extent 42494
practicable, shall be equivalent to applicable standards 42495
established by the food and drug administration in the United 42496
States department of health and human services.42497

       (2) Identification of and requirements governing possession 42498
and use of specifically licensed and generally licensed quantities 42499
of radioactive material as either sealed sources or unsealed 42500
sources;42501

       (3) A procedure for the issuance of and the frequency of 42502
renewal of the licenses of handlers of radioactive material, other 42503
than a license for a facility for the disposal of low-level 42504
radioactive waste, and of the certificates of registration of 42505
handlers of radiation-generating equipment;42506

       (4) Procedures for suspending and revoking the licenses of 42507
handlers of radioactive material and the certificates of 42508
registration of handlers of radiation-generating equipment;42509

       (5) Criteria to be used by the director of health in amending 42510
the license of a handler of radioactive material or the 42511
certificate of registration of a handler of radiation-generating 42512
equipment subsequent to its issuance;42513

       (6) Criteria for achieving and maintaining compliance with 42514
this chapter and rules adopted under it by licensees and 42515
registrants;42516

       (7) Criteria governing environmental monitoring of licensed 42517
and registered activities to assess compliance with this chapter 42518
and rules adopted under it;42519

       (8) Fees for both of the following:42520

       (a) The licensing of handlers, other than facilities for the 42521
disposal of low-level radioactive waste, of radioactive material;42522

       (b) The registration of handlers, other than facilities that 42523
are, or are operated by, medical practitioners or 42524
medical-practitioner groups, of radiation-generating equipment.42525

       (9) A fee schedule for both of the following that includes 42526
fees for reviews, conducted during an inspection, of shielding 42527
plans or the adequacy of shielding: 42528

       (a) The inspection of handlers of radioactive material; 42529

       (b) The inspection of handlers, other than facilities that 42530
are, or are operated by, medical practitioners or 42531
medical-practitioner groups, of radiation-generating equipment.42532

       (B)(1) Identifying sources of radiation, circumstances of 42533
possession, use, or disposal of sources of radiation, and levels 42534
of radiation that constitute an unreasonable or unnecessary risk 42535
to human health or the environment;42536

       (2) Establishing requirements for the achievement and 42537
maintenance of compliance with standards for the receipt, 42538
possession, use, storage, installation, transfer, servicing, and 42539
disposal of sources of radiation to prevent levels of radiation 42540
that constitute an unreasonable or unnecessary risk to human 42541
health or the environment;42542

       (3) Requiring the maintenance of records on the receipt, use, 42543
storage, transfer, and disposal of radioactive material and on the 42544
radiological safety aspects of the use and maintenance of 42545
radiation-generating equipment.42546

       In adopting rules under divisions (A) and (B) of this 42547
section, the councildirector shall use standards no less 42548
stringent than the "suggested state regulations for control of 42549
radiation" prepared by the conference of radiation control program 42550
directors, inc., and regulations adopted by the United States 42551
nuclear regulatory commission, the United States environmental 42552
protection agency, and the United States department of health and 42553
human services and shall consider reports of the national council 42554
on radiation protection and measurement and the relevant standards 42555
of the American national standards institute.42556

       (C) Establishing fees, procedures, and requirements for 42557
certification as a radiation expert, including all of the 42558
following, without limitation:42559

       (1) Minimum training and experience requirements;42560

       (2) Procedures for applying for certification;42561

       (3) Procedures for review of applications and issuance of 42562
certificates;42563

       (4) Procedures for suspending and revoking certification.42564

       (D) Establishing a schedule for inspection of sources of 42565
radiation and their shielding and surroundings;42566

       (E) Establishing the responsibilities of a radiation expert;42567

       (F) Establishing criteria for quality assurance programs for 42568
licensees of radioactive material and registrants of 42569
radiation-generating equipment;42570

       (G) Establishing fees to be paid by any facility that, on 42571
September 8, 1995, holds a license from the United States nuclear 42572
regulatory commission in order to provide moneys necessary for the 42573
transfer of licensing and other regulatory authority from the 42574
commission to the state pursuant to section 3748.03 of the Revised 42575
Code. Rules adopted under this division shall stipulate that fees 42576
so established do not apply to any functions dealing specifically 42577
with a facility for the disposal of low-level radioactive waste. 42578
Fees collected under this division shall be deposited into the 42579
state treasury to the credit of the general operations fund 42580
created in section 3701.83 of the Revised Code. The fees shall be 42581
used solely to administer and enforce this chapter and rules 42582
adopted under it.42583

       (H) Establishing fees to be collected annually from 42584
generators of low-level radioactive waste, which shall be based 42585
upon the volume and radioactivity of the waste generated and the 42586
costs of administering low-level radioactive waste management 42587
activities under this chapter and rules adopted under it. All fees 42588
collected under this division shall be deposited into the state 42589
treasury to the credit of the general operations fund created in 42590
section 3701.83 of the Revised Code. The fees shall be used solely 42591
to administer and enforce this chapter and rules adopted under it. 42592
Any fee required under this division that has not been paid within 42593
ninety daysremains unpaid on the ninety-first day after the 42594
original invoice date shall be assessed at two timesan additional 42595
amount equal to ten per cent of the original invoiced fee. Any fee 42596
that has not been paid within one hundred eighty days after the 42597
invoice date shall be assessed at five times the original invoiced 42598
fee.42599

       (I) Establishing requirements governing closure, 42600
decontamination, decommissioning, reclamation, and long-term 42601
surveillance and care of a facility licensed under this chapter 42602
and rules adopted under it. Rules adopted under division (I) of 42603
this section shall include, without limitation, all of the 42604
following:42605

       (1) Standards and procedures to ensure that a licensee 42606
prepares a decommissioning funding plan that provides an adequate 42607
financial guaranty to permit the completion of all requirements 42608
governing the closure, decontamination, decommissioning, and 42609
reclamation of sites, structures, and equipment used in 42610
conjunction with a licensed activity;42611

       (2) For licensed activities where radioactive material that 42612
will require surveillance or care is likely to remain at the site 42613
after the licensed activities cease, as indicated in the 42614
application for the license submitted under section 3748.07 of the 42615
Revised Code, standards and procedures to ensure that the licensee 42616
prepares an additional decommissioning funding plan for long-term 42617
surveillance and care, before termination of the license, that 42618
provides an additional adequate financial guaranty as necessary to 42619
provide for that surveillance and care;42620

       (3) For the purposes of the decommissioning funding plans 42621
required in rules adopted under divisions (I)(1) and (2) of this 42622
section, the types of acceptable financial guaranties, which shall 42623
include bonds issued by fidelity or surety companies authorized to 42624
do business in the state, certificates of deposit, deposits of 42625
government securities, irrevocable letters or lines of credit, 42626
trust funds, escrow accounts, or other similar types of 42627
arrangements, but shall not include any arrangement that 42628
constitutes self-insurance;42629

       (4) A requirement that the decommissioning funding plans 42630
required in rules adopted under divisions (I)(1) and (2) of this 42631
section contain financial guaranties in amounts sufficient to 42632
ensure compliance with any standards established by the United 42633
States nuclear regulatory commission, or by the state if it has 42634
become an agreement state pursuant to section 3748.03 of the 42635
Revised Code, pertaining to closure, decontamination, 42636
decommissioning, reclamation, and long-term surveillance and care 42637
of licensed activities and sites of licensees.42638

       Standards established in rules adopted under division (I) of 42639
this section regarding any activity that resulted in the 42640
production of byproduct material, as defined in division (A)(2) of 42641
section 3748.01 of the Revised Code, to the extent practicable, 42642
shall be equivalent to or more stringent than standards 42643
established by the United States nuclear regulatory commission for 42644
sites at which ores were processed primarily for their source 42645
material content and at which byproduct material, as defined in 42646
division (A)(2) of section 3748.01 of the Revised Code, is 42647
deposited.42648

       (J) Establishing criteria governing inspections of a facility 42649
for the disposal of low-level radioactive waste, including, 42650
without limitation, the establishment of a resident inspector 42651
program at such a facility;42652

       (K) Establishing requirements and procedures governing the 42653
filing of complaints under section 3748.16 of the Revised Code, 42654
including, without limitation, those governing intervention in a 42655
hearing held under division (B)(3) of that section.42656

       Sec. 3748.05.  (A) The director of health shall do all of the 42657
following:42658

       (1) Administer and enforce this chapter and the rules adopted 42659
under it;42660

       (2) Collect and make available information relating to 42661
sources of radiation;42662

       (3) Ensure the review of plans and specifications, submitted 42663
in accordance with rules adopted by the public health council42664
director, for the control of radiation that constitutes an 42665
unreasonable or unnecessary risk to human health or the 42666
environment;42667

       (4) Review reports of quality assurance audits performed by 42668
certified radiation experts under this chapter and the rules 42669
adopted under it;42670

       (5) Ensure that programs for the control of sources of 42671
radiation are developed with due regard for compatibility with 42672
federal programs for the regulation of byproduct, source, and 42673
special nuclear materials;42674

       (6) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, 42675
adopt, and subsequently may amend and rescind, rules providing for 42676
the administrative assessment and collection of monetary penalties 42677
for failure by any facility licensed under this chapter and rules 42678
adopted under it to comply with this chapter and those rules. The 42679
director may require the submission of compliance schedules and 42680
other related information. Any orders issued or payments or other 42681
requirements imposed pursuant to rules adopted under division 42682
(A)(6) of this section shall not affect any civil or criminal 42683
enforcement proceeding brought under this chapter or any other 42684
provision of state or local law. Moneys collected as 42685
administrative penalties imposed pursuant to rules adopted under 42686
division (A)(6) of this section shall be deposited in the state 42687
treasury to the credit of the general operations fund created in 42688
section 3701.83 of the Revised Code. The moneys shall be used 42689
solely to administer and enforce this chapter and the rules 42690
adopted under it.42691

       (7) Maintain files of both of the following:42692

       (a) All license and registration applications, issuances, 42693
denials, amendments, renewals, suspensions, and revocations and 42694
any administrative or judicial action pertaining to them;42695

       (b) All rules adopted under this chapter, or proposed to be 42696
adopted, relating to the regulation of sources of radiation and 42697
proceedings on them.42698

       (B) The director may do any or all of the following:42699

       (1) Advise, consult, and cooperate with other agencies of the 42700
state, the federal government, other states, interstate agencies, 42701
political subdivisions, industries, and other affected groups in 42702
furtherance of the purposes of this chapter and the rules adopted 42703
under it;42704

       (2) Accept and administer grants from the federal government 42705
and from other sources, public or private, for carrying out any of 42706
the director's functions under this chapter and the rules adopted 42707
under it;42708

       (3) Encourage, participate in, or conduct studies, 42709
investigations, training, research, and demonstrations relating to 42710
the detection and control of radiation that constitutes an 42711
unreasonable or unnecessary risk to human health or the 42712
environment, the measurement of radiation, the evaluation of 42713
potential effects on health of cumulative or acute exposure to 42714
radiation, the development and improvement of methods to limit and 42715
reduce the generation of radioactive waste, and related problems 42716
as the director considers necessary or advisable;42717

       (4) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, 42718
adopt rules establishing criteria under which other agencies of 42719
the state or private entities may perform inspections of x-ray 42720
equipment at registered dental facilities at the request of the 42721
facility or pursuant to contract with the department;42722

       (5) Exercise all incidental powers necessary to carry out the 42723
purposes of this chapter and the rules adopted under it, 42724
including, without limitation, the issuance of orders.42725

       Sec. 3748.07.  (A) Every facility that proposes to handle 42726
radioactive material or radiation-generating equipment for which 42727
licensure or registration, respectively, by its handler is 42728
required shall apply in writing to the director of health on forms 42729
prescribed and provided by the director for licensure or 42730
registration. Terms and conditions of licenses and certificates of 42731
registration may be amended in accordance with rules adopted under 42732
section 3748.04 of the Revised Code or orders issued by the 42733
director pursuant to section 3748.05 of the Revised Code.42734

       (B)(1) An applicant proposing to handle radioactive material 42735
shall pay for a license or renewal of a license the appropriate 42736
fee specified in rules adopted under section 3748.04 of the 42737
Revised Code and listed on an invoice provided by the director. 42738
The applicant shall pay the fee on receipt of the invoice.42739

       (2)(a) Except as provided in division (B)(2)(b) of this 42740
section, until fees are established in rules adopted under 42741
division (A)(8)(b) of section 3748.04 of the Revised Code, an 42742
applicant proposing to handle radiation-generating equipment shall 42743
pay for a certificate of registration or renewal of a certificate 42744
a biennial registration fee of two hundred sixty-two dollars.42745

       Except as provided in division (B)(2)(b) of this section, on 42746
and after the effective date of the rules in which fees are 42747
established under division (A)(8)(b) of section 3748.04 of the 42748
Revised Code, an applicant proposing to handle 42749
radiation-generating equipment shall pay for a certificate of 42750
registration or renewal of a certificate the appropriate fee 42751
established in those rules.42752

       The applicant shall pay the fees described in division 42753
(B)(2)(a) of this section at the time of applying for a 42754
certificate of registration or renewal of a certificate.42755

       (b) An applicant that is, or is operated by, a medical 42756
practitioner or medical-practitioner group and proposes to handle 42757
radiation-generating equipment shall pay for a certificate of 42758
registration or renewal of a certificate a biennial registration 42759
fee of two hundred sixty-two dollars. The applicant shall pay the 42760
fee at the time of applying for a certificate of registration or 42761
renewal of the certificate.42762

       (C) All fees collected under this section shall be deposited 42763
in the state treasury to the credit of the general operations fund 42764
created in section 3701.83 of the Revised Code. The fees shall be 42765
used solely to administer and enforce this chapter and rules 42766
adopted under it.42767

       (D) Any fee required under this section that has not been 42768
paid within ninety daysremains unpaid on the ninety-first day42769
after the original invoice date shall be assessed at two timesan 42770
additional amount equal to ten per cent of the original invoiced42771
fee. Any fee that has not been paid within one hundred eighty days 42772
after the invoice date shall be assessed at five times the 42773
original invoiced fee.42774

       (E) The director shall grant a license or registration to any 42775
applicant who has paid the required fee and is in compliance with 42776
this chapter and rules adopted under it.42777

        (F) Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this section, 42778
licenses and certificates of registration shall be effective for 42779
the applicable period established in rules adopted under section 42780
3748.04 of the Revised Code. Licenses and certificates of 42781
registration shall be renewed in accordance with the renewal 42782
procedure established in rules adopted under section 3748.04 of 42783
the Revised Code.42784

       Sec. 3748.10.  (A) As used in this section, "person" means 42785
any legal entity defined as a person under section 1.59 of the 42786
Revised Code, the state or any agency of the state, any political 42787
subdivision or agency of a political subdivision, and the United 42788
States or any agency or instrumentality of the United States other 42789
than the United States department of energy or the United States 42790
nuclear regulatory commission where state regulation of the 42791
treatment, recycling, storage, or disposal of low-level 42792
radioactive waste by either of those agencies is prohibited by 42793
federal law.42794

       (B) No person shall treat, recycle, store, or dispose of any 42795
low-level radioactive waste except at a facility that is licensed 42796
for treatment, recycling, storage, or disposal of that waste by 42797
the director of health under this chapter and rules adopted under 42798
it or, until the state becomes an agreement state pursuant to 42799
section 3748.03 of the Revised Code, by the United States nuclear 42800
regulatory commission under the "Atomic Energy Act of 1954," 68 42801
Stat. 919, 42 U.S.C.A. 2011, as amended, and regulations adopted 42802
under it regardless of whether the waste has been reclassified as 42803
"below regulatory concern" by the United States nuclear regulatory 42804
commission pursuant to any rule or standard adopted after January 42805
1, 1990.42806

       (C) Division (B) of this section does not apply to either of 42807
the following:42808

       (1) Any low-level radioactive waste that on or before January 42809
1, 1990, was authorized under the "Atomic Energy Act of 1954," 68 42810
Stat. 919, 42 U.S.C.A. 2011, as amended, and regulations adopted 42811
under it to be treated, recycled, stored, or disposed of at a 42812
facility that has not been licensed under that act and regulations 42813
adopted under it;42814

       (2) Any low-level radioactive waste that has received an 42815
exemption from the director of health under division (C)(2) of 42816
this section. If the United States nuclear regulatory commission 42817
declares its intent to institute a policy regarding the 42818
reclassification of waste as "below regulatory concern," the 42819
public health councildirector, in consultation with the 42820
environmental protection agency, shall adopt rules in accordance 42821
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that govern the granting of 42822
such exemptions and that do at least all of the following:42823

       (a) Establish an application procedure to be followed by the 42824
generator of a low-level radioactive waste who wishes to obtain an 42825
exemption for that waste under division (C)(2) of this section;42826

       (b) Require that in order to receive an exemption, a 42827
low-level radioactive waste shall have been reclassified as "below 42828
regulatory concern" by the United States nuclear regulatory 42829
commission after August 19, 1992. The rules adopted under division 42830
(C)(2)(b) of this section shall stipulate that such a 42831
reclassification does not automatically qualify a low-level 42832
radioactive waste for an exemption under division (C)(2) of this 42833
section.42834

       (c) Require an applicant to demonstrate with clear and 42835
convincing evidence that the low-level radioactive waste that is 42836
the subject of the application does not present a higher 42837
radioactive hazard than any low-level radioactive waste to which 42838
division (C)(1) of this section applies and that treatment, 42839
recycling, storage, or disposal of the waste at a facility that 42840
has not been licensed by the director under this chapter and rules 42841
adopted under it or, until the state becomes an agreement state 42842
pursuant to section 3748.03 of the Revised Code, by the United 42843
States nuclear regulatory commission under the "Atomic Energy Act 42844
of 1954," 68 Stat. 919, 42 U.S.C.A. 2011, as amended, and 42845
regulations adopted under it, will not harm public health or 42846
safety or the environment;42847

       (d) Establish public notification procedures to be followed 42848
by the director for any public hearing held by him under division 42849
(C)(2) of this section.42850

       The director shall review an application submitted to him42851
under division (C)(2) of this section and shall hold a public 42852
hearing concerning the application before granting or denying the 42853
exemption requested. The director may grant an exemption to the 42854
low-level radioactive waste that is the subject of the application 42855
if he determinesafter determining that the generator has complied 42856
with the rules adopted under division (C)(2)(a) of this section 42857
and that the waste satisfies the requirements established in the 42858
rules adopted under divisions (C)(2)(b) and (c) of this section. 42859
The director shall maintain a list of all low-level radioactive 42860
wastes to which hethe director has granted such an exemption.42861

       Division (C)(2) of this section does not apply to any 42862
low-level radioactive waste generated at a nuclear power station.42863

       Sec. 3748.12.  The director of health shall certify radiation 42864
experts pursuant to rules adopted under division (C) of section 42865
3748.04 of the Revised Code. The director shall issue a 42866
certificate to each person certified under this section. An 42867
individual certified by the director is qualified to develop, 42868
provide periodic review of, and conduct audits of the quality 42869
assurance program for sources of radiation for which such a 42870
program is required under division (A) of section 3748.13 of the 42871
Revised Code.42872

       The public health councildirector shall establish an 42873
application fee for applying for certification and a biennial 42874
certification renewal fee in rules adopted under division (C) of 42875
section 3748.04 of the Revised Code. A certificate issued under 42876
this section shall expire two years after the date of its 42877
issuance. To maintain certification, a radiation expert shall 42878
apply to the director for renewal of certification in accordance 42879
with the standard renewal procedures established in Chapter 4745. 42880
of the Revised Code. The certification renewal fee is not required 42881
for initial certification, but shall be paid for every renewal of 42882
certification. Fees collected under this section shall be 42883
deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the general 42884
operations fund created in section 3701.83 of the Revised Code. 42885
The fees shall be used solely to administer and enforce this 42886
chapter and rules adopted under it. Any fee required under this 42887
section that has not been paid within ninety daysremains unpaid 42888
on the ninety-first day after the original invoice date shall be 42889
assessed at two timesan additional amount equal to ten per cent 42890
of the original invoiced fee. Any fee that has not been paid 42891
within one hundred eighty days after the invoice date shall be 42892
assessed at five times the original invoiced fee.42893

       Sec. 3748.13.  (A) The director of health shall inspect 42894
sources of radiation for which licensure or registration by the 42895
handler is required, and the sources' shielding and surroundings, 42896
according to the schedule established in rules adopted under 42897
division (D) of section 3748.04 of the Revised Code. In accordance 42898
with rules adopted under section 3748.04 of the Revised Code, the 42899
director shall inspect all records and operating procedures of 42900
handlers that install or service sources of radiation and all 42901
sources of radiation for which licensure of radioactive material 42902
or registration of radiation-generating equipment by the handler 42903
is required. The director may make other inspections upon 42904
receiving complaints or other evidence of a violation of this 42905
chapter or rules adopted under it.42906

       The director shall require any hospital registered under 42907
division (A) of section 3701.07 of the Revised Code to develop and 42908
maintain a quality assurance program for all sources of 42909
radiation-generating equipment. A certified radiation expert shall 42910
conduct oversight and maintenance of the program and shall file a 42911
report of audits of the program with the director on forms 42912
prescribed by the director. The audit reports shall become part of 42913
the inspection record.42914

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this section, 42915
a facility shall pay inspection fees for radioactive material and 42916
radiation-generating equipment according to the schedule and 42917
categories established in rules adopted under division (A)(9) of 42918
section 3748.04 of the Revised Code.42919

       (2) A facility that is, or is operated by, a medical 42920
practitioner or medical-practitioner group shall pay inspection 42921
fees for radiation-generating equipment according to the following 42922
schedule and categories:42923

First dental x-ray tube $ 155.00 42924
Each additional dental x-ray tube at the same location $ 77.00 42925
First medical x-ray tube $ 307.00 42926
Each additional medical x-ray tube at the same location $ 163.00 42927
Each unit of ionizing radiation-generating equipment capable of operating at or above 250 kilovoltage peak $ 610.00 42928
First nonionizing radiation-generating equipment of any kind $ 307.00 42929
Each additional nonionizing radiation-generating equipment of any kind at the same location $ 163.00 42930

        (C)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) of this section, 42931
the fee for the inspection of a facility that proposes to handle 42932
radioactive material or radiation-generating equipment and is not 42933
licensed or registered, and for which no license or registration 42934
application is pending at the time of inspection, is four hundred 42935
seventy-four dollars plus the applicable fee specified in rules 42936
adopted under division (A)(9) of section 3748.04 of the Revised 42937
Code.42938

       (2) For a facility that is, or is operated by, a medical 42939
practitioner or medical-practitioner group and proposes to handle 42940
radiation-generating equipment, the fee for an inspection if the 42941
facility is not licensed or registered, and no license or 42942
registration is pending at the time of inspection, is four hundred 42943
seventy-four dollars plus the fee applicable under the schedule in 42944
division (B)(2) of this section.42945

       (D)(1) Except as provided in division (D)(2) of this section, 42946
for a facility that handles radioactive material or 42947
radiation-generating equipment, the fee for an inspection to 42948
determine whether violations cited in a previous inspection have 42949
been corrected is the amount specified in rules adopted under 42950
division (A)(9) of section 3748.04 of the Revised Code.42951

       (2) For a facility that is, or is operated by, a medical 42952
practitioner or medical-practitioner group and handles 42953
radiation-generating equipment, the fee for an inspection to 42954
determine whether violations cited in a previous inspection have 42955
been corrected is fifty per cent of the applicable fee under the 42956
schedule in division (B)(2) of this section.42957

       (E) The director may conduct a review of shielding plans or 42958
the adequacy of shielding on the request of a licensee or 42959
registrant or an applicant for licensure or registration or during 42960
an inspection when the director considers a review to be 42961
necessary.42962

       (1) Except as provided in division (E)(2) of this section, 42963
the fee for the review is the applicable amount specified in rules 42964
adopted under division (A)(9) of section 3748.04 of the Revised 42965
Code.42966

       (2) For a facility that is, or is operated by, a medical 42967
practitioner or medical-practitioner group and handles or proposes 42968
to handle radiation-generating equipment, the fee for the review 42969
is seven hundred sixty-two dollars for each room where a source of 42970
radiation is used and is in addition to any other fee applicable 42971
under the schedule in division (B)(2) of this section.42972

       (F) All fees shall be paid to the department of health no 42973
later than thirty days after the invoice for the fee is mailed. 42974
Fees shall be deposited in the general operations fund created in 42975
section 3701.83 of the Revised Code. The fees shall be used solely 42976
to administer and enforce this chapter and rules adopted under it.42977

       (G) Any fee required under this section that has not been 42978
paid within ninety daysremains unpaid on the ninety-first day42979
after the original invoice date shall be assessed at two timesan 42980
additional amount equal to ten per cent of the original invoiced42981
fee. Any fee that has not been paid within one hundred eighty days 42982
after the invoice date shall be assessed at five times the 42983
original invoiced fee.42984

       (H) If the director determines that a board of health of a 42985
city or general health district is qualified to conduct 42986
inspections of radiation-generating equipment, the director may 42987
delegate to the board, by contract, the authority to conduct such 42988
inspections. In making a determination of the qualifications of a 42989
board of health to conduct those inspections, the director shall 42990
evaluate the credentials of the individuals who are to conduct the 42991
inspections of radiation-generating equipment and the radiation 42992
detection and measuring equipment available to them for that 42993
purpose. If a contract is entered into, the board shall have the 42994
same authority to make inspections of radiation-generating 42995
equipment as the director has under this chapter and rules adopted 42996
under it. The contract shall stipulate that only individuals 42997
approved by the director as qualified shall be permitted to 42998
inspect radiation-generating equipment under the contract's 42999
provisions. The contract shall provide for such compensation for 43000
services as is agreed to by the director and the board of health 43001
of the contracting health district. The director may reevaluate 43002
the credentials of the inspection personnel and their radiation 43003
detecting and measuring equipment as often as the director 43004
considers necessary and may terminate any contract with the board 43005
of health of any health district that, in the director's opinion, 43006
is not satisfactorily performing the terms of the contract.43007

       (I) The director may enter at all reasonable times upon any 43008
public or private property to determine compliance with this 43009
chapter and rules adopted under it.43010

       Sec. 3748.15.  No facility shall violate or fail to comply 43011
with any duty imposed by this chapter, fail to pay any 43012
administrative penalty assessed in accordance with rules adopted 43013
under division (A)(6) of section 3748.05 of the Revised Code, or 43014
violate or fail to comply with any valid order ofissued or rule 43015
adopted by the director of health issued or rule of the public 43016
health council adopted under this chapter. Each day a violation 43017
continues is a separate offense.43018

       Sec. 3748.20.  (A) The governor, with the advice and consent 43019
of the senate, shall appoint a radiation advisory council, which 43020
shall consist of the following members:43021

       (1) One individual who has recognized ability and credentials 43022
in the field of medical radiation physics;43023

       (2) One individual who has recognized ability and credentials 43024
in the field of health physics;43025

       (3) One individual holding the degree of doctor of medicine 43026
or doctor of osteopathy and licensed to practice medicine or 43027
surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery, as applicable, under 43028
Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code who has recognized ability and 43029
credentials in the practice of radiology;43030

       (4) One individual who is licensed to practice dentistry 43031
under Chapter 4715. of the Revised Code;43032

       (5) One individual holding the degree of doctor of medicine 43033
and licensed to practice medicine or surgery under Chapter 4731. 43034
of the Revised Code who has recognized ability and credentials in 43035
the field of nuclear medicine;43036

       (6) One individual who has recognized ability and credentials 43037
in the field of public health or environmental science;43038

       (7) One individual licensed as a podiatrist under Chapter 43039
4731. of the Revised Code;43040

       (8) One individual licensed as a chiropractor under Chapter 43041
4734. of the Revised Code;43042

       (9) One individual who is a qualified radiation safety 43043
officer or radiation protection manager from a facility in this 43044
state that is licensed for the use of radiation materials;43045

       (10) One individual who has recognized ability and 43046
credentials in the field of radon measurement, mitigation, or 43047
health risk management;43048

       (11) One individual who is a member of a statewide consumer 43049
or environmental advocacy organization;43050

       (12) One individual representing the public;43051

       (13) One individual who has recognized ability and experience 43052
in the administration and enforcement of federal radiation 43053
protection regulations, who shall be a nonvoting member.43054

       The governor shall make the initial appointments to the 43055
council not later than December 7, 1995. Of the initial 43056
appointments, four shall be for a term of office of three years, 43057
four shall be for a term of office of four years, and four shall 43058
be for a term of office of five years. Thereafter, terms of office 43059
for the members of the council shall be five years with each term 43060
ending on the same day of the same month as did the term that it 43061
succeeds. Each member shall hold office from the date of the 43062
member's appointment until the end of the term for which the 43063
member was appointed. Members may be reappointed. Vacancies shall 43064
be filled in the manner provided for original appointment. Any 43065
member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the 43066
expiration of the term for which the member's predecessor was 43067
appointed shall hold office for the remainder of that term. A 43068
member shall continue in office subsequent to the expiration of 43069
the member's term or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, 43070
whichever occurs first.43071

       The council shall hold four regular quarterly meetings each 43072
year. Special meetings may be held at the request of the 43073
chairperson of the council or the director of health. The 43074
chairperson shall be selected annually by members of the council 43075
during the first meeting of the calendar year. Following each 43076
meeting, the chairperson shall submit a report to the director 43077
summarizing the activities, discussion, and recommendations of the 43078
council. Seven voting members of the council constitute a quorum.43079

       Members of the radiation advisory council shall receive a per 43080
diem compensation in an amount approved by the director and also 43081
shall be reimbursed for actual expenses incurred in the 43082
performance of their official duties.43083

       The department of health shall provide the council the 43084
administrative support necessary to execute its duties.43085

       (B) The radiation advisory council shall do all of the 43086
following:43087

       (1) Advise and consult with the public health council43088
director in the development of rules proposed for adoptionto be 43089
adopted under section 3748.04 of the Revised Code;43090

       (2) Advise and consult with the director concerning the 43091
administration, implementation, and enforcement of this chapter, 43092
including the implementation of the specific responsibilities 43093
delineated in section 3748.05 of the Revised Code;43094

       (3) Advise and consult with the director in the development 43095
of inspection criteria, procedures, and guidelines to be used in 43096
the radiation control program established under this chapter and 43097
rules adopted under it;43098

       (4) Prepare and submit to the director an annual report 43099
evaluating the department's administration of the radiation 43100
control program.43101

       (C) The council shall establish committees to focus on 43102
specific components of the radiation control program established 43103
under this chapter and rules adopted under it. Chairpersons of the 43104
committees shall be appointed by the chairperson of the council 43105
and shall be members of the council. Other members of the 43106
committees shall be appointed by the chairperson of the council 43107
and may include individuals who are not members of the council.43108

       The membership and responsibilities of each committee 43109
established under this division shall be subject to the approval 43110
of the director. Members of the committees shall be reimbursed for 43111
actual expenses incurred in the performance of their official 43112
duties.43113

       Committee reports shall be presented to the council at each 43114
regular meeting of the council.43115

       Sec. 3749.02.  The publicdirector of health council shall, 43116
subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, adopt rules of 43117
general application throughout the state governing the issuance of 43118
licenses, approval of plans, layout, construction, sanitation, 43119
safety, and operation of public swimming pools, public spas, and 43120
special use pools. Such rules shall not be applied to the 43121
construction, erection, or manufacture of any building to which 43122
section 3781.06 of the Revised Code is applicable when the 43123
building or structure is either integral to or appurtenant to a 43124
public swimming pool, a public spa, or a special use pool.43125

       Sec. 3749.03.  (A) No person shall construct or install, or 43126
renovate or otherwise substantially alter, a public swimming pool, 43127
public spa, or special-usespecial use pool after September 10, 43128
1987, until the plans for the pool or spa have been submitted to 43129
and approved by the director of health. Within thirty days of 43130
receipt of the plans, the director shall approve or disapprove 43131
them. The plans and approval required under this division do not 43132
apply to repairs or ordinary maintenance that does not 43133
substantially affect the manner of water recirculation or basic 43134
design of the public swimming pool, public spa, or special-use43135
special use pool.43136

       Any person aggrieved by the director's disapproval of plans 43137
under this division may, within thirty days following receipt of 43138
the director's notice of disapproval, request a hearing on the 43139
matter. The hearing shall be held in accordance with Chapter 119. 43140
of the Revised Code and may be appealed in the manner provided in 43141
that chapter.43142

       (B) Prior to the issuance of a license to operate a newly 43143
constructed or altered public swimming pool, public spa, or43144
special-usespecial use pool, the director or a licensor 43145
authorized by the director shall verify that the construction or 43146
alterations are consistent with the plans submitted and approved 43147
under division (A) of this section. The director or licensor 43148
authorized by the director shall have two working days from the 43149
time notification is received that a public swimming pool, public 43150
spa, or special-usespecial use pool is ready for an inspection to 43151
verify the construction or alterations.43152

       (C) The(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) of this 43153
section, the fees for the approval of plans are as follows:43154

       (1)(a) Five per cent of the total cost of the equipment and 43155
installation not to exceed two hundred seventy-five dollars for a 43156
public swimming pool, public spa, or special-usespecial use pool, 43157
or a combination thereof, that has less than two thousand square 43158
feet of surface area;43159

       (2)(b) Five per cent of the total cost of the equipment and 43160
installation not to exceed five hundred fifty dollars for a public 43161
swimming pool, public spa, special-usespecial use pool, or a 43162
combination thereof, that has two thousand or more square feet of 43163
surface area.43164

       After December 31, 1992, the public health council(2) The 43165
director may, by rule adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of 43166
the Revised Code, increase the fees established by this section.43167

       (D) All plan approval fees shall be paid into the state 43168
treasury to the credit of the general operations fund created by 43169
section 3701.83 of the Revised Code. The fees shall be 43170
administered by the director and shall be used solely for the 43171
administration and enforcement of this chapter and the rules 43172
adopted thereunder.43173

       (E) Plan approvals issued under this section shall not 43174
constitute an exemption from the land use and building 43175
requirements of the political subdivision in which the public 43176
swimming pool, public spa, or special-usespecial use pool is or 43177
is to be located.43178

       Sec. 3749.04.  (A) No person shall operate or maintain a 43179
public swimming pool, public spa, or special-usespecial use pool 43180
without a license issued by the licensor having jurisdiction.43181

       (B) Every person who intends to operate or maintain an 43182
existing public swimming pool, public spa, or special-usespecial 43183
use pool shall, during the month of April of each year, apply to 43184
the licensor having jurisdiction for a license to operate the pool 43185
or spa. Any person proposing to operate or maintain a new or 43186
otherwise unlicensed public swimming pool, public spa, or43187
special-usespecial use pool shall apply to the licensor having 43188
jurisdiction at least thirty days prior to the intended start of 43189
operation of the pool or spa. Within thirty days of receipt of an 43190
application for licensure of a public swimming pool, public spa, 43191
or special-usespecial use pool, the licensor shall process the 43192
application and either issue a license or otherwise respond to the 43193
applicant regarding the application.43194

       (C) Each license issued shall be effective from the date of 43195
issuance until the last day of May of the following year.43196

       (D) Each licensor administering and enforcing sections 43197
3749.01 to 3749.09 of the Revised Code and the rules adopted 43198
thereunder may establish licensing and inspection fees in 43199
accordance with section 3709.09 of the Revised Code, which shall 43200
not exceed the cost of licensing and inspecting public swimming 43201
pools, public spas, and special-usespecial use pools.43202

       (E) Except as provided in division (F) of this section and in 43203
division (B) of section 3749.07 of the Revised Code, all license 43204
fees collected by a licensor shall be deposited into a swimming 43205
pool fund, which is hereby created in each health district. The 43206
fees shall be used by the licensor solely for the purpose of 43207
administering and enforcing this chapter and the rules adopted 43208
under this chapter.43209

       (F) An annual license fee established under division (D) of 43210
this section shall include any additional amount determined by 43211
rule of the publicdirector of health council, which the board of 43212
health shall collect and transmit to the director of health43213
pursuant to section 3709.092 of the Revised Code. The amounts 43214
collected under this division shall be administered by the 43215
director of health and shall be used solely for the administration 43216
and enforcement of this chapter and the rules adopted under this 43217
chapter.43218

       Sec. 3752.06.  (A) Unless the owner or operator of a 43219
reporting facility has submitted to the director of environmental 43220
protection in connection with the facility a notice of the 43221
temporary discontinuation of all regulated operations at the 43222
facility in compliance with division (A)(1) of section 3752.09 of 43223
the Revised Code, has submitted an application for a waiver in 43224
compliance with or been issued a waiver under division (A) of 43225
section 3752.10 of the Revised Code, or, pursuant to division (B) 43226
of this section, has been granted an extension of time for 43227
compliance with divisions (A)(4) to (6) of this section, and 43228
except as provided in division (C) of this section, the owner or 43229
operator, not later than ninety days after the cessation of all 43230
regulated operations at the facility, shall do all of the 43231
following:43232

       (1) Submit to the director a copy of the most recent 43233
emergency and hazardous chemical inventory form for the facility 43234
submitted to the emergency response commission in accordance with 43235
section 3750.08 of the Revised Code accompanied by a statement 43236
indicating whether any asbestos-containing materials are present 43237
at the facility;43238

       (2) Submit to the director a copy of the current hazardous 43239
chemical list, or of each of the material safety data sheets, that 43240
the owner or operator is required to have on file with the 43241
commission under section 3750.07 of the Revised Code in connection 43242
with the facility;43243

       (3) Submit to the director a list of every stationary tank, 43244
vat, electrical transformer, and vessel of any type that contains 43245
or is contaminated with regulated substances and that is to remain 43246
at the facility; a precise description of the location of each; 43247
and an identification of the regulated substances that are in or 43248
contaminate each;43249

       (4) Drain or remove all regulated substances from each 43250
stationary vat, tank, electrical transformer, and vessel, and from 43251
all piping, that is to remain at the facility and do any or a 43252
combination of the following:43253

       (a) Transfer the regulated substances to another facility 43254
owned or operated by the owner or operator. If any regulated 43255
substances are transferred to another facility of the owner or 43256
operator located within this state, they shall be transferred to a 43257
facility that is operating. If any regulated substances are 43258
transferred to another facility of the owner or operator located 43259
outside this state, they shall be transferred in compliance with 43260
the applicable laws governing the receiving facility of the state 43261
in which the receiving facility is located.43262

       (b) Lawfully transfer ownership of the regulated substances 43263
to another person through sale or otherwise;43264

       (c) Cause the regulated substances to be transported off the 43265
premises of the facility and managed in compliance with the 43266
applicable provisions of Chapter 3734. of the Revised Code and 43267
rules adopted under that chapter; the "Toxic Substances Control 43268
Act," 90 Stat. 2003 (1976), 15 U.S.C.A. 2601, as amended, and 43269
regulations adopted under it; or the "Resource Conservation and 43270
Recovery Act of 1976," 90 Stat. 2806, 42 U.S.C.A. 6921, as 43271
amended, and regulations adopted under it; or, if transported out 43272
of state, to be managed in compliance with the waste management 43273
laws of the state to which the regulated substances are 43274
transported.43275

       In the case of any regulated substance that also is a 43276
hazardous material identified or listed in regulations adopted 43277
under the "Hazardous Materials Transportation Act," 88 Stat. 2156 43278
(1975), 49 U.S.C.A. 1801, as amended, and that is to be 43279
transported off the premises of the facility, the owner or 43280
operator of the facility shall transport the regulated substance, 43281
or cause it to be transported, in compliance with the applicable 43282
rules adopted under division (A) of section 4919.85, division (E) 43283
of section 4921.04, division (C) of section 4923.03, or division 43284
(C) of section 4923.20Chapters 4905., 4921., and 4923. of the 43285
Revised Code.43286

       (5) Remove from the facility all debris, nonstationary 43287
equipment and furnishings, nonstationary containers, and motor 43288
vehicles and rolling stock that contain or are contaminated with a 43289
regulated substance and do any or a combination of the following:43290

       (a) Transfer the debris, equipment, furnishings, containers, 43291
and motor vehicles and rolling stock to another facility owned or 43292
operated by the owner or operator. If any such debris, equipment, 43293
furnishings, containers, or motor vehicles and rolling stock is 43294
transferred to another facility of the owner or operator located 43295
in this state, it shall be transferred to a facility that is 43296
operating. If any such debris, equipment, furnishings, containers, 43297
or motor vehicles and rolling stock is transferred to another 43298
facility of the owner or operator located outside this state, it 43299
only shall be transferred in compliance with the applicable laws 43300
governing the receiving facility of the state in which the 43301
receiving facility is located.43302

       (b) Lawfully transfer ownership of the debris, equipment, 43303
furnishings, containers, and motor vehicles and rolling stock to 43304
another person through sale or otherwise;43305

       (c) Cause the debris, equipment, furnishings, and containers 43306
to be transported off the premises of the facility and managed in 43307
compliance with the applicable provisions of Chapter 3734. of the 43308
Revised Code and rules adopted under that chapter; the "Toxic 43309
Substances Control Act," 90 Stat. 2003 (1976), 15 U.S.C.A. 2601, 43310
as amended, and regulations adopted under it; or the "Resource 43311
Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976," 90 Stat. 2806, 42 U.S.C.A. 43312
6921, as amended, and regulations adopted under it; or, if 43313
transported out of state, to be managed in compliance with the 43314
waste management laws of the state to which the debris, equipment, 43315
furnishings, and containers are transported.43316

       (6) Make a written certification to the director that the 43317
actions required by divisions (A)(4) and (5) of this section have 43318
been completed in compliance with those divisions and any 43319
applicable rules adopted under section 3752.03 of the Revised 43320
Code. The certification shall be made on a form prescribed by the 43321
director and, in addition to the information required in division 43322
(A) of this section, shall include, without limitation, the 43323
owner's or operator's name and the address of the owner's or 43324
operator's principal office.43325

       (B) Upon the written request of the owner or operator of a 43326
facility who is subject to division (A) of this section, the 43327
director, at histhe director's discretion, may extend the length 43328
of time required for compliance with divisions (A)(4) to (6) of 43329
this section for any period of time the director considers 43330
reasonable and necessary if the director finds from the request 43331
that either of the following applies:43332

       (1) The inability of the owner or operator to complete the 43333
required actions within the time prescribed in that division is 43334
due to circumstances that are temporary in nature and are beyond 43335
the control of the owner or operator;43336

       (2) The owner or operator, exercising reasonable diligence, 43337
is unable to complete the required actions within the time 43338
prescribed in that division due to facility size, operational 43339
complexity, or other such relevant factors.43340

       Upon making a decision on a request submitted under division 43341
(B) of this section, the director shall mail notice of histhe43342
decision to the owner or operator by certified mail, return 43343
receipt requested, and, if the request was approved, notice of the 43344
length of the extension.43345

       (C) An owner or operator of a reporting facility who is 43346
subject to this section is not required to perform the removal 43347
actions required by it or to make the certification required by 43348
division (A)(6) of this section with respect to hazardous waste 43349
stored, treated, or disposed of at the facility, or portion of the 43350
facility, for which the owner holds a valid hazardous waste 43351
facility installation and operation permit or renewal permit 43352
issued under section 3734.05 of the Revised Code or has obtained a 43353
generator identification number pursuant to rules adopted under 43354
section 3734.12 of the Revised Code. Instead, the owner shall 43355
comply with the applicable closure and post-closure care 43356
requirements established in rules adopted under section 3734.12 of 43357
the Revised Code.43358

       (D) No person shall fail to comply with any provision of 43359
division (A) of this section within the time required by that 43360
division and any extension of that time granted under division (B) 43361
of this section, as appropriate.43362

       Sec. 3770.06.  (A) There is hereby created the state lottery 43363
gross revenue fund, which shall be in the custody of the treasurer 43364
of state but shall not be part of the state treasury. All gross 43365
revenues received from sales of lottery tickets, fines, fees, and 43366
related proceeds in connection with the statewide lottery and all 43367
gross proceeds from statewide joint lottery games shall be 43368
deposited into the fund. The treasurer of state shall invest any 43369
portion of the fund not needed for immediate use in the same 43370
manner as, and subject to all provisions of law with respect to 43371
the investment of, state funds. The treasurer of state shall 43372
disburse money from the fund on order of the director of the state 43373
lottery commission or the director's designee.43374

       Except for gross proceeds from statewide joint lottery games, 43375
all revenues of the state lottery gross revenue fund that are not 43376
paid to holders of winning lottery tickets, that are not required 43377
to meet short-term prize liabilities, that are not credited to 43378
lottery sales agents in the form of bonuses, commissions, or 43379
reimbursements, that are not paid to financial institutions to 43380
reimburse those institutions for sales agent nonsufficient funds, 43381
and that are collected from sales agents for remittance to 43382
insurers under contract to provide sales agent bonding services 43383
shall be transferred to the state lottery fund, which is hereby 43384
created in the state treasury. In addition, all revenues of the 43385
state lottery gross revenue fund that represent the gross proceeds 43386
from the statewide joint lottery games and that are not paid to 43387
holders of winning lottery tickets, that are not required to meet 43388
short-term prize liabilities, that are not credited to lottery 43389
sales agents in the form of bonuses, commissions, or 43390
reimbursements, and that are not necessary to cover operating 43391
expenses associated with those games or to otherwise comply with 43392
the agreements signed by the governor that the director enters 43393
into under division (J) of section 3770.02 of the Revised Code or 43394
the rules the commission adopts under division (B)(5) of section 43395
3770.03 of the Revised Code shall be transferred to the state 43396
lottery fund. All investment earnings of the fund shall be 43397
credited to the fund. Moneys shall be disbursed from the fund 43398
pursuant to vouchers approved by the director. Total disbursements 43399
for monetary prize awards to holders of winning lottery tickets in 43400
connection with the statewide lottery and purchases of goods and 43401
services awarded as prizes to holders of winning lottery tickets 43402
shall be of an amount equal to at least fifty per cent of the 43403
total revenue accruing from the sale of lottery tickets.43404

       (B) Pursuant to Section 6 of Article XV, Ohio Constitution, 43405
there is hereby established in the state treasury the lottery 43406
profits education fund. Whenever, in the judgment of the director 43407
of budget and managementthe state lottery commission, the amount 43408
to the credit of the state lottery fund that does not represent 43409
proceeds from statewide joint lottery games is in excess of that 43410
needed to meet the maturing obligations of the commission and as 43411
working capital for its further operations, the director of the 43412
state lottery commission shall recommend the amount of the excess 43413
to be transferred to the lottery profits education fund, and the 43414
director of budget and management may transfer the excess to the 43415
lottery profits education fund in connection with the statewide 43416
lottery. In addition, whenever, in the judgment of the director of 43417
budget and managementthe state lottery commission, the amount to 43418
the credit of the state lottery fund that represents proceeds from 43419
statewide joint lottery games equals the entire net proceeds of 43420
those games as described in division (B)(5) of section 3770.03 of 43421
the Revised Code and the rules adopted under that division, the 43422
director of the state lottery commission shall recommend the 43423
amount of the proceeds to be transferred to the lottery profits 43424
education fund, and the director of budget and management may43425
transfer those proceeds to the lottery profits education fund. 43426
There shall also be credited to the fund any repayments of moneys 43427
loaned from the educational excellence investment fund. Investment 43428
earnings of the lottery profits education fund shall be credited 43429
to the fund.43430

       The lottery profits education fund shall be used solely for 43431
the support of elementary, secondary, vocational, and special 43432
education programs as determined in appropriations made by the 43433
general assembly, or as provided in applicable bond proceedings 43434
for the payment of debt service on obligations issued to pay costs 43435
of capital facilities, including those for a system of common 43436
schools throughout the state pursuant to section 2n of Article 43437
VIII, Ohio Constitution. When determining the availability of 43438
money in the lottery profits education fund, the director of 43439
budget and management may consider all balances and estimated 43440
revenues of the fund.43441

        (C) There is hereby established in the state treasury the 43442
deferred prizes trust fund. With the approval of the director of 43443
budget and management, an amount sufficient to fund annuity prizes 43444
shall be transferred from the state lottery fund and credited to 43445
the trust fund. The treasurer of state shall credit all earnings 43446
arising from investments purchased under this division to the 43447
trust fund. Within sixty days after the end of each fiscal year, 43448
the treasurer of state shall certify to the director of budget and 43449
management whether the actuarial amount of the trust fund is 43450
sufficient over the fund's life for continued funding of all 43451
remaining deferred prize liabilities as of the last day of the 43452
fiscal year just ended. Also, within that sixty days, the director 43453
of budget and management shall certify the amount of investment 43454
earnings necessary to have been credited to the trust fund during 43455
the fiscal year just ending to provide for such continued funding 43456
of deferred prizes. Any earnings credited in excess of the latter 43457
certified amount shall be transferred to the lottery profits 43458
education fund.43459

       To provide all or a part of the amounts necessary to fund 43460
deferred prizes awarded by the commission in connection with the 43461
statewide lottery, the treasurer of state, in consultation with 43462
the commission, may invest moneys contained in the deferred prizes 43463
trust fund which represents proceeds from the statewide lottery in 43464
obligations of the type permitted for the investment of state 43465
funds but whose maturities are thirty years or less. 43466
Notwithstanding the requirements of any other section of the 43467
Revised Code, to provide all or part of the amounts necessary to 43468
fund deferred prizes awarded by the commission in connection with 43469
statewide joint lottery games, the treasurer of state, in 43470
consultation with the commission, may invest moneys in the trust 43471
fund which represent proceeds derived from the statewide joint 43472
lottery games in accordance with the rules the commission adopts 43473
under division (B)(5) of section 3770.03 of the Revised Code. 43474
Investments of the trust fund are not subject to the provisions of 43475
division (A)(10) of section 135.143 of the Revised Code limiting 43476
to twenty-five per cent the amount of the state's total average 43477
portfolio that may be invested in debt interests and limiting to 43478
one-half of one per cent the amount that may be invested in debt 43479
interests of a single issuer.43480

       All purchases made under this division shall be effected on a 43481
delivery versus payment method and shall be in the custody of the 43482
treasurer of state.43483

       The treasurer of state may retain an investment advisor, if 43484
necessary. The commission shall pay any costs incurred by the 43485
treasurer of state in retaining an investment advisor.43486

       (D) The auditor of state shall conduct annual audits of all 43487
funds and any other audits as the auditor of state or the general 43488
assembly considers necessary. The auditor of state may examine all 43489
records, files, and other documents of the commission, and records 43490
of lottery sales agents that pertain to their activities as 43491
agents, for purposes of conducting authorized audits.43492

       The state lottery commission shall establish an internal 43493
audit program before the beginning of each fiscal year, subject to 43494
the approval of the auditor of state. At the end of each fiscal 43495
year, the commission shall prepare and submit an annual report to 43496
the auditor of state for the auditor of state's review and 43497
approval, specifying the internal audit work completed by the end 43498
of that fiscal year and reporting on compliance with the annual 43499
internal audit program. The form and content of the report shall 43500
be prescribed by the auditor of state under division (C) of 43501
section 117.20 of the Revised Code.43502

       (E) Whenever, in the judgment of the director of budget and 43503
management, an amount of net state lottery proceeds is necessary 43504
to be applied to the payment of debt service on obligations, all 43505
as defined in sections 151.01 and 151.03 of the Revised Code, the 43506
director shall transfer that amount directly from the state 43507
lottery fund or from the lottery profits education fund to the 43508
bond service fund defined in those sections. The provisions of 43509
this division are subject to any prior pledges or obligation of 43510
those amounts to the payment of bond service charges as defined in 43511
division (C) of section 3318.21 of the Revised Code, as referred 43512
to in division (B) of this section.43513

       Sec. 3781.03. (A) The state fire marshal, the fire chief of a 43514
municipal corporation that has a fire department, or the fire 43515
chief of a township that has a fire department shall enforce the 43516
provisions of this chapter and Chapter 3791. of the Revised Code 43517
that relate to fire prevention.43518

       (B) The superintendent of laborindustrial compliance, or the 43519
building inspector or commissioner of buildings in a municipal 43520
corporation, county, or township in which the building department 43521
is certified by the board of building standards under section 43522
3781.10 of the Revised Code shall enforce in the jurisdiction of 43523
each entity all the provisions in this chapter and Chapter 3791. 43524
of the Revised Code and any rules adopted pursuant to those 43525
chapters that relate to the construction, arrangement, and 43526
erection of all buildings or parts of buildings, as defined in 43527
section 3781.06 of the Revised Code, including the sanitary 43528
condition of those buildings in relation to heating and 43529
ventilation.43530

       (C) The division of laborindustrial compliance in the 43531
department of commerce, boards of health of health districts, 43532
certified departments of building inspection of municipal 43533
corporations, and county building departments that have authority 43534
to perform inspections pursuant to a contract under division 43535
(C)(1) of section 3703.01 of the Revised Code, subject to Chapter 43536
3703. of the Revised Code, shall enforce this chapter and Chapter 43537
3791. of the Revised Code and the rules adopted pursuant to those 43538
chapters that relate to plumbing. Building drains are considered 43539
plumbing for the purposes of enforcement of those chapters.43540

       (D)(1) In accordance with Chapter 3703. of the Revised Code, 43541
the department of the city engineer, in cities having such 43542
departments, the boards of health of health districts, or the 43543
sewer purveyor, as appropriate, shall have complete authority to 43544
supervise and regulate the entire sewerage and drainage system in 43545
the jurisdiction in which it is exercising the authority described 43546
in this division, including the building sewer and all laterals 43547
draining into the street sewers.43548

       (2) In accordance with Chapter 3703. of the Revised Code, the 43549
department of the city engineer, the boards of health of health 43550
districts, or the sewer purveyor, as appropriate, shall control 43551
and supervise the installation and construction of all drains and 43552
sewers that become a part of the sewerage system and shall issue 43553
all the necessary permits and licenses for the construction and 43554
installation of all building sewers and of all other lateral 43555
drains that empty into the main sewers. The department of the city 43556
engineer, the boards of health of health districts, and the sewer 43557
purveyor, as appropriate, shall keep a permanent record of the 43558
installation and location of every drain and sewer of the drainage 43559
and sewerage system of the jurisdiction in which it has exercised 43560
the authority described in this division.43561

       (E) This section does not exempt any officer or department 43562
from the obligation to enforce this chapter and Chapter 3791. of 43563
the Revised Code.43564

       Sec. 3781.06.  (A)(1) Any building that may be used as a 43565
place of resort, assembly, education, entertainment, lodging, 43566
dwelling, trade, manufacture, repair, storage, traffic, or 43567
occupancy by the public, any residential building, and all other 43568
buildings or parts and appurtenances of those buildings erected 43569
within this state, shall be so constructed, erected, equipped, and 43570
maintained that they shall be safe and sanitary for their intended 43571
use and occupancy.43572

       (2) Nothing in sections 3781.06 to 3781.18 and 3791.04 of the 43573
Revised Code shall be construed to limit the power of the public 43574
health councilmanufactured homes commission to adopt rules of 43575
uniform application governing manufactured home parks pursuant to 43576
section 3733.024781.26 of the Revised Code.43577

       (B) Sections 3781.06 to 3781.18 and 3791.04 of the Revised 43578
Code do not apply to either of the following:43579

       (1) Buildings or structures that are incident to the use for 43580
agricultural purposes of the land on which the buildings or 43581
structures are located, provided those buildings or structures are 43582
not used in the business of retail trade. For purposes of this 43583
division, a building or structure is not considered used in the 43584
business of retail trade if fifty per cent or more of the gross 43585
income received from sales of products in the building or 43586
structure by the owner or operator is from sales of products 43587
produced or raised in a normal crop year on farms owned or 43588
operated by the seller.43589

       (2) Existing single-family, two-family, and three-family 43590
detached dwelling houses for which applications have been 43591
submitted to the director of job and family services pursuant to 43592
section 5104.03 of the Revised Code for the purposes of operating 43593
type A family day-care homes as defined in section 5104.01 of the 43594
Revised Code.43595

       (C) As used in sections 3781.06 to 3781.18 and 3791.04 of the 43596
Revised Code:43597

       (1) "Agricultural purposes" include agriculture, farming, 43598
dairying, pasturage, apiculture, horticulture, floriculture, 43599
viticulture, ornamental horticulture, olericulture, pomiculture, 43600
and animal and poultry husbandry.43601

       (2) "Building" means any structure consisting of foundations, 43602
walls, columns, girders, beams, floors, and roof, or a combination 43603
of any number of these parts, with or without other parts or 43604
appurtenances.43605

       (3) "Industrialized unit" means a building unit or assembly 43606
of closed construction fabricated in an off-site facility, that is 43607
substantially self-sufficient as a unit or as part of a greater 43608
structure, and that requires transportation to the site of 43609
intended use. "Industrialized unit" includes units installed on 43610
the site as independent units, as part of a group of units, or 43611
incorporated with standard construction methods to form a 43612
completed structural entity. "Industrialized unit" does not 43613
include a manufactured home as defined by division (C)(4) of this 43614
section or a mobile home as defined by division (O) of section 43615
4501.01 of the Revised Code.43616

       (4) "Manufactured home" means a building unit or assembly of 43617
closed construction that is fabricated in an off-site facility and 43618
constructed in conformance with the federal construction and 43619
safety standards established by the secretary of housing and urban 43620
development pursuant to the "Manufactured Housing Construction and 43621
Safety Standards Act of 1974," 88 Stat. 700, 42 U.S.C.A. 5401, 43622
5403, and that has a permanent label or tag affixed to it, as 43623
specified in 42 U.S.C.A. 5415, certifying compliance with all 43624
applicable federal construction and safety standards.43625

       (5) "Permanent foundation" means permanent masonry, concrete, 43626
or a footing or foundation approved by the manufactured homes 43627
commission pursuant to Chapter 4781. of the Revised Code, to which 43628
a manufactured or mobile home may be affixed.43629

       (6) "Permanently sited manufactured home" means a 43630
manufactured home that meets all of the following criteria:43631

       (a) The structure is affixed to a permanent foundation and is 43632
connected to appropriate facilities;43633

       (b) The structure, excluding any addition, has a width of at 43634
least twenty-two feet at one point, a length of at least 43635
twenty-two feet at one point, and a total living area, excluding 43636
garages, porches, or attachments, of at least nine hundred square 43637
feet;43638

       (c) The structure has a minimum 3:12 residential roof pitch, 43639
conventional residential siding, and a six-inch minimum eave 43640
overhang, including appropriate guttering;43641

       (d) The structure was manufactured after January 1, 1995;43642

       (e) The structure is not located in a manufactured home park 43643
as defined by section 3733.014781.01 of the Revised Code.43644

       (7) "Safe," with respect to a building, means it is free from 43645
danger or hazard to the life, safety, health, or welfare of 43646
persons occupying or frequenting it, or of the public and from 43647
danger of settlement, movement, disintegration, or collapse, 43648
whether such danger arises from the methods or materials of its 43649
construction or from equipment installed therein, for the purpose 43650
of lighting, heating, the transmission or utilization of electric 43651
current, or from its location or otherwise.43652

       (8) "Sanitary," with respect to a building, means it is free 43653
from danger or hazard to the health of persons occupying or 43654
frequenting it or to that of the public, if such danger arises 43655
from the method or materials of its construction or from any 43656
equipment installed therein, for the purpose of lighting, heating, 43657
ventilating, or plumbing.43658

       (9) "Residential building" means a one-family, two-family, or 43659
three-family dwelling house, and any accessory structure 43660
incidental to that dwelling house. "Residential building" includes 43661
a one-family, two-family, or three-family dwelling house that is 43662
used as a model to promote the sale of a similar dwelling house. 43663
"Residential building" does not include an industrialized unit as 43664
defined by division (C)(3) of this section, a manufactured home as 43665
defined by division (C)(4) of this section, or a mobile home as 43666
defined by division (O) of section 4501.01 of the Revised Code.43667

        (10) "Nonresidential building" means any building that is not 43668
a residential building or a manufactured or mobile home.43669

       (11) "Accessory structure" means a structure that is attached 43670
to a residential building and serves the principal use of the 43671
residential building. "Accessory structure" includes, but is not 43672
limited to, a garage, porch, or screened-in patio.43673

       Sec. 3781.102.  (A) Any county or municipal building 43674
department certified pursuant to division (E) of section 3781.10 43675
of the Revised Code as of September 14, 1970, and that, as of that 43676
date, was inspecting single-family, two-family, and three-family 43677
residences, and any township building department certified 43678
pursuant to division (E) of section 3781.10 of the Revised Code, 43679
is hereby declared to be certified to inspect single-family, 43680
two-family, and three-family residences containing industrialized 43681
units, and shall inspect the buildings or classes of buildings 43682
subject to division (E) of section 3781.10 of the Revised Code.43683

       (B) Each board of county commissioners may adopt, by 43684
resolution, rules establishing standards and providing for the 43685
licensing of electrical and heating, ventilating, and air 43686
conditioning contractors who are not required to hold a valid and 43687
unexpired license pursuant to Chapter 4740. of the Revised Code.43688

       Rules adopted by a board of county commissioners pursuant to 43689
this division may be enforced within the unincorporated areas of 43690
the county and within any municipal corporation where the 43691
legislative authority of the municipal corporation has contracted 43692
with the board for the enforcement of the county rules within the 43693
municipal corporation pursuant to section 307.15 of the Revised 43694
Code. The rules shall not conflict with rules adopted by the board 43695
of building standards pursuant to section 3781.10 of the Revised 43696
Code or by the department of commerce pursuant to Chapter 3703. of 43697
the Revised Code. This division does not impair or restrict the 43698
power of municipal corporations under Section 3 of Article XVIII, 43699
Ohio Constitution, to adopt rules concerning the erection, 43700
construction, repair, alteration, and maintenance of buildings and 43701
structures or of establishing standards and providing for the 43702
licensing of specialty contractors pursuant to section 715.27 of 43703
the Revised Code.43704

       A board of county commissioners, pursuant to this division, 43705
may require all electrical contractors and heating, ventilating, 43706
and air conditioning contractors, other than those who hold a 43707
valid and unexpired license issued pursuant to Chapter 4740. of 43708
the Revised Code, to successfully complete an examination, test, 43709
or demonstration of technical skills, and may impose a fee and 43710
additional requirements for a license to engage in their 43711
respective occupations within the jurisdiction of the board's 43712
rules under this division.43713

       (C) No board of county commissioners shall require any 43714
specialty contractor who holds a valid and unexpired license 43715
issued pursuant to Chapter 4740. of the Revised Code to 43716
successfully complete an examination, test, or demonstration of 43717
technical skills in order to engage in the type of contracting for 43718
which the license is held, within the unincorporated areas of the 43719
county and within any municipal corporation whose legislative 43720
authority has contracted with the board for the enforcement of 43721
county regulations within the municipal corporation, pursuant to 43722
section 307.15 of the Revised Code.43723

       (D) A board may impose a fee for registration of a specialty 43724
contractor who holds a valid and unexpired license issued pursuant 43725
to Chapter 4740. of the Revised Code before that specialty 43726
contractor may engage in the type of contracting for which the 43727
license is held within the unincorporated areas of the county and 43728
within any municipal corporation whose legislative authority has 43729
contracted with the board for the enforcement of county 43730
regulations within the municipal corporation, pursuant to section 43731
307.15 of the Revised Code, provided that the fee is the same for 43732
all specialty contractors who wish to engage in that type of 43733
contracting. If a board imposes such a fee, the board immediately 43734
shall permit a specialty contractor who presents proof of holding 43735
a valid and unexpired license and pays the required fee to engage 43736
in the type of contracting for which the license is held within 43737
the unincorporated areas of the county and within any municipal 43738
corporation whose legislative authority has contracted with the 43739
board for the enforcement of county regulations within the 43740
municipal corporation, pursuant to section 307.15 of the Revised 43741
Code.43742

       (E) The political subdivision associated with each municipal, 43743
township, and county building department the board of building 43744
standards certifies pursuant to division (E) of section 3781.10 of 43745
the Revised Code may prescribe fees to be paid by persons, 43746
political subdivisions, or any department, agency, board, 43747
commission, or institution of the state, for the acceptance and 43748
approval of plans and specifications, and for the making of 43749
inspections, pursuant to sections 3781.03 and 3791.04 of the 43750
Revised Code.43751

       (F) Each political subdivision that prescribes fees pursuant 43752
to division (E) of this section shall collect, on behalf of the 43753
board of building standards, fees equal to the following:43754

       (1) Three per cent of the fees the political subdivision 43755
collects in connection with nonresidential buildings;43756

       (2) One per cent of the fees the political subdivision 43757
collects in connection with residential buildings.43758

        (G)(1) The board shall adopt rules, in accordance with 43759
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, specifying the manner in which 43760
the fee assessed pursuant to division (F) of this section shall be 43761
collected and remitted monthly to the board. The board shall pay 43762
the fees into the state treasury to the credit of the labor43763
industrial compliance operating fund created in section 121.084 of 43764
the Revised Code.43765

       (2) All money credited to the laborindustrial compliance43766
operating fund under this division shall be used exclusively for 43767
the following:43768

       (a) Operating costs of the board;43769

       (b) Providing services, including educational programs, for 43770
the building departments that are certified by the board pursuant 43771
to division (E) of section 3781.10 of the Revised Code;43772

       (c) Paying the expenses of the residential construction 43773
advisory committee, including the expenses of committee members as 43774
provided in section 4740.14 of the Revised Code.43775

       (H) A board of county commissioners that adopts rules 43776
providing for the licensing of electrical and heating, 43777
ventilating, and air conditioning contractors, pursuant to 43778
division (B) of this section, may accept, for purposes of 43779
satisfying the requirements of rules adopted under that division, 43780
a valid and unexpired license issued pursuant to Chapter 4740. of 43781
the Revised Code that is held by an electrical or heating, 43782
ventilating, and air conditioning contractor, for the 43783
construction, replacement, maintenance, or repair of one-family, 43784
two-family, or three-family dwelling houses or accessory 43785
structures incidental to those dwelling houses.43786

       (I) A board of county commissioners shall not register a 43787
specialty contractor who is required to hold a license under 43788
Chapter 4740. of the Revised Code but does not hold a valid 43789
license issued under that chapter.43790

       (J) As used in this section, "specialty contractor" means a 43791
heating, ventilating, and air conditioning contractor, 43792
refrigeration contractor, electrical contractor, plumbing 43793
contractor, or hydronics contractor, as those contractors are 43794
described in Chapter 4740. of the Revised Code.43795

       Sec. 3781.11.  (A) The rules of the board of building 43796
standards shall:43797

       (1) For nonresidential buildings, provide uniform minimum 43798
standards and requirements, and for residential buildings, provide 43799
standards and requirements that are uniform throughout the state, 43800
for construction and construction materials, including 43801
construction of industrialized units, to make residential and 43802
nonresidential buildings safe and sanitary as defined in section 43803
3781.06 of the Revised Code;43804

       (2) Formulate such standards and requirements, so far as may 43805
be practicable, in terms of performance objectives, so as to make 43806
adequate performance for the use intended the test of 43807
acceptability;43808

       (3) Permit, to the fullest extent feasible, the use of 43809
materials and technical methods, devices, and improvements, 43810
including the use of industrialized units which tend to reduce the 43811
cost of construction and erection without affecting minimum 43812
requirements for the health, safety, and security of the occupants 43813
or users of buildings or industrialized units and without 43814
preferential treatment of types or classes of materials or 43815
products or methods of construction;43816

       (4) Encourage, so far as may be practicable, the 43817
standardization of construction practices, methods, equipment, 43818
material, and techniques, including methods employed to produce 43819
industrialized units;43820

       (5) Not require any alteration or repair of any part of a 43821
school building owned by a chartered nonpublic school or a city, 43822
local, exempted village, or joint vocational school district and 43823
operated in conjunction with any primary or secondary school 43824
program that is not being altered or repaired if all of the 43825
following apply:43826

       (a) The school building meets all of the applicable building 43827
code requirements in existence at the time of the construction of 43828
the building.43829

       (b) The school building otherwise satisfies the requirements 43830
of section 3781.06 of the Revised Code.43831

       (c) The part of the school building altered or repaired 43832
conforms to all rules of the board existing on the date of the 43833
repair or alteration.43834

       (6) Not require any alteration or repair to any part of a 43835
workshop or factory that is not otherwise being altered, repaired, 43836
or added to if all of the following apply:43837

       (a) The workshop or factory otherwise satisfies the 43838
requirements of section 3781.06 of the Revised Code.43839

       (b) The part of the workshop or factory altered, repaired, or 43840
added conforms to all rules of the board existing on the date of 43841
plan approval of the repair, alteration, or addition.43842

       (B) The rules of the board shall supersede and govern any 43843
order, standard, or rule of the division of laborindustrial 43844
compliance in the department of commerce, division of the state 43845
fire marshal, the department of health, and of counties and 43846
townships, in all cases where such orders, standards, or rules are 43847
in conflict with the rules of the board, except that rules adopted 43848
and orders issued by the state fire marshal pursuant to Chapter 43849
3743. of the Revised Code prevail in the event of a conflict.43850

       (C) The construction, alteration, erection, and repair of 43851
buildings including industrialized units, and the materials and 43852
devices of any kind used in connection with them and the heating 43853
and ventilating of them and the plumbing and electric wiring in 43854
them shall conform to the statutes of this state or the rules 43855
adopted and promulgated by the board, and to provisions of local 43856
ordinances not inconsistent therewith. Any building, structure, or 43857
part thereof, constructed, erected, altered, manufactured, or 43858
repaired not in accordance with the statutes of this state or with 43859
the rules of the board, and any building, structure, or part 43860
thereof in which there is installed, altered, or repaired any 43861
fixture, device, and material, or plumbing, heating, or 43862
ventilating system, or electric wiring not in accordance with such 43863
statutes or rules is a public nuisance.43864

       (D) As used in this section:43865

       (1) "Nonpublic school" means a chartered school for which 43866
minimum standards are prescribed by the state board of education 43867
pursuant to division (D) of section 3301.07 of the Revised Code.43868

       (2) "Workshop or factory" includes manufacturing, mechanical, 43869
electrical, mercantile, art, and laundering establishments, 43870
printing, telegraph, and telephone offices, railroad depots, and 43871
memorial buildings, but does not include hotels and tenement and 43872
apartment houses.43873

       Sec. 3781.112. (A) As used in this section, "secured 43874
facility" means any of the following:43875

        (1) A maternity boardinghouse or lying-in hospitalunit, 43876
newborn care nursery, or maternity home licensed under section 43877
3711.02Chapter 3711. of the Revised Code;43878

        (2) A pediatric intensive care unit subject to rules adopted 43879
by the director of health pursuant to section 3702.11 of the 43880
Revised Code;43881

        (3) A children's hospital, as defined in section 3702.5143882
3727.01 of the Revised Code;43883

        (4) A hospital that is licensed under section 5119.20 of the 43884
Revised Code to receive mentally ill persons;43885

       (5) The portion of a nursing home licensed under section 43886
3721.02 of the Revised Code or in accordance with section 3721.09 43887
of the Revised Code in which specialized care is provided to 43888
residents of the nursing home who have physical or mental 43889
conditions that require a resident to be restricted in the 43890
resident's freedom of movement for the health and safety of the 43891
resident, the staff attending the resident, or the general public.43892

        (B) A secured facility may take reasonable steps in 43893
accordance with rules the board of building standards adopts under 43894
division (A) of section 3781.10 of the Revised Code and in 43895
accordance with the state fire code the fire marshal adopts under 43896
section 3737.82 of the Revised Code, to deny egress to confine and 43897
protect patients or residents of the secured facility who are not 43898
capable of self-preservation. A secured facility that wishes to 43899
deny egress to those patients or residents may use delayed-egress 43900
doors and electronically coded doors to deny egress, on the 43901
condition that those doors are installed and used in accordance 43902
with rules the board of building standards adopts under division 43903
(A) of section 3781.10 of the Revised Code and in accordance with 43904
the state fire code the fire marshal adopts under section 3737.82 43905
of the Revised Code. A secured facility also may install 43906
controlled-egress locks, in compliance with rules the board of 43907
building standards adopts under division (A) section 3781.10 of 43908
the Revised Code and in compliance with the state fire code the 43909
fire marshal adopts under section 3737.82 of the Revised Code, in 43910
areas of the secured facility where patients or residents who have 43911
physical or mental conditions that would endanger the patients or 43912
residents, the staff attending the patients or residents, or the 43913
general public if those patients or residents are not restricted 43914
in their freedom of movement. A secured facility that uses 43915
delayed-egress doors and electronically coded doors, 43916
controlled-egress locks, or both, shall do both of the following:43917

        (1) Provide continuous, twenty-four-hour custodial care to 43918
the patients or residents of the facility;43919

        (2) Establish a system to evacuate patients or residents in 43920
the event of fire or other emergency.43921

       Sec. 3783.05.  The board of building standards, in accordance 43922
with Chapters 119., 3781., and 3791. of the Revised Code, shall 43923
adopt, amend, or repeal such rules as may be reasonably necessary 43924
to administer this chapter. All fees collected by the board 43925
pursuant to this chapter shall be paid into the state treasury to 43926
the credit of the laborindustrial compliance operating fund 43927
created in section 121.084 of the Revised Code.43928

       Sec. 3791.02.  No owner, or person having the control as an 43929
officer or member of a board or committee or otherwise of any 43930
opera house, hall, theater, church, schoolhouse, college, academy, 43931
seminary, infirmary, sanitarium, children's home, hospital, 43932
medical institute, asylum, memorial building, armory, assembly 43933
hall, or other building for the assemblage or betterment of people 43934
shall fail to obey any order of the state fire marshal, boards of 43935
health of city and general health districts, the building 43936
inspector or commissioner in cities having a building inspection 43937
department, or the superintendent of laborindustrial compliance43938
in the department of commerce under Chapters 3781. and 3791. of 43939
the Revised Code or rules or regulations adopted pursuant thereto.43940

       Whoever violates this section shall be fined not more than 43941
one thousand dollars.43942

       Sec. 3791.04.  (A)(1) Before beginning the construction, 43943
erection, or manufacture of any building to which section 3781.06 43944
of the Revised Code applies, including all industrialized units, 43945
the owner of that building, in addition to any other submission 43946
required by law, shall submit plans or drawings, specifications, 43947
and data prepared for the construction, erection, equipment, 43948
alteration, or addition that indicate the portions that have been 43949
approved pursuant to section 3781.12 of the Revised Code and for 43950
which no further approval is required, to the municipal, township, 43951
or county building department having jurisdiction unless one of 43952
the following applies:43953

       (a) If no municipal, township, or county building department 43954
certified for nonresidential buildings pursuant to division (E) of 43955
section 3781.10 of the Revised Code has jurisdiction, the owner 43956
shall make the submissions described in division (A)(1) of this 43957
section to the superintendent of laborindustrial compliance.43958

       (b) If no certified municipal, township, or county building 43959
department certified for residential buildings pursuant to 43960
division (E) of section 3781.10 of the Revised Code has 43961
jurisdiction, the owner is not required to make the submissions 43962
described in division (A)(1) of this section.43963

       (2)(a) The seal of an architect registered under Chapter 43964
4703. of the Revised Code or an engineer registered under Chapter 43965
4733. of the Revised Code is required for any plans, drawings, 43966
specifications, or data submitted for approval, unless the plans, 43967
drawings, specifications, or data are permitted to be prepared by 43968
persons other than registered architects pursuant to division (C) 43969
or (D) of section 4703.18 of the Revised Code, or by persons other 43970
than registered engineers pursuant to division (C) or (D) of 43971
section 4733.18 of the Revised Code.43972

       (b) No seal is required for any plans, drawings, 43973
specifications, or data submitted for approval for any residential 43974
buildings, as defined in section 3781.06 of the Revised Code, or 43975
erected as industrialized one-, two-, or three-family units or 43976
structures within the meaning of "industrialized unit" as defined 43977
in section 3781.06 of the Revised Code.43978

       (c) No seal is required for approval of the installation of 43979
replacement equipment or systems that are similar in type or 43980
capacity to the equipment or systems being replaced. No seal is 43981
required for approval for any new construction, improvement, 43982
alteration, repair, painting, decorating, or other modification of 43983
any buildings or structures subject to sections 3781.06 to 3781.18 43984
and 3791.04 of the Revised Code if the proposed work does not 43985
involve technical design analysis, as defined by rule adopted by 43986
the board of building standards.43987

       (B) No owner shall proceed with the construction, erection, 43988
alteration, or equipment of any building until the plans or 43989
drawings, specifications, and data have been approved as this 43990
section requires, or the industrialized unit inspected at the 43991
point of origin. No plans or specifications shall be approved or 43992
inspection approval given unless the building represented would, 43993
if constructed, repaired, erected, or equipped, comply with 43994
Chapters 3781. and 3791. of the Revised Code and any rule made 43995
under those chapters.43996

       (C) The approval of plans or drawings and specifications or 43997
data pursuant to this section is invalid if construction, 43998
erection, alteration, or other work upon the building has not 43999
commenced within twelve months of the approval of the plans or 44000
drawings and specifications. One extension shall be granted for an 44001
additional twelve-month period if the owner requests at least ten 44002
days in advance of the expiration of the permit and upon payment 44003
of a fee not to exceed one hundred dollars. If in the course of 44004
construction, work is delayed or suspended for more than six 44005
months, the approval of plans or drawings and specifications or 44006
data is invalid. Two extensions shall be granted for six months 44007
each if the owner requests at least ten days in advance of the 44008
expiration of the permit and upon payment of a fee for each 44009
extension of not more than one hundred dollars. Before any work 44010
may continue on the construction, erection, alteration, or 44011
equipment of any building for which the approval is invalid, the 44012
owner of the building shall resubmit the plans or drawings and 44013
specifications for approval pursuant to this section.44014

       (D) Subject to section 3791.042 of the Revised Code, the 44015
board of building standards or the legislative authority of a 44016
municipal corporation, township, or county, by rule, may regulate 44017
the requirements for the submission of plans and specifications to 44018
the respective enforcing departments and for processing by those 44019
departments. The board of building standards or the legislative 44020
authority of a municipal corporation, township, or county may 44021
adopt rules to provide for the approval, subject to section 44022
3791.042 of the Revised Code, by the department having 44023
jurisdiction of the plans for construction of a foundation or any 44024
other part of a building or structure before the complete plans 44025
and specifications for the entire building or structure are 44026
submitted. When any plans are approved by the department having 44027
jurisdiction, the structure and every particular represented by 44028
and disclosed in those plans shall, in the absence of fraud or a 44029
serious safety or sanitation hazard, be conclusively presumed to 44030
comply with Chapters 3781. and 3791. of the Revised Code and any 44031
rule issued pursuant to those chapters, if constructed, altered, 44032
or repaired in accordance with those plans and any rule in effect 44033
at the time of approval.44034

       (E) The approval of plans and specifications, including 44035
inspection of industrialized units, under this section is a 44036
"license" and the failure to approve plans or specifications as 44037
submitted or to inspect the unit at the point of origin within 44038
thirty days after the plans or specifications are filed or the 44039
request to inspect the industrialized unit is made, the 44040
disapproval of plans and specifications, or the refusal to approve 44041
an industrialized unit following inspection at the point of origin 44042
is "an adjudication order denying the issuance of a license" 44043
requiring an "adjudication hearing" as provided by sections 119.07 44044
to 119.13 of the Revised Code and as modified by sections 3781.031 44045
and 3781.19 of the Revised Code. An adjudication order denying the 44046
issuance of a license shall specify the reasons for that denial.44047

       (F) The board of building standards shall not require the 44048
submission of site preparation plans or plot plans to the division 44049
of laborindustrial compliance when industrialized units are used 44050
exclusively as one-, two-, or three-family dwellings.44051

       (G) Notwithstanding any procedures the board establishes, if 44052
the agency having jurisdiction objects to any portion of the plans 44053
or specifications, the owner or the owner's representative may 44054
request the agency to issue conditional approval to proceed with 44055
construction up to the point of the objection. Approval shall be 44056
issued only when the objection results from conflicting 44057
interpretations of the rules of the board of building standards 44058
rather than the application of specific technical requirements of 44059
the rules. Approval shall not be issued where the correction of 44060
the objection would cause extensive changes in the building design 44061
or construction. The giving of conditional approval is a 44062
"conditional license" to proceed with construction up to the point 44063
where the construction or materials objected to by the agency are 44064
to be incorporated into the building. No construction shall 44065
proceed beyond that point without the prior approval of the agency 44066
or another agency that conducts an adjudication hearing relative 44067
to the objection. The agency having jurisdiction shall specify its 44068
objections to the plans or specifications, which is an 44069
"adjudication order denying the issuance of a license" and may be 44070
appealed pursuant to sections 119.07 to 119.13 of the Revised Code 44071
and as modified by sections 3781.031 and 3781.19 of the Revised 44072
Code.44073

       (H) A certified municipal, township, or county building 44074
department having jurisdiction, or the superintendent, as 44075
appropriate, shall review any plans, drawings, specifications, or 44076
data described in this section that are submitted to it or to the 44077
superintendent.44078

       (I) No owner or persons having control as an officer, or as a 44079
member of a board or committee, or otherwise, of a building to 44080
which section 3781.06 of the Revised Code is applicable, and no 44081
architect, designer, engineer, builder, contractor, subcontractor, 44082
or any officer or employee of a municipal, township, or county 44083
building department shall violate this section.44084

       (J) Whoever violates this section shall be fined not more 44085
than five hundred dollars.44086

       Sec. 3791.05.  No owner, lessee, agent, factor, architect, or 44087
contractor engaged in and having supervision or charge of the 44088
building, erection, or construction of a block, building, or 44089
structure, shall neglect or refuse to place or have placed upon 44090
the joists of each story thereof, as soon as joists are in 44091
position, counter floors of such quality and strength as to render 44092
perfectly safe the going to and from thereon of all mechanics, 44093
laborers, and other persons engaged upon the work of construction 44094
or supervision, or in placing materials for such construction.44095

       Whoever violates this section shall be fined not less than 44096
twenty-five nor more than two hundred dollars.44097

       Each day that such person neglects or refuses to have such 44098
counter floors so placed, after notice is given by a building 44099
inspector, a chief inspector, or deputy inspector of the city 44100
building inspection department in cities where such department is 44101
organized, or by the superintendent of laborindustrial compliance44102
of the state, in cities where such departments are not organized, 44103
or from a person whose life or personal safety may be endangered 44104
by such neglect or refusal, is a separate offense.44105

       Sec. 3791.07.  (A) The board of building standards may 44106
establish such reasonable inspection fee schedules as it 44107
determines necessary or desirable relating to the inspection of 44108
all plans and specifications submitted for approval to the 44109
division of laborindustrial compliance, and all industrialized 44110
units inspected at the point of origin and at the construction 44111
site of the building. The inspection fee schedule established 44112
shall bear some reasonable relationship to the cost of 44113
administering and enforcing the provisions of Chapters 3781. and 44114
3791. of the Revised Code.44115

       (B) In addition to the fee assessed in division (A) of this 44116
section, the board shall assess a fee of not more than five 44117
dollars for each application for acceptance and approval of plans 44118
and specifications and for making inspections pursuant to section 44119
3791.04 of the Revised Code. The board shall adopt rules, in 44120
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, specifying the 44121
manner by which the superintendent of laborindustrial compliance44122
shall collect and remit to the board the fees assessed under this 44123
division and requiring that remittance of the fees be made at 44124
least quarterly.44125

       (C) Any person who fails to pay an inspection fee required 44126
for any inspection conducted by the department of commerce 44127
pursuant to Chapters 3781. and 3791. of the Revised Code, except 44128
for fees charged for the inspection of plans and specifications, 44129
within forty-five days after the inspection is conducted, shall 44130
pay a late payment fee equal to twenty-five per cent of the 44131
inspection fee.44132

       (D) The board shall pay the fees assessed under this section 44133
into the state treasury to the credit of the laborindustrial 44134
compliance operating fund created in section 121.084 of the 44135
Revised Code.44136

       Sec. 3791.11.  (A) As used in this section and sections 44137
3791.12 and 3791.13 of the Revised Code:44138

       (1) "Service station" means any facility designed and 44139
constructed primarily for use in the retail sale of gasoline, 44140
other petroleum products, and related accessories; except that 44141
"service station" does not include any such facility that has been 44142
converted for use for another bona fide business purpose, on and 44143
after the date of commencement of such other use.44144

       (2) "Abandoned service station" means any service station 44145
that has not been used for the retail sale of gasoline, other 44146
petroleum products, and related accessories for a continuous 44147
period of six months, whenever failure to reasonably secure 44148
station buildings from ready access by unauthorized persons and to 44149
reasonably maintain the station's premises has resulted in 44150
conditions that endanger the public health, welfare, safety, or 44151
morals; provided, that such conditions include, but are not 44152
limited to, the presence of defective or deteriorated electrical 44153
wiring, heating apparatus, and gas connections, or of unprotected 44154
gasoline storage tanks, piping, and valves, or any combination of 44155
the foregoing; and provided further that the casual and 44156
intermittent use of a service station for the retail sale of any 44157
item described in division (A)(1) of this section during such 44158
six-month period shall not be held to prevent the station from 44159
being determined an abandoned service station if it meets the 44160
other qualifications of this division.44161

       (B) No person shall construct, renew operation of, or 44162
continue operation of a service station unless, prior to the 44163
commencement of construction or renewed operation and during the 44164
period of continued operation, a valid bond is on file as provided 44165
in division (C) or (D) of this section. The bond shall be obtained 44166
by the owner of the property if hethe owner is also the owner of 44167
the service station. If the owner of the property is not the owner 44168
of the service station, then the bond shall be obtained by the 44169
lessee of the property; except that such lessee shall be other 44170
than any person who leases and operates the service station 44171
pursuant to a contract with a supplier of gasoline and petroleum 44172
products. The bond shall identify and list the name and address of 44173
the property owner and any lessee other than a person who leases 44174
and operates the service station pursuant to a contract with a 44175
supplier of gasoline and petroleum products.44176

       (C) The bond required by division (B) of this section shall 44177
be filed annually with the executive authority of the municipal 44178
corporation in which the service station is, or is to be, located,44179
or with the clerk of the board of county commissioners if the 44180
service station is not, or is not to be, located within a 44181
municipal corporation. The bond shall either be a cash bond or 44182
have sufficient sureties approved by the executive authority or 44183
clerk with whom it is filed. The bond shall be for a term of one 44184
year and shall be renewed annually. The bond shall be in the 44185
amount of three thousand dollars for each service station to 44186
provide for the repair or removal of the service station and its 44187
appurtenances and restoration of the property. The bond shall be 44188
conditioned upon the repair or removal of the service station and 44189
restoration of the property if the service station is determined 44190
to be an abandoned service station as provided in section 3791.12 44191
of the Revised Code. If the service station is determined to be an 44192
abandoned service station, and division (D) or (F) of section 44193
3791.12 of the Revised Code applies, the bond shall be forfeited 44194
and the proceeds applied to the costs of repair or removal and 44195
restoration as provided in section 3791.13 of the Revised Code. If 44196
the amount of the bond exceeds the costs of repair or removal and 44197
restoration, the excess shall be returned to the depositor.44198

       (D) Whenever a property owner or lessee, other than a person 44199
leasing and operating a service station pursuant to a contract 44200
with a supplier of gasoline and other petroleum products, owns, 44201
leases, or is constructing two or more service stations in this 44202
state, such owner or lessee may deposit with the treasurer of 44203
state, in lieu of the bond required by division (C) of this 44204
section, money or a surety bond approved by the treasurer in the 44205
amount of one hundred fifty thousand dollars, or bonds of the 44206
United States, this state, or of a political subdivision of this 44207
state, having a market value, as determined by the treasurer, of 44208
one hundred fifty thousand dollars. The bond or deposit shall 44209
cover all service stations owned in the state, being constructed, 44210
leased, or operated by the depositor and shall be conditioned upon 44211
the repair or removal of any such station and its appurtenances 44212
and restoration of the property, if the station is determined to 44213
be an abandoned service station as provided in section 3791.12 of 44214
the Revised Code. If any such service station is determined to be 44215
an abandoned service station, and division (D) or (F) of section 44216
3791.12 of the Revised Code applies, the portion of the bond or 44217
deposit required to pay the costs of repair or removal and 44218
restoration shall be forfeited and paid to the executive authority 44219
of the municipal corporation or to the board of county 44220
commissioners of the county, upon request therefor. If the surety 44221
refuses to pay the costs of repair or removal and restoration to 44222
the treasurer, the treasurer shall forthwith file an action on the 44223
bond in the amount certified by the executive authority or board 44224
as the costs of repair or removal and restoration, and shall pay 44225
to the executive authority or board the proceeds of any judgment. 44226
A bond or deposit shall remain valid as long as it is sufficient 44227
to cover one hundred thousand dollars of liability. If the bond or 44228
deposit is reduced to a lesser amount, it shall be invalid unless 44229
sufficient additional bond or deposit is provided to restore the 44230
amount of liability covered to one hundred fifty thousand dollars.44231

       Sec. 3791.12.  (A) The executive authority of each municipal 44232
corporation and the board of county commissioners of each county 44233
shall designate a suitable person to make inspections, within 44234
their respective territorial jurisdictions, of any service 44235
stations that are, or appear to be, no longer in use for the 44236
purposes described in division (A)(1) of section 3791.11 of the 44237
Revised Code, or for any other bona fide business purpose. 44238
Inspections of service stations under this section shall be made 44239
at the order of the executive authority or board, or upon the 44240
complaint of any person claiming to be adversely affected by the 44241
condition of a service station. Any inspector designated under 44242
this section shall have the right to enter upon and inspect any 44243
service station that is, or appears to be, no longer in use as 44244
described in this section. No inspector, while in the lawful 44245
pursuit of hisofficial duties for such purpose, shall be subject 44246
to arrest for trespass while so engaged or for such cause 44247
thereafter.44248

       (B) Whenever an inspector, upon inspecting a service station 44249
as provided in this section, has reasonable cause to believe that 44250
it qualifies as an abandoned service station, hethe inspector44251
shall prepare a written report of the condition of the station's 44252
buildings and premises. The report shall be filed immediately with 44253
the executive authority or board. Upon receipt of the report, the 44254
executive authority or board shall fix a place and time, not less 44255
than thirty days nor more than sixty days after receipt of the 44256
report, for a hearing to determine whether the service station is 44257
an abandoned service station. The executive authority or board 44258
shall send written notice of the place and date of the hearing, 44259
together with a copy of the inspector's report and information 44260
that the service station may be ordered repaired or removed if 44261
determined to be abandoned, to all persons listed in the bond 44262
filed under division (C) or (D) of section 3791.11 of the Revised 44263
Code, and to all persons listed in the records of the county 44264
recorder or county clerk of courts as holding a lien on the 44265
affected property. Such notice shall be sent by certified mail to 44266
the address shown on such records.44267

       (C) In hearing the matter and deciding the issue, the 44268
executive authority or board shall consider the testimony of any 44269
persons appearing pursuant to the notice, or their authorized 44270
representatives, the testimony of any witnesses appearing on 44271
behalf of such persons, the inspector's report or testimony, or 44272
both, and any other evidence pertinent to the matter. If the 44273
executive authority or board thereupon determines that the service 44274
station is an abandoned service station in such condition as to 44275
constitute a danger to the public health, welfare, safety, or 44276
morals, it shall order the satisfactory repair, or removal, of the 44277
service station and its appurtenances, and restoration of the 44278
property, within such period of time, not less than thirty days, 44279
as the executive authority or board thereupon determines 44280
reasonable. Notice of the findings and order shall be sent to all 44281
persons required to be notified by division (B) of this section in 44282
the same manner as provided in that division.44283

       (D) If an abandoned service station is not satisfactorily 44284
repaired or removed within the period of time provided in an order 44285
made under division (C) of this section, the municipal corporation 44286
or county may enter the land and complete the repair, if repair 44287
was ordered, or remove the service station and its appurtenances, 44288
if removal was ordered, and restore the property.44289

       (E) Any person aggrieved by an order of an executive 44290
authority or board made under division (C) of this section, may 44291
appeal as provided in Chapter 2506. of the Revised Code within 44292
thirty days of the mailing of notice of the order.44293

       (F) In the event that no persons notified as provided in 44294
division (B) of this section, or their authorized representatives, 44295
appear at the hearing, respond to an order of the executive 44296
authority or board, or appeal within thirty days of the mailing of 44297
notice of the order as provided in division (E) of this section, 44298
the municipal corporation or county may proceed as provided in 44299
division (D) of this section.44300

       Sec. 3793.04.  The department of alcohol and drug addiction 44301
services shall develop, administer, and revise as necessary a 44302
comprehensive statewide alcohol and drug addiction services plan 44303
for the implementation of this chapter. The plan shall emphasize 44304
abstinence from the use of alcohol and drugs of abuse as the 44305
primary goal of alcohol and drug addiction services. The council 44306
on alcohol and, drug, and gambling addiction services shall advise 44307
the department in the development and implementation of the plan.44308

       The plan shall provide for the allocation and distribution of 44309
funds appropriated to the department by the general assembly for 44310
services furnished by alcohol and drug addiction programs under 44311
contract with boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 44312
services. The department shall exclude from the allocation and 44313
distribution any funds that are transferred to the department of 44314
job and family services to pay the nonfederal share of alcohol and 44315
drug addiction services covered by the medicaid program.44316

        The plan shall specify the methodology that the department 44317
will use for determining how the funds will be allocated and 44318
distributed. A portion of the funds shall be allocated on the 44319
basis of the ratio of the population of each alcohol, drug 44320
addiction, and mental health service district to the total 44321
population of the state as determined from the most recent federal 44322
census or the most recent official estimate made by the United 44323
States census bureau.44324

       The plan shall ensure that alcohol and drug addiction 44325
services of a high quality are accessible to, and responsive to 44326
the needs of, all persons, especially those who are members of 44327
underserved groups, including, but not limited to, African 44328
Americans, Hispanics, native Americans, Asians, juvenile and adult 44329
offenders, women, veterans, and persons with special services 44330
needs due to age or disability. The plan shall include a program 44331
to promote and protect the rights of those who receive services.44332

       To aid in formulating the plan and in evaluating the 44333
effectiveness and results of alcohol and drug addiction services, 44334
the department, in consultation with the department of mental 44335
health, shall establish and maintain an information system or 44336
systems. The department of alcohol and drug addiction services 44337
shall specify the information that must be provided by boards of 44338
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services and by alcohol 44339
and drug addiction programs for inclusion in the system. The 44340
department shall not collect any personal information from the 44341
boards except as required or permitted by state or federal law for 44342
purposes related to payment, health care operations, program and 44343
service evaluation, reporting activities, research, system 44344
administration, and oversight.44345

       In consultation with boards, programs, and persons receiving 44346
services, the department shall establish guidelines for the use of 44347
funds allocated and distributed under this section and for the 44348
boards' development of plans for services required by sections 44349
340.033 and 3793.05 of the Revised Code.44350

       In any fiscal year, the department shall spend, or allocate 44351
to boards, for methadone maintenance programs or any similar 44352
programs not more than eight per cent of the total amount 44353
appropriated to the department for the fiscal year.44354

       Sec. 3793.041.  The department of alcohol and drug addiction 44355
services shall develop, administer, and revise as necessary a 44356
comprehensive statewide gambling addiction services plan. The 44357
council on alcohol, drug, and gambling addiction services shall 44358
advise the department in the development and implementation of the 44359
plan.44360

       The plan shall provide for allocation and distribution of 44361
funds from the problem casino gambling and addictions fund 44362
described in Section 6(C)(3)(g) of Article XV, Ohio Constitution, 44363
and any funding to be distributed by the department for problem 44364
gambling.44365

        The plan shall specify the methodology that the department 44366
will use for determining how the funds will be allocated and 44367
distributed. A portion of the funds shall be allocated on the 44368
basis of the ratio of the population of each alcohol, drug 44369
addiction, and mental health service district to the total 44370
population of the state as determined from the most recent federal 44371
census or the most recent official estimate made by the United 44372
States census bureau.44373

       The plan shall ensure that gambling addiction services of a 44374
high quality are accessible to, and responsive to the needs of, 44375
all persons, especially those who are members of underserved 44376
groups, including, but not limited to, African Americans, 44377
Hispanics, native Americans, Asians, juvenile and adult offenders, 44378
women, veterans, and persons with special services needs due to 44379
age or disability. The plan shall include a program to promote and 44380
protect the rights of those who receive services.44381

       To aid in formulating the plan and in evaluating the 44382
effectiveness and results of gambling addiction services, the 44383
department, in consultation with the department of mental health, 44384
shall establish and maintain an information system or systems. The 44385
department of alcohol and drug addiction services shall specify 44386
the information that must be provided by boards of alcohol, drug 44387
addiction, and mental health services and by gambling addiction 44388
programs for inclusion in the system. The department shall not 44389
collect any personal information from the boards except as 44390
required or permitted by state or federal law for purposes related 44391
to payment, health care operations, program and service 44392
evaluation, reporting activities, research, system administration, 44393
and oversight.44394

       In consultation with boards, programs, and persons receiving 44395
services, the department shall establish guidelines for the use of 44396
funds allocated and distributed under this section.44397

       Sec. 3793.09.  (A) There is hereby created the council on 44398
alcohol and, drug, and gambling addiction services which shall 44399
consist of the public officials specified in division (B) of this 44400
section, or their designees, and thirteenfourteen members 44401
appointed by the governor with the advice and consent of the 44402
senate. The members appointed by the governor shall be 44403
representatives of the following: boards of alcohol, drug 44404
addiction, and mental health services; the criminal and juvenile 44405
justice systems; and alcohol and drug addiction programs; and 44406
gambling addiction programs. At least four of the appointed 44407
members shall be persons who have received or are receiving 44408
alcohol or drug addiction services or are parents or other 44409
relatives of such persons; of these at least two shall be women 44410
and at least one shall be a member of a minority group.44411

       The governor shall make initial appointments to the council 44412
not later than thirty days after October 10, 1989. Of the initial 44413
appointments, six shall be for terms ending July 31, 1991, and 44414
seven shall be for terms ending July 31, 1992. Thereafter, terms44415
group. At least one appointed member shall be an individual who 44416
has received or is receiving gambling addiction services.44417

       Terms of office shall be two years, with each term ending on 44418
the same day of the same month as the term it succeeds. Each 44419
member shall hold office from the date of the member's appointment 44420
until the end of the term for which the member was appointed. 44421
Members may be reappointed. Vacancies shall be filled in the same 44422
manner as original appointments. Any member appointed to fill a 44423
vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which 44424
the member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office as a 44425
member for the remainder of the term. A member shall continue in 44426
office subsequent to the expiration of the member's term until the 44427
member's successor takes office or until a period of sixty days 44428
has elapsed, whichever occurs first.44429

       (B) The directors of health, public safety, mental health, 44430
rehabilitation and correction, and youth services; the 44431
superintendents of public instruction and liquor control; the 44432
attorney general; the adjutant general; and the executive director 44433
of the division of criminal justice services in the department of 44434
public safety; the executive director of the casino control 44435
commission; the executive director of the lottery commission; and 44436
the executive director of the state racing commission shall be 44437
voting members of the council, except that any of these officials 44438
may designate an individual to serve in the official's place as a 44439
voting member of the council. The director of alcohol and drug 44440
addiction services shall serve as a nonvoting member of the 44441
council.44442

       (C) The governor shall annually appoint a chairperson from 44443
among the members of the council. The council shall meet quarterly 44444
and at other times the chairperson considers necessary. In 44445
addition to other duties specified in this chapter, the council 44446
shall review the development of the comprehensive statewide plan 44447
for alcohol and drug addiction services, the comprehensive 44448
statewide plan for gambling addiction services, revisions of the 44449
planthose plans, and other actions taken to implement the 44450
purposes of this chapter by the department of alcohol and drug 44451
addiction services and shall act as an advisory council to the 44452
director of alcohol and drug addiction services.44453

       (D) Members of the council shall serve without compensation, 44454
but shall be paid actual and necessary expenses incurred in the 44455
performance of their duties.44456

       Sec.  3798.01. As used in this chapter:44457

       (A) "Approved health information exchange" means a health 44458
information exchange that has been approved or reapproved by the 44459
director of job and family services pursuant to the approval or 44460
reapproval process, as applicable, the director establishes in 44461
rules adopted under division (A) of section 3798.15 of the Revised 44462
Code or that has been certified by the office of the national 44463
coordinator for health information technology in the United States 44464
department of health and human services.44465

       (B) "Covered entity," "disclosure," "health care provider," 44466
"health information," "individually identifiable health 44467
information," "protected health information," and "use" have the 44468
same meanings as in 45 C.F.R. 160.103.44469

       (C) "Designated record set" has the same meaning as in 45 44470
C.F.R. 164.501.44471

       (D) "Direct exchange" means the activity of electronic 44472
transmission of health information through a direct connection 44473
between the electronic record systems of health care providers 44474
without the use of a health information exchange. 44475

       (E) "Health care component" and "hybrid entity" have the same 44476
meanings as in 45 C.F.R. 164.103.44477

       (F) "Health information exchange" means any person or 44478
governmental entity that provides in this state a technical 44479
infrastructure to connect computer systems or other electronic 44480
devices used by covered entities to facilitate the secure 44481
transmission of health information. "Health information exchange" 44482
excludes health care providers engaged in direct exchange, 44483
including direct exchange through the use of a health information 44484
service provider.44485

       (G) "HIPAA privacy rule" means the standards for privacy of 44486
individually identifiable health information in 45 C.F.R. part 160 44487
and in 45 C.F.R. part 164, subparts A and E.44488

       (H) "Interoperability" means the capacity of two or more 44489
information systems to exchange information in an accurate, 44490
effective, secure, and consistent manner.44491

       (I) "Minor" means an unemancipated person under eighteen 44492
years of age or a mentally or physically disabled person under 44493
twenty-one years of age who meets criteria specified in rules 44494
adopted by the director of job and family services under section 44495
3798.13 of the Revised Code.44496

       (J) "More stringent" has the same meaning as in 45 C.F.R. 44497
160.202.44498

        (K) "Office of health transformation" means the office of 44499
health transformation created by executive order 2011-02K or a 44500
successor governmental entity responsible for health system 44501
oversight in this state.44502

       (L) "Personal representative" means a person who has 44503
authority under applicable law to make decisions related to health 44504
care on behalf of an adult or emancipated minor, or the parent, 44505
legal guardian, or other person acting in loco parentis who is 44506
authorized under law to make health care decisions on behalf of an 44507
unemancipated minor. "Personal representative" does not include 44508
the parent or legal guardian of, or another person acting in loco 44509
parentis to, a minor who consents to the minor's own receipt of 44510
health care or a minor who makes medical decisions on the minor's 44511
own behalf pursuant to law, court approval, or because the minor's 44512
parent, legal guardian, or other person acting in loco parentis 44513
has assented to an agreement of confidentiality between the 44514
provider and the minor.44515

       (M) "Political subdivision" means a municipal corporation, 44516
township, county, school district, or other body corporate and 44517
politic responsible for governmental activities in a geographic 44518
area smaller than that of the state.44519

       (N) "State agency" means any one or more of the following:44520

       (1) The department of aging;44521

       (2) The department of alcohol and drug addiction services;44522

       (3) The department of developmental disabilities;44523

       (4) The department of education;44524

       (5) The department of health;44525

       (6) The department of insurance;44526

       (7) The department of job and family services;44527

       (8) The department of mental health;44528

       (9) The department of rehabilitation and correction;44529

       (10) The department of youth services;44530

       (11) The bureau of workers' compensation;44531

       (12) The rehabilitation services commission;44532

       (13) The office of the attorney general;44533

       (14) A health care licensing board created under Title XLVII 44534
of the Revised Code that possesses individually identifiable 44535
health information.44536

       Sec.  3798.02. It is the intent of the general assembly in 44537
enacting this chapter to make the laws of this state governing the 44538
use and disclosure of protected health information by covered 44539
entities consistent with, but generally not more stringent than, 44540
the HIPAA privacy rule for the purpose of eliminating barriers to 44541
the adoption and use of electronic health records and health 44542
information exchanges. Therefore, it is also the general 44543
assembly's intent in enacting this chapter to supersede any 44544
judicial or administrative ruling issued in this state that is 44545
inconsistent with the provisions of this chapter.44546

       Sec. 3798.03. (A) Subject to division (B) of this section, a 44547
covered entity shall do both of the following:44548

       (1) If an individual's protected health information is 44549
maintained by the covered entity in a designated record set, 44550
provide the individual or the individual's personal representative 44551
with access to that information in a manner consistent with 45 44552
C.F.R. 164.524;44553

       (2) Implement and maintain appropriate administrative, 44554
technical, and physical safeguards to protect the privacy of 44555
protected health information in a manner consistent with 45 C.F.R. 44556
164.530(c).44557

       (B) If a covered entity is a hybrid entity, this section 44558
applies only to the health care component of the covered entity.44559

       Sec.  3798.04.  A covered entity shall not do either of the 44560
following:44561

       (A) Use or disclose protected health information without an 44562
authorization that is valid under 45 C.F.R. 164.508 and, if 44563
applicable, 42 C.F.R. part 2, except when the use or disclosure is 44564
required or permitted without such authorization by Subchapter C 44565
of Subtitle A of Title 45 of the Code of Federal Regulations and, 44566
if applicable, 42 C.F.R. part 2;44567

       (B) Use or disclose protected health information in a manner 44568
that is not consistent with 45 C.F.R. 164.502.44569

       Sec.  3798.06.  Except in the circumstances described in 44570
division (A) of section 3798.04 of the Revised Code when a covered 44571
entity is permitted to disclose protected health information 44572
without an authorization that is valid under 45 C.F.R. 164.508, a 44573
covered entity shall not disclose protected health information to 44574
a health information exchange without an authorization described 44575
in division (A) of section 3798.04 of the Revised Code unless all 44576
of the following are true:44577

       (A) The disclosure is to an approved health information 44578
exchange.44579

        (B) The covered entity is a party to a valid participation 44580
agreement with the approved health information exchange that meets 44581
the requirements of rules adopted under section 3798.16 of the 44582
Revised Code.44583

       (C) The disclosure is consistent with all procedures 44584
established by the approved health information exchange.44585

       (D) Prior to the disclosure, the covered entity furnishes to 44586
the individual or individual's personal representative a written 44587
notice that complies with rules adopted under division (A)(3) of 44588
section 3798.16 of the Revised Code.44589

       Sec. 3798.07. (A) In addition to being subject to the general 44590
prohibition in section 3798.06 of the Revised Code on disclosure 44591
of protected health information to a health information exchange 44592
without a valid authorization, a covered entity shall also be 44593
subject to the following conditions when it discloses protected 44594
health information to a health information exchange:44595

       (1) The covered entity shall restrict disclosure consistent 44596
with all applicable federal laws governing the disclosure;44597

       (2) If the protected health information concerns a minor, the 44598
covered entity shall restrict disclosure in a manner that complies 44599
with laws of this state pertaining to the circumstances under 44600
which a minor may consent to the minor's own receipt of health 44601
care or make medical decisions on the minor's own behalf, 44602
including sections 2907.29, 3709.241, 3719.012, 5120.172, 5122.04, 44603
and 5126.043 of the Revised Code unless the minor authorizes the 44604
disclosure. 44605

       (3) The covered entity shall restrict disclosure in a manner 44606
that is consistent with a written request from the individual or 44607
the individual's personal representative to restrict disclosure of 44608
all of the individual's protected health information.44609

       (4) The covered entity shall restrict disclosure in a manner 44610
that is consistent with a written request from the individual or 44611
the individual's personal representative concerning specific 44612
categories of protected health information to the extent that 44613
rules adopted pursuant to section 3798.16 of the Revised Code 44614
require the covered entity to comply with such a request.44615

       (B) The conditions in division (A) of this section on a 44616
covered entity's disclosure of protected health information to a 44617
health information exchange do not render unenforceable or 44618
restrict in any manner any of the following:44619

       (1) A provision of the Revised Code that on the effective 44620
date of this section requires a person or governmental entity to 44621
disclose protected health information to a state agency, political 44622
subdivision, or other governmental entity;44623

       (2) The confidential status of proceedings and records within 44624
the scope of a peer review committee of a health care entity as 44625
described in section 2305.252 of the Revised Code;44626

       (3) The confidential status of quality assurance program 44627
activities and quality assurance records as described in section 44628
5122.32 of the Revised Code;44629

       (4) The testimonial privilege established by division (B) of 44630
section 2317.02 of the Revised Code;44631

       (5) Any of the following items that govern the 44632
confidentiality, privacy, security, or privileged status of 44633
protected health information in the possession or custody of an 44634
agency; govern the process for obtaining from a patient consent to 44635
the provision of health care or consent for participation in 44636
medical or other scientific research; govern the process for 44637
determining whether an adult has a physical or mental impairment 44638
or an adult's capacity to make health care decisions for purposes 44639
of Chapter 5126. of the Revised Code; or govern the process for 44640
determining whether a minor has been emancipated:44641

       (a) A section of the Revised Code that is not in this 44642
chapter;44643

       (b) A rule as defined in section 119.01 of the Revised Code; 44644

       (c) An internal management rule as defined in section 111.15 44645
of the Revised Code;44646

       (d) Guidance issued by an agency; 44647

       (e) Orders or regulations of a board of health of a city 44648
health district made under section 3709.20 of the Revised Code;44649

       (f) Orders or regulations of a board of health of a general 44650
health district made under section 3709.21 of the Revised Code;44651

       (g) An ordinance or resolution adopted by a political 44652
subdivision;44653

       (h) A professional code of ethics;44654

       (i) When a minor is authorized to consent to the minor's own 44655
receipt of health care or make medical decisions on the minor's 44656
own behalf, including the circumstances described in sections 44657
2907.29, 3709.241, 3719.012, 5120.172, 5122.04, and 5126.043 of 44658
the Revised Code.44659

       Sec. 3798.08.  (A) A covered entity that uses or discloses 44660
protected health information in a manner that complies with 44661
sections 3798.03 and 3798.07 of the Revised Code and is not in 44662
violation of section 3798.04 or 3798.06 of the Revised Code is not 44663
liable in a civil action and is not subject to criminal 44664
prosecution or professional disciplinary action arising out of or 44665
relating to the access or disclosure.44666

       (B) An approved health information exchange is not liable in 44667
a civil action and not subject to criminal prosecution arising out 44668
of or relating to a covered entity's disclosure of protected 44669
health information to the approved health information exchange, or 44670
use of protected health information accessed from the approved 44671
health information exchange, if the disclosure or use complies 44672
with sections 3798.03 and 3798.07 of the Revised Code and is not 44673
in violation of section 3798.04 or 3798.06 of the Revised Code.44674

       Sec. 3798.10.  (A) Not later than six months after the 44675
effective date of this section, the director of job and family 44676
services, in consultation with the office of health 44677
transformation, shall prescribe by rules adopted in accordance 44678
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code a standard authorization 44679
form for the use and disclosure of protected health information by 44680
covered entities in this state. The form shall meet all 44681
requirements specified in 45 C.F.R. 164.508 and, where applicable, 44682
42 C.F.R. part 2. 44683

       (B) If a form the director prescribes under division (A) of 44684
this section is properly executed by an individual or the 44685
individual's personal representative, it shall be accepted by any 44686
person or governmental entity in this state as valid authorization 44687
for the use or disclosure of the individual's protected health 44688
information to the persons or governmental entities specified in 44689
the form.44690

       (C) This section does not preclude a person or governmental 44691
entity from accepting as valid authorization for the use or 44692
disclosure of protected health information a form other than the 44693
form prescribed under division (A) of this section if the other 44694
form meets all requirements specified in 45 C.F.R. 164.508 and, if 44695
applicable, 42 C.F.R. part 2.44696

       Sec. 3798.12.  As used in this section, "agency" has the same 44697
meaning as in section 111.15 of the Revised Code.44698

       (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this section, any 44699
of the following pertaining to the confidentiality, privacy, 44700
security, or privileged status of protected health information 44701
transacted, maintained in, or accessed through a health 44702
information exchange is unenforceable if it conflicts with this 44703
chapter: 44704

       (1) A section of the Revised Code that is not in this 44705
chapter;44706

       (2) A rule as defined in section 119.01 of the Revised Code;44707

       (3) An internal management rule as defined in section 111.15 44708
of the Revised Code;44709

       (4) Guidance issued by an agency;44710

       (5) Orders or regulations of a board of health of a city 44711
health district made under section 3709.20 of the Revised Code;44712

       (6) Orders or regulations of a board of health of a general 44713
health district made under section 3709.21 of the Revised Code;44714

       (7) An ordinance or resolution adopted by a political 44715
subdivision;44716

        (8) A professional code of ethics.44717

       (B) Division (A) of this section does not render 44718
unenforceable or restrict in any manner any of the following:44719

       (1) A provision of the Revised Code that on the effective 44720
date of this section requires a person or governmental entity to 44721
disclose protected health information to a state agency, political 44722
subdivision, or other governmental entity;44723

        (2) The confidential status of proceedings and records within 44724
the scope of a peer review committee of a health care entity as 44725
described in section 2305.252 of the Revised Code;44726

       (3) The confidential status of quality assurance program 44727
activities and quality assurance records as described in section 44728
5122.32 of the Revised Code;44729

        (4) The testimonial privilege established by division (B) of 44730
section 2317.02 of the Revised Code;44731

       (5) An item described in divisions (A)(1) to (8) of this 44732
section that governs any of the following:44733

       (a) The confidentiality, privacy, security, or privileged 44734
status of protected health information in the possession or 44735
custody of an agency;44736

       (b) The process for obtaining from a patient consent to the 44737
provision of health care or consent for participation in medical 44738
or other scientific research;44739

       (c) The process for determining whether an adult has a 44740
physical or mental impairment or an adult's capacity to make 44741
health care decisions for purposes of Chapter 5126. of the Revised 44742
Code;44743

       (d) The process for determining whether a minor has been 44744
emancipated.44745

       (6) When a minor is authorized to consent to the minor's own 44746
receipt of health care or make medical decisions on the minor's 44747
own behalf, including the circumstances described in sections 44748
2907.29, 3709.241, 3719.012, 5120.172, 5122.04, and 5126.043 of 44749
the Revised Code.44750

       Sec. 3798.13. The director of job and family services shall 44751
adopt rules for purposes of specifying the criteria a person who 44752
is mentally or physically disabled and who is under twenty-one 44753
years of age must meet to be considered a minor for purposes of 44754
sections 3798.07 and 3798.12 of the Revised Code.44755

       Sec.  3798.14. (A) The director of job and family services, in 44756
consultation with the office of health transformation, shall adopt 44757
rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for the 44758
purpose of establishing standards the director must use to approve 44759
health information exchanges operating in this state. The rules 44760
shall not be adopted until the earlier of sixty days following the 44761
adoption of a federal certification process for health information 44762
exchanges by the office of the national coordinator for health 44763
information technology in the United States department of health 44764
and human services or January 1, 2013. Subject to division (B) of 44765
this section, the rules may include standards and procedures to be 44766
followed by a health information exchange regarding the following:44767

       (1) Access to and use and disclosure of protected health 44768
information maintained by or on an approved health information 44769
exchange;44770

       (2) Demonstration of adequate financial resources to sustain 44771
continued operations in compliance with the rules adopted under 44772
this section;44773

       (3) Participation in outreach activities for individuals and 44774
covered entities;44775

       (4) Conduct of operations in a transparent manner to promote 44776
consumer confidence;44777

       (5) Implementation of security breach notification 44778
procedures.44779

       (B) The rules the director adopts pursuant to division (A) of 44780
this section shall be consistent with certification standards for 44781
health information exchanges established in federal statutes and 44782
regulations, including nationally recognized standards for 44783
interoperability.44784

       Sec.  3798.15.  (A) The director of job and family services, 44785
in consultation with the office of health transformation, shall 44786
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 44787
for the purpose of establishing processes for all of the 44788
following:44789

       (1) A health information exchange to obtain approval to 44790
operate as an approved health information exchange in this state 44791
and, at times specified by the director, obtain reapproval of such 44792
status;44793

       (2) The director to investigate and resolve concerns and 44794
complaints submitted to the director regarding an approved health 44795
information exchange;44796

       (3) A health information exchange to apply for 44797
reconsideration of a decision the director makes under a process 44798
established under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section;44799

       (4) Covered entities and approved health information 44800
exchanges to enter into participation agreements and enforce the 44801
terms of such agreements.44802

       (B) Any decision the director makes in relation to a request 44803
for reconsideration made in accordance with rules adopted under 44804
division (A)(3) of this section is not subject to appeal under 44805
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.44806

       Sec. 3798.16.  (A) The director of job and family services, 44807
in consultation with the office of health transformation, shall 44808
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 44809
for the purpose of specifying the content of agreements governing 44810
covered entities' participation in approved health information 44811
exchanges. At a minimum, the rules shall require the content of 44812
such participation agreements to include all of the following: 44813

       (1) Procedures for a covered entity to disclose an 44814
individual's protected health information to an approved health 44815
information exchange;44816

       (2) Procedures for a covered entity to access an individual's 44817
protected health information from an approved health information 44818
exchange;44819

       (3) Subject to division (B) of this section, a written notice 44820
to be provided by a covered entity to an individual or the 44821
individual's personal representative prior to the covered entity's 44822
disclosure of the individual's protected health information to an 44823
approved health information exchange; 44824

       (4) Documentation the covered entity must use to verify that 44825
a notice described in division (A)(3) of this section has been 44826
provided by the covered entity to an individual or the 44827
individual's personal representative prior to the disclosure of 44828
the individual's protected health information to an approved 44829
health information exchange;44830

       (5) Procedures, which must take into consideration the 44831
technical capabilities of software available to health information 44832
exchanges, for an individual or the individual's personal 44833
representative to submit to the covered entity a written request 44834
to place restrictions on the covered entity's disclosure of 44835
protected health information to the approved health information 44836
exchange;44837

       (6) The standards a covered entity must use to determine 44838
whether, and to what extent, to comply with a written request 44839
described in division (A)(5) of this section;44840

       (7) The purposes for which a covered entity may access and 44841
use protected health information from the approved health 44842
information exchange.44843

       (B) With respect to the written notice described in division 44844
(A)(3) of this section, the rules may specify that the notice can 44845
be incorporated into the covered entity's notice of privacy 44846
practices required by 45 C.F.R. 164.520 and shall specify that the 44847
notice include the following statements:44848

       (1) The individual's protected health information will be 44849
disclosed to the approved health information exchange to 44850
facilitate the provision of health care to the individual.44851

       (2) The approved health information exchange maintains 44852
appropriate safeguards to protect the privacy and security of 44853
protected health information.44854

       (3) Only authorized individuals may access and use protected 44855
health information from the approved health information exchange.44856

       (4) The individual or the individual's personal 44857
representative has the right to request in writing that the 44858
covered entity do either or both of the following:44859

       (a) Not disclose any of the individual's protected health 44860
information to the approved health information exchange;44861

       (b) Not disclose specific categories of the individual's 44862
protected health information to the approved health information 44863
exchange.44864

       (5) Any restrictions on the disclosure of protected health 44865
information an individual requests as described in either division 44866
(B)(4)(a) or (b) of this section may result in a health care 44867
provider not having access to information that is necessary for 44868
the provider to render appropriate care to the individual.44869

       (6) Any restrictions on the disclosure of protected health 44870
information an individual requests as described in division 44871
(B)(4)(a) of this section must be honored by the covered entity.44872

       (7) Any restrictions on the disclosure of protected health 44873
information an individual requests as described in division 44874
(B)(4)(b) of this section must be honored if the restriction is 44875
consistent with rules adopted under this chapter.44876

       Sec. 3905.36.  (A) Every insured association, company, 44877
corporation, or other person that enters, directly or indirectly, 44878
into any independent procurement or direct placement agreement 44879
with any insurance company, association, individual, firm, 44880
underwriter, or Lloyd's, not authorized to do business in this 44881
state, whereby the insured shall procure, continue, or renew 44882
contracts of insurance with such unauthorized insurance company, 44883
association, individual, firm, underwriter, or Lloyd's, for which 44884
insurance there is a gross premium, shall file the details of the 44885
transaction annually, on or before the thirty-first day of March, 44886
and shall at the same time pay to the treasurer of state, or the 44887
treasurer's designee, a tax of five per cent of such gross 44888
premium, after a deduction for return premium, if any, as 44889
calculated in the prescribed format or in compliance with any 44890
requirements of the compact entered into by the superintendent 44891
pursuant to division (D) of section 3905.33 of the Revised Code. 44892
An insurer may submit the required details of the transaction and 44893
remit the tax payment on behalf of an insured.44894

       All taxes collected under this section shall be paid into the 44895
general revenue fund. If the tax is not paid when due, the tax 44896
shall be increased by a penalty of twenty-five per cent. An 44897
interest charge computed as set forth in section 5725.221 of the 44898
Revised Code shall be made on the entire sum of the tax plus 44899
penalty, which interest shall be computed from the date the tax is 44900
due until it is paid. For purposes of this section, payment is 44901
considered made when it is received by the treasurer or the 44902
treasurer's designee, irrespective of any United States postal 44903
service marking or other stamp or mark indicating the date on 44904
which the payment may have been mailed.44905

       The superintendent of insurance, in the superintendent's sole 44906
discretion, may waive the twenty-five per cent penalty and 44907
interest charge thereon for a first-time, inadvertent nonpayment 44908
of the tax when due if the nonpayment is reported immediately upon 44909
discovery and the outstanding tax is thereafter immediately paid 44910
to the superintendent.44911

       (B) Each person licensed under section 3905.30 of the Revised 44912
Code shall pay to the treasurer of state or the treasurer's 44913
designee, on or before the thirty-first day of March of each year, 44914
five per cent of the balance of the gross premiums charged for 44915
insurance placed or procured under the license after a deduction 44916
for return premiums in the prescribed format or in compliance with 44917
any requirements of the compact entered into by the superintendent 44918
pursuant to division (D) of section 3905.33 of the Revised Code. 44919
The tax shall be collected from the insured by the surplus lines 44920
broker who placed or procured the policy of insurance at the time 44921
the policy is delivered to the insured. No license issued under 44922
section 3905.30 of the Revised Code shall be renewed until payment 44923
is made. If the tax is not paid when due, the tax shall be 44924
increased by a penalty of twenty-five per cent. An interest charge 44925
computed as set forth in section 5725.221 of the Revised Code 44926
shall be made on the entire sum of the tax plus penalty, which 44927
interest shall be computed from the date the tax is due until it 44928
is paid. For purposes of this section, payment is considered made 44929
when it is received by the treasurer or the treasurer's designee, 44930
irrespective of any United States postal service marking or other 44931
stamp or mark indicating the date on which the payment may have 44932
been mailed.44933

       The superintendent, in the superintendent's sole discretion, 44934
may waive the twenty-five per cent penalty and interest charge 44935
thereon for a first-time, inadvertent nonpayment of the tax when 44936
due if the nonpayment is reported immediately upon discovery and 44937
the outstanding tax is thereafter immediately paid to the 44938
superintendent.44939

       (C) This section does not apply to:44940

       (1) An insured otherwise exempt from the payment of premium 44941
or franchise taxes under state or federal law;44942

       (2) Attorneys-at-law acting on behalf of their clients in the 44943
adjustment of claims or losses;44944

       (3) Transactions involving policies issued by a captive 44945
insurer. For this purpose, a "captive insurer" means any of the 44946
following:44947

        (a) An insurer owned by one or more individuals or 44948
organizations, whose exclusive purpose is to insure risks of one 44949
or more of the parent organizations or individual owners and risks 44950
of one or more affiliates of the parent organizations or 44951
individual owners;44952

        (b) In the case of groups and associations, insurers owned by 44953
the group or association whose exclusive purpose is to insure 44954
risks of members of the group or association and affiliates of the 44955
members;44956

        (c) Other types of insurers, licensed and operated in 44957
accordance with the captive insurance laws of their jurisdictions 44958
of domicile and operated in a manner so as to self-insure risks of 44959
their owners and insureds.44960

       (4) Professional or medical liability insurance procured by a 44961
hospital organized under Chapter 3701. of the Revised Code;44962

       (5) Insurance with an initial policy period of more than 44963
three years and that is procured to cover known events related to 44964
environmental remediation that occurred prior to the effective 44965
date of that insurance;44966

       (6) Insurance procured on behalf of an entity that 44967
manufactures, packages, and sells, as more than fifty per cent of 44968
the entity's business, pharmaceutical products for human use where 44969
the production, packaging, and sale of such products are subject 44970
to regulation by an agency of the United States;44971

       (7) A political subdivision or any combination or consortium 44972
of two or more political subdivisions.44973

       (D) As used in this section:44974

       (1) "Political subdivision" means any county; municipal 44975
corporation; township; township police district; township fire 44976
district; joint fire district; joint ambulance district; joint 44977
emergency medical services district; fire and ambulance district; 44978
joint recreation district; township waste disposal district; 44979
township road district; community college district; technical 44980
college district; detention facility district; a district 44981
organized under section 2151.65 of the Revised Code; a combined 44982
district organized under sections 2151.65 and 2152.41 of the 44983
Revised Code; a joint-county alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 44984
health service district; a drainage improvement district created 44985
under section 6131.52 of the Revised Code; a union cemetery 44986
district; a county school financing district; a city, local, 44987
exempted village, cooperative education, or joint vocational 44988
school district; or a regional student education district created 44989
under section 3313.83 of the Revised Code, any public division, 44990
district, commission, authority, department, board, officer, or 44991
institution of any one or more of those political subdivisions, 44992
that is entirely or substantially supported by public tax moneys.44993

       (2) "Municipal corporation" means all municipal corporations, 44994
including those that have adopted a charter under Article XVIII, 44995
Ohio Constitution.44996

       Sec. 4104.01.  As used in sections 4104.01 to 4104.20 and 44997
section 4104.99 of the Revised Code:44998

       (A) "Board of building standards" or "board" means the board 44999
established by section 3781.07 of the Revised Code.45000

       (B) "Superintendent" means the superintendent of labor45001
industrial compliance created by section 121.04 of the Revised 45002
Code.45003

       (C) "Boiler" means a closed vessel in which water is heated, 45004
steam is generated, steam is superheated, or any combination 45005
thereof, under pressure or vacuum for use externally to itself by 45006
the direct application of heat from the combustion of fuels, or 45007
from electricity or nuclear energy. "Boiler" includes fired units 45008
for heating or vaporizing liquids other than water where these 45009
units are separate from processing systems and are complete within 45010
themselves.45011

       (D) "Power boiler" means a boiler in which steam or other 45012
vapor (to be used externally to itself) is generated at a pressure 45013
of more than fifteen psig.45014

       (E) "High pressure, high temperature water boiler" means a 45015
water heating boiler operating at pressures exceeding one hundred 45016
sixty psig or temperatures exceeding two hundred fifty degrees 45017
Fahrenheit.45018

       (F) "Low pressure boiler" means a steam boiler operating at 45019
pressures not exceeding fifteen psig, or a hot water heating 45020
boiler operating at pressures not exceeding one hundred sixty psig 45021
or temperatures not exceeding two hundred fifty degrees 45022
Fahrenheit.45023

       (G) "Pressure vessel" means a container for the containment 45024
of pressure, either internal or external. This pressure may be 45025
obtained from an external source or by the application of heat 45026
from a direct or indirect source or any combination thereof.45027

       (H) "Process boiler" means a boiler to which all of the 45028
following apply:45029

       (1) The steam in the boiler is either generated or 45030
superheated, or both, under pressure or vacuum for use external to 45031
itself.45032

       (2) The source of heat for the boiler is in part or in whole 45033
from a process other than the boiler itself.45034

       (3) The boiler is part of a continuous processing unit, such 45035
as used in chemical manufacture or petroleum refining, other than 45036
a steam-generated process unit.45037

       (I) "Stationary steam engine" means an engine or turbine in 45038
which the mechanical force arising from the elasticity and 45039
expansion action of steam or from its property of rapid 45040
condensation or from a combination of the two is made available as 45041
a motive power.45042

       Sec. 4104.02.  The board of building standards shall:45043

       (A) Formulate rules for the construction, installation, 45044
repair, conservation of energy, and operation of boilers and the 45045
construction and repair of pressure vessels and for ascertaining 45046
the safe working pressures to be carried on such boilers and 45047
pressure vessels and the qualification of inspectors of boilers 45048
and pressure vessels;45049

       (B) Prescribe tests, if it is considered necessary, to 45050
ascertain the qualities of materials used in the construction of 45051
boilers and pressure vessels;45052

       (C) Adopt rules regulating the construction and sizes of 45053
safety valves for boilers and pressure vessels of different sizes 45054
and pressures, for the construction, use, and location of fusible 45055
plugs, appliances for indicating the pressure of steam and level 45056
of water in the boiler or pressure vessels, and such other 45057
appliances as the board considers necessary to safety in operating 45058
boilers;45059

       (D) Establish reasonable fees for the performance of reviews, 45060
surveys, or audits of manufacturer's facilities by the division of 45061
laborindustrial compliance for certification by the American 45062
society of mechanical engineers and the national board of boiler 45063
and pressure vessel inspectors;45064

       (E) The definitions and rules adopted by the board for the 45065
construction, installation, repair, conservation of energy, and 45066
operation of boilers and the construction and repair of pressure 45067
vessels and for ascertaining the safe working pressures to be used 45068
on such boilers and pressure vessels shall be based upon and 45069
follow generally accepted engineering standards, formulae, and 45070
practices established and pertaining to boilers and pressure 45071
vessel construction, operation, and safety, and the board may, for 45072
this purpose, adopt existing published standards as well as 45073
amendments thereto subsequently published by the same authority.45074

       When a person desires to manufacture a special type of boiler 45075
or pressure vessel, the design of which is not covered by the 45076
rules of the board, the person shall submit drawings and 45077
specifications of such boiler or pressure vessel to the board for 45078
investigation, after which the board may permit its installation.45079

       The provisions of sections 119.03 and 119.11 of the Revised 45080
Code in particular, and the applicable provisions of Chapter 119. 45081
of the Revised Code in general, shall govern the proceedings of 45082
the board of building standards in adopting, amending, or 45083
rescinding rules pursuant to this section.45084

       Sec. 4104.06.  (A) The inspection of boilers and their 45085
appurtenances and pressure vessels shall be made by the inspectors 45086
mentioned in sections 4104.07 to 4104.20 of the Revised Code. The 45087
superintendent of laborindustrial compliance shall administer and 45088
enforce such sections and rules adopted by the board of building 45089
standards pursuant to section 4104.02 of the Revised Code.45090

       (B) The superintendent shall adopt, amend, and repeal rules 45091
exclusively for the issuance, renewal, suspension, and revocation 45092
of certificates of competency and certificates of operation, for 45093
conducting hearings in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 45094
Code related to these actions, and for the inspection of boilers 45095
and their appurtenances, and pressure vessels.45096

       (C) Notwithstanding division (B) of this section, the 45097
superintendent shall not adopt rules relating to construction, 45098
maintenance, or repair of boilers and their appurtenances, or 45099
repair of pressure vessels.45100

       (D) The superintendent and each general inspector may enter 45101
any premises and any building or room at all reasonable hours to 45102
perform an examination or inspection.45103

       Sec. 4104.07.  (A) An application for examination as an 45104
inspector of boilers and pressure vessels shall be in writing, 45105
accompanied by a fee of one hundred fifty dollars, upon a blank to 45106
be furnished by the superintendent of laborindustrial compliance. 45107
Any moneys collected under this section shall be paid into the 45108
state treasury to the credit of the laborindustrial compliance45109
operating fund created in section 121.084 of the Revised Code.45110

       (B) The superintendent shall determine if an applicant meets 45111
all the requirements for examination in accordance with rules 45112
adopted by the board of building standards under section 4104.02 45113
of the Revised Code. An application shall be rejected which 45114
contains any willful falsification, or untruthful statements.45115

       (C) An applicant shall be examined by the superintendent, by 45116
a written examination, prescribed by the board, dealing with the 45117
construction, installation, operation, maintenance, and repair of 45118
boilers and pressure vessels and their appurtenances, and the 45119
applicant shall be accepted or rejected on the merits of the 45120
applicant's application and examination.45121

       (D) Upon a favorable report by the superintendent of the 45122
result of an examination, the superintendent shall immediately 45123
issue to the successful applicant a certificate of competency to 45124
that effect.45125

       Sec. 4104.08.  (A) The director of commerce may appoint from 45126
the holders of certificates of competency provided for in section 45127
4104.07 of the Revised Code, general inspectors of boilers and 45128
pressure vessels.45129

       (B) Any company authorized to insure boilers and pressure 45130
vessels against explosion in this state may designate from holders 45131
of certificates of competency issued by the superintendent of 45132
laborindustrial compliance, or holders of certificates of 45133
competency or commissions issued by other states or nations whose 45134
examinations for certificates or commissions have been approved by 45135
the board of building standards, persons to inspect and stamp 45136
boilers and pressure vessels covered by the company's policies, 45137
and the superintendent shall issue to such persons commissions 45138
authorizing them to act as special inspectors. Special inspectors 45139
shall be compensated by the company designating them.45140

       (C) The director shall establish an annual fee to be charged 45141
by the superintendent for each certificate of competency or 45142
commission the superintendent issues.45143

       (D) The superintendent shall issue to each general or special 45144
inspector a commission to the effect that the holder thereof is 45145
authorized to inspect boilers and pressure vessels in this state.45146

       (E) No person shall be authorized to act as a general 45147
inspector or a special inspector who is directly or indirectly 45148
interested in the manufacture or sale of boilers or pressure 45149
vessels.45150

       Sec. 4104.09.  The certificate of competency issued under 45151
section 4104.07 of the Revised Code or the commission provided for 45152
in section 4104.08 of the Revised Code may be revoked by the 45153
superintendent of laborindustrial compliance for the 45154
incompetence or untrustworthiness of the holder thereof, or for 45155
willful falsification of any matter or statement contained in the 45156
holder's application or in a report of any inspection in 45157
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. If a certificate 45158
or commission is lost or destroyed, a new certificate or 45159
commission shall be issued in its place without another 45160
examination.45161

       Sec. 4104.10.  All unfired pressure vessels, except unfired 45162
pressure vessels exempt under section 4104.04 of the Revised Code, 45163
shall be thoroughly inspected during fabrication and upon 45164
completion and shall not be operated until a copy of the 45165
manufacturers' data report, properly executed and signed by the 45166
inspector is filed in the office of the superintendent of labor45167
industrial compliance. All unfired pressure vessels shall conform 45168
in every detail with applicable rules adopted by the board of 45169
building standards pursuant to section 4104.02 of the Revised 45170
Code.45171

       Sec. 4104.101.  (A) No person shall install or make major 45172
repairs or modifications to any boiler without first registering 45173
to do so with the division of laborindustrial compliance.45174

       (B) No person shall make any installation or major repair or 45175
modification of any boiler without first obtaining a permit to do 45176
so from the division. The permit application form shall provide 45177
the name and address of the owner, location of the boiler, and 45178
type of repair or modification that will be made. The application 45179
permit fee shall be one hundred dollars.45180

       (C) The superintendent of laborindustrial compliance shall 45181
require annual registration of all contractors who install, make 45182
major repairs to, or modify any boiler. The board of building 45183
standards shall establish a reasonable fee to cover the cost of 45184
processing registrations.45185

       Sec. 4104.12.  All boilers, except boilers mentioned in 45186
section 4104.04 of the Revised Code, shall be inspected when 45187
installed and shall not be operated until an appropriate 45188
certificate of operation has been issued by the superintendent of 45189
laborindustrial compliance. The certificate of operation required 45190
by this section shall not be issued for any boiler which has not 45191
been thoroughly inspected during construction and upon completion, 45192
by either a general or special inspector, and which does not 45193
conform in every detail with the rules adopted by the board of 45194
building standards and unless, upon completion, such boiler is 45195
distinctly stamped under such rules by such inspector.45196

       Sec. 4104.15.  (A) All certificates of inspection for 45197
boilers, issued prior to October 15, 1965, are valid and effective 45198
for the period set forth in such certificates unless sooner 45199
withdrawn by the superintendent of laborindustrial compliance. 45200
The owner or user of any such boiler shall obtain an appropriate 45201
certificate of operation for such boiler, and shall not operate 45202
such boiler, or permit it to be operated unless a certificate of 45203
operation has been obtained in accordance with section 4104.17 of 45204
the Revised Code.45205

       (B) If, upon making the internal and external inspection 45206
required under sections 4104.11, 4104.12, and 4104.13 of the 45207
Revised Code, the inspector finds the boiler to be in safe working 45208
order, with the fittings necessary to safety, and properly set up, 45209
upon the inspector's report to the superintendent, the 45210
superintendent shall issue to the owner or user thereof, or renew, 45211
upon application and upon compliance with sections 4104.17 and 45212
4104.18 of the Revised Code, a certificate of operation which 45213
shall state the maximum pressure at which the boiler may be 45214
operated, as ascertained by the rules of the board of building 45215
standards. Such certificates shall also state the name of the 45216
owner or user, the location, size, and number of each boiler, and 45217
the date of issuance, and shall be so placed as to be easily read 45218
in the engine room or boiler room of the plant where the boiler is 45219
located, except that the certificate of operation for a portable 45220
boiler shall be kept on the premises and shall be accessible at 45221
all times.45222

       (C) If an inspector at any inspection finds that the boiler 45223
or pressure vessel is not in safe working condition, or is not 45224
provided with the fittings necessary to safety, or if the fittings 45225
are improperly arranged, the inspector shall immediately notify 45226
the owner or user and person in charge of the boiler and shall 45227
report the same to the superintendent who may revoke, suspend, or 45228
deny the certificate of operation and not renew the same until the 45229
boiler or pressure vessel and its fittings are put in condition to 45230
insure safety of operation, and the owner or user shall not 45231
operate the boiler or pressure vessel, or permit it to be operated 45232
until such certificate has been granted or restored.45233

       (D) If the superintendent or a general boiler inspector finds 45234
that a pressure vessel or boiler or a part thereof poses an 45235
explosion hazard that reasonably can be regarded as posing an 45236
imminent danger of death or serious physical harm to persons, the 45237
superintendent or the general boiler inspector shall seal the 45238
pressure vessel or boiler and order, in writing, the operator or 45239
owner of the pressure vessel or boiler to immediately cease the 45240
pressure vessel's or boiler's operation. The order shall be 45241
effective until the nonconformities are eliminated, corrected, or 45242
otherwise remedied, or for a period of seventy-two hours from the 45243
time of issuance, whichever occurs first. During the 45244
seventy-two-hour period, the superintendent may request that the 45245
prosecuting attorney or city attorney of Franklin county or of the 45246
county in which the pressure vessel or boiler is located obtain an 45247
injunction restraining the operator or owner of the pressure 45248
vessel or boiler from continuing its operation after the 45249
seventy-two-hour period expires until the nonconformities are 45250
eliminated, corrected, or otherwise remedied.45251

       (E) Each boiler which has been inspected shall be assigned a 45252
number by the superintendent, which number shall be stamped on a 45253
nonferrous metal tag affixed to the boiler or its fittings by seal 45254
or otherwise. No person except an inspector shall deface or remove 45255
any such number or tag.45256

       (F) If the owner or user of any pressure vessel or boiler 45257
disagrees with the inspector as to the necessity for shutting down 45258
a pressure vessel or boiler or for making repairs or alterations 45259
in it, or taking any other measures for safety that are requested 45260
by an inspector, the owner or user may appeal from the decision of 45261
the inspector to the superintendent, who may, after such other 45262
inspection by a general inspector or special inspector as the 45263
superintendent deems necessary, decide the issue.45264

       (G) Neither sections 4104.01 to 4104.20 of the Revised Code, 45265
nor an inspection or report by any inspector, shall relieve the 45266
owner or user of a pressure vessel or boiler of the duty of using 45267
due care in the inspection, operation, and repair of the pressure 45268
vessel or boiler or of any liability for damages for failure to 45269
inspect, repair, or operate the pressure vessel or boiler safely.45270

       Sec. 4104.16.  The owner or user of any boiler required by 45271
sections 4104.01 to 4104.20 of the Revised Code, to be inspected, 45272
shall immediately notify the superintendent of laborindustrial 45273
compliance in case a defect affecting the safety of the boiler is 45274
discovered.45275

       The owner or user of any stationary boiler required by such 45276
sections to be inspected, who moves the same, shall report to the 45277
superintendent the new location of the boiler. Such boiler shall 45278
be inspected before it is again operated.45279

       Sec. 4104.17.  Certificates of operation issued for boilers 45280
subject to inspection under Chapter 4104. of the Revised Code 45281
shall be issued and renewed in accordance with and at dates 45282
prescribed by rules and regulations adopted by the superintendent 45283
of laborindustrial compliance.45284

       Sec. 4104.18.  (A) The owner or user of a boiler required 45285
under section 4104.12 of the Revised Code to be inspected upon 45286
installation, and the owner or user of a boiler for which a 45287
certificate of inspection has been issued which is replaced with 45288
an appropriate certificate of operation, shall pay to the 45289
superintendent of laborindustrial compliance a fee in the amount 45290
of fifty dollars for boilers subject to annual inspections under 45291
section 4104.11 of the Revised Code, one hundred dollars for 45292
boilers subject to biennial inspection under section 4104.13 of 45293
the Revised Code, one hundred fifty dollars for boilers subject to 45294
triennial inspection under section 4104.11 of the Revised Code, or 45295
two hundred fifty dollars for boilers subject to quinquennial 45296
inspection under section 4104.13 of the Revised Code.45297

       (B) The fee for complete inspection during construction by a 45298
general inspector on boilers and pressure vessels manufactured 45299
within the state shall be thirty-five dollars per hour. Boiler and 45300
pressure vessel manufacturers other than those located in the 45301
state may secure inspection by a general inspector on work during 45302
construction, upon application to the superintendent, and upon 45303
payment of a fee of thirty-five dollars per hour, plus the 45304
necessary traveling and hotel expenses incurred by the inspector.45305

       (C) The application fee for applicants for steam engineer, 45306
high pressure boiler operator, or low pressure boiler operator 45307
licenses is seventy-five dollars. The fee for each original or 45308
renewal steam engineer, high pressure boiler operator, or low 45309
pressure boiler operator license is fifty dollars.45310

       (D) The director of commerce, subject to the approval of the 45311
controlling board, may establish fees in excess of the fees 45312
provided in divisions (A), (B), and (C) of this section. Any 45313
moneys collected under this section shall be paid into the state 45314
treasury to the credit of the laborindustrial compliance45315
operating fund created in section 121.084 of the Revised Code.45316

       (E) Any person who fails to pay an invoiced renewal fee or an 45317
invoiced inspection fee required for any inspection conducted by 45318
the division of laborindustrial compliance pursuant to this 45319
chapter within forty-five days of the invoice date shall pay a 45320
late payment fee equal to twenty-five per cent of the invoiced 45321
fee.45322

       (F) In addition to the fees assessed in divisions (A) and (B) 45323
of this section, the board of building standards shall assess the 45324
owner or user a fee of three dollars and twenty-five cents for 45325
each certificate of operation or renewal thereof issued under 45326
division (A) of this section and for each inspection conducted 45327
under division (B) of this section. The board shall adopt rules, 45328
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, specifying 45329
the manner by which the superintendent shall collect and remit to 45330
the board the fees assessed under this division and requiring that 45331
remittance of the fees be made at least quarterly.45332

       Sec. 4104.19. (A) Any person seeking a license to operate as 45333
a steam engineer, high pressure boiler operator, or low pressure 45334
boiler operator shall file a written application with the 45335
superintendent of laborindustrial compliance on a form prescribed 45336
by the superintendent with the appropriate application fee as set 45337
forth in section 4104.18 of the Revised Code. The application 45338
shall contain information satisfactory to the superintendent to 45339
demonstrate that the applicant meets the requirements of division 45340
(B) of this section. The application shall be filed with the 45341
superintendent not more than sixty days and not less than thirty 45342
days before the license examination is offered.45343

       (B) To qualify to take the examination required to obtain a 45344
steam engineer, high pressure boiler operator, or low pressure 45345
boiler operator license, a person shall meet both of the following 45346
requirements:45347

       (1) Be at least eighteen years of age;45348

       (2) Have one year of experience in the operation of steam 45349
engines, high pressure boilers, or low pressure boilers as 45350
applicable to the type of license being sought, or a combination 45351
of experience and education for the type of license sought as 45352
determined to be acceptable by the superintendent.45353

       (C) No applicant shall qualify to take an examination or to 45354
renew a license if the applicant has violated this chapter or if 45355
the applicant has obtained or renewed a license issued under this 45356
chapter by fraud, misrepresentation, or deception.45357

       (D) The superintendent shall issue a license to each 45358
applicant who receives a passing score on the examination, as 45359
determined by the superintendent, for the license for which the 45360
applicant applied.45361

       (E) The superintendent may select and contract with one or 45362
more persons to do all of the following relative to the 45363
examinations for a license to operate as a steam engineer, high 45364
pressure boiler operator, or low pressure boiler operator:45365

       (1) Prepare, administer, score, and maintain the 45366
confidentiality of the examination;45367

       (2) Maintain responsibility for all expenses required to 45368
fulfill division (E)(1) of this section;45369

       (3) Charge each applicant a fee for administering the 45370
examination, in an amount authorized by the superintendent;45371

       (4) Design the examination for each type of license to 45372
determine an applicant's competence to operate the equipment for 45373
which the applicant is seeking licensure.45374

       (F) Each license issued under this chapter expires one year 45375
after the date of issue. Each person holding a valid, unexpired 45376
license may renew the license, without reexamination, by applying 45377
to the superintendent not more than ninety days before the 45378
expiration of the license, and submitting with the application the 45379
renewal fee established in section 4104.18 of the Revised Code. 45380
Upon receipt of the renewal information and fee, the 45381
superintendent shall issue the licensee a certificate of renewal.45382

       (G) The superintendent, in accordance with Chapter 119. of 45383
the Revised Code, may suspend or revoke any license, or may refuse 45384
to issue a license under this chapter upon finding that a licensee 45385
or an applicant for a license has violated or is violating the 45386
requirements of this chapter.45387

       Sec. 4104.21.  On receipt of a notice pursuant to section 45388
3123.43 of the Revised Code, the superintendent of labor45389
industrial compliance shall comply with sections 3123.41 to 45390
3123.50 of the Revised Code and any applicable rules adopted under 45391
section 3123.63 of the Revised Code with respect to a certificate 45392
or license issued pursuant to this chapter.45393

       Sec. 4104.33. There is hereby created the historical boilers 45394
licensing board consisting of seven members, three of whom shall 45395
be appointed by the governor with the advice and consent of the 45396
senate. The governor shall make initial appointments to the board 45397
within ninety days after October 24, 2002. Of the initial members 45398
appointed by the governor, one shall be for a term ending three 45399
years after October 24, 2002, one shall be for a term ending four 45400
years after October 24, 2002, and one shall be for a term ending 45401
five years after October 24, 2002. Thereafter, terms of office 45402
shall be for five years, each term ending on the same day of the 45403
same month of the year as did the term that it succeeds. Of the 45404
three members the governor appoints, one member shall be an 45405
employee of the division of boiler inspection in the department of 45406
commerce; one member shall be an independent mechanical engineer 45407
who is not involved in selling or inspecting historical boilers; 45408
and one shall be an active member of an association that 45409
represents managers of fairs or festivals.45410

       Two members of the board shall be appointed by the president 45411
of the senate and two members of the board shall be appointed by 45412
the speaker of the house of representatives. The president and 45413
speaker shall make initial appointments to the board within ninety 45414
days after October 24, 2002. Of the initial members appointed by 45415
the president, one shall be for a term ending four years after 45416
October 24, 2002 and one shall be for a term ending five years 45417
after October 24, 2002. Of the initial members appointed by the 45418
speaker, one shall be for a term ending three years after October 45419
24, 2002 and one shall be for a term ending five years after 45420
October 24, 2002. Thereafter, terms of office shall be for five 45421
years, each term ending on the same day of the same month of the 45422
year as did the term that it succeeds. Of the four members 45423
appointed by the president and speaker, each shall own a 45424
historical boiler and also have at least ten years of experience 45425
in the operation of historical boilers, and each of these four 45426
members shall reside in a different region of the state.45427

       Each member shall hold office from the date of the member's 45428
appointment until the end of the term for which the member was 45429
appointed. Members may be reappointed. Vacancies shall be filled 45430
in the manner provided for initial appointments. Any member 45431
appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration date 45432
of the term for which the member's predecessor was appointed shall 45433
hold office as a member for the remainder of that term. A member 45434
shall continue in office subsequent to the expiration date of the 45435
member's term until the successor takes office or until a period 45436
of sixty days has elapsed, whichever occurs first.45437

       The members of the board, annually, shall elect, by majority 45438
vote, a chairperson from among their members. The board shall meet 45439
at least once annually and at other times at the call of the 45440
chairperson. Board members shall receive their actual and 45441
necessary expenses incurred in the discharge of their duties as 45442
board members.45443

       The superintendent of laborindustrial compliance shall 45444
furnish office space, staff, and supplies to the board as the 45445
superintendent determines are necessary for the board to carry out 45446
its official duties under sections 4104.33 to 4104.37 of the 45447
Revised Code.45448

       Sec. 4104.42. (A) The owner of any power piping or process 45449
piping system shall ensure that all of the following are performed 45450
in compliance with applicable sections of the B31 standards 45451
contained in the code for pressure piping, published by the 45452
American society of mechanical engineers:45453

       (1) The design, fabrication, assembly, installation, testing, 45454
examination, and inspection of power and process piping systems;45455

       (2) Qualification of personnel and qualification of welding 45456
and brazing procedures;45457

       (3) The implementation of an inspection program.45458

       (B) The owner of a power piping or process piping system 45459
shall do both of the following:45460

       (1) Maintain for five years complete records documenting the 45461
design, examination, and testing of the piping system that include 45462
all of the following:45463

       (a) The specific edition of the code for pressure piping used 45464
in the design;45465

       (b) The design assumptions;45466

       (c) The calculations, piping material specifications, and 45467
construction documents for the piping;45468

       (d) The records of piping alterations;45469

       (e) The piping examination and inspection records.45470

       (2) Disclose the types and quantities of flammable, 45471
combustible, or hazardous materials proposed to be used in the 45472
facility to the building and fire code enforcement authorities who 45473
have inspection authority to enable those authorities to determine 45474
compliance with the rules the board of building standards adopts 45475
pursuant to section 3781.10 of the Revised Code and the rules the 45476
state fire marshal adopts pursuant to section 3737.82 of the 45477
Revised Code.45478

       (C) No person or state agency shall require that the records 45479
described in division (B)(1) of this section be submitted to the 45480
division of laborindustrial compliance in the department of 45481
commerce or to a certified building department for approval.45482

       (D) Nothing in this section limits the application of 45483
Chapters 4703. and 4733. of the Revised Code.45484

       Sec. 4104.43. (A)(1) The board of building standards shall 45485
adopt rules establishing requirements for the design, 45486
installation, inspection of and design review procedure for 45487
building services piping.45488

       (2) The board of building standards shall adopt rules 45489
establishing requirements for the design, installation, inspection 45490
of and design review procedure for nonflammable medical gas, 45491
medical oxygen, and medical vacuum piping systems.45492

       (B) A municipal, township, or county building department 45493
certified under division (E) of section 3781.10 of the Revised 45494
Code shall enforce the rules the board adopts pursuant to division 45495
(A)(2) of this section if that building department requests and 45496
obtains special certification to enforce those rules.45497

        (C) In a health district where no municipal, township, or 45498
county building department is specially certified under division 45499
(B) of this section, an employee of the health district shall 45500
enforce the rules adopted pursuant to division (A)(2) of this 45501
section if both of the following conditions are satisfied:45502

       (1) The health district employee requests and obtains special 45503
certification by the board to enforce those rules.45504

       (2) The health district notifies the superintendent of the 45505
division of laborindustrial compliance in the department of 45506
commerce that the health district's specially certified employee 45507
shall enforce those rules.45508

       (D) In a jurisdiction where enforcement authority as 45509
described in divisions (B) and (C) of this section does not exist, 45510
the superintendent of laborindustrial compliance shall enforce 45511
the rules the board adopts pursuant to division (A)(2) of this 45512
section.45513

       Sec. 4104.44. All welding and brazing of metallic piping 45514
systems shall be performed in accordance with section IX of the 45515
boiler and pressure vessel code, published by the American society 45516
of mechanical engineers. The owner shall maintain, at the job 45517
site, the certified performance qualification records of all 45518
welders and brazers employed at the facility. The owner shall 45519
submit copies of all certified welding and brazing procedure 45520
specifications, procedure qualification records, and performance 45521
qualification records for building services piping for review to 45522
the superintendent of laborindustrial compliance in the 45523
department of commerce in accordance with rules the superintendent 45524
adopts. The submission shall be accompanied by the fee the 45525
superintendent establishes.45526

       Sec. 4104.48.  (A) No person shall violate sections 4104.41 45527
to 4104.48 of the Revised Code, fail to perform any duty lawfully 45528
enjoined in connection with those sections, or fail to comply with 45529
any order issued by the superintendent of laborindustrial 45530
compliance or any judgment or decree issued by any court in 45531
connection with the enforcement of sections 4104.41 to 4104.48 of 45532
the Revised Code.45533

       (B) Every day during which a person violates sections 4104.41 45534
to 4104.48 of the Revised Code, fails to perform any duty lawfully 45535
enjoined in connection with those sections, or fails to comply 45536
with any order issued by the superintendent or any judgment or 45537
decree issued by any court in connection with the enforcement of 45538
sections 4104.41 to 4104.48 of the Revised Code constitutes a 45539
separate offense.45540

       Sec. 4105.01.  As used in this chapter:45541

       (A) "Elevator" means a hoisting and lowering apparatus 45542
equipped with a car, cage, or platform which moves on or between 45543
permanent rails or guides and serves two or more fixed landings in 45544
a building or structure to which section 3781.06 of the Revised 45545
Code applies. "Elevator" includes dumb-waiters other than 45546
hand-powered dumb-waiters, escalators, peopleliftsmanlifts, 45547
moving walks, of the endless belt type, other lifting or lowering 45548
apparatus permanently installed on or between rails or guides, and 45549
all equipment, machinery, and construction related to any 45550
elevator; but does not include construction hoists and other 45551
similar temporary lifting or lowering apparatuses, ski lifts, 45552
traveling, portable amusement rides or devices that are not 45553
affixed to a permanent foundation, or nonportable amusement rides 45554
or devices that are affixed to a permanent foundation.45555

       (B) "Passenger elevator" means an elevator that is designed 45556
to carry persons to its contract capacity.45557

       (C) "Freight elevator" means an elevator normally used for 45558
carrying freight and on which only the operator and employees in 45559
the pursuit of their duties, by the permission of the employer, 45560
are allowed to ride.45561

       (D) "Gravity elevator" means an elevator utilizing gravity to 45562
move.45563

       (E) "General inspector" means a state inspector examined and 45564
hired to inspect elevators and lifting apparatus for that state.45565

       (F) "Special inspector" means an inspector examined and 45566
commissioned by the superintendent of laborindustrial compliance45567
to inspect elevators and lifting apparatus in the state.45568

       (G) "Inspector" means either a general or special inspector.45569

       Sec. 4105.02.  No person may act, either as a general 45570
inspector or as a special inspector, of elevators, unless the 45571
person holds a certificate of competency from the division of 45572
laborindustrial compliance.45573

       Application for examination as an inspector of elevators 45574
shall be in writing, accompanied by a fee to be established as 45575
provided in section 4105.17 of the Revised Code, and upon a blank 45576
to be furnished by the division, stating the school education of 45577
the applicant, a list of the applicant's employers, the 45578
applicant's period of employment, and the position held with each. 45579
An applicant shall also submit a letter from one or more of the 45580
applicant's previous employers certifying as to the applicant's 45581
character and experience.45582

       Applications shall be rejected which contain any willful 45583
falsification or untruthful statements. An applicant, if the 45584
division considers the applicant's history and experience 45585
sufficient, shall be examined by the superintendent of labor45586
industrial compliance by a written examination dealing with the 45587
construction, installation, operation, maintenance, and repair of 45588
elevators and their appurtenances, and the applicant shall be 45589
accepted or rejected on the merits of the applicant's application 45590
and examination.45591

       The superintendent shall issue a certificate of competency in 45592
the inspection of elevators to any applicant found competent upon 45593
examination. A rejected applicant shall be entitled, after the 45594
expiration of ninety days and upon payment of an examination fee 45595
to be established as provided in section 4105.17 of the Revised 45596
Code, to another examination. Should an applicant fail to pass the 45597
prescribed examination on second trial, the applicant will not be 45598
permitted to be an applicant for another examination for a period 45599
of one year after the second examination.45600

       Sec. 4105.03.  The superintendent of laborindustrial 45601
compliance, with the consent of the director of commerce, shall 45602
hire an assistant who has at least ten years of experience in the 45603
construction, installation, maintenance, and repair of elevators 45604
and their appurtenances.45605

       The superintendent, with the consent of the director, and in 45606
compliance with Chapter 124. of the Revised Code, may appoint and 45607
hire general inspectors of elevators from the holders of 45608
certificates of competency.45609

       Sec. 4105.04.  From the holders of certificates of competency 45610
in the inspection of elevators, any company that is authorized to 45611
insure elevators in the state, may designate persons to inspect 45612
elevators covered by such company's policies, and the department 45613
of public safety of any city and the clerk of any village may 45614
designate persons to inspect elevators in such city or village. 45615
Such persons shall, upon the payment of a fee to be established as 45616
provided in section 4105.17 of the Revised Code, have issued to 45617
them annually by the division of laborindustrial compliance, 45618
commissions to serve as special inspectors of elevators in the 45619
state.45620

       Sec. 4105.05.  A commission to serve as a special inspector 45621
may be suspended or revoked by the superintendent of labor45622
industrial compliance, for the incompetence or untrustworthiness 45623
of the holder thereof, or for the falsification of any matter or 45624
statement contained in the holder's application or in a report of 45625
any inspection.45626

       Sec. 4105.06.  If a certificate or commission issued under 45627
sections 4105.02 and 4105.04 of the Revised Code is lost or 45628
destroyed a new one shall be issued in its place by the division 45629
of laborindustrial compliance without another examination, upon 45630
the payment of a fee to be established as provided in section 45631
4105.07 of the Revised Code.45632

       Sec. 4105.09.  The owner or user of any elevator shall 45633
register, with the division of laborindustrial compliance, every 45634
elevator operated by the owner or user, giving the type, capacity, 45635
and description, name of manufacturer, and purpose for which each 45636
is used. Such registration shall be made on a form to be furnished 45637
by the division.45638

       Sec. 4105.11.  The inspection of elevators shall be made by 45639
the inspectors authorized in sections 4105.03 and 4105.04 of the 45640
Revised Code, under the supervision of the superintendent of 45641
laborindustrial compliance, and the superintendent shall enforce 45642
this chapter and any rules adopted pursuant thereto.45643

       Every inspector shall forward to the superintendent a full 45644
and complete report of each inspection made of any elevator and 45645
shall, on the day the inspection is completed, leave a copy of 45646
such report with the owner or operator of the elevator, or the 45647
owner's or operator's agent or representative. Such report shall 45648
indicate the exact condition of the elevator and shall list any 45649
and all of the provisions of this chapter and any rules adopted 45650
pursuant thereto, with which the elevator does not comply. Before 45651
attempting to enforce, by any remedy, civil or criminal, the 45652
provisions with which the inspected elevator does not comply, the 45653
chief shall issue an adjudication order within the meaning of 45654
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.45655

       The approval of construction plans, or an application of 45656
specifications under section 4105.16 of the Revised Code is a 45657
license, and the failure to approve such plans or specifications 45658
by the chief within sixty days after they are filed is an 45659
adjudication order denying the issuance of a license.45660

       Every adjudication order shall specify what appliances, site 45661
preparations, additions, repairs, or alterations to any elevators, 45662
plans, materials, assemblages, or procedures are necessary for the 45663
same to comply with this chapter, or any rules adopted pursuant 45664
thereto. Such adjudication order shall be issued pursuant to 45665
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and shall be effective without 45666
prior hearing, within thirty days after the receipt of such order, 45667
the owner of the elevator specified therein may appeal to the 45668
board of building appeals under section 3781.19 of the Revised 45669
Code.45670

       Notwithstanding the provisions of Chapter 119. of the Revised 45671
Code relating to adjudication hearings, a stenographic or 45672
mechanical record of the testimony and other evidence submitted 45673
before the board of building appeals shall be taken at the expense 45674
of the agency. A party adversely affected by an order issued 45675
following such adjudication hearing may appeal to the court of 45676
common pleas of the county in which the party is a resident or in 45677
which the elevator affected by such order is located. The court in 45678
such case shall not be confined to the record as certified to it 45679
by the agency, but any party may produce additional evidence and 45680
the court shall hear the matter upon such record and such 45681
additional evidence as is introduced by any party. The court shall 45682
not affirm the order of the agency unless the preponderance of the 45683
evidence before it supports the reasonableness and lawfulness of 45684
such order, and of any rules upon which the order of the agency is 45685
based in its application to the facts involved in the appeal.45686

       Failure to comply with the requirements of any order issued 45687
pursuant to this section or the continued operation of any 45688
elevator after it has been sealed pursuant to section 4105.21 of 45689
the Revised Code is hereby declared a public nuisance.45690

       Sec. 4105.12.  (A) The superintendent of laborindustrial 45691
compliance shall adopt, amend, and repeal rules exclusively for 45692
the issuance, renewal, suspension, and revocation of certificates 45693
of competency and certificates of operation, for the conduct of 45694
hearings related to these actions, and for the inspection of 45695
elevators.45696

       (B) Notwithstanding division (A) of this section, the 45697
superintendent shall not adopt rules relating to construction, 45698
maintenance, and repair of elevators.45699

       Sec. 4105.13.  Every elevator shall be constructed, equipped, 45700
maintained, and operated, with respect to the supporting members, 45701
elevator car, shaftways, guides, cables, doors, and gates, safety 45702
stops and mechanism, electrical apparatus and wiring, mechanical 45703
apparatus, counterweights, and all other appurtenances, in 45704
accordance with state laws and rules as are authorized in respect 45705
thereto. Where reasonable safety is obtained without complying to 45706
the literal requirements of such rules as in cases of practical 45707
difficulty or unnecessary hardship, the literal requirements of 45708
such rules shall not be required. The superintendent of labor45709
industrial compliance may permit the installation of vertical 45710
wheelchair lifts in public buildings to provide for handicapped 45711
accessibility where such lifts do not meet the literal 45712
requirements of the rules adopted by the board of building 45713
standards pursuant to section 4105.011 of the Revised Code, 45714
provided that reasonable safety may be obtained.45715

       Sec. 4105.15.  No certificate of operation for any elevator 45716
shall be issued by the director of commerce until such elevator 45717
has been inspected as required by this chapter. Certificates of 45718
operation shall be renewed by the owner or user of the elevator in 45719
accordance with rules adopted by the superintendent of labor45720
industrial compliance pursuant to section 4105.12 of the Revised 45721
Code.45722

       Sec. 4105.16.  Before any new installation of an elevator of 45723
permanent nature is erected or before any existing elevator is 45724
removed to and installed in a different location, an application 45725
of specifications in duplicate shall be submitted to the division 45726
of laborindustrial compliance giving such information concerning 45727
the construction, installation, and operation of said elevator as 45728
the division may require on forms to be furnished by the division, 45729
together with complete construction plans in duplicate. In all 45730
cases where any changes or repairs are made which alter its 45731
construction of classification, grade or rated lifting capacity, 45732
except when made pursuant to a report of an inspector, an 45733
application of specifications in duplicate shall be submitted to 45734
the division, containing such information, or approval, except in 45735
those municipal corporations which maintain their own elevator 45736
inspection departments, in which event such specifications shall 45737
be submitted to the elevator department of the municipal 45738
corporation for its approval, and if approved, a permit for the 45739
erection or repair of such elevator shall be issued by the 45740
municipal corporation. Upon approval of such application and 45741
construction plans, the superintendent of laborindustrial 45742
compliance shall issue a permit for the erection or repair of such 45743
elevator. No new elevator shall be operated until completion in 45744
accordance with the approved plans and specifications, unless a 45745
temporary permit is granted by the division.45746

       The final inspection, before operation, of a permanent, new 45747
or repaired elevator shall be made by a general inspector or a 45748
special inspector designated by the superintendent.45749

       Sec. 4105.17.  (A) The fee for each inspection, or attempted 45750
inspection that, due to no fault of a general inspector or the 45751
division of laborindustrial compliance, is not successfully 45752
completed, by a general inspector before the operation of a 45753
permanent new elevator prior to the issuance of a certificate of 45754
operation, before operation of an elevator being put back into 45755
service after a repair or after an adjudication under section 45756
4105.11 of the Revised Code, or as a result of the operation of 45757
section 4105.08 of the Revised Code and is an elevator required to 45758
be inspected under this chapter is one hundred twenty dollars plus 45759
ten dollars for each floor where the elevator stops. The 45760
superintendent of laborindustrial compliance may assess an 45761
additional fee of one hundred twenty dollars plus ten dollars for 45762
each floor where an elevator stops for the reinspection of an 45763
elevator when a previous attempt to inspect that elevator has been 45764
unsuccessful through no fault of a general inspector or the 45765
division of laborindustrial compliance.45766

       (B) The fee for each inspection, or attempted inspection, 45767
that due to no fault of the general inspector or the division, is 45768
not successfully completed by a general inspector before operation 45769
of a permanent new escalator or moving walk prior to the issuance 45770
of a certificate of operation, before operation of an escalator or 45771
moving walk being put back in service after a repair, or as a 45772
result of the operation of section 4105.08 of the Revised Code is 45773
three hundred dollars. The superintendent may assess an additional 45774
fee of one hundred fifty dollars for the reinspection of an 45775
escalator or moving walk when a previous attempt to inspect that 45776
escalator or moving walk has been unsuccessful through no fault of 45777
the general inspector or the division.45778

       (C) The fee for issuing or renewing a certificate of 45779
operation under section 4105.15 of the Revised Code for an 45780
elevator that is inspected every six months in accordance with 45781
division (A) of section 4105.10 of the Revised Code is two hundred 45782
twenty dollars plus twelve dollars for each floor where the 45783
elevator stops, except where the elevator has been inspected by a 45784
special inspector in accordance with section 4105.07 of the 45785
Revised Code.45786

       (D) The fee for issuing or renewing a certificate of 45787
operation under section 4105.05 of the Revised Code for an 45788
elevator that is inspected every twelve months in accordance with 45789
division (A) of section 4105.10 of the Revised Code is fifty-five 45790
dollars plus ten dollars for each floor where the elevator stops, 45791
except where the elevator has been inspected by a special 45792
inspector in accordance with section 4105.07 of the Revised Code.45793

       (E) The fee for issuing or renewing a certificate of 45794
operation under section 4105.15 of the Revised Code for an 45795
escalator or moving walk is three hundred dollars, except where 45796
the escalator or moving walk has been inspected by a special 45797
inspector in accordance section 4105.07 of the Revised Code.45798

       (F) All other fees to be charged for any examination given or 45799
other service performed by the division pursuant to this chapter 45800
shall be prescribed by the director of commerce. The fees shall be 45801
reasonably related to the costs of such examination or other 45802
service.45803

       (G) The director of commerce, subject to the approval of the 45804
controlling board, may establish fees in excess of the fees 45805
provided in divisions (A), (B), (C), (D), and (E) of this section. 45806
Any moneys collected under this section shall be paid into the 45807
state treasury to the credit of the laborindustrial compliance45808
operating fund created in section 121.084 of the Revised Code.45809

       (H) Any person who fails to pay an inspection fee required 45810
for any inspection conducted by the division pursuant to this 45811
chapter within forty-five days after the inspection is conducted 45812
shall pay a late payment fee equal to twenty-five per cent of the 45813
inspection fee.45814

       (I) In addition to the fees assessed in divisions (A), (B), 45815
(C), (D), and (E) of this section, the board of building standards 45816
shall assess a fee of three dollars and twenty-five cents for each 45817
certificate of operation or renewal thereof issued under divisions 45818
(A), (B), (C), (D), or (E) of this section and for each permit 45819
issued under section 4105.16 of the Revised Code. The board shall 45820
adopt rules, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, 45821
specifying the manner by which the superintendent shall collect 45822
and remit to the board the fees assessed under this division and 45823
requiring that remittance of the fees be made at least quarterly.45824

       (J) For purposes of this section:45825

       (1) "Escalator" means a power driven, inclined, continuous 45826
stairway used for raising or lowering passengers.45827

       (2) "Moving walk" means a passenger carrying device on which 45828
passengers stand or walk, with a passenger carrying surface that 45829
is uninterrupted and remains parallel to its direction of motion.45830

       Sec. 4105.191.  Any person owning or operating any elevator 45831
subject to this chapter shall file a written report with the 45832
superintendent of laborindustrial compliance within seventy-two 45833
hours after the occurrence of any accident involving such elevator 45834
which results in death or bodily injury to any person.45835

       Sec. 4105.20.  No person shall violate any law relative to 45836
the operation, construction, maintenance, and repair of elevators. 45837
All fines collected for violation of this section shall be 45838
forwarded to the superintendent of laborindustrial compliance, 45839
who shall pay them into the state treasury to the credit of the 45840
laborindustrial compliance operating fund created in section 45841
121.084 of the Revised Code.45842

       Sec. 4105.21.  The superintendent of laborindustrial 45843
compliance shall enforce this chapter. If the superintendent or a 45844
general inspector of elevators finds that an elevator or a part 45845
thereof does not afford reasonable safety as required by section 45846
4105.13 of the Revised Code, the superintendent or the general 45847
inspector may seal such elevator and post a notice thereon 45848
prohibiting further use of the elevator until the changes or 45849
alterations set forth in the notice have been made to the 45850
satisfaction of the superintendent or the inspector. The notice 45851
shall contain a statement that operators or passengers are subject 45852
to injury by its continued use, a description of the alteration or 45853
other change necessary to be made in order to secure safety of 45854
operation, date of such notice, name and signature of the 45855
superintendent or inspector issuing the notice.45856

       Sec. 4115.10.  (A) No person, firm, corporation, or public 45857
authority that constructs a public improvement with its own 45858
forces, the total overall project cost of which is fairly 45859
estimated to be more than the amounts set forth in division (B) of 45860
section 4115.03 of the Revised Code, adjusted biennially by the 45861
director of commerce pursuant to section 4115.034 of the Revised 45862
Code, as appropriate, shall violate the wage provisions of 45863
sections 4115.03 to 4115.16 of the Revised Code, or suffer, 45864
permit, or require any employee to work for less than the rate of 45865
wages so fixed, or violate the provisions of section 4115.07 of 45866
the Revised Code. Any employee upon any public improvement, except 45867
an employee to whom or on behalf of whom restitution is made 45868
pursuant to division (C) of section 4115.13 of the Revised Code, 45869
who is paid less than the fixed rate of wages applicable thereto 45870
may recover from such person, firm, corporation, or public 45871
authority that constructs a public improvement with its own forces 45872
the difference between the fixed rate of wages and the amount paid 45873
to the employee and in addition thereto a sum equal to twenty-five 45874
per cent of that difference. The person, firm, corporation, or 45875
public authority who fails to pay the rate of wages so fixed also 45876
shall pay a penalty to the director of seventy-five per cent of 45877
the difference between the fixed rate of wages and the amount paid 45878
to the employees on the public improvement. The director shall 45879
deposit all moneys received from penalties paid to the director 45880
pursuant to this section into the laborindustrial compliance45881
operating fund. The director shall use the fund for the 45882
enforcement of sections 4115.03 to 4115.16 of the Revised Code. 45883
The employee may file suit for recovery within ninety days of the 45884
director's determination of a violation of sections 4115.03 to 45885
4115.16 of the Revised Code or is barred from further action under 45886
this division. Where the employee prevails in a suit, the employer 45887
shall pay the costs and reasonable attorney's fees allowed by the 45888
court.45889

       (B) Any employee upon any public improvement who is paid less 45890
than the prevailing rate of wages applicable thereto may file a 45891
complaint in writing with the director upon a form furnished by 45892
the director. The complaint shall include documented evidence to 45893
demonstrate that the employee was paid less than the prevailing 45894
wage in violation of this chapter. Upon receipt of a properly 45895
completed written complaint of any employee paid less than the 45896
prevailing rate of wages applicable, the director shall take an 45897
assignment of a claim in trust for the assigning employee and 45898
bring any legal action necessary to collect the claim. The 45899
employer shall pay the costs and reasonable attorney's fees 45900
allowed by the court if the employer is found in violation of 45901
sections 4115.03 to 4115.16 of the Revised Code.45902

       (C) If after investigation pursuant to section 4115.13 of the 45903
Revised Code, the director determines there is a violation of 45904
sections 4115.03 to 4115.16 of the Revised Code and a period of 45905
sixty days has elapsed from the date of the determination, and if:45906

       (1) No employee has brought suit pursuant to division (A) of 45907
this section;45908

       (2) No employee has requested that the director take an 45909
assignment of a wage claim pursuant to division (B) of this 45910
section.45911

       The director shall bring any legal action necessary to 45912
collect any amounts owed to employees and the director. The 45913
director shall pay over to the affected employees the amounts 45914
collected to which the affected employees are entitled under 45915
division (A) of this section. In any action in which the director 45916
prevails, the employer shall pay the costs and reasonable 45917
attorney's fees allowed by the court.45918

       (D) Where persons are employed and their rate of wages has 45919
been determined as provided in section 4115.04 of the Revised 45920
Code, no person, either for self or any other person, shall 45921
request, demand, or receive, either before or after the person is 45922
engaged, that the person so engaged pay back, return, donate, 45923
contribute, or give any part or all of the person's wages, salary, 45924
or thing of value, to any person, upon the statement, 45925
representation, or understanding that failure to comply with such 45926
request or demand will prevent the procuring or retaining of 45927
employment, and no person shall, directly or indirectly, aid, 45928
request, or authorize any other person to violate this section. 45929
This division does not apply to any agent or representative of a 45930
duly constituted labor organization acting in the collection of 45931
dues or assessments of such organization.45932

       (E) The director shall enforce sections 4115.03 to 4115.16 of 45933
the Revised Code.45934

       (F) For the purpose of supplementing existing resources and 45935
to assist in enforcing division (E) of this section, the director 45936
may contract with a person registered as a public accountant under 45937
Chapter 4701. of the Revised Code to conduct an audit of a person, 45938
firm, corporation, or public authority.45939

       (G) No contractor or subcontractor shall be responsible for 45940
the payment of the penalties provided in division (A) of this 45941
section resulting from a violation of sections 4115.03 to 4115.16 45942
of the Revised Code by its subcontractor, provided that the 45943
contractor or subcontractor has made a good faith effort to ensure 45944
that its subcontractor complied with the requirements of sections 45945
4115.03 to 4115.16 of the Revised Code.45946

       Sec. 4115.101.  There is hereby created the prevailing wage 45947
custodial fund, which shall be in the custody of the treasurer of 45948
state but shall not be part of the state treasury. The director of 45949
commerce shall deposit to the fund all money paid by employers to 45950
the director that are held in trust for employees to whom 45951
prevailing wages are due and owing. The director shall make 45952
disbursements from the fund in accordance with this chapter to 45953
employees affected by violations of this chapter. If the director 45954
determines that any funds in the prevailing wage custodial fund 45955
are not returnable to employees as required under this section, 45956
then the director shall certify to the treasurer of state the 45957
amount of the funds that are not returnable. Upon the receipt of a 45958
certification from the director in accordance with this section, 45959
the treasurer of state shall transfer the certified amount of the 45960
funds from the prevailing wage custodial fund to the labor45961
industrial compliance operating fund.45962

       Sec. 4121.123.  (A) There is hereby created the workers' 45963
compensation board of directors nominating committee consisting of 45964
the following:45965

       (1) Three individuals who are members of affiliated employee 45966
organizations of the Ohio chapter of the American federation of 45967
labor-congress of industrial organizations, who are selected by 45968
the Ohio chapter of the American federation of labor-congress of 45969
industrial organizations and who, on account of their previous 45970
vocation, employment, or affiliations, can be classed as 45971
representative of employees who are members of an employee 45972
organization. Terms of office shall be for one year, with each 45973
term ending on the same day of the same month as did the term that 45974
it succeeds.45975

       (2) Two individuals who, on account of their previous 45976
vocation, employment, or affiliations, can be classed as 45977
representative of employees, one of whom shall be an injured 45978
worker with a valid, open, and active workers' compensation claim 45979
and at least one of these two representatives also shall represent 45980
employees who are not members of an employee organization. The 45981
president of the senate and the speaker of the house of 45982
representatives each shall appoint annually one of these members. 45983
The member who is an injured worker shall serve for a full term 45984
even if the member's workers' compensation claim is invalidated, 45985
closed, or inactivated during the member's term.45986

       (3) The chief executive officer, or the equivalent of the 45987
chief executive officer, of the Ohio chamber of commerce, the Ohio 45988
manufacturers' association, the Ohio self-insurers' association, 45989
the Ohio council of retail merchants, the national federation of 45990
independent business, and the Ohio farm bureau;45991

       (4) The director of development;45992

       (5) The president of the Ohio township association and the 45993
president of the Ohio county commissioners association, or, inif 45994
any of the following circumstances apply:45995

       (a) In the event of a vacancy in theeither presidency, a 45996
designee appointed by the governing body authorized to appoint the 45997
president. A designee so appointed shall serve on the nominating 45998
committee only until the vacancy in the presidency is filled.45999

       (b) In the event that the president of the Ohio township 46000
association is unavailable, a designee selected by the president;46001

       (c) In the event that the president of the Ohio county 46002
commissioners association is unavailable, a designee selected by 46003
the president.46004

       (B) Each member appointed under divisions (A)(1) and (2) of 46005
this section shall hold office from the date of the member's 46006
appointment until the end of the term for which the member was 46007
appointed. Such members may be reappointed. Vacancies shall be 46008
filled in the manner provided for original appointments. Any such 46009
member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the 46010
expiration date of the term for which the member's predecessor was 46011
appointed shall hold office as a member for the remainder of that 46012
term. Such a member shall continue in office subsequent to the 46013
expiration date of the member's term until the member's successor 46014
takes office or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, 46015
whichever occurs first.46016

       (C) The nominating committee shall meet at the request of the 46017
governor or as the nominating committee determines appropriate in 46018
order to make recommendations to the governor for the appointment 46019
of members of the bureau of workers' compensation board of 46020
directors under section 4121.12 of the Revised Code.46021

       (D) The director of development shall serve as chairperson of 46022
the nominating committee and have no voting rights on matters 46023
coming before the nominating committee, except that the director 46024
may vote in the event of a tie vote of the nominating committee. 46025
Annually, the nominating committee shall select a secretary from 46026
among its members. The nominating committee may adopt by-laws 46027
governing its proceedings.46028

       (E) Members of the nominating committee shall be paid their 46029
reasonable and necessary expenses pursuant to section 126.31 of 46030
the Revised Code while engaged in the performance of their duties 46031
as members of the nominating committee.46032

       (F) The nominating committee shall:46033

       (1) Review and evaluate possible appointees for the board. In 46034
reviewing and evaluating possible appointees for the board, the 46035
nominating committee may accept comments from, cooperate with, and 46036
request information from any person.46037

       (2) Make recommendations to the governor for the appointment 46038
of members to the board as provided in division (C) of section 46039
4121.12 of the Revised Code.46040

       (G) The nominating committee may make recommendations to the 46041
general assembly concerning changes in legislation that will 46042
assist the nominating committee in the performance of its duties.46043

       Sec. 4121.30.  (A) All rules governing the operating 46044
procedure of the bureau of workers' compensation and the 46045
industrial commission shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 46046
119. of the Revised Code, except that determinations of the 46047
bureau, district hearing officers, staff hearing officers, and the 46048
commission, with respect to an individual employee's claim to 46049
participate in the state insurance fund are governed only by 46050
Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code.46051

       The administrator of workers' compensation and commission 46052
shall proceed jointly, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 46053
Revised Code, including a joint hearing, to adopt joint rules 46054
governing the operating procedures of the bureau and commission.46055
The bureau shall publish the joint rules in a single publication.46056

       (B) Upon submission to the bureau or the commission of a 46057
petition containing not less than fifteen hundred signatures of 46058
adult residents of the state, any individual may propose a rule 46059
for adoption, amendment, or rescission by the bureau or the 46060
commission. If, upon investigation, the bureau or commission is 46061
satisfied that the signatures upon the petition are valid, it 46062
shall proceed, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 46063
Code, to consider adoption, amendment, or rescission of the rule.46064

       (C) The administrator shall publishmake available 46065
electronically all rules adopted by the bureau and the commission 46066
in a single publication and shall make available in a timely 46067
manner and at cost copies of all rules adopted by the bureau and 46068
the commission that are currently in force. For that purpose, the 46069
administrator shall maintain a mailing list of all persons 46070
requesting copies of the rules.46071

       (D) The rule-making authority granted to the administrator 46072
under this section does not limit the commission's rule-making 46073
authority relative to its overall adjudicatory policy-making and 46074
management duties under this chapter and Chapters 4123., 4127., 46075
and 4131. of the Revised Code. The administrator shall not 46076
disregard any rule adopted by the commission, provided that the 46077
rule is within the commission's rule-making authority.46078

       Sec. 4123.20.  The administrator of workers' compensation 46079
shall cause to be printed, in proper form for distributionmake 46080
available electronically to the public, its classifications, 46081
rates, rules, and rules of procedure, and shall furnish the same 46082
to any person upon application therefor, and the fact that the 46083
classifications, rates, rules, and rules of procedure are printed 46084
ready for distribution to all who apply for the same is a 46085
sufficient publication of the same as required by this chapter46086
request.46087

       Sec. 4163.07.  (A)(1) Prior to transporting any high-level 46088
radioactive waste, spent nuclear fuel, transuranic waste, or any 46089
quantity of special nuclear material or by-product material that 46090
meets or exceeds the highway route controlled quantity, within, 46091
into, or through the state, the shipper of the material shall 46092
notify the executive director of the emergency management agency 46093
established under section 5502.22 of the Revised Code of the 46094
shipment. The notice shall be in writing and be sent by certified 46095
mail and shall include the name of the shipper; the name of the 46096
carrier; the type and quantity of the material; the transportation 46097
mode of the shipment; the proposed date and time of shipment of 46098
the material within, into, or through the state; and the starting 46099
point, termination or exit point, scheduled route, and each 46100
alternate route, if any, of the shipment. In order to constitute 46101
effective notification under division (A)(1) of this section, 46102
notification shall be received by the executive director at least 46103
four days prior to shipment within, into, or through the state.46104

       (2) The carrier or shipper of any shipment subject to 46105
division (A)(1) of this section shall immediately notify the 46106
executive director of any change in the date and time of the 46107
shipment or in the route of the shipment within, into, or through 46108
the state.46109

       (B) Upon receipt of a notice of any shipment of material that 46110
is subject to division (A)(1) of this section within, into, or 46111
through the state, the executive director of the emergency 46112
management agency shall immediately notify the director of public 46113
safety, the director of environmental protection, the director of 46114
health, the chairperson of the public utilities commission, and 46115
the county emergency management agency and sheriff of each county 46116
along the proposed route, or any alternate route, of the shipment.46117

       (C) The executive director of the emergency management agency 46118
shall not disclose to any person other than those persons 46119
enumerated in division (B) of this section any information 46120
pertaining to any shipment of special nuclear material or 46121
by-product material prior to the time that the shipment is 46122
completed.46123

       (D) This section does not apply to radioactive materials, 46124
other than by-products, shipped by or for the United States 46125
department of defense and United States department of energy for 46126
military or national defense purposes. Nothing in this section 46127
requires the disclosure of any defense information or restricted 46128
data as defined in the "Atomic Energy Act of 1954," 68 Stat. 919, 46129
42 U.S.C. 2011, as amended.46130

       (E) No person shall transport or cause to be transported 46131
within, into, or through the state any material that is subject to 46132
division (A)(1) of this section without first providing the notice 46133
required in that division.46134

       (F) Whoever violates division (E) of this section, in 46135
addition to any penalty imposed under section 4163.99 of the 46136
Revised Code, is liable for a civil penalty in an amount not to 46137
exceed the following, as applicable:46138

       (1) Twenty-five thousand dollars for a motor carrier, as 46139
defined in section 4923.01 of the Revised Code;46140

       (2) Forty-five thousand dollars for the first cask designated 46141
for transport by rail and thirty thousand dollars for each 46142
additional cask designated for transport by rail that is shipped 46143
by the same person or entity in the same shipment.46144

       The attorney general, upon the request of the executive 46145
director of the emergency management agency, shall bring a civil 46146
action to collect the penalty. Fines collected pursuant to this 46147
section shall be deposited into the state treasury to the credit 46148
of the radioactive wastepublic utilities transportation safety46149
fund created in section 4905.8014921.21 of the Revised Code.46150

       Sec. 4169.02.  (A) For the purposes of regulating the 46151
construction, maintenance, mechanical operation, and inspection of 46152
passenger tramways that are associated with ski areas and of 46153
registering operators of passenger tramways in this state, there 46154
is hereby established in the division of laborindustrial 46155
compliance in the department of commerce a ski tramway board to be 46156
appointed by the governor, with the advice and consent of the 46157
senate. The board shall consist of three members, one of whom 46158
shall be a public member who is an experienced skier and familiar 46159
with ski areas in this state, one of whom shall be a ski area 46160
operator actively engaged in the business of recreational skiing 46161
in this state, and one of whom shall be a professional engineer 46162
who is knowledgeable in the design or operation of passenger 46163
tramways.46164

       Of the initial appointments, one member shall be appointed 46165
for a term of one year, one for a term of two years, and one for a 46166
term of three years. The member appointed to the term beginning on 46167
July 1, 1996, shall be appointed to a term ending on June 30, 46168
1997; the member appointed to a term beginning on July 1, 1997, 46169
shall be appointed to a term ending on June 30, 1999; and the 46170
member appointed to a term beginning on July 1, 1998, shall be 46171
appointed to a term ending on June 30, 2001. Thereafter, each of 46172
the members shall be appointed for a term of six years. Each 46173
member shall hold office from the date of appointment until the 46174
end of the term for which the member was appointed. In the event 46175
of a vacancy, the governor, with the advice and consent of the 46176
senate, shall appoint a successor who shall hold office for the 46177
remainder of the term for which the successor's predecessor was 46178
appointed. A member shall continue in office subsequent to the 46179
expiration date of the member's term until the member's successor 46180
takes office or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, 46181
whichever occurs first. The board shall elect a chairperson from 46182
its members.46183

       The governor may remove any member of the board at any time 46184
for misfeasance, nonfeasance, or malfeasance in office after 46185
giving the member a copy of the charges against the member and an 46186
opportunity to be heard publicly in person or by counsel in the 46187
member's defense. Any such act of removal by the governor is 46188
final. A statement of the findings of the governor, the reason for 46189
the governor's action, and the answer, if any, of the member shall 46190
be filed by the governor with the secretary of state and shall be 46191
open to public inspection.46192

       Members of the board shall be paid two hundred fifty dollars 46193
for each meeting that the member attends, except that no member 46194
shall be paid or receive more than seven hundred fifty dollars for 46195
attending meetings during any calendar year. Each member shall be 46196
reimbursed for the member's actual and necessary expenses incurred 46197
in the performance of official board duties. The chairperson shall 46198
be paid two hundred fifty dollars annually in addition to any 46199
compensation the chairperson receives under this division for 46200
attending meetings and any other compensation the chairperson 46201
receives for serving on the board.46202

       The division shall provide the board with such offices and 46203
such clerical, professional, and other assistance as may be 46204
reasonably necessary for the board to carry on its work. The 46205
division shall maintain accurate copies of the board's rules as 46206
promulgated in accordance with division (B) of this section and 46207
shall keep all of the board's records, including business records, 46208
and inspection reports as well as its own records and reports. The 46209
cost of administering the board and conducting inspections shall 46210
be included in the budget of the division based on revenues 46211
generated by the registration fees established under section 46212
4169.03 of the Revised Code.46213

       (B) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the 46214
board shall adopt and may amend or rescind rules relating to 46215
public safety in the construction, maintenance, mechanical 46216
operation, and inspection of passenger tramways. The rules shall 46217
be in accordance with established standards in the business of ski 46218
area operation, if any, and shall not discriminate in their 46219
application to ski area operators.46220

       No person shall violate the rules of the board.46221

       (C) The authority of the board shall not extend to any matter 46222
relative to the operation of a ski area other than the 46223
construction, maintenance, mechanical operation, and inspection of 46224
passenger tramways.46225

       (D) A majority of the board constitutes a quorum and may 46226
perform and exercise all the duties and powers devolving upon the 46227
board.46228

       Sec. 4169.03.  (A) Before a passenger tramway operator may 46229
operate any passenger tramway in the state, the operator shall 46230
apply to the ski tramway board, on forms prepared by it, for 46231
registration by the board. The application shall contain an 46232
inventory of the passenger tramways that the applicant intends to 46233
operate and other information as the board may reasonably require 46234
and shall be accompanied by the following annual fees:46235

       (1) Each aerial passenger tramway, five hundred dollars;46236

       (2) Each skimobile, two hundred dollars;46237

       (3) Each chair lift, two hundred dollars;46238

       (4) Each J bar, T bar, or platter pull, one hundred dollars;46239

       (5) Each rope tow, fifty dollars;46240

       (6) Each wire rope tow, seventy-five dollars;46241

        (7) Each conveyor, one hundred dollars.46242

       When an operator operates an aerial passenger tramway, a 46243
skimobile, or a chair lift during both a winter and summer season, 46244
the annual fee shall be one and one-half the above amount for the 46245
respective passenger tramway.46246

       (B) Upon payment of the appropriate annual fees in accordance 46247
with division (A) of this section, the board shall issue a 46248
registration certificate to the operator. Each certificate shall 46249
remain in force until the thirtieth day of September next ensuing. 46250
The board shall renew an operator's certificate in accordance with 46251
the standard renewal procedure in Chapter 4745. of the Revised 46252
Code upon payment of the appropriate annual fees.46253

       (C) Money received from the registration fees and from the 46254
fines collected pursuant to section 4169.99 of the Revised Code 46255
shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the labor46256
industrial compliance operating fund created in section 121.084 of 46257
the Revised Code.46258

       (D) No person shall operate a passenger tramway in this state 46259
unless the person has been registered by the board.46260

       Sec. 4169.04.  (A) The division of laborindustrial 46261
compliance in the department of commerce shall make such 46262
inspection of the construction, maintenance, and mechanical 46263
operation of passenger tramways as the ski tramway board may 46264
reasonably require. The division may contract with other qualified 46265
engineers to make such inspection or may accept the inspection 46266
report by any qualified inspector of an insurance company 46267
authorized to insure passenger tramways in this state.46268

       (B) If, as the result of an inspection, an employee of the 46269
division or other agent with whom the division has contracted 46270
finds that a violation of the board's rules exists or a condition 46271
in passenger tramway construction, maintenance, or mechanical 46272
operation exists that endangers public safety, the employee or 46273
agent shall make an immediate report to the board for appropriate 46274
investigation and order.46275

       Sec. 4171.04.  (A) Before a person may operate any roller 46276
skating rink in the state, the person shall:46277

       (1) Apply to the superintendent of laborindustrial 46278
compliance in the department of commerce on forms designated by 46279
the superintendent for a certificate of registration;46280

       (2) Provide an inventory of all the roller skating rinks that 46281
the applicant intends to operate, and any other information the 46282
superintendent may reasonably require on the application;46283

       (3) Include with the application a registration fee of 46284
twenty-five dollars for each roller skating rink to be operated by 46285
the applicant.46286

       (B) Upon compliance with division (A) of this section, the 46287
superintendent shall issue a certificate of registration to the 46288
operator for each roller skating rink to be operated by the 46289
applicant. Each certificate shall remain in force as follows:46290

       (1) Until the thirty-first day of December next ensuing; or46291

       (2) For sixty days after the dissolution of a partnership.46292

       (C) In case of the dissolution of a partnership by death, the 46293
surviving partner or partners may operate a roller skating rink 46294
pursuant to the certificate of registration obtained by the 46295
partnership in accordance with this chapter for a period of sixty 46296
days following dissolution. The heirs or representatives of 46297
deceased persons and receivers or trustees in bankruptcy appointed 46298
by any competent authority may operate under the certificate of 46299
registration of the person succeeded in possession.46300

       (D) The superintendent shall renew an operator's certificate 46301
of registration in accordance with the standard license renewal 46302
procedure set forth in Chapter 4745. of the Revised Code upon 46303
payment of a renewal fee of twenty-five dollars for each roller 46304
skating rink to be operated by the applicant.46305

       (E) Money received from the registration and renewal fees 46306
collected pursuant to this chapter shall be paid into the state 46307
treasury to the credit of the laborindustrial compliance46308
operating fund created in section 121.084 of the Revised Code.46309

       Sec. 4301.30. (A) All fees collected by the division of 46310
liquor control shall be deposited in the state treasury to the 46311
credit of the undivided liquor permit fund, which is hereby 46312
created, at the time prescribed under section 4301.12 of the 46313
Revised Code. Each payment shall be accompanied by a statement 46314
showing separately the amount collected for each class of permits 46315
in each municipal corporation and in each township outside the 46316
limits of any municipal corporation in such township. An46317

       (B)(1) An amount equal to forty-five per cent of the fund 46318
shall be paid from the fund into the state liquor regulatory fund, 46319
which is hereby created in the state treasury. The state liquor 46320
regulatory fund shall be used to pay the operating expenses of the 46321
division of liquor control in administering and enforcing Title 46322
XLIII of the Revised Code and the operating expenses of the liquor 46323
control commission. Investment earnings of the fund shall be 46324
credited to the fund.46325

       (2) Whenever, in the judgment of the director of budget and 46326
management, the amount of money that is in the state liquor 46327
regulatory fund is in excess of the amount that is needed to pay 46328
the operating expenses of the division in administering and 46329
enforcing Title XLIII of the Revised Code and the operating 46330
expenses of the commission, the director shall credit the excess 46331
amount to the general revenue fund.46332

       (C) Twenty per cent of the undivided liquor permit fund shall 46333
be paid into the statewide treatment and prevention fund, which is 46334
hereby created in the state treasury. This amount shall be 46335
appropriated by the general assembly, together with an amount 46336
equal to one and one-half per cent of the gross profit of the 46337
division of liquor control derived under division (B)(4) of 46338
section 4301.10 of the Revised Code, to the department of alcohol 46339
and drug addiction services. In planning for the allocation of and 46340
in allocating these amounts for the purposes of Chapter 3793. of 46341
the Revised Code, the department of alcohol and drug addiction 46342
services shall comply with the nondiscrimination provisions of 46343
Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, and any rules adopted 46344
under that act.46345

       (D) Thirty-five per cent of the undivided liquor permit fund 46346
shall be distributed by the superintendent of liquor control at 46347
quarterly calendar periods as follows:46348

       (A)(1) To each municipal corporation, the aggregate amount 46349
shown by the statements to have been collected from permits in the 46350
municipal corporation, for the use of the general fund of the 46351
municipal corporation;46352

       (B)(2) To each township, the aggregate amount shown by the 46353
statements to have been collected from permits in its territory, 46354
outside the limits of any municipal corporation located in the 46355
township, for the use of the general fund of the township, or for 46356
fire protection purposes, including buildings and equipment in the 46357
township or in an established fire district within the township, 46358
to the extent that the funds are derived from liquor permits 46359
within the territory comprising such fire district.46360

       (E) For the purpose of the distribution required by this 46361
section, E, H, and D permits covering boats or vessels are deemed 46362
to have been issued in the municipal corporation or township 46363
wherein the owner or operator of the vehicle, boat, vessel, or 46364
dining car equipment to which the permit relates has the owner's 46365
or operator's principal office or place of business within the 46366
state.46367

       (F) If the liquor control commission determines that the 46368
police or other officers of any municipal corporation or township 46369
entitled to share in such distributions under this section are 46370
refusing or culpably neglecting to enforce this chapter and 46371
Chapter 4303. of the Revised Code, or the penal laws of this state 46372
relating to the manufacture, importation, transportation, 46373
distribution, and sale of beer and intoxicating liquors, or if the 46374
prosecuting officer of a municipal corporation or a municipal 46375
court fails to comply with the request of the commission 46376
authorized by division (A)(4) of section 4301.10 of the Revised 46377
Code, the commission, by certified mail, may notify the chief 46378
executive officer of the municipal corporation or the board of 46379
township trustees of the township of the failure and require the 46380
immediate cooperation of the responsible officers of the municipal 46381
corporation or township with the division of liquor control in the 46382
enforcement of those chapters and penal laws. Within thirty days 46383
after the notice is served, the commission shall determine whether 46384
the requirement has been complied with. If the commission 46385
determines that the requirement has not been complied with, it may 46386
issue an order to the superintendent to withhold the distributive 46387
share of the municipal corporation or township until further order 46388
of the commission. This action of the commission is reviewable 46389
within thirty days thereafter in the court of common pleas of 46390
Franklin county.46391

       (G) All fees collected by the division of liquor control from 46392
the issuance or renewal of B-2a and S permits, and paid by B-2a 46393
and S permit holders who do not also hold A-2 permits, shall be 46394
deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the state liquor 46395
controlregulatory fund. Once during each fiscal year, an amount 46396
equal to fifty per cent of the fees collected shall be paid from 46397
the state liquor controlregulatory fund into the general revenue 46398
fund.46399

       Sec. 4303.181.  (A) Permit D-5a may be issued either to the 46400
owner or operator of a hotel or motel that is required to be 46401
licensed under section 3731.03 of the Revised Code, that contains 46402
at least fifty rooms for registered transient guests or is owned 46403
by a state institution of higher education as defined in section 46404
3345.011 of the Revised Code or a private college or university, 46405
and that qualifies under the other requirements of this section, 46406
or to the owner or operator of a restaurant specified under this 46407
section, to sell beer and any intoxicating liquor at retail, only 46408
by the individual drink in glass and from the container, for 46409
consumption on the premises where sold, and to registered guests 46410
in their rooms, which may be sold by means of a controlled access 46411
alcohol and beverage cabinet in accordance with division (B) of 46412
section 4301.21 of the Revised Code; and to sell the same products 46413
in the same manner and amounts not for consumption on the premises 46414
as may be sold by holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. The premises of 46415
the hotel or motel shall include a retail food establishment or a 46416
food service operation licensed pursuant to Chapter 3717. of the 46417
Revised Code that operates as a restaurant for purposes of this 46418
chapter and that is affiliated with the hotel or motel and within 46419
or contiguous to the hotel or motel, and that serves food within 46420
the hotel or motel, but the principal business of the owner or 46421
operator of the hotel or motel shall be the accommodation of 46422
transient guests. In addition to the privileges authorized in this 46423
division, the holder of a D-5a permit may exercise the same 46424
privileges as the holder of a D-5 permit.46425

       The owner or operator of a hotel, motel, or restaurant who 46426
qualified for and held a D-5a permit on August 4, 1976, may, if 46427
the owner or operator held another permit before holding a D-5a 46428
permit, either retain a D-5a permit or apply for the permit 46429
formerly held, and the division of liquor control shall issue the 46430
permit for which the owner or operator applies and formerly held, 46431
notwithstanding any quota.46432

       A D-5a permit shall not be transferred to another location. 46433
No quota restriction shall be placed on the number of D-5a permits 46434
that may be issued.46435

       The fee for this permit is two thousand three hundred 46436
forty-four dollars.46437

       (B) Permit D-5b may be issued to the owner, operator, tenant, 46438
lessee, or occupant of an enclosed shopping center to sell beer 46439
and intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in 46440
glass and from the container, for consumption on the premises 46441
where sold; and to sell the same products in the same manner and 46442
amount not for consumption on the premises as may be sold by 46443
holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. In addition to the privileges 46444
authorized in this division, the holder of a D-5b permit may 46445
exercise the same privileges as a holder of a D-5 permit.46446

       A D-5b permit shall not be transferred to another location.46447

       One D-5b permit may be issued at an enclosed shopping center 46448
containing at least two hundred twenty-five thousand, but less 46449
than four hundred thousand, square feet of floor area.46450

       Two D-5b permits may be issued at an enclosed shopping center 46451
containing at least four hundred thousand square feet of floor 46452
area. No more than one D-5b permit may be issued at an enclosed 46453
shopping center for each additional two hundred thousand square 46454
feet of floor area or fraction of that floor area, up to a maximum 46455
of five D-5b permits for each enclosed shopping center. The number 46456
of D-5b permits that may be issued at an enclosed shopping center 46457
shall be determined by subtracting the number of D-3 and D-5 46458
permits issued in the enclosed shopping center from the number of 46459
D-5b permits that otherwise may be issued at the enclosed shopping 46460
center under the formulas provided in this division. Except as 46461
provided in this section, no quota shall be placed on the number 46462
of D-5b permits that may be issued. Notwithstanding any quota 46463
provided in this section, the holder of any D-5b permit first 46464
issued in accordance with this section is entitled to its renewal 46465
in accordance with section 4303.271 of the Revised Code.46466

       The holder of a D-5b permit issued before April 4, 1984, 46467
whose tenancy is terminated for a cause other than nonpayment of 46468
rent, may return the D-5b permit to the division of liquor 46469
control, and the division shall cancel that permit. Upon 46470
cancellation of that permit and upon the permit holder's payment 46471
of taxes, contributions, premiums, assessments, and other debts 46472
owing or accrued upon the date of cancellation to this state and 46473
its political subdivisions and a filing with the division of a 46474
certification of that payment, the division shall issue to that 46475
person either a D-5 permit, or a D-1, a D-2, and a D-3 permit, as 46476
that person requests. The division shall issue the D-5 permit, or 46477
the D-1, D-2, and D-3 permits, even if the number of D-1, D-2, 46478
D-3, or D-5 permits currently issued in the municipal corporation 46479
or in the unincorporated area of the township where that person's 46480
proposed premises is located equals or exceeds the maximum number 46481
of such permits that can be issued in that municipal corporation 46482
or in the unincorporated area of that township under the 46483
population quota restrictions contained in section 4303.29 of the 46484
Revised Code. Any D-1, D-2, D-3, or D-5 permit so issued shall not 46485
be transferred to another location. If a D-5b permit is canceled 46486
under the provisions of this paragraph, the number of D-5b permits 46487
that may be issued at the enclosed shopping center for which the 46488
D-5b permit was issued, under the formula provided in this 46489
division, shall be reduced by one if the enclosed shopping center 46490
was entitled to more than one D-5b permit under the formula.46491

       The fee for this permit is two thousand three hundred 46492
forty-four dollars.46493

       (C) Permit D-5c may be issued to the owner or operator of a 46494
retail food establishment or a food service operation licensed 46495
pursuant to Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code that operates as a 46496
restaurant for purposes of this chapter and that qualifies under 46497
the other requirements of this section to sell beer and any 46498
intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in 46499
glass and from the container, for consumption on the premises 46500
where sold, and to sell the same products in the same manner and 46501
amounts not for consumption on the premises as may be sold by 46502
holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. In addition to the privileges 46503
authorized in this division, the holder of a D-5c permit may 46504
exercise the same privileges as the holder of a D-5 permit.46505

       To qualify for a D-5c permit, the owner or operator of a 46506
retail food establishment or a food service operation licensed 46507
pursuant to Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code that operates as a 46508
restaurant for purposes of this chapter, shall have operated the 46509
restaurant at the proposed premises for not less than twenty-four 46510
consecutive months immediately preceding the filing of the 46511
application for the permit, have applied for a D-5 permit no later 46512
than December 31, 1988, and appear on the division's quota waiting 46513
list for not less than six months immediately preceding the filing 46514
of the application for the permit. In addition to these 46515
requirements, the proposed D-5c permit premises shall be located 46516
within a municipal corporation and further within an election 46517
precinct that, at the time of the application, has no more than 46518
twenty-five per cent of its total land area zoned for residential 46519
use.46520

       A D-5c permit shall not be transferred to another location. 46521
No quota restriction shall be placed on the number of such permits 46522
that may be issued.46523

       Any person who has held a D-5c permit for at least two years 46524
may apply for a D-5 permit, and the division of liquor control 46525
shall issue the D-5 permit notwithstanding the quota restrictions 46526
contained in section 4303.29 of the Revised Code or in any rule of 46527
the liquor control commission.46528

       The fee for this permit is one thousand five hundred 46529
sixty-three dollars.46530

       (D) Permit D-5d may be issued to the owner or operator of a 46531
retail food establishment or a food service operation licensed 46532
pursuant to Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code that operates as a 46533
restaurant for purposes of this chapter and that is located at an 46534
airport operated by a board of county commissioners pursuant to 46535
section 307.20 of the Revised Code, at an airport operated by a 46536
port authority pursuant to Chapter 4582. of the Revised Code, or 46537
at an airport operated by a regional airport authority pursuant to 46538
Chapter 308. of the Revised Code. The holder of a D-5d permit may 46539
sell beer and any intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the 46540
individual drink in glass and from the container, for consumption 46541
on the premises where sold, and may sell the same products in the 46542
same manner and amounts not for consumption on the premises where 46543
sold as may be sold by the holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. In 46544
addition to the privileges authorized in this division, the holder 46545
of a D-5d permit may exercise the same privileges as the holder of 46546
a D-5 permit.46547

       A D-5d permit shall not be transferred to another location. 46548
No quota restrictions shall be placed on the number of such 46549
permits that may be issued.46550

       The fee for this permit is two thousand three hundred 46551
forty-four dollars.46552

       (E) Permit D-5e may be issued to any nonprofit organization 46553
that is exempt from federal income taxation under the "Internal 46554
Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 501(c)(3), as 46555
amended, or that is a charitable organization under any chapter of 46556
the Revised Code, and that owns or operates a riverboat that meets 46557
all of the following:46558

       (1) Is permanently docked at one location;46559

       (2) Is designated as an historical riverboat by the Ohio 46560
historical society;46561

       (3) Contains not less than fifteen hundred square feet of 46562
floor area;46563

       (4) Has a seating capacity of fifty or more persons.46564

       The holder of a D-5e permit may sell beer and intoxicating 46565
liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in glass and from 46566
the container, for consumption on the premises where sold.46567

       A D-5e permit shall not be transferred to another location. 46568
No quota restriction shall be placed on the number of such permits 46569
that may be issued. The population quota restrictions contained in 46570
section 4303.29 of the Revised Code or in any rule of the liquor 46571
control commission shall not apply to this division, and the 46572
division shall issue a D-5e permit to any applicant who meets the 46573
requirements of this division. However, the division shall not 46574
issue a D-5e permit if the permit premises or proposed permit 46575
premises are located within an area in which the sale of 46576
spirituous liquor by the glass is prohibited.46577

       The fee for this permit is one thousand two hundred nineteen 46578
dollars.46579

       (F) Permit D-5f may be issued to the owner or operator of a 46580
retail food establishment or a food service operation licensed 46581
under Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code that operates as a 46582
restaurant for purposes of this chapter and that meets all of the 46583
following:46584

       (1) It contains not less than twenty-five hundred square feet 46585
of floor area.46586

       (2) It is located on or in, or immediately adjacent to, the 46587
shoreline of, a navigable river.46588

       (3) It provides docking space for twenty-five boats.46589

       (4) It provides entertainment and recreation, provided that 46590
not less than fifty per cent of the business on the permit 46591
premises shall be preparing and serving meals for a consideration.46592

       In addition, each application for a D-5f permit shall be 46593
accompanied by a certification from the local legislative 46594
authority that the issuance of the D-5f permit is not inconsistent 46595
with that political subdivision's comprehensive development plan 46596
or other economic development goal as officially established by 46597
the local legislative authority.46598

       The holder of a D-5f permit may sell beer and intoxicating 46599
liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in glass and from 46600
the container, for consumption on the premises where sold.46601

       A D-5f permit shall not be transferred to another location.46602

       The division of liquor control shall not issue a D-5f permit 46603
if the permit premises or proposed permit premises are located 46604
within an area in which the sale of spirituous liquor by the glass 46605
is prohibited.46606

       A fee for this permit is two thousand three hundred 46607
forty-four dollars.46608

       As used in this division, "navigable river" means a river 46609
that is also a "navigable water" as defined in the "Federal Power 46610
Act," 94 Stat. 770 (1980), 16 U.S.C. 796.46611

       (G) Permit D-5g may be issued to a nonprofit corporation that 46612
is either the owner or the operator of a national professional 46613
sports museum. The holder of a D-5g permit may sell beer and any 46614
intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in 46615
glass and from the container, for consumption on the premises 46616
where sold. The holder of a D-5g permit shall sell no beer or 46617
intoxicating liquor for consumption on the premises where sold 46618
after onetwo-thirty a.m. A D-5g permit shall not be transferred 46619
to another location. No quota restrictions shall be placed on the 46620
number of D-5g permits that may be issued. The fee for this permit 46621
is one thousand eight hundred seventy-five dollars.46622

       (H)(1) Permit D-5h may be issued to any nonprofit 46623
organization that is exempt from federal income taxation under the 46624
"Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 46625
501(c)(3), as amended, that owns or operates any of the following:46626

       (a) A fine arts museum, provided that the nonprofit 46627
organization has no less than one thousand five hundred bona fide 46628
members possessing full membership privileges;46629

       (b) A community arts center. As used in division (H)(1)(b) of 46630
this section, "community arts center" means a facility that 46631
provides arts programming to the community in more than one arts 46632
discipline, including, but not limited to, exhibits of works of 46633
art and performances by both professional and amateur artists.46634

       (c) A community theater, provided that the nonprofit 46635
organization is a member of the Ohio arts council and the American 46636
community theatre association and has been in existence for not 46637
less than ten years. As used in division (H)(1)(c) of this 46638
section, "community theater" means a facility that contains at 46639
least one hundred fifty seats and has a primary function of 46640
presenting live theatrical performances and providing recreational 46641
opportunities to the community.46642

        (2) The holder of a D-5h permit may sell beer and any 46643
intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in 46644
glass and from the container, for consumption on the premises 46645
where sold. The holder of a D-5h permit shall sell no beer or 46646
intoxicating liquor for consumption on the premises where sold 46647
after one a.m. A D-5h permit shall not be transferred to another 46648
location. No quota restrictions shall be placed on the number of 46649
D-5h permits that may be issued.46650

       (3) The fee for a D-5h permit is one thousand eight hundred 46651
seventy-five dollars.46652

       (I) Permit D-5i may be issued to the owner or operator of a 46653
retail food establishment or a food service operation licensed 46654
under Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code that operates as a 46655
restaurant for purposes of this chapter and that meets all of the 46656
following requirements:46657

       (1) It is located in a municipal corporation or a township 46658
with a population of one hundred thousand or less.46659

       (2) It has inside seating capacity for at least one hundred 46660
forty persons.46661

       (3) It has at least four thousand square feet of floor area.46662

       (4) It offers full-course meals, appetizers, and sandwiches.46663

       (5) Its receipts from beer and liquor sales, excluding wine 46664
sales, do not exceed twenty-five per cent of its total gross 46665
receipts.46666

       (6) It has at least one of the following characteristics:46667

       (a) The value of its real and personal property exceeds seven 46668
hundred twenty-five thousand dollars.46669

       (b) It is located on property that is owned or leased by the 46670
state or a state agency, and its owner or operator has 46671
authorization from the state or the state agency that owns or 46672
leases the property to obtain a D-5i permit.46673

       The holder of a D-5i permit may sell beer and any 46674
intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in 46675
glass and from the container, for consumption on the premises 46676
where sold, and may sell the same products in the same manner and 46677
amounts not for consumption on the premises where sold as may be 46678
sold by the holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. The holder of a D-5i 46679
permit shall sell no beer or intoxicating liquor for consumption 46680
on the premises where sold after two-thirty a.m. In addition to 46681
the privileges authorized in this division, the holder of a D-5i 46682
permit may exercise the same privileges as the holder of a D-5 46683
permit.46684

       A D-5i permit shall not be transferred to another location. 46685
The division of liquor control shall not renew a D-5i permit 46686
unless the retail food establishment or food service operation for 46687
which it is issued continues to meet the requirements described in 46688
divisions (I)(1) to (6) of this section. No quota restrictions 46689
shall be placed on the number of D-5i permits that may be issued. 46690
The fee for the D-5i permit is two thousand three hundred 46691
forty-four dollars.46692

       (J) Permit D-5j may be issued to the owner or the operator of 46693
a retail food establishment or a food service operation licensed 46694
under Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code to sell beer and 46695
intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in 46696
glass and from the container, for consumption on the premises 46697
where sold and to sell beer and intoxicating liquor in the same 46698
manner and amounts not for consumption on the premises where sold 46699
as may be sold by the holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. The holder 46700
of a D-5j permit may exercise the same privileges, and shall 46701
observe the same hours of operation, as the holder of a D-5 46702
permit.46703

        The D-5j permit shall be issued only within a community 46704
entertainment district that is designated under section 4301.80 of 46705
the Revised Code and that meets one of the following 46706
qualifications:46707

       (1) It is located in a municipal corporation with a 46708
population of at least one hundred thousand.46709

       (2) It is located in a municipal corporation with a 46710
population of at least twenty thousand, and either of the 46711
following applies:46712

       (a) It contains an amusement park the rides of which have 46713
been issued a permit by the department of agriculture under 46714
Chapter 1711. of the Revised Code.46715

       (b) Not less than fifty million dollars will be invested in 46716
development and construction in the community entertainment 46717
district's area located in the municipal corporation.46718

       (3) It is located in a township with a population of at least 46719
forty thousand.46720

       (4) It is located in a township with a population of at least 46721
twenty thousand, and not less than seventy million dollars will be 46722
invested in development and construction in the community 46723
entertainment district's area located in the township.46724

       (5) It is located in a municipal corporation with a 46725
population between ten thousand and twenty thousand, and both of 46726
the following apply:46727

       (a) The municipal corporation was incorporated as a village 46728
prior to calendar year 1840 and currently has a historic downtown 46729
business district.46730

       (b) The municipal corporation is located in the same county 46731
as another municipal corporation with at least one community 46732
entertainment district.46733

       (6) It is located in a municipal corporation with a 46734
population of at least ten thousand, and not less than seventy 46735
million dollars will be invested in development and construction 46736
in the community entertainment district's area located in the 46737
municipal corporation.46738

       (7) It is located in a municipal corporation with a 46739
population of at least five thousand, and not less than one 46740
hundred million dollars will be invested in development and 46741
construction in the community entertainment district's area 46742
located in the municipal corporation.46743

        The location of a D-5j permit may be transferred only within 46744
the geographic boundaries of the community entertainment district 46745
in which it was issued and shall not be transferred outside the 46746
geographic boundaries of that district.46747

        Not more than one D-5j permit shall be issued within each 46748
community entertainment district for each five acres of land 46749
located within the district. Not more than fifteen D-5j permits 46750
may be issued within a single community entertainment district. 46751
Except as otherwise provided in division (J)(4) of this section, 46752
no quota restrictions shall be placed upon the number of D-5j 46753
permits that may be issued.46754

        The fee for a D-5j permit is two thousand three hundred 46755
forty-four dollars.46756

       (K)(1) Permit D-5k may be issued to any nonprofit 46757
organization that is exempt from federal income taxation under the 46758
"Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 46759
501(c)(3), as amended, that is the owner or operator of a 46760
botanical garden recognized by the American association of 46761
botanical gardens and arboreta, and that has not less than 46762
twenty-five hundred bona fide members.46763

       (2) The holder of a D-5k permit may sell beer and any 46764
intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in 46765
glass and from the container, on the premises where sold.46766

       (3) The holder of a D-5k permit shall sell no beer or 46767
intoxicating liquor for consumption on the premises where sold 46768
after one a.m.46769

       (4) A D-5k permit shall not be transferred to another 46770
location.46771

       (5) No quota restrictions shall be placed on the number of 46772
D-5k permits that may be issued.46773

       (6) The fee for the D-5k permit is one thousand eight hundred 46774
seventy-five dollars.46775

       (L)(1) Permit D-5l may be issued to the owner or the operator 46776
of a businessretail food establishment or a food service 46777
operation licensed under Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code to sell 46778
beer and intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual 46779
drink in glass and from the container, for consumption on the 46780
premises where sold and to sell beer and intoxicating liquor in 46781
the same manner and amounts not for consumption on the premises 46782
where sold as may be sold by the holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. 46783
The holder of a D-5l permit may exercise the same privileges, and 46784
shall observe the same hours of operation, as the holder of a D-5 46785
permit.46786

       (2) The D-5l permit shall be issued only to a premises that 46787
has gross annual receipts from the sale of food and meals that 46788
constitute not less than seventy-five per cent of its total gross 46789
annual receipts, that is located within a revitalization district 46790
that is designated under section 4301.81 of the Revised Code, that 46791
is located in a municipal corporation or township in which the 46792
number of D-5 permits issued equals or exceeds the number of those 46793
permits that may be issued in that municipal corporation or 46794
township under section 4303.29 of the Revised Code, and that is 46795
located in a county with a population of one hundred twenty-five 46796
thousand or less according to the population estimates certified 46797
by the department of development for calendar year 2006.46798

       (3) The location of a D-5l permit may be transferred only 46799
within the geographic boundaries of the revitalization district in 46800
which it was issued and shall not be transferred outside the 46801
geographic boundaries of that district.46802

       (4) Not more than one D-5l permit shall be issued within each 46803
revitalization district for each five acres of land located within 46804
the district. Not more than fifteen D-5l permits may be issued 46805
within a single revitalization district. Except as otherwise 46806
provided in division (L)(4) of this section, no quota restrictions 46807
shall be placed upon the number of D-5l permits that may be 46808
issued.46809

       (5) No D-5l permit shall be issued to an adult entertainment 46810
establishment as defined in section 2907.39 of the Revised Code.46811

       (6) The fee for a D-5l permit is two thousand three hundred 46812
forty-four dollars.46813

       (M) Permit D-5m may be issued to either the owner or the 46814
operator of a retail food establishment or food service operation 46815
licensed under Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code that operates as 46816
a restaurant for purposes of this chapter and that is located in, 46817
or affiliated with, a center for the preservation of wild animals 46818
as defined in section 4301.404 of the Revised Code, to sell beer 46819
and any intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the glass and from 46820
the container, for consumption on the premises where sold, and to 46821
sell the same products in the same manner and amounts not for 46822
consumption on the premises as may be sold by the holders of D-1 46823
and D-2 permits. In addition to the privileges authorized by this 46824
division, the holder of a D-5m permit may exercise the same 46825
privileges as the holder of a D-5 permit.46826

       A D-5m permit shall not be transferred to another location. 46827
No quota restrictions shall be placed on the number of D-5m 46828
permits that may be issued. The fee for a permit D-5m is two 46829
thousand three hundred forty-four dollars.46830

       (N) Permit D-5n shall be issued to either a casino operator 46831
or a casino management company licensed under Chapter 3772. of the 46832
Revised Code that operates a casino facility under that chapter, 46833
to sell beer and any intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the 46834
individual drink in glass and from the container, for consumption 46835
on the premises where sold, and to sell the same products in the 46836
same manner and amounts not for consumption on the premises as may 46837
be sold by the holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. In addition to the 46838
privileges authorized by this division, the holder of a D-5n 46839
permit may exercise the same privileges as the holder of a D-5 46840
permit. A D-5n permit shall not be transferred to another 46841
location. Only one D-5n permit may be issued per casino facility 46842
and not more than four D-5n permits shall be issued in this state. 46843
The fee for a permit D-5n shall be twenty thousand dollars. The 46844
holder of a D-5n permit may conduct casino gaming on the permit 46845
premises notwithstanding any provision of the Revised Code or 46846
Administrative Code.46847

       (O) Permit D-5o may be issued to the owner or operator of a 46848
retail food establishment or a food service operation licensed 46849
under Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code that operates as a 46850
restaurant for purposes of this chapter and that is located within 46851
a casino facility for which a D-5n permit has been issued. The 46852
holder of a D-5o permit may sell beer and any intoxicating liquor 46853
at retail, only by the individual drink in glass and from the 46854
container, for consumption on the premises where sold, and may 46855
sell the same products in the same manner and amounts not for 46856
consumption on the premises where sold as may be sold by the 46857
holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. In addition to the privileges 46858
authorized by this division, the holder of a D-5o permit may 46859
exercise the same privileges as the holder of a D-5 permit. A D-5o 46860
permit shall not be transferred to another location. No quota 46861
restrictions shall be placed on the number of such permits that 46862
may be issued. The fee for this permit is two thousand three 46863
hundred forty-four dollars.46864

       Sec. 4303.22.  Permit H may be issued for a fee of three 46865
hundred dollars to a for-hire motor carrier by motor vehicle who 46866
also holds a license issued by the public utilities commission to 46867
transport beer, intoxicating liquor, and alcohol, or any of them, 46868
in this state for delivery or use in this state. This section does 46869
not prevent the division of liquor control from contracting with46870
common or contractfor-hire motor carriers for the delivery or 46871
transportation of liquor for the division, and any contract or 46872
commonfor-hire motor carrier so contracting with the division is 46873
eligible for an H permit. Manufacturers or wholesale distributors 46874
of beer or intoxicating liquor other than spirituous liquor who 46875
transport or deliver their own products to or from their premises 46876
licensed under this chapter and Chapter 4301. of the Revised Code 46877
by their own trucks as an incident to the purchase or sale of such 46878
beverages need not obtain an H permit. Carriers by rail shall 46879
receive an H permit upon application for it.46880

       This section does not prevent the division from issuing, upon 46881
the payment of the permit fee, an H permit to any person, 46882
partnership, firm, or corporation licensed by any other state to 46883
engage in the business of manufacturing and brewing or producing 46884
beer, wine, and mixed beverages or any person, partnership, firm, 46885
or corporation licensed by the United States or any other state to 46886
engage in the business of importing beer, wine, and mixed 46887
beverages manufactured outside the United States. The 46888
manufacturer, brewer, or importer of products manufactured outside 46889
the United States, upon the issuance of an H permit, may 46890
transport, ship, and deliver only its own products to holders of 46891
B-1 or B-5 permits in Ohio in motor trucks and equipment owned and 46892
operated by such class H permit holder. No H permit shall be 46893
issued by the division to such applicant until the applicant files 46894
with the division a liability insurance certificate or policy 46895
satisfactory to the division, in a sum of not less than one 46896
thousand nor more than five thousand dollars for property damage 46897
and for not less than five thousand nor more than fifty thousand 46898
dollars for loss sustained by reason of injury or death and with 46899
such other terms as the division considers necessary to adequately 46900
protect the interest of the public, having due regard for the 46901
number of persons and amount of property affected. The certificate 46902
or policy shall insure the manufacturer, brewer, or importer of 46903
products manufactured outside the United States against loss 46904
sustained by reason of the death of or injury to persons, and for 46905
loss of or damage to property, from the negligence of such class H 46906
permit holder in the operation of its motor vehicles or equipment 46907
in this state.46908

       Sec. 4313.02. (A) The state may transfer to JobsOhio, and 46909
JobsOhio may accept the transfer of, all or a portion of the 46910
enterprise acquisition project for a transfer price payable by 46911
JobsOhio to the state. Any such transfer shall be treated as an 46912
absolute conveyance and true sale of the interest in the 46913
enterprise acquisition project purported to be conveyed for all 46914
purposes, and not as a pledge or other security interest. The 46915
characterization of any such transfer as a true sale and absolute 46916
conveyance shall not be negated or adversely affected by the 46917
acquisition or retention by the state of a residual or 46918
reversionary interest in the enterprise acquisition project, the 46919
participation of any state officer or employee as a member or 46920
officer of, or contracting for staff support to, JobsOhio or any 46921
subsidiary of JobsOhio, any regulatory responsibility of an 46922
officer or employee of the state, including the authority to 46923
collect amounts to be received in connection therewith, the 46924
retention of the state of any legal title to or interest in any 46925
portion of the enterprise acquisition project for the purpose of 46926
regulatory activities, or any characterization of JobsOhio or 46927
obligations of JobsOhio under accounting, taxation, or securities 46928
regulations, or any other reason whatsoever. An absolute 46929
conveyance and true sale or lease shall exist under this section 46930
regardless of whether JobsOhio has any recourse against the state 46931
or the treatment or characterization of the transfer as a 46932
financing for any purpose. Upon and following the transfer, the 46933
state shall not have any right, title, or interest in the 46934
enterprise acquisition project so transferred other than any 46935
residual interest that may be described in the transfer agreement 46936
pursuant to the following paragraph and division (D) of this 46937
section. Any determination of the fair market value of the 46938
enterprise acquisition project reflected in the transfer agreement 46939
shall be conclusive and binding on the state and JobsOhio.46940

       Any transfer of the enterprise acquisition project that is a 46941
lease or grant of a franchise shall be for a term not to exceed 46942
twenty-five years. Any transfer of the enterprise acquisition 46943
project that is an assignment and sale, conveyance, or other 46944
transfer shall contain a provision that the state shall have the 46945
option to have conveyed or transferred back to it, at no cost, the 46946
enterprise acquisition project, as it then exists, no later than 46947
twenty-five years after the original transfer authorized in the 46948
transfer agreement on such other terms as shall be provided in the 46949
transfer agreement.46950

       The exercise of the powers granted by this section will be 46951
for the benefit of the people of the state. All or any portion of 46952
the enterprise acquisition project transferred pursuant to the 46953
transfer agreement that would be exempt from real property taxes 46954
or assessments or real property taxes or assessments in the 46955
absence of such transfer shall, as it may from time to time exist 46956
thereafter, remain exempt from real property taxes or assessments 46957
levied by the state and its subdivisions to the same extent as if 46958
not transferred. The gross receipts and income of JobsOhio derived 46959
from the enterprise acquisition project shall be exempt from 46960
taxation levied by the state and its subdivisions, including, but 46961
not limited to, the taxes levied pursuant to Chapters 718., 5739., 46962
5741., 5747., and 5751. of the Revised Code. Any transfer from the 46963
state to JobsOhio of the enterprise acquisition project, or item 46964
included or to be included in the project, shall be exempt from 46965
the taxes levied pursuant to Chapters 5739. and 5741. of the 46966
Revised Code.46967

       (B) The proceeds of any transfer under division (A) of this 46968
section may be expended as provided in the transfer agreement for 46969
any one or more of the following purposes:46970

       (1) Funding, payment, or defeasance of outstanding bonds 46971
issued pursuant to Chapters 151. and 166. of the Revised Code and 46972
secured by pledged liquor profits as defined in section 151.40 of 46973
the Revised Code;46974

       (2) Deposit into the general revenue fund;46975

       (3) Deposit into the clean Ohio revitalization fund created 46976
pursuant to section 122.658 of the Revised Code, the innovation 46977
Ohio loan fund created pursuant to section 166.16 of the Revised 46978
Code, the research and development loan fund created pursuant to 46979
section 166.20 of the Revised Code, the logistics and distribution 46980
infrastructure fund created pursuant to section 166.26 of the 46981
Revised Code, the advanced energy research and development fund 46982
created pursuant to section 3706.27 of the Revised Code, and the 46983
advanced energy research and development taxable fund created 46984
pursuant to section 3706.27 of the Revised Code; 46985

       (4) Conveyance to JobsOhio for the purposes for which it was 46986
created.46987

       (C)(1) The state may covenant, pledge, and agree in the 46988
transfer agreement, with and for the benefit of JobsOhio, that it 46989
shall maintain statutory authority for the enterprise acquisition 46990
project and the revenues of the enterprise acquisition project and 46991
not otherwise materially impair any obligations supported by a 46992
pledge of revenues of the enterprise acquisition project. The 46993
transfer agreement may provide or authorize the manner for 46994
determining material impairment of the security for any such 46995
outstanding obligations, including by assessing and evaluating the 46996
revenues of the enterprise acquisition project.46997

       (2) The director of budget and management, in consultation 46998
with the director of commerce, may, without need for any other 46999
approval, negotiate terms of any documents, including the transfer 47000
agreement, necessary to effect the transfer and the acceptance of 47001
the transfer of the enterprise acquisition project. The director 47002
of budget and management and the director of commerce shall 47003
execute the transfer agreement on behalf of the state. The 47004
director of budget and management may also, without need for any 47005
other approval, retain or contract for the services of commercial 47006
appraisers, underwriters, investment bankers, and financial 47007
advisers, as are necessary in the judgment of the director of 47008
budget and management to effect the transfer agreement. Any 47009
transfer agreement may contain terms and conditions established by 47010
the state to carry out and effectuate the purposes of this 47011
section, including, without limitation, covenants binding the 47012
state in favor of JobsOhio. Any such transfer agreement shall be 47013
sufficient to effectuate the transfer without regard to any other 47014
laws governing other property sales or financial transactions by 47015
the state. The director of budget and management may create any 47016
funds or accounts, within or without the state treasury, as are 47017
needed for the transactions and activities authorized by this 47018
section.47019

       (3) The transfer agreement may authorize JobsOhio, in the 47020
ordinary course of doing business, to convey, lease, release, or 47021
otherwise dispose of any regular inventory or tangible personal 47022
property. Ownership of the interest in the enterprise acquisition 47023
project that is transferred to JobsOhio under this section and the 47024
transfer agreement shall be maintained in JobsOhio or a nonprofit 47025
entity the sole member of which is JobsOhio until the enterprise 47026
acquisition project is transferred back to the state pursuant to 47027
the second paragraph of division (A) and division (D) of this 47028
section.47029

       (D) The transfer agreement may authorize JobsOhio to fix, 47030
alter, and collect rentals and other charges for the use and 47031
occupancy of all or any portion of the enterprise acquisition 47032
project and to lease any portion of the enterprise acquisition 47033
project to the state, and shall include a contract with, or the 47034
granting of an option to, the state to have the enterprise 47035
acquisition project, as it then exists, transferred back to it 47036
without charge in accordance with the terms of the transfer 47037
agreement after retirement or redemption, or provision therefor, 47038
of all obligations supported by a pledge of spirituous liquor 47039
profits.47040

       (E) JobsOhio, the director of budget and management, and the 47041
director of commerce shall, subject to approval by the controlling 47042
board, enter into a contract, which may be part of the transfer 47043
agreement, for the continuing operation by the division of liquor 47044
control of spirituous liquor distribution and merchandising 47045
subject to standards for performance provided in that contract 47046
that may relate to or support division (C)(1) of this section. The 47047
contract shall establish other terms and conditions for the 47048
assignment of duties to, and the provision of advice, services, 47049
and other assistance by, the division of liquor control, including 47050
providing for the necessary staffing and payment by JobsOhio of 47051
appropriate compensation to the division for the performance of 47052
such duties and the provision of such advice, services, and other 47053
assistance. The division of liquor control shall manage and 47054
actively supervise the activities required or authorized under 47055
sections 4301.10 and 4301.17 of the Revised Code as those sections 47056
exist on the effective date of this sectionSeptember 29, 2011, 47057
including, but not limited to, controlling the traffic in 47058
intoxicating liquor in this state and fixing the wholesale and 47059
retail prices at which the various classes, varieties, and brands 47060
of spirituous liquor are sold.47061

       (F) The transfer agreement shall require JobsOhio to pay for 47062
the operations of the division of liquor control with regard to 47063
the spirituous liquor merchandising operations of the division. 47064
The payments from JobsOhio shall be deposited into the state 47065
treasury to the credit of the liquor controloperating services47066
fund created in section 4301.12 of the Revised Code, which is 47067
hereby created in the state treasury. The fund shall be used to 47068
pay for the operations of the division specified in this division.47069

       (G) The transaction and transfer provided for under this 47070
section shall comply with all applicable provisions of the Ohio 47071
Constitution.47072

       Sec. 4501.01.  As used in this chapter and Chapters 4503., 47073
4505., 4507., 4509., 4510., 4511., 4513., 4515., and 4517. of the 47074
Revised Code, and in the penal laws, except as otherwise provided:47075

       (A) "Vehicles" means everything on wheels or runners, 47076
including motorized bicycles, but does not mean electric personal 47077
assistive mobility devices, vehicles that are operated exclusively 47078
on rails or tracks or from overhead electric trolley wires, and 47079
vehicles that belong to any police department, municipal fire 47080
department, or volunteer fire department, or that are used by such 47081
a department in the discharge of its functions.47082

       (B) "Motor vehicle" means any vehicle, including mobile homes 47083
and recreational vehicles, that is propelled or drawn by power 47084
other than muscular power or power collected from overhead 47085
electric trolley wires. "Motor vehicle" does not include utility 47086
vehicles as defined in division (VV) of this section, motorized 47087
bicycles, road rollers, traction engines, power shovels, power 47088
cranes, and other equipment used in construction work and not 47089
designed for or employed in general highway transportation, 47090
well-drilling machinery, ditch-digging machinery, farm machinery, 47091
and trailers that are designed and used exclusively to transport a 47092
boat between a place of storage and a marina, or in and around a 47093
marina, when drawn or towed on a public road or highway for a 47094
distance of no more than ten miles and at a speed of twenty-five 47095
miles per hour or less.47096

       (C) "Agricultural tractor" and "traction engine" mean any 47097
self-propelling vehicle that is designed or used for drawing other 47098
vehicles or wheeled machinery, but has no provisions for carrying 47099
loads independently of such other vehicles, and that is used 47100
principally for agricultural purposes.47101

       (D) "Commercial tractor," except as defined in division (C) 47102
of this section, means any motor vehicle that has motive power and 47103
either is designed or used for drawing other motor vehicles, or is 47104
designed or used for drawing another motor vehicle while carrying 47105
a portion of the other motor vehicle or its load, or both.47106

       (E) "Passenger car" means any motor vehicle that is designed 47107
and used for carrying not more than nine persons and includes any 47108
motor vehicle that is designed and used for carrying not more than 47109
fifteen persons in a ridesharing arrangement.47110

       (F) "Collector's vehicle" means any motor vehicle or 47111
agricultural tractor or traction engine that is of special 47112
interest, that has a fair market value of one hundred dollars or 47113
more, whether operable or not, and that is owned, operated, 47114
collected, preserved, restored, maintained, or used essentially as 47115
a collector's item, leisure pursuit, or investment, but not as the 47116
owner's principal means of transportation. "Licensed collector's 47117
vehicle" means a collector's vehicle, other than an agricultural 47118
tractor or traction engine, that displays current, valid license 47119
tags issued under section 4503.45 of the Revised Code, or a 47120
similar type of motor vehicle that displays current, valid license 47121
tags issued under substantially equivalent provisions in the laws 47122
of other states.47123

       (G) "Historical motor vehicle" means any motor vehicle that 47124
is over twenty-five years old and is owned solely as a collector's 47125
item and for participation in club activities, exhibitions, tours, 47126
parades, and similar uses, but that in no event is used for 47127
general transportation.47128

       (H) "Noncommercial motor vehicle" means any motor vehicle, 47129
including a farm truck as defined in section 4503.04 of the 47130
Revised Code, that is designed by the manufacturer to carry a load 47131
of no more than one ton and is used exclusively for purposes other 47132
than engaging in business for profit.47133

       (I) "Bus" means any motor vehicle that has motor power and is 47134
designed and used for carrying more than nine passengers, except 47135
any motor vehicle that is designed and used for carrying not more 47136
than fifteen passengers in a ridesharing arrangement.47137

       (J) "Commercial car" or "truck" means any motor vehicle that 47138
has motor power and is designed and used for carrying merchandise 47139
or freight, or that is used as a commercial tractor.47140

       (K) "Bicycle" means every device, other than a tricycle that 47141
is designed solely for use as a play vehicle by a child, that is 47142
propelled solely by human power upon which any person may ride, 47143
and that has two tandem wheels, or one wheel in front and two 47144
wheels in the rear, or two wheels in the front and one wheel in 47145
the rear, any of which is more than fourteen inches in diameter.47146

       (L) "Motorized bicycle" means any vehicle that either has two 47147
tandem wheels or one wheel in the front and two wheels in the 47148
rear, that is capable of being pedaled, and that is equipped with 47149
a helper motor of not more than fifty cubic centimeters piston 47150
displacement that produces no more than one brake horsepower and 47151
is capable of propelling the vehicle at a speed of no greater than 47152
twenty miles per hour on a level surface.47153

       (M) "Trailer" means any vehicle without motive power that is 47154
designed or used for carrying property or persons wholly on its 47155
own structure and for being drawn by a motor vehicle, and includes 47156
any such vehicle that is formed by or operated as a combination of 47157
a semitrailer and a vehicle of the dolly type such as that 47158
commonly known as a trailer dolly, a vehicle used to transport 47159
agricultural produce or agricultural production materials between 47160
a local place of storage or supply and the farm when drawn or 47161
towed on a public road or highway at a speed greater than 47162
twenty-five miles per hour, and a vehicle that is designed and 47163
used exclusively to transport a boat between a place of storage 47164
and a marina, or in and around a marina, when drawn or towed on a 47165
public road or highway for a distance of more than ten miles or at 47166
a speed of more than twenty-five miles per hour. "Trailer" does 47167
not include a manufactured home or travel trailer.47168

       (N) "Noncommercial trailer" means any trailer, except a 47169
travel trailer or trailer that is used to transport a boat as 47170
described in division (B) of this section, but, where applicable, 47171
includes a vehicle that is used to transport a boat as described 47172
in division (M) of this section, that has a gross weight of no 47173
more than ten thousand pounds, and that is used exclusively for 47174
purposes other than engaging in business for a profit, such as the 47175
transportation of personal items for personal or recreational 47176
purposes.47177

       (O) "Mobile home" means a building unit or assembly of closed 47178
construction that is fabricated in an off-site facility, is more 47179
than thirty-five body feet in length or, when erected on site, is 47180
three hundred twenty or more square feet, is built on a permanent 47181
chassis, is transportable in one or more sections, and does not 47182
qualify as a manufactured home as defined in division (C)(4) of 47183
section 3781.06 of the Revised Code or as an industrialized unit 47184
as defined in division (C)(3) of section 3781.06 of the Revised 47185
Code.47186

       (P) "Semitrailer" means any vehicle of the trailer type that 47187
does not have motive power and is so designed or used with another 47188
and separate motor vehicle that in operation a part of its own 47189
weight or that of its load, or both, rests upon and is carried by 47190
the other vehicle furnishing the motive power for propelling 47191
itself and the vehicle referred to in this division, and includes, 47192
for the purpose only of registration and taxation under those 47193
chapters, any vehicle of the dolly type, such as a trailer dolly, 47194
that is designed or used for the conversion of a semitrailer into 47195
a trailer.47196

       (Q) "Recreational vehicle" means a vehicular portable 47197
structure that meets all of the following conditions:47198

       (1) It is designed for the sole purpose of recreational 47199
travel.47200

       (2) It is not used for the purpose of engaging in business 47201
for profit.47202

       (3) It is not used for the purpose of engaging in intrastate 47203
commerce.47204

       (4) It is not used for the purpose of commerce as defined in 47205
49 C.F.R. 383.5, as amended.47206

       (5) It is not regulated by the public utilities commission 47207
pursuant to Chapter 49194905., 4921., or 4923. of the Revised 47208
Code.47209

       (6) It is classed as one of the following:47210

       (a) "Travel trailer" means a nonself-propelled recreational 47211
vehicle that does not exceed an overall length of thirty-five 47212
feet, exclusive of bumper and tongue or coupling, and contains 47213
less than three hundred twenty square feet of space when erected 47214
on site. "Travel trailer" includes a tent-type fold-out camping 47215
trailer as defined in section 4517.01 of the Revised Code.47216

       (b) "Motor home" means a self-propelled recreational vehicle 47217
that has no fifth wheel and is constructed with permanently 47218
installed facilities for cold storage, cooking and consuming of 47219
food, and for sleeping.47220

       (c) "Truck camper" means a nonself-propelled recreational 47221
vehicle that does not have wheels for road use and is designed to 47222
be placed upon and attached to a motor vehicle. "Truck camper" 47223
does not include truck covers that consist of walls and a roof, 47224
but do not have floors and facilities enabling them to be used as 47225
a dwelling.47226

       (d) "Fifth wheel trailer" means a vehicle that is of such 47227
size and weight as to be movable without a special highway permit, 47228
that has a gross trailer area of four hundred square feet or less, 47229
that is constructed with a raised forward section that allows a 47230
bi-level floor plan, and that is designed to be towed by a vehicle 47231
equipped with a fifth-wheel hitch ordinarily installed in the bed 47232
of a truck.47233

       (e) "Park trailer" means a vehicle that is commonly known as 47234
a park model recreational vehicle, meets the American national 47235
standard institute standard A119.5 (1988) for park trailers, is 47236
built on a single chassis, has a gross trailer area of four 47237
hundred square feet or less when set up, is designed for seasonal 47238
or temporary living quarters, and may be connected to utilities 47239
necessary for the operation of installed features and appliances.47240

       (R) "Pneumatic tires" means tires of rubber and fabric or 47241
tires of similar material, that are inflated with air.47242

       (S) "Solid tires" means tires of rubber or similar elastic 47243
material that are not dependent upon confined air for support of 47244
the load.47245

       (T) "Solid tire vehicle" means any vehicle that is equipped 47246
with two or more solid tires.47247

       (U) "Farm machinery" means all machines and tools that are 47248
used in the production, harvesting, and care of farm products, and 47249
includes trailers that are used to transport agricultural produce 47250
or agricultural production materials between a local place of 47251
storage or supply and the farm, agricultural tractors, threshing 47252
machinery, hay-baling machinery, corn shellers, hammermills, and 47253
machinery used in the production of horticultural, agricultural, 47254
and vegetable products.47255

       (V) "Owner" includes any person or firm, other than a 47256
manufacturer or dealer, that has title to a motor vehicle, except 47257
that, in sections 4505.01 to 4505.19 of the Revised Code, "owner" 47258
includes in addition manufacturers and dealers.47259

       (W) "Manufacturer" and "dealer" include all persons and firms 47260
that are regularly engaged in the business of manufacturing, 47261
selling, displaying, offering for sale, or dealing in motor 47262
vehicles, at an established place of business that is used 47263
exclusively for the purpose of manufacturing, selling, displaying, 47264
offering for sale, or dealing in motor vehicles. A place of 47265
business that is used for manufacturing, selling, displaying, 47266
offering for sale, or dealing in motor vehicles shall be deemed to 47267
be used exclusively for those purposes even though snowmobiles or 47268
all-purpose vehicles are sold or displayed for sale thereat, even 47269
though farm machinery is sold or displayed for sale thereat, or 47270
even though repair, accessory, gasoline and oil, storage, parts, 47271
service, or paint departments are maintained thereat, or, in any 47272
county having a population of less than seventy-five thousand at 47273
the last federal census, even though a department in a place of 47274
business is used to dismantle, salvage, or rebuild motor vehicles 47275
by means of used parts, if such departments are operated for the 47276
purpose of furthering and assisting in the business of 47277
manufacturing, selling, displaying, offering for sale, or dealing 47278
in motor vehicles. Places of business or departments in a place of 47279
business used to dismantle, salvage, or rebuild motor vehicles by 47280
means of using used parts are not considered as being maintained 47281
for the purpose of assisting or furthering the manufacturing, 47282
selling, displaying, and offering for sale or dealing in motor 47283
vehicles.47284

       (X) "Operator" includes any person who drives or operates a 47285
motor vehicle upon the public highways.47286

       (Y) "Chauffeur" means any operator who operates a motor 47287
vehicle, other than a taxicab, as an employee for hire; or any 47288
operator whether or not the owner of a motor vehicle, other than a 47289
taxicab, who operates such vehicle for transporting, for gain, 47290
compensation, or profit, either persons or property owned by 47291
another. Any operator of a motor vehicle who is voluntarily 47292
involved in a ridesharing arrangement is not considered an 47293
employee for hire or operating such vehicle for gain, 47294
compensation, or profit.47295

       (Z) "State" includes the territories and federal districts of 47296
the United States, and the provinces of Canada.47297

       (AA) "Public roads and highways" for vehicles includes all 47298
public thoroughfares, bridges, and culverts.47299

       (BB) "Manufacturer's number" means the manufacturer's 47300
original serial number that is affixed to or imprinted upon the 47301
chassis or other part of the motor vehicle.47302

       (CC) "Motor number" means the manufacturer's original number 47303
that is affixed to or imprinted upon the engine or motor of the 47304
vehicle.47305

       (DD) "Distributor" means any person who is authorized by a 47306
motor vehicle manufacturer to distribute new motor vehicles to 47307
licensed motor vehicle dealers at an established place of business 47308
that is used exclusively for the purpose of distributing new motor 47309
vehicles to licensed motor vehicle dealers, except when the 47310
distributor also is a new motor vehicle dealer, in which case the 47311
distributor may distribute at the location of the distributor's 47312
licensed dealership.47313

       (EE) "Ridesharing arrangement" means the transportation of 47314
persons in a motor vehicle where the transportation is incidental 47315
to another purpose of a volunteer driver and includes ridesharing 47316
arrangements known as carpools, vanpools, and buspools.47317

       (FF) "Apportionable vehicle" means any vehicle that is used 47318
or intended for use in two or more international registration plan 47319
member jurisdictions that allocate or proportionally register 47320
vehicles, that is used for the transportation of persons for hire 47321
or designed, used, or maintained primarily for the transportation 47322
of property, and that meets any of the following qualifications:47323

       (1) Is a power unit having a gross vehicle weight in excess 47324
of twenty-six thousand pounds;47325

       (2) Is a power unit having three or more axles, regardless of 47326
the gross vehicle weight;47327

       (3) Is a combination vehicle with a gross vehicle weight in 47328
excess of twenty-six thousand pounds.47329

       "Apportionable vehicle" does not include recreational 47330
vehicles, vehicles displaying restricted plates, city pick-up and 47331
delivery vehicles, buses used for the transportation of chartered 47332
parties, or vehicles owned and operated by the United States, this 47333
state, or any political subdivisions thereof.47334

       (GG) "Chartered party" means a group of persons who contract 47335
as a group to acquire the exclusive use of a passenger-carrying 47336
motor vehicle at a fixed charge for the vehicle in accordance with 47337
the carrier's tariff, lawfully on file with the United States 47338
department of transportation, for the purpose of group travel to a 47339
specified destination or for a particular itinerary, either agreed 47340
upon in advance or modified by the chartered group after having 47341
left the place of origin.47342

       (HH) "International registration plan" means a reciprocal 47343
agreement of member jurisdictions that is endorsed by the American 47344
association of motor vehicle administrators, and that promotes and 47345
encourages the fullest possible use of the highway system by 47346
authorizing apportioned registration of fleets of vehicles and 47347
recognizing registration of vehicles apportioned in member 47348
jurisdictions.47349

       (II) "Restricted plate" means a license plate that has a 47350
restriction of time, geographic area, mileage, or commodity, and 47351
includes license plates issued to farm trucks under division (J) 47352
of section 4503.04 of the Revised Code.47353

       (JJ) "Gross vehicle weight," with regard to any commercial 47354
car, trailer, semitrailer, or bus that is taxed at the rates 47355
established under section 4503.042 or 4503.65 of the Revised Code, 47356
means the unladen weight of the vehicle fully equipped plus the 47357
maximum weight of the load to be carried on the vehicle.47358

       (KK) "Combined gross vehicle weight" with regard to any 47359
combination of a commercial car, trailer, and semitrailer, that is 47360
taxed at the rates established under section 4503.042 or 4503.65 47361
of the Revised Code, means the total unladen weight of the 47362
combination of vehicles fully equipped plus the maximum weight of 47363
the load to be carried on that combination of vehicles.47364

       (LL) "Chauffeured limousine" means a motor vehicle that is 47365
designed to carry nine or fewer passengers and is operated for 47366
hire on an hourly basis pursuant to a prearranged contract for the 47367
transportation of passengers on public roads and highways along a 47368
route under the control of the person hiring the vehicle and not 47369
over a defined and regular route. "Prearranged contract" means an 47370
agreement, made in advance of boarding, to provide transportation 47371
from a specific location in a chauffeured limousine at a fixed 47372
rate per hour or trip. "Chauffeured limousine" does not include 47373
any vehicle that is used exclusively in the business of funeral 47374
directing.47375

       (MM) "Manufactured home" has the same meaning as in division 47376
(C)(4) of section 3781.06 of the Revised Code.47377

       (NN) "Acquired situs," with respect to a manufactured home or 47378
a mobile home, means to become located in this state by the 47379
placement of the home on real property, but does not include the 47380
placement of a manufactured home or a mobile home in the inventory 47381
of a new motor vehicle dealer or the inventory of a manufacturer, 47382
remanufacturer, or distributor of manufactured or mobile homes.47383

       (OO) "Electronic" includes electrical, digital, magnetic, 47384
optical, electromagnetic, or any other form of technology that 47385
entails capabilities similar to these technologies.47386

       (PP) "Electronic record" means a record generated, 47387
communicated, received, or stored by electronic means for use in 47388
an information system or for transmission from one information 47389
system to another.47390

       (QQ) "Electronic signature" means a signature in electronic 47391
form attached to or logically associated with an electronic 47392
record.47393

       (RR) "Financial transaction device" has the same meaning as 47394
in division (A) of section 113.40 of the Revised Code.47395

       (SS) "Electronic motor vehicle dealer" means a motor vehicle 47396
dealer licensed under Chapter 4517. of the Revised Code whom the 47397
registrar of motor vehicles determines meets the criteria 47398
designated in section 4503.035 of the Revised Code for electronic 47399
motor vehicle dealers and designates as an electronic motor 47400
vehicle dealer under that section.47401

       (TT) "Electric personal assistive mobility device" means a 47402
self-balancing two non-tandem wheeled device that is designed to 47403
transport only one person, has an electric propulsion system of an 47404
average of seven hundred fifty watts, and when ridden on a paved 47405
level surface by an operator who weighs one hundred seventy pounds 47406
has a maximum speed of less than twenty miles per hour.47407

       (UU) "Limited driving privileges" means the privilege to 47408
operate a motor vehicle that a court grants under section 4510.021 47409
of the Revised Code to a person whose driver's or commercial 47410
driver's license or permit or nonresident operating privilege has 47411
been suspended.47412

       (VV) "Utility vehicle" means a self-propelled vehicle 47413
designed with a bed, principally for the purpose of transporting 47414
material or cargo in connection with construction, agricultural, 47415
forestry, grounds maintenance, lawn and garden, materials 47416
handling, or similar activities. "Utility vehicle" includes a 47417
vehicle with a maximum attainable speed of twenty miles per hour 47418
or less that is used exclusively within the boundaries of state 47419
parks by state park employees or volunteers for the operation or 47420
maintenance of state park facilities.47421

       Sec. 4501.06.  The taxes, fees, and fines levied, charged, or 47422
referred to in division (O) of section 4503.04, division (E) of 47423
section 4503.042, division (B) of section 4503.07, division (C)(1) 47424
of section 4503.10, division (D) of section 4503.182, division (A) 47425
of section 4503.19, division (D)(2) of section 4507.24, division 47426
(A) of section 4508.06, and sections 4503.40, 4503.42, 4505.11, 47427
4505.111, 4506.08, 4506.09, 4507.23, 4508.05, 4923.12, and 5502.12 47428
of the Revised Code, and the taxes charged in section 4503.65 that 47429
are distributed in accordance with division (A)(2) of section 47430
4501.044 of the Revised Code unless otherwise designated by law, 47431
shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the 47432
state highway safety fund, which is hereby created, and shall, 47433
after receipt of certifications from the commissioners of the 47434
sinking fund certifying that there are sufficient moneys to the 47435
credit of the highway obligations bond retirement fund created by 47436
section 5528.32 of the Revised Code to meet in full all payments 47437
of interest, principal, and charges for the retirement of highway 47438
obligations issued pursuant to Section 2i of Article VIII, Ohio 47439
Constitution, and sections 5528.30 and 5528.31 of the Revised Code 47440
due and payable during the current calendar year, be used for the 47441
purpose of enforcing and paying the expenses of administering the 47442
law relative to the registration and operation of motor vehicles 47443
on the public roads or highways. Amounts credited to the fund may 47444
also be used to pay the expenses of administering and enforcing 47445
the laws under which such fees were collected. All investment 47446
earnings of the state highway safety fund shall be credited to the 47447
fund.47448

       Sec. 4503.031.  (A)(1) If the registrar of motor vehicles47449
determines that space is available at a deputy registrar's office, 47450
the clerk of the court of common pleas in the county where the 47451
deputy is located shall be given the opportunity to use the space 47452
for the purpose of carrying out the clerk's duties related to the 47453
titling of motor vehicles. Each clerk of the court of common pleas 47454
using space in a deputy registrar's office shall remit to the 47455
deputy a rental fee equal to the percentage of space occupied by 47456
the clerk in the deputy's office multiplied by the rental fee or 47457
mortgage cost paid for the entire deputy registrar's office plus a 47458
pro rata share of all utility costs.47459

       (2) If the clerk of the court of common pleas determines that 47460
space is available at any location at which the clerk has an 47461
office, the clerk shall inform the registrar of that fact and 47462
shall provide the registrar with all pertinent information about 47463
the available space. After giving due consideration to the 47464
locations of deputy registrar offices existing in the county in 47465
which the clerk of the court of common pleas is located, the 47466
registrar shall inform the appropriate deputy registrars, if any, 47467
of the available space of the clerk of the court of common pleas. 47468
Each such deputy registrar shall be given the opportunity to use 47469
the space for the purpose of carrying out the deputy registrar's 47470
duties. Each deputy registrar using space in the office of the 47471
clerk of a court of common pleas shall remit to the clerk a rental 47472
fee equal to the percentage of space occupied by the deputy 47473
registrar in the clerk's office multiplied by the rental fee or 47474
mortgage cost, if any, paid for the entire clerk's office plus a 47475
pro rata share of all utility costs.47476

       If no current deputy registrar elects to utilize the 47477
available space of the clerk of the court of common pleas, the 47478
registrar shall inform all persons who express an interest to the 47479
registrar in becoming a deputy registrar in that county of the 47480
available space of the clerk if the space in fact continues to be 47481
available.47482

        (3) A clerk of the court of common pleas and a deputy 47483
registrar may elect to occupy a location at which neither the 47484
clerk nor the deputy currently is an occupant. Any such 47485
arrangement is subject to the approval of the registrar, who shall 47486
give due consideration to all issues and aspects of the proposed 47487
arrangement, including security at the location and service to the 47488
public.47489

       (B) TheWhen possible, as determined by the director of 47490
public safety and the registrar and the superintendent of the 47491
state highway patrol shall cooperate to the fullest extent 47492
possible in locating, a driver's license examination station shall 47493
be located at or near a deputy registrar's office. For each 47494
driver's license examination station located at a deputy 47495
registrar's office, the superintendent of the state highway patrol47496
director shall remit to the deputy a rental fee equal to the 47497
percentage of space occupied for the driver's license examination 47498
station multiplied by the rental fee or mortgage cost paid for the 47499
entire deputy registrar's office plus a pro rata share of all 47500
utility costs.47501

       (C) During the regular business hours of deputy registrars, 47502
the registrar shall keep the central office open and sufficiently 47503
staffed to be able to respond to the technical needs of the 47504
deputies.47505

       (D) The registrar shall adopt rules to promote public 47506
information regarding motor vehicle registration. The rules shall 47507
include:47508

       (1) The operation by the registrar, during the regular 47509
business hours of deputy registrars, of a toll-free telephone 47510
number to give information and receive complaints;47511

       (2) The listing by the registrar, of each deputy registrar, 47512
together with the toll-free telephone number required under 47513
division (D)(1) of this section, in the local business and 47514
advertising telephone directory for the area served by the deputy, 47515
under the heading of the bureau of motor vehicles.47516

       Sec. 4503.061.  (A) All manufactured and mobile homes shall 47517
be listed on either the real property tax list or the manufactured 47518
home tax list of the county in which the home has situs. Each 47519
owner shall follow the procedures in this section to identify the 47520
home to the county auditor of the county containing the taxing 47521
district in which the home has situs so that the auditor may place 47522
the home on the appropriate tax list.47523

       (B) When a manufactured or mobile home first acquires situs 47524
in this state and is subject to real property taxation pursuant to 47525
division (B)(1) or (2) of section 4503.06 of the Revised Code, the 47526
owner shall present to the auditor of the county containing the 47527
taxing district in which the home has its situs the certificate of 47528
title for the home, together with proof that all taxes due have 47529
been paid and proof that a relocation notice was obtained for the 47530
home if required under this section. Upon receiving the 47531
certificate of title and the required proofs, the auditor shall 47532
place the home on the real property tax list and proceed to treat 47533
the home as other properties on that list. After the auditor has 47534
placed the home on the tax list of real and public utility 47535
property, the auditor shall deliver the certificate of title to 47536
the clerk of the court of common pleas that issued it pursuant to 47537
section 4505.11 of the Revised Code, and the clerk shall 47538
inactivate the certificate of title.47539

       (C)(1) When a manufactured or mobile home subject to a 47540
manufactured home tax is relocated to or first acquires situs in 47541
any county that has adopted a permanent manufactured home 47542
registration system, as provided in division (F) of this section, 47543
the owner, within thirty days after the home is relocated or first 47544
acquires situs under section 4503.06 of the Revised Code, shall 47545
register the home with the county auditor of the county containing 47546
the taxing district in which the home has its situs. For the first 47547
registration in each county of situs, the owner or vendee in 47548
possession shall present to the county auditor an Ohio certificate 47549
of title, certified copy of the certificate of title, or 47550
memorandum certificate of title as such are required by law, and 47551
proof, as required by the county auditor, that the home, if it has 47552
previously been occupied and is being relocated, has been 47553
previously registered, that all taxes due and required to be paid 47554
under division (H)(1) of this section before a relocation notice 47555
may be issued have been paid, and that a relocation notice was 47556
obtained for the home if required by division (H) of this section. 47557
If the owner or vendee does not possess the Ohio certificate of 47558
title, certified copy of the certificate of title, or memorandum 47559
certificate of title at the time the owner or vendee first 47560
registers the home in a county, the county auditor shall register 47561
the home without presentation of the document, but the owner or 47562
vendee shall present the certificate of title, certified copy of 47563
the certificate of title, or memorandum certificate of title to 47564
the county auditor within fourteen days after the owner or vendee 47565
obtains possession of the document.47566

       (2) When a manufactured or mobile home is registered for the 47567
first time in a county and when the total tax due has been paid as 47568
required by division (F) of section 4503.06 of the Revised Code or 47569
divisions (E) and (H) of this section, the county treasurer shall 47570
note by writing or by a stamp on the certificate of title, 47571
certified copy of certificate of title, or memorandum certificate 47572
of title that the home has been registered and that the taxes due, 47573
if any, have been paid for the preceding five years and for the 47574
current year. The treasurer shall then issue a certificate 47575
evidencing registration and a decal to be displayed on the street 47576
side of the home. The certificate is valid in any county in this 47577
state during the year for which it is issued.47578

       (3) For each year thereafter, the county treasurer shall 47579
issue a tax bill stating the amount of tax due under section 47580
4503.06 of the Revised Code, as provided in division (D)(6) of 47581
that section. When the total tax due has been paid as required by 47582
division (F) of that section, the county treasurer shall issue a 47583
certificate evidencing registration that shall be valid in any 47584
county in this state during the year for which the certificate is 47585
issued.47586

       (4) The permanent decal issued under this division is valid 47587
during the period of ownership, except that when a manufactured 47588
home is relocated in another county the owner shall apply for a 47589
new registration as required by this section and section 4503.06 47590
of the Revised Code.47591

       (D)(1) All owners of manufactured or mobile homes subject to 47592
the manufactured home tax being relocated to or having situs in a 47593
county that has not adopted a permanent registration system, as 47594
provided in division (F) of this section, shall register the home 47595
within thirty days after the home is relocated or first acquires 47596
situs under section 4503.06 of the Revised Code and thereafter 47597
shall annually register the home with the county auditor of the 47598
county containing the taxing district in which the home has its 47599
situs.47600

       (2) Upon the annual registration, the county treasurer shall 47601
issue a tax bill stating the amount of annual manufactured home 47602
tax due under section 4503.06 of the Revised Code, as provided in 47603
division (D)(6) of that section. When a manufactured or mobile 47604
home is registered and when the tax for the current one-half year 47605
has been paid as required by division (F) of that section, the 47606
county treasurer shall issue a certificate evidencing registration 47607
and a decal. The certificate and decal are valid in any county in 47608
this state during the year for which they are issued. The decal 47609
shall be displayed on the street side of the home.47610

       (3) For the first annual registration in each county of 47611
situs, the county auditor shall require the owner or vendee to 47612
present an Ohio certificate of title, certified copy of the 47613
certificate of title, or memorandum certificate of title as such 47614
are required by law, and proof, as required by the county auditor, 47615
that the manufactured or mobile home has been previously 47616
registered, if such registration was required, that all taxes due 47617
and required to be paid under division (H)(1) of this section 47618
before a relocation notice may be issued have been paid, and that 47619
a relocation notice was obtained for the home if required by 47620
division (H) of this section. If the owner or vendee does not 47621
possess the Ohio certificate of title, certified copy of the 47622
certificate of title, or memorandum certificate of title at the 47623
time the owner or vendee first registers the home in a county, the 47624
county auditor shall register the home without presentation of the 47625
document, but the owner or vendee shall present the certificate of 47626
title, certified copy of the certificate of title, or memorandum 47627
certificate of title to the county auditor within fourteen days 47628
after the owner or vendee obtains possession of the document. When 47629
the county treasurer receives the tax payment, the county 47630
treasurer shall note by writing or by a stamp on the certificate 47631
of title, certified copy of the certificate of title, or 47632
memorandum certificate of title that the home has been registered 47633
for the current year and that the manufactured home taxes due, if 47634
any, have been paid for the preceding five years and for the 47635
current year.47636

       (4) For subsequent annual registrations, the auditor may 47637
require the owner or vendee in possession to present an Ohio 47638
certificate of title, certified copy of the certificate of title, 47639
or memorandum certificate of title to the county treasurer upon 47640
payment of the manufactured home tax that is due.47641

       (E)(1) Upon the application to transfer ownership of a 47642
manufactured or mobile home for which manufactured home taxes are 47643
paid pursuant to division (C) of section 4503.06 of the Revised 47644
Code the clerk of the court of common pleas shall not issue any 47645
certificate of title that does not contain or have attached both 47646
of the following:47647

       (a) An endorsement of the county treasurer stating that the 47648
home has been registered for each year of ownership and that all 47649
manufactured home taxes imposed pursuant to section 4503.06 of the 47650
Revised Code have been paid or that no tax is due;47651

       (b) An endorsement of the county auditor that the 47652
manufactured home transfer tax imposed pursuant to section 322.06 47653
of the Revised Code and any fees imposed under division (G) of 47654
section 319.54 of the Revised Code have been paid.47655

       (2) If all the taxes have not been paid, the clerk shall 47656
notify the vendee to contact the county treasurer of the county 47657
containing the taxing district in which the home has its situs at 47658
the time of the proposed transfer. The county treasurer shall then 47659
collect all the taxes that are due for the year of the transfer 47660
and all previous years not exceeding a total of five years. The 47661
county treasurer shall distribute that part of the collection owed 47662
to the county treasurer of other counties if the home had its 47663
situs in another county during a particular year when the unpaid 47664
tax became due and payable. The burden to prove the situs of the 47665
home in the years that the taxes were not paid is on the 47666
transferor of the home. Upon payment of the taxes, the county 47667
auditor shall remove all remaining taxes from the manufactured 47668
home tax list and the delinquent manufactured home tax list, and 47669
the county treasurer shall release all liens for such taxes. The 47670
clerk of courts shall issue a certificate of title, free and clear 47671
of all liens for manufactured home taxes, to the transferee of the 47672
home.47673

       (3) Once the transfer is complete and the certificate of 47674
title has been issued, the transferee shall register the 47675
manufactured or mobile home pursuant to division (C) or (D) of 47676
this section with the county auditor of the county containing the 47677
taxing district in which the home remains after the transfer or, 47678
if the home is relocated to another county, with the county 47679
auditor of the county to which the home is relocated. The 47680
transferee need not pay the annual tax for the year of acquisition 47681
if the original owner has already paid the annual tax for that 47682
year.47683

       (F) The county auditor may adopt a permanent registration 47684
system and issue a permanent decal with the first registration as 47685
prescribed by the tax commissioner.47686

       (G) When any manufactured or mobile home required to be 47687
registered by this section is not registered, the county auditor 47688
shall impose a penalty of one hundred dollars upon the owner and 47689
deposit the amount to the credit of the county real estate 47690
assessment fund to be used to pay the costs of administering this 47691
section and section 4503.06 of the Revised Code. If unpaid, the 47692
penalty shall constitute a lien on the home and shall be added by 47693
the county auditor to the manufactured home tax list for 47694
collection.47695

       (H)(1) Except as otherwise provided in this division, before 47696
moving a manufactured or mobile home on public roads from one 47697
address within this state to another address within or outside 47698
this state, the owner of the home shall obtain a relocation 47699
notice, as provided by this section, from the auditor of the 47700
county in which the home is located if the home is currently 47701
subject to taxation pursuant to section 4503.06 of the Revised 47702
Code. The auditor shall charge five dollars for the notice, and 47703
deposit the amount to the credit of the county real estate 47704
assessment fund to be used to pay the costs of administering this 47705
section and section 4503.06 of the Revised Code. The auditor shall 47706
not issue a relocation notice unless all taxes owed on the home 47707
under section 4503.06 of the Revised Code that were first charged 47708
to the home during the period of ownership of the owner seeking 47709
the relocation notice have been paid. If the home is being moved 47710
by a new owner of the home or by a party taking repossession of 47711
the home, the auditor shall not issue a relocation notice unless 47712
all of the taxes due for the preceding five years and for the 47713
current year have been paid. A relocation notice issued by a 47714
county auditor is valid until the last day of December of the year 47715
in which it was issued.47716

       If the home is being moved by a sheriff, police officer, 47717
constable, bailiff, or manufactured home park operator, as defined 47718
in section 3733.014781.01 of the Revised Code, or any agent of 47719
any of these persons, for purposes of removal from a manufactured 47720
home park and storage, sale, or destruction under section 1923.14 47721
of the Revised Code, the auditor shall issue a relocation notice 47722
without requiring payment of any taxes owed on the home under 47723
section 4503.06 of the Revised Code.47724

       (2) If a manufactured or mobile home is not yet subject to 47725
taxation under section 4503.06 of the Revised Code, the owner of 47726
the home shall obtain a relocation notice from the dealer of the 47727
home. Within thirty days after the manufactured or mobile home is 47728
purchased, the dealer of the home shall provide the auditor of the 47729
county in which the home is to be located written notice of the 47730
name of the purchaser of the home, the registration number or 47731
vehicle identification number of the home, and the address or 47732
location to which the home is to be moved. The county auditor 47733
shall provide to each manufactured and mobile home dealer, without 47734
charge, a supply of relocation notices to be distributed to 47735
purchasers pursuant to this section.47736

       (3) The notice shall be in the form of a one-foot square 47737
yellow sign with the words "manufactured home relocation notice" 47738
printed prominently on it. The name of the owner of the home, the 47739
home's registration number or vehicle identification number, the 47740
county and the address or location to which the home is being 47741
moved, and the county in which the notice is issued shall also be 47742
entered on the notice.47743

       (4) The relocation notice must be attached to the rear of the 47744
home when the home is being moved on a public road. Except as 47745
provided in divisions (H)(1) and (5) of this section, no person 47746
shall drive a motor vehicle moving a manufactured or mobile home 47747
on a public road from one address to another address within this 47748
state unless a relocation notice is attached to the rear of the 47749
home.47750

       (5) If the county auditor determines that a manufactured or 47751
mobile home has been moved without a relocation notice as required 47752
under this division, the auditor shall impose a penalty of one 47753
hundred dollars upon the owner of the home and upon the person who 47754
moved the home and deposit the amount to the credit of the county 47755
real estate assessment fund to pay the costs of administering this 47756
section and section 4503.06 of the Revised Code. If the home was 47757
relocated from one county in this state to another county in this 47758
state and the county auditor of the county to which the home was 47759
relocated imposes the penalty, that county auditor, upon 47760
collection of the penalty, shall cause an amount equal to the 47761
penalty to be transmitted from the county real estate assessment 47762
fund to the county auditor of the county from which the home was 47763
relocated, who shall deposit the amount to the credit of the 47764
county real estate assessment fund. If the penalty on the owner is 47765
unpaid, the penalty shall constitute a lien on the home and the 47766
auditor shall add the penalty to the manufactured home tax list 47767
for collection. If the county auditor determines that a dealer 47768
that has sold a manufactured or mobile home has failed to timely 47769
provide the information required under this division, the auditor 47770
shall impose a penalty upon the dealer in the amount of one 47771
hundred dollars. The penalty shall be credited to the county real 47772
estate assessment fund and used to pay the costs of administering 47773
this section and section 4503.06 of the Revised Code.47774

       (I) Whoever violates division (H)(4) of this section is 47775
guilty of a minor misdemeanor.47776

       Sec. 4503.062. (A) Every operator of a manufactured home 47777
court, or manufactured home park, as defined in section 3733.0147778
4781.01 of the Revised Code, or when there is no operator, every 47779
owner of property used for such purposes on which three or more 47780
manufactured or mobile homes are located, shall keep a register of 47781
all manufactured and mobile homes that make use of the court, 47782
park, or property. The register shall contain all of the 47783
following:47784

       (1) The name of the owner and all inhabitants of each home;47785

       (2) The ages of all inhabitants of each home;47786

       (3) The permanent and temporary post office addresses of all 47787
inhabitants of each home;47788

       (4) The license number of each home;47789

       (5) The state issuing each such license;47790

       (6) The date of arrival and of departure of each home;47791

       (7) The make and model of each home, if known and if either 47792
of the following applies:47793

       (a) The home enters the court, park, or property on or after 47794
January 1, 2003.47795

       (b) Ownership of the home in the court or park, or on the 47796
property, is transferred on or after January 1, 2003.47797

       (B) The register shall be open to inspection by the county 47798
auditor, the county treasurer, agents of the auditor or treasurer, 47799
and all law enforcement agencies at all times.47800

       (C) Any person who fails to comply with this section shall be 47801
fined not less than twenty-five nor more than one hundred dollars.47802

       Sec. 4503.49.  (A) As used in this section, "ambulance," 47803
"ambulette," "emergency medical service organization," 47804
"nonemergency medical service organization," and "nontransport 47805
vehicle" have the same meanings as in section 4766.01 of the 47806
Revised Code.47807

       (B) Each private emergency medical service organization and 47808
each private nonemergency medical service organization shall apply 47809
to the registrar of motor vehicles for the registration of any 47810
ambulance, ambulette, or nontransport vehicle it owns or leases. 47811
The application shall be accompanied by a copy of the certificate 47812
of licensure issued to the organization by the Ohiostate board of 47813
emergency medical, fire, and transportation boardservices and the 47814
following fees:47815

       (1) The regular license tax as prescribed under section 47816
4503.04 of the Revised Code;47817

       (2) Any local license tax levied under Chapter 4504. of the 47818
Revised Code;47819

       (3) An additional fee of seven dollars and fifty cents. The 47820
additional fee shall be for the purpose of compensating the bureau 47821
of motor vehicles for additional services required to be performed 47822
under this section and shall be transmitted by the registrar to 47823
the treasurer of state for deposit in the state bureau of motor 47824
vehicles fund created by section 4501.25 of the Revised Code.47825

       (C) On receipt of a complete application, the registrar shall 47826
issue to the applicant the appropriate certificate of registration 47827
for the vehicle and do one of the following:47828

       (1) Issue a set of license plates with a validation sticker 47829
and a set of stickers to be attached to the plates as an 47830
identification of the vehicle's classification as an ambulance, 47831
ambulette, or nontransport vehicle;47832

       (2) Issue a validation sticker alone when so required by 47833
section 4503.191 of the Revised Code.47834

       Sec. 4503.81.  As used in the bus taxation proration and 47835
reciprocity agreement authorized by section 4503.80 of the Revised 47836
Code, with reference to Ohio, "administrator" means the registrar 47837
of motor vehicles.47838

       The registrar may make such exemptions from the coverage of 47839
the agreement as may be appropriate and may make such changes in 47840
methods for the reporting of any information required to be 47841
furnished to this state pursuant to the agreement as, in histhe 47842
registrar's judgment, are suitable; provided that any such 47843
exemptions or changes shall not be contrary to the purposes set 47844
forth in article I of the agreement and shall be made in order to 47845
permit the continuance of uniformity of practice among the 47846
contracting states with respect to buses. Any such exemption or 47847
change shall be made by rule adopted under Chapter 119. of the 47848
Revised Code. Unless otherwise provided in any statute withdrawing 47849
this state from participation in the agreement, the governor shall 47850
be the officer to give notice of withdrawal therefrom.47851

       The fees referred to in article IV (a) of the agreement shall 47852
include the fees provided in section 4503.04 of the Revised Code 47853
and the annual tax provided in section 4921.184921.19 of the 47854
Revised Code. As to the state of Ohio, article V (d) shall mean 47855
that all fleets not subject to this compact shall continue to 47856
enjoy that reciprocity and those privileges extended by virtue of 47857
other provisions of the Revised Code.47858

       Nothing contained herein shall be construed so as to permit a 47859
fleet which is prorating under the laws of another state to avoid 47860
proration under this compact.47861

       The registrar of motor vehicles shall collect a fee of two 47862
dollars per bus for every bus registered under the provisions of 47863
article IV (a) for administration of the agreement, in addition to 47864
the fees provided in article IV (a).47865

       The registrar of motor vehicles shall assess the operator of 47866
buses registered under the provisions of article IV (a) the actual 47867
cost of histhe registrar's auditing the accuracy of the fees paid 47868
by the operator in accordance with article IV (a).47869

       The registrar of motor vehicles may renounce the 47870
participation of this state in the bus taxation proration and 47871
reciprocity agreement under article VI of section 4503.80 of the 47872
Revised Code, if he findsafter finding that further participation 47873
in the compact is not in the best interests of the state. The 47874
registrar shall set forth histhe registrar's reasons in writing 47875
and serve notice of intention to renounce the compact upon the 47876
owner of each registered fleet. HeThe registrar shall then 47877
certify the renunciation to the governor.47878

       Sec. 4506.01.  As used in this chapter:47879

       (A) "Alcohol concentration" means the concentration of 47880
alcohol in a person's blood, breath, or urine. When expressed as a 47881
percentage, it means grams of alcohol per the following:47882

       (1) One hundred milliliters of whole blood, blood serum, or 47883
blood plasma;47884

       (2) Two hundred ten liters of breath;47885

       (3) One hundred milliliters of urine.47886

       (B) "Commercial driver's license" means a license issued in 47887
accordance with this chapter that authorizes an individual to 47888
drive a commercial motor vehicle.47889

       (C) "Commercial driver's license information system" means 47890
the information system established pursuant to the requirements of 47891
the "Commercial Motor Vehicle Safety Act of 1986," 100 Stat. 47892
3207-171, 49 U.S.C.A. App. 2701.47893

       (D) Except when used in section 4506.25 of the Revised Code, 47894
"commercial motor vehicle" means any motor vehicle designed or 47895
used to transport persons or property that meets any of the 47896
following qualifications:47897

       (1) Any combination of vehicles with a combined gross vehicle 47898
weight rating of twenty-six thousand one pounds or more, provided 47899
the gross vehicle weight rating of the vehicle or vehicles being 47900
towed is in excess of ten thousand pounds;47901

       (2) Any single vehicle with a gross vehicle weight rating of 47902
twenty-six thousand one pounds or more, or any such vehicle towing 47903
a vehicle having a gross vehicle weight rating that is not in 47904
excess of ten thousand pounds;47905

       (3) Any single vehicle or combination of vehicles that is not 47906
a class A or class B vehicle, but is designed to transport sixteen 47907
or more passengers including the driver;47908

       (4) Any school bus with a gross vehicle weight rating of less 47909
than twenty-six thousand one pounds that is designed to transport 47910
fewer than sixteen passengers including the driver;47911

       (5) Is transporting hazardous materials for which placarding 47912
is required under subpart F of 49 C.F.R. part 172, as amended;47913

       (6) Any single vehicle or combination of vehicles that is 47914
designed to be operated and to travel on a public street or 47915
highway and is considered by the federal motor carrier safety 47916
administration to be a commercial motor vehicle, including, but 47917
not limited to, a motorized crane, a vehicle whose function is to 47918
pump cement, a rig for drilling wells, and a portable crane.47919

       (E) "Controlled substance" means all of the following:47920

       (1) Any substance classified as a controlled substance under 47921
the "Controlled Substances Act," 80 Stat. 1242 (1970), 21 U.S.C.A. 47922
802(6), as amended;47923

       (2) Any substance included in schedules I through V of 21 47924
C.F.R. part 1308, as amended;47925

       (3) Any drug of abuse.47926

       (F) "Conviction" means an unvacated adjudication of guilt or 47927
a determination that a person has violated or failed to comply 47928
with the law in a court of original jurisdiction or an authorized 47929
administrative tribunal, an unvacated forfeiture of bail or 47930
collateral deposited to secure the person's appearance in court, a 47931
plea of guilty or nolo contendere accepted by the court, the 47932
payment of a fine or court cost, or violation of a condition of 47933
release without bail, regardless of whether or not the penalty is 47934
rebated, suspended, or probated.47935

       (G) "Disqualification" means any of the following:47936

       (1) The suspension, revocation, or cancellation of a person's 47937
privileges to operate a commercial motor vehicle;47938

       (2) Any withdrawal of a person's privileges to operate a 47939
commercial motor vehicle as the result of a violation of state or 47940
local law relating to motor vehicle traffic control other than 47941
parking, vehicle weight, or vehicle defect violations;47942

       (3) A determination by the federal motor carrier safety 47943
administration that a person is not qualified to operate a 47944
commercial motor vehicle under 49 C.F.R. 391.47945

       (H) "Downgrade" means any of the following, as applicable:47946

       (1) A change in the commercial driver's license holder's 47947
self-certified status as described in division (A)(2) of section 47948
4506.10 of the Revised Code;47949

       (2) A change to a lesser class of vehicle;47950

       (3) Removal of commercial driver's license privileges from 47951
the individual's driver's license.47952

       (I) "Drive" means to drive, operate, or be in physical 47953
control of a motor vehicle.47954

       (J) "Driver" means any person who drives, operates, or is in 47955
physical control of a commercial motor vehicle or is required to 47956
have a commercial driver's license.47957

       (K) "Driver's license" means a license issued by the bureau 47958
of motor vehicles that authorizes an individual to drive.47959

       (L) "Drug of abuse" means any controlled substance, dangerous 47960
drug as defined in section 4729.01 of the Revised Code, or 47961
over-the-counter medication that, when taken in quantities 47962
exceeding the recommended dosage, can result in impairment of 47963
judgment or reflexes.47964

       (M) "Electronic device" includes a cellular telephone, a 47965
personal digital assistant, a pager, a computer, and any other 47966
device used to input, write, send, receive, or read text.47967

       (N) "Eligible unit of local government" means a village, 47968
township, or county that has a population of not more than three 47969
thousand persons according to the most recent federal census.47970

       (O) "Employer" means any person, including the federal 47971
government, any state, and a political subdivision of any state, 47972
that owns or leases a commercial motor vehicle or assigns a person 47973
to drive such a motor vehicle.47974

       (P) "Endorsement" means an authorization on a person's 47975
commercial driver's license that is required to permit the person 47976
to operate a specified type of commercial motor vehicle.47977

       (Q) "Farm truck" means a truck controlled and operated by a 47978
farmer for use in the transportation to or from a farm, for a 47979
distance of not more than one hundred fifty miles, of products of 47980
the farm, including livestock and its products, poultry and its 47981
products, floricultural and horticultural products, and in the 47982
transportation to the farm, from a distance of not more than one 47983
hundred fifty miles, of supplies for the farm, including tile, 47984
fence, and every other thing or commodity used in agricultural, 47985
floricultural, horticultural, livestock, and poultry production, 47986
and livestock, poultry, and other animals and things used for 47987
breeding, feeding, or other purposes connected with the operation 47988
of the farm, when the truck is operated in accordance with this 47989
division and is not used in the operations of a motor 47990
transportation company or private motor carrier, as defined in 47991
section 4923.01 of the Revised Code.47992

       (R) "Fatality" means the death of a person as the result of a 47993
motor vehicle accident occurring not more than three hundred 47994
sixty-five days prior to the date of death.47995

       (S) "Felony" means any offense under federal or state law 47996
that is punishable by death or specifically classified as a felony 47997
under the law of this state, regardless of the penalty that may be 47998
imposed.47999

       (T) "Foreign jurisdiction" means any jurisdiction other than 48000
a state.48001

       (U) "Gross vehicle weight rating" means the value specified 48002
by the manufacturer as the maximum loaded weight of a single or a 48003
combination vehicle. The gross vehicle weight rating of a 48004
combination vehicle is the gross vehicle weight rating of the 48005
power unit plus the gross vehicle weight rating of each towed 48006
unit.48007

       (V) "Hazardous materials" means any material that has been 48008
designated as hazardous under 49 U.S.C. 5103 and is required to be 48009
placarded under subpart F of 49 C.F.R. part 172 or any quantity of 48010
a material listed as a select agent or toxin in 42 C.F.R. part 73, 48011
as amended.48012

       (W) "Imminent hazard" means the existence of a condition that 48013
presents a substantial likelihood that death, serious illness, 48014
severe personal injury, or a substantial endangerment to health, 48015
property, or the environment may occur before the reasonably 48016
foreseeable completion date of a formal proceeding begun to lessen 48017
the risk of that death, illness, injury, or endangerment.48018

       (X) "Medical variance" means one of the following received by 48019
a driver from the federal motor carrier safety administration that 48020
allows the driver to be issued a medical certificate:48021

       (1) An exemption letter permitting operation of a commercial 48022
motor vehicle under 49 C.F.R. 381, subpart C or 49 C.F.R. 391.64;48023

       (2) A skill performance evaluation certificate permitting 48024
operation of a commercial motor vehicle pursuant to 49 C.F.R. 48025
391.49.48026

       (Y) "Motor vehicle" means a vehicle, machine, tractor, 48027
trailer, or semitrailer propelled or drawn by mechanical power 48028
used on highways, except that such term does not include a 48029
vehicle, machine, tractor, trailer, or semitrailer operated 48030
exclusively on a rail.48031

       (Z) "Out-of-service order" means a declaration by an 48032
authorized enforcement officer of a federal, state, local, 48033
Canadian, or Mexican jurisdiction declaring that a driver, 48034
commercial motor vehicle, or commercial motor carrier operation is 48035
out of service as defined in 49 C.F.R. 390.5.48036

       (AA) "Peace officer" has the same meaning as in section 48037
2935.01 of the Revised Code.48038

       (BB) "Portable tank" means a liquid or gaseous packaging 48039
designed primarily to be loaded onto or temporarily attached to a 48040
vehicle and equipped with skids, mountings, or accessories to 48041
facilitate handling of the tank by mechanical means.48042

       (CC) "Public safety vehicle" has the same meaning as in 48043
divisions (E)(1) and (3) of section 4511.01 of the Revised Code.48044

       (DD) "Recreational vehicle" includes every vehicle that is 48045
defined as a recreational vehicle in section 4501.01 of the 48046
Revised Code and is used exclusively for purposes other than 48047
engaging in business for profit.48048

       (EE) "Residence" means any person's residence determined in 48049
accordance with standards prescribed in rules adopted by the 48050
registrar.48051

       (FF) "School bus" has the same meaning as in section 4511.01 48052
of the Revised Code.48053

       (GG) "Serious traffic violation" means any of the following:48054

       (1) A conviction arising from a single charge of operating a 48055
commercial motor vehicle in violation of any provision of section 48056
4506.03 of the Revised Code;48057

       (2) A violation while operating a commercial motor vehicle of 48058
a law of this state, or any municipal ordinance or county or 48059
township resolution prohibiting texting while driving, or any 48060
other substantially similar law of another state or political 48061
subdivision of another state;48062

       (3) A conviction arising from the operation of any motor 48063
vehicle that involves any of the following:48064

       (a) A single charge of any speed in excess of the posted 48065
speed limit by fifteen miles per hour or more;48066

       (b) Violation of section 4511.20 or 4511.201 of the Revised 48067
Code or any similar ordinance or resolution, or of any similar law 48068
of another state or political subdivision of another state;48069

       (c) Violation of a law of this state or an ordinance or 48070
resolution relating to traffic control, other than a parking 48071
violation, or of any similar law of another state or political 48072
subdivision of another state, that results in a fatal accident;48073

       (d) Violation of section 4506.03 of the Revised Code or a 48074
substantially similar municipal ordinance or county or township 48075
resolution, or of any similar law of another state or political 48076
subdivision of another state, that involves the operation of a 48077
commercial motor vehicle without a valid commercial driver's 48078
license with the proper class or endorsement for the specific 48079
vehicle group being operated or for the passengers or type of 48080
cargo being transported;48081

       (e) Violation of section 4506.03 of the Revised Code or a 48082
substantially similar municipal ordinance or county or township 48083
resolution, or of any similar law of another state or political 48084
subdivision of another state, that involves the operation of a 48085
commercial motor vehicle without a valid commercial driver's 48086
license being in the person's possession;48087

       (f) Violation of section 4511.33 or 4511.34 of the Revised 48088
Code, or any municipal ordinance or county or township resolution 48089
substantially similar to either of those sections, or any 48090
substantially similar law of another state or political 48091
subdivision of another state;48092

       (g) Violation of any other law of this state or an ordinance 48093
or resolution relating to traffic control, other than a parking 48094
violation, that is determined to be a serious traffic violation by 48095
the United States secretary of transportation and the director 48096
designates as such by rule.48097

       (HH) "State" means a state of the United States and includes 48098
the District of Columbia.48099

       (II) "Tank vehicle" means any commercial motor vehicle that 48100
is designed to transport any liquid and has a maximum capacity 48101
greater than one hundred nineteen gallons or is designed to 48102
transport gaseous materials and has a water capacity greater than 48103
one thousand pounds within a tank that is either permanently or 48104
temporarily attached to the vehicle or its chassis. "Tank vehicle" 48105
does not include any of the following:48106

       (1) Any portable tank having a rated capacity of less than 48107
one thousand gallons;48108

       (2) Tanks used exclusively as a fuel tank for the motor 48109
vehicle to which it is attached;48110

        (3) An empty storage container tank that is not designed for 48111
transportation and that is readily distinguishable from a 48112
transportation tank;48113

        (4) Ready-mix concrete mixers.48114

       (JJ) "Tester" means a person or entity acting pursuant to a 48115
valid agreement entered into pursuant to division (B) of section 48116
4506.09 of the Revised Code.48117

       (KK) "Texting" means manually entering alphanumeric text 48118
into, or reading text from, an electronic device. Texting includes 48119
short message service, e-mail, instant messaging, a command or 48120
request to access a world wide web page, or engaging in any other 48121
form of electronic text retrieval or entry, for present or future 48122
communication. Texting does not include the following:48123

       (1) Reading, selecting, or entering a telephone number, an 48124
extension number, or voicemail retrieval codes and commands into 48125
an electronic device for the purpose of initiating or receiving a 48126
telephone call or using voice commands to initiate or receive a 48127
telephone call;48128

       (2) Inputting, selecting, or reading information on a global 48129
positioning system or navigation system.48130

       (LL) "Texting while driving" means texting while operating a 48131
commercial motor vehicle, with the motor running, including while 48132
temporarily stationary because of traffic, a traffic control 48133
device, or other momentary delays, but does not include operating 48134
a commercial motor vehicle with or without the motor running when 48135
the driver has moved the vehicle to the side of, or off, a highway 48136
and is stopped in a location where the vehicle can safely remain 48137
stationary.48138

        (MM) "United States" means the fifty states and the District 48139
of Columbia.48140

       (NN) "Upgrade" means a change in the class of vehicles, 48141
endorsements, or self-certified status as described in division 48142
(A)(2) of section 4506.10 of the Revised Code, that expands the 48143
ability of a current commercial driver's license holder to operate 48144
commercial motor vehicles under this chapter;48145

       (OO) "Vehicle" has the same meaning as in section 4511.01 of 48146
the Revised Code.48147

       Sec. 4506.03.  (A) Except as provided in divisions (B) and 48148
(C) of this section, the following shall apply:48149

       (1) No person shall drive a commercial motor vehicle on a 48150
highway in this state unless the person holds, and has in the 48151
person's possession, a valid commercial driver's license with 48152
proper endorsements for the motor vehicle being driven, issued by 48153
the registrar of motor vehicles, a valid examiner's commercial 48154
driving permit issued under section 4506.13 of the Revised Code, a 48155
valid restricted commercial driver's license and waiver for 48156
farm-related service industries issued under section 4506.24 of 48157
the Revised Code, or a valid commercial driver's license temporary 48158
instruction permit issued by the registrar and is accompanied by 48159
an authorized state driver's license examiner or tester or a 48160
person who has been issued and has in the person's immediate 48161
possession a current, valid commercial driver's license with 48162
proper endorsements for the motor vehicle being driven.48163

       (2) No person shall be issued a commercial driver's license 48164
until the person surrenders to the registrar of motor vehicles all 48165
valid licenses issued to the person by another jurisdiction 48166
recognized by this state. The registrar shall report the surrender 48167
of a license to the issuing authority, together with information 48168
that a license is now issued in this state. The registrar shall 48169
destroy any such license that is not returned to the issuing 48170
authority.48171

       (3) No person who has been a resident of this state for 48172
thirty days or longer shall drive a commercial motor vehicle under 48173
the authority of a commercial driver's license issued by another 48174
jurisdiction.48175

       (B) Nothing in division (A) of this section applies to any 48176
qualified person when engaged in the operation of any of the 48177
following:48178

       (1) A farm truck;48179

       (2) Fire equipment for a fire department, volunteer or 48180
nonvolunteer fire company, fire district, or joint fire district;48181

       (3) A public safety vehicle used to provide transportation or 48182
emergency medical service for ill or injured persons;48183

       (4) A recreational vehicle;48184

       (5) A commercial motor vehicle within the boundaries of an 48185
eligible unit of local government, if the person is employed by 48186
the eligible unit of local government and is operating the 48187
commercial motor vehicle for the purpose of removing snow or ice 48188
from a roadway by plowing, sanding, or salting, but only if either 48189
the employee who holds a commercial driver's license issued under 48190
this chapter and ordinarily operates a commercial motor vehicle 48191
for these purposes is unable to operate the vehicle, or the 48192
employing eligible unit of local government determines that a snow 48193
or ice emergency exists that requires additional assistance;48194

       (6) A vehicle operated for military purposes by any member or 48195
uniformed employee of the armed forces of the United States or 48196
their reserve components, including the Ohio national guard. This 48197
exception does not apply to United States reserve technicians.48198

       (7) A commercial motor vehicle that is operated for 48199
nonbusiness purposes. "Operated for nonbusiness purposes" means 48200
that the commercial motor vehicle is not used in commerce as 48201
"commerce" is defined in 49 C.F.R. 383.5, as amended, and is not 48202
regulated by the public utilities commission pursuant to Chapter48203
49194905., 4921., or 4923. of the Revised Code.48204

       (8) A motor vehicle that is designed primarily for the 48205
transportation of goods and not persons, while that motor vehicle 48206
is being used for the occasional transportation of personal 48207
property by individuals not for compensation and not in the 48208
furtherance of a commercial enterprise;48209

       (9) A police SWAT team vehicle;48210

       (10) A police vehicle used to transport prisoners.48211

       (C) Nothing contained in division (B)(5) of this section 48212
shall be construed as preempting or superseding any law, rule, or 48213
regulation of this state concerning the safe operation of 48214
commercial motor vehicles.48215

       (D) Whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor 48216
of the first degree.48217

       Sec. 4506.22.  (A) The director of public safety and the 48218
registrar of motor vehicles, subject to approval by the director, 48219
may, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, adopt 48220
any rules necessary to carry out this chapter.48221

       (B) The department of public safety may do all of the 48222
following:48223

       (1) Enter into or make any agreements, arrangements, or 48224
declarations necessary to carry out this chapter;48225

       (2) Charge a fee for all publications that is equal to the 48226
cost of printing the publications.48227

       (C) Nothing in this chapter shall be construed to restrict 48228
the authority of the public utilities commission specified in 48229
Chapters 4905., 4921., and 4923. of the Revised Code regarding 48230
safety rules applicable to motor carriers.48231

       Sec. 4506.25.  (A) As used in this section, "commercial motor 48232
vehicle" means any self-propelled or towed vehicle used on public 48233
highways in intrastate or interstate commerce to transport 48234
passengers or property that meets any of the following 48235
specifications:48236

       (1) The vehicle has a gross vehicle weight rating or gross 48237
combination weight rating of ten thousand one pounds or more.48238

       (2) The vehicle is designed to transport sixteen or more 48239
passengers, including the driver.48240

       (3) The vehicle is used in the transportation of hazardous 48241
materials in a quantity requiring placarding under the regulations 48242
issued by the United States secretary of transportation under the 48243
"Hazardous Materials Transportation Act," 88 Stat. 2156 (1975), 49 48244
U.S.C.A. 1801, as amended.48245

       (B) The registrar of motor vehicles shall disqualify any 48246
person from operating a commercial motor vehicle who receives a 48247
notice of a conviction for violation of an out-of-service order 48248
issued under rules of the public utilities commission adopted 48249
pursuant to section 4919.79, 4921.04Chapter 4905., 4921., or 48250
4923.204923. of the Revised Code, or a conviction for a violation 48251
of the same or similar laws of another state or jurisdiction 48252
applicable to vehicles in regulated commerce.48253

       Sec. 4507.01.  (A) As used in this chapter, "motor vehicle," 48254
"motorized bicycle," "state," "owner," "operator," "chauffeur," 48255
and "highways" have the same meanings as in section 4501.01 of the 48256
Revised Code.48257

       "Driver's license" means a class D license issued to any 48258
person to operate a motor vehicle or motor-driven cycle, other 48259
than a commercial motor vehicle, and includes "probationary 48260
license," "restricted license," and any operator's or chauffeur's 48261
license issued before January 1, 1990.48262

       "Probationary license" means the license issued to any person 48263
between sixteen and eighteen years of age to operate a motor 48264
vehicle.48265

       "Restricted license" means the license issued to any person 48266
to operate a motor vehicle subject to conditions or restrictions 48267
imposed by the registrar of motor vehicles.48268

       "Commercial driver's license" means the license issued to a 48269
person under Chapter 4506. of the Revised Code to operate a 48270
commercial motor vehicle.48271

       "Commercial motor vehicle" has the same meaning as in section 48272
4506.01 of the Revised Code.48273

       "Motorized bicycle license" means the license issued under 48274
section 4511.521 of the Revised Code to any person to operate a 48275
motorized bicycle including a "probationary motorized bicycle 48276
license."48277

       "Probationary motorized bicycle license" means the license 48278
issued under section 4511.521 of the Revised Code to any person 48279
between fourteen and sixteen years of age to operate a motorized 48280
bicycle.48281

       "Identification card" means a card issued under sections 48282
4507.50 and 4507.51 of the Revised Code.48283

       "Resident" means a person who, in accordance with standards 48284
prescribed in rules adopted by the registrar, resides in this 48285
state on a permanent basis.48286

       "Temporary resident" means a person who, in accordance with 48287
standards prescribed in rules adopted by the registrar, resides in 48288
this state on a temporary basis.48289

       (B) In the administration of this chapter and Chapter 4506. 48290
of the Revised Code, the registrar has the same authority as is 48291
conferred on the registrar by section 4501.02 of the Revised Code. 48292
Any act of an authorized deputy registrar of motor vehicles under 48293
direction of the registrar is deemed the act of the registrar.48294

       To carry out this chapter, the registrar shall appoint such 48295
deputy registrars in each county as are necessary.48296

       The registrar also shall provide at each place where an 48297
application for a driver's or commercial driver's license or 48298
identification card may be made the necessary equipment to take a 48299
color photograph of the applicant for such license or card as 48300
required under section 4506.11 or 4507.06 of the Revised Code, and 48301
to conduct the vision screenings required by section 4507.12 of 48302
the Revised Code, and equipment to laminate licenses, motorized 48303
bicycle licenses, and identification cards as required by sections 48304
4507.13, 4507.52, and 4511.521 of the Revised Code.48305

       The registrar shall assign one or more deputy registrars to 48306
any driver's license examining station operated under the 48307
supervision of the state highway patroldirector of public safety, 48308
whenever the registrar considers such assignment possible. Space 48309
shall be provided in the driver's license examining station for 48310
any such deputy registrar so assigned. The deputy registrars shall 48311
not exercise the powers conferred by such sections upon the 48312
registrar, unless they are specifically authorized to exercise 48313
such powers by such sections.48314

       (C) No agent for any insurance company, writing automobile 48315
insurance, shall be appointed deputy registrar, and any such 48316
appointment is void. No deputy registrar shall in any manner 48317
solicit any form of automobile insurance, nor in any manner 48318
advise, suggest, or influence any licensee or applicant for 48319
license for or against any kind or type of automobile insurance, 48320
insurance company, or agent, nor have the deputy registrar's 48321
office directly connected with the office of any automobile 48322
insurance agent, nor impart any information furnished by any 48323
applicant for a license or identification card to any person, 48324
except the registrar. This division shall not apply to any 48325
nonprofit corporation appointed deputy registrar.48326

       (D) The registrar shall immediately remove a deputy registrar 48327
who violates the requirements of this chapter.48328

       (E) The registrar shall periodically solicit bids and enter 48329
into a contract for the provision of laminating equipment and 48330
laminating materials to the registrar and all deputy registrars. 48331
The registrar shall not consider any bid that does not provide for 48332
the supplying of both laminating equipment and laminating 48333
materials. The laminating materials selected shall contain a 48334
security feature so that any tampering with the laminating 48335
material covering a license or identification card is readily 48336
apparent. In soliciting bids and entering into a contract for the 48337
provision of laminating equipment and laminating materials, the 48338
registrar shall observe all procedures required by law.48339

       Sec. 4507.011.  (A) Each deputy registrar assigned to a 48340
driver's license examining station by the registrar of motor 48341
vehicles as provided in section 4507.01 of the Revised Code shall 48342
remit to the superintendentdirector of the state highway patrol48343
public safety a rental fee equal to the percentage of space 48344
occupied by the deputy registrar in the driver's license examining 48345
station multiplied by the rental fee paid for the entire driver's 48346
license examining station plus a pro rata share of all utility 48347
costs. All such moneys received by the superintendentdirector48348
shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the 48349
registrar rental fund, which is hereby created. The moneys in the 48350
fund shall be used by the state highway patroldepartment of 48351
public safety only to pay the rent and expenses of the driver's 48352
license examining stations. All investment earnings of the fund 48353
shall be credited to the fund.48354

       (B) Each deputy registrar assigned to a bureau of motor 48355
vehicles' location shall reimburse the registrar a monthly 48356
building rental fee, including applicable utility charges. All 48357
such moneys received by the registrar shall be deposited into the 48358
state bureau of motor vehicles fund created in section 4501.25 of 48359
the Revised Code. 48360

       Sec. 4507.12.  (A) Except as provided in division (C) of 48361
section 4507.10 of the Revised Code, each person applying for the 48362
renewal of a driver's license shall submit to a screening of the 48363
person's vision before the license may be renewed. The vision 48364
screening shall be conducted at the office of the deputy registrar 48365
receiving the application for license renewal.48366

       (B) When the results of a vision screening given under 48367
division (A) of this section indicate that the vision of the 48368
person examined meets the standards required for licensing, the 48369
deputy registrar may renew the person's driver's license at that 48370
time.48371

       (C) When the results of a vision screening given under 48372
division (A) of this section indicate that the vision of the 48373
person screened may not meet the standards required for licensing, 48374
the deputy registrar shall not renew the person's driver's license 48375
at that time but shall refer the person to a driver's license 48376
examiner appointed by the superintendentdirector of the state 48377
highway patrolpublic safety under section 5503.215502.05 of the 48378
Revised Code for a further examination of the person's vision. 48379
When a person referred to a driver's license examiner by a deputy 48380
registrar does not meet the vision standards required for 48381
licensing, the driver's license examiner shall retain the person's 48382
operator's or chauffeur's license and shall immediately notify the 48383
registrar of motor vehicles of that fact. No driver's license 48384
shall be issued to any such person, until the person's vision is 48385
corrected to meet the standards required for licensing and the 48386
person passes the vision screening required by this section. Any 48387
person who operates a motor vehicle on a highway, or on any public 48388
or private property used by the public for purposes of vehicular 48389
travel or parking, during the time the person's driver's license 48390
is held by a driver's license examiner under this division, shall 48391
be deemed to be operating a motor vehicle in violation of division 48392
(A) of section 4510.12 of the Revised Code.48393

       (D) The registrar shall adopt rules and shall provide any 48394
forms necessary to properly conduct vision screenings at the 48395
office of a deputy registrar.48396

       (E) No person conducting vision screenings under this section 48397
shall be personally liable for damages for injury or loss to 48398
persons or property and for death caused by the operation of a 48399
motor vehicle by any person whose driver's license was renewed by 48400
the deputy registrar under division (B) of this section.48401

       Sec. 4507.51.  (A)(1) Every application for an identification 48402
card or duplicate shall be made on a form furnished by the 48403
registrar of motor vehicles, shall be signed by the applicant, and 48404
by the applicant's parent or guardian if the applicant is under 48405
eighteen years of age, and shall contain the following information 48406
pertaining to the applicant: name, date of birth, sex, general 48407
description including the applicant's height, weight, hair color, 48408
and eye color, address, and social security number. The 48409
application also shall state whether an applicant wishes to 48410
certify willingness to make an anatomical gift under section 48411
2108.05 of the Revised Code and shall include information about 48412
the requirements of sections 2108.01 to 2108.29 of the Revised 48413
Code that apply to persons who are less than eighteen years of 48414
age. The statement regarding willingness to make such a donation 48415
shall be given no consideration in the decision of whether to 48416
issue an identification card. Each applicant shall be photographed 48417
in color at the time of making application. 48418

       (2)(a) The application also shall state whether the applicant 48419
has executed a valid durable power of attorney for health care 48420
pursuant to sections 1337.11 to 1337.17 of the Revised Code or has 48421
executed a declaration governing the use or continuation, or the 48422
withholding or withdrawal, of life-sustaining treatment pursuant 48423
to sections 2133.01 to 2133.15 of the Revised Code and, if the 48424
applicant has executed either type of instrument, whether the 48425
applicant wishes the identification card issued to indicate that 48426
the applicant has executed the instrument. 48427

       (b) On and after October 7, 2009, the application also shall 48428
state whether the applicant is a veteran, active duty, or 48429
reservist of the armed forces of the United States and, if the 48430
applicant is such, whether the applicant wishes the identification 48431
card issued to indicate that the applicant is a veteran, active 48432
duty, or reservist of the armed forces of the United States by a 48433
military designation on the identification card. 48434

       (3) The registrar or deputy registrar, in accordance with 48435
section 3503.11 of the Revised Code, shall register as an elector 48436
any person who applies for an identification card or duplicate if 48437
the applicant is eligible and wishes to be registered as an 48438
elector. The decision of an applicant whether to register as an 48439
elector shall be given no consideration in the decision of whether 48440
to issue the applicant an identification card or duplicate. 48441

       (B) The application for an identification card or duplicate 48442
shall be filed in the office of the registrar or deputy registrar. 48443
Each applicant shall present documentary evidence as required by 48444
the registrar of the applicant's age and identity, and the 48445
applicant shall swear that all information given is true. An 48446
identification card issued by the department of rehabilitation and 48447
correction under section 5120.59 of the Revised Code or an 48448
identification card issued by the department of youth services 48449
under section 5139.511 of the Revised Code shall be sufficient 48450
documentary evidence under this division upon verification of the 48451
applicant's social security number by the registrar or a deputy 48452
registrar. Upon issuing an identification card under this section 48453
for a person who has been issued an identification card under 48454
section 5120.59 or section 5139.511 of the Revised Code, the 48455
registrar or deputy registrar shall destroy the identification 48456
card issued under section 5120.59 or section 5139.511 of the 48457
Revised Code. 48458

       All applications for an identification card or duplicate 48459
shall be filed in duplicate, and if submitted to a deputy 48460
registrar, a copy shall be forwarded to the registrar. The 48461
registrar shall prescribe rules for the manner in which a deputy 48462
registrar is to file and maintain applications and other records. 48463
The registrar shall maintain a suitable, indexed record of all 48464
applications denied and cards issued or canceled. 48465

       (C) In addition to any other information it contains, on and 48466
after the date that is fifteen months after the effective date of 48467
this amendmentApril 7, 2009, the form furnished by the registrar 48468
of motor vehicles for an application for an identification card or 48469
duplicate shall inform applicants that the applicant must present 48470
a copy of the applicant's DD-214 or an equivalent document in 48471
order to qualify to have the card or duplicate indicate that the 48472
applicant is an honorably discharged veteran of the armed forces 48473
of the United States based on a request made pursuant to division 48474
(A)(2)(b) of this section. 48475

       Sec. 4510.037.  (A) When the registrar of motor vehicles 48476
determines that the total points charged against any person under 48477
section 4510.036 of the Revised Code exceed five, the registrar 48478
shall send a warning letter to the person at the person's last 48479
known address by regular mail. The warning letter shall list the 48480
reported violations that are the basis of the points charged, list 48481
the number of points charged for each violation, and outline the 48482
suspension provisions of this section.48483

       (B) When the registrar determines that the total points 48484
charged against any person under section 4510.036 of the Revised 48485
Code within any two-year period beginning on the date of the first 48486
conviction within the two-year period is equal to twelve or more, 48487
the registrar shall send a written notice to the person at the 48488
person's last known address by regular mail. The notice shall list 48489
the reported violations that are the basis of the points charged, 48490
list the number of points charged for each violation, and state 48491
that, because the total number of points charged against the 48492
person within the applicable two-year period is equal to twelve or 48493
more, the registrar is imposing a class D suspension of the 48494
person's driver's or commercial driver's license or permit or 48495
nonresident operating privileges for the period of time specified 48496
in division (B)(4) of section 4510.02 of the Revised Code. The 48497
notice also shall state that the suspension is effective on the 48498
twentieth day after the mailing of the notice, unless the person 48499
files a petition appealing the determination and suspension in the 48500
municipal court, county court, or, if the person is under the age 48501
of eighteen, the juvenile division of the court of common pleas in 48502
whose jurisdiction the person resides or, if the person is not a 48503
resident of this state, in the Franklin county municipal court or 48504
juvenile division of the Franklin county court of common pleas. By 48505
filing the appeal of the determination and suspension, the person 48506
agrees to pay the cost of the proceedings in the appeal of the 48507
determination and suspension and alleges that the person can show 48508
cause why the person's driver's or commercial driver's license or 48509
permit or nonresident operating privileges should not be 48510
suspended.48511

       (C)(1) Any person against whom at least two but less than 48512
twelve points have been charged under section 4510.036 of the 48513
Revised Code may enroll in a course of remedial driving 48514
instruction that is approved by the director of public safety. 48515
Upon the person's completion of an approved course of remedial 48516
driving instruction, the person may apply to the registrar on a 48517
form prescribed by the registrar for a credit of two points on the 48518
person's driving record. Upon receipt of the application and proof 48519
of completion of the approved remedial driving course, the 48520
registrar shall approve the two-point credit. The registrar shall 48521
not approve any credits for a person who completes an approved 48522
course of remedial driving instruction pursuant to a judge's order 48523
under section 4510.02 of the Revised Code.48524

       (2) In any three-year period, the registrar shall approve 48525
only one two-point credit on a person's driving record under 48526
division (C)(1) of this section. The registrar shall approve not 48527
more than five two-point credits on a person's driving record 48528
under division (C)(1) of this section during that person's 48529
lifetime.48530

       (D) When a judge of a court of record suspends a person's 48531
driver's or commercial driver's license or permit or nonresident 48532
operating privilege and charges points against the person under 48533
section 4510.036 of the Revised Code for the offense that resulted 48534
in the suspension, the registrar shall credit that period of 48535
suspension against the time of any subsequent suspension imposed 48536
under this section for which those points were used to impose the 48537
subsequent suspension. When a United States district court that 48538
has jurisdiction within this state suspends a person's driver's or 48539
commercial driver's license or permit or nonresident operating 48540
privileges pursuant to the "Assimilative Crimes Act," 102 Stat. 48541
4381 (1988), 18 U.S.C.A. 13, as amended, the district court 48542
prepares an abstract pursuant to section 4510.031 of the Revised 48543
Code, and the district court charges points against the person 48544
under section 4510.036 of the Revised Code for the offense that 48545
resulted in the suspension, the registrar shall credit the period 48546
of suspension imposed by the district court against the time of 48547
any subsequent suspension imposed under this section for which the 48548
points were used to impose the subsequent suspension.48549

       (E) The registrar, upon the written request of a licensee who 48550
files a petition under division (B) of this section, shall furnish 48551
the licensee a certified copy of the registrar's record of the 48552
convictions and bond forfeitures of the person. This record shall 48553
include the name, address, and date of birth of the licensee; the 48554
name of the court in which each conviction or bail forfeiture took 48555
place; the nature of the offense that was the basis of the 48556
conviction or bond forfeiture; and any other information that the 48557
registrar considers necessary. If the record indicates that twelve 48558
points or more have been charged against the person within a 48559
two-year period, it is prima-facie evidence that the person is a 48560
repeat traffic offender, and the registrar shall suspend the 48561
person's driver's or commercial driver's license or permit or 48562
nonresident operating privilege pursuant to division (B) of this 48563
section.48564

       In hearing the petition and determining whether the person 48565
filing the petition has shown cause why the person's driver's or 48566
commercial driver's license or permit or nonresident operating 48567
privilege should not be suspended, the court shall decide the 48568
issue on the record certified by the registrar and any additional 48569
relevant, competent, and material evidence that either the 48570
registrar or the person whose license is sought to be suspended 48571
submits.48572

       (F) If a petition is filed under division (B) of this section 48573
in a county court, the prosecuting attorney of the county in which 48574
the case is pending shall represent the registrar in the 48575
proceedings, except that, if the petitioner resides in a municipal 48576
corporation within the jurisdiction of the county court, the city 48577
director of law, village solicitor, or other chief legal officer 48578
of the municipal corporation shall represent the registrar in the 48579
proceedings. If a petition is filed under division (B) of this 48580
section in a municipal court, the registrar shall be represented 48581
in the resulting proceedings as provided in section 1901.34 of the 48582
Revised Code.48583

       (G) If the court determines from the evidence submitted that 48584
a person who filed a petition under division (B) of this section 48585
has failed to show cause why the person's driver's or commercial 48586
driver's license or permit or nonresident operating privileges 48587
should not be suspended, the court shall assess against the person 48588
the cost of the proceedings in the appeal of the determination and 48589
suspension and shall impose the applicable suspension under this 48590
section or suspend all or a portion of the suspension and impose 48591
any conditions upon the person that the court considers proper or 48592
impose upon the person a community control sanction pursuant to 48593
section 2929.15 or 2929.25 of the Revised Code. If the court 48594
determines from the evidence submitted that a person who filed a 48595
petition under division (B) of this section has shown cause why 48596
the person's driver's or commercial driver's license or permit or 48597
nonresident operating privileges should not be suspended, the 48598
costs of the appeal proceeding shall be paid out of the county 48599
treasury of the county in which the proceedings were held.48600

       (H) Any person whose driver's or commercial driver's license 48601
or permit or nonresident operating privileges are suspended under 48602
this section is not entitled to apply for or receive a new 48603
driver's or commercial driver's license or permit or to request or 48604
be granted nonresident operating privileges during the effective 48605
period of the suspension.48606

       (I) Upon the termination of any suspension or other penalty 48607
imposed under this section involving the surrender of license or 48608
permit and upon the request of the person whose license or permit 48609
was suspended or surrendered, the registrar shall return the 48610
license or permit to the person upon determining that the person 48611
has complied with all provisions of section 4510.038 of the 48612
Revised Code or, if the registrar destroyed the license or permit 48613
pursuant to section 4510.52 of the Revised Code, shall reissue the 48614
person's license or permit.48615

       (J) Any person whose driver's or commercial driver's license 48616
or permit or nonresident operating privileges are suspended as a 48617
repeat traffic offender under this section and who, during the 48618
suspension, operates any motor vehicle upon any public roads and 48619
highways is guilty of driving under a twelve-point suspension, a 48620
misdemeanor of the first degree. The court shall sentence the 48621
offender to a minimum term of three days in jail. No court shall 48622
suspend the first three days of jail time imposed pursuant to this 48623
division.48624

       (K) The registrar, in accordance with specific statutory 48625
authority, may suspend the privilege of driving a motor vehicle on 48626
the public roads and highways of this state that is granted to 48627
nonresidents by section 4507.04 of the Revised Code.48628

       (L) Any(1) Except as provided in division (L)(2) of this 48629
section, any course of remedial driving instruction the director 48630
of public safety approves under this section shall require its 48631
students to attend at least fifty per cent of the course in 48632
person. Theand the director shall not approve any course of 48633
remedial driving instruction that permits its students to take 48634
more than fifty per cent of the course in any other manner, 48635
including via video teleconferencing or the internet.48636

       (2) The director may approve a course of remedial instruction 48637
that permits students to take the entire course via video 48638
teleconferencing. In accordance with division (C) of this section, 48639
upon receiving an application with a certificate or other proof of 48640
completion of a course approved under this division, the registrar 48641
shall approve the two-point reduction.48642

       Sec. 4510.038. (A) Any person whose driver's or commercial 48643
driver's license or permit is suspended or who is granted limited 48644
driving privileges under section 4510.037, under division (H) of 48645
section 4511.19, or under section 4510.07 of the Revised Code for 48646
a violation of a municipal ordinance that is substantially 48647
equivalent to division (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code 48648
is not eligible to retain the license, or to have the driving 48649
privileges reinstated, until each of the following has occurred:48650

       (1) The person successfully completes a course of remedial 48651
driving instruction approved by the director of public safety. A 48652
minimum of twenty-five per cent of the number of hours of 48653
instruction included in the course shall be devoted to instruction 48654
on driver attitude.48655

       The course also shall devote a number of hours to instruction 48656
in the area of alcohol and drugs and the operation of vehicles. 48657
The instruction shall include, but not be limited to, a review of 48658
the laws governing the operation of a vehicle while under the 48659
influence of alcohol, drugs, or a combination of them, the dangers 48660
of operating a vehicle while under the influence of alcohol, 48661
drugs, or a combination of them, and other information relating to 48662
the operation of vehicles and the consumption of alcoholic 48663
beverages and use of drugs. The director, in consultation with the 48664
director of alcohol and drug addiction services, shall prescribe 48665
the content of the instruction. The number of hours devoted to the 48666
area of alcohol and drugs and the operation of vehicles shall 48667
comprise a minimum of twenty-five per cent of the number of hours 48668
of instruction included in the course.48669

       (2) The person is examined in the manner provided for in 48670
section 4507.20 of the Revised Code, and found by the registrar of 48671
motor vehicles to be qualified to operate a motor vehicle;48672

       (3) The person gives and maintains proof of financial 48673
responsibility, in accordance with section 4509.45 of the Revised 48674
Code.48675

       (B) Any(1) Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this 48676
section, any course of remedial driving instruction the director 48677
of public safety approves under this section shall require its 48678
students to attend at least fifty per cent of the course in 48679
person. Theand the director shall not approve any course of 48680
remedial driving instruction that permits its students to take 48681
more than fifty per cent of the course in any other manner, 48682
including via video teleconferencing or the internet.48683

       (2) The director may approve a course of remedial instruction 48684
that permits students to take the entire course via video 48685
teleconferencing or the internet.48686

       Sec. 4511.191.  (A)(1) As used in this section:48687

        (a) "Physical control" has the same meaning as in section 48688
4511.194 of the Revised Code.48689

       (b) "Alcohol monitoring device" means any device that 48690
provides for continuous alcohol monitoring, any ignition interlock 48691
device, any immobilizing or disabling device other than an 48692
ignition interlock device that is constantly available to monitor 48693
the concentration of alcohol in a person's system, or any other 48694
device that provides for the automatic testing and periodic 48695
reporting of alcohol consumption by a person and that a court 48696
orders a person to use as a sanction imposed as a result of the 48697
person's conviction of or plea of guilty to an offense.48698

       (2) Any person who operates a vehicle, streetcar, or 48699
trackless trolley upon a highway or any public or private property 48700
used by the public for vehicular travel or parking within this 48701
state or who is in physical control of a vehicle, streetcar, or 48702
trackless trolley shall be deemed to have given consent to a 48703
chemical test or tests of the person's whole blood, blood serum or 48704
plasma, breath, or urine to determine the alcohol, drug of abuse, 48705
controlled substance, metabolite of a controlled substance, or 48706
combination content of the person's whole blood, blood serum or 48707
plasma, breath, or urine if arrested for a violation of division 48708
(A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code, section 48709
4511.194 of the Revised Code or a substantially equivalent 48710
municipal ordinance, or a municipal OVI ordinance.48711

       (3) The chemical test or tests under division (A)(2) of this 48712
section shall be administered at the request of a law enforcement 48713
officer having reasonable grounds to believe the person was 48714
operating or in physical control of a vehicle, streetcar, or 48715
trackless trolley in violation of a division, section, or 48716
ordinance identified in division (A)(2) of this section. The law 48717
enforcement agency by which the officer is employed shall 48718
designate which of the tests shall be administered.48719

       (4) Any person who is dead or unconscious, or who otherwise 48720
is in a condition rendering the person incapable of refusal, shall 48721
be deemed to have consented as provided in division (A)(2) of this 48722
section, and the test or tests may be administered, subject to 48723
sections 313.12 to 313.16 of the Revised Code.48724

       (5)(a) If a law enforcement officer arrests a person for a 48725
violation of division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised 48726
Code, section 4511.194 of the Revised Code or a substantially 48727
equivalent municipal ordinance, or a municipal OVI ordinance and 48728
if the person if convicted would be required to be sentenced under 48729
division (G)(1)(c), (d), or (e) of section 4511.19 of the Revised 48730
Code, the law enforcement officer shall request the person to 48731
submit, and the person shall submit, to a chemical test or tests 48732
of the person's whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, or 48733
urine for the purpose of determining the alcohol, drug of abuse, 48734
controlled substance, metabolite of a controlled substance, or 48735
combination content of the person's whole blood, blood serum or 48736
plasma, breath, or urine. A law enforcement officer who makes a 48737
request pursuant to this division that a person submit to a 48738
chemical test or tests is not required to advise the person of the 48739
consequences of submitting to, or refusing to submit to, the test 48740
or tests and is not required to give the person the form described 48741
in division (B) of section 4511.192 of the Revised Code, but the 48742
officer shall advise the person at the time of the arrest that if 48743
the person refuses to take a chemical test the officer may employ 48744
whatever reasonable means are necessary to ensure that the person 48745
submits to a chemical test of the person's whole blood or blood 48746
serum or plasma. The officer shall also advise the person at the 48747
time of the arrest that the person may have an independent 48748
chemical test taken at the person's own expense. Divisions (A)(3) 48749
and (4) of this section apply to the administration of a chemical 48750
test or tests pursuant to this division.48751

       (b) If a person refuses to submit to a chemical test upon a 48752
request made pursuant to division (A)(5)(a) of this section, the 48753
law enforcement officer who made the request may employ whatever 48754
reasonable means are necessary to ensure that the person submits 48755
to a chemical test of the person's whole blood or blood serum or 48756
plasma. A law enforcement officer who acts pursuant to this 48757
division to ensure that a person submits to a chemical test of the 48758
person's whole blood or blood serum or plasma is immune from 48759
criminal and civil liability based upon a claim for assault and 48760
battery or any other claim for the acts, unless the officer so 48761
acted with malicious purpose, in bad faith, or in a wanton or 48762
reckless manner.48763

       (B)(1) Upon receipt of the sworn report of a law enforcement 48764
officer who arrested a person for a violation of division (A) or 48765
(B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code, section 4511.194 of 48766
the Revised Code or a substantially equivalent municipal 48767
ordinance, or a municipal OVI ordinance that was completed and 48768
sent to the registrar of motor vehicles and a court pursuant to 48769
section 4511.192 of the Revised Code in regard to a person who 48770
refused to take the designated chemical test, the registrar shall 48771
enter into the registrar's records the fact that the person's 48772
driver's or commercial driver's license or permit or nonresident 48773
operating privilege was suspended by the arresting officer under 48774
this division and that section and the period of the suspension, 48775
as determined under this section. The suspension shall be subject 48776
to appeal as provided in section 4511.197 of the Revised Code. The 48777
suspension shall be for whichever of the following periods 48778
applies:48779

       (a) Except when division (B)(1)(b), (c), or (d) of this 48780
section applies and specifies a different class or length of 48781
suspension, the suspension shall be a class C suspension for the 48782
period of time specified in division (B)(3) of section 4510.02 of 48783
the Revised Code.48784

       (b) If the arrested person, within six years of the date on 48785
which the person refused the request to consent to the chemical 48786
test, had refused one previous request to consent to a chemical 48787
test or had been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one violation 48788
of division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or 48789
one other equivalent offense, the suspension shall be a class B 48790
suspension imposed for the period of time specified in division 48791
(B)(2) of section 4510.02 of the Revised Code.48792

       (c) If the arrested person, within six years of the date on 48793
which the person refused the request to consent to the chemical 48794
test, had refused two previous requests to consent to a chemical 48795
test, had been convicted of or pleaded guilty to two violations of 48796
division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or 48797
other equivalent offenses, or had refused one previous request to 48798
consent to a chemical test and also had been convicted of or 48799
pleaded guilty to one violation of division (A) or (B) of section 48800
4511.19 of the Revised Code or other equivalent offenses, which 48801
violation or offense arose from an incident other than the 48802
incident that led to the refusal, the suspension shall be a class 48803
A suspension imposed for the period of time specified in division 48804
(B)(1) of section 4510.02 of the Revised Code.48805

       (d) If the arrested person, within six years of the date on 48806
which the person refused the request to consent to the chemical 48807
test, had refused three or more previous requests to consent to a 48808
chemical test, had been convicted of or pleaded guilty to three or 48809
more violations of division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the 48810
Revised Code or other equivalent offenses, or had refused a number 48811
of previous requests to consent to a chemical test and also had 48812
been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a number of violations of 48813
division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or 48814
other equivalent offenses that cumulatively total three or more 48815
such refusals, convictions, and guilty pleas, the suspension shall 48816
be for five years.48817

       (2) The registrar shall terminate a suspension of the 48818
driver's or commercial driver's license or permit of a resident or 48819
of the operating privilege of a nonresident, or a denial of a 48820
driver's or commercial driver's license or permit, imposed 48821
pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section upon receipt of notice 48822
that the person has entered a plea of guilty to, or that the 48823
person has been convicted after entering a plea of no contest to, 48824
operating a vehicle in violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised 48825
Code or in violation of a municipal OVI ordinance, if the offense 48826
for which the conviction is had or the plea is entered arose from 48827
the same incident that led to the suspension or denial.48828

       The registrar shall credit against any judicial suspension of 48829
a person's driver's or commercial driver's license or permit or 48830
nonresident operating privilege imposed pursuant to section 48831
4511.19 of the Revised Code, or pursuant to section 4510.07 of the 48832
Revised Code for a violation of a municipal OVI ordinance, any 48833
time during which the person serves a related suspension imposed 48834
pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section.48835

       (C)(1) Upon receipt of the sworn report of the law 48836
enforcement officer who arrested a person for a violation of 48837
division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or a 48838
municipal OVI ordinance that was completed and sent to the 48839
registrar and a court pursuant to section 4511.192 of the Revised 48840
Code in regard to a person whose test results indicate that the 48841
person's whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, or urine 48842
contained at least the concentration of alcohol specified in 48843
division (A)(1)(b), (c), (d), or (e) of section 4511.19 of the 48844
Revised Code or at least the concentration of a listed controlled 48845
substance or a listed metabolite of a controlled substance 48846
specified in division (A)(1)(j) of section 4511.19 of the Revised 48847
Code, the registrar shall enter into the registrar's records the 48848
fact that the person's driver's or commercial driver's license or 48849
permit or nonresident operating privilege was suspended by the 48850
arresting officer under this division and section 4511.192 of the 48851
Revised Code and the period of the suspension, as determined under 48852
divisions (C)(1)(a) to (d) of this section. The suspension shall 48853
be subject to appeal as provided in section 4511.197 of the 48854
Revised Code. The suspension described in this division does not 48855
apply to, and shall not be imposed upon, a person arrested for a 48856
violation of section 4511.194 of the Revised Code or a 48857
substantially equivalent municipal ordinance who submits to a 48858
designated chemical test. The suspension shall be for whichever of 48859
the following periods applies:48860

       (a) Except when division (C)(1)(b), (c), or (d) of this 48861
section applies and specifies a different period, the suspension 48862
shall be a class E suspension imposed for the period of time 48863
specified in division (B)(5) of section 4510.02 of the Revised 48864
Code.48865

       (b) The suspension shall be a class C suspension for the 48866
period of time specified in division (B)(3) of section 4510.02 of 48867
the Revised Code if the person has been convicted of or pleaded 48868
guilty to, within six years of the date the test was conducted, 48869
one violation of division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the 48870
Revised Code or one other equivalent offense.48871

       (c) If, within six years of the date the test was conducted, 48872
the person has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to two 48873
violations of a statute or ordinance described in division 48874
(C)(1)(b) of this section, the suspension shall be a class B 48875
suspension imposed for the period of time specified in division 48876
(B)(2) of section 4510.02 of the Revised Code.48877

       (d) If, within six years of the date the test was conducted, 48878
the person has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to more than 48879
two violations of a statute or ordinance described in division 48880
(C)(1)(b) of this section, the suspension shall be a class A 48881
suspension imposed for the period of time specified in division 48882
(B)(1) of section 4510.02 of the Revised Code.48883

       (2) The registrar shall terminate a suspension of the 48884
driver's or commercial driver's license or permit of a resident or 48885
of the operating privilege of a nonresident, or a denial of a 48886
driver's or commercial driver's license or permit, imposed 48887
pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section upon receipt of notice 48888
that the person has entered a plea of guilty to, or that the 48889
person has been convicted after entering a plea of no contest to, 48890
operating a vehicle in violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised 48891
Code or in violation of a municipal OVI ordinance, if the offense 48892
for which the conviction is had or the plea is entered arose from 48893
the same incident that led to the suspension or denial.48894

       The registrar shall credit against any judicial suspension of 48895
a person's driver's or commercial driver's license or permit or 48896
nonresident operating privilege imposed pursuant to section 48897
4511.19 of the Revised Code, or pursuant to section 4510.07 of the 48898
Revised Code for a violation of a municipal OVI ordinance, any 48899
time during which the person serves a related suspension imposed 48900
pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section.48901

       (D)(1) A suspension of a person's driver's or commercial 48902
driver's license or permit or nonresident operating privilege 48903
under this section for the time described in division (B) or (C) 48904
of this section is effective immediately from the time at which 48905
the arresting officer serves the notice of suspension upon the 48906
arrested person. Any subsequent finding that the person is not 48907
guilty of the charge that resulted in the person being requested 48908
to take the chemical test or tests under division (A) of this 48909
section does not affect the suspension.48910

       (2) If a person is arrested for operating a vehicle, 48911
streetcar, or trackless trolley in violation of division (A) or 48912
(B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or a municipal OVI 48913
ordinance, or for being in physical control of a vehicle, 48914
streetcar, or trackless trolley in violation of section 4511.194 48915
of the Revised Code or a substantially equivalent municipal 48916
ordinance, regardless of whether the person's driver's or 48917
commercial driver's license or permit or nonresident operating 48918
privilege is or is not suspended under division (B) or (C) of this 48919
section or Chapter 4510. of the Revised Code, the person's initial 48920
appearance on the charge resulting from the arrest shall be held 48921
within five days of the person's arrest or the issuance of the 48922
citation to the person, subject to any continuance granted by the 48923
court pursuant to section 4511.197 of the Revised Code regarding 48924
the issues specified in that division.48925

       (E) When it finally has been determined under the procedures 48926
of this section and sections 4511.192 to 4511.197 of the Revised 48927
Code that a nonresident's privilege to operate a vehicle within 48928
this state has been suspended, the registrar shall give 48929
information in writing of the action taken to the motor vehicle 48930
administrator of the state of the person's residence and of any 48931
state in which the person has a license.48932

       (F) At the end of a suspension period under this section, 48933
under section 4511.194, section 4511.196, or division (G) of 48934
section 4511.19 of the Revised Code, or under section 4510.07 of 48935
the Revised Code for a violation of a municipal OVI ordinance and 48936
upon the request of the person whose driver's or commercial 48937
driver's license or permit was suspended and who is not otherwise 48938
subject to suspension, cancellation, or disqualification, the 48939
registrar shall return the driver's or commercial driver's license 48940
or permit to the person upon the occurrence of all of the 48941
conditions specified in divisions (F)(1) and (2) of this section:48942

       (1) A showing that the person has proof of financial 48943
responsibility, a policy of liability insurance in effect that 48944
meets the minimum standards set forth in section 4509.51 of the 48945
Revised Code, or proof, to the satisfaction of the registrar, that 48946
the person is able to respond in damages in an amount at least 48947
equal to the minimum amounts specified in section 4509.51 of the 48948
Revised Code.48949

       (2) Subject to the limitation contained in division (F)(3) of 48950
this section, payment by the person to the registrar or an 48951
eligible deputy registrar of a license reinstatement fee of four 48952
hundred seventy-five dollars, which fee shall be deposited in the 48953
state treasury and credited as follows:48954

       (a) One hundred twelve dollars and fifty cents shall be 48955
credited to the statewide treatment and prevention fund created by 48956
section 4301.30 of the Revised Code. Money credited to the fund 48957
under this section shall be used for purposes identified in the 48958
comprehensive statewide alcohol and drug addiction services plan 48959
developed under section 3793.04 of the Revised Code. 48960

       (b) Seventy-five dollars shall be credited to the reparations 48961
fund created by section 2743.191 of the Revised Code.48962

       (c) Thirty-seven dollars and fifty cents shall be credited to 48963
the indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, which is hereby 48964
established in the state treasury. Except as otherwise provided in 48965
division (F)(2)(c) of this section, moneys in the fund shall be 48966
distributed by the department of alcohol and drug addiction 48967
services to the county indigent drivers alcohol treatment funds, 48968
the county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment funds, and 48969
the municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment funds that are 48970
required to be established by counties and municipal corporations 48971
pursuant to division (H) of this section, and shall be used only 48972
to pay the cost of an alcohol and drug addiction treatment program 48973
attended by an offender or juvenile traffic offender who is 48974
ordered to attend an alcohol and drug addiction treatment program 48975
by a county, juvenile, or municipal court judge and who is 48976
determined by the county, juvenile, or municipal court judge not 48977
to have the means to pay for the person's attendance at the 48978
program or to pay the costs specified in division (H)(4) of this 48979
section in accordance with that division. In addition, a county, 48980
juvenile, or municipal court judge may use moneys in the county 48981
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, county juvenile indigent 48982
drivers alcohol treatment fund, or municipal indigent drivers 48983
alcohol treatment fund to pay for the cost of the continued use of 48984
an alcohol monitoring device as described in divisions (H)(3) and 48985
(4) of this section. Moneys in the fund that are not distributed 48986
to a county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, a county 48987
juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, or a municipal 48988
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund under division (H) of this 48989
section because the director of alcohol and drug addiction 48990
services does not have the information necessary to identify the 48991
county or municipal corporation where the offender or juvenile 48992
offender was arrested may be transferred by the director of budget 48993
and management to the statewide treatment and prevention fund 48994
created by section 4301.30 of the Revised Code, upon certification 48995
of the amount by the director of alcohol and drug addiction 48996
services.48997

       (d) Seventy-five dollars shall be credited to the Ohio 48998
rehabilitation services commission established by section 3304.12 48999
of the Revised Code, to the services for rehabilitation fund, 49000
which is hereby established. The fund shall be used to match 49001
available federal matching funds where appropriate, and for any 49002
other purpose or program of the commission to rehabilitate people 49003
with disabilities to help them become employed and independent.49004

       (e) Seventy-five dollars shall be deposited into the state 49005
treasury and credited to the drug abuse resistance education 49006
programs fund, which is hereby established, to be used by the 49007
attorney general for the purposes specified in division (F)(4) of 49008
this section.49009

       (f) Thirty dollars shall be credited to the state bureau of 49010
motor vehicles fund created by section 4501.25 of the Revised 49011
Code.49012

       (g) Twenty dollars shall be credited to the trauma and 49013
emergency medical services grants fund created by section 4513.263 49014
of the Revised Code.49015

       (h) Fifty dollars shall be credited to the indigent drivers 49016
interlock and alcohol monitoring fund, which is hereby established 49017
in the state treasury. Moneys in the fund shall be distributed by 49018
the department of public safety to the county indigent drivers 49019
interlock and alcohol monitoring funds, the county juvenile 49020
indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring funds, and the 49021
municipal indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring funds 49022
that are required to be established by counties and municipal 49023
corporations pursuant to this section, and shall be used only to 49024
pay the cost of an immobilizing or disabling device, including a 49025
certified ignition interlock device, or an alcohol monitoring 49026
device used by an offender or juvenile offender who is ordered to 49027
use the device by a county, juvenile, or municipal court judge and 49028
who is determined by the county, juvenile, or municipal court 49029
judge not to have the means to pay for the person's use of the 49030
device.49031

       (3) If a person's driver's or commercial driver's license or 49032
permit is suspended under this section, under section 4511.196 or 49033
division (G) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code, under section 49034
4510.07 of the Revised Code for a violation of a municipal OVI 49035
ordinance or under any combination of the suspensions described in 49036
division (F)(3) of this section, and if the suspensions arise from 49037
a single incident or a single set of facts and circumstances, the 49038
person is liable for payment of, and shall be required to pay to 49039
the registrar or an eligible deputy registrar, only one 49040
reinstatement fee of four hundred seventy-five dollars. The 49041
reinstatement fee shall be distributed by the bureau in accordance 49042
with division (F)(2) of this section.49043

       (4) The attorney general shall use amounts in the drug abuse 49044
resistance education programs fund to award grants to law 49045
enforcement agencies to establish and implement drug abuse 49046
resistance education programs in public schools. Grants awarded to 49047
a law enforcement agency under this section shall be used by the 49048
agency to pay for not more than fifty per cent of the amount of 49049
the salaries of law enforcement officers who conduct drug abuse 49050
resistance education programs in public schools. The attorney 49051
general shall not use more than six per cent of the amounts the 49052
attorney general's office receives under division (F)(2)(e) of 49053
this section to pay the costs it incurs in administering the grant 49054
program established by division (F)(2)(e) of this section and in 49055
providing training and materials relating to drug abuse resistance 49056
education programs.49057

       The attorney general shall report to the governor and the 49058
general assembly each fiscal year on the progress made in 49059
establishing and implementing drug abuse resistance education 49060
programs. These reports shall include an evaluation of the 49061
effectiveness of these programs.49062

       (5) In addition to the reinstatement fee under this section, 49063
if the person pays the reinstatement fee to a deputy registrar, 49064
the deputy registrar shall collect a service fee of ten dollars to 49065
compensate the deputy registrar for services performed under this 49066
section. The deputy registrar shall retain eight dollars of the 49067
service fee and shall transmit the reinstatement fee, plus two 49068
dollars of the service fee, to the registrar in the manner the 49069
registrar shall determine.49070

       (G) Suspension of a commercial driver's license under 49071
division (B) or (C) of this section shall be concurrent with any 49072
period of disqualification under section 3123.611 or 4506.16 of 49073
the Revised Code or any period of suspension under section 3123.58 49074
of the Revised Code. No person who is disqualified for life from 49075
holding a commercial driver's license under section 4506.16 of the 49076
Revised Code shall be issued a driver's license under Chapter 49077
4507. of the Revised Code during the period for which the 49078
commercial driver's license was suspended under division (B) or 49079
(C) of this section. No person whose commercial driver's license 49080
is suspended under division (B) or (C) of this section shall be 49081
issued a driver's license under Chapter 4507. of the Revised Code 49082
during the period of the suspension.49083

       (H)(1) Each county shall establish an indigent drivers 49084
alcohol treatment fund, each county shall establish a juvenile 49085
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, and each municipal 49086
corporation in which there is a municipal court shall establish an 49087
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund. All revenue that the 49088
general assembly appropriates to the indigent drivers alcohol 49089
treatment fund for transfer to a county indigent drivers alcohol 49090
treatment fund, a county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol 49091
treatment fund, or a municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment 49092
fund, all portions of fees that are paid under division (F) of 49093
this section and that are credited under that division to the 49094
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund in the state treasury for 49095
a county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, a county 49096
juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, or a municipal 49097
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, all portions of 49098
additional costs imposed under section 2949.094 of the Revised 49099
Code that are specified for deposit into a county, county 49100
juvenile, or municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund by 49101
that section, and all portions of fines that are specified for 49102
deposit into a county or municipal indigent drivers alcohol 49103
treatment fund by section 4511.193 of the Revised Code shall be 49104
deposited into that county indigent drivers alcohol treatment 49105
fund, county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, or 49106
municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund. The portions of 49107
the fees paid under division (F) of this section that are to be so 49108
deposited shall be determined in accordance with division (H)(2) 49109
of this section. Additionally, all portions of fines that are paid 49110
for a violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or of any 49111
prohibition contained in Chapter 4510. of the Revised Code, and 49112
that are required under section 4511.19 or any provision of 49113
Chapter 4510. of the Revised Code to be deposited into a county 49114
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund or municipal indigent 49115
drivers alcohol treatment fund shall be deposited into the 49116
appropriate fund in accordance with the applicable division of the 49117
section or provision.49118

       (2) That portion of the license reinstatement fee that is 49119
paid under division (F) of this section and that is credited under 49120
that division to the indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund shall 49121
be deposited into a county indigent drivers alcohol treatment 49122
fund, a county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, 49123
or a municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund as follows:49124

       (a) Regarding a suspension imposed under this section, that 49125
portion of the fee shall be deposited as follows:49126

       (i) If the fee is paid by a person who was charged in a 49127
county court with the violation that resulted in the suspension or 49128
in the imposition of the court costs, the portion shall be 49129
deposited into the county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund 49130
under the control of that court;49131

       (ii) If the fee is paid by a person who was charged in a 49132
juvenile court with the violation that resulted in the suspension 49133
or in the imposition of the court costs, the portion shall be 49134
deposited into the county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol 49135
treatment fund established in the county served by the court;49136

       (iii) If the fee is paid by a person who was charged in a 49137
municipal court with the violation that resulted in the suspension 49138
or in the imposition of the court costs, the portion shall be 49139
deposited into the municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment 49140
fund under the control of that court.49141

       (b) Regarding a suspension imposed under section 4511.19 of 49142
the Revised Code or under section 4510.07 of the Revised Code for 49143
a violation of a municipal OVI ordinance, that portion of the fee 49144
shall be deposited as follows:49145

       (i) If the fee is paid by a person whose license or permit 49146
was suspended by a county court, the portion shall be deposited 49147
into the county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund under the 49148
control of that court;49149

       (ii) If the fee is paid by a person whose license or permit 49150
was suspended by a municipal court, the portion shall be deposited 49151
into the municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund under 49152
the control of that court.49153

       (3) Expenditures from a county indigent drivers alcohol 49154
treatment fund, a county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol 49155
treatment fund, or a municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment 49156
fund shall be made only upon the order of a county, juvenile, or 49157
municipal court judge and only for payment of the cost of an 49158
assessment or the cost of the attendance at an alcohol and drug 49159
addiction treatment program of a person who is convicted of, or 49160
found to be a juvenile traffic offender by reason of, a violation 49161
of division (A) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or a 49162
substantially similar municipal ordinance, who is ordered by the 49163
court to attend the alcohol and drug addiction treatment program, 49164
and who is determined by the court to be unable to pay the cost of 49165
the assessment or the cost of attendance at the treatment program 49166
or for payment of the costs specified in division (H)(4) of this 49167
section in accordance with that division. The alcohol and drug 49168
addiction services board or the board of alcohol, drug addiction, 49169
and mental health services established pursuant to section 340.02 49170
or 340.021 of the Revised Code and serving the alcohol, drug 49171
addiction, and mental health service district in which the court 49172
is located shall administer the indigent drivers alcohol treatment 49173
program of the court. When a court orders an offender or juvenile 49174
traffic offender to obtain an assessment or attend an alcohol and 49175
drug addiction treatment program, the board shall determine which 49176
program is suitable to meet the needs of the offender or juvenile 49177
traffic offender, and when a suitable program is located and space 49178
is available at the program, the offender or juvenile traffic 49179
offender shall attend the program designated by the board. A 49180
reasonable amount not to exceed five per cent of the amounts 49181
credited to and deposited into the county indigent drivers alcohol 49182
treatment fund, the county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol 49183
treatment fund, or the municipal indigent drivers alcohol 49184
treatment fund serving every court whose program is administered 49185
by that board shall be paid to the board to cover the costs it 49186
incurs in administering those indigent drivers alcohol treatment 49187
programs.49188

       In addition, upon exhaustion of moneys in the indigent 49189
drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund for the use of an 49190
alcohol monitoring device, a county, juvenile, or municipal court 49191
judge may use moneys in the county indigent drivers alcohol 49192
treatment fund, county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment 49193
fund, or municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund in the 49194
following manners:49195

       (a) If the source of the moneys was an appropriation of the 49196
general assembly, a portion of a fee that was paid under division 49197
(F) of this section, a portion of a fine that was specified for 49198
deposit into the fund by section 4511.193 of the Revised Code, or 49199
a portion of a fine that was paid for a violation of section 49200
4511.19 of the Revised Code or of a provision contained in Chapter 49201
4510. of the Revised Code that was required to be deposited into 49202
the fund, to pay for the continued use of an alcohol monitoring 49203
device by an offender or juvenile traffic offender, in conjunction 49204
with a treatment program approved by the department of alcohol and 49205
drug addiction services, when such use is determined clinically 49206
necessary by the treatment program and when the court determines 49207
that the offender or juvenile traffic offender is unable to pay 49208
all or part of the daily monitoring or cost of the device;49209

       (b) If the source of the moneys was a portion of an 49210
additional court cost imposed under section 2949.094 of the 49211
Revised Code, to pay for the continued use of an alcohol 49212
monitoring device by an offender or juvenile traffic offender when 49213
the court determines that the offender or juvenile traffic 49214
offender is unable to pay all or part of the daily monitoring or 49215
cost of the device. The moneys may be used for a device as 49216
described in this division if the use of the device is in 49217
conjunction with a treatment program approved by the department of 49218
alcohol and drug addiction services, when the use of the device is 49219
determined clinically necessary by the treatment program, but the 49220
use of a device is not required to be in conjunction with a 49221
treatment program approved by the department in order for the 49222
moneys to be used for the device as described in this division.49223

       (4) If a county, juvenile, or municipal court determines, in 49224
consultation with the alcohol and drug addiction services board or 49225
the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 49226
established pursuant to section 340.02 or 340.021 of the Revised 49227
Code and serving the alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 49228
district in which the court is located, that the funds in the 49229
county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, the county 49230
juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, or the municipal 49231
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund under the control of the 49232
court are more than sufficient to satisfy the purpose for which 49233
the fund was established, as specified in divisions (H)(1) to (3) 49234
of this section, the court may declare a surplus in the fund. If 49235
the court declares a surplus in the fund, the court may expend the 49236
amount of the surplus in the fund for:49237

       (a) Alcohol and drug abuse assessment and treatment of 49238
persons who are charged in the court with committing a criminal 49239
offense or with being a delinquent child or juvenile traffic 49240
offender and in relation to whom both of the following apply:49241

       (i) The court determines that substance abuse was a 49242
contributing factor leading to the criminal or delinquent activity 49243
or the juvenile traffic offense with which the person is charged.49244

       (ii) The court determines that the person is unable to pay 49245
the cost of the alcohol and drug abuse assessment and treatment 49246
for which the surplus money will be used.49247

       (b) All or part of the cost of purchasing alcohol monitoring 49248
devices to be used in conjunction with division (H)(3) of this 49249
section, upon exhaustion of moneys in the indigent drivers 49250
interlock and alcohol monitoring fund for the use of an alcohol 49251
monitoring device.49252

       (5) For the purpose of determining as described in division 49253
(F)(2)(c) of this section whether an offender does not have the 49254
means to pay for the offender's attendance at an alcohol and drug 49255
addiction treatment program or whether an alleged offender or 49256
delinquent child is unable to pay the costs specified in division 49257
(H)(4) of this section, the court shall use the indigent client 49258
eligibility guidelines and the standards of indigency established 49259
by the state public defender to make the determination.49260

       (6) The court shall identify and refer any alcohol and drug 49261
addiction program that is not certified under section 3793.06 of 49262
the Revised Code and that is interested in receiving amounts from 49263
the surplus in the fund declared under division (H)(4) of this 49264
section to the department of alcohol and drug addiction services 49265
in order for the program to become a certified alcohol and drug 49266
addiction program. The department shall keep a record of applicant 49267
referrals received pursuant to this division and shall submit a 49268
report on the referrals each year to the general assembly. If a 49269
program interested in becoming certified makes an application to 49270
become certified pursuant to section 3793.06 of the Revised Code, 49271
the program is eligible to receive surplus funds as long as the 49272
application is pending with the department. The department of 49273
alcohol and drug addiction services must offer technical 49274
assistance to the applicant. If the interested program withdraws 49275
the certification application, the department must notify the 49276
court, and the court shall not provide the interested program with 49277
any further surplus funds.49278

       (7)(a) Each alcohol and drug addiction services board and 49279
board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 49280
established pursuant to section 340.02 or 340.021 of the Revised 49281
Code shall submit to the department of alcohol and drug addiction 49282
services an annual report for each indigent drivers alcohol 49283
treatment fund in that board's area. 49284

       (b) The report, which shall be submitted not later than sixty 49285
days after the end of the state fiscal year, shall provide the 49286
total payment that was made from the fund, including the number of 49287
indigent consumers that received treatment services and the number 49288
of indigent consumers that received an alcohol monitoring device. 49289
The report shall identify the treatment program and expenditure 49290
for an alcohol monitoring device for which that payment was made. 49291
The report shall include the fiscal year balance of each indigent 49292
drivers alcohol treatment fund located in that board's area. In 49293
the event that a surplus is declared in the fund pursuant to 49294
division (H)(4) of this section, the report also shall provide the 49295
total payment that was made from the surplus moneys and identify 49296
the treatment program and expenditure for an alcohol monitoring 49297
device for which that payment was made. The department may require 49298
additional information necessary to complete the comprehensive 49299
statewide alcohol and drug addiction services plan as required by 49300
section 3793.04 of the Revised Code.49301

       (c) If a board is unable to obtain adequate information to 49302
develop the report to submit to the department for a particular 49303
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, the board shall submit a 49304
report detailing the effort made in obtaining the information.49305

       (I)(1) Each county shall establish an indigent drivers 49306
interlock and alcohol monitoring fund and a juvenile indigent 49307
drivers interlock and alcohol treatment fund, and each municipal 49308
corporation in which there is a municipal court shall establish an 49309
indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund. All 49310
revenue that the general assembly appropriates to the indigent 49311
drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund for transfer to a 49312
county indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund, a 49313
county juvenile indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring 49314
fund, or a municipal indigent drivers interlock and alcohol 49315
monitoring fund, all portions of license reinstatement fees that 49316
are paid under division (F)(2) of this section and that are 49317
credited under that division to the indigent drivers interlock and 49318
alcohol monitoring fund in the state treasury, and all portions of 49319
fines that are paid under division (G) of section 4511.19 of the 49320
Revised Code and that are credited by division (G)(5)(e) of that 49321
section to the indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring 49322
fund in the state treasury shall be deposited in the appropriate 49323
fund in accordance with division (I)(2) of this section.49324

       (2) That portion of the license reinstatement fee that is 49325
paid under division (F) of this section and that portion of the 49326
fine paid under division (G) of section 4511.19 of the Revised 49327
Code and that is credited under either division to the indigent 49328
drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund shall be deposited 49329
into a county indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring 49330
fund, a county juvenile indigent drivers interlock and alcohol 49331
monitoring fund, or a municipal indigent drivers interlock and 49332
alcohol monitoring fund as follows:49333

       (a) If the fee or fine is paid by a person who was charged in 49334
a county court with the violation that resulted in the suspension 49335
or fine, the portion shall be deposited into the county indigent 49336
drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund under the control of 49337
that court.49338

       (b) If the fee or fine is paid by a person who was charged in 49339
a juvenile court with the violation that resulted in the 49340
suspension or fine, the portion shall be deposited into the county 49341
juvenile indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund 49342
established in the county served by the court.49343

       (c) If the fee or fine is paid by a person who was charged in 49344
a municipal court with the violation that resulted in the 49345
suspension, the portion shall be deposited into the municipal 49346
indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund under the 49347
control of that court.49348

       Sec. 4511.78.  (A) As used in this section:49349

       (1) "Mass transit system" means any county transit system, 49350
regional transit authority, regional transit commission, 49351
municipally owned transportation system, mass transit company 49352
operating exclusively within the territorial limits of a municipal 49353
corporation, or within such limits and the territorial limits of 49354
municipal corporations immediately contiguous to such municipal 49355
corporation, and any common passenger carrier certified by the 49356
public utilities commission, that provides transportation for 49357
children to or from a school session or a school function.49358

       (2) "Bus" means every motor vehicle designed for carrying 49359
more than nine passengers and used for the transportation of 49360
persons, but does not mean any school bus as defined in section 49361
4511.01 of the Revised Code.49362

       (B) Whenever a mass transit system transports children to or 49363
from a school session or school function, the mass transit system 49364
shall provide for:49365

       (1) Periodic safety inspections of all buses used to provide 49366
transportation service. The inspections shall be based on rules 49367
adopted by the public utilities commission under Chapters 4921. 49368
and 4923. of the Revised Code to ensure the safety of operation of49369
motor transportation companies and private motor carriers.49370

       (2) The safety training of all drivers operating buses used 49371
to provide transportation service;49372

       (3) The equipping of every bus with outside rear-view mirrors 49373
meeting the motor carrier regulations for bus equipment adopted by 49374
the federal highway administration. No exclusions from this 49375
requirement granted under the federal regulations shall be 49376
considered exclusions for the purposes of this division.49377

       (C) Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever 49378
violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. If, within 49379
one year of the offense, the offender previously has been 49380
convicted of or pleaded guilty to one predicate motor vehicle or 49381
traffic offense, whoever violates this section is guilty of a 49382
misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If, within one year of the 49383
offense, the offender previously has been convicted of two or more 49384
predicate motor vehicle or traffic offenses, whoever violates this 49385
section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree.49386

       Sec. 4513.263.  (A) As used in this section and in section 49387
4513.99 of the Revised Code:49388

       (1) "Automobile" means any commercial tractor, passenger car, 49389
commercial car, or truck that is required to be factory-equipped 49390
with an occupant restraining device for the operator or any 49391
passenger by regulations adopted by the United States secretary of 49392
transportation pursuant to the "National Traffic and Motor Vehicle 49393
Safety Act of 1966," 80 Stat. 719, 15 U.S.C.A. 1392.49394

       (2) "Occupant restraining device" means a seat safety belt, 49395
shoulder belt, harness, or other safety device for restraining a 49396
person who is an operator of or passenger in an automobile and 49397
that satisfies the minimum federal vehicle safety standards 49398
established by the United States department of transportation.49399

       (3) "Passenger" means any person in an automobile, other than 49400
its operator, who is occupying a seating position for which an 49401
occupant restraining device is provided.49402

       (4) "Commercial tractor," "passenger car," and "commercial 49403
car" have the same meanings as in section 4501.01 of the Revised 49404
Code.49405

       (5) "Vehicle" and "motor vehicle," as used in the definitions 49406
of the terms set forth in division (A)(4) of this section, have 49407
the same meanings as in section 4511.01 of the Revised Code.49408

       (6) "Tort action" means a civil action for damages for 49409
injury, death, or loss to person or property. "Tort action" 49410
includes a product liability claim, as defined in section 2307.71 49411
of the Revised Code, and an asbestos claim, as defined in section 49412
2307.91 of the Revised Code, but does not include a civil action 49413
for damages for breach of contract or another agreement between 49414
persons.49415

       (B) No person shall do any of the following:49416

       (1) Operate an automobile on any street or highway unless 49417
that person is wearing all of the available elements of a properly 49418
adjusted occupant restraining device, or operate a school bus that 49419
has an occupant restraining device installed for use in its 49420
operator's seat unless that person is wearing all of the available 49421
elements of the device, as properly adjusted;49422

       (2) Operate an automobile on any street or highway unless 49423
each passenger in the automobile who is subject to the requirement 49424
set forth in division (B)(3) of this section is wearing all of the 49425
available elements of a properly adjusted occupant restraining 49426
device;49427

       (3) Occupy, as a passenger, a seating position on the front 49428
seat of an automobile being operated on any street or highway 49429
unless that person is wearing all of the available elements of a 49430
properly adjusted occupant restraining device;49431

       (4) Operate a taxicab on any street or highway unless all 49432
factory-equipped occupant restraining devices in the taxicab are 49433
maintained in usable form.49434

       (C) Division (B)(3) of this section does not apply to a 49435
person who is required by section 4511.81 of the Revised Code to 49436
be secured in a child restraint device or booster seat. Division 49437
(B)(1) of this section does not apply to a person who is an 49438
employee of the United States postal service or of a newspaper 49439
home delivery service, during any period in which the person is 49440
engaged in the operation of an automobile to deliver mail or 49441
newspapers to addressees. Divisions (B)(1) and (3) of this section 49442
do not apply to a person who has an affidavit signed by a 49443
physician licensed to practice in this state under Chapter 4731. 49444
of the Revised Code or a chiropractor licensed to practice in this 49445
state under Chapter 4734. of the Revised Code that states that the 49446
person has a physical impairment that makes use of an occupant 49447
restraining device impossible or impractical.49448

       (D) Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, no 49449
law enforcement officer shall cause an operator of an automobile 49450
being operated on any street or highway to stop the automobile for 49451
the sole purpose of determining whether a violation of division 49452
(B) of this section has been or is being committed or for the sole 49453
purpose of issuing a ticket, citation, or summons for a violation 49454
of that nature or causing the arrest of or commencing a 49455
prosecution of a person for a violation of that nature, and no law 49456
enforcement officer shall view the interior or visually inspect 49457
any automobile being operated on any street or highway for the 49458
sole purpose of determining whether a violation of that nature has 49459
been or is being committed.49460

       (E) All fines collected for violations of division (B) of 49461
this section, or for violations of any ordinance or resolution of 49462
a political subdivision that is substantively comparable to that 49463
division, shall be forwarded to the treasurer of state for deposit 49464
as follows:49465

       (1) Eight per cent shall be deposited into the elementary 49466
school program fund, which is hereby created in the state 49467
treasury, and shall be used by the department of public safety to 49468
establish and administer elementary school programs that encourage 49469
seat safety belt use.49470

       (2) Two per cent shall be deposited into the occupational 49471
licensing and regulatory fund created by section 4743.05 of the 49472
Revised Code.49473

       (3) Thirty-six per cent, plusinto the state treasury to the 49474
credit of the trauma and emergency medical services fund, which is 49475
hereby created. In addition, sixty cents of each fee collected 49476
under sections 4501.34, 4503.26, 4505.14, 4506.08, and 4509.05, 49477
plus on and after October 1, 2009, sixty cents of each fee 49478
collected under sections 4505.14 and 4519.63 of the Revised Code 49479
as specified in those sections, plus the portion of the driver's 49480
license reinstatement fee described in division (F)(2)(g) of 49481
section 4511.191 of the Revised Code, plus all fees collected 49482
under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code, plus all fines imposed 49483
under section 4765.55 of the Revised Code, and plus five per cent 49484
of fines and moneys arising from bail forfeitures as directed by 49485
section 5503.04 of the Revised Code, also shall be deposited into 49486
the trauma and emergency medical services fund, which is hereby 49487
created in the state treasury, and. All money deposited into the 49488
trauma and emergency medical services fund shall be used by the 49489
department of public safety for the administration and operation49490
of the division of emergency medical services and the state board 49491
of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services, except 49492
that theand by the state board of emergency medical, fire, and 49493
transportation services to make grants, in accordance with section 49494
4765.07 of the Revised Code and rules the board adopts under 49495
section 4765.11 of the Revised Code. The director of budget and 49496
management may transfer excess money from the trauma and emergency 49497
medical services fund to the state highway safety fund if the 49498
director of public safety determines that the amount of money in 49499
the trauma and emergency medical services fund exceeds the amount 49500
required to cover such costs incurred by the emergency medical 49501
services agency and the grants made by the state board of 49502
emergency medical, fire, and transportation services and requests 49503
the director of budget and management to make the transfer.49504

       (4) Fifty-four per cent shall be deposited into the trauma 49505
and emergency medical services grants fund, which is hereby 49506
created in the state treasury, and shall be used by the state 49507
board of emergency medical services to make grants, in accordance 49508
with section 4765.07 of the Revised Code and rules the board 49509
adopts under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code.49510

       (F)(1) Subject to division (F)(2) of this section, the 49511
failure of a person to wear all of the available elements of a 49512
properly adjusted occupant restraining device in violation of 49513
division (B)(1) or (3) of this section or the failure of a person 49514
to ensure that each minor who is a passenger of an automobile 49515
being operated by that person is wearing all of the available 49516
elements of a properly adjusted occupant restraining device in 49517
violation of division (B)(2) of this section shall not be 49518
considered or used by the trier of fact in a tort action as 49519
evidence of negligence or contributory negligence. But, the trier 49520
of fact may determine based on evidence admitted consistent with 49521
the Ohio Rules of Evidence that the failure contributed to the 49522
harm alleged in the tort action and may diminish a recovery of 49523
compensatory damages that represents noneconomic loss, as defined 49524
in section 2307.011 of the Revised Code, in a tort action that 49525
could have been recovered but for the plaintiff's failure to wear 49526
all of the available elements of a properly adjusted occupant 49527
restraining device. Evidence of that failure shall not be used as 49528
a basis for a criminal prosecution of the person other than a 49529
prosecution for a violation of this section; and shall not be 49530
admissible as evidence in a criminal action involving the person 49531
other than a prosecution for a violation of this section.49532

       (2) If, at the time of an accident involving a passenger car 49533
equipped with occupant restraining devices, any occupant of the 49534
passenger car who sustained injury or death was not wearing an 49535
available occupant restraining device, was not wearing all of the 49536
available elements of such a device, or was not wearing such a 49537
device as properly adjusted, then, consistent with the Rules of 49538
Evidence, the fact that the occupant was not wearing the available 49539
occupant restraining device, was not wearing all of the available 49540
elements of such a device, or was not wearing such a device as 49541
properly adjusted is admissible in evidence in relation to any 49542
claim for relief in a tort action to the extent that the claim for 49543
relief satisfies all of the following:49544

       (a) It seeks to recover damages for injury or death to the 49545
occupant.49546

       (b) The defendant in question is the manufacturer, designer, 49547
distributor, or seller of the passenger car.49548

       (c) The claim for relief against the defendant in question is 49549
that the injury or death sustained by the occupant was enhanced or 49550
aggravated by some design defect in the passenger car or that the 49551
passenger car was not crashworthy.49552

       (G)(1) Whoever violates division (B)(1) of this section shall 49553
be fined thirty dollars.49554

       (2) Whoever violates division (B)(3) of this section shall be 49555
fined twenty dollars.49556

       (3) Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever 49557
violates division (B)(4) of this section is guilty of a minor 49558
misdemeanor. If the offender previously has been convicted of or 49559
pleaded guilty to a violation of division (B)(4) of this section, 49560
whoever violates division (B)(4) of this section is guilty of a 49561
misdemeanor of the third degree.49562

       Sec. 4513.50.  As used in sections 4513.50 to 4513.53 of the 49563
Revised Code:49564

       (A)(1) "Bus" means any vehicle used for the transportation of 49565
passengers that meets at least one of the following:49566

       (a) Was originally designed by the manufacturer to transport 49567
more than fifteen passengers, including the driver;49568

       (b) Either the gross vehicle weight rating or the gross 49569
vehicle weight exceeds ten thousand pounds.49570

       (2) "Bus" does not include a church bus as defined in section 49571
4503.07 of the Revised Code or a school bus unless the church bus 49572
or school bus is used in the transportation of passengers for hire49573
by a motor transportation company or a common carrier by motor 49574
vehicle or by a private motor carrier or contract carrier by motor 49575
vehicle.49576

       (3) "Bus" also does not include any of the following:49577

       (a) Any vehicle operated exclusively on a rail or rails;49578

       (b) A trolley bus operated by electric power derived from a 49579
fixed overhead wire furnishing local passenger transportation 49580
similar to street-railway service;49581

       (c) Vehicles owned or leased by government agencies or 49582
political subdivisions.49583

       (B)(1) "Motor transportation company" and "common carrier by 49584
motor vehicle" havehas the same meaningsmeaning as in section 49585
4921.024923.01 of the Revised Code.49586

       (2) "Private motor carrier" and "contract carrier by motor 49587
vehicle" have the same meanings as in section 4923.02 of the 49588
Revised Code.49589

       Sec. 4730.06.  (A) The physician assistant policy committee 49590
of the state medical board shall review, and shall submit to the 49591
board recommendations concerning, all of the following:49592

       (1) Requirements for issuance of certificates to practice as 49593
a physician assistant, including the educational requirements that 49594
must be met to receive a certificate to practice;49595

       (2) Existing and proposed rules pertaining to the practice of 49596
physician assistants, the supervisory relationship between 49597
physician assistants and supervising physicians, and the 49598
administration and enforcement of this chapter;49599

       (3) Physician-delegatedIn accordance with section 4730.38 of 49600
the Revised Code, physician-delegated prescriptive authority for 49601
physician assistants, in accordance withand proposed changes to 49602
the physician assistant formulary the board adopts pursuant to 49603
division (A)(1) of section 4730.384730.39 of the Revised Code;49604

       (4) Application procedures and forms for certificates to 49605
practice as a physician assistant, physician supervisory plans, 49606
and supervision agreements;49607

        (5) Fees required by this chapter for issuance and renewal of 49608
certificates to practice as a physician assistant;49609

       (6) Criteria to be included in applications submitted to the 49610
board for approval of physician supervisory plans, including 49611
criteria to be included in applications for approval to delegate 49612
to physician assistants the performance of special services;49613

       (7) Criteria to be included in supervision agreements 49614
submitted to the board for approval and renewal of the board's 49615
approval;49616

       (8) Any issue the board asks the committee to consider.49617

       (B) In addition to the matters that are required to be 49618
reviewed under division (A) of this section, the committee may 49619
review, and may submit to the board recommendations concerning, 49620
either or both of the following:49621

       (1) Quality assurance activities to be performed by a 49622
supervising physician and physician assistant under a quality 49623
assurance system established pursuant to division (F) of section 49624
4730.21 of the Revised Code;49625

       (2) The development and approval of one or more model 49626
physician supervisory plans and one or more models for a special 49627
services portion of the one or more model physician supervisory 49628
plans. The committee may submit recommendations for model plans 49629
that reflect various medical specialties.49630

       (C) The board shall take into consideration all 49631
recommendations submitted by the committee. Not later than ninety 49632
days after receiving a recommendation from the committee, the 49633
board shall approve or disapprove the recommendation and notify 49634
the committee of its decision. If a recommendation is disapproved, 49635
the board shall inform the committee of its reasons for making 49636
that decision. The committee may resubmit the recommendation after 49637
addressing the concerns expressed by the board and modifying the 49638
disapproved recommendation accordingly. Not later than ninety days 49639
after receiving a resubmitted recommendation, the board shall 49640
approve or disapprove the recommendation. There is no limit on the 49641
number of times the committee may resubmit a recommendation for 49642
consideration by the board.49643

       (D)(1) Except as provided in division (D)(2) of this section, 49644
the board may not take action regarding a matter that is subject 49645
to the committee's review under division (A) or (B) of this 49646
section unless the committee has made a recommendation to the 49647
board concerning the matter.49648

       (2) If the board submits to the committee a request for a 49649
recommendation regarding a matter that is subject to the 49650
committee's review under division (A) or (B) of this section, and 49651
the committee does not provide a recommendation before the 49652
sixty-first day after the request is submitted, the board may take 49653
action regarding the matter without a recommendation.49654

       Sec. 4730.38.  (A) Not later than six months after the 49655
effective dateExcept as provided in division (B) of this section, 49656
the physician assistant policy committee of the state medical 49657
board shall, at such times the committee determines to be 49658
necessary, submit to the board its initial recommendations 49659
regarding physician-delegated prescriptive authority for physician 49660
assistants. The committee's recommendations shall address allboth49661
of the following:49662

       (1) Policy and procedures regarding physician-delegated 49663
prescriptive authority, including the issuance of certificates to 49664
prescribe under this chapter;49665

       (2) Subject to the limitations specified in section 4730.40 49666
of the Revised Code, a formulary listing the drugs and therapeutic 49667
devices by class and specific nomenclature that a supervising 49668
physician may include in the physician-delegated prescriptive 49669
authority granted to a physician assistant who holds a certificate 49670
to prescribe issued under this chapter;49671

       (3) Any issue the committee considers necessary to assist the 49672
board in fulfilling its duty to adopt rules governing 49673
physician-delegated prescriptive authority, including the issuance 49674
of certificates to prescribe.49675

       (B) After the board's adoption of initial rules under section 49676
4730.39 of the Revised Code, the committee shall conduct an annual 49677
review of its recommendations regarding physician-delegated 49678
prescriptive authority. Based on its review, the committee shall 49679
submit recommendations to the board as the committee considers 49680
necessaryNot less than every six months beginning on the first 49681
day of June following the effective date of this amendment, the 49682
committee shall review the physician assistant formulary the board 49683
adopts pursuant to division (A)(1) of section 4730.39 of the 49684
Revised Code and, to the extent it determines to be necessary, 49685
submit recommendations proposing changes to the formulary.49686

       (C) Recommendations submitted under this section are subject 49687
to the procedures and time frames specified in division (C) of 49688
section 4730.06 of the Revised Code.49689

       Sec. 4730.39.  (A) Not later than six months after receiving 49690
the initial recommendations of the physician assistant policy 49691
committee submitted pursuant to division (A) of section 4730.38 of 49692
the Revised Code, theThe state medical board shall adoptdo both 49693
of the following:49694

        (1) Adopt a formulary listing the drugs and therapeutic 49695
devices by class and specific generic nomenclature that a 49696
physician may include in the physician-delegated prescriptive 49697
authority granted to a physician assistant who holds a certificate 49698
to prescribe under this chapter;49699

       (2) Adopt rules governing physician-delegated prescriptive 49700
authority for physician assistants, including the issuance of 49701
certificates to prescribe under this chapter. The49702

       (B) The board's rules governing physician-delegated 49703
prescriptive authority adopted pursuant to division (A)(2) of this 49704
section shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 49705
Revised Code and shall establish all of the following:49706

       (1) Subject to the limitations specified in section 4730.40 49707
of the Revised Code, a formulary listing the drugs and therapeutic 49708
devices by class and specific generic nomenclature that a 49709
physician may include in the physician-delegated prescriptive 49710
authority granted to a physician assistant who holds a certificate 49711
to prescribe under this chapter;49712

       (2) Requirements regarding the pharmacology courses that a 49713
physician assistant is required to complete to receive a 49714
certificate to prescribe;49715

       (3)(2) Standards and procedures for the issuance and renewal 49716
of certificates to prescribe to physician assistants;49717

       (4)(3) Standards and procedures for the appropriate conduct 49718
of the provisional period that a physician assistant is required 49719
to complete pursuant to section 4730.45 of the Revised Code and 49720
for determining whether a physician assistant has successfully 49721
completed the provisional period;49722

       (5)(4) A specific prohibition against prescribing any drug or 49723
device to perform or induce an abortion;49724

       (6)(5) Standards and procedures to be followed by a physician 49725
assistant in personally furnishing samples of drugs or complete or 49726
partial supplies of drugs to patients under section 4730.43 of the 49727
Revised Code;49728

       (7)(6) Any other requirements the board considers necessary 49729
to implement the provisions of this chapter regarding 49730
physician-delegated prescriptive authority and the issuance of 49731
certificates to prescribe.49732

       (B)(C)(1) After adopting the initial rulesconsidering 49733
recommendations submitted by the physician assistant policy 49734
committee pursuant to sections 4730.06 and 4730.38 of the Revised 49735
Code, the board shall conduct an annual review either or both of 49736
the rules. Basedfollowing, as appropriate according to the 49737
submitted recommendations:49738

        (a) The formulary the board adopts under division (A)(1) of 49739
this section;49740

       (b) The rules the board adopts under division (A)(2) of this 49741
section regarding physician-delegated prescriptive authority.49742

       (2) Based on its review, the board shall make any necessary 49743
modifications to the formulary or rules.49744

       (C) All rules adopted under this section shall be adopted in 49745
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. When adopting 49746
the initial rules, the board shall consider the recommendations of 49747
the physician assistant policy committee submitted pursuant to 49748
division (A) of section 4730.38 of the Revised Code. When making 49749
any modifications to the rules subsequent to its annual review of 49750
the rules, the board shall consider the committee's 49751
recommendations submitted pursuant to division (B) of section 49752
4730.38 of the Revised Code.49753

       Sec. 4730.40.  (A) Subject to divisionsdivision (B) and (C)49754
of this section, the physician assistant formulary established49755
adopted by the state medical board in rules adopted under section 49756
4730.39 of the Revised Code listing the drugs and therapeutic 49757
devices by class and specific nomenclature that a supervising 49758
physician may include in the physician-delegated prescriptive 49759
authority granted to a physician assistant who holds a certificate 49760
to prescribe issued under this chapter may include any or all of 49761
the following drugs:49762

       (1) Schedule II, III, IV, and V controlled substances;49763

       (2) Drugs that under state or federal law may be dispensed 49764
only pursuant to a prescription by a licensed health professional 49765
authorized to prescribe drugs, as defined in section 4729.01 of 49766
the Revised Code;49767

       (3) Any drug that is not a dangerous drug, as defined in 49768
section 4729.01 of the Revised Code.49769

       (B) The formulary established in the board's rulesadopted by 49770
the board shall not include, and shall specify that it does not 49771
include, the following:49772

       (1) Any schedule II controlled substance;49773

       (2) Anyany drug or device used to perform or induce an 49774
abortion.49775

       (C) When adopting rules establishing the initial formulary, 49776
the board shall include provisions ensuring that a physician 49777
assistant who holds a certificate to prescribe issued under this 49778
chapter may be granted physician-delegated prescriptive authority 49779
for all drugs and therapeutic devices that may be prescribed on 49780
the effective date of the rules by a holder of a certificate to 49781
prescribe issued by the board of nursing under Chapter 4723. of 49782
the Revised Code, with the exception of schedule II controlled 49783
substances. To the extent permitted by division (A) of this 49784
section, the initial formulary may include additional drugs or 49785
therapeutic devices.49786

       Sec. 4730.41.  (A) A certificate to prescribe issued under 49787
this chapter authorizes a physician assistant to prescribe and 49788
personally furnish drugs and therapeutic devices in the exercise 49789
of physician-delegated prescriptive authority.49790

       (B) In exercising physician-delegated prescriptive authority, 49791
a physician assistant is subject to all of the following:49792

       (1) The physician assistant shall exercise 49793
physician-delegated prescriptive authority only to the extent that 49794
the physician supervising the physician assistant has granted that 49795
authority.49796

       (2) The physician assistant shall comply with all conditions 49797
placed on the physician-delegated prescriptive authority, as 49798
specified by the supervising physician who is supervising the 49799
physician assistant in the exercise of physician-delegated 49800
prescriptive authority.49801

       (3) If the physician assistant possesses physician-delegated 49802
prescriptive authority for controlled substances, the physician 49803
assistant shall register with the federal drug enforcement 49804
administration.49805

       (4) If the physician assistant possesses physician-delegated 49806
prescriptive authority for schedule II controlled substances, the 49807
physician assistant shall comply with section 4730.411 of the 49808
Revised Code.49809

       Sec. 4730.411. (A) Except as provided in division (B) or (C) 49810
of this section, a physician assistant may prescribe to a patient 49811
a schedule II controlled substance only if all of the following 49812
are the case:49813

       (1) The patient is in a terminal condition, as defined in 49814
section 2133.01 of the Revised Code.49815

        (2) The physician assistant's supervising physician initially 49816
prescribed the substance for the patient.49817

        (3) The prescription is for an amount that does not exceed 49818
the amount necessary for the patient's use in a single, 49819
twenty-four-hour period.49820

        (B) The restrictions on prescriptive authority in division 49821
(A) of this section do not apply if a physician assistant issues 49822
the prescription to the patient from any of the following 49823
locations:49824

       (1) A hospital registered under section 3701.07 of the 49825
Revised Code;49826

       (2) An entity owned or controlled, in whole or in part, by a 49827
hospital or by an entity that owns or controls, in whole or in 49828
part, one or more hospitals;49829

       (3) A health care facility operated by the department of 49830
mental health or the department of developmental disabilities;49831

       (4) A nursing home licensed under section 3721.02 of the 49832
Revised Code or by a political subdivision certified under section 49833
3721.09 of the Revised Code;49834

       (5) A county home or district home operated under Chapter 49835
5155. of the Revised Code that is certified under the medicare or 49836
medicaid program;49837

       (6) A hospice care program, as defined in section 3712.01 of 49838
the Revised Code;49839

       (7) A community mental health agency, as defined in section 49840
5122.01 of the Revised Code;49841

       (8) An ambulatory surgical facility, as defined in section 49842
3702.30 of the Revised Code;49843

       (9) A freestanding birthing center, as defined in section 49844
3702.51 of the Revised Code;49845

       (10) A federally qualified health center, as defined in 49846
section 3701.047 of the Revised Code;49847

       (11) A federally qualified health center look-alike, as 49848
defined in section 3701.047 of the Revised Code;49849

       (12) A health care office or facility operated by the board 49850
of health of a city or general health district or the authority 49851
having the duties of a board of health under section 3709.05 of 49852
the Revised Code;49853

       (13) A site where a medical practice is operated, but only if 49854
the practice is comprised of one or more physicians who also are 49855
owners of the practice; the practice is organized to provide 49856
direct patient care; and the physician assistant has entered into 49857
a supervisory agreement with at least one of the physician owners 49858
who practices primarily at that site.49859

       (C) A physician assistant shall not issue to a patient a 49860
prescription for a schedule II controlled substance from a 49861
convenience care clinic even if the convenience care clinic is 49862
owned or operated by an entity specified in division (B) of this 49863
section.49864

       (D) A pharmacist who acts in good faith reliance on a 49865
prescription issued by a physician assistant under division (B) of 49866
this section is not liable for or subject to any of the following 49867
for relying on the prescription: damages in any civil action, 49868
prosecution in any criminal proceeding, or professional 49869
disciplinary action by the state board of pharmacy under Chapter 49870
4729. of the Revised Code.49871

       Sec. 4730.42.  (A) In granting physician-delegated 49872
prescriptive authority to a particular physician assistant who 49873
holds a certificate to prescribe issued under this chapter, the 49874
supervising physician is subject to all of the following:49875

       (1) The supervising physician shall not grant 49876
physician-delegated prescriptive authority for any drug or 49877
therapeutic device that is not listed on the physician assistant49878
formulary established in rules adopted under section 4730.39 of 49879
the Revised Code as a drug or therapeutic device that may be 49880
included in the physician-delegated prescriptive authority granted 49881
to a physician assistant.49882

       (2) The supervising physician shall not grant 49883
physician-delegated prescriptive authority for any drug or device 49884
that may be used to perform or induce an abortion.49885

       (3) The supervising physician shall not grant 49886
physician-delegated prescriptive authority in a manner that 49887
exceeds the supervising physician's prescriptive authority.49888

       (4) The supervising physician shall supervise the physician 49889
assistant in accordance with all of the following:49890

       (a) The supervision requirements specified in section 4730.21 49891
of the Revised Code and, in the case of supervision provided 49892
during a provisional period of physician-delegated prescriptive 49893
authority, the supervision requirements specified in section 49894
4730.45 of the Revised Code;49895

       (b) The physician supervisory plan approved for the 49896
supervising physician or the policies of the health care facility 49897
in which the physician and physician assistant are practicing;49898

       (c) The supervision agreement approved under section 4730.19 49899
of the Revised Code that applies to the supervising physician and 49900
the physician assistant.49901

       (B)(1) The supervising physician of a physician assistant may 49902
place conditions on the physician-delegated prescriptive authority 49903
granted to the physician assistant. If conditions are placed on 49904
that authority, the supervising physician shall maintain a written 49905
record of the conditions and make the record available to the 49906
state medical board on request.49907

       (2) The conditions that a supervising physician may place on 49908
the physician-delegated prescriptive authority granted to a 49909
physician assistant include the following:49910

       (a) Identification by class and specific generic nomenclature 49911
of drugs and therapeutic devices that the physician chooses not to 49912
permit the physician assistant to prescribe;49913

       (b) Limitations on the dosage units or refills that the 49914
physician assistant is authorized to prescribe;49915

       (c) Specification of circumstances under which the physician 49916
assistant is required to refer patients to the supervising 49917
physician or another physician when exercising physician-delegated 49918
prescriptive authority;49919

       (d) Responsibilities to be fulfilled by the physician in 49920
supervising the physician assistant that are not otherwise 49921
specified in the physician supervisory plan or otherwise required 49922
by this chapter.49923

       Sec. 4731.22.  (A) The state medical board, by an affirmative 49924
vote of not fewer than six of its members, may revoke or may 49925
refuse to grant a certificate to a person found by the board to 49926
have committed fraud during the administration of the examination 49927
for a certificate to practice or to have committed fraud, 49928
misrepresentation, or deception in applying for or securing any 49929
certificate to practice or certificate of registration issued by 49930
the board.49931

       (B) The board, by an affirmative vote of not fewer than six 49932
members, shall, to the extent permitted by law, limit, revoke, or 49933
suspend an individual's certificate to practice, refuse to 49934
register an individual, refuse to reinstate a certificate, or 49935
reprimand or place on probation the holder of a certificate for 49936
one or more of the following reasons:49937

       (1) Permitting one's name or one's certificate to practice or 49938
certificate of registration to be used by a person, group, or 49939
corporation when the individual concerned is not actually 49940
directing the treatment given;49941

       (2) Failure to maintain minimal standards applicable to the 49942
selection or administration of drugs, or failure to employ 49943
acceptable scientific methods in the selection of drugs or other 49944
modalities for treatment of disease;49945

       (3) Selling, giving away, personally furnishing, prescribing, 49946
or administering drugs for other than legal and legitimate 49947
therapeutic purposes or a plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of 49948
guilt of, or a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in 49949
lieu of conviction of, a violation of any federal or state law 49950
regulating the possession, distribution, or use of any drug;49951

       (4) Willfully betraying a professional confidence.49952

       For purposes of this division, "willfully betraying a 49953
professional confidence" does not include providing any 49954
information, documents, or reports to a child fatality review 49955
board under sections 307.621 to 307.629 of the Revised Code and 49956
does not include the making of a report of an employee's use of a 49957
drug of abuse, or a report of a condition of an employee other 49958
than one involving the use of a drug of abuse, to the employer of 49959
the employee as described in division (B) of section 2305.33 of 49960
the Revised Code. Nothing in this division affects the immunity 49961
from civil liability conferred by that section upon a physician 49962
who makes either type of report in accordance with division (B) of 49963
that section. As used in this division, "employee," "employer," 49964
and "physician" have the same meanings as in section 2305.33 of 49965
the Revised Code.49966

       (5) Making a false, fraudulent, deceptive, or misleading 49967
statement in the solicitation of or advertising for patients; in 49968
relation to the practice of medicine and surgery, osteopathic 49969
medicine and surgery, podiatric medicine and surgery, or a limited 49970
branch of medicine; or in securing or attempting to secure any 49971
certificate to practice or certificate of registration issued by 49972
the board.49973

       As used in this division, "false, fraudulent, deceptive, or 49974
misleading statement" means a statement that includes a 49975
misrepresentation of fact, is likely to mislead or deceive because 49976
of a failure to disclose material facts, is intended or is likely 49977
to create false or unjustified expectations of favorable results, 49978
or includes representations or implications that in reasonable 49979
probability will cause an ordinarily prudent person to 49980
misunderstand or be deceived.49981

       (6) A departure from, or the failure to conform to, minimal 49982
standards of care of similar practitioners under the same or 49983
similar circumstances, whether or not actual injury to a patient 49984
is established;49985

       (7) Representing, with the purpose of obtaining compensation 49986
or other advantage as personal gain or for any other person, that 49987
an incurable disease or injury, or other incurable condition, can 49988
be permanently cured;49989

       (8) The obtaining of, or attempting to obtain, money or 49990
anything of value by fraudulent misrepresentations in the course 49991
of practice;49992

       (9) A plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt of, or a 49993
judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of 49994
conviction for, a felony;49995

       (10) Commission of an act that constitutes a felony in this 49996
state, regardless of the jurisdiction in which the act was 49997
committed;49998

       (11) A plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt of, or 49999
a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of 50000
conviction for, a misdemeanor committed in the course of practice;50001

       (12) Commission of an act in the course of practice that 50002
constitutes a misdemeanor in this state, regardless of the 50003
jurisdiction in which the act was committed;50004

       (13) A plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt of, or 50005
a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of 50006
conviction for, a misdemeanor involving moral turpitude;50007

       (14) Commission of an act involving moral turpitude that 50008
constitutes a misdemeanor in this state, regardless of the 50009
jurisdiction in which the act was committed;50010

       (15) Violation of the conditions of limitation placed by the 50011
board upon a certificate to practice;50012

       (16) Failure to pay license renewal fees specified in this 50013
chapter;50014

       (17) Except as authorized in section 4731.31 of the Revised 50015
Code, engaging in the division of fees for referral of patients, 50016
or the receiving of a thing of value in return for a specific 50017
referral of a patient to utilize a particular service or business;50018

       (18) Subject to section 4731.226 of the Revised Code, 50019
violation of any provision of a code of ethics of the American 50020
medical association, the American osteopathic association, the 50021
American podiatric medical association, or any other national 50022
professional organizations that the board specifies by rule. The 50023
state medical board shall obtain and keep on file current copies 50024
of the codes of ethics of the various national professional 50025
organizations. The individual whose certificate is being suspended 50026
or revoked shall not be found to have violated any provision of a 50027
code of ethics of an organization not appropriate to the 50028
individual's profession.50029

       For purposes of this division, a "provision of a code of 50030
ethics of a national professional organization" does not include 50031
any provision that would preclude the making of a report by a 50032
physician of an employee's use of a drug of abuse, or of a 50033
condition of an employee other than one involving the use of a 50034
drug of abuse, to the employer of the employee as described in 50035
division (B) of section 2305.33 of the Revised Code. Nothing in 50036
this division affects the immunity from civil liability conferred 50037
by that section upon a physician who makes either type of report 50038
in accordance with division (B) of that section. As used in this 50039
division, "employee," "employer," and "physician" have the same 50040
meanings as in section 2305.33 of the Revised Code.50041

       (19) Inability to practice according to acceptable and 50042
prevailing standards of care by reason of mental illness or 50043
physical illness, including, but not limited to, physical 50044
deterioration that adversely affects cognitive, motor, or 50045
perceptive skills.50046

       In enforcing this division, the board, upon a showing of a 50047
possible violation, may compel any individual authorized to 50048
practice by this chapter or who has submitted an application 50049
pursuant to this chapter to submit to a mental examination, 50050
physical examination, including an HIV test, or both a mental and 50051
a physical examination. The expense of the examination is the 50052
responsibility of the individual compelled to be examined. Failure 50053
to submit to a mental or physical examination or consent to an HIV 50054
test ordered by the board constitutes an admission of the 50055
allegations against the individual unless the failure is due to 50056
circumstances beyond the individual's control, and a default and 50057
final order may be entered without the taking of testimony or 50058
presentation of evidence. If the board finds an individual unable 50059
to practice because of the reasons set forth in this division, the 50060
board shall require the individual to submit to care, counseling, 50061
or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the board, as 50062
a condition for initial, continued, reinstated, or renewed 50063
authority to practice. An individual affected under this division 50064
shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the board the 50065
ability to resume practice in compliance with acceptable and 50066
prevailing standards under the provisions of the individual's 50067
certificate. For the purpose of this division, any individual who 50068
applies for or receives a certificate to practice under this 50069
chapter accepts the privilege of practicing in this state and, by 50070
so doing, shall be deemed to have given consent to submit to a 50071
mental or physical examination when directed to do so in writing 50072
by the board, and to have waived all objections to the 50073
admissibility of testimony or examination reports that constitute 50074
a privileged communication.50075

       (20) Except when civil penalties are imposed under section 50076
4731.225 or 4731.281 of the Revised Code, and subject to section 50077
4731.226 of the Revised Code, violating or attempting to violate, 50078
directly or indirectly, or assisting in or abetting the violation 50079
of, or conspiring to violate, any provisions of this chapter or 50080
any rule promulgated by the board.50081

       This division does not apply to a violation or attempted 50082
violation of, assisting in or abetting the violation of, or a 50083
conspiracy to violate, any provision of this chapter or any rule 50084
adopted by the board that would preclude the making of a report by 50085
a physician of an employee's use of a drug of abuse, or of a 50086
condition of an employee other than one involving the use of a 50087
drug of abuse, to the employer of the employee as described in 50088
division (B) of section 2305.33 of the Revised Code. Nothing in 50089
this division affects the immunity from civil liability conferred 50090
by that section upon a physician who makes either type of report 50091
in accordance with division (B) of that section. As used in this 50092
division, "employee," "employer," and "physician" have the same 50093
meanings as in section 2305.33 of the Revised Code.50094

       (21) The violation of section 3701.79 of the Revised Code or 50095
of any abortion rule adopted by the publicdirector of health 50096
council pursuant to section 3701.341 of the Revised Code;50097

       (22) Any of the following actions taken by an agency 50098
responsible for authorizing, certifying, or regulating an 50099
individual to practice a health care occupation or provide health 50100
care services in this state or another jurisdiction, for any 50101
reason other than the nonpayment of fees: the limitation, 50102
revocation, or suspension of an individual's license to practice; 50103
acceptance of an individual's license surrender; denial of a 50104
license; refusal to renew or reinstate a license; imposition of 50105
probation; or issuance of an order of censure or other reprimand;50106

       (23) The violation of section 2919.12 of the Revised Code or 50107
the performance or inducement of an abortion upon a pregnant woman 50108
with actual knowledge that the conditions specified in division 50109
(B) of section 2317.56 of the Revised Code have not been satisfied 50110
or with a heedless indifference as to whether those conditions 50111
have been satisfied, unless an affirmative defense as specified in 50112
division (H)(2) of that section would apply in a civil action 50113
authorized by division (H)(1) of that section;50114

       (24) The revocation, suspension, restriction, reduction, or 50115
termination of clinical privileges by the United States department 50116
of defense or department of veterans affairs or the termination or 50117
suspension of a certificate of registration to prescribe drugs by 50118
the drug enforcement administration of the United States 50119
department of justice;50120

       (25) Termination or suspension from participation in the 50121
medicare or medicaid programs by the department of health and 50122
human services or other responsible agency for any act or acts 50123
that also would constitute a violation of division (B)(2), (3), 50124
(6), (8), or (19) of this section;50125

       (26) Impairment of ability to practice according to 50126
acceptable and prevailing standards of care because of habitual or 50127
excessive use or abuse of drugs, alcohol, or other substances that 50128
impair ability to practice.50129

       For the purposes of this division, any individual authorized 50130
to practice by this chapter accepts the privilege of practicing in 50131
this state subject to supervision by the board. By filing an 50132
application for or holding a certificate to practice under this 50133
chapter, an individual shall be deemed to have given consent to 50134
submit to a mental or physical examination when ordered to do so 50135
by the board in writing, and to have waived all objections to the 50136
admissibility of testimony or examination reports that constitute 50137
privileged communications.50138

       If it has reason to believe that any individual authorized to 50139
practice by this chapter or any applicant for certification to 50140
practice suffers such impairment, the board may compel the 50141
individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both. 50142
The expense of the examination is the responsibility of the 50143
individual compelled to be examined. Any mental or physical 50144
examination required under this division shall be undertaken by a 50145
treatment provider or physician who is qualified to conduct the 50146
examination and who is chosen by the board.50147

       Failure to submit to a mental or physical examination ordered 50148
by the board constitutes an admission of the allegations against 50149
the individual unless the failure is due to circumstances beyond 50150
the individual's control, and a default and final order may be 50151
entered without the taking of testimony or presentation of 50152
evidence. If the board determines that the individual's ability to 50153
practice is impaired, the board shall suspend the individual's 50154
certificate or deny the individual's application and shall require 50155
the individual, as a condition for initial, continued, reinstated, 50156
or renewed certification to practice, to submit to treatment.50157

       Before being eligible to apply for reinstatement of a 50158
certificate suspended under this division, the impaired 50159
practitioner shall demonstrate to the board the ability to resume 50160
practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards of 50161
care under the provisions of the practitioner's certificate. The 50162
demonstration shall include, but shall not be limited to, the 50163
following:50164

       (a) Certification from a treatment provider approved under 50165
section 4731.25 of the Revised Code that the individual has 50166
successfully completed any required inpatient treatment;50167

       (b) Evidence of continuing full compliance with an aftercare 50168
contract or consent agreement;50169

       (c) Two written reports indicating that the individual's 50170
ability to practice has been assessed and that the individual has 50171
been found capable of practicing according to acceptable and 50172
prevailing standards of care. The reports shall be made by 50173
individuals or providers approved by the board for making the 50174
assessments and shall describe the basis for their determination.50175

       The board may reinstate a certificate suspended under this 50176
division after that demonstration and after the individual has 50177
entered into a written consent agreement.50178

       When the impaired practitioner resumes practice, the board 50179
shall require continued monitoring of the individual. The 50180
monitoring shall include, but not be limited to, compliance with 50181
the written consent agreement entered into before reinstatement or 50182
with conditions imposed by board order after a hearing, and, upon 50183
termination of the consent agreement, submission to the board for 50184
at least two years of annual written progress reports made under 50185
penalty of perjury stating whether the individual has maintained 50186
sobriety.50187

       (27) A second or subsequent violation of section 4731.66 or 50188
4731.69 of the Revised Code;50189

       (28) Except as provided in division (N) of this section:50190

       (a) Waiving the payment of all or any part of a deductible or 50191
copayment that a patient, pursuant to a health insurance or health 50192
care policy, contract, or plan that covers the individual's 50193
services, otherwise would be required to pay if the waiver is used 50194
as an enticement to a patient or group of patients to receive 50195
health care services from that individual;50196

       (b) Advertising that the individual will waive the payment of 50197
all or any part of a deductible or copayment that a patient, 50198
pursuant to a health insurance or health care policy, contract, or 50199
plan that covers the individual's services, otherwise would be 50200
required to pay.50201

       (29) Failure to use universal blood and body fluid 50202
precautions established by rules adopted under section 4731.051 of 50203
the Revised Code;50204

       (30) Failure to provide notice to, and receive acknowledgment 50205
of the notice from, a patient when required by section 4731.143 of 50206
the Revised Code prior to providing nonemergency professional 50207
services, or failure to maintain that notice in the patient's 50208
file;50209

       (31) Failure of a physician supervising a physician assistant 50210
to maintain supervision in accordance with the requirements of 50211
Chapter 4730. of the Revised Code and the rules adopted under that 50212
chapter;50213

       (32) Failure of a physician or podiatrist to enter into a 50214
standard care arrangement with a clinical nurse specialist, 50215
certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner with whom 50216
the physician or podiatrist is in collaboration pursuant to 50217
section 4731.27 of the Revised Code or failure to fulfill the 50218
responsibilities of collaboration after entering into a standard 50219
care arrangement;50220

       (33) Failure to comply with the terms of a consult agreement 50221
entered into with a pharmacist pursuant to section 4729.39 of the 50222
Revised Code;50223

       (34) Failure to cooperate in an investigation conducted by 50224
the board under division (F) of this section, including failure to 50225
comply with a subpoena or order issued by the board or failure to 50226
answer truthfully a question presented by the board at a 50227
deposition or in written interrogatories, except that failure to 50228
cooperate with an investigation shall not constitute grounds for 50229
discipline under this section if a court of competent jurisdiction 50230
has issued an order that either quashes a subpoena or permits the 50231
individual to withhold the testimony or evidence in issue;50232

       (35) Failure to supervise an acupuncturist in accordance with 50233
Chapter 4762. of the Revised Code and the board's rules for 50234
supervision of an acupuncturist;50235

       (36) Failure to supervise an anesthesiologist assistant in 50236
accordance with Chapter 4760. of the Revised Code and the board's 50237
rules for supervision of an anesthesiologist assistant;50238

       (37) Assisting suicide as defined in section 3795.01 of the 50239
Revised Code;50240

       (38) Failure to comply with the requirements of section 50241
2317.561 of the Revised Code;50242

       (39) Failure to supervise a radiologist assistant in 50243
accordance with Chapter 4774. of the Revised Code and the board's 50244
rules for supervision of radiologist assistants;50245

       (40) Performing or inducing an abortion at an office or 50246
facility with knowledge that the office or facility fails to post 50247
the notice required under section 3701.791 of the Revised Code;50248

       (41) Failure to comply with the standards and procedures 50249
established in rules under section 4731.054 of the Revised Code 50250
for the operation of or the provision of care at a pain management 50251
clinic;50252

        (42) Failure to comply with the standards and procedures 50253
established in rules under section 4731.054 of the Revised Code 50254
for providing supervision, direction, and control of individuals 50255
at a pain management clinic;50256

       (43) Failure to comply with the requirements of section 50257
4729.79 of the Revised Code, unless the state board of pharmacy no 50258
longer maintains a drug database pursuant to section 4729.75 of 50259
the Revised Code;50260

       (41)(44) Failure to comply with the requirements of section 50261
2919.171 of the Revised Code or failure to submit to the 50262
department of health in accordance with a court order a complete 50263
report as described in section 2919.171 of the Revised Code.50264

       (C) Disciplinary actions taken by the board under divisions 50265
(A) and (B) of this section shall be taken pursuant to an 50266
adjudication under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, except that 50267
in lieu of an adjudication, the board may enter into a consent 50268
agreement with an individual to resolve an allegation of a 50269
violation of this chapter or any rule adopted under it. A consent 50270
agreement, when ratified by an affirmative vote of not fewer than 50271
six members of the board, shall constitute the findings and order 50272
of the board with respect to the matter addressed in the 50273
agreement. If the board refuses to ratify a consent agreement, the 50274
admissions and findings contained in the consent agreement shall 50275
be of no force or effect.50276

       A telephone conference call may be utilized for ratification 50277
of a consent agreement that revokes or suspends an individual's 50278
certificate to practice. The telephone conference call shall be 50279
considered a special meeting under division (F) of section 121.22 50280
of the Revised Code.50281

       If the board takes disciplinary action against an individual 50282
under division (B) of this section for a second or subsequent plea 50283
of guilty to, or judicial finding of guilt of, a violation of 50284
section 2919.123 of the Revised Code, the disciplinary action 50285
shall consist of a suspension of the individual's certificate to 50286
practice for a period of at least one year or, if determined 50287
appropriate by the board, a more serious sanction involving the 50288
individual's certificate to practice. Any consent agreement 50289
entered into under this division with an individual that pertains 50290
to a second or subsequent plea of guilty to, or judicial finding 50291
of guilt of, a violation of that section shall provide for a 50292
suspension of the individual's certificate to practice for a 50293
period of at least one year or, if determined appropriate by the 50294
board, a more serious sanction involving the individual's 50295
certificate to practice.50296

       (D) For purposes of divisions (B)(10), (12), and (14) of this 50297
section, the commission of the act may be established by a finding 50298
by the board, pursuant to an adjudication under Chapter 119. of 50299
the Revised Code, that the individual committed the act. The board 50300
does not have jurisdiction under those divisions if the trial 50301
court renders a final judgment in the individual's favor and that 50302
judgment is based upon an adjudication on the merits. The board 50303
has jurisdiction under those divisions if the trial court issues 50304
an order of dismissal upon technical or procedural grounds.50305

       (E) The sealing of conviction records by any court shall have 50306
no effect upon a prior board order entered under this section or 50307
upon the board's jurisdiction to take action under this section 50308
if, based upon a plea of guilty, a judicial finding of guilt, or a 50309
judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of 50310
conviction, the board issued a notice of opportunity for a hearing 50311
prior to the court's order to seal the records. The board shall 50312
not be required to seal, destroy, redact, or otherwise modify its 50313
records to reflect the court's sealing of conviction records.50314

       (F)(1) The board shall investigate evidence that appears to 50315
show that a person has violated any provision of this chapter or 50316
any rule adopted under it. Any person may report to the board in a 50317
signed writing any information that the person may have that 50318
appears to show a violation of any provision of this chapter or 50319
any rule adopted under it. In the absence of bad faith, any person 50320
who reports information of that nature or who testifies before the 50321
board in any adjudication conducted under Chapter 119. of the 50322
Revised Code shall not be liable in damages in a civil action as a 50323
result of the report or testimony. Each complaint or allegation of 50324
a violation received by the board shall be assigned a case number 50325
and shall be recorded by the board.50326

       (2) Investigations of alleged violations of this chapter or 50327
any rule adopted under it shall be supervised by the supervising 50328
member elected by the board in accordance with section 4731.02 of 50329
the Revised Code and by the secretary as provided in section 50330
4731.39 of the Revised Code. The president may designate another 50331
member of the board to supervise the investigation in place of the 50332
supervising member. No member of the board who supervises the 50333
investigation of a case shall participate in further adjudication 50334
of the case.50335

       (3) In investigating a possible violation of this chapter or 50336
any rule adopted under this chapter, the board may administer 50337
oaths, order the taking of depositions, inspect and copy any 50338
books, accounts, papers, records, or documents, issue subpoenas, 50339
and compel the attendance of witnesses and production of books, 50340
accounts, papers, records, documents, and testimony, except that a 50341
subpoena for patient record information shall not be issued 50342
without consultation with the attorney general's office and 50343
approval of the secretary and supervising member of the board. 50344
Before issuance of a subpoena for patient record information, the 50345
secretary and supervising member shall determine whether there is 50346
probable cause to believe that the complaint filed alleges a 50347
violation of this chapter or any rule adopted under it and that 50348
the records sought are relevant to the alleged violation and 50349
material to the investigation. The subpoena may apply only to 50350
records that cover a reasonable period of time surrounding the 50351
alleged violation.50352

       On failure to comply with any subpoena issued by the board 50353
and after reasonable notice to the person being subpoenaed, the 50354
board may move for an order compelling the production of persons 50355
or records pursuant to the Rules of Civil Procedure.50356

       A subpoena issued by the board may be served by a sheriff, 50357
the sheriff's deputy, or a board employee designated by the board. 50358
Service of a subpoena issued by the board may be made by 50359
delivering a copy of the subpoena to the person named therein, 50360
reading it to the person, or leaving it at the person's usual 50361
place of residence. When the person being served is a person whose 50362
practice is authorized by this chapter, service of the subpoena 50363
may be made by certified mail, restricted delivery, return receipt 50364
requested, and the subpoena shall be deemed served on the date 50365
delivery is made or the date the person refuses to accept 50366
delivery.50367

       A sheriff's deputy who serves a subpoena shall receive the 50368
same fees as a sheriff. Each witness who appears before the board 50369
in obedience to a subpoena shall receive the fees and mileage 50370
provided for under section 119.094 of the Revised Code.50371

       (4) All hearings and investigations of the board shall be 50372
considered civil actions for the purposes of section 2305.252 of 50373
the Revised Code.50374

       (5) Information received by the board pursuant to an 50375
investigation is confidential and not subject to discovery in any 50376
civil action.50377

       The board shall conduct all investigations and proceedings in 50378
a manner that protects the confidentiality of patients and persons 50379
who file complaints with the board. The board shall not make 50380
public the names or any other identifying information about 50381
patients or complainants unless proper consent is given or, in the 50382
case of a patient, a waiver of the patient privilege exists under 50383
division (B) of section 2317.02 of the Revised Code, except that 50384
consent or a waiver of that nature is not required if the board 50385
possesses reliable and substantial evidence that no bona fide 50386
physician-patient relationship exists.50387

       The board may share any information it receives pursuant to 50388
an investigation, including patient records and patient record 50389
information, with law enforcement agencies, other licensing 50390
boards, and other governmental agencies that are prosecuting, 50391
adjudicating, or investigating alleged violations of statutes or 50392
administrative rules. An agency or board that receives the 50393
information shall comply with the same requirements regarding 50394
confidentiality as those with which the state medical board must 50395
comply, notwithstanding any conflicting provision of the Revised 50396
Code or procedure of the agency or board that applies when it is 50397
dealing with other information in its possession. In a judicial 50398
proceeding, the information may be admitted into evidence only in 50399
accordance with the Rules of Evidence, but the court shall require 50400
that appropriate measures are taken to ensure that confidentiality 50401
is maintained with respect to any part of the information that 50402
contains names or other identifying information about patients or 50403
complainants whose confidentiality was protected by the state 50404
medical board when the information was in the board's possession. 50405
Measures to ensure confidentiality that may be taken by the court 50406
include sealing its records or deleting specific information from 50407
its records.50408

       (6) On a quarterly basis, the board shall prepare a report 50409
that documents the disposition of all cases during the preceding 50410
three months. The report shall contain the following information 50411
for each case with which the board has completed its activities:50412

       (a) The case number assigned to the complaint or alleged 50413
violation;50414

       (b) The type of certificate to practice, if any, held by the 50415
individual against whom the complaint is directed;50416

       (c) A description of the allegations contained in the 50417
complaint;50418

       (d) The disposition of the case.50419

       The report shall state how many cases are still pending and 50420
shall be prepared in a manner that protects the identity of each 50421
person involved in each case. The report shall be a public record 50422
under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.50423

       (G) If the secretary and supervising member determine both of 50424
the following, they may recommend that the board suspend an 50425
individual's certificate to practice without a prior hearing:50426

       (1) That there is clear and convincing evidence that an 50427
individual has violated division (B) of this section;50428

       (2) That the individual's continued practice presents a 50429
danger of immediate and serious harm to the public. 50430

        Written allegations shall be prepared for consideration by 50431
the board. The board, upon review of those allegations and by an 50432
affirmative vote of not fewer than six of its members, excluding 50433
the secretary and supervising member, may suspend a certificate 50434
without a prior hearing. A telephone conference call may be 50435
utilized for reviewing the allegations and taking the vote on the 50436
summary suspension.50437

       The board shall issue a written order of suspension by 50438
certified mail or in person in accordance with section 119.07 of 50439
the Revised Code. The order shall not be subject to suspension by 50440
the court during pendency of any appeal filed under section 119.12 50441
of the Revised Code. If the individual subject to the summary 50442
suspension requests an adjudicatory hearing by the board, the date 50443
set for the hearing shall be within fifteen days, but not earlier 50444
than seven days, after the individual requests the hearing, unless 50445
otherwise agreed to by both the board and the individual.50446

       Any summary suspension imposed under this division shall 50447
remain in effect, unless reversed on appeal, until a final 50448
adjudicative order issued by the board pursuant to this section 50449
and Chapter 119. of the Revised Code becomes effective. The board 50450
shall issue its final adjudicative order within seventy-five days 50451
after completion of its hearing. A failure to issue the order 50452
within seventy-five days shall result in dissolution of the 50453
summary suspension order but shall not invalidate any subsequent, 50454
final adjudicative order.50455

       (H) If the board takes action under division (B)(9), (11), or 50456
(13) of this section and the judicial finding of guilt, guilty 50457
plea, or judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu 50458
of conviction is overturned on appeal, upon exhaustion of the 50459
criminal appeal, a petition for reconsideration of the order may 50460
be filed with the board along with appropriate court documents. 50461
Upon receipt of a petition of that nature and supporting court 50462
documents, the board shall reinstate the individual's certificate 50463
to practice. The board may then hold an adjudication under Chapter 50464
119. of the Revised Code to determine whether the individual 50465
committed the act in question. Notice of an opportunity for a 50466
hearing shall be given in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 50467
Revised Code. If the board finds, pursuant to an adjudication held 50468
under this division, that the individual committed the act or if 50469
no hearing is requested, the board may order any of the sanctions 50470
identified under division (B) of this section.50471

       (I) The certificate to practice issued to an individual under 50472
this chapter and the individual's practice in this state are 50473
automatically suspended as of the date of the individual's second 50474
or subsequent plea of guilty to, or judicial finding of guilt of, 50475
a violation of section 2919.123 of the Revised Code, or the date 50476
the individual pleads guilty to, is found by a judge or jury to be 50477
guilty of, or is subject to a judicial finding of eligibility for 50478
intervention in lieu of conviction in this state or treatment or 50479
intervention in lieu of conviction in another jurisdiction for any 50480
of the following criminal offenses in this state or a 50481
substantially equivalent criminal offense in another jurisdiction: 50482
aggravated murder, murder, voluntary manslaughter, felonious 50483
assault, kidnapping, rape, sexual battery, gross sexual 50484
imposition, aggravated arson, aggravated robbery, or aggravated 50485
burglary. Continued practice after suspension shall be considered 50486
practicing without a certificate.50487

       The board shall notify the individual subject to the 50488
suspension by certified mail or in person in accordance with 50489
section 119.07 of the Revised Code. If an individual whose 50490
certificate is automatically suspended under this division fails 50491
to make a timely request for an adjudication under Chapter 119. of 50492
the Revised Code, the board shall do whichever of the following is 50493
applicable:50494

       (1) If the automatic suspension under this division is for a 50495
second or subsequent plea of guilty to, or judicial finding of 50496
guilt of, a violation of section 2919.123 of the Revised Code, the 50497
board shall enter an order suspending the individual's certificate 50498
to practice for a period of at least one year or, if determined 50499
appropriate by the board, imposing a more serious sanction 50500
involving the individual's certificate to practice.50501

       (2) In all circumstances in which division (I)(1) of this 50502
section does not apply, enter a final order permanently revoking 50503
the individual's certificate to practice.50504

       (J) If the board is required by Chapter 119. of the Revised 50505
Code to give notice of an opportunity for a hearing and if the 50506
individual subject to the notice does not timely request a hearing 50507
in accordance with section 119.07 of the Revised Code, the board 50508
is not required to hold a hearing, but may adopt, by an 50509
affirmative vote of not fewer than six of its members, a final 50510
order that contains the board's findings. In that final order, the 50511
board may order any of the sanctions identified under division (A) 50512
or (B) of this section.50513

       (K) Any action taken by the board under division (B) of this 50514
section resulting in a suspension from practice shall be 50515
accompanied by a written statement of the conditions under which 50516
the individual's certificate to practice may be reinstated. The 50517
board shall adopt rules governing conditions to be imposed for 50518
reinstatement. Reinstatement of a certificate suspended pursuant 50519
to division (B) of this section requires an affirmative vote of 50520
not fewer than six members of the board.50521

       (L) When the board refuses to grant a certificate to an 50522
applicant, revokes an individual's certificate to practice, 50523
refuses to register an applicant, or refuses to reinstate an 50524
individual's certificate to practice, the board may specify that 50525
its action is permanent. An individual subject to a permanent 50526
action taken by the board is forever thereafter ineligible to hold 50527
a certificate to practice and the board shall not accept an 50528
application for reinstatement of the certificate or for issuance 50529
of a new certificate.50530

       (M) Notwithstanding any other provision of the Revised Code, 50531
all of the following apply:50532

       (1) The surrender of a certificate issued under this chapter 50533
shall not be effective unless or until accepted by the board. A 50534
telephone conference call may be utilized for acceptance of the 50535
surrender of an individual's certificate to practice. The 50536
telephone conference call shall be considered a special meeting 50537
under division (F) of section 121.22 of the Revised Code. 50538
Reinstatement of a certificate surrendered to the board requires 50539
an affirmative vote of not fewer than six members of the board.50540

       (2) An application for a certificate made under the 50541
provisions of this chapter may not be withdrawn without approval 50542
of the board.50543

       (3) Failure by an individual to renew a certificate of 50544
registration in accordance with this chapter shall not remove or 50545
limit the board's jurisdiction to take any disciplinary action 50546
under this section against the individual.50547

       (N) Sanctions shall not be imposed under division (B)(28) of 50548
this section against any person who waives deductibles and 50549
copayments as follows:50550

       (1) In compliance with the health benefit plan that expressly 50551
allows such a practice. Waiver of the deductibles or copayments 50552
shall be made only with the full knowledge and consent of the plan 50553
purchaser, payer, and third-party administrator. Documentation of 50554
the consent shall be made available to the board upon request.50555

       (2) For professional services rendered to any other person 50556
authorized to practice pursuant to this chapter, to the extent 50557
allowed by this chapter and rules adopted by the board.50558

       (O) Under the board's investigative duties described in this 50559
section and subject to division (F) of this section, the board 50560
shall develop and implement a quality intervention program 50561
designed to improve through remedial education the clinical and 50562
communication skills of individuals authorized under this chapter 50563
to practice medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and 50564
surgery, and podiatric medicine and surgery. In developing and 50565
implementing the quality intervention program, the board may do 50566
all of the following:50567

       (1) Offer in appropriate cases as determined by the board an 50568
educational and assessment program pursuant to an investigation 50569
the board conducts under this section;50570

       (2) Select providers of educational and assessment services, 50571
including a quality intervention program panel of case reviewers;50572

       (3) Make referrals to educational and assessment service 50573
providers and approve individual educational programs recommended 50574
by those providers. The board shall monitor the progress of each 50575
individual undertaking a recommended individual educational 50576
program.50577

       (4) Determine what constitutes successful completion of an 50578
individual educational program and require further monitoring of 50579
the individual who completed the program or other action that the 50580
board determines to be appropriate;50581

       (5) Adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 50582
Revised Code to further implement the quality intervention 50583
program.50584

       An individual who participates in an individual educational 50585
program pursuant to this division shall pay the financial 50586
obligations arising from that educational program.50587

       Sec. 4731.293.  (A) The state medical board may issue, 50588
without examination, a visiting medicalclinical research faculty 50589
certificate to any person who applies for the certificate and 50590
provides to the board all of the following:50591

       (1) Evidence satisfactory to the board of all of the 50592
following:50593

       (a) That the applicant holds a current, unrestricted license 50594
to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and 50595
surgery issued by another state or country and;50596

       (b) That the applicant has been appointed to serve in this 50597
state on the academic staff of a medical school accredited by the 50598
liaison committee on medical education or an osteopathic medical 50599
school accredited by the American osteopathic association;50600

       (c) That the applicant is an international medical graduate 50601
who holds a medical degree from an educational institution listed 50602
in the international medical education directory;50603

       (d) That the applicant will be permitted to work only under 50604
the authority of the department director or chairperson of a 50605
teaching hospital affiliated with the medical school where the 50606
applicant's teaching and research activities will occur.50607

       (2) An affidavit and supporting documentation from the dean 50608
of the medical school or the department director or chairperson of 50609
a teaching hospital affiliated with the school that the applicant 50610
is qualified to perform teaching and research activities;50611

       (3) A description from the medical school or teaching 50612
hospital of the scope of practice in which the applicant will be 50613
involved, including the types of teaching, research, and 50614
procedures in which the applicant will be engaged;50615

       (4) A description of the type and amount of patient contact 50616
that will occur in connection with the applicant's teaching and 50617
research activities. Except as provided in division (E) of this 50618
section, the board shall not issue more than one visiting medical 50619
faculty certificate to any particular person.50620

       (B) An applicant for a visiting medicalan initial clinical 50621
research faculty certificate shall submit evidence satisfactory 50622
to the board that the applicant meets the requirements of division 50623
(A) of this section. The applicant shall pay a fee of three 50624
hundred seventy-five dollars. The board shall maintain a register 50625
of all persons who hold a visiting medical faculty certificate.50626

       (C) The holder of a visiting medicalclinical research50627
faculty certificate may practice medicine and surgery or 50628
osteopathic medicine and surgery only as is incidental to the50629
certificate holder's teaching or research duties at the medical50630
school or thea teaching hospitalshospital affiliated with the 50631
school. The board may revoke a certificate on receiving proof 50632
satisfactory to the board that the certificate holder of the 50633
certificate has engaged in practice in this state outside the 50634
scope of the certificate or that there are grounds for action 50635
against the certificate holder under section 4731.22 of the 50636
Revised Code.50637

       (D) A visiting medicalclinical research faculty certificate 50638
is valid for the shorter of three years or the duration of, except 50639
that the certificate ceases to be valid if the holder's 50640
appointment to the academic staff of the school is no longer 50641
valid. The certificate may not be renewed.50642

       (E) If a person was granted a visiting medical faculty 50643
certificate before the effective date of this amendment, the 50644
person may apply for a second visiting medical faculty 50645
certificate, unless the person's first certificate was revoked. 50646
The board may issue the second certificate if the applicant 50647
complies with division (B) of this section(1) A clinical research 50648
faculty certificate may be renewed for an additional three-year 50649
period. There is no limit on the number of times a certificate may 50650
be renewed. A person seeking renewal of a certificate shall apply 50651
to the board and is eligible for renewal if the applicant does all 50652
of the following:50653

       (a) Pays a renewal fee of three hundred seventy-five dollars;50654

       (b) Provides to the board an affidavit and supporting 50655
documentation from the dean of the medical school or the 50656
department director or chairperson of a teaching hospital 50657
affiliated with the school that the applicant is in compliance 50658
with the applicant's current clinical research faculty 50659
certificate;50660

       (c) Provides evidence satisfactory to the board of all of the 50661
following:50662

       (i) That the applicant continues to maintain a current, 50663
unrestricted license to practice medicine and surgery or 50664
osteopathic medicine and surgery issued by another state or 50665
country;50666

       (ii) That the applicant's initial appointment to serve in 50667
this state on the academic staff of a medical school is still 50668
valid or has been renewed;50669

        (iii) That the applicant has satisfied the same continuing 50670
medical education requirements set forth in section 4731.281 of 50671
the Revised Code that apply to a person who holds a certificate to 50672
practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery 50673
issued under this chapter.50674

       (2) Regardless of whether the certificate has expired, a 50675
person who was granted a visiting medical faculty certificate 50676
under this section as it existed immediately prior to the 50677
effective date of this amendment may apply for a clinical research 50678
faculty certificate as a renewal. The board may issue the clinical 50679
research faculty certificate if the applicant meets the 50680
requirements of division (E)(1) of this section. The board may not 50681
issue a clinical research faculty certificate if the visiting 50682
medical faculty certificate was revoked.50683

       (F) The board shall maintain a register of all persons who 50684
hold clinical research faculty certificates.50685

       (G) The board may adopt any rules it considers necessary to 50686
implement this section. The rules shall be adopted in accordance 50687
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.50688

       Sec. 4731.297.  (A) As used in this section:50689

       (1) "Academic medical center" means a medical school and its 50690
affiliated teaching hospitals and clinics partnering to do all of 50691
the following:50692

       (a) Provide the highest quality of patient care from expert 50693
physicians;50694

       (b) Conduct groundbreaking research leading to medical 50695
advancements for current and future patients;50696

       (c) Provide medical education and graduate medical education 50697
to educate and train physicians. 50698

       (2) "Affiliated physician group practice" means a medical 50699
practice that consists of one or more physicians authorized under 50700
this chapter to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic 50701
medicine and surgery and that is affiliated with an academic 50702
medical center to further the objectives described in divisions 50703
(A)(1)(a) to (c) of this section.50704

       (B) The state medical board shall issue, without examination, 50705
to an applicant who meets the requirements of this section a 50706
certificate of conceded eminence authorizing the practice of 50707
medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery as part 50708
of the applicant's employment with an academic medical center in 50709
this state or affiliated physician group practice in this state.50710

       (C) To be eligible for a certificate of conceded eminence, an 50711
applicant shall provide to the board all of the following:50712

       (1) Evidence satisfactory to the board of all of the 50713
following:50714

       (a) That the applicant is an international medical graduate 50715
who holds a medical degree from an educational institution listed 50716
in the international medical education directory;50717

       (b) That the applicant has been appointed to serve in this 50718
state as a full-time faculty member of a medical school accredited 50719
by the liaison committee on medical education or an osteopathic 50720
medical school accredited by the American osteopathic association;50721

       (c) That the applicant has accepted an offer of employment 50722
with an academic medical center in this state or affiliated 50723
physician group practice in this state;50724

       (d) That the applicant holds a license in good standing in 50725
another state or country authorizing the practice of medicine and 50726
surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery;50727

       (e) That the applicant has unique talents and extraordinary 50728
abilities not generally found within the applicant's specialty, as 50729
demonstrated by satisfying at least four of the following:50730

       (i) The applicant has achieved educational qualifications 50731
beyond those that are required for entry into the applicant's 50732
specialty, including advanced degrees, special certifications, or 50733
other academic credentials.50734

       (ii) The applicant has written multiple articles in journals 50735
listed in the index medicus or an equivalent scholarly publication 50736
acceptable to the board.50737

       (iii) The applicant has a sustained record of excellence in 50738
original research, at least some of which involves serving as the 50739
principal investigator or co-principal investigator for a research 50740
project.50741

       (iv) The applicant has received nationally or internationally 50742
recognized prizes or awards for excellence.50743

       (v) The applicant has participated in peer review in a field 50744
of specialization that is the same as or similar to the 50745
applicant's specialty.50746

       (vi) The applicant has developed new procedures or treatments 50747
for complex medical problems that are recognized by peers as a 50748
significant advancement in the applicable field of medicine.50749

       (vii) The applicant has held previous academic appointments 50750
with or been employed by a health care organization that has a 50751
distinguished national or international reputation.50752

       (viii) The applicant has been the recipient of a national 50753
institutes of health or other competitive grant award.50754

       (f) That the applicant has received staff membership or 50755
professional privileges from the academic medical center pursuant 50756
to standards adopted under section 3701.351 of the Revised Code on 50757
a basis that requires the applicant's medical education and 50758
graduate medical education to be at least equivalent to that of a 50759
physician educated and trained in the United States;50760

       (g) That the applicant has sufficient written and oral 50761
English skills to communicate effectively and reliably with 50762
patients, their families, and other medical professionals;50763

       (h) That the applicant will have professional liability 50764
insurance through the applicant's employment with the academic 50765
medical center or affiliated physician group practice.50766

       (2) An affidavit from the applicant agreeing to practice only 50767
within the clinical setting of the academic medical center;50768

       (3) Three letters of reference from distinguished experts in 50769
the applicant's specialty attesting to the unique capabilities of 50770
the applicant, at least one of which must be from outside the 50771
academic medical center or affiliated physician group practice;50772

       (4) An affidavit from the dean of the medical school where 50773
the applicant has been appointed to serve as a faculty member 50774
stating that the applicant meets all of the requirements of 50775
division (C)(1) of this section and that the letters of reference 50776
submitted under division (C)(3) of this section are from 50777
distinguished experts in the applicant's specialty, and 50778
documentation to support the affidavit;50779

       (5) A fee of one thousand dollars for the certificate. 50780

       (D)(1) The holder of a certificate of conceded eminence may 50781
practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery 50782
only within the clinical setting of the academic medical center 50783
with which the certificate holder is employed.50784

       (2) A certificate holder may supervise medical students, 50785
physicians participating in graduate medical education, advanced 50786
practice nurses, and physician assistants when performing clinical 50787
services in the certificate holder's area of specialty.50788

       (E) The board may revoke a certificate issued under this 50789
section on receiving proof satisfactory to the board that the 50790
certificate holder has engaged in practice in this state outside 50791
the scope of the certificate or that there are grounds for action 50792
against the certificate holder under section 4731.22 of the 50793
Revised Code.50794

       (F) A certificate of conceded eminence is valid for the 50795
shorter of two years or the duration of the certificate holder's 50796
employment with the academic medical center or affiliated 50797
physician group practice. The certificate ceases to be valid if 50798
the holder resigns or is otherwiseterminated from the academic 50799
medical center or affiliated physician group practice.50800

       (G) A certificate of conceded eminence may be renewed for an 50801
additional two-year period. There is no limit on the number of 50802
times a certificate may be renewed. A person seeking renewal of a 50803
certificate shall apply to the board and is eligible for renewal 50804
if the applicant does all of the following:50805

       (1) Pays the renewal fee of one thousand dollars;50806

       (2) Provides to the board an affidavit and supporting 50807
documentation from the academic medical center or affiliated 50808
physician group practice of all of the following:50809

       (a) That the applicant's initial appointment to the medical 50810
faculty is still valid or has been renewed;50811

       (b) That the applicant's clinical practice is consistent with 50812
the established standards in the field;50813

       (c) That the applicant has demonstrated continued scholarly 50814
achievement;50815

       (d) That the applicant has demonstrated continued 50816
professional achievement consistent with the academic medical 50817
center's requirements, established pursuant to standards adopted 50818
under section 3701.351 of the Revised Code, for physicians with 50819
staff membership or professional privileges with the academic 50820
medical center.50821

       (3) Satisfies the same continuing medical education 50822
requirements set forth in section 4731.281 of the Revised Code 50823
that apply to a person who holds a certificate to practice 50824
medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery issued 50825
under this chapter.50826

       (4) Complies with any other requirements established by the 50827
board.50828

       (H) The board may adopt any rules it considers necessary to 50829
implement this section. The rules shall be adopted in accordance 50830
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.50831

       Sec. 4736.01.  As used in this chapter:50832

       (A) "Environmental health science" means the aspect of public 50833
health science that includes, but is not limited to, the following 50834
bodies of knowledge: air quality, food quality and protection, 50835
hazardous and toxic substances, consumer product safety, housing, 50836
institutional health and safety, community noise control, 50837
radiation protection, recreational facilities, solid and liquid 50838
waste management, vector control, drinking water quality, milk 50839
sanitation, and rabies control.50840

       (B) "Sanitarian" means a person who performs for compensation 50841
educational, investigational, technical, or administrative duties 50842
requiring specialized knowledge and skills in the field of 50843
environmental health science.50844

       (C) "Registered sanitarian" means a person who is registered 50845
as a sanitarian in accordance with this chapter.50846

       (D) "Sanitarian-in-training" means a person who is registered 50847
as a sanitarian-in-training in accordance with this chapter.50848

       (E) "Practice of environmental health" means consultation, 50849
instruction, investigation, inspection, or evaluation by an 50850
employee of a city health district, a general health district, the 50851
environmental protection agency, the department of health, or the 50852
department of agriculture requiring specialized knowledge, 50853
training, and experience in the field of environmental health 50854
science, with the primary purpose of improving or conducting 50855
administration or enforcement under any of the following:50856

       (1) Chapter 911., 913., 917., 3717., 3718., 3721., 3729., or 50857
3733. of the Revised Code;50858

       (2) Chapter 3734. of the Revised Code as it pertains to solid 50859
waste;50860

       (3) Section 955.26, 3701.344, 3707.01, or 3707.03, sections 50861
3707.38 to 3707.99, or section 3715.21 of the Revised Code;50862

       (4) Rules adopted under former section 3701.34 of the Revised 50863
Code pertaining to rabies control or swimming pools;50864

       (5) Rules adopted under section 3701.935 of the Revised Code 50865
for school health and safety network inspections and rules adopted 50866
under section 3707.26 of the Revised Code for sanitary 50867
inspections.50868

       "Practice of environmental health" does not include sampling, 50869
testing, controlling of vectors, reporting of observations, or 50870
other duties that do not require application of specialized 50871
knowledge and skills in environmental health science performed 50872
under the supervision of a registered sanitarian.50873

       The state board of sanitarian registration may further define 50874
environmental health science in relation to specific functions in 50875
the practice of environmental health through rules adopted by the 50876
board under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.50877

       Sec. 4740.03.  (A) The administrative section of the Ohio 50878
construction industry licensing board annually shall elect from 50879
among its members a chairperson and other officers as the board, 50880
by rule, designates. The chairperson shall preside over meetings 50881
of the administrative section or designate another member to 50882
preside in the chairperson's absence. The administrative section 50883
shall hold at least two regular meetings each year, but may meet 50884
at additional times as specified by rule, at the call of the 50885
chairperson, or upon the request of two or more members. A 50886
majority of the members of the administrative section constitutes 50887
a quorum for the transaction of all business. The administrative 50888
section may not take any action without the concurrence of at 50889
least three of its members.50890

       (B)(1) The administrative section shall employ a secretary, 50891
who is not a member of the board, to serve at the pleasure of the 50892
administrative section, and shall fix the compensation of the 50893
secretary. The secretary shall be in the unclassified civil 50894
service of the state.50895

       (2) The secretary shall do all of the following:50896

       (a) Keep or set standards for and delegate to another person 50897
the keeping of the minutes, books, and other records and files of 50898
the board and each section of the board;50899

       (b) Issue all licenses in the name of the board;50900

       (c) Send out all notices, including advance notices of 50901
meetings of the board and each section of the board, and attend to 50902
all correspondence of the board and each section of the board, 50903
under the direction of the administrative section;50904

       (d) Receive and deposit all fees payable pursuant to this 50905
chapter into the laborindustrial compliance operating fund 50906
created pursuant to section 121.084 of the Revised Code;50907

       (e) Perform all other duties incidental to the office of the 50908
secretary or properly assigned to the secretary by the 50909
administrative section of the board.50910

       (3) Before entering upon the discharge of the duties of the 50911
secretary, the secretary shall file with the treasurer of state a 50912
bond in the sum of five thousand dollars, payable to the state, to 50913
ensure the faithful performance of the secretary's duties. The 50914
board shall pay the premium of the bond in the same manner as it 50915
pays other expenditures of the board.50916

       (C) Upon the request of the administrative section of the 50917
board, the director of commerce shall supply the board and its 50918
sections with personnel, office space, and supplies, as the 50919
director determines appropriate. The administrative section of the 50920
board shall employ any additional staff it considers necessary and 50921
appropriate.50922

       (D) The chairperson of the board or the secretary, or both, 50923
as authorized by the board, shall approve all vouchers of the 50924
board.50925

       Sec. 4740.11.  The Ohio construction industry licensing board 50926
and its sections shall deposit all receipts and fines collected 50927
under this chapter into the state treasury to the credit of the 50928
laborindustrial compliance operating fund created in section 50929
121.084 of the Revised Code.50930

       Sec. 4740.14.  (A) There is hereby created within the 50931
department of commerce the residential construction advisory 50932
committee consisting of nine persons the director of commerce 50933
appoints. The advisory committee shall be made up of the following 50934
members:50935

       (1) Three shall be general contractors who have recognized 50936
ability and experience in the construction of residential 50937
buildings.50938

       (2) Two shall be building officials who have experience 50939
administering and enforcing a residential building code.50940

       (3) One, chosen from a list of three names the Ohio fire 50941
chief's association submits, shall be from the fire service 50942
certified as a fire safety inspector who has at least ten years of 50943
experience enforcing fire or building codes.50944

       (4) One shall be a residential contractor who has recognized 50945
ability and experience in the remodeling and construction of 50946
residential buildings.50947

       (5) One shall be an architect registered pursuant to Chapter 50948
4703. of the Revised Code, with recognized ability and experience 50949
in the architecture of residential buildings.50950

       (6) One, chosen from a list of three names the Ohio municipal 50951
league submits to the director, shall be a mayor of a municipal 50952
corporation in which the Ohio residential building code is being 50953
enforced in the municipal corporation by a certified building 50954
department.50955

       (B) Terms of office shall be for three years, with each term 50956
ending on the date three years after the date of appointment. Each 50957
member shall hold office from the date of appointment until the 50958
end of the term for which the member was appointed. Vacancies 50959
shall be filled in the manner provided for initial appointments. 50960
Any member appointed to fill a vacancy in an unexpired term shall 50961
hold office for the remainder of that term.50962

       (C) The advisory committee shall do all of the following:50963

       (1) Recommend to the board of building standards a building 50964
code for residential buildings. The committee shall recommend a 50965
code that it may model on a residential building code a national 50966
model code organization issues, with adaptations necessary to 50967
implement the code in this state. If the board of building 50968
standards decides not to adopt a code the committee recommends, 50969
the committee shall revise the code and resubmit it until the 50970
board adopts a code the committee recommends as the state 50971
residential building code;50972

       (2) Advise the board regarding the establishment of standards 50973
for certification of building officials who enforce the state 50974
residential building code;50975

       (3) Assist the board in providing information and guidance to 50976
residential contractors and building officials who enforce the 50977
state residential building code;50978

       (4) Advise the board regarding the interpretation of the 50979
state residential building code;50980

       (5) Provide other assistance the committee considers 50981
necessary;50982

       (6) Provide the board with a written report of the 50983
committee's findings for each consideration required by division 50984
(D) of this section.50985

       (D) The committee shall not make its recommendation to the 50986
board pursuant to divisions (C)(1), (2), and (4) of this section 50987
until the advisory committee has considered all of the following:50988

       (1) The impact that the state residential building code may 50989
have upon the health, safety, and welfare of the public;50990

       (2) The economic reasonableness of the residential building 50991
code;50992

       (3) The technical feasibility of the residential building 50993
code;50994

       (4) The financial impact that the residential building code 50995
may have on the public's ability to purchase affordable housing.50996

       (E) The advisory committee may provide the board with any 50997
rule the committee recommends to update or amend the state 50998
residential building code or any rule that the committee 50999
recommends to update or amend the state residential building code 51000
after receiving a petition described in division (A)(2) of section 51001
3781.12 of the Revised Code.51002

       (F) Members of the advisory committee shall receive no salary 51003
for the performance of their duties as members, but shall receive 51004
their actual and necessary expenses incurred in the performance of 51005
their duties as members of the advisory committee and shall 51006
receive a per diem for each day in attendance at an official 51007
meeting of the committee, to be paid from the laborindustrial 51008
compliance operating fund in the state treasury, using fees 51009
collected in connection with residential buildings pursuant to 51010
division (F)(2) of section 3781.102 of the Revised Code and 51011
deposited in that fund.51012

       (G) The advisory committee is not subject to divisions (A) 51013
and (B) of section 101.84 of the Revised Code.51014

       Sec. 4743.05.  Except as otherwise provided in sections 51015
4701.20, 4723.062, 4723.082, and 4729.65, 4781.121, and 4781.28 of 51016
the Revised Code, all money collected under Chapters 3773., 4701., 51017
4703., 4709., 4713., 4715., 4717., 4723., 4725., 4729., 4732., 51018
4733., 4734., 4736., 4741., 4753., 4755., 4757., 4758., 4759., 51019
4761., 4766., 4771., 4775., 4779., and 4781. of the Revised Code 51020
shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the 51021
occupational licensing and regulatory fund, which is hereby 51022
created for use in administering such chapters.51023

       At the end of each quarter, the director of budget and 51024
management shall transfer from the occupational licensing and 51025
regulatory fund to the nurse education assistance fund created in 51026
section 3333.28 of the Revised Code the amount certified to the 51027
director under division (B) of section 4723.08 of the Revised 51028
Code.51029

       At the end of each quarter, the director shall transfer from 51030
the occupational licensing and regulatory fund to the certified 51031
public accountant education assistance fund created in section 51032
4701.26 of the Revised Code the amount certified to the director 51033
under division (H)(2) of section 4701.10 of the Revised Code.51034

       Sec. 4763.05. (A)(1)(a) A person shall make application for 51035
an initial state-certified general real estate appraiser 51036
certificate, an initial state-certified residential real estate 51037
appraiser certificate, an initial state-licensed residential real 51038
estate appraiser license, or an initial state-registered real 51039
estate appraiser assistant registration in writing to the 51040
superintendent of real estate on a form the superintendent 51041
prescribes. The application shall include the address of the 51042
applicant's principal place of business and all other addresses at 51043
which the applicant currently engages in the business of preparing 51044
real estate appraisals and the address of the applicant's current 51045
residence. The superintendent shall retain the applicant's current 51046
residence address in a separate record which shalldoes not 51047
constitute a public record for purposes of section 149.03149.4351048
of the Revised Code. The application shall indicate whether the 51049
applicant seeks certification as a general real estate appraiser 51050
or as a residential real estate appraiser, licensure as a 51051
residential real estate appraiser, or registration as a real 51052
estate appraiser assistant and be accompanied by the prescribed 51053
examination and certification, registration, or licensure fees set 51054
forth in section 4763.09 of the Revised Code. The application also 51055
shall include a pledge, signed by the applicant, that the 51056
applicant will comply with the standards set forth in this 51057
chapter; and a statement that the applicant understands the types 51058
of misconduct for which disciplinary proceedings may be initiated 51059
against the applicant pursuant to this chapter.51060

       (b) Upon the filing of an application and payment of any 51061
examination and certification, registration, or licensure fees, 51062
the superintendent of real estate shall request the superintendent 51063
of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation, or a 51064
vendor approved by the bureau, to conduct a criminal records check 51065
based on the applicant's fingerprints in accordance with division 51066
(A)(11) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code. Notwithstanding 51067
division (K) of section 121.08 of the Revised Code, the 51068
superintendent of real estate shall request that criminal record 51069
information from the federal bureau of investigation be obtained 51070
as part of the criminal records check. Any fee required under 51071
division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code shall be 51072
paid by the applicant.51073

       (2) For purposes of providing funding for the real estate 51074
appraiser recovery fund established by section 4763.16 of the 51075
Revised Code, the real estate appraiser board shall levy an 51076
assessment against each person issued an initial certificate, 51077
registration, or license and against current licensees, 51078
registrants, and certificate holders, as required by board rule. 51079
The assessment is in addition to the application and examination 51080
fees for initial applicants required by division (A)(1) of this 51081
section and the renewal fees required for current certificate 51082
holders, registrants, and licensees. The superintendent of real 51083
estate shall deposit the assessment into the state treasury to the 51084
credit of the real estate appraiser recovery fund. The assessment 51085
for initial certificate holders, registrants, and licensees shall 51086
be paid prior to the issuance of a certificate, registration, or 51087
license, and for current certificate holders, registrants, and 51088
licensees, at the time of renewal.51089

       (B) An applicant for an initial general real estate appraiser 51090
certificate, residential real estate appraiser certificate, or 51091
residential real estate appraiser license shall possess experience 51092
in real estate appraisal as the board prescribes by rule. In 51093
addition to any other information required by the board, the 51094
applicant shall furnish, under oath, a detailed listing of the 51095
appraisal reports or file memoranda for each year for which 51096
experience is claimed and, upon request of the superintendent or 51097
the board, shall make available for examination a sample of the 51098
appraisal reports prepared by the applicant in the course of the 51099
applicant's practice.51100

       (C) An applicant for an initial certificate, registration, or 51101
license shall be at least eighteen years of age, honest, truthful, 51102
and of good reputation and shall present satisfactory evidence to 51103
the superintendent that the applicant has successfully completed 51104
any education requirements the board prescribes by rule.51105

       (D) An applicant for an initial general real estate appraiser 51106
or residential real estate appraiser certificate or residential 51107
real estate appraiser license shall take and successfully complete 51108
a written examination in order to qualify for the certificate or 51109
license.51110

        The board shall prescribe the examination requirements by 51111
rule.51112

       (E)(1) A nonresident, natural person of this state who has 51113
complied with this section may obtain a certificate, registration, 51114
or license. The board shall adopt rules relating to the 51115
certification, registration, and licensure of a nonresident 51116
applicant whose state of residence the board determines to have 51117
certification, registration, or licensure requirements that are 51118
substantially similar to those set forth in this chapter and the 51119
rules adopted thereunder.51120

       (2) The board shall recognize on a temporary basis a 51121
certification or license issued in another state and shall 51122
register on a temporary basis an appraiser who is certified or 51123
licensed in another state if all of the following apply:51124

       (a) The temporary registration is to perform an appraisal 51125
assignment that is part of a federally related transaction.51126

       (b) The appraiser's business in this state is of a temporary 51127
nature.51128

       (c) The appraiser registers with the board pursuant to this 51129
division.51130

       An appraiser who is certified or licensed in another state 51131
shall register with the board for temporary practice before 51132
performing an appraisal assignment in this state in connection 51133
with a federally related transaction.51134

       The board shall adopt rules relating to registration for the 51135
temporary recognition of certification and licensure of appraisers 51136
from another state. The registration for temporary recognition of 51137
certified or licensed appraisers from another state shall not 51138
authorize completion of more than one appraisal assignment in this 51139
state. The board shall not issue more than two registrations for 51140
temporary practice to any one applicant in any calendar year.51141

       (3) In addition to any other information required to be 51142
submitted with the nonresident applicant's or appraiser's 51143
application for a certificate, registration, license, or temporary 51144
recognition of a certificate or license, each nonresident 51145
applicant or appraiser shall submit a statement consenting to the 51146
service of process upon the nonresident applicant or appraiser by 51147
means of delivering that process to the secretary of state if, in 51148
an action against the applicant, certificate holder, registrant, 51149
or licensee arising from the applicant's, certificate holder's, 51150
registrant's, or licensee's activities as a certificate holder, 51151
registrant, or licensee, the plaintiff, in the exercise of due 51152
diligence, cannot effect personal service upon the applicant, 51153
certificate holder, registrant, or licensee.51154

       (F) The superintendent shall not issue a certificate, 51155
registration, or license to, or recognize on a temporary basis an 51156
appraiser from another state that is a corporation, partnership, 51157
or association. This prohibition shall not be construed to prevent 51158
a certificate holder or licensee from signing an appraisal report 51159
on behalf of a corporation, partnership, or association.51160

       (G) Every person licensed, registered, or certified under 51161
this chapter shall notify the superintendent, on a form provided 51162
by the superintendent, of a change in the address of the 51163
licensee's, registrant's, or certificate holder's principal place 51164
of business or residence within thirty days of the change. If a 51165
licensee's, registrant's, or certificate holder's license, 51166
registration, or certificate is revoked or not renewed, the 51167
licensee, registrant, or certificate holder immediately shall 51168
return the annual and any renewal certificate, registration, or 51169
license to the superintendent.51170

       (H)(1) The superintendent shall not issue a certificate, 51171
registration, or license to any person, or recognize on a 51172
temporary basis an appraiser from another state, who does not meet 51173
applicable minimum criteria for state certification, registration, 51174
or licensure prescribed by federal law or rule.51175

       (2) The superintendent shall not issue a general real estate 51176
appraiser certificate, residential real estate appraiser 51177
certificate, residential real estate appraiser license, or real 51178
estate appraiser assistant registration to any person who has been 51179
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any criminal offense involving 51180
theft, receiving stolen property, embezzlement, forgery, fraud, 51181
passing bad checks, money laundering, or drug trafficking, or any 51182
criminal offense involving money or securities, including a 51183
violation of an existing or former law of this state, any other 51184
state, or the United States that substantially is equivalent to 51185
such an offense. However, if the applicant has pleaded guilty to 51186
or been convicted of such an offense, the superintendent shall not 51187
consider the offense if the applicant has proven to the 51188
superintendent, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the 51189
applicant's activities and employment record since the conviction 51190
show that the applicant is honest, truthful, and of good 51191
reputation, and there is no basis in fact for believing that the 51192
applicant will commit such an offense again.51193

       Sec. 4765.02. (A)(1) There is hereby created the state board 51194
of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services within the 51195
division of emergency medical services of the department of public 51196
safety. The board shall consist of the members specified in this 51197
section who are residents of this state. The governor, with the 51198
advice and consent of the senate, shall appoint all members of the 51199
board, except the employee of the department of public safety 51200
designated by the director of public safety under this section to 51201
be a member of the board. In making the appointments, the governor 51202
shall appoint only members with background or experience in 51203
emergency medical services or trauma care and shall attempt to 51204
include members representing urban and rural areas, various 51205
geographical regions of the state, and various schools of 51206
training.51207

       (2) One member of the board shall be a physician certified by 51208
the American board of emergency medicine or the American 51209
osteopathic board of emergency medicine who is active in the 51210
practice of emergency medicine and is actively involved with an 51211
emergency medical service organization. The governor shall appoint 51212
this member from among three persons nominated by the Ohio chapter 51213
of the American college of emergency physicians and three persons 51214
nominated by the Ohio osteopathic association. One member shall be 51215
a physician certified by the American board of surgery or the 51216
American osteopathic board of surgery who is active in the 51217
practice of trauma surgery and is actively involved with emergency 51218
medical services. The governor shall appoint this member from 51219
among three persons nominated by the Ohio chapter of the American 51220
college of surgeons and three persons nominated by the Ohio 51221
osteopathic association. One member shall be a physician certified 51222
by the American academy of pediatrics or American osteopathic 51223
board of pediatrics who is active in the practice of pediatric 51224
emergency medicine and actively involved with an emergency medical 51225
service organization. The governor shall appoint this member from 51226
among three persons nominated by the Ohio chapter of the American 51227
academy of pediatrics and three persons nominated by the Ohio 51228
osteopathic association. One member shall be the administrator of 51229
an adult or pediatric trauma center. The governor shall appoint 51230
this member from among three persons nominated by the OHA: the 51231
association for hospitals and health systems, three persons 51232
nominated by the Ohio osteopathic association, three persons 51233
nominated by the association of Ohio children's hospitals, and 51234
three persons nominated by the health forum of Ohio. One member 51235
shall be the administrator of a hospital that is not a trauma 51236
centerlocated in this state. The governor shall appoint this 51237
member from among three persons nominated by OHA: the association 51238
for hospitals and health systems, three persons nominated by the 51239
Ohio osteopathic association, and three persons nominated by the 51240
association of Ohio children's hospitals, and three persons 51241
nominated by the health forum of Ohio. One member shall be a 51242
registered nurse with EMS certification who is in the active 51243
practice of emergency nursingperforms mobile intensive care or 51244
air medical transport. The governor shall appoint this member from 51245
among three persons nominated by the Ohio nurses association and 51246
three persons nominated by the Ohio state council of the emergency 51247
nurses association. One member shall be the chief of a fire 51248
department that is also an emergency medical service organization 51249
in which more than fifty per cent of the persons who provide 51250
emergency medical services are full-time paid employees. The 51251
governor shall appoint this member from among three persons 51252
nominated by the Ohio fire chiefs' association. One member shall 51253
be the chief of a fire department that is also an emergency 51254
medical service organization in which more than fifty per cent of 51255
the persons who provide emergency medical services are volunteers. 51256
The governor shall appoint this member from among three persons 51257
nominated by the Ohio fire chiefs' association. One member shall 51258
be a person who is certified to teach under section 4765.23 of the 51259
Revised Code or, if the board has not yet certified persons to 51260
teach under that section, a person who is qualified to be 51261
certified to teach under that sectionand holds a valid 51262
certificate to practice as an EMT, advanced EMT, or paramedic. The 51263
governor shall appoint this member from among three persons 51264
nominated by the Ohio emergency medical technician instructors 51265
association and the Ohio instructor/coordinators' society. One 51266
member shall be an EMT-basic, one shall be an EMT-IEMT, advanced 51267
EMT, or paramedic, and one member shall be a paramedic. The 51268
governor shall appoint these members from among three EMTs-basic, 51269
three EMTs-I,EMTs or advanced EMTs and three paramedics nominated 51270
by the Ohio association of professional fire fighters and three 51271
EMTs-basic, three EMTs-I, and three paramedics nominated by the 51272
northern Ohio fire fighters. One member shall be an EMT-basic, 51273
one shall be an EMT-IEMT, advanced EMT, or paramedic, and one 51274
member shall be a paramedic whom the. The governor shall appoint 51275
these members from among three EMTs-basic, three EMTs-I,EMTs or 51276
advanced EMTs and three paramedics nominated by the Ohio state 51277
firefighter's association. One member shall be a person whom the 51278
governor shall appoint from among an EMT-basic, an EMT-I, andEMT, 51279
an advanced EMT, or a paramedic nominated by the Ohio association 51280
of emergency medical services or the Ohio ambulance and medical 51281
transportation association. One member shall be an EMT, an 51282
advanced EMT, or a paramedic, whom the governor shall appoint from 51283
among three persons nominated by the Ohio ambulance and medical 51284
transportation association. One member shall be a paramedic, whom 51285
the governor shall appoint from among three persons nominated by 51286
the Ohio ambulance and medical transportation association. The 51287
governor shall appoint one member who is an EMT-basic, EMT-I, or 51288
paramedic affiliated with an emergency medical services 51289
organization. One member shall be a member of the Ohio ambulance 51290
association whom the governor shall appoint from among three 51291
persons nominated by the Ohio ambulance association. One member 51292
shall be a physician certified by the American board of surgery, 51293
American board of osteopathic surgery, American osteopathic board 51294
of emergency medicine, or American board of emergency medicine who 51295
is the chief medical officer of an air medical agency and is 51296
currently active in providing emergency medical services. The 51297
governor shall appoint this member from among three persons 51298
nominated by the Ohio association of air medical services.One 51299
member shall be the owner or operator of a private emergency 51300
medical service organization whom the governor shall appoint from 51301
among three persons nominated by the Ohio ambulance and medical 51302
transportation association. One member shall be a provider of 51303
mobile intensive care unit transportation in this state whom the 51304
governor shall appoint from among three persons nominated by the 51305
Ohio association of critical care transport and three persons 51306
nominated by the Ohio ambulance and transportation association. 51307
One member shall be a provider of air-medical transportation in 51308
this state whom the governor shall appoint from among three 51309
persons nominated by the Ohio association of critical care 51310
transport and three persons nominated by the Ohio ambulance and 51311
medical transportation association. One member shall be the owner 51312
or operator of a nonemergency medical service organization in this 51313
state that provides ambulette services whom the governor shall 51314
appoint from among three persons nominated by the Ohio ambulance 51315
and medical transportation association.51316

       The governor may refuse to appoint any of the persons 51317
nominated by one or more organizations under division (A)(2) of51318
this section, except the employee of the department of public 51319
safety designated by the director of public safety under this 51320
section to be a member of the board. In that event, the 51321
organization or organizations shall continue to nominate the 51322
required number of persons until the governor appoints to the 51323
board one or more of the persons nominated by the organization or 51324
organizations.51325

       The director of public safety shall designate an employee of 51326
the department of public safety to serve as a member of the board 51327
at the director's pleasure. This member shall serve as a liaison 51328
between the department and the division of emergency medical 51329
services in cooperation with the executive director of the board.51330

       Initial appointments to the board by the governor and the 51331
director of public safety shall be made within ninety days after 51332
November 12, 1992. Of the initial appointments by the governor, 51333
five shall be for terms ending one year after November 12, 1992, 51334
six shall be for terms ending two years after November 12, 1992, 51335
and six shall be for terms ending three years after November 12, 51336
1992. Within ninety days after the effective date of this 51337
amendment, the governor shall appoint the member of the board who 51338
is the chief medical officer of an air medical agency for an 51339
initial term ending November 12, 2000. Thereafter, terms51340

       (B) Terms of office of all members appointed by the governor 51341
shall be for three years, each term ending on the same day of the 51342
same month as did the term it succeeds. Each member shall hold 51343
office from the date of appointment until the end of the term for 51344
which the member was appointed. A member shall continue in office 51345
subsequent to the expiration date of the member's term until the 51346
member's successor takes office, or until a period of sixty days 51347
has elapsed, whichever occurs first.51348

       Each vacancy shall be filled in the same manner as the 51349
original appointment. A member appointed to fill a vacancy 51350
occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which the 51351
member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the 51352
remainder of the unexpired term.51353

       The term of a member shall expire if the member ceases to 51354
meet any of the requirements to be appointed as that member. The 51355
governor may remove any member from office for neglect of duty, 51356
malfeasance, misfeasance, or nonfeasance, after an adjudication 51357
hearing held in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.51358

       (C) The members of the board shall serve without compensation 51359
but shall be reimbursed for their actual and necessary expenses 51360
incurred in carrying out their duties as board members.51361

       (D) The board shall organize by annually selecting a chair 51362
and vice-chair from among its members. The board may adopt bylaws 51363
to regulate its affairs. A majority of all members of the board 51364
shall constitute a quorum. No action shall be taken without the 51365
concurrence of a majority of all members of the board. The board 51366
shall meet at least four times annually and at the call of the 51367
chair. The chair shall call a meeting on the request of the 51368
executive director or the medical director of the board or on the 51369
written request of five members. The board shall maintain written 51370
or electronic records of its meetings.51371

       (E) Upon twenty-four hours' notice from a member of the 51372
board, the member's employer shall release the member from the 51373
member's employment duties to attend meetings of the full board. 51374
Nothing in this paragraphdivision requires the employer of a 51375
member of the board to compensate the member for time the member 51376
is released from employment duties under this paragraph, but any 51377
civil immunity, workers' compensation, disability, or similar 51378
coverage that applies to a member of the board as a result of the 51379
member's employment shall continue to apply while the member is 51380
released from employment duties under this paragraph.51381

       Sec. 4765.03.  (A) The director of public safety shall 51382
appoint a full-time executive director for the state board of 51383
emergency medical and transportation services. The executive 51384
director shall be knowledgeable in emergency medical services and 51385
trauma care and shall serve at the pleasure of the director of 51386
public safety. The director of public safety shall appoint the 51387
executive director from among three persons nominated by the 51388
board. The director of public safety may refuse, for cause, to 51389
appoint any of the board's nominees. If the director fails to 51390
appoint any of the board's nominees, the board shall continue to 51391
nominate groups of three persons until the director does appoint 51392
one of the board's nominees. The executive director shall serve as 51393
the chief executive officer of the board and as the executive 51394
director of the division of emergency medical services. The 51395
executive director shall attend each meeting of the board, except 51396
the board may exclude the executive director from discussions 51397
concerning the employment or performance of the executive director 51398
or medical director of the board. The executive director shall 51399
give a surety bond to the state in such sum as the board 51400
determines, conditioned on the faithful performance of the duties 51401
of the executive director's office. The executive director shall 51402
receive a salary from the board and shall be reimbursed for actual 51403
and necessary expenses incurred in carrying out duties as 51404
executive director.51405

       The executive director shall submit a report to the director 51406
of public safety at least every three months regarding the status 51407
of emergency medical services in this state. The executive 51408
director shall meet with the director of public safety at the 51409
director's request.51410

       (B) The board shall appoint a medical director, who shall 51411
serve at the pleasure of the board. The medical director shall be 51412
a physician certified by the American board of emergency medicine 51413
or the American osteopathic board of emergency medicine who is 51414
active in the practice of emergency medicine and has been actively 51415
involved with an emergency medical service organization for at 51416
least five years prior to being appointed. The board shall 51417
consider any recommendations for this appointment from the Ohio 51418
chapter of the American college of emergency physicians, the Ohio 51419
chapter of the American college of surgeons, the Ohio chapter of 51420
the American academy of pediatrics, the Ohio osteopathic 51421
association, and the Ohio state medical association.51422

       The medical director shall direct the executive director and 51423
advise the board with regard to adult and pediatric trauma and 51424
emergency medical services issues. The medical director shall 51425
attend each meeting of the board, except the board may exclude the 51426
medical director from discussions concerning the appointment or 51427
performance of the medical director or executive director of the 51428
board. The medical director shall be employed and paid by the 51429
board and shall be reimbursed for actual and necessary expenses 51430
incurred in carrying out duties as medical director.51431

       (C) The board may appoint employees as it determines 51432
necessary. The board shall prescribe the duties and titles of its 51433
employees.51434

       Sec. 4765.04.  (A) The firefighter and fire safety inspector 51435
training committee of the state board of emergency medical, fire, 51436
and transportation services is hereby created and shall consist of 51437
the members of the board who are chiefs of fire departments, and 51438
the members of the board who are emergency medical 51439
technicians-basic, emergency medical technicians-intermediate, and 51440
emergency medical technicians-paramedic appointed from among 51441
persons nominated by the Ohio association of professional fire 51442
fighters or the northern Ohio fire fighters and from among persons 51443
nominated by the Ohio state firefighter's association. Each member 51444
of the committee, except the chairperson, may designate a person 51445
with fire experience to serve in that member's place. The members 51446
of the committee or their designees shall select a chairperson 51447
from among the members or their designees.51448

       The committee may conduct investigations in the course of 51449
discharging its duties under this chapter. In the course of an 51450
investigation, the committee may issue subpoenas. If a person 51451
subpoenaed fails to comply with the subpoena, the committee may 51452
authorize its chairperson to apply to the court of common pleas in 51453
the county where the person to be subpoenaed resides for an order 51454
compelling compliance in the same manner as compliance with a 51455
subpoena issued by the court is compelled.51456

       (B) The trauma committee of the state board of emergency 51457
medical, fire, and transportation services is hereby created and 51458
shall consist of the following members appointed by the director 51459
of public safety:51460

       (1) A physician who is certified by the American board of 51461
surgery or American osteopathic board of surgery and actively 51462
practices general trauma surgery, appointed from among three 51463
persons nominated by the Ohio chapter of the American college of 51464
surgeons, three persons nominated by the Ohio state medical 51465
association, and three persons nominated by the Ohio osteopathic 51466
association;51467

       (2) A physician who is certified by the American board of 51468
surgery or the American osteopathic board of surgery and actively 51469
practices orthopedic trauma surgery, appointed from among three 51470
persons nominated by the Ohio orthopedic society and three persons 51471
nominated by the Ohio osteopathic association;51472

       (3) A physician who is certified by the American board of 51473
neurological surgeons or the American osteopathic board of surgery 51474
and actively practices neurosurgery on trauma victims, appointed 51475
from among three persons nominated by the Ohio state neurological 51476
society and three persons nominated by the Ohio osteopathic 51477
association;51478

       (4) A physician who is certified by the American board of 51479
surgeons or American osteopathic board of surgeons and actively 51480
specializes in treating burn victims, appointed from among three 51481
persons nominated by the Ohio chapter of the American college of 51482
surgeons and three persons nominated by the Ohio osteopathic 51483
association;51484

       (5) A dentist who is certified by the American board of oral 51485
and maxillofacial surgery and actively practices oral and 51486
maxillofacial surgery, appointed from among three persons 51487
nominated by the Ohio dental association;51488

       (6) A physician who is certified by the American board of 51489
physical medicine and rehabilitation or American osteopathic board 51490
of rehabilitation medicine and actively provides rehabilitative 51491
care to trauma victims, appointed from among three persons 51492
nominated by the Ohio society of physical medicine and 51493
rehabilitation and three persons nominated by the Ohio osteopathic 51494
association;51495

       (7) A physician who is certified by the American board of 51496
surgery or American osteopathic board of surgery with special 51497
qualifications in pediatric surgery and actively practices 51498
pediatric trauma surgery, appointed from among three persons 51499
nominated by the Ohio chapter of the American academy of 51500
pediatrics and three persons nominated by the Ohio osteopathic 51501
association;51502

       (8) A physician who is certified by the American board of 51503
emergency medicine or American osteopathic board of emergency 51504
medicine, actively practices emergency medicine, and is actively 51505
involved in emergency medical services, appointed from among three 51506
persons nominated by the Ohio chapter of the American college of 51507
emergency physicians and three persons nominated by the Ohio 51508
osteopathic association;51509

       (9) A physician who is certified by the American board of 51510
pediatrics, American osteopathic board of pediatrics, or American 51511
board of emergency medicine, is sub-boarded in pediatric emergency 51512
medicine, actively practices pediatric emergency medicine, and is 51513
actively involved in emergency medical services, appointed from 51514
among three persons nominated by the Ohio chapter of the American 51515
academy of pediatrics, three persons nominated by the Ohio chapter 51516
of the American college of emergency physicians, and three persons 51517
nominated by the Ohio osteopathic association;51518

       (10) A physician who is certified by the American board of 51519
surgery, American osteopathic board of surgery, or American board 51520
of emergency medicine and is the chief medical officer of an air 51521
medical organization, appointed from among three persons nominated 51522
by the Ohio association of air medical services;51523

       (11) A coroner or medical examiner appointed from among three 51524
people nominated by the Ohio state coroners' association;51525

       (12) A registered nurse who actively practices trauma nursing 51526
at an adult or pediatric trauma center, appointed from among three 51527
persons nominated by the Ohio association of trauma nurse 51528
coordinators;51529

       (13) A registered nurse who actively practices emergency 51530
nursing and is actively involved in emergency medical services, 51531
appointed from among three persons nominated by the Ohio chapter 51532
of the emergency nurses' association;51533

       (14) The chief trauma registrar of an adult or pediatric 51534
trauma center, appointed from among three persons nominated by the 51535
alliance of Ohio trauma registrars;51536

       (15) The administrator of an adult or pediatric trauma 51537
center, appointed from among three persons nominated by OHA: the 51538
association for hospitals and health systems, three persons 51539
nominated by the Ohio osteopathic association, three persons 51540
nominated by the association of Ohio children's hospitals, and 51541
three persons nominated by the health forum of Ohio;51542

       (16) The administrator of a hospital that is not a trauma 51543
center and actively provides emergency care to adult or pediatric 51544
trauma patients, appointed from among three persons nominated by 51545
OHA: the association for hospitals and health systems, three 51546
persons nominated by the Ohio osteopathic association, three 51547
persons nominated by the association of Ohio children's hospitals, 51548
and three persons nominated by the health forum of Ohio;51549

       (17) The operator of an ambulance company that actively 51550
provides trauma care to emergency patients, appointed from among 51551
three persons nominated by the Ohio ambulance association;51552

       (18) The chief of a fire department that actively provides 51553
trauma care to emergency patients, appointed from among three 51554
persons nominated by the Ohio fire chiefs' association;51555

       (19) An EMT or paramedic who is certified under this chapter 51556
and actively provides trauma care to emergency patients, appointed 51557
from among three persons nominated by the Ohio association of 51558
professional firefighters, three persons nominated by the northern 51559
Ohio fire fighters, three persons nominated by the Ohio state 51560
firefighters' association, and three persons nominated by the Ohio 51561
association of emergency medical services;51562

       (20) A person who actively advocates for trauma victims, 51563
appointed from three persons nominated by the Ohio brain injury 51564
association and three persons nominated by the governor's council 51565
on people with disabilities;51566

       (21) A physician or nurse who has substantial administrative 51567
responsibility for trauma care provided in or by an adult or 51568
pediatric trauma center, appointed from among three persons 51569
nominated by OHA: the association for hospitals and health 51570
systems, three persons nominated by the Ohio osteopathic 51571
association, three persons nominated by the association of Ohio 51572
children's hospitals, and three persons nominated by the health 51573
forum of Ohio;51574

       (22) Three representatives of hospitals that are not trauma 51575
centers and actively provide emergency care to trauma patients, 51576
appointed from among three persons nominated by OHA: the 51577
association for hospitals and health systems, three persons 51578
nominated by the Ohio osteopathic association, three persons 51579
nominated by the association of Ohio children's hospitals, and 51580
three persons nominated by the health forum of Ohio. The 51581
representatives may be hospital administrators, physicians, 51582
nurses, or other clinical professionals.51583

       Members of the committee shall have substantial experience in 51584
the categories they represent, shall be residents of this state, 51585
and may be members of the state board of emergency medical, fire, 51586
and transportation services. In appointing members of the 51587
committee, the director shall attempt to include members 51588
representing urban and rural areas, various geographical areas of 51589
the state, and various schools of training. The director shall not 51590
appoint to the committee more than one member who is employed by 51591
or practices at the same hospital, health system, or emergency 51592
medical service organization.51593

       The director may refuse to appoint any of the persons 51594
nominated by an organization or organizations under this division. 51595
In that event, the organization or organizations shall continue to 51596
nominate the required number of persons until the director 51597
appoints to the committee one or more of the persons nominated by 51598
the organization or organizations.51599

       Initial appointments to the committee shall be made by the 51600
director not later than ninety days after November 3, 2000. 51601
Members of the committee shall serve at the pleasure of the 51602
director, except that any member of the committee who ceases to be 51603
qualified for the position to which the member was appointed shall 51604
cease to be a member of the committee. Vacancies on the committee 51605
shall be filled in the same manner as original appointments.51606

       The members of the committee shall serve without compensation 51607
but shall be reimbursed for actual and necessary expenses incurred 51608
in carrying out duties as members of the committee.51609

       The committee shall select a chairperson and vice-chairperson 51610
from among its members. A majority of all members of the committee 51611
shall constitute a quorum. No action shall be taken without the 51612
concurrence of a majority of all members of the committee. The 51613
committee shall meet at the call of the chair, upon written 51614
request of five members of the committee, and at the direction of 51615
the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation51616
services. The committee shall not meet at times or locations that 51617
conflict with meetings of the board. The executive director and 51618
medical director of the state board of emergency medical, fire, 51619
and transportation services may participate in any meeting of the 51620
committee and shall do so at the request of the committee.51621

       The committee shall advise and assist the state board of 51622
emergency medical, fire, and transportation services in matters 51623
related to adult and pediatric trauma care and the establishment 51624
and operation of the state trauma registry. In matters relating to 51625
the state trauma registry, the board and the committee shall 51626
consult with trauma registrars from adult and pediatric trauma 51627
centers in the state. The committee may appoint a subcommittee to 51628
advise and assist with the trauma registry. The subcommittee may 51629
include persons with expertise relevant to the trauma registry who 51630
are not members of the board or committee.51631

       (C) The state board of emergency medical, fire, and 51632
transportation services may appoint other committees and 51633
subcommittees as it considers necessary.51634

       (D) The state board of emergency medical, fire, and 51635
transportation services, and any of its committees or 51636
subcommittees, may request assistance from any state agency. The 51637
board and its committees and subcommittees may permit persons who 51638
are not members of those bodies to participate in deliberations of 51639
those bodies, but no person who is not a member of the board shall 51640
vote on the board and no person who is not a member of a committee 51641
created under division (A) or (B) of this section shall vote on 51642
that committee.51643

       (E) Sections 101.82 to 101.87 of the Revised Code do not 51644
apply to the committees established under division (A) or (B) of 51645
this section.51646

       Sec. 4765.05. (A) As used in this section, "prehospital 51647
emergency medical services" means an emergency medical services 51648
system that provides medical services to patients who require 51649
immediate assistance, because of illness or injury, prior to their 51650
arrival at an emergency medical facility.51651

       (B) The state board of emergency medical, fire, and 51652
transportation services shall divide the state geographically into 51653
prehospital emergency medical services regions for purposes of 51654
overseeing the delivery of adult and pediatric prehospital 51655
emergency medical services. For each prehospital emergency medical 51656
services region, the state board of emergency medical, fire, and 51657
transportation services shall appoint either a physician to serve 51658
as the regional director or a physician advisory board to serve as 51659
the regional advisory board. The state board of emergency medical, 51660
fire, and transportation services shall specify the duties of each 51661
regional director and regional advisory board. Regional directors 51662
and members of regional advisory boards shall serve without 51663
compensation, but shall be reimbursed for actual and necessary 51664
expenses incurred in carrying out duties as regional directors and 51665
members of regional advisory boards.51666

       (C) Nothing in this section shall be construed to limit in 51667
any way the ability of a hospital to determine the market area of 51668
that hospital.51669

       Sec. 4765.06.  (A) The state board of emergency medical, 51670
fire, and transportation services shall establish an emergency 51671
medical services incidence reporting system for the collection of 51672
information regarding the delivery of emergency medical services 51673
in this state and the frequency at which the services are 51674
provided. All emergency medical service organizations shall submit 51675
to the board any information that the board determines is 51676
necessary for maintaining the incidence reporting system.51677

       (B) The board shall establish a state trauma registry to be 51678
used for the collection of information regarding the care of adult 51679
and pediatric trauma victims in this state. The registry shall 51680
provide for the reporting of adult and pediatric trauma-related 51681
deaths, identification of adult and pediatric trauma patients, 51682
monitoring of adult and pediatric trauma patient care data, 51683
determination of the total amount of uncompensated adult and 51684
pediatric trauma care provided annually by each facility that 51685
provides care to trauma victims, and collection of any other 51686
information specified by the board. All persons designated by the 51687
board shall submit to the board any information it determines is 51688
necessary for maintaining the state trauma registry. At the 51689
request of the board any state agency possessing information 51690
regarding adult or pediatric trauma care shall provide the 51691
information to the board. The board shall maintain the state 51692
trauma registry in accordance with rules adopted under section 51693
4765.11 of the Revised Code.51694

       Rules relating to the state trauma registry adopted under 51695
this section and section 4765.11 of the Revised Code shall not 51696
prohibit the operation of other trauma registries and may provide 51697
for the reporting of information to the state trauma registry by 51698
or through other trauma registries in a manner consistent with 51699
information otherwise reported to the state trauma registry. Other 51700
trauma registries may report aggregate information to the state 51701
trauma registry, provided the information can be matched to the 51702
person that reported it. Information maintained by another trauma 51703
registry and reported to the state trauma registry in lieu of 51704
being reported directly to the state trauma registry is a public 51705
record and shall be maintained, made available to the public, held 51706
in confidence, risk adjusted, and not subject to discovery or 51707
introduction into evidence in a civil action as provided in 51708
section 149.43 of the Revised Code and this section. Any person 51709
who provides, maintains, or risk adjusts such information shall 51710
comply with this section and rules adopted under it in performing 51711
that function and has the same immunities with respect to that 51712
function as a person who performs that function with respect to 51713
the state trauma registry.51714

       (C) The board and any employee or contractor of the board or 51715
the department of public safety shall not make public information 51716
it receives under Chapter 4765. of the Revised Code that 51717
identifies or would tend to identify a specific recipient of 51718
emergency medical services or adult or pediatric trauma care.51719

       (D) Not later than two years after the effective date of this 51720
amendmentNovember3, 2000, the board shall adopt and implement 51721
rules under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code that provide 51722
written standards and procedures for risk adjustment of 51723
information received by the board under Chapter 4765. of the 51724
Revised Code. The rules shall be developed in consultation with 51725
appropriate medical, hospital, and emergency medical service 51726
organizations and may provide for risk adjustment by a contractor 51727
of the board. Before risk adjustment standards and procedures are 51728
implemented, no member of the board and no employee or contractor 51729
of the board or the department of public safety shall make public 51730
information received by the board under Chapter 4765. of the 51731
Revised Code that identifies or would tend to identify a specific 51732
provider of emergency medical services or adult or pediatric 51733
trauma care. After risk adjustment standards and procedures are 51734
implemented, the board shall make public such information only on 51735
a risk adjusted basis.51736

       (E) The board shall adopt rules under section 4765.11 of the 51737
Revised Code that specify procedures for ensuring the 51738
confidentiality of information that is not to be made public under 51739
this section. The rules shall specify the circumstances in which 51740
deliberations of the persons performing risk adjustment functions 51741
under this section are not open to the public and records of those 51742
deliberations are maintained in confidence. Nothing in this 51743
section prohibits the board from making public statistical 51744
information that does not identify or tend to identify a specific 51745
recipient or provider of emergency medical services or adult or 51746
pediatric trauma care.51747

       (F) No provider that furnishes information to the board with 51748
respect to any patient the provider examined or treated shall, 51749
because of this furnishing, be deemed liable in damages to any 51750
person or be held to answer for betrayal of a professional 51751
confidence in the absence of willful or wanton misconduct. No such 51752
information shall be subject to introduction in evidence in any 51753
civil action against the provider. No provider that furnishes 51754
information to the board shall be liable for the misuse or 51755
improper release of the information by the board or any other 51756
person.51757

       No person who performs risk adjustment functions under this 51758
section shall, because of performing such functions, be held 51759
liable in a civil action for betrayal of professional confidence 51760
or otherwise in the absence of willful or wanton misconduct.51761

       Sec. 4765.07.  (A) The state board of emergency medical, 51762
fire, and transportation services shall adopt rules under section 51763
4765.11 of the Revised Code to establish and administer a grant 51764
program under which grants are distributed according to the 51765
following priorities:51766

       (1) First priority shall be given to emergency medical 51767
service organizations for the training of personnel, for the 51768
purchase of equipment and vehicles, and to improve the 51769
availability, accessibility, and quality of emergency medical 51770
services in this state. In this category, the board shall give 51771
priority to grants that fund training and equipping of emergency 51772
medical service personnel.51773

       (2) Second priority shall be given to entities that research, 51774
test, and evaluate medical procedures and systems related to adult 51775
and pediatric trauma care.51776

       (3) Third priority shall be given to entities that research 51777
the causes, nature, and effects of traumatic injuries, educate the 51778
public about injury prevention, and implement, test, and evaluate 51779
injury prevention strategies.51780

        (4) Fourth priority shall be given to entities that research, 51781
test, and evaluate procedures that promote the rehabilitation, 51782
retraining, and reemployment of adult or pediatric trauma victims 51783
and social service support mechanisms for adult or pediatric 51784
trauma victims and their families.51785

        (5) Fifth priority shall be given to entities that conduct 51786
research on, test, or evaluate one or more of the following:51787

       (a) Procedures governing the performance of emergency medical 51788
services in this state;51789

       (b) The training of emergency medical service personnel;51790

       (c) The staffing of emergency medical service organizations.51791

       (6) For grants distributed for the grant award years 51792
occurring not later than the award year ending June 30, 2017, 51793
sixth priority shall be given to entities that operate paramedic 51794
training programs and are seeking national accreditation of the 51795
programs.51796

       (B) To be eligible for a grant distributed pursuant to 51797
division (A)(6) of this section, an applicant for the grant shall 51798
meet all of the following conditions:51799

       (1) Hold a certificate of accreditation issued by the board 51800
under section 4765.17 of the Revised Code to operate a paramedic 51801
training program;51802

       (2) Be seeking initial national accreditation of the program 51803
from an accrediting organization approved by the board;51804

       (3) Apply for the national accreditation on or after February 51805
25, 2010.51806

       (C) The grant program shall be funded from the trauma and 51807
emergency medical services grants fund created by section 4513.263 51808
of the Revised Code. 51809

       Sec. 4765.08.  The state board of emergency medical, fire, 51810
and transportation services shall prepare a statewide emergency 51811
medical services plan and shall revise the plan as necessary.51812

       The board shall prepare a plan for the statewide regulation 51813
of emergency medical services during periods of disaster. The plan 51814
shall be consistent with the statewide emergency medical services 51815
plan required under this section and with the statewide emergency 51816
operations plan required under section 5502.22 of the Revised 51817
Code. The board shall submit the plan to the emergency management 51818
agency created under section 5502.22 of the Revised Code. The 51819
board shall cooperate with the agency in any other manner the 51820
agency considers necessary to develop and implement the statewide 51821
emergency operations plan.51822

       Sec. 4765.09.  The state board of emergency medical, fire, 51823
and transportation services shall prepare recommendations for the 51824
operation of ambulance service organizations, air medical 51825
organizations, and emergency medical service organizations. Within 51826
thirty days following the preparation or modification of 51827
recommendations, the board shall notify the board of county 51828
commissioners of any county, the board of township trustees of any 51829
township, the board of trustees of any joint ambulance district, 51830
or the board of trustees of any joint emergency medical services 51831
district in which there exist ambulance service organizations, air 51832
medical organizations, or emergency medical service organizations 51833
of any board recommendations for the operation of such 51834
organizations. The recommendations shall include, but not be 51835
limited to:51836

       (A) The definition and classification of ambulances and 51837
medical aircraft;51838

       (B) The design, equipment, and supplies for ambulances and 51839
medical aircraft, including special equipment, supplies, training, 51840
and staffing required to assist pediatric and geriatric emergency 51841
victims;51842

       (C) The minimum number and type of personnel for the 51843
operation of ambulances and medical aircraft;51844

       (D) The communication systems necessary for the operation of 51845
ambulances and medical aircraft;51846

       (E) Reports to be made by persons holding certificates of 51847
accreditation or approval issued under section 4765.17 of the 51848
Revised Code and certificates to practice issued under section 51849
4765.30 of the Revised Code to ascertain compliance with this 51850
chapter and the rules and recommendations adopted thereunder and 51851
to ascertain the quantity and quality of ambulance service 51852
organizations, air medical organizations, and emergency medical 51853
service organizations throughout the state.51854

       Sec. 4765.10.  (A) The state board of emergency medical, 51855
fire, and transportation services shall do all of the following:51856

       (1) Administer and enforce the provisions of this chapter and 51857
the rules adopted under it;51858

       (2) Approve, in accordance with procedures established in 51859
rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code, 51860
examinations that demonstrate competence to have a certificate to 51861
practice renewed without completing a continuing education 51862
program;51863

       (3) Advise applicants for state or federal emergency medical 51864
services funds, review and comment on applications for these 51865
funds, and approve the use of all state and federal funds 51866
designated solely for emergency medical service programs unless 51867
federal law requires another state agency to approve the use of 51868
all such federal funds;51869

       (4) Serve as a statewide clearinghouse for discussion, 51870
inquiry, and complaints concerning emergency medical services;51871

       (5) Make recommendations to the general assembly on 51872
legislation to improve the delivery of emergency medical services;51873

       (6) Maintain a toll-free long distance telephone number 51874
through which it shall respond to questions about emergency 51875
medical services;51876

       (7) Work with appropriate state offices in coordinating the 51877
training of firefighters and emergency medical service personnel. 51878
Other state offices that are involved in the training of 51879
firefighters or emergency medical service personnel shall 51880
cooperate with the board and its committees and subcommittees to 51881
achieve this goal.51882

       (8) Provide a liaison to the state emergency operation center 51883
during those periods when a disaster, as defined in section 51884
5502.21 of the Revised Code, has occurred in this state and the 51885
governor has declared an emergency as defined in that section.51886

       (B) The board may do any of the following:51887

       (1) Investigate complaints concerning emergency medical 51888
services and emergency medical service organizations as it 51889
determines necessary;51890

       (2) Enter into reciprocal agreements with other states that 51891
have standards for accreditation of emergency medical services 51892
training programs and for certification of first responders, 51893
EMTs-basic, EMTs-I, paramedics, firefighters, or fire safety 51894
inspectors that are substantially similar to those established 51895
under this chapter and the rules adopted under it;51896

       (3) Establish a statewide public information system and 51897
public education programs regarding emergency medical services;51898

       (4) Establish an injury prevention program.51899

       Sec. 4765.101. (A) The state board of emergency medical, 51900
fire, and transportation services shall investigate any allegation 51901
that a person has violated this chapter or a rule adopted under 51902
it.51903

       Any person may submit to the board a written complaint 51904
regarding an alleged violation of this chapter or a rule adopted 51905
under it. In the absence of fraud or bad faith, no person 51906
submitting a complaint to the board or testifying in an 51907
adjudication hearing conducted in accordance with Chapter 119. of 51908
the Revised Code with regard to such an alleged violation shall be 51909
liable to any person in damages in a civil action as a result of 51910
submitting the complaint or providing testimony.51911

        (B) In investigating an allegation, the board may do any of 51912
the following:51913

        (1) Administer oaths;51914

        (2) Order the taking of depositions;51915

        (3) Issue subpoenas;51916

        (4) Compel the attendance of witnesses and production of 51917
books, accounts, papers, records, documents, and testimony.51918

       (C) A subpoena for patient record information shall not be 51919
issued without consultation with the attorney general's office and 51920
approval of the executive director of the board. Before issuance 51921
of a subpoena for patient record information, the executive 51922
director shall determine whether there is probable cause to 51923
believe that the complaint filed alleges a violation of this 51924
chapter or any rule adopted under it and that the records sought 51925
are relevant to the alleged violation and material to the 51926
investigation. The subpoena may apply only to records that cover a 51927
reasonable period of time surrounding the alleged violation.51928

        (D) On failure to comply with any subpoena issued by the 51929
board and after reasonable notice to the person being subpoenaed, 51930
the board may move, pursuant to the Rules of Civil Procedure, for 51931
an order compelling the production of persons or records.51932

        (E) A subpoena issued by the board may be served by a 51933
sheriff, the sheriff's deputy, or an investigator for the division 51934
of emergency medical services of the department of public safety. 51935
Service of a subpoena issued by the board may be made by 51936
delivering a copy of the subpoena to the person named in it, 51937
reading it to the person, or leaving it at the person's usual 51938
place of residence. When the person being served is an individual 51939
authorized by this chapter to practice emergency medical services, 51940
service of the subpoena may be made by certified mail, restricted 51941
delivery, return receipt requested, and the subpoena shall be 51942
deemed served on the date delivery is made or on the date that the 51943
person refuses to accept delivery.51944

       Sec. 4765.102. (A) As used in this section, "licensing 51945
agency" means any entity that has the authority pursuant to Title 51946
XLVII of the Revised Code to issue a license, and any other agency 51947
of this or another state, other than the Ohio supreme court, that 51948
has the authority to issue a license that authorizes an individual 51949
to engage in an occupation or profession. "Licensing agency" 51950
includes an administrative officer that has authority to issue a 51951
license that authorizes an individual to engage in an occupation 51952
or profession.51953

       (B) Except as provided in divisions (C) and (D) of this 51954
section and section 4765.111 of the Revised Code, all information 51955
the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation51956
services receives pursuant to an investigation, including 51957
information regarding an alleged violation of this chapter or 51958
rules adopted under it or a complaint submitted under division (A) 51959
of section 4765.101 of the Revised Code, is confidential, and is 51960
not subject to discovery in any civil action, during the course of 51961
the investigation and any adjudication proceedings that result 51962
from the investigation. Upon completion of the investigation and 51963
any resulting adjudication proceedings, the information is a 51964
matter of public record for purposes of section 149.43 of the 51965
Revised Code.51966

        (C) The board may release information otherwise made 51967
confidential by division (B) of this section to law enforcement 51968
officers or licensing agencies of this or another state that are 51969
prosecuting, adjudicating, or investigating the holder of a 51970
certificate issued under this chapter or a person who allegedly 51971
engaged in the unauthorized provision of emergency medical 51972
services.51973

        A law enforcement officer or licensing agency with 51974
information disclosed by the board under this division shall not 51975
divulge the information other than for the purpose of an 51976
adjudication by a court or licensing agency to which the subject 51977
of the adjudication is a party.51978

        (D) If an investigation conducted under section 4765.101 of 51979
the Revised Code requires a review of patient records, the 51980
investigation and proceedings related to it shall be conducted in 51981
such a manner as to protect patient confidentiality. The board 51982
shall not make public the name or any other identifying 51983
information about a patient unless proper consent is given in 51984
accordance with rules adopted by the board. If the patient is less 51985
than eighteen years of age, the board shall obtain consent from 51986
the patient's parent, guardian, or custodian.51987

       Sec. 4765.11.  (A) The state board of emergency medical, 51988
fire, and transportation services shall adopt, and may amend and 51989
rescind, rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 51990
and division (C) of this section that establish all of the 51991
following:51992

       (1) Procedures for its governance and the control of its 51993
actions and business affairs;51994

       (2) Standards for the performance of emergency medical 51995
services by first responders, emergency medical technicians-basic, 51996
emergency medical technicians-intermediate, and emergency medical 51997
technicians-paramedic;51998

       (3) Application fees for certificates of accreditation, 51999
certificates of approval, certificates to teach, and certificates 52000
to practice, which shall be deposited into the trauma and 52001
emergency medical services fund created in section 4513.263 of the 52002
Revised Code;52003

       (4) Criteria for determining when the application or renewal 52004
fee for a certificate to practice may be waived because an 52005
applicant cannot afford to pay the fee;52006

       (5) Procedures for issuance and renewal of certificates of 52007
accreditation, certificates of approval, certificates to teach, 52008
and certificates to practice, including any procedures necessary 52009
to ensure that adequate notice of renewal is provided in 52010
accordance with division (D) of section 4765.30 of the Revised 52011
Code;52012

       (6) Procedures for suspending or revoking certificates of 52013
accreditation, certificates of approval, certificates to teach, 52014
and certificates to practice;52015

       (7) Grounds for suspension or revocation of a certificate to 52016
practice issued under section 4765.30 of the Revised Code and for 52017
taking any other disciplinary action against a first responder, 52018
EMT-basic, EMT-I, or paramedic;52019

       (8) Procedures for taking disciplinary action against a first 52020
responder, EMT-basic, EMT-I, or paramedic;52021

       (9) Standards for certificates of accreditation and 52022
certificates of approval;52023

       (10) Qualifications for certificates to teach;52024

       (11) Requirements for a certificate to practice;52025

       (12) The curricula, number of hours of instruction and 52026
training, and instructional materials to be used in adult and 52027
pediatric emergency medical services training programs and adult 52028
and pediatric emergency medical services continuing education 52029
programs;52030

       (13) Procedures for conducting courses in recognizing 52031
symptoms of life-threatening allergic reactions and in calculating 52032
proper dosage levels and administering injections of epinephrine 52033
to adult and pediatric patients who suffer life-threatening 52034
allergic reactions;52035

       (14) Examinations for certificates to practice;52036

       (15) Procedures for administering examinations for 52037
certificates to practice;52038

       (16) Procedures for approving examinations that demonstrate 52039
competence to have a certificate to practice renewed without 52040
completing an emergency medical services continuing education 52041
program;52042

       (17) Procedures for granting extensions and exemptions of 52043
emergency medical services continuing education requirements;52044

       (18) Procedures for approving the additional emergency 52045
medical services first responders are authorized by division (C) 52046
of section 4765.35 of the Revised Code to perform, EMTs-basic are 52047
authorized by division (C) of section 4765.37 of the Revised Code 52048
to perform, EMTs-I are authorized by division (B)(5) of section 52049
4765.38 of the Revised Code to perform, and paramedics are 52050
authorized by division (B)(6) of section 4765.39 of the Revised 52051
Code to perform;52052

       (19) Standards and procedures for implementing the 52053
requirements of section 4765.06 of the Revised Code, including 52054
designations of the persons who are required to report information 52055
to the board and the types of information to be reported;52056

       (20) Procedures for administering the emergency medical 52057
services grant program established under section 4765.07 of the 52058
Revised Code;52059

       (21) Procedures consistent with Chapter 119. of the Revised 52060
Code for appealing decisions of the board;52061

       (22) Minimum qualifications and peer review and quality 52062
improvement requirements for persons who provide medical direction 52063
to emergency medical service personnel;52064

       (23) The manner in which a patient, or a patient's parent, 52065
guardian, or custodian may consent to the board releasing 52066
identifying information about the patient under division (D) of 52067
section 4765.102 of the Revised Code;52068

       (24) Circumstances under which a training program or 52069
continuing education program, or portion of either type of 52070
program, may be taught by a person who does not hold a certificate 52071
to teach issued under section 4765.23 of the Revised Code;52072

       (25) Certification cycles for certificates issued under 52073
sections 4765.23 and 4765.30 of the Revised Code and certificates 52074
issued by the executive director of the state board of emergency 52075
medical, fire, and transportation services under section 4765.55 52076
of the Revised Code that establish a common expiration date for 52077
all certificates.52078

       (B) The board may adopt, and may amend and rescind, rules in 52079
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and division (C) 52080
of this section that establish the following:52081

       (1) Specifications of information that may be collected under 52082
the trauma system registry and incidence reporting system created 52083
under section 4765.06 of the Revised Code;52084

       (2) Standards and procedures for implementing any of the 52085
recommendations made by any committees of the board or under 52086
section 4765.04 of the Revised Code;52087

       (3) Requirements that a person must meet to receive a 52088
certificate to practice as a first responder pursuant to division 52089
(A)(2) of section 4765.30 of the Revised Code;52090

       (4) Any other rules necessary to implement this chapter.52091

       (C) In developing and administering rules adopted under this 52092
chapter, the state board of emergency medical, fire, and 52093
transportation services shall consult with regional directors and 52094
regional physician advisory boards created by section 4765.05 of 52095
the Revised Code and emphasize the special needs of pediatric and 52096
geriatric patients.52097

       (D) Except as otherwise provided in this division, before 52098
adopting, amending, or rescinding any rule under this chapter, the 52099
board shall submit the proposed rule to the director of public 52100
safety for review. The director may review the proposed rule for 52101
not more than sixty days after the date it is submitted. If, 52102
within this sixty-day period, the director approves the proposed 52103
rule or does not notify the board that the rule is disapproved, 52104
the board may adopt, amend, or rescind the rule as proposed. If, 52105
within this sixty-day period, the director notifies the board that 52106
the proposed rule is disapproved, the board shall not adopt, 52107
amend, or rescind the rule as proposed unless at least twelve 52108
members of the board vote to adopt, amend, or rescind it.52109

       This division does not apply to an emergency rule adopted in 52110
accordance with section 119.03 of the Revised Code.52111

       Sec. 4765.111. Except as provided in this section or sections 52112
4765.112 to 4765.116 of the Revised Code, the state board of 52113
emergency medical, fire, and transportation services shall conduct 52114
disciplinary proceedings regarding the holder of a certificate 52115
issued under this chapter in accordance with rules adopted by the 52116
board under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code.52117

       The board and a holder of a certificate are the parties to a 52118
hearing conducted under this chapter. Either party may submit a 52119
written request to the other party for a list of witnesses and 52120
copies of documents intended to be introduced at the hearing. The 52121
request shall be in writing and shall be served not less than 52122
thirty-seven days prior to the commencement of the hearing, unless 52123
the hearing officer or presiding board member grants an extension 52124
of time to make the request. Not later than thirty days before the 52125
hearing, the responding party shall provide the requested list of 52126
witnesses and copies of documents to the requesting party, unless 52127
the hearing officer or presiding board member grants an extension 52128
of time to provide the list and copies.52129

        Failure to timely provide a list or copies requested in 52130
accordance with this section shall result in exclusion from the 52131
hearing of the witnesses, testimony, or documents.52132

       Sec. 4765.112.  (A) The state board of emergency medical, 52133
fire, and transportation services, by an affirmative vote of the 52134
majority of its members, may suspend without a prior hearing a 52135
certificate to practice issued under this chapter if the board 52136
determines that there is clear and convincing evidence that 52137
continued practice by the certificate holder presents a danger of 52138
immediate and serious harm to the public and that the certificate 52139
holder has done any of the following:52140

       (1) Furnished false, fraudulent, or misleading information to 52141
the board; 52142

       (2) Engaged in activities that exceed those permitted by the 52143
individual's certificate;52144

        (3) In a court of this or any other state or federal court 52145
been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been the subject of a 52146
judicial finding of guilt of, a judicial finding of guilt 52147
resulting from a plea of no contest to, or a judicial finding of 52148
eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction for, a felony 52149
or for a misdemeanor committed in the course of practice or 52150
involving gross immorality or moral turpitude.52151

       (B) Immediately following the decision to impose a summary 52152
suspension, the board, in accordance with section 119.07 of the 52153
Revised Code, shall issue a written order of suspension, cause it 52154
to be delivered to the certificate holder, and notify the 52155
certificate holder of the opportunity for a hearing. If timely 52156
requested by the certificate holder, a hearing shall be conducted 52157
in accordance with section 4765.115 of the Revised Code. 52158

       Sec. 4765.113.  If the state board of emergency medical, 52159
fire, and transportation services imposes a suspension on the 52160
basis of a conviction, judicial finding, or plea as described in 52161
division (A)(3) of section 4765.112 of the Revised Code that is 52162
overturned on appeal, the certificate holder, on exhaustion of the 52163
criminal appeal process, may file with the board a petition for 52164
reconsideration of the suspension along with appropriate court 52165
documents. On receipt of the petition and documents, the board 52166
shall reinstate the certificate holder's certificate to practice.52167

       Sec. 4765.114.  (A) A certificate to practice emergency 52168
medical services issued under this chapter is automatically 52169
suspended on the certificate holder's conviction of, plea of 52170
guilty to, or judicial finding of guilt of any of the following: 52171
aggravated murder, murder, voluntary manslaughter, felonious 52172
assault, kidnapping, rape, sexual battery, gross sexual 52173
imposition, aggravated arson, aggravated burglary, aggravated 52174
robbery, or a substantially equivalent offense committed in this 52175
or another jurisdiction. Continued practice after the suspension 52176
is practicing without a certificate. 52177

       (B) If the state board of emergency medical, fire, and 52178
transportation services has knowledge that an automatic suspension 52179
has occurred, it shall notify, in accordance with section 119.07 52180
of the Revised Code, the certificate holder of the suspension and 52181
of the opportunity for a hearing. If timely requested by the 52182
certificate holder, a hearing shall be conducted in accordance 52183
with section 4765.115 of the Revised Code. 52184

       Sec. 4765.115.  (A) A suspension order issued under section 52185
4765.112 or automatic suspension under section 4765.114 of the 52186
Revised Code is not subject to suspension by a court prior to a 52187
hearing under this section or during the pendency of any appeal 52188
filed under section 119.12 of the Revised Code. 52189

       (B) A suspension order issued under section 4765.112 or 52190
automatic suspension under section 4765.114 of the Revised Code 52191
remains in effect, unless reversed by the state board of emergency 52192
medical, fire, and transportation services, until a final 52193
adjudication order issued by the board pursuant to this section 52194
becomes effective.52195

       (C) Hearings requested pursuant to section 4765.112 or 52196
4765.114 of the Revised Code shall be conducted under this section 52197
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. 52198

       (D) A hearing under this section shall be held not later than 52199
forty-five days but not earlier than forty days after the 52200
certificate holder requests it, unless another date is agreed to 52201
by the certificate holder and the board. 52202

       (E) After completion of an adjudication hearing, the board 52203
may adopt, by an affirmative vote of the majority of its members, 52204
a final adjudication order that imposes any of the following 52205
sanctions:52206

       (1) Suspension of the holder's certificate to practice;52207

       (2) Revocation of the holder's certificate to practice;52208

       (3) Issuance of a written reprimand;52209

       (4) A refusal to renew or a limitation on the holder's 52210
certificate to practice.52211

       The board shall issue its final adjudication order not later 52212
than forty-five days after completion of an adjudication hearing. 52213
If the board does not issue a final order within that time period, 52214
the suspension order is void, but any final adjudication order 52215
subsequently issued is not affected.52216

       (F) Any action taken by the board under this section 52217
resulting in a suspension from practice shall be accompanied by a 52218
written statement of the conditions under which the certificate to 52219
practice may be reinstated. Reinstatement of a certificate 52220
suspended under this section requires an affirmative vote by the 52221
majority of the members of the board. 52222

       (G) When the board revokes or refuses to reinstate a 52223
certificate to practice, the board may specify that its action is 52224
permanent. An individual subject to permanent action taken by the 52225
board is forever ineligible to hold a certificate of the type 52226
revoked or refused, and the board shall not accept from the 52227
individual an application for reinstatement of the certificate or 52228
for a new certificate.52229

       Sec. 4765.116.  If a certificate holder subject to a 52230
suspension order issued by the state board of emergency medical, 52231
fire, and transportation services under section 4765.112 or an 52232
automatic suspension order under section 4765.114 of the Revised 52233
Code fails to make a timely request for a hearing, the following 52234
apply:52235

       (A) In the case of a certificate holder subject to a summary 52236
suspension order, the board is not required to hold a hearing, but 52237
may adopt, by an affirmative vote of a majority of its members, a 52238
final order that contains the board's findings. In the final 52239
order, the board may order any of the sanctions listed in division 52240
(E) of section 4765.115 of the Revised Code. 52241

       (B) In the case of a certificate holder subject to an 52242
automatic suspension order, the board may adopt, by an affirmative 52243
vote of a majority of its members, a final order that permanently 52244
revokes the holder's certificate to practice.52245

       Sec. 4765.12.  (A) Not later than two years after the 52246
effective date of this sectionNovember 3, 2000, the state board 52247
of emergency medical and transportation services shall develop and 52248
distribute guidelines for the care of trauma victims by emergency 52249
medical service personnel and for the conduct of peer review and 52250
quality assurance programs by emergency medical service 52251
organizations. The guidelines shall be consistent with the state 52252
trauma triage protocols adopted in rules under sections 4765.11 52253
and 4765.40 of the Revised Code and shall place emphasis on the 52254
special needs of pediatric and geriatric trauma victims. In 52255
developing the guidelines, the board shall consult with entities 52256
with interests in trauma and emergency medical services and shall 52257
consider any relevant guidelines adopted by national 52258
organizations, including the American college of surgeons, 52259
American college of emergency physicians, and American academy of 52260
pediatrics. The board shall distribute the guidelines, and 52261
amendments to the guidelines, to each emergency medical service 52262
organization, regional director, regional physician advisory 52263
board, certified emergency medical service instructor, and person 52264
who regularly provides medical direction to emergency medical 52265
service personnel in this state.52266

       (B) Not later than three years after the effective date of 52267
this sectionNovember 3, 2000, each emergency medical service 52268
organization in this state shall implement ongoing peer review and 52269
quality assurance programs designed to improve the availability 52270
and quality of the emergency medical services it provides. The 52271
form and content of the programs shall be determined by each 52272
emergency medical service organization. In implementing the 52273
programs, each emergency medical service organization shall 52274
consider how to improve its ability to provide effective trauma 52275
care, particularly for pediatric and geriatric trauma victims, and 52276
shall take into account the trauma care guidelines developed by 52277
the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation52278
services under this section.52279

       Information generated solely for use in a peer review or 52280
quality assurance program conducted on behalf of an emergency 52281
medical service organization is not a public record under section 52282
149.43 of the Revised Code. Such information, and any discussion 52283
conducted in the course of a peer review or quality assurance 52284
program conducted on behalf of an emergency medical service 52285
organization, is not subject to discovery in a civil action and 52286
shall not be introduced into evidence in a civil action against 52287
the emergency medical service organization on whose behalf the 52288
information was generated or the discussion occurred.52289

       No emergency medical service organization on whose behalf a 52290
peer review or quality assurance program is conducted, and no 52291
person who conducts such a program, because of performing such 52292
functions, shall be liable in a civil action for betrayal of 52293
professional confidence or otherwise in the absence of willful or 52294
wanton misconduct.52295

       Sec. 4765.15.  A person seeking to operate an emergency 52296
medical services training program shall submit a completed 52297
application for accreditation to the state board of emergency 52298
medical, fire, and transportation services on a form the board 52299
shall prescribe and furnish. The application shall be accompanied 52300
by the appropriate application fee established in rules adopted 52301
under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code.52302

       A person seeking to operate an emergency medical services 52303
continuing education program shall submit a completed application 52304
for approval to the board on a form the board shall prescribe and 52305
furnish. The application shall be accompanied by the appropriate 52306
application fee established in rules adopted under section 4765.11 52307
of the Revised Code.52308

       The board shall administer the accreditation and approval 52309
processes pursuant to rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the 52310
Revised Code. In administering these processes, the board may 52311
authorize other persons to evaluate applications for accreditation 52312
or approval and may accept the recommendations made by those 52313
persons.52314

       The board may cause an investigation to be made into the 52315
accuracy of the information submitted in any application for 52316
accreditation or approval. If an investigation indicates that 52317
false, misleading, or incomplete information has been submitted to 52318
the board in connection with any application for accreditation or 52319
approval, the board shall conduct a hearing on the matter in 52320
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.52321

       Sec. 4765.16.  (A) All courses offered through an emergency 52322
medical services training program or an emergency medical services 52323
continuing education program, other than ambulance driving, shall 52324
be developed under the direction of a physician who specializes in 52325
emergency medicine. Each course that deals with trauma care shall 52326
be developed in consultation with a physician who specializes in 52327
trauma surgery. Except as specified by the state board of 52328
emergency medical, fire, and transportation services pursuant to 52329
rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code, each 52330
course offered through a training program or continuing education 52331
program shall be taught by a person who holds the appropriate 52332
certificate to teach issued under section 4765.23 of the Revised 52333
Code.52334

       (B) A training program for first responders shall meet the 52335
standards established in rules adopted by the board under section 52336
4765.11 of the Revised Code. The program shall include courses in 52337
both of the following areas for at least the number of hours 52338
established by the board's rules:52339

       (1) Emergency victim care;52340

       (2) Reading and interpreting a trauma victim's vital signs.52341

       (C) A training program for emergency medical 52342
technicians-basic shall meet the standards established in rules 52343
adopted by the board under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code. 52344
The program shall include courses in each of the following areas 52345
for at least the number of hours established by the board's rules:52346

       (1) Emergency victim care;52347

       (2) Reading and interpreting a trauma victim's vital signs;52348

       (3) Triage protocols for adult and pediatric trauma victims;52349

       (4) In-hospital training;52350

       (5) Clinical training;52351

       (6) Training as an ambulance driver.52352

       Each operator of a training program for emergency medical 52353
technicians-basic shall allow any pupil in the twelfth grade in a 52354
secondary school who is at least seventeen years old and who 52355
otherwise meets the requirements for admission into such a 52356
training program to be admitted to and complete the program and, 52357
as part of the training, to ride in an ambulance with emergency 52358
medical technicians-basic, emergency medical 52359
technicians-intermediate, and emergency medical 52360
technicians-paramedic. Each emergency medical service organization 52361
shall allow pupils participating in training programs to ride in 52362
an ambulance with emergency medical technicians-basic, advanced 52363
emergency medical technicians-intermediate, and emergency medical 52364
technicians-paramedic.52365

       (D) A training program for emergency medical 52366
technicians-intermediate shall meet the standards established in 52367
rules adopted by the board under section 4765.11 of the Revised 52368
Code. The program shall include, or require as a prerequisite, the 52369
training specified in division (C) of this section and courses in 52370
each of the following areas for at least the number of hours 52371
established by the board's rules:52372

       (1) Recognizing symptoms of life-threatening allergic 52373
reactions and in calculating proper dosage levels and 52374
administering injections of epinephrine to persons who suffer 52375
life-threatening allergic reactions, conducted in accordance with 52376
rules adopted by the board under section 4765.11 of the Revised 52377
Code;52378

       (2) Venous access procedures;52379

       (3) Cardiac monitoring and electrical interventions to 52380
support or correct the cardiac function.52381

       (E) A training program for emergency medical 52382
technicians-paramedic shall meet the standards established in 52383
rules adopted by the board under section 4765.11 of the Revised 52384
Code. The program shall include, or require as a prerequisite, the 52385
training specified in divisions (C) and (D) of this section and 52386
courses in each of the following areas for at least the number of 52387
hours established by the board's rules:52388

       (1) Medical terminology;52389

       (2) Venous access procedures;52390

       (3) Airway procedures;52391

       (4) Patient assessment and triage;52392

       (5) Acute cardiac care, including administration of 52393
parenteral injections, electrical interventions, and other 52394
emergency medical services;52395

       (6) Emergency and trauma victim care beyond that required 52396
under division (C) of this section;52397

       (7) Clinical training beyond that required under division (C) 52398
of this section.52399

       (F) A continuing education program for first responders, 52400
EMTs-basic, EMTs-I, or paramedics shall meet the standards 52401
established in rules adopted by the board under section 4765.11 of 52402
the Revised Code. A continuing education program shall include 52403
instruction and training in subjects established by the board's 52404
rules for at least the number of hours established by the board's 52405
rules.52406

       Sec. 4765.17.  (A) The state board of emergency medical, 52407
fire, and transportation services shall issue the appropriate 52408
certificate of accreditation or certificate of approval to an 52409
applicant who is of good reputation and meets the requirements of 52410
section 4765.16 of the Revised Code. The board shall grant or deny 52411
a certificate of accreditation or certificate of approval within 52412
one hundred twenty days of receipt of the application. The board 52413
may issue or renew a certificate of accreditation or certificate 52414
of approval on a provisional basis to an applicant who is of good 52415
reputation and is in substantial compliance with the requirements 52416
of section 4765.16 of the Revised Code. The board shall inform an 52417
applicant receiving such a certificate of the conditions that must 52418
be met to complete compliance with section 4765.16 of the Revised 52419
Code.52420

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, a 52421
certificate of accreditation or certificate of approval is valid 52422
for up to five years and may be renewed by the board pursuant to 52423
procedures and standards established in rules adopted under 52424
section 4765.11 of the Revised Code. An application for renewal 52425
shall be accompanied by the appropriate renewal fee established in 52426
rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code.52427

       (C) A certificate of accreditation or certificate of approval 52428
issued on a provisional basis is valid for the length of time 52429
established by the board. If the board finds that the holder of 52430
such a certificate has met the conditions it specifies under 52431
division (A) of this section, the board shall issue the 52432
appropriate certificate of accreditation or certificate of 52433
approval.52434

       (D) A certificate of accreditation is valid only for the 52435
emergency medical services training program or programs for which 52436
it is issued. The holder of a certificate of accreditation may 52437
apply to operate additional training programs in accordance with 52438
rules adopted by the board under section 4765.11 of the Revised 52439
Code. Any additional training programs shall expire on the 52440
expiration date of the applicant's current certificate. A 52441
certificate of approval is valid only for the emergency medical 52442
services continuing education program for which it is issued. 52443
Neither is transferable.52444

       (E) The holder of a certificate of accreditation or a 52445
certificate of approval may offer courses at more than one 52446
location in accordance with rules adopted under section 4765.11 of 52447
the Revised Code.52448

       Sec. 4765.18.  The state board of emergency medical, fire, 52449
and transportation services may suspend or revoke a certificate of 52450
accreditation or a certificate of approval issued under section 52451
4765.17 of the Revised Code for any of the following reasons:52452

       (A) Violation of this chapter or any rule adopted under it;52453

       (B) Furnishing of false, misleading, or incomplete 52454
information to the board;52455

       (C) The signing of an application or the holding of a 52456
certificate of accreditation by a person who has pleaded guilty to 52457
or has been convicted of a felony, or has pleaded guilty to or 52458
been convicted of a crime involving moral turpitude;52459

       (D) The signing of an application or the holding of a 52460
certificate of accreditation by a person who is addicted to the 52461
use of any controlled substance or has been adjudicated 52462
incompetent for that purpose by a court, as provided in section 52463
5122.301 of the Revised Code;52464

       (E) Violation of any commitment made in an application for a 52465
certificate of accreditation or certificate of approval;52466

       (F) Presentation to prospective students of misleading, 52467
false, or fraudulent information relating to the emergency medical 52468
services training program or emergency medical services continuing 52469
education program, employment opportunities, or opportunities for 52470
enrollment in accredited institutions of higher education after 52471
entering or completing courses offered by the operator of a 52472
program;52473

       (G) Failure to maintain in a safe and sanitary condition 52474
premises and equipment used in conducting courses of study;52475

       (H) Failure to maintain financial resources adequate for the 52476
satisfactory conduct of courses of study or to retain a sufficient 52477
number of certified instructors;52478

       (I) Discrimination in the acceptance of students upon the 52479
basis of race, color, religion, sex, or national origin.52480

       Sec. 4765.22. A person seeking a certificate to teach in an 52481
emergency medical services training program or an emergency 52482
medical services continuing education program shall submit a 52483
completed application for certification to the state board of 52484
emergency medical, fire, and transportation services on a form the 52485
board shall prescribe and furnish. The application shall be 52486
accompanied by the appropriate application fee established in 52487
rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code.52488

       Sec. 4765.23.  The state board of emergency medical, fire, 52489
and transportation services shall issue a certificate to teach in 52490
an emergency medical services training program or an emergency 52491
medical services continuing education program to any applicant who 52492
it determines meets the qualifications established in rules 52493
adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code. The certificate 52494
shall indicate each type of instruction and training the 52495
certificate holder may teach under the certificate.52496

       A certificate to teach shall have a certification cycle 52497
established by the board and may be renewed by the board pursuant 52498
to rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code. An 52499
application for renewal shall be accompanied by the appropriate 52500
renewal fee established in rules adopted under section 4765.11 of 52501
the Revised Code.52502

       The board may suspend or revoke a certificate to teach 52503
pursuant to rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised 52504
Code.52505

       Sec. 4765.28.  A person seeking a certificate to practice as 52506
a first responder, emergency medical technician-basic, emergency 52507
medical technician-intermediate, or emergency medical 52508
technician-paramedic shall submit a completed application for 52509
certification to the state board of emergency medical, fire, and 52510
transportation services on a form the board shall prescribe and 52511
furnish. Except as provided in division (B) of section 4765.29 of 52512
the Revised Code, the application shall include evidence that the 52513
applicant received the appropriate certificate of completion 52514
pursuant to section 4765.24 of the Revised Code. The application 52515
shall be accompanied by the appropriate application fee 52516
established in rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised 52517
Code, unless the board waives the fee on determining pursuant to 52518
those rules that the applicant cannot afford to pay the fee.52519

       Sec. 4765.29.  (A) The state board of emergency medical, 52520
fire, and transportation services shall provide for the 52521
examination of applicants for certification to practice as first 52522
responders, emergency medical technicians-basic, emergency medical 52523
technicians-intermediate, and emergency medical 52524
technicians-paramedic. The examinations shall be established by 52525
the board in rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised 52526
Code. The board may administer the examinations or contract with 52527
other persons to administer the examinations. In either case, the 52528
examinations shall be administered pursuant to procedures 52529
established in rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised 52530
Code and shall be offered at various locations in the state 52531
selected by the board.52532

       Except as provided in division (B) of this section, an 52533
applicant shall not be permitted to take an examination for the 52534
same certificate to practice more than three times since last 52535
receiving the certificate of completion pursuant to section 52536
4765.24 of the Revised Code that qualifies the applicant to take 52537
the examination unless the applicant receives another certificate 52538
of completion that qualifies the applicant to take the 52539
examination.52540

       (B) On request of an applicant who fails three examinations 52541
for the same certificate to practice, the board may direct the 52542
applicant to complete a specific portion of an accredited 52543
emergency medical services training program. If the applicant 52544
provides satisfactory proof to the board that the applicant has 52545
successfully completed that portion of the program, the applicant 52546
shall be permitted to take the examination.52547

       Sec. 4765.30.  (A)(1) The state board of emergency medical, 52548
fire, and transportation services shall issue a certificate to 52549
practice as a first responder to an applicant who meets all of the 52550
following conditions:52551

       (a) Except as provided in division (A)(2) of this section, is 52552
a volunteer for a nonprofit emergency medical service organization 52553
or a nonprofit fire department;52554

       (b) Holds the appropriate certificate of completion issued in 52555
accordance with section 4765.24 of the Revised Code;52556

       (c) Passes the appropriate examination conducted under 52557
section 4765.29 of the Revised Code;52558

       (d) Is not in violation of any provision of this chapter or 52559
the rules adopted under it;52560

       (e) Meets any other certification requirements established in 52561
rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code.52562

       (2) The board may waive the requirement to be a volunteer for 52563
a nonprofit entity if the applicant meets other requirements 52564
established in rules adopted under division (B)(3) of section 52565
4765.11 of the Revised Code relative to a person's eligibility to 52566
practice as a first responder.52567

       (B) The state board of emergency medical, fire, and 52568
transportation services shall issue a certificate to practice as 52569
an emergency medical technician-basic to an applicant who meets 52570
all of the following conditions:52571

       (1) Holds a certificate of completion in emergency medical 52572
services training-basic issued in accordance with section 4765.24 52573
of the Revised Code;52574

       (2) Passes the examination for emergency medical 52575
technicians-basic conducted under section 4765.29 of the Revised 52576
Code;52577

       (3) Is not in violation of any provision of this chapter or 52578
the rules adopted under it;52579

       (4) Meets any other certification requirements established in 52580
rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code.52581

       (C) The state board of emergency medical, fire, and 52582
transportation services shall issue a certificate to practice as 52583
an emergency medical technician-intermediate or emergency medical 52584
technician-paramedic to an applicant who meets all of the 52585
following conditions:52586

       (1) Holds a certificate to practice as an emergency medical 52587
technician-basic;52588

       (2) Holds the appropriate certificate of completion issued in 52589
accordance with section 4765.24 of the Revised Code;52590

       (3) Passes the appropriate examination conducted under 52591
section 4765.29 of the Revised Code;52592

       (4) Is not in violation of any provision of this chapter or 52593
the rules adopted under it;52594

       (5) Meets any other certification requirements established in 52595
rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code.52596

       (D) A certificate to practice shall have a certification 52597
cycle established by the board and may be renewed by the board 52598
pursuant to rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised 52599
Code. Not later than sixty days prior to the expiration date of an 52600
individual's certificate to practice, the board shall notify the 52601
individual of the scheduled expiration.52602

       An application for renewal shall be accompanied by the 52603
appropriate renewal fee established in rules adopted under section 52604
4765.11 of the Revised Code, unless the board waives the fee on 52605
determining pursuant to those rules that the applicant cannot 52606
afford to pay the fee. Except as provided in division (B) of 52607
section 4765.31 of the Revised Code, the application shall include 52608
evidence of either of the following:52609

       (1) That the applicant received a certificate of completion 52610
from the appropriate emergency medical services continuing 52611
education program pursuant to section 4765.24 of the Revised Code;52612

       (2) That the applicant has successfully passed an examination 52613
that demonstrates the competence to have a certificate renewed 52614
without completing an emergency medical services continuing 52615
education program. The board shall approve such examinations in 52616
accordance with rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised 52617
Code.52618

       (E) The board shall not require an applicant for renewal of a 52619
certificate to practice to take an examination as a condition of 52620
renewing the certificate. This division does not preclude the use 52621
of examinations by operators of approved emergency medical 52622
services continuing education programs as a condition for issuance 52623
of a certificate of completion in emergency medical services 52624
continuing education.52625

       Sec. 4765.31.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this 52626
section, a first responder, emergency medical technician-basic, 52627
emergency medical technician-intermediate, and emergency medical 52628
technician-paramedic shall complete an emergency medical services 52629
continuing education program or pass an examination approved by 52630
the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation52631
services under division (A) of section 4765.10 of the Revised Code 52632
prior to the expiration of the individual's certificate to 52633
practice. Completion of the continuing education requirements for 52634
EMTs-I or paramedics satisfies the continuing education 52635
requirements for renewing the certificate to practice as an 52636
EMT-basic held by an EMT-I or paramedic.52637

       (B)(1) An applicant for renewal of a certificate to practice 52638
may apply to the board, in writing, for an extension to complete 52639
the continuing education requirements established under division 52640
(A) of this section. The board may grant such an extension and 52641
determine the length of the extension. The board may authorize the 52642
applicant to continue to practice during the extension as if the 52643
certificate to practice had not expired.52644

       (2) An applicant for renewal of a certificate to practice may 52645
apply to the board, in writing, for an exemption from the 52646
continuing education requirements established under division (A) 52647
of this section. The board may exempt an individual or a group of 52648
individuals from all or any part of the continuing education 52649
requirements due to active military service, unusual circumstance, 52650
emergency, special hardship, or any other cause considered 52651
reasonable by the board.52652

       (C) Decisions of whether to grant an extension or exemption 52653
under division (B) of this section shall be made by the board 52654
pursuant to procedures established in rules adopted under section 52655
4765.11 of the Revised Code.52656

       Sec. 4765.32.  A current, valid certificate of accreditation 52657
issued under the provisions of former section 3303.11 or 3303.23 52658
of the Revised Code shall remain valid until one year after the 52659
expiration date of the certificate as determined by the provisions 52660
of those sections and shall confer the same privileges and impose 52661
the same responsibilities and requirements as a certificate of 52662
accreditation issued by the state board of emergency medical, 52663
fire, and transportation services under section 4765.17 of the 52664
Revised Code.52665

       A certificate to practice as an emergency medical 52666
technician-ambulance that is valid on November 24, 1995, shall be 52667
considered a certificate to practice as an emergency medical 52668
technician-basic. A certificate to practice as an advanced 52669
emergency medical technician-ambulance that is valid on November 52670
24, 1995, shall be considered a certificate to practice as an 52671
emergency medical technician-intermediate.52672

       Sec. 4765.33.  The state board of emergency medical, fire, 52673
and transportation services may suspend or revoke certificates to 52674
practice issued under section 4765.30 of the Revised Code, and may 52675
take other disciplinary action against first responders, emergency 52676
medical technicians-basic, emergency medical 52677
technicians-intermediate, and emergency medical 52678
technicians-paramedic pursuant to rules adopted under section 52679
4765.11 of the Revised Code.52680

       Sec. 4765.37.  (A) An emergency medical technician-basic 52681
shall perform the emergency medical services described in this 52682
section in accordance with this chapter and any rules adopted 52683
under it by the state board of emergency medical, fire, and 52684
transportation services.52685

       (B) An emergency medical technician-basic may operate, or be 52686
responsible for operation of, an ambulance and may provide 52687
emergency medical services to patients. In an emergency, an 52688
EMT-basic may determine the nature and extent of illness or injury 52689
and establish priority for required emergency medical services. An 52690
EMT-basic may render emergency medical services such as opening 52691
and maintaining an airway, giving positive pressure ventilation, 52692
cardiac resuscitation, electrical interventions with automated 52693
defibrillators to support or correct the cardiac function and 52694
other methods determined by the board, controlling of hemorrhage, 52695
treatment of shock, immobilization of fractures, bandaging, 52696
assisting in childbirth, management of mentally disturbed 52697
patients, initial care of poison and burn patients, and 52698
determining triage of adult and pediatric trauma victims. Where 52699
patients must in an emergency be extricated from entrapment, an 52700
EMT-basic may assess the extent of injury and render all possible 52701
emergency medical services and protection to the entrapped 52702
patient; provide light rescue services if an ambulance has not 52703
been accompanied by a specialized unit; and after extrication, 52704
provide additional care in sorting of the injured in accordance 52705
with standard emergency procedures.52706

       (C) An EMT-basic may perform any other emergency medical 52707
services approved pursuant to rules adopted under section 4765.11 52708
of the Revised Code. The board shall determine whether the nature 52709
of any such service requires that an EMT-basic receive 52710
authorization prior to performing the service.52711

       (D)(1) Except as provided in division (D)(2) of this section, 52712
if the board determines under division (C) of this section that a 52713
service requires prior authorization, the service shall be 52714
performed only pursuant to the written or verbal authorization of 52715
a physician or of the cooperating physician advisory board, or 52716
pursuant to an authorization transmitted through a direct 52717
communication device by a physician or registered nurse designated 52718
by a physician.52719

       (2) If communications fail during an emergency situation or 52720
the required response time prohibits communication, an EMT-basic 52721
may perform services subject to this division, if, in the judgment 52722
of the EMT-basic, the life of the patient is in immediate danger. 52723
Services performed under these circumstances shall be performed in 52724
accordance with the protocols for triage of adult and pediatric 52725
trauma victims established in rules adopted under sections 4765.11 52726
and 4765.40 of the Revised Code and any applicable protocols 52727
adopted by the emergency medical service organization with which 52728
the EMT-basic is affiliated.52729

       Sec. 4765.38.  (A) An emergency medical 52730
technician-intermediate shall perform the emergency medical 52731
services described in this section in accordance with this chapter 52732
and any rules adopted under it.52733

       (B) An EMT-I may do any of the following:52734

       (1) Establish and maintain an intravenous lifeline that has 52735
been approved by a cooperating physician or physician advisory 52736
board;52737

       (2) Perform cardiac monitoring;52738

       (3) Perform electrical interventions to support or correct 52739
the cardiac function;52740

       (4) Administer epinephrine;52741

       (5) Determine triage of adult and pediatric trauma victims;52742

       (6) Perform any other emergency medical services approved 52743
pursuant to rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised 52744
Code.52745

       (C)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) of this section, 52746
the services described in division (B) of this section shall be 52747
performed by an EMT-I only pursuant to the written or verbal 52748
authorization of a physician or of the cooperating physician 52749
advisory board, or pursuant to an authorization transmitted 52750
through a direct communication device by a physician or registered 52751
nurse designated by a physician.52752

       (2) If communications fail during an emergency situation or 52753
the required response time prohibits communication, an EMT-I may 52754
perform any of the services described in division (B) of this 52755
section, if, in the judgment of the EMT-I, the life of the patient 52756
is in immediate danger. Services performed under these 52757
circumstances shall be performed in accordance with the protocols 52758
for triage of adult and pediatric trauma victims established in 52759
rules adopted under sections 4765.11 and 4765.40 of the Revised 52760
Code and any applicable protocols adopted by the emergency medical 52761
service organization with which the EMT-I is affiliated.52762

       (D) In addition to, and in the course of, providing emergency 52763
medical treatment, an emergency medical technician-intermediate 52764
may withdraw blood as provided under sections 1547.11, 4506.17, 52765
and 4511.19 of the Revised Code. An emergency medical 52766
technician-intermediate shall withdraw blood in accordance with 52767
this chapter and any rules adopted under it by the state board of 52768
emergency medical and transportation services. 52769

       Sec. 4765.39.  (A) An emergency medical technician-paramedic 52770
shall perform the emergency medical services described in this 52771
section in accordance with this chapter and any rules adopted 52772
under it.52773

       (B) A paramedic may do any of the following:52774

       (1) Perform cardiac monitoring;52775

       (2) Perform electrical interventions to support or correct 52776
the cardiac function;52777

       (3) Perform airway procedures;52778

       (4) Perform relief of pneumothorax;52779

       (5) Administer appropriate drugs and intravenous fluids;52780

       (6) Determine triage of adult and pediatric trauma victims;52781

       (7) Perform any other emergency medical services, including 52782
life support or intensive care techniques, approved pursuant to 52783
rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code.52784

       (C)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) of this section, 52785
the services described in division (B) of this section shall be 52786
performed by a paramedic only pursuant to the written or verbal 52787
authorization of a physician or of the cooperating physician 52788
advisory board, or pursuant to an authorization transmitted 52789
through a direct communication device by a physician or registered 52790
nurse designated by a physician.52791

       (2) If communications fail during an emergency situation or 52792
the required response time prohibits communication, a paramedic 52793
may perform any of the services described in division (B) of this 52794
section, if, in the paramedic's judgment, the life of the patient 52795
is in immediate danger. Services performed under these 52796
circumstances shall be performed in accordance with the protocols 52797
for triage of adult and pediatric trauma victims established in 52798
rules adopted under sections 4765.11 and 4765.40 of the Revised 52799
Code and any applicable protocols adopted by the emergency medical 52800
service organization with which the paramedic is affiliated.52801

       (D) In addition to, and in the course of, providing emergency 52802
medical treatment, an emergency medical technician-paramedic may 52803
withdraw blood as provided under sections 1547.11, 4506.17, and 52804
4511.19 of the Revised Code. An emergency medical 52805
technician-paramedic shall withdraw blood in accordance with this 52806
chapter and any rules adopted under it by the state board of 52807
emergency medical, fire, and transportation services.52808

       Sec. 4765.40.  (A)(1) Not later than two years after the 52809
effective date of this amendmentNovember 3, 2000, the state board 52810
of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services shall 52811
adopt rules under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code establishing 52812
written protocols for the triage of adult and pediatric trauma 52813
victims. The rules shall define adult and pediatric trauma in a 52814
manner that is consistent with section 4765.01 of the Revised 52815
Code, minimizes overtriage and undertriage, and emphasizes the 52816
special needs of pediatric and geriatric trauma patients.52817

       (2) The state triage protocols adopted under division (A) of 52818
this section shall require a trauma victim to be transported 52819
directly to an adult or pediatric trauma center that is qualified 52820
to provide appropriate adult or pediatric trauma care, unless one 52821
or more of the following exceptions applies:52822

       (a) It is medically necessary to transport the victim to 52823
another hospital for initial assessment and stabilization before 52824
transfer to an adult or pediatric trauma center;52825

       (b) It is unsafe or medically inappropriate to transport the 52826
victim directly to an adult or pediatric trauma center due to 52827
adverse weather or ground conditions or excessive transport time;52828

       (c) Transporting the victim to an adult or pediatric trauma 52829
center would cause a shortage of local emergency medical service 52830
resources;52831

       (d) No appropriate adult or pediatric trauma center is able 52832
to receive and provide adult or pediatric trauma care to the 52833
trauma victim without undue delay;52834

       (e) Before transport of a patient begins, the patient 52835
requests to be taken to a particular hospital that is not a trauma 52836
center or, if the patient is less than eighteen years of age or is 52837
not able to communicate, such a request is made by an adult member 52838
of the patient's family or a legal representative of the patient.52839

       (3)(a) The state triage protocols adopted under division (A) 52840
of this section shall require trauma patients to be transported to 52841
an adult or pediatric trauma center that is able to provide 52842
appropriate adult or pediatric trauma care, but shall not require 52843
a trauma patient to be transported to a particular trauma center. 52844
The state triage protocols shall establish one or more procedures 52845
for evaluating whether an injury victim requires or would benefit 52846
from adult or pediatric trauma care, which procedures shall be 52847
applied by emergency medical service personnel based on the 52848
patient's medical needs. In developing state trauma triage 52849
protocols, the board shall consider relevant model triage rules 52850
and shall consult with the commission on minority health, regional 52851
directors, regional physician advisory boards, and appropriate 52852
medical, hospital, and emergency medical service organizations.52853

       (b) Before the joint committee on agency rule review 52854
considers state triage protocols for trauma victims proposed by 52855
the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation52856
services, or amendments thereto, the board shall send a copy of 52857
the proposal to the Ohio chapter of the American college of 52858
emergency physicians, the Ohio chapter of the American college of 52859
surgeons, the Ohio chapter of the American academy of pediatrics, 52860
OHA: the association for hospitals and health systems, the Ohio 52861
osteopathic association, and the association of Ohio children's 52862
hospitals and shall hold a public hearing at which it must 52863
consider the appropriateness of the protocols to minimize 52864
overtriage and undertriage of trauma victims.52865

       (c) The board shall provide copies of the state triage 52866
protocols, and amendments to the protocols, to each emergency 52867
medical service organization, regional director, regional 52868
physician advisory board, certified emergency medical service 52869
instructor, and person who regularly provides medical direction to 52870
emergency medical service personnel in the state; to each medical 52871
service organization in other jurisdictions that regularly provide 52872
emergency medical services in this state; and to others upon 52873
request.52874

       (B)(1) The state board of emergency medical, fire, and 52875
transportation services shall approve regional protocols for the 52876
triage of adult and pediatric trauma victims, and amendments to 52877
such protocols, that are submitted to the board as provided in 52878
division (B)(2) of this section and provide a level of adult and 52879
pediatric trauma care comparable to the state triage protocols 52880
adopted under division (A) of this section. The board shall not 52881
otherwise approve regional triage protocols for trauma victims. 52882
The board shall not approve regional triage protocols for regions 52883
that overlap and shall resolve any such disputes by apportioning 52884
the overlapping territory among appropriate regions in a manner 52885
that best serves the medical needs of the residents of that 52886
territory. The trauma committee of the board shall have reasonable 52887
opportunity to review and comment on regional triage protocols and 52888
amendments to such protocols before the board approves or 52889
disapproves them.52890

       (2) Regional protocols for the triage of adult and pediatric 52891
trauma victims, and amendments to such protocols, shall be 52892
submitted in writing to the state board of emergency medical, 52893
fire, and transportation services by the regional physician 52894
advisory board or regional director, as appropriate, that serves a 52895
majority of the population in the region in which the protocols 52896
apply. Prior to submitting regional triage protocols, or an 52897
amendment to such protocols, to the state board of emergency 52898
medical, fire, and transportation services, a regional physician 52899
advisory board or regional director shall consult with each of the 52900
following that regularly serves the region in which the protocols 52901
apply:52902

       (a) Other regional physician advisory boards and regional 52903
directors;52904

       (b) Hospitals that operate an emergency facility;52905

       (c) Adult and pediatric trauma centers;52906

       (d) Professional societies of physicians who specialize in 52907
adult or pediatric emergency medicine or adult or pediatric trauma 52908
surgery;52909

       (e) Professional societies of nurses who specialize in adult 52910
or pediatric emergency nursing or adult or pediatric trauma 52911
surgery;52912

       (f) Professional associations or labor organizations of 52913
emergency medical service personnel;52914

       (g) Emergency medical service organizations and medical 52915
directors of such organizations;52916

       (h) Certified emergency medical service instructors.52917

       (3) Regional protocols for the triage of adult and pediatric 52918
trauma victims approved under division (B)(2) of this section 52919
shall require patients to be transported to a trauma center that 52920
is able to provide an appropriate level of adult or pediatric 52921
trauma care; shall not discriminate among trauma centers for 52922
reasons not related to a patient's medical needs; shall seek to 52923
minimize undertriage and overtriage; may include any of the 52924
exceptions in division (A)(2) of this section; and supersede the 52925
state triage protocols adopted under division (A) of this section 52926
in the region in which the regional protocols apply.52927

       (4) Upon approval of regional protocols for the triage of 52928
adult and pediatric trauma victims under division (B)(2) of this 52929
section, or an amendment to such protocols, the state board of 52930
emergency medical, fire, and transportation services shall provide 52931
written notice of the approval and a copy of the protocols or 52932
amendment to each entity in the region in which the protocols 52933
apply to which the board is required to send a copy of the state 52934
triage protocols adopted under division (A) of this section.52935

       (C)(1) The state board of emergency medical, fire, and 52936
transportation services shall review the state triage protocols 52937
adopted under division (A) of this section at least every three 52938
years to determine if they are causing overtriage or undertriage 52939
of trauma patients, and shall modify them as necessary to minimize 52940
overtriage and undertriage.52941

       (2) Each regional physician advisory board or regional 52942
director that has had regional triage protocols approved under 52943
division (B)(2) of this section shall review the protocols at 52944
least every three years to determine if they are causing 52945
overtriage or undertriage of trauma patients and shall submit an 52946
appropriate amendment to the state board, as provided in division 52947
(B) of this section, as necessary to minimize overtriage and 52948
undertriage. The state board shall approve the amendment if it 52949
will reduce overtriage or undertriage while complying with 52950
division (B) of this section, and shall not otherwise approve the 52951
amendment.52952

       (D) No provider of emergency medical services or person who 52953
provides medical direction to emergency medical service personnel 52954
in this state shall fail to comply with the state triage protocols 52955
adopted under division (A) of this section or applicable regional 52956
triage protocols approved under division (B)(2) of this section.52957

       (E) The state board of emergency medical, fire, and 52958
transportation services shall adopt rules under section 4765.11 of 52959
the Revised Code that provide for enforcement of the state triage 52960
protocols adopted under division (A) of this section and regional 52961
triage protocols approved under division (B)(2) of this section, 52962
and for education regarding those protocols for emergency medical 52963
service organizations and personnel, regional directors and 52964
regional physician advisory boards, emergency medical service 52965
instructors, and persons who regularly provide medical direction 52966
to emergency medical service personnel in this state.52967

       Sec. 4765.42.  Each emergency medical service organization 52968
shall give notice of the name of its medical director or the names 52969
of the members of its cooperating physician advisory board to the 52970
state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation52971
services. The notice shall be made in writing.52972

       Sec. 4765.48.  The attorney general, the prosecuting attorney 52973
of the county, or the city director of law shall, upon complaint 52974
of the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation52975
services, prosecute to termination or bring an action for 52976
injunction against any person violating this chapter or the rules 52977
adopted under it. The common pleas court in which an action for 52978
injunction is filed has the jurisdiction to grant injunctive 52979
relief upon a showing that the respondent named in the complaint 52980
is in violation of this chapter or the rules adopted under it.52981

       Sec. 4765.49.  (A) A first responder, emergency medical 52982
technician-basic, emergency medical technician-intermediate, or 52983
emergency medical technician-paramedic is not liable in damages in 52984
a civil action for injury, death, or loss to person or property 52985
resulting from the individual's administration of emergency 52986
medical services, unless the services are administered in a manner 52987
that constitutes willful or wanton misconduct. A physician or 52988
registered nurse designated by a physician, who is advising or 52989
assisting in the emergency medical services by means of any 52990
communication device or telemetering system, is not liable in 52991
damages in a civil action for injury, death, or loss to person or 52992
property resulting from the individual's advisory communication or 52993
assistance, unless the advisory communication or assistance is 52994
provided in a manner that constitutes willful or wanton 52995
misconduct. Medical directors and members of cooperating physician 52996
advisory boards of emergency medical service organizations are not 52997
liable in damages in a civil action for injury, death, or loss to 52998
person or property resulting from their acts or omissions in the 52999
performance of their duties, unless the act or omission 53000
constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.53001

       (B) A political subdivision, joint ambulance district, joint 53002
emergency medical services district, or other public agency, and 53003
any officer or employee of a public agency or of a private 53004
organization operating under contract or in joint agreement with 53005
one or more political subdivisions, that provides emergency 53006
medical services, or that enters into a joint agreement or a 53007
contract with the state, any political subdivision, joint 53008
ambulance district, or joint emergency medical services district 53009
for the provision of emergency medical services, is not liable in 53010
damages in a civil action for injury, death, or loss to person or 53011
property arising out of any actions taken by a first responder, 53012
EMT-basic, EMT-I, or paramedic working under the officer's or 53013
employee's jurisdiction, or for injury, death, or loss to person 53014
or property arising out of any actions of licensed medical 53015
personnel advising or assisting the first responder, EMT-basic, 53016
EMT-I, or paramedic, unless the services are provided in a manner 53017
that constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.53018

       (C) A student who is enrolled in an emergency medical 53019
services training program accredited under section 4765.17 of the 53020
Revised Code or an emergency medical services continuing education 53021
program approved under that section is not liable in damages in a 53022
civil action for injury, death, or loss to person or property 53023
resulting from either of the following:53024

       (1) The student's administration of emergency medical 53025
services or patient care or treatment, if the services, care, or 53026
treatment is administered while the student is under the direct 53027
supervision and in the immediate presence of an EMT-basic, EMT-I, 53028
paramedic, registered nurse, or physician and while the student is 53029
receiving clinical training that is required by the program, 53030
unless the services, care, or treatment is provided in a manner 53031
that constitutes willful or wanton misconduct;53032

       (2) The student's training as an ambulance driver, unless the 53033
driving is done in a manner that constitutes willful or wanton 53034
misconduct.53035

       (D) An EMT-basic, EMT-I, paramedic, or other operator, who 53036
holds a valid commercial driver's license issued pursuant to 53037
Chapter 4506. of the Revised Code or driver's license issued 53038
pursuant to Chapter 4507. of the Revised Code and who is employed 53039
by an emergency medical service organization that is not owned or 53040
operated by a political subdivision as defined in section 2744.01 53041
of the Revised Code, is not liable in damages in a civil action 53042
for injury, death, or loss to person or property that is caused by 53043
the operation of an ambulance by the EMT-basic, EMT-I, paramedic, 53044
or other operator while responding to or completing a call for 53045
emergency medical services, unless the operation constitutes 53046
willful or wanton misconduct or does not comply with the 53047
precautions of section 4511.03 of the Revised Code. An emergency 53048
medical service organization is not liable in damages in a civil 53049
action for any injury, death, or loss to person or property that 53050
is caused by the operation of an ambulance by its employee or 53051
agent, if this division grants the employee or agent immunity from 53052
civil liability for the injury, death, or loss.53053

       (E) An employee or agent of an emergency medical service 53054
organization who receives requests for emergency medical services 53055
that are directed to the organization, dispatches first 53056
responders, EMTs-basic, EMTs-I, or paramedics in response to those 53057
requests, communicates those requests to those employees or agents 53058
of the organization who are authorized to dispatch first 53059
responders, EMTs-basic, EMTs-I, or paramedics, or performs any 53060
combination of these functions for the organization, is not liable 53061
in damages in a civil action for injury, death, or loss to person 53062
or property resulting from the individual's acts or omissions in 53063
the performance of those duties for the organization, unless an 53064
act or omission constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.53065

       (F) A person who is performing the functions of a first 53066
responder, EMT-basic, EMT-I, or paramedic under the authority of 53067
the laws of a state that borders this state and who provides 53068
emergency medical services to or transportation of a patient in 53069
this state is not liable in damages in a civil action for injury, 53070
death, or loss to person or property resulting from the person's 53071
administration of emergency medical services, unless the services 53072
are administered in a manner that constitutes willful or wanton 53073
misconduct. A physician or registered nurse designated by a 53074
physician, who is licensed to practice in the adjoining state and 53075
who is advising or assisting in the emergency medical services by 53076
means of any communication device or telemetering system is not 53077
liable in damages in a civil action for injury, death, or loss to 53078
person or property resulting from the person's advisory 53079
communication or assistance, unless the advisory communication or 53080
assistance is provided in a manner that constitutes willful or 53081
wanton misconduct.53082

       (G) A person certified under section 4765.23 of the Revised 53083
Code to teach in an emergency medical services training program or 53084
emergency medical services continuing education program, and a 53085
person who teaches at the Ohio fire academy established under 53086
section 3737.33 of the Revised Code or in a fire service training 53087
program described in division (A) of section 4765.55 of the 53088
Revised Code, is not liable in damages in a civil action for 53089
injury, death, or loss to person or property resulting from the 53090
person's acts or omissions in the performance of the person's 53091
duties, unless an act or omission constitutes willful or wanton 53092
misconduct.53093

       (H) In the accreditation of emergency medical services 53094
training programs or approval of emergency medical services 53095
continuing education programs, the state board of emergency 53096
medical, fire, and transportation services and any person or 53097
entity authorized by the board to evaluate applications for 53098
accreditation or approval are not liable in damages in a civil 53099
action for injury, death, or loss to person or property resulting 53100
from their acts or omissions in the performance of their duties, 53101
unless an act or omission constitutes willful or wanton 53102
misconduct.53103

       (I) A person authorized by an emergency medical service 53104
organization to review the performance of first responders, 53105
EMTs-basic, EMTs-I, and paramedics or to administer quality 53106
assurance programs is not liable in damages in a civil action for 53107
injury, death, or loss to person or property resulting from the 53108
person's acts or omissions in the performance of the person's 53109
duties, unless an act or omission constitutes willful or wanton 53110
misconduct.53111

       Sec. 4765.55.  (A) The executive director of the state board 53112
of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services, with the 53113
advice and counsel of the firefighter and fire safety inspector 53114
training committee of the state board of emergency medical, fire, 53115
and transportation services, shall assist in the establishment and 53116
maintenance by any state agency, or any county, township, city, 53117
village, school district, or educational service center of a fire 53118
service training program for the training of all persons in 53119
positions of any fire training certification level approved by the 53120
executive director, including full-time paid firefighters, 53121
part-time paid firefighters, volunteer firefighters, and, fire 53122
safety inspectors in this state. The executive director, with the 53123
advice and counsel of the committee, shall adopt rules to regulate 53124
those firefighter and fire safety inspector training programs, and 53125
other training programs approved by the executive director. The 53126
rules may include, but need not be limited to, training 53127
curriculum, certification examinations, training schedules, 53128
minimum hours of instruction, attendance requirements, required 53129
equipment and facilities, basic physical requirements, and methods 53130
of training for all persons in positions of any fire training 53131
certification level approved by the executive director, including 53132
full-time paid firefighters, part-time paid firefighters, 53133
volunteer firefighters, and fire safety inspectors. The rules 53134
adopted to regulate training programs for volunteer firefighters 53135
shall not require more than thirty-six hours of training.53136

       The executive director, with the advice and counsel of the 53137
committee, shall provide for the classification and chartering of 53138
fire service training programs in accordance with rules adopted 53139
under division (B) of this section, and may take action against 53140
any chartered training program or applicant, in accordance with 53141
rules adopted under divisions (B)(4) and (5) of this section, for 53142
failure to meet standards set by the adopted rules.53143

       (B) The executive director, with the advice and counsel of 53144
the firefighter and fire safety inspector training committee of 53145
the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation53146
services, shall adopt, and may amend or rescind, rules under 53147
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that establish all of the 53148
following:53149

       (1) Requirements for, and procedures for chartering, the 53150
training programs regulated by this section;53151

       (2) Requirements for, and requirements and procedures for 53152
obtaining and renewing, an instructor certificate to teach the 53153
training programs and continuing education classes regulated by 53154
this section;53155

       (3) Requirements for, and requirements and procedures for 53156
obtaining and renewing, any of the fire training certificates 53157
regulated by this section;53158

       (4) Grounds and procedures for suspending, revoking, 53159
restricting, or refusing to issue or renew any of the certificates 53160
or charters regulated by this section, which grounds shall be 53161
limited to one of the following:53162

        (a) Failure to satisfy the education or training requirements 53163
of this section;53164

        (b) Conviction of a felony offense;53165

        (c) Conviction of a misdemeanor involving moral turpitude;53166

        (d) Conviction of a misdemeanor committed in the course of 53167
practice;53168

        (e) In the case of a chartered training program or applicant, 53169
failure to meet standards set by the rules adopted under this 53170
division.53171

       (5) Grounds and procedures for imposing and collecting fines, 53172
not to exceed one thousand dollars, in relation to actions taken 53173
under division (B)(4) of this section against persons holding 53174
certificates and charters regulated by this section, the fines to 53175
be deposited into the trauma and emergency medical services fund 53176
established under section 4513.263 of the Revised Code;53177

       (6) Continuing education requirements for certificate 53178
holders, including a requirement that credit shall be granted for 53179
in-service training programs conducted by local entities;53180

       (7) Procedures for considering the granting of an extension 53181
or exemption of fire service continuing education requirements;53182

       (8) Certification cycles for which the certificates and 53183
charters regulated by this section are valid.53184

       (C) The executive director, with the advice and counsel of 53185
the firefighter and fire safety inspector training committee of 53186
the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation53187
services, shall issue or renew an instructor certificate to teach 53188
the training programs and continuing education classes regulated 53189
by this section to any applicant that the executive director 53190
determines meets the qualifications established in rules adopted 53191
under division (B) of this section, and may take disciplinary 53192
action against an instructor certificate holder or applicant in 53193
accordance with rules adopted under division (B) of this section. 53194
The executive director, with the advice and counsel of the 53195
committee, shall charter or renew the charter of any training 53196
program that the executive director determines meets the 53197
qualifications established in rules adopted under division (B) of 53198
this section, and may take disciplinary action against the holder 53199
of a charter in accordance with rules adopted under division (B) 53200
of this section.53201

       (D) The executive director shall issue or renew a fire 53202
training certificate for a firefighter, a fire safety inspector, 53203
or another position of any fire training certification level 53204
approved by the executive director, to any applicant that the 53205
executive director determines meets the qualifications established 53206
in rules adopted under division (B) of this section and may take 53207
disciplinary actions against a certificate holder or applicant in 53208
accordance with rules adopted under division (B) of this section.53209

       (E) Certificates issued under this section shall be on a form 53210
prescribed by the executive director, with the advice and counsel 53211
of the firefighter and fire safety inspector training committee of 53212
the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation53213
services.53214

       (F)(1) The executive director, with the advice and counsel of 53215
the firefighter and fire safety inspector training committee of 53216
the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation53217
services, shall establish criteria for evaluating the standards 53218
maintained by other states and the branches of the United States 53219
military for firefighter, fire safety inspector, and fire 53220
instructor training programs, and other training programs 53221
recognized by the executive director, to determine whether the 53222
standards are equivalent to those established under this section 53223
and shall establish requirements and procedures for issuing a 53224
certificate to each person who presents proof to the executive 53225
director of having satisfactorily completed a training program 53226
that meets those standards.53227

       (2) The executive director, with the committee's advice and 53228
counsel, shall adopt rules establishing requirements and 53229
procedures for issuing a fire training certificate in lieu of 53230
completing a chartered training program.53231

       (G) Nothing in this section invalidates any other section of 53232
the Revised Code relating to the fire training academy. Section 53233
4765.11 of the Revised Code does not affect any powers and duties 53234
granted to the executive director under this section.53235

       Sec. 4765.56.  On receipt of a notice pursuant to section 53236
3123.43 of the Revised Code, the state board of emergency medical, 53237
fire, and transportation services shall comply with sections 53238
3123.41 to 3123.50 of the Revised Code and any applicable rules 53239
adopted under section 3123.63 of the Revised Code with respect to 53240
a certificate to practice issued pursuant to this chapter.53241

       Sec. 4766.01.  As used in this chapter:53242

       (A) "Advanced life support" means treatment described in 53243
section 4765.39 of the Revised Code that a paramedic is certified 53244
to perform.53245

       (B) "Air medical service organization" means an organization 53246
that furnishes, conducts, maintains, advertises, promotes, or 53247
otherwise engages in providing medical services with a rotorcraft 53248
air ambulance or fixed wing air ambulance.53249

       (C) "Air medical transportation" means the transporting of a 53250
patient by rotorcraft air ambulance or fixed wing air ambulance 53251
with appropriately licensed and certified medical personnel.53252

       (D) "Ambulance" means any motor vehicle that is specifically 53253
designed, constructed, or modified and equipped and is intended to 53254
be used to provide basic life support, intermediate life support, 53255
advanced life support, or mobile intensive care unit services and 53256
transportation upon the streets or highways of this state of 53257
persons who are seriously ill, injured, wounded, or otherwise 53258
incapacitated or helpless. "Ambulance" does not include air 53259
medical transportation or a vehicle designed and used solely for 53260
the transportation of nonstretcher-bound persons, whether 53261
hospitalized or handicapped or whether ambulatory or confined to a 53262
wheelchair.53263

       (E) "Ambulette" means a motor vehicle that is specifically 53264
designed, constructed, or modified and equipped and is intended to 53265
be used for transportation upon the streets or highways of this 53266
state of persons who require use of a wheelchair.53267

       (F) "Basic life support" means treatment described in section 53268
4765.37 of the Revised Code that an EMT-basicEMT is certified to 53269
perform.53270

       (G) "Disaster situation" means any condition or situation 53271
described by rule of the Ohiostate board of emergency medical, 53272
fire, and transportation boardservices as a mass casualty, major 53273
emergency, natural disaster, or national emergency.53274

       (H) "Emergency medical service organization" means an 53275
organization that uses EMTs-basicEMTs, EMTs-Iadvanced EMTs, or 53276
paramedics, or a combination of EMTs-basicEMTs, EMTs-Iadvanced 53277
EMTs, and paramedics, to provide medical care to victims of 53278
illness or injury. An emergency medical service organization 53279
includes, but is not limited to, a commercial ambulance service 53280
organization, a hospital, and a funeral home.53281

       (I) "EMT-basicEMT," "EMT-Iadvanced EMT," and "paramedic" 53282
have the same meanings as in section 4765.01 of the Revised Code.53283

       (J) "Fixed wing air ambulance" means a fixed wing aircraft 53284
that is specifically designed, constructed, or modified and 53285
equipped and is intended to be used as a means of air medical 53286
transportation.53287

       (K) "Intermediate life support" means treatment described in 53288
section 4765.38 of the Revised Code that an EMT-Iadvanced EMT is 53289
certified to perform.53290

       (L) "Major emergency" means any emergency event that cannot 53291
be resolved through the use of locally available emergency 53292
resources.53293

       (M) "Mass casualty" means an emergency event that results in 53294
ten or more persons being injured, incapacitated, made ill, or 53295
killed.53296

       (N) "Medical emergency" means an unforeseen event affecting 53297
an individual in such a manner that a need for immediate care is 53298
created.53299

       (O) "Mobile intensive care unit" means an ambulance used only 53300
for maintaining specialized or intensive care treatment and used 53301
primarily for interhospital transports of patients whose 53302
conditions require care beyond the scope of a paramedic as 53303
provided in section 4765.39 of the Revised Code.53304

       (P)(1) "Nonemergency medical service organization" means a 53305
person that does both of the following:53306

       (a) Provides services to the public on a regular basis for 53307
the purpose of transporting individuals who require the use of a 53308
wheelchair or are confined to a wheelchair to receive health care 53309
services at health care facilities or health care practitioners' 53310
offices in nonemergency circumstances;53311

       (b) Provides the services for a fee, regardless of whether 53312
the fee is paid by the person being transported, a third party 53313
payer, as defined in section 3702.51 of the Revised Code, or any 53314
other person or government entity.53315

       (2) "Nonemergency medical service organization" does not 53316
include a health care facility, as defined in section 1751.01 of 53317
the Revised Code, that provides ambulette services only to 53318
patients of that facility.53319

       (Q) "Nontransport vehicle" means a motor vehicle operated by 53320
a licensed emergency medical service organization not as an 53321
ambulance, but as a vehicle for providing services in conjunction 53322
with the ambulances operated by the organization or other 53323
emergency medical service organizations.53324

       (R) "Patient" means any individual who as a result of illness 53325
or injury needs medical attention, whose physical or mental 53326
condition is such that there is imminent danger of loss of life or 53327
significant health impairment, who may be otherwise incapacitated 53328
or helpless as a result of a physical or mental condition, or 53329
whose physical condition requires the use of a wheelchair.53330

       (S) "Rotorcraft air ambulance" means a helicopter or other 53331
aircraft capable of vertical takeoffs, vertical landings, and 53332
hovering that is specifically designed, constructed, or modified 53333
and equipped and is intended to be used as a means of air medical 53334
transportation.53335

       Sec. 4766.03.  (A) The Ohiostate board of emergency medical, 53336
fire, and transportation boardservices shall adopt rules, in 53337
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, implementing the 53338
requirements of this chapter. The rules shall include provisions 53339
relating to the following:53340

       (1) Requirements for an emergency medical service 53341
organization to receive a permit for an ambulance or nontransport 53342
vehicle;53343

       (2) Requirements for an emergency medical service 53344
organization to receive a license as a basic life-support, 53345
intermediate life-support, advanced life-support, or mobile 53346
intensive care unit organization;53347

       (3) Requirements for a nonemergency medical service 53348
organization to receive a permit for an ambulette vehicle;53349

       (4) Requirements for a nonemergency medical service 53350
organization to receive a license for an ambulette service;53351

       (5) Requirements for an air medical service organization to 53352
receive a permit for a rotorcraft air ambulance or fixed wing air 53353
ambulance;53354

       (6) Requirements for licensure of air medical service 53355
organizations;53356

       (7) Forms for applications and renewals of licenses and 53357
permits;53358

       (8) Requirements for record keeping of service responses made 53359
by licensed emergency medical service organizations;53360

       (9) Fee amounts for licenses and permits, and their renewals;53361

       (10) Inspection requirements for licensees' vehicles or 53362
aircraft, records, and physical facilities;53363

       (11) Fee amounts for inspections of ambulances, ambulettes, 53364
rotorcraft air ambulances, fixed wing air ambulances, and 53365
nontransport vehicles;53366

       (12) Requirements for ambulances and nontransport vehicles 53367
used by licensed emergency medical service organizations, for 53368
ambulette vehicles used by licensed nonemergency medical service 53369
organizations, and for rotorcraft air ambulances or fixed wing air 53370
ambulances used by licensed air medical service organizations that 53371
specify for each type of vehicle or aircraft the types of 53372
equipment that must be carried, the communication systems that 53373
must be maintained, and the personnel who must staff the vehicle 53374
or aircraft;53375

       (13) The level of care each type of emergency medical service 53376
organization, nonemergency medical service organization, and air 53377
medical service organization is authorized to provide;53378

       (14) Eligibility requirements for employment as an ambulette 53379
driver, including grounds for disqualification due to the results 53380
of a motor vehicle law violation check, chemical test, or criminal 53381
records check. The rule may require that an applicant for 53382
employment as an ambulette driver provide a set of fingerprints to 53383
law enforcement authorities if the applicant comes under final 53384
consideration for employment.53385

       (15) Any other rules that the board determines necessary for 53386
the implementation and enforcement of this chapter.53387

       (B) In the rules for ambulances and nontransport vehicles 53388
adopted under division (A)(12) of this section, the board may 53389
establish requirements that vary according to whether the 53390
emergency medical service organization using the vehicles is 53391
licensed as a basic life-support, intermediate life-support, 53392
advanced life-support, or mobile intensive care unit organization.53393

       (C) A mobile intensive care unit that is not dually certified 53394
to provide advanced life-support and meets the requirements of the 53395
rules adopted under this section is not required to carry 53396
immobilization equipment, including board splint kits, traction 53397
splints, backboards, backboard straps, cervical immobilization 53398
devices, cervical collars, stair chairs, folding cots, or other 53399
types of immobilization equipment determined by the board to be 53400
unnecessary for mobile intensive care units.53401

       A mobile intensive care unit is exempt from the emergency 53402
medical technician staffing requirements of section 4765.43 of the 53403
Revised Code when it is staffed by at least one physician or 53404
registered nurse and another person, designated by a physician, 53405
who holds a valid license or certificate to practice in a health 53406
care profession, and when at least one of the persons staffing the 53407
mobile intensive care unit is a registered nurse whose training 53408
meets or exceeds the training required for a paramedic.53409

       Sec. 4766.04.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in this 53410
chapter, no person shall furnish, operate, conduct, maintain, 53411
advertise, engage in, or propose or profess to engage in the 53412
business or service in this state of transporting persons who are 53413
seriously ill, injured, or otherwise incapacitated or who require 53414
the use of a wheelchair or are confined to a wheelchair unless the 53415
person is licensed pursuant to this section.53416

       (B) To qualify for a license as a basic life-support, 53417
intermediate life-support, advanced life-support, or mobile 53418
intensive care unit organization, an emergency medical service 53419
organization shall do all of the following:53420

       (1) Apply for a permit for each ambulance and nontransport 53421
vehicle owned or leased as provided in section 4766.07 of the 53422
Revised Code;53423

       (2) Meet all requirements established in rules adopted by the 53424
Ohiostate board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation 53425
boardservices regarding ambulances and nontransport vehicles, 53426
including requirements pertaining to equipment, communications 53427
systems, staffing, and level of care the particular organization 53428
is permitted to render;53429

       (3) Maintain the appropriate type and amount of insurance as 53430
specified in section 4766.06 of the Revised Code;53431

       (4) Meet all other requirements established under rules 53432
adopted by the board for the particular license.53433

       (C) To qualify for a license to provide ambulette service, a 53434
nonemergency medical service organization shall do all of the 53435
following:53436

       (1) Apply for a permit for each ambulette owned or leased as 53437
provided in section 4766.07 of the Revised Code;53438

       (2) Meet all requirements established in rules adopted by the53439
Ohiostate board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation 53440
boardservices regarding ambulettes, including requirements 53441
pertaining to equipment, communication systems, staffing, and 53442
level of care the organization is permitted to render;53443

       (3) Maintain the appropriate type and amount of insurance as 53444
specified in section 4766.06 of the Revised Code;53445

       (4) Meet all other requirements established under rules 53446
adopted by the board for the license.53447

       (D) To qualify for a license to provide air medical 53448
transportation, an air medical service organization shall do all 53449
of the following:53450

       (1) Apply for a permit for each rotorcraft air ambulance and 53451
fixed wing air ambulance owned or leased as provided in section 53452
4766.07 of the Revised Code;53453

       (2) Meet all requirements established in rules adopted by the53454
Ohiostate board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation 53455
boardservices regarding rotorcraft air ambulances and fixed wing 53456
air ambulances, including requirements pertaining to equipment, 53457
communication systems, staffing, and level of care the 53458
organization is permitted to render;53459

       (3) Maintain the appropriate type and amount of insurance as 53460
specified in section 4766.06 of the Revised Code;53461

       (4) Meet all other requirements established under rules 53462
adopted by the board for the license.53463

       (E) An emergency medical service organization that applies 53464
for a license as a basic life-support, intermediate life-support, 53465
advanced life-support, or mobile intensive care unit organization; 53466
a nonemergency medical service organization that applies for a 53467
license to provide ambulette service; or an air medical service 53468
organization that applies for a license to provide air medical 53469
transportation shall submit a completed application to the board, 53470
on a form provided by the board for each particular license, 53471
together with the appropriate fees established under section 53472
4766.05 of the Revised Code. The application form shall include 53473
all of the following:53474

       (1) The name and business address of the operator of the 53475
organization for which licensure is sought;53476

       (2) The name under which the applicant will operate the 53477
organization;53478

       (3) A list of the names and addresses of all officers and 53479
directors of the organization;53480

       (4) For emergency medical service organizations and 53481
nonemergency medical service organizations, a description of each 53482
vehicle to be used, including the make, model, year of 53483
manufacture, mileage, vehicle identification number, and the color 53484
scheme, insignia, name, monogram, or other distinguishing 53485
characteristics to be used to designate the applicant's vehicle;53486

       (5) For air medical service organizations using fixed wing 53487
air ambulances, a description of each aircraft to be used, 53488
including the make, model, year of manufacture, and aircraft hours 53489
on airframe;53490

       (6) For air medical service organizations using rotorcraft 53491
air ambulances, a description of each aircraft to be used, 53492
including the make, model, year of manufacture, aircraft hours on 53493
airframe, aircraft identification number, and the color scheme, 53494
insignia, name, monogram, or other distinguishing characteristics 53495
to be used to designate the applicant's rotorcraft air ambulance;53496

       (7) The location and description of each place from which the 53497
organization will operate;53498

       (8) A description of the geographic area to be served by the 53499
applicant;53500

       (9) Any other information the board, by rule, determines 53501
necessary.53502

       (F) Within sixty days after receiving a completed application 53503
for licensure as a basic life-support, intermediate life-support, 53504
advanced life-support, or mobile intensive care unit organization; 53505
an ambulette service; or an air medical service organization, the 53506
board shall approve or deny the application. The board shall deny 53507
an application if it determines that the applicant does not meet 53508
the requirements of this chapter or any rules adopted under it. 53509
The board shall send notice of the denial of an application by 53510
certified mail to the applicant. The applicant may request a 53511
hearing within ten days after receipt of the notice. If the board 53512
receives a timely request, it shall hold a hearing in accordance 53513
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.53514

       (G) If an applicant or licensee operates or plans to operate 53515
an organization in more than one location under the same or 53516
different identities, the applicant or licensee shall apply for 53517
and meet all requirements for licensure or renewal of a license, 53518
other than payment of a license fee or renewal fee, for operating 53519
the organization at each separate location. An applicant or 53520
licensee that operates or plans to operate under the same 53521
organization identity in separate locations shall pay only a 53522
single license fee.53523

       (H) An emergency medical service organization that wishes to 53524
provide ambulette services to the public must apply for a separate 53525
license under division (C) of this section.53526

       (I) Each license issued under this section and each permit 53527
issued under section 4766.07 of the Revised Code expires one year 53528
after the date of issuance and may be renewed in accordance with 53529
the standard renewal procedures of Chapter 4745. of the Revised 53530
Code. An application for renewal shall include the license or 53531
permit renewal fee established under section 4766.05 of the 53532
Revised Code. An applicant for renewal of a permit also shall 53533
submit to the board proof of an annual inspection of the vehicle 53534
or aircraft for which permit renewal is sought. The board shall 53535
renew a license if the applicant meets the requirements for 53536
licensure and shall renew a permit if the applicant and vehicle or 53537
aircraft meet the requirements to maintain a permit for that 53538
vehicle or aircraft.53539

       (J) Each licensee shall maintain accurate records of all 53540
service responses conducted. The records shall be maintained on 53541
forms prescribed by the board and shall contain information as 53542
specified by rule by the board.53543

       Sec. 4766.05.  (A) The Ohiostate board of emergency medical, 53544
fire, and transportation boardservices shall establish by rule a 53545
license fee, a permit fee for each ambulance, ambulette, 53546
rotorcraft air ambulance, fixed wing air ambulance, and 53547
nontransport vehicle owned or leased by the licensee that is or 53548
will be used as provided in section 4766.07 of the Revised Code, 53549
and fees for renewals of licenses and permits, taking into 53550
consideration the actual costs incurred by the board in carrying 53551
out its duties under this chapter. However, the fee for each 53552
license and each renewal of a license shall not exceed one hundred 53553
dollars, and the fee for each permit and each renewal of a permit 53554
shall not exceed one hundred dollars for each ambulance, 53555
rotorcraft air ambulance, fixed wing air ambulance, and 53556
nontransport vehicle. The fee for each permit and each renewal of 53557
a permit shall be twenty-five dollars for each ambulette for one 53558
year after March 9, 2004. Thereafter, the board shall determine by 53559
rule the fee, which shall not exceed fifty dollars, for each 53560
permit and each renewal of a permit for each ambulette. For 53561
purposes of establishing fees, "actual costs" includes the costs 53562
of salaries, expenses, inspection equipment, supervision, and 53563
program administration.53564

       (B) The board shall deposit all fees and other moneys 53565
collected pursuant to sections 4766.04, 4766.07, and 4766.08 of 53566
the Revised Code in the state treasury to the credit of the 53567
occupational licensing and regulatory fund, which is created by 53568
section 4743.05 of the Revised Code. All moneys from the fund 53569
shall be used solely for the salaries and expenses of the board 53570
incurred in implementing and enforcing this chapter.53571

       (C) The board, subject to the approval of the controlling 53572
board, may establish fees in excess of the maximum amounts allowed 53573
under division (A) of this section, but such fees shall not exceed 53574
those maximum amounts by more than fifty per cent.53575

       Sec. 4766.07.  (A) Except as otherwise provided by rule of 53576
the Ohiostate board of emergency medical, fire, and53577
transportation boardservices, each emergency medical service 53578
organization, nonemergency medical service organization, and air 53579
medical service organization subject to licensure under this 53580
chapter shall possess a valid permit for each ambulance, 53581
ambulette, rotorcraft air ambulance, fixed wing air ambulance, and 53582
nontransport vehicle it owns or leases that is or will be used by 53583
the licensee to perform the services permitted by the license. 53584
Each licensee and license applicant shall submit the appropriate 53585
fee and an application for a permit for each ambulance, ambulette, 53586
rotorcraft air ambulance, fixed wing air ambulance, and 53587
nontransport vehicle to the Ohiostate board of emergency53588
medical, fire, and transportation boardservices on forms provided 53589
by the board. The application shall include documentation that the 53590
vehicle or aircraft meets the appropriate standards set by the 53591
board, that the vehicle or aircraft has been inspected pursuant to 53592
division (C) of this section, that the permit applicant maintains 53593
insurance as provided in section 4766.06 of the Revised Code, and 53594
that the vehicle or aircraft and permit applicant meet any other 53595
requirements established under rules adopted by the board.53596

       The Ohiostate board of emergency medical, fire, and53597
transportation boardservices may adopt rules in accordance with 53598
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to authorize the temporary use of 53599
a vehicle or aircraft for which a permit is not possessed under 53600
this section in back-up or disaster situations.53601

       (B)(1) Within sixty days after receiving a completed 53602
application for a permit, the board shall issue or deny the 53603
permit. The board shall deny an application if it determines that 53604
the permit applicant, vehicle, or aircraft does not meet the 53605
requirements of this chapter and the rules adopted under it that 53606
apply to permits for ambulances, ambulettes, rotorcraft air 53607
ambulances, fixed wing air ambulances, and nontransport vehicles. 53608
The board shall send notice of the denial of an application by 53609
certified mail to the permit applicant. The permit applicant may 53610
request a hearing within ten days after receipt of the notice. If 53611
the board receives a timely request, it shall hold a hearing in 53612
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.53613

       (2) If the board issues the vehicle permit for an ambulance, 53614
ambulette, or nontransport vehicle, it also shall issue a decal, 53615
in a form prescribed by rule, to be displayed on the rear window 53616
of the vehicle. The board shall not issue a decal until all of the 53617
requirements for licensure and permit issuance have been met.53618

       (3) If the board issues the aircraft permit for a rotorcraft 53619
air ambulance or fixed wing air ambulance, it also shall issue a 53620
decal, in a form prescribed by rule, to be displayed on the left 53621
fuselage aircraft window in a manner that complies with all 53622
applicable federal aviation regulations. The board shall not issue 53623
a decal until all of the requirements for licensure and permit 53624
issuance have been met.53625

       (C) In addition to any other requirements that the board 53626
establishes by rule, a licensee or license applicant applying for 53627
an initial vehicle or aircraft permit under division (A) of this 53628
section shall submit to the board the vehicle or aircraft for 53629
which the permit is sought. Thereafter, a licensee shall annually 53630
submit to the board each vehicle or aircraft for which a permit 53631
has been issued.53632

       (1) The board shall conduct a physical inspection of an 53633
ambulance, ambulette, or nontransport vehicle to determine its 53634
roadworthiness and compliance with standard motor vehicle 53635
requirements.53636

       (2) The board shall conduct a physical inspection of the 53637
medical equipment, communication system, and interior of an 53638
ambulance to determine the operational condition and safety of the 53639
equipment and the ambulance's interior and to determine whether 53640
the ambulance is in compliance with the federal requirements for 53641
ambulance construction that were in effect at the time the 53642
ambulance was manufactured, as specified by the general services 53643
administration in the various versions of its publication titled 53644
"federal specification for the star-of-life ambulance, 53645
KKK-A-1822."53646

       (3) The board shall conduct a physical inspection of the 53647
equipment, communication system, and interior of an ambulette to 53648
determine the operational condition and safety of the equipment 53649
and the ambulette's interior and to determine whether the 53650
ambulette is in compliance with state requirements for ambulette 53651
construction. The board shall determine by rule requirements for 53652
the equipment, communication system, interior, and construction of 53653
an ambulette.53654

       (4) The board shall conduct a physical inspection of the 53655
medical equipment, communication system, and interior of a 53656
rotorcraft air ambulance or fixed wing air ambulance to determine 53657
the operational condition and safety of the equipment and the 53658
aircraft's interior.53659

       (5) The board shall issue a certificate to the applicant for 53660
each vehicle or aircraft that passes the inspection and may assess 53661
a fee for each inspection, as established by the board.53662

       (6) The board shall adopt rules regarding the implementation 53663
and coordination of inspections. The rules may permit the board to 53664
contract with a third party to conduct the inspections required of 53665
the board under this section.53666

       Sec. 4766.08.  (A) The Ohiostate board of emergency medical, 53667
fire, and transportation board mayservices, pursuant to an 53668
adjudication conducted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 53669
Revised Code, may suspend or revoke any license or permit or 53670
renewal thereof issued under this chapter for any one or 53671
combination of the following causes:53672

       (1) Violation of this chapter or any rule adopted thereunder;53673

       (2) Refusal to permit the board to inspect a vehicle or 53674
aircraft used under the terms of a permit or to inspect the 53675
records or physical facilities of a licensee;53676

       (3) Failure to meet the ambulance, ambulette, rotorcraft air 53677
ambulance, fixed wing air ambulance, and nontransport vehicle 53678
requirements specified in this chapter or the rules adopted 53679
thereunder;53680

       (4) Violation of an order issued by the board;53681

       (5) Failure to comply with any of the terms of an agreement 53682
entered into with the board regarding the suspension or revocation 53683
of a license or permit or the imposition of a penalty under this 53684
section.53685

       (B) If the board determines that the records, record-keeping 53686
procedures, or physical facilities of a licensee, or an ambulance, 53687
ambulette, rotorcraft air ambulance, fixed wing air ambulance, or 53688
nontransport vehicle for which a valid permit has been issued, do 53689
not meet the standards specified in this chapter and the rules 53690
adopted thereunder, the board shall notify the licensee of any 53691
deficiencies within thirty days of finding the deficiencies. If 53692
the board determines that the deficiencies exist and they remain 53693
uncorrected after thirty days, the board may suspend the license, 53694
vehicle permit, or aircraft permit. The licensee, notwithstanding 53695
the suspension under this division, may operate until all appeals 53696
have been exhausted.53697

       (C) At the discretion of the board, a licensee whose license 53698
has been suspended or revoked under this section may be ineligible 53699
to be licensed under this chapter for a period of not more than 53700
three years from the date of the violation, provided that the 53701
board shall make no determination on a period of ineligibility 53702
until all the licensee's appeals relating to the suspension or 53703
revocation have been exhausted.53704

       (D) The board may, in addition to any other action taken 53705
under this section and after a hearing conducted pursuant to 53706
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, impose a penalty of not more 53707
than fifteen hundred dollars for any violation specified in this 53708
section. The attorney general shall institute a civil action for 53709
the collection of any such penalty imposed.53710

       Sec. 4766.09.  This chapter does not apply to any of the 53711
following:53712

       (A) A person rendering services with an ambulance in the 53713
event of a disaster situation when licensees' vehicles based in 53714
the locality of the disaster situation are incapacitated or 53715
insufficient in number to render the services needed;53716

       (B) Any person operating an ambulance, ambulette, rotorcraft 53717
air ambulance, or fixed wing air ambulance outside this state 53718
unless receiving a person within this state for transport to a 53719
location within this state;53720

       (C) A publicly owned or operated emergency medical service 53721
organization and the vehicles it owns or leases and operates, 53722
except as provided in section 307.051, division (G) of section 53723
307.055, division (F) of section 505.37, division (B) of section 53724
505.375, and division (B)(3) of section 505.72 of the Revised 53725
Code;53726

       (D) An ambulance, ambulette, rotorcraft air ambulance, fixed 53727
wing air ambulance, or nontransport vehicle owned or leased and 53728
operated by the federal government;53729

       (E) A publicly owned and operated fire department vehicle;53730

       (F) Emergency vehicles owned by a corporation and operating 53731
only on the corporation's premises, for the sole use by that 53732
corporation;53733

       (G) An ambulance, nontransport vehicle, or other emergency 53734
medical service organization vehicle owned and operated by a 53735
municipal corporation;53736

       (H) A motor vehicle titled in the name of a volunteer rescue 53737
service organization, as defined in section 4503.172 of the 53738
Revised Code;53739

       (I) A public emergency medical service organization;53740

       (J) A fire department, rescue squad, or life squad comprised 53741
of volunteers who provide services without expectation of 53742
remuneration and do not receive payment for services other than 53743
reimbursement for expenses;53744

       (K) A private, nonprofit emergency medical service 53745
organization when fifty per cent or more of its personnel are 53746
volunteers, as defined in section 4765.01 of the Revised Code;53747

       (L) Emergency medical service personnel who are regulated by 53748
the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation53749
services under Chapter 4765. of the Revised Code;53750

       (M) Any of the following that operates a transit bus, as that 53751
term is defined in division (Q) of section 5735.01 of the Revised 53752
Code, unless the entity provides ambulette services that are 53753
reimbursed under the state medicaid plan:53754

        (1) A public nonemergency medical service organization;53755

        (2) An urban or rural public transit system;53756

        (3) A private nonprofit organization that receives grants 53757
under section 5501.07 of the Revised Code.53758

       (N)(1) An entity, to the extent it provides ambulette 53759
services, if the entity meets all of the following conditions:53760

       (a) The entity is certified by the department of aging or the 53761
department's designee in accordance with section 173.391 of the 53762
Revised Code or operates under a contract or grant agreement with 53763
the department or the department's designee in accordance with 53764
section 173.392 of the Revised Code.53765

       (b) The entity meets the requirements of section 4766.14 of 53766
the Revised Code.53767

       (c) The entity does not provide ambulette services that are 53768
reimbursed under the state medicaid plan.53769

       (2) A vehicle, to the extent it is used to provide ambulette 53770
services, if the vehicle meets both of the following conditions:53771

       (a) The vehicle is owned by an entity that meets the 53772
conditions specified in division (N)(1) of this section.53773

       (b) The vehicle does not provide ambulette services that are 53774
reimbursed under the state medicaid plan.53775

        (O) A vehicle that meets both of the following criteria, 53776
unless the vehicle provides services that are reimbursed under the 53777
state medicaid plan:53778

       (1) The vehicle was purchased with funds from a grant made by 53779
the United States secretary of transportation under 49 U.S.C. 53780
5310;53781

        (2) The department of transportation holds a lien on the 53782
vehicle.53783

       Sec. 4766.10.  This chapter does not invalidate any ordinance 53784
or resolution adopted by a municipal corporation that establishes 53785
standards for the licensure of emergency medical service 53786
organizations as basic life-support, intermediate life-support, or 53787
advanced life-support service organizations that have their 53788
principal places of business located within the limits of the 53789
municipal corporation, as long as the licensure standards meet or 53790
exceed the standards established in this chapter and the rules 53791
adopted thereunder.53792

       Emergency medical service organizations licensed by a 53793
municipal corporation are subject to the jurisdiction of the Ohio53794
state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation board53795
services, but the fees they pay to the board for licenses, 53796
permits, and renewals thereof shall not exceed fifty per cent of 53797
the fee amounts established by the board pursuant to section 53798
4766.03 of the Revised Code. The board may choose to waive the 53799
vehicle inspection requirements and inspection fees, but not the 53800
permit fees, for the vehicles of organizations licensed by a 53801
municipal corporation.53802

       Sec. 4766.11. (A) The Ohiostate board of emergency medical, 53803
fire, and transportation boardservices may investigate alleged 53804
violations of this chapter or the rules adopted under it and may 53805
investigate any complaints received regarding alleged violations.53806

       In addition to any other remedies available and regardless of 53807
whether an adequate remedy at law exists, the board may apply to 53808
the court of common pleas in the county where a violation of any 53809
provision of this chapter or any rule adopted pursuant thereto is 53810
occurring for a temporary or permanent injunction restraining a 53811
person from continuing to commit that violation. On a showing that 53812
a person has committed a violation, the court shall grant the 53813
injunction.53814

       In conducting an investigation under this section, the board 53815
may issue subpoenas compelling the attendance and testimony of 53816
witnesses and the production of books, records, and other 53817
documents pertaining to the investigation. If a person fails to 53818
obey a subpoena from the board, the board may apply to the court 53819
of common pleas in the county where the investigation is being 53820
conducted for an order compelling the person to comply with the 53821
subpoena. On application by the board, the court shall compel 53822
obedience by attachment proceedings for contempt, as in the case 53823
of disobedience of the requirements of a subpoena from the court 53824
or a refusal to testify therein.53825

       (B) The medical transportation board may suspend a license 53826
issued under this chapter without a prior hearing if it determines 53827
that there is evidence that the license holder is subject to 53828
action under this section and that there is clear and convincing 53829
evidence that continued operation by the license holder presents a 53830
danger of immediate and serious harm to the public. The 53831
chairperson and executive director of the board shall make a 53832
preliminary determination and describe the evidence on which they 53833
made their determination to the board members. The board by 53834
resolution may designate another board member to act in place of 53835
the chairperson or another employee to act in place of the 53836
executive director in the event that the chairperson or executive 53837
director is unavailable or unable to act. Upon review of the 53838
allegations, the board, by the affirmative vote of at least foura 53839
majority of its members, may suspend the license without a 53840
hearing.53841

       Any method of communication, including a telephone conference 53842
call, may be utilized for describing the evidence to the board 53843
members, for reviewing the allegations, and for voting on the 53844
suspension.53845

       Immediately following the decision by the board to suspend a 53846
license under this division, the board shall issue a written order 53847
of suspension and cause it to be delivered in accordance with 53848
section 119.07 of the Revised Code. If the license holder subject 53849
to the suspension requests an adjudication hearing by the board, 53850
the date set for the adjudication shall be within fifteen days but 53851
not earlier than seven days after the request unless another date 53852
is agreed to by the license holder and the board.53853

       Any summary suspension imposed under this division remains in 53854
effect, unless reversed by the board, until a final adjudicative 53855
order issued by the board pursuant to this section and Chapter 53856
119. of the Revised Code becomes effective. The board shall issue 53857
its final adjudicative order not less than ninety days after 53858
completion of its adjudication hearing. Failure to issue the order 53859
by that day shall cause the summary suspension order to end, but 53860
such failure shall not affect the validity of any subsequent final 53861
adjudication order.53862

       Sec. 4766.12.  If a county, township, joint ambulance 53863
district, or joint emergency medical services district chooses to 53864
have the Ohiostate board of emergency medical, fire, and53865
transportation boardservices license its emergency medical 53866
service organizations and issue permits for its vehicles pursuant 53867
to this chapter, except as may be otherwise provided, all 53868
provisions of this chapter and all rules adopted by the board 53869
thereunder are fully applicable. However, a county, township, 53870
joint ambulance district, or joint emergency medical services 53871
district is not required to obtain any type of permit from the 53872
board for any of its nontransport vehicles.53873

       Sec. 4766.13.  The Ohiostate board of emergency medical, 53874
fire, and transportation boardservices, by endorsement, may 53875
license and issue vehicle permits to an emergency medical service 53876
organization or a nonemergency medical service organization that 53877
is regulated by another state. To qualify for a license and 53878
vehicle permits by endorsement, an organization must submit 53879
evidence satisfactory to the board that it has met standards in 53880
another state that are equal to or more stringent than the 53881
standards established by this chapter and the rules adopted under 53882
it.53883

       Sec. 4766.15.  (A) An applicant for employment as an 53884
ambulette driver with an organization licensed pursuant to this 53885
chapter shall submit proof to the organization of, or give consent 53886
to the employer to obtain, all of the following:53887

       (1)(a) A valid driver's license issued pursuant to Chapter 53888
4506. or 4507. of the Revised Code, or its equivalent, if the 53889
applicant is a resident of another state;53890

       (b) A recent certified abstract of the applicant's record of 53891
convictions for violations of motor vehicle laws provided by the 53892
registrar of motor vehicles pursuant to section 4509.05 of the 53893
Revised Code, or its equivalent, if the applicant is a resident of 53894
another state.53895

       (2)(a) A certificate of completion of a course in first aid 53896
techniques offered by the American red cross or an equivalent 53897
organization;53898

       (b) A certificate of completion of a course in 53899
cardiopulmonary resuscitation, or its equivalent, offered by an 53900
organization approved by the Ohiostate board of emergency53901
medical, fire, and transportation boardservices.53902

       (3) The result of a chemical test or tests of the applicant's 53903
blood, breath, or urine conducted at a hospital or other 53904
institution approved by the board for the purpose of determining 53905
the alcohol, drug of abuse, controlled substance, or metabolite of 53906
a controlled substance content of the applicant's whole blood, 53907
blood serum or plasma, breath, or urine;53908

       (4) The result of a criminal records check conducted by the 53909
bureau of criminal identification and investigation.53910

       (B) An organization may employ an applicant on a temporary 53911
provisional basis pending the completion of all of the 53912
requirements of this section. The length of the provisional period 53913
shall be determined by the board.53914

       (C) An organization licensed pursuant to this chapter shall 53915
use information received pursuant to this section to determine in 53916
accordance with rules adopted by the Ohiostate board of emergency53917
medical, fire, and transportation boardservices under section 53918
4766.03 of the Revised Code whether an applicant is disqualified 53919
for employment.53920

       No applicant shall be accepted for permanent employment as an 53921
ambulette driver by an organization licensed pursuant to this 53922
chapter until all of the requirements of division (A) of this 53923
section have been met.53924

       Sec. 4766.22.  (A) Not later than forty-five days after the 53925
end of each fiscal year, the Ohiostate board of emergency53926
medical, fire, and transportation boardservices shall submit a 53927
report to the governor and general assembly that provides all of 53928
the following information for that fiscal year:53929

       (1) The number of each of the following the board issued:53930

       (a) Basic life-support organization licenses;53931

       (b) Intermediate life-support organization licenses;53932

       (c) Advanced life-support organization licenses;53933

       (d) Mobile intensive care unit organization licenses;53934

       (e) Ambulette service licenses;53935

       (f) Air medical service organization licenses;53936

       (g) Ambulance permits;53937

       (h) Nontransport vehicle permits;53938

       (i) Ambulette vehicle permits;53939

       (j) Rotorcraft air ambulance permits;53940

       (k) Fixed wing air ambulance permits.53941

       (2) The amount of fees the board collected for issuing and 53942
renewing each type of license and permit specified in division 53943
(A)(1) of this section;53944

       (3) The number of inspections the board or a third party on 53945
the board's behalf conducted in connection with each type of 53946
license and permit specified in division (A)(1) of this section 53947
and the amount of fees the board collected for the inspections;53948

       (4) The number of complaints that were submitted to the 53949
board;53950

       (5) The number of investigations the board conducted under 53951
section 4766.11 of the Revised Code;53952

       (6) The number of adjudication hearings the board held and 53953
the outcomes of the adjudications;53954

       (7) The amount of penalties the board imposed and collected 53955
under section 4766.08 of the Revised Code;53956

       (8) Other information the board determines reflects the 53957
board's operations.53958

       (B) The board shall post the annual report required by this 53959
section on its web site and make it available to the public on 53960
request.53961

       Sec. 4773.08.  The publicdirector of health council shall 53962
adopt rules to implement and administer this chapter. In adopting 53963
the rules, the councildirector shall consider any recommendations 53964
made by the radiation advisory council created under section 53965
3701.93 of the Revised Code. The rules shall be adopted in 53966
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and shall not be 53967
less stringent than any applicable standards specified in 42 53968
C.F.R. 75. The rules shall establish all of the following:53969

       (A) Standards for licensing general x-ray machine operators, 53970
radiographers, radiation therapy technologists, and nuclear 53971
medicine technologists;53972

       (B) Application and renewal fees for licenses issued under 53973
this chapter that do not exceed the cost incurred in issuing and 53974
renewing the licenses;53975

       (C) Standards for accreditation of educational programs and 53976
approval of continuing education programs in general x-ray machine 53977
operation, radiography, radiation therapy technology, and nuclear 53978
medicine technology;53979

       (D) Fees for accrediting educational programs and approving 53980
continuing education programs in general x-ray machine operation, 53981
radiography, radiation therapy technology, and nuclear medicine 53982
technology that do not exceed the cost incurred in accrediting the 53983
educational programs;53984

       (E) Fees for issuing conditional licenses under section 53985
4773.05 of the Revised Code that do not exceed the cost incurred 53986
in issuing the licenses;53987

       (F) Continuing education requirements that must be met to 53988
have a license renewed under section 4773.03 of the Revised Code;53989

       (G) Continuing education requirements that the holder of a 53990
conditional license must meet to receive a license issued under 53991
section 4773.03 of the Revised Code;53992

       (H) Any other rules necessary for the implementation or 53993
administration of this chapter.53994

       Sec. 4781.01.  As used in this chapter:53995

       (A) "Industrialized unit" has the same meaning as in division 53996
(C)(3) of section 3781.06 of the Revised Code.53997

       (B) "Installation" means any of the following:53998

       (1) The temporary or permanent construction of stabilization, 53999
support, and anchoring systems for manufactured housing;54000

       (2) The placement and erection of a manufactured housing unit 54001
or components of a unit on a structural support system;54002

       (3) The supporting, blocking, leveling, securing, anchoring, 54003
underpinning, or adjusting of any section or component of a 54004
manufactured housing unit;54005

       (4) The joining or connecting of all sections or components 54006
of a manufactured housing unit.54007

       (C) "Manufactured home" has the same meaning as in division 54008
(C)(4) of section 3781.06 of the Revised Code.54009

       (D) "Manufactured home park" has the same meaning as in 54010
division (A) of section 3733.01 of the Revised Codemeans any 54011
tract of land upon which three or more manufactured or mobile 54012
homes used for habitation are parked, either free of charge or for 54013
revenue purposes, and includes any roadway, building, structure, 54014
vehicle, or enclosure used or intended for use as a part of the 54015
facilities of the park. "Manufactured home park" does not include 54016
any of the following:54017

       (1) A tract of land used solely for the storage or display 54018
for sale of manufactured or mobile homes or solely as a temporary 54019
park-camp as defined in section 3729.01 of the Revised Code;54020

       (2) A tract of land that is subdivided and the individual 54021
lots are for sale or sold for the purpose of installation of 54022
manufactured or mobile homes used for habitation and the roadways 54023
are dedicated to the local government authority;54024

       (3) A tract of land within an area that is subject to local 54025
zoning authority and subdivision requirements and is subdivided, 54026
and the individual lots are for sale or sold for the purpose of 54027
installation of manufactured or mobile homes for habitation.54028

       (E) "Manufactured housing" means manufactured homes and 54029
mobile homes.54030

       (F) "Manufactured housing installer" means an individual who 54031
installs manufactured housing.54032

       (G) "Mobile home" has the same meaning as in division (O) of 54033
section 4501.01 of the Revised Code.54034

       (H) "Model standards" means the federal manufactured home 54035
installation standards established pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 5404.54036

       (I) "Permanent foundation" has the same meaning as in 54037
division (C)(5) of section 3781.06 of the Revised Code.54038

       (J) "Business" includes any activities engaged in by any 54039
person for the object of gain, benefit, or advantage either direct 54040
or indirect.54041

       (K) "Casual sale" means any transfer of a manufactured home 54042
or mobile home by a person other than a manufactured housing 54043
dealer, manufactured housing salesperson, or manufacturer to an 54044
ultimate consumer or a person who purchases the home for use as a 54045
residence.54046

       (L) "Engaging in business" means commencing, conducting, or 54047
continuing in business, or liquidating a business when the 54048
liquidator thereof holds self out to be conducting such business; 54049
making a casual sale or otherwise making transfers in the ordinary 54050
course of business when the transfers are made in connection with 54051
the disposition of all or substantially all of the transferor's 54052
assets is not engaging in business.54053

       (M) "Manufactured home park operator" has the same meaning as 54054
"operator" in section 3733.01 of the Revised Codeor "park 54055
operator" means the person who has responsible charge of a 54056
manufactured home park and who is licensed under sections 4781.26 54057
to 4781.35 of the Revised Code.54058

       (N) "Manufactured housing broker" means any person acting as 54059
a selling agent on behalf of an owner of a manufactured home or 54060
mobile home that is subject to taxation under section 4503.06 of 54061
the Revised Code.54062

       (O) "Manufactured housing dealer" means any person engaged in 54063
the business of selling at retail, displaying, offering for sale, 54064
or dealing in manufactured homes or mobile homes.54065

       (P) "Manufacturer" means a person who manufacturers, 54066
assembles, or imports manufactured homes or mobile homes.54067

        (Q) "Retail sale" or "sale at retail" means the act or 54068
attempted act of selling, bartering, exchanging, or otherwise 54069
disposing of a manufactured home or mobile home to an ultimate 54070
purchaser for use as a residence.54071

       (R) "Salesperson" means any individual employed by a 54072
manufactured housing dealer or manufactured housing broker to 54073
sell, display, and offer for sale, or deal in manufactured homes 54074
or mobile homes for a commission, compensation, or other valuable 54075
consideration, but does not mean any public officer performing 54076
official duties.54077

       (S) "Ultimate purchaser" means, with respect to any new 54078
manufactured home, the first person, other than a manufactured 54079
housing dealer purchasing in the capacity of a manufactured 54080
housing dealer, who purchases such new manufactured home for 54081
purposes other than resale.54082

       (T) "Tenant" means a person who is entitled under a rental 54083
agreement with a manufactured home park operator to occupy a 54084
manufactured home park lot and who does not own the home occupying 54085
the lot.54086

       (U) "Owner" means a person who is entitled under a rental 54087
agreement with a manufactured home park operator to occupy a 54088
manufactured home park lot and who owns the home occupying the 54089
lot.54090

       (V) "Resident" means a person entitled under a rental 54091
agreement to the use and occupancy of residential premises to the 54092
exclusion of others. "Resident" includes both tenants and owners.54093

       (W) "Residential premises" means a lot located within a 54094
manufactured home park and the grounds, areas, and facilities 54095
contained within the manufactured home park for the use of 54096
residents generally or the use of which is promised to a resident.54097

       (X) "Rental agreement" means any agreement or lease, written 54098
or oral, that establishes or modifies the terms, conditions, 54099
rules, or any other provisions concerning the use and occupancy of 54100
residential premises by one of the parties.54101

       (Y) "Security deposit" means any deposit of money or property 54102
to secure performance by the resident under a rental agreement.54103

       (Z) "Development" means any artificial change to improved or 54104
unimproved real estate, including, without limitation, buildings 54105
or structures, dredging, filling, grading, paving, excavation or 54106
drilling operations, or storage of equipment or materials, and the 54107
construction, expansion, or substantial alteration of a 54108
manufactured home park, for which plan review is required under 54109
division (A) of section 4781.31 of the Revised Code. "Development" 54110
does not include the building, construction, erection, or 54111
manufacture of any building to which section 3781.06 of the 54112
Revised Code is applicable.54113

       (AA) "Flood" or "flooding" means either of the following:54114

       (1) A general and temporary condition of partial or complete 54115
inundation of normally dry land areas from any of the following:54116

       (a) The overflow of inland or tidal waters;54117

       (b) The unusual and rapid accumulation or runoff of surface 54118
waters from any source;54119

       (c) Mudslides that are proximately caused by flooding as 54120
defined in division (AA)(1)(b) of this section and that are akin 54121
to a river of liquid and flowing mud on the surface of normally 54122
dry land areas, as when earth is carried by a current of water and 54123
deposited along the path of the current.54124

       (2) The collapse or subsidence of land along the shore of a 54125
lake or other body of water as a result of erosion or undermining 54126
that is caused by waves or currents of water exceeding anticipated 54127
cyclical levels or that is suddenly caused by an unusually high 54128
water level in a natural body of water, and that is accompanied by 54129
a severe storm, by an unanticipated force of nature, such as a 54130
flash flood, by an abnormal tidal surge, or by some similarly 54131
unusual and unforeseeable event, that results in flooding as 54132
defined in division (AA)(1)(a) of this section.54133

       (BB) "Flood plain" means the area adjoining any river, 54134
stream, watercourse, or lake that has been or may be covered by 54135
flood water.54136

       (CC) "One-hundred-year flood" means a flood having a one per 54137
cent chance of being equaled or exceeded in any given year.54138

       (DD) "One-hundred-year flood plain" means that portion of a 54139
flood plain inundated by a one-hundred-year flood.54140

       (EE) "Person" has the same meaning as in section 1.59 of the 54141
Revised Code and also includes this state, any political 54142
subdivision of this state, and any other state or local body of 54143
this state.54144

       (FF) "Substantial damage" means damage of any origin 54145
sustained by a manufactured or mobile home that is situated in a 54146
manufactured home park located in a flood plain when the cost of 54147
restoring the home to its condition before the damage occurred 54148
will equal or exceed fifty per cent of the market value of the 54149
home before the damage occurred.54150

       (GG) "Substantially alter" means a change in the layout or 54151
design of a manufactured home park, including, without limitation, 54152
the movement of utilities or changes in established streets, lots, 54153
or sites or in other facilities. In the case of manufactured home 54154
parks located within a one-hundred-year flood plain, 54155
"substantially alter" also includes changes in elevation resulting 54156
from the addition of fill, grading, or excavation that may affect 54157
flood plain management.54158

       (HH) "Tract" means a contiguous area of land that consists of 54159
one or more parcels, lots, or sites that have been separately 54160
surveyed regardless of whether the individual parcels, lots, or 54161
sites have been recorded and regardless of whether the one or more 54162
parcels, lots, or sites are under common or different ownership.54163

       Sec. 4781.02. (A) There is hereby created the manufactured 54164
homes commission which consists of nine members, with three 54165
members appointed by the governor, three members appointed by the 54166
president of the senate, and three members appointed by the 54167
speaker of the house of representatives.54168

       (B)(1) Commission members shall be residents of this state, 54169
except for members appointed pursuant to divisions (B)(3)(b) and 54170
(B)(4)(a) of this section. Members shall be selected from a list 54171
of persons the Ohio manufactured homes association, or any 54172
successor entity, recommends, except for appointments made 54173
pursuant to division (B)(2) of this section.54174

       (2) The governor shall appoint the following members:54175

       (a) One member to represent the board of building standards, 54176
who may be a member of the board or a board employee not in the 54177
classified civil service, with an initial term ending December 31, 54178
2007;54179

       (b) One member to represent the department of health, who may 54180
be a department employee not in the classified civil service, with 54181
an initial term ending December 31, 2005who is registered as a 54182
sanitarian in accordance with Chapter 4736. of the Revised Code, 54183
has experience with the regulation of manufactured homes, and is 54184
an employee of a health district described in section 3709.01 of 54185
the Revised Code;54186

       (c) One member whose primary residence is a manufactured 54187
home, with an initial term ending December 31, 2006.54188

       (3) The president of the senate shall appoint the following 54189
members:54190

        (a) Two members who are manufactured housing installers who 54191
have been actively engaged in the installation of manufactured 54192
housing for the five years immediately prior to appointment, with 54193
the initial term of one installer ending December 31, 2007, and 54194
the initial term of the other installer ending December 31, 2005.54195

       (b) One member who manufactures manufactured homes in this 54196
state or who manufactures manufactured homes in another state and 54197
ships homes into this state, to represent manufactured home 54198
manufacturers, with an initial term ending December 31, 2006.54199

       (4) The speaker of the house of representatives shall appoint 54200
the following members:54201

       (a) One member who operates a manufactured or mobile home 54202
retail business in this state to represent manufactured housing 54203
dealers, with an initial term ending December 31, 2007;54204

       (b) One member who is a manufactured home park operator or is 54205
employed by an operator, with an initial term ending December 31, 54206
2005;54207

       (c) One member to represent the Ohio manufactured home 54208
association, or any successor entity, who may be the president or 54209
executive director of the association or the successor entity, 54210
with an initial term ending December 31, 2006.54211

       (C)(1) After the initial term, each term of office is for 54212
four years ending on the thirty-first day of December. A member 54213
holds office from the date of appointment until the end of the 54214
term. No member may serve more than two consecutive four-year 54215
terms.54216

       (2) Any member appointed to fill a vacancy that occurs prior 54217
to the expiration of a term continues in office for the remainder 54218
of that term. Any member continues in office subsequent to the 54219
expiration date of the term until the member's successor takes 54220
office or until sixty days have elapsed, which ever occurs first.54221

       (3) A vacancy on the commission does not impair the authority 54222
of the remaining members to exercise all of the commission's 54223
powers.54224

       (D)(1) The governor may remove any member from office for 54225
incompetence, neglect of duty, misfeasance, nonfeasance, 54226
malfeasance, or unprofessional conduct in office.54227

       (2) Vacancies shall be filled in the manner of the original 54228
appointment.54229

       Sec. 4781.04. (A) The manufactured homes commission shall 54230
adopt rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to do all 54231
of the following:54232

       (1) Establish uniform standards that govern the installation 54233
of manufactured housing. Not later than one hundred eighty days 54234
after the secretary of the United States department of housing and 54235
urban development adopts model standards for the installation of 54236
manufactured housing or amends those standards, the commission 54237
shall amend its standards as necessary to be consistent with, and 54238
not less stringent than, the model standards for the design and 54239
installation of manufactured housing the secretary adopts or any 54240
manufacturers' standards that the secretary determines are equal 54241
to or not less stringent than the model standards.54242

       (2) Govern the inspection of the installation of manufactured 54243
housing. The rules shall specify that the commission, any building 54244
department or personnel of any department, any licensor or 54245
personnel of any licensor, or any private third party, certified 54246
pursuant to section 4781.07 of the Revised Code shall conduct all 54247
inspections of the installation of manufactured housing located in 54248
manufactured home parks to determine compliance with the uniform 54249
installation standards the commission establishes pursuant to this 54250
section. 54251

       As used in division (A)(2) of this section, "licensor" has 54252
the same meaning as in section 3733.01 of the Revised Code.54253

       (3) Govern the design, construction, installation, approval, 54254
and inspection of foundations and the base support systems for 54255
manufactured housing. The rules shall specify that the commission, 54256
any building department or personnel of any department, any 54257
licensor or personnel of any licensor, or any private third party, 54258
certified pursuant to section 4781.07 of the Revised Code shall 54259
conduct all inspections of the installation, foundations, and base 54260
support systems of manufactured housing located in manufactured 54261
home parks to determine compliance with the uniform installation 54262
standards and foundation and base support system design the 54263
commission establishes pursuant to this section. 54264

       As used in division (A)(3) of this section, "licensor" has 54265
the same meaning as in section 3733.01 of the Revised Code.54266

       (4) Govern the training, experience, and education 54267
requirements for manufactured housing installers, manufactured 54268
housing dealers, manufactured housing brokers, and manufactured 54269
housing salespersons;54270

       (5) Establish a code of ethics for manufactured housing 54271
installers;54272

       (6) Govern the issuance, revocation, and suspension of 54273
licenses to manufactured housing installers;54274

       (7) Establish fees for the issuance and renewal of licenses, 54275
for conducting inspections to determine an applicant's compliance 54276
with this chapter and the rules adopted pursuant to it, and for 54277
the commission's expenses incurred in implementing this chapter;54278

       (8) Establish conditions under which a licensee may enter 54279
into contracts to fulfill the licensee's responsibilities;54280

       (9) Govern the investigation of complaints concerning any 54281
violation of this chapter or the rules adopted pursuant to it or 54282
complaints involving the conduct of any licensed manufactured 54283
housing installer or person installing manufactured housing 54284
without a license, licensed manufactured housing dealer, licensed 54285
manufactured housing broker, or manufactured housing salesperson;54286

       (10) Establish a dispute resolution program for the timely 54287
resolution of warranty issues involving new manufactured homes, 54288
disputes regarding responsibility for the correction or repair of 54289
defects in manufactured housing, and the installation of 54290
manufactured housing. The rules shall provide for the timely 54291
resolution of disputes between manufacturers, manufactured housing 54292
dealers, and installers regarding the correction or repair of 54293
defects in manufactured housing that are reported by the purchaser 54294
of the home during the one-year period beginning on the date of 54295
installation of the home. The rules also shall provide that 54296
decisions made regarding the dispute under the program are not 54297
binding upon the purchaser of the home or the other parties 54298
involved in the dispute unless the purchaser so agrees in a 54299
written acknowledgement that the purchaser signs and delivers to 54300
the program within ten business days after the decision is issued.54301

       (11) Establish the requirements and procedures for the 54302
certification of building departments and building department 54303
personnel pursuant to section 4781.07 of the Revised Code;54304

       (12) Establish fees to be charged to building departments and 54305
building department personnel applying for certification and 54306
renewal of certification pursuant to section 4781.07 of the 54307
Revised Code;54308

       (13) Develop a policy regarding the maintenance of records 54309
for any inspection authorized or conducted pursuant to this 54310
chapter. Any record maintained under division (A)(13) of this 54311
section shall be a public record under section 149.43 of the 54312
Revised Code.54313

       (14) Carry out any other provision of this chapter.54314

       (B) The manufactured homes commission shall do all of the 54315
following:54316

       (1) Prepare and administer a licensure examination to 54317
determine an applicant's knowledge of manufactured housing 54318
installation and other aspects of installation the commission 54319
determines appropriate;54320

       (2) Select, provide, or procure appropriate examination 54321
questions and answers for the licensure examination and establish 54322
the criteria for successful completion of the examination;54323

       (3) Prepare and distribute any application form this chapter 54324
requires;54325

       (4) Receive applications for licenses and renewal of licenses 54326
and issue licenses to qualified applicants;54327

       (5) Establish procedures for processing, approving, and 54328
disapproving applications for licensure;54329

       (6) Retain records of applications for licensure, including 54330
all application materials submitted and a written record of the 54331
action taken on each application;54332

       (7) Review the design and plans for manufactured housing 54333
installations, foundations, and support systems;54334

       (8) Inspect a sample of homes at a percentage the commission 54335
determines to evaluate the construction and installation of 54336
manufactured housing installations, foundations, and support 54337
systems to determine compliance with the standards the commission 54338
adopts;54339

       (9) Investigate complaints concerning violations of this 54340
chapter or the rules adopted pursuant to it, or the conduct of any 54341
manufactured housing installer, manufactured housing dealer, 54342
manufactured housing broker, or manufactured housing salesperson;54343

       (10) Determine appropriate disciplinary actions for 54344
violations of this chapter;54345

       (11) Conduct audits and inquiries of manufactured housing 54346
installers, manufactured housing dealers, and manufactured housing 54347
brokers as appropriate for the enforcement of this chapter. The 54348
commission, or any person the commission employs for the purpose, 54349
may review and audit the business records of any manufactured 54350
housing installer, dealer, or broker during normal business hours.54351

       (12) Approve an installation training course, which may be 54352
offered by the Ohio manufactured homes association or other 54353
entity;54354

       (13) Perform any function or duty necessary to administer 54355
this chapter and the rules adopted pursuant to it.54356

       (C) Nothing in this section shall be construed to limit the 54357
authority of a board of health to enforce section 3701.344 or 54358
Chapters 3703., 3718., and 3781. of the Revised Code.54359

       Sec. 4781.07. (A) Pursuant to rules the manufactured homes 54360
commission adopts, the commission may certify municipal, township, 54361
and county building departments and the personnel of those 54362
departments, licensors as defined in section 3733.01 of the 54363
Revised Code and the personnel of those licensors, or any private 54364
third party, to exercise the commission's enforcement authority, 54365
accept and approve plans and specifications for foundations, 54366
support systems and installations, and inspect manufactured 54367
housing foundations, support systems, and manufactured housing 54368
installations. Any certification is effective for three years.54369

       (B) Following an investigation and finding of facts that 54370
support its action, the commission may revoke or suspend 54371
certification. The commission may initiate an investigation on its 54372
own motion or the petition of a person affected by the enforcement 54373
or approval of plans.54374

       Sec. 4781.09. (A) The manufactured homes commission may deny, 54375
suspend, revoke, or refuse to renew the license of any 54376
manufactured home installer for any of the following reasons:54377

       (1) Failure to satisfy the requirements of section 4781.08 or 54378
4781.10 of the Revised Code;54379

       (2) Violation of this chapter or any rule adopted pursuant to 54380
it;54381

       (3) Making a material misstatement in an application for a 54382
license;54383

       (4) Installing manufactured housing without a license or 54384
without being under the supervision of a licensed manufactured 54385
housing installer;54386

       (5) Failure to appear for a hearing before the commission or 54387
to comply with any final adjudication order of the commission 54388
issued pursuant to this chapter;54389

       (6) Conviction of a felony or a crime involving moral 54390
turpitude;54391

       (7) Having had a license revoked, suspended, or denied by the 54392
commission during the preceding two years;54393

       (8) Having had a license revoked, suspended, or denied by 54394
another state or jurisdiction during the preceding two years;54395

       (9) Engaging in conduct in another state or jurisdiction that 54396
would violate this chapter if committed in this state.54397

       (10) Failing to provide written notification of an 54398
installation pursuant to division (D) of section 4781.11 of the 54399
Revised Code to a county treasurer or county auditor.54400

       (B)(1) Any person whose license or license application is 54401
revoked, suspended, denied, or not renewed or upon whom a civil 54402
penalty is imposed pursuant to division (C) of this section may 54403
request an adjudication hearing on the matter within thirty days 54404
after receipt of the notice of the action. The hearing shall be 54405
held in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.54406

       (2) Any licensee or applicant may appeal an order made 54407
pursuant to an adjudication hearing in the manner provided in 54408
section 119.12 of the Revised Code.54409

       (C) As an alternative to suspending, revoking, or refusing to 54410
renew a manufactured housing installer's license, the commission 54411
may impose a civil penalty of not less than one hundred dollars or 54412
more than five hundred dollars per violation of this chapter or 54413
any rule adopted pursuant to it. The commission shall deposit 54414
penalties in the occupational licensing and regulatory fund 54415
pursuant to section 4743.05 of the Revised Code.54416

       (D) A person whose license is suspended, revoked, or not 54417
renewed may apply for a new license two years after the date on 54418
which the license was suspended, revoked, or not renewed.54419

       Sec. 4781.121. (A) The manufactured homes commission, 54420
pursuant to section 4781.04 of the Revised Code, may investigate 54421
any person who allegedly has committed a violation. If, after an 54422
investigation the commission determines that reasonable evidence 54423
exists that a person has committed a violation, within seven days 54424
after that determination, the commission shall send a written 54425
notice to that person in the same manner as prescribed in section 54426
119.07 of the Revised Code for licensees, except that the notice 54427
shall specify that a hearing will be held and specify the date, 54428
time, and place of the hearing.54429

       (B) The commission shall hold a hearing regarding the alleged 54430
violation in the same manner prescribed for an adjudication 54431
hearing under section 119.09 of the Revised Code. If the 54432
commission, after the hearing, determines that a violation has 54433
occurred, the commission, upon an affirmative vote of five of its 54434
members, may impose a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars per 54435
violation per day. The commission's determination is an order that 54436
the person may appeal in accordance with section 119.12 of the 54437
Revised Code.54438

       (C) If the person who allegedly committed a violation fails 54439
to appear for a hearing, the commission may request the court of 54440
common pleas of the county where the alleged violation occurred to 54441
compel the person to appear before the commission for a hearing.54442

       (D) If the commission assesses a person a civil penalty for a 54443
violation and the person fails to pay that civil penalty within 54444
the time period prescribed by the commission pursuant to section 54445
131.02 of the Revised Code, the commission shall forward to the 54446
attorney general the name of the person and the amount of the 54447
civil penalty for the purpose of collecting that civil penalty. In 54448
addition to the civil penalty assessed pursuant to this section, 54449
the person also shall pay any fee assessed by the attorney general 54450
for collection of the civil penalty.54451

       (E) The authority provided to the commission pursuant to this 54452
section, and any fine imposed under this section, shall be in 54453
addition to, and not in lieu of, all penalties and other remedies 54454
provided in this chapter. Any fines collected pursuant to this 54455
section shall be used solely to administer and enforce this 54456
chapter and rules adopted under it. Any fees collected pursuant to 54457
this section shall be transmitted to the treasurer of state and 54458
shall be credited to the manufactured homes commission regulatory 54459
fund created in section 4781.54 of the Revised Code and the rules 54460
adopted thereunder. The fees shall be used only for the purpose of 54461
administering and enforcing sections 4781.26 to 4781.35 of the 54462
Revised Code and the rules adopted thereunder.54463

       (F) As used in this section, "violation" means a violation of 54464
section 4781.11, 4781.16, or 4781.27, or any rule adopted pursuant 54465
to section 4781.04, of the Revised Code.54466

       Sec. 4781.14.  (A) Except as provided in division (A)(3) of 54467
section 3733.02 of the Revised Code, the state, through theThe54468
manufactured homes commission, has exclusive authority to regulate 54469
manufactured home installers, the installation of manufactured 54470
housing, and manufactured housing foundations and support systems 54471
in thethis state. By enacting this chapter, it is the intent of 54472
the general assembly to preempt municipal corporations and other 54473
political subdivisions from regulating and licensing manufactured 54474
housing installers and regulating and inspecting the installation 54475
of manufactured housing and manufactured housing foundations and 54476
support systems.54477

       (B) Except as provided in division (A)(3) of section 3733.02 54478
of the Revised Code, theThe manufactured homes commission has 54479
exclusive power to adopt rules of uniform application throughout 54480
the state governing installation of manufactured housing, the 54481
inspection of manufactured housing foundations and support 54482
systems, the inspection of the installation of manufactured 54483
housing, the training and licensing of manufactured housing 54484
installers, and the investigation of complaints concerning 54485
manufactured housing installers.54486

       (C) Except as provided in division (A)(3) of section 3733.02 54487
of the Revised Code, theThe rules the commission adopts pursuant 54488
to this chapter are the exclusive rules governing the installation 54489
of manufactured housing, the design, construction, and approval of 54490
foundations for manufactured housing, the licensure of 54491
manufactured home installers, and the fees charged for licensure 54492
of manufactured home installers. No political subdivision of the 54493
state or any department or agency of the state may establish any 54494
other standards governing the installation of manufactured 54495
housing, manufactured housing foundations and support systems, the 54496
licensure of manufactured housing installers, or fees charged for 54497
the licensure of manufactured housing installers.54498

       (D) Nothing in this section limits the authority of the 54499
attorney general to enforce Chapter 1345. of the Revised Code or 54500
to take any action permitted by the Revised Code against 54501
manufactured housing installers, retailers, or manufacturers.54502

       Sec. 4781.15. The remedies provided in sections 4781.01 to 54503
4781.14 of the Revised Codethis chapter are in addition to 54504
remedies otherwise available for the same conduct under state or 54505
local law.54506

       Sec. 3733.02.        Sec. 4781.26.  (A)(1) The public health council54507
manufactured homes commission, subject to Chapter 119. of the 54508
Revised Code, shall adopt, and has the exclusive power to adopt, 54509
rules of uniform application throughout the state governing the 54510
review of plans, issuance of flood plain management permits, and 54511
issuance of licenses for manufactured home parks; the location, 54512
layout, density, construction, drainage, sanitation, safety, and 54513
operation of those parks; and notices of flood events concerning, 54514
and flood protection at, those parks. The rules pertaining to 54515
flood plain management shall be consistent with and not less 54516
stringent than the flood plain management criteria of the national 54517
flood insurance program adopted under the "National Flood 54518
Insurance Act of 1968," 82 Stat. 572, 42 U.S.C.A. 4001, as 54519
amended. The rules shall not apply to the construction, erection, 54520
or manufacture of any building to which section 3781.06 of the 54521
Revised Code is applicable.54522

       (2)(B) The rules pertaining to manufactured home parks 54523
constructed after June 30, 1971, shall specify that each home must 54524
be placed on its lot to provide not less than fifteen feet between 54525
the side of one home and the side of another home, ten feet 54526
between the end of one home and the side of another home, and five 54527
feet between the ends of two homes placed end to end.54528

       (3)(C) The manufactured homes commission shall determine 54529
compliance with the installation, blocking, tiedown, foundation, 54530
and base support system standards for manufactured housing located 54531
in manufactured home parks adopted by the commission pursuant to 54532
section 4781.04 of the Revised Code. All inspections of the 54533
installation, blocking, tiedown, foundation, and base support 54534
systems of manufactured housing in a manufactured home park that 54535
the department of health or a licensorcommission conducts shall 54536
be conducted by a person who has completed an installation 54537
training course approved by the manufactured homes commission 54538
certifies pursuant to division (B)(12) of section 4781.044781.0754539
of the Revised Code.54540

       As used in division (A)(3) of this section, "manufactured 54541
housing" has the same meaning as in section 4781.01 of the Revised 54542
Code.54543

       (B) The public health council, in accordance with Chapter 54544
119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt rules of uniform application 54545
throughout the state establishing requirements and procedures in 54546
accordance with which the director of health may authorize 54547
licensors for the purposes of sections 3733.022 and 3733.025 of 54548
the Revised Code. The rules shall include at least provisions 54549
under which a licensor may enter into contracts for the purpose of 54550
fulfilling the licensor's responsibilities under either or both of 54551
those sections.54552

       (D) The manufactured homes commission may enter into 54553
contracts for the purpose of fulfilling the commission's annual 54554
inspection responsibilities for manufactured home parks under this 54555
chapter. Boards of health of city or general health districts 54556
shall have the right of first refusal for those contracts.54557

       Sec. 3733.03.        Sec. 4781.27.  (A)(1) On or after the first day of 54558
December, but before the first day of January of the next year, 54559
every person who intends to operate a manufactured home park shall 54560
procure a license to operate the park for the next year from the 54561
licensormanufactured homes commission. If the applicable license 54562
fee prescribed under section 3733.044781.28 of the Revised Code 54563
is not received by the licensorcommission by the close of 54564
business on the last day of December, the applicant for the 54565
license shall pay a penalty equal to twenty-five per cent of the 54566
applicable license fee. The penalty shall accompany the license 54567
fee. If the last day of December is not a business day, the 54568
penalty attaches upon the close of business on the next business 54569
day.54570

       (2) No manufactured home park shall be maintained or operated 54571
in this state without a license.54572

       (3) No person who has received a license, upon the sale or 54573
disposition of the manufactured home park, may have the license 54574
transferred to the new operator. A person shall obtain a separate 54575
license to operate each manufactured home park.54576

       (B) Before a license is initially issued and annually 54577
thereafter, or more often if necessary, the licensorcommission54578
shall cause each manufactured home park to be inspected relative 54579
tofor compliance with sections 3733.014781.26 to 3733.084781.3554580
of the Revised Code and the rules adopted under those sections. A 54581
record shall be made of each inspection on a form prescribed by 54582
the director of healthcommission.54583

       (C) Each person applying for an initial license to operate a 54584
manufactured home park shall provide acceptable proof to the 54585
director commission that adequate fire protection will be 54586
provided and that applicable fire codes will be adhered to in the 54587
construction and operation of the park.54588

       Sec. 3733.04.        Sec. 4781.28.  The licensor of a manufactured home 54589
parkmanufactured homes commission may charge a fee for an annual 54590
license to operate such a manufactured home park. The fee for a 54591
license shall be determined in accordance with section 3709.0954592
4781.26 of the Revised Code and shall include the cost of 54593
licensing and all inspections.54594

       The fee also shall include any additional amount determined 54595
by rule of the public health council, which shall be collected and 54596
transmitted by the board of health to the director of health 54597
pursuant to section 3709.092 of the Revised Code and used only for 54598
the purpose of administering and enforcing sections 3733.01 to 54599
3733.08 of the Revised Code and the rules adopted under those 54600
sections. The portion of any fee retained by the board of health54601
Any fees collected shall be paid into a special fundtransmitted 54602
to the treasurer of state and shall be credited to the 54603
manufactured homes commission regulatory fund created in section 54604
4781.54 of the Revised Code and used only for the purpose of 54605
administering and enforcing sections 3733.014781.26 to 3733.0854606
4781.35 of the Revised Code and the rules adopted thereunder.54607

       Sec. 3733.05.        Sec. 4781.29.  The licensor of the health district in 54608
which a manufactured home park is or is to be located, in 54609
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code,manufactured 54610
homes commission may refuse to grant, may suspend, or may revoke 54611
any license granted to any person for failure to comply with 54612
sections 3733.014781.26 to 3733.084781.35 of the Revised Code or 54613
with any rule adopted by the public health council under section 54614
3733.024781.26 of the Revised Code.54615

       Sec. 3733.06.        Sec. 4781.30.  (A) Upon a license being issued under 54616
sections 3733.034781.27 to 3733.054781.29 of the Revised Code, 54617
any operator shall have the right to rent or use each lot for the 54618
parking or placement of a manufactured home or mobile home to be 54619
used for human habitation without interruption for any period 54620
coextensive with any license or consecutive licenses issued under 54621
sections 3733.034781.27 to 3733.054781.29 of the Revised Code.54622

       (B) No operator of a manufactured home park shall sell 54623
individual lots in a park for eight years following the issuance 54624
of the initial license for the park unless, at the time of sale, 54625
the park fulfills all platting and subdivision requirements 54626
established by the political subdivision in which the park is 54627
located, or the political subdivision has entered into an 54628
agreement with the operator regarding platting and subdivision 54629
requirements and the operator has fulfilled the terms of that 54630
agreement.54631

       Sec. 3733.07.        Sec. 4781.301.  Fees authorized or charged under 54632
sections 3733.021, 3733.0224781.31, 4781.32, and 3733.044781.2854633
of the Revised Code are in lieu of all license and inspection fees 54634
on or with respect to the operation or ownership of manufactured 54635
home parks within this state, except that the licensor may charge 54636
additional reasonable fees for the collection and bacteriological 54637
examination of any necessary water samples taken from any such 54638
park.54639

       Sec. 3733.021.        Sec. 4781.31.  (A) No person shall cause development 54640
to occur within any portion of a manufactured home park until the 54641
plans for the development have been submitted to and reviewed and 54642
approved by the director of healthmanufactured homes commission. 54643
This division does not require that plans be submitted to the 54644
directorcommission for approval for the replacement of 54645
manufactured or mobile homes on previously approved lots in a 54646
manufactured home park when no development is to occur in 54647
connection with the replacement. Within thirty days after receipt 54648
of the plans, all supporting documents and materials required to 54649
complete the review, and the applicable plan review fee 54650
established under division (D) of this section, the director54651
commission shall approve or disapprove the plans.54652

       (B) Any person aggrieved by the director'scommission's54653
disapproval of a set of plans under division (A) of this section 54654
may request a hearing on the matter within thirty days after 54655
receipt of the director'scommission's notice of the disapproval. 54656
The hearing shall be held in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 54657
Revised Code. Thereafter, the disapproval may be appealed in the 54658
manner provided in section 119.12 of the Revised Code.54659

       (C) The directorcommission shall establish a system by which 54660
development occurring within a manufactured home park is inspected 54661
or verified in accordance with rules adopted under division (A) of54662
section 3733.024781.26 of the Revised Code to ensure that the 54663
development complies with the plans approved under division (A) of 54664
this section.54665

       (D) The public health councilcommission shall establish fees 54666
for reviewing plans under division (A) of this section and 54667
conducting inspections under division (C) of this section.54668

       (E) The directorcommission shall charge the appropriate fees 54669
established under division (D) of this section for reviewing plans 54670
under division (A) of this section and conducting inspections 54671
under division (C) of this section. All such plan review and 54672
inspection fees received by the directorcommission shall be 54673
transmitted to the treasurer of state and shall be credited to the 54674
general operationsoccupational licensing and regulatory fund 54675
created in section 3701.834743.05 of the Revised Code. Moneys so 54676
credited to the fund shall be used only for the purpose of 54677
administering and enforcing sections 3733.014781.26 to 3733.0854678
4781.35 of the Revised Code and rules adopted under those 54679
sections.54680

       (F) Plan approvals issued under this section do not 54681
constitute an exemption from the land use and building 54682
requirements of the political subdivision in which the 54683
manufactured home park is or is to be located.54684

       Sec. 3733.022.        Sec. 4781.32.  (A) No person shall cause development 54685
to occur or cause the replacement of a mobile or manufactured home 54686
within any portion of a manufactured home park that is located 54687
within a one-hundred-year flood plain unless the person first 54688
obtains a permit from the director of health or a licensor 54689
authorized by the directormanufactured homes commission. If the 54690
development for which a permit is required under this division is 54691
to occur on a lot where a mobile or manufactured home is or is to 54692
be located, the owner of the home and the operator of the 54693
manufactured home park shall jointly obtain the permit. Each of 54694
the persons to whom a permit is jointly issued is responsible for 54695
compliance with the provisions of the approved permit that are 54696
applicable to that person.54697

       The director or a licensor authorized by the director 54698
commission shall disapprove an application for a permit required 54699
under this division unless the director or the licensorcommission54700
finds that the proposed development or replacement of a mobile or 54701
manufactured home complies with the rules adopted under division 54702
(A) of section 3733.024781.26 of the Revised Code. No permit is 54703
required under this division for the construction, erection, or 54704
manufacture of any building to which section 3781.06 of the 54705
Revised Code applies.54706

       The director or a licensor authorized by the director54707
commission may suspend or revoke a permit issued under this 54708
division for failure to comply with the rules adopted under 54709
division (A) of section 3733.024781.26 of the Revised Code 54710
pertaining to flood plain management or for failure to comply with 54711
the approved permit.54712

       Any person aggrieved by the disapproval, suspension, or 54713
revocation of a permit under this division by the director or by a 54714
licensor authorized by the directorcommission may request a 54715
hearing on the matter within thirty days after receipt of the 54716
notice of the disapproval, suspension, or revocation. The hearing 54717
shall be held in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. 54718
Thereafter, an appeal of the disapproval, suspension, or 54719
revocation may be taken in the manner provided in section 119.12 54720
of the Revised Code.54721

       (B) The public health councilcommission shall establish fees 54722
for the issuance of permits under division (A) of this section and 54723
for necessary inspections conducted to determine compliance with 54724
those permits.54725

       (C) The director or a licensor authorized by the director54726
commission shall charge the appropriate fee established under 54727
division (B) of this section for the issuance of a permit under 54728
division (A) of this section or for conducting any necessary 54729
inspection to determine compliance with the permit. If the 54730
directorcommission issues such a permit or conducts such an 54731
inspection, the fee for the permit or inspection shall be 54732
transmitted to the treasurer of state and shall be credited to the 54733
general operationsoccupational licensing and regulatory fund 54734
created in section 3701.834743.05 of the Revised Code. Moneys so 54735
credited to the fund shall be used by the director only for the 54736
purpose of administering and enforcing sections 3733.014781.26 to54737
3733.084781.35 of the Revised Code and rules adopted under those 54738
sections. If the licensor is a board of health, the permit or 54739
inspection fee shall be deposited to the credit of the special 54740
fund of the health district created in section 3733.04 of the 54741
Revised Code and shall be used only for the purpose set forth in 54742
that section.54743

       Sec. 3733.024.        Sec. 4781.33. (A) When a flood event affects a 54744
manufactured home park, the operator of the manufactured home 54745
park, in accordance with rules adopted under division (A) of54746
section 3733.024781.26 of the Revised Code, shall notify the 54747
licensor having jurisdiction of the occurrence ofmanufactured 54748
homes commission and the board of health having jurisdiction where54749
the flood event occurred within forty-eight hours after the end of 54750
the flood event. The commission, after receiving notification, 54751
shall immediately notify the board of health.54752

       No person shall fail to comply with this division.54753

       (B) The licensor having jurisdiction where a flood event 54754
occurred that affected a manufactured home park shall notify the 54755
director of health of the occurrence of the flood event within 54756
twenty-four hours after being notified of the flood event under 54757
division (A) of this section. Within forty-eight hours afterAfter54758
being notified of such a flood event by a licensor, the director54759
board of health shall cause an inspection to be made of the 54760
manufactured home park named in the notice. The board of health 54761
shall issue a report of the inspection to the commission within 54762
ten days after the inspection is completed.54763

       Sec. 3733.025.        Sec. 4781.34.  (A) If a mobile or manufactured home 54764
that is located in a flood plain is substantially damaged, the 54765
owner of the home shall make all alterations, repairs, or changes 54766
to the home, and the operator of the manufactured home park shall 54767
make all alterations, repairs, or changes to the lot on which the 54768
home is located, that are necessary to ensure compliance with the 54769
flood plain management rules adopted under division (A) of section 54770
3733.024781.26 of the Revised Code. Such alterations, repairs, or 54771
changes may include, without limitation, removal of the home or 54772
other structures.54773

       No person shall fail to comply with this division.54774

       (B) No person shall cause to be performed any alteration, 54775
repair, or change required by division (A) of this section unless 54776
the person first obtains a permit from the director of health or a 54777
licensor authorized by the directormanufactured homes commission. 54778
The owner of the home and the operator of the manufactured home 54779
park shall jointly obtain the permit required by this division. 54780
Each of the persons to whom a permit is jointly issued is 54781
responsible for compliance with the provisions of the approved 54782
permit that are applicable to that person.54783

       The director or a licensor authorized by the director54784
commission shall disapprove an application for a permit required 54785
under this division unless the director or the licensorcommission54786
finds that the proposed alteration, repair, or change complies 54787
with the rules adopted under division (A) of section 3733.0254788
4781.26 of the Revised Code. No permit is required under this 54789
division for the construction, erection, or manufacture of any 54790
building to which section 3781.06 of the Revised Code applies.54791

       The director or a licensor authorized by the director54792
commission may suspend or revoke a permit issued under this 54793
division for failure to comply with the rules adopted under 54794
division (A) of section 3733.024781.26 of the Revised Code 54795
pertaining to flood plain management or for failure to comply with 54796
the approved permit for making alterations, repairs, or changes to 54797
the lot on which the manufactured home is located.54798

       Any person aggrieved by the disapproval, suspension, or 54799
revocation of a permit under this division by the director or by a 54800
licensor authorized by the directorcommission may request a 54801
hearing on the matter within thirty days after receipt of the 54802
notice of the disapproval, suspension, or revocation. The hearing 54803
shall be held in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. 54804
Thereafter, an appeal of the disapproval, suspension, or 54805
revocation may be taken in the manner provided in section 119.12 54806
of the Revised Code and for necessary inspections conducted to 54807
determine compliance with those permits.54808

       (C) The public health councilcommission shall establish fees 54809
for the issuance of permits under division (B) of this section and 54810
for necessary inspections conducted to determine compliance with 54811
those permits for making alterations, repairs, or changes to the 54812
lot on which the manufactured home is located.54813

       (D) The director or a licensor authorized by the director54814
commission shall charge the appropriate fee established under 54815
division (C) of this section for the issuance of a permit under 54816
division (B) of this section or for conducting any necessary 54817
inspection to determine compliance with the permit. If the 54818
directorcommission issues such a permit or conducts such an 54819
inspection, the fee for the permit or inspection shall be 54820
transmitted to the treasurer of state and shall be credited to the 54821
general operationsoccupational licensing and regulatory fund 54822
created in section 3701.834743.05 of the Revised Code. Moneys so 54823
credited to the fund shall be used by the director only for the 54824
purpose of administering and enforcing sections 3733.014781.26 to54825
3733.084781.35 of the Revised Code and rules adopted under those 54826
sections. If the licensor is a board of health, the permit or 54827
inspection fee shall be deposited to the credit of the special 54828
fund of the health district created in section 3733.04 of the 54829
Revised Code and shall be used only for the purpose set forth in 54830
that section.54831

       Sec. 3733.08.        Sec. 4781.35.  (A) No person shall violate sections 54832
3733.014781.26 to 3733.084781.35 of the Revised Code or the 54833
rules adopted thereunder.54834

       (B) The prosecuting attorney of the county, the city director 54835
of law, or the attorney general, upon complaint of the licensor or 54836
the director of healthmanufactured homes commission, shall 54837
prosecute to termination or bring an action for injunction against 54838
any person violating sections 3733.014781.26 to 3733.084781.3554839
of the Revised Code or the rules adopted thereunder.54840

       Sec. 3733.09.        Sec. 4781.36.  (A) Subject to section 3733.09154841
4781.37 of the Revised Code, a park operator shall not retaliate 54842
against a resident by increasing the resident's rent, decreasing 54843
services that are due to the resident, refusing to renew or 54844
threatening to refuse to renew the rental agreement with the 54845
resident, or bringing or threatening to bring an action for 54846
possession of the resident's premises because:54847

       (1) The resident has complained to an appropriate 54848
governmental agency of a violation of a building, housing, health, 54849
or safety code that is applicable to the premises, and the 54850
violation materially affects health and safety;54851

       (2) The resident has complained to the park operator of any 54852
violation of section 3733.104781.38 of the Revised Code;54853

       (3) The resident joined with other residents for the purpose 54854
of negotiating or dealing collectively with the park operator on 54855
any of the terms and conditions of a rental agreement.54856

       (B) If a park operator acts in violation of division (A) of 54857
this section, the resident may:54858

       (1) Use the retaliatory action of the park operator as a 54859
defense to an action by the park operator to recover possession of 54860
the premises;54861

       (2) Recover possession of the premises;54862

       (3) Terminate the rental agreement.54863

       In addition, the resident may recover from the park operator 54864
any actual damages together with reasonable attorneys fees.54865

       (C) Nothing in division (A) of this section prohibits a park 54866
operator from increasing the rent to reflect the cost of 54867
improvements installed by the park operator in or about the 54868
premises or to reflect an increase in other costs of operation of 54869
the premises.54870

       Sec. 3733.091.        Sec. 4781.37.  (A) Notwithstanding section 3733.0954871
4781.36 of the Revised Code, a park operator may bring an action 54872
under Chapter 1923. of the Revised Code for possession of the 54873
premises if any of the following applies:54874

       (1) The resident is in default in the payment of rent.54875

       (2) The violation of the applicable building, housing, 54876
health, or safety code that the resident complained of was 54877
primarily caused by any act or lack of reasonable care by the 54878
resident, by any other person in the resident's household, or by 54879
anyone on the premises with the consent of the resident.54880

       (3) The resident is holding over the resident's term.54881

       (4) The resident is in violation of rules of the public 54882
health councilmanufactured homes commission adopted pursuant to 54883
section 3733.024781.26 of the Revised Code or rules of the 54884
manufactured home park adopted pursuant to the rules of the public 54885
health councilcommission.54886

       (5) The resident has been absent from the manufactured home 54887
park for a period of thirty consecutive days prior to the 54888
commencement of the action, and the resident's manufactured home, 54889
mobile home, or recreational vehicle parked in the manufactured 54890
home park has been left unoccupied for that thirty-day period, 54891
without notice to the park operator and without payment of rent 54892
due under the rental agreement.54893

       (B) The maintenance of an action by the park operator under 54894
this section does not prevent the resident from recovering damages 54895
for any violation by the park operator of the rental agreement or 54896
of section 3733.104781.38 of the Revised Code.54897

       Sec. 3733.10.        Sec. 4781.38.  (A) A park operator who is a party to 54898
a rental agreement shall:54899

       (1) Comply with the requirements of all applicable building, 54900
housing, health, and safety codes which materially affect health 54901
and safety, and comply with rules of the public health council54902
manufactured homes commission;54903

       (2) Make all repairs and do whatever is reasonably necessary 54904
to put and keep the premises in a fit and habitable condition;54905

       (3) Keep all common areas of the premises in a safe and 54906
sanitary condition;54907

       (4) Maintain in good and safe working order and condition all 54908
electrical and plumbing fixtures and appliances, and septic 54909
systems, sanitary and storm sewers, refuse receptacles, and well 54910
and water systems that are supplied or required to be supplied by54911
himthe park operator;54912

       (5) Not abuse the right of access conferred by division (B) 54913
of section 3733.1014781.39 of the Revised Code;54914

       (6) Except in the case of emergency or if it is impracticable 54915
to do so, give the resident reasonable notice of histhe park 54916
operator's intent to enter onto the residential premises and enter 54917
only at reasonable times. Twenty-four hours' notice shall be 54918
presumed to be a reasonable notice in the absence of evidence to 54919
the contrary.54920

       (B) If the park operator violates any provision of this 54921
section, makes a lawful entry onto the residential premises in an 54922
unreasonable manner, or makes repeated demands for entry otherwise 54923
lawful which demands have the effect of harassing the resident, 54924
the resident may recover actual damages resulting from the 54925
violation, entry, or demands and injunctive relief to prevent the 54926
recurrence of the conduct, and if hethe resident obtains a 54927
judgment, reasonable attorneys' fees, or terminate the rental 54928
agreement.54929

       Sec. 3733.101.        Sec. 4781.39.  (A) A resident who is a party to a 54930
rental agreement shall:54931

       (1) Keep that part of the premises that the resident occupies 54932
and uses safe and sanitary;54933

       (2) Dispose of all rubbish, garbage, and other waste in a 54934
clean, safe, and sanitary manner;54935

       (3) Comply with the requirements imposed on residents by all 54936
applicable state and local housing, health, and safety codes, 54937
rules of the public health councilmanufactured homes commission, 54938
and rules of the manufactured home park;54939

       (4) Personally refrain, and forbid any other person who is on 54940
the premises with the resident's permission, from intentionally or 54941
negligently destroying, defacing, damaging, or removing any 54942
fixture, appliance, or other part of the residential premises;54943

       (5) Conduct self and require other persons on the premises 54944
with the resident's consent to conduct themselves in a manner that 54945
will not disturb the resident's neighbors' peaceful enjoyment of 54946
the manufactured home park.54947

       (B) The resident shall not unreasonably withhold consent for 54948
the park operator to enter the home to inspect utility 54949
connections, or enter onto the premises in order to inspect the 54950
premises, make ordinary, necessary, or agreed repairs, 54951
decorations, alterations, or improvements, deliver parcels which 54952
are too large for the resident's mail facilities, or supply 54953
necessary or agreed services.54954

       (C) If the resident violates any provision of this section, 54955
the park operator may recover any actual damages which result from 54956
the violation and reasonable attorneys' fees. This remedy is in 54957
addition to any right of the park operator to terminate the rental 54958
agreement, to maintain an action for the possession of the 54959
premises, or injunctive relief to compel access under division (B) 54960
of this section.54961

       Sec. 3733.11.        Sec. 4781.40.  (A)(1) The park operator shall offer 54962
each home owner a written rental agreement for a manufactured home 54963
park lot for a term of one year or more that contains terms 54964
essentially the same as any alternative month-to-month rental 54965
agreement offered to current and prospective tenants and owners. 54966
The park operator shall offer the minimum one-year rental 54967
agreement to the owner prior to installation of the home in the 54968
manufactured home park or, if the home is in the manufactured home 54969
park, prior to the expiration of the owner's existing rental 54970
agreement.54971

       (2) The park operator shall deliver the offer to the owner by 54972
certified mail, return receipt requested, or in person. If the 54973
park operator delivers the offer to the owner in person, the owner 54974
shall complete a return showing receipt of the offer. If the owner 54975
does not accept the offer, the park operator is discharged from 54976
any obligation to make any further such offers. If the owner 54977
accepts the offer, the park operator shall, at the expiration of 54978
each successive rental agreement, offer the owner another rental 54979
agreement, for a term that is mutually agreed upon, and that 54980
contains terms essentially the same as the alternative 54981
month-to-month agreement. The park operator shall deliver 54982
subsequent rental offers by ordinary mail or personal delivery. If 54983
the park operator sells the manufactured home park to another 54984
manufactured home park operator, the purchaser is bound by the 54985
rental agreements entered into by the purchaser's predecessor.54986

       (3) If the park operator sells the manufactured home park for 54987
a use other than as a manufactured home park, the park operator 54988
shall give each tenant and owner a written notification by 54989
certified mail, return receipt requested, or by handing it to the 54990
tenant or owner in person. If the park operator delivers the 54991
notification in person, the recipient shall complete a return 54992
showing receipt of the notification. This notification shall 54993
contain notice of the sale of the manufactured home park, and 54994
notice of the date by which the tenant or owner shall vacate. The 54995
date by which the tenant shall vacate shall be at least one 54996
hundred twenty days after receipt of the written notification, and 54997
the date by which the owner shall vacate shall be at least one 54998
hundred eighty days after receipt of the written notification.54999

       (B) A park operator shall fully disclose in writing all fees, 55000
charges, assessments, including rental fees, and rules prior to a 55001
tenant or owner executing a rental agreement and assuming 55002
occupancy in the manufactured home park. No fees, charges, 55003
assessments, or rental fees so disclosed may be increased nor 55004
rules changed by a park operator without specifying the date of 55005
implementation of the changed fees, charges, assessments, rental 55006
fees, or rules, which date shall be not less than thirty days 55007
after written notice of the change and its effective date to all 55008
tenants or owners in the manufactured home park, and no fee, 55009
charge, assessment, or rental fee shall be increased during the 55010
term of any tenant's or owner's rental agreement. Failure on the 55011
part of the park operator to fully disclose all fees, charges, or 55012
assessments shall prevent the park operator from collecting the 55013
undisclosed fees, charges, or assessments. If a tenant or owner 55014
refuses to pay any undisclosed fees, charges, or assessments, the 55015
refusal shall not be used by the park operator as a cause for 55016
eviction in any court.55017

       (C) A park operator shall promulgate rules governing the 55018
rental or occupancy of a lot in the manufactured home park. The 55019
rules shall not be unreasonable, arbitrary, or capricious. A copy 55020
of the rules and any amendments to them shall be delivered by the 55021
park operator to the tenant or owner prior to signing the rental 55022
agreement. A copy of the rules and any amendments to them shall be 55023
posted in a conspicuous place upon the manufactured home park 55024
grounds.55025

       (D) No park operator shall require an owner to purchase from 55026
the park operator any personal property. The park operator may 55027
determine by rule the style or quality of skirting, equipment for 55028
tying down homes, manufactured or mobile home accessories, or 55029
other equipment to be purchased by an owner from a vendor of the 55030
owner's choosing, provided that the equipment is readily available 55031
to the owner. Any such equipment shall be installed in accordance 55032
with the manufactured home park rules.55033

       (E) No park operator shall charge any owner who chooses to 55034
install an electric or gas appliance in a home an additional fee 55035
solely on the basis of the installation, unless the installation 55036
is performed by the park operator at the request of the owner, nor 55037
shall the park operator restrict the installation, service, or 55038
maintenance of the appliance, restrict the ingress or egress of 55039
repairpersons to the manufactured home park for the purpose of 55040
installation, service, or maintenance of the appliance, nor 55041
restrict the making of any interior improvement in a home, if the 55042
installation or improvement is in compliance with applicable 55043
building codes and other provisions of law and if adequate utility 55044
services are available for the installation or improvement.55045

       (F) No park operator shall require a tenant to lease or an 55046
owner to purchase a manufactured or mobile home from the park 55047
operator or any specific person as a condition of or prerequisite 55048
to entering into a rental agreement.55049

       (G) No park operator shall require an owner to use the 55050
services of the park operator or any other specific person for 55051
installation of the manufactured or mobile home on the residential 55052
premises or for the performance of any service.55053

       (H) No park operator shall:55054

       (1) Deny any owner the right to sell the owner's manufactured 55055
home within the manufactured home park if the owner gives the park 55056
operator ten days' notice of the intention to sell the home;55057

       (2) Require the owner to remove the home from the 55058
manufactured home park solely on the basis of the sale of the 55059
home;55060

       (3) Unreasonably refuse to enter into a rental agreement with 55061
a purchaser of a home located within the operator's manufactured 55062
home park;55063

       (4) Charge any tenant or owner any fee, charge, or 55064
assessment, including a rental fee, that is not set forth in the 55065
rental agreement or, if the rental agreement is oral, is not set 55066
forth in a written disclosure given to the tenant or owner prior 55067
to the tenant or owner entering into a rental agreement;55068

       (5) Charge any owner any fee, charge, or assessment because 55069
of the transfer of ownership of a home or because a home is moved 55070
out of or into the manufactured home park, except a charge for the 55071
actual costs and expenses that are incurred by the park operator 55072
in moving the home out of or into the manufactured home park, or 55073
in installing the home in the manufactured home park and that have 55074
not been reimbursed by another tenant or owner.55075

       (I) If the park operator violates any provision of divisions 55076
(A) to (H) of this section, the tenant or owner may recover actual 55077
damages resulting from the violation, and, if the tenant or owner 55078
obtains a judgment, reasonable attorneys' fees, or terminate the 55079
rental agreement.55080

       (J) No rental agreement shall require a tenant or owner to 55081
sell, lease, or sublet the tenant's or owner's interest in the 55082
rental agreement or the manufactured or mobile home that is or 55083
will be located on the lot that is the subject of the rental 55084
agreement to any specific person or through any specific person as 55085
the person's agent.55086

       (K) No park operator shall enter into a rental agreement with 55087
the owner of a manufactured or mobile home for the use of 55088
residential premises, if the rental agreement requires the owner 55089
of the home, as a condition to the owner's renting, occupying, or 55090
remaining on the residential premises, to pay the park operator or 55091
any other person specified in the rental agreement a fee or any 55092
sum of money based on the sale of the home, unless the owner of 55093
the home uses the park operator or other person as the owner's 55094
agent in the sale of the home.55095

       (L) A park operator and a tenant or owner may include in a 55096
rental agreement any terms and conditions, including any term 55097
relating to rent, the duration of an agreement, and any other 55098
provisions governing the rights and obligations of the parties 55099
that are not inconsistent with or prohibited by sections 3733.09 55100
to 3733.20 of the Revised Code or any other rule of law.55101

       (M) Notwithstanding any other provision of the Revised Code, 55102
the owner of a manufactured or mobile home that was previously 55103
titled by a dealer may utilize the services of a manufactured home55104
housing dealer or broker licensed under Chapter 4517. of the 55105
Revised Code or a person properly licensed under Chapter 4735.55106
4781. of the Revised Code to sell or lease the home.55107

       Sec. 3733.12.        Sec. 4781.41.  (A) If a park operator fails to 55108
fulfill any obligation imposed upon himthe park operator by 55109
section 3733.104781.38 of the Revised Code or by the rental 55110
agreement, or the conditions of the premises are such that the 55111
resident reasonably believes that a park operator has failed to 55112
fulfill any such obligations, or a governmental agency has found 55113
that the premises are not in compliance with building, housing, 55114
health, or safety codes which apply to any condition of the 55115
residential premises that could materially affect the health and 55116
safety of an occupant, the resident may give notice in writing to 55117
the park operator specifying the acts, omissions, or code 55118
violations that constitute noncompliance with such provisions. The 55119
notice shall be sent to the person or place where rent is normally 55120
paid.55121

       (B) If a park operator receives the notice described in 55122
division (A) of this section and after receipt of the notice fails 55123
to remedy the condition within a reasonable time, considering the 55124
severity of the condition and the time necessary to remedy such 55125
condition, or within thirty days, whichever is sooner, and if the 55126
resident is current in rent payments due under the rental 55127
agreement, the resident may do one of the following:55128

       (1) Deposit all rent that is due and thereafter becomes due 55129
the park operator with the clerk of court of the municipal or 55130
county court having jurisdiction in the territory in which the 55131
residential premises are located;55132

       (2) Apply to the court for an order directing the park 55133
operator to remedy the condition. As part thereof, the resident 55134
may deposit rent pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section, and 55135
may apply for an order reducing the periodic rent due the park 55136
operator until such time as the park operator does remedy the 55137
condition, and may apply for an order to use the rent deposited to 55138
remedy the condition. In any order issued pursuant to this 55139
division, the court may require the resident to deposit rent with 55140
the clerk of court as provided in division (B)(1) of this section.55141

       Sec. 3733.121.        Sec. 4781.42.  (A) Whenever a resident deposits rent 55142
with the clerk of a court as provided in section 3733.124781.4155143
of the Revised Code, the clerk shall give written notice of this 55144
fact to the park operator and to histhe park operator's agent, if 55145
any.55146

       (B) The clerk shall place all rent deposited with himthe 55147
clerk in a separate rent escrow account in the name of the clerk 55148
in a bank or building and loan association domiciled in this 55149
state.55150

       (C) The clerk shall keep in a separate docket an account of 55151
each deposit, with the name and address of the resident, and the 55152
name and address of the park operator and of histhe park 55153
operator's agent, if any.55154

       (D) For histhe clerk's costs, the clerk may charge a fee of 55155
one per cent of the amount of the rent deposited, which shall be 55156
assessed as court costs.55157

       (E) All interest that has accrued on the rent deposited by 55158
the clerk of a county court under division (B) of this section 55159
shall be paid into the treasury of the political subdivision for 55160
which the clerk performs histhe clerk's duties. All interest that 55161
has accrued on the rent deposited by the clerk of a municipal 55162
court under division (B) of this section shall be paid into the 55163
city treasury as defined in division (B) of section 1901.03 of the 55164
Revised Code.55165

       Sec. 3733.122.        Sec. 4781.43.  (A) A park operator who receives 55166
notice that rent due himthe park operator has been deposited with 55167
a clerk of court pursuant to section 3733.124781.41 of the 55168
Revised Code, may:55169

       (1) Apply to the clerk of court for release of the rent on 55170
the ground that the condition contained in the notice given 55171
pursuant to division (A) of section 3733.124781.41 of the Revised 55172
Code has been remedied. The clerk shall forthwith release the 55173
rent, less costs, to the park operator if the resident gives 55174
written notice to the clerk that the condition has been remedied.55175

       (2) Apply to the court for release of the rent on the grounds 55176
that the resident did not comply with the notice requirement of 55177
division (A) of section 3733.124781.41 of the Revised Code, or 55178
that the resident was not current in rent payments due under the 55179
rental agreement at the time the resident initiated rent deposits 55180
with the clerk of courts under division (B)(1) of section 3733.1255181
4781.41 of the Revised Code;55182

       (3) Apply to the court for release of the rent on the grounds 55183
that there was no violation of any obligation imposed upon the 55184
park operator by section 3733.104781.38 of the Revised Code or by 55185
the rental agreement, or by any building, housing, health, or 55186
safety code, or that the condition contained in the notice given 55187
pursuant to division (A) of section 3733.124781.41 of the Revised 55188
Code has been remedied.55189

       (B) The resident shall be named as a party to any action 55190
filed by the park operator under this section, and shall have the 55191
right to file an answer and counterclaim, as in other civil cases. 55192
A trial shall be held within sixty days of the date of filing of 55193
the park operator's complaint, unless for good cause shown the 55194
court grants a continuance.55195

       (C) If the court finds that there was no violation of any 55196
obligation imposed upon the park operator by section 3733.1055197
4781.38 of the Revised Code or by the rental agreement, or by any 55198
building, housing, health, or safety code, or that the condition 55199
contained in the notice given pursuant to division (A) of section 55200
3733.124781.41 of the Revised Code has been remedied, or that the 55201
resident did not comply with the notice requirement of division 55202
(A) of section 3733.124781.41 of the Revised Code, or that the 55203
resident was not current in rent payments at the time the resident 55204
initiated rent deposits with the clerk of court under division 55205
(B)(1) of section 3733.124781.41 of the Revised Code, the court 55206
shall order the release to the park operator of rent on deposit 55207
with the clerk, less costs.55208

       (D) If the court finds that the condition contained in the 55209
notice given pursuant to division (A) of section 3733.124781.4155210
of the Revised Code was the result of an act or omission of the 55211
resident, or that the resident intentionally acted in bad faith in 55212
proceeding under section 3733.124781.41 of the Revised Code, the 55213
resident shall be liable for damages caused to the park operator, 55214
and for costs, together with reasonable attorneys' fees if the 55215
resident intentionally acted in bad faith.55216

       Sec. 3733.123.        Sec. 4781.44.  (A) If a park operator brings an 55217
action for the release of rent deposited with a clerk of court, 55218
the court may, during the pendency of the action, upon application 55219
of the park operator, release part of the rent on deposit for 55220
payment of the periodic interest on a mortgage on the premises, 55221
the periodic principal payments on a mortgage on the premises, the 55222
insurance premiums for the premises, real estate taxes on the 55223
premises, utility services, repairs, and other customary and usual 55224
costs of operating the premises.55225

       (B) In determining whether to release rent for the payments 55226
described in division (A) of this section, the court shall 55227
consider the amount of rent the park operator receives from other 55228
lots, the cost of operating these lots, and the costs which may be 55229
required to remedy the condition contained in the notice given 55230
pursuant to division (A) of section 3733.124781.41 of the Revised 55231
Code.55232

       Sec. 3733.13.        Sec. 4781.45.  If a resident commits a material 55233
violation of the rules of the manufactured home park, of the 55234
public health councilmanufactured homes commission, or of 55235
applicable state and local health and safety codes, the park 55236
operator may deliver a written notification of the violation to 55237
the resident. The notification shall contain all of the following:55238

       (A) A description of the violation;55239

       (B) A statement that the rental agreement will terminate upon 55240
a date specified in the written notice not less than thirty days 55241
after receipt of the notice unless the resident remedies the 55242
violation;55243

       (C) A statement that the violation was material and that if a 55244
second material violation of any park or public health council55245
commission rule, or any health and safety code, occurs within six 55246
months after the date of this notice, the rental agreement will 55247
terminate immediately;55248

       (D) A statement that a defense available to termination of 55249
the rental agreement for two material violations of park or public 55250
health councilcommission rules, or of health and safety codes, is 55251
that the park rule is unreasonable, or that the park or public 55252
health councilcommission rule, or health or safety code, is not 55253
being enforced against other manufactured home park residents, or 55254
that the two violations were not willful and not committed in bad 55255
faith.55256

       If the resident remedies the condition described in the 55257
notice, whether by repair, the payment of damages, or otherwise, 55258
the rental agreement shall not terminate. The park operator may 55259
terminate the rental agreement immediately if the resident commits 55260
a second material violation of the park or public health council55261
commission rules, or of applicable state and local health and 55262
safety codes, subject to the defense that the park rule is 55263
unreasonable, that the park or public health councilcommission55264
rule, or health or safety code, is not being enforced against 55265
other manufactured home park residents, or that the two violations 55266
were not willful and not committed in bad faith.55267

       Sec. 3733.14.        Sec. 4781.46.  In any action under sections 3733.0955268
4781.36 to 3733.204781.52 of the Revised Code, any party may 55269
recover damages for the breach of contract or the breach of any 55270
duty that is imposed by law.55271

       Sec. 3733.15.        Sec. 4781.47.  (A) No provision of sections 3733.0955272
4781.36 to 3733.204781.52 of the Revised Code may be modified or 55273
waived by any oral or written agreement except as provided in 55274
division (F) of this section.55275

       (B) No warrant of attorney to confess judgment shall be 55276
recognized in any rental agreement or in any other agreement 55277
between a park operator and resident for the recovery of rent or 55278
damages to the residential premises.55279

       (C) No agreement to pay the park operator's or resident's 55280
attorney fees shall be recognized in any rental agreement for 55281
residential premises or in any other agreement between a park 55282
operator and resident.55283

       (D) No agreement by a resident to the exculpation or 55284
limitation of any liability of the park operator arising under law 55285
or to indemnify the park operator for that liability or its 55286
related costs shall be recognized in any rental agreement or in 55287
any other agreement between a park operator and resident.55288

       (E) A rental agreement, or the assignment, conveyance, trust 55289
deed, or security instrument of the park operator's interest in 55290
the rental agreement may not permit the receipt of rent free of 55291
the obligation to comply with section 3733.104781.38 of the 55292
Revised Code.55293

       (F) The park operator may agree to assume responsibility for 55294
fulfilling any duty or obligation imposed on a resident by section 55295
3733.1014781.39 of the Revised Code.55296

       Sec. 3733.16.        Sec. 4781.48.  (A) If the court as a matter of law 55297
finds a rental agreement, or any clause of it, to have been 55298
unconscionable at the time it was made, it may refuse to enforce 55299
the rental agreement or it may enforce the remainder of the rental 55300
agreement without the unconscionable clause, or it may so limit 55301
the application of any unconscionable clause as to avoid any 55302
unconscionable result.55303

       (B) When it is claimed or appears to the court that the 55304
rental agreement, or any clause of it, may be unconscionable, the 55305
parties shall be afforded a reasonable opportunity to present 55306
evidence as to its setting, purpose, and effect to aid the court 55307
in making the determination.55308

       Sec. 3733.17.        Sec. 4781.49.  (A) No park operator of residential 55309
premises shall initiate any act, including termination of 55310
utilities or services, exclusion from the premises, or threat of 55311
any unlawful act, against a resident, or a resident whose right to 55312
possession has terminated, for the purpose of recovering 55313
possession of residential premises, other than as provided in 55314
Chapters 1923., 3733.4781., and 5303. of the Revised Code.55315

       (B) No park operator of residential premises shall seize the 55316
furnishings or possessions of a resident, or of a resident whose 55317
right to possession was terminated, for the purpose of recovering 55318
rent payments, other than in accordance with an order issued by a 55319
court of competent jurisdiction.55320

       (C) A park operator who violates this section is liable in a 55321
civil action for all damages caused to a resident, or to a 55322
resident whose right to possession has terminated, together with 55323
reasonable attorneys' fees.55324

       Sec. 3733.18.        Sec. 4781.50.  (A) Any security deposit in excess of 55325
fifty dollars or one month's periodic rent, whichever is greater, 55326
shall bear interest on the excess at the rate of five per cent per 55327
annum if the resident remains in possession of the premises for 55328
six months or more, and shall be computed and paid annually by the 55329
park operator to the resident.55330

       (B) Upon termination of the rental agreement any property or 55331
money held by the park operator as a security deposit may be 55332
applied to the payment of past due rent and to the payment of the 55333
amount of damages that the park operator has suffered by reason of 55334
the resident's noncompliance with section 3733.1014781.39 of the 55335
Revised Code or the rental agreement. Any deduction from the 55336
security deposit shall be itemized and identified by the park 55337
operator in a written notice delivered to the resident together 55338
with the amount due, within thirty days after termination of the 55339
rental agreement and delivery of possession. The resident shall 55340
provide the park operator in writing with a forwarding address or 55341
new address to which the written notice and amount due from the 55342
park operator may be sent. If the resident fails to provide the 55343
park operator with the forwarding or new address as required, the 55344
resident shall not be entitled to damages or attorneys' fees under 55345
division (C) of this section.55346

       (C) If the park operator fails to comply with division (B) of 55347
this section, the resident may recover the property and money due 55348
himthe resident, together with damages in an amount equal to the 55349
amount wrongfully withheld, and reasonable attorneys' fees.55350

       Sec. 3733.19.        Sec. 4781.51.  (A) Every written rental agreement for 55351
residential premises shall contain the name and address of the 55352
owner of the residential premises and the name and address of the 55353
owner's agent, if any. If the owner or the owner's agent is a 55354
corporation, partnership, limited partnership, association, trust, 55355
or other entity, the address shall be the principal place of 55356
business in the county in which the residential premises are 55357
situated or if there is no place of business in such county then 55358
its principal place of business in this state, and shall include 55359
the name of the person in charge thereof.55360

       (B) If the rental agreement is oral, the park operator, at 55361
the commencement of the term of occupancy, shall deliver to the 55362
resident a written notice containing the information required in 55363
division (A) of this section.55364

       (C) If the park operator fails to provide the notice of the 55365
name and address of the owner and owner's agent, if any, as 55366
required under division (A) or (B) of this section, the notices to 55367
the park operator required under division (A) of sections 3733.1255368
4781.41 and 3733.1214781.42 of the Revised Code are waived by the 55369
park operator and the operator's agent.55370

       (D) Every written rental agreement for residential premises 55371
shall contain the following notice in ten-point boldface type:55372

       "YOUR RIGHTS AS A RESIDENT AND YOUR MANUFACTURED HOME PARK 55373
OPERATOR'S RIGHTS ARE PROTECTED BY SECTIONS 3733.094781.36 TO 55374
3733.204781.52 OF THE REVISED CODE, WHICH REGULATE RENTAL 55375
AGREEMENTS IN MANUFACTURED HOME PARKS."55376

       If the rental agreement is oral, the park operator, at the 55377
commencement of the term of occupancy, shall deliver the notice to 55378
the resident in writing.55379

       Sec. 3733.20.        Sec. 4781.52.  No municipal corporation may adopt or 55380
continue in existence any ordinance and no township may adopt or 55381
continue in existence any resolution that is in conflict with 55382
sections 3733.094781.36 to 3733.204781.52 of the Revised Code, 55383
or that regulates those rights and obligations of parties to a 55384
rental agreement that are regulated by sections 3733.094781.36 to 55385
3733.204781.52 of the Revised Code. Sections 3733.094781.36 to 55386
3733.204781.52 of the Revised Code do not preempt any housing, 55387
building, health, or safety codes of any municipal corporation or 55388
township.55389

       Sec. 4781.54.  There is hereby created in the state treasury 55390
the manufactured homes commission regulatory fund. The fund shall 55391
consist of fees collected under section 4781.121 of the Revised 55392
Code and fees paid under section 4781.28 of the Revised Code and 55393
shall be used for the purposes described in those sections.55394

       Sec. 4781.99.  (A) Whoever violates division (A) of section 55395
4781.16 of the Revised Code is guilty of a minor misdemeanor on a 55396
first offense and shall be subject to a mandatory fine of one 55397
hundred dollars. On a second offense, the person is guilty of a 55398
misdemeanor of the first degree and shall be subject to a 55399
mandatory fine of one thousand dollars.55400

       (B) Whoever violates section 4781.20 of the Revised Code is 55401
guilty of a minor misdemeanor.55402

       (C) Whoever violates any of the following is guilty of a 55403
misdemeanor of the fourth degree: 55404

       (1) Division (B) or (C) of section 4781.16 of the Revised 55405
Code;55406

       (2) Section 4781.22 of the Revised Code;55407

       (3) Section 4781.23 of the Revised Code;55408

       (4) Division (A) of section 4781.24 of the Revised Code;55409

       (5) Section 4781.25 of the Revised Code;55410

       (6) Division (A) of section 4781.35 of the Revised Code.55411

       Sec. 4905.01.  As used in this chapter:55412

       (A) "Railroad" has the same meaning as in section 4907.02 of 55413
the Revised Code.55414

       (B) "Motor transportation companycarrier" has the same 55415
meaning as in sections 4905.03 and 4921.02section 4923.01 of the 55416
Revised Code.55417

       (C) "TrailerMotor vehicle" and "public highway" have the 55418
same meanings as in section 4921.024921.01 of the Revised Code.55419

       (D) "Private motor carrier" and "motor vehicle" have the same 55420
meanings as in section 4923.02 of the Revised Code.55421

       (E) "Ohio coal research and development costs" means all 55422
reasonable costs associated with a facility or project undertaken 55423
by a public utility for which a recommendation to allow the 55424
recovery of costs associated therewith has been made under 55425
division (B)(7) of section 1551.33 of the Revised Code, including, 55426
but not limited to, capital costs, such as costs of debt and 55427
equity; construction and operation costs; termination and 55428
retirement costs; costs of feasibility and marketing studies 55429
associated with the project; and the acquisition and delivery 55430
costs of Ohio coal used in the project, less any expenditures of 55431
grant moneys.55432

       Sec. 4905.02. (A) As used in this chapter, "public utility" 55433
includes every corporation, company, copartnership, person, or 55434
association, the lessees, trustees, or receivers of the foregoing, 55435
defined in section 4905.03 of the Revised Code, including any 55436
public utility that operates its utility not for profit, except 55437
the following:55438

       (A)(1) An electric light company that operates its utility 55439
not for profit;55440

       (B)(2) A public utility, other than a telephone company, that 55441
is owned and operated exclusively by and solely for the utility's 55442
customers, including any consumer or group of consumers 55443
purchasing, delivering, storing, or transporting, or seeking to 55444
purchase, deliver, store, or transport, natural gas exclusively by 55445
and solely for the consumer's or consumers' own intended use as 55446
the end user or end users and not for profit;55447

       (C)(3) A public utility that is owned or operated by any 55448
municipal corporation;55449

       (D)(4) A railroad as defined in sections 4907.02 and 4907.03 55450
of the Revised Code;55451

       (E)(5) Any provider, including a telephone company, with 55452
respect to its provision of any of the following:55453

       (1)(a) Advanced services as defined in 47 C.F.R. 51.5;55454

       (2)(b) Broadband service, however defined or classified by 55455
the federal communications commission;55456

       (3)(c) Information service as defined in the 55457
"Telecommunications Act of 1996," 110 Stat. 59, 47 U.S.C. 153(20);55458

       (4)(d) Subject to division (A) of section 4927.03 of the 55459
Revised Code, internet protocol-enabled services as defined in 55460
section 4927.01 of the Revised Code;55461

        (5)(e) Subject to division (A) of section 4927.03 of the 55462
Revised Code, any telecommunications service as defined in section 55463
4927.01 of the Revised Code to which both of the following apply:55464

       (a)(i) The service was not commercially available on 55465
September 13, 2010, the effective date of the amendment of this 55466
section by S.B. 162 of the 128th general assembly.55467

       (b)(ii) The service employs technology that became available 55468
for commercial use only after September 13, 2010, the effective 55469
date of the amendment of this section by S.B. 162 of the 128th 55470
general assembly.55471

       (B)(1) "Public utility" includes a for-hire motor carrier 55472
even if the carrier is operated in connection with an entity 55473
described in division (A)(1), (2), (4), or (5) of this section.55474

       (2) Division (A) of this section shall not be construed to 55475
relieve a private motor carrier, operated in connection with an 55476
entity described in division (A)(1), (2), (4), or (5) of this 55477
section, from compliance with any of the following:55478

       (a) Chapter 4923. of the Revised Code;55479

       (b) Hazardous-material regulation under section 4921.15 of 55480
the Revised Code and division (H) of section 4921.19 of the 55481
Revised Code, or rules adopted thereunder;55482

       (c) Rules governing unified carrier registration adopted 55483
under section 4921.11 of the Revised Code.55484

       Sec. 4905.03.  As used in this chapter:55485

       (A) Any, any person, firm, copartnership, voluntary 55486
association, joint-stock association, company, or corporation, 55487
wherever organized or incorporated, is:55488

       (1)(A) A telephone company, when engaged in the business of 55489
transmitting telephonic messages to, from, through, or in this 55490
state;55491

       (2)(B) A for-hire motor transportation companycarrier, when 55492
engaged in the business of carrying and transporting persons or 55493
property or the business of providing or furnishing such 55494
transportation service, for hire, in or by motor-propelled 55495
vehicles of any kind, including trailers, for the public in 55496
general, over any public street, road, or highway in this state55497
vehicle for compensation, except as providedwhen engaged in any 55498
of the operations in intrastate commerce described in divisions 55499
(B)(1) to (9) of section 4921.024921.01 of the Revised Code, but 55500
including the carrier's agents, officers, and representatives, as 55501
well as employees responsible for hiring, supervising, training, 55502
assigning, or dispatching drivers and employees concerned with the 55503
installation, inspection, and maintenance of motor-vehicle 55504
equipment and accessories;55505

       (3)(C) An electric light company, when engaged in the 55506
business of supplying electricity for light, heat, or power 55507
purposes to consumers within this state, including supplying 55508
electric transmission service for electricity delivered to 55509
consumers in this state, but excluding a regional transmission 55510
organization approved by the federal energy regulatory commission;55511

       (4)(D) A gas company, when engaged in the business of 55512
supplying artificial gas for lighting, power, or heating purposes 55513
to consumers within this state or when engaged in the business of 55514
supplying artificial gas to gas companies or to natural gas 55515
companies within this state, but a producer engaged in supplying 55516
to one or more gas or natural gas companies, only such artificial 55517
gas as is manufactured by that producer as a by-product of some 55518
other process in which the producer is primarily engaged within 55519
this state is not thereby a gas company. All rates, rentals, 55520
tolls, schedules, charges of any kind, or agreements between any 55521
gas company and any other gas company or any natural gas company 55522
providing for the supplying of artificial gas and for compensation 55523
for the same are subject to the jurisdiction of the public 55524
utilities commission.55525

       (5)(E) A natural gas company, when engaged in the business of 55526
supplying natural gas for lighting, power, or heating purposes to 55527
consumers within this state. Notwithstanding the above, neither 55528
the delivery nor sale of Ohio-produced natural gas by a producer 55529
or gatherer under a public utilities commission-ordered exemption, 55530
adopted before, as to producers, or after, as to producers or 55531
gatherers, January 1, 1996, or the delivery or sale of 55532
Ohio-produced natural gas by a producer or gatherer of 55533
Ohio-produced natural gas, either to a lessor under an oil and gas 55534
lease of the land on which the producer's drilling unit is 55535
located, or the grantor incident to a right-of-way or easement to 55536
the producer or gatherer, shall cause the producer or gatherer to 55537
be a natural gas company for the purposes of this section.55538

       All rates, rentals, tolls, schedules, charges of any kind, or 55539
agreements between a natural gas company and other natural gas 55540
companies or gas companies providing for the supply of natural gas 55541
and for compensation for the same are subject to the jurisdiction 55542
of the public utilities commission. The commission, upon 55543
application made to it, may relieve any producer or gatherer of 55544
natural gas, defined in this section as a gas company or a natural 55545
gas company, of compliance with the obligations imposed by this 55546
chapter and Chapters 4901., 4903., 4907., 4909., 4921., and 4923. 55547
of the Revised Code, so long as the producer or gatherer is not 55548
affiliated with or under the control of a gas company or a natural 55549
gas company engaged in the transportation or distribution of 55550
natural gas, or so long as the producer or gatherer does not 55551
engage in the distribution of natural gas to consumers.55552

       Nothing in division (A)(5)(E) of this section limits the 55553
authority of the commission to enforce sections 4905.90 to 4905.96 55554
of the Revised Code.55555

       (6)(F) A pipe-line company, when engaged in the business of 55556
transporting natural gas, oil, or coal or its derivatives through 55557
pipes or tubing, either wholly or partly within this state;55558

       (7)(G) A water-works company, when engaged in the business of 55559
supplying water through pipes or tubing, or in a similar manner, 55560
to consumers within this state;55561

       (8)(H) A heating or cooling company, when engaged in the 55562
business of supplying water, steam, or air through pipes or tubing 55563
to consumers within this state for heating or cooling purposes;55564

       (9)(I) A messenger company, when engaged in the business of 55565
supplying messengers for any purpose;55566

       (10)(J) A street railway company, when engaged in the 55567
business of operating as a common carrier, a railway, wholly or 55568
partly within this state, with one or more tracks upon, along, 55569
above, or below any public road, street, alleyway, or ground, 55570
within any municipal corporation, operated by any motive power 55571
other than steam and not a part of an interurban railroad, whether 55572
the railway is termed street, inclined-plane, elevated, or 55573
underground railway;55574

       (11)(K) A suburban railroad company, when engaged in the 55575
business of operating as a common carrier, whether wholly or 55576
partially within this state, a part of a street railway 55577
constructed or extended beyond the limits of a municipal 55578
corporation, and not a part of an interurban railroad;55579

       (12)(L) An interurban railroad company, when engaged in the 55580
business of operating a railroad, wholly or partially within this 55581
state, with one or more tracks from one municipal corporation or 55582
point in this state to another municipal corporation or point in 55583
this state, whether constructed upon the public highways or upon 55584
private rights-of-way, outside of municipal corporations, using 55585
electricity or other motive power than steam power for the 55586
transportation of passengers, packages, express matter, United 55587
States mail, baggage, and freight. Such an interurban railroad 55588
company is included in the term "railroad" as used in section 55589
4907.02 of the Revised Code.55590

       (13)(M) A sewage disposal system company, when engaged in the 55591
business of sewage disposal services through pipes or tubing, and 55592
treatment works, or in a similar manner, within this state.55593

       (B) "Motor-propelled vehicle" means any automobile, 55594
automobile truck, motor bus, or any other self-propelled vehicle 55595
not operated or driven upon fixed rails or tracks.55596

       Sec. 4905.05.  The jurisdiction, supervision, powers, and 55597
duties of the public utilities commission extend to every public 55598
utility and railroad, the plant or property of which lies wholly 55599
within this state and when the property of a public utility or 55600
railroad lies partly within and partly without this state to that 55601
part of such plant or property which lies within this state; to 55602
the persons or companies owning, leasing, or operating such public 55603
utilities and railroads; to the records and accounts of the 55604
business thereof done within this state; and to the records and 55605
accounts of any companies which are part of an electric utility 55606
holding company system exempt under section 3(a)(1) or (2) of the 55607
"Public Utility Holding Company Act of 1935," 49 Stat. 803, 15 55608
U.S.C. 79c, and the rules and regulations promulgated thereunder, 55609
insofar as such records and accounts may in any way affect or 55610
relate to the costs associated with the provision of electric 55611
utility service by any public utility operating in this state and 55612
part of such holding company system.55613

       Nothing in this section, or section 4905.06 or 4905.46 of the 55614
Revised Code pertaining to regulation of holding companies, grants 55615
the public utilities commission authority to regulate a holding 55616
company or its subsidiaries which are organized under the laws of 55617
another state, render no public utility service in the state of 55618
Ohio, and are regulated as a public utility by the public 55619
utilities commission of another state or primarily by a federal 55620
regulatory commission, nor do these grants of authority apply to 55621
public utilities that are excepted from the definition of "public 55622
utility" under divisions (A)(1) to (C)(3) of section 4905.02 of 55623
the Revised Code.55624

       Sec. 4905.06.  The public utilities commission has general 55625
supervision over all public utilities within its jurisdiction as 55626
defined in section 4905.05 of the Revised Code, and may examine 55627
such public utilities and keep informed as to their general 55628
condition, capitalization, and franchises, and as to the manner in 55629
which their properties are leased, operated, managed, and 55630
conducted with respect to the adequacy or accommodation afforded 55631
by their service, the safety and security of the public and their 55632
employees, and their compliance with all laws, orders of the 55633
commission, franchises, and charter requirements. The commission 55634
has general supervision over all other companies referred to in 55635
section 4905.05 of the Revised Code to the extent of its 55636
jurisdiction as defined in that section, and may examine such 55637
companies and keep informed as to their general condition and 55638
capitalization, and as to the manner in which their properties are 55639
leased, operated, managed, and conducted with respect to the 55640
adequacy or accommodation afforded by their service, and their 55641
compliance with all laws and orders of the commission, insofar as 55642
any of such matters may relate to the costs associated with the 55643
provision of electric utility service by public utilities in this 55644
state which are affiliated or associated with such companies. The 55645
commission, through the public utilities commissioners or 55646
inspectors or employees of the commission authorized by it, may 55647
enter in or upon, for purposes of inspection, any property, 55648
equipment, building, plant, factory, office, apparatus, machinery, 55649
device, and lines of any public utility. The power to inspect 55650
includes the power to prescribe any rule or order that the 55651
commission finds necessary for protection of the public safety. In 55652
order to assist the commission in the performance of its duties 55653
under this chapter, authorized employees of the motor carrier 55654
enforcement unit, created under section 5503.34 of the Revised 55655
Code in the division of state highway patrol, of the department of 55656
public safety may enter in or upon, for inspection purposes, any 55657
motor vehicle of any motor transportation company or private motor 55658
carrier as defined in section 4923.02 of the Revised Code.55659

       In order to inspect motor vehicles owned or operated by a 55660
motor transportation companycarrier engaged in the transportation 55661
of persons, authorized employees of the motor carrier enforcement 55662
unit, division of state highway patrol, of the department of 55663
public safety may enter in or upon any property of any motor 55664
transportation company, as defined in section 4921.02 of the 55665
Revised Code,carrier engaged in the intrastate transportation of 55666
persons.55667

       Sec. 4905.402.  (A) As used in this section:55668

       (1) "Control" means the possession of the power to direct the 55669
management and policies of a domestic telephone company or a 55670
holding company of a domestic telephone company, or the management 55671
and policies of a domestic electric utility or a holding company 55672
of a domestic electric utility, through the ownership of voting 55673
securities, by contract, or otherwise, but does not include the 55674
power that results from holding an official position or the 55675
possession of corporate office with the domestic company or 55676
utility or the holding company. Control is presumed to exist if 55677
any person, directly or indirectly, owns, controls, holds the 55678
power to vote, or holds with the power to vote proxies that 55679
constitute, twenty per cent or more of the total voting power of 55680
the domestic company or utility or the holding company.55681

       (2) "Electric utility" has the same meaning as in section 55682
4928.07 of the Revised Code.55683

       (3) "Holding company" excludes any securities broker 55684
performing the usual and customary broker's function.55685

       (4) "Telephone company" means any company described in 55686
division (A)(1) of section 4905.03 of the Revised Code that is a 55687
public utility under section 4905.02 of the Revised Code and 55688
provides basic local exchange service, as defined in section 55689
4927.01 of the Revised Code.55690

       (B) No person shall acquire control, directly or indirectly, 55691
of a domestic telephone company or a holding company controlling a 55692
domestic telephone company or of a domestic electric utility or a 55693
holding company controlling a domestic electric utility unless 55694
that person obtains the prior approval of the public utilities 55695
commission under this section. To obtain approval the person shall 55696
file an application with the commission demonstrating that the 55697
acquisition will promote public convenience and result in the 55698
provision of adequate service for a reasonable rate, rental, toll, 55699
or charge. The application shall contain such information as the 55700
commission may require. If the commission considers a hearing 55701
necessary, it may fix a time and place for hearing. If, after 55702
review of the application and after any necessary hearing, the 55703
commission is satisfied that approval of the application will 55704
promote public convenience and result in the provision of adequate 55705
service for a reasonable rate, rental, toll, or charge, the 55706
commission shall approve the application and make such order as it 55707
considers proper. If the commission fails to issue an order within 55708
thirty days of the filing of the application, or within twenty 55709
days of the conclusion of a hearing, if one is held, the 55710
application shall be deemed approved by operation of law.55711

       (C) No domestic telephone company shall merge with another 55712
domestic telephone company unless the merging companies obtain the 55713
prior approval of the commission. An application seeking such 55714
approval shall be filed, processed, and decided in the manner 55715
provided for an application under division (B) of this section.55716

       (D) The commission shall adopt such rules as it finds 55717
necessary to carry out the provisions of this section.55718

       (E) If it appears to the commission or to any person that may 55719
be adversely affected that any person is engaged in or about to 55720
engage in any acts or practices that would violate division (B) or 55721
(C) of this section or any provision of a rule adopted under this 55722
section, the attorney general, when directed to do so by the 55723
commission, or the person claiming to be adversely affected may 55724
bring an action in any court of common pleas that has jurisdiction 55725
and venue to enjoin such acts or practices and enforce compliance. 55726
Upon a proper showing, the court shall grant, without bond, a 55727
restraining order or temporary or permanent injunction.55728

       (F) The courts of this state have jurisdiction over every 55729
person not a resident of or domiciled or authorized to do business 55730
in this state that files, or is prohibited from acting without 55731
first filing, an application under division (B) or (C) of this 55732
section, and over all actions involving such person arising out of 55733
violations of any provision of this section or of a rule adopted 55734
under this section. The secretary of state shall be the agent for 55735
service of process for any such person in any action, suit, or 55736
proceeding arising out of such violations. Copies of all such 55737
lawful process shall be served upon the secretary of state and 55738
transmitted by certified mail, with return receipt requested, by 55739
the secretary of state to such person at the person's last known 55740
address.55741

       Sec. 4905.54.  Every public utility or railroad and every 55742
officer of a public utility or railroad shall comply with every 55743
order, direction, and requirement of the public utilities 55744
commission made under authority of this chapter and Chapters 55745
4901., 4903., 4907., and 4909., 4921., and 4923. of the Revised 55746
Code, so long as they remain in force. Except as otherwise 55747
specifically provided in sections 4905.83,section 4905.95, 55748
4919.99, 4921.99, and 4923.99 of the Revised Code, the public 55749
utilities commission may assess a forfeiture of not more than ten 55750
thousand dollars for each violation or failure against a public 55751
utility or railroad that violates a provision of those chapters or 55752
that after due notice fails to comply with an order, direction, or 55753
requirement of the commission that was officially promulgated. 55754
Each day's continuance of the violation or failure is a separate 55755
offense. All forfeitures collected under this section shall be 55756
credited to the general revenue fund.55757

       Sec. 4905.57.  Except as otherwise specifically provided in 55758
sections 4905.83, 4905.96, 4919.99, 4921.99, and 4923.99 of the 55759
Revised Code, actions to recover forfeitures provided for in this 55760
chapter and Chapters 4901., 4903., 4907., 4909., 4921., and 4923. 55761
of the Revised Code shall be prosecuted in the name of the state 55762
and may be brought in the court of common pleas of any county in 55763
which the public utility or, railroad, or motor carrier is 55764
located. Such actions shall be commenced and prosecuted by the 55765
attorney general when hethe attorney general is directed to do so 55766
by the public utilities commission. Moneys recovered by such 55767
actions shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of 55768
the general revenue fund.55769

       Sec. 4905.58.  All prosecutions against a railroad or an 55770
officer, agent, or employee thereof, under Chapters 4901., 4903., 55771
4905., 4907., and 4909., 4921., and 4923. and other sections of 55772
the Revised Code for penalties involving imprisonment shall be by 55773
indictment.55774

       Sec. 4905.80.  The policy of this state is to:55775

       (A) Regulate transportation by motor carriers so as to 55776
recognize and preserve the inherent advantages of, and foster safe 55777
conditions in, that transportation and among those carriers in the 55778
public interest;55779

       (B) Promote safe and secure service by motor carriers, 55780
without unjust discriminations, undue preferences or advantages, 55781
and unfair or destructive competitive practices;55782

       (C) Improve the relations between, and coordinate 55783
transportation by and regulation of, motor carriers and other 55784
carriers;55785

       (D) Develop and preserve a highway transportation system 55786
properly adapted to the needs of commerce and the state;55787

       (E) Cooperate with the federal government and the several 55788
states, and the authorized officials thereof, and with any 55789
organization of motor carriers in the administration and 55790
enforcement of this chapter and Chapters 4901., 4903., 4907., 55791
4909., 4921., and 4923. of the Revised Code.55792

       Sec. 4905.81.  The public utilities commission shall:55793

       (A) Supervise and regulate each motor carrier;55794

       (B) Regulate the safety of operation of each motor carrier;55795

       (C) Adopt reasonable safety rules applicable to the highway 55796
transportation of persons or property in interstate and intrastate 55797
commerce by motor carriers;55798

       (D) Adopt safety rules applicable to the transportation and 55799
offering for transportation of hazardous materials in interstate 55800
and intrastate commerce by motor carriers. The rules shall not be 55801
incompatible with the requirements of the United States department 55802
of transportation.55803

       (E) Require the filing of reports and other data by motor 55804
carriers;55805

       (F) Adopt reasonable rules for the administration and 55806
enforcement of this chapter and Chapters 4901., 4903., 4907., 55807
4909., 4921., and 4923. of the Revised Code applying to each motor 55808
carrier in this state;55809

       (G) Supervise and regulate motor carriers in all other 55810
matters affecting the relationship between those carriers and the 55811
public to the exclusion of all local authorities, except as 55812
provided in this section. The commission, in the exercise of the 55813
jurisdiction conferred upon it by this chapter and Chapters 4901., 55814
4903., 4907., 4909., 4921., and 4923. of the Revised Code, may 55815
adopt rules affecting motor carriers, notwithstanding the 55816
provisions of any ordinance, resolution, license, or permit 55817
enacted, adopted, or granted by any township, municipal 55818
corporation, municipal corporation and county, or county. In case 55819
of conflict between any such ordinance, resolution, license, or 55820
permit, the order or rule of the commission shall prevail. Local 55821
subdivisions may adopt reasonable local police rules within their 55822
respective boundaries not inconsistent with those chapters and 55823
rules adopted under them.55824

       The commission has jurisdiction to receive, hear, and 55825
determine as a question of fact, upon complaint of any party or 55826
upon its own motion, and upon not less than fifteen days' notice 55827
of the time and place of the hearing and the matter to be heard, 55828
whether any corporation, company, association, joint-stock 55829
association, person, firm, or copartnership, or their lessees, 55830
legal or personal representatives, trustees, or receivers or 55831
trustees appointed by any court, is engaged as a motor carrier. 55832
The finding of the commission on such a question is a final order 55833
that may be reviewed as provided in section 4923.15 of the Revised 55834
Code.55835

       Sec. 4905.84. (A) As used in this section:55836

        (1) "Telecommunications relay service" means intrastate 55837
transmission services that provide the ability for an individual 55838
who has a hearing or speech impairment to engage in a 55839
communication by wire or radio with a hearing individual in a 55840
manner that is functionally equivalent to the ability of an 55841
individual who does not have a hearing or speech impairment to 55842
communicate using voice communication services by wire or radio. 55843
"Telecommunications relay service" includes services that enable 55844
two-way communication between an individual who uses a 55845
telecommunications device for the deaf or other nonvoice terminal 55846
device and an individual who does not use such a device.55847

        (2) "TRS provider" means an entity selected by the public 55848
utilities commission as the provider of telecommunications relay 55849
service for this state as part of the commission's intrastate 55850
telecommunications relay service program certified pursuant to 55851
federal law.55852

        (B) For the sole purpose of funding telecommunications relay 55853
service, the commission shall, not earlier than January 1, 2009, 55854
impose on and collect from each service provider that is required 55855
under federal law to provide its customers access to 55856
telecommunications relay service an annual assessment to pay for 55857
costs incurred by the TRS provider for providing such service in 55858
Ohio. The commission shall determine the appropriate service 55859
providers to be assessed the telecommunications relay service 55860
costs, including telephone companies as defined in division (A)(1)55861
of section 4905.03 of the Revised Code, commercial mobile radio 55862
service providers, and providers of advanced services or internet 55863
protocol-enabled services that are competitive with or 55864
functionally equivalent to basic local exchange service as defined 55865
in section 4927.01 of the Revised Code.55866

        (C) The assessment shall be allocated proportionately among 55867
the appropriate service providers using a competitively neutral 55868
formula established by the commission based on the number of 55869
retail intrastate customer access lines or their equivalent. The 55870
commission shall annually reconcile the funds collected with the 55871
actual costs of providing telecommunications relay service when it 55872
issues the assessment and shall either proportionately charge the 55873
service providers for any amounts not sufficient to cover the 55874
actual costs or proportionately credit amounts collected in excess 55875
of the actual costs. The total amount assessed from all service 55876
providers shall not exceed the total telecommunications relay 55877
service costs.55878

        Each service provider that pays the assessment shall be 55879
permitted to recover the cost of the assessment. The method of 55880
recovery may include, but is not limited to, a customer billing 55881
surcharge.55882

        The commission shall deposit the money collected in the 55883
telecommunications relay service fund, which is hereby created in 55884
the state treasury, and shall use the money in that fund solely to 55885
compensate the TRS provider.55886

        (D) The commission shall take such measures as it considers 55887
necessary to protect the confidentiality of information provided 55888
to the commission pursuant to this section by service providers 55889
required to pay the assessment.55890

        (E) The commission may assess a forfeiture of not more than 55891
one thousand dollars on any service provider failing to comply 55892
with this section. Each day's continuance of such failure is a 55893
separate offense. The forfeiture shall be recovered in accordance 55894
with sections 4905.55 to 4905.60 of the Revised Code.55895

       (F) The jurisdiction and authority granted to the commission 55896
by this section is limited to the administration and enforcement 55897
of this section. The commission may adopt such rules as it finds 55898
necessary to carry out this section. The commission shall adopt 55899
rules under section 111.15 of the Revised Code to establish the 55900
assessment amounts and procedures.55901

       Sec. 4905.90.  As used in sections 4905.90 to 4905.96 of the 55902
Revised Code:55903

       (A) "Contiguous property" includes, but is not limited to, a 55904
manufactured home park as defined in section 3733.014781.01 of 55905
the Revised Code; a public or publicly subsidized housing project; 55906
an apartment complex; a condominium complex; a college or 55907
university; an office complex; a shopping center; a hotel; an 55908
industrial park; and a race track.55909

       (B) "Gas" means natural gas, flammable gas, or gas which is 55910
toxic or corrosive.55911

       (C) "Gathering lines" and the "gathering of gas" have the 55912
same meaning as in the Natural Gas Pipeline Safety Act and the 55913
rules adopted by the United States department of transportation 55914
pursuant to the Natural Gas Pipeline Safety Act, including 49 55915
C.F.R. part 192, as amended.55916

       (D) "Intrastate pipe-line transportation" has the same 55917
meaning as in 82 Stat. 720 (1968), 49 U.S.C.A. App. 1671, as 55918
amended, but excludes the gathering of gas exempted by the Natural 55919
Gas Pipeline Safety Act.55920

       (E) "Master-meter system" means a pipe-line system that 55921
distributes gas within a contiguous property for which the system 55922
operator purchases gas for resale to consumers, including tenants. 55923
Such pipe-line system supplies consumers who purchase the gas 55924
directly through a meter, or by paying rent, or by other means. 55925
The term includes a master-meter system as defined in 49 C.F.R. 55926
191.3, as amended. The term excludes a pipeline within a 55927
manufactured home, mobile home, or a building.55928

       (F) "Natural Gas Pipeline Safety Act" means the "Natural Gas 55929
Pipeline Safety Act of 1968," 82 Stat. 720, 49 U.S.C.A. App. 1671 55930
et seq., as amended.55931

       (G) "Operator" means any of the following:55932

       (1) A gas company or natural gas company as defined in 55933
section 4905.03 of the Revised Code, except that division 55934
(A)(5)(E) of that section does not authorize the public utilities 55935
commission to relieve any producer of gas, as a gas company or 55936
natural gas company, of compliance with sections 4905.90 to 55937
4905.96 of the Revised Code or the pipe-line safety code created 55938
under section 4905.91 of the Revised Code;55939

       (2) A pipe-line company, as defined in section 4905.03 of the 55940
Revised Code, when engaged in the business of transporting gas by 55941
pipeline;55942

       (3) A public utility that is excepted from the definition of 55943
"public utility" under division (B)(A)(2) or (C)(3) of section 55944
4905.02 of the Revised Code, when engaged in supplying or 55945
transporting gas by pipeline within this state;55946

       (4) Any person that owns, operates, manages, controls, or 55947
leases any of the following:55948

       (a) Intrastate pipe-line transportation facilities within 55949
this state;55950

       (b) Gas gathering lines within this state which are not 55951
exempted by the Natural Gas Pipeline Safety Act;55952

       (c) A master-meter system within this state.55953

       "Operator" does not include an ultimate consumer who owns a 55954
service line, as defined in 49 C.F.R. 192.3, as amended, on the 55955
real property of that ultimate consumer.55956

       (H) "Operator of a master-meter system" means a person 55957
described under division (F)(G)(4)(c) of this section. An operator 55958
of a master-meter system is not a public utility under section 55959
4905.02 or a gas or natural gas company under section 4905.03 of 55960
the Revised Code.55961

       (I) "Person" means:55962

       (1) In addition to those defined in division (C) of section 55963
1.59 of the Revised Code, a joint venture or a municipal 55964
corporation;55965

       (2) Any trustee, receiver, assignee, or personal 55966
representative of persons defined in division (H)(I)(1) of this 55967
section.55968

       (J) "Safety audit" means the public utilities commission's 55969
audit of the premises, pipe-line facilities, and the records, 55970
maps, and other relevant documents of a master-meter system to 55971
determine the operator's compliance with sections 4905.90 to 55972
4905.96 of the Revised Code and the pipe-line safety code.55973

       (K) "Safety inspection" means any inspection, survey, or 55974
testing of a master-meter system which is authorized or required 55975
by sections 4905.90 to 4905.96 of the Revised Code and the 55976
pipe-line safety code. The term includes, but is not limited to, 55977
leak surveys, inspection of regulators and critical valves, and 55978
monitoring of cathodic protection systems, where applicable.55979

       (L) "Safety-related condition" means any safety-related 55980
condition defined in 49 C.F.R. 191.23, as amended.55981

       (M) "Total Mcfs of gas it supplied or delivered" means the 55982
sum of the following volumes of gas that an operator supplied or 55983
delivered, measured in units per one thousand cubic feet:55984

       (1) Residential sales;55985

       (2) Commercial and industrial sales;55986

       (3) Other sales to public authorities;55987

       (4) Interdepartmental sales;55988

       (5) Sales for resale;55989

       (6) Transportation of gas.55990

       Sec. 4907.01.  As used in sections 4907.01 to 4907.63 of the 55991
Revised Code:55992

       (A) "Public utility" has the same meaning as in section 55993
4905.02 of the Revised Code.55994

       (B) "Telephone company," "street railway company," and 55995
"interurban railroad company" have the same meanings as in section 55996
4905.03 of the Revised Code.55997

       (C) "Railroad" has the same meaning as in section 4907.02 of 55998
the Revised Code.55999

       (D) "Public highway" has the same meaning as in sections 56000
4905.03 and 4921.02section 4921.01 of the Revised Code.56001

       Sec. 4907.02.  As used in Chapters 4901., 4903., 4905., 56002
4907., 4909., 4921., 4923., and 4959. of the Revised Code, 56003
"railroad" includes any corporation, company, individual, or 56004
association of individuals, or its lessees, trustees, or receivers 56005
appointed by a court, which owns, operates, manages, or controls a 56006
railroad or part of a railroad as a common carrier in this state, 56007
or which owns, operates, manages, or controls any cars or other 56008
equipment used on such a railroad, or which owns, operates, 56009
manages, or controls any bridges, terminals, union depots, 56010
sidetracks, docks, wharves, or storage elevators used in 56011
connection with such a railroad, whether owned by such railroad or 56012
otherwise, and means and includes express companies, water 56013
transportation companies, freight-line companies, sleeping car 56014
companies, and interurban railroad companies, and all persons and 56015
associations of persons, whether incorporated or not, operating 56016
such agencies for public use in the conveyance of persons or 56017
property within this state. All duties required of, and penalties 56018
imposed upon, a railroad or an officer or agent thereof insofar as 56019
they are applicable, are required and imposed upon express 56020
companies, water transportation companies, and interurban railroad 56021
companies, and upon their officers and agents.56022

       The public utilities commission has the power of supervision 56023
and control of express companies, water transportation companies, 56024
and interurban railroad companies to the same extent as railroads.56025

       Sec. 4907.04.  Chapters 4901., 4903., 4905., 4907., and56026
4909., 4921., 4923., and 4925. of the Revised Code do not apply to 56027
street and electric railways engaged solely in the transportation 56028
of passengers within the limits of cities, or to other private 56029
railroads not doing business as common carriers.56030

       Sec. 4907.08.  The public utilities commission shall inquire 56031
into any neglect or violation of the laws of this state by a 56032
railroad doing business in this state, by its officers, agents, or 56033
employees, or by any person operating a railroad. The commission 56034
shall enforce Chapters 4901., 4903., 4905., 4907., 4909., 4921., 56035
4923., and 4959. of the Revised Code, as well as all other laws 56036
relating to railroads, and report violations thereof to the 56037
attorney general.56038

       If, upon complaint or otherwise, the commission has reason to 56039
believe that a railroad or any officer, agent, or employee of a 56040
railroad has violated or is violating any law of this state, or if 56041
it has reason to believe that differences have arisen between 56042
citizens of the state and any railroad operating as a common 56043
carrier within this state, it shall examine into the matter.56044

       Sec. 4907.19.  The public utilities commission shall cause 56045
blank forms to be prepared suitable for the purposes designated in 56046
Chapters 4901., 4903., 4905., 4907., and 4909., 4921., 4923., and 56047
4925. of the Revised Code which shall conform as nearly as 56048
practicable to the forms prescribed by the interstate commerce 56049
commission, and, when necessary, furnish such blank forms to each 56050
railroad.56051

       Sec. 4907.28.  No railroad shall charge, demand, collect, or 56052
receive a greater or less compensation for the transportation of 56053
passengers or property, or for any service in connection 56054
therewith, than is specified in the printed schedules referred to 56055
in sections 4907.25 to 4907.27, inclusive, of the Revised Code, 56056
including schedules of joint rates, as being then in force. The 56057
rates, fares, and charges named in such schedules shall be the 56058
lawful rates, fares, and charges until they are changed as 56059
provided in Chapters 4901., 4903., 4905., 4907., and 4909., 4921., 56060
4923., and 4925. of the Revised Code.56061

       Sec. 4907.35.  If a railroad, or an agent or officer of a 56062
railroad, by special rate, rebate, drawback, or by means of false 56063
billing, false classification, false weighing, or other device, 56064
charges, demands, collects, or receives, either directly or 56065
indirectly, from any person, firm, or corporation, a greater or 56066
less compensation for service rendered or to be rendered by such 56067
railroad for the transportation of persons or property or any 56068
service in connection therewith, than that prescribed in the 56069
published tariffs then in force, or established as provided in 56070
Chapters 4901., 4903., 4905., 4907., and 4909., 4921., 4923., and 56071
4925. of the Revised Code, or a greater or less compensation than 56072
it charges, demands, collects, or receives from any other person, 56073
firm, or corporation for a like and contemporaneous service in the 56074
transportation of a like kind of traffic, under substantially 56075
similar circumstances and conditions, the railroad is guilty of 56076
unjust discrimination, which is hereby prohibited. Upon conviction 56077
of unjust discrimination, such railroad shall forfeit and pay into 56078
the state treasury not less than one hundred nor more than five 56079
thousand dollars for each offense.56080

       No agent or officer of a railroad shall violate this section.56081

       Sec. 4907.37.  No common carrier subject to Chapters 4901., 56082
4903., 4905., 4907., and 4909., 4921., 4923., and 4925. of the 56083
Revised Code shall make or give undue or unreasonable preference 56084
or advantage to a particular person, company, firm, corporation, 56085
or locality, or to any particular description of traffic, or 56086
subject any particular person, company, firm, corporation, or 56087
locality, or any particular description of traffic, to any undue 56088
or unreasonable prejudice or disadvantage in any respect.56089

       Sec. 4907.43.  When the tracks of a railroad and the tracks 56090
of an interurban or suburban railway cross, connect, or intersect, 56091
and such tracks are of the same gauge, the companies owning such 56092
railroads may connect such tracks so as to admit the passage of 56093
cars from one to the other with facility.56094

       If any such railroads fail to make such connection, upon 56095
complaint of any party authorized by Chapters 4901., 4903., 4905., 56096
4907., and 4909., 4921., 4923., and 4925. of the Revised Code to 56097
file complaint, the public utilities commission shall proceed to 56098
hear and determine the same in a manner provided for making 56099
investigations upon complaint.56100

       If upon such hearing the commission finds that it is 56101
practicable and reasonably necessary to accomodateaccommodate the 56102
public, to connect such tracks and that when so connected it will 56103
be practicable to transport cars over such railroad without 56104
endangering the equipment, tracks, or appliances of either 56105
company, the commission shall make an order requiring such 56106
railroads to make connection. Such order shall describe the terms 56107
and conditions and shall apportion the cost of making such 56108
connection between the railroads.56109

       When such connection is made, the railroads parties to it, 56110
according to their respective powers, shall afford all reasonable 56111
and proper facilities for the interchange of traffic between their 56112
respective lines for forwarding and delivering passengers and 56113
property, and without unreasonable delay or discrimination shall 56114
transfer, switch, and deliver freight or passenger cars destine to 56115
a point on its own or connecting lines. Precedence may be given to 56116
livestock and perishable freight over other freight. Whenever a 56117
derailing device is required at the intersection of any railroads 56118
mentioned in this section, it shall be installed, maintained, and 56119
operated as required by the commission, which may prescribe the 56120
necessary rules and regulations for such operation, and designate 56121
the companies that shall be responsible for the operation of such 56122
derailing device.56123

       Sec. 4907.49.  When two or more railroads cross a public 56124
highway or street at a dangerous crossing, the expenses incurred 56125
in the erection and maintenance of gates, bells, or other devices, 56126
and of necessary gatekeepers or flagmenflaggers, and apportioned 56127
by the public utilities commission as railroad expense, shall be 56128
shared equally by the railroads.56129

       Chapters 4901., 4903., 4905., 4907., and 4909., 4921., and 56130
4923. of the Revised Code do not prevent the use of automatic 56131
bells or other mechanical devices by a railroad at a public 56132
crossing not declared dangerous by the public utilities 56133
commission, nor do they prevent state, county, township, or 56134
municipal officials from entering into an agreement with a 56135
railroad to pay all or part of the expense of erecting a warning 56136
device. Any funds levied and made available for highways or street 56137
purposes may be used to pay the public share of the cost under 56138
such an agreement. If a gate is erected or a flagmanflagger is 56139
stationed and maintained by a railroad, either alone or pursuant 56140
to such an agreement, the gate or flagmanflagger shall not be 56141
abandoned nor an automatic bell or other mechanical device 56142
substituted for the gate or flagmanflagger, unless the commission 56143
consents to the abandonment or substitution.56144

       Sec. 4907.57.  All claims, charges, or demands against a 56145
railroad for loss of or damage to property occurring while in the 56146
custody of such railroad and unreasonable delay in transportation 56147
and delivery, for overcharges upon a shipment, or for any other 56148
service in violation of Chapters 4901., 4903., 4905., 4907., and56149
4909., 4921., 4923., and 4925. of the Revised Code, if not paid 56150
within sixty days from the date of the filing thereof with such 56151
railroad, may be submitted to the public utilities commission by a 56152
formal complaint. Such complaint shall be made upon blank forms 56153
which the commission shall provide upon demand of the claimant.56154

       Such complaint shall be verified as petitions in civil 56155
actions and may be accompanied by the sworn statements of any 56156
witnesses who have knowledge of any fact material to the inquiry. 56157
Upon the filing of such complaint the commission shall forthwith 56158
cite the railroad to answer the complaint, and the citation shall 56159
be accompanied with a brief statement of the claim. The answer of 56160
the railroad shall be filed within three weeks from the service of 56161
the citation and shall be verified as answers in civil cases, and 56162
may be accompanied with the affidavits of any witnesses having 56163
knowledge of facts material to the inquiry.56164

       The burden of proof shall be upon the railroad to show that 56165
loss or damage to property was not due to its negligence. The 56166
railroad to which property is delivered for shipment shall prima 56167
facie be liable for loss or damage occurring to such property in 56168
transit notwithstanding such property may be delivered to other 56169
railroads before reaching its destination. The claim referred to 56170
in this section for loss of or damage to property may be made to 56171
any carrier over whose lines the lost or damaged property was 56172
consigned, and such claimant may at histhe claimant's option join 56173
all of such railroads as parties defendant in histhe complaint 56174
before said commission. The railroad shall furnish the claimant 56175
with a copy of its answer and affidavits, and within two weeks 56176
from the filing of such answers the claimant may file hisa reply, 56177
with affidavits in support thereof, verified as replies in civil 56178
cases. At the expiration of said period of two weeks the 56179
commission shall proceed summarily to examine the complaint, 56180
answer, reply, and affidavits, and shall determine the existence 56181
and validity of the claim presented. If the commission finds in 56182
favor of the claimant it shall certify its findings to the clerk 56183
of the court of common pleas of the county in which the claimant 56184
resides or where the railroad or any of its offices is maintained.56185

       Sec. 4907.59.  Upon request of the public utilities 56186
commission, the attorney general or the prosecuting attorney of 56187
the proper county shall aid in an investigation, prosecution, 56188
hearing, or trial had under Chapters 4901., 4903., 4905., 4907., 56189
and 4909., 4921., 4923., and 4925. of the Revised Code, and shall 56190
institute and prosecute necessary actions or proceedings for the 56191
enforcement of such chapters and of other laws of this state 56192
relating to railroads, and for the punishment of all violations of 56193
such chapters and such other laws.56194

       Sec. 4907.60.  If a railroad fails to perform a duty enjoined 56195
upon it by Chapter 4901., 4903., 4905., 4907., 4909., 4921., 56196
4923., or 4959. of the Revised Code, or does any act prohibited by 56197
any of those chapters, for which failure or act no penalty or 56198
forfeiture has been provided by law, or fails to obey a lawful 56199
requirement or order made by the public utilities commission or 56200
order of any court upon application of the commission, the 56201
railroad, except as otherwise specifically provided in sections 56202
4905.83,section 4905.95, 4919.99, 4921.99, and 4923.99 of the 56203
Revised Code, shall forfeit into the state treasury not less than 56204
one hundred nor more than ten thousand dollars for each violation 56205
or failure. In construing and enforcing this section, the act, 56206
omission, or failure of any officer, agent, or other person acting 56207
for or employed by a railroad, while acting within the scope of 56208
the officer's, agent's, or other person's employment, is the act, 56209
omission, or failure of the railroad.56210

       Sec. 4907.61.  Except as otherwise specifically provided in 56211
sections 4905.83, 4905.96, 4919.99, 4921.99, and 4923.99 of the 56212
Revised Code, when the attorney general prosecutes an action for 56213
the recovery of a forfeiture provided for in Chapter 4901., 4903., 56214
4905., 4907., 4909., 4921., 4923., or 4959. of the Revised Code, 56215
the attorney general may bring the action in the court of common 56216
pleas of Franklin county or of any county having jurisdiction of 56217
the defendant.56218

       Sec. 4907.62.  If a railroad does, causes, or permits 56219
anything prohibited by Chapters 4901., 4903., 4905., 4907., and56220
4909., 4921., 4923., and 4925. of the Revised Code to be done, or 56221
omits doing anything required to be done by such chapters, such 56222
railroad is liable to the person, firm, or corporation injured 56223
thereby in treble the amount of damages sustained in consequence 56224
of such violation or omission. A recovery provided by this section 56225
shall not affect a recovery by the state of the penalty prescribed 56226
for such violation.56227

       Sec. 4909.01.  As used in this chapter:56228

       (A) "Public utility" has the same meaning as in section 56229
4905.02 of the Revised Code.56230

       (B) "Electric light company," "gas company," "natural gas 56231
company," "pipeline company," "water-works company," "sewage 56232
disposal system company," and "street railway company" have the 56233
same meanings as in section 4905.03 of the Revised Code.56234

       (C) "Railroad" has the same meaning as in section 4907.02 of 56235
the Revised Code.56236

       (D) "Motor transportation companyFor-hire motor carrier" has 56237
the same meaning as in sections 4905.03 and 4921.02section 56238
4921.01 of the Revised Code.56239

       Sec. 4909.02.  All regulations, practices, and service of 56240
railroad companies prescribed by the public utilities commission 56241
shall be in force and be prima-facie reasonable, unless suspended 56242
or found otherwise in an action brought for that purpose pursuant 56243
to Chapters 4901., 4903., 4905., 4907., and 4909., 4921., and 56244
4923. of the Revised Code, or until changed or modified by the 56245
commission.56246

       Sec. 4909.03.  All rates, fares, charges, classifications, 56247
and joint rates of railroad companies fixed by the public 56248
utilities commission shall be in force and be prima-facie lawful 56249
for two years from the day they take effect, or until changed or 56250
modified by the commission or by an order of a competent court in 56251
an action under Chapters 4901., 4903., 4905., 4907., and 4909., 56252
4921., and 4923. of the Revised Code.56253

       Sec. 4909.17.  No rate, joint rate, toll, classification, 56254
charge, or rental, no change in any rate, joint rate, toll, 56255
classification, charge, or rental, and no regulation or practice 56256
affecting any rate, joint rate, toll, classification, charge, or 56257
rental of a public utility shall become effective until the public 56258
utilities commission, by order, determines it to be just and 56259
reasonable, except as provided in this section and sections 56260
4909.18, 4909.19, and 4909.191 of the Revised Code. Such sections 56261
do not apply to any rate, joint rate, toll, classification, 56262
charge, or rental, or any regulation or practice affecting the 56263
same, of railroads, street and electric railways, for-hire motor 56264
transportation companiescarriers, and pipe line companies. 56265

       Sec. 4909.22.  When passengers or property are transported 56266
over two or more connecting railroads between points in this 56267
state, and the railroad companies have made joint rates for the 56268
transportation of such passengers or property, such rates and all 56269
charges in connection therewith shall be just and reasonable. 56270
Every unjust and unreasonable charge is prohibited. A less charge 56271
by each of such railroads for its proportion of such joint rates 56272
than is made locally between the same points on their respective 56273
lines is not for that reason a violation of Chapters 4901., 4903., 56274
4905., 4907., and 4909., 4921., 4923., and 4925. of the Revised 56275
Code and does not render such railroads liable to any of the 56276
penalties in such chapters.56277

       Sec. 4909.24.  Upon complaint of a person, firm, corporation, 56278
or association, of a mercantile, agricultural, or manufacturing 56279
society, or of a body politic or municipal organization, that any 56280
of the rates, fares, charges, or classifications, or any joint 56281
rates are in any respect unreasonable or unjustly discriminatory, 56282
or that any regulation or practice, affecting the transportation 56283
of persons or property, or any service in connection therewith, 56284
are in any respect unreasonable or unjustly discriminatory, or 56285
that any service is inadequate, the public utilities commission 56286
may notify the railroad complained of that complaint has been 56287
made, and ten days after such notice proceed to investigate such 56288
charges as provided in Chapters 4901., 4903., 4905., 4907., and56289
4909., 4921., 4923., and 4925. of the Revised Code. Before making 56290
such investigation, the commission shall give the railroad and the 56291
complainants ten days' notice of the time and place such matters 56292
will be considered and determined, and such parties are entitled 56293
to be heard and to have process to enforce the attendance of 56294
witnesses.56295

       A railroad may make complaint with like effect as though made 56296
by any person, firm, corporation, or association, merctantile56297
mercantile, agricultural, or manufacturing society, body politic, 56298
or municipal organization.56299

       Sec. 4909.28.  If, upon an investigation under Chapters 56300
4901., 4903., 4905., 4907., and 4909., 4921., 4923., and 4925. of 56301
the Revised Code, the public utilities commission finds that any 56302
existing rate, fare, charge, or classification, any joint rate, or 56303
any regulation or practice affecting the transportation of persons 56304
or property, or service in connection therewith, is unreasonable 56305
or unjustly discriminatory, or that any service is inadequate, it 56306
shall determine and by order fix a reasonable rate, fare, charge, 56307
classification, joint rate, regulation, practice, or service to be 56308
imposed, observed, and followed in the future, in place of that so 56309
found to be unreasonable, unjustly discriminatory, or inadequate. 56310
A certified copy of each such order shall be delivered to an 56311
officer or station agent of the railroad affected, and such order 56312
shall of its own force take effect and become operative thirty 56313
days after service.56314

       All railroads to which such order applies shall make such 56315
changes in their schedules on file as are necessary to conform to 56316
such order, and no change shall thereafter be made by any railroad 56317
in any such rate, fare, or charge, or in any joint rate, without 56318
the approval of the commission.56319

       Sec. 4911.01.  As used in this chapter:56320

       (A) "Public utility" means every one as defined in divisions 56321
(A)(1), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), (C), (D), (E), (F), (G), 56322
(H), and (13)(M) of section 4905.03 of the Revised Code, including 56323
all public utilities that operate their utilities not for profit, 56324
except the following:56325

       (1) Electric light companies that operate their utilities not 56326
for profit;56327

       (2) Public utilities, other than telephone companies, that 56328
are owned and operated exclusively by and solely for the 56329
utilities' customers;56330

       (3) Public utilities that are owned or operated by any 56331
municipal corporation;56332

       (4) Railroads as defined in sections 4907.02 and 4907.03 of 56333
the Revised Code.56334

       (B) "Residential consumer" means urban, suburban, and rural 56335
patrons of public utilities insofar as their needs for utility 56336
services are limited to their residence.56337

       Sec. 4921.01.  As used in this chapter:56338

       (A) "Ambulance" has the same meaning as in section 4766.01 of 56339
the Revised Code.56340

       (B) "For-hire motor carrier" means a person engaged in the 56341
business of transporting persons or property by motor vehicle for 56342
compensation, except when engaged in any of the following in 56343
intrastate commerce:56344

       (1) The transportation of persons in taxicabs in the usual 56345
taxicab service;56346

       (2) The transportation of pupils in school busses operating 56347
to or from school sessions or school events;56348

       (3) The transportation of farm supplies to the farm or farm 56349
products from farm to market or to food fabricating plants;56350

       (4) The distribution of newspapers;56351

       (5) The transportation of crude petroleum incidental to 56352
gathering from wells and delivery to destination by pipe line;56353

       (6) The transportation of injured, ill, or deceased persons 56354
by hearse or ambulance;56355

       (7) The transportation of compost (a combination of manure 56356
and sand or shredded bark mulch) or shredded bark mulch;56357

       (8) The transportation of persons in a ridesharing 56358
arrangement when any fee charged each person so transported is in 56359
such amount as to recover only the person's share of the costs of 56360
operating the motor vehicle for such purpose;56361

       (9) The operation of motor vehicles for contractors on public 56362
road work.56363

       "For-hire motor carrier" includes the carrier's agents, 56364
officers, and representatives, as well as employees responsible 56365
for hiring, supervising, training, assigning, or dispatching 56366
drivers and employees concerned with the installation, inspection, 56367
and maintenance of motor-vehicle equipment and accessories.56368

       Divisions (B)(1) to (9) of this section shall not be 56369
construed to relieve a person from compliance with 56370
hazardous-material regulation under section 4921.15 of the Revised 56371
Code and division (H) of section 4921.19 of the Revised Code, or 56372
rules adopted thereunder, or from compliance with rules governing 56373
unified carrier registration adopted under section 4921.11 of the 56374
Revised Code.56375

       (C) "Household goods" means personal effects and property 56376
used or to be used in a dwelling, excluding property moving from a 56377
factory or store.56378

       (D) "Interstate commerce" means trade, traffic, or 56379
transportation in the United States that is any of the following:56380

       (1) Between a place in a state and a place outside of that 56381
state (including a place outside of the United States);56382

       (2) Between two places in a state through another state or a 56383
place outside of the United States;56384

       (3) Between two places in a state as part of trade, traffic, 56385
or transportation originating or terminating outside the state or 56386
the United States.56387

       (E) "Intrastate commerce" means any trade, traffic, or 56388
transportation in any state which is not described in the term 56389
"interstate commerce."56390

       (F) "Motor vehicle" means any vehicle, machine, tractor, 56391
trailer, or semitrailer propelled or drawn by mechanical power and 56392
used upon the highways in the transportation of persons or 56393
property, or any combination thereof, but does not include any 56394
vehicle, locomotive, or car operated exclusively on a rail or 56395
rails, or a trolley bus operated by electric power derived from a 56396
fixed overhead wire, furnishing local passenger transportation 56397
similar to street-railway service.56398

       (G) "Public highway" means any public street, road, or 56399
highway in this state, whether within or without the corporate 56400
limits of a municipal corporation.56401

       (H) "Ridesharing arrangement" means the transportation of 56402
persons in a motor vehicle where such transportation is incidental 56403
to another purpose of a volunteer driver, and includes ridesharing 56404
arrangements known as carpools, vanpools, and buspools.56405

       (I) "School bus" has the same meaning as in section 4511.01 56406
of the Revised Code.56407

       (J) "Trailer" means any vehicle without motive power designed 56408
or used for carrying persons or property and for being drawn by a 56409
separate motor vehicle, including any vehicle of the trailer type, 56410
whether designed or used for carrying persons or property wholly 56411
on its own structure, or so designed or used that a part of its 56412
own weight or the weight of its load rests upon and is carried by 56413
such motor vehicle.56414

       Sec. 4921.03. (A) No for-hire motor carrier may operate in 56415
intrastate commerce unless the carrier has a current and valid 56416
certificate of public convenience and necessity.56417

       (B) The public utilities commission shall issue a certificate 56418
of public convenience and necessity to any person who does all of 56419
the following:56420

       (1) Files with the commission, in accordance with rules 56421
adopted under section 4921.05 of the Revised Code, a complete and 56422
accurate application that shall include a certification that (a) 56423
the person understands and is in compliance with the applicable 56424
service, operation, and safety laws of this state and (b) the 56425
person meets the requirements of section 4921.09 of the Revised 56426
Code;56427

       (2) Agrees to maintain accurate and current business and 56428
insurance information with the commission, in accordance with the 56429
commission's rules;56430

       (3) Has paid all applicable registration fees in accordance 56431
with rules adopted under section 4921.11 of the Revised Code, all 56432
applicable taxes under section 4921.19 of the Revised Code, and 56433
any forfeitures imposed under section 4923.99 of the Revised Code.56434

       (C) The commission shall have no power to fix, alter, or 56435
establish rates for the transportation of persons or property, nor 56436
shall the commission have the power to require or accept the 56437
filing of tariffs establishing such rates, except that the 56438
commission may accept the filing of tariffs establishing rates for 56439
the transportation of household goods.56440

       (D) A for-hire motor carrier may, at any time after a 56441
certificate of public convenience and necessity is granted or 56442
refused, file a new application or supplement a former 56443
application.56444

       (E) The commission may deny issuance of a certificate of 56445
public convenience and necessity for failure to comply with this 56446
section or rules adopted under section 4921.05 of the Revised 56447
Code.56448

       Sec. 4921.05. The public utilities commission shall adopt 56449
rules prescribing the manner and form in which a person shall 56450
apply for a certificate of public convenience and necessity under 56451
section 4921.03 of the Revised Code. The rules shall include a 56452
requirement that applications be made in writing on the blanks 56453
furnished by the commission and contain any information and 56454
certifications deemed necessary by the commission to carry out 56455
this chapter.56456

       Sec. 4921.07. (A) The public utilities commission shall adopt 56457
rules regarding procedures and timelines by which a certificate of 56458
public convenience and necessity issued under section 4921.03 of 56459
the Revised Code may be suspended. At a minimum, the rules shall 56460
require suspension of a certificate if the for-hire motor carrier 56461
does any of the following:56462

       (1) Fails to file a complete and accurate application for the 56463
certificate under section 4921.03 of the Revised Code;56464

       (2) Fails to maintain accurate and current business and 56465
insurance information with the commission;56466

       (3) Fails to maintain proper proof of insurance or proper 56467
levels of insurance under section 4921.09 of the Revised Code;56468

       (4) Fails to pay all applicable registration fees in 56469
accordance with rules adopted under section 4921.11 of the Revised 56470
Code, all applicable taxes under section 4921.19 of the Revised 56471
Code, and any forfeitures imposed under section 4923.99 of the 56472
Revised Code;56473

       (5) Requests to suspend the carrier's operations.56474

       (B)(1) The commission shall adopt rules regarding procedures 56475
and timelines by which a certificate suspended under division (A) 56476
of this section may be revoked if the conditions giving rise to 56477
the suspension are not remedied.56478

       (2) The commission shall provide the carrier with written 56479
notice indicating the nature of the deficiency, a proposed 56480
effective date of the revocation, and the means by which the 56481
deficiency may be remedied. The carrier may correct the identified 56482
deficiency or submit evidence refuting the proposed revocation 56483
within sixty days from the date of the notice. The commission may 56484
extend the sixty-day period for good cause shown. The commission 56485
may revoke the certificate after the remedy period if the carrier 56486
has not provided sufficient evidence to remedy the deficiency.56487

       Sec. 4921.09. (A) No certificate of public convenience and 56488
necessity shall be issued by the public utilities commission to 56489
any for-hire motor carrier until the carrier has filed with the 56490
commission a liability insurance certificate, policy, or bond 56491
satisfactory to the commission, in the sum and with the provisions 56492
the commission considers necessary adequately to protect the 56493
interests of the public, having due regard for the number of 56494
persons and amount of property affected. The certificate, policy, 56495
or bond shall insure the carrier against loss sustained by reason 56496
of death or injuries to persons and for loss or damage to property 56497
resulting from the negligence of the carrier.56498

       (B) No certificate for the transportation of household goods 56499
shall be issued to a for-hire motor carrier pursuant to sections 56500
4921.30 to 4921.38 of the Revised Code until it has filed with the 56501
commission a freight cargo insurance certificate, policy, or bond 56502
that the commission has determined to be adequate to protect the 56503
interests of the shipping public.56504

       (C) The Commission shall adopt rules to achieve the purposes 56505
of this section that are not incompatible with the requirements of 56506
the United States department of transportation. The rules shall at 56507
a minimum address all of the following:56508

       (1) The minimum levels of financial responsibility for each 56509
type of for-hire motor carrier;56510

       (2) The form and type of documents to be filed with the 56511
commission;56512

       (3) The manner by which documents may be filed with the 56513
commission;56514

       (4) The timelines for filing documents with the commission. 56515

       (D) If a certificate, policy, or bond required under division 56516
(A) of this section is canceled during its term or lapses for any 56517
reason, both of the following apply:56518

       (1) All operations under the certificate of public 56519
convenience and necessity shall cease immediately, and further 56520
operations shall not be conducted until a replacement is filed 56521
with the commission under division (D)(2) of this section.56522

       (2) The commission shall require the company to replace the 56523
certificate, policy, or bond with another that fully complies with 56524
the requirements of this section.56525

       The certificate of public convenience and necessity shall be 56526
reinstated only after a satisfactory insurance certificate, 56527
policy, or bond has been filed with the commission.56528

       (E) To ensure minimum standards of protection of consumers' 56529
household goods, the commission may adopt rules, not incompatible 56530
with the requirements of the United States department of 56531
transportation, governing requirements for cargo insurance for 56532
for-hire motor carriers engaged in the transportation of household 56533
goods over a public highway in this state.56534

       Sec. 4921.11.  The public utilities commission shall adopt 56535
rules applicable to registration pursuant to the unified carrier 56536
registration plan, codified as 49 U.S.C. 14504a, and the rules, 56537
procedures, and fee schedules adopted thereunder, in accordance 56538
with division (G) of section 4921.19 of the Revised Code.56539

       Sec. 4921.13. (A) The public utilities commission shall adopt 56540
rules applicable to the filing of annual update forms and the 56541
payment of taxes by for-hire motor carriers. The rules shall not 56542
be incompatible with the requirements of the United States 56543
department of transportation. The rules shall at a minimum address 56544
all of the following:56545

       (1) The information and certifications that must be provided 56546
to the commission on an annual update form, including a 56547
certification that the carrier continues to be in compliance with 56548
the applicable laws of this state.56549

       (2) Documentation and information that must be provided 56550
regarding proof of financial responsibility;56551

       (3) The form and manner in which taxes may be paid under 56552
section 4921.19 of the Revised Code.56553

       (B) The rules may address any other information that the 56554
commission determines is necessary to carry out this section.56555

       (C) A for-hire motor carrier shall not be issued a tax 56556
receipt under division (C) of section 4921.19 of the Revised Code 56557
until all of the following have been satisfied:56558

       (1) A complete and accurate annual update form has been filed 56559
with the commission;56560

       (2) Proof of financial responsibility remains in effect; 56561

       (3) All applicable registration fees in accordance with rules 56562
adopted under section 4921.11 of the Revised Code, all applicable 56563
taxes under section 4921.19 of the Revised Code, and any 56564
forfeitures imposed under section 4923.99 of the Revised Code have 56565
been paid in full.56566

       Sec. 4921.15.  (A) As used in sections 4921.15, 4921.16, and 56567
4921.19 of the Revised Code:56568

       (1) "Uniform registration" has the same meaning as 56569
"registration" as used in the final report submitted to the United 56570
States secretary of transportation, pursuant to subsection (c) of 56571
section 22 of the "Hazardous Materials Transportation Uniform 56572
Safety Act of 1990," 104 Stat. 3244, 49 U.S.C.A. App. 1819.56573

       (2) "Uniform permit" has the same meaning as "permit" as used 56574
in the final report submitted to the United States secretary of 56575
transportation, pursuant to subsection (c) of section 22 of the 56576
"Hazardous Materials Transportation Uniform Safety Act of 1990," 56577
104 Stat. 3244, 49 U.S.C.A. App. 1819.56578

       (B)(1) The public utilities commission may adopt rules 56579
applicable to the uniform registration and uniform permitting of 56580
persons engaged in the highway transportation of hazardous 56581
materials into, through, or within this state. The rules shall 56582
include rules staggering the registration date for those persons 56583
and reducing or extending, by no more than one year, the permit 56584
renewal period for those persons.56585

       (2) For the purpose of minimizing filing requirements 56586
regarding any background investigation required for the issuance 56587
of a uniform permit as a carrier of hazardous wastes, the 56588
commission shall accept from any applicant for the permit any 56589
refiling of information the applicant has filed with the office of 56590
the attorney general under section 3734.42 of the Revised Code or 56591
any reference to that information if the refiled or referenced 56592
information is on file with the office of the attorney general, is 56593
accurate and timely for the commission's purposes under this 56594
section, and is supplemented by any additional information the 56595
commission requires. The office of the attorney general, as 56596
necessary for a background investigation, shall make accessible to 56597
the commission any information referenced or refiled in an 56598
application for a uniform permit as a carrier of hazardous wastes 56599
that the attorney general determines may be disclosed in 56600
accordance with section 3734.42 of the Revised Code. Nothing in 56601
sections 4921.15, 4921.16, and division (H) of section 4921.19 of 56602
the Revised Code affects any limitations under section 3734.42 of 56603
the Revised Code on the disclosure of that information.56604

       (C) The commission, as necessary to implement the rules 56605
adopted under division (B) of this section, may enter into 56606
agreements, contracts, arrangements, or declarations with other 56607
states and with the national repository, established pursuant to 56608
the final report submitted to the United States secretary of 56609
transportation, pursuant to subsection (c) of section 22 of the 56610
"Hazardous Materials Transportation Uniform Safety Act of 1990," 56611
104 Stat. 3244, 49 U.S.C.A. App. 1819. The agreements, contracts, 56612
arrangements, or declarations shall include, but not be limited 56613
to, the determination of a base state, the collection of uniform 56614
registration fees, the frequency of distribution of uniform 56615
registration fees, procedures for dispute resolution, and 56616
protection of trade secrets and confidential business information.56617

       (D) No person shall knowingly falsify or fail to submit any 56618
data, reports, records, or other information required to be 56619
submitted to the commission pursuant to this section or a rule 56620
adopted under it. For purposes of this division, a person acts 56621
knowingly if either of the following applies:56622

       (1) The person has actual knowledge of the facts giving rise 56623
to the violation.56624

       (2) A reasonable person acting in the circumstances and 56625
exercising due care would have such knowledge.56626

       (E) After notice and opportunity for a hearing, the 56627
commission, pursuant to criteria set forth in rules adopted under 56628
division (B) of this section, may suspend, revoke, or deny the 56629
uniform permit as a carrier of hazardous materials of any person 56630
that has obtained or applied for such a uniform permit from the 56631
commission pursuant to rules adopted under that division, or the 56632
commission may order the suspension of the transportation of 56633
hazardous materials into, through, or within this state by a 56634
carrier that has obtained a uniform permit from another state that 56635
has a reciprocity agreement with the commission pursuant to 56636
division (C) of this section.56637

       (F)(1) The proceedings specified in division (E) of this 56638
section are subject to and governed by Chapter 4903. of the 56639
Revised Code, except as otherwise provided in this section. The 56640
court of appeals of Franklin county has exclusive original 56641
jurisdiction to review, modify, or vacate any order of the 56642
commission suspending, revoking, or denying a uniform permit as a 56643
carrier of hazardous materials of any person that has obtained or 56644
applied for a uniform permit from the commission pursuant to rules 56645
adopted under division (B) of this section, or any order of the 56646
commission suspending the transportation of hazardous materials 56647
into, through, or within this state by a carrier that has obtained 56648
a uniform permit from another state that has a reciprocity 56649
agreement with the commission under division (C) of this section. 56650
The court of appeals shall hear and determine those appeals in the 56651
same manner and under the same standards as the Ohio supreme court 56652
hears and determines appeals under Chapter 4903. of the Revised 56653
Code. The judgment of the court of appeals is final and conclusive 56654
unless reversed, vacated, or modified on appeal. Such appeals may 56655
be taken either by the commission or the person to whom the order 56656
was issued and shall proceed as in the case of appeals in civil 56657
actions as provided in Chapter 2505. of the Revised Code.56658

       (2) Section 4903.11 of the Revised Code does not apply to 56659
appeals of any order of the commission suspending, revoking, or 56660
denying a uniform permit of a person that has obtained or applied 56661
for a uniform permit from the commission pursuant to rules adopted 56662
under division (B) of this section, or of any order of the 56663
commission suspending the transportation of hazardous materials 56664
into, through, or within this state by a carrier that has obtained 56665
a uniform permit from another state that has a reciprocity 56666
agreement with the commission pursuant to division (C) of this 56667
section. Any person to whom such an order is issued who wishes to 56668
contest the order shall file, within sixty days after the entry of 56669
the order upon the journal of the commission, a notice of appeal, 56670
setting forth the order appealed from and the errors complained 56671
of. The notice of appeal shall be served, unless waived, upon the 56672
chairperson of the commission or, in the event of the 56673
chairperson's absence, upon any public utilities commissioner, or 56674
by leaving a copy at the office of the commission at Columbus. On 56675
appeal, the court shall reverse, vacate, or modify the order if, 56676
upon consideration of the record, the court is of the opinion that 56677
the order was unlawful or unreasonable.56678

       Sec. 4921.16.  (A) Information submitted to the public 56679
utilities commission as part of a uniform registration 56680
application, pursuant to rules adopted under division (B) of 56681
section 4921.15 of the Revised Code, is a public record and is 56682
subject to section 149.43 of the Revised Code.56683

       (B) Except for information related to corporate structure and 56684
personnel, information that is submitted to the commission as part 56685
of a uniform permit application, pursuant to rules adopted under 56686
division (B) of section 4921.15 of the Revised Code, is a public 56687
record and is subject to section 149.43 of the Revised Code. 56688
Information that is related to corporate structure and personnel 56689
that is submitted to the commission as part of a uniform permit 56690
application, pursuant to rules adopted under division (B) of 56691
section 4921.15 of the Revised Code, is not a public record and is 56692
not subject to section 149.43 of the Revised Code. Except as 56693
provided in division (D) of this section, the commission shall not 56694
disclose to any person any information that is related to 56695
corporate structure and personnel that is submitted as part of a 56696
uniform permit application.56697

       (C) Information that is submitted for any background 56698
investigation for an application for a uniform permit as a carrier 56699
of hazardous wastes is not a public record and is not subject to 56700
section 149.43 of the Revised Code. Except as provided in division 56701
(D) of this section, the commission shall not disclose to any 56702
person any information submitted for any background investigation 56703
for such an application.56704

       (D) The commission may disclose to its authorized employees 56705
and to any federal agencies, state agencies of this state or 56706
another state, local government agencies of this state or another 56707
state, or the national repository established pursuant to the 56708
final report submitted to the United States secretary of 56709
transportation, pursuant to subsection (c) of section 22 of the 56710
"Hazardous Materials Transportation Uniform Safety Act of 1990," 56711
104 Stat. 3244, 49 U.S.C.A. App. 1819, any information submitted 56712
to the commission as part of a uniform permit application that is 56713
related to corporate structure and personnel or submitted for any 56714
background investigation for an application for a uniform permit 56715
as a carrier of hazardous wastes if all of the following 56716
conditions are met:56717

       (1) The commission enters into a confidentiality agreement 56718
with the employee, agency, or national repository under which that 56719
employee or entity agrees not to disclose to any third party any 56720
information related to corporate structure or personnel or any 56721
information submitted as part of a background investigation unless 56722
the third party enters into a confidentiality agreement with the 56723
commission consistent with this division.56724

       (2) The employee, agency, or national repository certifies to 56725
the commission that it is not required by any state or federal law 56726
to disclose any information related to corporate structure or 56727
personnel or any information submitted as part of a background 56728
investigation.56729

       (3) The federal agency, state or local government agency of 56730
another state, or national repository irrevocably consents in 56731
writing to the jurisdiction of the courts of this state and 56732
service of process in this state, including, without limitation, 56733
summonses and subpoenas, for any civil proceeding arising out of 56734
an intentional disclosure of information in violation of this 56735
division.56736

       (E) Any person who intentionally discloses information in 56737
violation of division (D) of this section is liable to the owner 56738
of the information for civil damages caused by the disclosure.56739

       Sec. 4921.19.  (A) Every for-hire motor carrier operating in 56740
this state shall, at the time of the issuance of a certificate of 56741
public convenience and necessity under section 4921.03 of the 56742
Revised Code, pay to the public utilities commission, for and on 56743
behalf of the treasurer of state, the following taxes:56744

       (1) For each motor vehicle used for transporting persons, 56745
thirty dollars;56746

       (2) For each commercial tractor, as defined in section 56747
4501.01 of the Revised Code, used for transporting property, 56748
thirty dollars;56749

       (3) For each other motor vehicle transporting property, 56750
twenty dollars.56751

       (B) Every for-hire motor carrier operating in this state 56752
solely in intrastate commerce shall, annually between the first 56753
day of May and the thirtieth day of June, pay to the commission, 56754
for and on behalf of the treasurer of state, the following taxes:56755

       (1) For each motor vehicle used for transporting persons, 56756
thirty dollars;56757

       (2) For each commercial tractor, as defined in section 56758
4501.01 of the Revised Code, used for transporting property, 56759
thirty dollars;56760

       (3) For each other motor vehicle transporting property, 56761
twenty dollars.56762

       (C) After a for-hire motor carrier has paid the applicable 56763
taxes under division (B) of this section and all requirements 56764
under division (C) of section 4921.13 of the Revised Code have 56765
been met, the commission shall issue the carrier a tax receipt. 56766
The carrier shall carry a copy of the tax receipt in each motor 56767
vehicle operated by the carrier. The carrier shall maintain the 56768
original copy of the tax receipt at the carrier's primary place of 56769
business.56770

       (D) A trailer used by a for-hire motor carrier shall not be 56771
taxed under this section.56772

       (E) The annual tax levied by division (B) of this section 56773
does not apply in those cases where the commission finds that the 56774
movement of agricultural commodities or foodstuffs produced 56775
therefrom requires a temporary and seasonal use of vehicular 56776
equipment for a period of not more than ninety days. In such 56777
event, the tax on the vehicular equipment shall be twenty-five per 56778
cent of the annual tax levied by division (B) of this section. If 56779
any vehicular equipment is used in excess of the ninety-day 56780
period, the annual tax levied by this section shall be paid.56781

       (F) All taxes levied by division (B) of this section shall be 56782
reckoned as from the beginning of the quarter in which the tax 56783
receipt is issued or as from when the use of equipment under any 56784
existing tax receipt began.56785

       (G) The fees for unified carrier registration pursuant to 56786
section 4921.11 of the Revised Code shall be identical to those 56787
established by the unified carrier registration act board as 56788
approved by the federal motor carrier safety administration for 56789
each year.56790

       (H)(1) The fees for uniform registration and a uniform permit 56791
as a carrier of hazardous materials pursuant to section 4921.15 of 56792
the Revised Code shall consist of the following:56793

       (a) A processing fee of fifty dollars;56794

       (b) An apportioned per-truck registration fee, which shall be 56795
calculated by multiplying the percentage of a registrant's 56796
activity in this state times the percentage of the registrant's 56797
business that is hazardous-materials-related, times the number of 56798
vehicles owned or operated by the registrant, times a per-truck 56799
fee determined by order of the commission following public notice 56800
and an opportunity for comment.56801

       (i) The percentage of a registrant's activity in this state 56802
shall be calculated by dividing the number of miles that the 56803
registrant travels in this state under the international 56804
registration plan, pursuant to section 4503.61 of the Revised 56805
Code, by the number of miles that the registrant travels 56806
nationwide under the international registration plan. Registrants 56807
that operate solely within this state shall use one hundred per 56808
cent as their percentage of activity. Registrants that do not 56809
register their vehicles through the international registration 56810
plan shall calculate activity in the state in the same manner as 56811
that required by the international registration plan.56812

       (ii) The percentage of a registrant's business that is 56813
hazardous-materials-related shall be calculated, for 56814
less-than-truckload shipments, by dividing the weight of all the 56815
registrant's hazardous materials shipments by the total weight of 56816
all shipments in the previous year. The percentage of a 56817
registrant's business that is hazardous-materials-related shall be 56818
calculated, for truckload shipments, by dividing the number of 56819
shipments for which placarding, marking of the vehicle, or 56820
manifesting, as appropriate, was required by regulations adopted 56821
under sections 4 to 6 of the "Hazardous Materials Transportation 56822
Uniform Safety Act of 1990," 104 Stat. 3244, 49 U.S.C. App. 1804, 56823
by the total number of the registrant's shipments that transported 56824
any kind of goods in the previous year. A registrant that 56825
transports both less-than-truckload and truckload shipments of 56826
hazardous materials shall calculate the percentage of business 56827
that is hazardous-materials-related on a proportional basis.56828

       (iii) A registrant may utilize fiscal year, or calendar year, 56829
or other current company accounting data, or other publicly 56830
available information, in calculating the percentages required by 56831
divisions (H)(1)(b)(i) and (ii) of this section.56832

       (2) The commission, after notice and opportunity for a 56833
hearing, may assess each carrier a fee for any background 56834
investigation required for the issuance, for the purpose of 56835
section 3734.15 of the Revised Code, of a uniform permit as a 56836
carrier of hazardous wastes and fees related to investigations and 56837
proceedings for the denial, suspension, or revocation of a uniform 56838
permit as a carrier of hazardous materials. The fees shall not 56839
exceed the reasonable costs of the investigations and proceedings. 56840
The fee for a background investigation for a uniform permit as a 56841
carrier of hazardous wastes shall be six hundred dollars plus the 56842
costs of obtaining any necessary information not included in the 56843
permit application, to be calculated at the rate of thirty dollars 56844
per hour, not exceeding six hundred dollars, plus any fees payable 56845
to obtain necessary information.56846

       (I) The application fee for a certificate for the 56847
transportation of household goods issued pursuant to sections 56848
4921.30 to 4921.38 of the Revised Code shall be based on the 56849
certificate holder's gross revenue, in the prior year, for the 56850
intrastate transportation of household goods. The commission shall 56851
establish, by order, ranges of gross revenue and the fee for each 56852
range. The fees shall be set in amounts sufficient to carry out 56853
the purposes of sections 4921.30 to 4921.38 and 4923.99 of the 56854
Revised Code and, to the extent necessary, the commission shall 56855
make changes to the fee structure to ensure that neither over nor 56856
under collection of the fees occurs. The fees shall also take into 56857
consideration the revenue generated from the assessment of 56858
forfeitures under section 4923.99 of the Revised Code regarding 56859
the consumer protection provisions applicable to for-hire motor 56860
carriers engaged in the transportation of household goods.56861

       (J) The fees and taxes provided under this section shall be 56862
in addition to taxes, fees, and charges fixed and exacted by other 56863
sections of the Revised Code, except the assessments required by 56864
section 4905.10 of the Revised Code, but all fees, license fees, 56865
annual payments, license taxes, or taxes or other money exactions, 56866
except the general property tax, assessed, charged, fixed, or 56867
exacted by local authorities such as municipal corporations, 56868
townships, counties, or other local boards, or the officers of 56869
such subdivisions are illegal and, are superseded by sections 56870
4503.04 and 4905.03 and Chapter 4921. of the Revised Code. On 56871
compliance with sections 4503.04 and 4905.03 and Chapter 4921. of 56872
the Revised Code, all local ordinances, resolutions, by laws, and 56873
rules in force shall cease to be operative as to the persons in 56874
compliance, except that such local subdivisions may make 56875
reasonable local police regulations within their respective 56876
boundaries not inconsistent with sections 4503.04 and 4905.03 and 56877
Chapter 4921. of the Revised Code. 56878

       Sec. 4921.21. (A) As used in this section, "adjusted credit 56879
amount" means the aggregate amount credited to the public 56880
utilities transportation safety fund, less the sum of all of the 56881
following:56882

       (1) The fees collected by the public utilities commission, in 56883
accordance with the unified carrier registration plan under 56884
section 4921.11 of the Revised Code, that exceed the federal 56885
certification of revenue for each year of the plan;56886

       (2) The fees collected by the commission on behalf of other 56887
states under division (C) of section 4921.15 of the Revised Code;56888

       (3) The forfeitures collected by the commission under section 56889
4923.99 of the Revised Code for violations of rules adopted under 56890
division (A)(2) of section 4923.04 of the Revised Code.56891

       (B)(1) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 56892
public utilities transportation safety fund. The fees collected in 56893
accordance with the unified carrier registration plan under 56894
section 4921.11 of the Revised Code, the fees collected under 56895
section 4921.15 of the Revised Code, the taxes and fees remitted 56896
under section 4921.19 of the Revised Code, the forfeitures imposed 56897
under section 4923.99 of the Revised Code, except as provided in 56898
division (B)(2) of this section, and the fines collected under 56899
section 4163.07 of the Revised Code shall be deposited into the 56900
state treasury to the credit of the public utilities 56901
transportation safety fund, until the adjusted credit amount in a 56902
fiscal year is equal to the total amount appropriated from the 56903
fund for the fiscal year. Once this point of parity is reached, 56904
any additional fees, taxes, forfeitures, or fines received during 56905
the fiscal year shall be credited to the general revenue fund, 56906
except as provided in division (B)(2) of this section, and except 56907
for both of the following:56908

       (a) The fees collected in accordance with the unified carrier 56909
registration plan under section 4921.11 of the Revised Code, that 56910
exceed the federal certification of revenue for each year of the 56911
plan;56912

       (b) The fees collected on behalf of other states under 56913
division (C) of section 4921.15 of the Revised Code.56914

       (2) The first eight hundred thousand dollars of forfeitures 56915
collected under section 4923.99 of the Revised Code, for 56916
violations of rules adopted under division (A)(2) of section 56917
4923.04 of the Revised Code, during each fiscal year shall be 56918
credited to the public utilities transportation safety fund. Any 56919
forfeitures in excess of that amount shall be deposited into the 56920
general revenue fund. In each fiscal year, the commission shall 56921
distribute moneys from these forfeitures credited to the public 56922
utilities transportation safety fund for the purposes of emergency 56923
response planning and the training of safety, enforcement, and 56924
emergency services personnel in proper techniques for the 56925
management of hazardous materials releases that occur during 56926
transportation or otherwise. For these purposes, fifty per cent of 56927
all such moneys credited to the public utilities transportation 56928
safety fund shall be distributed to Cleveland state university, 56929
forty-five per cent shall be distributed to other educational 56930
institutions, state agencies, regional planning commissions, and 56931
political subdivisions, and five per cent shall be retained by the 56932
commission for the administration of this section and for training 56933
employees. However, if, in any such period, moneys from these 56934
forfeitures credited to the public utilities transportation safety 56935
fund equal an amount less than four hundred thousand dollars, the 56936
commission shall distribute, to the extent of the aggregate amount 56937
of those moneys, two hundred thousand dollars to Cleveland state 56938
university and the remainder to other educational institutions, 56939
state agencies, regional planning commissions, and political 56940
subdivisions.56941

       (C) The purpose of the public utilities transportation safety 56942
fund shall be for defraying all expenses incident to maintaining 56943
the nonrailroad transportation activities of the commission.56944

       (D) There is hereby created in the state treasury the federal 56945
commercial vehicle transportation systems fund. The fund shall 56946
consist of money received from the United States department of 56947
transportation's commercial vehicle intelligent transportation 56948
systems infrastructure deployment program. The public utilities 56949
commission shall use the fund to deploy the Ohio commercial 56950
vehicle information systems networks project and to improve safety 56951
of motor carrier operations through electronic exchange of data.56952

       (E) There is hereby created in the state treasury the motor 56953
carrier safety fund. The fund shall consist of money received from 56954
the United States department of transportation for motor carrier 56955
safety. The commission shall use the fund to administer the 56956
state's motor carrier safety assistance program and associated 56957
grants, including the motor carrier safety assistance program 56958
basic grant, the incentive grant, the high priority grants, the 56959
new entrant safety assurance grant, the safety data improvement 56960
grant, or their equivalents.56961

       (F) If the director of budget and management determines there 56962
is not sufficient money in the public utilities transportation 56963
safety fund, the director shall transfer money from the general 56964
revenue fund to the public utilities transportation safety fund in 56965
an amount up to the difference between the balance of the public 56966
utilities transportation safety fund and the appropriations from 56967
that fund. If the director subsequently determines during the 56968
fiscal year that the balance of the public utilities 56969
transportation safety fund exceeds the amount needed to support 56970
the appropriations from the fund, the director shall transfer the 56971
excess money, up to the amount of the original transfer, to the 56972
general revenue fund.56973

       Sec. 4921.25. Any person, firm, copartnership, voluntary 56974
association, joint-stock association, company, or corporation, 56975
wherever organized or incorporated, that is engaged in the towing 56976
of motor vehicles is subject to regulation by the public utilities 56977
commission as a for-hire motor carrier under this chapter. Such an 56978
entity is not subject to any ordinance, rule, or resolution of a 56979
municipal corporation, county, or township that provides for the 56980
licensing, registering, or regulation of entities that tow motor 56981
vehicles.56982

       Sec. 4921.30.  Except as otherwise provided in sections 56983
4921.32 to 4921.38 of the Revised Code, a for-hire motor carrier 56984
engaged in the transportation of household goods in intrastate 56985
commerce:56986

       (A) Is subject to Chapter 4921. of the Revised Code and to 56987
all other provisions of the Revised Code applicable to a for-hire 56988
motor carrier, including sections 4506.22, 4511.78, 5502.01, 56989
5503.02, and 5503.34 of the Revised Code;56990

       (B) Is not a public utility as defined in section 4911.01 of 56991
the Revised Code.56992

       Sec. 4921.32.  Notwithstanding any provision of this chapter 56993
or Chapters 4901. to 4909. and 4923. of the Revised Code to the 56994
contrary:56995

       (A) Not later than six months after the effective date of 56996
this section, the public utilities commission, in accordance with 56997
sections 4921.30 to 4921.38 of the Revised Code, shall establish 56998
by order a certification system for for-hire motor carriers 56999
engaged in the transportation of household goods in intrastate 57000
commerce.57001

       (B) Beginning on the effective date of the order of the 57002
commission as initially issued under division (A) of this section, 57003
no for-hire motor carrier shall engage in the transportation of 57004
household goods in intrastate commerce without first holding a 57005
current and valid certificate for the transportation of household 57006
goods issued by the commission pursuant to sections 4921.30 to 57007
4921.38 of the Revised Code.57008

       Sec. 4921.34. (A) The public utilities commission shall 57009
approve an application for a certificate for the transportation of 57010
household goods under sections 4921.30 to 4921.38 of the Revised 57011
Code and shall issue a certificate, provided the applicant pays 57012
the applicable application fee under division (I) of section 57013
4921.19 of the Revised Code and submits to the commission a 57014
completed application, on a form prescribed by the commission, 57015
that is substantially the same as the application prescribed by 57016
the commission pursuant to section 4921.05 of the Revised Code, 57017
and includes a certification of all of the following by 57018
responsible officials of the applicant:57019

       (1) The applicant's workers' compensation coverage is current 57020
pursuant to Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code.57021

       (2) The applicant's unemployment compensation coverage is 57022
current pursuant to Chapter 4141. of the Revised Code.57023

       (3) The applicant's financial responsibility is in accordance 57024
with rules adopted by the commission under section 4921.09 of the 57025
Revised Code.57026

       (B) The commission shall not approve any application that 57027
does not contain the proper certifications required by this 57028
section. The commission may revoke a certificate issued under 57029
division (A) of this section if, after at least fifteen days' 57030
advance notice to the certificate holder of the basis for such 57031
action and providing the holder with an opportunity for a hearing, 57032
the commission finds that the holder is not in compliance with 57033
this chapter, or rules adopted or orders issued under it.57034

       (C) A certificate issued under division (A) of this section 57035
is valid for one year and is renewable annually.57036

       Sec. 4921.36.  Each holder of a certificate for the 57037
transportation of household goods shall do all of the following:57038

       (A) Make its current certificate available for public 57039
inspection during normal business hours;57040

       (B) Present each of its customers with information, written 57041
in plain and clear language and pursuant to a form prescribed by 57042
the public utilities commission, outlining a consumer's rights;57043

       (C) Include its certificate number on all advertising, 57044
written estimates, and contracts, pursuant to rules adopted by the 57045
commission.57046

       Sec. 4921.38.  In accordance with sections 4921.30 to 4921.36 57047
of the Revised Code, the public utilities commission may adopt 57048
rules regarding any of the following:57049

       (A) Providing for binding estimates by for-hire motor 57050
carriers engaged in the transportation of household goods in 57051
intrastate commerce;57052

       (B) Providing for guaranteed-not-to-exceed estimates by those 57053
carriers;57054

       (C) Requiring those carriers to include their certificate 57055
number in all advertising, written estimates, and contracts 57056
related to the transportation of household goods in intrastate 57057
commerce;57058

       (D) As are necessary and proper to carry out this chapter 57059
with respect to those carriers;57060

       (E) Providing for the enforcement of the consumer protection 57061
provisions of Title 49 of the United States Code related to the 57062
delivery and transportation of household goods in interstate 57063
commerce, as permitted by 49 U.S.C. 14710.57064

       Sec. 4923.01.  As used in this chapter:57065

       (A) "Ambulance," "interstate commerce," "intrastate 57066
commerce," "motor vehicle," "public highway," "ridesharing 57067
arrangement," and "school bus" have the same meanings as in 57068
section 4921.01 of the Revised Code.57069

       (B) "For-hire motor carrier" means a person engaged in the 57070
business of transporting persons or property by motor vehicle for 57071
compensation, except when engaged in any of the following in 57072
intrastate commerce:57073

       (1) The transportation of persons in taxicabs in the usual 57074
taxicab service;57075

       (2) The transportation of pupils in school busses operating 57076
to or from school sessions or school events;57077

       (3) The transportation of farm supplies to the farm or farm 57078
products from farm to market or to food fabricating plants;57079

       (4) The distribution of newspapers;57080

       (5) The transportation of crude petroleum incidental to 57081
gathering from wells and delivery to destination by pipe line;57082

       (6) The transportation of injured, ill, or deceased persons 57083
by hearse or ambulance;57084

       (7) The transportation of compost (a combination of manure 57085
and sand or shredded bark mulch) or shredded bark mulch;57086

       (8) The transportation of persons in a ridesharing 57087
arrangement when any fee charged each person so transported is in 57088
such amount as to recover only the person's share of the costs of 57089
operating the motor vehicle for such purpose;57090

       (9) The operation of motor vehicles for contractors on public 57091
road work.57092

       "For-hire motor carrier" includes the carrier's agents, 57093
officers, and representatives, as well as employees responsible 57094
for hiring, supervising, training, assigning, or dispatching 57095
drivers and employees concerned with the installation, inspection, 57096
and maintenance of motor-vehicle equipment and accessories.57097

       Divisions (B)(1) to (9) of this section shall not be 57098
construed to relieve a person from compliance with rules adopted 57099
under division (A)(2) of section 4923.04 of the Revised Code, 57100
division (E) of section 4923.06 of the Revised Code, division (B) 57101
of section 4923.07 of the Revised Code, and section 4923.11 of the 57102
Revised Code, or from compliance with rules regarding commercial 57103
driver's licenses adopted under division (A)(1) of section 4923.04 57104
of the Revised Code.57105

       (C) "Motor carrier" means both a for-hire motor carrier and a 57106
private motor carrier.57107

       (D) "Private motor carrier" means a person who is not a 57108
for-hire motor carrier but is engaged in the business of 57109
transporting persons or property by motor vehicle, except as 57110
provided in section 4923.02 of the Revised Code. "Private motor 57111
carrier" includes the carrier's agents, officers, and 57112
representatives, as well as employees responsible for hiring, 57113
supervising, training, assigning, or dispatching drivers and 57114
employees concerned with the installation, inspection, and 57115
maintenance of motor-vehicle equipment and accessories.57116

       Sec. 4923.02.  (A) As used in this chapter, "private motor 57117
carrier" does not include a person when engaged in any of the 57118
following in intrastate commerce:57119

       (1) The transportation of persons in taxicabs in the usual 57120
taxicab service;57121

       (2) The transportation of pupils in school busses operating 57122
to or from school sessions or school events;57123

       (3) The transportation of farm supplies to the farm or farm 57124
products from farm to market or to food fabricating plants;57125

       (4) The distribution of newspapers;57126

       (5) The transportation of crude petroleum incidental to 57127
gathering from wells and delivery to destination by pipe line;57128

       (6) The transportation of injured, ill, or deceased persons 57129
by hearse or ambulance; 57130

       (7) The transportation of compost (a combination of manure 57131
and sand or shredded bark mulch) or shredded bark mulch;57132

       (8) The transportation of persons in a ridesharing 57133
arrangement when any fee charged each person so transported is in 57134
such amount as to recover only the person's share of the costs of 57135
operating the motor vehicle for such purpose;57136

       (9) The operation of motor vehicles for contractors on public 57137
road work.57138

       (B) The public utilities commission may grant a motor carrier 57139
operating in intrastate commerce a temporary exemption from some 57140
or all of the provisions of this chapter and the rules adopted 57141
under it, when either of the following applies:57142

       (1) The governor of this state has declared an emergency.57143

       (2) The chairperson of the commission or the chairperson's 57144
designee has declared a transportation-specific emergency.57145

       (C) The commission may adopt rules not incompatible with the 57146
requirements of the United States department of transportation to 57147
provide exemptions to motor carriers operating in intrastate 57148
commerce not otherwise identified in divisions (A) and (B) of this 57149
section.57150

       (D) Divisions (A) to (C) of this section shall not be 57151
construed to relieve a person from compliance with either of the 57152
following:57153

       (1) Rules adopted under division (A)(2) of section 4923.04 of 57154
the Revised Code, division (E) of section 4923.06 of the Revised 57155
Code, division (B) of section 4923.07 of the Revised Code, and 57156
section 4923.11 of the Revised Code;57157

       (2) Rules regarding commercial driver's licenses adopted 57158
under division (A)(1) of section 4923.04 of the Revised Code.57159

       Sec. 4923.04.  (A)(1) The public utilities commission shall 57160
adopt rules applicable to the transportation of persons or 57161
property by motor carriers operating in interstate and intrastate 57162
commerce.57163

       (2) The commission shall adopt rules applicable to the 57164
highway transportation and offering for transportation of 57165
hazardous materials by motor carriers, and persons engaging in the 57166
highway transportation and offering for transportation of 57167
hazardous materials, operating in interstate or intrastate 57168
commerce. 57169

       (B) The rules adopted under division (A) of this section 57170
shall not be incompatible with the requirements of the United 57171
States department of transportation.57172

       (C) To achieve the purposes of this chapter and to assist the 57173
commission in the performance of any of its powers or duties, the 57174
commission, either through the public utilities commissioners or 57175
employees authorized by it, may do either or both of the 57176
following:57177

       (1) Apply for, and any judge of a court of record of 57178
competent jurisdiction may issue, an appropriate search warrant;57179

       (2) Examine under oath, at the offices of the commission, any 57180
officer, agent, or employee of any person subject to this chapter. 57181
The commission, by subpoena, also may compel the attendance of a 57182
witness for the purpose of the examination and, by subpoena duces 57183
tecum, may compel the production of all books, contracts, records, 57184
and documents that relate to the transportation and offering for 57185
transportation of hazardous materials.57186

       Sec. 4923.06. (A) The public utilities commission may, 57187
through the commission's inspectors or other authorized employees, 57188
enter in or upon any motor vehicle of any motor carrier, or any 57189
person engaging in the transportation of hazardous material or 57190
hazardous waste, to inspect the motor vehicle or driver subject to 57191
rules adopted under section 4923.04 of the Revised Code.57192

       (B) In order to assist the commission in performing its 57193
duties under this section, authorized employees of the state 57194
highway patrol of the department of public safety may conduct 57195
inspections of motor vehicles and drivers.57196

       (C) Inspectors and employees authorized to conduct 57197
inspections under divisions (A) and (B) of this section may, under 57198
the direction of the commission, stop motor vehicles to inspect 57199
those vehicles and drivers to enforce compliance with rules 57200
adopted under section 4923.04 of the Revised Code.57201

       (D) Inspectors and employees authorized to conduct 57202
inspections under divisions (A) and (B) of this section shall 57203
conduct inspections consistent with the North American standard 57204
inspection procedure of the commercial vehicle safety alliance and 57205
the standards of the United States department of transportation. 57206
The inspectors and employees may declare drivers and motor 57207
vehicles out-of-service consistent with this procedure and these 57208
standards.57209

       (E) The commission may adopt rules to carry out this section 57210
that are not incompatible with the requirements of the United 57211
States department of transportation.57212

       Sec. 4923.07. (A) The public utilities commission may, 57213
through the commission's inspectors or other authorized employees, 57214
enter in or upon the premises and motor vehicles of any motor 57215
carrier, or any person engaging in the transportation of hazardous 57216
material or hazardous waste, to examine any records, documents, or 57217
property for the purpose of assessing the safety, performance, and 57218
management controls associated with the carrier or person.57219

       (B) The commission may adopt rules to carry out this section 57220
that are not incompatible with the requirements of the United 57221
States department of transportation. 57222

       Sec. 4923.09. The public utilities commission shall cooperate 57223
with and permit the use of the services, records, and facilities 57224
of the commission as fully as practicable by appropriate officers 57225
of the United States department of transportation, other federal 57226
agencies or commissions, and appropriate commissions of other 57227
states in the enforcement and administration of state and federal 57228
laws relating to highway transportation by motor vehicles. The 57229
commission may enter into cooperative agreements with the United 57230
States department of transportation and any other federal agency 57231
or commission to enforce the safety laws and rules of this state 57232
and of the United States concerning highway transportation by 57233
motor vehicles. All grants-in-aid, cash, and reimbursements 57234
received by the commission pursuant to those cooperative 57235
agreements shall be deposited to the credit of the motor carrier 57236
safety fund created under section 4921.21 of the Revised Code.57237

       Sec. 4923.11. The public utilities commission may adopt rules 57238
applicable to the highway routing of hazardous materials into, 57239
through, or within this state. Rules adopted under this section 57240
shall not be incompatible with requirements of the United States 57241
department of transportation.57242

       Sec. 4923.15.  Proceedings of the public utilities commission 57243
for the assessment of forfeitures for violations of Chapters 4921. 57244
and 4923. of the Revised Code are subject to and governed by 57245
section 4923.99 of the Revised Code. In all other respects in 57246
which the commission has power and authority under Chapters 4921. 57247
and 4923. of the Revised Code, applications and complaints may be 57248
made and filed with the commission, processes may be issued, 57249
hearings may be held, opinions, orders, and decisions may be made 57250
and filed, petitions for rehearing may be filed and acted upon, 57251
and all proceedings before the supreme court of this state may be 57252
considered and disposed of by that court in the manner, under the 57253
conditions, subject to the limitations, and with the effect 57254
specified in the sections of the Revised Code governing the 57255
supervision of public utilities by the commission.57256

       Sec. 4923.99.  (A)(1) Whoever violates Chapter 4921. or 4923. 57257
of the Revised Code is liable to the state for a forfeiture of not 57258
more than twenty-five thousand dollars for each day of each 57259
violation. The public utilities commission, after providing 57260
reasonable notice and the opportunity for a hearing in accordance 57261
with the procedural rules adopted under section 4901.13 of the 57262
Revised Code, shall assess, by order, a forfeiture upon a person 57263
whom the commission determines, by a preponderance of the 57264
evidence, committed the violation. In determining the amount of 57265
the forfeiture for a violation discovered during a driver or 57266
motor-vehicle inspection under section 4923.06 of the Revised 57267
Code, the commission shall, to the extent practicable, not act in 57268
a manner incompatible with the requirements of the United States 57269
department of transportation, and, to the extent practicable, 57270
shall utilize a system comparable to the recommended civil-penalty 57271
procedure adopted by the commercial vehicle safety alliance. In 57272
determining the amount of the forfeiture for a violation 57273
discovered during a compliance review of a motor carrier under 57274
section 4923.07 of the Revised Code, the commission shall, to the 57275
extent practicable, not act in a manner incompatible with the 57276
civil-penalty guidelines of the United States department of 57277
transportation.57278

       The attorney general, upon the written request of the 57279
commission, shall bring a civil action in the court of common 57280
pleas of Franklin county to collect a forfeiture assessed under 57281
this section. The commission shall account for the forfeitures 57282
collected under this section and pay them to the treasurer of 57283
state under section 4921.21 of the Revised Code.57284

       (2) The attorney general, upon the written request of the 57285
commission, shall bring an action for injunctive relief in the 57286
court of common pleas of Franklin county against any person who 57287
has violated or is violating any order issued by the commission to 57288
secure compliance with any provision of Chapter 4921. or 4923. of 57289
the Revised Code. The court of common pleas of Franklin county has 57290
jurisdiction to and may grant preliminary and permanent injunctive 57291
relief upon a showing that the person against whom the action is 57292
brought has violated or is violating any such order. The court 57293
shall give precedence to such an action over all other cases.57294

       (B) The amount of any forfeiture may be compromised at any 57295
time prior to collection of the forfeiture. The commission shall 57296
adopt rules governing the manner in which the amount of a 57297
forfeiture may be established by agreement prior to the hearing on 57298
the forfeiture before the commission.57299

       (C) The proceedings of the commission specified in division 57300
(A) of this section are subject to and governed by Chapter 4903. 57301
of the Revised Code, except as otherwise specifically provided in 57302
this section. The court of appeals of Franklin county has 57303
exclusive, original jurisdiction to review, modify, or vacate an 57304
order of the commission issued to secure compliance with any 57305
provision of Chapter 4921. or 4923. of the Revised Code. The court 57306
of appeals shall hear and determine those appeals in the same 57307
manner, and under the same standards, as the supreme court hears 57308
and determines appeals under Chapter 4903. of the Revised Code. 57309
The judgment of the court of appeals is final and conclusive 57310
unless reversed, vacated, or modified on appeal. Such appeals may 57311
be taken either by the commission or the person to whom the 57312
compliance order or forfeiture assessment was issued and shall 57313
proceed as in the case of appeals in civil actions as provided in 57314
the rules of appellate procedure and Chapter 2505. of the Revised 57315
Code.57316

       (D) Section 4903.11 of the Revised Code does not apply to an 57317
appeal of an order issued to secure compliance with Chapter 4921. 57318
or 4923. of the Revised Code or an order issued under division 57319
(A)(1) of this section assessing a forfeiture. Any person to whom 57320
any such order is issued who wishes to contest a compliance order, 57321
the fact of the violation, or the amount of the forfeiture shall 57322
file a notice of appeal, setting forth the order appealed from and 57323
the errors complained of, within sixty days after the entry of the 57324
order upon the journal of the commission. The notice of appeal 57325
shall be served, unless waived, upon the chairperson of the 57326
commission or, in the event of the chairperson's absence, upon any 57327
public utilities commissioner, or by leaving a copy at the office 57328
of the commission at Columbus. An order issued by the commission 57329
to secure compliance with Chapter 4921. or 4923. of the Revised 57330
Code or an order issued under division (A)(1) of this section 57331
assessing a forfeiture shall be reversed, vacated, or modified on 57332
appeal if, upon consideration of the record, the court is of the 57333
opinion that the order was unlawful or unreasonable.57334

       (E) Only for such violations that constitute violations of 57335
the "Hazardous Materials Transportation Uniform Safety Act of 57336
1990," 104 Stat. 3244, 49 U.S.C.A. App. 1804 and 1805, or 57337
regulations adopted under the act, the commission, in determining 57338
liability, shall use the same standard of culpability for civil 57339
forfeitures under this section as that set forth for civil 57340
penalties under section 12 of the "Hazardous Materials 57341
Transportation Uniform Safety Act of 1990," 104 Stat. 3244, 49 57342
U.S.C.A. App. 1809. The commission shall consider the assessment 57343
considerations for civil penalties specified in regulations 57344
adopted under the "Hazardous Materials Transportation Act," 88 57345
Stat. 2156 (1975), 49 U.S.C. 1801.57346

       Sec. 4927.01.  (A) As used in this chapter:57347

       (1) "Basic local exchange service" means residential-end-user 57348
access to and usage of telephone-company-provided services over a 57349
single line or small-business-end-user access to and usage of 57350
telephone-company-provided services over the primary access line 57351
of service, which in the case of residential and small-business 57352
access and usage is not part of a bundle or package of services, 57353
that does both of the following:57354

       (a) Enables a customer to originate or receive voice 57355
communications within a local service area as that area exists on 57356
September 13, 2010, the effective date of the amendment of this 57357
section by S.B. 162 of the 128th general assembly;57358

       (b) Consists of all of the following services:57359

       (i) Local dial tone service;57360

       (ii) For residential end users, flat-rate telephone exchange 57361
service;57362

       (iii) Touch tone dialing service;57363

       (iv) Access to and usage of 9-1-1 services, where such 57364
services are available;57365

       (v) Access to operator services and directory assistance;57366

       (vi) Provision of a telephone directory in any reasonable 57367
format for no additional charge and a listing in that directory, 57368
with reasonable accommodations made for private listings;57369

       (vii) Per call, caller identification blocking services;57370

       (viii) Access to telecommunications relay service; and57371

       (ix) Access to toll presubscription, interexchange or toll 57372
providers or both, and networks of other telephone companies.57373

       (2) "Bundle or package of services" means one or more 57374
telecommunications services or other services offered together as 57375
one service option at a single price.57376

       (3) "Carrier access" means access to and usage of telephone 57377
company-provided facilities that enable end user customers 57378
originating or receiving voice grade, data, or image 57379
communications, over a local exchange telephone company network 57380
operated within a local service area, to access interexchange or 57381
other networks and includes special access.57382

       (4) "Federal poverty level" means the income level 57383
represented by the poverty guidelines as revised annually by the 57384
United States department of health and human services in 57385
accordance with section 673(2) of the "Omnibus Reconciliation Act 57386
of 1981," 95 Stat. 511, 42 U.S.C. 9902, as amended, for a family 57387
size equal to the size of the family of the person whose income is 57388
being determined.57389

        (5) "Incumbent local exchange carrier" means, with respect to 57390
an area, the local exchange carrier that:57391

        (a) On February 8, 1996, provided telephone exchange service 57392
in such area; and57393

        (b)(i) On February 8, 1996, was deemed to be a member of the 57394
exchange carrier association pursuant to 47 C.F.R. 69.601(b); or57395

        (ii) Is a person or entity that, on or after February 8, 57396
1996, became a successor or assign of a member described in 57397
division (A)(5)(b)(i) of this section.57398

        (6) "Internet protocol-enabled services" means any services, 57399
capabilities, functionalities, or applications that are provided 57400
using internet protocol or a successor protocol to enable an end 57401
user to send or receive communications in internet protocol format 57402
or a successor format, regardless of how any particular such 57403
service is classified by the federal communications commission, 57404
and includes voice over internet protocol service.57405

        (7) "Local exchange carrier" means any person engaged in the 57406
provision of telephone exchange service, or the offering of access 57407
to telephone exchange service or facilities for the purpose of 57408
originating or terminating telephone toll service.57409

        (8) "Local service area" means the geographic area that may 57410
encompass more than one exchange area and within which a telephone 57411
customer, by paying the rate for basic local exchange service, may 57412
complete calls to other telephone customers without being assessed 57413
long distance toll charges.57414

       (9) "Small business" means a nonresidential service customer 57415
with three or fewer service access lines.57416

       (10) "Telecommunications" means the transmission, between or 57417
among points specified by the user, of information of the user's 57418
choosing, without change in the form or content of the information 57419
as sent and received.57420

       (11) "Telecommunications carrier" has the same meaning as in 57421
the "Telecommunications Act of 1996," 110 Stat. 60, 47 U.S.C. 153.57422

       (12) "Telecommunications service" means the offering of 57423
telecommunications for a fee directly to the public, or to such 57424
classes of users as to be effectively available directly to the 57425
public, regardless of the facilities used.57426

       (13) "Telephone company" means a company described in 57427
division (A)(1) of section 4905.03 of the Revised Code that is a 57428
public utility under section 4905.02 of the Revised Code.57429

       (14) "Telephone exchange service" means telecommunications 57430
service that is within a telephone exchange, or within a connected 57431
system of telephone exchanges within the same exchange area 57432
operated to furnish to subscribers intercommunicating service of 57433
the character ordinarily furnished by a single exchange, and that 57434
is covered by the exchange service charge; or comparable service 57435
provided through a system of switches, transmission equipment, or 57436
other facilities, or combination thereof, by which a customer can 57437
originate and terminate a telecommunications service.57438

       (15) "Telephone toll service" means telephone service between 57439
stations in different exchange areas for which there is made a 57440
separate charge not included in contracts with customers for 57441
exchange service.57442

       (16) "Voice over internet protocol service" means a service 57443
that uses a broadband connection from an end user's location and 57444
enables real-time, two-way, voice communications that originate or 57445
terminate from the user's location using internet protocol or a 57446
successor protocol, including, but not limited to, any such 57447
service that permits an end user to receive calls from and 57448
terminate calls to the public switched network.57449

       (17) "Wireless service" means federally licensed commercial 57450
mobile service as defined in the "Telecommunications Act of 1996," 57451
110 Stat. 61, 151, 153, 47 U.S.C. 332(d) and further defined as 57452
commercial mobile radio service in 47 C.F.R. 20.3. Under division 57453
(A)(17) of this section, commercial mobile radio service is 57454
specifically limited to mobile telephone, mobile cellular 57455
telephone, paging, personal communications services, and 57456
specialized mobile radio service provided by a common carrier in 57457
this state and excludes fixed wireless service.57458

       (18) "Wireless service provider" means a facilities-based 57459
provider of wireless service to one or more end users in this 57460
state.57461

       (B) The definitions of this section shall be applied 57462
consistent with the definitions in the "Telecommunications Act of 57463
1996," 110 Stat. 56, 47 U.S.C. 151 et seq., as amended, and with 57464
federal decisions interpreting those definitions.57465

       Sec. 4929.01.  As used in this chapter:57466

       (A) "Alternative rate plan" means a method, alternate to the 57467
method of section 4909.15 of the Revised Code, for establishing 57468
rates and charges, under which rates and charges may be 57469
established for a commodity sales service or ancillary service 57470
that is not exempt pursuant to section 4929.04 of the Revised Code 57471
or for a distribution service. Alternative rate plans may include, 57472
but are not limited to, methods that provide adequate and reliable 57473
natural gas services and goods in this state; minimize the costs 57474
and time expended in the regulatory process; tend to assess the 57475
costs of any natural gas service or goods to the entity, service, 57476
or goods that cause such costs to be incurred; afford rate 57477
stability; promote and reward efficiency, quality of service, or 57478
cost containment by a natural gas company; provide sufficient 57479
flexibility and incentives to the natural gas industry to achieve 57480
high quality, technologically advanced, and readily available 57481
natural gas services and goods at just and reasonable rates and 57482
charges; or establish revenue decoupling mechanisms. Alternative 57483
rate plans also may include, but are not limited to, automatic 57484
adjustments based on a specified index or changes in a specified 57485
cost or costs.57486

       (B) "Ancillary service" means a service that is ancillary to 57487
the receipt or delivery of natural gas to consumers, including, 57488
but not limited to, storage, pooling, balancing, and transmission.57489

       (C) "Commodity sales service" means the sale of natural gas 57490
to consumers, exclusive of any distribution or ancillary service.57491

       (D) "Comparable service" means any regulated service or goods 57492
whose availability, quality, price, terms, and conditions are the 57493
same as or better than those of the services or goods that the 57494
natural gas company provides to a person with which it is 57495
affiliated or which it controls, or, as to any consumer, that the 57496
natural gas company offers to that consumer as part of a bundled 57497
service that includes both regulated and exempt services or goods.57498

       (E) "Consumer" means any person or association of persons 57499
purchasing, delivering, storing, or transporting, or seeking to 57500
purchase, deliver, store, or transport, natural gas, including 57501
industrial consumers, commercial consumers, and residential 57502
consumers, but not including natural gas companies.57503

       (F) "Distribution service" means the delivery of natural gas 57504
to a consumer at the consumer's facilities, by and through the 57505
instrumentalities and facilities of a natural gas company, 57506
regardless of the party having title to the natural gas.57507

       (G) "Natural gas company" means a natural gas company, as 57508
defined in section 4905.03 of the Revised Code, that is a public 57509
utility as defined in section 4905.02 of the Revised Code and 57510
excludes a retail natural gas supplier.57511

       (H) "Person," except as provided in division (N) of this 57512
section, has the same meaning as in section 1.59 of the Revised 57513
Code, and includes this state and any political subdivision, 57514
agency, or other instrumentality of this state and includes the 57515
United States and any agency or other instrumentality of the 57516
United States.57517

       (I) "Billing or collection agent" means a fully independent 57518
agent, not affiliated with or otherwise controlled by a retail 57519
natural gas supplier or governmental aggregator subject to 57520
certification under section 4929.20 of the Revised Code, to the 57521
extent that the agent is under contract with such supplier or 57522
aggregator solely to provide billing and collection for 57523
competitive retail natural gas service on behalf of the supplier 57524
or aggregator.57525

       (J) "Competitive retail natural gas service" means any retail 57526
natural gas service that may be competitively offered to consumers 57527
in this state as a result of revised schedules approved under 57528
division (C) of section 4929.29 of the Revised Code, a rule or 57529
order adopted or issued by the public utilities commission under 57530
Chapter 4905. of the Revised Code, or an exemption granted by the 57531
commission under sections 4929.04 to 4929.08 of the Revised Code.57532

       (K) "Governmental aggregator" means either of the following:57533

       (1) A legislative authority of a municipal corporation, a 57534
board of township trustees, or a board of county commissioners 57535
acting exclusively under section 4929.26 or 4929.27 of the Revised 57536
Code as an aggregator for the provision of competitive retail 57537
natural gas service;57538

       (2) A municipal corporation acting exclusively under Section 57539
4 of Article XVIII, Ohio Constitution, as an aggregator for the 57540
provision of competitive retail natural gas service.57541

       (L)(1) "Mercantile customer" means a customer that consumes, 57542
other than for residential use, more than five hundred thousand 57543
cubic feet of natural gas per year at a single location within 57544
this state or consumes natural gas, other than for residential 57545
use, as part of an undertaking having more than three locations 57546
within or outside of this state. "Mercantile customer" excludes a 57547
customer for which a declaration under division (L)(2) of this 57548
section is in effect pursuant to that division.57549

       (2) A not-for-profit customer that consumes, other than for 57550
residential use, more than five hundred thousand cubic feet of 57551
natural gas per year at a single location within this state or 57552
consumes natural gas, other than for residential use, as part of 57553
an undertaking having more than three locations within or outside 57554
this state may file a declaration under division (L)(2) of this 57555
section with the public utilities commission. The declaration 57556
shall take effect upon the date of filing, and by virtue of the 57557
declaration, the customer is not a mercantile customer for the 57558
purposes of this section and sections 4929.20 to 4929.29 of the 57559
Revised Code or the purposes of a governmental natural gas 57560
aggregation or arrangement or other contract entered into after 57561
the declaration's effective date for the supply or arranging of 57562
the supply of natural gas to the customer to a location within 57563
this state. The customer may file a rescission of the declaration 57564
with the commission at any time. The rescission shall not affect 57565
any governmental natural gas aggregation or arrangement or other 57566
contract entered into by the customer prior to the date of the 57567
filing of the rescission and shall have effect only with respect 57568
to any subsequent such aggregation or arrangement or other 57569
contract. The commission shall prescribe rules under section 57570
4929.10 of the Revised Code specifying the form of the declaration 57571
or a rescission and procedures by which a declaration or 57572
rescission may be filed.57573

       (M) "Retail natural gas service" means commodity sales 57574
service, ancillary service, natural gas aggregation service, 57575
natural gas marketing service, or natural gas brokerage service.57576

       (N) "Retail natural gas supplier" means any person, as 57577
defined in section 1.59 of the Revised Code, that is engaged on a 57578
for-profit or not-for-profit basis in the business of supplying or 57579
arranging for the supply of a competitive retail natural gas 57580
service to consumers in this state that are not mercantile 57581
customers. "Retail natural gas supplier" includes a marketer, 57582
broker, or aggregator, but excludes a natural gas company, a 57583
governmental aggregator as defined in division (K)(1) or (2) of 57584
this section, an entity described in division (B)(A)(2) or (C)(3)57585
of section 4905.02 of the Revised Code, or a billing or collection 57586
agent, and excludes a producer or gatherer of gas to the extent 57587
such producer or gatherer is not a natural gas company under 57588
section 4905.03 of the Revised Code.57589

       (O) "Revenue decoupling mechanism" means a rate design or 57590
other cost recovery mechanism that provides recovery of the fixed 57591
costs of service and a fair and reasonable rate of return, 57592
irrespective of system throughput or volumetric sales.57593

       Sec. 4929.02.  (A) It is the policy of this state to, 57594
throughout this state:57595

       (1) Promote the availability to consumers of adequate, 57596
reliable, and reasonably priced natural gas services and goods;57597

       (2) Promote the availability of unbundled and comparable 57598
natural gas services and goods that provide wholesale and retail 57599
consumers with the supplier, price, terms, conditions, and quality 57600
options they elect to meet their respective needs;57601

       (3) Promote diversity of natural gas supplies and suppliers, 57602
by giving consumers effective choices over the selection of those 57603
supplies and suppliers;57604

       (4) Encourage innovation and market access for cost-effective 57605
supply- and demand-side natural gas services and goods;57606

       (5) Encourage cost-effective and efficient access to 57607
information regarding the operation of the distribution systems of 57608
natural gas companies in order to promote effective customer 57609
choice of natural gas services and goods;57610

       (6) Recognize the continuing emergence of competitive natural 57611
gas markets through the development and implementation of flexible 57612
regulatory treatment;57613

       (7) Promote an expeditious transition to the provision of 57614
natural gas services and goods in a manner that achieves effective 57615
competition and transactions between willing buyers and willing 57616
sellers to reduce or eliminate the need for regulation of natural 57617
gas services and goods under Chapters 4905. and 4909. of the 57618
Revised Code;57619

       (8) Promote effective competition in the provision of natural 57620
gas services and goods by avoiding subsidies flowing to or from 57621
regulated natural gas services and goods;57622

       (9) Ensure that the risks and rewards of a natural gas 57623
company's offering of nonjurisdictional and exempt services and 57624
goods do not affect the rates, prices, terms, or conditions of 57625
nonexempt, regulated services and goods of a natural gas company 57626
and do not affect the financial capability of a natural gas 57627
company to comply with the policy of this state specified in this 57628
section;57629

       (10) Facilitate the state's competitiveness in the global 57630
economy;57631

       (11) Facilitate additional choices for the supply of natural 57632
gas for residential consumers, including aggregation;57633

       (12) Promote an alignment of natural gas company interests 57634
with consumer interest in energy efficiency and energy 57635
conservation.57636

       (B) The public utilities commission and the office of the 57637
consumers' counsel shall follow the policy specified in this 57638
section in exercising their respective authorities relative to 57639
sections 4929.03 to 4929.30 of the Revised Code.57640

       (C) Nothing in Chapter 4929. of the Revised Code shall be 57641
construed to alter the public utilities commission's construction 57642
or application of division (A)(5)(E) of section 4905.03 of the 57643
Revised Code.57644

       Sec. 4929.041.  (A) As used in this section, "regulatory 57645
exemption" means an exemption from all provisions of Chapter 4905. 57646
of the Revised Code with the exception of sections 4905.10, 57647
4905.35, and 4905.90 to 4905.96 of the Revised Code, Chapters 57648
4909., 4933., and 4935. of the Revised Code, with the exception of 57649
section 4935.03 of the Revised Code, and from any rule or order 57650
issued under the exempted provisions of those chapters.57651

        (B) The public utilities commission, upon thean application 57652
offiled under section 4909.18 of the Revised Code by a natural 57653
gas company in substantial compliance with the policy specified in 57654
section 4929.02 of the Revised Code, shall exemptgrant a 57655
regulatory exemption, by order, any investmentfor either or both 57656
of the following:57657

       (1) Any investments in gathering lines or storage or 57658
gathering facilities placed into service on or after January 1, 57659
2010, and also any service of the natural gas company related to 57660
those gathering lines or storage facilities from all provisions 57661
of Chapter 4905. of the Revised Code with the exception of 57662
sections 4905.10, 4905.35, and 4905.90 to 4905.96 of the Revised 57663
Code, Chapters 4909., 4933., and 4935. of the Revised Code, with 57664
the exception of section 4935.03 of the Revised Code, and from any 57665
rule or order issued under the exempted provisions of those 57666
chapters;57667

       (2) Any investments in gathering facilities placed into 57668
service before January 1, 2010, and also any service of the 57669
natural gas company related to those facilities.57670

        (C)(1) A natural gas company requesting a regulatory 57671
exemption under division (B)(2) of this section shall identify in 57672
the application both of the following:57673

        (a) The valuation of the investments to be exempted, as 57674
determined under division (A)(1) of section 4909.15 of the Revised 57675
Code, in the rate case proceeding that established the company's 57676
rates in effect at the time of the filing of the application 57677
requesting the regulatory exemption;57678

        (b) The valuation of all nonexempt investments placed into 57679
service after the date certain used in the rate case proceeding 57680
described in division (C)(1)(a) of this section, excluding 57681
investments for which deferral or recovery is authorized under 57682
section 4909.18, 4929.05, or 4929.111 of the Revised Code.57683

        (2) The commission shall compare the valuations identified in 57684
divisions (C)(1)(a) and (b) of this section.57685

        (a) If the valuation identified in division (C)(1)(a) of this 57686
section exceeds the valuation identified in division (C)(1)(b) of 57687
this section, the commission shall, in addition to the adjustments 57688
needed to implement the regulatory exemption, reduce the gross 57689
annual revenues to which the utility is entitled under division 57690
(B) of section 4909.15 of the Revised Code by applying the rate of 57691
return, as determined under division (A)(2) of section 4909.15 of 57692
the Revised Code in the rate case proceeding in which the 57693
regulatory exemption is being sought, to the difference in the two 57694
valuations.57695

        (b) If the valuation identified in division (C)(1)(a) of this 57696
section does not exceed the valuation identified in division 57697
(C)(1)(b) of this section, the commission shall make no 57698
adjustments beyond those needed to implement the regulatory 57699
exemption.57700

       (B)(D)(1) Subject to division (C)(E) of this section, a 57701
natural gas company subject to ana regulatory exemption order 57702
issued under division (A) of this section shall, to the maximum 57703
extent practicable, keep separate the company's operations, 57704
resources, and employees, and the associated books and records, 57705
involved in the provision or marketing of a company-provided 57706
service related to an investment exempted under the regulatory57707
exemption order from the operations, resources, and employees, and 57708
the associated books and records, involved in the provision or 57709
marketing of any company-provided service not exempted under the 57710
regulatory exemption order or any other section of the Revised 57711
Code.57712

        (2) An order granting regulatory exemption order issued under 57713
division (A) of this section shall prescribe a functional 57714
separation plan for compliance with division (B)(D)(1) of this 57715
section.57716

        (C)(E)(1) No natural gas company subject to ana regulatory57717
exemption order issued under division (A) of this section may use 57718
the company's storage facilities andor gathering lines57719
facilities associated with the regulatory exemption order to 57720
provide a commodity sales service that is unregulated or subject 57721
to an exemption order issued under section 4929.04 of the Revised 57722
Code.57723

        (2) Upon application to the commission by a natural gas 57724
company and upon a finding of good cause shown, the commission 57725
may, by order, waive the prohibition described in division 57726
(C)(E)(1) of this section. The natural gas company shall bear the 57727
burden of proof that the waiver is just and reasonable, which 57728
shall constitute good cause.57729

        (D)(F) The commission shall have continuous jurisdiction to 57730
enforce any terms that it imposes in ana regulatory exemption 57731
order issued under division (A) of this section. Whenever the 57732
commission is of the opinion, after hearing had upon complaint or 57733
upon its own initiative or complaint, served as provided in 57734
section 4905.26 of the Revised Code, that ana regulatory57735
exemption order issued under division (A) of this section has 57736
adversely affected the quality, adequacy, or sufficiency of 57737
service provided by the company subject to the regulatory57738
exemption order, the commission may alter, amend, or suspend the 57739
regulatory exemption order.57740

       Sec. 4933.18.  (A) In a prosecution for a theft offense, as 57741
defined in section 2913.01 of the Revised Code, that involves 57742
alleged tampering with a gas, electric, steam, or water meter, 57743
conduit, or attachment of a utility that has been disconnected by 57744
the utility, proof that a meter, conduit, or attachment of a 57745
utility has been tampered with is prima-facie evidence that the 57746
person who is obligated to pay for the service rendered through 57747
the meter, conduit, or attachment and is in possession or control 57748
of the meter, conduit, or attachment at the time the tampering 57749
occurred has caused the tampering with intent to commit a theft 57750
offense.57751

       In a prosecution for a theft offense, as defined in section 57752
2913.01 of the Revised Code, that involves the alleged 57753
reconnection of a gas, electric, steam, or water meter, conduit, 57754
or attachment of a utility that has been disconnected by the 57755
utility, proof that a meter, conduit, or attachment disconnected 57756
by a utility has been reconnected without the consent of the 57757
utility is prima-facie evidence that the person in possession or 57758
control of the meter, conduit, or attachment at the time of the 57759
reconnection has reconnected the meter, conduit, or attachment 57760
with intent to commit a theft offense.57761

       (B) As used in this section:57762

       (1) "Utility" means any electric light company, gas company, 57763
natural gas company, pipe-line company, water-works company, or 57764
heating or cooling company, as defined by division (A)(3), (4), 57765
(5), (6), (7)(C), (D), (E), (F), (G), or (8)(H) of section 4905.03 57766
of the Revised Code, its lessees, trustees, or receivers, or any 57767
similar utility owned or operated by a political subdivision.57768

       (2) "Tamper" means to interfere with, damage, or by-pass a 57769
utility meter, conduit, or attachment with the intent to impede 57770
the correct registration of a meter or the proper functions of a 57771
conduit or attachment so as to reduce the amount of utility 57772
service that is registered on the meter.57773

       Sec. 4933.19.  Each electric light company, gas company, 57774
natural gas company, pipe-line company, water-works company, or 57775
heating or cooling company, as defined by division (A)(3), (4), 57776
(5), (6), (7),(C), (D), (E), (F), (G), or (8)(H) of section 57777
4905.03 of the Revised Code, or its lessees, trustees, or 57778
receivers, and each similar utility owned or operated by a 57779
political subdivision shall notify its customers, on an annual 57780
basis, that tampering with or bypassing a meter constitutes a 57781
theft offense that could result in the imposition of criminal 57782
sanctions.57783

       Sec. 4939.01. As used in sections 4939.01 to 4939.08 of the 57784
Revised Code:57785

       (A) "Cable operator," "cable service," and "franchise" have 57786
the same meanings as in the "Cable Communications Policy Act of 57787
1984," 98 Stat. 2779, 47 U.S.C.A. 522.57788

       (B) "Occupy or use" means, with respect to a public way, to 57789
place a tangible thing in a public way for any purpose, including, 57790
but not limited to, constructing, repairing, positioning, 57791
maintaining, or operating lines, poles, pipes, conduits, ducts, 57792
equipment, or other structures, appurtenances, or facilities 57793
necessary for the delivery of public utility services or any 57794
services provided by a cable operator.57795

       (C) "Person" means any natural person, corporation, or 57796
partnership and also includes any governmental entity.57797

       (D) "Public utility" means any company described in section 57798
4905.03 of the Revised Code except in divisions (A)(2)(B) and 57799
(9)(I) of that section, which company also is a public utility as 57800
defined in section 4905.02 of the Revised Code; and includes any 57801
electric supplier as defined in section 4933.81 of the Revised 57802
Code.57803

       (E) "Public way" means the surface of, and the space within, 57804
through, on, across, above, or below, any public street, public 57805
road, public highway, public freeway, public lane, public path, 57806
public alley, public court, public sidewalk, public boulevard, 57807
public parkway, public drive, and any other land dedicated or 57808
otherwise designated for a compatible public use, which, on or 57809
after the effective date of this sectionJuly 2, 2002, is owned or 57810
controlled by a municipal corporation. "Public way" excludes a 57811
private easement.57812

       (F) "Public way fee" means a fee levied to recover the costs 57813
incurred by a municipal corporation and associated with the 57814
occupancy or use of a public way.57815

       Sec. 4953.04.  No union terminal company or corporation shall 57816
engage in the business of a for-hire motor transportation service57817
carrier, as defined in sections 4905.03, 4921.02, and 4923.0257818
4921.01 of the Revised Code, over any public highway in this 57819
state, without obtaining authority from the public utilities 57820
commission, and complying with all laws governing every 57821
corporation or company when engaged or proposing to engage in such57822
the business of a for-hire motor transportation servicecarrier.57823

       Sec. 4961.03.  Any railroad company owning or operating a 57824
railroad in this state may own, control, operate, or manage motor 57825
vehicles for the purpose of transporting persons or property, or 57826
both, upon the public highways for hire, subject to sections 57827
4921.02 to 4921.32, inclusive,Chapters 4921. and 4923. of the 57828
Revised Code. Any railroad company may also own and operate 57829
equipment for and engage in the business of aerial transportation. 57830
Any railroad company may acquire, own, and hold capital stock and 57831
securities of corporations organized for or engaged in the 57832
businesses authorized in this section and may operate the 57833
properties, or any part thereof, of such corporations, and may 57834
enter into working arrangements and agreements with such 57835
corporations.57836

       Sec. 4965.54.  Any common carrier, railroad, or 57837
transportation companymotor carrier receiving property at a point 57838
within this state for transportation to a point within this state, 57839
shall issue a receipt or bill of lading for such property and is 57840
liable to the lawful holder of it for any loss, damage, or injury 57841
to such property caused by it or by any common carrier, railroad, 57842
or transportation company to which such property is delivered or 57843
over whose line such property passes. No contract, receipt, rule, 57844
or regulation shall exempt such common carrier, railroad, or 57845
transportation companymotor carrier from the liability imposed by 57846
this section. This section does not deprive any holder of such 57847
receipt or bill of lading of any remedy or right of action which 57848
hethe holder has under existing law.57849

       The common carrier, railroad, or transportation companymotor 57850
carrier issuing such receipt or bill of lading may recover from 57851
the common carrier, railroad, or transportation companymotor 57852
carrier on whose line the loss, damage, or injury was sustained 57853
the amount of such loss, damage, or injury it is required to pay 57854
the owners of such property as is evidenced by any receipt, 57855
judgment, or transcript thereof.57856

       As used in this section, "motor carrier" has the same meaning 57857
as in section 4923.01 of the Revised Code.57858

       Sec. 5101.46.  (A) As used in this section:57859

       (1) "Title XX" means Title XX of the "Social Security Act," 57860
88 Stat. 2337 (1974), 42 U.S.C.A. 1397, as amended.57861

       (2) "Respective local agency" means, with respect to the 57862
department of job and family services, a county department of job 57863
and family services; with respect to the department of mental 57864
health, a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 57865
services; and with respect to the department of developmental 57866
disabilities, a county board of developmental disabilities.57867

       (3) "Federal poverty guidelines" means the poverty guidelines 57868
as revised annually by the United States department of health and 57869
human services in accordance with section 673(2) of the "Omnibus 57870
Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981," 95 Stat. 511, 42 U.S.C.A. 57871
9902, as amended, for a family size equal to the size of the 57872
family of the person whose income is being determined.57873

       (B) The departments of job and family services, mental 57874
health, and developmental disabilities, with their respective 57875
local agencies, shall administer the provision of social services 57876
funded through grants made under Title XX. The social services 57877
furnished with Title XX funds shall be directed at the following 57878
goals:57879

       (1) Achieving or maintaining economic self-support to 57880
prevent, reduce, or eliminate dependency;57881

       (2) Achieving or maintaining self-sufficiency, including 57882
reduction or prevention of dependency;57883

       (3) Preventing or remedying neglect, abuse, or exploitation 57884
of children and adults unable to protect their own interests, or 57885
preserving, rehabilitating, or reuniting families;57886

       (4) Preventing or reducing inappropriate institutional care 57887
by providing for community-based care, home-based care, or other 57888
forms of less intensive care;57889

       (5) Securing referral or admission for institutional care 57890
when other forms of care are not appropriate, or providing 57891
services to individuals in institutions.57892

       (C)(1) All federal funds received under Title XX shall be 57893
appropriated as follows:57894

       (a) Seventy-two and one-half per cent to the department of 57895
job and family services;57896

       (b) Twelve and ninety-three one-hundrethsone-hundredths per 57897
cent to the department of mental health;57898

       (c) Fourteen and fifty-seven one-hundrethsone-hundredths per 57899
cent to the department of developmental disabilities.57900

       (2) Each of the state departments shall, subject to the 57901
approval of the controlling board, develop a formula for the 57902
distribution of the Title XX funds appropriated to the department 57903
to its respective local agencies. The formula developed by each 57904
state department shall take into account all of the following for 57905
each of its respective local agencies:57906

       (a) The total population of the area that is served by the 57907
respective local agency;57908

       (b) The percentage of the population in the area served that 57909
falls below the federal poverty guidelines;57910

       (c) The respective local agency's history of and ability to 57911
utilize Title XX funds.57912

       (3) Each of the state departments shall expend for state 57913
administrative costs not more than three per cent of the Title XX 57914
funds appropriated to the department. 57915

       Each state department shall establish for each of its 57916
respective local agencies the maximum percentage of the Title XX 57917
funds distributed to the respective local agency that the 57918
respective local agency may expend for local administrative costs. 57919
The percentage shall be established by rule and shall comply with 57920
federal law governing the use of Title XX funds. The rules shall 57921
be adopted in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code 57922
as if they were internal management rules.57923

       (4) The department of job and family services shall expend 57924
for the training of the following not more than two per cent of 57925
the Title XX funds appropriated to the department:57926

       (a) Employees of county departments of job and family 57927
services;57928

       (b) Providers of services under contract with the state 57929
departments' respective local agencies;57930

       (c) Employees of a public children services agency directly 57931
engaged in providing Title XX services. 57932

       (D) The department of job and family services shall prepare a 57933
biennialan annual comprehensive Title XX social services plan on 57934
the intended use of Title XX funds. The department shall develop a 57935
method for obtaining public comment during the development of the 57936
plan and following its completion.57937

       For each statefederal fiscal year, the department of job and 57938
family services shall prepare a report on the actual use of Title 57939
XX funds. The department shall make the annual report available 57940
for public inspection.57941

       The departments of mental health and developmental 57942
disabilities shall prepare and submit to the department of job and 57943
family services the portions of each biennialannual plan and 57944
annual report that apply to services for mental health and mental 57945
retardation and developmental disabilities. Each respective local 57946
agency of the three state departments shall submit information as 57947
necessary for the preparation of biennialannual plans and annual57948
reports.57949

       (E) Each county department of job and family services shall 57950
adopt a county profile for the administration and provision of 57951
Title XX social services in the county. In developing its county 57952
profile, the county department shall take into consideration the 57953
comments and recommendations received from the public by the 57954
county family services planning committee pursuant to section 57955
329.06 of the Revised Code. As part of its preparation of the 57956
county profile, the county department may prepare a local needs 57957
report analyzing the need for Title XX social services.57958

       The county department shall submit the county profile to the 57959
board of county commissioners for its review. Once the county 57960
profile has been approved by the board, the county department 57961
shall file a copy of the county profile with the department of job 57962
and family services. The department shall approve the county 57963
profile if the department determines the profile provides for the 57964
Title XX social services to meet the goals specified in division 57965
(B) of this section.57966

       (F) Any of the three state departments and their respective 57967
local agencies may require that an entity under contract to 57968
provide social services with Title XX funds submit to an audit on 57969
the basis of alleged misuse or improper accounting of funds. If an 57970
audit is required, the social services provider shall reimburse 57971
the state department or respective local agency for the cost it 57972
incurred in conducting the audit or having the audit conducted.57973

        If an audit demonstrates that a social services provider is 57974
responsible for one or more adverse findings, the provider shall 57975
reimburse the appropriate state department or its respective local 57976
agency the amount of the adverse findings. The amount shall not be 57977
reimbursed with Title XX funds received under this section. The 57978
three state departments and their respective local agencies may 57979
terminate or refuse to enter into a Title XX contract with a 57980
social services provider if there are adverse findings in an audit 57981
that are the responsibility of the provider. 57982

       (G) Except with respect to the matters for which each of the 57983
state departments must adopt rules under division (C)(3) of this 57984
section, the department of job and family services may adopt any 57985
rules it considers necessary to implement and carry out the 57986
purposes of this section. Rules governing financial and 57987
operational matters of the department or matters between the 57988
department and county departments of job and family services shall 57989
be adopted as internal management rules in accordance with section 57990
111.15 of the Revised Code. Rules governing eligibility for 57991
services, program participation, and other matters pertaining to 57992
applicants and participants shall be adopted in accordance with 57993
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.57994

       Sec. 5101.60.  As used in sections 5101.60 to 5101.71 of the 57995
Revised Code:57996

       (A) "Abuse" means the infliction upon an adult by self or 57997
others of injury, unreasonable confinement, intimidation, or cruel 57998
punishment with resulting physical harm, pain, or mental anguish.57999

       (B) "Adult" means any person sixty years of age or older 58000
within this state who is handicapped by the infirmities of aging 58001
or who has a physical or mental impairment which prevents the 58002
person from providing for the person's own care or protection, and 58003
who resides in an independent living arrangement. An "independent 58004
living arrangement" is a domicile of a person's own choosing, 58005
including, but not limited to, a private home, apartment, trailer, 58006
or rooming house. An "independent living arrangement" includes an 58007
adult carea residential facility licensed pursuant to Chapter 58008
5119.under section 5119.22 of the Revised Code that provides 58009
accommodations, supervision, and personal care services for three 58010
to sixteen unrelated adults, but does not include other 58011
institutions or facilities licensed by the state or facilities in 58012
which a person resides as a result of voluntary, civil, or 58013
criminal commitment. 58014

       (C) "Caretaker" means the person assuming the responsibility 58015
for the care of an adult on a voluntary basis, by contract, 58016
through receipt of payment for care, as a result of a family 58017
relationship, or by order of a court of competent jurisdiction.58018

       (D) "Court" means the probate court in the county where an 58019
adult resides.58020

       (E) "Emergency" means that the adult is living in conditions 58021
which present a substantial risk of immediate and irreparable 58022
physical harm or death to self or any other person.58023

       (F) "Emergency services" means protective services furnished 58024
to an adult in an emergency.58025

       (G) "Exploitation" means the unlawful or improper act of a 58026
caretaker using an adult or an adult's resources for monetary or 58027
personal benefit, profit, or gain.58028

       (H) "In need of protective services" means an adult known or 58029
suspected to be suffering from abuse, neglect, or exploitation to 58030
an extent that either life is endangered or physical harm, mental 58031
anguish, or mental illness results or is likely to result.58032

       (I) "Incapacitated person" means a person who is impaired for 58033
any reason to the extent that the person lacks sufficient 58034
understanding or capacity to make and carry out reasonable 58035
decisions concerning the person's self or resources, with or 58036
without the assistance of a caretaker. Refusal to consent to the 58037
provision of services shall not be the sole determinative that the 58038
person is incapacitated. "Reasonable decisions" are decisions made 58039
in daily living which facilitate the provision of food, shelter, 58040
clothing, and health care necessary for life support.58041

       (J) "Mental illness" means a substantial disorder of thought, 58042
mood, perception, orientation, or memory that grossly impairs 58043
judgment, behavior, capacity to recognize reality, or ability to 58044
meet the ordinary demands of life.58045

       (K) "Neglect" means the failure of an adult to provide for 58046
self the goods or services necessary to avoid physical harm, 58047
mental anguish, or mental illness or the failure of a caretaker to 58048
provide such goods or services.58049

       (L) "Peace officer" means a peace officer as defined in 58050
section 2935.01 of the Revised Code.58051

       (M) "Physical harm" means bodily pain, injury, impairment, or 58052
disease suffered by an adult.58053

       (N) "Protective services" means services provided by the 58054
county department of job and family services or its designated 58055
agency to an adult who has been determined by evaluation to 58056
require such services for the prevention, correction, or 58057
discontinuance of an act of as well as conditions resulting from 58058
abuse, neglect, or exploitation. Protective services may include, 58059
but are not limited to, case work services, medical care, mental 58060
health services, legal services, fiscal management, home health 58061
care, homemaker services, housing-related services, guardianship 58062
services, and placement services as well as the provision of such 58063
commodities as food, clothing, and shelter.58064

       (O) "Working day" means Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, 58065
and Friday, except when such day is a holiday as defined in 58066
section 1.14 of the Revised Code.58067

       Sec. 5101.61.  (A) As used in this section:58068

       (1) "Senior service provider" means any person who provides 58069
care or services to a person who is an adult as defined in 58070
division (B) of section 5101.60 of the Revised Code.58071

       (2) "Ambulatory health facility" means a nonprofit, public or 58072
proprietary freestanding organization or a unit of such an agency 58073
or organization that:58074

       (a) Provides preventive, diagnostic, therapeutic, 58075
rehabilitative, or palliative items or services furnished to an 58076
outpatient or ambulatory patient, by or under the direction of a 58077
physician or dentist in a facility which is not a part of a 58078
hospital, but which is organized and operated to provide medical 58079
care to outpatients;58080

       (b) Has health and medical care policies which are developed 58081
with the advice of, and with the provision of review of such 58082
policies, an advisory committee of professional personnel, 58083
including one or more physicians, one or more dentists, if dental 58084
care is provided, and one or more registered nurses;58085

       (c) Has a medical director, a dental director, if dental care 58086
is provided, and a nursing director responsible for the execution 58087
of such policies, and has physicians, dentists, nursing, and 58088
ancillary staff appropriate to the scope of services provided;58089

       (d) Requires that the health care and medical care of every 58090
patient be under the supervision of a physician, provides for 58091
medical care in a case of emergency, has in effect a written 58092
agreement with one or more hospitals and other centers or clinics, 58093
and has an established patient referral system to other resources, 58094
and a utilization review plan and program;58095

       (e) Maintains clinical records on all patients;58096

       (f) Provides nursing services and other therapeutic services 58097
in accordance with programs and policies, with such services 58098
supervised by a registered professional nurse, and has a 58099
registered professional nurse on duty at all times of clinical 58100
operations;58101

       (g) Provides approved methods and procedures for the 58102
dispensing and administration of drugs and biologicals;58103

       (h) Has established an accounting and record keeping system 58104
to determine reasonable and allowable costs;58105

       (i) "Ambulatory health facilities" also includes an 58106
alcoholism treatment facility approved by the joint commission on 58107
accreditation of healthcare organizations as an alcoholism 58108
treatment facility or certified by the department of alcohol and 58109
drug addiction services, and such facility shall comply with other 58110
provisions of this division not inconsistent with such 58111
accreditation or certification.58112

       (3) "Community mental health facility" means a facility which 58113
provides community mental health services and is included in the 58114
comprehensive mental health plan for the alcohol, drug addiction, 58115
and mental health service district in which it is located.58116

       (4) "Community mental health service" means services, other 58117
than inpatient services, provided by a community mental health 58118
facility.58119

       (5) "Home health agency" means an institution or a distinct 58120
part of an institution operated in this state which:58121

       (a) Is primarily engaged in providing home health services;58122

       (b) Has home health policies which are established by a group 58123
of professional personnel, including one or more duly licensed 58124
doctors of medicine or osteopathy and one or more registered 58125
professional nurses, to govern the home health services it 58126
provides and which includes a requirement that every patient must 58127
be under the care of a duly licensed doctor of medicine or 58128
osteopathy;58129

       (c) Is under the supervision of a duly licensed doctor of 58130
medicine or doctor of osteopathy or a registered professional 58131
nurse who is responsible for the execution of such home health 58132
policies;58133

       (d) Maintains comprehensive records on all patients;58134

       (e) Is operated by the state, a political subdivision, or an 58135
agency of either, or is operated not for profit in this state and 58136
is licensed or registered, if required, pursuant to law by the 58137
appropriate department of the state, county, or municipality in 58138
which it furnishes services; or is operated for profit in this 58139
state, meets all the requirements specified in divisions (A)(5)(a) 58140
to (d) of this section, and is certified under Title XVIII of the 58141
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as 58142
amended.58143

       (6) "Home health service" means the following items and 58144
services, provided, except as provided in division (A)(6)(g) of 58145
this section, on a visiting basis in a place of residence used as 58146
the patient's home:58147

       (a) Nursing care provided by or under the supervision of a 58148
registered professional nurse;58149

       (b) Physical, occupational, or speech therapy ordered by the 58150
patient's attending physician;58151

       (c) Medical social services performed by or under the 58152
supervision of a qualified medical or psychiatric social worker 58153
and under the direction of the patient's attending physician;58154

       (d) Personal health care of the patient performed by aides in 58155
accordance with the orders of a doctor of medicine or osteopathy 58156
and under the supervision of a registered professional nurse;58157

       (e) Medical supplies and the use of medical appliances;58158

       (f) Medical services of interns and residents-in-training 58159
under an approved teaching program of a nonprofit hospital and 58160
under the direction and supervision of the patient's attending 58161
physician;58162

       (g) Any of the foregoing items and services which:58163

       (i) Are provided on an outpatient basis under arrangements 58164
made by the home health agency at a hospital or skilled nursing 58165
facility;58166

       (ii) Involve the use of equipment of such a nature that the 58167
items and services cannot readily be made available to the patient 58168
in the patient's place of residence, or which are furnished at the 58169
hospital or skilled nursing facility while the patient is there to 58170
receive any item or service involving the use of such equipment.58171

       Any attorney, physician, osteopath, podiatrist, chiropractor, 58172
dentist, psychologist, any employee of a hospital as defined in 58173
section 3701.01 of the Revised Code, any nurse licensed under 58174
Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code, any employee of an ambulatory 58175
health facility, any employee of a home health agency, any 58176
employee of an adult carea residential facility as defined in58177
licensed under section 5119.705119.22 of the Revised Code that 58178
provides accommodations, supervision, and personal care services 58179
for three to sixteen unrelated adults, any employee of a nursing 58180
home, residential care facility, or home for the aging, as defined 58181
in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code, any senior service 58182
provider, any peace officer, coroner, clergymanmember of the 58183
clergy, any employee of a community mental health facility, and 58184
any person engaged in social work or counseling having reasonable 58185
cause to believe that an adult is being abused, neglected, or 58186
exploited, or is in a condition which is the result of abuse, 58187
neglect, or exploitation shall immediately report such belief to 58188
the county department of job and family services. This section 58189
does not apply to employees of any hospital or public hospital as 58190
defined in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.58191

       (B) Any person having reasonable cause to believe that an 58192
adult has suffered abuse, neglect, or exploitation may report, or 58193
cause reports to be made of such belief to the department.58194

       (C) The reports made under this section shall be made orally 58195
or in writing except that oral reports shall be followed by a 58196
written report if a written report is requested by the department. 58197
Written reports shall include:58198

       (1) The name, address, and approximate age of the adult who 58199
is the subject of the report;58200

       (2) The name and address of the individual responsible for 58201
the adult's care, if any individual is, and if the individual is 58202
known;58203

       (3) The nature and extent of the alleged abuse, neglect, or 58204
exploitation of the adult;58205

       (4) The basis of the reporter's belief that the adult has 58206
been abused, neglected, or exploited.58207

       (D) Any person with reasonable cause to believe that an adult 58208
is suffering abuse, neglect, or exploitation who makes a report 58209
pursuant to this section or who testifies in any administrative or 58210
judicial proceeding arising from such a report, or any employee of 58211
the state or any of its subdivisions who is discharging 58212
responsibilities under section 5101.62 of the Revised Code shall 58213
be immune from civil or criminal liability on account of such 58214
investigation, report, or testimony, except liability for perjury, 58215
unless the person has acted in bad faith or with malicious 58216
purpose.58217

       (E) No employer or any other person with the authority to do 58218
so shall discharge, demote, transfer, prepare a negative work 58219
performance evaluation, or reduce benefits, pay, or work 58220
privileges, or take any other action detrimental to an employee or 58221
in any way retaliate against an employee as a result of the 58222
employee's having filed a report under this section.58223

       (F) Neither the written or oral report provided for in this 58224
section nor the investigatory report provided for in section 58225
5101.62 of the Revised Code shall be considered a public record as 58226
defined in section 149.43 of the Revised Code. Information 58227
contained in the report shall upon request be made available to 58228
the adult who is the subject of the report, to agencies authorized 58229
by the department to receive information contained in the report, 58230
and to legal counsel for the adult.58231

       Sec. 5104.012.  (A)(1) At the times specified in this 58232
division, the administrator of a child day-care center or a type A 58233
family day-care home shall request the superintendent of the 58234
bureau of criminal identification and investigation to conduct a 58235
criminal records check with respect to any applicant who has 58236
applied to the center or type A home for employment as a person 58237
responsible for the care, custody, or control of a child. 58238

        The administrator shall request a criminal records check 58239
pursuant to this division at the time of the applicant's initial 58240
application for employment and every four years thereafter. When 58241
the administrator requests pursuant to this division a criminal 58242
records check for an applicant at the time of the applicant's 58243
initial application for employment, the administrator shall 58244
request that the superintendent obtain information from the 58245
federal bureau of investigation as a part of the criminal records 58246
check for the applicant, including fingerprint-based checks of 58247
national crime information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 58248
671, for the person subject to the criminal records check. In all 58249
other cases in which the administrator requests a criminal records 58250
check for an applicant pursuant to this division, the 58251
administrator may request that the superintendent include 58252
information from the federal bureau of investigation in the 58253
criminal records check, including fingerprint-based checks of 58254
national crime information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 58255
671.58256

       (2) A person required by division (A)(1) of this section to 58257
request a criminal records check shall provide to each applicant a 58258
copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 58259
109.572 of the Revised Code, provide to each applicant a standard 58260
impression sheet to obtain fingerprint impressions prescribed 58261
pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 109.572 of the Revised 58262
Code, obtain the completed form and impression sheet from each 58263
applicant, and forward the completed form and impression sheet to 58264
the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 58265
investigation at the time the person requests a criminal records 58266
check pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section. On and after 58267
August 14, 2008, the administrator of a child day-care center or a 58268
type A family day-care home shall review the results of the 58269
criminal records check before the applicant has sole 58270
responsibility for the care, custody, or control of any child.58271

       (3) An applicant who receives pursuant to division (A)(2) of 58272
this section a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division 58273
(C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a copy of an 58274
impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that 58275
section and who is requested to complete the form and provide a 58276
set of fingerprint impressions shall complete the form or provide 58277
all the information necessary to complete the form and shall 58278
provide the impression sheet with the impressions of the 58279
applicant's fingerprints. If an applicant, upon request, fails to 58280
provide the information necessary to complete the form or fails to 58281
provide impressions of the applicant's fingerprints, the center or 58282
type A home shall not employ that applicant for any position for 58283
which a criminal records check is required by division (A)(1) of 58284
this section.58285

       (B)(1) Except as provided in rules adopted under division (E) 58286
of this section, no child day-care center or type A family 58287
day-care home shall employ or contract with another entity for the 58288
services of a person as a person responsible for the care, 58289
custody, or control of a child if the person previously has been 58290
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the violations described 58291
in division (A)(9)(6) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code.58292

       (2) A child day-care center or type A family day-care home 58293
may employ an applicant conditionally until the criminal records 58294
check required by this section is completed and the center or home 58295
receives the results of the criminal records check. If the results 58296
of the criminal records check indicate that, pursuant to division 58297
(B)(1) of this section, the applicant does not qualify for 58298
employment, the center or home shall release the applicant from 58299
employment.58300

       (C)(1) Each child day-care center and type A family day-care 58301
home shall pay to the bureau of criminal identification and 58302
investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of 58303
section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each criminal records 58304
check conducted in accordance with that section upon the request 58305
pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section of the administrator 58306
or provider of the center or home.58307

       (2) A child day-care center and type A family day-care home 58308
may charge an applicant a fee for the costs it incurs in obtaining 58309
a criminal records check under this section. A fee charged under 58310
this division shall not exceed the amount of fees the center or 58311
home pays under division (C)(1) of this section. If a fee is 58312
charged under this division, the center or home shall notify the 58313
applicant at the time of the applicant's initial application for 58314
employment of the amount of the fee and that, unless the fee is 58315
paid, the center or type A home will not consider the applicant 58316
for employment.58317

       (D) The report of any criminal records check conducted by the 58318
bureau of criminal identification and investigation in accordance 58319
with section 109.572 of the Revised Code and pursuant to a request 58320
under division (A)(1) of this section is not a public record for 58321
the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not 58322
be made available to any person other than the applicant who is 58323
the subject of the criminal records check or the applicant's 58324
representative; the center or type A home requesting the criminal 58325
records check or its representative; the department of job and 58326
family services or a county department of job and family services; 58327
and any court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 58328
involved in a case dealing with the denial of employment to the 58329
applicant.58330

       (E) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 58331
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this 58332
section, including rules specifying circumstances under which a 58333
center or home may hire a person who has been convicted of an 58334
offense listed in division (B)(1) of this section but who meets 58335
standards in regard to rehabilitation set by the department.58336

       (F) Any person required by division (A)(1) of this section to 58337
request a criminal records check shall inform each person, at the 58338
time of the person's initial application for employment, that the 58339
person is required to provide a set of impressions of the person's 58340
fingerprints and that a criminal records check is required to be 58341
conducted and satisfactorily completed in accordance with section 58342
109.572 of the Revised Code if the person comes under final 58343
consideration for appointment or employment as a precondition to 58344
employment for that position.58345

       (G) As used in this section:58346

       (1) "Applicant" means a person who is under final 58347
consideration for appointment to or employment in a position with 58348
a child day-care center or a type A family day-care home as a 58349
person responsible for the care, custody, or control of a child; 58350
an in-home aide certified pursuant to section 5104.12 of the 58351
Revised Code; or any person who would serve in any position with a 58352
child day-care center or a type A family day-care home as a person 58353
responsible for the care, custody, or control of a child pursuant 58354
to a contract with another entity.58355

       (2) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 58356
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.58357

       Sec. 5104.013.  (A)(1) At the times specified in division 58358
(A)(3) of this section, the director of job and family services, 58359
as part of the process of licensure of child day-care centers and 58360
type A family day-care homes, shall request the superintendent of 58361
the bureau of criminal identification and investigation to conduct 58362
a criminal records check with respect to the following persons:58363

       (a) Any owner, licensee, or administrator of a child day-care 58364
center;58365

       (b) Any owner, licensee, or administrator of a type A family 58366
day-care home and any person eighteen years of age or older who 58367
resides in a type A family day-care home.58368

       (2) At the times specified in division (A)(3) of this 58369
section, the director of a county department of job and family 58370
services, as part of the process of certification of type B family 58371
day-care homes, shall request the superintendent of the bureau of 58372
criminal identification and investigation to conduct a criminal 58373
records check with respect to any authorized provider of a 58374
certified type B family day-care home and any person eighteen 58375
years of age or older who resides in a certified type B family 58376
day-care home.58377

       (3) The director of job and family services shall request a 58378
criminal records check pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section 58379
at the time of the initial application for licensure and every 58380
four years thereafter. The director of a county department of job 58381
and family services shall request a criminal records check 58382
pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section at the time of the 58383
initial application for certification and every four years 58384
thereafter at the time of a certification renewal. When the 58385
director of job and family services or the director of a county 58386
department of job and family services requests pursuant to 58387
division (A)(1) or (2) of this section a criminal records check 58388
for a person at the time of the person's initial application for 58389
licensure or certification, the director shall request that the 58390
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 58391
investigation obtain information from the federal bureau of 58392
investigation as a part of the criminal records check for the 58393
person, including fingerprint-based checks of national crime 58394
information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 671 for the person 58395
subject to the criminal records check. In all other cases in which 58396
the director of job and family services or the director of a 58397
county department of job and family services requests a criminal 58398
records check for an applicant pursuant to division (A)(1) or (2) 58399
of this section, the director may request that the superintendent 58400
include information from the federal bureau of investigation in 58401
the criminal records check, including fingerprint-based checks of 58402
national crime information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 58403
671. 58404

       (4) The director of job and family services shall review the 58405
results of a criminal records check subsequent to a request made 58406
pursuant to divisions (A)(1) and (3) of this section prior to 58407
approval of a license. The director of a county department of job 58408
and family services shall review the results of a criminal records 58409
check subsequent to a request made pursuant to divisions (A)(2) 58410
and (3) of this section prior to approval of certification.58411

       (B) The director of job and family services or the director 58412
of a county department of job and family services shall provide to 58413
each person for whom a criminal records check is required under 58414
this section a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division 58415
(C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a standard 58416
impression sheet to obtain fingerprint impressions prescribed 58417
pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section, obtain the completed 58418
form and impression sheet from that person, and forward the 58419
completed form and impression sheet to the superintendent of the 58420
bureau of criminal identification and investigation.58421

       (C) A person who receives pursuant to division (B) of this 58422
section a copy of the form and standard impression sheet described 58423
in that division and who is requested to complete the form and 58424
provide a set of fingerprint impressions shall complete the form 58425
or provide all the information necessary to complete the form and 58426
shall provide the impression sheet with the impressions of the 58427
person's fingerprints. If the person, upon request, fails to 58428
provide the information necessary to complete the form or fails to 58429
provide impressions of the person's fingerprints, the director may 58430
consider the failure as a reason to deny licensure or 58431
certification.58432

       (D) Except as provided in rules adopted under division (G) of 58433
this section, the director of job and family services shall not 58434
grant a license to a child day-care center or type A family 58435
day-care home and a county director of job and family services 58436
shall not certify a type B family day-care home if a person for 58437
whom a criminal records check was required in connection with the 58438
center or home previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty 58439
to any of the violations described in division (A)(9)(6) of 58440
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.58441

       (E) Each child day-care center, type A family day-care home, 58442
and type B family day-care home shall pay to the bureau of 58443
criminal identification and investigation the fee prescribed 58444
pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 58445
for each criminal records check conducted in accordance with that 58446
section upon a request made pursuant to division (A) of this 58447
section.58448

       (F) The report of any criminal records check conducted by the 58449
bureau of criminal identification and investigation in accordance 58450
with section 109.572 of the Revised Code and pursuant to a request 58451
made under division (A) of this section is not a public record for 58452
the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not 58453
be made available to any person other than the person who is the 58454
subject of the criminal records check or the person's 58455
representative, the director of job and family services, the 58456
director of a county department of job and family services, the 58457
center, type A home, or type B home involved, and any court, 58458
hearing officer, or other necessary individual involved in a case 58459
dealing with a denial of licensure or certification related to the 58460
criminal records check.58461

       (G) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 58462
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this 58463
section, including rules specifying exceptions to the prohibition 58464
in division (D) of this section for persons who have been 58465
convicted of an offense listed in that division but who meet 58466
standards in regard to rehabilitation set by the department58467
director.58468

       (H) As used in this section, "criminal records check" has the 58469
same meaning as in section 109.572 of the Revised Code.58470

       Sec. 5104.051.  (A)(1) The department of commerce is 58471
responsible for the inspections of child day-care centers as 58472
required by division (A)(1) of section 5104.05 of the Revised 58473
Code. Where there is a municipal, township, or county building 58474
department certified under section 3781.10 of the Revised Code to 58475
exercise enforcement authority with respect to the category of 58476
building occupancy which includes day-care centers, all 58477
inspections required under division (A)(1) of section 5104.05 of 58478
the Revised Code shall be made by that department according to the 58479
standards established by the board of building standards. 58480
Inspections in areas of the state where there is no municipal, 58481
township, or county building department certified under section 58482
3781.10 of the Revised Code to exercise enforcement authority with 58483
respect to the category of building occupancy which includes 58484
day-care centers shall be made by personnel of the department of 58485
commerce. Inspections of centers shall be contingent upon payment 58486
of a fee by the applicant to the department having jurisdiction to 58487
inspect.58488

       (2) The department of commerce is responsible for the 58489
inspections of type A family day-care homes as required by 58490
division (B)(3) of section 5104.05 of the Revised Code. Where 58491
there is a municipal, township, or county building department 58492
certified under section 3781.10 of the Revised Code to exercise 58493
enforcement authority with respect to the category of building 58494
occupancy which includes type A homes, all inspections required 58495
under division (B)(3) of section 5104.05 of the Revised Code shall 58496
be made by that department according to the standards established 58497
by the board of building standards. Inspections in areas of the 58498
state where there is no municipal, township, or county building 58499
department certified under section 3781.10 of the Revised Code to 58500
exercise enforcement authority with respect to the category of 58501
building occupancy which includes type A homes shall be made by 58502
personnel of the department of commerce. Inspections of type A 58503
homes shall be contingent upon payment of a fee by the applicant 58504
to the department having jurisdiction to inspect.58505

       (B) The state fire marshal is responsible for the inspections 58506
required by divisions (A)(2) and (B)(1) of section 5104.05 of the 58507
Revised Code. In municipal corporations and in townships outside 58508
municipal corporations where there is a fire prevention official, 58509
the inspections shall be made by the fire chief or the fire 58510
prevention official under the supervision of and according to the 58511
standards established by the state fire marshal. In townships 58512
outside municipal corporations where there is no fire prevention 58513
official, inspections shall be made by the employees of the state 58514
fire marshal.58515

       (C) The state fire marshal shall enforce all statutes and 58516
rules pertaining to fire safety and fire prevention in child 58517
day-care centers and type A family day-care homes. In the event of 58518
a dispute between the state fire marshal and any other responsible 58519
officer under sections 5104.05 and 5104.051 of the Revised Code 58520
with respect to the interpretation or application of a specific 58521
fire safety statute or rule, the interpretation of the state fire 58522
marshal shall prevail.58523

       (D) As used in this division, "licensor" has the same meaning 58524
as in section 3717.01 of the Revised Code.58525

       The licensor for food service operations in the city or 58526
general health district in which the center is located is 58527
responsible for the inspections required under Chapter 3717. of 58528
the Revised Code.58529

       (E) Any moneys collected by the department of commerce under 58530
this section shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit 58531
of the laborindustrial compliance operating fund created in 58532
section 121.084 of the Revised Code.58533

       Sec. 5104.09.  (A)(1) Except as provided in rules adopted 58534
pursuant to division (D) of this section, no individual who has 58535
been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation described in 58536
division (A)(9)(6) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code, a 58537
violation of section 2905.11, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.04, 2909.05, 58538
2917.01, 2917.02, 2917.03, 2917.31, 2921.03, 2921.34, or 2921.35 58539
of the Revised Code or a violation of an existing or former law or 58540
ordinance of any municipal corporation, this state, any other 58541
state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to 58542
any of those violations, or two violations of section 4511.19 of 58543
the Revised Code during operation of the center or home shall be 58544
certified as an in-home aide or be employed in any capacity in or 58545
own or operate a child day-care center, type A family day-care 58546
home, type B family day-care home, or certified type B family 58547
day-care home.58548

       (2) Each employee of a child day-care center and type A home 58549
and every person eighteen years of age or older residing in a type 58550
A home shall sign a statement on forms prescribed by the director 58551
of job and family services attesting to the fact that the employee 58552
or resident person has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty to 58553
any offense set forth in division (A)(1) of this section and that 58554
no child has been removed from the employee's or resident person's 58555
home pursuant to section 2151.353 of the Revised Code. Each 58556
licensee of a type A home shall sign a statement on a form 58557
prescribed by the director attesting to the fact that no person 58558
who resides at the type A home and who is under the age of 58559
eighteen has been adjudicated a delinquent child for committing a 58560
violation of any section listed in division (A)(1) of this 58561
section. The statements shall be kept on file at the center or 58562
type A home.58563

       (3) Each in-home aide and every person eighteen years of age 58564
or older residing in a certified type B home shall sign a 58565
statement on forms prescribed by the director of job and family 58566
services attesting that the aide or resident person has not been 58567
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense set forth in 58568
division (A)(1) of this section and that no child has been removed 58569
from the aide's or resident person's home pursuant to section 58570
2151.353 of the Revised Code. Each authorized provider shall sign 58571
a statement on forms prescribed by the director attesting that the 58572
provider has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any 58573
offense set forth in division (A)(1) of this section and that no 58574
child has been removed from the provider's home pursuant to 58575
section 2151.353 of the Revised Code. Each authorized provider 58576
shall sign a statement on a form prescribed by the director 58577
attesting to the fact that no person who resides at the certified 58578
type B home and who is under the age of eighteen has been 58579
adjudicated a delinquent child for committing a violation of any 58580
section listed in division (A)(1) of this section. The statements 58581
shall be kept on file at the county department of job and family 58582
services.58583

       (4) Each administrator and licensee of a center or type A 58584
home shall sign a statement on a form prescribed by the director 58585
of job and family services attesting that the administrator or 58586
licensee has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any 58587
offense set forth in division (A)(1) of this section and that no 58588
child has been removed from the administrator's or licensee's home 58589
pursuant to section 2151.353 of the Revised Code. The statement 58590
shall be kept on file at the center or type A home.58591

       (B) No in-home aide, no administrator, licensee, authorized 58592
provider, or employee of a center, type A home, or certified type 58593
B home, and no person eighteen years of age or older residing in a 58594
type A home or certified type B home shall withhold information 58595
from, or falsify information on, any statement required pursuant 58596
to division (A)(2), (3), or (4) of this section.58597

       (C) No administrator, licensee, or child-care staff member 58598
shall discriminate in the enrollment of children in a child 58599
day-care center upon the basis of race, color, religion, sex, or 58600
national origin.58601

       (D) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 58602
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this 58603
section, including rules specifying exceptions to the prohibition 58604
in division (A) of this section for persons who have been 58605
convicted of an offense listed in that division but meet 58606
rehabilitation standards set by the departmentdirector.58607

       Sec. 5104.37. (A) As used in this section, "eligible 58608
provider" means an individual or entity eligible to provide 58609
publicly funded child care pursuant to section 5104.31 of the 58610
Revised Code.58611

        (B) The department of job and family services may withhold 58612
any money due,under this chapter and recover through any 58613
appropriate method any money erroneously paid, under this chapter 58614
if evidence exists of less than full compliance with this chapter 58615
and any rules adopted under it.58616

       (C) Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter to 58617
the contrary, the department shall take action against an eligible 58618
provider as described in this section.58619

        (D) The department immediately shall suspend a contract 58620
entered into with an eligible provider under section 5104.32 of 58621
the Revised Code when the department initiates an investigation 58622
concerning the eligible provider for either of the following 58623
reasons:58624

        (1) The eligible provider receives an improper child care 58625
payment.58626

        (2) The department receives notice and a copy of an 58627
indictment, information, or complaint charging the eligible 58628
provider or the owner or operator of the provider with committing 58629
any of the following:58630

        (a) An act that is a felony or misdemeanor relating to 58631
providing or billing for publicly funded child care or providing 58632
management or administrative services relating to providing 58633
publicly funded child care;58634

        (b) An act that would constitute an offense described in 58635
section 5104.09 of the Revised Code.58636

       (E)(1) Except as provided in division (E)(2) of this section, 58637
the suspension of a contract under division (D) of this section 58638
shall continue until the department completes its investigation or 58639
all criminal charges are disposed of through dismissal, a finding 58640
of not guilty, conviction, or a plea of guilty.58641

        (2) If the department initiates the termination of a contract 58642
that has been suspended pursuant to division (D) of this section, 58643
the suspension shall continue until the termination process is 58644
completed.58645

       (F) An eligible provider shall not provide publicly funded 58646
child care while the provider's contract is under suspension 58647
pursuant to division (D) of this section. As of the date the 58648
eligible provider's contract is suspended, the department shall 58649
withhold payment to the eligible provider for publicly funded 58650
child care.58651

        (G) Not later than five days after suspending an eligible 58652
provider's contract pursuant to division (D) of this section, the 58653
department shall notify the eligible provider. The notice shall 58654
include all of the following:58655

        (1) A description of the investigation or indictment, 58656
information, or complaint that resulted in the suspension, which 58657
need not disclose specific information concerning any ongoing 58658
administrative or criminal investigation;58659

        (2) A statement that the eligible provider is prohibited from 58660
providing publicly funded child care while the contract is under 58661
suspension;58662

        (3) A statement that the suspension will continue until the 58663
department completes its investigation or all criminal charges are 58664
disposed of through dismissal, a finding of not guilty, 58665
conviction, or a plea of guilty, and that if the department 58666
initiates the termination of the contract, the suspension will 58667
continue until the termination process is completed.58668

       Sec. 5107.05.  The director of job and family services shall 58669
adopt rules to implement this chapter. The rules shall be 58670
consistent with Title IV-A, Title IV-D, federal regulations, state 58671
law, the Title IV-A state plan submitted to the United States 58672
secretary of health and human services under section 5101.80 of 58673
the Revised Code, amendments to the plan, and waivers granted by 58674
the United States secretary. Rules governing eligibility, program 58675
participation, and other applicant and participant requirements 58676
shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 58677
Code. Rules governing financial and other administrative 58678
requirements applicable to the department of job and family 58679
services and county departments of job and family services shall 58680
be adopted in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code.58681

       (A) The rules shall specify, establish, or govern all of the 58682
following:58683

       (1) A payment standard for Ohio works first based on federal 58684
and state appropriations that is increased in accordance with 58685
section 5107.04 of the Revised Code;58686

       (2) For the purpose of section 5107.04 of the Revised Code, 58687
the method of determining the amount of cash assistance an 58688
assistance group receives under Ohio works first;58689

       (3) Requirements for initial and continued eligibility for 58690
Ohio works first, including requirements regarding income, 58691
citizenship, age, residence, and assistance group composition;58692

       (4) For the purpose of section 5107.12 of the Revised Code, 58693
application and verification procedures, including the minimum 58694
information an application must contain;58695

       (5) The extent to which a participant of Ohio works first 58696
must notify, pursuant to section 5107.12 of the Revised Code, a 58697
county department of job and family services of additional income 58698
not previously reported to the county department;58699

       (6) For the purpose of section 5107.16 of the Revised Code, 58700
all of the following:58701

       (a) Standards for the determination of good cause for failure 58702
or refusal to comply in full with a provision of a 58703
self-sufficiency contract;58704

       (b) The compliance form a member of an assistance group may 58705
complete to indicate willingness to come into full compliance with 58706
a provision of a self-sufficiency contract;58707

       (c) The manner by which the compliance form is to be 58708
completed and provided to a county department of job and family 58709
services.58710

       (7) The department of job and family services providing 58711
written notice of a sanction under section 5107.161 of the Revised 58712
Code;58713

       (8) For the purpose of division (A)(2) of section 5107.17 of 58714
the Revised Code, the period of time by which a county department 58715
of job and family services is to receive a compliance form 58716
established in rules adopted under division (A)(6)(b) of this 58717
section;58718

       (9) Requirements for the collection and distribution of 58719
support payments owed participants of Ohio works first pursuant to 58720
section 5107.20 of the Revised Code;58721

       (10) For the purpose of section 5107.22 of the Revised Code, 58722
what constitutes cooperating in establishing a minor child's 58723
paternity or establishing, modifying, or enforcing a child support 58724
order and good cause for failure or refusal to cooperate;58725

       (11) The requirements governing the LEAP program, including 58726
the definitions of "equivalent of a high school diploma" and "good 58727
cause," and the incentives provided under the LEAP program;58728

       (12) If the director implements section 5107.301 of the 58729
Revised Code, the requirements governing the award provided under 58730
that section, including the form that the award is to take and 58731
requirements an individual must satisfy to receive the award;58732

       (13) Circumstances under which a county department of job and 58733
family services may exempt a minor head of household or adult from 58734
participating in a work activity or developmental activity for all 58735
or some of the weekly hours otherwise required by section 5107.43 58736
of the Revised Code. 58737

       (14) The maximum amount of time the department will subsidize 58738
positions created by state agencies and political subdivisions 58739
under division (C) of section 5107.52 of the Revised Code;58740

       (15) The implementation of sections 5107.71 to 5107.717 of 58741
the Revised Code by county departments of job and family services;58742

       (16) A domestic violence screening process to be used for the 58743
purpose of division (A) of section 5107.71 of the Revised Code;58744

       (17) The minimum frequency with which county departments of 58745
job and family services must redetermine a member of an assistance 58746
group's need for a waiver issued under section 5107.714 of the 58747
Revised Code.58748

       (B) The rules adopted under division (A)(3) of this section 58749
regarding income shall specify what is countable income, gross 58750
earned income, and gross unearned income for the purpose of 58751
section 5107.10 of the Revised Code.58752

       The rules adopted under division (A)(10) of this section 58753
shall be consistent with 42 U.S.C. 654(29).58754

       The rules adopted under division (A)(13) of this section 58755
shall specify that the circumstances include that a school or 58756
place of work is closed due to a holiday or weather or other 58757
emergency and that an employer grants the minor head of household 58758
or adult leave for illness or earned vacation.58759

        (C) The rules may provide that a county department of job and 58760
family services is not required to take action under section 58761
5107.76 of the Revised Code to recover an erroneous payment that 58762
is below an amount the department specifiesunder circumstances 58763
the rules specify.58764

       Sec. 5111.031. (A) As used in this section:58765

       (1) "Independent provider" has the same meaning as in section 58766
5111.034 of the Revised Code.58767

       (2) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" 58768
and "nursing facility" have the same meanings as in section 58769
5111.20 of the Revised Code.58770

       (3) "Noninstitutional medicaid provider" means any person or 58771
entity with a medicaid provider agreement other than a hospital, 58772
nursing facility, or intermediate care facility for the mentally 58773
retarded.58774

       (4) "Owner" means any person having at least five per cent 58775
ownership in a noninstitutional medicaid provider.58776

       (B) Notwithstanding any provision of this chapter to the 58777
contrary, the department of job and family services shall take 58778
action under this section against a noninstitutional medicaid 58779
provider or its owner, officer, authorized agent, associate, 58780
manager, or employee.58781

       (C) Except as provided in division (D) of this section and in 58782
rules adopted by the department under division (H) of this 58783
section, on receiving notice and a copy of an indictment that is 58784
issued on or after September 29, 2007, and charges a 58785
noninstitutional medicaid provider or its owner, officer, 58786
authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee with committing 58787
an offense specified in division (E) of this section, the 58788
department shall suspend the provider agreement held by the 58789
noninstitutional medicaid provider. Subject to division (D) of 58790
this section, the department shall also terminate medicaid 58791
reimbursement to the provider for services rendered.58792

       The suspension shall continue in effect until the proceedings 58793
in the criminal case are completed through dismissal of the 58794
indictment or through conviction, entry of a guilty plea, or 58795
finding of not guilty. If the department commences a process to 58796
terminate the suspended provider agreement, the suspension shall 58797
also continue in effect until the termination process is 58798
concluded. 58799

       Pursuant to section 5111.06 of the Revised Code, the 58800
department is not required to take action under this division by 58801
issuing an order pursuant to an adjudication conducted in 58802
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.58803

       When subject to a suspension under this division, a provider, 58804
owner, officer, authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee 58805
shall not own or provide services to any other medicaid provider 58806
or risk contractor or arrange for, render, or order services for 58807
medicaid recipients during the period of suspension. During the 58808
period of suspension, the provider, owner, officer, authorized 58809
agent, associate, manager, or employee shall not receive 58810
reimbursement in the form of direct payments from the department 58811
or indirect payments of medicaid funds in the form of salary, 58812
shared fees, contracts, kickbacks, or rebates from or through any 58813
participating provider or risk contractor.58814

       (D)(1) The department shall not suspend a provider agreement 58815
or terminate medicaid reimbursement under division (C) of this 58816
section if the provider or owner can demonstrate through the 58817
submission of written evidence that the provider or owner did not 58818
directly or indirectly sanction the action of its authorized 58819
agent, associate, manager, or employee that resulted in the 58820
indictment.58821

       (2) The termination of medicaid reimbursement applies only to 58822
payments for medicaid services rendered subsequent to the date on 58823
which the notice required under division (F) of this section is 58824
sent. Claims for reimbursement for medicaid services rendered by 58825
the provider prior to the issuance of the notice may be subject to 58826
prepayment review procedures whereby the department reviews claims 58827
to determine whether they are supported by sufficient 58828
documentation, are in compliance with state and federal statutes 58829
and rules, and are otherwise complete.58830

       (E)(1) In the case of a noninstitutional medicaid provider 58831
that is not an independent provider, the suspension of a provider 58832
agreement under division (C) of this section applies when an 58833
indictment charges a person with committing an act that would be a 58834
felony or misdemeanor under the laws of this state and the act 58835
relates to or results from either of the following:58836

       (a) Furnishing or billing for medical care, services, or 58837
supplies under the medicaid program;58838

       (b) Participating in the performance of management or 58839
administrative services relating to furnishing medical care, 58840
services, or supplies under the medicaid program.58841

       (2) In the case of a noninstitutional medicaid provider that 58842
is an independent provider, the suspension of a provider agreement 58843
under division (C) of this section applies when an indictment 58844
charges a person with committing an act that would constitute one 58845
of the offenses specified in division (D) ofa disqualifying 58846
offense as defined in section 5111.0345111.032 of the Revised 58847
Code.58848

       (F) Not later than five days after suspending a provider 58849
agreement under division (C) of this section, the department shall 58850
send notice of the suspension to the affected provider or owner. 58851
In providing the notice, the department shall do all of the 58852
following:58853

       (1) Describe the indictment that was the cause of the 58854
suspension, without necessarily disclosing specific information 58855
concerning any ongoing civil or criminal investigation;58856

       (2) State that the suspension will continue in effect until 58857
the proceedings in the criminal case are completed through 58858
dismissal of the indictment or through conviction, entry of a 58859
guilty plea, or finding of not guilty and, if the department 58860
commences a process to terminate the suspended provider agreement, 58861
until the termination process is concluded;58862

       (3) Inform the provider or owner of the opportunity to submit 58863
to the department, not later than thirty days after receiving the 58864
notice, a request for a reconsideration pursuant to division (G) 58865
of this section. 58866

       (G)(1) Pursuant to the procedure specified in division (G)(2) 58867
of this section, a noninstitutional medicaid provider or owner 58868
subject to a suspension under this section may request a 58869
reconsideration. The request shall be made not later than thirty 58870
days after receipt of the notice provided under division (F) of 58871
this section. The reconsideration is not subject to an 58872
adjudication hearing pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.58873

       (2) In requesting a reconsideration, the provider or owner 58874
shall submit written information and documents to the department. 58875
The information and documents may pertain to any of the following 58876
issues:58877

       (a) Whether the determination to suspend the provider 58878
agreement was based on a mistake of fact, other than the validity 58879
of the indictment;58880

       (b) Whether any offense charged in the indictment resulted 58881
from an offense specified in division (E) of this section;58882

       (c) Whether the provider or owner can demonstrate that the 58883
provider or owner did not directly or indirectly sanction the 58884
action of its authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee 58885
that resulted in the indictment.58886

       (3) The department shall review the information and documents 58887
submitted in a request for reconsideration. After the review, the 58888
suspension may be affirmed, reversed, or modified, in whole or in 58889
part. The department shall notify the affected provider or owner 58890
of the results of the review. The review and notification of its 58891
results shall be completed not later than forty-five days after 58892
receiving the information and documents submitted in a request for 58893
reconsideration.58894

       (H) The department may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 58895
119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. The rules may 58896
specify circumstances under which the department would not suspend 58897
a provider agreement pursuant to this section.58898

       Sec. 5111.032. (A) As used in this section:58899

       (1) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 58900
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.58901

       (2) "Department" includes a designee of the department of job 58902
and family services.58903

       (3)"Disqualifying offense" means any of the following:58904

       (a) A violation of section 959.13, 959.131, 2903.01, 2903.02, 58905
2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.15, 58906
2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2903.341, 2905.01, 58907
2905.02, 2905.05, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 58908
2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 58909
2907.23, 2907.24, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 58910
2907.323, 2907.33, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.04, 2909.22, 2909.23, 58911
2909.24, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 58912
2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.05, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 58913
2913.40, 2913.41, 2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 2913.441, 2913.45, 58914
2913.46, 2913.47, 2913.48, 2913.49, 2913.51, 2917.01, 2917.02, 58915
2917.03, 2917.31, 2919.12, 2919.121, 2919.123, 2919.22, 2919.23, 58916
2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.03, 2921.11, 2921.13, 2921.21, 2921.24, 58917
2921.321, 2921.34, 2921.35, 2921.36, 2921.51, 2923.12, 2923.122, 58918
2923.123, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2923.162, 2923.21, 2923.32, 2923.42, 58919
2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.041, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2925.09, 58920
2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.14, 2925.22, 2925.23, 2925.24, 2925.36, 58921
2925.55, 2925.56, 2927.12, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;58922

       (b) Felonious sexual penetration in violation of former 58923
section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;58924

       (c) A violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it 58925
existed prior to July 1, 1996;58926

       (d) A violation of section 2923.01, 2923.02, or 2923.03 of 58927
the Revised Code when the underlying offense that is the object of 58928
the conspiracy, attempt, or complicity is one of the offenses 58929
listed in division (A)(2)(a) to (c) of this section;58930

       (e) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance 58931
or law of this state, any other state, or the United States that 58932
is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in 58933
division (A)(2)(a) to (d) of this section.58934

       (3) "Owner" means a person who has an ownership interest in a 58935
provider or applicant to be a provider in an amount designated by 58936
the department of job and family services in rules adopted under 58937
this section.58938

       (4) "Person subject to the criminal records check 58939
requirement" means the following:58940

       (a) A provider or applicant to be a provider who is notified 58941
under division (E)(1) of this section that the provider or 58942
applicant is subject to a criminal records check;58943

       (b) An owner or prospective owner, officer or prospective 58944
officer, or board member or prospective board member of a provider 58945
or applicant to be a provider if, pursuant to division (E)(1)(a) 58946
of this section, the owner or prospective owner, officer or 58947
prospective officer, or board member or prospective board member 58948
is specified in information given to the provider or applicant 58949
under division (E)(1) of this section;58950

       (c) An employee or prospective employee of a provider or 58951
applicant to be a provider if both of the following apply:58952

       (i) The employee or prospective employee is specified, 58953
pursuant to division (E)(1)(b) of this section, in information 58954
given to the provider or applicant under division (E)(1) of this 58955
section.58956

       (ii) The provider or applicant is not prohibited by division 58957
(D)(3)(b) of this section from employing the employee or 58958
prospective employee.58959

       (5) "Provider" means a person, institution, or entity that 58960
has a medicaid provider agreement with the department of job and 58961
family services pursuant to Title XIX of the "Social Security 58962
Act," 49 State. 620 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396, as amended.58963

       (6) "Responsible entity" means the following:58964

       (a) With respect to a criminal records check required under 58965
this section for a provider or applicant to be a provider, the 58966
department of job and family services or the department's 58967
designee;58968

       (b) With respect to a criminal records check required under 58969
this section for an owner or prospective owner, officer or 58970
prospective officer, board member or prospective board member, or 58971
employee or prospective employee of a provider or applicant to be 58972
a provider, the provider or applicant.58973

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this section, 58974
theThis section does not apply to any individual who is subject 58975
to a criminal records check under section 3712.09, 3721.121, 58976
5111.034, 5123.081, or 5123.169 of the Revised Code or any 58977
individual who is subject to a database review or criminal records 58978
check under section 173.394, 3701.881, or 5111.033 of the Revised 58979
Code.58980

       (C) The department of job and family services may requiredo 58981
any of the following:58982

       (1) Require that any provider,or applicant to be a provider, 58983
employee or prospective employee of a provider, owner or 58984
prospective owner of a provider, officer or prospective officer of 58985
a provider, or board member or prospective board member of a 58986
provider submit to a criminal records check as a condition of 58987
obtaininghaving a medicaid provider agreement, continuing to hold 58988
a provider agreement, being employed by a provider, having an 58989
ownership interest in a provider, or being an officer or board 58990
member of a provider. The department may designate the categories 58991
of persons who are subject to the criminal records check 58992
requirement. The department shall designate the times at which the 58993
criminal records checks must be conducted.58994

       (2) The section does not apply to providers, applicants to be 58995
providers, employees of a provider, or prospective employees of a 58996
provider who are subject to criminal records checks under section 58997
5111.033 or 5111.034 of the Revised Code;58998

       (2) Require that any provider or applicant to be a provider 58999
require an owner or prospective owner, officer or prospective 59000
officer, or board member or prospective board member of the 59001
provider or applicant submit to a criminal records check as a 59002
condition of being an owner, officer, or board member of the 59003
provider or applicant;59004

       (3) Require that any provider or applicant to be a provider 59005
do the following:59006

       (a) If so required by rules adopted under this section, 59007
determine pursuant to a database review conducted under division 59008
(F)(1)(a) of this section whether any employee or prospective 59009
employee of the provider or applicant is included in a database;59010

       (b) Unless the provider or applicant is prohibited by 59011
division (D)(3)(b) of this section from employing the employee or 59012
prospective employee, require the employee or prospective employee 59013
to submit to a criminal records check as a condition of being an 59014
employee of the provider or applicant.59015

       (D)(1) The department or the department's designee shall 59016
terminate a provider's medicaid provider agreement or deny an 59017
applicant's application for a medicaid provider agreement if the 59018
provider or applicant is a person subject to the criminal records 59019
check requirement and either of the following applies:59020

       (a) The provider or applicant fails to obtain the criminal 59021
records check after being given the information specified in 59022
division (G)(1) of this section.59023

       (b) Except as provided in rules adopted under this section, 59024
the provider or applicant is found by the criminal records check 59025
to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found 59026
eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 59027
disqualifying offense, regardless of the date of the conviction, 59028
the date of entry of the guilty plea, or the date the applicant or 59029
provider was found eligible for intervention in lieu of 59030
conviction.59031

       (2) No provider or applicant to be a provider shall permit a 59032
person to be an owner, officer, or board member of the provider or 59033
applicant if the person is a person subject to the criminal 59034
records check requirement and either of the following applies:59035

       (a) The person fails to obtain the criminal records check 59036
after being given the information specified in division (G)(1) of 59037
this section.59038

       (b) Except as provided in rules adopted under this section, 59039
the person is found by the criminal records check to have been 59040
convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for 59041
intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense, 59042
regardless of the date of the conviction, the date of entry of the 59043
guilty plea, or the date the person was found eligible for 59044
intervention in lieu of conviction.59045

       (3) No provider or applicant to be a provider shall employ a 59046
person if any of the following apply:59047

       (a) The person has been excluded from providing services or 59048
items under the medicaid program, the medicare program operated 59049
pursuant to Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," or any other 59050
federal health care program.59051

       (b) If the person is subject to a database review conducted 59052
under division (F)(1)(a) of this section, the person is found by 59053
the database review to be included in a database and the rules 59054
adopted under this section regarding the database review prohibit 59055
the provider or applicant from employing a person included in the 59056
database.59057

       (c) If the person is a person subject to the criminal records 59058
check requirement, either of the following applies:59059

       (i) The person fails to obtain the criminal records check 59060
after being given the information specified in division (G)(1) of 59061
this section.59062

       (ii) Except as provided in rules adopted under this section, 59063
the person is found by the criminal records check to have been 59064
convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for 59065
intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense, 59066
regardless of the date of the conviction, the date of entry of the 59067
guilty plea, or the date the person was found eligible for 59068
intervention in lieu of conviction.59069

       (C)(E)(1) The department or the department's designee shall 59070
inform each provider or applicant to be a provider whether the 59071
provider or applicant is subject to a criminal records check 59072
requirement under division (B) of this section. For providers, the 59073
information shall be given at times designated in rules adopted 59074
under this section. For applicants to be providers, the 59075
information shall be given at the time of initial application. 59076
When the information is given, the department or the department's 59077
designee shall specify whichthe following:59078

       (a) Which of the provider's or applicant's employees or 59079
prospective employees, owners or prospective owners, officers or 59080
prospective officers, or board members or prospective board 59081
members are subject to thea criminal records check requirement;59082

       (b) Which of the provider's or applicant's employees or 59083
prospective employees are subject to division (C)(3) of this 59084
section.59085

       (2) At times designated in rules adopted under this section, 59086
a provider or applicant to be a provider that is a person subject 59087
to the criminal records check requirement shall informdo the 59088
following:59089

       (a) Inform each person specified by the department under 59090
division (C)(1)(E)(1)(a) of this section that the person is 59091
required, as applicable, to submit to a criminal records check for 59092
final consideration for employment in a full-time, part-time, or 59093
temporary position; as a condition of continued employment; or as 59094
a condition of becoming or continuing to bebeing an owner,59095
officer, or board member or owner of athe provider or applicant;59096

       (b) Inform each person specified under division (E)(1)(b) of 59097
this section that the person is subject to division (C)(3) of this 59098
section.59099

       (D)(F)(1) If a provider or applicant to be a provider is a 59100
person subject to athe criminal records check under this section59101
requirement, the department or the department's designee shall 59102
require the conduct of a criminal records check by the 59103
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 59104
investigation. If a provider or applicant to be a provider for 59105
whom a criminal records check is required does not present proof 59106
of having been a resident of this state for the five-year period 59107
immediately prior to the date the criminal records check is 59108
requested or provide evidence that within that five-year period 59109
the superintendent has requested information about the individual 59110
from the federal bureau of investigation in a criminal records 59111
check, the department shall require the provider or applicant to 59112
request that the superintendent obtain information from the 59113
federal bureau of investigation as part of the criminal records 59114
check of the provider or applicant. Even if a provider or 59115
applicant for whom a criminal records check request is required 59116
presents proof of having been a resident of this state for the 59117
five-year period, the department may require that the provider or 59118
applicant request that the superintendent obtain information from 59119
the federal bureau of investigation and include it in the criminal 59120
records check of the provider or applicant.59121

       (2)investigation. A provider or applicant to be a provider59122
shall require the conduct of a criminal records check by the 59123
superintendent with respect to each of the persons specified by 59124
the department under division (C)(1)(E)(1)(a) of this section. If 59125
the person for whom a criminal records check is required does not 59126
present proof of having been a resident of this state for the 59127
five-year period immediately prior to the date the criminal 59128
records check is requested or provide evidence that within that 59129
five-year period the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 59130
identification and investigation has requested information about 59131
the individual from the federal bureau of investigation in a 59132
criminal records check, the individual shall request that the 59133
superintendent obtain information from the federal bureau of 59134
investigation as part of the criminal records check of the 59135
individual. Even if an individual for whom a criminal records 59136
check request is required presents proof of having been a resident 59137
of this state for the five-year period, the department may require 59138
the provider to request that the superintendent obtain information 59139
from the federal bureau of investigation and include it in the 59140
criminal records check of the person.With respect to each 59141
employee and prospective employee specified under division 59142
(E)(1)(b) of this section, a provider or applicant to be a 59143
provider shall do the following:59144

       (a) If rules adopted under this section require the provider 59145
or applicant to conduct a database review to determine whether the 59146
employee or prospective employee is included in a database, 59147
conduct the database review in accordance with the rules;59148

       (b) Unless the provider or applicant is prohibited by 59149
division (D)(3)(b) of this section from employing the employee or 59150
prospective employee, require the conduct of a criminal records 59151
check of the employee or prospective employee by the 59152
superintendent.59153

       (2) If a person subject to the criminal records check 59154
requirement does not present proof of having been a resident of 59155
this state for the five-year period immediately prior to the date 59156
the criminal records check is requested or provide evidence that 59157
within that five-year period the superintendent has requested 59158
information about the person from the federal bureau of 59159
investigation in a criminal records check, the responsible entity 59160
shall require the person to request that the superintendent obtain 59161
information from the federal bureau of investigation as part of 59162
the criminal records check of the person. Even if the person 59163
presents proof of having been a resident of this state for the 59164
five-year period, the responsible entity may require that the 59165
person request that the superintendent obtain information from the 59166
federal bureau of investigation and include it in the criminal 59167
records check of the person.59168

       (E)(1)(G) Criminal records checks required underby this 59169
section for providers or applicants to be providers shall be 59170
obtained as follows:59171

       (a)(1) The departmentresponsible entity shall provide each 59172
provider or applicantperson subject to the criminal records check 59173
requirement information about accessing and completing the form 59174
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the 59175
Revised Code and the standard fingerprint impression sheet 59176
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section.59177

       (b)(2) The provider or applicantperson subject to the 59178
criminal records check requirement shall submit the required form 59179
and one complete set of the person's fingerprint impressions 59180
directly to the superintendent for purposes of conducting the 59181
criminal records check using the applicable methods prescribed by 59182
division (C) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code. The applicant 59183
or providerperson shall pay all fees associated with obtaining 59184
the criminal records check.59185

       (c)(3) The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records 59186
check in accordance with section 109.572 of the Revised Code. The 59187
provider or applicantperson subject to the criminal records check 59188
requirement shall instruct the superintendent to submit the report 59189
of the criminal records check directly to the director of job and 59190
family services.59191

       (2) Criminal records checks required under this section for 59192
persons specified by the department under division (C)(1) of this 59193
section shall be obtained as follows:59194

       (a) The provider shall give to each person subject to 59195
criminal records check requirement information about accessing and 59196
completing the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of 59197
section 109.572 of the Revised Code and the standard fingerprint 59198
impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that 59199
section.59200

       (b) The person shall submit the required form and one 59201
complete set of fingerprint impressions directly to the 59202
superintendent for purposes of conducting the criminal records 59203
check using the applicable methods prescribed by division (C) of 59204
section 109.572 of the Revised Code. The person shall pay all fees 59205
associated with obtaining the criminal records check.59206

       (c) The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records 59207
check in accordance with section 109.572 of the Revised Code. The 59208
person subject to the criminal records check shall instruct the 59209
superintendent to submit the report of the criminal records check 59210
directly to the providerresponsible entity. TheIf the department 59211
or the department's designee is not the responsible entity, the59212
department or designee may require the providerresponsible entity59213
to submit the report to the department or designee.59214

       (F) If a provider or applicant to be a provider is given the 59215
information specified in division (E)(1)(a) of this section but 59216
fails to obtain a criminal records check, the department shall, as 59217
applicable, terminate the provider agreement or deny the 59218
application to be a provider.59219

       If a person is given the information specified in division 59220
(E)(2)(a) of this section but fails to obtain a criminal records 59221
check, the provider shall not, as applicable, permit the person to 59222
be an employee, owner, officer, or board member of the provider.59223

       (G) Except as provided in rules adopted under division (J) of 59224
this section, the department shall terminate the provider 59225
agreement of a provider or the department shall not issue a 59226
provider agreement to an applicant if the provider or applicant is 59227
subject to a criminal records check under this section and the 59228
provider or applicant has been convicted of, has pleaded guilty 59229
to, or has been found eligible for intervention in lieu of 59230
conviction for any of the following, regardless of the date of the 59231
conviction, the date of entry of the guilty plea, or the date the 59232
applicant or provider was found eligible for intervention in lieu 59233
of conviction:59234

       (1) A violation of section 959.13, 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 59235
2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.15, 2903.16, 59236
2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 59237
2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 59238
2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.24, 59239
2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2909.02, 59240
2909.03, 2909.04, 2909.05, 2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2911.01, 59241
2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 59242
2913.05, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 2913.40, 2913.41, 59243
2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 2913.441, 2913.45, 2913.46, 2913.47, 59244
2913.48, 2913.49, 2913.51, 2917.01, 2917.02, 2917.03, 2917.11, 59245
2917.31, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.23, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.03, 59246
2921.11, 2921.13, 2921.34, 2921.35, 2921.36, 2923.01, 2923.02, 59247
2923.03, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2923.32, 2925.02, 2925.03, 59248
2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.14, 2925.22, 59249
2925.23, 2927.12, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual 59250
penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised 59251
Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it 59252
existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of 59253
the Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 59254
2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, 59255
had the violation been committed prior to that date;59256

       (2) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance 59257
or law of this state, any other state, or the United States that 59258
is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in 59259
division (G)(1) of this section.59260

       (H)(1)(a) Except as provided in rules adopted under division 59261
(J) of this section and subject to division (H)(2) of this 59262
section, no provider shall permit a person to be an employee, 59263
owner, officer, or board member of the provider if the person is 59264
subject to a criminal records check under this section and the 59265
person has been convicted of, has pleaded guilty to, or has been 59266
found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for any of 59267
the offenses specified in division (G)(1) or (2) of this section.59268

       (b) No provider shall employ a person who has been excluded 59269
from participating in the medicaid program, the medicare program 59270
operated pursuant to Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," or 59271
any other federal health care program.59272

       (2)(a)(H)(1) A provider or applicant to be a provider may 59273
employ conditionally a person for whom a criminal records check is 59274
required underby this section prior to obtaining the results of a59275
the criminal records check regarding the person, but only if the59276
both of the following apply:59277

       (a) The provider or applicant is not prohibited by division 59278
(D)(3)(b) of this section from employing the person.59279

       (b) The person submits a request for athe criminal records 59280
check not later than five business days after the individual59281
person begins conditional employment.59282

       (b)(2) A provider or applicant to be a provider that employs 59283
a person conditionally under authority of division (H)(2)(a)(1)59284
of this section shall terminate the person's employment if the 59285
results of the criminal records check request are not obtained 59286
within the period ending sixty days after the date the request is 59287
made. Regardless of when the results of the criminal records check 59288
are obtained, if the results indicate that the individualperson59289
has been convicted of, has pleaded guilty to, or has been found 59290
eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for any of the 59291
offenses specified in division (G)(1) or (2) of this sectiona 59292
disqualifying offense, the provider or applicant shall terminate 59293
the person's employment unless circumstances specified in rules 59294
adopted under this section exist that permit the provider or 59295
applicant to employ the person and the provider or applicant59296
chooses to employ the individual pursuant to division (J) of this 59297
sectionperson.59298

       (I) The report of a criminal records check conducted pursuant 59299
to this section is not a public record for the purposes of section 59300
149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not be made available to any 59301
person other than the following:59302

       (1) The person who is the subject of the criminal records 59303
check or the person's representative;59304

       (2) The director of job and family services and the staff of 59305
the department in the administration of the medicaid program;59306

       (3) The department's designee;59307

       (4) The provider or applicant to be a provider who required 59308
the person who is the subject of the criminal records check to 59309
submit to the criminal records check;59310

       (5) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 59311
involved in a case dealing with theany of the following:59312

       (a) The denial or termination of a medicaid provider 59313
agreement;59314

       (4) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 59315
involved in a case dealing with a(b) A person's denial of 59316
employment, termination of employment, or employment or 59317
unemployment benefits;59318

       (c) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid 59319
program.59320

       (J) The departmentdirector of job and family services may 59321
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to 59322
implement this section. If the director adopts such rules, the 59323
rules shall designate the times at which a criminal records check 59324
must be conducted under this section. The rules may specifydo 59325
any of the following:59326

       (1) Designate the categories of persons who are subject to a 59327
criminal records check under this section;59328

       (2) Specify circumstances under which the department or the 59329
department's designee may continue a medicaid provider agreement 59330
or issue a medicaid provider agreement to an applicant when the 59331
provider or applicant hasis found by a criminal records check to 59332
have been convicted of, has pleaded guilty to, or has been found 59333
eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for any of the 59334
offenses specified in division (G)(1) or (2) of this section. The 59335
rules may also specifya disqualifying offense;59336

       (3) Specify circumstances under which a provider or applicant 59337
to be a provider may permit a person to be an employee, owner, 59338
officer, or board member of the provider or applicant, when the 59339
person hasis found by a criminal records check conducted 59340
pursuant to this section to have been convicted of, has pleaded 59341
guilty to, or has been found eligible for intervention in lieu of 59342
conviction for any of the offenses specified in division (G)(1) or 59343
(2) of this sectiona disqualifying offense;59344

       (4) Specify all of the following:59345

       (a) The circumstances under which a database review must be 59346
conducted under division (F)(1)(a) of this section to determine 59347
whether an employee or prospective employee of a provider or 59348
applicant to be a provider is included in a database;59349

       (b) The procedures for conducting the database review;59350

       (c) The databases that are to be checked;59351

       (d) The circumstances under which a provider or applicant to 59352
be a provider is prohibited from employing a person who is found 59353
by the database review to be included in a database.59354

       Sec. 5111.033.  (A) As used in this section:59355

       (1) "Applicant" means a person who is under final 59356
consideration for employment or, after September 26, 2003, an 59357
existing employee with a waiver agency in a full-time, part-time, 59358
or temporary position that involves providing home and 59359
community-based waiver services to a person with disabilities. 59360
"Applicant" also means an existing employee with a waiver agency 59361
in a full-time, part-time, or temporary position that involves 59362
providing home and community-based waiver services to a person 59363
with disabilities after September 26, 2003.59364

       (2) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 59365
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.59366

       (3) "Waiver agency" means a person or government entity that 59367
is not certified under the medicare program and is accredited by 59368
the community health accreditation program or the joint commission 59369
on accreditation of health care organizations or a company that 59370
provides home and community-based waiver services to persons with 59371
disabilities through department of job and family services 59372
administered home and community-based waiver programs.59373

       (4) "Home"Disqualifying offense" has the same meaning as in 59374
section 5111.032 of the Revised Code.59375

       "Employee" means a person employed by a waiver agency in a 59376
full-time, part-time, or temporary position that involves 59377
providing home and community-based services.59378

       "Home and community-based waiver services medicaid waiver 59379
component" means services furnished under the provision of 42 59380
C.F.R. 441, subpart G, that permit individuals to live in a home 59381
setting rather than a nursing facility or hospitalhas the same 59382
meaning as in section 5111.85 of the Revised Code. Home and 59383
community-based waiver services are approved by the centers for 59384
medicare and medicaid for specific populations and are not 59385
otherwise available under the medicaid state plan.59386

       "Waiver agency" means a person or government entity that 59387
provides home and community-based services under a home and 59388
community-based services medicaid waiver component administered by 59389
the department of job and family services, other than such a 59390
person or government entity that is certified under the medicare 59391
program. "Waiver agency" does not mean an independent provider as 59392
defined in section 5111.034 of the Revised Code.59393

       (B) No waiver agency shall employ an applicant or continue to 59394
employ an employee in a position that involves providing home and 59395
community-based services if any of the following apply:59396

       (1) A review of the databases listed in division (D) of this 59397
section reveals any of the following:59398

       (a) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 59399
of the databases listed in divisions (D)(1) to (5) of this 59400
section;59401

       (b) That there is in the state nurse aide registry 59402
established under section 3721.32 of the Revised Code a statement 59403
detailing findings by the director of health that the applicant or 59404
employee neglected or abused a long-term care facility or 59405
residential care facility resident or misappropriated property of 59406
such a resident;59407

       (c) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 59408
of the databases, if any, specified in rules adopted under this 59409
section and the rules prohibit the waiver agency from employing an 59410
applicant or continuing to employ an employee included in such a 59411
database in a position that involves providing home and 59412
community-based services.59413

       (2) After the applicant or employee is given the information 59414
and notification required by divisions (E)(2)(a) and (b) of this 59415
section, the applicant or employee fails to do either of the 59416
following:59417

       (a) Access, complete, or forward to the superintendent of the 59418
bureau of criminal identification and investigation the form 59419
prescribed to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised 59420
Code or the standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to 59421
division (C)(2) of that section;59422

       (b) Instruct the superintendent to submit the completed 59423
report of the criminal records check required by this section 59424
directly to the chief administrator of the waiver agency.59425

       (3) Except as provided in rules adopted under this section, 59426
the applicant or employee is found by a criminal records check 59427
required by this section to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty 59428
to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction 59429
for a disqualifying offense, regardless of the date of the 59430
conviction, date of entry of the guilty plea, or the date the 59431
applicant or employee was found eligible for intervention in lieu 59432
of conviction.59433

       (C) At the time of each applicant's initial application for 59434
employment in a position that involves providing home and 59435
community-based services, the chief administrator of a waiver 59436
agency shall inform the applicant of both of the following:59437

       (1) That a review of the databases listed in division (D) of 59438
this section will be conducted to determine whether the waiver 59439
agency is prohibited by division (B)(1) of this section from 59440
employing the applicant in the position;59441

       (2) That, unless the database review reveals that the 59442
applicant may not be employed in the position, a criminal records 59443
check of the applicant will be conducted and the applicant is 59444
required to provide a set of the applicant's fingerprint 59445
impressions as part of the criminal records check.59446

       (D) As a condition of employing any applicant in a position 59447
that involves providing home and community-based services, the 59448
chief administrator of a waiver agency shall conduct a database 59449
review of the applicant in accordance with rules adopted under 59450
this section. If rules adopted under this section so require, the 59451
chief administrator of a waiver agency shall conduct a database 59452
review of an employee in accordance with the rules as a condition 59453
of continuing to employ the employee in a position that involves 59454
providing home and community-based services. A database review 59455
shall determine whether the applicant or employee is included in 59456
any of the following:59457

       (1) The excluded parties list system maintained by the United 59458
States general services administration pursuant to subpart 9.4 of 59459
the federal acquisition regulation;59460

       (2) The list of excluded individuals and entities maintained 59461
by the office of inspector general in the United States department 59462
of health and human services pursuant to section 1128 of the 59463
"Social Security Act," 94 Stat. 2619 (1980), 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7, as 59464
amended, and section 1156 of the "Social Security Act," 96 Stat. 59465
388 (1982), 42 U.S.C. 1320c-5, as amended;59466

       (3) The registry of MR/DD employees established under section 59467
5123.52 of the Revised Code;59468

       (4) The internet-based sex offender and child-victim offender 59469
database established under division (A)(11) of section 2950.13 of 59470
the Revised Code;59471

       (5) The internet-based database of inmates established under 59472
section 5120.66 of the Revised Code;59473

       (6) The state nurse aide registry established under section 59474
3721.32 of the Revised Code;59475

       (7) Any other database, if any, specified in rules adopted 59476
under this section.59477

       (E)(1) TheAs a condition of employing any applicant in a 59478
position that involves providing home and community-based 59479
services, the chief administrator of a waiver agency shall require 59480
eachthe applicant to request that the superintendent of the 59481
bureau of criminal identification and investigation conduct a 59482
criminal records check with respect toof the applicant. If rules 59483
adopted under this section so require, the chief administrator of 59484
a waiver agency shall require an employee to request that the 59485
superintendent conduct a criminal records check of the employee at 59486
times specified in the rules as a condition of continuing to 59487
employ the employee in a position that involves providing home and 59488
community-based services. However, a criminal records check is not 59489
required for an applicant or employee if the waiver agency is 59490
prohibited by division (B)(1) of this section from employing the 59491
applicant or continuing to employ the employee in a position that 59492
involves providing home and community-based services. If an 59493
applicant or employee for whom a criminal records check request is 59494
required under this divisionby this section does not present 59495
proof of having been a resident of this state for the five-year 59496
period immediately prior to the date the criminal records check is 59497
requested or provide evidence that within that five-year period 59498
the superintendent has requested information about the applicant 59499
or employee from the federal bureau of investigation in a criminal 59500
records check, the chief administrator shall require the applicant 59501
or employee to request that the superintendent obtain information 59502
from the federal bureau of investigation as part of the criminal 59503
records check of the applicant. Even if an applicant or employee59504
for whom a criminal records check request is required under this 59505
divisionby this section presents proof of having been a resident 59506
of this state for the five-year period, the chief administrator 59507
may require the applicant or employee to request that the 59508
superintendent include information from the federal bureau of 59509
investigation in the criminal records check.59510

       (2) The chief administrator shall provide the following to 59511
each applicant and employee for whom a criminal records check 59512
request is required under division (B)(1) ofby this section:59513

       (a) Information about accessing, completing, and forwarding 59514
to the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 59515
investigation the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of 59516
section 109.572 of the Revised Code and the standard fingerprint59517
impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that 59518
section;59519

       (b) Written notification that the applicant or employee is to 59520
instruct the superintendent to submit the completed report of the 59521
criminal records check directly to the chief administrator.59522

       (3) An applicant given information and notification under 59523
divisions (B)(2)(a) and (b) of this section who fails to access, 59524
complete, and forward to the superintendent the form or the 59525
standard fingerprint impression sheet, or who fails to instruct 59526
the superintendent to submit the completed report of the criminal 59527
records check directly to the chief administrator, shall not be 59528
employed in any position in a waiver agency for which a criminal 59529
records check is required by this section.A waiver agency shall 59530
pay to the bureau of criminal identification and investigation the 59531
fee prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of 59532
the Revised Code for any criminal records check required by this 59533
section. However, a waiver agency may require an applicant to pay 59534
to the bureau the fee for a criminal records check of the 59535
applicant. If the waiver agency pays the fee for an applicant, it 59536
may charge the applicant a fee not exceeding the amount the waiver 59537
agency pays to the bureau under this section if the waiver agency 59538
notifies the applicant at the time of initial application for 59539
employment of the amount of the fee and that, unless the fee is 59540
paid, the applicant will not be considered for employment.59541

       (C)(1) Except as provided in rules adopted by the department 59542
of job and family services in accordance with division (F) of this 59543
section and subject to division (C)(2) of this section, no waiver 59544
agency shall employ a person in a position that involves providing 59545
home and community-based waiver services to persons with 59546
disabilities if the person has been convicted of, has pleaded 59547
guilty to, or has been found eligible for intervention in lieu of 59548
conviction for any of the following, regardless of the date of the 59549
conviction, the date of entry of the guilty plea, or the date the 59550
person was found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction:59551

       (a) A violation of section 959.13, 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 59552
2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.15, 2903.16, 59553
2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 59554
2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 59555
2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.24, 59556
2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2909.02, 59557
2909.03, 2909.04, 2909.05, 2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2911.01, 59558
2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 59559
2913.05, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 2913.40, 2913.41, 59560
2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 2913.441, 2913.45, 2913.46, 2913.47, 59561
2913.48, 2913.49, 2913.51, 2917.01, 2917.02, 2917.03, 2917.11, 59562
2917.31, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.23, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.03, 59563
2921.11, 2921.13, 2921.34, 2921.35, 2921.36, 2923.01, 2923.02, 59564
2923.03, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2923.32, 2925.02, 2925.03, 59565
2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.14, 2925.22, 59566
2925.23, 2927.12, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual 59567
penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised 59568
Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it 59569
existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of 59570
the Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 59571
2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, 59572
had the violation been committed prior to that date;59573

       (b) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance 59574
or law of this state, any other state, or the United States that 59575
is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in 59576
division (C)(1)(a) of this section.59577

       (2)(a)(F)(1) A waiver agency may employ conditionally an 59578
applicant for whom a criminal records check request is required 59579
under division (B) ofby this section prior to obtaining the 59580
results of athe criminal records check regarding the individual, 59581
provided that theif both of the following apply:59582

       (a) The waiver agency is not prohibited by division (B)(1) of 59583
this section from employing the applicant in a position that 59584
involves providing home and community-based services.59585

       (b) The chief administrator of the waiver agency shall 59586
requirerequires the individualapplicant to request a criminal 59587
records check regarding the individualapplicant in accordance 59588
with division (B)(E)(1) of this section not later than five 59589
business days after the individualapplicant begins conditional 59590
employment.59591

       (b)(2) A waiver agency that employs an individualapplicant59592
conditionally under authority of division (C)(2)(a)(F)(1) of this 59593
section shall terminate the individual'sapplicant's employment if 59594
the results of the criminal records check request under division 59595
(B) of this section, other than the results of any request for 59596
information from the federal bureau of investigation, are not 59597
obtained within the period ending sixty days after the date the 59598
request for the criminal records check is made. Regardless of when 59599
the results of the criminal records check are obtained, if the 59600
results indicate that the individualapplicant has been convicted 59601
of, has pleaded guilty to, or has been found eligible for 59602
intervention in lieu of conviction for any of the offenses listed 59603
or described in division (C)(1) of this sectiona disqualifying 59604
offense, the waiver agency shall terminate the individual's59605
applicant's employment unless circumstances specified in rules 59606
adopted under this section exist that permit the waiver agency to 59607
employ the applicant and the waiver agency chooses to employ the 59608
individual pursuant to division (F) of this sectionapplicant.59609

       (D)(1) The fee prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of 59610
section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each criminal records 59611
check conducted pursuant to a request made under division (B) of 59612
this section shall be paid to the bureau of criminal 59613
identification and investigation by the applicant or the waiver 59614
agency.59615

       (2) If a waiver agency pays the fee, it may charge the 59616
applicant a fee not exceeding the amount the agency pays under 59617
division (D)(1) of this section. An agency may collect a fee only 59618
if the agency notifies the person at the time of initial 59619
application for employment of the amount of the fee and that, 59620
unless the fee is paid, the person will not be considered for 59621
employment.59622

       (E)(G) The report of any criminal records check conducted 59623
pursuant to a request made under this section is not a public 59624
record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and 59625
shall not be made available to any person other than the 59626
following:59627

       (1) The individualapplicant or employee who is the subject 59628
of the criminal records check or the individual's representative 59629
of the applicant or employee;59630

       (2) The chief administrator of the waiver agency requesting59631
that requires the applicant or employee to request the criminal 59632
records check or the administrator's representative;59633

       (3) An administrator atThe director of job and family 59634
services and the staff of the department in the administration of 59635
the medicaid program;59636

       (4) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 59637
involved in a case dealing with aany of the following:59638

       (a) A denial of employment of the applicant or dealing with 59639
employmentemployee;59640

       (b) Employment or unemployment benefits of the applicant or 59641
employee;59642

       (c) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid 59643
program.59644

       (F)(H) The departmentdirector of job and family services59645
shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 59646
Code to implement this section. The59647

       (1) The rules may do the following:59648

       (a) Require employees to undergo database reviews and 59649
criminal records checks under this section;59650

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 59651
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, exempt one 59652
or more classes of employees from the requirements;59653

       (c) For the purpose of division (D)(7) of this section, 59654
specify other databases that are to be checked as part of a 59655
database review conducted under this section.59656

       (2) The rules shall specify all of the following:59657

       (a) The procedures for conducting a database review under 59658
this section;59659

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 59660
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, the times 59661
at which the database reviews and criminal records checks are to 59662
be conducted;59663

       (c) If the rules specify other databases to be checked as 59664
part of a database review, the circumstances under which a waiver 59665
agency is prohibited from employing an applicant or continuing to 59666
employ an employee who is found by the database review to be 59667
included in one or more of those databases;59668

       (d) The circumstances under which a waiver agency may employ 59669
a personan applicant or employee who hasis found by a criminal 59670
records check required by this section to have been convicted of, 59671
has pleaded guilty to, or has been found eligible for intervention 59672
in lieu of conviction for an offense listed or described in 59673
division (C)(1) of this sectiona disqualifying offense.59674

       (G) The chief administrator of a waiver agency shall inform 59675
each person, at the time of initial application for a position 59676
that involves providing home and community-based waiver services 59677
to a person with a disability, that the person is required to 59678
provide a set of fingerprint impressions and that a criminal 59679
records check is required to be conducted if the person comes 59680
under final consideration for employment.59681

       (H)(1) A person who, on September 26, 2003, is an employee of 59682
a waiver agency in a full-time, part-time, or temporary position 59683
that involves providing home and community-based waiver services 59684
to a person with disabilities shall comply with this section 59685
within sixty days after September 26, 2003, unless division (H)(2) 59686
of this section applies.59687

       (2) This section shall not apply to a person to whom all of 59688
the following apply:59689

       (a) On September 26, 2003, the person is an employee of a 59690
waiver agency in a full-time, part-time, or temporary position 59691
that involves providing home and community-based waiver services 59692
to a person with disabilities.59693

       (b) The person previously had been the subject of a criminal 59694
background check relating to that position;59695

       (c) The person has been continuously employed in that 59696
position since that criminal background check had been conducted.59697

       (I) The amendments made by ...B... to this section do not 59698
preclude the department of job and family services from taking 59699
action against a person for failure to comply with former division 59700
(H) of this section as that division existed on the day preceding 59701
the effective date of this amendment.59702

       Sec. 5111.034.  (A) As used in this section:59703

       (1) "Anniversary date" means the later of the effective date 59704
of the provider agreement relating to the independent provider or 59705
sixty days after September 26, 2003.59706

       (2) "Criminal"Applicant" means a person who has applied for 59707
a medicaid provider agreement to provide home and community-based 59708
services as an independent provider under a home and 59709
community-based medicaid waiver component administered by the 59710
department of job and family services.59711

       "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in section 59712
109.572 of the Revised Code.59713

       (3) "Department" includes a designee of the department of job 59714
and family services.59715

       (4) "Independent"Disqualifying offense" has the same meaning 59716
as in section 5111.032 of the Revised Code.59717

       "Independent provider" means a person who is submitting an 59718
application for a provider agreement or who has a medicaid59719
provider agreement to provide home and community-based services as 59720
an independent provider in a home and community-based services 59721
medicaid waiver component administered by the department of job 59722
and family services administered home and community-based services 59723
program providing home and community-based waiver services to 59724
consumers with disabilities.59725

       (5) "Home and community-based waiver services medicaid waiver 59726
component" has the same meaning as in section 5111.0335111.85 of 59727
the Revised Code.59728

       (B) The department of job and family services or the 59729
department's designee shall deny an applicant's application for a 59730
medicaid provider agreement and shall terminate an independent 59731
provider's medicaid provider agreement if either of the following 59732
applies:59733

       (1) After the applicant or independent provider is given the 59734
information and notification required by divisions (D)(2)(a) and 59735
(b) of this section, the applicant or independent provider fails 59736
to do either of the following:59737

       (a) Access, complete, or forward to the superintendent of the 59738
bureau of criminal identification and investigation the form 59739
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the 59740
Revised Code or the standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant 59741
to division (C)(2) of that section;59742

       (b) Instruct the superintendent to submit the completed 59743
report of the criminal records check required by this section 59744
directly to the department or the department's designee.59745

       (2) Except as provided in rules adopted under this section, 59746
the applicant or independent provider is found by a criminal 59747
records check required by this section to have been convicted of, 59748
pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu 59749
of conviction for a disqualifying offense, regardless of the date 59750
of the conviction, the date of entry of the guilty plea, or the 59751
date the applicant or independent provider was found eligible for 59752
intervention in lieu of conviction.59753

       (C)(1) The department of job and family servicesor the 59754
department's designee shall inform each independent provider59755
applicant, at the time of initial application for a medicaid59756
provider agreement that involves providing home and 59757
community-based waiver services to consumers with disabilities, 59758
that the independent providerapplicant is required to provide a 59759
set of the applicant's fingerprint impressions and that a criminal 59760
records check is required to be conducted if the person is to 59761
become an independent provider in adepartment administered home 59762
and community-based waiver programas a condition of the 59763
department's approving the application.59764

       (2) Beginning on September 26, 2003, the department or the 59765
department's designee shall inform each enrolled medicaid59766
independent provider on or before the time of the anniversary date 59767
of the medicaid provider agreement that involves providing home 59768
and community-based waiver services to consumers with disabilities59769
that the independent provider is required to provide a set of the 59770
independent provider's fingerprint impressions and that a criminal 59771
records check is required to be conducted.59772

       (C)(D)(1) The department or the department's designee shall 59773
require the independent provideran applicant to complete a 59774
criminal records check prior to entering into a medicaid provider 59775
agreement with the independent provider andapplicant. The 59776
department or the department's designee shall require an 59777
independent provider to complete a criminal records check at least 59778
annually thereafter. If an applicant or independent provider for 59779
whom a criminal records check is required under this divisionby 59780
this section does not present proof of having been a resident of 59781
this state for the five-year period immediately prior to the date 59782
the criminal records check is requested or provide evidence that 59783
within that five-year period the superintendent of the bureau of 59784
criminal identification and investigation has requested 59785
information about the applicant or independent provider from the 59786
federal bureau of investigation in a criminal records check, the 59787
department or the department's designee shall request that the 59788
applicant or independent provider obtain through the 59789
superintendent a criminal records request from the federal bureau 59790
of investigation as part of the criminal records check of the 59791
applicant or independent provider. Even if an applicant or59792
independent provider for whom a criminal records check request is 59793
required under this divisionby this section presents proof of 59794
having been a resident of this state for the five-year period, the 59795
department or the department's designee may request that the 59796
applicant or independent provider obtain information through the 59797
superintendent from the federal bureau of investigation in the 59798
criminal records check.59799

       (2) The department or the department's designee shall provide 59800
the following to each applicant and independent provider for whom 59801
a criminal records check request is required under division (C)(1) 59802
ofby this section:59803

       (a) Information about accessing, completing, and forwarding 59804
to the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 59805
investigation the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of 59806
section 109.572 of the Revised Code and the standard fingerprint59807
impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that 59808
section;59809

       (b) Written notification that the applicant or independent 59810
provider is to instruct the superintendent to submit the completed 59811
report of the criminal records check directly to the department or 59812
the department's designee.59813

       (3) An independent provider given information and 59814
notification under divisions (C)(2)(a) and (b) of this section who 59815
fails to access, complete, and forward to the superintendent the 59816
form or the standard fingerprint impression sheet, or who fails to 59817
instruct the superintendent to submit the completed report of the 59818
criminal records check directly to the department, shall not be 59819
approved as an independent provider.Each applicant and 59820
independent provider for whom a criminal records check is required 59821
by this section shall pay to the bureau of criminal identification 59822
and investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) 59823
of section 109.572 of the Revised Code for the criminal records 59824
check conducted of the applicant or independent provider.59825

       (D) Except as provided in rules adopted by the department in 59826
accordance with division (G) of this section, the department shall 59827
not issue a new provider agreement to, and shall terminate an 59828
existing provider agreement of, an independent provider if the 59829
person has been convicted of, has pleaded guilty to, or has been 59830
found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for any of 59831
the following, regardless of the date of the conviction, the date 59832
of entry of the guilty plea, or the date the person was found 59833
eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction:59834

       (1) A violation of section 959.13, 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 59835
2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.15, 2903.16, 59836
2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 59837
2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 59838
2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.24, 59839
2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2909.02, 59840
2909.03, 2909.04, 2909.05, 2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2911.01, 59841
2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 59842
2913.05, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 2913.40, 2913.41, 59843
2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 2913.441, 2913.45, 2913.46, 2913.47, 59844
2913.48, 2913.49, 2913.51, 2917.01, 2917.02, 2917.03, 2917.11, 59845
2917.31, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.23, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.03, 59846
2921.11, 2921.13, 2921.34, 2921.35, 2921.36, 2923.01, 2923.02, 59847
2923.03, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2923.32, 2925.02, 2925.03, 59848
2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.14, 2925.22, 59849
2925.23, 2927.12, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual 59850
penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised 59851
Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it 59852
existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of 59853
the Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 59854
2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, 59855
had the violation been committed prior to that date;59856

       (2) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance 59857
or law of this state, any other state, or the United States that 59858
is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in 59859
division (D)(1) of this section.59860

       (E) Each independent provider shall pay to the bureau of 59861
criminal identification and investigation the fee prescribed 59862
pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 59863
for each criminal records check conducted pursuant to a request 59864
made under division (C) of this section.59865

       (F)(E) The report of any criminal records check conducted by 59866
the bureau of criminal identification and investigation in 59867
accordance with section 109.572 of the Revised Code and pursuant 59868
to a request made under division (C) of this section is not a 59869
public record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised 59870
Code and shall not be made available to any person other than the 59871
following:59872

       (1) The person who is the subject of the criminal records 59873
check or the person's representative;59874

       (2) An administrator atThe director of job and family 59875
services and the staff of the department or the administrator's 59876
representativein the administration of the medicaid program;59877

       (3) The department's designee;59878

       (4) An individual who receives home and community-based 59879
services from the person who is the subject of the criminal 59880
records check;59881

       (5) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 59882
involved in a case dealing with aeither of the following:59883

       (a) A denial or termination of a provider agreement related 59884
to the criminal records check;59885

       (b) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid 59886
program.59887

       (G)(F) The departmentdirector of job and family services59888
shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 59889
Code to implement this section. The rules shall specify 59890
circumstances under which the department or the department's 59891
designee may either issue a provider agreement to an independent 59892
providerapprove an applicant's application or allow an 59893
independent provider to maintain an existing medicaid provider 59894
agreement wheneven though the applicant or independent provider 59895
hasis found by a criminal records check required by this section 59896
to have been convicted of, has pleaded guilty to, or has been 59897
found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for an 59898
offense listed or described in division (D)(1) or (2) of this 59899
sectiona disqualifying offense.59900

       Sec. 5111.06.  (A)(1) As used in this section and in sections 59901
5111.061 and 5111.063 of the Revised Code:59902

       (a) "Provider" means any person, institution, or entity that 59903
furnishes medicaid services under a provider agreement with the 59904
department of job and family services pursuant to Title XIX of the 59905
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as 59906
amended.59907

       (b) "Party" has the same meaning as in division (G) of 59908
section 119.01 of the Revised Code.59909

       (c) "Adjudication" has the same meaning as in division (D) of 59910
section 119.01 of the Revised Code.59911

       (2) This section does not apply to anyeither of the 59912
following:59913

       (a) Any action taken or decision made by the department of 59914
job and family services with respect to entering into or refusing 59915
to enter into a contract with a managed care organization pursuant 59916
to section 5111.17 of the Revised Code;59917

       (b) Any action taken by the department under sections 5111.16 59918
to 5111.177 or sections 5111.35 to 5111.62 of the Revised Code.59919

       (B) Except as provided in division (D) of this section and 59920
section 5111.914 of the Revised Code, the department shall do 59921
either of the following by issuing an order pursuant to an 59922
adjudication conducted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 59923
Revised Code:59924

       (1) Enter into or refuse to enter into a provider agreement 59925
with a provider, or suspend, terminate, renew, or refuse to renew 59926
an existing provider agreement with a provider;59927

       (2) Take any action based upon a final fiscal audit of a 59928
provider.59929

       (C) Any party who is adversely affected by the issuance of an 59930
adjudication order under division (B) of this section may appeal 59931
to the court of common pleas of Franklin county in accordance with 59932
section 119.12 of the Revised Code.59933

       (D) The department is not required to comply with division 59934
(B)(1) of this section whenever any of the following occur:59935

       (1) The terms of a provider agreement require the provider to 59936
hold a license, permit, or certificate or maintain a certification 59937
issued by an official, board, commission, department, division, 59938
bureau, or other agency of state or federal government other than 59939
the department of job and family services, and the license, 59940
permit, certificate, or certification has been denied, revoked, 59941
not renewed, suspended, or otherwise limited.59942

       (2) The terms of a provider agreement require the provider to 59943
hold a license, permit, or certificate or maintain certification 59944
issued by an official, board, commission, department, division, 59945
bureau, or other agency of state or federal government other than 59946
the department of job and family services, and the provider has 59947
not obtained the license, permit, certificate, or certification.59948

       (3) The provider agreement is denied, terminated, or not 59949
renewed due to the termination, refusal to renew, or denial of a 59950
license, permit, certificate, or certification by an official, 59951
board, commission, department, division, bureau, or other agency 59952
of this state other than the department of job and family 59953
services, notwithstanding the fact that the provider may hold a 59954
license, permit, certificate, or certification from an official, 59955
board, commission, department, division, bureau, or other agency 59956
of another state.59957

       (4) The provider agreement is denied, terminated, or not 59958
renewed pursuant to division (C) or (F) of section 5111.03 of the 59959
Revised Code.59960

       (5) The provider agreement is denied, terminated, or not 59961
renewed due to the provider's termination, suspension, or 59962
exclusion from the medicare program established under Title XVIII 59963
of the "Social Security Act" or from another state's medicaid 59964
program and, in either case, the termination, suspension, or 59965
exclusion is binding on the provider's participation in the 59966
medicaid program in this state.59967

       (6) The provider agreement is denied, terminated, or not 59968
renewed due to the provider's pleading guilty to or being 59969
convicted of a criminal activity materially related to either the 59970
medicare or medicaid program.59971

       (7) The provider agreement is denied, terminated, or 59972
suspended as a result of action by the United States department of 59973
health and human services and that action is binding on the 59974
provider's participation in the medicaid program.59975

       (8) Pursuant to either section 5111.031 or 5111.035 of the 59976
Revised Code, the provider agreement is suspended and payments to 59977
the provider are suspended pending indictment of the provider.59978

       (9) The provider agreement is denied, terminated, or not 59979
renewed because the provider or its owner, officer, authorized 59980
agent, associate, manager, or employee has been convicted of one 59981
of the offenses that caused the provider agreement to be suspended 59982
pursuant to section 5111.031 of the Revised Code.59983

       (10) The provider agreement is converted under section 59984
5111.028 of the Revised Code from a provider agreement that is not 59985
time-limited to a provider agreement that is time-limited.59986

       (11) The provider agreement is terminated or an application 59987
for re-enrollment is denied because the provider has failed to 59988
apply for re-enrollment within the time or in the manner specified 59989
for re-enrollment pursuant to section 5111.028 of the Revised 59990
Code.59991

       (12) The provider agreement is suspended or terminated, or an 59992
application for enrollment or re-enrollment is denied, for any 59993
reason authorized or required by one or more of the following: 42 59994
C.F.R. 455.106, 455.23, 455.416, 455.434, or 455.450.59995

       (13) The provider agreement is terminated or not renewed 59996
because the provider has not billed or otherwise submitted a 59997
medicaid claim to the department for two years or longer.59998

       (14) The provider agreement is denied, terminated, or not 59999
renewed because the provider fails to provide to the department 60000
the national provider identifier assigned the provider by the 60001
national provider system pursuant to 45 C.F.R. 162.408.60002

       In the case of a provider described in division (D)(13) or 60003
(14) of this section, the department may take its proposed action 60004
against a provider agreement by sending a notice explaining the 60005
proposed action to the provider. The notice shall be sent to the 60006
provider's address on record with the department. The notice may 60007
be sent by regular mail.60008

       (E) The department may withhold payments for services 60009
rendered by a medicaid provider under the medicaid program during 60010
the pendency of proceedings initiated under division (B)(1) of 60011
this section. If the proceedings are initiated under division 60012
(B)(2) of this section, the department may withhold payments only 60013
to the extent that they equal amounts determined in a final fiscal 60014
audit as being due the state. This division does not apply if the 60015
department fails to comply with section 119.07 of the Revised 60016
Code, requests a continuance of the hearing, or does not issue a 60017
decision within thirty days after the hearing is completed. This 60018
division does not apply to nursing facilities and intermediate 60019
care facilities for the mentally retarded as defined in section 60020
5111.20 of the Revised Code.60021

       Sec. 5111.091. Not later than the first day of each calendar 60022
quarterSemiannually, the director of job and family services 60023
shall submit a report to the president and minority leader of the 60024
senate, speaker and minority leader of the house of 60025
representatives, and the chairpersons of the standing committees 60026
of the senate and house of representatives that hear billswith 60027
primary responsibility for legislation making biennial 60028
appropriations a report on the establishment and implementation of 60029
programs designed to control the increase of the cost of the 60030
medicaid program, increase the efficiency of the medicaid program, 60031
and promote better health outcomes. In each calendar year, one 60032
report shall be submitted not later than the last day of June and 60033
the subsequent report shall be submitted not later than the last 60034
day of December.60035

       The report shall include information regarding all of the 60036
following:60037

       (A) Provider network management;60038

       (B) Electronic claims submission and payment systems;60039

       (C) Limited provider contracts and payments based on 60040
performance;60041

       (D) Efforts to enforce third party liability;60042

       (E) Implementation of the medicaid information technology 60043
system;60044

       (F) Expansion of the medicaid data warehouse and decision 60045
support system;60046

       (G) Development of infrastructure policies for electronic 60047
health records and e-prescribing.60048

       Sec. 5111.113.  (A) As used in this section:60049

       (1) "Adult care facility" has the same meaning as in section 60050
5119.70 of the Revised Code.60051

       (2) "Commissioner" means a person appointed by a probate 60052
court under division (E) of section 2113.03 of the Revised Code to 60053
act as a commissioner.60054

       (3)(2) "Home" has the same meaning as in section 3721.10 of 60055
the Revised Code.60056

       (4)(3) "Personal needs allowance account" means an account or 60057
petty cash fund that holds the money of a resident of an adult 60058
care facility or home and that the facility or home manages for 60059
the resident.60060

       (4) "Residential facility" means a residential facility 60061
licensed under section 5119.22 of the Revised Code that provides 60062
accommodations, supervision, and personal care services for three 60063
to sixteen unrelated adults.60064

       (B) Except as provided in divisions (C) and (D) of this 60065
section, the owner or operator of an adult care facility ora home 60066
or residential facility shall transfer to the department of job 60067
and family services the money in the personal needs allowance 60068
account of a resident of the facility or home or facility who was 60069
a recipient of the medical assistance program no earlier than 60070
sixty days but not later than ninety days after the resident dies. 60071
The adult care facility or home or facility shall transfer the 60072
money even though the owner or operator of the facility or home 60073
has not been issued letters testamentary or letters of 60074
administration concerning the resident's estate.60075

       (C) If funeral or burial expenses for a resident of an adult 60076
care facility ora home or residential facility who has died have 60077
not been paid and the only resource the resident had that could be 60078
used to pay for the expenses is the money in the resident's 60079
personal needs allowance account, or all other resources of the 60080
resident are inadequate to pay the full cost of the expenses, the 60081
money in the resident's personal needs allowance account shall be 60082
used to pay for the expenses rather than being transferred to the 60083
department of job and family services pursuant to division (B) of 60084
this section.60085

       (D) If, not later than sixty days after a resident of an 60086
adult care facility ora home or residential facility dies, 60087
letters testamentary or letters of administration are issued, or 60088
an application for release from administration is filed under 60089
section 2113.03 of the Revised Code, concerning the resident's 60090
estate, the owner or operator of the facility or home or facility60091
shall transfer the money in the resident's personal needs 60092
allowance account to the administrator, executor, commissioner, or 60093
person who filed the application for release from administration.60094

       (E) The transfer or use of money in a resident's personal 60095
needs allowance account in accordance with division (B), (C), or 60096
(D) of this section discharges and releases the adult care 60097
facility or home or residential facility, and the owner or 60098
operator of the facility or home, from any claim for the money 60099
from any source.60100

       (F) If, sixty-one or more days after a resident of an adult 60101
care facility ora home or residential facility dies, letters 60102
testamentary or letters of administration are issued, or an 60103
application for release from administration under section 2113.03 60104
of the Revised Code is filed, concerning the resident's estate, 60105
the department of job and family services shall transfer the funds 60106
to the administrator, executor, commissioner, or person who filed 60107
the application, unless the department is entitled to recover the 60108
money under the medicaid estate recovery program instituted under 60109
section 5111.11 of the Revised Code.60110

       Sec. 5111.171. (A) The department of job and family services 60111
may provide financial incentive awards to managed care 60112
organizations under contract with the department pursuant to 60113
section 5111.17 of the Revised Code that meet or exceed 60114
performance standards specified in provider agreements or rules 60115
adopted by the department. The department may specify in a 60116
contract with a managed care organization the amounts of financial 60117
incentive awards, methodology for distributing awards, types of 60118
awards, and standards for administration by the department.60119

       (B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the health 60120
care compliance fund. The fund shall consist of all fines imposed 60121
on and collected from managed care organizations for failure to 60122
meet performance standards or other requirements specified in 60123
provider agreements or rules adopted by the department. All 60124
investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund. 60125
Moneys credited to the fund shall be used solely for the following 60126
purposes:60127

       (1) To reimburse managed care organizations that have paid 60128
fines for failures to meet performance standards or other 60129
requirements and that have come into compliance by meeting 60130
requirements as specified by the department;60131

       (2) To provide financial incentive awards established 60132
pursuant to division (A) of this section and specified in 60133
contracts between managed care organizations and the department.60134

       Sec. 5111.20.  As used in sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the 60135
Revised Code:60136

       (A) "Allowable costs" are those costs determined by the 60137
department of job and family services to be reasonable and do not 60138
include fines paid under sections 5111.35 to 5111.61 and section 60139
5111.99 of the Revised Code.60140

       (B) "Ancillary and support costs" means all reasonable costs 60141
incurred by a nursing facility other than direct care costs, tax 60142
costs, or capital costs. "Ancillary and support costs" includes, 60143
but is not limited to, costs of activities, social services, 60144
pharmacy consultants, habilitation supervisors, qualified mental 60145
retardation professionals, program directors, medical and 60146
habilitation records, program supplies, incontinence supplies, 60147
food, enterals, dietary supplies and personnel, laundry, 60148
housekeeping, security, administration, medical equipment, 60149
utilities, liability insurance, bookkeeping, purchasing 60150
department, human resources, communications, travel, dues, license 60151
fees, subscriptions, home office costs not otherwise allocated, 60152
legal services, accounting services, minor equipment, wheelchairs, 60153
resident transportation, maintenance and repairs, help-wanted 60154
advertising, informational advertising, start-up costs, 60155
organizational expenses, other interest, property insurance, 60156
employee training and staff development, employee benefits, 60157
payroll taxes, and workers' compensation premiums or costs for 60158
self-insurance claims and related costs as specified in rules 60159
adopted by the director of job and family services under section 60160
5111.02 of the Revised Code, for personnel listed in this 60161
division. "Ancillary and support costs" also means the cost of 60162
equipment, including vehicles, acquired by operating lease 60163
executed before December 1, 1992, if the costs are reported as 60164
administrative and general costs on the facility's cost report for 60165
the cost reporting period ending December 31, 1992.60166

       (C) "Capital costs" means costs of ownership and, in the case 60167
of an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded, costs 60168
of nonextensive renovation.60169

       (1) "Cost of ownership" means the actual expense incurred for 60170
all of the following:60171

       (a) Depreciation and interest on any capital assets that cost 60172
five hundred dollars or more per item, including the following:60173

       (i) Buildings;60174

       (ii) Building improvements that are not approved as 60175
nonextensive renovations under section 5111.251 of the Revised 60176
Code;60177

       (iii) Except as provided in division (B) of this section, 60178
equipment;60179

       (iv) In the case of an intermediate care facility for the 60180
mentally retarded, extensive renovations;60181

       (v) Transportation equipment.60182

       (b) Amortization and interest on land improvements and 60183
leasehold improvements;60184

       (c) Amortization of financing costs;60185

       (d) Except as provided in division (K) of this section, lease 60186
and rent of land, building, and equipment.60187

       The costs of capital assets of less than five hundred dollars 60188
per item may be considered capital costs in accordance with a 60189
provider's practice.60190

       (2) "Costs of nonextensive renovation" means the actual 60191
expense incurred by an intermediate care facility for the mentally 60192
retarded for depreciation or amortization and interest on 60193
renovations that are not extensive renovations.60194

       (D) "Capital lease" and "operating lease" shall be construed 60195
in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles.60196

       (E) "Case-mix score" means the measure determined under 60197
section 5111.232 of the Revised Code of the relative direct-care 60198
resources needed to provide care and habilitation to a resident of 60199
a nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 60200
retarded.60201

       (F)(1) "Date of licensure," for a facility originally 60202
licensed as a nursing home under Chapter 3721. of the Revised 60203
Code, means the date specific beds were originally licensed as 60204
nursing home beds under that chapter, regardless of whether they 60205
were subsequently licensed as residential facility beds under 60206
section 5123.19 of the Revised Code. For a facility originally 60207
licensed as a residential facility under section 5123.19 of the 60208
Revised Code, "date of licensure" means the date specific beds 60209
were originally licensed as residential facility beds under that 60210
section.60211

        If nursing home beds licensed under Chapter 3721. of the 60212
Revised Code or residential facility beds licensed under section 60213
5123.19 of the Revised Code were not required by law to be 60214
licensed when they were originally used to provide nursing home or 60215
residential facility services, "date of licensure" means the date 60216
the beds first were used to provide nursing home or residential 60217
facility services, regardless of the date the present provider 60218
obtained licensure.60219

        If a facility adds nursing home beds or residential facility 60220
beds or extensively renovates all or part of the facility after 60221
its original date of licensure, it will have a different date of 60222
licensure for the additional beds or extensively renovated portion 60223
of the facility, unless the beds are added in a space that was 60224
constructed at the same time as the previously licensed beds but 60225
was not licensed under Chapter 3721. or section 5123.19 of the 60226
Revised Code at that time.60227

       (2) The definition of "date of licensure" in this section 60228
applies in determinations of the medicaid reimbursement rate for a 60229
nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 60230
retarded but does not apply in determinations of the franchise 60231
permit fee for a nursing facility or intermediate care facility 60232
for the mentally retarded.60233

       (G) "Desk-reviewed" means that costs as reported on a cost 60234
report submitted under section 5111.26 of the Revised Code have 60235
been subjected to a desk review under division (A) of section 60236
5111.27 of the Revised Code and preliminarily determined to be 60237
allowable costs.60238

       (H) "Direct care costs" means all of the following:60239

       (1)(a) Costs for registered nurses, licensed practical 60240
nurses, and nurse aides employed by the facility;60241

       (b) Costs for direct care staff, administrative nursing 60242
staff, medical directors, respiratory therapists, and except as 60243
provided in division (H)(2) of this section, other persons holding 60244
degrees qualifying them to provide therapy;60245

       (c) Costs of purchased nursing services;60246

       (d) Costs of quality assurance;60247

       (e) Costs of training and staff development, employee 60248
benefits, payroll taxes, and workers' compensation premiums or 60249
costs for self-insurance claims and related costs as specified in 60250
rules adopted by the director of job and family services in 60251
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, for personnel 60252
listed in divisions (H)(1)(a), (b), and (d) of this section;60253

       (f) Costs of consulting and management fees related to direct 60254
care;60255

       (g) Allocated direct care home office costs.60256

       (2) In addition to the costs specified in division (H)(1) of 60257
this section, for nursing facilities only, direct care costs 60258
include costs of habilitation staff (other than habilitation 60259
supervisors), medical supplies, oxygen, over-the-counter pharmacy 60260
products, behavioral and mental health services, physical 60261
therapists, physical therapy assistants, occupational therapists, 60262
occupational therapy assistants, speech therapists, audiologists, 60263
habilitation supplies, wheelchairs, resident transportation, and 60264
universal precautions supplies.60265

       (3) In addition to the costs specified in division (H)(1) of 60266
this section, for intermediate care facilities for the mentally 60267
retarded only, direct care costs include both of the following:60268

       (a) Costs for physical therapists and physical therapy 60269
assistants, occupational therapists and occupational therapy 60270
assistants, speech therapists, audiologists, habilitation staff 60271
(including habilitation supervisors), qualified mental retardation 60272
professionals, program directors, social services staff, 60273
activities staff, off-site day programming, psychologists and 60274
psychology assistants, and social workers and counselors;60275

       (b) Costs of training and staff development, employee 60276
benefits, payroll taxes, and workers' compensation premiums or 60277
costs for self-insurance claims and related costs as specified in 60278
rules adopted under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code, for 60279
personnel listed in division (H)(3)(a) of this section.60280

       (4) Costs of other direct-care resources that are specified 60281
as direct care costs in rules adopted under section 5111.02 of the 60282
Revised Code.60283

       (I) "Fiscal year" means the fiscal year of this state, as 60284
specified in section 9.34 of the Revised Code.60285

       (J) "Franchise permit fee" means the following:60286

       (1) In the context of nursing facilities, the fee imposed by 60287
sections 3721.50 to 3721.58 of the Revised Code;60288

       (2) In the context of intermediate care facilities for the 60289
mentally retarded, the fee imposed by sections 5112.30 to 5112.39 60290
of the Revised Code.60291

        (K) "Indirect care costs" means all reasonable costs incurred 60292
by an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded other 60293
than direct care costs, other protected costs, or capital costs. 60294
"Indirect care costs" includes but is not limited to costs of 60295
habilitation supplies, pharmacy consultants, medical and 60296
habilitation records, program supplies, incontinence supplies, 60297
food, enterals, dietary supplies and personnel, laundry, 60298
housekeeping, security, administration, liability insurance, 60299
bookkeeping, purchasing department, human resources, 60300
communications, travel, dues, license fees, subscriptions, home 60301
office costs not otherwise allocated, legal services, accounting 60302
services, minor equipment, maintenance and repairs, help-wanted 60303
advertising, informational advertising, start-up costs, 60304
organizational expenses, other interest, property insurance, 60305
employee training and staff development, employee benefits, 60306
payroll taxes, and workers' compensation premiums or costs for 60307
self-insurance claims and related costs as specified in rules 60308
adopted under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code, for personnel 60309
listed in this division. Notwithstanding division (C)(1) of this 60310
section, "indirect care costs" also means the cost of equipment, 60311
including vehicles, acquired by operating lease executed before 60312
December 1, 1992, if the costs are reported as administrative and 60313
general costs on the facility's cost report for the cost reporting 60314
period ending December 31, 1992.60315

       (L) "Inpatient days" means allthe following:60316

       (1) In the context of a nursing facility, both of the 60317
following:60318

       (a) All days during which a resident, regardless of payment 60319
source, occupies a bed in a nursing facility or intermediate care 60320
facility for the mentally retarded that is included in the 60321
nursing facility's certified capacity under Title XIX. Therapeutic 60322
or hospital leave;60323

       (b) Fifty per cent of the days for which payment is made 60324
under section 5111.33 or 5111.331 of the Revised Code are 60325
considered inpatient days proportionate to the percentage of the 60326
facility's per resident per day rate paid for those days.60327

       (2) In the context of an intermediate care facility for the 60328
mentally retarded, both of the following:60329

        (a) All days during which a resident, regardless of payment 60330
source, occupies a bed in an intermediate care facility for the 60331
mentally retarded that is included in the facility's certified 60332
capacity under Title XIX;60333

        (b) All days for which payment is made under section 5111.33 60334
of the Revised Code. 60335

       (M) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" 60336
means an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded 60337
certified as in compliance with applicable standards for the 60338
medicaid program by the director of health in accordance with 60339
Title XIX.60340

       (N) "Maintenance and repair expenses" means, except as 60341
provided in division (BB)(2) of this section, expenditures that 60342
are necessary and proper to maintain an asset in a normally 60343
efficient working condition and that do not extend the useful life 60344
of the asset two years or more. "Maintenance and repair expenses" 60345
includes but is not limited to the cost of ordinary repairs such 60346
as painting and wallpapering.60347

       (O) "Medicaid days" means allthe following:60348

       (1) In the context of a nursing facility, both of the 60349
following:60350

       (a) All days during which a resident who is a medicaid 60351
recipient eligible for nursing facility services occupies a bed in 60352
a nursing facility that is included in the nursing facility's 60353
certified capacity under Title XIX. Therapeutic or hospital leave;60354

       (b) Fifty per cent of the days for which payment is made 60355
under section 5111.33 or 5111.331 of the Revised Code are 60356
considered medicaid days proportionate to the percentage of the 60357
nursing facility's per resident per day rate paid for those days.60358

       (2) In the context of an intermediate care facility for the 60359
mentally retarded, both of the following:60360

        (a) All days during which a resident who is a medicaid 60361
recipient eligible for intermediate care facility for the mentally 60362
retarded services occupies a bed in an intermediate care facility 60363
for the mentally retarded that is included in the facility's 60364
certified capacity under Title XIX;60365

        (b) All days for which payment is made under section 5111.33 60366
of the Revised Code. 60367

        (P) "Nursing facility" means a facility, or a distinct part 60368
of a facility, that is certified as a nursing facility by the 60369
director of health in accordance with Title XIX and is not an 60370
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded. "Nursing 60371
facility" includes a facility, or a distinct part of a facility, 60372
that is certified as a nursing facility by the director of health 60373
in accordance with Title XIX and is certified as a skilled nursing 60374
facility by the director in accordance with Title XVIII.60375

       (Q) "Operator" means the person or government entity 60376
responsible for the daily operating and management decisions for a 60377
nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 60378
retarded.60379

       (R) "Other protected costs" means costs incurred by an 60380
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded for medical 60381
supplies; real estate, franchise, and property taxes; natural gas, 60382
fuel oil, water, electricity, sewage, and refuse and hazardous 60383
medical waste collection; allocated other protected home office 60384
costs; and any additional costs defined as other protected costs 60385
in rules adopted under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code.60386

       (S)(1) "Owner" means any person or government entity that has 60387
at least five per cent ownership or interest, either directly, 60388
indirectly, or in any combination, in any of the following 60389
regarding a nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the 60390
mentally retarded:60391

       (a) The land on which the facility is located;60392

       (b) The structure in which the facility is located;60393

       (c) Any mortgage, contract for deed, or other obligation 60394
secured in whole or in part by the land or structure on or in 60395
which the facility is located;60396

       (d) Any lease or sublease of the land or structure on or in 60397
which the facility is located.60398

       (2) "Owner" does not mean a holder of a debenture or bond 60399
related to the nursing facility or intermediate care facility for 60400
the mentally retarded and purchased at public issue or a regulated 60401
lender that has made a loan related to the facility unless the 60402
holder or lender operates the facility directly or through a 60403
subsidiary.60404

       (T) "Patient" includes "resident."60405

       (U) Except as provided in divisions (U)(1) and (2) of this 60406
section, "per diem" means a nursing facility's or intermediate 60407
care facility for the mentally retarded's actual, allowable costs 60408
in a given cost center in a cost reporting period, divided by the 60409
facility's inpatient days for that cost reporting period.60410

       (1) When calculating indirect care costs for the purpose of 60411
establishing rates under section 5111.241 of the Revised Code, 60412
"per diem" means an intermediate care facility for the mentally 60413
retarded's actual, allowable indirect care costs in a cost 60414
reporting period divided by the greater of the facility's 60415
inpatient days for that period or the number of inpatient days the 60416
facility would have had during that period if its occupancy rate 60417
had been eighty-five per cent.60418

       (2) When calculating capital costs for the purpose of 60419
establishing rates under section 5111.251 of the Revised Code, 60420
"per diem" means a facility's actual, allowable capital costs in a 60421
cost reporting period divided by the greater of the facility's 60422
inpatient days for that period or the number of inpatient days the 60423
facility would have had during that period if its occupancy rate 60424
had been ninety-five per cent.60425

       (V) "Provider" means an operator with a provider agreement.60426

       (W) "Provider agreement" means a contract between the 60427
department of job and family services and the operator of a 60428
nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 60429
retarded for the provision of nursing facility services or 60430
intermediate care facility services for the mentally retarded 60431
under the medicaid program.60432

       (X) "Purchased nursing services" means services that are 60433
provided in a nursing facility by registered nurses, licensed 60434
practical nurses, or nurse aides who are not employees of the 60435
facility.60436

       (Y) "Reasonable" means that a cost is an actual cost that is 60437
appropriate and helpful to develop and maintain the operation of 60438
patient care facilities and activities, including normal standby 60439
costs, and that does not exceed what a prudent buyer pays for a 60440
given item or services. Reasonable costs may vary from provider to 60441
provider and from time to time for the same provider.60442

       (Z) "Related party" means an individual or organization that, 60443
to a significant extent, has common ownership with, is associated 60444
or affiliated with, has control of, or is controlled by, the 60445
provider.60446

       (1) An individual who is a relative of an owner is a related 60447
party.60448

       (2) Common ownership exists when an individual or individuals 60449
possess significant ownership or equity in both the provider and 60450
the other organization. Significant ownership or equity exists 60451
when an individual or individuals possess five per cent ownership 60452
or equity in both the provider and a supplier. Significant 60453
ownership or equity is presumed to exist when an individual or 60454
individuals possess ten per cent ownership or equity in both the 60455
provider and another organization from which the provider 60456
purchases or leases real property.60457

       (3) Control exists when an individual or organization has the 60458
power, directly or indirectly, to significantly influence or 60459
direct the actions or policies of an organization.60460

       (4) An individual or organization that supplies goods or 60461
services to a provider shall not be considered a related party if 60462
all of the following conditions are met:60463

       (a) The supplier is a separate bona fide organization.60464

       (b) A substantial part of the supplier's business activity of 60465
the type carried on with the provider is transacted with others 60466
than the provider and there is an open, competitive market for the 60467
types of goods or services the supplier furnishes.60468

       (c) The types of goods or services are commonly obtained by 60469
other nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities for the 60470
mentally retarded from outside organizations and are not a basic 60471
element of patient care ordinarily furnished directly to patients 60472
by the facilities.60473

       (d) The charge to the provider is in line with the charge for 60474
the goods or services in the open market and no more than the 60475
charge made under comparable circumstances to others by the 60476
supplier.60477

       (AA) "Relative of owner" means an individual who is related 60478
to an owner of a nursing facility or intermediate care facility 60479
for the mentally retarded by one of the following relationships:60480

       (1) Spouse;60481

       (2) Natural parent, child, or sibling;60482

       (3) Adopted parent, child, or sibling;60483

       (4) Stepparent, stepchild, stepbrother, or stepsister;60484

       (5) Father-in-law, mother-in-law, son-in-law, 60485
daughter-in-law, brother-in-law, or sister-in-law;60486

       (6) Grandparent or grandchild;60487

       (7) Foster caregiver, foster child, foster brother, or foster 60488
sister.60489

       (BB) "Renovation" and "extensive renovation" mean:60490

       (1) Any betterment, improvement, or restoration of an 60491
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded started 60492
before July 1, 1993, that meets the definition of a renovation or 60493
extensive renovation established in rules adopted by the director 60494
of job and family services in effect on December 22, 1992.60495

       (2) In the case of betterments, improvements, and 60496
restorations of intermediate care facilities for the mentally 60497
retarded started on or after July 1, 1993:60498

       (a) "Renovation" means the betterment, improvement, or 60499
restoration of an intermediate care facility for the mentally 60500
retarded beyond its current functional capacity through a 60501
structural change that costs at least five hundred dollars per 60502
bed. A renovation may include betterment, improvement, 60503
restoration, or replacement of assets that are affixed to the 60504
building and have a useful life of at least five years. A 60505
renovation may include costs that otherwise would be considered 60506
maintenance and repair expenses if they are an integral part of 60507
the structural change that makes up the renovation project. 60508
"Renovation" does not mean construction of additional space for 60509
beds that will be added to a facility's licensed or certified 60510
capacity.60511

       (b) "Extensive renovation" means a renovation that costs more 60512
than sixty-five per cent and no more than eighty-five per cent of 60513
the cost of constructing a new bed and that extends the useful 60514
life of the assets for at least ten years.60515

       For the purposes of division (BB)(2) of this section, the 60516
cost of constructing a new bed shall be considered to be forty 60517
thousand dollars, adjusted for the estimated rate of inflation 60518
from January 1, 1993, to the end of the calendar year during which 60519
the renovation is completed, using the consumer price index for 60520
shelter costs for all urban consumers for the north central 60521
region, as published by the United States bureau of labor 60522
statistics.60523

       The department of job and family services may treat a 60524
renovation that costs more than eighty-five per cent of the cost 60525
of constructing new beds as an extensive renovation if the 60526
department determines that the renovation is more prudent than 60527
construction of new beds.60528

       (CC) "Tax costs" means the costs of taxes imposed under 60529
Chapter 5751. of the Revised Code, real estate taxes, personal 60530
property taxes, and corporate franchise taxes.60531

       (DD) "Title XIX" means Title XIX of the "Social Security 60532
Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396, as amended.60533

       (DD)(EE) "Title XVIII" means Title XVIII of the "Social 60534
Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1395, as amended.60535

       Sec. 5111.222.  (A) Except as otherwise provided by sections 60536
5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised Code and by division (B) of 60537
this section, the total rate that the department of job and family 60538
services shall agree to pay for a fiscal year to the provider of a 60539
nursing facility pursuant to a provider agreement shall equal the 60540
sum of all of the following:60541

        (1) The rate for direct care costs determined for the nursing 60542
facility under section 5111.231 of the Revised Code;60543

        (2) The rate for ancillary and support costs determined for 60544
the nursing facility's ancillary and support cost peer group under 60545
section 5111.24 of the Revised Code;60546

        (3) The rate for tax costs determined for the nursing 60547
facility under section 5111.242 of the Revised Code;60548

        (4) The quality incentive payment paid to the nursing 60549
facility under section 5111.244 of the Revised Code;60550

        (5) If the nursing facility qualifies as a critical access 60551
nursing facility, the critical access incentive payment paid to 60552
the nursing facility under section 5111.246 of the Revised Code;60553

       (6) The rate for capital costs determined for the nursing 60554
facility's capital costs peer group under section 5111.25 of the 60555
Revised Code.60556

        (B) The department shall adjust the rates otherwise 60557
determined under division (A) of this section as directed by the 60558
general assembly through the enactment of law governing medicaid 60559
payments to providers of nursing facilities, including any law 60560
that establishes factors by which the rates are to be adjusted.60561

       (C) In addition to paying a nursing facility provider the 60562
total rate determined for the nursing facility under division (A) 60563
of this section for a fiscal year, the department shall pay the 60564
provider a quality bonus under section 5111.245 of the Revised 60565
Code for that fiscal year if the provider's nursing facility is a 60566
qualifying nursing facility, as defined in that section, for that 60567
fiscal year. The quality bonus shall not be part of the total 60568
rate.60569

       Sec. 5111.23.  (A) The department of job and family services 60570
shall pay a provider for each of the provider's eligible 60571
intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded a per 60572
resident per day rate for direct care costs established 60573
prospectively for each facility. The department shall establish 60574
each facility's rate for direct care costs quarterly.60575

       (B) Each facility's rate for direct care costs shall be based 60576
on the facility's cost per case-mix unit, subject to the maximum 60577
costs per case-mix unit established under division (B)(2) of this 60578
section, from the calendar year preceding the fiscal year in which 60579
the rate is paid. To determine the rate, the department shall do 60580
all of the following:60581

       (1) Determine each facility's cost per case-mix unit for the 60582
calendar year preceding the fiscal year in which the rate will be 60583
paid by dividing the facility's desk-reviewed, actual, allowable, 60584
per diem direct care costs for that year by its average case-mix 60585
score determined under section 5111.232 of the Revised Code for 60586
the same calendar year.60587

       (2)(a) Set the maximum cost per case-mix unit for each peer 60588
group of intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded 60589
with more than eight beds specified in rules adopted under 60590
division (F) of this section at a percentage above the cost per 60591
case-mix unit of the facility in the group that has the group's 60592
median medicaid inpatient day for the calendar year preceding the 60593
fiscal year in which the rate will be paid, as calculated under 60594
division (B)(1) of this section, that is no less than the 60595
percentage calculated under division (E)(2) of this section.60596

       (b) Set the maximum cost per case-mix unit for each peer 60597
group of intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded 60598
with eight or fewer beds specified in rules adopted under division 60599
(F) of this section at a percentage above the cost per case-mix 60600
unit of the facility in the group that has the group's median 60601
medicaid inpatient day for the calendar year preceding the fiscal 60602
year in which the rate will be paid, as calculated under division 60603
(B)(1) of this section, that is no less than the percentage 60604
calculated under division (E)(3) of this section.60605

       (c) In calculating the maximum cost per case-mix unit under 60606
divisions (B)(2)(a) and (b) of this section for each peer group, 60607
the department shall exclude from its calculations the cost per 60608
case-mix unit of any facility in the group that participated in 60609
the medicaid program under the same operator for less than twelve 60610
months during the calendar year preceding the fiscal year in which 60611
the rate will be paid.60612

       (3) Estimate the rate of inflation for the eighteen-month 60613
period beginning on the first day of July of the calendar year 60614
preceding the fiscal year in which the rate will be paid and 60615
ending on the thirty-first day of December of the fiscal year in 60616
which the rate will be paid, using the index specified in division 60617
(C) of this section. If the estimated inflation rate for the 60618
eighteen-month period is different from the actual inflation rate 60619
for that period, as measured using the same index, the difference 60620
shall be added to or subtracted from the inflation rate estimated 60621
under division (B)(3) of this section for the following fiscal 60622
year.60623

       (4) The department shall not recalculate a maximum cost per 60624
case-mix unit under division (B)(2) of this section or a 60625
percentage under division (E) of this section based on additional 60626
information that it receives after the maximum costs per case-mix 60627
unit or percentages are set. The department shall recalculate a 60628
maximum cost per case-mix units or percentage only if it made an 60629
error in computing the maximum cost per case-mix unit or 60630
percentage based on information available at the time of the 60631
original calculation.60632

       (C) The department shall use the following index for the 60633
purpose of division (B)(3) of this section:60634

       (1) The employment cost index for total compensation, health 60635
services component, published by the United States bureau of labor 60636
statistics;60637

       (2) If the United States bureau of labor statistics ceases to 60638
publish the index specified in division (C)(1) of this section, 60639
the index that is subsequently published by the bureau and covers 60640
nursing facilities' staff costs.60641

       (D) Each facility's rate for direct care costs shall be 60642
determined as follows for each calendar quarter within a fiscal 60643
year:60644

       (1) Multiply the lesser of the following by the facility's 60645
average case-mix score determined under section 5111.232 of the 60646
Revised Code for the calendar quarter that preceded the 60647
immediately preceding calendar quarter:60648

       (a) The facility's cost per case-mix unit for the calendar 60649
year preceding the fiscal year in which the rate will be paid, as 60650
determined under division (B)(1) of this section;60651

       (b) The maximum cost per case-mix unit established for the 60652
fiscal year in which the rate will be paid for the facility's peer 60653
group under division (B)(2) of this section;60654

       (2) Adjust the product determined under division (D)(1) of 60655
this section by the inflation rate estimated under division (B)(3) 60656
of this section.60657

       (E)(1) The department shall calculate the percentage above 60658
the median cost per case-mix unit determined under division (B)(1) 60659
of this section for the facility that has the median medicaid 60660
inpatient day for calendar year 1992 for all intermediate care 60661
facilities for the mentally retarded with more than eight beds 60662
that would result in payment of all desk-reviewed, actual, 60663
allowable direct care costs for eighty and one-half per cent of 60664
the medicaid inpatient days for such facilities for calendar year 60665
1992.60666

       (2) The department shall calculate the percentage above the 60667
median cost per case-mix unit determined under division (B)(1) of 60668
this section for the facility that has the median medicaid 60669
inpatient day for calendar year 1992 for all intermediate care 60670
facilities for the mentally retarded with eight or fewer beds that 60671
would result in payment of all desk-reviewed, actual, allowable 60672
direct care costs for eighty and one-half per cent of the medicaid 60673
inpatient days for such facilities for calendar year 1992.60674

       (F) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 60675
under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code that specify peer groups 60676
of intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded with 60677
more than eight beds and intermediate care facilities for the 60678
mentally retarded with eight or fewer beds, based on findings of 60679
significant per diem direct care cost differences due to geography 60680
and facility bed-size. The rules also may specify peer groups 60681
based on findings of significant per diem direct care cost 60682
differences due to other factors which may include case-mix.60683

       (G) The department, in accordance with division (D) of 60684
section 5111.232 of the Revised Code and rules adopted under 60685
division (F) of that section, may assign case-mix scores or costs 60686
per case-mix unit if a provider fails to submit assessment data 60687
necessary to calculate an intermediate care facility for the 60688
mentally retarded's case-mix score in accordance with that 60689
section.60690

       Sec. 5111.242. (A) As used in this section:60691

       (1) "Applicable, "applicable calendar year" means the 60692
following:60693

        (a)(1) For the purpose of the department of job and family 60694
services' initial determination under this section of nursing 60695
facilities' rate for tax costs, calendar year 2003;60696

       (b)(2) For the purpose of the department's subsequent 60697
determinations under division (C) of this section of nursing 60698
facilities' rate for tax costs, the calendar year the department 60699
selects.60700

       (2) "Tax costs" means the costs of taxes imposed under 60701
Chapter 5751. of the Revised Code, real estate taxes, personal 60702
property taxes, and corporate franchise taxes.60703

        (B) The department of job and family services shall pay a 60704
provider for each of the provider's eligible nursing facilities a 60705
per resident per day rate for tax costs determined under division 60706
(C) of this section.60707

        (C) At least once every ten years, the department shall 60708
determine the rate for tax costs for each nursing facility. The 60709
rate for tax costs determined under this division for a nursing 60710
facility shall be used for subsequent years until the department 60711
redetermines it. To determine a nursing facility's rate for tax 60712
costs and except as provided in division (D) of this section, the 60713
department shall divide the nursing facility's desk-reviewed, 60714
actual, allowable tax costs paid for the applicable calendar year 60715
by the number of inpatient days the nursing facility would have 60716
had if its occupancy rate had been one hundred per cent during the 60717
applicable calendar year.60718

       (D) If a nursing facility had a credit regarding its real 60719
estate taxes reflected on its cost report for calendar year 2003, 60720
the department shall determine its rate for tax costs for the 60721
period beginning on July 1, 2010, and ending on the first day of 60722
the fiscal year for which the department first redetermines all 60723
nursing facilities' rate for tax costs under division (C) of this 60724
section by dividing the nursing facility's desk-reviewed, actual, 60725
allowable tax costs paid for calendar year 2004 by the number of 60726
inpatient days the nursing facility would have had if its 60727
occupancy rate had been one hundred per cent during calendar year 60728
2004.60729

       Sec. 5111.246.  (A) Each fiscal year, the department of job 60730
and family services shall pay a critical access incentive payment 60731
to the provider of each nursing facility that qualifies as a 60732
critical access nursing facility. To qualify as a critical access 60733
nursing facility for a fiscal year, a nursing facility must meet 60734
all of the following requirements:60735

       (1) The nursing facility must be located in an area that, on 60736
December 31, 2011, was designated an empowerment zone under 60737
section 1391 of the "Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 107 Stat. 60738
543, 26 U.S.C. 1391, as amended.60739

       (2) The nursing facility must have an occupancy rate of at 60740
least eighty-five per cent as of the last day of the calendar year 60741
preceding the fiscal year.60742

       (3) The nursing facility must have a medicaid utilization 60743
rate of at least sixty-five per cent as of the last day of the 60744
calendar year preceding the fiscal year.60745

       (B) A critical access nursing facility's critical access 60746
incentive payment for a fiscal year shall equal five per cent of 60747
the portion of the nursing facility's total rate for the fiscal 60748
year that is the sum of the rates and payment identified in 60749
divisions (A)(1) to (4) and (6) of section 5111.222 of the Revised 60750
Code.60751

       Sec. 5111.254.  (A) The department of job and family services 60752
shall establish initial rates for a nursing facility with a first 60753
date of licensure that is on or after July 1, 2006, including a 60754
facility that replaces one or more existing facilities, or for a 60755
nursing facility with a first date of licensure before that date 60756
that was initially certified for the medicaid program on or after 60757
that date, in the following manner:60758

       (1) The rate for direct care costs shall be the product of 60759
the cost per case-mix unit determined under division (D) of 60760
section 5111.231 of the Revised Code for the facility's peer group 60761
and the nursing facility's case-mix score. For the purpose of 60762
division (A)(1) of this section, the nursing facility's case-mix 60763
score shall be the following:60764

        (a) Unless the nursing facility replaces an existing nursing 60765
facility that participated in the medicaid program immediately 60766
before the replacement nursing facility begins participating in 60767
the medicaid program, the median annual average case-mix score for 60768
the nursing facility's peer group;60769

        (b) If the nursing facility replaces an existing nursing 60770
facility that participated in the medicaid program immediately 60771
before the replacement nursing facility begins participating in 60772
the medicaid program, the semiannual case-mix score most recently 60773
determined under section 5111.232 of the Revised Code for the 60774
replaced nursing facility as adjusted, if necessary, to reflect 60775
any difference in the number of beds in the replaced and 60776
replacement nursing facilities.60777

       (2) The rate for ancillary and support costs shall be the 60778
rate for the facility's peer group determined under division (D) 60779
of section 5111.24 of the Revised Code.60780

       (3) The rate for capital costs shall be the rate for the 60781
facility's peer group determined under division (D) of section 60782
5111.25 of the Revised Code.60783

       (4) The rate for tax costs as defined in section 5111.242 of 60784
the Revised Code shall be the median rate for tax costs for the 60785
facility's peer group in which the facility is placed under 60786
division (C) of section 5111.24 of the Revised Code.60787

       (5) The quality incentive payment shall be the mean payment 60788
made to nursing facilities under section 5111.244 of the Revised 60789
Code.60790

       (B) Subject to division (C) of this section, the department 60791
shall adjust the rates established under division (A) of this 60792
section effective the first day of July, to reflect new rate 60793
calculations for all nursing facilities under sections 5111.20 to 60794
5111.331 of the Revised Code.60795

       (C) If a rate for direct care costs is determined under this 60796
section for a nursing facility using the median annual average 60797
case-mix score for the nursing facility's peer group, the rate 60798
shall be redetermined to reflect the replacement nursing 60799
facility's actual semiannual case-mix score determined under 60800
section 5111.232 of the Revised Code after the nursing facility 60801
submits its first two quarterly assessment data that qualify for 60802
use in calculating a case-mix score in accordance with rules 60803
authorized by division (E) of section 5111.232 of the Revised 60804
Code. If the nursing facility's quarterly submissions do not 60805
qualify for use in calculating a case-mix score, the department 60806
shall continue to use the median annual average case-mix score for 60807
the nursing facility's peer group in lieu of the nursing 60808
facility's semiannual case-mix score until the nursing facility 60809
submits two consecutive quarterly assessment data that qualify for 60810
use in calculating a case-mix score.60811

       Sec. 5111.862.  (A) As used in this section:60812

       "Hospital long-term care unit" has the same meaning as in 60813
section 3721.50 of the Revised Code.60814

       "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 5111.20 60815
of the Revised Code.60816

       "Ohio home care program" means the medicaid waiver component 60817
created under section 5111.861 of the Revised Code.60818

       "Residential treatment facility" means a residential facility 60819
licensed by the department of mental health under section 5119.22 60820
of the Revised Code, or an institution certified by the department 60821
of job and family services under section 5103.03 of the Revised 60822
Code, that serves children and either has more than sixteen beds 60823
or is part of a campus of multiple facilities or institutions60824
that, combined, have a total of more than sixteen beds.60825

       (B) Subject to division (C) of section 5111.861 of the 60826
Revised Code, the department of job and family services shall 60827
establish a home first component for the Ohio home care program. 60828
An individual is eligible for the Ohio home care program's home 60829
first component if the individual has been determined to be 60830
eligible for the Ohio home care program and at least one of the 60831
following applies:60832

       (1) If the individual is under twenty-one years of age, the 60833
individual received inpatient hospital services for at least 60834
fourteen consecutive days, or had at least three inpatient 60835
hospital stays during the twelve months, immediately preceding the 60836
date the individual applies for the Ohio home care program.60837

       (2) If the individual is at least twenty-one but less than 60838
sixty years of age, the individual received inpatient hospital 60839
services for at least fourteen consecutive days immediately 60840
preceding the date the individual applies for the Ohio home care 60841
program.60842

       (3) The individual received private duty nursing services 60843
under the medicaid program for at least twelve consecutive months 60844
immediately preceding the date the individual applies for the Ohio 60845
home care program.60846

       (4) The individual does not reside in a nursing facility or 60847
hospital long-term care unit at the time the individual applies 60848
for the Ohio home care program but is at risk of imminent 60849
admission to a nursing facility or hospital long-term care unit 60850
due to a documented loss of a primary caregiver.60851

       (5) The individual resides in a nursing facility at the time 60852
the individual applies for the Ohio home care program.60853

       (6) At the time the individual applies for the Ohio home care 60854
program, the individual participates in the money follows the 60855
person demonstration project authorized by section 6071 of the 60856
"Deficit Reduction Act of 2005," Pub. L. No. 109-171, as amended, 60857
and either resides in a residential treatment facility or 60858
inpatient hospital setting.60859

       (C) An individual determined to be eligible for the home 60860
first component of the Ohio home care program shall be enrolled in 60861
the Ohio home care program in accordance with rules adopted under 60862
section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.60863

       Sec. 5111.874.  (A) As used in sections 5111.874 to 5111.8710 60864
of the Revised Code:60865

       "Home and community-based services" has the same meaning as 60866
in section 5123.01 of the Revised Code.60867

       "ICF/MR services" means intermediate care facility for the 60868
mentally retarded services covered by the medicaid program that an 60869
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded provides to a 60870
resident of the facility who is a medicaid recipient eligible for 60871
medicaid-covered intermediate care facility for the mentally 60872
retarded services.60873

       "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" means 60874
an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded that is 60875
certified as in compliance with applicable standards for the 60876
medicaid program by the director of health in accordance with 60877
Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 60878
U.S.C. 1396, as amended, and licensed as a residential facility 60879
under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code.60880

       "Residential facility" has the same meaning as in section 60881
5123.19 of the Revised Code.60882

       (B) For the purpose of increasing the number of slots 60883
available for home and community-based services and subject to 60884
sections 5111.877 and 5111.878 of the Revised Code, the operator 60885
of an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded may 60886
convert some or all of the beds in the facility from providing 60887
ICF/MR services to providing home and community-based services if 60888
all of the following requirements are met:60889

       (1) The operator provides the directors of health, job and 60890
family services, and developmental disabilities at least ninety 60891
days' notice of the operator's intent to make the conversion.60892

       (2) The operator complies with the requirements of sections 60893
5111.65 to 5111.689 of the Revised Code regarding a voluntary 60894
termination as defined in section 5111.65 of the Revised Code if 60895
those requirements are applicable.60896

       (3) If the operator intends to convert all of the facility's 60897
beds, the operator notifies each of the facility's residents that 60898
the facility is to cease providing ICF/MR services and inform each 60899
resident that the resident may do either of the following:60900

       (a) Continue to receive ICF/MR services by transferring to 60901
another facility that is an intermediate care facility for the 60902
mentally retarded willing and able to accept the resident if the 60903
resident continues to qualify for ICF/MR services;60904

       (b) Begin to receive home and community-based services 60905
instead of ICF/MR services from any provider of home and 60906
community-based services that is willing and able to provide the 60907
services to the resident if the resident is eligible for the 60908
services and a slot for the services is available to the resident.60909

       (4) If the operator intends to convert some but not all of 60910
the facility's beds, the operator notifies each of the facility's 60911
residents that the facility is to convert some of its beds from 60912
providing ICF/MR services to providing home and community-based 60913
services and inform each resident that the resident may do either 60914
of the following:60915

       (a) Continue to receive ICF/MR services from any provider of 60916
ICF/MR services that is willing and able to provide the services 60917
to the resident if the resident continues to qualify for ICF/MR 60918
services;60919

       (b) Begin to receive home and community-based services 60920
instead of ICF/MR services from any provider of home and 60921
community-based services that is willing and able to provide the 60922
services to the resident if the resident is eligible for the 60923
services and a slot for the services is available to the resident.60924

       (5) The operator meets the requirements for providing home 60925
and community-based services, including the following:60926

       (a) Such requirements applicable to a residential facility if 60927
the operator maintains the facility's license as a residential 60928
facility;60929

       (b) Such requirements applicable to a facility that is not 60930
licensed as a residential facility if the operator surrenders the 60931
facility's license as a residential facility license under section 60932
5123.19 of the Revised Code.60933

       (6) The directorsdirector of developmental disabilities and 60934
job and family services approveapproves the conversion.60935

       (C) A decision by the directorsdirector of developmental 60936
disabilities to approve or refuse to approve a proposed conversion 60937
of beds is final. In making a decision, the directorsdirector60938
shall consider all of the following:60939

       (1) The fiscal impact on the facility if some but not all of 60940
the beds are converted;60941

       (2) The fiscal impact on the medical assistance program;60942

       (3) The availability of home and community-based services.60943

       (D) The notice provided to the directors under division 60944
(B)(1) of this section shall specify whether some or all of the 60945
facility's beds are to be converted. If some but not all of the 60946
beds are to be converted, the notice shall specify how many of the 60947
facility's beds are to be converted and how many of the beds are 60948
to continue to provide ICF/MR services. The notice to the director 60949
of developmental disabilities shall specify whether the operator 60950
wishes to surrender the facility's license as a residential 60951
facility under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code.60952

       (E)(1) If the directorsdirector of developmental 60953
disabilities and job and family services approveapproves a 60954
conversion under division (C) of this section, the director of 60955
health shall do the following:60956

       (a) Terminate the certification of the intermediate care 60957
facility for the mentally retarded if the notice specifies that 60958
all of the facility's beds are to be converted;60959

       (b) Reduce the facility's certified capacity by the number of 60960
beds being converted if the notice specifies that some but not all 60961
of the beds are to be converted. 60962

       (2) The director of health shall notify the director of job 60963
and family services of the termination or reduction. On receipt of 60964
the director of health's notice, the director of job and family 60965
services shall do the following:60966

       (a) Terminate the operator's medicaid provider agreement that 60967
authorizes the operator to provide ICF/MR services at the facility 60968
if the facility's certification was terminated;60969

       (b) Amend the operator's medicaid provider agreement to 60970
reflect the facility's reduced certified capacity if the 60971
facility's certified capacity is reduced. 60972

       (3) In the case of action taken under division (E)(2)(a) of 60973
this section, the operator is not entitled to notice or a hearing 60974
under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code before the director of job 60975
and family services terminates the medicaid provider agreement.60976

       Sec. 5111.877. The director of job and family services may 60977
seek approval from the United States secretary of health and human 60978
services for not more than a total of twofive hundred slots for 60979
home and community-based services for the purposes of sections 60980
5111.874, 5111.875, and 5111.876 of the Revised Code.60981

       Sec. 5111.878. Not more than a total of onefive hundred beds 60982
may be converted from providing ICF/MR services to providing home 60983
and community-based services under sections 5111.874 and 5111.875 60984
of the Revised Code.60985

       Sec. 5111.894.  (A) Subject to division (C)(2) of section 60986
5111.89 of the Revised Code, the department of aging shall 60987
establish a home first component of the assisted living program 60988
under which eligible individuals may be enrolled in the 60989
medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program in 60990
accordance with this section. An individual is eligible for the 60991
assisted living program's home first component if both of the 60992
following apply:60993

       (1) The individual has been determined to be eligible for the 60994
medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program.60995

       (2) At least one of the following applies:60996

       (a) The individual has been admitted to a nursing facility.60997

       (b) A physician has determined and documented in writing that 60998
the individual has a medical condition that, unless the individual 60999
is enrolled in home and community-based services such as the 61000
assisted living program, will require the individual to be 61001
admitted to a nursing facility within thirty days of the 61002
physician's determination.61003

       (c) The individual has been hospitalized and a physician has 61004
determined and documented in writing that, unless the individual 61005
is enrolled in home and community-based services such as the 61006
assisted living program, the individual is to be transported 61007
directly from the hospital to a nursing facility and admitted.61008

       (d) Both of the following apply:61009

       (i) The individual is the subject of a report made under 61010
section 5101.61 of the Revised Code regarding abuse, neglect, or 61011
exploitation or such a report referred to a county department of 61012
job and family services under section 5126.31 of the Revised Code 61013
or has made a request to a county department for protective 61014
services as defined in section 5101.60 of the Revised Code.61015

       (ii) A county department of job and family services and an 61016
area agency on aging have jointly documented in writing that, 61017
unless the individual is enrolled in home and community-based 61018
services such as the assisted living program, the individual 61019
should be admitted to a nursing facility.61020

       (e) The individual resided in a residential care facility for 61021
at least six months immediately before applying for the 61022
medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program and is at 61023
risk of imminent admission to a nursing facility because the costs 61024
of residing in the residential care facility have depleted the 61025
individual's resources such that the individual is unable to 61026
continue to afford the cost of residing in the residential care 61027
facility. 61028

       (B) Each month, each area agency on aging shall identify 61029
individuals residing in the area that the area agency on aging 61030
serves who are eligible for the home first component of the 61031
assisted living program. When an area agency on aging identifies 61032
such an individual and determines that there is a vacancy in a 61033
residential care facility participating in the medicaid-funded 61034
component of the assisted living program that is acceptable to the 61035
individual, the agency shall notify the long-term care 61036
consultation program administrator serving the area in which the 61037
individual resides. The administrator shall determine whether the 61038
assisted living program is appropriate for the individual and 61039
whether the individual would rather participate in the assisted 61040
living program than continue or begin to reside in a nursing 61041
facility. If the administrator determines that the assisted living 61042
program is appropriate for the individual and the individual would 61043
rather participate in the assisted living program than continue or 61044
begin to reside in a nursing facility, the administrator shall so 61045
notify the department of aging. On receipt of the notice from the 61046
administrator, the department shall approve the individual's 61047
enrollment in the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living 61048
program regardless of the unified waiting list established under 61049
section 173.404 of the Revised Code, unless the enrollment would 61050
cause the component to exceed any limit on the number of 61051
individuals who may participate in the component as set by the 61052
United States secretary of health and human services in the 61053
assisted living waiver. 61054

       Sec. 5111.941. (A) The medicaid revenue and collections61055
health care/medicaid support and recoveries fund is hereby created 61056
in the state treasury. ExceptAll of the following shall be 61057
credited to the fund:61058

       (1) Except as otherwise provided by statute or as authorized 61059
by the controlling board, the nonfederal share of all 61060
medicaid-related revenues, collections, and recoveries shall be 61061
credited to the fund;61062

       (2) Federal reimbursement received for payment adjustments 61063
made pursuant to section 1923 of the "Social Security Act," 101 61064
Stat. 1330-148 (1987), 42 U.S.C. 1396r-4, as amended, under the 61065
medicaid program to state mental health hospitals maintained and 61066
operated by the department of mental health under division (A) of 61067
section 5119.02 of the Revised Code;61068

       (3) Revenues the department of job and family services 61069
receives from another state agency for medicaid services pursuant 61070
to an interagency agreement, other than such revenues required to 61071
be deposited into the health care services administration fund 61072
created under section 5111.94 of the Revised Code;61073

       (4) The first seven hundred fifty thousand dollars the 61074
department receives in a fiscal year for performing eligibility 61075
verification services necessary for compliance with the 61076
independent, certified audit requirement of 42 C.F.R. 455.304.61077

       (B) The department of job and family services shall use money 61078
credited to the medicaid revenue and collectionshealth 61079
care/medicaid support and recoveries fund to pay for medicaid 61080
services and contracts.61081

       Sec. 5111.946.  (A) As used in this section, "medicaid 61082
managed care organization" means a managed care organization under 61083
contract with the department of job and family services pursuant 61084
to section 5111.17 of the Revised Code.61085

       (B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the health 61086
care compliance fund. All of the following shall be credited to 61087
the fund:61088

       (1) All fines imposed on and collected from medicaid managed 61089
care organizations for failure to meet performance standards or 61090
other requirements specified in provider agreements or rules 61091
adopted by the department;61092

       (2) Money the department receives in a fiscal year for 61093
performing eligibility verification services necessary for 61094
compliance with the independent, certified audit requirement of 42 61095
C.F.R. 455.304, other than the amounts of such money that are to 61096
be credited to the medicaid revenue and collections fund under 61097
section 5111.941 of the Revised Code;61098

       (3) All investment earnings of the fund.61099

       (C) Money credited to the health care compliance fund shall 61100
be used solely for the following purposes:61101

       (1) To reimburse medicaid managed care organizations that 61102
have paid fines for failure to meet performance standards or other 61103
requirements and have come into compliance by meeting requirements 61104
as specified by the department;61105

       (2) To provide financial incentive awards established 61106
pursuant to section 5111.171 of the Revised Code and specified in 61107
contracts between medicaid managed care organizations and the 61108
department.61109

       Sec. 5111.96.  (A) As used in this section, "MFP 61110
demonstration project" means a money follows the person 61111
demonstration project that the United States secretary of health 61112
and human services is authorized to award under section 6071 of 61113
the Deficit Reduction Act of 2005 (Pub. L. No. 109-171, as 61114
amended).61115

        (B) To the extent funds are available under an MFP 61116
demonstration project awarded to the department of job and family 61117
services, the director of job and family services may operate the 61118
helping Ohioans move, expanding (HOME) choice demonstration 61119
component of the medicaid program to transition medicaid 61120
recipients who qualify for the demonstration component to 61121
community settings. The director may adopt rules in accordance 61122
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for the administration and 61123
operation of the demonstration component.61124

       Sec. 5111.97. (A) As used in this section, "nursing:61125

       (1) "Home and community-based services medicaid waiver 61126
component" has the same meaning as in section 5111.85 of the 61127
Revised Code.61128

       (2) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 61129
5111.20 of the Revised Code.61130

       (B) To the extent funds are available, the director of job 61131
and family services may establish the Ohio access success project 61132
to help medicaid recipients make the transition from residing in a 61133
nursing facility to residing in a community setting. The project 61134
may be established as a separate nonmedicaid program or integrated 61135
into a new or existing program of medicaid-funded home and 61136
community-based services authorized by amedicaid waiver approved 61137
by the United States department of health and human services61138
component. The director shall permit any recipient of 61139
medicaid-funded nursing facility services to apply for 61140
participation in the project, but may limit the number of project 61141
participants. 61142

       The director shall ensure that an assessment of an applicant 61143
is conducted as soon as practicable to determine whether the 61144
applicant is eligible for participation in the project. To the 61145
maximum extent possible, the assessment and eligibility 61146
determination shall be completed not later than the date that 61147
occurs six months after the applicant became a recipient of 61148
medicaid-funded nursing facility services.61149

        (C) To be eligible for benefits under the project, a medicaid 61150
recipient must satisfy all of the following requirements:61151

       (1) The medicaid recipient must be a recipient of 61152
medicaid-funded nursing facility services, at the time of applying 61153
for the project benefits.61154

       (2) If the project is established as a nonmedicaid program, 61155
the medicaid recipient must be able to remain in the community as 61156
a result of receiving project benefits and the projected cost of 61157
the benefits to the project does not exceed eighty per cent of the 61158
average monthly medicaid cost of a medicaid recipient in a nursing 61159
facility.61160

       (3) If the project is integrated into a medicaid-funded home 61161
and community-based services medicaid waiver programcomponent, 61162
the medicaid recipient must meet the waiver component's enrollment 61163
criteria.61164

        (D) If the director establishes the Ohio access success 61165
project, the benefits provided under the project may include 61166
payment of all of the following:61167

       (1) The first month's rent in a community setting;61168

       (2) Rental deposits;61169

       (3) Utility deposits;61170

       (4) Moving expenses;61171

       (5) Other expenses not covered by the medicaid program that 61172
facilitate a medicaid recipient's move from a nursing facility to 61173
a community setting.61174

        (E) If the project is established as a nonmedicaid program, 61175
no participant may receive more than two thousand dollars' worth 61176
of benefits under the project.61177

        (F) If the department of job and family services enters into 61178
a contract with an entity to provide fiscal management services 61179
regarding the project, the contract may provide for a portion of a 61180
participant's benefits under the project to be paid to the 61181
contracting entity. The contract shall specify the portion to be 61182
paid to the contracting entity.61183

        (G) The director may submit a request to the United States 61184
secretary of health and human services pursuant to section 1915 of 61185
the "Social Security Act," 7995 Stat. 286809 (19651981), 42 61186
U.S.C. 1396n, as amended, to create a medicaid home and 61187
community-based services medicaid waiver programcomponent to 61188
serve individuals who meet the criteria for participation in the 61189
Ohio access success project. The61190

       (H) The director may adopt rules underin accordance with61191
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for the administration and 61192
operation of the project. If the project is integrated into a home 61193
and community-based services medicaid waiver component, the rules 61194
shall be adopted under section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.61195

       Sec. 5112.31.  The department of job and family services 61196
shall do all of the following:61197

       (A) Subject to section 5112.331 of the Revised Code and61198
divisions (B) and (C) of this section and for the purposes 61199
specified in sections 5112.37 andsection 5112.371 of the Revised 61200
Code, assess for each fiscal year each intermediate care facility 61201
for the mentally retarded a franchise permit fee equal to the 61202
franchise permit fee rate multiplied by the product of the 61203
following:61204

       (1) The number of beds certified under Title XIX of the 61205
"Social Security Act" on the first day of May of the calendar year 61206
in which the assessment is determined pursuant to division (A) of 61207
section 5112.33 of the Revised Code;61208

       (2) The number of days in the fiscal year.61209

       (B) If the total amount of the franchise permit fee assessed 61210
under division (A) of this section for a fiscal year exceeds the 61211
indirect guarantee percentage of the actual net patient revenue 61212
for all intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded for 61213
that fiscal year and seventy-five per cent or more of the total 61214
number of intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded 61215
receive enhanced medicaid payments or other state payments equal 61216
to seventy-five per cent or more of their total franchise permit 61217
fee assessments, do both of the following:61218

       (1) Recalculate the assessments under division (A) of this 61219
section using a per bed per day rate equal to the indirect 61220
guarantee percentage of actual net patient revenue for all 61221
intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded for that 61222
fiscal year;61223

       (2) Refund the difference between the amount of the franchise 61224
permit fee assessed for that fiscal year under division (A) of 61225
this section and the amount recalculated under division (B)(1) of 61226
this section as a credit against the assessments imposed under 61227
division (A) of this section for the subsequent fiscal year.61228

       (C) If the United States secretary of health and human 61229
services determines that the franchise permit fee established by 61230
sections 5112.30 to 5112.39 of the Revised Code would be an 61231
impermissible health care-related tax under section 1903(w) of the 61232
"Social Security Act," 105 Stat. 1793 (1991), 42 U.S.C.A.61233
1396b(w), as amended, take all necessary actions to cease 61234
implementation of those sections in accordance with rules adopted 61235
under section 5112.39 of the Revised Code.61236

       Sec. 5112.33.  (A) Not later than the fifteenth day of August 61237
of each year, the department of job and family services shall 61238
determine the annual franchise permit fee for each intermediate 61239
care facility for the mentally retarded in accordance with section 61240
5112.31 of the Revised Code.61241

       (B) Not later than the first day of September of each year, 61242
the department shall mail to each intermediate care facility for 61243
the mentally retarded notice of the amount of the franchise permit 61244
fee the facility has been assessed under section 5112.31 of the 61245
Revised Code.61246

       (C) EachSubject to section 5112.331 of the Revised Code, 61247
each intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded shall 61248
pay its fee under section 5112.31 of the Revised Code to the 61249
department in quarterly installment payments not later than 61250
forty-five days after the last day of each September, December, 61251
March, and June.61252

       Sec. 5112.331.  (A) If, during the period beginning on the 61253
first day of May of a calendar year and ending on the first day of 61254
January of the immediately following calendar year, the operator 61255
of an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded 61256
converts, pursuant to section 5111.874 of the Revised Code, one or 61257
more of the facility's beds to providing home and community-based 61258
services, the department of job and family services shall do the 61259
following:61260

       (1) If the facility's medicaid certification is terminated 61261
because of the conversion, terminate the facility's franchise 61262
permit fee effective on the first day of the quarter immediately 61263
following the quarter in which the department receives the notice 61264
of the conversion from the director of health;61265

       (2) If the facility's certified capacity under medicaid is 61266
reduced because of the conversion, redetermine the facility's 61267
franchise permit fee in accordance with division (B) of this 61268
section for the second half of the fiscal year for which the fee 61269
is assessed. 61270

       (B)(1) To redetermine an intermediate care facility for the 61271
mentally retarded's franchise permit fee, the department shall 61272
multiply the franchise permit fee rate by the product of the 61273
following:61274

       (a) The number of the facility's beds that remain certified 61275
under Title XIX of the "Social Security Act" as of the date the 61276
conversion takes effect;61277

       (b) The number of days in the second half of the fiscal year 61278
for which the redetermination is made.61279

       (2) The intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded 61280
shall pay its franchise permit fee as redetermined under division 61281
(B)(1) of this section in installment payments not later than 61282
forty-five days after the last day of March and June of the fiscal 61283
year for which the redetermination is made.61284

       Sec. 5112.341.  (A) In addition to assessing a penalty 61285
pursuant to section 5112.34 of the Revised Code, the department of 61286
job and family services may do any of the following if an 61287
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded fails to pay 61288
the full amount of a franchise permit fee installment when due:61289

        (1) Withhold an amount less than or equal to the installment 61290
and penalty assessed under section 5112.34 of the Revised Code 61291
from a medicaid payment due the facility until the facility pays 61292
the installment and penalty;61293

        (2) Offset an amount less than or equal to the installment 61294
and penalty assessed under section 5112.34 of the Revised Code 61295
from a Medicaidmedicaid payment due the nursing facility or 61296
hospital;61297

       (3) Terminate the facility's medicaid provider agreement.61298

        (B) The department may offset a medicaid payment under 61299
division (A) of this section without providing notice to the 61300
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded and without 61301
conducting an adjudication under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.61302

       Sec. 5112.37.  There is hereby created in the state treasury 61303
the home and community-based services for the mentally retarded 61304
and developmentally disabled fund. Eighty-one and seventy-seven 61305
hundredths per cent of allAll installment payments and penalties 61306
paid by an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded 61307
under sections 5112.33 and 5112.34 of the Revised Code for state 61308
fiscal year 2012 shall be deposited into the fund. Eighty-two and 61309
two tenths per cent of all installment payments and penalties paid 61310
by an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded under 61311
sections 5112.33 and 5112.34 of the Revised Code for state fiscal 61312
year 2013 and thereafter shall be deposited into the fund. The 61313
departmentAs soon as possible after the end of each quarter, the 61314
director of job and family services shall distributecertify to 61315
the director of budget and management the amount of money inthat 61316
is in the fund in accordance with rules adopted under section 61317
5112.39 of the Revised Codeas of the last day of that quarter. 61318
The departments of job and family services and developmental 61319
disabilities shall use the money for the medicaid program 61320
established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code and home and 61321
community-based services to mentally retarded and developmentally 61322
disabled persons.On receipt of a certification, the director of 61323
budget and management shall transfer the amount so certified from 61324
the home and community-based services for the mentally retarded 61325
and developmentally disabled fund to the department of 61326
developmental disabilities operating and services fund created 61327
under section 5112.371 of the Revised Code.61328

       Sec. 5112.371. There is hereby created in the state treasury 61329
the department of developmental disabilities operating and 61330
services fund. All installment payments and penalties paid by an 61331
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded under 61332
sections 5112.33 and 5112.34 of the Revised Code that are not 61333
deposited into the home and community-based services for the 61334
mentally retarded and developmentally disabled fund shall be 61335
deposited into the department of developmental disabilities 61336
operating and servicesThe fund shall consist of the money 61337
transferred to it under section 5112.37 of the Revised Code. The 61338
money in the fund shall be used for the expenses of the programs 61339
that the department of developmental disabilities administers and 61340
the department's administrative expenses.61341

       Sec. 5112.39.  The director of job and family services shall 61342
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to 61343
do allboth of the following:61344

       (A) Prescribe the actions the department will take to cease 61345
implementation of sections 5112.30 to 5112.39 of the Revised Code 61346
if the United States secretary of health and human services 61347
determines that the franchise permit fee imposed under section 61348
5112.31 of the Revised Code is an impermissible health 61349
care-related tax under section 1903(w) of the "Social Security 61350
Act," 49105 Stat. 6201793 (19351991), 42 U.S.C.A. 1396b(w), as 61351
amended;61352

       (B) Establish the method of distributing the money in the 61353
home and community-based services for the mentally retarded and 61354
developmentally disabled fund created by section 5112.37 of the 61355
Revised Code;61356

       (C) Establish any other requirements or procedures the 61357
director considers necessary to implement sections 5112.30 to 61358
5112.39 of the Revised Code.61359

       Sec. 5119.22.  (A)(1) As used in this section and section 61360
5119.221 of the Revised Code:61361

       (a)(1) "Accommodations" means housing, daily meal 61362
preparation, laundry, housekeeping, arranging for transportation, 61363
social and recreational activities, maintenance, security, and 61364
other services that do not constitute personal care services or 61365
skilled nursing care.61366

       (2) "ADAMHS board" means a board of alcohol, drug addiction, 61367
and mental health services.61368

       (3) "Adult" means a person who is eighteen years of age or 61369
older, other than a person described in division (A)(4) of this 61370
section who is between eighteen and twenty-one years of age.61371

       (4) "Child" means a person who is under eighteen years of age 61372
or a person with a mental disability who is under twenty-one years 61373
of age.61374

       (5) "Community mental health agency" means a community mental 61375
health agency as defined in division (H) of section 5122.01 of the 61376
Revised Code.61377

       (b)(6) "Community mental health services" means any of the 61378
services listed in section 340.09 of the Revised Code.61379

       (c)(7) "Operator" means the person that is responsible for 61380
the administration and management of a residential facility.61381

       (8) "Personal care services" means services including, but 61382
not limited to, the following:61383

       (i)(a) Assisting residents with activities of daily living;61384

       (ii)(b) Assisting residents with self-administration of 61385
medication in accordance with rules adopted under this section;61386

       (iii)(c) Preparing special diets, other than complex 61387
therapeutic diets, for residents pursuant to the instructions of a 61388
physician or a licensed dietitian, in accordance with rules 61389
adopted under this section.61390

       "Personal care services" does not include "skilled nursing 61391
care" as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code. A 61392
facility need not provide more than one of the services listed in 61393
division (A)(1)(c)(8) of this section to be considered to be 61394
providing personal care services.61395

       (d)(9) "Residential facility" means a publicly or privately 61396
operated home or facility that provides one of the following:61397

       (i) Room and board(a) Accommodations, supervision, personal 61398
care services, and community mental health services tofor one or 61399
more of the following unrelated persons with mental illness or 61400
persons with severe mental disabilities who are referred by or are 61401
receiving community mental health services from a community mental 61402
health agency, hospital, or practitioner;:61403

       (i) Adults with mental illness;61404

       (ii) Persons of any age with severe mental disabilities;61405

       (iii) Children with serious emotional disturbances or in need 61406
of mental health services.61407

       (ii) Room and board(b) Accommodations, supervision, and 61408
personal care services tofor three to sixteen unrelated adults or 61409
for one or two of the following unrelated persons:61410

       (i) Persons of any age with mental illness or persons with 61411
severe mental disabilities who are referred by or are receiving 61412
community mental health services from a community mental health 61413
agency, hospital, or practitioner;61414

       (iii) Room and board to(ii) Persons of any age with severe 61415
mental disabilities who are referred by or are receiving community 61416
mental health services from a community mental health agency, 61417
hospital, or practitioner;61418

       (iii) Adults who are recipients under the residential state 61419
supplement program.61420

       (c) Accommodations for five or more of the following 61421
unrelated persons:61422

       (i) Adults with mental illness or persons with severe mental 61423
disabilities who are referred by or are receiving community mental 61424
health services from a community mental health agency, hospital, 61425
or practitioner;61426

       (ii) Adults with severe mental disabilities who are referred 61427
by or are receiving community mental health services from a 61428
community mental health agency, hospital, or practitioner.61429

       The following are not residential facilities(10) 61430
"Residential facility" does not include any of the following: the 61431
residence of a relative or guardian of a mentally ill individual, 61432
a61433

       (a) A hospital subject to licensure under section 5119.20 of 61434
the Revised Code, a;61435

       (b) A residential facility as defined inlicensed under61436
section 5123.19 of the Revised Code, a facility providing care for 61437
a child in the custody of a public children services agency or a 61438
private agency certified under section 5103.03 of the Revised 61439
Code, a foster care facilityor otherwise regulated by the 61440
department of developmental disabilities;61441

       (c) An institution or association subject to certification 61442
under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code, an adult care facility 61443
subject to licensure under sections 5119.70 to 5119.88 of the 61444
Revised Code, and a;61445

       (d) A facility operated by a hospice care program licensed 61446
under section 3712.04 of the Revised Code that is used exclusively 61447
for care of hospice patients;61448

       (e) A nursing home, residential care facility, or home for 61449
the aging subject to licensure underas defined in section 3721.02 61450
of the Revised Code;61451

       (f) An alcohol or drug addiction program as defined in 61452
section 3793.01 of the Revised Code;61453

       (g) A facility licensed to provide methadone treatment under 61454
section 3793.11 of the Revised Code;61455

       (h) Any facility that receives funding for operating costs 61456
from the department of development under any program established 61457
to provide emergency shelter housing or transitional housing for 61458
the homeless;61459

       (i) A terminal care facility for the homeless that has 61460
entered into an agreement with a hospice care program under 61461
section 3712.07 of the Revised Code;61462

       (j) A facility approved by the veterans administration under 61463
section 104(a) of the "Veterans Health Care Amendments of 1983," 61464
97 Stat. 993, 38 U.S.C. 630, as amended, and used exclusively for 61465
the placement and care of veterans.61466

       (11) "Supervision" means any of the following:61467

       (a) Observing a resident to ensure the resident's health, 61468
safety, and welfare while the resident engages in activities of 61469
daily living or other activities;61470

       (b) Reminding a resident to perform or complete an activity, 61471
such as reminding a resident to engage in personal hygiene or 61472
other self-care activities; 61473

       (c) Assisting a resident in making or keeping an appointment. 61474

       (12) "Unrelated" means that a resident is not related to the 61475
owner or operator of a residential facility or to the owner's or 61476
operator's spouse as a parent, grandparent, child, stepchild, 61477
grandchild, brother, sister, niece, nephew, aunt, or uncle, or as 61478
the child of an aunt or uncle.61479

       (2)(B) Nothing in division (A)(1)(d)(9) of this section shall 61480
be construed to permit personal care services to be imposed on a 61481
resident who is capable of performing the activity in question 61482
without assistance.61483

       (3)(C) Except in the case of a residential facility described 61484
in division (A)(1)(d)(i)(9)(a) of this section, members of the 61485
staff of a residential facility shall not administer medication to 61486
the facility's residents, all medication taken by residents of a 61487
residential facility shall be self-administered, and no person 61488
shall be admitted to or retained by a residential facility unless 61489
the person is capable of taking the person's own medication and 61490
biologicals, as determined in writing by the person's personal 61491
physician. Members of the staff of a residential facilitybut may 61492
do any of the following:61493

       (a)(1) Remind a resident when to take medication and watch to 61494
ensure that the resident follows the directions on the container;61495

       (b)(2) Assist a resident in the self-administration of 61496
medication by taking the medication from the locked area where it 61497
is stored, in accordance with rules adopted pursuant to this 61498
section, and handing it to the resident. If the resident is 61499
physically unable to open the container, a staff member may open 61500
the container for the resident.61501

       (c)(3) Assist a physically impaired but mentally alert 61502
resident, such as a resident with arthritis, cerebral palsy, or 61503
Parkinson's disease, in removing oral or topical medication from 61504
containers and in consuming or applying the medication, upon 61505
request by or with the consent of the resident. If a resident is 61506
physically unable to place a dose of medicine to the resident's 61507
mouth without spilling it, a staff member may place the dose in a 61508
container and place the container to the mouth of the resident.61509

       (B) Every(D)(1) Except as provided in division (D)(2) of 61510
this section, a person operating or desiringseeking to operate a 61511
residential facility shall apply for licensure of the facility to 61512
the department of mental health and. The application shall be 61513
submitted by the operator. When applying for the license, the 61514
applicant shall pay to the department the application fee 61515
specified in rules adopted under division (L) of this section. The 61516
fee is nonrefundable.61517

       The department shall send a copy of thean application to the 61518
ADAMHS board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 61519
services whose service district includesserving the county in 61520
which the person operates or desiresseeks to operate a 61521
residentialthe facility. The ADAMHS board shall review such 61522
applications and recommend approval or disapproval to the 61523
department. Each recommendation shall be consistent with the 61524
board's community mental health plan.61525

       (C)the application and provide to the department any 61526
information about the applicant or the facility that the board 61527
would like the department to consider in reviewing the 61528
application.61529

       (2) A person may not apply for a license to operate a 61530
residential facility if the person is or has been the owner, 61531
operator, or manager of a residential facility for which a license 61532
to operate was revoked or for which renewal of a license was 61533
refused for any reason other than nonpayment of the license 61534
renewal fee, unless both of the following conditions are met:61535

       (a) A period of not less than two years has elapsed since the 61536
date the director of mental health issued the order revoking or 61537
refusing to renew the facility's license.61538

       (b) The director's revocation or refusal to renew the license 61539
was not based on an act or omission at the facility that violated 61540
a resident's right to be free from abuse, neglect, or 61541
exploitation.61542

       (E)(1) Any person may operate a residential facility 61543
providing accommodations and personal care services for one to 61544
five unrelated persons and licensed as a residential facility that 61545
meets the criteria specified in division (A)(9)(b) of this section 61546
as a permitted use in any residential district or zone, including 61547
any single-family residential district or zone of any political 61548
subdivision. Such facilities may be required to comply with area, 61549
height, yard, and architectural compatibility requirements that 61550
are uniformly imposed upon all single-family residences within the 61551
district or zone. 61552

       (2) Any person may operate a residential facility providing 61553
accommodations and personal care services for six to sixteen 61554
persons and licensed as a residential facility that meets the 61555
criteria specified in division (A)(9)(b) of this section as a 61556
permitted use in any multiple-family residential district or zone 61557
of any political subdivision, except that a political subdivision 61558
that has enacted a zoning ordinance or resolution establishing 61559
planned-unit development districts as defined in section 519.021 61560
of the Revised Code may exclude such facilities from such 61561
districts, and a political subdivision that has enacted a zoning 61562
ordinance or resolution may regulate such facilities in 61563
multiple-family residential districts or zones as a conditionally 61564
permitted use or special exception, in either case, under 61565
reasonable and specific standards and conditions set out in the 61566
zoning ordinance or resolution to: 61567

       (a) Require the architectural design and site layout of the 61568
home and the location, nature, and height of any walls, screens, 61569
and fences to be compatible with adjoining land uses and the 61570
residential character of the neighborhood; 61571

       (b) Require compliance with yard, parking, and sign 61572
regulation. 61573

       (3) Divisions (E)(1) and (2) of this section do not affect 61574
any right of a political subdivision to permit a person to operate 61575
a residential facility licensed under this section in a 61576
single-family residential district or zone under conditions 61577
established by the political subdivision. 61578

       (4)(a) Notwithstanding divisions (E)(1) and (2) of this 61579
section and except as provided in division (E)(4)(b) of this 61580
section, a political subdivision that has enacted a zoning 61581
ordinance or resolution may limit the excessive concentration of 61582
licensed residential facilities that meet the criteria specified 61583
in division (A)(9)(b) of this section. 61584

       (b) Division (E)(4)(a) of this section does not authorize a 61585
political subdivision to prevent or limit the continued existence 61586
and operation of residential facilities existing and operating on 61587
the effective date of this section and that meet the criteria 61588
specified in division (A)(9)(b) of this section. A political 61589
subdivision may consider the existence of such facilities for the 61590
purpose of limiting the excessive concentration of such facilities 61591
that meet the criteria specified in division (A)(9)(b) of this 61592
section that are not existing and operating on the effective date 61593
of this section.61594

       (F)(1) The department of mental health shall inspect and 61595
license the operation of residential facilities. The department 61596
shall consider the past record of the facility and the applicant 61597
or licensee in arriving at its licensure decision. The61598

       The department may issue full, probationary, and interim 61599
licenses. A full license shall expire two years after the date of 61600
issuance, a probationary license shall expire in a shorter period 61601
of time as prescribed by rulespecified in rules adopted by the 61602
director of mental health pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised 61603
Codeunder division (L) of this section, and an interim license 61604
shall expire ninety days after the date of issuance. TheA license 61605
may be renewed in accordance with rules adopted by the director 61606
under division (L) of this section. The renewal application shall 61607
be submitted by the operator. When applying for renewal of a 61608
license, the applicant shall pay to the department the renewal fee 61609
specified in rules adopted under division (L) of this section. The 61610
fee is nonrefundable.61611

       (2) The department may issue an order suspending the 61612
admission of residents to the facility or refuse to issue or renew 61613
and may revoke a license if it finds the facility is not in 61614
compliance with rules adopted by the departmentdirector pursuant 61615
to division (G)(L) of this section or if any facility operated by 61616
the applicant or licensee has hadbeen cited for repeated 61617
violations of statutes or rules during the period of previous 61618
licenses. Proceedings initiated to deny applications for full or 61619
probationary licenses or to revoke such licenses are governed by 61620
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.61621

       (D)(G) The department may issue an interim license to operate 61622
a residential facility if both of the following conditions are 61623
met:61624

       (1) The department determines that the closing of or the need 61625
to remove residents from another residential facility has created 61626
an emergency situation requiring immediate removal of residents 61627
and an insufficient number of licensed beds are available.61628

       (2) The residential facility applying for an interim license 61629
meets standards established for interim licenses in rules adopted 61630
by the director under Chapter 119. of the Revised Codedivision 61631
(L) of this section.61632

       An interim license shall be valid for ninety days and may be 61633
renewed by the director no more than twice. Proceedings initiated 61634
to deny applications for or to revoke interim licenses under this 61635
division are not subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.61636

       (E)(H)(1) The department of mental health may conduct an 61637
inspection of a residential facility as follows:61638

       (1)(a) Prior to the issuance of a license to a prospective 61639
operatorfor the facility;61640

       (2)(b) Prior to the renewal of any operator'sthe facility's61641
license;61642

       (3)(c) To determine whether athe facility has completed a 61643
plan of correction required pursuant to this division (H)(2) of 61644
this section and corrected deficiencies to the satisfaction of the 61645
department and in compliance with this section and rules adopted 61646
pursuant to it;61647

       (4)(d) Upon complaint by any individual or agency;61648

       (5)(e) At any time the director considers an inspection to be 61649
necessary in order to determine whether a residentialthe facility 61650
is in compliance with this section and rules adopted pursuant to 61651
this section.61652

       (2) In conducting inspections the department may conduct an 61653
on-site examination and evaluation of the residential facility,61654
and its personnel, activities, and services. The department shall 61655
have access to examine and copy all records, accounts, and any 61656
other documents relating to the operation of the residential 61657
facility, including records pertaining to residents, and shall 61658
have access to the facility in order to conduct interviews with 61659
the operator, staff, and residents. Following each inspection and 61660
review, the department shall complete a report listing any 61661
deficiencies, and including, when appropriate, a time table within 61662
which the operator shall correct the deficiencies. The department 61663
may require the operator to submit a plan of correction describing 61664
how the deficiencies will be corrected.61665

       (F)(I) No person shall do any of the following:61666

       (1) Operate a residential facility unless the facility holds 61667
a valid license;61668

       (2) Violate any of the conditions of licensure after having 61669
been granted a license;61670

       (3) Interfere with a state or local official's inspection or 61671
investigation of a residential facility;61672

       (4) Violate any of the provisions of this section or any 61673
rules adopted pursuant to this section.61674

       (G)(J) The following may enter a residential facility at any 61675
time:61676

       (1) Employees designated by the director of mental health;61677

       (2) Employees of an ADAMHS board when a resident of the 61678
facility is receiving services from a community mental health 61679
agency under contract with that ADAMHS board or another ADAMHS 61680
board;61681

       (3) Employees of a community mental health agency under any 61682
of the following circumstances:61683

       (a) When the agency has a client residing in the facility;61684

       (b) When the agency is acting as an agent of an ADAMHS board 61685
other than the board with which it is under contract.61686

       The employees specified in division (J) of this section shall 61687
be afforded access to examine and copy all records, accounts, and 61688
any other documents relating to the operation of the residential 61689
facility, including records pertaining to residents. 61690

       (K) Employees of the department of mental health may enter, 61691
for the purpose of investigation, any institution, residence, 61692
facility, or other structure which has been reported to the 61693
department as, or that the department has reasonable cause to 61694
believe is, operating as a residential facility without a valid 61695
license.61696

       (L) The director shall adopt and may amend and rescind rules 61697
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, prescribing minimum61698
governing the licensing and operation of residential facilities. 61699
The rules shall establish all of the following:61700

       (1) Minimum standards for the health, safety, adequacy, and 61701
cultural specificity and sensitivitycompetency of treatment of 61702
and services for persons in residential facilities; establishing 61703
procedures61704

       (2) Procedures for the issuance, renewal or revocation of the 61705
licenses of suchresidential facilities; establishing the61706

       (3) Procedures for conducting criminal records checks for 61707
prospective operators, staff, and other individuals who, if 61708
employed by a residential facility, would have unsupervised access 61709
to facility residents;61710

       (4) The fee to be paid when applying for a new residential 61711
facility license or renewing the license;61712

       (5) Procedures for the operator of a residential facility to 61713
follow when notifying the ADAMHS board serving the county in which 61714
the facility is located when the facility is serving residents 61715
with mental illness or severe mental disability, including the 61716
circumstances under which the operator is required to make such a 61717
notification;61718

       (6) Procedures for the issuance and termination of orders of 61719
suspension of admission of residents to a residential facility; 61720

       (7) Measures to be taken by residential facilities relative 61721
to residents' medication;61722

       (8) Requirements relating to preparation of special diets;61723

       (9) The maximum number of residents ofwho may be served in a 61724
residential facility; establishing the61725

       (10) The rights of residents of residential facilities and 61726
procedures to protect such rights; and requiring61727

       (11) Procedures for obtaining an affiliation agreement 61728
approved by the board between a residential facility and a 61729
community mental health agency. Such affiliation agreement must be 61730
consistent with the residential portion of the community mental 61731
health plan submitted pursuant to section 340.03 of the Revised 61732
Code;61733

       (12) Standards and procedures under which the director may 61734
waive the requirements of any of the rules adopted.61735

       (H) The department may investigate any facility that has been 61736
reported to the department or that the department has reasonable 61737
cause to believe is operating as a residential facility without a 61738
valid license.61739

       (I)(M)(1) The department may withhold the source of any 61740
complaint reported as a violation of this actsection when the 61741
department determines that disclosure could be detrimental to the 61742
department's purposes or could jeopardize the investigation. The 61743
department may disclose the source of any complaint if the 61744
complainant agrees in writing to such disclosure and shall 61745
disclose the source upon order by a court of competent 61746
jurisdiction.61747

       (J)(2) Any person who makes a complaint under division (M)(1) 61748
of this section, or any person who participates in an 61749
administrative or judicial proceeding resulting from such a 61750
complaint, is immune from civil liability and is not subject to 61751
criminal prosecution, other than for perjury, unless the person 61752
has acted in bad faith or with malicious purpose.61753

       (N)(1) The director of mental health may petition the court 61754
of common pleas of the county in which a residential facility is 61755
located for an order enjoining any person from operating a 61756
residential facility without a license or from operating a 61757
licensed facility when, in the director's judgment, there is a 61758
real and present danger to the health or safety of any of the 61759
occupants of the facility. The court shall have jurisdiction to 61760
grant such injunctive relief upon a showing that the respondent 61761
named in the petition is operating a facility without a license or 61762
there is a real and present danger to the health or safety of any 61763
residents of the facility.61764

       (K) Whoever violates division (F) of this section or any rule 61765
adopted under this section is liable for a civil penalty of one 61766
hundred dollars for the first offense; for each subsequent 61767
offense, such violator is liable for a civil penalty of five 61768
hundred dollars. If the violator does not pay, the attorney 61769
general, upon the request of the director of mental health, shall 61770
bring a civil action to collect the penalty. Fines collected 61771
pursuant to this section shall be deposited into the state 61772
treasury to the credit of the mental health sale of goods and 61773
services fund.61774

       (2) When the court grants injunctive relief in the case of a 61775
facility operating without a license, the court shall issue, at a 61776
minimum, an order enjoining the facility from admitting new 61777
residents to the facility and an order requiring the facility to 61778
assist with the safe and orderly relocation of the facility's 61779
residents. 61780

       (3) If injunctive relief is granted against a facility for 61781
operating without a license and the facility continues to operate 61782
without a license, the director shall refer the case to the 61783
attorney general for further action.61784

       (O) The director may fine a person for violating division (I) 61785
of this section. The fine shall be five hundred dollars for a 61786
first offense; for each subsequent offense, the fine shall be one 61787
thousand dollars. The director's actions in imposing a fine shall 61788
be taken in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.61789

       Sec. 5119.61.  Any provision in this chapter that refers to a 61790
board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services also 61791
refers to the community mental health board in an alcohol, drug 61792
addiction, and mental health service district that has a community 61793
mental health board.61794

       The director of mental health with respect to all facilities 61795
and programs established and operated under Chapter 340. of the 61796
Revised Code for mentally ill and emotionally disturbed persons, 61797
shall do all of the following:61798

       (A) Adopt rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 61799
that may be necessary to carry out the purposes of Chapter 340. 61800
and sections 5119.61 to 5119.63 of the Revised Code.61801

       (1) The rules shall include all of the following:61802

       (a) Rulesrules governing a community mental health agency's 61803
services under section 340.091 of the Revised Code to an 61804
individual referred to the agency under division (C)(D)(2) of 61805
section 5119.69 of the Revised Code;61806

       (b) For the purpose of division (A)(16) of section 340.03 of 61807
the Revised Code, rules governing the duties of mental health 61808
agencies and boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 61809
services under section 5119.88 of the Revised Code regarding 61810
referrals of individuals with mental illness or severe mental 61811
disability to adult care facilities and effective arrangements for 61812
ongoing mental health services for the individuals. The rules 61813
shall do at least the following: 61814

       (i) Provide for agencies and boards to participate fully in 61815
the procedures owners and managers of adult care facilities must 61816
follow under division (A) of section 5119.88 of the Revised Code;61817

       (ii) Specify the manner in which boards are accountable for 61818
ensuring that ongoing mental health services are effectively 61819
arranged for individuals with mental illness or severe mental 61820
disability who are referred by the board or mental health agency 61821
under contract with the board to an adult care facility. 61822

       (c) Rules governing a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and 61823
mental health services when making a report to the director of 61824
mental health under section 5119.87 of the Revised Code regarding 61825
the quality of care and services provided by an adult care 61826
facility to a person with mental illness or a severe mental 61827
disability.61828

       (2) Rules may be adopted to govern the method of paying a 61829
community mental health facility, as defined in section 5111.023 61830
of the Revised Code, for providing services listed in division (B) 61831
of that section. Such rules must be consistent with the contract 61832
entered into between the departments of job and family services 61833
and mental health under section 5111.91 of the Revised Code and 61834
include requirements ensuring appropriate service utilization.61835

       (B) Review and evaluate, and, taking into account the 61836
findings and recommendations of the board of alcohol, drug 61837
addiction, and mental health services of the district served by 61838
the program and the requirements and priorities of the state 61839
mental health plan, including the needs of residents of the 61840
district now residing in state mental institutions, and make 61841
recommendations for needed improvements to boards of alcohol, drug 61842
addiction, and mental health services;61843

       (C) Provide consultative services to community mental health 61844
agencies with the knowledge and cooperation of the board of 61845
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services;61846

        (D) At the director's discretion, provide to boards of 61847
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services state or 61848
federal funds, in addition to those allocated under section 61849
5119.62 of the Revised Code, for special programs or projects the 61850
director considers necessary but for which local funds are not 61851
available;61852

       (E) Establish criteria by which a board of alcohol, drug 61853
addiction, and mental health services reviews and evaluates the 61854
quality, effectiveness, and efficiency of services provided 61855
through its community mental health plan. The criteria shall 61856
include requirements ensuring appropriate service utilization. The 61857
department shall assess a board's evaluation of services and the 61858
compliance of each board with this section, Chapter 340. or 61859
section 5119.62 of the Revised Code, and other state or federal 61860
law and regulations. The department, in cooperation with the 61861
board, periodically shall review and evaluate the quality, 61862
effectiveness, and efficiency of services provided through each 61863
board. The department shall collect information that is necessary 61864
to perform these functions.61865

        (F) To the extent the director determines necessary and after 61866
consulting with boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 61867
health services, develop and operate, or contract for the 61868
operation of, a community mental health information system or 61869
systems.61870

       Boards of alcohol, drug abuseaddiction, and mental health 61871
services shall submit information requested by the department in 61872
the form and manner prescribed by the department. Information 61873
collected by the department shall include, but not be limited to, 61874
all of the following:61875

       (1) Information regarding units of services provided in whole 61876
or in part under contract with a board, including diagnosis and 61877
special needs, demographic information, the number of units of 61878
service provided, past treatment, financial status, and service 61879
dates in accordance with rules adopted by the department in 61880
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code;61881

       (2) Financial information other than price or price-related 61882
data regarding expenditures of boards and community mental health 61883
agencies, including units of service provided, budgeted and actual 61884
expenses by type, and sources of funds.61885

       Boards shall submit the information specified in division 61886
(F)(1) of this section no less frequently than annually for each 61887
client, and each time the client's case is opened or closed. The 61888
department shall not collect any personal information from the 61889
boards except as required or permitted by state or federal law for 61890
purposes related to payment, health care operations, program and 61891
service evaluation, reporting activities, research, system 61892
administration, and oversight.61893

       (G) Review each board's community mental health plan 61894
submitted pursuant to section 340.03 of the Revised Code and 61895
approve or disapprove it in whole or in part. Periodically, in 61896
consultation with representatives of boards and after considering 61897
the recommendations of the medical director, the director shall 61898
issue criteria for determining when a plan is complete, criteria 61899
for plan approval or disapproval, and provisions for conditional 61900
approval. The factors that the director considers may include, but 61901
are not limited to, the following:61902

       (1) The mental health needs of all persons residing within 61903
the board's service district, especially severely mentally 61904
disabled children, adolescents, and adults;61905

       (2) The demonstrated quality, effectiveness, efficiency, and 61906
cultural relevance of the services provided in each service 61907
district, the extent to which any services are duplicative of 61908
other available services, and whether the services meet the needs 61909
identified above;61910

       (3) The adequacy of the board's accounting for the 61911
expenditure of funds.61912

       If the director disapproves all or part of any plan, the 61913
director shall provide the board an opportunity to present its 61914
position. The director shall inform the board of the reasons for 61915
the disapproval and of the criteria that must be met before the 61916
plan may be approved. The director shall give the board a 61917
reasonable time within which to meet the criteria, and shall offer 61918
technical assistance to the board to help it meet the criteria.61919

       If the approval of a plan remains in dispute, the board or 61920
the director may request that the dispute be submitted to a 61921
mutually agreed upon third-party mediator with the cost to be 61922
shared by the board and the department. The mediator shall issue 61923
to the board and the department recommendations for resolution of 61924
the dispute. The director, taking into consideration the 61925
recommendations of the mediator, shall make a final determination 61926
and approve or disapprove the plan, in whole or in part.61927

       Sec. 5119.69.  (A) As used in this section and section 61928
5119.691 of the Revised Code:61929

       (1) "Long-term care consultation program" means the program 61930
the department of aging is required to develop under section 61931
173.42 of the Revised Code.61932

       (2) "Long-term care consultation program administrator" or 61933
"administrator" means the department of aging or, if the 61934
department contracts with an area agency on aging or other entity 61935
to administer the long-term care consultation program for a 61936
particular area, that agency or entity.61937

       (3) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 61938
5111.20 of the Revised Code.61939

       (4) "Residential state supplement administrative agency" 61940
means the department of mental health or, if the department 61941
designates an entity under division (C) of this section for a 61942
particular area, the designated entity.61943

       (5) "Residential state supplement program" means the program 61944
administered pursuant to this section.61945

       (B) The department of mental health shall implement the 61946
residential state supplement program under which the state 61947
supplements the supplemental security income payments received by 61948
aged, blind, or disabled adults under Title XVI of the "Social 61949
Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A., as amended. 61950
Residential state supplement payments shall be used for the 61951
provision of accommodations, supervision, and personal care 61952
services to supplemental security income recipients who the 61953
department determines are at risk of needing institutional care.61954

       (B)(C) In implementing the program, the department may 61955
designate one or more entities to be responsible for providing 61956
administrative services regarding the program. The department may 61957
designate an entity to be a residential state supplement 61958
administrative agency under this division either by entering into 61959
a contract with the entity to serve in that capacity or by 61960
otherwise delegating to the entity the responsibility to serve in 61961
that capacity.61962

       (C)(D) For an individual to be eligible for residential state 61963
supplement payments, all of the following must be the case:61964

       (1) Except as provided by division (G)(H) of this section, 61965
the individual must reside in one of the following:61966

       (a) An adult foster home certified under section 5119.692 of 61967
the Revised Code;61968

       (b) A home or facility, other than a nursing home or nursing 61969
home unit of a home for the aging, licensed by the department of 61970
health under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code or the department 61971
of mental health under sections 5119.70 to 5119.88 of the Revised 61972
Code;61973

       (c) A residential facility as defined in division 61974
(A)(1)(d)(ii)(9)(b) of section 5119.22 of the Revised Code 61975
licensed by the department of mental health;61976

       (d) An apartment or room used to provide community mental 61977
health housing services certified by the department of mental 61978
health under section 5119.611 of the Revised Code and approved by 61979
a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 61980
under division (A)(14) of section 340.03 of the Revised Code.61981

       (2) A residential state supplement administrative agency must 61982
have determined that the environment in which the individual will 61983
be living while receiving the payments is appropriate for the 61984
individual's needs. If the individual is eligible for supplemental 61985
security income payments or social security disability insurance 61986
benefits because of a mental disability, the residential state 61987
supplement administrative agency shall refer the individual to a 61988
community mental health agency for the community mental health 61989
agency to issue in accordance withan assessment under division 61990
(A) of section 340.091 of the Revised Code a recommendation on 61991
whether the residential state supplement administrative agency 61992
should determine that the environment in which the individual will 61993
be living while receiving the payments is appropriate for the 61994
individual's needs. 61995

       (3) The individual satisfies all eligibility requirements 61996
established by rules adopted under division (D)(E) of this 61997
section.61998

       (D)(E) The directors of mental health and job and family 61999
services shall adopt rules in accordance with section 111.15 of 62000
the Revised Code as necessary to implement the residential state 62001
supplement program.62002

       To the extent permitted by Title XVI of the "Social Security 62003
Act," and any other provision of federal law, the director of job 62004
and family services may adopt rules establishing standards for 62005
adjusting the eligibility requirements concerning the level of 62006
impairment a person must have so that the amount appropriated for 62007
the program by the general assembly is adequate for the number of 62008
eligible individuals. The rules shall not limit the eligibility of 62009
disabled persons solely on a basis classifying disabilities as 62010
physical or mental. The director of job and family services also 62011
may adopt rules that establish eligibility standards for aged, 62012
blind, or disabled individuals who reside in one of the homes or 62013
facilities specified in division (C)(D)(1) of this section but 62014
who, because of their income, do not receive supplemental security 62015
income payments. The rules may provide that these individuals may 62016
include individuals who receive other types of benefits, 62017
including, social security disability insurance benefits provided 62018
under Title II of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 62019
42 U.S.C.A. 401, as amended. Notwithstanding division (A)(B) of 62020
this section, such payments may be made if funds are available for 62021
them.62022

       The director of mental health may adopt rules establishing 62023
the method to be used to determine the amount an eligible 62024
individual will receive under the program. The amount the general 62025
assembly appropriates for the program may be a factor included in 62026
the method that director establishes. 62027

       (E)(F) The county department of job and family services of 62028
the county in which an applicant for the residential state 62029
supplement program resides shall determine whether the applicant 62030
meets income and resource requirements for the program.62031

       (F)(G) The department of mental health shall maintain a 62032
waiting list of any individuals eligible for payments under this 62033
section but not receiving them because moneys appropriated to the 62034
department for the purposes of this section are insufficient to 62035
make payments to all eligible individuals. An individual may apply 62036
to be placed on the waiting list even though the individual does 62037
not reside in one of the homes or facilities specified in division 62038
(C)(D)(1) of this section at the time of application. The director 62039
of mental health, by rules adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. 62040
of the Revised Code, may specify procedures and requirements for 62041
placing an individual on the waiting list and priorities for the 62042
order in which individuals placed on the waiting list are to begin 62043
to receive residential state supplement payments. The rules 62044
specifying priorities may give priority to individuals placed on 62045
the waiting list on or after July 1, 2006, who receive 62046
supplemental security income benefits under Title XVI of the 62047
"Social Security Act," 86 Stat. 1475 (1972), 42 U.S.C. 1381, as 62048
amended. The rules shall not affect the place on the waiting list 62049
of any person who was on the list on July 1, 2006. The rules 62050
specifying priorities may also set additional priorities based on 62051
living arrangement, such as whether an individual resides in a 62052
facility listed in division (C)(D)(1) of this section or has been 62053
admitted to a nursing facility.62054

       (G)(H) An individual in a licensed or certified living 62055
arrangement receiving state supplementation on November 15, 1990, 62056
under former section 5101.531 of the Revised Code shall not become 62057
ineligible for payments under this section solely by reason of the 62058
individual's living arrangement as long as the individual remains 62059
in the living arrangement in which the individual resided on 62060
November 15, 1990.62061

       (H)(I) The department of mental health shall notify each 62062
person denied approval for payments under this section of the 62063
person's right to a hearing. On request, the hearing shall be 62064
provided in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.62065

       Sec. 5119.691. (A) As used in this section:62066

       "Long-term care consultation program" means the program the 62067
department of aging is required to develop under section 173.42 of 62068
the Revised Code.62069

       "Long-term care consultation program administrator" or 62070
"administrator" means the department of aging or, if the 62071
department contracts with an area agency on aging or other entity 62072
to administer the long-term care consultation program for a 62073
particular area, that agency or entity.62074

       "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 5111.20 62075
of the Revised Code.62076

       "Residential state supplement administrative agency" means an 62077
entity designated as such by the department of mental health under 62078
section 5119.69 of the Revised Code.62079

       "Residential state supplement program" means the program 62080
administered pursuant to section 5119.69 of the Revised Code.62081

       (B) On a periodic schedule determined by the department of 62082
mental health, each residential state supplement administrative 62083
agency shall determine whether individuals who reside in the area 62084
that the agency serves and are on a waiting list for the 62085
residential state supplement program have been admitted to a 62086
nursing facility. If a residential state supplement administrative 62087
agency determines that such an individual has been admitted to a 62088
nursing facility, the agency shall notify the long-term care 62089
consultation program administrator serving the area in which the 62090
individual resides about the determination. The administrator 62091
shall determine whether the residential state supplement program 62092
is appropriate for the individual and whether the individual would 62093
rather participate in the program than continue residing in the 62094
nursing facility. If the administrator determines that the 62095
residential state supplement program is appropriate for the 62096
individual and the individual would rather participate in the 62097
program than continue residing in the nursing facility, the 62098
administrator shall so notify the department of mental health. On 62099
receipt of the notice from the administrator, the department of 62100
mental health shall approve the individual's enrollment in the 62101
residential state supplement program in accordance with the 62102
priorities specified in rules adopted under division (F)(G) of 62103
section 5119.69 of the Revised Code. Each quarter, the department 62104
of mental health shall certify to the director of budget and 62105
management the estimated increase in costs of the residential 62106
state supplement program resulting from enrollment of individuals 62107
in the program pursuant to this section.62108

       Sec. 5119.692.  As used in this section, "adult foster home" 62109
means a residence, other than a residential facility licensed 62110
under section 5119.22 of the Revised Code, in which accommodations 62111
and personal care services, as defined in section 5119.705119.2262112
of the Revised Code, are provided to one or two adults who are 62113
unrelated to the owners of the residence.62114

       The department of mental health shall adopt rules in 62115
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing 62116
standards for the certification of adult foster homes. The 62117
department or its designee shall certify adult foster homes that 62118
apply for certification and meet the standards established by the 62119
department.62120

       Sec. 5119.99. (A) Whoever violates section 5119.21 of the 62121
Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree.62122

       (B) Whoever violates division (A)(1) of section 5119.86 of 62123
the Revised Code shall be fined two thousand dollars for a first 62124
offense; for each subsequent offense, such person shall be fined 62125
five thousand dollars.62126

       (C) Whoever violates division (C) of section 5119.81 or 62127
division (A)(2), (3), (4), (5), or (6), (B), (C), (D), (E), or (F) 62128
of section 5119.86 of the Revised Code shall be fined five hundred 62129
dollars for a first offense; for each subsequent offense, such 62130
person shall be fined one thousand dollars.62131

       Sec. 5120.036.  (A) The department of rehabilitation and 62132
correction shall provide risk reduction programming and treatment 62133
for inmates whom a court under section 2929.143 of the Revised 62134
Code recommends serve a risk reduction sentence and who meet the 62135
eligibility criteria described in division (B) of this section.62136

       (B) If an offender is sentenced to a term of imprisonment in 62137
a state correctional institution and the sentencing court 62138
recommended that the offender serve a risk reduction sentence, the 62139
department of rehabilitation and correction shall conduct a 62140
validated and objective assessment of the person's needs and risk 62141
of reoffending. If the offender cooperates with the risk 62142
assessment and agrees to participate in any programming or 62143
treatment ordered by the department, the department shall provide 62144
programming and treatment to the offender to address the risks and 62145
needs identified in the assessment.62146

       (C) If the department determines that an offender serving a 62147
term of incarceration for whom the sentencing court recommended a 62148
risk reduction sentence under section 2929.143 of the Revised Code 62149
has successfully completed the assessment and treatment or 62150
programming required by the department under division (B) of this 62151
section, the department shall release the offender to supervised 62152
releasepost-release control under one or more post-release 62153
control sanctions after the offender has served each mandatory 62154
prison term to which the offender was sentenced, if any, and a 62155
minimum of eighty per cent of the aggregated nonmandatory prison 62156
terms to which the offender was sentenced. The placement under 62157
post-release control sanctions shall be under terms set by the 62158
parole board in accordance with section 2967.28 of the Revised 62159
Code and shall be subject to the provisions of that section and 62160
sections 2929.141 and 2967.15 of the Revised Code regarding 62161
violation of post-release control sanctions. No mandatory prison 62162
term shall be reduced by, or as a result of, an offender's service 62163
of a risk reduction sentence. The department shall notify the 62164
sentencing court that the offender has successfully completed the 62165
terms of the risk reduction sentence at least thirty days prior to 62166
the date upon which the offender is to be released. 62167

       (D) As used in this section:62168

        (1) "Mandatory prison term" has the same meaning as in 62169
section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.62170

        (2) "Nonmandatory prison term" means a prison term that is 62171
not a mandatory prison term.62172

       (3) "Post-release control" and "post-release control 62173
sanction" have the same meanings as in section 2967.01 of the 62174
Revised Code.62175

       Sec. 5120.105.  (A) The department of administrative services62176
Ohio facilities construction commission shall provide for the 62177
construction of a halfway house facility in conformity with 62178
Chapter 153. of the Revised Code, except that construction 62179
services may be provided by the department of rehabilitation and 62180
correction.62181

       (B) The director of rehabilitation and correction may enter 62182
into an agreement with a halfway house organization for the 62183
management of a halfway house facility. The halfway house 62184
organization that occupies, will occupy, or is responsible for the 62185
management of a halfway house facility shall pay the costs of 62186
management of and general building services for the halfway house 62187
facility as provided in an agreement between the department of 62188
rehabilitation and correction and the halfway house organization.62189

       (C) No state funds, including state bond proceeds, shall be 62190
spent on the construction of a halfway house facility under 62191
sections 5120.102 to 5120.105 of the Revised Code, unless the 62192
general assembly has specifically authorized the spending of money 62193
on, or has made an appropriation to the department of 62194
rehabilitation and correction for, the construction of the halfway 62195
house facility or rental payments relating to the financing of the 62196
construction of that facility. An authorization to spend money or 62197
an appropriation for planning a halfway house facility does not 62198
constitute an authorization to spend money on, or an appropriation 62199
for, the construction of that facility. Capital funds for the 62200
construction of halfway house facilities under sections 5120.102 62201
to 5120.105 of the Revised Code shall be paid from the adult 62202
correctional building fund created in division (F) of section 62203
154.24 of the Revised Code.62204

       Sec. 5120.132.  (A) There is hereby created in the state 62205
treasury the prisoner programs fund. The director of 62206
rehabilitation and correction shall deposit in the fund all moneys 62207
received by the department from commissions on telephone systems 62208
established for the use of prisonersand services provided to 62209
prisoners in relation to electronic mail, prisoner trust fund 62210
deposits, and the purchase of music, digital music players, and 62211
other electronic devices. The money in the fund shall be used only 62212
to pay for the costs of the following:62213

       (1) The purchase of material, supplies, and equipment used in 62214
any library program, educational program, religious program, 62215
recreational program, or pre-release program operated by the 62216
department for the benefit of prisoners;62217

       (2) The construction, alteration, repair, or reconstruction 62218
of buildings and structures owned by the department for use in any 62219
library program, educational program, religious program, 62220
recreational program, or pre-release program operated by the 62221
department for the benefit of prisoners;62222

       (3) The payment of salary, wages, and other compensation to 62223
employees of the department who are employed in any library 62224
program, educational program, religious program, recreational 62225
program, or pre-release program operated by the department for the 62226
benefit of prisoners;62227

       (4) The compensation to vendors that contract with the 62228
department for the provision of services for the benefit of 62229
prisoners in any library program, educational program, religious 62230
program, recreational program, or pre-release program operated by 62231
the department;62232

       (5) The payment of prisoner release payments in an 62233
appropriate amount as determined pursuant to rule;62234

       (6) The purchase of other goods and the payment of other 62235
services that are determined, in the discretion of the director, 62236
to be goods and services that may provide additional benefit to 62237
prisoners.62238

       (B) The director shall establish rules for the operation of 62239
the prisoner programs fund.62240

       Sec. 5120.66.  (A) Within ninety days after November 23, 62241
2005, but not before January 1, 2006, the department of 62242
rehabilitation and correction shall establish and operate on the 62243
internet a database that contains all of the following:62244

       (1) For each inmate in the custody of the department under a 62245
sentence imposed for a conviction of or plea of guilty to any 62246
offense, all of the following information:62247

       (a) The inmate's name;62248

       (b) For each offense for which the inmate was sentenced to a 62249
prison term or term of imprisonment and is in the department's 62250
custody, the name of the offense, the Revised Code section of 62251
which the offense is a violation, the gender of each victim of the 62252
offense if those facts are known, whether each victim of the 62253
offense was an adult or child if those facts are known, the range 62254
of the possible prison terms or term of imprisonment that could 62255
have been imposed for the offense, the actual prison term or term 62256
of imprisonment imposed for the offense, the county in which the 62257
offense was committed, the date on which the inmate began serving 62258
the prison term or term of imprisonment imposed for the offense, 62259
and either the date on which the inmate will be eligible for 62260
parole relative to the offense if the prison term or term of 62261
imprisonment is an indefinite term or life term or the date on 62262
which the term ends if the prison term is a definite term;62263

       (c) All of the following information that is applicable 62264
regarding the inmate:62265

       (i) If known to the department prior to the conduct of any 62266
hearing for judicial release of the defendant pursuant to section 62267
2929.20 of the Revised Code in relation to any prison term or term 62268
of imprisonment the inmate is serving for any offense or any 62269
hearing for release of the defendant pursuant to section 2967.19 62270
of the Revised Code in relation to any such term, notice of the 62271
fact that the inmate will be having a hearing regarding a possible 62272
grant of judicial release or release, the date of the hearing, and 62273
the right of any person pursuant to division (J) of section 62274
2929.20 or division (H) of section 2967.19 of the Revised Code, 62275
whichever is applicable, to submit to the court a written 62276
statement regarding the possible judicial release or release. The 62277
department also shall post notice of the filingsubmission to a 62278
sentencing court of any petitionrecommendation for early release 62279
of the inmate pursuant to section 2967.19 of the Revised Code, as 62280
required by division (E) of that section.62281

       (ii) If the inmate is serving a prison term pursuant to 62282
division (A)(3), (B)(1)(a), (b), or (c), (B)(2)(a), (b), or (c), 62283
or (B)(3)(a), (b), (c), or (d) of section 2971.03 of the Revised 62284
Code, prior to the conduct of any hearing pursuant to section 62285
2971.05 of the Revised Code to determine whether to modify the 62286
requirement that the inmate serve the entire prison term in a 62287
state correctional facility in accordance with division (C) of 62288
that section, whether to continue, revise, or revoke any existing 62289
modification of that requirement, or whether to terminate the 62290
prison term in accordance with division (D) of that section, 62291
notice of the fact that the inmate will be having a hearing 62292
regarding those determinations and of the date of the hearing;62293

       (iii) At least three weeks before the adult parole authority 62294
recommends a pardon or commutation of sentence for the inmate or 62295
at least three weeks prior to a hearing before the adult parole 62296
authority regarding a grant of parole to the inmate in relation to 62297
any prison term or term of imprisonment the inmate is serving for 62298
any offense, notice of the fact that the inmate might be under 62299
consideration for a pardon or commutation of sentence or will be 62300
having a hearing regarding a possible grant of parole, of the date 62301
of any hearing regarding a possible grant of parole, and of the 62302
right of any person to submit a written statement regarding the 62303
pending action;62304

       (iv) At least three weeks before the inmate is transferred to 62305
transitional control under section 2967.26 of the Revised Code in 62306
relation to any prison term or term of imprisonment the inmate is 62307
serving for any offense, notice of the pendency of the transfer, 62308
of the date of the possible transfer, and of the right of any 62309
person to submit a statement regarding the possible transfer;62310

       (v) Prompt notice of the inmate's escape from any facility in 62311
which the inmate was incarcerated and of the capture of the inmate 62312
after an escape;62313

       (vi) Notice of the inmate's death while in confinement;62314

       (vii) Prior to the release of the inmate from confinement, 62315
notice of the fact that the inmate will be released, of the date 62316
of the release, and, if applicable, of the standard terms and 62317
conditions of the release;62318

       (viii) Notice of the inmate's judicial release pursuant to 62319
section 2929.20 of the Revised Code or release pursuant to section 62320
2967.19 of the Revised Code.62321

       (2) Information as to where a person can send written 62322
statements of the types referred to in divisions (A)(1)(c)(i), 62323
(iii), and (iv) of this section.62324

       (B)(1) The department shall update the database required 62325
under division (A) of this section every twenty-four hours to 62326
ensure that the information it contains is accurate and current.62327

       (2) The database required under division (A) of this section 62328
is a public record open for inspection under section 149.43 of the 62329
Revised Code. The department shall make the database searchable by 62330
inmate name and by the county and zip code where the offender 62331
intends to reside after release from a state correctional 62332
institution if this information is known to the department.62333

       (3) The database required under division (A) of this section 62334
may contain information regarding inmates who are listed in the 62335
database in addition to the information described in that 62336
division.62337

       (4) No information included on the database required under 62338
division (A) of this section shall identify or enable the 62339
identification of any victim of any offense committed by an 62340
inmate.62341

       (C) The failure of the department to comply with the 62342
requirements of division (A) or (B) of this section does not give 62343
any rights or any grounds for appeal or post-conviction relief to 62344
any inmate.62345

       (D) This section, and the related provisions of sections 62346
2929.20, 2967.03, 2967.12, and 2967.26 of the Revised Code enacted 62347
in the act in which this section was enacted, shall be known as 62348
"Laura's Law."62349

       Sec. 5122.31.  (A) All certificates, applications, records, 62350
and reports made for the purpose of this chapter and sections 62351
2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, and 2945.402 of the Revised 62352
Code, other than court journal entries or court docket entries, 62353
and directly or indirectly identifying a patient or former patient 62354
or person whose hospitalization has been sought under this 62355
chapter, shall be kept confidential and shall not be disclosed by 62356
any person except:62357

       (1) If the person identified, or the person's legal guardian, 62358
if any, or if the person is a minor, the person's parent or legal 62359
guardian, consents, and if the disclosure is in the best interests 62360
of the person, as may be determined by the court for judicial 62361
records and by the chief clinical officer for medical records;62362

       (2) When disclosure is provided for in this chapter or 62363
section 5123.60 of the Revised Code;62364

       (3) That hospitals, boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 62365
mental health services, and community mental health agencies may 62366
release necessary medical information to insurers and other 62367
third-party payers, including government entities responsible for 62368
processing and authorizing payment, to obtain payment for goods 62369
and services furnished to the patient;62370

       (4) Pursuant to a court order signed by a judge;62371

       (5) That a patient shall be granted access to the patient's 62372
own psychiatric and medical records, unless access specifically is 62373
restricted in a patient's treatment plan for clear treatment 62374
reasons;62375

       (6) That hospitals and other institutions and facilities 62376
within the department of mental health may exchange psychiatric 62377
records and other pertinent information with other hospitals, 62378
institutions, and facilities of the department, and with community 62379
mental health agencies and boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 62380
mental health services with which the department has a current 62381
agreement for patient care or services. Records and information 62382
that may be released pursuant to this division shall be limited to 62383
medication history, physical health status and history, financial 62384
status, summary of course of treatment in the hospital, summary of 62385
treatment needs, and a discharge summary, if any.62386

       (7) That hospitals within the department, other institutions 62387
and facilities within the department, hospitals licensed by the 62388
department under section 5119.20 of the Revised Code, and 62389
community mental health agencies may exchange psychiatric records 62390
and other pertinent information with payers and other providers of 62391
treatment and health services if the purpose of the exchange is to 62392
facilitate continuity of care for a patient;62393

       (8) That a patient's family member who is involved in the 62394
provision, planning, and monitoring of services to the patient may 62395
receive medication information, a summary of the patient's 62396
diagnosis and prognosis, and a list of the services and personnel 62397
available to assist the patient and the patient's family, if the 62398
patient's treating physician determines that the disclosure would 62399
be in the best interests of the patient. No such disclosure shall 62400
be made unless the patient is notified first and receives the 62401
information and does not object to the disclosure.62402

       (9) That community mental health agencies may exchange 62403
psychiatric records and certain other information with the board 62404
of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services and other 62405
agencies in order to provide services to a person involuntarily 62406
committed to a board. Release of records under this division shall 62407
be limited to medication history, physical health status and 62408
history, financial status, summary of course of treatment, summary 62409
of treatment needs, and discharge summary, if any.62410

       (10) That information may be disclosed to the executor or the 62411
administrator of an estate of a deceased patient when the 62412
information is necessary to administer the estate;62413

       (11) That records in the possession of the Ohio historical 62414
society may be released to the closest living relative of a 62415
deceased patient upon request of that relative;62416

       (12) That information may be disclosed to staff members of 62417
the appropriate board or to staff members designated by the 62418
director of mental health for the purpose of evaluating the 62419
quality, effectiveness, and efficiency of services and determining 62420
if the services meet minimum standards. Information obtained 62421
during such evaluations shall not be retained with the name of any 62422
patient.62423

       (13) That records pertaining to the patient's diagnosis, 62424
course of treatment, treatment needs, and prognosis shall be 62425
disclosed and released to the appropriate prosecuting attorney if 62426
the patient was committed pursuant to section 2945.38, 2945.39, 62427
2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code, or to the 62428
attorney designated by the board for proceedings pursuant to 62429
involuntary commitment under this chapter.62430

       (14) That the department of mental health may exchange 62431
psychiatric hospitalization records, other mental health treatment 62432
records, and other pertinent information with the department of 62433
rehabilitation and correction to ensure continuity of care for 62434
inmates who are receiving mental health services in an institution 62435
of the department of rehabilitation and correction and may 62436
exchange psychiatric hospitalization records, other mental health 62437
treatment records, and other pertinent information with boards of 62438
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services and community 62439
mental health agencies to ensure continuity of care for inmates or 62440
offenders who are receiving mental health services in an 62441
institution and are scheduled for release within six months. The 62442
department shall not disclose those records unless the inmate is 62443
notified, receives the information, and does not object to the 62444
disclosure. The release of records under this division is limited 62445
to records regarding an inmate's or offender's medication history, 62446
physical health status and history, summary of course of 62447
treatment, summary of treatment needs, and a discharge summary, if 62448
any.62449

       (15) That a community mental health agency that ceases to 62450
operate may transfer to either a community mental health agency 62451
that assumes its caseload or to the board of alcohol, drug 62452
addiction, and mental health services of the service district in 62453
which the patient resided at the time services were most recently 62454
provided any treatment records that have not been transferred 62455
elsewhere at the patient's request.62456

       (B) Before records are disclosed pursuant to divisions 62457
(A)(3), (6), (7), and (9) of this section, the custodian of the 62458
records shall attempt to obtain the patient's consent for the 62459
disclosure. No person shall reveal the contents of a medical 62460
record of a patient except as authorized by law.62461

       (C) The managing officer of a hospital who releases necessary 62462
medical information under division (A)(3) of this section to allow 62463
an insurance carrier or other third party payor to comply with 62464
section 5121.43 of the Revised Code shall neither be subject to 62465
criminal nor civil liability.62466

       Sec. 5123.01.  As used in this chapter:62467

       (A) "Chief medical officer" means the licensed physician 62468
appointed by the managing officer of an institution for the 62469
mentally retarded with the approval of the director of 62470
developmental disabilities to provide medical treatment for 62471
residents of the institution.62472

       (B) "Chief program director" means a person with special 62473
training and experience in the diagnosis and management of the 62474
mentally retarded, certified according to division (C) of this 62475
section in at least one of the designated fields, and appointed by 62476
the managing officer of an institution for the mentally retarded 62477
with the approval of the director to provide habilitation and care 62478
for residents of the institution.62479

       (C) "Comprehensive evaluation" means a study, including a 62480
sequence of observations and examinations, of a person leading to 62481
conclusions and recommendations formulated jointly, with 62482
dissenting opinions if any, by a group of persons with special 62483
training and experience in the diagnosis and management of persons 62484
with mental retardation or a developmental disability, which group 62485
shall include individuals who are professionally qualified in the 62486
fields of medicine, psychology, and social work, together with 62487
such other specialists as the individual case may require.62488

       (D) "Education" means the process of formal training and 62489
instruction to facilitate the intellectual and emotional 62490
development of residents.62491

       (E) "Habilitation" means the process by which the staff of 62492
the institution assists the resident in acquiring and maintaining 62493
those life skills that enable the resident to cope more 62494
effectively with the demands of the resident's own person and of 62495
the resident's environment and in raising the level of the 62496
resident's physical, mental, social, and vocational efficiency. 62497
Habilitation includes but is not limited to programs of formal, 62498
structured education and training.62499

       (F) "Health officer" means any public health physician, 62500
public health nurse, or other person authorized or designated by a 62501
city or general health district.62502

       (G) "Home and community-based services" means medicaid-funded 62503
home and community-based services specified in division (B)(1) of 62504
section 5111.87 of the Revised Code provided under the medicaid 62505
waiver components the department of developmental disabilities 62506
administers pursuant to section 5111.871 of the Revised Code. 62507
HoweverExcept as provided in section 5123.0412 of the Revised 62508
Code, home and community-based services provided under the 62509
medicaid waiver component known as the transitions developmental 62510
disabilities waiver are to be considered to be home and 62511
community-based services for the purposes of this chapter only to 62512
the extent, if any, provided by the contract required by section 62513
5111.871 of the Revised Code regarding the waiver.62514

       (H) "Indigent person" means a person who is unable, without 62515
substantial financial hardship, to provide for the payment of an 62516
attorney and for other necessary expenses of legal representation, 62517
including expert testimony.62518

       (I) "Institution" means a public or private facility, or a 62519
part of a public or private facility, that is licensed by the 62520
appropriate state department and is equipped to provide 62521
residential habilitation, care, and treatment for the mentally 62522
retarded.62523

       (J) "Licensed physician" means a person who holds a valid 62524
certificate issued under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code 62525
authorizing the person to practice medicine and surgery or 62526
osteopathic medicine and surgery, or a medical officer of the 62527
government of the United States while in the performance of the 62528
officer's official duties.62529

       (K) "Managing officer" means a person who is appointed by the 62530
director of developmental disabilities to be in executive control 62531
of an institution for the mentally retarded under the jurisdiction 62532
of the department.62533

       (L) "Medicaid" has the same meaning as in section 5111.01 of 62534
the Revised Code.62535

       (M) "Medicaid case management services" means case management 62536
services provided to an individual with mental retardation or 62537
other developmental disability that the state medicaid plan 62538
requires.62539

       (N) "Mentally retarded person" means a person having 62540
significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning existing 62541
concurrently with deficiencies in adaptive behavior, manifested 62542
during the developmental period.62543

       (O) "Mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization 62544
by court order" means a person eighteen years of age or older who 62545
is at least moderately mentally retarded and in relation to whom, 62546
because of the person's retardation, either of the following 62547
conditions exist:62548

       (1) The person represents a very substantial risk of physical 62549
impairment or injury to self as manifested by evidence that the 62550
person is unable to provide for and is not providing for the 62551
person's most basic physical needs and that provision for those 62552
needs is not available in the community;62553

       (2) The person needs and is susceptible to significant 62554
habilitation in an institution.62555

       (P) "A person who is at least moderately mentally retarded" 62556
means a person who is found, following a comprehensive evaluation, 62557
to be impaired in adaptive behavior to a moderate degree and to be 62558
functioning at the moderate level of intellectual functioning in 62559
accordance with standard measurements as recorded in the most 62560
current revision of the manual of terminology and classification 62561
in mental retardation published by the American association on 62562
mental retardation.62563

       (Q) As used in this division, "substantial functional 62564
limitation," "developmental delay," and "established risk" have 62565
the meanings established pursuant to section 5123.011 of the 62566
Revised Code.62567

       "Developmental disability" means a severe, chronic disability 62568
that is characterized by all of the following:62569

       (1) It is attributable to a mental or physical impairment or 62570
a combination of mental and physical impairments, other than a 62571
mental or physical impairment solely caused by mental illness as 62572
defined in division (A) of section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.62573

       (2) It is manifested before age twenty-two.62574

       (3) It is likely to continue indefinitely.62575

       (4) It results in one of the following:62576

       (a) In the case of a person under three years of age, at 62577
least one developmental delay or an established risk;62578

       (b) In the case of a person at least three years of age but 62579
under six years of age, at least two developmental delays or an 62580
established risk;62581

       (c) In the case of a person six years of age or older, a 62582
substantial functional limitation in at least three of the 62583
following areas of major life activity, as appropriate for the 62584
person's age: self-care, receptive and expressive language, 62585
learning, mobility, self-direction, capacity for independent 62586
living, and, if the person is at least sixteen years of age, 62587
capacity for economic self-sufficiency.62588

       (5) It causes the person to need a combination and sequence 62589
of special, interdisciplinary, or other type of care, treatment, 62590
or provision of services for an extended period of time that is 62591
individually planned and coordinated for the person.62592

       (R) "Developmentally disabled person" means a person with a 62593
developmental disability.62594

       (S) "State institution" means an institution that is 62595
tax-supported and under the jurisdiction of the department.62596

       (T) "Residence" and "legal residence" have the same meaning 62597
as "legal settlement," which is acquired by residing in Ohio for a 62598
period of one year without receiving general assistance prior to 62599
July 17, 1995, under former Chapter 5113. of the Revised Code, 62600
financial assistance under Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code, or 62601
assistance from a private agency that maintains records of 62602
assistance given. A person having a legal settlement in the state 62603
shall be considered as having legal settlement in the assistance 62604
area in which the person resides. No adult person coming into this 62605
state and having a spouse or minor children residing in another 62606
state shall obtain a legal settlement in this state as long as the 62607
spouse or minor children are receiving public assistance, care, or 62608
support at the expense of the other state or its subdivisions. For 62609
the purpose of determining the legal settlement of a person who is 62610
living in a public or private institution or in a home subject to 62611
licensing by the department of job and family services, the 62612
department of mental health, or the department of developmental 62613
disabilities, the residence of the person shall be considered as 62614
though the person were residing in the county in which the person 62615
was living prior to the person's entrance into the institution or 62616
home. Settlement once acquired shall continue until a person has 62617
been continuously absent from Ohio for a period of one year or has 62618
acquired a legal residence in another state. A woman who marries a 62619
man with legal settlement in any county immediately acquires the 62620
settlement of her husband. The legal settlement of a minor is that 62621
of the parents, surviving parent, sole parent, parent who is 62622
designated the residential parent and legal custodian by a court, 62623
other adult having permanent custody awarded by a court, or 62624
guardian of the person of the minor, provided that:62625

       (1) A minor female who marries shall be considered to have 62626
the legal settlement of her husband and, in the case of death of 62627
her husband or divorce, she shall not thereby lose her legal 62628
settlement obtained by the marriage.62629

       (2) A minor male who marries, establishes a home, and who has 62630
resided in this state for one year without receiving general 62631
assistance prior to July 17, 1995, under former Chapter 5113. of 62632
the Revised Code, financial assistance under Chapter 5115. of the 62633
Revised Code, or assistance from a private agency that maintains 62634
records of assistance given shall be considered to have obtained a 62635
legal settlement in this state.62636

       (3) The legal settlement of a child under eighteen years of 62637
age who is in the care or custody of a public or private child 62638
caring agency shall not change if the legal settlement of the 62639
parent changes until after the child has been in the home of the 62640
parent for a period of one year.62641

       No person, adult or minor, may establish a legal settlement 62642
in this state for the purpose of gaining admission to any state 62643
institution.62644

       (U)(1) "Resident" means, subject to division (R)(2) of this 62645
section, a person who is admitted either voluntarily or 62646
involuntarily to an institution or other facility pursuant to 62647
section 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised 62648
Code subsequent to a finding of not guilty by reason of insanity 62649
or incompetence to stand trial or under this chapter who is under 62650
observation or receiving habilitation and care in an institution.62651

       (2) "Resident" does not include a person admitted to an 62652
institution or other facility under section 2945.39, 2945.40, 62653
2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code to the extent that the 62654
reference in this chapter to resident, or the context in which the 62655
reference occurs, is in conflict with any provision of sections 62656
2945.37 to 2945.402 of the Revised Code.62657

       (V) "Respondent" means the person whose detention, 62658
commitment, or continued commitment is being sought in any 62659
proceeding under this chapter.62660

       (W) "Working day" and "court day" mean Monday, Tuesday, 62661
Wednesday, Thursday, and Friday, except when such day is a legal 62662
holiday.62663

       (X) "Prosecutor" means the prosecuting attorney, village 62664
solicitor, city director of law, or similar chief legal officer 62665
who prosecuted a criminal case in which a person was found not 62666
guilty by reason of insanity, who would have had the authority to 62667
prosecute a criminal case against a person if the person had not 62668
been found incompetent to stand trial, or who prosecuted a case in 62669
which a person was found guilty.62670

       (Y) "Court" means the probate division of the court of common 62671
pleas.62672

       (Z) "Supported living" and "residential services" have the 62673
same meanings as in section 5126.01 of the Revised Code.62674

       Sec. 5123.033. The program fee fund is hereby created in the 62675
state treasury. All fees collected pursuant to sections 5123.161, 62676
5123.164, and 5123.19, and 5126.25 of the Revised Code shall be 62677
credited to the fund. Money credited to the fund shall be used 62678
solely for the department of developmental disabilities' duties 62679
under sections 5123.16 to 5123.1695123.1610, and 5123.19, and 62680
5126.25 of the Revised Code and to provide continuing education 62681
and professional training to employees of county boards of 62682
developmental disabilities for the purpose of section 5126.25 of 62683
the Revised Code and other providers of services to individuals 62684
with mental retardation or a developmental disability. If the 62685
money credited to the fund is inadequate to pay all of the 62686
department's costs in performing those duties and providing the 62687
continuing education and professional training, the department may 62688
use other available funds appropriated to the department to pay 62689
the remaining costs of performing those duties and providing the 62690
continuing education and professional training.62691

       Sec. 5123.042. (A) TheExcept as provided in section 62692
5123.197 of the Revised Code, each person or government entity 62693
seeking to develop new or modify existing residential services 62694
shall submit to the department of developmental disabilities a 62695
plan for the development or modification. The department shall 62696
approve a plan that is submitted in accordance with rules adopted 62697
under this section and meets the uniform standards for plans 62698
established in those rules.62699

        The director of developmental disabilities shall adopt rules 62700
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing 62701
the following:62702

       (1)(A) Procedures for submitting plans under this section;62703

       (B) Uniform standards under which:62704

       (a) A person or agency shall submit plans to the county board 62705
of developmental disabilities for the development of residential 62706
services for individuals with mental retardation or a 62707
developmental disability within the county;62708

       (b) The county board must review the plans and recommend 62709
providers for the servicesfor the plans.62710

       (2) The eligibility criteria for selecting persons and 62711
agencies to provide residential services, which shall take into 62712
consideration the recommendations of the county board.62713

       (B) The county board, in accordance with its comprehensive 62714
service plan, shall review all proposals for the development of 62715
residential services that are submitted to it and shall, if the 62716
proposals are acceptable to the county board, recommend providers 62717
for the development of residential services within the county. The 62718
department shall approve proposals for the development of 62719
residential services within counties based upon the availability 62720
of funds and in accordance with rules adopted under division 62721
(A)(2) of this section.62722

       No county board shall recommend providers for the development 62723
of residential services if the county board is an applicant to 62724
provide services. In cases of possible conflict of interest, the 62725
director shall appoint a committee that shall, in accordance with 62726
the approved county comprehensive service plan, review and 62727
recommend to the director providers for the services.62728

       If a county board fails to establish an approved 62729
comprehensive service plan, the director may establish residential 62730
services development goals for the county board based on 62731
documented need as determined by the department. If a county board 62732
fails to develop or implement such a plan in accordance with the 62733
rules adopted under this section, the department may, without the 62734
involvement of the county board, review and select providers for 62735
the development of residential services in the county. 62736

       Sec. 5123.044. The department of developmental disabilities 62737
shall determine whether county boards of developmental 62738
disabilities are in compliance withviolate the rights that 62739
individuals with mental retardation or other developmental 62740
disabilities have under section 5126.046 of the Revised Code to 62741
obtain home and community-based services, nonmedicaid residential 62742
services, or nonmedicaid supported living from qualified and 62743
willing providers. The department shall provide assistance to an 62744
individual with mental retardation or other developmental 62745
disability who requests assistance with the individual's right62746
rights under that section 5126.046 of the Revised Code to choose a 62747
provider of habilitation, vocational, community employment, 62748
residential, or supported living services if the department is 62749
notified of a county board's alleged violation of the individual's 62750
right to choose such a providerrights under that section.62751

       Sec. 5123.0412. (A) The department of developmental 62752
disabilities shall charge each county board of developmental 62753
disabilities an annual fee equal to one and one-quarter per cent 62754
of the total value of all medicaid paid claims for home and 62755
community-based services provided during the year to an individual 62756
eligible for services from the county board. However, the 62757
department shall not charge the fee for home and community-based 62758
services provided under the medicaid waiver component known as the 62759
transitions developmental disabilities waiver. No county board 62760
shall pass the cost of a fee charged to the county board under 62761
this section on to another provider of these services.62762

       (B) The fees collected under this section shall be deposited 62763
into the ODDD administration and oversight fund and the ODJFS 62764
administration and oversight fund, both of which are hereby 62765
created in the state treasury. The portion of the fees to be 62766
deposited into the ODDD administration and oversight fund and the 62767
portion of the fees to be deposited into the ODJFS administration 62768
and oversight fund shall be the portion specified in an 62769
interagency agreement entered into under division (C) of this 62770
section. The department of developmental disabilities shall use 62771
the money in the ODDD administration and oversight fund and the 62772
department of job and family services shall use the money in the 62773
ODJFS administration and oversight fund for both of the following 62774
purposes:62775

       (1) Medicaid administrative costs, including administrative 62776
and oversight costs of medicaid case management services and home 62777
and community-based services. The administrative and oversight 62778
costs of medicaid case management services and home and 62779
community-based services shall include costs for staff, systems, 62780
and other resources the departments need and dedicate solely to 62781
the following duties associated with the services:62782

       (a) Eligibility determinations;62783

       (b) Training;62784

       (c) Fiscal management;62785

       (d) Claims processing;62786

       (e) Quality assurance oversight;62787

       (f) Other duties the departments identify.62788

       (2) Providing technical support to county boards' local 62789
administrative authority under section 5126.055 of the Revised 62790
Code for the services.62791

       (C) The departments of developmental disabilities and job and 62792
family services shall enter into an interagency agreement to do 62793
both of the following:62794

       (1) Specify which portion of the fees collected under this 62795
section is to be deposited into the ODDD administration and 62796
oversight fund and which portion is to be deposited into the ODJFS 62797
administration and oversight fund;62798

       (2) Provide for the departments to coordinate the staff whose 62799
costs are paid for with money in the ODDD administration and 62800
oversight fund and the ODJFS administration and oversight fund.62801

       (D) The departments shall submit an annual report to the 62802
director of budget and management certifying how the departments 62803
spent the money in the ODDD administration and oversight fund and 62804
the ODJFS administration and oversight fund for the purposes 62805
specified in division (B) of this section.62806

       Sec. 5123.0414. (A) When the director of developmental 62807
disabilities, under section 119.07 of the Revised Code, sends a 62808
party a notice by registered mail, return receipt requested, that 62809
the director intends to take action against the party authorized 62810
by section 5123.082, 5123.166, 5123.168, 5123.19, 5123.45, 62811
5123.51, or 5126.25 of the Revised Code and the notice is returned 62812
to the director with an endorsement indicating that the notice was 62813
refused or unclaimed, the director shall resend the notice by 62814
ordinary mail to the party.62815

        (B) If the original notice was refused, the notice shall be 62816
deemed received as of the date the director resends the notice.62817

        (C) If the original notice was unclaimed, the notice shall be 62818
deemed received as of the date the director resends the notice 62819
unless, not later than thirty days after the date the director 62820
sent the original notice, the resent notice is returned to the 62821
director for failure of delivery.62822

       If the notice concerns taking action under section 5123.51 of 62823
the Revised Code and the resent notice is returned to the director 62824
for failure of delivery not later than thirty days after the date 62825
the director sent the original notice, the director shall cause 62826
the notice to be published in a newspaper of general circulation 62827
in the county of the party's last known residence or business and 62828
shall mail a dated copy of the published notice to the party at 62829
the last known address. The notice shall be deemed received as of 62830
the date of the publication.62831

        If the notice concerns taking action under section 5123.082,62832
5123.166, 5123.168, 5123.19, 5123.45, or 5126.25 of the Revised 62833
Code and the resent notice is returned to the director for failure 62834
of delivery not later than thirty days after the date the director 62835
sent the original notice, the director shall resend the notice to 62836
the party a second time. The notice shall be deemed received as of 62837
the date the director resends the notice the second time.62838

       Sec. 5123.0415. As used in this section, "license" means a 62839
license, certificate, or evidence of registration.62840

       Each person and each government entity that applies for or 62841
holds a valid license, certification, or registration issued under 62842
section 5123.082, 5123.161, 5123.19, 5123.45, or 5126.25, or 62843
5126.252 of the Revised Code shall notify the director of 62844
developmental disabilities of any change in the personperson's62845
or government entity's address.62846

       Sec. 5123.081.  (A) As used in this section:62847

       (1)(a) "Applicant" means aany of the following:62848

       (i) A person who is under final consideration for appointment 62849
to or employment with the department of developmental 62850
disabilities, including, but not limited to, aor a county board 62851
of developmental disabilities;62852

       (ii) A person who is being transferred to the department and 62853
anor a county board;62854

       (iii) An employee who is being recalled to or reemployed by 62855
the department or a county board after a layoff;62856

        (iv) A person under final consideration for a direct services 62857
position with a provider or subcontractor.62858

        (b) Neither of the following is an applicant:62859

        (i) A person who is employed by a responsible entity in a 62860
position for which a criminal records check is required by this 62861
section and either is being considered for a different position 62862
with the responsible entity or is returning after a leave of 62863
absence or seasonal break in employment, unless the responsible 62864
entity has reason to believe that the person has committed a 62865
disqualifying offense;62866

        (ii) A person who is to provide only respite care under a 62867
family support services program established under section 5126.11 62868
of the Revised Code if a family member of the individual with 62869
mental retardation or a developmental disability who is to receive 62870
the respite care selects the person.62871

       (2) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 62872
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.62873

       (3) "Direct services position" means an employment position 62874
in which the employee has the opportunity to be alone with or 62875
exercises supervision or control over one or more individuals with 62876
mental retardation or a developmental disability.62877

        (4) "Disqualifying offense" means any of the following:62878

        (a) One or more violations of section 959.13, 959.131, 62879
2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, 62880
2903.13, 2903.15, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 62881
2903.341, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 62882
2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 62883
2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.24, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 62884
2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2907.33, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.04, 62885
2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 62886
2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.05, 2913.11, 2913.21, 62887
2913.31, 2913.32, 2913.40, 2913.41, 2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 62888
2913.441, 2913.45, 2913.46, 2913.47, 2913.48, 2913.49, 2913.51, 62889
2917.01, 2917.02, 2917.03, 2917.31, 2919.12, 2919.121, 2919.123, 62890
2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.03, 2921.11, 2921.13, 2921.21, 62891
2921.24, 2921.321, 2921.34, 2921.35, 2921.36, 2921.51, 2923.12, 62892
2923.122, 2923.123, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2923.162, 2923.21, 2923.32, 62893
2923.42, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.041, 2925.05, 2925.06, 62894
2925.09, 2925.13, 2925.14, 2925.22, 2925.23, 2925.24, 2925.36, 62895
2925.55, 2925.56, 2927.12, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;62896

        (b) One or more violations of section 2905.04 of the Revised 62897
Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996;62898

        (c) One or more violations of section 2919.23 of the Revised 62899
Code that would have been a violation of section 2905.04 of the 62900
Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the 62901
violation occurred prior to that date;62902

        (d) One violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that 62903
is not a minor drug possession offense;62904

        (e) Two or more violations of section 2925.11 of the Revised 62905
Code, regardless of whether any of the violations are a minor drug 62906
possession offense;62907

        (f) One or more violations of felonious sexual penetration 62908
under former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;62909

        (g) One or more violations of section 2923.01, 2923.02, or 62910
2923.03 of the Revised Code when the underlying offense that is 62911
the object of the conspiracy, attempt, or complicity is one of the 62912
offenses listed in divisions (A)(4)(a) to (f) of this section;62913

        (h) One or more felonies contained in the Revised Code that 62914
are not listed in divisions (A)(4)(a) to (g) of this section, if 62915
the felony bears a direct and substantial relationship to the 62916
duties and responsibilities of the position being filled;62917

        (i) One or more offenses contained in the Revised Code 62918
constituting a misdemeanor of the first degree on the first 62919
offense and a felony on a subsequent offense, if the offense bears 62920
a direct and substantial relationship to the position being filled 62921
and the nature of the services being provided by the responsible 62922
entity;62923

        (j) One or more violations of an existing or former municipal 62924
ordinance or law of this state, any other state, or the United 62925
States, if the offense is substantially equivalent to any of the 62926
offenses listed or described in divisions (A)(4)(a) to (i) of this 62927
section.62928

        (5)(a) "Employee" means either of the following:62929

        (i) A person appointed to or employed by the department of 62930
developmental disabilities or a county board of developmental 62931
disabilities;62932

        (ii) A person employed in a direct services position by a 62933
provider or subcontractor.62934

        (b) "Employee" does not mean a person who provides only 62935
respite care under a family support services program established 62936
under section 5126.11 of the Revised Code if a family member of 62937
the individual with mental retardation or a developmental 62938
disability who receives the respite care selected the person.62939

        (6) "Minor drug possession offense" has the same meaning as 62940
in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.62941

       (7) "Provider" means a person that provides specialized 62942
services to individuals with mental retardation or a developmental 62943
disability and employs one or more persons in direct services 62944
positions.62945

        (8) "Responsible entity" means the following:62946

        (a) The department of developmental disabilities in the case 62947
of either of the following:62948

        (i) A person who is an applicant because the person is under 62949
final consideration for appointment to or employment with the 62950
department, being transferred to the department, or being recalled 62951
to or reemployed by the department after a layoff;62952

        (ii) A person who is an employee because the person is 62953
appointed to or employed by the department.62954

        (b) A county board of developmental disabilities in the case 62955
of either of the following:62956

        (i) A person who is an applicant because the person is under 62957
final consideration for appointment to or employment with the 62958
county board, being transferred to the county board, or being 62959
recalled to or reemployed by the county board after a layoff;62960

        (ii) A person who is an employee because the person is 62961
appointed to or employed by the county board.62962

        (c) A provider in the case of either of the following:62963

        (i) A person who is an applicant because the person is under 62964
final consideration for a direct services position with the 62965
provider;62966

        (ii) A person who is an employee because the person is 62967
employed in a direct services position by the provider.62968

       (d) A subcontractor in the case of either of the following:62969

       (i) A person who is an applicant because the person is under 62970
final consideration for a direct services position with the 62971
subcontractor;62972

       (ii) A person who is an employee because the person is 62973
employed in a direct services position by the subcontractor.62974

        (9) "Specialized services" means any program or service 62975
designed and operated to serve primarily individuals with mental 62976
retardation or a developmental disability, including a program or 62977
service provided by an entity licensed or certified by the 62978
department of developmental disabilities. If there is a question 62979
as to whether a provider or subcontractor is providing specialized 62980
services, the provider or subcontractor may request that the 62981
director of developmental disabilities make a determination. The 62982
director's determination is final.62983

       (10) "Subcontractor" means a person to which both of the 62984
following apply:62985

       (a) The person has either of the following:62986

       (i) A subcontract with a provider to provide specialized 62987
services included in the contract between the provider and the 62988
department of developmental disabilities or a county board of 62989
developmental disabilities;62990

       (ii) A subcontract with another subcontractor to provide 62991
specialized services included in a subcontract between the other 62992
subcontractor and a provider or other subcontractor.62993

       (b) The person employs one or more persons in direct services 62994
positions.62995

       (B) The director of developmental disabilitiesA responsible 62996
entity shall not employ an applicant or continue to employ an 62997
employee if either of the following applies:62998

        (1) The applicant or employee fails to comply with division 62999
(D)(3) of this section.63000

        (2) Except as provided in rules adopted under this section, 63001
the applicant or employee is found by a criminal records check 63002
required by this section to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty 63003
to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction 63004
for a disqualifying offense.63005

        (C) Before employing an applicant in a position for which a 63006
criminal records check is required by this section, a responsible 63007
entity shall require the applicant to submit a statement with the 63008
applicant's signature attesting that the applicant has not been 63009
convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for 63010
intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense. 63011
The responsible entity also shall require the applicant to sign an 63012
agreement under which the applicant agrees to notify the 63013
responsible entity within fourteen calendar days if, while 63014
employed by the responsible entity, the applicant is formally 63015
charged with, is convicted of, pleads guilty to, or is found 63016
eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 63017
disqualifying offense. The agreement shall provide that the 63018
applicant's failure to provide the notification may result in 63019
termination of the applicant's employment.63020

        (D)(1) As a condition of employing any applicant in a 63021
position for which a criminal records check is required by this 63022
section, a responsible entity shall request the superintendent of 63023
the bureau of criminal identification and investigation to conduct 63024
a criminal records check with respect to each applicant, except 63025
that the director is not required to request a criminal records 63026
check for an employee of the department who is being considered 63027
for a different position or is returning after a leave of absence 63028
or seasonal break in employment, as long as the director has no 63029
reason to believe that the employee has committed any of the 63030
offenses listed or described in division (E) of this section.63031

       If theof the applicant. If rules adopted under this section 63032
require an employee to undergo a criminal records check, a 63033
responsible entity shall request the superintendent to conduct a 63034
criminal records check of the employee at times specified in the 63035
rules as a condition of the responsible entity's continuing to 63036
employ the employee in a position for which a criminal records 63037
check is required by this section. If an applicant or employee63038
does not present proof that the applicant or employee has been a 63039
resident of this state for the five-year period immediately prior 63040
to the date upon which the criminal records check is requested, 63041
the directorresponsible entity shall request that the 63042
superintendent of the bureau obtain information from the federal 63043
bureau of investigation as a part of the criminal records check 63044
for the applicant. If the applicant or employee presents proof 63045
that the applicant or employee has been a resident of this state 63046
for that five-year period, the directorresponsible entity may 63047
request that the superintendent of the bureau include information 63048
from the federal bureau of investigation in the criminal records 63049
check. For purposes of this division, an applicant or employee may 63050
provide proof of residency in this state by presenting, with a 63051
notarized statement asserting that the applicant or employee has 63052
been a resident of this state for that five-year period, a valid 63053
driver's license, notification of registration as an elector, a 63054
copy of an officially filed federal or state tax form identifying 63055
the applicant's or employee's permanent residence, or any other 63056
document the directorresponsible entity considers acceptable.63057

       (C) The director(2) A responsible entity shall providedo 63058
all of the following:63059

       (a) Provide to each applicant and employee for whom a 63060
criminal records check is required by this section a copy of the 63061
form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of 63062
the Revised Code, provide to each applicantand a standard 63063
impression sheet to obtain fingerprint impressions prescribed 63064
pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 109.572 of the Revised 63065
Code, obtain;63066

       (b) Obtain the completed form and standard impression sheet 63067
from eachthe applicant, and forwardor employee;63068

       (c) Forward the completed form and standard impression sheet 63069
to the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 63070
investigation at the time the criminal records check is requested.63071

       (3) Any applicant or employee who receives pursuant to this 63072
division a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) 63073
of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a copy of anthe 63074
standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) 63075
of that section and who is requested to complete the form and 63076
provide a set of the applicant's or employee's fingerprint 63077
impressions shall complete the form or provide all the information 63078
necessary to complete the form and shall provide the material63079
standard impression sheet with the impressions of the applicant's 63080
or employee's fingerprints. If an applicant, upon request, fails 63081
to provide the information necessary to complete the form or fails 63082
to provide impressions of the applicant's fingerprints, the 63083
director shall not employ the applicant.63084

       (D) The director(4) A responsible entity shall pay to the 63085
bureau of criminal identification and investigation the fee 63086
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the 63087
Revised Code for each criminal records check requested and 63088
conducted pursuant to this section.63089

        (E) A responsible entity may request any other state or 63090
federal agency to supply the directorresponsible entity with a 63091
written report regarding the criminal record of eachan applicant 63092
or employee. With regard to an applicant who becomes a department 63093
employee, if theIf an employee holds an occupational or 63094
professional license or other credentials, the director63095
responsible entity may request that the state or federal agency 63096
that regulates the employee's occupation or profession supply the 63097
directorresponsible entity with a written report of any 63098
information pertaining to the employee's criminal record that the 63099
agency obtains in the course of conducting an investigation or in 63100
the process of renewing the employee's license or other 63101
credentials. The responsible entity may consider the reports when 63102
determining whether to employ the applicant or to continue to 63103
employ the employee.63104

       (E) Except as provided in division (K)(2) of this section and 63105
in rules adopted by the director in accordance with division (M) 63106
of this section, the director shall not employ a person to fill a 63107
position with the department who has been convicted of or pleaded 63108
guilty to any of the following:63109

       (1) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 63110
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 63111
2903.341, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 63112
2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 63113
2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 63114
2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 63115
2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 63116
2925.05, 2925.06, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, a violation of 63117
section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 63118
1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of the Revised Code that 63119
would have been a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code 63120
as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the violation occurred 63121
prior to that date, a violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised 63122
Code that is not a minor drug possession offense, or felonious 63123
sexual penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the 63124
Revised Code;63125

       (2) A felony contained in the Revised Code that is not listed 63126
in this division, if the felony bears a direct and substantial 63127
relationship to the duties and responsibilities of the position 63128
being filled;63129

       (3) Any offense contained in the Revised Code constituting a 63130
misdemeanor of the first degree on the first offense and a felony 63131
on a subsequent offense, if the offense bears a direct and 63132
substantial relationship to the position being filled and the 63133
nature of the services being provided by the department;63134

       (4) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance 63135
or law of this state, any other state, or the United States, if 63136
the offense is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses 63137
listed or described in division (E)(1), (2), or (3) of this 63138
section.63139

       (F) Prior to employing an applicant, the director shall 63140
require the applicant to submit a statement with the applicant's 63141
signature attesting that the applicant has not been convicted of 63142
or pleaded guilty to any of the offenses listed or described in 63143
division (E) of this section. The director also shall require the 63144
applicant to sign an agreement under which the applicant agrees to 63145
notify the director within fourteen calendar days if, while 63146
employed with the department, the applicant is ever formally 63147
charged with, convicted of, or pleads guilty to any of the 63148
offenses listed or described in division (E) of this section. The 63149
agreement shall inform the applicant that failure to report formal 63150
charges, a conviction, or a guilty plea may result in being 63151
dismissed from employment.As a condition of employing an 63152
applicant in a position for which a criminal records check is 63153
required by this section and that involves transporting 63154
individuals with mental retardation or developmental disabilities 63155
or operating a responsible entity's vehicles for any purpose, the 63156
responsible entity shall obtain the applicant's driving record 63157
from the bureau of motor vehicles. If rules adopted under this 63158
section require a responsible entity to obtain an employee's 63159
driving record, the responsible entity shall obtain the employee's 63160
driving record from the bureau at times specified in the rules as 63161
a condition of continuing to employ the employee. The responsible 63162
entity may consider the applicant's or employee's driving record 63163
when determining whether to employ the applicant or to continue to 63164
employ the employee.63165

       (G) The director shall pay to the bureau of criminal 63166
identification and investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to 63167
division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each 63168
criminal records check requested and conducted pursuant to this 63169
section.A responsible entity may employ an applicant 63170
conditionally pending receipt of a report regarding the applicant 63171
requested under this section. The responsible entity shall 63172
terminate the applicant's employment if it is determined from a 63173
report that the applicant failed to inform the responsible entity 63174
that the applicant had been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or 63175
been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 63176
disqualifying offense.63177

       (H) A responsible entity may charge an applicant a fee for 63178
costs the responsible entity incurs in obtaining a report 63179
regarding the applicant under this section if the responsible 63180
entity notifies the applicant of the amount of the fee at the time 63181
of the applicant's initial application for employment and that, 63182
unless the fee is paid, the responsible entity will not consider 63183
the applicant for employment. The fee shall not exceed the amount 63184
of the fee, if any, the responsible entity pays for the report.63185

        (I)(1) Any report obtained pursuant to this section is not a 63186
public record for purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code 63187
and shall not be made available to any person, other than the 63188
following:63189

       (a) The applicant or employee who is the subject of the 63190
records check or criminal records checkreport or the applicant's 63191
or employee's representative, the department;63192

       (b) The responsible entity that requested the report or its 63193
representative, a county board of developmental disabilities, and 63194
any;63195

        (c) The department if a county board, provider, or 63196
subcontractor is the responsible entity that requested the report 63197
and the department requests the responsible entity to provide a 63198
copy of the report to the department;63199

        (d) A county board if a provider or subcontractor is the 63200
responsible entity that requested the report and the county board 63201
requests the responsible entity to provide a copy of the report to 63202
the county board;63203

        (e) Any court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 63204
involved in a case dealing with theany of the following:63205

       (i) The denial of employment to the applicant or the63206
employee;63207

       (ii) The denial, suspension, or revocation of a certificate 63208
or evidence of registration under section 5123.0825123.166 or 63209
5123.45 of the Revised Code;63210

       (iii) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid 63211
program or a program the department administers.63212

       (2) An individualapplicant or employee for whom the director63213
responsible entity has obtained reports under this section may 63214
submit a written request to the directorresponsible entity to 63215
have copies of the reports sent to any state agency, entity of 63216
local government, or private entity. The individualapplicant or 63217
employee shall specify in the request the agencies or entities to 63218
which the copies are to be sent. On receiving the request, the 63219
directorresponsible entity shall send copies of the reports to 63220
the agencies or entities specified.63221

       The director(3) A responsible entity may request that a 63222
state agency, entity of local government, or private entity send 63223
copies to the directorresponsible entity of any report regarding 63224
a records check or criminal records check that the agency or 63225
entity possesses, if the directorresponsible entity obtains the 63226
written consent of the individual who is the subject of the 63227
report.63228

       (I) The director shall request the registrar of motor 63229
vehicles to supply the director with a certified abstract 63230
regarding the record of convictions for violations of motor 63231
vehicle laws of each applicant who will be required by the 63232
applicant's employment to transport individuals with mental 63233
retardation or a developmental disability or to operate the 63234
department's vehicles for any other purpose. For each abstract 63235
provided under this section, the director shall pay the amount 63236
specified in section 4509.05 of the Revised Code.63237

       (J) The director(4) A responsible entity shall provide each 63238
applicant and employee with a copy of any report or abstract63239
obtained about the applicant or employee under this section.63240

       (K)(1) The director shall inform each person, at the time of 63241
the person's initial application for employment, that the person 63242
is required to provide a set of impressions of the person's 63243
fingerprints and that a criminal records check is required to be 63244
conducted and satisfactorily completed in accordance with section 63245
109.572 of the Revised Code if the person comes under final 63246
consideration for employment as a precondition to employment in a 63247
position.63248

       (2) The director may employ an applicant pending receipt of 63249
reports requested under this section. The director shall terminate 63250
employment of any such applicant if it is determined from the 63251
reports that the applicant failed to inform the director that the 63252
applicant had been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the 63253
offenses listed or described in division (E) of this section.63254

       (L) The director may charge an applicant a fee for costs the 63255
director incurs in obtaining reports, abstracts, or fingerprint 63256
impressions under this section. A fee charged under this division 63257
shall not exceed the amount of the fees the director pays under 63258
divisions (G) and (I) of this section. If a fee is charged under 63259
this division, the director shall notify the applicant of the 63260
amount of the fee at the time of the applicant's initial 63261
application for employment and that, unless the fee is paid, the 63262
director will not consider the applicant for employment.63263

       (M)(J) The director of developmental disabilities shall adopt 63264
rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to 63265
implement this section, including rules specifying.63266

        (1) The rules may do the following:63267

        (a) Require employees to undergo criminal records checks 63268
under this section;63269

        (b) Require responsible entities to obtain the driving 63270
records of employees under this section;63271

        (c) If the rules require employees to undergo criminal 63272
records checks, require responsible entities to obtain the driving 63273
records of employees, or both, exempt one or more classes of 63274
employees from the requirements.63275

        (2) The rules shall do both of the following:63276

        (a) If the rules require employees to undergo criminal 63277
records checks, require responsible entities to obtain the driving 63278
records of employees, or both, specify the times at which the 63279
criminal records checks are to be conducted and the driving 63280
records are to be obtained;63281

        (b) Specify circumstances under which the directora 63282
responsible entity may employ a person who hasan applicant or 63283
employee who is found by a criminal records check required by this 63284
section to have been convicted of or, pleaded guilty to an, or 63285
been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 63286
disqualifying offense listed or described in division (E) of this 63287
section but who meets standards in regard to rehabilitation set by 63288
the director.63289

       Sec. 5123.16.  (A) As used in sections 5123.16 to 5123.16963290
5123.1610 of the Revised Code:63291

       (1) "Applicant" means any of the following:63292

       (a) The chief executive officer of a business that applies 63293
under section 5123.161 of the Revised Code for a certificate to 63294
provide supported living;63295

       (b) The chief executive officer of a business that seeks 63296
renewal of the business's supported living certificate under 63297
section 5123.164 of the Revised Code;63298

       (c) An individual who applies under section 5123.161 of the 63299
Revised Code for a certificate to provide supported living as an 63300
independent provider;63301

       (d) An independent provider who seeks renewal of the 63302
independent provider's supported living certificate under section 63303
5123.164 of the Revised Code.63304

       (2)(a) "Business" means either of the following:63305

       (i) An association, corporation, nonprofit organization, 63306
partnership, trust, or other group of persons; 63307

       (ii) An individual who employs, directly or through contract, 63308
one or more other individuals to provide supported living.63309

       (b) "Business" does not mean an independent provider.63310

       (3) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 63311
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.63312

       (4) "Disqualifying offense" means any of the following:63313

       (a) One or more violations of section 959.13, 959.131, 63314
2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, 63315
2903.13, 2903.15, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 63316
2903.341, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 63317
2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 63318
2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.24, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 63319
2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2907.33, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.04, 63320
2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 63321
2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.05, 2913.11, 2913.21, 63322
2913.31, 2913.32, 2913.40, 2913.41, 2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 63323
2913.441, 2913.45, 2913.46, 2913.47, 2913.48, 2913.49, 2913.51, 63324
2917.01, 2917.02, 2917.03, 2917.31, 2919.12, 2919.121, 2919.123, 63325
2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.03, 2921.11, 2921.13, 2921.21, 63326
2921.24, 2921.321, 2921.34, 2921.35, 2921.36, 2921.51, 2923.12, 63327
2923.122, 2923.123, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2923.162, 2923.21, 2923.32, 63328
2923.42, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.041, 2925.05, 2925.06, 63329
2925.09, 2925.13, 2925.14, 2925.22, 2925.23, 2925.24, 2925.36, 63330
2925.55, 2925.56, 2927.12, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;63331

       (b) One or more violations of section 2905.04 of the Revised 63332
Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996;63333

       (c) One or more violations of section 2919.23 of the Revised 63334
Code that would have been a violation of section 2905.04 of the 63335
Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the 63336
violation occurred prior to that date;63337

       (d) One violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that 63338
is not a minor drug possession offense;63339

       (e) Two or more violations of section 2925.11 of the Revised 63340
Code, regardless of whether any of the violations are a minor drug 63341
possession offense;63342

       (f) One or more violations of felonious sexual penetration 63343
under former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;63344

       (g) One or more violations of section 2923.01, 2923.02, or 63345
2923.03 of the Revised Code when the underlying offense that is 63346
the object of the conspiracy, attempt, or complicity is one of the 63347
offenses listed in divisions (A)(4)(a) to (f) of this section;63348

       (h) One or more felonies contained in the Revised Code that 63349
are not listed in divisions (A)(4)(a) to (g) of this section, if 63350
the felony bears a direct and substantial relationship to the 63351
duties and responsibilities of the position being filled;63352

       (i) One or more offenses contained in the Revised Code 63353
constituting a misdemeanor of the first degree on the first 63354
offense and a felony on a subsequent offense, if the offense bears 63355
a direct and substantial relationship to the position being filled 63356
and the nature of the services being provided by the responsible 63357
entity;63358

       (j) One or more violations of an existing or former municipal 63359
ordinance or law of this state, any other state, or the United 63360
States, if the offense is substantially equivalent to any of the 63361
offenses listed or described in divisions (A)(4)(a) to (i) of this 63362
section.63363

       (5) "Independent provider" means a provider who provides 63364
supported living on a self-employed basis and does not employ, 63365
directly or through contract, another individual to provide the 63366
supported living.63367

       (6) "Provider" means a person or government entity certified 63368
by the director of developmental disabilities to provide supported 63369
living.63370

       (2)(7) "Minor drug possession offense" has the same meaning 63371
as in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.63372

       (8) "Related party" means any of the following:63373

       (a) In the case of a provider who is an individual, any of 63374
the following:63375

       (i) The spouse of the provider;63376

       (ii) A parent or stepparent of the provider or provider's 63377
spouse;63378

       (iii) A child of the provider or provider's spouse;63379

       (iv) A sibling, half sibling, or stepsibling of the provider 63380
or provider's spouse;63381

       (v) A grandparent of the provider or provider's spouse;63382

       (vi) A grandchild of the provider or provider's spouse;63383

       (vii) An employee or employer of the provider or provider's 63384
spouse.63385

       (b) In the case of a provider that is a person other than an 63386
individual, any of the following:63387

       (i) An employee of the person;63388

       (ii) An officer of the provider, including the chief 63389
executive officer, president, vice-president, secretary, and 63390
treasurer;63391

       (iii) A member of the provider's board of directors or 63392
trustees;63393

       (iv) A person owning a financial interest of five per cent or 63394
more in the provider;63395

       (v) A corporation that has a subsidiary relationship with the 63396
provider;63397

       (vi) A person or government entity that has control over the 63398
provider's day-to-day operation;63399

       (vii) A person over which the provider has control of the 63400
day-to-day operation.63401

       (c) In the case of a provider that is a government entity, 63402
any of the following:63403

       (i) An employee of the provider;63404

       (ii) An officer of the provider;63405

       (iii) A member of the provider's governing board;63406

       (iv) A government entity that has control over the provider's 63407
day-to-day operation;63408

       (v) A person or government entity over which the provider has 63409
control of the day-to-day operation.63410

       (B) No person or government entity may provide supported 63411
living without a valid supported living certificate issued by the 63412
director of developmental disabilities.63413

       (C) A county board of developmental disabilities may provide 63414
supported living only to the extent permitted by rules adopted 63415
under section 5123.1695123.1610 of the Revised Code.63416

       Sec. 5123.161.  A person or government entity that seeks to 63417
provide supported living shall apply to the director of 63418
developmental disabilities for a supported living certificate.63419

        Except as provided in sectionsections 5123.166 and 5123.16963420
of the Revised Code, the director shall issue to the applicant63421
person or government entity a supported living certificate if the 63422
applicantperson or government entity follows the application 63423
process established in rules adopted under section 5123.16963424
5123.1610 of the Revised Code, meets the applicable certification 63425
standards established in those rules, and pays the certification 63426
fee established in those rules.63427

       Sec. 5123.162.  The director of developmental disabilities 63428
may conduct surveys of persons and government entities that seek a 63429
supported living certificate to determine whether the persons and 63430
government entities meet the certification standards. The director 63431
may also conduct surveys of providers to determine whether the 63432
providers continue to meet the certification standards. The 63433
director shall conduct the surveys in accordance with rules 63434
adopted under section 5123.1695123.1610 of the Revised Code.63435

       The records of surveys conducted under this section are 63436
public records for the purpose of section 149.43 of the Revised 63437
Code and shall be made available on the request of any person or 63438
government entity.63439

       Sec. 5123.163.  A supported living certificate is valid for a 63440
period of time established in rules adopted under section 5123.16963441
5123.1610 of the Revised Code, unless any of the following occur 63442
before the end of that period of time:63443

        (A) The director of developmental disabilities issues an 63444
order requiring that action be taken against the certificate 63445
holder under section 5123.166 of the Revised Code.63446

        (B) The director issues an order terminating the certificate 63447
under section 5123.168 of the Revised Code.63448

        (C) The certificate holder voluntarily surrenders the 63449
certificate to the director.63450

       Sec. 5123.164. Except as provided in sectionsections63451
5123.166 and 5123.169 of the Revised Code, the director of 63452
developmental disabilities shall renew a supported living 63453
certificate if the certificate holder follows the renewal process 63454
established in rules adopted under section 5123.1695123.1610 of 63455
the Revised Code, continues to meet the applicable certification 63456
standards established in those rules, and pays the renewal fee 63457
established in those rules.63458

       Sec. 5123.166.  (A) If good cause exists as specified in 63459
division (B) of this section and determined in accordance with 63460
procedures established in rules adopted under section 5123.16963461
5123.1610 of the Revised Code, the director of developmental 63462
disabilities may issue an adjudication order requiring that one of 63463
the following actions be taken against a person or government 63464
entity seeking or holding a supported living certificate:63465

       (1) Refusal to issue or renew a supported living certificate;63466

       (2) Revocation of a supported living certificate;63467

       (3) Suspension of a supported living certificate holder's 63468
authority to do either or both of the following:63469

        (a) Continue to provide supported living to one or more 63470
individuals from one or more counties who receive supported living 63471
from the certificate holder at the time the director takes the 63472
action;63473

        (b) Begin to provide supported living to one or more 63474
individuals from one or more counties who do not receive supported 63475
living from the certificate holder at the time the director takes 63476
the action.63477

       (B) The following constitute good cause for taking action 63478
under division (A) of this section against a person or government 63479
entity seeking or holding a supported living certificate:63480

       (1) The person or government entity's failure to meet or 63481
continue to meet the applicable certification standards 63482
established in rules adopted under section 5123.1695123.1610 of 63483
the Revised Code;63484

       (2) The person or government entity violates section 5123.165 63485
of the Revised Code;63486

       (3) The person or government entity's failure to satisfy the 63487
requirements of section 5123.081 or 5123.52, 5126.28, or 5126.28163488
of the Revised Code;63489

       (4) Misfeasance;63490

       (5) Malfeasance;63491

       (6) Nonfeasance;63492

       (7) Confirmed abuse or neglect;63493

       (8) Financial irresponsibility;63494

       (9) Other conduct the director determines is or would be 63495
injurious to individuals who receive or would receive supported 63496
living from the person or government entity.63497

       (C) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, the 63498
director shall issue an adjudication order under division (A) of 63499
this section in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.63500

       (D)(1) The director may issue an order requiring that action 63501
specified in division (A)(3) of this section be taken before a 63502
provider is provided notice and an opportunity for a hearing if 63503
all of the following are the case:63504

       (a) The director determines such action is warranted by the 63505
provider's failure to continue to meet the applicable 63506
certification standards;63507

       (b) The director determines that the failure either 63508
represents a pattern of serious noncompliance or creates a 63509
substantial risk to the health or safety of an individual who 63510
receives or would receive supported living from the provider;63511

        (c) If the order will suspend the provider's authority to 63512
continue to provide supported living to an individual who receives 63513
supported living from the provider at the time the director issues 63514
the order, both of the following are the case:63515

        (i) The director makes the individual, or the individual's 63516
guardian, aware of the director's determination under division 63517
(D)(1)(b) of this section and the individual or guardian does not 63518
select another provider.63519

        (ii) A county board of developmental disabilities has filed a 63520
complaint with a probate court under section 5123.335126.33 of 63521
the Revised Code that includes facts describing the nature of 63522
abuse or neglect that the individual has suffered due to the 63523
provider's actions that are the basis for the director making the 63524
determination under division (D)(1)(b) of this section and the 63525
probate court does not issue an order authorizing the county board 63526
to arrange services for the individual pursuant to an 63527
individualized service plan developed for the individual under 63528
section 5123.315126.31 of the Revised Code.63529

       (2) If the director issues an order under division (D)(1) of 63530
this section, sections 119.091 to 119.13 of the Revised Code and 63531
all of the following apply:63532

       (a) The director shall send the provider notice of the order 63533
by registered mail, return receipt requested, not later than 63534
twenty-four hours after issuing the order and shall include in the 63535
notice the reasons for the order, the citation to the law or rule 63536
directly involved, and a statement that the provider will be 63537
afforded a hearing if the provider requests it within ten days of 63538
the time of receiving the notice.63539

       (b) If the provider requests a hearing within the required 63540
time and the provider has provided the director the provider's 63541
current address, the director shall immediately set, and notify 63542
the provider of, the date, time, and place for the hearing.63543

       (c) The date of the hearing shall be not later than thirty 63544
days after the director receives the provider's timely request for 63545
the hearing.63546

       (d) The hearing shall be conducted in accordance with section 63547
119.09 of the Revised Code, except for all of the following:63548

       (i) The hearing shall continue uninterrupted until its close, 63549
except for weekends, legal holidays, and other interruptions the 63550
provider and director agree to.63551

       (ii) If the director appoints a referee or examiner to 63552
conduct the hearing, the referee or examiner, not later than ten 63553
days after the date the referee or examiner receives a transcript 63554
of the testimony and evidence presented at the hearing or, if the 63555
referee or examiner does not receive the transcript or no such 63556
transcript is made, the date that the referee or examiner closes 63557
the record of the hearing, shall submit to the director a written 63558
report setting forth the referee or examiner's findings of fact 63559
and conclusions of law and a recommendation of the action the 63560
director should take.63561

       (iii) The provider may, not later than five days after the 63562
date the director, in accordance with section 119.09 of the 63563
Revised Code, sends the provider or the provider's attorney or 63564
other representative of record a copy of the referee or examiner's 63565
report and recommendation, file with the director written 63566
objections to the report and recommendation.63567

       (iv) The director shall approve, modify, or disapprove the 63568
referee or examiner's report and recommendation not earlier than 63569
six days, and not later than fifteen days, after the date the 63570
director, in accordance with section 119.09 of the Revised Code, 63571
sends a copy of the report and recommendation to the provider or 63572
the provider's attorney or other representative of record.63573

       (3) The director may lift an order issued under division 63574
(D)(1) of this section even though a hearing regarding the order 63575
is occurring or pending if the director determines that the 63576
provider has taken action eliminating the good cause for issuing 63577
the order. The hearing shall proceed unless the provider withdraws 63578
the request for the hearing in a written letter to the director.63579

       (4) The director shall lift an order issued under division 63580
(D)(1) of this section if both of the following are the case:63581

        (a) The provider provides the director a plan of compliance 63582
the director determines is acceptable.63583

        (b) The director determines that the provider has implemented 63584
the plan of compliance correctly.63585

       Sec. 5123.169.  (A) The director of developmental 63586
disabilities shall not issue a supported living certificate to an 63587
applicant or renew an applicant's supported living certificate if 63588
either of the following applies:63589

       (1) The applicant fails to comply with division (C)(2) of 63590
this section;63591

       (2) Except as provided in rules adopted under section 63592
5123.1610 of the Revised Code, the applicant is found by a 63593
criminal records check required by this section to have been 63594
convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for 63595
intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense.63596

       (B) Before issuing a supported living certificate to an 63597
applicant or renewing an applicant's supported living certificate, 63598
the director shall require the applicant to submit a statement 63599
with the applicant's signature attesting that the applicant has 63600
not been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible 63601
for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying 63602
offense. The director also shall require the applicant to sign an 63603
agreement under which the applicant agrees to notify the director 63604
within fourteen calendar days if, while holding a supported living 63605
certificate, the applicant is formally charged with, is convicted 63606
of, pleads guilty to, or is found eligible for intervention in 63607
lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense. The agreement 63608
shall provide that the applicant's failure to provide the 63609
notification may result in action being taken by the director 63610
against the applicant under section 5123.166 of the Revised Code.63611

       (C)(1) As a condition of receiving a supported living 63612
certificate or having a supported living certificate renewed, an 63613
applicant shall request the superintendent of the bureau of 63614
criminal identification and investigation to conduct a criminal 63615
records check of the applicant. If an applicant does not present 63616
proof to the director that the applicant has been a resident of 63617
this state for the five-year period immediately prior to the date 63618
that the applicant applies for issuance or renewal of the 63619
supported living certificate, the director shall require the 63620
applicant to request that the superintendent obtain information 63621
from the federal bureau of investigation as a part of the criminal 63622
records check. If the applicant presents proof to the director 63623
that the applicant has been a resident of this state for that 63624
five-year period, the director may require the applicant to 63625
request that the superintendent include information from the 63626
federal bureau of investigation in the criminal records check. For 63627
purposes of this division, an applicant may provide proof of 63628
residency in this state by presenting, with a notarized statement 63629
asserting that the applicant has been a resident of this state for 63630
that five-year period, a valid driver's license, notification of 63631
registration as an elector, a copy of an officially filed federal 63632
or state tax form identifying the applicant's permanent residence, 63633
or any other document the director considers acceptable.63634

       (2) Each applicant shall do all of the following:63635

       (a) Obtain a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division 63636
(C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a standard 63637
impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 63638
109.572 of the Revised Code;63639

       (b) Complete the form and provide the applicant's fingerprint 63640
impressions on the standard impression sheet;63641

       (c) Forward the completed form and standard impression sheet 63642
to the superintendent at the time the criminal records check is 63643
requested;63644

       (d) Instruct the superintendent to submit the completed 63645
report of the criminal records check directly to the director;63646

       (e) Pay to the bureau of criminal identification and 63647
investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of 63648
section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each criminal records 63649
check of the applicant requested and conducted pursuant to this 63650
section.63651

       (D) The director may request any other state or federal 63652
agency to supply the director with a written report regarding the 63653
criminal record of an applicant. The director may consider the 63654
reports when determining whether to issue a supported living 63655
certificate to the applicant or to renew an applicant's supported 63656
living certificate.63657

       (E) An applicant who seeks to be an independent provider or 63658
is an independent provider seeking renewal of the applicant's 63659
supported living certificate shall obtain the applicant's driving 63660
record from the bureau of motor vehicles and provide a copy of the 63661
record to the director if the supported living that the applicant 63662
will provide involves transporting individuals with mental 63663
retardation or developmental disabilities. The director may 63664
consider the applicant's driving record when determining whether 63665
to issue the applicant a supported living certificate or to renew 63666
the applicant's supported living certificate.63667

       (F)(1) A report obtained pursuant to this section is not a 63668
public record for purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code 63669
and shall not be made available to any person, other than the 63670
following:63671

       (a) The applicant who is the subject of the report or the 63672
applicant's representative;63673

       (b) The director or the director's representative;63674

       (c) Any court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 63675
involved in a case dealing with any of the following:63676

       (i) The denial of a supported living certificate or refusal 63677
to renew a supported living certificate;63678

       (ii) The denial, suspension, or revocation of a certificate 63679
under section 5123.45 of the Revised Code;63680

       (iii) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid 63681
program.63682

       (2) An applicant for whom the director has obtained reports 63683
under this section may submit a written request to the director to 63684
have copies of the reports sent to any person or state or local 63685
government entity. The applicant shall specify in the request the 63686
person or entities to which the copies are to be sent. On 63687
receiving the request, the director shall send copies of the 63688
reports to the persons or entities specified.63689

       (3) The director may request that a person or state or local 63690
government entity send copies to the director of any report 63691
regarding a records check or criminal records check that the 63692
person or entity possesses, if the director obtains the written 63693
consent of the individual who is the subject of the report.63694

       (4) The director shall provide each applicant with a copy of 63695
any report obtained about the applicant under this section.63696

       Sec. 5123.169.        Sec. 5123.1610.  The director of developmental 63697
disabilities shall adopt rules under Chapter 119. of the Revised 63698
Code establishing all of the following:63699

       (A) The extent to which a county board of developmental 63700
disabilities may provide supported living;63701

       (B) The application process for obtaining a supported living 63702
certificate under section 5123.161 of the Revised Code;63703

       (C) The certification standards a person or government entity 63704
must meet to obtain a supported living certificate to provide 63705
supported living;63706

       (D) The certification fee for a supported living certificate, 63707
which shall be deposited into the program fee fund created under 63708
section 5123.033 of the Revised Code;63709

       (E) The period of time a supported living certificate is 63710
valid;63711

       (F) The process for renewing a supported living certificate 63712
under section 5123.164 of the Revised Code;63713

       (G) The renewal fee for a supported living certificate, which 63714
shall be deposited into the program fee fund created under section 63715
5123.033 of the Revised Code;63716

       (H) Procedures for conducting surveys under section 5123.162 63717
of the Revised Code;63718

       (I) Procedures for determining whether there is good cause to 63719
take action under section 5123.166 of the Revised Code against a 63720
person or government entity seeking or holding a supported living 63721
certificate;63722

       (J) Circumstances under which the director may issue a 63723
supported living certificate to an applicant or renew an 63724
applicant's supported living certificate if the applicant is found 63725
by a criminal records check required by section 5123.169 of the 63726
Revised Code to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been 63727
found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 63728
disqualifying offense but meets standards in regard to 63729
rehabilitation set by the director.63730

       Sec. 5123.171.  As used in this section, "respite care" means 63731
appropriate, short-term, temporary care provided to a mentally 63732
retarded or developmentally disabled person to sustain the family 63733
structure or to meet planned or emergency needs of the family.63734

       The department of developmental disabilities shall provide 63735
respite care services to persons with mental retardation or a 63736
developmental disability for the purpose of promoting 63737
self-sufficiency and normalization, preventing or reducing 63738
inappropriate institutional care, and furthering the unity of the 63739
family by enabling the family to meet the special needs of a 63740
mentally retarded or developmentally disabled person.63741

       In order to be eligible for respite care services under this 63742
section, the mentally retarded or developmentally disabled person 63743
must be in need of habilitation services as defined in section 63744
5126.01 of the Revised Code.63745

       Respite care may be provided in a residential facility 63746
licensed under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code or(including a 63747
residential facility certified as an intermediate care facility 63748
for the mentally retarded under Title XIX of the "Social Security 63749
Act," 4979 Stat. 620344 (19351965), 42 U.S.C. 3011396, et 63750
seq., as amended, or certified as) and a respite care home 63751
certified under section 5126.05 of the Revised Code.63752

       The department shall develop a system for locating vacant 63753
beds that are available for respite care and for making 63754
information on vacant beds available to users of respite care 63755
services. Facilities certified as intermediate care facilities for 63756
the mentally retarded shall report vacant beds to the department 63757
but shall not be required to accept respite care clients.63758

       The director of developmental disabilities shall adopt, and 63759
may amend or rescind, rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 63760
Revised Code for both of the following:63761

       (A) Certification by county boards of developmental 63762
disabilities of respite care homes;63763

       (B) Provision of respite care services authorized by this 63764
section. Rules adopted under this division shall establish all of 63765
the following:63766

       (1) A formula for distributing funds appropriated for respite 63767
care services;63768

       (2) Standards for supervision, training and quality control 63769
in the provision of respite care services;63770

       (3) Eligibility criteria for emergency respite care services.63771

       Sec. 5123.19.  (A) As used in this section and in sections 63772
5123.191, 5123.194, 5123.196, 5123.197, 5123.198, and5123.19 to63773
5123.20 of the Revised Code:63774

       (1)(a) "Residential facility" means a home or facility in 63775
which a mentally retarded or developmentally disabled person 63776
resides, except the home of a relative or legal guardian in which 63777
a mentally retarded or developmentally disabled person resides, a 63778
respite care home certified under section 5126.05 of the Revised 63779
Code, a county home or district home operated pursuant to Chapter 63780
5155. of the Revised Code, or a dwelling in which the only 63781
mentally retarded or developmentally disabled residents are in an 63782
independent living arrangement or are being provided supported 63783
living.63784

        (b) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" 63785
means a residential facility that is considered an intermediate 63786
care facility for the mentally retarded for the purposes of 63787
Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code.63788

       (2) "Political subdivision" means a municipal corporation, 63789
county, or township.63790

       (3) "Independent living arrangement" means an arrangement in 63791
which a mentally retarded or developmentally disabled person 63792
resides in an individualized setting chosen by the person or the 63793
person's guardian, which is not dedicated principally to the 63794
provision of residential services for mentally retarded or 63795
developmentally disabled persons, and for which no financial 63796
support is received for rendering such service from any 63797
governmental agency by a provider of residential services.63798

       (4)(2) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" 63799
has the same meaning as in section 1905(d) of the "Social Security 63800
Act," 101 Stat. 1330-204 (1987), 42 U.S.C. 1396d(d), as amended.63801

        (3) "Licensee" means the person or government agency that has 63802
applied for a license to operate a residential facility and to 63803
which the license was issued under this section.63804

       (4) "Political subdivision" means a municipal corporation, 63805
county, or township.63806

       (5) "Related party" has the same meaning as in section 63807
5123.16 of the Revised Code except that "provider" as used in the 63808
definition of "related party" means a person or government entity 63809
that held or applied for a license to operate a residential 63810
facility, rather than a person or government entity certified to 63811
provide supported living.63812

       (6)(a) Except as provided in division (A)(6)(b) of this 63813
section, "residential facility" means a home or facility, 63814
including a facility certified as an intermediate care facility 63815
for the mentally retarded, in which an individual with mental 63816
retardation or a developmental disability resides.63817

        (b) "Residential facility" does not mean any of the 63818
following:63819

        (i) The home of a relative or legal guardian in which an 63820
individual with mental retardation or a developmental disability 63821
resides;63822

        (ii) A respite care home certified under section 5126.05 of 63823
the Revised Code;63824

        (iii) A county home or district home operated pursuant to 63825
Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code;63826

        (iv) A dwelling in which the only residents with mental 63827
retardation or developmental disabilities are in independent 63828
living arrangements or are being provided supported living.63829

       (B) Every person or government agency desiring to operate a 63830
residential facility shall apply for licensure of the facility to 63831
the director of developmental disabilities unless the residential 63832
facility is subject to section 3721.02, 5119.73, 5103.03, or63833
5119.20, or division (A)(9)(b) of section 5119.22 of the Revised 63834
Code. Notwithstanding Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, a nursing 63835
home that is certified as an intermediate care facility for the 63836
mentally retarded under Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 79 63837
Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C.A. 1396, as amended, shall apply for 63838
licensure of the portion of the home that is certified as an 63839
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded. 63840

       (C) Subject to section 5123.196 of the Revised Code, the 63841
director of developmental disabilities shall license the operation 63842
of residential facilities. An initial license shall be issued for 63843
a period that does not exceed one year, unless the director denies 63844
the license under division (D) of this section. A license shall be 63845
renewed for a period that does not exceed three years, unless the 63846
director refuses to renew the license under division (D) of this 63847
section. The director, when issuing or renewing a license, shall 63848
specify the period for which the license is being issued or 63849
renewed. A license remains valid for the length of the licensing 63850
period specified by the director, unless the license is 63851
terminated, revoked, or voluntarily surrendered.63852

       (D) If it is determined that an applicant or licensee is not 63853
in compliance with a provision of this chapter that applies to 63854
residential facilities or the rules adopted under such a 63855
provision, the director may deny issuance of a license, refuse to 63856
renew a license, terminate a license, revoke a license, issue an 63857
order for the suspension of admissions to a facility, issue an 63858
order for the placement of a monitor at a facility, issue an order 63859
for the immediate removal of residents, or take any other action 63860
the director considers necessary consistent with the director's 63861
authority under this chapter regarding residential facilities. In 63862
the director's selection and administration of the sanction to be 63863
imposed, all of the following apply:63864

       (1) The director may deny, refuse to renew, or revoke a 63865
license, if the director determines that the applicant or licensee 63866
has demonstrated a pattern of serious noncompliance or that a 63867
violation creates a substantial risk to the health and safety of 63868
residents of a residential facility.63869

       (2) The director may terminate a license if more than twelve 63870
consecutive months have elapsed since the residential facility was 63871
last occupied by a resident or a notice required by division (K) 63872
of this section is not given.63873

       (3) The director may issue an order for the suspension of 63874
admissions to a facility for any violation that may result in 63875
sanctions under division (D)(1) of this section and for any other 63876
violation specified in rules adopted under division (H)(2) of this 63877
section. If the suspension of admissions is imposed for a 63878
violation that may result in sanctions under division (D)(1) of 63879
this section, the director may impose the suspension before 63880
providing an opportunity for an adjudication under Chapter 119. of 63881
the Revised Code. The director shall lift an order for the 63882
suspension of admissions when the director determines that the 63883
violation that formed the basis for the order has been corrected.63884

       (4) The director may order the placement of a monitor at a 63885
residential facility for any violation specified in rules adopted 63886
under division (H)(2) of this section. The director shall lift the 63887
order when the director determines that the violation that formed 63888
the basis for the order has been corrected.63889

       (5) If the director determines that two or more residential 63890
facilities owned or operated by the same person or government 63891
entity are not being operated in compliance with a provision of 63892
this chapter that applies to residential facilities or the rules 63893
adopted under such a provision, and the director's findings are 63894
based on the same or a substantially similar action, practice, 63895
circumstance, or incident that creates a substantial risk to the 63896
health and safety of the residents, the director shall conduct a 63897
survey as soon as practicable at each residential facility owned 63898
or operated by that person or government entity. The director may 63899
take any action authorized by this section with respect to any 63900
facility found to be operating in violation of a provision of this 63901
chapter that applies to residential facilities or the rules 63902
adopted under such a provision.63903

       (6) When the director initiates license revocation 63904
proceedings, no opportunity for submitting a plan of correction 63905
shall be given. The director shall notify the licensee by letter 63906
of the initiation of the proceedings. The letter shall list the 63907
deficiencies of the residential facility and inform the licensee 63908
that no plan of correction will be accepted. The director shall 63909
also send a copy of the letter to the county board of 63910
developmental disabilities. The county board shall send a copy of 63911
the letter to each of the following:63912

        (a) Each resident who receives services from the licensee;63913

        (b) The guardian of each resident who receives services from 63914
the licensee if the resident has a guardian;63915

        (c) The parent or guardian of each resident who receives 63916
services from the licensee if the resident is a minor.63917

       (7) Pursuant to rules which shall be adopted in accordance 63918
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the director may order the 63919
immediate removal of residents from a residential facility 63920
whenever conditions at the facility present an immediate danger of 63921
physical or psychological harm to the residents.63922

       (8) In determining whether a residential facility is being 63923
operated in compliance with a provision of this chapter that 63924
applies to residential facilities or the rules adopted under such 63925
a provision, or whether conditions at a residential facility 63926
present an immediate danger of physical or psychological harm to 63927
the residents, the director may rely on information obtained by a 63928
county board of developmental disabilities or other governmental 63929
agencies.63930

       (9) In proceedings initiated to deny, refuse to renew, or 63931
revoke licenses, the director may deny, refuse to renew, or revoke 63932
a license regardless of whether some or all of the deficiencies 63933
that prompted the proceedings have been corrected at the time of 63934
the hearing.63935

       (E) The director shall establish a program under which public 63936
notification may be made when the director has initiated license 63937
revocation proceedings or has issued an order for the suspension 63938
of admissions, placement of a monitor, or removal of residents. 63939
The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of 63940
the Revised Code to implement this division. The rules shall 63941
establish the procedures by which the public notification will be 63942
made and specify the circumstances for which the notification must 63943
be made. The rules shall require that public notification be made 63944
if the director has taken action against the facility in the 63945
eighteen-month period immediately preceding the director's latest 63946
action against the facility and the latest action is being taken 63947
for the same or a substantially similar violation of a provision 63948
of this chapter that applies to residential facilities or the 63949
rules adopted under such a provision. The rules shall specify a 63950
method for removing or amending the public notification if the 63951
director's action is found to have been unjustified or the 63952
violation at the residential facility has been corrected.63953

       (F)(1) Except as provided in division (F)(2) of this section, 63954
appeals from proceedings initiated to impose a sanction under 63955
division (D) of this section shall be conducted in accordance with 63956
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.63957

       (2) Appeals from proceedings initiated to order the 63958
suspension of admissions to a facility shall be conducted in 63959
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, unless the order 63960
was issued before providing an opportunity for an adjudication, in 63961
which case all of the following apply:63962

       (a) The licensee may request a hearing not later than ten 63963
days after receiving the notice specified in section 119.07 of the 63964
Revised Code.63965

       (b) If a timely request for a hearing that includes the 63966
licensee's current address is made, the hearing shall commence not 63967
later than thirty days after the department receives the request.63968

       (c) After commencing, the hearing shall continue 63969
uninterrupted, except for Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays, 63970
unless other interruptions are agreed to by the licensee and the 63971
director.63972

       (d) If the hearing is conducted by a hearing examiner, the 63973
hearing examiner shall file a report and recommendations not later 63974
than ten days after the last of the following:63975

       (i) The close of the hearing;63976

       (ii) If a transcript of the proceedings is ordered, the 63977
hearing examiner receives the transcript;63978

        (iii) If post-hearing briefs are timely filed, the hearing 63979
examiner receives the briefs.63980

       (e) A copy of the written report and recommendation of the 63981
hearing examiner shall be sent, by certified mail, to the licensee 63982
and the licensee's attorney, if applicable, not later than five 63983
days after the report is filed.63984

        (f) Not later than five days after the hearing examiner files 63985
the report and recommendations, the licensee may file objections 63986
to the report and recommendations.63987

       (g) Not later than fifteen days after the hearing examiner 63988
files the report and recommendations, the director shall issue an 63989
order approving, modifying, or disapproving the report and 63990
recommendations.63991

       (h) Notwithstanding the pendency of the hearing, the director 63992
shall lift the order for the suspension of admissions when the 63993
director determines that the violation that formed the basis for 63994
the order has been corrected.63995

       (G) Neither a person or government agency whose application 63996
for a license to operate a residential facility is denied nor a 63997
related party of the person or government agency may apply for a 63998
license to operate a residential facility before the date that is 63999
one year after the date of the denial. Neither a licensee whose 64000
residential facility license is revoked nor a related party of the 64001
licensee may apply for a residential facility license before the 64002
date that is five years after the date of the revocation.64003

        (H) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the 64004
director shall adopt and may amend and rescind rules for licensing 64005
and regulating the operation of residential facilities, including 64006
intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded. The rules 64007
for residential facilities that are intermediate care facilities 64008
for the mentally retarded may differ from those for other 64009
residential facilities. The rules shall establish and specify the 64010
following:64011

       (1) Procedures and criteria for issuing and renewing 64012
licenses, including procedures and criteria for determining the 64013
length of the licensing period that the director must specify for 64014
each license when it is issued or renewed;64015

       (2) Procedures and criteria for denying, refusing to renew, 64016
terminating, and revoking licenses and for ordering the suspension 64017
of admissions to a facility, placement of a monitor at a facility, 64018
and the immediate removal of residents from a facility;64019

       (3) Fees for issuing and renewing licenses, which shall be 64020
deposited into the program fee fund created under section 5123.033 64021
of the Revised Code;64022

       (4) Procedures for surveying residential facilities;64023

       (5) Requirements for the training of residential facility 64024
personnel;64025

       (6) Classifications for the various types of residential 64026
facilities;64027

       (7) Certification procedures for licensees and management 64028
contractors that the director determines are necessary to ensure 64029
that they have the skills and qualifications to properly operate 64030
or manage residential facilities;64031

       (8) The maximum number of persons who may be served in a 64032
particular type of residential facility;64033

       (9) Uniform procedures for admission of persons to and 64034
transfers and discharges of persons from residential facilities;64035

       (10) Other standards for the operation of residential 64036
facilities and the services provided at residential facilities;64037

       (11) Procedures for waiving any provision of any rule adopted 64038
under this section.64039

       (I) Before issuing a license, the director of the department 64040
or the director's designee shall conduct a survey of the 64041
residential facility for which application is made. The director 64042
or the director's designee shall conduct a survey of each licensed 64043
residential facility at least once during the period the license 64044
is valid and may conduct additional inspections as needed. A 64045
survey includes but is not limited to an on-site examination and 64046
evaluation of the residential facility, its personnel, and the 64047
services provided there.64048

       In conducting surveys, the director or the director's 64049
designee shall be given access to the residential facility; all 64050
records, accounts, and any other documents related to the 64051
operation of the facility; the licensee; the residents of the 64052
facility; and all persons acting on behalf of, under the control 64053
of, or in connection with the licensee. The licensee and all 64054
persons on behalf of, under the control of, or in connection with 64055
the licensee shall cooperate with the director or the director's 64056
designee in conducting the survey.64057

       Following each survey, unless the director initiates a 64058
license revocation proceeding, the director or the director's 64059
designee shall provide the licensee with a report listing any 64060
deficiencies, specifying a timetable within which the licensee 64061
shall submit a plan of correction describing how the deficiencies 64062
will be corrected, and, when appropriate, specifying a timetable 64063
within which the licensee must correct the deficiencies. After a 64064
plan of correction is submitted, the director or the director's 64065
designee shall approve or disapprove the plan. A copy of the 64066
report and any approved plan of correction shall be provided to 64067
any person who requests it.64068

       The director shall initiate disciplinary action against any 64069
department employee who notifies or causes the notification to any 64070
unauthorized person of an unannounced survey of a residential 64071
facility by an authorized representative of the department.64072

       (J) In addition to any other information which may be 64073
required of applicants for a license pursuant to this section, the 64074
director shall require each applicant to provide a copy of an 64075
approved plan for a proposed residential facility pursuant to 64076
section 5123.042 of the Revised Code. This division does not apply 64077
to renewal of a license or to an applicant for an initial or 64078
modified license who meets the requirements of section 5123.193 or64079
5123.197 of the Revised Code.64080

       (K) A licensee shall notify the owner of the building in 64081
which the licensee's residential facility is located of any 64082
significant change in the identity of the licensee or management 64083
contractor before the effective date of the change if the licensee 64084
is not the owner of the building.64085

       Pursuant to rules which shall be adopted in accordance with 64086
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the director may require 64087
notification to the department of any significant change in the 64088
ownership of a residential facility or in the identity of the 64089
licensee or management contractor. If the director determines that 64090
a significant change of ownership is proposed, the director shall 64091
consider the proposed change to be an application for development 64092
by a new operator pursuant to section 5123.042 of the Revised Code 64093
and shall advise the applicant within sixty days of the 64094
notification that the current license shall continue in effect or 64095
a new license will be required pursuant to this section. If the 64096
director requires a new license, the director shall permit the 64097
facility to continue to operate under the current license until 64098
the new license is issued, unless the current license is revoked, 64099
refused to be renewed, or terminated in accordance with Chapter 64100
119. of the Revised Code.64101

       (L) A county board of developmental disabilities, the legal 64102
rights service, and any interested person may file complaints 64103
alleging violations of statute or department rule relating to 64104
residential facilities with the department. All complaints shall 64105
be in writing and shall state the facts constituting the basis of 64106
the allegation. The department shall not reveal the source of any 64107
complaint unless the complainant agrees in writing to waive the 64108
right to confidentiality or until so ordered by a court of 64109
competent jurisdiction.64110

       The department shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 64111
119. of the Revised Code establishing procedures for the receipt, 64112
referral, investigation, and disposition of complaints filed with 64113
the department under this division.64114

       (M) The department shall establish procedures for the 64115
notification of interested parties of the transfer or interim care 64116
of residents from residential facilities that are closing or are 64117
losing their license.64118

       (N) Before issuing a license under this section to a 64119
residential facility that will accommodate at any time more than 64120
one mentally retarded or developmentally disabled individual, the 64121
director shall, by first class mail, notify the following:64122

       (1) If the facility will be located in a municipal 64123
corporation, the clerk of the legislative authority of the 64124
municipal corporation;64125

       (2) If the facility will be located in unincorporated 64126
territory, the clerk of the appropriate board of county 64127
commissioners and the fiscal officer of the appropriate board of 64128
township trustees.64129

       The director shall not issue the license for ten days after 64130
mailing the notice, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal 64131
holidays, in order to give the notified local officials time in 64132
which to comment on the proposed issuance.64133

       Any legislative authority of a municipal corporation, board 64134
of county commissioners, or board of township trustees that 64135
receives notice under this division of the proposed issuance of a 64136
license for a residential facility may comment on it in writing to 64137
the director within ten days after the director mailed the notice, 64138
excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays. If the director 64139
receives written comments from any notified officials within the 64140
specified time, the director shall make written findings 64141
concerning the comments and the director's decision on the 64142
issuance of the license. If the director does not receive written 64143
comments from any notified local officials within the specified 64144
time, the director shall continue the process for issuance of the 64145
license.64146

       (O) Any person may operate a licensed residential facility 64147
that provides room and board, personal care, habilitation 64148
services, and supervision in a family setting for at least six but 64149
not more than eight persons with mental retardation or a 64150
developmental disability as a permitted use in any residential 64151
district or zone, including any single-family residential district 64152
or zone, of any political subdivision. These residential 64153
facilities may be required to comply with area, height, yard, and 64154
architectural compatibility requirements that are uniformly 64155
imposed upon all single-family residences within the district or 64156
zone.64157

       (P) Any person may operate a licensed residential facility 64158
that provides room and board, personal care, habilitation 64159
services, and supervision in a family setting for at least nine 64160
but not more than sixteen persons with mental retardation or a 64161
developmental disability as a permitted use in any multiple-family 64162
residential district or zone of any political subdivision, except 64163
that a political subdivision that has enacted a zoning ordinance 64164
or resolution establishing planned unit development districts may 64165
exclude these residential facilities from those districts, and a 64166
political subdivision that has enacted a zoning ordinance or 64167
resolution may regulate these residential facilities in 64168
multiple-family residential districts or zones as a conditionally 64169
permitted use or special exception, in either case, under 64170
reasonable and specific standards and conditions set out in the 64171
zoning ordinance or resolution to:64172

       (1) Require the architectural design and site layout of the 64173
residential facility and the location, nature, and height of any 64174
walls, screens, and fences to be compatible with adjoining land 64175
uses and the residential character of the neighborhood;64176

       (2) Require compliance with yard, parking, and sign 64177
regulation;64178

       (3) Limit excessive concentration of these residential 64179
facilities.64180

       (Q) This section does not prohibit a political subdivision 64181
from applying to residential facilities nondiscriminatory 64182
regulations requiring compliance with health, fire, and safety 64183
regulations and building standards and regulations.64184

       (R) Divisions (O) and (P) of this section are not applicable 64185
to municipal corporations that had in effect on June 15, 1977, an 64186
ordinance specifically permitting in residential zones licensed 64187
residential facilities by means of permitted uses, conditional 64188
uses, or special exception, so long as such ordinance remains in 64189
effect without any substantive modification.64190

       (S)(1) The director may issue an interim license to operate a 64191
residential facility to an applicant for a license under this 64192
section if either of the following is the case:64193

       (a) The director determines that an emergency exists 64194
requiring immediate placement of persons in a residential 64195
facility, that insufficient licensed beds are available, and that 64196
the residential facility is likely to receive a permanent license 64197
under this section within thirty days after issuance of the 64198
interim license.64199

       (b) The director determines that the issuance of an interim 64200
license is necessary to meet a temporary need for a residential 64201
facility.64202

       (2) To be eligible to receive an interim license, an 64203
applicant must meet the same criteria that must be met to receive 64204
a permanent license under this section, except for any differing 64205
procedures and time frames that may apply to issuance of a 64206
permanent license.64207

       (3) An interim license shall be valid for thirty days and may 64208
be renewed by the director for a period not to exceed one hundred 64209
fifty days.64210

       (4) The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 64211
119. of the Revised Code as the director considers necessary to 64212
administer the issuance of interim licenses.64213

       (T) Notwithstanding rules adopted pursuant to this section 64214
establishing the maximum number of persons who may be served in a 64215
particular type of residential facility, a residential facility 64216
shall be permitted to serve the same number of persons being 64217
served by the facility on the effective date of the rules or the 64218
number of persons for which the facility is authorized pursuant to 64219
a current application for a certificate of need with a letter of 64220
support from the department of developmental disabilities and 64221
which is in the review process prior to April 4, 1986.64222

       (U) The director or the director's designee may enter at any 64223
time, for purposes of investigation, any home, facility, or other 64224
structure that has been reported to the director or that the 64225
director has reasonable cause to believe is being operated as a 64226
residential facility without a license issued under this section.64227

       The director may petition the court of common pleas of the 64228
county in which an unlicensed residential facility is located for 64229
an order enjoining the person or governmental agency operating the 64230
facility from continuing to operate without a license. The court 64231
may grant the injunction on a showing that the person or 64232
governmental agency named in the petition is operating a 64233
residential facility without a license. The court may grant the 64234
injunction, regardless of whether the residential facility meets 64235
the requirements for receiving a license under this section.64236

       Sec. 5123.192. (A) A person or government agency operating, 64237
on the effective date of this section, an intermediate care 64238
facility for the mentally retarded pursuant to a nursing home 64239
license issued under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code shall do 64240
both of the following as a condition of continuing to operate the 64241
facility on and after July 1, 2013:64242

        (1) Not later than February 1, 2013, apply to the director of 64243
developmental disabilities for a residential facility license 64244
under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code for the facility;64245

        (2) Not later than July 1, 2013, obtain the residential 64246
facility license for the facility.64247

        (B) The nursing home license of an intermediate care facility 64248
for the mentally retarded shall cease to be valid at the earliest 64249
of the following:64250

        (1) The date that the facility's nursing home license is 64251
revoked or voided under section 3721.07 of the Revised Code;64252

        (2) The date that a residential facility license is obtained 64253
for the facility under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code;64254

        (3) July 1, 2013.64255

        (C) No bed that is part of an intermediate care facility for 64256
the mentally retarded that is licensed as a nursing home on the 64257
effective date of this section may be used as part of a nursing 64258
home on and after the earlier of the following:64259

        (1) The date that a residential facility license is obtained 64260
for the facility under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code;64261

        (2) July 1, 2013.64262

       Sec. 5123.31. (A) The department of developmental 64263
disabilities shall keep in its office, accessible only to its 64264
employees, except by the consent of the department or the order of 64265
the judge of a court of record, a record showing the name, 64266
residence, sex, age, nativity, occupation, condition, and date of 64267
entrance or commitment of every resident in the institutions 64268
governed by it, the date, cause, and terms of discharge and the 64269
condition of such person at the time of leaving, and also a record 64270
of all transfers from one institution to another, and, if such 64271
person dies while in the care or custody of the department, the 64272
date and cause of death. These and such other facts as the 64273
department requires shall be furnished by the managing officer of 64274
each institution within ten days after the commitment, entrance, 64275
death, or discharge of a resident.64276

       Except as provided in division (C) of this section, the 64277
department shall maintain the records described in this division 64278
in its office. The department shall make the records accessible 64279
only to its employees, except by the consent of the department or 64280
the order of the judge of a court of record.64281

       (B) In case of an accident or injury or peculiar death of a64282
an institution resident the managing officer shall make a special 64283
report to the department within twenty-four hours thereafter, 64284
giving the circumstances as fully as possible.64285

       (C) After a period of time determined by the department, the 64286
records described in division (A) of this section may be deposited 64287
with the Ohio historical society. Neither the records nor the 64288
information contained in them shall be disclosed by the historical 64289
society, except as provided in section 5123.89 of the Revised 64290
Code.64291

       Sec. 5123.38. (A) Except as provided in division (B) and (C)64292
of this section, if an individual receiving supported living or 64293
home and community-based services funded by a county board of 64294
developmental disabilities is committed to a state-operated 64295
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded pursuant to 64296
sections 5123.71 to 5123.76 of the Revised Code, the department of 64297
developmental disabilities shall use the funds otherwise allocated 64298
to the county board asis responsible for the nonfederal share of 64299
medicaid expenditures for the individual's care in the 64300
state-operated facility. The department of developmental 64301
disabilities shall collect the amount of the nonfederal share from 64302
the county board by either withholding that amount from funds the 64303
department has otherwise allocated to the county board or 64304
submitting an invoice for payment of that amount to the county 64305
board.64306

       (B) Division (A) of this section does not apply if theunder 64307
any of the following circumstances:64308

       (1) The county board, not later than ninety days after the 64309
date of the commitment of a person receiving supported services64310
living, commences funding of supported living for an individual 64311
who resides in a state-operated intermediate care facility for the 64312
mentally retarded on the date of the commitment or another 64313
eligible individual designated by the department.64314

       (C) Division (A) of this section does not apply if the(2) 64315
The county board, not later than ninety days after the date of the 64316
commitment of a person receiving home and community-based 64317
services, commences funding of home and community-based services 64318
for an individual who resides in a state-operated intermediate 64319
care facility for the mentally retarded on the date of the 64320
commitment or another eligible individual designated by the 64321
department.64322

       (3) The director of developmental disabilities, after 64323
determining that circumstances warrant granting a waiver in an 64324
individual's case, grants the county board a waiver that exempts 64325
the county board from responsibility for the nonfederal share for 64326
that case.64327

       Sec. 5123.41.  As used in this section and sections 5123.42 64328
to 5123.47 of the Revised Code:64329

       (A) "Adult services" has the same meaning as in section 64330
5126.01 of the Revised Code.64331

       (B) "Certified supported living provider" means a person or 64332
government entity certified under section 5123.161 of the Revised 64333
Code.64334

       (C) "Drug" has the same meaning as in section 4729.01 of the 64335
Revised Code.64336

       (D) "Family support services" has the same meaning as in 64337
section 5126.01 of the Revised Code.64338

       (E) "Health-related activities" means the following:64339

       (1) Taking vital signs;64340

       (2) Application of clean dressings that do not require health 64341
assessment;64342

       (3) Basic measurement of bodily intake and output;64343

       (4) Oral suctioning;64344

       (5) Use of glucometers;64345

       (6) External urinary catheter care;64346

       (7) Emptying and replacing colostomy bags;64347

       (8) Collection of specimens by noninvasive means.64348

       (F) "Licensed health professional authorized to prescribe 64349
drugs" has the same meaning as in section 4729.01 of the Revised 64350
Code.64351

       (G) "MR/DD personnel" means the employees and the workers 64352
under contract who provide specialized services to individuals 64353
with mental retardation and developmental disabilities. "MR/DD 64354
personnel" includes those who provide the services as follows:64355

       (1) Through direct employment with the department of 64356
developmental disabilities or a county board of developmental 64357
disabilities;64358

       (2) Through an entity under contract with the department of 64359
developmental disabilities or a county board of developmental 64360
disabilities;64361

       (3) Through direct employment or by being under contract with 64362
private entities, including private entities that operate 64363
residential facilities.64364

       (H) "Nursing delegation" means the process established in 64365
rules adopted by the board of nursing pursuant to Chapter 4723. of 64366
the Revised Code under which a registered nurse or licensed 64367
practical nurse acting at the direction of a registered nurse 64368
transfers the performance of a particular nursing activity or task 64369
to another person who is not otherwise authorized to perform the 64370
activity or task.64371

       (I) "Prescribed medication" means a drug that is to be 64372
administered according to the instructions of a licensed health 64373
professional authorized to prescribe drugs.64374

       (J) "Residential facility" means a facility licensed under 64375
section 5123.19 of the Revised Code or subject to section 5123.192 64376
of the Revised Code.64377

       (K) "Specialized services" has the same meaning as in section 64378
5123.50 of the Revised Code.64379

       (L) "Tube feeding" means the provision of nutrition to an 64380
individual through a gastrostomy tube or a jejunostomy tube.64381

       Sec. 5123.50.  As used in this section and sections 5123.51, 64382
5123.52, and 5123.5415123.50 to 5123.542 of the Revised Code:64383

       (A) "Abuse" means all of the following:64384

       (1) The use of physical force that can reasonably be expected 64385
to result in physical harm or serious physical harm;64386

       (2) Sexual abuse;64387

       (3) Verbal abuse.64388

       (B) "Misappropriation" means depriving, defrauding, or 64389
otherwise obtaining the real or personal property of an individual 64390
by any means prohibited by the Revised Code, including violations 64391
of Chapter 2911. or 2913. of the Revised Code.64392

       (C) "MR/DD employee" means all of the following:64393

       (1) An employee of the department of developmental 64394
disabilities;64395

       (2) An employee of a county board of developmental 64396
disabilities;64397

       (3) An employee in a position that includes providing 64398
specialized services to an individual with mental retardation or 64399
another developmental disability;64400

       (4) An independent provider as defined in section 5123.16 of 64401
the Revised Code.64402

       (D) "Neglect" means, when there is a duty to do so, failing 64403
to provide an individual with any treatment, care, goods, or 64404
services that are necessary to maintain the health and safety of 64405
the individual.64406

       (E) "Offense of violence" has the same meaning as in section 64407
2901.01 of the Revised Code.64408

       (F) "Physical harm" and "serious physical harm" have the same 64409
meanings as in section 2901.01 of the Revised Code.64410

       (F)(G) "Prescribed medication" has the same meaning as in 64411
section 5123.41 of the Revised Code.64412

       (H) "Sexual abuse" means unlawful sexual conduct or sexual 64413
contact.64414

       (G)(I) "Specialized services" means any program or service 64415
designed and operated to serve primarily individuals with mental 64416
retardation or a developmental disability, including a program or 64417
service provided by an entity licensed or certified by the 64418
department of developmental disabilities. A program or service 64419
available to the general public is not a specialized service.64420

       (H)(J) "Verbal abuse" means purposely using words to 64421
threaten, coerce, intimidate, harass, or humiliate an individual.64422

       (I)(K) "Sexual conduct," "sexual contact," and "spouse" have 64423
the same meanings as in section 2907.01 of the Revised Code.64424

       Sec. 5123.51.  (A) In addition to any other action required 64425
by sections 5123.61 and 5126.31 of the Revised Code, the 64426
department of developmental disabilities shall review each report 64427
the department receives of abuse or neglect of an individual with 64428
mental retardation or a developmental disability or 64429
misappropriation of an individual's property that includes an 64430
allegation that an MR/DD employee committed or was responsible for 64431
the abuse, neglect, or misappropriation. The department shall 64432
review a report it receives from a public children services agency 64433
only after the agency completes its investigation pursuant to 64434
section 2151.421 of the Revised Code. On receipt of a notice under 64435
section 2930.061 or 5123.541 of the Revised Code, the department 64436
shall review the notice.64437

       (B) The department shall do both of the following:64438

       (1) Investigate the allegation or adopt the findings of an 64439
investigation or review of the allegation conducted by another 64440
person or government entity and determine whether there is a 64441
reasonable basis for the allegation;64442

       (2) If the department determines that there is a reasonable 64443
basis for the allegation, conduct an adjudication pursuant to 64444
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.64445

       (C)(1) The department shall appoint an independent hearing 64446
officer to conduct any hearing conducted pursuant to division 64447
(B)(2) of this section, except that, if the hearing is regarding 64448
an employee of the department who is represented by a union, the 64449
department and a representative of the union shall jointly select 64450
the hearing officer.64451

       (2)(a) Except as provided in division (C)(2)(b) of this 64452
section, no hearing shall be conducted under division (B)(2) of 64453
this section until any criminal proceeding or collective 64454
bargaining arbitration concerning the same allegation has 64455
concluded.64456

       (b) The department may conduct a hearing pursuant to division 64457
(B)(2) of this section before a criminal proceeding concerning the 64458
same allegation is concluded if both of the following are the 64459
case:64460

        (i) The department notifies the prosecutor responsible for 64461
the criminal proceeding that the department proposes to conduct a 64462
hearing.64463

        (ii) The prosecutor consents to the hearing.64464

       (3) In conducting a hearing pursuant to division (B)(2) of 64465
this section, the hearing officer shall do all of the following:64466

       (a) Determine whether there is clear and convincing evidence 64467
that the MR/DD employee has done any of the following:64468

       (i) Misappropriated property of one or more individuals with 64469
mental retardation or a developmental disability that has a value, 64470
either separately or taken together, of one hundred dollars or 64471
more;64472

       (ii) Misappropriated property of an individual with mental 64473
retardation or a developmental disability that is designed to be 64474
used as a check, draft, negotiable instrument, credit card, charge 64475
card, or device for initiating an electronic fund transfer at a 64476
point of sale terminal, automated teller machine, or cash 64477
dispensing machine;64478

       (iii) Misappropriated prescribed medication of an individual 64479
with mental retardation or a developmental disability;64480

       (iv) Knowingly abused such an individual;64481

       (iv)(v) Recklessly abused or neglected such an individual, 64482
with resulting physical harm;64483

       (v)(vi) Negligently abused or neglected such an individual, 64484
with resulting serious physical harm;64485

       (vi)(vii) Recklessly neglected such an individual, creating a 64486
substantial risk of serious physical harm;64487

       (vii)(viii) Engaged in sexual conduct or had sexual contact 64488
with an individual with mental retardation or another 64489
developmental disability who was not the MR/DD employee's spouse 64490
and for whom the MR/DD employee was employed or under a contract 64491
to provide care;64492

       (viii)(ix) Unreasonably failed to make a report pursuant to 64493
division (C) of section 5123.61 of the Revised Code when the 64494
employee knew or should have known that the failure would result 64495
in a substantial risk of harm to an individual with mental 64496
retardation or a developmental disability;64497

       (x) Been convicted of or entered a plea of guilty to any of 64498
the following if the victim of the offense is an individual with 64499
mental retardation or a developmental disability: an offense of 64500
violence, a violation of a section contained in Chapter 2907. or 64501
Chapter 2913. of the Revised Code, or a violation of section 64502
2903.16, 2903.34, 2903.341, or 2919.22 of the Revised Code.64503

       (b) Give weight to the decision in any collective bargaining 64504
arbitration regarding the same allegation;64505

        (c) Give weight to any relevant facts presented at the 64506
hearing.64507

       (D)(1) Unless the director of developmental disabilities 64508
determines that there are extenuating circumstances and except as 64509
provided in division (E) of this section, if the director, after 64510
considering all of the factors listed in division (C)(3) of this 64511
section, finds that there is clear and convincing evidence that an 64512
MR/DD employee has done one or more of the things described in 64513
division (C)(3)(a) of this section the director shall include the 64514
name of the employee in the registry established under section 64515
5123.52 of the Revised Code.64516

       (2) Extenuating circumstances the director must consider 64517
include the use of physical force by an MR/DD employee that was 64518
necessary as self-defense.64519

       (3) If the director includes an MR/DD employee in the 64520
registry established under section 5123.52 of the Revised Code, 64521
the director shall notify the employee, the person or government 64522
entity that employs or contracts with the employee, the individual 64523
with mental retardation or a developmental disability who was the 64524
subject of the report and that individual's legal guardian, if 64525
any, the attorney general, and the prosecuting attorney or other 64526
law enforcement agency. If the MR/DD employee holds a license, 64527
certificate, registration, or other authorization to engage in a 64528
profession issued pursuant to Title XLVII of the Revised Code, the 64529
director shall notify the appropriate agency, board, department, 64530
or other entity responsible for regulating the employee's 64531
professional practice.64532

       (4) If an individual whose name appears on the registry is 64533
involved in a court proceeding or arbitration arising from the 64534
same facts as the allegation resulting in the individual's 64535
placement on the registry, the disposition of the proceeding or 64536
arbitration shall be noted in the registry next to the 64537
individual's name.64538

       (E) In the case of an allegation concerning an employee of 64539
the department, after the hearing conducted pursuant to division 64540
(B)(2) of this section, the director of health or that director's 64541
designee shall review the decision of the hearing officer to 64542
determine whether the standard described in division (C)(3) of 64543
this section has been met. If the director or designee determines 64544
that the standard has been met and that no extenuating 64545
circumstances exist, the director or designee shall notify the 64546
director of developmental disabilities that the MR/DD employee is 64547
to be included in the registry established under section 5123.52 64548
of the Revised Code. If the director of developmental disabilities 64549
receives such notification, the director shall include the MR/DD 64550
employee in the registry and shall provide the notification 64551
described in division (D)(3) of this section.64552

       (F) If the department is required by Chapter 119. of the 64553
Revised Code to give notice of an opportunity for a hearing and 64554
the MR/DD employee subject to the notice does not timely request a 64555
hearing in accordance with section 119.07 or 5123.0414 of the 64556
Revised Code, the department is not required to hold a hearing.64557

       (G) Files and records of investigations conducted pursuant to 64558
this section are not public records as defined in section 149.43 64559
of the Revised Code, but, on request, the department shall provide 64560
copies of those files and records to the attorney general, a 64561
prosecuting attorney, or a law enforcement agency.64562

       Sec. 5123.542.  (A) Each of the following shall annually 64563
provide a written notice to each of its MR/DD employees explaining 64564
the conduct for which an MR/DD employee may be included in the 64565
registry established under section 5123.52 of the Revised Code:64566

        (1) The department of developmental disabilities;64567

        (2) Each county board of developmental disabilities;64568

        (3) Each contracting entityprovider and subcontractor, as 64569
defined in section 5126.2815123.081 of the Revised Code;64570

        (4) Each owner, operator, or administrator of a residential 64571
facility, as defined in section 5123.19 of the Revised Code;64572

        (5) Each owner, operator, or administrator of a program 64573
certified by the department to provide supported living.64574

       (B) The department of developmental disabilities or a county 64575
board of developmental disabilities shall provide the notice 64576
required by division (A) of this section to an MR/DD employee who 64577
is an independent provider as defined in section 5123.16 of the 64578
Revised Code.64579

        (C) The notice described in division (A) of this section 64580
shall be in a form and provided in a manner prescribed by the 64581
department of developmental disabilities. The form shall be the 64582
same for all persons and entities required to provide notice under 64583
division (A) of this section.64584

        (C) The fact that an MR/DD employee does not receive the 64585
notice required by this section does not exempt the employee from 64586
inclusion in the registry established under section 5123.52 of the 64587
Revised Code.64588

       Sec. 5123.61.  (A) As used in this section:64589

       (1) "Law enforcement agency" means the state highway patrol, 64590
the police department of a municipal corporation, or a county 64591
sheriff.64592

       (2) "Abuse" has the same meaning as in section 5123.50 of the 64593
Revised Code, except that it includes a misappropriation, as 64594
defined in that section.64595

       (3) "Neglect" has the same meaning as in section 5123.50 of 64596
the Revised Code.64597

       (B) The department of developmental disabilities shall 64598
establish a registry office for the purpose of maintaining reports 64599
of abuse, neglect, and other major unusual incidents made to the 64600
department under this section and reports received from county 64601
boards of developmental disabilities under section 5126.31 of the 64602
Revised Code. The department shall establish committees to review 64603
reports of abuse, neglect, and other major unusual incidents.64604

       (C)(1) Any person listed in division (C)(2) of this section, 64605
having reason to believe that a person with mental retardation or 64606
a developmental disability has suffered or faces a substantial 64607
risk of suffering any wound, injury, disability, or condition of 64608
such a nature as to reasonably indicate abuse or neglect of that 64609
person, shall immediately report or cause reports to be made of 64610
such information to the entity specified in this division. Except 64611
as provided in section 5120.173 of the Revised Code or as 64612
otherwise provided in this division, the person making the report 64613
shall make it to a law enforcement agency or to the county board 64614
of developmental disabilities. If the report concerns a resident 64615
of a facility operated by the department of developmental 64616
disabilities the report shall be made either to a law enforcement 64617
agency or to the department. If the report concerns any act or 64618
omission of an employee of a county board of developmental 64619
disabilities, the report immediately shall be made to the 64620
department and to the county board.64621

       (2) All of the following persons are required to make a 64622
report under division (C)(1) of this section:64623

       (a) Any physician, including a hospital intern or resident, 64624
any dentist, podiatrist, chiropractor, practitioner of a limited 64625
branch of medicine as specified in section 4731.15 of the Revised 64626
Code, hospital administrator or employee of a hospital, nurse 64627
licensed under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code, employee of an 64628
ambulatory health facility as defined in section 5101.61 of the 64629
Revised Code, employee of a home health agency, employee of an 64630
adult careresidential facility licensed under Chapter 3722.64631
section 5119.22 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 64632
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 64633
unrelated adults, or employee of a community mental health 64634
facility;64635

       (b) Any school teacher or school authority, social worker, 64636
psychologist, attorney, peace officer, coroner, or residents' 64637
rights advocate as defined in section 3721.10 of the Revised Code;64638

       (c) A superintendent, board member, or employee of a county 64639
board of developmental disabilities; an administrator, board 64640
member, or employee of a residential facility licensed under 64641
section 5123.19 of the Revised Code; an administrator, board 64642
member, or employee of any other public or private provider of 64643
services to a person with mental retardation or a developmental 64644
disability, or any MR/DD employee, as defined in section 5123.50 64645
of the Revised Code;64646

       (d) A member of a citizen's advisory council established at 64647
an institution or branch institution of the department of 64648
developmental disabilities under section 5123.092 of the Revised 64649
Code;64650

       (e) A clergymanmember of the clergy who is employed in a 64651
position that includes providing specialized services to an 64652
individual with mental retardation or another developmental 64653
disability, while acting in an official or professional capacity 64654
in that position, or a person who is employed in a position that 64655
includes providing specialized services to an individual with 64656
mental retardation or another developmental disability and who, 64657
while acting in an official or professional capacity, renders 64658
spiritual treatment through prayer in accordance with the tenets 64659
of an organized religion.64660

       (3)(a) The reporting requirements of this division do not 64661
apply to members of the legal rights service commission or to 64662
employees of the legal rights service.64663

       (b) An attorney or physician is not required to make a report 64664
pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section concerning any 64665
communication the attorney or physician receives from a client or 64666
patient in an attorney-client or physician-patient relationship, 64667
if, in accordance with division (A) or (B) of section 2317.02 of 64668
the Revised Code, the attorney or physician could not testify with 64669
respect to that communication in a civil or criminal proceeding, 64670
except that the client or patient is deemed to have waived any 64671
testimonial privilege under division (A) or (B) of section 2317.02 64672
of the Revised Code with respect to that communication and the 64673
attorney or physician shall make a report pursuant to division 64674
(C)(1) of this section, if both of the following apply:64675

       (i) The client or patient, at the time of the communication, 64676
is a person with mental retardation or a developmental disability.64677

       (ii) The attorney or physician knows or suspects, as a result 64678
of the communication or any observations made during that 64679
communication, that the client or patient has suffered or faces a 64680
substantial risk of suffering any wound, injury, disability, or 64681
condition of a nature that reasonably indicates abuse or neglect 64682
of the client or patient.64683

       (4) Any person who fails to make a report required under 64684
division (C) of this section and who is an MR/DD employee, as 64685
defined in section 5123.50 of the Revised Code, shall be eligible 64686
to be included in the registry regarding misappropriation, abuse, 64687
neglect, or other specified misconduct by MR/DD employees 64688
established under section 5123.52 of the Revised Code.64689

       (D) The reports required under division (C) of this section 64690
shall be made forthwith by telephone or in person and shall be 64691
followed by a written report. The reports shall contain the 64692
following:64693

       (1) The names and addresses of the person with mental 64694
retardation or a developmental disability and the person's 64695
custodian, if known;64696

       (2) The age of the person with mental retardation or a 64697
developmental disability;64698

       (3) Any other information that would assist in the 64699
investigation of the report.64700

       (E) When a physician performing services as a member of the 64701
staff of a hospital or similar institution has reason to believe 64702
that a person with mental retardation or a developmental 64703
disability has suffered injury, abuse, or physical neglect, the 64704
physician shall notify the person in charge of the institution or 64705
that person's designated delegate, who shall make the necessary 64706
reports.64707

       (F) Any person having reasonable cause to believe that a 64708
person with mental retardation or a developmental disability has 64709
suffered or faces a substantial risk of suffering abuse or neglect 64710
may report or cause a report to be made of that belief to the 64711
entity specified in this division. Except as provided in section 64712
5120.173 of the Revised Code or as otherwise provided in this 64713
division, the person making the report shall make it to a law 64714
enforcement agency or the county board of developmental 64715
disabilities. If the person is a resident of a facility operated 64716
by the department of developmental disabilities, the report shall 64717
be made to a law enforcement agency or to the department. If the 64718
report concerns any act or omission of an employee of a county 64719
board of developmental disabilities, the report immediately shall 64720
be made to the department and to the county board.64721

       (G)(1) Upon the receipt of a report concerning the possible 64722
abuse or neglect of a person with mental retardation or a 64723
developmental disability, the law enforcement agency shall inform 64724
the county board of developmental disabilities or, if the person 64725
is a resident of a facility operated by the department of 64726
developmental disabilities, the director of the department or the 64727
director's designee.64728

       (2) On receipt of a report under this section that includes 64729
an allegation of action or inaction that may constitute a crime 64730
under federal law or the law of this state, the department of 64731
developmental disabilities shall notify the law enforcement 64732
agency.64733

       (3) When a county board of developmental disabilities 64734
receives a report under this section that includes an allegation 64735
of action or inaction that may constitute a crime under federal 64736
law or the law of this state, the superintendent of the board or 64737
an individual the superintendent designates under division (H) of 64738
this section shall notify the law enforcement agency. The 64739
superintendent or individual shall notify the department of 64740
developmental disabilities when it receives any report under this 64741
section.64742

       (4) When a county board of developmental disabilities 64743
receives a report under this section and believes that the degree 64744
of risk to the person is such that the report is an emergency, the 64745
superintendent of the board or an employee of the board the 64746
superintendent designates shall attempt a face-to-face contact 64747
with the person with mental retardation or a developmental 64748
disability who allegedly is the victim within one hour of the 64749
board's receipt of the report.64750

       (H) The superintendent of the board may designate an 64751
individual to be responsible for notifying the law enforcement 64752
agency and the department when the county board receives a report 64753
under this section.64754

       (I) An adult with mental retardation or a developmental 64755
disability about whom a report is made may be removed from the 64756
adult's place of residence only by law enforcement officers who 64757
consider that the adult's immediate removal is essential to 64758
protect the adult from further injury or abuse or in accordance 64759
with the order of a court made pursuant to section 5126.33 of the 64760
Revised Code.64761

       (J) A law enforcement agency shall investigate each report of 64762
abuse or neglect it receives under this section. In addition, the 64763
department, in cooperation with law enforcement officials, shall 64764
investigate each report regarding a resident of a facility 64765
operated by the department to determine the circumstances 64766
surrounding the injury, the cause of the injury, and the person 64767
responsible. The investigation shall be in accordance with the 64768
memorandum of understanding prepared under section 5126.058 of the 64769
Revised Code. The department shall determine, with the registry 64770
office which shall be maintained by the department, whether prior 64771
reports have been made concerning an adult with mental retardation 64772
or a developmental disability or other principals in the case. If 64773
the department finds that the report involves action or inaction 64774
that may constitute a crime under federal law or the law of this 64775
state, it shall submit a report of its investigation, in writing, 64776
to the law enforcement agency. If the person with mental 64777
retardation or a developmental disability is an adult, with the 64778
consent of the adult, the department shall provide such protective 64779
services as are necessary to protect the adult. The law 64780
enforcement agency shall make a written report of its findings to 64781
the department.64782

       If the person is an adult and is not a resident of a facility 64783
operated by the department, the county board of developmental 64784
disabilities shall review the report of abuse or neglect in 64785
accordance with sections 5126.30 to 5126.33 of the Revised Code 64786
and the law enforcement agency shall make the written report of 64787
its findings to the county board.64788

       (K) Any person or any hospital, institution, school, health 64789
department, or agency participating in the making of reports 64790
pursuant to this section, any person participating as a witness in 64791
an administrative or judicial proceeding resulting from the 64792
reports, or any person or governmental entity that discharges 64793
responsibilities under sections 5126.31 to 5126.33 of the Revised 64794
Code shall be immune from any civil or criminal liability that 64795
might otherwise be incurred or imposed as a result of such actions 64796
except liability for perjury, unless the person or governmental 64797
entity has acted in bad faith or with malicious purpose.64798

       (L) No employer or any person with the authority to do so 64799
shall discharge, demote, transfer, prepare a negative work 64800
performance evaluation, reduce pay or benefits, terminate work 64801
privileges, or take any other action detrimental to an employee or 64802
retaliate against an employee as a result of the employee's having 64803
made a report under this section. This division does not preclude 64804
an employer or person with authority from taking action with 64805
regard to an employee who has made a report under this section if 64806
there is another reasonable basis for the action.64807

       (M) Reports made under this section are not public records as 64808
defined in section 149.43 of the Revised Code. Information 64809
contained in the reports on request shall be made available to the 64810
person who is the subject of the report, to the person's legal 64811
counsel, and to agencies authorized to receive information in the 64812
report by the department or by a county board of developmental 64813
disabilities.64814

       (N) Notwithstanding section 4731.22 of the Revised Code, the 64815
physician-patient privilege shall not be a ground for excluding 64816
evidence regarding the injuries or physical neglect of a person 64817
with mental retardation or a developmental disability or the cause 64818
thereof in any judicial proceeding resulting from a report 64819
submitted pursuant to this section.64820

       Sec. 5123.89.  (A) All certificates, applications, records, 64821
and reports made for the purpose of this chapter, other than court 64822
journal entries or court docket entries, which directly or 64823
indirectly identify a resident or former resident of an 64824
institution for the mentally retarded or person whose 64825
institutionalization has been sought under this chapter shall be 64826
kept confidential and shall not be disclosed by any person except 64827
in the following situations:64828

       (1) It is the judgment of the court for judicial records, and 64829
the managing officer for institution records, that disclosure is 64830
in the best interest of the person identified, and that person or 64831
that person's guardian or, if that person is a minor, that 64832
person's parent or guardian consents.64833

       (2) Disclosure is provided for in other sections of this 64834
chapter.64835

       (3) It is the judgment of the managing officer for 64836
institution records that disclosure to a mental health facility is 64837
in the best interest of the person identified.64838

       (4) Disclosure is of a record deposited with the Ohio 64839
historical society pursuant to division (C) of section 5123.31 of 64840
the Revised Code and the disclosure is made to the closest living 64841
relative of the person identified, on the relative's request.64842

       (B) The department of developmental disabilities shall adopt 64843
rules with respect to the systematic and periodic destruction of 64844
residents' records.64845

       (C)(1) As used in this division, "family" means a parent, 64846
brother, sister, spouse, son, daughter, grandparent, aunt, uncle, 64847
or cousin.64848

       (2) Upon the death of a resident or former resident of an 64849
institution for the mentally retarded or a person whose 64850
institutionalization was sought under this chapter, the managing 64851
officer of an institution shall provide access to the 64852
certificates, applications, records, and reports made for the 64853
purposes of this chapter to the resident's, former resident's, or 64854
person's guardian if the guardian makes a written request. If a 64855
deceased resident, former resident, or person whose 64856
institutionalization was sought under this chapter did not have a 64857
guardian at the time of death, the managing officer shall provide 64858
access to the certificates, applications, records, and reports 64859
made for purposes of this chapter to a member of the person's 64860
family, upon that family member's written request.64861

       (D) No person shall reveal the contents of a record of a 64862
resident except as authorized by this chapter.64863

       Sec. 5126.023. (A) None of the following individuals may 64864
serve as a member of a county board of developmental disabilities:64865

       (1)(A) An elected public official, except for a township 64866
trustee, township fiscal officer, or individual excluded from the 64867
definition of public official or employee in division (B) of 64868
section 102.01 of the Revised Code;64869

       (2)(B) An immediate family member of anothera member of the 64870
same county board member;64871

       (3) A county board(C) An employee orof any county board;64872

       (D) An immediate family member of a county boardan employee 64873
of the same county board;64874

       (4)(E) A former employee of thea county board whose 64875
employment with the county board ceased less than onefour64876
calendar yearyears before the former employee would begin to 64877
serve as a member of the same county board;64878

       (5)(F) A former employee of a county board whose employment 64879
ceased less than two years before the former employee would begin 64880
to serve as a member of a different county board;64881

       (G) An individual who or whose immediate family member is a 64882
board member or an employee of an agency licensed or certified by 64883
the department of developmental disabilities to provide services 64884
to individuals with mental retardation or developmental 64885
disabilities or an individual who or whose immediate family member 64886
is an employee of such an agency;64887

       (6) An individual who or whose immediate family member is a 64888
board member or employee of an agency contracting with the county 64889
board that is not licensed or certified by the department of 64890
developmental disabilities to provide services to individuals with 64891
mental retardation or developmental disabilities unless there is 64892
no conflict of interest;64893

       (7)(H) An individual with an immediate family member who 64894
serves as a county commissioner of a county served by the county 64895
board unless the individual was a member of the county board 64896
before October 31, 1980.64897

       (B) All questions relating to the existence of a conflict of 64898
interest for the purpose of division (A)(6) of this section shall 64899
be submitted to the local prosecuting attorney for resolution. The 64900
Ohio ethics commission may examine any issues arising under 64901
Chapter 102. and sections 2921.42, 2921.421, and 2921.43 of the 64902
Revised Code.64903

       Sec. 5126.0220. (A) The superintendent of the county board 64904
of developmental disabilities shall do all of the following:64905

       (A)(1) Administer the work of the board, subject to the 64906
board's rules;64907

       (B)(2) Recommend to the board the changes necessary to 64908
increase the effectiveness of the programs and services offered 64909
pursuant to Chapters 3323. and 5126. of the Revised Code;64910

       (C)(3) Employ persons for all positions authorized by the 64911
board, approve contracts of employment for management employees 64912
that are for a term of one year or less, and approve personnel 64913
actions that involve employees in the classified civil service as 64914
may be necessary for the work of the board;64915

       (D)(4) Approve compensation for employees within the limits 64916
set by the salary schedule and budget set by the board and in 64917
accordance with section 5126.26 of the Revised Code, and ensure 64918
that all employees and consultants are properly reimbursed for 64919
actual and necessary expenses incurred in the performance of 64920
official duties;64921

       (E)(5) Provide consultation to public agencies as defined in 64922
division (C) of section 102.01 of the Revised Code, including 64923
other county boards of developmental disabilities, and to 64924
individuals, agencies, or organizations providing services 64925
supported by the board.64926

       (B) The superintendent may authorize the payment of board 64927
obligations by the county auditor.64928

       Sec. 5126.0221. (A) As used in this section, "specialized 64929
services" has the same meaning as in section 5126.2815123.081 of 64930
the Revised Code.64931

        (B) Except as provided in division (C) of section 5126.033 of 64932
the Revised Code, none of the following individuals may be 64933
employed by a county board of developmental disabilities:64934

       (1) An employee of an agency contracting with the county 64935
board;64936

       (2) An immediate family member of an employee of an agency 64937
contracting with the county board unless the county board adopts a 64938
resolution authorizing the immediate family member's employment 64939
with the county board or the employment is consistent with a 64940
policy adopted by the board establishing parameters for such 64941
employment and the policy is consistent with Chapter 102. and 64942
sections 2921.42, 2921.421, and 2921.43 of the Revised Code;64943

       (3) An individual with an immediate family member who serves 64944
as a county commissioner of any of the counties served by the 64945
county board unless the individual was an employee of the county 64946
board before October 31, 1980;64947

       (4) An individual who is employed by, has an ownership 64948
interest in, performs or provides administrative duties for, or is 64949
a member of the governing board of an entity that provides 64950
specialized services, regardless of whether the entity contracts 64951
with the county board to provide specialized services.64952

       Sec. 5126.043. When an individual with mental retardation or 64953
other developmental disability is required within this chapter to 64954
consent, refuse to give consent, or withdraw consent for services 64955
and the individual has been adjudicated incompetent pursuant to 64956
Chapter 2111. of the Revised Code, the guardian for the individual 64957
appointed under that chapter and functioning in accordance with 64958
the appointment shall be responsible for giving, refusing to give, 64959
or withdrawing the consent for services.64960

       Individuals(A) Unless a guardian has been appointed for the 64961
individual, when a decision regarding receipt of a service or 64962
participation in a program provided for or funded under this 64963
chapter or Chapter 5123. of the Revised Code by an individual with 64964
mental retardation or other developmental disability must be made, 64965
the individual shall be permitted to make the decision. The 64966
individual may obtain support and guidance from an adult family 64967
member or other person, but doing so does not affect the right of 64968
the individual to make the decision.64969

       (B) An individual with mental retardation or other 64970
developmental disability may authorize an adult to make a decision 64971
described in division (A) of this section on the individual's 64972
behalf, as long as the adult does not have a financial interest in 64973
the decision. The authorization shall be made in writing.64974

       (C) If a guardian has been appointed for an individual with 64975
mental retardation or other developmental disability, the guardian 64976
shall make any decision described in division (A) of this section 64977
on behalf of the individual. This section does not require 64978
appointment of a guardian.64979

       (D) Individuals with mental retardation and other 64980
developmental disabilities, including those who have been 64981
adjudicated incompetent pursuant to Chapter 2111. of the Revised 64982
Code, have the right to participate in decisions that affect their 64983
lives and to have their needs, desires, and preferences 64984
considered. An adult or guardian who makes a decision pursuant to 64985
division (B) or (C) of this section shall make a decision that is 64986
in the best interests of the individual on whose behalf the 64987
decision is made and that is consistent with the needs, desires, 64988
and preferences of that individual.64989

       Sec. 5126.046. (A) Each county board of developmental 64990
disabilities that has medicaid local administrative authority 64991
under division (A) of section 5126.055 of the Revised Code for 64992
habilitation, vocational, or community employment services 64993
provided as part of home and community-based services shall create 64994
a list of all persons and government entities eligible to provide 64995
such habilitation, vocational, or community employment services. 64996
If the county board chooses and is eligible to provide such 64997
habilitation, vocational, or community employment services, the 64998
county board shall include itself on the list. The county board 64999
shall make the list available to each individual with mental 65000
retardation or other developmental disability who resides in the 65001
county and is eligible for such habilitation, vocational, or 65002
community employment services. The county board shall also make 65003
the list available to such individuals' families.65004

       AnExcept as otherwise provided by 42 C.F.R. 431.51, an65005
individual with mental retardation or other developmental 65006
disability who is eligible for habilitation, vocational, or 65007
community employmenthome and community-based services may choose 65008
thehas the right to obtain the services from any provider of the 65009
services.65010

       (B) Each month, the department of developmental disabilities 65011
shall create a list of all persons and government entities 65012
eligible to provide residential services and supported living. The 65013
department shall include on the list all residential facilities 65014
licensed under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code and all 65015
supported living providers certified under section 5123.161 of the 65016
Revised Code. The department shall distribute the monthly lists to 65017
county boards that have local administrative authority under 65018
division (A) of section 5126.055 of the Revised Code for 65019
residential services and supported living provided as part of home 65020
and community-based services. A county board that receives a list 65021
shall make it available to each individual with mental retardation 65022
or other developmental disability who resides in the county and is 65023
eligible for such residential services or supported living. The 65024
county board shall also make the list available to the families of 65025
those individualsthat is qualified to furnish the services and is 65026
willing to furnish the services to the individual. A county board 65027
of developmental disabilities that has medicaid local 65028
administrative authority under division (A) of section 5126.055 of 65029
the Revised Code for home and community-based services and refuses 65030
to permit an individual to obtain home and community-based 65031
services from a qualified and willing provider shall provide the 65032
individual timely notice that the individual may request a hearing 65033
under section 5101.35 of the Revised Code.65034

       (B) An individual with mental retardation or other 65035
developmental disability who is eligible for nonmedicaid65036
residential services or nonmedicaid supported living may choose 65037
thehas the right to obtain the services from any provider of the 65038
residential services or supported living that is qualified to 65039
furnish the residential services or supported living and is 65040
willing to furnish the residential services or supported living to 65041
the individual.65042

       (C) If a county board that has medicaid local administrative 65043
authority under division (A) of section 5126.055 of the Revised 65044
Code for home and community-based services violates the right 65045
established by this section of an individual to choose a provider 65046
that is qualified and willing to provide services to the 65047
individual, the individual shall receive timely notice that the 65048
individual may request a hearing under section 5101.35 of the 65049
Revised Code.65050

       (D) The departmentsdirector of developmental disabilities 65051
and job and family services shall adopt rules in accordance with 65052
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code governing the implementation of 65053
this section. The rules shall include procedures for individuals 65054
to choose their service providers. The rules shall not be limited 65055
by a provider selection system established under section 5126.42 65056
of the Revised Code, including any pool of providers created 65057
pursuant to a provider selection system.65058

       Sec. 5126.055.  (A) Except as provided in section 5126.056 of 65059
the Revised Code, a county board of developmental disabilities has 65060
medicaid local administrative authority to, and shall, do all of 65061
the following for an individual with mental retardation or other 65062
developmental disability who resides in the county that the county 65063
board serves and seeks or receives home and community-based 65064
services:65065

       (1) Perform assessments and evaluations of the individual. As 65066
part of the assessment and evaluation process, the county board 65067
shall do all of the following:65068

       (a) Make a recommendation to the department of developmental 65069
disabilities on whether the department should approve or deny the 65070
individual's application for the services, including on the basis 65071
of whether the individual needs the level of care an intermediate 65072
care facility for the mentally retarded provides;65073

       (b) If the individual's application is denied because of the 65074
county board's recommendation and the individual requests a 65075
hearing under section 5101.35 of the Revised Code, present, with 65076
the department of developmental disabilities or department of job 65077
and family services, whichever denies the application, the reasons 65078
for the recommendation and denial at the hearing;65079

       (c) If the individual's application is approved, recommend to 65080
the departments of developmental disabilities and job and family 65081
services the services that should be included in the individual's 65082
individualized service plan and, if either department approves, 65083
reduces, denies, or terminates a service included in the 65084
individual's individualized service plan under section 5111.871 of 65085
the Revised Code because of the county board's recommendation, 65086
present, with the department that made the approval, reduction, 65087
denial, or termination, the reasons for the recommendation and 65088
approval, reduction, denial, or termination at a hearing under 65089
section 5101.35 of the Revised Code.65090

       (2) In accordance with the rules adopted under section 65091
5126.046 of the Revised Code, perform the county board'sPerform 65092
any duties assigned to the county board in rules adopted under 65093
that section 5126.046 of the Revised Code regarding assisting the 65094
individual's right to choose a qualified and willing provider of 65095
the services and, at a hearing under section 5101.35 of the 65096
Revised Code, present evidence of the process for appropriate 65097
assistance in choosing providers;65098

       (3) If the county board is certified under section 5123.161 65099
of the Revised Code to provide the services and agrees to provide 65100
the services to the individual and the individual chooses the 65101
county board to provide the services, furnish, in accordance with 65102
the county board's medicaid provider agreement and for the 65103
authorized reimbursement rate, the services the individual 65104
requires;65105

       (4) Monitor the services provided to the individual and 65106
ensure the individual's health, safety, and welfare. The 65107
monitoring shall include quality assurance activities. If the 65108
county board provides the services, the department of 65109
developmental disabilities shall also monitor the services.65110

       (5) Develop, with the individual and the provider of the 65111
individual's services, an effective individualized service plan 65112
that includes coordination of services, recommend that the 65113
departments of developmental disabilities and job and family 65114
services approve the plan, and implement the plan unless either 65115
department disapproves it. The individualized service plan shall 65116
include a summary page, agreed to by the county board, provider, 65117
and individual receiving services, that clearly outlines the 65118
amount, duration, and scope of services to be provided under the 65119
plan.65120

       (6) Have an investigative agent conduct investigations under 65121
section 5126.313 of the Revised Code that concern the individual;65122

       (7) Have a service and support administrator perform the 65123
duties under division (B)(9) of section 5126.15 of the Revised 65124
Code that concern the individual.65125

       (B) A county board shall perform its medicaid local 65126
administrative authority under this section in accordance with all 65127
of the following:65128

       (1) The county board's plan that the department of 65129
developmental disabilities approves under section 5123.046 of the 65130
Revised Code;65131

       (2) All applicable federal and state laws;65132

       (3) All applicable policies of the departments of 65133
developmental disabilities and job and family services and the 65134
United States department of health and human services;65135

       (4) The department of job and family services' supervision 65136
under its authority under section 5111.01 of the Revised Code to 65137
act as the single state medicaid agency;65138

       (5) The department of developmental disabilities' oversight.65139

       (C) The departments of developmental disabilities and job and 65140
family services shall communicate with and provide training to 65141
county boards regarding medicaid local administrative authority 65142
granted by this section. The communication and training shall 65143
include issues regarding audit protocols and other standards 65144
established by the United States department of health and human 65145
services that the departments determine appropriate for 65146
communication and training. County boards shall participate in the 65147
training. The departments shall assess the county board's 65148
compliance against uniform standards that the departments shall 65149
establish.65150

       (D) A county board may not delegate its medicaid local 65151
administrative authority granted under this section but may 65152
contract with a person or government entity, including a council 65153
of governments, for assistance with its medicaid local 65154
administrative authority. A county board that enters into such a 65155
contract shall notify the director of developmental disabilities. 65156
The notice shall include the tasks and responsibilities that the 65157
contract gives to the person or government entity. The person or 65158
government entity shall comply in full with all requirements to 65159
which the county board is subject regarding the person or 65160
government entity's tasks and responsibilities under the contract. 65161
The county board remains ultimately responsible for the tasks and 65162
responsibilities.65163

       (E) A county board that has medicaid local administrative 65164
authority under this section shall, through the departments of 65165
developmental disabilities and job and family services, reply to, 65166
and cooperate in arranging compliance with, a program or fiscal 65167
audit or program violation exception that a state or federal audit 65168
or review discovers. The department of job and family services 65169
shall timely notify the department of developmental disabilities 65170
and the county board of any adverse findings. After receiving the 65171
notice, the county board, in conjunction with the department of 65172
developmental disabilities, shall cooperate fully with the 65173
department of job and family services and timely prepare and send 65174
to the department a written plan of correction or response to the 65175
adverse findings. The county board is liable for any adverse 65176
findings that result from an action it takes or fails to take in 65177
its implementation of medicaid local administrative authority.65178

       (F) If the department of developmental disabilities or 65179
department of job and family services determines that a county 65180
board's implementation of its medicaid local administrative 65181
authority under this section is deficient, the department that 65182
makes the determination shall require that county board do the 65183
following:65184

       (1) If the deficiency affects the health, safety, or welfare 65185
of an individual with mental retardation or other developmental 65186
disability, correct the deficiency within twenty-four hours;65187

       (2) If the deficiency does not affect the health, safety, or 65188
welfare of an individual with mental retardation or other 65189
developmental disability, receive technical assistance from the 65190
department or submit a plan of correction to the department that 65191
is acceptable to the department within sixty days and correct the 65192
deficiency within the time required by the plan of correction.65193

       Sec. 5126.13.  (A) A county board of developmental 65194
disabilities may enter into an agreement with one or more other 65195
county boards of developmental disabilities to establish a 65196
regional council in accordance with Chapter 167. of the Revised 65197
Code. The agreement shall specify the duties and functions to be 65198
performed by the council, which may include any duty or function a 65199
county board is required or authorized to perform under this 65200
chapter. If directed to do so by a resolution adopted by a county 65201
board that is a member of a regional council, the department of 65202
developmental disabilities shall make any distributions of money 65203
for that county for the duties or functions performed by the 65204
council pursuant to its agreement that are otherwise required to 65205
be made to the county board under this chapter to the fiscal 65206
officer of the council designated under section 167.04 of the 65207
Revised Code.65208

       A county board may also enter into an agreement with one or 65209
more school districts or other political subdivisions to establish 65210
a regional council in accordance with Chapter 167. of the Revised 65211
Code.65212

       (B) On or before the thirtieth day of March, the fiscal 65213
officer of a regional council described in this section shall 65214
report to the department of developmental disabilities, in the 65215
format specified by the department, all income and operating 65216
expenditures of the council for the immediately preceding calendar 65217
year.65218

       Sec. 5126.15.  (A) A county board of developmental 65219
disabilities shall provide service and support administration to 65220
each individual three years of age or older who is eligible for 65221
service and support administration if the individual requests, or 65222
a person on the individual's behalf requests, service and support 65223
administration. A board shall provide service and support 65224
administration to each individual receiving home and 65225
community-based services. A board may provide, in accordance with 65226
the service coordination requirements of 34 C.F.R. 303.23, service 65227
and support administration to an individual under three years of 65228
age eligible for early intervention services under 34 C.F.R. part 65229
303. A board may provide service and support administration to an 65230
individual who is not eligible for other services of the board. 65231
Service and support administration shall be provided in accordance 65232
with rules adopted under section 5126.08 of the Revised Code.65233

       A board may provide service and support administration by 65234
directly employing service and support administrators or by 65235
contracting with entities for the performance of service and 65236
support administration. Individuals employed or under contract as 65237
service and support administrators shall not be in the same 65238
collective bargaining unit as employees who perform duties that 65239
are not administrative.65240

       Individuals employed by a board as service and support 65241
administrators shall not be assigned responsibilities for 65242
implementing other services for individuals and shall not be 65243
employed by or serve in a decision-making or policy-making 65244
capacity for any other entity that provides programs or services 65245
to individuals with mental retardation or developmental 65246
disabilities. An individual employed as a conditional status 65247
service and support administrator shall perform the duties of 65248
service and support administration only under the supervision of a 65249
management employee who is a service and support administration 65250
supervisor.65251

       (B) The individuals employed by or under contract with a 65252
board to provide service and support administration shall do all 65253
of the following:65254

       (1) Establish an individual's eligibility for the services of 65255
the county board of developmental disabilities;65256

       (2) Assess individual needs for services;65257

       (3) Develop individual service plans with the active 65258
participation of the individual to be served, other persons 65259
selected by the individual, and, when applicable, the provider 65260
selected by the individual, and recommend the plans for approval 65261
by the department of developmental disabilities when services 65262
included in the plans are funded through medicaid;65263

       (4) Establish budgets for services based on the individual's 65264
assessed needs and preferred ways of meeting those needs;65265

       (5) Assist individuals in making selections from among the 65266
providers they have chosen;65267

       (6) Ensure that services are effectively coordinated and 65268
provided by appropriate providers;65269

       (7) Establish and implement an ongoing system of monitoring 65270
the implementation of individual service plans to achieve 65271
consistent implementation and the desired outcomes for the 65272
individual;65273

       (8) Perform quality assurance reviews as a distinct function 65274
of service and support administration;65275

       (9) Incorporate the results of quality assurance reviews and 65276
identified trends and patterns of unusual incidents and major 65277
unusual incidents into amendments of an individual's service plan 65278
for the purpose of improving and enhancing the quality and 65279
appropriateness of services rendered to the individual;65280

       (10) Ensure that each individual receiving services has a 65281
designated person who is responsible on a continuing basis for 65282
providing the individual with representation, advocacy, advice, 65283
and assistance related to the day-to-day coordination of services 65284
in accordance with the individual's service plan. The service and 65285
support administrator shall give the individual receiving services 65286
an opportunity to designate the person to provide daily 65287
representation. If the individual declines to make a designation, 65288
the administrator shall make the designation. In either case, the 65289
individual receiving services may change at any time the person 65290
designated to provide daily representation.65291

       Sec. 5126.20.  As used in this section and sections 5126.21 65292
to 5126.295126.25 of the Revised Code:65293

       (A) "Service employee" means a person employed by a county 65294
board of developmental disabilities in a position which may 65295
require evidence of registration under section 5126.25 of the 65296
Revised Code but for which a bachelor's degree from an accredited 65297
college or university is not required, and includes employees in 65298
the positions listed in division (C) of section 5126.22 of the 65299
Revised Code.65300

       (B)(1) "Professional employee" means both of the following:65301

       (a) A person employed by a board in a position for which 65302
either a bachelor's degree from an accredited college or 65303
university or a license or certificate issued under Title XLVII of 65304
the Revised Code is a minimum requirement;65305

       (b) A person employed by a board as a conditional status 65306
service and support administrator.65307

       (2) "Professional employee" includes employees in the 65308
positions listed in division (B) of section 5126.22 of the Revised 65309
Code.65310

       (C) "Management employee" means a person employed by a board 65311
in a position having supervisory or managerial responsibilities 65312
and duties, and includes employees in the positions listed in 65313
division (A) of section 5126.22 of the Revised Code.65314

       (D) "Limited contract" means a contract of limited duration 65315
which is renewable at the discretion of the superintendent.65316

       (E) "Continuing contract" means a contract of employment that 65317
was issued prior to June 24, 1988, to a classified employee under 65318
which the employee has completed the employee's probationary 65319
period and under which the employee retains employment until the 65320
employee retires or resigns, is removed pursuant to section 65321
5126.23 of the Revised Code, or is laid off.65322

       (F) "Supervisory responsibilities and duties" includes the 65323
authority to hire, transfer, suspend, lay off, recall, promote, 65324
discharge, assign, reward, or discipline other employees of the 65325
board; to responsibly direct them; to adjust their grievances; or 65326
to effectively recommend such action, if the exercise of that 65327
authority is not of a merely routine or clerical nature but 65328
requires the use of independent judgment.65329

       (G)(F) "Managerial responsibilities and duties" includes 65330
formulating policy on behalf of the board, responsibly directing 65331
the implementation of policy, assisting in the preparation for the 65332
conduct of collective negotiations, administering collectively 65333
negotiated agreements, or having a major role in personnel 65334
administration.65335

       (H)(G) "Investigative agent" means an individual who conducts 65336
investigations under section 5126.313 of the Revised Code.65337

       Sec. 5126.21.  As used in this section, "management employee" 65338
does not include the superintendent of a county board of 65339
developmental disabilities.65340

       (A)(1) Each management employee of a county board of 65341
developmental disabilities shall hold a limited contract for a 65342
period of not less than one year and not more than five years, 65343
except that a management employee hired after the beginning of a 65344
program year may be employed under a limited contract expiring at 65345
the end of the program year. The board shall approve all contracts 65346
of employment for management employees that are for a term of more 65347
than one year. A management employee shall receive notice of the 65348
superintendent's intention not to rehire the employee at least 65349
ninety days prior to the expiration of the contract. If the 65350
superintendent fails to notify a management employee, the employee 65351
shall be reemployed under a limited contract of one year at the 65352
same salary plus any authorized salary increases.65353

       (2) During the term of a contract a management employee's 65354
salary may be increased, but shall not be reduced unless the 65355
reduction is part of a uniform plan affecting all employees of the 65356
board.65357

       (B) All management employees may be removed, suspended, or 65358
demoted for cause pursuant to section 5126.23 of the Revised Code.65359

       (C) All management employees shall receive employee benefits 65360
that shall include sick leave, vacation leave, holiday pay, and 65361
such other benefits as are established by the board. Sections 65362
124.38 and 325.19 of the Revised Code do not apply to management 65363
employees.65364

       (D) The superintendent of a county board of developmental 65365
disabilities shall notify all management employees of the board of 65366
their salary no later than thirty days before the first day of the 65367
new contract year.65368

       (E) All management employees of a county board of 65369
developmental disabilities who were given continuing contract 65370
status prior to the effective date of this section have continuing 65371
contract status so long as they maintain employment with the 65372
board.65373

       (F) All management employees who were probationary employees 65374
on the effective date of this section shall, upon completion of 65375
their probationary period, be granted continuing contract status 65376
if retained in employment.65377

       (G) Each county board of developmental disabilities shall 65378
establish a lay-off policy to be followed if it determines a 65379
reduction in the number of management employees is necessary.65380

       Sec. 5126.22.  (A) Employees who hold the following positions 65381
in a county board of developmental disabilities are management 65382
employees:65383

       assistant superintendent65384

       director of business65385

       director of personnel65386

       adult services director65387

       workshop director65388

       habilitation manager65389

       director of residential services65390

       principal (director of children services)65391

       program or service supervisor65392

       plant manager65393

       production manager65394

       service and support administration supervisor65395

       investigative agent65396

       confidential employees as defined in section 4117.01 of the 65397
Revised Code65398

       positions designated by the director of developmental 65399
disabilities as having managerial or supervisory responsibilities 65400
and duties65401

       positions designated by the county board in accordance with 65402
division (D) of this section.65403

       (B) Employees who hold the following positions in a board are 65404
professional employees:65405

       personnel licensed or certified pursuant to Chapter 3319. of 65406
the Revised Code65407

       early intervention specialist65408

       physical development specialist65409

       habilitation specialist65410

       work adjustment specialist65411

       placement specialist65412

       vocational evaluator65413

       psychologist65414

       occupational therapist65415

       speech and language pathologist65416

       recreation specialist65417

       behavior management specialist65418

       physical therapist65419

       supportive home services specialist65420

       licensed practical nurse or registered nurse65421

       rehabilitation counselor65422

       doctor of medicine and surgery or of osteopathic medicine and 65423
surgery65424

       dentist65425

       service and support administrator65426

       conditional status service and support administrator65427

       social worker65428

       any position that is not a management position and for which 65429
the standards for certification established by the director of 65430
developmental disabilities under section 5126.25 of the Revised 65431
Code require a bachelor's or higher degree65432

       professional positions designated by the director65433

       professional positions designated by the county board in 65434
accordance with division (D) of this section.65435

       (C) Employees who hold positions in a board that are neither 65436
management positions nor professional positions are service 65437
employees. Service employee positions include:65438

       workshop specialist65439

       workshop specialist assistant65440

       contract procurement specialist65441

       community employment specialist65442

       any assistant to a professional employee certified to 65443
provide, or supervise the provision of, adult services or service 65444
and support administration65445

       service positions designated by the director65446

       service positions designated by a county board in accordance 65447
with division (D) of this section.65448

       (D) A county board may designate a position only if the 65449
position does not include directly providing, or supervising 65450
employees who directly provide, service or instruction to 65451
individuals with mental retardation or developmental disabilities.65452

       (E) If a county board desires to have a position established 65453
that is not specifically listed in this section that includes 65454
directly providing, or supervising employees who directly provide, 65455
services or instruction to individuals with mental retardation or 65456
developmental disabilities, the board shall submit to the director 65457
a written description of the position and request that the 65458
director designate the position as a management, professional, or 65459
service position under this section. The director shall consider 65460
each request submitted under this division and respond within 65461
thirty days. If the director approves the request, the director 65462
shall designate the position as a management, professional, or 65463
service position.65464

       (F) A county board shall not terminate its employment of any 65465
management, professional, or service employee solely because a 65466
position is added to or eliminated from those positions listed in 65467
this section or because a position is designated or no longer 65468
designated by the director or a county board.65469

       Sec. 5126.25.  (A) The director of developmental disabilities 65470
shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 65471
Codeunder division (C) of this section establishing uniform 65472
standards and procedures for the certification and registration of 65473
persons for employment by county boards of developmental 65474
disabilities as superintendents, management employees, and 65475
professional employees and uniform standards and procedures for 65476
the registration of persons for employment by county boards as 65477
registered service employees. As part of the rules, the director 65478
may establish continuing education and professional training 65479
requirements for renewal of certificates and evidence of 65480
registration and shall establish such requirements for renewal of 65481
an investigative agent certificate. In the rules, the director 65482
shall establish certification standards for employment in the 65483
position of investigative agent that require an individual to have 65484
or obtain no less than an associate degree from an accredited 65485
college or university or have or obtain comparable experience or 65486
training. The director shall not adopt rules that require any 65487
service employee to have or obtain a bachelor's or higher degree.65488

       The director shall adopt the rules in a manner that provides 65489
for the issuance of certificates and evidence of registration 65490
according to categories, levels, and grades. The rules shall 65491
describe each category, level, and grade.65492

       The rules adopted under this division shall apply to persons 65493
employed or seeking employment in a position that includes 65494
directly providing, or supervising persons who directly provide, 65495
services or instruction to or on behalf of individuals with mental 65496
retardation or developmental disabilities, except that the rules 65497
shall not apply to persons who hold a valid license issued under 65498
Chapter 3319. of the Revised Code and perform no duties other than 65499
teaching or supervision of a teaching program or persons who hold 65500
a valid license or certificate issued under Title XLVII of the 65501
Revised Code and perform only those duties governed by the license 65502
or certificate. The rules shall specify the positions that require 65503
certification or registration. The rules shall specify that the 65504
position of investigative agent requires certification, other than 65505
the persons described in division (I) of this section, who are 65506
seeking employment with or are employed by either of the 65507
following:65508

       (1) A county board of developmental disabilities;65509

       (2) An entity that contracts with a county board to operate 65510
programs and services for individuals with mental retardation or 65511
developmental disabilities.65512

       (B) No person shall be employed in a position for which 65513
certification or registration is required pursuant to the rules 65514
adopted under this section without the certification or 65515
registration that is required for that position. The person shall 65516
not be employed or shall not continue to be employed if the 65517
required certification or registration is denied, revoked, or not 65518
renewed.65519

       (B)(C) The director shall adopt rules in accordance with 65520
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing standards for 65521
approval of courses of study to prepare persons to meet 65522
certification requirements. The director shall approve courses of 65523
study meeting the standards and provide for the inspection of the 65524
courses to ensure the maintenance of satisfactory training 65525
procedures. The director shall approve courses of study only if 65526
given by a state university or college as defined in section 65527
3345.32 of the Revised Code, a state university or college of 65528
another state, or an institution that has received a certificate 65529
of authorization to confer degrees from the board of regents 65530
pursuant to Chapter 1713. of the Revised Code or from a comparable 65531
agency of another stateas the director considers necessary to 65532
implement and administer this section, including rules 65533
establishing all of the following:65534

       (1) Positions of employment that are subject to this section 65535
and, for each position, whether a person must receive 65536
certification or receive registration to be employed in that 65537
position;65538

       (2) Requirements that must be met to receive the 65539
certification or registration required to be employed in a 65540
particular position, including standards regarding education, 65541
specialized training, and experience, taking into account the 65542
needs of individuals with mental retardation or developmental 65543
disabilities and the specialized techniques needed to serve them, 65544
except that the rules shall not require a person designated as a 65545
service employee under section 5126.22 of the Revised Code to have 65546
or obtain a bachelor's or higher degree;65547

       (3) Procedures to be followed in applying for initial 65548
certification or registration and for renewing the certification 65549
or registration.65550

       (4) Requirements that must be met for renewal of 65551
certification or registration, which may include continuing 65552
education and professional training requirements;65553

       (5) Subject to section 5126.23 of the Revised Code, grounds 65554
for which certification or registration may be denied, suspended, 65555
or revoked and procedures for appealing the denial, suspension, or 65556
revocation.65557

       (C)(D) Each applicant for a certificate for employment or 65558
evidence ofperson seeking certification or registration for 65559
employment by a county board shall apply to the department of 65560
developmental disabilities on forms that the director of the 65561
department shall prescribe and provide. The application shall be 65562
accompanied by the application feein the manner established in 65563
rules adopted under this section.65564

       (D) The director shall issue a certificate for employment to 65565
each applicant who meets the standards for certification 65566
established under this section and shall issue evidence of 65567
registration for employment to each applicant who meets the 65568
standards for registration established under this section. Each 65569
certificate or evidence of registration shall state the category, 65570
level, and grade for which it is issued.65571

       The director shall issue, renew, deny, suspend, or revoke 65572
certificates and evidence of registration in accordance with rules 65573
adopted under this section. The director shall deny, suspend, or 65574
revoke a certificate or evidence of registration if the director 65575
finds, pursuant to an adjudication conducted in accordance with 65576
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, that the applicant for or holder 65577
of the certificate or evidence of registration is guilty of 65578
intemperate, immoral, or other conduct unbecoming to the 65579
applicant's or holder's position, or is guilty of incompetence or 65580
negligence within the scope of the applicant's or holder's duties. 65581
The director shall deny or revoke a certificate or evidence of 65582
registration if the director finds, pursuant to an adjudication 65583
conducted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, 65584
that the applicant for or holder of the certificate or evidence of 65585
registration has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the 65586
offenses described in division (E) of section 5126.28 of the 65587
Revised Code, unless the individual meets standards for 65588
rehabilitation that the director establishes in the rules adopted 65589
under that section. Evidence supporting such allegations shall be 65590
presented to the director in writing and the director shall 65591
provide prompt notice of the allegations to the person who is the 65592
subject of the allegations. A denial, suspension, or revocation 65593
may be appealed in accordance with procedures the director shall 65594
establish in the rules adopted under this section.65595

       (E)(1)The superintendent of each county board is responsible 65596
for taking all actions regarding certification and registration of 65597
employees, other than the position of superintendent. For the 65598
position of superintendent, the director of developmental 65599
disabilities is responsible for taking all such actions.65600

       Actions that may be taken under this division include 65601
issuing, renewing, denying, suspending, and revoking certification 65602
and registration. All actions shall be taken in accordance with 65603
the rules adopted under this section.65604

       A person subject to the denial, suspension, or revocation of 65605
certification or registration may appeal the decision. The appeal 65606
shall be made in accordance with the rules adopted under this 65607
section.65608

       (F) A person holding awith valid certificatecertification 65609
or registration under this section on the effective date of any 65610
rules adopted under this section that increase the standards 65611
applicable to the certification standardsor registration shall 65612
have such period as the rules prescribe, but not less than one 65613
year after the effective date of the rules, to meet the new 65614
certification or registration standards.65615

       A person who is registered under this section on the 65616
effective date of any rule that changes the standards adopted 65617
under this section shall have such period as the rules prescribe, 65618
but not less than one year, to meet the new registration 65619
standards.65620

       (2) If an applicant for a certificate for employment has not 65621
completed the courses of instruction necessary to meet the 65622
department's standards for certification, the department shall 65623
inform the applicant of the courses the applicant must 65624
successfully complete to meet the standards and shall specify the 65625
time within which the applicant must complete the courses. The 65626
department shall grant the applicant at least one year to complete 65627
the courses and shall not require the applicant to complete more 65628
than four courses in any one year. The applicant is not subject to 65629
any changes regarding the courses required for certification that 65630
are made after the department informs the applicant of the courses 65631
the applicant must complete, unless the applicant does not 65632
successfully complete the courses within the time specified by the 65633
department.65634

       (F)(G) A person who holds a certificatewith valid 65635
certification or evidence of registration, other than one 65636
designated as temporary, is qualified to be employed according to 65637
that certificatecertification or evidence of registration by any 65638
county board or entity contracting with a county board.65639

       (G)(H) The director shall monitor county boards to ensure 65640
that their employees who must be certified or registered are 65641
appropriately certified or registered andand the employees of 65642
their contracting entities have the applicable certification or 65643
registration required under this section and that the employees 65644
are performing only those functions they are authorized to perform 65645
under their certificatethe certification or evidence of65646
registration.65647

       (H) A county board superintendent or the superintendent's 65648
designee may certify to the director that county board employees 65649
who are required to meet continuing education or professional 65650
training requirements as a condition of renewal of certificates or 65651
evidence of registration have met the requirements. The 65652
superintendent of each county board or the superintendent's 65653
designee shall maintain in appropriate personnel files evidence 65654
acceptable to the director that the employees have met the 65655
requirements and permit. On request, representatives of the 65656
department of developmental disabilities shall be given access to 65657
the evidence on request.65658

       (I) All fees collected pursuant to this section shall be 65659
deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the program fee 65660
fund created under section 5123.033 of the Revised Code.65661

       (J) Employees of entities that contract with county boards of 65662
developmental disabilities to operate programs and services for 65663
individuals with mental retardation and developmental disabilities 65664
are subject to the certification and registration requirements 65665
established under section 5123.082 of the Revised CodeThe 65666
certification and registration requirements of this section and 65667
the rules adopted under it do not apply to either of the 65668
following:65669

       (1) A person who holds a valid license issued or certificate 65670
issued under Chapter 3319. of the Revised Code and performs no 65671
duties other than teaching or supervision of a teaching program;65672

       (2) A person who holds a valid license or certificate issued 65673
under Title XLVII of the Revised Code and performs only those 65674
duties governed by the license or certificate.65675

       Sec. 5126.251.  On receipt of a notice pursuant to section 65676
3123.43 of the Revised Code, the director of developmental 65677
disabilities or the superintendent of a county board of 65678
developmental disabilities shall comply with sections 3123.41 to 65679
3123.50 of the Revised Code and any applicable rules adopted under 65680
section 3123.63 of the Revised Code with respect to a certificate65681
a person's certification or evidence of registration issued 65682
pursuant to this chapterunder section 5126.25 of the Revised 65683
Code.65684

       Sec. 5126.51.  As used in sections 5126.51 to 5126.62 of the 65685
Revised Code:65686

       (A) "Develop" or "development," in contexts not referring to 65687
developmental disabilities, means construction or rehabilitation.65688

       (B) "Eligible lending institution" means a financial 65689
institution that meets all of the following requirements:65690

       (1) Is eligible to make commercial loans;65691

       (2) Has an office located within the territorial limits of 65692
the county;65693

       (3) Is an institution into which the county's investing 65694
authority may deposit the public moneys of the county;65695

       (4) Holds itself out as participating in the residential 65696
facility linked deposit program.65697

       (C) "Eligible organization" means either of the following:65698

       (1) Aa nonprofit corporation that has as its primary 65699
activity the development or operation of a residential facility;65700

       (2) A nonprofit corporation certified under section 5123.192 65701
of the Revised Code.65702

       (D) "Investing authority" has the same meaning as in section 65703
135.31 of the Revised Code.65704

       (E) "Residential facility" has the same meaning as in section 65705
5123.19 of the Revised Code and also includes a residence where a 65706
nonprofit corporation certified under section 5123.192 of the 65707
Revised Code provides or proposes to provide supported living for 65708
individuals with mental retardation or developmental disabilities.65709

       (F) "Residential facility linked deposit program" means the 65710
linked deposit program provided for in sections 5126.51 to 5126.62 65711
of the Revised Code. A "residential facility linked deposit" is a 65712
deposit of public moneys of the county under, and for the purposes 65713
of, the residential facility linked deposit program. A 65714
"residential facility linked deposit loan" is a loan under, and 65715
for the purposes of, the residential facility linked deposit 65716
program.65717

       Sec. 5139.41.  The appropriation made to the department of 65718
youth services for care and custody of felony delinquents shall be 65719
expended in accordance with the following procedure that the 65720
department shall use for each year of a biennium. The procedure 65721
shall be consistent with sections 5139.41 to 5139.43 of the 65722
Revised Code and shall be developed in accordance with the 65723
following guidelines:65724

       (A) The line item appropriation for the care and custody of 65725
felony delinquents shall provide funding for operational costs for 65726
the following:65727

       (1) Institutions and the diagnosis, care, or treatment of 65728
felony delinquents at facilities pursuant to contracts entered 65729
into under section 5139.08 of the Revised Code;65730

       (2) Community corrections facilities constructed, 65731
reconstructed, improved, or financed as described in section 65732
5139.36 of the Revised Code for the purpose of providing 65733
alternative placement and services for felony delinquents who have 65734
been diverted from care and custody in institutions;65735

       (3) County juvenile courts that administer programs and 65736
services for prevention, early intervention, diversion, treatment, 65737
and rehabilitation services and programs that are provided for 65738
alleged or adjudicated unruly or delinquent children or for 65739
children who are at risk of becoming unruly or delinquent 65740
children; 65741

       (4) Administrative expenses the department incurs in 65742
connection with the felony delinquent care and custody programs 65743
described in section 5139.43 of the Revised Code. 65744

       (B) From the appropriated line item for the care and custody 65745
of felony delinquents, the department, with the advice of the 65746
RECLAIM advisory committee established under section 5139.44 of 65747
the Revised Code, shall allocate annual operational funds for 65748
county juvenile programs, institutional care and custody, 65749
community corrections facilities care and custody, and 65750
administrative expenses incurred by the department associated with 65751
felony delinquent care and custody programs. The department, with 65752
the advice of the RECLAIM advisory committee, shall adjust these 65753
allocations, when modifications to this line item are made by 65754
legislative or executive action.65755

       (C) The department shall divide county juvenile program 65756
allocations among county juvenile courts that administer programs 65757
and services for prevention, early intervention, diversion, 65758
treatment, and rehabilitation that are provided for alleged or 65759
adjudicated unruly or delinquent children or for children who are 65760
at risk of becoming unruly or delinquent children. The department 65761
shall base funding on the county's previous year's ratio of the 65762
department's institutional and community correctional facilities 65763
commitments to that county's four year average of felony 65764
adjudications, as specified in the following formula:65765

       (1) The department shall give to each county a proportional 65766
allocation of commitment credits. The proportional allocation of 65767
commitment credits shall be calculated by the following 65768
procedures:65769

       (a) The department shall determine for each county and for 65770
the state a four yearan average of felony adjudications.65771
Beginning July 1, 2012, the average shall include felony 65772
adjudications for fiscal year 2007 and for each subsequent fiscal 65773
year through fiscal year 2016. Beginning July 1, 2017, the most 65774
recent felony adjudication data shall be included and the oldest 65775
fiscal year data shall be removed so that a ten-year average of 65776
felony adjudication data will be maintained.65777

       (b) The department shall determine for each county and for 65778
the state the number of charged bed days, for both the department 65779
and community correctional facilities, from the previous year.65780

       (c) The department shall divide the statewide total number of 65781
charged bed days by the statewide total number of felony 65782
adjudications, which quotient shall then be multiplied by a factor 65783
determined by the department.65784

       (d) The department shall calculate the county's allocation of 65785
credits by multiplying the number of adjudications for each court 65786
by the result determined pursuant to division (C)(1)(c) of this 65787
section.65788

       (2) The department shall subtract from the allocation 65789
determined pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section a credit 65790
for every chargeable bed day a youth stays in a department 65791
institution and two-thirds of credit for every chargeable bed day 65792
a youth stays in a community correctional facility, except for 65793
public safety beds. At the end of the year, the department shall 65794
divide the amount of remaining credits of that county's allocation 65795
by the total number of remaining credits to all counties, to 65796
determine the county's percentage, which shall then be applied to 65797
the total county allocation to determine the county's payment for 65798
the fiscal year.65799

       (3) The department shall pay counties three times during the 65800
fiscal year to allow for credit reporting and audit adjustments, 65801
and modifications to the appropriated line item for the care and 65802
custody of felony delinquents, as described in this section. The 65803
department shall pay fifty per cent of the payment by the 65804
fifteenth of July of each fiscal year, twenty-five per cent by the 65805
fifteenth of January of that fiscal year, and twenty-five per cent 65806
of the payment by the fifteenth of June of that fiscal year.65807

       (D) In fiscal year 2004, the payment of county juvenile 65808
programs shall be based on the following procedure:65809

       (1) The department shall divide the funding earned by each 65810
court in fiscal year 2003 by the aggregate funding of all courts, 65811
resulting in a percentage.65812

       (2) The department shall apply the percentage determined 65813
under division (D)(1) of this section to the total county juvenile 65814
program allocation for fiscal year 2004 to determine each court's 65815
total payment.65816

       (3) The department shall make payments in accordance with the 65817
schedule established in division (C)(3) of this section.65818

       Sec. 5139.43.  (A) The department of youth services shall 65819
operate a felony delinquent care and custody program that shall be 65820
operated in accordance with the formula developed pursuant to 65821
section 5139.41 of the Revised Code, subject to the conditions 65822
specified in this section.65823

       (B)(1) Each juvenile court shall use the moneys disbursed to 65824
it by the department of youth services pursuant to division (B) of 65825
section 5139.41 of the Revised Code in accordance with the 65826
applicable provisions of division (B)(2) of this section and shall 65827
transmit the moneys to the county treasurer for deposit in 65828
accordance with this division. The county treasurer shall create 65829
in the county treasury a fund that shall be known as the felony 65830
delinquent care and custody fund and shall deposit in that fund 65831
the moneys disbursed to the juvenile court pursuant to division 65832
(B) of section 5139.41 of the Revised Code. The county treasurer 65833
also shall deposit into that fund the state subsidy funds granted 65834
to the county pursuant to section 5139.34 of the Revised Code. The 65835
moneys disbursed to the juvenile court pursuant to division (B) of 65836
section 5139.41 of the Revised Code and deposited pursuant to this 65837
division in the felony delinquent care and custody fund shall not 65838
be commingled with any other county funds except state subsidy 65839
funds granted to the county pursuant to section 5139.34 of the 65840
Revised Code; shall not be used for any capital construction 65841
projects; upon an order of the juvenile court and subject to 65842
appropriation by the board of county commissioners, shall be 65843
disbursed to the juvenile court for use in accordance with the 65844
applicable provisions of division (B)(2) of this section; shall 65845
not revert to the county general fund at the end of any fiscal 65846
year; and shall carry over in the felony delinquent care and 65847
custody fund from the end of any fiscal year to the next fiscal 65848
year. The maximum balance carry-over at the end of each respective 65849
fiscal year in the felony delinquent care and custody fund in any 65850
county from funds allocated to the county pursuant to sections 65851
5139.34 and 5139.41 of the Revised Code in the previous fiscal 65852
year shall not exceed an amount to be calculated as provided in 65853
the formula set forth in this division, unless that county has 65854
applied for and been granted an exemption by the director of youth 65855
services. Beginning June 30, 2008, the maximum balance carry-over 65856
at the end of each respective fiscal year shall be determined by 65857
the following formula: for fiscal year 2008, the maximum balance 65858
carry-over shall be one hundred per cent of the allocation for 65859
fiscal year 2007, to be applied in determining the fiscal year 65860
2009 allocation; for fiscal year 2009, it shall be fifty per cent 65861
of the allocation for fiscal year 2008, to be applied in 65862
determining the fiscal year 2010 allocation; for fiscal year 2010, 65863
it shall be twenty-five per cent of the allocation for fiscal year 65864
2009, to be applied in determining the fiscal year 2011 65865
allocation; and for each fiscal year subsequent to fiscal year 65866
2010, it shall be twenty-five per cent of the allocation for the 65867
immediately preceding fiscal year, to be applied in determining 65868
the allocation for the next immediate fiscal year. The department 65869
shall withhold from future payments to a county an amount equal to 65870
any moneys in the felony delinquent care and custody fund of the 65871
county that exceed the total maximum balance carry-over that 65872
applies for that county for the fiscal year in which the payments 65873
are being made and shall reallocate the withheld amount. The 65874
department shall adopt rules for the withholding and reallocation 65875
of moneys disbursed under sections 5139.34 and 5139.41 of the 65876
Revised Code and for the criteria and process for a county to 65877
obtain an exemption from the withholding requirement. The moneys 65878
disbursed to the juvenile court pursuant to division (B) of 65879
section 5139.41 of the Revised Code and deposited pursuant to this 65880
division in the felony delinquent care and custody fund shall be 65881
in addition to, and shall not be used to reduce, any usual annual 65882
increase in county funding that the juvenile court is eligible to 65883
receive or the current level of county funding of the juvenile 65884
court and of any programs or services for delinquent children, 65885
unruly children, or juvenile traffic offenders.65886

       (2)(a) A county and the juvenile court that serves the county 65887
shall use the moneys in its felony delinquent care and custody 65888
fund in accordance with rules that the department of youth 65889
services adopts pursuant to division (D) of section 5139.04 of the 65890
Revised Code and as follows:65891

       (i) The moneys in the fund that represent state subsidy funds 65892
granted to the county pursuant to section 5139.34 of the Revised 65893
Code shall be used to aid in the support of prevention, early 65894
intervention, diversion, treatment, and rehabilitation programs 65895
that are provided for alleged or adjudicated unruly children or 65896
delinquent children or for children who are at risk of becoming 65897
unruly children or delinquent children. The county shall not use 65898
for capital improvements more than fifteen per cent of the moneys 65899
in the fund that represent the applicable annual grant of those 65900
state subsidy funds.65901

       (ii) The moneys in the fund that were disbursed to the 65902
juvenile court pursuant to division (B) of section 5139.41 of the 65903
Revised Code and deposited pursuant to division (B)(1) of this 65904
section in the fund shall be used to provide programs and services 65905
for the training, treatment, or rehabilitation of felony 65906
delinquents that are alternatives to their commitment to the 65907
department, including, but not limited to, community residential 65908
programs, day treatment centers, services within the home, and 65909
electronic monitoring, and shall be used in connection with 65910
training, treatment, rehabilitation, early intervention, or other 65911
programs or services for any delinquent child, unruly child, or 65912
juvenile traffic offender who is under the jurisdiction of the 65913
juvenile court. 65914

        The fund also may be used for prevention, early intervention, 65915
diversion, treatment, and rehabilitation programs that are 65916
provided for alleged or adjudicated unruly children, delinquent 65917
children, or juvenile traffic offenders or for children who are at 65918
risk of becoming unruly children, delinquent children, or juvenile 65919
traffic offenders. Consistent with division (B)(1) of this 65920
section, a county and the juvenile court of a county shall not use 65921
any of those moneys for capital construction projects.65922

       (iii) Moneys in the fund shall not be used to support 65923
programs or services that do not comply with federal juvenile 65924
justice and delinquency prevention core requirements or to support 65925
programs or services that research has shown to be ineffective. 65926
Moneys in the fund shall be prioritized to research-supported65927
Research-supported, outcome-based programs and services, to the 65928
extent they are available, shall be encouraged.65929

        (iv) The county and the juvenile court that serves the county 65930
may use moneys in the fund to provide out-of-home placement of 65931
children only in detention centers, community rehabilitation 65932
centers, or community corrections facilities approved by the 65933
department pursuant to standards adopted by the department, 65934
licensed by an authorized state agency, or accredited by the 65935
American correctional association or another national organization 65936
recognized by the department.65937

       (b) Each juvenile court shall comply with division (B)(3)(d) 65938
of this section as implemented by the department. If a juvenile 65939
court fails to comply with division (B)(3)(d) of this section, the 65940
department shall not be required to make any disbursements in 65941
accordance with division (C) or (D) of section 5139.41 or division 65942
(C)(2) of section 5139.34 of the Revised Code.65943

       (3) In accordance with rules adopted by the department 65944
pursuant to division (D) of section 5139.04 of the Revised Code, 65945
each juvenile court and the county served by that juvenile court 65946
shall do all of the following that apply:65947

       (a) The juvenile court shall prepare an annual grant 65948
agreement and application for funding that satisfies the 65949
requirements of this section and section 5139.34 of the Revised 65950
Code and that pertains to the use, upon an order of the juvenile 65951
court and subject to appropriation by the board of county 65952
commissioners, of the moneys in its felony delinquent care and 65953
custody fund for specified programs, care, and services as 65954
described in division (B)(2)(a) of this section, shall submit that 65955
agreement and application to the county family and children first 65956
council, the regional family and children first council, or the 65957
local intersystem services to children cluster as described in 65958
sections 121.37 and 121.38 of the Revised Code, whichever is 65959
applicable, and shall file that agreement and application with the 65960
department for its approval. The annual grant agreement and 65961
application for funding shall include a method of ensuring equal 65962
access for minority youth to the programs, care, and services 65963
specified in it.65964

       The department may approve an annual grant agreement and 65965
application for funding only if the juvenile court involved has 65966
complied with the preparation, submission, and filing requirements 65967
described in division (B)(3)(a) of this section. If the juvenile 65968
court complies with those requirements and the department approves 65969
that agreement and application, the juvenile court and the county 65970
served by the juvenile court may expend the state subsidy funds 65971
granted to the county pursuant to section 5139.34 of the Revised 65972
Code only in accordance with division (B)(2)(a) of this section, 65973
the rules pertaining to state subsidy funds that the department 65974
adopts pursuant to division (D) of section 5139.04 of the Revised 65975
Code, and the approved agreement and application.65976

       (b) By the thirty-first day of August of each year, the 65977
juvenile court shall file with the department a report that 65978
contains all of the statistical and other information for each 65979
month of the prior state fiscal year. If the juvenile court fails 65980
to file the report required by division (B)(3)(b) of this section 65981
by the thirty-first day of August of any year, the department 65982
shall not disburse any payment of state subsidy funds to which the 65983
county otherwise is entitled pursuant to section 5139.34 of the 65984
Revised Code and shall not disburse pursuant to division (B) of 65985
section 5139.41 of the Revised Code the applicable allocation 65986
until the juvenile court fully complies with division (B)(3)(b) of 65987
this section.65988

       (c) If the department requires the juvenile court to prepare 65989
monthly statistical reports and to submit the reports on forms 65990
provided by the department, the juvenile court shall file those 65991
reports with the department on the forms so provided. If the 65992
juvenile court fails to prepare and submit those monthly 65993
statistical reports within the department's timelines, the 65994
department shall not disburse any payment of state subsidy funds 65995
to which the county otherwise is entitled pursuant to section 65996
5139.34 of the Revised Code and shall not disburse pursuant to 65997
division (B) of section 5139.41 of the Revised Code the applicable 65998
allocation until the juvenile court fully complies with division 65999
(B)(3)(c) of this section. If the juvenile court fails to prepare 66000
and submit those monthly statistical reports within one hundred 66001
eighty days of the date the department establishes for their 66002
submission, the department shall not disburse any payment of state 66003
subsidy funds to which the county otherwise is entitled pursuant 66004
to section 5139.34 of the Revised Code and shall not disburse 66005
pursuant to division (B) of section 5139.41 of the Revised Code 66006
the applicable allocation, and the state subsidy funds and the 66007
remainder of the applicable allocation shall revert to the 66008
department. If a juvenile court states in a monthly statistical 66009
report that the juvenile court adjudicated within a state fiscal 66010
year five hundred or more children to be delinquent children for 66011
committing acts that would be felonies if committed by adults and 66012
if the department determines that the data in the report may be 66013
inaccurate, the juvenile court shall have an independent auditor 66014
or other qualified entity certify the accuracy of the data on a 66015
date determined by the department.66016

       (d) If the department requires the juvenile court and the 66017
county to participate in a fiscal monitoring program or another 66018
monitoring program that is conducted by the department to ensure 66019
compliance by the juvenile court and the county with division (B) 66020
of this section, the juvenile court and the county shall 66021
participate in the program and fully comply with any guidelines 66022
for the performance of audits adopted by the department pursuant 66023
to that program and all requests made by the department pursuant 66024
to that program for information necessary to reconcile fiscal 66025
accounting. If an audit that is performed pursuant to a fiscal 66026
monitoring program or another monitoring program described in this 66027
division determines that the juvenile court or the county used 66028
moneys in the county's felony delinquent care and custody fund for 66029
expenses that are not authorized under division (B) of this 66030
section, within forty-five days after the department notifies the 66031
county of the unauthorized expenditures, the county either shall 66032
repay the amount of the unauthorized expenditures from the county 66033
general revenue fund to the state's general revenue fund or shall 66034
file a written appeal with the department. If an appeal is timely 66035
filed, the director of the department shall render a decision on 66036
the appeal and shall notify the appellant county or its juvenile 66037
court of that decision within forty-five days after the date that 66038
the appeal is filed. If the director denies an appeal, the 66039
county's fiscal agent shall repay the amount of the unauthorized 66040
expenditures from the county general revenue fund to the state's 66041
general revenue fund within thirty days after receiving the 66042
director's notification of the appeal decision. 66043

       (C) The determination of which county a reduction of the care 66044
and custody allocation will be charged against for a particular 66045
youth shall be made as outlined below for all youths who do not 66046
qualify as public safety beds. The determination of which county a 66047
reduction of the care and custody allocation will be charged 66048
against shall be made as follows until each youth is released: 66049

       (1) In the event of a commitment, the reduction shall be 66050
charged against the committing county. 66051

       (2) In the event of a recommitment, the reduction shall be 66052
charged against the original committing county until the 66053
expiration of the minimum period of institutionalization under the 66054
original order of commitment or until the date on which the youth 66055
is admitted to the department of youth services pursuant to the 66056
order of recommitment, whichever is later. Reductions of the 66057
allocation shall be charged against the county that recommitted 66058
the youth after the minimum expiration date of the original 66059
commitment. 66060

       (3) In the event of a revocation of a release on parole, the 66061
reduction shall be charged against the county that revokes the 66062
youth's parole.66063

       (D) A juvenile court is not precluded by its allocation 66064
amount for the care and custody of felony delinquents from 66065
committing a felony delinquent to the department of youth services 66066
for care and custody in an institution or a community corrections 66067
facility when the juvenile court determines that the commitment is 66068
appropriate.66069

       Sec. 5139.511. Before a youth is released from a secure 66070
facility under the control of the department of youth services, 66071
the department of youth services shall attempt to verify the 66072
youth's identification and social security number. If the 66073
department is able to verify the youth's identity with a verified 66074
birth certificate and social security number, the department shall 66075
issue an identification card that the youth may present to the 66076
registrar or deputy registrar of motor vehicles. If the department 66077
is not able to verify the youth's identity with both a verified 66078
birth certificate and social security number, the youth shall not 66079
receive an identification card under this section.66080

       Sec. 5149.311.  (A) The department of rehabilitation and 66081
correction shall establish and administer the probation 66082
improvement grant and the probation incentive grant for court of 66083
common pleas probation departments that supervise felony offenders 66084
sentenced by courts of common pleas or municipal courts. 66085

       (B)(1) The probation improvement grant shall provide funding 66086
to court of common pleas probation departments to adopt policies 66087
and practices based on the latest research on how to reduce the 66088
number of felony offenders on probation supervision who violate 66089
the conditions of their supervision. 66090

        (2) The department shall adopt rules for the distribution of 66091
the probation improvement grant, including the formula for the 66092
allocation of the subsidy based on the number of felony offenders 66093
placed on probation annually in each jurisdiction.66094

        (C)(1) The probation incentive grant shall provide a 66095
performance-based level of funding to court of common pleas66096
probation departments that are successful in reducing the number 66097
of felony offenders on probation supervision whose terms of 66098
supervision are revoked. 66099

       (2) The department shall calculate annually any cost savings 66100
realized by the state from a reduction in the percentage of people 66101
who are incarcerated because their terms of supervised probation 66102
were revoked. The cost savings estimate shall be calculated for 66103
each countyjurisdiction served by the probation department 66104
eligible for a grant under this section and be based on the 66105
difference from fiscal year 2010 and the fiscal year under 66106
examination.66107

       (3) The department shall adopt rules that specify the subsidy 66108
amount to be appropriated to court of common pleas probation 66109
departments that successfully reduce the percentage of people on 66110
probation who are incarcerated because their terms of supervision 66111
are revoked. 66112

       (D) The following stipulations apply to both the probation 66113
improvement grant and the probation incentive grant:66114

       (1) In order to be eligible for the probation improvement 66115
grant and the probation incentive grant, courts of common pleas 66116
must satisfy all requirements under sections 2301.27 and 2301.30 66117
of the Revised Code and, except. Except for sentencing decisions 66118
made by a court when use of the risk assessment tool is 66119
discretionary, in order to be eligible for the probation 66120
improvement grant and the probation incentive grant, a court must 66121
utilize the single validated risk assessment tool selected by the 66122
department of rehabilitation and correction under section 5120.114 66123
of the Revised Code.66124

       (2) The department may deny a subsidy under this section to 66125
any applicant if the applicant fails to comply with the terms of 66126
any agreement entered into pursuant to any of the provisions of 66127
this section.66128

       (3) The department shall evaluate or provide for the 66129
evaluation of the policies, practices, and programs the court of 66130
common pleas probation departments utilize with the programs of 66131
subsidies established under this section and establish means of 66132
measuring their effectiveness.66133

       (4) The department shall specify the policies, practices, and 66134
programs for which court of common pleas probation departments may 66135
use the program subsidy and shall establish minimum standards of 66136
quality and efficiency that recipients of the subsidy must follow. 66137
The department shall give priority to supporting evidence-based 66138
policies and practices, as defined by the department.66139

       Sec. 5153.18.  (A) The public children services agency shall 66140
have the capacity possessed by natural persons to institute 66141
proceedings in any court and shall have a substantial right, as 66142
defined in section 2505.02 of the Revised Code, in protecting 66143
children alleged to be abused, neglected, or dependent children 66144
and in achieving permanency for a child committed to the agency's 66145
custody in any proceeding in a court of appeals.66146

       (B) When appointed by the probate court exercising 66147
jurisdiction in adoption proceedings, the executive director may 66148
act as next friend of any child and perform the duties of such 66149
next friend.66150

       (C) When appointed by the probate court, in lieu of a 66151
guardian, in accordance with section 2111.05 of the Revised Code:66152

       (1) The executive director may act as trustee of the estate 66153
of any ward, provided such an estate does not exceed one thousand 66154
dollars in value.66155

       (2) The executive director may also act as trustee, on behalf 66156
of any ward, of periodic payments of not more than twenty-five 66157
dollars per week of which such ward is entitled as a claimant 66158
pursuant to the terms of any insurance policy, annuity, pension, 66159
benefit, or allowance, governmental or private.66160

       (3) Such director shall administer all trusteeships in 66161
accordance with the laws relating to fiduciaries.66162

       The funds of any such trusteeship shall not be mingled with 66163
other moneys of the agency or of the county. The cost of any such 66164
trusteeship shall be paid out of the funds of the trust, but no 66165
fee shall be allowed to the executive director as such trustee. At 66166
least once a year, or more often if required by the probate court, 66167
the executive director shall make a complete report and accounting 66168
to the agency as to the disposition of all trust funds 66169
administered by the executive director during the year.66170

       Sec. 5155.14.  At the request of the superintendent or 66171
administrator of the county home, the board of county 66172
commissioners or operator shall set apart from the county home 66173
fund, a reserve fund not to exceed four hundredfive thousand66174
dollars at any time, which, upon the order of the board or 66175
operator shall be paid to the superintendent or administrator and 66176
expended as needed for emergency supplies and expenses. The 66177
superintendent or administrator shall keep an accurate account of 66178
the reserve fund, in a book to be provided at the expense of the 66179
county for that purpose, and all expenditures from it shall be 66180
audited by the board or operator. The county home fund shall be 66181
reimbursed by the superintendent or administrator, in full, for 66182
any items expended by the superintendent or administrator from the 66183
reserve fund, which items are not allowed by the board or 66184
operator. When, and as often as such amount is entirely disbursed, 66185
on the order of the board or operator, the county auditor shall 66186
pay to the superintendent or administrator the amount so 66187
appropriated.66188

       Sec. 5501.04. The following divisions are hereby established 66189
in the department of transportation:66190

       (A) The division of business services;66191

       (B) The division of engineering policy;66192

       (C) The division of finance;66193

       (D) The division of human resources;66194

       (E) The division of information technology;66195

       (F) The division of multi-modal planning and programs;66196

       (G) The division of project management;66197

       (H) The division of equal opportunity.66198

       ThePursuant to section 5501.02 of the Revised Code, the66199
director of transportation shall distribute the duties, powers, 66200
and functions of the department among the divisions of the 66201
department.66202

       Each division shall be headed by a deputy director, whose 66203
title shall be designated by the director, and shall include those 66204
other officers and employees as may be necessary to carry out the 66205
work of the division. The director shall appoint theEach deputy 66206
director of each division, who shall be in the unclassified civil 66207
service of the state and shall serve at the pleasure of the 66208
director. The director shall supervise the work of each division 66209
and shall be responsible for the determination of general policies 66210
in the performance of the duties, powers, and functions of the 66211
department and of each division. The director shall have complete 66212
executive charge of the department, shall be responsible for the 66213
organization, direction, and supervision of the work of the 66214
department and the performance of the duties, powers, and 66215
functions assigned to each division, and may establish necessary 66216
administrative units therein. TheEach deputy director of each 66217
division, with the approval of the director and subject to Chapter 66218
124. of the Revised Code, shall appoint the necessary employees of 66219
the division and may remove such employees for cause.66220

       The division of equal opportunity shall ensure that minority 66221
groups and all groups protected by state and federal civil rights 66222
laws are afforded equal opportunity to be recruited, trained, and 66223
work in the employment of or on projects of the department of 66224
transportation, and to participate in contracts awarded by the 66225
department. The director of transportation each year shall report 66226
to the governor and the general assembly on the division's 66227
activities and accomplishments.66228

       Sec. 5501.07.  In addition to those duties, powers, and 66229
functions the director of transportation assigns to it, the office 66230
of public transportation of the division of multi-modal planning 66231
and programstransit:66232

       (A) May issue grants from any public transportation grant 66233
appropriation to county transit boards, regional transit 66234
authorities, regional transit commissions, counties, municipal 66235
corporations, and private nonprofit organizations that operate or 66236
will operate a public transportation system.66237

       The director shall establish criteria for the distribution of 66238
such grants. These criteria may include and the director may 66239
consider each of the following:66240

       (1) The degree to which comprehensive regional transportation 66241
planning goals may be attained through a program for which a grant 66242
will be used;66243

       (2) The amount of local financial or other support of public 66244
transportation operations and facilities affected by the program;66245

       (3) The levels of existing service and fare;66246

       (4) The degree to which the proposed plan demonstrates 66247
approaches of potential value to other local transit boards, 66248
authorities, commissions, counties, municipal corporations, and 66249
private nonprofit organizations operating public transportation 66250
systems;66251

       (5) The degree to which the grant applicant will use state 66252
and local funds to match a federal grant;66253

       (6) Such other factors as the director determines.66254

       Any criteria established by the director for the distribution 66255
of such grants shall be consistent with the requirements of the 66256
United States department of transportation, or any administration 66257
in the department, including, but not limited to, the federal 66258
transit administration. The director may designate in the criteria 66259
certain dates after which applications for specified portions of 66260
the appropriations made for this purpose will not be accepted.66261

       (B) May issue grants from any elderly and handicapped transit 66262
fare assistance grant appropriation to county transit boards, 66263
regional transit authorities, regional transit commissions, 66264
counties, municipal corporations, and private nonprofit 66265
organizations that operate or will operate public transportation 66266
systems for the purpose of reducing the transit or paratransit 66267
fares of elderly or handicapped persons. The director shall 66268
establish criteria for the distribution of such grants.66269

       (C) May administer provisions of federal public 66270
transportation acts or programs applicable within the state, 66271
pursuant to an agreement entered into by the director with an 66272
appropriate official of the federal agency responsible for 66273
implementation of the federal acts or programs. The federal acts 66274
or programs shall include, but are not limited to, programs 66275
authorized under the "Act of July 5, 1994," 108 Stat. 785, 49 66276
U.S.C.A. 5301, as amended.66277

       (D) Shall furnish, upon request and within the limits of 66278
appropriated funds, guidance in technical or policy matters to a 66279
county transit board, regional transit authority, regional transit 66280
commission, county, municipal corporation, or private nonprofit 66281
organization that operates or proposes to operate a public 66282
transportation system, and provide assistance and liaison in the 66283
preparation and submission of applications for federal and state 66284
funds;66285

       (E) May apply for and accept grants or loans from any federal 66286
agency for the purpose of providing for the development or 66287
improvement of public transportation facilities or for the 66288
coordination of any activities related to the development or 66289
improvement of such facilities, and may provide any consideration 66290
from any public transportation grant appropriation and enter into 66291
any contracts that may be required in order to obtain such grants 66292
or loans from a federal agency.66293

       Sec. 5502.01.  (A) The department of public safety shall 66294
administer and enforce the laws relating to the registration, 66295
licensing, sale, and operation of motor vehicles and the laws 66296
pertaining to the licensing of drivers of motor vehicles.66297

       The department shall compile, analyze, and publish statistics 66298
relative to motor vehicle accidents and the causes of them, 66299
prepare and conduct educational programs for the purpose of 66300
promoting safety in the operation of motor vehicles on the 66301
highways, and conduct research and studies for the purpose of 66302
promoting safety on the highways of this state.66303

       (B) The department shall administer the laws and rules 66304
relative to trauma and emergency medical services specified in 66305
Chapter 4765. of the Revised Code and any laws and rules relative 66306
to commercial medical transportation services as may be specified 66307
in Chapter 4766. of the Revised Code.66308

       (C) The department shall administer and enforce the laws 66309
contained in Chapters 4301. and 4303. of the Revised Code and 66310
enforce the rules and orders of the liquor control commission 66311
pertaining to retail liquor permit holders.66312

       (D) The department shall administer the laws governing the 66313
state emergency management agency and shall enforce all additional 66314
duties and responsibilities as prescribed in the Revised Code 66315
related to emergency management services.66316

       (E) The department shall conduct investigations pursuant to 66317
Chapter 5101. of the Revised Code in support of the duty of the 66318
department of job and family services to administer the 66319
supplemental nutrition assistance program throughout this state. 66320
The department of public safety shall conduct investigations 66321
necessary to protect the state's property rights and interests in 66322
the supplemental nutrition assistance program.66323

       (F) The department of public safety shall enforce compliance 66324
with orders and rules of the public utilities commission and 66325
applicable laws in accordance with Chapters 4919.4905., 4921., 66326
and 4923. of the Revised Code regarding commercial motor vehicle 66327
transportation safety, economic, and hazardous materials 66328
requirements.66329

       (G) Notwithstanding Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code, the 66330
department of public safety may establish requirements for its 66331
enforcement personnel, including its enforcement agents described 66332
in section 5502.14 of the Revised Code, that include standards of 66333
conduct, work rules and procedures, and criteria for eligibility 66334
as law enforcement personnel.66335

       (H) The department shall administer, maintain, and operate 66336
the Ohio criminal justice network. The Ohio criminal justice 66337
network shall be a computer network that supports state and local 66338
criminal justice activities. The network shall be an electronic 66339
repository for various data, which may include arrest warrants, 66340
notices of persons wanted by law enforcement agencies, criminal 66341
records, prison inmate records, stolen vehicle records, vehicle 66342
operator's licenses, and vehicle registrations and titles.66343

       (I) The department shall coordinate all homeland security 66344
activities of all state agencies and shall be a liaison between 66345
state agencies and local entities for those activities and related 66346
purposes.66347

       (J) Beginning July 1, 2004, the department shall administer 66348
and enforce the laws relative to private investigators and 66349
security service providers specified in Chapter 4749. of the 66350
Revised Code.66351

       (K) The department shall administer criminal justice services 66352
in accordance with sections 5502.61 to 5502.66 of the Revised 66353
Code.66354

       Sec. 5502.011. (A) As used in this section, "department of 66355
public safety" and "department" include all divisions within the 66356
department of public safety.66357

        (B) The director of the department of public safety is the 66358
chief executive and administrative officer of the department. The 66359
director may establish policies governing the department, the 66360
performance of its employees and officers, the conduct of its 66361
business, and the custody, use, and preservation of departmental 66362
records, papers, books, documents, and property. The director also 66363
may authorize and approve investigations to be conducted by any of 66364
the department's divisions. Whenever the Revised Code imposes a 66365
duty upon or requires an action of the department, the director 66366
may perform the action or duty in the name of the department or 66367
direct such performance to be performed by the director's 66368
designee.66369

        (C) In addition to any other duties enumerated in the Revised 66370
Code, the director or the director's designee shall do all of the 66371
following:66372

        (1) Administer and direct the performance of the duties of 66373
the department;66374

        (2) Pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, approve, 66375
adopt, and prescribe such forms and rules as are necessary to 66376
carry out the duties of the department;66377

        (3) On behalf of the department and in addition to any 66378
authority the Revised Code otherwise grants to the department, 66379
have the authority and responsibility for approving and entering 66380
into contracts, agreements, and other business arrangements;66381

        (4) Make appointments for the department as needed to comply 66382
with requirements of the Revised Code;66383

        (5) Approve employment actions of the department, including 66384
appointments, promotions, discipline, investigations, and 66385
terminations;66386

       (6) Accept, hold, and use, for the benefit of the department, 66387
any gift, donation, bequest, or devise, and may agree to and 66388
perform all conditions of the gift, donation, bequest, or devise, 66389
that are not contrary to law;66390

       (7) Apply for, allocate, disburse, and account for grants 66391
made available under federal law or from other federal, state, or 66392
private sources;66393

       (8) Do all other acts necessary or desirable to carry out 66394
this chapter.66395

       (D)(1) The director of public safety may assess a reasonable 66396
fee, plus the amount of any charge or fee passed on from a 66397
financial institution, on a drawer or indorser for each of the 66398
following:66399

       (a) A check, draft, or money order that is returned or 66400
dishonored;66401

       (b) An automatic bank transfer that is declined, due to 66402
insufficient funds or for any other reason;66403

       (c) Any financial transaction device that is returned or 66404
dishonored for any reason.66405

       (2) The director shall deposit any fee collected under this 66406
division in an appropriate fund as determined by the director 66407
based on the tax, fee, or fine being paid.66408

       (3) As used in this division, "financial transaction device" 66409
has the same meaning as in section 113.40 of the Revised Code.66410

       (E) The director shall establish a homeland security advisory 66411
council to advise the director on homeland security, including 66412
homeland security funding efforts. The advisory council shall 66413
include, but not be limited to, state and local government 66414
officials who have homeland security or emergency management 66415
responsibilities and who represent first responders. The director 66416
shall appoint the members of the council, who shall serve without 66417
compensation.66418

       (F) The director of public safety shall adopt rules in 66419
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as required by 66420
section 2909.28 of the Revised Code and division (A)(1) of section 66421
2909.32 of the Revised Code. The director shall adopt rules as 66422
required by division (D) of section 2909.32 of the Revised Code, 66423
division (E) of section 2909.33 of the Revised Code, and division 66424
(D) of section 2909.34 of the Revised Code. The director may adopt 66425
rules pursuant to division (A)(2) of section 2909.32 of the 66426
Revised Code, division (A)(2) of section 2909.33 of the Revised 66427
Code, and division (A)(2) of section 2909.34 of the Revised Code.66428

       Sec. 5503.21.        Sec. 5502.05.  There is hereby created in the 66429
department of public safety, division of state highway patrol, a 66430
driver's license examination section to be administered by the 66431
superintendent of the state highway patrol. 66432

       The superintendent, with the approval of the director of 66433
public safety, may appoint necessary driver's license examiners 66434
and clerical personnel necessary to carry out the duties assigned 66435
under this section. The examiners shall be citizens of the United 66436
States and residents of the state and shall have such additional 66437
qualifications as the superintendent, with the approval of the66438
director, prescribes.66439

       The salaries and classifications of examiners and personnel 66440
shall be fixed in accordance with section 124.15 or 124.152 of the 66441
Revised Code. 66442

       Sec. 5503.22.        Sec. 5502.06.  Driver's license examiners assigned to 66443
the driver's license examination section shall conduct all 66444
examinations for driver's licenses as required by sections 4507.01 66445
to 4507.36 of the Revised Code, subject to the regulationsrules66446
issued by the registrar of motor vehicles.66447

       Sec. 5503.23.        Sec. 5502.07.  The superintendent of the state 66448
highway patrol, with the approval of the director of public 66449
safety, may conduct training schools for prospective driver's 66450
license examiners. The superintendentand may establish rules 66451
governing the qualifications for admission to such schools and 66452
provide for competitive examinations to determine the fitness of 66453
such students for prospective examiners, not inconsistent with the 66454
rules of the director of administrative services.66455

       Sec. 5503.02.  (A) The state highway patrol shall enforce the 66456
laws of the state relating to the titling, registration, and 66457
licensing of motor vehicles; enforce on all roads and highways, 66458
notwithstanding section 4513.39 of the Revised Code, the laws 66459
relating to the operation and use of vehicles on the highways; 66460
enforce and prevent the violation of the laws relating to the 66461
size, weight, and speed of commercial motor vehicles and all laws 66462
designed for the protection of the highway pavements and 66463
structures on the highways; investigate and enforce rules and laws 66464
of the public utilities commission governing the transportation of 66465
persons and property by motor carriers and report violations of 66466
such rules and laws to the commission; enforce against any motor 66467
transportation companycarrier as defined in section 4921.0266468
4923.01 of the Revised Code, any contract carrier by motor vehicle 66469
as defined in section 4923.02 of the Revised Code, any private 66470
motor carrier as defined in section 4923.20 of the Revised Code, 66471
and any motor carrier as defined in section 4919.75 of the Revised 66472
Code those rules and laws that, if violated, may result in a 66473
forfeiture as provided in section 4905.83, 4919.99, 4921.99, or66474
4923.99 of the Revised Code; investigate and report violations of 66475
all laws relating to the collection of excise taxes on motor 66476
vehicle fuels; and regulate the movement of traffic on the roads 66477
and highways of the state, notwithstanding section 4513.39 of the 66478
Revised Code.66479

       The patrol, whenever possible, shall determine the identity 66480
of the persons who are causing or who are responsible for the 66481
breaking, damaging, or destruction of any improved surfaced 66482
roadway, structure, sign, marker, guardrail, or other appurtenance 66483
constructed or maintained by the department of transportation and 66484
shall arrest the persons who are responsible for the breaking, 66485
damaging, or destruction and bring them before the proper 66486
officials for prosecution.66487

       State highway patrol troopers shall investigate and report 66488
all motor vehicle accidents on all roads and highways outside of 66489
municipal corporations. The superintendent of the patrol or any 66490
state highway patrol trooper may arrest, without a warrant, any 66491
person, who is the driver of or a passenger in any vehicle 66492
operated or standing on a state highway, whom the superintendent 66493
or trooper has reasonable cause to believe is guilty of a felony, 66494
under the same circumstances and with the same power that any 66495
peace officer may make such an arrest.66496

       The superintendent or any state highway patrol trooper may 66497
enforce the criminal laws on all state properties and state 66498
institutions, owned or leased by the state, and, when so ordered 66499
by the governor in the event of riot, civil disorder, or 66500
insurrection, may, pursuant to sections 2935.03 to 2935.05 of the 66501
Revised Code, arrest offenders against the criminal laws wherever 66502
they may be found within the state if the violations occurred 66503
upon, or resulted in injury to person or property on, state 66504
properties or state institutions, or under the conditions 66505
described in division (B) of this section. This authority of the 66506
superintendent and any state highway patrol trooper to enforce the 66507
criminal laws shall extend to any prison that houses state of Ohio 66508
inmates within the boundaries of this state and that is being 66509
operated pursuant to an agreement with the department of 66510
rehabilitation and correction pursuant to section 9.06 of the 66511
Revised Code, to the same extent as if the prison were owned by 66512
this state.66513

       (B) In the event of riot, civil disorder, or insurrection, or 66514
the reasonable threat of riot, civil disorder, or insurrection, 66515
and upon request, as provided in this section, of the sheriff of a 66516
county or the mayor or other chief executive of a municipal 66517
corporation, the governor may order the state highway patrol to 66518
enforce the criminal laws within the area threatened by riot, 66519
civil disorder, or insurrection, as designated by the governor, 66520
upon finding that law enforcement agencies within the counties 66521
involved will not be reasonably capable of controlling the riot, 66522
civil disorder, or insurrection and that additional assistance is 66523
necessary. In cities in which the sheriff is under contract to 66524
provide exclusive police services pursuant to section 311.29 of 66525
the Revised Code, in villages, and in the unincorporated areas of 66526
the county, the sheriff has exclusive authority to request the use 66527
of the patrol. In cities in which the sheriff does not exclusively 66528
provide police services, the mayor, or other chief executive 66529
performing the duties of mayor, has exclusive authority to request 66530
the use of the patrol.66531

       The superintendent or any state highway patrol trooper may 66532
enforce the criminal laws within the area designated by the 66533
governor during the emergency arising out of the riot, civil 66534
disorder, or insurrection until released by the governor upon 66535
consultation with the requesting authority. State highway patrol 66536
troopers shall never be used as peace officers in connection with 66537
any strike or labor dispute.66538

       When a request for the use of the patrol is made pursuant to 66539
this division, the requesting authority shall notify the law 66540
enforcement authorities in contiguous communities and the sheriff 66541
of each county within which the threatened area, or any part of 66542
the threatened area, lies of the request, but the failure to 66543
notify the authorities or a sheriff shall not affect the validity 66544
of the request.66545

       (C) Any person who is arrested by the superintendent or a 66546
state highway patrol trooper shall be taken before any court or 66547
magistrate having jurisdiction of the offense with which the 66548
person is charged. Any person who is arrested or apprehended 66549
within the limits of a municipal corporation shall be brought 66550
before the municipal court or other tribunal of the municipal 66551
corporation.66552

       (D)(1) State highway patrol troopers have the same right and 66553
power of search and seizure as other peace officers.66554

       No state official shall command, order, or direct any state 66555
highway patrol trooper to perform any duty or service that is not 66556
authorized by law. The powers and duties conferred on the patrol 66557
are supplementary to, and in no way a limitation on, the powers 66558
and duties of sheriffs or other peace officers of the state.66559

       (2)(a) A state highway patrol trooper, pursuant to the policy 66560
established by the superintendent of the state highway patrol 66561
under division (D)(2)(b) of this section, may render emergency 66562
assistance to any other peace officer who has arrest authority 66563
under section 2935.03 of the Revised Code, if both of the 66564
following apply:66565

       (i) There is a threat of imminent physical danger to the 66566
peace officer, a threat of physical harm to another person, or any 66567
other serious emergency situation;66568

       (ii) Either the peace officer requests emergency assistance, 66569
or it appears that the peace officer is unable to request 66570
emergency assistance and the circumstances observed by the state 66571
highway patrol trooper reasonably indicate that emergency 66572
assistance is appropriate, or the peace officer requests emergency 66573
assistance and in the request the peace officer specifies a 66574
particular location and the state highway patrol trooper arrives 66575
at that location prior to the time that the peace officer arrives 66576
at that location and the circumstances observed by the state 66577
highway patrol trooper reasonably indicate that emergency 66578
assistance is appropriate.66579

       (b) The superintendent of the state highway patrol shall 66580
establish, within sixty days of August 8, 1991, a policy that sets 66581
forth the manner and procedures by which a state highway patrol 66582
trooper may render emergency assistance to any other peace officer 66583
under division (D)(2)(a) of this section. The policy shall include 66584
a provision that a state highway patrol trooper never be used as a 66585
peace officer in connection with any strike or labor dispute.66586

       (3)(a) A state highway patrol trooper who renders emergency 66587
assistance to any other peace officer under the policy established 66588
by the superintendent pursuant to division (D)(2)(b) of this 66589
section shall be considered to be performing regular employment 66590
for the purposes of compensation, pension, indemnity fund rights, 66591
workers' compensation, and other rights or benefits to which the 66592
trooper may be entitled as incident to regular employment.66593

       (b) A state highway patrol trooper who renders emergency 66594
assistance to any other peace officer under the policy established 66595
by the superintendent pursuant to division (D)(2)(b) of this 66596
section retains personal immunity from liability as specified in 66597
section 9.86 of the Revised Code.66598

       (c) A state highway patrol trooper who renders emergency 66599
assistance under the policy established by the superintendent 66600
pursuant to division (D)(2)(b) of this section has the same 66601
authority as the peace officer for or with whom the state highway 66602
patrol trooper is providing emergency assistance.66603

       (E)(1) Subject to the availability of funds specifically 66604
appropriated by the general assembly for security detail purposes, 66605
the state highway patrol shall provide security as follows:66606

       (a) For the governor;66607

       (b) At the direction of the governor, for other officials of 66608
the state government of this state; officials of the state 66609
governments of other states who are visiting this state; officials 66610
of the United States government who are visiting this state; 66611
officials of the governments of foreign countries or their 66612
political subdivisions who are visiting this state; or other 66613
officials or dignitaries who are visiting this state, including, 66614
but not limited to, members of trade missions;66615

       (c) For the capitol square, as defined in section 105.41 of 66616
the Revised Code;66617

       (d) For other state property.66618

       (2) To carry out the security responsibilities of the patrol 66619
listed in division (E)(1) of this section, the superintendent may 66620
assign state highway patrol troopers to a separate unit that is 66621
responsible for security details. The number of troopers assigned 66622
to particular security details shall be determined by the 66623
superintendent.66624

       (3) The superintendent and any state highway patrol trooper, 66625
when providing security pursuant to division (E)(1)(a) or (b) of 66626
this section, have the same arrest powers as other peace officers 66627
to apprehend offenders against the criminal laws who endanger or 66628
threaten the security of any person being protected, no matter 66629
where the offense occurs.66630

       The superintendent, any state highway patrol trooper, and any 66631
special police officer designated under section 5503.09 of the 66632
Revised Code, when providing security pursuant to division 66633
(E)(1)(c) of this section, shall enforce any rules governing 66634
capitol square adopted by the capitol square review and advisory 66635
board.66636

       (F) The governor may order the state highway patrol to 66637
undertake major criminal investigations that involve state 66638
property interests. If an investigation undertaken pursuant to 66639
this division results in either the issuance of a no bill or the 66640
filing of an indictment, the superintendent shall file a complete 66641
and accurate report of the investigation with the president of the 66642
senate, the speaker of the house of representatives, the minority 66643
leader of the senate, and the minority leader of the house of 66644
representatives within fifteen days after the issuance of the no 66645
bill or the filing of an indictment. If the investigation does not 66646
have as its result any prosecutorial action, the superintendent 66647
shall, upon reporting this fact to the governor, file a complete 66648
and accurate report of the investigation with the president of the 66649
senate, the speaker of the house of representatives, the minority 66650
leader of the senate, and the minority leader of the house of 66651
representatives.66652

       (G) The superintendent may purchase or lease real property 66653
and buildings needed by the patrol, negotiate the sale of real 66654
property owned by the patrol, rent or lease real property owned or 66655
leased by the patrol, and make or cause to be made repairs to all 66656
property owned or under the control of the patrol. Any instrument 66657
by which real property is acquired pursuant to this division shall 66658
identify the agency of the state that has the use and benefit of 66659
the real property as specified in section 5301.012 of the Revised 66660
Code.66661

       Sections 123.01 and 125.02 of the Revised Code do not limit 66662
the powers granted to the superintendent by this division.66663

       Sec. 5503.04.  Forty-five per cent of the fines collected 66664
from or moneys arising from bail forfeited by persons apprehended 66665
or arrested by state highway patrol troopers shall be paid into 66666
the state treasury to be credited to the general revenue fund, 66667
five per cent shall be paid into the state treasury to be credited 66668
to the trauma and emergency medical services grants fund created 66669
by division (E) of section 4513.263 of the Revised Code, and fifty 66670
per cent shall be paid into the treasury of the municipal 66671
corporation where the case is prosecuted, if in a mayor's court. 66672
If the prosecution is in a trial court outside a municipal 66673
corporation, or outside the territorial jurisdiction of a 66674
municipal court, the fifty per cent of the fines and moneys that 66675
is not paid into the state treasury shall be paid into the 66676
treasury of the county where the case is prosecuted. The fines and 66677
moneys paid into a county treasury and the fines and moneys paid 66678
into the treasury of a municipal corporation shall be deposited 66679
one-half to the same fund and expended in the same manner as is 66680
the revenue received from the registration of motor vehicles, and 66681
one-half to the general fund of such county or municipal 66682
corporation.66683

       If the prosecution is in a municipal court, forty-five per 66684
cent of the fines and moneys shall be paid into the state treasury 66685
to be credited to the general revenue fund, five per cent shall be 66686
paid into the state treasury to be credited to the trauma and 66687
emergency medical services grants fund created by division (E) of 66688
section 4513.263 of the Revised Code, ten per cent shall be paid 66689
into the county treasury to be credited to the general fund of the 66690
county, and forty per cent shall be paid into the municipal 66691
treasury to be credited to the general fund of the municipal 66692
corporation. In the Auglaize county, Clermont county, Crawford 66693
county, Hocking county, Jackson county, Lawrence county, Madison 66694
county, Miami county, Ottawa county, Portage county, and Wayne 66695
county municipal courts, that portion of money otherwise paid into 66696
the municipal treasury shall be paid into the county treasury.66697

       The trial court shall make remittance of the fines and moneys 66698
as prescribed in this section, and at the same time as the 66699
remittance is made of the state's portion to the state treasury, 66700
the trial court shall notify the superintendent of the state 66701
highway patrol of the case and the amount covered by the 66702
remittance.66703

       This section does not apply to fines for violations of 66704
division (B) of section 4513.263 of the Revised Code, or for 66705
violations of any municipal ordinance that is substantively 66706
comparable to that division, all of which shall be delivered to 66707
the treasurer of state as provided in division (E) of section 66708
4513.263 of the Revised Code.66709

       Sec. 5503.34.  There is hereby created in the department of 66710
public safety, division of state highway patrol, a motor carrier 66711
enforcement unit, to be administered by the superintendent of the 66712
state highway patrol. This unit shall be responsible for 66713
enforcement of commercial motor vehicle transportation safety, 66714
economic, and hazardous materials requirements.66715

       The superintendent, with the approval of the director of 66716
public safety, may appoint and maintain necessary staff to carry 66717
out the duties assigned under this section.66718

       Employees of the motor carrier enforcement unit shall 66719
cooperate with the public utilities commission to enforce 66720
compliance with orders and rules of the commission, applicable 66721
laws under Chapters 49194905., 4921., and 4923. of the Revised 66722
Code, and any other applicable laws or rules.66723

       Uniformed employees of the motor carrier enforcement unit may 66724
stop commercial motor vehicles for the exclusive purpose of 66725
inspecting such vehicles to enforce compliance with orders and 66726
rules of the public utilities commission as required by division 66727
(F) of section 5502.01 of the Revised Code.66728

       Sec. 5701.13.  (A) As used in this section:66729

       (1) "Nursing home" means a nursing home or a home for the 66730
aging, as those terms are defined in section 3721.01 of the 66731
Revised Code, that is issued a license pursuant to section 3721.02 66732
of the Revised Code.66733

       (2) "Residential care facility" means a residential care 66734
facility, as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code, that 66735
is issued a license pursuant to section 3721.02 of the Revised 66736
Code.66737

       (3) "Adult careResidential facility" means an adult carea 66738
residential facility as defined inlicensed under section 5119.7066739
5119.22 of the Revised Code that is issued a license pursuant to 66740
section 5119.73 of the Revised Codeprovides accommodations, 66741
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 66742
unrelated adults.66743

       (B) As used in Title LVII of the Revised Code, and for the 66744
purpose of other sections of the Revised Code that refer 66745
specifically to Chapter 5701. or section 5701.13 of the Revised 66746
Code, a "home for the aged" means either of the following:66747

       (1) A place of residence for aged and infirm persons that 66748
satisfies divisions (B)(1)(a) to (e) of this section:66749

       (a) It is a nursing home, residential care facility, or adult 66750
careresidential facility.66751

       (b) It is owned by a corporation, unincorporated association, 66752
or trust of a charitable, religious, or fraternal nature, which is 66753
organized and operated not for profit, which is not formed for the 66754
pecuniary gain or profit of, and whose net earnings or any part of 66755
whose net earnings is not distributable to, its members, trustees, 66756
officers, or other private persons, and which is exempt from 66757
federal income taxation under section 501 of the "Internal Revenue 66758
Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 1.66759

       (c) It is open to the public without regard to race, color, 66760
or national origin.66761

       (d) It does not pay, directly or indirectly, compensation for 66762
services rendered, interest on debts incurred, or purchase price 66763
for land, building, equipment, supplies, or other goods or 66764
chattels, which compensation, interest, or purchase price is 66765
unreasonably high.66766

       (e) It provides services for the life of each resident 66767
without regard to the resident's ability to continue payment for 66768
the full cost of the services.66769

       (2) A place of residence that satisfies divisions (B)(1)(b), 66770
(d), and (e) of this section; that satisfies the definition of 66771
"nursing home" or "residential care facility" under section 66772
3721.01 of the Revised Code or the definition of "adult care66773
residential facility" under section 5119.70 of the Revised Code66774
division (A)(3) of this section regardless of whether it is 66775
licensed as such a home or facility; and that is provided at no 66776
charge to individuals on account of their service without 66777
compensation to a charitable, religious, fraternal, or educational 66778
institution, which individuals are aged or infirm and are members 66779
of the corporation, association, or trust that owns the place of 66780
residence. For the purposes of division (B)(2) of this section, 66781
"compensation" does not include furnishing room and board, 66782
clothing, health care, or other necessities, or stipends or other 66783
de minimis payments to defray the cost thereof.66784

       Exemption from taxation shall be accorded, on proper 66785
application, only to those homes or parts of homes which meet the 66786
standards and provide the services specified in this section.66787

       Nothing in this section shall be construed as preventing a 66788
home from requiring a resident with financial need to apply for 66789
any applicable financial assistance or requiring a home to retain 66790
a resident who willfully refuses to pay for services for which the 66791
resident has contracted even though the resident has sufficient 66792
resources to do so.66793

       (C)(1) If a corporation, unincorporated association, or trust 66794
described in division (B)(1)(b) of this section is granted a 66795
certificate of need pursuant to section 3702.52 of the Revised 66796
Code to construct, add to, or otherwise modify a nursing home, or 66797
is given approval pursuant to section 3791.04 of the Revised Code 66798
to construct, add to, or otherwise modify a residential care 66799
facility or adult careresidential facility and if the 66800
corporation, association, or trust submits an affidavit to the tax 66801
commissioner stating that, commencing on the date of licensure and 66802
continuing thereafter, the home or facility will be operated in 66803
accordance with the requirements of divisions (B)(1)(a) to (e) of 66804
this section, the corporation, association, or trust shall be 66805
considered to be operating a "home for the aged" within the 66806
meaning of division (B)(1) of this section, beginning on the first 66807
day of January of the year in which such certificate is granted or 66808
approval is given.66809

       (2) If a corporation, association, or trust is considered to 66810
be operating a "home for the aged" pursuant to division (C)(1) of 66811
this section, the corporation, association, or trust shall notify 66812
the tax commissioner in writing upon the occurrence of any of the 66813
following events:66814

       (a) The corporation, association, or trust no longer intends 66815
to complete the construction of, addition to, or modification of 66816
the home or facility, to obtain the appropriate license for the 66817
home or facility, or to commence operation of the home or facility 66818
in accordance with the requirements of divisions (B)(1)(a) to (e) 66819
of this section;66820

       (b) The certificate of approval referred to in division 66821
(C)(1) of this section expires, is revoked, or is otherwise 66822
terminated prior to the completion of the construction of, 66823
addition to, or modification of the home or facility;66824

       (c) The license to operate the home or facility is not 66825
granted by the director of health within one year following 66826
completion of the construction of, addition to, or modification of 66827
the home or facility;66828

       (d) The license to operate the home or facility is not 66829
granted by the director of health within four years following the 66830
date upon which the certificate or approval referred to in 66831
division (C)(1) of this section was granted or given;66832

       (e) The home or facility is granted a license to operate as a 66833
nursing home, residential care facility, or adult careresidential66834
facility.66835

       (3) Upon the occurrence of any of the events referred to in 66836
divisions (C)(2)(a), (b), (c), (d), and (e) of this section, the 66837
corporation, association, or trust shall no longer be considered 66838
to be operating a "home for the aged" pursuant to division (C)(1) 66839
of this section, except that the tax commissioner, for good cause 66840
shown and to the extent the commissioner considers appropriate, 66841
may extend the time period specified in division (C)(2)(c) or (d) 66842
of this section, or both. Nothing in division (C)(3) of this 66843
section shall be construed to prevent a nursing home, residential 66844
care facility, or adult careresidential facility from qualifying 66845
as a "home for the aged" if, upon proper application made pursuant 66846
to division (B) of this section, it is found to meet the 66847
requirements of divisions (A) and (B) of this section.66848

       Sec. 5703.05.  All powers, duties, and functions of the 66849
department of taxation are vested in and shall be performed by the 66850
tax commissioner, which powers, duties, and functions shall 66851
include, but shall not be limited to, the following:66852

       (A) Prescribing all blank forms which the department is 66853
authorized to prescribe, and to provide such forms and distribute 66854
the same as required by law and the rules of the department. 66855

       (B) Exercising the authority provided by law, including 66856
orders from bankruptcy courts, relative to remitting or refunding 66857
taxes or assessments, including penalties and interest thereon, 66858
illegally or erroneously assessed or collected, or for any other 66859
reason overpaid, and in addition, the commissioner may on written 66860
application of any person, firm, or corporation claiming to have 66861
overpaid to the treasurer of state at any time within five years 66862
prior to the making of such application any tax payable under any 66863
law which the department of taxation is required to administer 66864
which does not contain any provision for refund, or on the 66865
commissioner's own motion investigate the facts and make in 66866
triplicate a written statement of the commissioner's findings, 66867
and, if the commissioner finds that there has been an overpayment, 66868
issue in triplicate a certificate of abatement payable to the 66869
taxpayer, the taxpayer's assigns, or legal representative which 66870
shows the amount of the overpayment and the kind of tax overpaid. 66871
One copy of such statement shall be entered on the journal of the 66872
commissioner, one shall be certified to the attorney general, and 66873
one certified copy shall be delivered to the taxpayer. All copies 66874
of the certificate of abatement shall be transmitted to the 66875
attorney general, and if the attorney general finds it to be 66876
correct the attorney general shall so certify on each copy, and 66877
deliver one copy to the taxpayer, one copy to the commissioner, 66878
and the third copy to the treasurer of state. Except as provided 66879
in sectionssection 5725.08 and 5725.16 of the Revised Code, the 66880
taxpayer's copy of any certificates of abatement may be tendered 66881
by the payee or transferee thereof to the treasurer of state, or 66882
to the commissioner on behalf of the treasurer, as payment, to the 66883
extent of the amount thereof, of any tax payable to the treasurer 66884
of state.66885

       (C) Exercising the authority provided by law relative to 66886
consenting to the compromise and settlement of tax claims;66887

       (D) Exercising the authority provided by law relative to the 66888
use of alternative tax bases by taxpayers in the making of 66889
personal property tax returns;66890

       (E) Exercising the authority provided by law relative to 66891
authorizing the prepayment of taxes on retail sales of tangible 66892
personal property or on the storage, use, or consumption of 66893
personal property, and waiving the collection of such taxes from 66894
the consumers;66895

       (F) Exercising the authority provided by law to revoke 66896
licenses;66897

       (G) Maintaining a continuous study of the practical operation 66898
of all taxation and revenue laws of the state, the manner in which 66899
and extent to which such laws provide revenues for the support of 66900
the state and its political subdivisions, the probable effect upon 66901
such revenue of possible changes in existing laws, and the 66902
possible enactment of measures providing for other forms of 66903
taxation. For this purpose the commissioner may establish and 66904
maintain a division of research and statistics, and may appoint 66905
necessary employees who shall be in the unclassified civil 66906
service; the results of such study shall be available to the 66907
members of the general assembly and the public.66908

       (H) Making all tax assessments, valuations, findings, 66909
determinations, computations, and orders the department of 66910
taxation is by law authorized and required to make and, pursuant 66911
to time limitations provided by law, on the commissioner's own 66912
motion, reviewing, redetermining, or correcting any tax 66913
assessments, valuations, findings, determinations, computations, 66914
or orders the commissioner has made, but the commissioner shall 66915
not review, redetermine, or correct any tax assessment, valuation, 66916
finding, determination, computation, or order which the 66917
commissioner has made as to which an appeal or application for 66918
rehearing, review, redetermination, or correction has been filed 66919
with the board of tax appeals, unless such appeal or application 66920
is withdrawn by the appellant or applicant or dismissed;66921

       (I) Appointing not more than five deputy tax commissioners, 66922
who, under such regulations as the rules of the department of 66923
taxation prescribe, may act for the commissioner in the 66924
performance of such duties as the commissioner prescribes in the 66925
administration of the laws which the commissioner is authorized 66926
and required to administer, and who shall serve in the 66927
unclassified civil service at the pleasure of the commissioner, 66928
but if a person who holds a position in the classified service is 66929
appointed, it shall not affect the civil service status of such 66930
person. The commissioner may designate not more than two of the 66931
deputy commissioners to act as commissioner in case of the 66932
absence, disability, or recusal of the commissioner or vacancy in 66933
the office of commissioner. The commissioner may adopt rules 66934
relating to the order of precedence of such designated deputy 66935
commissioners and to their assumption and administration of the 66936
office of commissioner.66937

       (J) Appointing and prescribing the duties of all other 66938
employees of the department of taxation necessary in the 66939
performance of the work of the department which the tax 66940
commissioner is by law authorized and required to perform, and 66941
creating such divisions or sections of employees as, in the 66942
commissioner's judgment, is proper;66943

       (K) Organizing the work of the department, which the 66944
commissioner is by law authorized and required to perform, so 66945
that, in the commissioner's judgment, an efficient and economical 66946
administration of the laws will result;66947

       (L) Maintaining a journal, which is open to public 66948
inspection, in which the tax commissioner shall keep a record of 66949
all final determinations of the commissioner;66950

       (M) Adopting and promulgating, in the manner provided by 66951
section 5703.14 of the Revised Code, all rules of the department, 66952
including rules for the administration of sections 3517.16, 66953
3517.17, and 5747.081 of the Revised Code;66954

       (N) Destroying any or all returns or assessment certificates 66955
in the manner authorized by law;66956

       (O) Adopting rules, in accordance with division (B) of 66957
section 325.31 of the Revised Code, governing the expenditure of 66958
moneys from the real estate assessment fund under that division.66959

       Sec. 5705.08.  On or before the first Monday in May of each 66960
year, the fiscal officer of each subdivision that is not a, except66961
school districtdistricts and the city of Cincinnati, shall 66962
certify to its taxing authority the amount necessary to provide 66963
for the payment of final judgments against the subdivision, except 66964
in condemnation of property cases. The taxing authority shall 66965
place such certified amount in each budget and in the annual 66966
appropriation measure for the full amount certified.66967

       On or before the first Monday in November of each year, the 66968
fiscal officer of the city of Cincinnati and of each school 66969
district shall certify to its board of educationtaxing authority66970
the amount necessary to provide for the payment of final judgments 66971
against the districtsubdivision, except in condemnation of 66972
property cases. The board of educationtaxing authority shall 66973
place such certified amount in each budget and in the annual 66974
appropriation measure for the full amount certified.66975

       Sec. 5705.19.  This section does not apply to school 66976
districts or county school financing districts.66977

       The taxing authority of any subdivision at any time and in 66978
any year, by vote of two-thirds of all the members of the taxing 66979
authority, may declare by resolution and certify the resolution to 66980
the board of elections not less than ninety days before the 66981
election upon which it will be voted that the amount of taxes that 66982
may be raised within the ten-mill limitation will be insufficient 66983
to provide for the necessary requirements of the subdivision and 66984
that it is necessary to levy a tax in excess of that limitation 66985
for any of the following purposes:66986

       (A) For current expenses of the subdivision, except that the 66987
total levy for current expenses of a detention facility district 66988
or district organized under section 2151.65 of the Revised Code 66989
shall not exceed two mills and that the total levy for current 66990
expenses of a combined district organized under sections 2151.65 66991
and 2152.41 of the Revised Code shall not exceed four mills;66992

       (B) For the payment of debt charges on certain described 66993
bonds, notes, or certificates of indebtedness of the subdivision 66994
issued subsequent to January 1, 1925;66995

       (C) For the debt charges on all bonds, notes, and 66996
certificates of indebtedness issued and authorized to be issued 66997
prior to January 1, 1925;66998

       (D) For a public library of, or supported by, the subdivision 66999
under whatever law organized or authorized to be supported;67000

       (E) For a municipal university, not to exceed two mills over 67001
the limitation of one mill prescribed in section 3349.13 of the 67002
Revised Code;67003

       (F) For the construction or acquisition of any specific 67004
permanent improvement or class of improvements that the taxing 67005
authority of the subdivision may include in a single bond issue;67006

       (G) For the general construction, reconstruction, 67007
resurfacing, and repair of streets, roads, and bridges in 67008
municipal corporations, counties, or townships;67009

       (H) For parks and recreational purposes;67010

       (I) For the purpose of providing and maintaining fire 67011
apparatus, appliances, buildings, or sites therefor, or sources of 67012
water supply and materials therefor, or the establishment and 67013
maintenance of lines of fire alarm telegraph, or the payment of 67014
firefighting companies or permanent, part-time, or volunteer 67015
firefighting, emergency medical service, administrative, or 67016
communications personnel to operate the same, including the 67017
payment of any employer contributions required for such personnel 67018
under section 145.48 or 742.34 of the Revised Code, or the 67019
purchase of ambulance equipment, or the provision of ambulance, 67020
paramedic, or other emergency medical services operated by a fire 67021
department or firefighting company;67022

       (J) For the purpose of providing and maintaining motor 67023
vehicles, communications, other equipment, buildings, and sites 67024
for such buildings used directly in the operation of a police 67025
department, or the payment of salaries of permanent or part-time 67026
police, communications, or administrative personnel to operate the 67027
same, including the payment of any employer contributions required 67028
for such personnel under section 145.48 or 742.33 of the Revised 67029
Code, or the payment of the costs incurred by townships as a 67030
result of contracts made with other political subdivisions in 67031
order to obtain police protection, or the provision of ambulance 67032
or emergency medical services operated by a police department;67033

       (K) For the maintenance and operation of a county home or 67034
detention facility;67035

       (L) For community mental retardation and developmental 67036
disabilities programs and services pursuant to Chapter 5126. of 67037
the Revised Code, except that the procedure for such levies shall 67038
be as provided in section 5705.222 of the Revised Code;67039

       (M) For regional planning;67040

       (N) For a county's share of the cost of maintaining and 67041
operating schools, district detention facilities, forestry camps, 67042
or other facilities, or any combination thereof, established under 67043
section 2151.65 or 2152.41 of the Revised Code or both of those 67044
sections;67045

       (O) For providing for flood defense, providing and 67046
maintaining a flood wall or pumps, and other purposes to prevent 67047
floods;67048

       (P) For maintaining and operating sewage disposal plants and 67049
facilities;67050

       (Q) For the purpose of purchasing, acquiring, constructing, 67051
enlarging, improving, equipping, repairing, maintaining, or 67052
operating, or any combination of the foregoing, a county transit 67053
system pursuant to sections 306.01 to 306.13 of the Revised Code, 67054
or of making any payment to a board of county commissioners 67055
operating a transit system or a county transit board pursuant to 67056
section 306.06 of the Revised Code;67057

       (R) For the subdivision's share of the cost of acquiring or 67058
constructing any schools, forestry camps, detention facilities, or 67059
other facilities, or any combination thereof, under section 67060
2151.65 or 2152.41 of the Revised Code or both of those sections;67061

       (S) For the prevention, control, and abatement of air 67062
pollution;67063

       (T) For maintaining and operating cemeteries;67064

       (U) For providing ambulance service, emergency medical 67065
service, or both;67066

       (V) For providing for the collection and disposal of garbage 67067
or refuse, including yard waste;67068

       (W) For the payment of the police officer employers' 67069
contribution or the firefighter employers' contribution required 67070
under sections 742.33 and 742.34 of the Revised Code;67071

       (X) For the construction and maintenance of a drainage 67072
improvement pursuant to section 6131.52 of the Revised Code;67073

       (Y) For providing or maintaining senior citizens services or 67074
facilities as authorized by section 307.694, 307.85, 505.70, or 67075
505.706 or division (EE) of section 717.01 of the Revised Code;67076

       (Z) For the provision and maintenance of zoological park 67077
services and facilities as authorized under section 307.76 of the 67078
Revised Code;67079

       (AA) For the maintenance and operation of a free public 67080
museum of art, science, or history;67081

       (BB) For the establishment and operation of a 9-1-1 system, 67082
as defined in section 4931.40 of the Revised Code;67083

       (CC) For the purpose of acquiring, rehabilitating, or 67084
developing rail property or rail service. As used in this 67085
division, "rail property" and "rail service" have the same 67086
meanings as in section 4981.01 of the Revised Code. This division 67087
applies only to a county, township, or municipal corporation.67088

       (DD) For the purpose of acquiring property for, constructing, 67089
operating, and maintaining community centers as provided for in 67090
section 755.16 of the Revised Code;67091

       (EE) For the creation and operation of an office or joint 67092
office of economic development, for any economic development 67093
purpose of the office, and to otherwise provide for the 67094
establishment and operation of a program of economic development 67095
pursuant to sections 307.07 and 307.64 of the Revised Code, or to 67096
the extent that the expenses of a county land reutilization 67097
corporation organized under Chapter 1724. of the Revised Code are 67098
found by the board of county commissioners to constitute the 67099
promotion of economic development, for the payment of such 67100
operations and expenses;67101

       (FF) For the purpose of acquiring, establishing, 67102
constructing, improving, equipping, maintaining, or operating, or 67103
any combination of the foregoing, a township airport, landing 67104
field, or other air navigation facility pursuant to section 505.15 67105
of the Revised Code;67106

       (GG) For the payment of costs incurred by a township as a 67107
result of a contract made with a county pursuant to section 67108
505.263 of the Revised Code in order to pay all or any part of the 67109
cost of constructing, maintaining, repairing, or operating a water 67110
supply improvement;67111

       (HH) For a board of township trustees to acquire, other than 67112
by appropriation, an ownership interest in land, water, or 67113
wetlands, or to restore or maintain land, water, or wetlands in 67114
which the board has an ownership interest, not for purposes of 67115
recreation, but for the purposes of protecting and preserving the 67116
natural, scenic, open, or wooded condition of the land, water, or 67117
wetlands against modification or encroachment resulting from 67118
occupation, development, or other use, which may be styled as 67119
protecting or preserving "greenspace" in the resolution, notice of 67120
election, or ballot form. Except as otherwise provided in this 67121
division, land is not acquired for purposes of recreation, even if 67122
the land is used for recreational purposes, so long as no 67123
building, structure, or fixture used for recreational purposes is 67124
permanently attached or affixed to the land. Except as otherwise 67125
provided in this division, land that previously has been acquired 67126
in a township for these greenspace purposes may subsequently be 67127
used for recreational purposes if the board of township trustees 67128
adopts a resolution approving that use and no building, structure, 67129
or fixture used for recreational purposes is permanently attached 67130
or affixed to the land. The authorization to use greenspace land 67131
for recreational use does not apply to land located in a township 67132
that had a population, at the time it passed its first greenspace 67133
levy, of more than thirty-eight thousand within a county that had 67134
a population, at that time, of at least eight hundred sixty 67135
thousand.67136

       (II) For the support by a county of a crime victim assistance 67137
program that is provided and maintained by a county agency or a 67138
private, nonprofit corporation or association under section 307.62 67139
of the Revised Code;67140

       (JJ) For any or all of the purposes set forth in divisions 67141
(I) and (J) of this section. This division applies only to a 67142
township.67143

       (KK) For a countywide public safety communications system 67144
under section 307.63 of the Revised Code. This division applies 67145
only to counties.67146

       (LL) For the support by a county of criminal justice services 67147
under section 307.45 of the Revised Code;67148

       (MM) For the purpose of maintaining and operating a jail or 67149
other detention facility as defined in section 2921.01 of the 67150
Revised Code;67151

       (NN) For purchasing, maintaining, or improving, or any 67152
combination of the foregoing, real estate on which to hold 67153
agricultural fairs. This division applies only to a county.67154

       (OO) For constructing, rehabilitating, repairing, or 67155
maintaining sidewalks, walkways, trails, bicycle pathways, or 67156
similar improvements, or acquiring ownership interests in land 67157
necessary for the foregoing improvements;67158

       (PP) For both of the purposes set forth in divisions (G) and 67159
(OO) of this section.67160

       (QQ) For both of the purposes set forth in divisions (H) and 67161
(HH) of this section. This division applies only to a township.67162

       (RR) For the legislative authority of a municipal 67163
corporation, board of county commissioners of a county, or board 67164
of township trustees of a township to acquire agricultural 67165
easements, as defined in section 5301.67 of the Revised Code, and 67166
to supervise and enforce the easements.67167

       (SS) For both of the purposes set forth in divisions (BB) and 67168
(KK) of this section. This division applies only to a county.67169

       (TT) For the maintenance and operation of a facility that is 67170
organized in whole or in part to promote the sciences and natural 67171
history under section 307.761 of the Revised Code.67172

       (UU) For the creation and operation of a county land 67173
reutilization corporation and for any programs or activities of 67174
the corporation found by the board of directors of the corporation 67175
to be consistent with the purposes for which the corporation is 67176
organized;67177

       (VV) For construction and maintenance of improvements and 67178
expenses of soil and water conservation district programs under 67179
Chapter 1515. of the Revised Code;67180

        (WW) For the Ohio cooperative extension service fund created 67181
under section 3335.35 of the Revised Code for the purposes 67182
prescribed under section 3335.36 of the Revised Code for the 67183
benefit of the citizens of a county. This division applies only to 67184
a county.67185

       (XX) For a municipal corporation that withdraws or proposes 67186
by resolution to withdraw from a regional transit authority under 67187
section 306.55 of the Revised Code to provide transportation 67188
services for the movement of persons within, from, or to the 67189
municipal corporation.67190

       The resolution shall be confined to the purpose or purposes 67191
described in one division of this section, to which the revenue 67192
derived therefrom shall be applied. The existence in any other 67193
division of this section of authority to levy a tax for any part 67194
or all of the same purpose or purposes does not preclude the use 67195
of such revenues for any part of the purpose or purposes of the 67196
division under which the resolution is adopted.67197

       The resolution shall specify the amount of the increase in 67198
rate that it is necessary to levy, the purpose of that increase in 67199
rate, and the number of years during which the increase in rate 67200
shall be in effect, which may or may not include a levy upon the 67201
duplicate of the current year. The number of years may be any 67202
number not exceeding five, except as follows:67203

       (1) When the additional rate is for the payment of debt 67204
charges, the increased rate shall be for the life of the 67205
indebtedness.67206

       (2) When the additional rate is for any of the following, the 67207
increased rate shall be for a continuing period of time:67208

       (a) For the current expenses for a detention facility 67209
district, a district organized under section 2151.65 of the 67210
Revised Code, or a combined district organized under sections 67211
2151.65 and 2152.41 of the Revised Code;67212

       (b) For providing a county's share of the cost of maintaining 67213
and operating schools, district detention facilities, forestry 67214
camps, or other facilities, or any combination thereof, 67215
established under section 2151.65 or 2152.41 of the Revised Code 67216
or under both of those sections.67217

       (3) When the additional rate is for either of the following, 67218
the increased rate may be for a continuing period of time:67219

       (a) For the purposes set forth in division (I), (J), (U), or 67220
(KK) of this section;67221

       (b) For the maintenance and operation of a joint recreation 67222
district.67223

       (4) When the increase is for the purpose or purposes set 67224
forth in division (D), (G), (H), (CC), or (PP) of this section, 67225
the tax levy may be for any specified number of years or for a 67226
continuing period of time, as set forth in the resolution.67227

       (5) When the additional rate is for the purpose described in 67228
division (Z) of this section, the increased rate shall be for any 67229
number of years not exceeding ten.67230

       A levy for one of the purposes set forth in division (G), 67231
(I), (J), or (U) of this section may be reduced pursuant to 67232
section 5705.261 or 5705.31 of the Revised Code. A levy for one of 67233
the purposes set forth in division (G), (I), (J), or (U) of this 67234
section may also be terminated or permanently reduced by the 67235
taxing authority if it adopts a resolution stating that the 67236
continuance of the levy is unnecessary and the levy shall be 67237
terminated or that the millage is excessive and the levy shall be 67238
decreased by a designated amount.67239

       A resolution of a detention facility district, a district 67240
organized under section 2151.65 of the Revised Code, or a combined 67241
district organized under both sections 2151.65 and 2152.41 of the 67242
Revised Code may include both current expenses and other purposes, 67243
provided that the resolution shall apportion the annual rate of 67244
levy between the current expenses and the other purpose or 67245
purposes. The apportionment need not be the same for each year of 67246
the levy, but the respective portions of the rate actually levied 67247
each year for the current expenses and the other purpose or 67248
purposes shall be limited by the apportionment.67249

       Whenever a board of county commissioners, acting either as 67250
the taxing authority of its county or as the taxing authority of a 67251
sewer district or subdistrict created under Chapter 6117. of the 67252
Revised Code, by resolution declares it necessary to levy a tax in 67253
excess of the ten-mill limitation for the purpose of constructing, 67254
improving, or extending sewage disposal plants or sewage systems, 67255
the tax may be in effect for any number of years not exceeding 67256
twenty, and the proceeds of the tax, notwithstanding the general 67257
provisions of this section, may be used to pay debt charges on any 67258
obligations issued and outstanding on behalf of the subdivision 67259
for the purposes enumerated in this paragraph, provided that any 67260
such obligations have been specifically described in the 67261
resolution.67262

       A resolution adopted by the legislative authority of a 67263
municipal corporation that is for the purpose in division (XX) of 67264
this section may be combined with the purpose provided in section 67265
306.55 of the Revised Code, by vote of two-thirds of all members 67266
of the legislative authority. The legislative authority may 67267
certify the resolution to the board of elections as a combined 67268
question. The question appearing on the ballot shall be as 67269
provided in section 5705.252 of the Revised Code.67270

       The resolution shall go into immediate effect upon its 67271
passage, and no publication of the resolution is necessary other 67272
than that provided for in the notice of election.67273

       When the electors of a subdivision have approved a tax levy 67274
under this section, the taxing authority of the subdivision may 67275
anticipate a fraction of the proceeds of the levy and issue 67276
anticipation notes in accordance with section 5705.191 or 5705.193 67277
of the Revised Code.67278

       Sec. 5705.25.  (A) A copy of any resolution adopted as 67279
provided in section 5705.19 or 5705.2111 of the Revised Code shall 67280
be certified by the taxing authority to the board of elections of 67281
the proper county not less than ninety days before the general 67282
election in any year, and the board shall submit the proposal to 67283
the electors of the subdivision at the succeeding November 67284
election. Except as otherwise provided in this division, a 67285
resolution to renew an existing levy, regardless of the section of 67286
the Revised Code under which the tax was imposed, shall not be 67287
placed on the ballot unless the question is submitted at the 67288
general election held during the last year the tax to be renewed 67289
or replaced may be extended on the real and public utility 67290
property tax list and duplicate, or at any election held in the 67291
ensuing year. The limitation of the foregoing sentence does not 67292
apply to a resolution to renew and increase or to renew part of an 67293
existing levy that was imposed under section 5705.191 of the 67294
Revised Code to supplement the general fund for the purpose of 67295
making appropriations for one or more of the following purposes: 67296
for public assistance, human or social services, relief, welfare, 67297
hospitalization, health, and support of general hospitals. The 67298
limitation of the second preceding sentence also does not apply to 67299
a resolution that proposes to renew two or more existing levies 67300
imposed under section 5705.21 of the Revised Code, in which case 67301
the question shall be submitted on the date of the general or 67302
primary election held during the last year at least one of the 67303
levies to be renewed may be extended on the real and public 67304
utility property tax list and duplicate, or at any election held 67305
during the ensuing year. For purposes of this section, a levy 67306
shall be considered to be an "existing levy" through the year 67307
following the last year it can be placed on that tax list and 67308
duplicate.67309

       The board shall make the necessary arrangements for the 67310
submission of such questions to the electors of such subdivision, 67311
and the election shall be conducted, canvassed, and certified in 67312
the same manner as regular elections in such subdivision for the 67313
election of county officers. Notice of the election shall be 67314
published in a newspaper of general circulation in the subdivision 67315
once a week for two consecutive weeks, or as provided in section 67316
7.16 of the Revised Code, prior to the election. If the board of 67317
elections operates and maintains a web site, the board of 67318
elections shall post notice of the election on its web site for 67319
thirty days prior to the election. The notice shall state the 67320
purpose, the proposed increase in rate expressed in dollars and 67321
cents for each one hundred dollars of valuation as well as in 67322
mills for each one dollar of valuation, the number of years during 67323
which the increase will be in effect, the first month and year in 67324
which the tax will be levied, and the time and place of the 67325
election.67326

       (B) The form of the ballots cast at an election held pursuant 67327
to division (A) of this section shall be as follows:67328

       "An additional tax for the benefit of (name of subdivision or 67329
public library) .......... for the purpose of (purpose stated in 67330
the resolution) .......... at a rate not exceeding ...... mills 67331
for each one dollar of valuation, which amounts to (rate expressed 67332
in dollars and cents) ............ for each one hundred dollars of 67333
valuation, for ...... (life of indebtedness or number of years the 67334
levy is to run).67335

        67336

 For the Tax Levy 67337
 Against the Tax Levy  " 67338

        67339

       (C) If the levy is to be in effect for a continuing period of 67340
time, the notice of election and the form of ballot shall so state 67341
instead of setting forth a specified number of years for the levy.67342

       If the tax is to be placed on the current tax list, the form 67343
of the ballot shall be modified by adding, after the statement of 67344
the number of years the levy is to run, the phrase ", commencing 67345
in .......... (first year the tax is to be levied), first due in 67346
calendar year .......... (first calendar year in which the tax 67347
shall be due)."67348

       If the levy submitted is a proposal to renew, increase, or 67349
decrease an existing levy, the form of the ballot specified in 67350
division (B) of this section may be changed by substituting for 67351
the words "An additional" at the beginning of the form, the words 67352
"A renewal of a" in case of a proposal to renew an existing levy 67353
in the same amount; the words "A renewal of ........ mills and an 67354
increase of ...... mills to constitute a" in the case of an 67355
increase; or the words "A renewal of part of an existing levy, 67356
being a reduction of ...... mills, to constitute a" in the case of 67357
a decrease in the proposed levy.67358

       If the levy submitted is a proposal to renew two or more 67359
existing levies imposed under section 5705.21 of the Revised Code, 67360
the form of the ballot specified in division (B) of this section 67361
shall be modified by substituting for the words "an additional 67362
tax" the words "a renewal of ....(insert the number of levies to 67363
be renewed) existing taxes."67364

       If the levy submitted is a levy under section 5705.72 of the 67365
Revised Code or a proposal to renew, increase, or decrease an 67366
existing levy imposed under that section, the name of the 67367
subdivision shall be "the unincorporated area of .......... (name 67368
of township)." 67369

       The question covered by such resolution shall be submitted as 67370
a separate proposition but may be printed on the same ballot with 67371
any other proposition submitted at the same election, other than 67372
the election of officers. More than one such question may be 67373
submitted at the same election.67374

       (D) A levy voted in excess of the ten-mill limitation under 67375
this section shall be certified to the tax commissioner. In the 67376
first year of the levy, it shall be extended on the tax lists 67377
after the February settlement succeeding the election. If the 67378
additional tax is to be placed upon the tax list of the current 67379
year, as specified in the resolution providing for its submission, 67380
the result of the election shall be certified immediately after 67381
the canvass by the board of elections to the taxing authority, who 67382
shall make the necessary levy and certify it to the county 67383
auditor, who shall extend it on the tax lists for collection. 67384
After the first year, the tax levy shall be included in the annual 67385
tax budget that is certified to the county budget commission.67386

       Sec. 5705.252.  (A) If the legislative authority of a 67387
municipal corporation adopts a resolution for the purposes 67388
provided in section 306.55 of the Revised Code and division (XX) 67389
of section 5705.19 of the Revised Code and certifies the 67390
resolution to the board of elections as a combined question, the 67391
question appearing on the ballot shall read:67392

       "Shall the territory within the ...... (name of municipal 67393
corporation) be withdrawn from ...... (name of regional transit 67394
authority) and shall an additional tax be levied for the benefit 67395
of ...... (name of municipal corporation) ...... for the purpose 67396
of providing transportation services for the movement of persons 67397
within, from, or to the ...... (name of municipal corporation) at 67398
a rate not exceeding ...... mills for each one dollar of 67399
valuation, which amounts to ...... (rate expressed in dollars and 67400
cents) for each one hundred dollars of valuation, for ...... 67401
(number of years the levy is to run)?"67402

       (B) If the board of trustees of a township adopts a 67403
resolution for the purposes provided in sections 306.55 and 67404
5705.72 of the Revised Code and certifies the resolution to the 67405
board of elections as a combined question, the question appearing 67406
on the ballot in the unincorporated area of the township shall 67407
read:67408

       "Shall the territory within the unincorporated area of ...... 67409
(name of township) be withdrawn from ...... (name of regional 67410
transit authority) and shall an additional tax be levied for the 67411
benefit of the unincorporated area of ...... (name of township) 67412
for the purpose of providing transportation services for the 67413
movement of persons within, from, or to the unincorporated area of 67414
...... (name of township) at a rate not exceeding ...... mills for 67415
each one dollar of valuation, which amounts to ...... (rate 67416
expressed in dollars and cents) for each one hundred dollars of 67417
valuation, for ...... (number of years the levy is to run)?67418

       Sec. 5705.28.  (A) Except as provided in division (B)(1) or 67419
(2) of this section or in section 5705.281 of the Revised Code, 67420
the taxing authority of each subdivision or other taxing unit 67421
shall adopt a tax budget for the next succeeding fiscal year:67422

       (1) On or before the fifteenth day of January in the case of 67423
a school districtdistricts and the city of Cincinnati;67424

       (2) On or before the fifteenth day of July in the case of all 67425
other subdivisions and taxing units.67426

       (B)(1) Before the first day of June in each year, the board 67427
of trustees of a school library district entitled to participate 67428
in any appropriation or revenue of a school district or to have a 67429
tax proposed by the board of education of a school district shall 67430
file with the board of education of the school district a tax 67431
budget for the ensuing fiscal year. On or before the fifteenth day 67432
of July in each year, the board of education of a school district 67433
to which a school library district tax budget was submitted under 67434
this division shall adopt such tax budget on behalf of the library 67435
district, but such budget shall not be part of the school 67436
district's tax budget.67437

       (2)(a) The taxing authority of a taxing unit that does not 67438
levy a tax is not required to adopt a tax budget pursuant to 67439
division (A) of this section. Instead, on or before the fifteenth 67440
day of July each year, such taxing authority shall adopt an 67441
operating budget for the taxing unit for the ensuing fiscal year. 67442
The operating budget shall include an estimate of receipts from 67443
all sources, a statement of all taxing unit expenses that are 67444
anticipated to occur, and the amount required for debt charges 67445
during the fiscal year. The operating budget is not required to be 67446
filed with the county auditor or the county budget commission.67447

       (b) Except for this section and sections 5705.36, 5705.38, 67448
5705.40, 5705.41, 5705.43, 5705.44, and 5705.45 of the Revised 67449
Code, a taxing unit that does not levy a tax is not a taxing unit 67450
for purposes of Chapter 5705. of the Revised Code. Documents 67451
prepared in accordance with such sections are not required to be 67452
filed with the county auditor or county budget commission.67453

       (c) The total appropriations from each fund of a taxing unit 67454
that does not levy a tax shall not exceed the total estimated 67455
revenue available for expenditures from the fund, and 67456
appropriations shall be made from each fund only for the purposes 67457
for which the fund is established.67458

       (C)(1) To assist in the preparation of the tax budget, the 67459
head of each department, board, commission, and district authority 67460
entitled to participate in any appropriation or revenue of a 67461
subdivision shall file with the taxing authority, or in the case 67462
of a municipal corporation, with its chief executive officer, 67463
before the forty-fifth day prior to the date on which the budget 67464
must be adopted, an estimate of contemplated revenue and 67465
expenditures for the ensuing fiscal year, in such form as is 67466
prescribed by the taxing authority of the subdivision or by the 67467
auditor of state. The taxing authority shall include in its budget 67468
of expenditures the full amounts requested by district 67469
authorities, not to exceed the amount authorized by law, if such 67470
authorities may fix the amount of revenue they are to receive from 67471
the subdivision. In a municipal corporation in which a special 67472
levy for a municipal university has been authorized to be levied 67473
in excess of the ten-mill limitation, or is required by the 67474
charter of the municipal corporation, the taxing authority shall 67475
include an amount not less than the estimated yield of such levy, 67476
if such amount is requested by the board of directors of the 67477
municipal university.67478

       (2) A county board of developmental disabilities may include 67479
within its estimate of contemplated revenue and expenditures a 67480
reserve balance account in the community developmental 67481
disabilities residential services fund. The account shall contain 67482
money that is not needed to pay for current expenses for 67483
residential services and supported living but will be needed to 67484
pay for expenses for such services in the future or may be needed 67485
for unanticipated emergency expenses. On the request of the county 67486
board of developmental disabilities, the board of county 67487
commissioners shall include such an account in its budget of 67488
expenditures and appropriate money to the account from residential 67489
service moneys for the county board.67490

       (D) The board of trustees of any public library desiring to 67491
participate in the distribution of the county public library fund 67492
shall adopt appropriate rules extending the benefits of the 67493
library service of such library to all the inhabitants of the 67494
county on equal terms, unless such library service is by law 67495
available to all such inhabitants, and shall certify a copy of 67496
such rules to the taxing authority with its estimate of 67497
contemplated revenue and expenditures. Where such rules have been 67498
so certified or where the adoption of such rules is not required, 67499
the taxing authority shall include in its budget of receipts such 67500
amounts as are specified by such board as contemplated revenue 67501
from the county public library fund, and in its budget of 67502
expenditures the full amounts requested therefrom by such board. 67503
No library association, incorporated or unincorporated, is 67504
entitled to participate in the proceeds of the county public 67505
library fund unless such association both was organized and 67506
operating prior to January 1, 1968, and participated in the 67507
distribution of the proceeds of the county public library fund 67508
prior to December 31, 2005.67509

       Sec. 5705.30.  This section does not apply to a subdivision 67510
for which the county budget commission has waived the requirement 67511
to adopt a tax budget under section 5705.281 of the Revised Code.67512

       In addition to the information required by section 5705.29 of 67513
the Revised Code, the budget of each subdivision and school 67514
library district shall include such other information as is 67515
prescribed by the auditor of state. At least two copies of the 67516
budget shall be filed in the office of the fiscal officer of the 67517
subdivision for public inspection not less than ten days before 67518
its adoption by the taxing authority, and such taxing authority 67519
shall hold at least one public hearing thereon, of which public 67520
notice shall be given by at least one publication not less than 67521
ten days prior to the date of hearing in the official publication 67522
of such subdivision, or in a newspaper having general circulation 67523
in the subdivision. The budget, after adoption, shall be submitted 67524
to the county auditor on or before the twentieth day of July, or 67525
in the case of a school district or the city of Cincinnati, by the 67526
twentieth day of January. The tax commissioner may prescribe a 67527
later date for the submission of a subdivision's tax budget. Any 67528
subdivision that fails to submit its budget to the county auditor 67529
on or before the twentieth day of July, unless the commissioner on 67530
or before the twentieth day of July prescribesdate prescribed by 67531
this section or a later date for submission of the budget by that 67532
subdivision,prescribed by the commissioner shall not receive an 67533
apportionment from the undivided local government fund 67534
distribution for the ensuing calendar year, unless upon review of 67535
the matter the commissioner determines that the budget was adopted 67536
by the subdivision on or before the fifteenthfifth day of July67537
before the date prescribed by this section for submitting the 67538
budget, but was not submitted to the county auditor by the 67539
twentieth day of Julydate so prescribed or the later time 67540
prescribed by the commissioner because of ministerial error by the 67541
subdivision or its officers, employees, or other representatives.67542

       Sec. 5705.34.  When the budget commission has completed its 67543
work with respect to a tax budget or other information required to 67544
be provided under section 5705.281 of the Revised Code, it shall 67545
certify its action to the taxing authority, together with an 67546
estimate by the county auditor of the rate of each tax necessary 67547
to be levied by the taxing authority within its subdivision or 67548
taxing unit, and what part thereof is in excess of, and what part 67549
within, the ten-mill tax limitation. The certification shall also 67550
indicate the date on which each tax levied by the taxing authority 67551
will expire.67552

       If a taxing authority levies a tax for a fixed sum of money 67553
or to pay debt charges for the tax year for which the tax budget 67554
is prepared, and a payment on account of that tax is payable to 67555
the taxing authority for the tax year under section 5727.85, 67556
5727.86, 5751.21, or 5751.22 of the Revised Code, the county 67557
auditor, when estimating the rate at which the tax shall be levied 67558
in the current year, shall estimate the rate necessary to raise 67559
the required sum less the estimated amount of any payments made 67560
for the tax year to a taxing unit for fixed-sum levies under those 67561
sections. The estimated rate shall be the rate of the levy that 67562
the budget commission certifies with its action under this 67563
section.67564

       Each taxing authority, by ordinance or resolution, shall 67565
authorize the necessary tax levies and certify them to the county 67566
auditor before the first day of October in each year, or at such 67567
later date as is approved by the tax commissioner, except that the 67568
certification by the legislative authority of the city of 67569
Cincinnati or by a board of education shall be made by the first 67570
day of April or at such later date as is approved by the 67571
commissioner, and except that a township board of park 67572
commissioners that is appointed by the board of township trustees 67573
and oversees a township park district that contains only 67574
unincorporated territory shall authorize only those taxes approved 67575
by, and only at the rate approved by, the board of township 67576
trustees as required by division (C) of section 511.27 of the 67577
Revised Code. If the levying of a tax to be placed on the 67578
duplicate of the current year is approved by the electors of the 67579
subdivision under sections 5705.01 to 5705.47 of the Revised Code; 67580
if the rate of a school district tax is increased due to the 67581
repeal of a school district income tax and property tax rate 67582
reduction at an election held pursuant to section 5748.04 of the 67583
Revised Code; or if refunding bonds to refund all or a part of the 67584
principal of bonds payable from a tax levy for the ensuing fiscal 67585
year are issued or sold and in the process of delivery, the budget 67586
commission shall reconsider and revise its action on the budget of 67587
the subdivision or school library district for whose benefit the 67588
tax is to be levied after the returns of such election are fully 67589
canvassed, or after the issuance or sale of such refunding bonds 67590
is certified to it.67591

       Sec. 5705.35.  (A) The certification of the budget commission 67592
to the taxing authority of each subdivision or taxing unit, as set 67593
forth in section 5705.34 of the Revised Code, shall show the 67594
various funds of such subdivisions other than funds to be created 67595
by transfer and shall be filed by the county budget commission 67596
with such taxing authority on or before the first day of March in 67597
the case of school districts and the city of Cincinnati and on or 67598
before the first day of September in each year in the case of all 67599
other taxing authorities. There shall be set forth on the credit 67600
side of each fund the estimated unencumbered balances and 67601
receipts, and if a tax is to be levied for such fund, the 67602
estimated revenue to be derived therefrom, the rate of the levy, 67603
and what portion thereof is within, and what in excess of, the 67604
ten-mill tax limitation, and on the debit side, the total 67605
appropriations that may be made therefrom. Subject to division (G) 67606
of section 5705.29 of the Revised Code, any reserve balance in an 67607
account established under section 5705.13 of the Revised Code for 67608
the purpose described in division (A)(1) of that section, and the 67609
principal of a nonexpendable trust fund established under section 67610
5705.131 of the Revised Code and any additions to principal 67611
arising from sources other than the reinvestment of investment 67612
earnings arising from that fund, are not unencumbered balances for 67613
the purposes of this section. The balance in a reserve balance 67614
account established under section 5705.132 of the Revised Code is 67615
not an unencumbered balance for the purposes of this division.67616

       There shall be attached to the certification a summary, which 67617
shall be known as the "official certificate of estimated 67618
resources," that shall state the total estimated resources of each 67619
fund of the subdivision that are available for appropriation in 67620
the fiscal year, other than funds to be created by transfer, and a 67621
statement of the amount of the total tax duplicate of the school 67622
district to be used in the collection of taxes for the following 67623
calendar year. Before the end of the fiscal year, the taxing 67624
authority of each subdivision and other taxing unit shall revise 67625
its tax budget, if one was adopted, so that the total contemplated 67626
expenditures from any fund during the ensuing fiscal year will not 67627
exceed the total appropriations that may be made from such fund, 67628
as determined by the budget commission in its certification; and 67629
such revised budget shall be the basis of the annual appropriation 67630
measure.67631

       (B)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (B)(2) of 67632
this section, revenues from real property taxes scheduled to be 67633
settled on or before the tenth day of August and the fifteenth day 67634
of February of a fiscal year under divisions (A) and (C) of 67635
section 321.24 of the Revised Code, and revenue from taxes levied 67636
on personal property used in business scheduled to be settled on 67637
or before the thirty-first day of October and the thirtieth day of 67638
June of a fiscal year under divisions (B) and (D) of section 67639
321.24 of the Revised Code shall not be available for 67640
appropriation by a board of education prior to the fiscal year in 67641
which such latest scheduled settlement date occurs, except that 67642
moneys advanced to the treasurer of a board of education under 67643
division (A)(2)(b) of section 321.34 of the Revised Code shall be 67644
available for appropriation in the fiscal year in which they are 67645
paid to the treasurer under such section. If the date for any 67646
settlement of taxes is extended under division (E) of section 67647
321.24 of the Revised Code, the latest date set forth in divisions 67648
(A) to (D) of that section shall be used to determine in which 67649
fiscal year the revenues are first available for appropriation.67650

       (2) Revenues available for appropriation by a school district 67651
during a fiscal year may include amounts borrowed in that fiscal 67652
year under section 133.301 of the Revised Code in anticipation of 67653
the collection of taxes that are to be included in the settlements 67654
made under divisions (C) and (D) of section 321.24 of the Revised 67655
Code in the ensuing fiscal year.67656

       Sec. 5705.38.  (A) This division does not apply to school 67657
district appropriation measures. On or about the first day of each 67658
fiscal year, the taxing authority of each subdivision or other 67659
taxing unit shall pass an appropriation measure, and thereafter 67660
during the year it may pass any supplemental appropriation 67661
measures as it finds necessary, based on the revised tax budget or 67662
the official certificate of estimated resources or amendments of 67663
the certificate. If it desires to postpone the passage of the 67664
annual appropriation measure until an amended certificate is 67665
received based on the actual balances, it may pass a temporary 67666
appropriation measure for meeting the ordinary expenses of the 67667
taxing unit until no later than the first day of April or, in the 67668
case of the city of Cincinnati, the first day of October, of the 67669
current year, and the appropriations made in the temporary measure 67670
shall be chargeable to the appropriations in the annual 67671
appropriation measure for that fiscal year when passed.67672

       (B) A board of education shall pass its annual appropriation 67673
measure by the first day of October. If, by the first day of 67674
October, a board has not received either the amended certificates 67675
of estimated resources required by division (B) of section 5705.36 67676
of the Revised Code or certifications that no amended certificates 67677
need be issued, the adoption of the annual appropriation measure 67678
shall be delayed until the amended certificates or certifications 67679
are received. Prior to the passage of the annual appropriation 67680
measure, the board may pass a temporary appropriation measure for 67681
meeting the ordinary expenses of the district until it passes an 67682
annual appropriation measure, and appropriations made in the 67683
temporary measure shall be chargeable to the appropriations in the 67684
annual appropriation measure for that fiscal year when passed. 67685
During the fiscal year and after the passage of the annual 67686
appropriation measure, a district may pass any supplemental 67687
appropriation measures as it finds necessary, based on the revised 67688
tax budget or the official certificate of estimated resources or 67689
amendments of the certificate. School district appropriation 67690
measures shall be in the form as the auditor of state, after 67691
consultation with the tax commissioner, prescribes.67692

       (C) Appropriation measures shall be classified so as to set 67693
forth separately the amounts appropriated for each office, 67694
department, and division, and, within each, the amount 67695
appropriated for personal services. In the case of a municipal 67696
university, the board of directors of which have assumed, in the 67697
manner provided by law, custody and control of the funds of the 67698
university, funds shall be appropriated as a lump sum for the use 67699
of the university.67700

       Sec. 5705.72. (A) As used in this section and in section 67701
5705.25 of the Revised Code with regard to a levy submitted under 67702
this section, "electors" means electors of the unincorporated area 67703
of a township.67704

       (B) The board of trustees of any township that withdraws or 67705
proposes by resolution to withdraw the unincorporated area of the 67706
township from a regional transit authority under section 306.55 of 67707
the Revised Code, by vote of two-thirds of all the members of the 67708
board of trustees, may declare by resolution that the amount of 67709
taxes that may be raised within the ten-mill limitation will be 67710
insufficient to provide transportation services to the 67711
unincorporated area of the township and that it is necessary to 67712
levy a tax in excess of that limitation within the unincorporated 67713
area of that township for the purpose of providing transportation 67714
services for the movement of persons within, from, or to the 67715
unincorporated area of that township. 67716

       The resolution shall specify the necessary amount of the 67717
increase in rate to levy, the purpose of such increase, and the 67718
number of years, not exceeding ten, during which the rate increase 67719
shall be in effect, which may or may not include a levy upon the 67720
tax list of the current year.67721

       The resolution shall be submitted to the proper county board 67722
of elections not less than ninety days before the date of the 67723
election at which the question will appear on the ballot and in 67724
the manner provided by section 5705.25 of the Revised Code, except 67725
that the question may be submitted to electors at a general 67726
election or a special election held on a date consistent with 67727
section 3501.01 of the Revised Code. 67728

       A resolution adopted by the board of trustees of a township 67729
under this section may be combined with a resolution for the 67730
withdrawal of the unincorporated area of the township from a 67731
regional transit authority as provided in section 306.55 of the 67732
Revised Code, by vote of two-thirds of all members of the board. 67733
The board may certify the combined resolution to the board of 67734
elections as a combined question. The question appearing on the 67735
ballot shall be as provided in section 5705.252 of the Revised 67736
Code.67737

       When electors have approved a tax levy under this section, 67738
the board of township trustees may anticipate a fraction of the 67739
proceeds of the levy and issue anticipation notes as authorized by 67740
section 5705.191 of the Revised Code for a current expense levy 67741
with a fixed term, and may anticipate the collection of current 67742
revenue under section 133.10 of the Revised Code.67743

       Sec. 5709.12.  (A) As used in this section, "independent 67744
living facilities" means any residential housing facilities and 67745
related property that are not a nursing home, residential care 67746
facility, or adult careresidential facility as defined in 67747
division (A) of section 5701.13 of the Revised Code.67748

       (B) Lands, houses, and other buildings belonging to a county, 67749
township, or municipal corporation and used exclusively for the 67750
accommodation or support of the poor, or leased to the state or 67751
any political subdivision for public purposes shall be exempt from 67752
taxation. Real and tangible personal property belonging to 67753
institutions that is used exclusively for charitable purposes 67754
shall be exempt from taxation, including real property belonging 67755
to an institution that is a nonprofit corporation that receives a 67756
grant under the Thomas Alva Edison grant program authorized by 67757
division (C) of section 122.33 of the Revised Code at any time 67758
during the tax year and being held for leasing or resale to 67759
others. If, at any time during a tax year for which such property 67760
is exempted from taxation, the corporation ceases to qualify for 67761
such a grant, the director of development shall notify the tax 67762
commissioner, and the tax commissioner shall cause the property to 67763
be restored to the tax list beginning with the following tax year. 67764
All property owned and used by a nonprofit organization 67765
exclusively for a home for the aged, as defined in section 5701.13 67766
of the Revised Code, also shall be exempt from taxation.67767

       (C)(1) If a home for the aged described in division (B)(1) of 67768
section 5701.13 of the Revised Code is operated in conjunction 67769
with or at the same site as independent living facilities, the 67770
exemption granted in division (B) of this section shall include 67771
kitchen, dining room, clinic, entry ways, maintenance and storage 67772
areas, and land necessary for access commonly used by both 67773
residents of the home for the aged and residents of the 67774
independent living facilities. Other facilities commonly used by 67775
both residents of the home for the aged and residents of 67776
independent living units shall be exempt from taxation only if the 67777
other facilities are used primarily by the residents of the home 67778
for the aged. Vacant land currently unused by the home, and 67779
independent living facilities and the lands connected with them 67780
are not exempt from taxation. Except as provided in division 67781
(A)(1) of section 5709.121 of the Revised Code, property of a home 67782
leased for nonresidential purposes is not exempt from taxation.67783

       (2) Independent living facilities are exempt from taxation if 67784
they are operated in conjunction with or at the same site as a 67785
home for the aged described in division (B)(2) of section 5701.13 67786
of the Revised Code; operated by a corporation, association, or 67787
trust described in division (B)(1)(b) of that section; operated 67788
exclusively for the benefit of members of the corporation, 67789
association, or trust who are retired, aged, or infirm; and 67790
provided to those members without charge in consideration of their 67791
service, without compensation, to a charitable, religious, 67792
fraternal, or educational institution. For the purposes of 67793
division (C)(2) of this section, "compensation" does not include 67794
furnishing room and board, clothing, health care, or other 67795
necessities, or stipends or other de minimis payments to defray 67796
the cost thereof.67797

       (D)(1) A private corporation established under federal law, 67798
defined in 36 U.S.C. 1101, Pub. L. No. 102-199, 105 Stat. 1629, as 67799
amended, the objects of which include encouraging the advancement 67800
of science generally, or of a particular branch of science, the 67801
promotion of scientific research, the improvement of the 67802
qualifications and usefulness of scientists, or the increase and 67803
diffusion of scientific knowledge is conclusively presumed to be a 67804
charitable or educational institution. A private corporation 67805
established as a nonprofit corporation under the laws of a state, 67806
that is exempt from federal income taxation under section 67807
501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, 100 Stat. 2085, 26 67808
U.S.C.A. 1, as amended, and has as its principal purpose one or 67809
more of the foregoing objects, also is conclusively presumed to be 67810
a charitable or educational institution.67811

       The fact that an organization described in this division 67812
operates in a manner that results in an excess of revenues over 67813
expenses shall not be used to deny the exemption granted by this 67814
section, provided such excess is used, or is held for use, for 67815
exempt purposes or to establish a reserve against future 67816
contingencies; and, provided further, that such excess may not be 67817
distributed to individual persons or to entities that would not be 67818
entitled to the tax exemptions provided by this chapter. Nor shall 67819
the fact that any scientific information diffused by the 67820
organization is of particular interest or benefit to any of its 67821
individual members be used to deny the exemption granted by this 67822
section, provided that such scientific information is available to 67823
the public for purchase or otherwise.67824

       (2) Division (D)(2) of this section does not apply to real 67825
property exempted from taxation under this section and division 67826
(A)(3) of section 5709.121 of the Revised Code and belonging to a 67827
nonprofit corporation described in division (D)(1) of this section 67828
that has received a grant under the Thomas Alva Edison grant 67829
program authorized by division (C) of section 122.33 of the 67830
Revised Code during any of the tax years the property was exempted 67831
from taxation.67832

       When a private corporation described in division (D)(1) of 67833
this section sells all or any portion of a tract, lot, or parcel 67834
of real estate that has been exempt from taxation under this 67835
section and section 5709.121 of the Revised Code, the portion sold 67836
shall be restored to the tax list for the year following the year 67837
of the sale and, except in connection with a sale and transfer of 67838
such a tract, lot, or parcel to a county land reutilization 67839
corporation organized under Chapter 1724. of the Revised Code, a 67840
charge shall be levied against the sold property in an amount 67841
equal to the tax savings on such property during the four tax 67842
years preceding the year the property is placed on the tax list. 67843
The tax savings equals the amount of the additional taxes that 67844
would have been levied if such property had not been exempt from 67845
taxation.67846

       The charge constitutes a lien of the state upon such property 67847
as of the first day of January of the tax year in which the charge 67848
is levied and continues until discharged as provided by law. The 67849
charge may also be remitted for all or any portion of such 67850
property that the tax commissioner determines is entitled to 67851
exemption from real property taxation for the year such property 67852
is restored to the tax list under any provision of the Revised 67853
Code, other than sections 725.02, 1728.10, 3735.67, 5709.40, 67854
5709.41, 5709.62, 5709.63, 5709.71, 5709.73, 5709.78, and 5709.84, 67855
upon an application for exemption covering the year such property 67856
is restored to the tax list filed under section 5715.27 of the 67857
Revised Code.67858

       (E) Real property held by an organization organized and 67859
operated exclusively for charitable purposes as described under 67860
section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and exempt from 67861
federal taxation under section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue 67862
Code, 26 U.S.C.A. 501(a) and (c)(3), as amended, for the purpose 67863
of constructing or rehabilitating residences for eventual transfer 67864
to qualified low-income families through sale, lease, or land 67865
installment contract, shall be exempt from taxation.67866

       The exemption shall commence on the day title to the property 67867
is transferred to the organization and shall continue to the end 67868
of the tax year in which the organization transfers title to the 67869
property to a qualified low-income family. In no case shall the 67870
exemption extend beyond the second succeeding tax year following 67871
the year in which the title was transferred to the organization. 67872
If the title is transferred to the organization and from the 67873
organization to a qualified low-income family in the same tax 67874
year, the exemption shall continue to the end of that tax year. 67875
The proportionate amount of taxes that are a lien but not yet 67876
determined, assessed, and levied for the tax year in which title 67877
is transferred to the organization shall be remitted by the county 67878
auditor for each day of the year that title is held by the 67879
organization.67880

       Upon transferring the title to another person, the 67881
organization shall file with the county auditor an affidavit 67882
affirming that the title was transferred to a qualified low-income 67883
family or that the title was not transferred to a qualified 67884
low-income family, as the case may be; if the title was 67885
transferred to a qualified low-income family, the affidavit shall 67886
identify the transferee by name. If the organization transfers 67887
title to the property to anyone other than a qualified low-income 67888
family, the exemption, if it has not previously expired, shall 67889
terminate, and the property shall be restored to the tax list for 67890
the year following the year of the transfer and a charge shall be 67891
levied against the property in an amount equal to the amount of 67892
additional taxes that would have been levied if such property had 67893
not been exempt from taxation. The charge constitutes a lien of 67894
the state upon such property as of the first day of January of the 67895
tax year in which the charge is levied and continues until 67896
discharged as provided by law.67897

       The application for exemption shall be filed as otherwise 67898
required under section 5715.27 of the Revised Code, except that 67899
the organization holding the property shall file with its 67900
application documentation substantiating its status as an 67901
organization organized and operated exclusively for charitable 67902
purposes under section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and 67903
its qualification for exemption from federal taxation under 67904
section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code, and affirming its 67905
intention to construct or rehabilitate the property for the 67906
eventual transfer to qualified low-income families.67907

       As used in this division, "qualified low-income family" means 67908
a family whose income does not exceed two hundred per cent of the 67909
official federal poverty guidelines as revised annually in 67910
accordance with section 673(2) of the "Omnibus Budget 67911
Reconciliation Act of 1981," 95 Stat. 511, 42 U.S.C.A. 9902, as 67912
amended, for a family size equal to the size of the family whose 67913
income is being determined.67914

       (F) Real property held by a county land reutilization 67915
corporation organized under Chapter 1724. of the Revised Code 67916
shall be exempt from taxation. Notwithstanding section 5715.27 of 67917
the Revised Code, a county land reutilization corporation is not 67918
required to apply to any county or state agency in order to 67919
qualify for the exemption.67920

       The exemption shall commence on the day title to the property 67921
is transferred to the corporation and shall continue to the end of 67922
the tax year in which the instrument transferring title from the 67923
corporation to another owner is recorded, if the use to which the 67924
other owner puts the property does not qualify for an exemption 67925
under this section or any other section of the Revised Code. If 67926
the title to the property is transferred to the corporation and 67927
from the corporation in the same tax year, the exemption shall 67928
continue to the end of that tax year. The proportionate amount of 67929
taxes that are a lien but not yet determined, assessed, and levied 67930
for the tax year in which title is transferred to the corporation 67931
shall be remitted by the county auditor for each day of the year 67932
that title is held by the corporation. 67933

       Upon transferring the title to another person, the 67934
corporation shall file with the county auditor an affidavit 67935
affirming that the title was transferred to such other person and 67936
shall identify the transferee by name. If the corporation 67937
transfers title to the property to anyone that does not qualify or 67938
the use to which the property is put does not qualify the property 67939
for an exemption under this section or any other section of the 67940
Revised Code, the exemption, if it has not previously expired, 67941
shall terminate, and the property shall be restored to the tax 67942
list for the year following the year of the transfer. A charge 67943
shall be levied against the property in an amount equal to the 67944
amount of additional taxes that would have been levied if such 67945
property had not been exempt from taxation. The charge constitutes 67946
a lien of the state upon such property as of the first day of 67947
January of the tax year in which the charge is levied and 67948
continues until discharged as provided by law. 67949

       In lieu of the application for exemption otherwise required 67950
to be filed as required under section 5715.27 of the Revised Code, 67951
a count land reutilization corporation holding the property shall, 67952
upon the request of any county or state agency, submit its 67953
articles of incorporation substantiating its status as a county 67954
land reutilization corporation.67955

       Sec. 5709.212.  (A) With every application for an exempt 67956
facility certificate filed pursuant to section 5709.21 of the 67957
Revised Code, the applicant shall pay a fee equal to one-half of 67958
one per cent of the total exempt facility project cost, not to 67959
exceed two thousand dollars. One-half of the fee received with 67960
applications for exempt facility certificates shall be credited to 67961
the exempt facility administrative fund, which is hereby created 67962
in the state treasury, for appropriation to the department of 67963
taxation for use in administering sections 5709.20 to 5709.27 of 67964
the Revised Code. If the director of environmental protection is 67965
required to provide the opinion for an application, one-half of 67966
the fee shall be credited to the non-Title V clean air fund 67967
created in section 3704.035 of the Revised Code for use in 67968
administering section 5709.211 of the Revised Code, unless the 67969
application is for an industrial water pollution control facility. 67970
If the application is for an industrial water pollution control 67971
facility, one-half of the fee shall be credited to the surface 67972
water protection fund created in section 6111.038 of the Revised 67973
Code for use in administering section 5709.211 of the Revised 67974
Code. If the director of development is required to provide the 67975
opinion for an application, one-half of the fee for each exempt 67976
facility application shall be credited to the exempt facility 67977
inspection fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury, 67978
for appropriation to the department of development for use in 67979
administering section 5709.211 of the Revised Code.67980

       An applicant is not entitled to any tax exemption under 67981
section 5709.25 of the Revised Code until the fee required by this 67982
section is paid. The fee required by this section is not 67983
refundable, and is due with the application for an exempt facility 67984
certificate even if an exempt facility certificate ultimately is 67985
not issued or is withdrawn. Any application submitted without 67986
payment of the fee shall be deemed incomplete until the fee is 67987
paid.67988

       (B) The application fee imposed under division (A) of this 67989
section for a jointly owned facility shall be equal to one-half of 67990
one per cent of the total exempt facility project cost, not to 67991
exceed two thousand dollars for each facility that is the subject 67992
of the application.67993

       Sec. 5709.73.  (A) As used in this section and section 67994
5709.74 of the Revised Code:67995

       (1) "Business day" means a day of the week excluding 67996
Saturday, Sunday, and a legal holiday as defined in section 1.14 67997
of the Revised Code.67998

       (2) "Further improvements" or "improvements" means the 67999
increase in the assessed value of real property that would first 68000
appear on the tax list and duplicate of real and public utility 68001
property after the effective date of a resolution adopted under 68002
this section were it not for the exemption granted by that 68003
resolution. For purposes of division (B) of this section, 68004
"improvements" do not include any property used or to be used for 68005
residential purposes.68006

       (3) "Housing renovation" means a project carried out for 68007
residential purposes.68008

       (4) "Incentive district" has the same meaning as in section 68009
5709.40 of the Revised Code, except that a blighted area is in the 68010
unincorporated area of a township.68011

       (5) "Project" and "public infrastructure improvement" have 68012
the same meanings as in section 5709.40 of the Revised Code.68013

       (B) A board of township trustees may, by unanimous vote, 68014
adopt a resolution that declares to be a public purpose any public 68015
infrastructure improvements made that are necessary for the 68016
development of certain parcels of land located in the 68017
unincorporated area of the township. Except with the approval 68018
under division (D) of this section of the board of education of 68019
each city, local, or exempted village school district within which 68020
the improvements are located, the resolution may exempt from real 68021
property taxation not more than seventy-five per cent of further 68022
improvements to a parcel of land that directly benefits from the 68023
public infrastructure improvements, for a period of not more than 68024
ten years. The resolution shall specify the percentage of the 68025
further improvements to be exempted and the life of the exemption.68026

       (C)(1) A board of township trustees may adopt, by unanimous 68027
vote, a resolution creating an incentive district and declaring 68028
improvements to parcels within the district to be a public purpose 68029
and, except as provided in division (F) of this section, exempt 68030
from taxation as provided in this section, but no board of 68031
township trustees of a township that has a population that exceeds 68032
twenty-five thousand, as shown by the most recent federal 68033
decennial census, shall adopt a resolution that creates an 68034
incentive district if the sum of the taxable value of real 68035
property in the proposed district for the preceding tax year and 68036
the taxable value of all real property in the township that would 68037
have been taxable in the preceding year were it not for the fact 68038
that the property was in an existing incentive district and 68039
therefore exempt from taxation exceeds twenty-five per cent of the 68040
taxable value of real property in the township for the preceding 68041
tax year. The district shall be located within the unincorporated 68042
area of the township and shall not include any territory that is 68043
included within a district created under division (B) of section 68044
5709.78 of the Revised Code. The resolution shall delineate the 68045
boundary of the district and specifically identify each parcel 68046
within the district. A district may not include any parcel that is 68047
or has been exempted from taxation under division (B) of this 68048
section or that is or has been within another district created 68049
under this division. A resolution may create more than one 68050
district, and more than one resolution may be adopted under 68051
division (C)(1) of this section.68052

       (2) Not later than thirty days prior to adopting a resolution 68053
under division (C)(1) of this section, if the township intends to 68054
apply for exemptions from taxation under section 5709.911 of the 68055
Revised Code on behalf of owners of real property located within 68056
the proposed incentive district, the board shall conduct a public 68057
hearing on the proposed resolution. Not later than thirty days 68058
prior to the public hearing, the board shall give notice of the 68059
public hearing and the proposed resolution by first class mail to 68060
every real property owner whose property is located within the 68061
boundaries of the proposed incentive district that is the subject 68062
of the proposed resolution.68063

       (3)(a) A resolution adopted under division (C)(1) of this 68064
section shall specify the life of the incentive district and the 68065
percentage of the improvements to be exempted, shall designate the 68066
public infrastructure improvements made, to be made, or in the 68067
process of being made, that benefit or serve, or, once made, will 68068
benefit or serve parcels in the district. The resolution also 68069
shall identify one or more specific projects being, or to be, 68070
undertaken in the district that place additional demand on the 68071
public infrastructure improvements designated in the resolution. 68072
The project identified may, but need not be, the project under 68073
division (C)(3)(b) of this section that places real property in 68074
use for commercial or industrial purposes.68075

       A resolution adopted under division (C)(1) of this section on 68076
or after March 30, 2006, shall not designate police or fire 68077
equipment as public infrastructure improvements, and no service 68078
payment provided for in section 5709.74 of the Revised Code and 68079
received by the township under the resolution shall be used for 68080
police or fire equipment.68081

       (b) A resolution adopted under division (C)(1) of this 68082
section may authorize the use of service payments provided for in 68083
section 5709.74 of the Revised Code for the purpose of housing 68084
renovations within the incentive district, provided that the 68085
resolution also designates public infrastructure improvements that 68086
benefit or serve the district, and that a project within the 68087
district places real property in use for commercial or industrial 68088
purposes. Service payments may be used to finance or support 68089
loans, deferred loans, and grants to persons for the purpose of 68090
housing renovations within the district. The resolution shall 68091
designate the parcels within the district that are eligible for 68092
housing renovations. The resolution shall state separately the 68093
amount or the percentages of the expected aggregate service 68094
payments that are designated for each public infrastructure 68095
improvement and for the purpose of housing renovations.68096

       (4) Except with the approval of the board of education of 68097
each city, local, or exempted village school district within the 68098
territory of which the incentive district is or will be located, 68099
and subject to division (E) of this section, the life of an 68100
incentive district shall not exceed ten years, and the percentage 68101
of improvements to be exempted shall not exceed seventy-five per 68102
cent. With approval of the board of education, the life of a 68103
district may be not more than thirty years, and the percentage of 68104
improvements to be exempted may be not more than one hundred per 68105
cent. The approval of a board of education shall be obtained in 68106
the manner provided in division (D) of this section.68107

       (D) Improvements with respect to a parcel may be exempted 68108
from taxation under division (B) of this section, and improvements 68109
to parcels within an incentive district may be exempted from 68110
taxation under division (C) of this section, for up to ten years 68111
or, with the approval of the board of education of the city, 68112
local, or exempted village school district within which the parcel 68113
or district is located, for up to thirty years. The percentage of 68114
the improvements exempted from taxation may, with such approval, 68115
exceed seventy-five per cent, but shall not exceed one hundred per 68116
cent. Not later than forty-five business days prior to adopting a 68117
resolution under this section declaring improvements to be a 68118
public purpose that is subject to approval by a board of education 68119
under this division, the board of township trustees shall deliver 68120
to the board of education a notice stating its intent to adopt a 68121
resolution making that declaration. The notice regarding 68122
improvements with respect to a parcel under division (B) of this 68123
section shall identify the parcels for which improvements are to 68124
be exempted from taxation, provide an estimate of the true value 68125
in money of the improvements, specify the period for which the 68126
improvements would be exempted from taxation and the percentage of 68127
the improvements that would be exempted, and indicate the date on 68128
which the board of township trustees intends to adopt the 68129
resolution. The notice regarding improvements made under division 68130
(C) of this section to parcels within an incentive district shall 68131
delineate the boundaries of the district, specifically identify 68132
each parcel within the district, identify each anticipated 68133
improvement in the district, provide an estimate of the true value 68134
in money of each such improvement, specify the life of the 68135
district and the percentage of improvements that would be 68136
exempted, and indicate the date on which the board of township 68137
trustees intends to adopt the resolution. The board of education, 68138
by resolution adopted by a majority of the board, may approve the 68139
exemption for the period or for the exemption percentage specified 68140
in the notice; may disapprove the exemption for the number of 68141
years in excess of ten, may disapprove the exemption for the 68142
percentage of the improvements to be exempted in excess of 68143
seventy-five per cent, or both; or may approve the exemption on 68144
the condition that the board of township trustees and the board of 68145
education negotiate an agreement providing for compensation to the 68146
school district equal in value to a percentage of the amount of 68147
taxes exempted in the eleventh and subsequent years of the 68148
exemption period or, in the case of exemption percentages in 68149
excess of seventy-five per cent, compensation equal in value to a 68150
percentage of the taxes that would be payable on the portion of 68151
the improvements in excess of seventy-five per cent were that 68152
portion to be subject to taxation, or other mutually agreeable 68153
compensation.68154

       The board of education shall certify its resolution to the 68155
board of township trustees not later than fourteen days prior to 68156
the date the board of township trustees intends to adopt the 68157
resolution as indicated in the notice. If the board of education 68158
and the board of township trustees negotiate a mutually acceptable 68159
compensation agreement, the resolution may declare the 68160
improvements a public purpose for the number of years specified in 68161
the resolution or, in the case of exemption percentages in excess 68162
of seventy-five per cent, for the exemption percentage specified 68163
in the resolution. In either case, if the board of education and 68164
the board of township trustees fail to negotiate a mutually 68165
acceptable compensation agreement, the resolution may declare the 68166
improvements a public purpose for not more than ten years, and 68167
shall not exempt more than seventy-five per cent of the 68168
improvements from taxation. If the board of education fails to 68169
certify a resolution to the board of township trustees within the 68170
time prescribed by this section, the board of township trustees 68171
thereupon may adopt the resolution and may declare the 68172
improvements a public purpose for up to thirty years or, in the 68173
case of exemption percentages proposed in excess of seventy-five 68174
per cent, for the exemption percentage specified in the 68175
resolution. The board of township trustees may adopt the 68176
resolution at any time after the board of education certifies its 68177
resolution approving the exemption to the board of township 68178
trustees, or, if the board of education approves the exemption on 68179
the condition that a mutually acceptable compensation agreement be 68180
negotiated, at any time after the compensation agreement is agreed 68181
to by the board of education and the board of township trustees. 68182
If a mutually acceptable compensation agreement is negotiated 68183
between the board of township trustees and the board of education, 68184
including agreements for payments in lieu of taxes under section 68185
5709.74 of the Revised Code, the board of township trustees shall 68186
compensate the joint vocational school district within which the 68187
parcel or district is located at the same rate and under the same 68188
terms received by the city, local, or exempted village school 68189
district.68190

        If a board of education has adopted a resolution waiving its 68191
right to approve exemptions from taxation under this section and 68192
the resolution remains in effect, approval of such exemptions by 68193
the board of education is not required under division (D) of this 68194
section. If a board of education has adopted a resolution allowing 68195
a board of township trustees to deliver the notice required under 68196
division (D) of this section fewer than forty-five business days 68197
prior to adoption of the resolution by the board of township 68198
trustees, the board of township trustees shall deliver the notice 68199
to the board of education not later than the number of days prior 68200
to the adoption as prescribed by the board of education in its 68201
resolution. If a board of education adopts a resolution waiving 68202
its right to approve exemptions or shortening the notification 68203
period, the board of education shall certify a copy of the 68204
resolution to the board of township trustees. If the board of 68205
education rescinds the resolution, it shall certify notice of the 68206
rescission to the board of township trustees.68207

       If the board of township trustees is not required by division 68208
(D) of this section to notify the board of education of the board 68209
of township trustees' intent to declare improvements to be a 68210
public purpose, the board of township trustees shall comply with 68211
the notice requirements imposed under section 5709.83 of the 68212
Revised Code before taking formal action to adopt the resolution 68213
making that declaration, unless the board of education has adopted 68214
a resolution under that section waiving its right to receive the 68215
notice.68216

       (E)(1) If a proposed resolution under division (C)(1) of this 68217
section exempts improvements with respect to a parcel within an 68218
incentive district for more than ten years, or the percentage of 68219
the improvement exempted from taxation exceeds seventy-five per 68220
cent, not later than forty-five business days prior to adopting 68221
the resolution the board of township trustees shall deliver to the 68222
board of county commissioners of the county within which the 68223
incentive district is or will be located a notice that states its 68224
intent to adopt a resolution creating an incentive district. The 68225
notice shall include a copy of the proposed resolution, identify 68226
the parcels for which improvements are to be exempted from 68227
taxation, provide an estimate of the true value in money of the 68228
improvements, specify the period of time for which the 68229
improvements would be exempted from taxation, specify the 68230
percentage of the improvements that would be exempted from 68231
taxation, and indicate the date on which the board of township 68232
trustees intends to adopt the resolution.68233

       (2) The board of county commissioners, by resolution adopted 68234
by a majority of the board, may object to the exemption for the 68235
number of years in excess of ten, may object to the exemption for 68236
the percentage of the improvement to be exempted in excess of 68237
seventy-five per cent, or both. If the board of county 68238
commissioners objects, the board may negotiate a mutually 68239
acceptable compensation agreement with the board of township 68240
trustees. In no case shall the compensation provided to the board 68241
of county commissioners exceed the property taxes foregone due to 68242
the exemption. If the board of county commissioners objects, and 68243
the board of county commissioners and board of township trustees 68244
fail to negotiate a mutually acceptable compensation agreement, 68245
the resolution adopted under division (C)(1) of this section shall 68246
provide to the board of county commissioners compensation in the 68247
eleventh and subsequent years of the exemption period equal in 68248
value to not more than fifty per cent of the taxes that would be 68249
payable to the county or, if the board of county commissioner's 68250
objection includes an objection to an exemption percentage in 68251
excess of seventy-five per cent, compensation equal in value to 68252
not more than fifty per cent of the taxes that would be payable to 68253
the county, on the portion of the improvement in excess of 68254
seventy-five per cent, were that portion to be subject to 68255
taxation. The board of county commissioners shall certify its 68256
resolution to the board of township trustees not later than thirty 68257
days after receipt of the notice.68258

       (3) If the board of county commissioners does not object or 68259
fails to certify its resolution objecting to an exemption within 68260
thirty days after receipt of the notice, the board of township 68261
trustees may adopt its resolution, and no compensation shall be 68262
provided to the board of county commissioners. If the board of 68263
county commissioners timely certifies its resolution objecting to 68264
the trustees' resolution, the board of township trustees may adopt 68265
its resolution at any time after a mutually acceptable 68266
compensation agreement is agreed to by the board of county 68267
commissioners and the board of township trustees, or, if no 68268
compensation agreement is negotiated, at any time after the board 68269
of township trustees agrees in the proposed resolution to provide 68270
compensation to the board of county commissioners of fifty per 68271
cent of the taxes that would be payable to the county in the 68272
eleventh and subsequent years of the exemption period or on the 68273
portion of the improvement in excess of seventy-five per cent, 68274
were that portion to be subject to taxation.68275

       (F) Service payments in lieu of taxes that are attributable 68276
to any amount by which the effective tax rate of either a renewal 68277
levy with an increase or a replacement levy exceeds the effective 68278
tax rate of the levy renewed or replaced, or that are attributable 68279
to an additional levy, for a levy authorized by the voters for any 68280
of the following purposes on or after January 1, 2006, and which 68281
are provided pursuant to a resolution creating an incentive 68282
district under division (C)(1) of this section that is adopted on 68283
or after January 1, 2006, shall be distributed to the appropriate 68284
taxing authority as required under division (C) of section 5709.74 68285
of the Revised Code in an amount equal to the amount of taxes from 68286
that additional levy or from the increase in the effective tax 68287
rate of such renewal or replacement levy that would have been 68288
payable to that taxing authority from the following levies were it 68289
not for the exemption authorized under division (C) of this 68290
section:68291

       (1) A tax levied under division (L) of section 5705.19 or 68292
section 5705.191 of the Revised Code for community mental 68293
retardation and developmental disabilities programs and services 68294
pursuant to Chapter 5126. of the Revised Code;68295

       (2) A tax levied under division (Y) of section 5705.19 of the 68296
Revised Code for providing or maintaining senior citizens services 68297
or facilities;68298

       (3) A tax levied under section 5705.22 of the Revised Code 68299
for county hospitals;68300

       (4) A tax levied by a joint-county district or by a county 68301
under section 5705.19, 5705.191, or 5705.221 of the Revised Code 68302
for alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services or 68303
families;68304

       (5) A tax levied under section 5705.23 of the Revised Code 68305
for library purposes;68306

       (6) A tax levied under section 5705.24 of the Revised Code 68307
for the support of children services and the placement and care of 68308
children;68309

       (7) A tax levied under division (Z) of section 5705.19 of the 68310
Revised Code for the provision and maintenance of zoological park 68311
services and facilities under section 307.76 of the Revised Code;68312

        (8) A tax levied under section 511.27 or division (H) of 68313
section 5705.19 of the Revised Code for the support of township 68314
park districts;68315

        (9) A tax levied under division (A), (F), or (H) of section 68316
5705.19 of the Revised Code for parks and recreational purposes of 68317
a joint recreation district organized pursuant to division (B) of 68318
section 755.14 of the Revised Code;68319

        (10) A tax levied under section 1545.20 or 1545.21 of the 68320
Revised Code for park district purposes;68321

        (11) A tax levied under section 5705.191 of the Revised Code 68322
for the purpose of making appropriations for public assistance; 68323
human or social services; public relief; public welfare; public 68324
health and hospitalization; and support of general hospitals;68325

        (12) A tax levied under section 3709.29 of the Revised Code 68326
for a general health district program.68327

       (G) An exemption from taxation granted under this section 68328
commences with the tax year specified in the resolution so long as 68329
the year specified in the resolution commences after the effective 68330
date of the resolution. If the resolution specifies a year 68331
commencing before the effective date of the resolution or 68332
specifies no year whatsoever, the exemption commences with the tax 68333
year in which an exempted improvement first appears on the tax 68334
list and duplicate of real and public utility property and that 68335
commences after the effective date of the resolution. Except as 68336
otherwise provided in this division, the exemption ends on the 68337
date specified in the resolution as the date the improvement 68338
ceases to be a public purpose or the incentive district expires, 68339
or ends on the date on which the public infrastructure 68340
improvements and housing renovations are paid in full from the 68341
township public improvement tax increment equivalent fund 68342
established under section 5709.75 of the Revised Code, whichever 68343
occurs first. The exemption of an improvement with respect to a 68344
parcel or within an incentive district may end on a later date, as 68345
specified in the resolution, if the board of township trustees and 68346
the board of education of the city, local, or exempted village 68347
school district within which the parcel or district is located 68348
have entered into a compensation agreement under section 5709.82 68349
of the Revised Code with respect to the improvement and the board 68350
of education has approved the term of the exemption under division 68351
(D) of this section, but in no case shall the improvement be 68352
exempted from taxation for more than thirty years. The board of 68353
township trustees may, by majority vote, adopt a resolution 68354
permitting the township to enter into such agreements as the board 68355
finds necessary or appropriate to provide for the construction or 68356
undertaking of public infrastructure improvements and housing 68357
renovations. Any exemption shall be claimed and allowed in the 68358
same or a similar manner as in the case of other real property 68359
exemptions. If an exemption status changes during a tax year, the 68360
procedure for the apportionment of the taxes for that year is the 68361
same as in the case of other changes in tax exemption status 68362
during the year.68363

       (H) The board of township trustees may issue the notes of the 68364
township to finance all costs pertaining to the construction or 68365
undertaking of public infrastructure improvements and housing 68366
renovations made pursuant to this section. The notes shall be 68367
signed by the board and attested by the signature of the township 68368
fiscal officer, shall bear interest not to exceed the rate 68369
provided in section 9.95 of the Revised Code, and are not subject 68370
to Chapter 133. of the Revised Code. The resolution authorizing 68371
the issuance of the notes shall pledge the funds of the township 68372
public improvement tax increment equivalent fund established 68373
pursuant to section 5709.75 of the Revised Code to pay the 68374
interest on and principal of the notes. The notes, which may 68375
contain a clause permitting prepayment at the option of the board, 68376
shall be offered for sale on the open market or given to the 68377
vendor or contractor if no sale is made.68378

       (I) The township, not later than fifteen days after the 68379
adoption of a resolution under this section, shall submit to the 68380
director of development a copy of the resolution. On or before the 68381
thirty-first day of March of each year, the township shall submit 68382
a status report to the director of development. The report shall 68383
indicate, in the manner prescribed by the director, the progress 68384
of the project during each year that the exemption remains in 68385
effect, including a summary of the receipts from service payments 68386
in lieu of taxes; expenditures of money from the fund created 68387
under section 5709.75 of the Revised Code; a description of the 68388
public infrastructure improvements and housing renovations 68389
financed with the expenditures; and a quantitative summary of 68390
changes in private investment resulting from each project.68391

       (J) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit a 68392
board of township trustees from declaring to be a public purpose 68393
improvements with respect to more than one parcel.68394

       (K) A board of township trustees that adopted a resolution 68395
under this section prior to July 21, 1994, may amend that 68396
resolution to include any additional public infrastructure 68397
improvement. A board of township trustees that seeks by the 68398
amendment to utilize money from its township public improvement 68399
tax increment equivalent fund for land acquisition in aid of 68400
industry, commerce, distribution, or research, demolition on 68401
private property, or stormwater and flood remediation projects may 68402
do so provided that the board currently is a party to a 68403
hold-harmless agreement with the board of education of the city, 68404
local, or exempted village school district within the territory of 68405
which are located the parcels that are subject to an exemption. 68406
For the purposes of this division, a "hold-harmless agreement" 68407
means an agreement under which the board of township trustees 68408
agrees to compensate the school district for one hundred per cent 68409
of the tax revenue that the school district would have received 68410
from further improvements to parcels designated in the resolution 68411
were it not for the exemption granted by the resolution.68412

       (L) With respect to improvements resulting from projects, for 68413
which construction commences on or after April 1, 2012, and on or 68414
before December 31, 2013, and for which an exemption has been or 68415
will be sought pursuant to a resolution adopted under this section 68416
before December 14, 2001, "property used or to be used for 68417
residential purposes," as used in division (A)(2) of this section, 68418
means only that property that, as improved, the tax commissioner 68419
would classify as residential land and improvements pursuant to 68420
rules adopted by the tax commissioner under section 5713.041 of 68421
the Revised Code.68422

       Sec. 5709.75. (A) Any township that receives service payments 68423
in lieu of taxes under section 5709.74 of the Revised Code shall 68424
establish a township public improvement tax increment equivalent 68425
fund into which those payments shall be deposited. If the board of 68426
township trustees has adopted a resolution under division (C) of 68427
section 5709.73 of the Revised Code, the township shall establish 68428
at least one account in that fund with respect to resolutions 68429
adopted under division (B) of that section, and one account with 68430
respect to each incentive district created by a resolution adopted 68431
under division (C) of that section. If a resolution adopted under 68432
division (C) of section 5709.73 of the Revised Code also 68433
authorizes the use of service payments for housing renovations 68434
within the incentive district, the township shall establish 68435
separate accounts for the service payments designated for public 68436
infrastructure improvements and for the service payments 68437
authorized for the purpose of housing renovations.68438

       (B) Except as otherwise provided in division (C) or (D) of 68439
this section, money deposited in an account of the township public 68440
improvement tax increment equivalent fund shall be used by the 68441
township to pay the costs of public infrastructure improvements 68442
designated in or the housing renovations authorized by the 68443
resolution with respect to which the account is established, 68444
including any interest on and principal of the notes; in the case 68445
of an account established with respect to a resolution adopted 68446
under division (C) of that section, money in the account shall be 68447
used to finance the public infrastructure improvements designated, 68448
or the housing renovations authorized, for each incentive district 68449
created in the resolution. Money in an account shall not be used 68450
to finance or support housing renovations that take place after 68451
the incentive district has expired.68452

       (C)(1)(a) A township may distribute money in such an account 68453
to any school district in which the exempt property is located in 68454
an amount not to exceed the amount of real property taxes that 68455
such school district would have received from the improvement if 68456
it were not exempt from taxation. The resolution establishing the 68457
fund shall set forth the percentage of such maximum amount that 68458
will be distributed to any affected school district.68459

       (b) A township also may distribute money in such an account 68460
as follows:68461

       (i) To a board of county commissioners, in the amount that is 68462
owed to the board pursuant to division (E) of section 5709.73 of 68463
the Revised Code;68464

       (ii) To a county in accordance with section 5709.913 of the 68465
Revised Code.68466

       (2) Money from an account in a township public improvement 68467
tax increment equivalent fund may be distributed under division 68468
(C)(1)(b) of this section, regardless of the date a resolution was 68469
adopted under section 5709.73 of the Revised Code that prompted 68470
the establishment of the account, even if the resolution was 68471
adopted prior to March 30, 2006.68472

       (D) A board of township trustees that adopted a resolution 68473
under division (B) of section 5709.73 of the Revised Code before 68474
January 1, 19952011, and that, with respect to property exempted 68475
under such a resolution, is party to a hold-harmless or service68476
agreement, may appropriate and expend unencumbered money in the 68477
fund to pay current public safety expenses of the township. A 68478
township appropriating and expending money under this division 68479
shall reimburse the fund for the sum so appropriated and expended 68480
not later than the day the exemption granted under the resolution 68481
expires. For the purposes of this division, a "hold-harmless 68482
agreement" is an agreement with the board of education of a city, 68483
local, or exempted village school district under which the board 68484
of township trustees agrees to compensate the school district for 68485
one hundred per cent of the tax revenue the school district would 68486
have received from improvements to parcels designated in the 68487
resolution were it not for the exemption granted by the 68488
resolution. For the purposes of this division, a "service 68489
agreement" is an agreement with the board of education of a city, 68490
local, or exempted village school district under which the board 68491
of township trustees agrees to compensate the school district for 68492
a portion of the tax revenue the school district would have 68493
received from improvements to parcels designated in the resolution 68494
if not for the exemption granted by the resolution.68495

       (E) Any incidental surplus remaining in the township public 68496
improvement tax increment equivalent fund or an account of that 68497
fund upon dissolution of the account or fund shall be transferred 68498
to the general fund of the township.68499

       Sec. 5713.012.  (A) For purposes of this section:68500

        (1) "Mass appraisal project" means any sexennial reappraisal, 68501
triennial update, or other revaluation of all real property or the 68502
valuation of newly constructed real property in accordance with 68503
section 5713.01 of the Revised Code. 68504

       (2) "Qualified project manager" means a person who plans, 68505
manages, coordinates, and controls the execution of a mass 68506
appraisal project under the direction of the county auditor and 68507
who has all of the following qualifications:68508

       (a) Has passed a comprehensive final examination that 68509
corresponds to a course, approved by the superintendent of real 68510
estate and professional licensing, that consists of at least 68511
thirty hours of instruction, quizzes, and learning aids. The 68512
superintendent shall not approve a course under this division that 68513
does not address the following topics in both the instruction and 68514
the examination:68515

        (i) Concepts and principles of mass appraisal as they relate 68516
to the assessment of real property for the purposes of ad valorem 68517
taxation;68518

       (ii) Methods of data collection and data management relative 68519
to parcels of real property, including modern alternative data 68520
collection methods and currently utilized computer-assisted mass 68521
appraisal systems;68522

       (iii) Assessment sales-ratio study including various measures 68523
of central tendency, the various measures of dispersion of data 68524
about the mean, median, and dollar-weighted mean, and the 68525
advantages and disadvantages of various analysis techniques;68526

       (iv) Traditional approaches of property valuation, including 68527
the cost approach, the sales comparison approach, and the income 68528
approach, as they are implemented in a mass appraisal project;68529

       (v) Methods and systems for model building and model 68530
calibration as related to mass appraisal of real property;68531

       (vi) Methods of production management and project analysis 68532
such as Gantt charts, program evaluation and review technique 68533
(PERT) charts, frequency distribution charts, line graphs, bar 68534
charts, and scatter diagrams, as they are utilized in the mass 68535
appraisal area.68536

       (b) Has completed at least seven hours of continuing 68537
education courses in mass appraisal during the two-year period 68538
immediately succeeding the year in which the person passed the 68539
examination required in division (A)(2)(a) of this section, and 68540
during each two-year period thereafter.68541

        (B)(1) The county auditor, in acting as the assessor of all 68542
real property in the auditor's county for taxation purposes in 68543
accordance with section 5713.01 of the Revised Code, shall involve 68544
at least one qualified project manager in each mass assessment 68545
project that originates more than two years after the effective 68546
date of the enactment of this section by H.B. 487 of the 129th 68547
general assembly.68548

       (2) The tax commissioner, beginning two years after the 68549
effective date of the enactment of this section by H.B. 487 of the 68550
129th general assembly, shall not approve any contract entered 68551
into by the auditor under division (E) of section 5713.01 of the 68552
Revised Code, with a person to do all or any part of the work 68553
necessary to the performance of the auditor's duties as assessor 68554
unless that person designates an officer or employee of that 68555
person, with the appropriate credentials, to act as a qualified 68556
project manager. 68557

       (3) The tax commissioner, beginning two years after the 68558
effective date of the enactment of this section by H.B. 487 of the 68559
129th general assembly, shall not include any person that has not 68560
designated an officer or employee, with the appropriate 68561
credentials, to act as a qualified project manager on a list 68562
generated by the commissioner for either of the following 68563
purposes:68564

       (a) To assist county auditors in selecting a person to do all 68565
or any part of the work necessary to the performance of the 68566
auditor's duties as assessor of all real property under section 68567
5713.01 of the Revised Code;68568

       (b) To assist the commissioner in the consideration of 68569
whether to approve or disapprove the auditor's application 68570
requesting authority to employ an appraisal firm or individual 68571
appraiser.68572

       Sec. 5719.13.  Taxes assessed on the shares of stock of a 68573
dealer in intangibles shall be a lien on such shares from the 68574
first day of January in each year until they are paid. Each dealer 68575
in intangibles shall collect the taxes due from the owners of such 68576
shares and payremit the same to the tax commissioner, who shall 68577
accept the remittance on behalf of the treasurer of state. The 68578
remittance shall be made payable to the treasurer of state and 68579
shall be made in the form prescribed by the commissioner. Any 68580
dealer in intangibles who fails to pay said taxes as provided in 68581
this section shall be liable by way of penalty for the gross 68582
amount of the taxes due from all the owners of shares, and for an 68583
additional amount of one hundred dollars for each day of delay in 68584
the payment of said taxes.68585

       A dealer in intangibles who pays to the treasurer of state68586
the taxes assessed upon its shares in the hands of its 68587
shareholders, as provided in this section, may deduct the amount 68588
thereof from dividends or distributions that are due or thereafter 68589
become due on such shares, and shall have a lien on the shares of 68590
stock and all funds belonging to such shareholders in its 68591
possession, or which come into its possession, for reimbursement 68592
of such tax paid on account of the shareholders, with legal 68593
interest. Such lien may be enforced in any appropriate manner.68594

       Sec. 5725.14. (A) As used in this section and section 5725.15 68595
of the Revised Code:68596

       (1) "Billing address" of a customer means one of the 68597
following:68598

       (a) The customer's address as set forth in any notice, 68599
statement, bill, or similar acknowledgment shall be presumed to be 68600
the address where the customer is located with respect to the 68601
transaction for which the dealer issued the notice, statement, 68602
bill, or acknowledgment.68603

       (b) If the dealer issues any notice, statement, bill, or 68604
similar acknowledgment electronically to an address other than a 68605
street address or post office box address or if the dealer does 68606
not issue such a notice, statement, bill, or acknowledgment, the 68607
customer's street address as set forth in the records of the 68608
dealer at the time of the transaction shall be presumed to be the 68609
address where the customer is located.68610

       (2) "Commissions" includes but is not limited to brokerage 68611
commissions, asset management fees, and similar fees charged in 68612
the regular course of business to a customer for the maintenance 68613
and management of the customer's account.68614

       (3) "Gross receipts" means one of the following:68615

       (a) In the case of a dealer in intangibles principally 68616
engaged in the business of lending money or discounting loans, the 68617
aggregate amount of loans effected or discounted;68618

       (b) In the case of a dealer in intangibles principally 68619
engaged in the business of selling or buying stocks, bonds, or 68620
other similar securities either on the dealer's own account or as 68621
agent for another, the aggregate amount of all commissions 68622
charged.68623

       (B) Each dealer in intangibles shall return to the tax 68624
commissioner between the first and second Mondays of March, 68625
annually for return years prior to 2014, a report exhibiting in 68626
detail, and under appropriate heads, the dealer's resources and 68627
liabilities at the close of business on the thirty-first day of 68628
December next preceding, together with remittance made payable to 68629
the treasurer of state of the tax levied under division (D) of 68630
section 5707.03 of the Revised Code. In the case of an 68631
unincorporated dealer in intangibles, such report shall also 68632
exhibit the amount or value as of the date of conversion of all 68633
property within the year preceding the date of listing, and on or 68634
after the first day of November converted into bonds or other 68635
securities not taxed to the extent such nontaxable bonds or 68636
securities may be shown in the dealer's resources on such date, 68637
without deduction for indebtedness created in the purchase of such 68638
nontaxable bonds or securities.68639

       If a dealer in intangibles maintains separate business 68640
offices, whether within this state only or within and without this 68641
state, the report shall also show the gross receipts from business 68642
done at each such office during the year ending on the 68643
thirty-first day of December next preceding.68644

       For the purposes of this section and section 5725.15 of the 68645
Revised Code, business is considered done at an office when it 68646
originates at such office, but the receipts from business 68647
originating at one office and consummated at another office shall 68648
be divided equitably between such offices.68649

       (C) For the purposes of this section and section 5725.15 of 68650
the Revised Code, in the case of a dealer in intangibles 68651
principally engaged in the business of selling or buying stocks, 68652
bonds, or other similar securities either on the dealer's own 68653
account or as agent for another, the dealer's capital, surplus, 68654
and undivided profits employed in this state shall bear the same 68655
ratio to the dealer's total capital, surplus, and undivided 68656
profits employed everywhere as the amount described in division 68657
(C)(1) of this section bears to the amount described in division 68658
(C)(2) of this section:68659

       (1) The sum of the commissions earned during the year covered 68660
by the reportreturn from transactions with respect to brokerage 68661
accounts owned by customers having billing addresses in this 68662
state;68663

       (2) The sum of the commissions earned during that year from 68664
transactions with respect to brokerage accounts owned by all of 68665
the dealer's customers.68666

       (D) An incorporated dealer in intangibles which owns or 68667
controls fifty-one per cent or more of the common stock of another 68668
incorporated dealer in intangibles may, under uniform regulations 68669
prescribed by the tax commissioner, make a consolidated return for 68670
the purpose of sections 5725.01 to 5725.26, inclusive, of the 68671
Revised Code. In such case the parent corporation making such 68672
return is not required to include in its resources any of the 68673
stocks, securities, or other obligations of its subsidiary 68674
dealers, nor permitted to include in its liabilities any of its 68675
own securities or other obligations belonging to its subsidiaries.68676

       Sec. 5725.15. Upon receiving theThe report required by 68677
section 5725.14 of the Revised Code, the tax commissioner shall68678
ascertain and assessinclude as taxable property all the shares of 68679
such dealersthe dealer in intangibles, the capital stock of which 68680
is divided into shares, representing capital employed in this 68681
state, and the value of the property representing the capital, not 68682
divided into shares, employed in this state by such dealer in 68683
intangibles, according to the aggregate fair value of the capital, 68684
surplus, and undivided profits as shown in such report, including 68685
in the case of an unincorporated dealer, the value of property 68686
converted into nontaxable bonds or securities within the preceding 68687
year, without deduction for indebtedness created in the purchase 68688
of such nontaxable bonds or securities.68689

       The filing by a dealer of the report required by section 68690
5725.14 of the Revised Code shall be the preliminary assessment of 68691
the shares and property listed therein.68692

       If a dealer has separate offices, whether within this state 68693
only or within and without this state, the commissionerdealer68694
shall findlist the amount of capital employed in each office in 68695
this state, which shall bear the same ratio to the entire capital 68696
of such dealer, wherever employed, as the gross receipts of such 68697
office bears to the entire gross receipts of such dealer, wherever 68698
arising.68699

       The aggregate book value of the capital, surplus, and 68700
undivided profits of a dealer in intangibles as shown in such 68701
report shall be taken as the fair value thereof for the purpose of 68702
the assessment required by this section, unless the commissioner 68703
finds that such book value is greater or less than the then fair 68704
value of said capital, surplus, and undivided profits. Claim for 68705
any deduction from book value of capital, surplus, and undivided 68706
profits must be made in writing by the dealer in intangibles at 68707
the time of making histhe dealer's return.68708

       Whenever the commissioner assesses the fair value of the 68709
capital, surplus, and undivided profits of a dealer in intangibles 68710
at an amount in excess of the book value thereof as shown by its 68711
report, or disallows any claim for deduction from book value of 68712
such capital, surplus, and undivided profitslisted in the 68713
dealer's report, or assesses the shares or property of a dealer 68714
that fails to file a return, hethe commissioner shall give notice 68715
and proceed as provided in section 5711.31 of the Revised Code.68716

       Sec. 5725.16.  On or before the first Monday of May, annually 68717
for return years prior to 2014, the tax commissioner shall certify 68718
to the treasurer of state the assessment of the shares or property 68719
representing capital, or apportionment of either, of each dealer 68720
in intangibles doing business in the state, showing separately the 68721
amount representing capital employed in each county.68722

       The treasurer of state shall place the amounts certified on 68723
the intangible property tax list in histhe treasurer of state's68724
office in the names of the dealers represented by those 68725
certificates.68726

       Any certificate of abatement issued pursuant to section 68727
5703.05 of the Revised Code for the overpayment of the tax on 68728
shares or property representing capital of aThe commissioner 68729
shall collect, on behalf of the treasurer, the taxes due on the 68730
assessments certified pursuant to this section, together with any 68731
applicable penalties or interest, in the manner prescribed by 68732
section 5725.22 of the Revised Code. The commissioner shall 68733
immediately forward to the treasurer any payments received under 68734
this section or section 5719.13 of the Revised Code. The treasurer 68735
shall credit all such payments against the appropriate amounts on 68736
the intangible property tax list in the treasurer's office.68737

       A dealer in intangibles may be tendered by the payee or 68738
transferee thereof to the treasurer of state as payment for any 68739
taxes allocable to the county in which the claim fora refund of 68740
any overpayment aroseof the tax levied under division (D) of 68741
section 5707.03 of the Revised Code by filing an application for 68742
final assessment in accordance with section 5711.26 of the Revised 68743
Code.68744

       Sec. 5725.17.  (A) In addition to any other penalty imposed 68745
by this chapter or Chapter 5703. of the Revised Code, the 68746
following penalties shall apply:68747

       (1) If a dealer in intangibles fails to make and furnish to 68748
the tax commissioner the report required by section 5725.14 of the 68749
Revised Code, within the time fixed by that section, a penalty 68750
shall be imposed equal to the greater of fifty dollars per month 68751
or fraction of a month, not to exceed five hundred dollars, or 68752
five per cent per month or fraction of a month, not to exceed 68753
fifty per cent, of the tax required to be shown on the report, for 68754
each month or fraction of a month elapsing between the due date, 68755
including extensions of the due date, and the date on which the 68756
report is filed.68757

       (2) If a dealer in intangibles fails to pay any amounts of 68758
the tax levied by division (D) of section 5707.03 of the Revised 68759
Code by the dates prescribed for payment, a penalty shall be 68760
imposed equal to the greater of the penalty due under division68761
(C)(F) of section 5725.22 of the Revised Code, for which this 68762
penalty shall be a substitute, or two times the interest charged 68763
under section 5725.221 of the Revised Code for the delinquent 68764
payment.68765

       (3) If a dealer in intangibles submits a report required by 68766
section 5725.14 of the Revised Code that is marked, defaced, or 68767
otherwise designed by the dealer to be a frivolous protest or an 68768
attempt to delay or impede the administration of the tax levied by 68769
division (D) of section 5707.03 of the Revised Code, a penalty 68770
shall be imposed equal to the greater of one hundred dollars or 68771
twenty-five per cent of the tax required to be shown on the 68772
report.68773

       (4) If a dealer in intangibles makes a fraudulent attempt to 68774
evade the reporting or payment of the tax levied by division (D) 68775
of section 5707.03 of the Revised Code, a penalty shall be imposed 68776
equal to the greater of one thousand dollars or one hundred per 68777
cent of the tax required to be shown on the report required by 68778
section 5725.14 of the Revised Code.68779

       (5) If any person makes a false or fraudulent claim for 68780
abatement or refund of the tax levied by division (D) of section 68781
5707.03 of the Revised Code, a penalty shall be imposed equal to 68782
the greater of one thousand dollars or one hundred per cent of the 68783
claim. The penalty imposed by this division, any abatement or 68784
refund on the claim, and interest on any refund from the date of 68785
the refund, may be assessed under section 5725.15 of the Revised 68786
Code or added by the treasurer of statetax commissioner as tax, 68787
penalty, and interest due from the tax levied by division (D) of 68788
section 5707.03 of the Revised Code, without regard to whether the 68789
person making the claim is otherwise subject to the tax, and 68790
without regard to any time limitation for assessment.68791

       (B) Each penalty imposed under division (A) of this section 68792
shall be in addition to any other penalty imposed under that 68793
division. All or part of any penalty imposed under division (A) of 68794
this section may be abated by the commissioner or the treasurer of 68795
state, as appropriate.68796

       Sec. 5725.22. (A) The treasurer of state shall maintain an 68797
intangible property tax list of taxes levied by section 5707.03 of 68798
the Revised Code and certified by the tax commissioner pursuant to 68799
sections 5711.13, 5725.08, 5725.16, and 5727.15 of the Revised 68800
Code, and a separate list of taxes levied by section 5725.18 of 68801
the Revised Code and certified by the superintendent of insurance 68802
pursuant to section 5725.20 of the Revised Code. Upon receipt of 68803
any assessment certified to him68804

       (B)(1) With respect to taxes levied under section 5725.18 of 68805
the Revised Code, the treasurer of state, upon receipt of an 68806
assessment, shall compute the taxes at the rates prescribed by law 68807
and enter the taxes on the proper tax list. HeThe treasurer shall 68808
collect, and the taxpayer shall pay, all such taxes and any 68809
interest applicable thereto. Payments may be made by mail, in 68810
person, or by any other means authorized by the treasurer of 68811
state. The treasurer of state shall render a daily itemized 68812
statement to the tax commissionersuperintendent of insurance of 68813
the amount of taxes collected and the name of the domestic 68814
insurance company or assessment certificate number of the person68815
from whom collected. The treasurer of state may adopt rules 68816
concerning the methods and timeliness of paymentpayments under 68817
this division.68818

       (2) With respect to taxes levied under section 5707.03 of the 68819
Revised Code, any assessment certified to the treasurer of state 68820
shall reflect the taxes computed at the rates prescribed by law. 68821
Upon receipt of such an assessment, the treasurer shall enter the 68822
taxes on the proper tax list. The tax commissioner shall collect, 68823
and the taxpayer shall pay, all such taxes and any interest 68824
applicable thereto. Payments may be made by mail, in person, or by 68825
any other means authorized by the commissioner. The commissioner 68826
shall immediately forward to the treasurer any payments received 68827
under this division, together with any information necessary for 68828
the treasurer to properly credit such payments. The commissioner 68829
may adopt rules concerning the method and timeliness of payments 68830
under this division.68831

       (C) Each tax bill issued pursuant to this section shall 68832
separately reflect the taxes due, interest, if any, due date, and 68833
any other information considered necessary. The last day on which 68834
payment may be made without penalty shall be at least twenty but 68835
not more than thirty days from the date of mailing the tax bill. 68836
The treasurer of state or tax commissioner, as appropriate, shall 68837
mail the tax bill, and the mailing thereof shall be prima-facie 68838
evidence of receipt thereof by the taxpayer.68839

       The treasurer of stateor commissioner, as appropriate, shall 68840
refund taxes as provided in this section, but no refund shall be 68841
made to a taxpayer having a delinquent claim certified pursuant to 68842
this section that remains unpaid. The treasurer of stateor 68843
commissioner may consult the attorney general regarding such 68844
claims. Refunds shall be paid from the tax refund fund created by 68845
section 5703.052 of the Revised Code.68846

       (A)(D)(1) Within twenty days after receipt of any preliminary 68847
assessment certified to himof taxes levied under section 5725.18 68848
of the Revised Code, the treasurer of state shall issue a tax 68849
bill, but if such preliminary assessment reflects a late filed tax 68850
return, the treasurer of state shall add interest as provided in 68851
division (A) of section 5725.221 of the Revised Code and issue a 68852
tax bill.68853

       (B)(2) Within twenty days after receipt of any amended or 68854
final assessment certified to himof taxes levied under section 68855
5725.18 of the Revised Code, the treasurer of state shall 68856
ascertain the difference between the total taxes computed on such 68857
assessment and the total taxes computed on the most recent 68858
assessment certified for the same tax year. If the difference is a 68859
deficiency, the treasurer of state shall add interest as provided 68860
in division (B)(1) of section 5725.221 of the Revised Code and 68861
issue a tax bill. If the difference is an excess, the treasurer of 68862
state shall add interest as provided in division (B)(2) of section 68863
5725.221 of the Revised Code and certify the name of the taxpayer 68864
and the amount to be refunded to the director of budget and 68865
management for payment to the taxpayer. If the taxpayer has a 68866
deficiency for one tax year and an excess for another tax year, or 68867
any combination thereof for more than two tax years, the treasurer 68868
of state may determine the net result after adding interest, if 68869
applicable, and, depending on such result, proceed to mail a tax 68870
bill or certify a refund.68871

       (C)(E)(1) Except as provided in division (E)(2) of this 68872
section, within twenty days after certifying to the treasurer of 68873
state an amended or final assessment, or a preliminary assessment 68874
of a dealer in intangibles that has failed to file a report or 68875
disclose taxable property, the tax commissioner shall ascertain 68876
the difference between the total taxes computed on such assessment 68877
and the total taxes computed on the most recent assessment 68878
certified for the same tax year, if any. If the difference is a 68879
deficiency, the commissioner shall add interest as provided in 68880
division (B)(1) of section 5725.221 of the Revised Code and issue 68881
a tax bill. If the difference is an excess, the commissioner shall 68882
add interest as provided in division (B)(2) of section 5725.221 of 68883
the Revised Code and certify the name of the taxpayer and the 68884
amount to be refunded to the director of budget and management for 68885
payment to the taxpayer. If the taxpayer has a deficiency for one 68886
tax year and excess for another tax year, or any combination 68887
thereof for more than two tax years, the commissioner may 68888
determine the net result after adding interest, if applicable, 68889
and, depending on such result, proceed to mail a tax bill or 68890
certify a refund.68891

       (2) The tax commissioner may issue a tax bill for any 68892
deficiency resulting from an assessment at the time the 68893
commissioner issues the assessment.68894

        (F) If a taxpayer fails to pay all taxes and interest, if 68895
any, on or before the due date shown on the tax bill but makes 68896
payment within ten calendar days of such date, the treasurer of 68897
state or tax commissioner, as appropriate, shall add a penalty 68898
equal to five per cent of the taxes due. If payment is not made 68899
within ten days of such date, the treasurer of stateor 68900
commissioner shall add a penalty equal to ten per cent of the 68901
taxes due. The treasurer of stateor commissioner shall prepare a 68902
delinquent claim for each tax bill on which penalties were added 68903
and certify such claims to the attorney general for collection. 68904
The attorney general shall transmit a copy of each claim certified 68905
by the treasurer to the tax commissioner or the superintendent of 68906
insurance and. For each claim certified by the treasurer or 68907
commissioner, the attorney general shall proceed to collect the 68908
delinquent taxes, penalties, and interest thereon in the manner 68909
prescribed by law.68910

       Sec. 5725.221.  For the purposes of this section, interest 68911
shall be computed at a rate per calendar month, rounded to the 68912
nearest one-hundredth of one per cent, equal to one-twelfth of the 68913
rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code 68914
for the calendar year that includes the month for which the 68915
interest accrues.68916

       (A) When taxes levied by section 3737.71, 5707.03, or 5725.18 68917
of the Revised Code are assessed as the result of a tax return 68918
being filed late, the treasurer of state or tax commissioner, as 68919
appropriate, shall add interest to the taxes due. The interest 68920
shall accrue from the first day of the month following the last 68921
day on which such taxes were required to be paid, had the 68922
assessment been certified by the date prescribed, to the last day 68923
of the month preceding the date on which the assessment was 68924
certified, and shall be computed on the taxes due.68925

       (B) If an assessment has been certified pursuant to section 68926
5711.13, 5725.08, 5725.16, 5725.20, or 5725.222 of the Revised 68927
Code and an amended or final assessment is certified for the same 68928
taxpayer and the same tax year, the treasurer of state or tax 68929
commissioner, as appropriate, shall add interest to the deficiency 68930
or excess. The interest shall be computed on the excess or 68931
deficiency, and shall be accrued in the following manner:68932

       (1) On a deficiency, interest shall accrue from the first day 68933
of the month following the last day on which the previous 68934
assessment was required to be paid, to the last day of the month 68935
preceding the date on which the amended or final assessment is 68936
certified;68937

       (2) On an excess, interest shall be allowed from the first 68938
day of the month following the date of payment of the previous 68939
assessment, to the last day of the month preceding the date on 68940
which the amended or final assessment is certified.68941

       Sec. 5731.39.  (A) No corporation organized or existing under 68942
the laws of this state shall transfer on its books or issue a new 68943
certificate for any share of its capital stock registered in the 68944
name of a decedent, or in trust for a decedent, or in the name of 68945
a decedent and another person or persons, without the written 68946
consent of the tax commissioner.68947

       (B) No safe deposit company, trust company, financial 68948
institution as defined in division (A) of section 5725.01 of the 68949
Revised Code or other corporation or person, having in possession, 68950
control, or custody a deposit standing in the name of a decedent, 68951
or in trust for a decedent, or in the name of a decedent and 68952
another person or persons, shall deliver or transfer an amount in 68953
excess of three-fourths of the total value of such deposit, 68954
including accrued interest and dividends, as of the date of 68955
decedent's death, without the written consent of the tax 68956
commissioner. The written consent of the tax commissioner need not 68957
be obtained prior to the delivery or transfer of amounts having a 68958
value of three-fourths or less of said total value.68959

       (C) No life insurance company shall pay the proceeds of an 68960
annuity or matured endowment contract, or of a life insurance 68961
contract payable to the estate of a decedent, or of any other 68962
insurance contract taxable under Chapter 5731. of the Revised 68963
Code, without the written consent of the tax commissioner. Any 68964
life insurance company may pay the proceeds of any insurance 68965
contract not specified in this division (C) without the written 68966
consent of the tax commissioner.68967

       (D) No trust company or other corporation or person shall pay 68968
the proceeds of any death benefit, retirement, pension or profit 68969
sharing plan in excess of two thousand dollars, without the 68970
written consent of the tax commissioner. Such trust company or 68971
other corporation or person, however, may pay the proceeds of any 68972
death benefit, retirement, pension, or profit-sharing plan which 68973
consists of insurance on the life of the decedent payable to a 68974
beneficiary other than the estate of the insured without the 68975
written consent of the tax commissioner.68976

       (E) No safe deposit company, trust company, financial 68977
institution as defined in division (A) of section 5725.01 of the 68978
Revised Code, or other corporation or person, having in 68979
possession, control, or custody securities, assets, or other 68980
property (including the shares of the capital stock of, or other 68981
interest in, such safe deposit company, trust company, financial 68982
institution as defined in division (A) of section 5725.01 of the 68983
Revised Code, or other corporation), standing in the name of a 68984
decedent, or in trust for a decedent, or in the name of a decedent 68985
and another person or persons, and the transfer of which is 68986
taxable under Chapter 5731. of the Revised Code, shall deliver or 68987
transfer any such securities, assets, or other property which have 68988
a value as of the date of decedent's death in excess of 68989
three-fourths of the total value thereof, without the written 68990
consent of the tax commissioner. The written consent of the tax 68991
commissioner need not be obtained prior to the delivery or 68992
transfer of any such securities, assets, or other property having 68993
a value of three-fourths or less of said total value.68994

       (F) No safe deposit company, financial institution as defined 68995
in division (A) of section 5725.01 of the Revised Code, or other 68996
corporation or person having possession or control of a safe 68997
deposit box or similar receptacle standing in the name of a 68998
decedent or in the name of the decedent and another person or 68999
persons, or to which the decedent had a right of access, except 69000
when such safe deposit box or other receptacle stands in the name 69001
of a corporation or partnership, or in the name of the decedent as 69002
guardian or executor, shall deliver any of the contents thereof 69003
unless the safe deposit box or similar receptacle has been opened 69004
and inventoried in the presence of the tax commissioner or the 69005
commissioner's agent, and a written consent to transfer issued; 69006
provided, however, that a safe deposit company, financial 69007
institution, or other corporation or person having possession or 69008
control of a safe deposit box may deliver wills, deeds to burial 69009
lots, and insurance policies to a representative of the decedent, 69010
but that a representative of the safe deposit company, financial 69011
institution, or other corporation or person must supervise the 69012
opening of the box and make a written record of the wills, deeds, 69013
and policies removed. Such written record shall be included in the 69014
tax commissioner's inventory records.69015

       (G) Notwithstanding any provision of this section:69016

       (1) The tax commissioner may authorize any delivery or 69017
transfer or waive any of the foregoing requirements under such 69018
terms and conditions as the commissioner may prescribe;69019

       (2) An adult care facility, as defined in section 5119.70 of 69020
the Revised Code, or aA home, as defined in section 3721.10 of 69021
the Revised Code, or a residential facility licensed under section 69022
5119.22 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 69023
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 69024
unrelated adults, may transfer or use the money in a personal 69025
needs allowance account in accordance with section 5111.113 of the 69026
Revised Code without the written consent of the tax commissioner, 69027
and without the account having been opened and inventoried in the 69028
presence of the commissioner or the commissioner's agent. 69029

       Failure to comply with this section shall render such safe 69030
deposit company, trust company, life insurance company, financial 69031
institution as defined in division (A) of section 5725.01 of the 69032
Revised Code, or other corporation or person liable for the amount 69033
of the taxes and interest due under the provisions of Chapter 69034
5731. of the Revised Code on the transfer of such stock, deposit, 69035
proceeds of an annuity or matured endowment contract or of a life 69036
insurance contract payable to the estate of a decedent, or other 69037
insurance contract taxable under Chapter 5731. of the Revised 69038
Code, proceeds of any death benefit, retirement, pension, or 69039
profit sharing plan in excess of two thousand dollars, or 69040
securities, assets, or other property of any resident decedent, 69041
and in addition thereto, to a penalty of not less than five 69042
hundred or more than five thousand dollars.69043

       Sec. 5733.064.  There is hereby allowed a credit against the 69044
tax imposed under sections 5733.06, 5733.065, and 5733.066 of the 69045
Revised Code. The credit shall equal the lesser of fifty per cent 69046
of any cash donations made during the taxable year by the taxpayer 69047
to an Ohio corporation organized prior to January 1, 1987, whose 69048
sole purpose is to promote and encourage recycling and that has 69049
been determined by the internal revenue service to be a nonprofit 69050
corporation regardless of whether the nonprofit corporation 69051
received a grant under section 1502.053736.05 of the Revised 69052
Code, or to municipal corporations, counties, townships, park 69053
districts, and boards of education that received grants pursuant 69054
to that section, or one-half of the amount of the taxpayer's 69055
additional tax liability for the tax year resulting from the 69056
additional rates imposed by sections 5733.065 and 5733.066 of the 69057
Revised Code to provide funding for the division of recycling and 69058
litter prevention under Chapter 1502.3736. of the Revised Code. 69059
The taxpayer shall claim the nonrefundable credit in the order 69060
required under section 5733.98 of the Revised Code.69061

       The tax commissioner may require the taxpayer to furnish such 69062
information as is necessary to support a claim for a credit under 69063
this section, and no credit shall be allowed unless the 69064
information is provided.69065

       Sec. 5739.01.  As used in this chapter:69066

       (A) "Person" includes individuals, receivers, assignees, 69067
trustees in bankruptcy, estates, firms, partnerships, 69068
associations, joint-stock companies, joint ventures, clubs, 69069
societies, corporations, the state and its political subdivisions, 69070
and combinations of individuals of any form.69071

       (B) "Sale" and "selling" include all of the following 69072
transactions for a consideration in any manner, whether absolutely 69073
or conditionally, whether for a price or rental, in money or by 69074
exchange, and by any means whatsoever:69075

       (1) All transactions by which title or possession, or both, 69076
of tangible personal property, is or is to be transferred, or a 69077
license to use or consume tangible personal property is or is to 69078
be granted;69079

       (2) All transactions by which lodging by a hotel is or is to 69080
be furnished to transient guests;69081

       (3) All transactions by which:69082

       (a) An item of tangible personal property is or is to be 69083
repaired, except property, the purchase of which would not be 69084
subject to the tax imposed by section 5739.02 of the Revised Code;69085

       (b) An item of tangible personal property is or is to be 69086
installed, except property, the purchase of which would not be 69087
subject to the tax imposed by section 5739.02 of the Revised Code 69088
or property that is or is to be incorporated into and will become 69089
a part of a production, transmission, transportation, or 69090
distribution system for the delivery of a public utility service;69091

       (c) The service of washing, cleaning, waxing, polishing, or 69092
painting a motor vehicle is or is to be furnished;69093

       (d) Until August 1, 2003, industrial laundry cleaning 69094
services are or are to be provided and, on and after August 1, 69095
2003, laundry and dry cleaning services are or are to be provided;69096

       (e) Automatic data processing, computer services, or 69097
electronic information services are or are to be provided for use 69098
in business when the true object of the transaction is the receipt 69099
by the consumer of automatic data processing, computer services, 69100
or electronic information services rather than the receipt of 69101
personal or professional services to which automatic data 69102
processing, computer services, or electronic information services 69103
are incidental or supplemental. Notwithstanding any other 69104
provision of this chapter, such transactions that occur between 69105
members of an affiliated group are not sales. An "affiliated 69106
group" means two or more persons related in such a way that one 69107
person owns or controls the business operation of another member 69108
of the group. In the case of corporations with stock, one 69109
corporation owns or controls another if it owns more than fifty 69110
per cent of the other corporation's common stock with voting 69111
rights.69112

       (f) Telecommunications service, including prepaid calling 69113
service, prepaid wireless calling service, or ancillary service, 69114
is or is to be provided, but not including coin-operated telephone 69115
service;69116

       (g) Landscaping and lawn care service is or is to be 69117
provided;69118

       (h) Private investigation and security service is or is to be 69119
provided;69120

       (i) Information services or tangible personal property is 69121
provided or ordered by means of a nine hundred telephone call;69122

       (j) Building maintenance and janitorial service is or is to 69123
be provided;69124

       (k) Employment service is or is to be provided;69125

       (l) Employment placement service is or is to be provided;69126

       (m) Exterminating service is or is to be provided;69127

       (n) Physical fitness facility service is or is to be 69128
provided;69129

       (o) Recreation and sports club service is or is to be 69130
provided;69131

       (p) On and after August 1, 2003, satellite broadcasting 69132
service is or is to be provided;69133

       (q) On and after August 1, 2003, personal care service is or 69134
is to be provided to an individual. As used in this division, 69135
"personal care service" includes skin care, the application of 69136
cosmetics, manicuring, pedicuring, hair removal, tattooing, body 69137
piercing, tanning, massage, and other similar services. "Personal 69138
care service" does not include a service provided by or on the 69139
order of a licensed physician or licensed chiropractor, or the 69140
cutting, coloring, or styling of an individual's hair.69141

       (r) On and after August 1, 2003, the transportation of 69142
persons by motor vehicle or aircraft is or is to be provided, when 69143
the transportation is entirely within this state, except for 69144
transportation provided by an ambulance service, by a transit bus, 69145
as defined in section 5735.01 of the Revised Code, and 69146
transportation provided by a citizen of the United States holding 69147
a certificate of public convenience and necessity issued under 49 69148
U.S.C. 41102;69149

       (s) On and after August 1, 2003, motor vehicle towing service 69150
is or is to be provided. As used in this division, "motor vehicle 69151
towing service" means the towing or conveyance of a wrecked, 69152
disabled, or illegally parked motor vehicle.69153

        (t) On and after August 1, 2003, snow removal service is or 69154
is to be provided. As used in this division, "snow removal 69155
service" means the removal of snow by any mechanized means, but 69156
does not include the providing of such service by a person that 69157
has less than five thousand dollars in sales of such service 69158
during the calendar year.69159

       (u) Electronic publishing service is or is to be provided to 69160
a consumer for use in business, except that such transactions 69161
occurring between members of an affiliated group, as defined in 69162
division (B)(3)(e) of this section, are not sales.69163

       (4) All transactions by which printed, imprinted, 69164
overprinted, lithographic, multilithic, blueprinted, photostatic, 69165
or other productions or reproductions of written or graphic matter 69166
are or are to be furnished or transferred;69167

       (5) The production or fabrication of tangible personal 69168
property for a consideration for consumers who furnish either 69169
directly or indirectly the materials used in the production of 69170
fabrication work; and include the furnishing, preparing, or 69171
serving for a consideration of any tangible personal property 69172
consumed on the premises of the person furnishing, preparing, or 69173
serving such tangible personal property. Except as provided in 69174
section 5739.03 of the Revised Code, a construction contract 69175
pursuant to which tangible personal property is or is to be 69176
incorporated into a structure or improvement on and becoming a 69177
part of real property is not a sale of such tangible personal 69178
property. The construction contractor is the consumer of such 69179
tangible personal property, provided that the sale and 69180
installation of carpeting, the sale and installation of 69181
agricultural land tile, the sale and erection or installation of 69182
portable grain bins, or the provision of landscaping and lawn care 69183
service and the transfer of property as part of such service is 69184
never a construction contract.69185

       As used in division (B)(5) of this section:69186

       (a) "Agricultural land tile" means fired clay or concrete 69187
tile, or flexible or rigid perforated plastic pipe or tubing, 69188
incorporated or to be incorporated into a subsurface drainage 69189
system appurtenant to land used or to be used primarily in 69190
production by farming, agriculture, horticulture, or floriculture. 69191
The term does not include such materials when they are or are to 69192
be incorporated into a drainage system appurtenant to a building 69193
or structure even if the building or structure is used or to be 69194
used in such production.69195

       (b) "Portable grain bin" means a structure that is used or to 69196
be used by a person engaged in farming or agriculture to shelter 69197
the person's grain and that is designed to be disassembled without 69198
significant damage to its component parts.69199

       (6) All transactions in which all of the shares of stock of a 69200
closely held corporation are transferred, if the corporation is 69201
not engaging in business and its entire assets consist of boats, 69202
planes, motor vehicles, or other tangible personal property 69203
operated primarily for the use and enjoyment of the shareholders;69204

       (7) All transactions in which a warranty, maintenance or 69205
service contract, or similar agreement by which the vendor of the 69206
warranty, contract, or agreement agrees to repair or maintain the 69207
tangible personal property of the consumer is or is to be 69208
provided;69209

       (8) The transfer of copyrighted motion picture films used 69210
solely for advertising purposes, except that the transfer of such 69211
films for exhibition purposes is not a sale;69212

       (9) On and after August 1, 2003, all transactions by which 69213
tangible personal property is or is to be stored, except such 69214
property that the consumer of the storage holds for sale in the 69215
regular course of business;69216

       (10) All transactions in which "guaranteed auto protection" 69217
is provided whereby a person promises to pay to the consumer the 69218
difference between the amount the consumer receives from motor 69219
vehicle insurance and the amount the consumer owes to a person 69220
holding title to or a lien on the consumer's motor vehicle in the 69221
event the consumer's motor vehicle suffers a total loss under the 69222
terms of the motor vehicle insurance policy or is stolen and not 69223
recovered, if the protection and its price are included in the 69224
purchase or lease agreement;69225

       (11)(a) Except as provided in division (B)(11)(b) of this 69226
section, on and after October 1, 2009, all transactions by which 69227
health care services are paid for, reimbursed, provided, 69228
delivered, arranged for, or otherwise made available by a medicaid 69229
health insuring corporation pursuant to the corporation's contract 69230
with the state.69231

       (b) If the centers for medicare and medicaid services of the 69232
United States department of health and human services determines 69233
that the taxation of transactions described in division (B)(11)(a) 69234
of this section constitutes an impermissible health care-related 69235
tax under section 1903(w) of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 69236
620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 1396b(w), as amended, and regulations 69237
adopted thereunder, the director of job and family services shall 69238
notify the tax commissioner of that determination. Beginning with 69239
the first day of the month following that notification, the 69240
transactions described in division (B)(11)(a) of this section are 69241
not sales for the purposes of this chapter or Chapter 5741. of the 69242
Revised Code. The tax commissioner shall order that the collection 69243
of taxes under sections 5739.02, 5739.021, 5739.023, 5739.026, 69244
5741.02, 5741.021, 5741.022, and 5741.023 of the Revised Code 69245
shall cease for transactions occurring on or after that date.69246

       Except as provided in this section, "sale" and "selling" do 69247
not include transfers of interest in leased property where the 69248
original lessee and the terms of the original lease agreement 69249
remain unchanged, or professional, insurance, or personal service 69250
transactions that involve the transfer of tangible personal 69251
property as an inconsequential element, for which no separate 69252
charges are made.69253

       (C) "Vendor" means the person providing the service or by 69254
whom the transfer effected or license given by a sale is or is to 69255
be made or given and, for sales described in division (B)(3)(i) of 69256
this section, the telecommunications service vendor that provides 69257
the nine hundred telephone service; if two or more persons are 69258
engaged in business at the same place of business under a single 69259
trade name in which all collections on account of sales by each 69260
are made, such persons shall constitute a single vendor.69261

       Physicians, dentists, hospitals, and veterinarians who are 69262
engaged in selling tangible personal property as received from 69263
others, such as eyeglasses, mouthwashes, dentifrices, or similar 69264
articles, are vendors. Veterinarians who are engaged in 69265
transferring to others for a consideration drugs, the dispensing 69266
of which does not require an order of a licensed veterinarian or 69267
physician under federal law, are vendors.69268

       (D)(1) "Consumer" means the person for whom the service is 69269
provided, to whom the transfer effected or license given by a sale 69270
is or is to be made or given, to whom the service described in 69271
division (B)(3)(f) or (i) of this section is charged, or to whom 69272
the admission is granted.69273

       (2) Physicians, dentists, hospitals, and blood banks operated 69274
by nonprofit institutions and persons licensed to practice 69275
veterinary medicine, surgery, and dentistry are consumers of all 69276
tangible personal property and services purchased by them in 69277
connection with the practice of medicine, dentistry, the rendition 69278
of hospital or blood bank service, or the practice of veterinary 69279
medicine, surgery, and dentistry. In addition to being consumers 69280
of drugs administered by them or by their assistants according to 69281
their direction, veterinarians also are consumers of drugs that 69282
under federal law may be dispensed only by or upon the order of a 69283
licensed veterinarian or physician, when transferred by them to 69284
others for a consideration to provide treatment to animals as 69285
directed by the veterinarian.69286

       (3) A person who performs a facility management, or similar 69287
service contract for a contractee is a consumer of all tangible 69288
personal property and services purchased for use in connection 69289
with the performance of such contract, regardless of whether title 69290
to any such property vests in the contractee. The purchase of such 69291
property and services is not subject to the exception for resale 69292
under division (E)(1) of this section.69293

       (4)(a) In the case of a person who purchases printed matter 69294
for the purpose of distributing it or having it distributed to the 69295
public or to a designated segment of the public, free of charge, 69296
that person is the consumer of that printed matter, and the 69297
purchase of that printed matter for that purpose is a sale.69298

       (b) In the case of a person who produces, rather than 69299
purchases, printed matter for the purpose of distributing it or 69300
having it distributed to the public or to a designated segment of 69301
the public, free of charge, that person is the consumer of all 69302
tangible personal property and services purchased for use or 69303
consumption in the production of that printed matter. That person 69304
is not entitled to claim exemption under division (B)(42)(f) of 69305
section 5739.02 of the Revised Code for any material incorporated 69306
into the printed matter or any equipment, supplies, or services 69307
primarily used to produce the printed matter.69308

       (c) The distribution of printed matter to the public or to a 69309
designated segment of the public, free of charge, is not a sale to 69310
the members of the public to whom the printed matter is 69311
distributed or to any persons who purchase space in the printed 69312
matter for advertising or other purposes.69313

       (5) A person who makes sales of any of the services listed in 69314
division (B)(3) of this section is the consumer of any tangible 69315
personal property used in performing the service. The purchase of 69316
that property is not subject to the resale exception under 69317
division (E)(1) of this section.69318

       (6) A person who engages in highway transportation for hire 69319
is the consumer of all packaging materials purchased by that 69320
person and used in performing the service, except for packaging 69321
materials sold by such person in a transaction separate from the 69322
service.69323

       (7) In the case of a transaction for health care services 69324
under division (B)(11) of this section, a medicaid health insuring 69325
corporation is the consumer of such services. The purchase of such 69326
services by a medicaid health insuring corporation is not subject 69327
to the exception for resale under division (E)(1) of this section 69328
or to the exemptions provided under divisions (B)(12), (18), (19), 69329
and (22) of section 5739.02 of the Revised Code.69330

       (E) "Retail sale" and "sales at retail" include all sales, 69331
except those in which the purpose of the consumer is to resell the 69332
thing transferred or benefit of the service provided, by a person 69333
engaging in business, in the form in which the same is, or is to 69334
be, received by the person.69335

       (F) "Business" includes any activity engaged in by any person 69336
with the object of gain, benefit, or advantage, either direct or 69337
indirect. "Business" does not include the activity of a person in 69338
managing and investing the person's own funds.69339

       (G) "Engaging in business" means commencing, conducting, or 69340
continuing in business, and liquidating a business when the 69341
liquidator thereof holds itself out to the public as conducting 69342
such business. Making a casual sale is not engaging in business.69343

       (H)(1)(a) "Price," except as provided in divisions (H)(2), 69344
(3), and (4) of this section, means the total amount of 69345
consideration, including cash, credit, property, and services, for 69346
which tangible personal property or services are sold, leased, or 69347
rented, valued in money, whether received in money or otherwise, 69348
without any deduction for any of the following:69349

       (i) The vendor's cost of the property sold;69350

       (ii) The cost of materials used, labor or service costs, 69351
interest, losses, all costs of transportation to the vendor, all 69352
taxes imposed on the vendor, including the tax imposed under 69353
Chapter 5751. of the Revised Code, and any other expense of the 69354
vendor;69355

       (iii) Charges by the vendor for any services necessary to 69356
complete the sale;69357

       (iv) On and after August 1, 2003, delivery charges. As used 69358
in this division, "delivery charges" means charges by the vendor 69359
for preparation and delivery to a location designated by the 69360
consumer of tangible personal property or a service, including 69361
transportation, shipping, postage, handling, crating, and packing.69362

       (v) Installation charges;69363

       (vi) Credit for any trade-in.69364

       (b) "Price" includes consideration received by the vendor 69365
from a third party, if the vendor actually receives the 69366
consideration from a party other than the consumer, and the 69367
consideration is directly related to a price reduction or discount 69368
on the sale; the vendor has an obligation to pass the price 69369
reduction or discount through to the consumer; the amount of the 69370
consideration attributable to the sale is fixed and determinable 69371
by the vendor at the time of the sale of the item to the consumer; 69372
and one of the following criteria is met:69373

       (i) The consumer presents a coupon, certificate, or other 69374
document to the vendor to claim a price reduction or discount 69375
where the coupon, certificate, or document is authorized, 69376
distributed, or granted by a third party with the understanding 69377
that the third party will reimburse any vendor to whom the coupon, 69378
certificate, or document is presented;69379

       (ii) The consumer identifies the consumer's self to the 69380
seller as a member of a group or organization entitled to a price 69381
reduction or discount. A preferred customer card that is available 69382
to any patron does not constitute membership in such a group or 69383
organization.69384

       (iii) The price reduction or discount is identified as a 69385
third party price reduction or discount on the invoice received by 69386
the consumer, or on a coupon, certificate, or other document 69387
presented by the consumer.69388

       (c) "Price" does not include any of the following:69389

       (i) Discounts, including cash, term, or coupons that are not 69390
reimbursed by a third party that are allowed by a vendor and taken 69391
by a consumer on a sale;69392

       (ii) Interest, financing, and carrying charges from credit 69393
extended on the sale of tangible personal property or services, if 69394
the amount is separately stated on the invoice, bill of sale, or 69395
similar document given to the purchaser;69396

       (iii) Any taxes legally imposed directly on the consumer that 69397
are separately stated on the invoice, bill of sale, or similar 69398
document given to the consumer. For the purpose of this division, 69399
the tax imposed under Chapter 5751. of the Revised Code is not a 69400
tax directly on the consumer, even if the tax or a portion thereof 69401
is separately stated.69402

       (iv) Notwithstanding divisions (H)(1)(b)(i) to (iii) of this 69403
section, any discount allowed by an automobile manufacturer to its 69404
employee, or to the employee of a supplier, on the purchase of a 69405
new motor vehicle from a new motor vehicle dealer in this state.69406

       (v) The dollar value of a gift card that is not sold by a 69407
vendor or purchased by a consumer and that is redeemed by the 69408
consumer in purchasing tangible personal property or services if 69409
the vendor is not reimbursed and does not receive compensation 69410
from a third party to cover all or part of the gift card value. 69411
For the purposes of this division, a gift card is not sold by a 69412
vendor or purchased by a consumer if it is distributed pursuant to 69413
an awards, loyalty, or promotional program. Past and present 69414
purchases of tangible personal property or services by the 69415
consumer shall not be treated as consideration exchanged for a 69416
gift card.69417

       (2) In the case of a sale of any new motor vehicle by a new 69418
motor vehicle dealer, as defined in section 4517.01 of the Revised 69419
Code, in which another motor vehicle is accepted by the dealer as 69420
part of the consideration received, "price" has the same meaning 69421
as in division (H)(1) of this section, reduced by the credit 69422
afforded the consumer by the dealer for the motor vehicle received 69423
in trade.69424

       (3) In the case of a sale of any watercraft or outboard motor 69425
by a watercraft dealer licensed in accordance with section 69426
1547.543 of the Revised Code, in which another watercraft, 69427
watercraft and trailer, or outboard motor is accepted by the 69428
dealer as part of the consideration received, "price" has the same 69429
meaning as in division (H)(1) of this section, reduced by the 69430
credit afforded the consumer by the dealer for the watercraft, 69431
watercraft and trailer, or outboard motor received in trade. As 69432
used in this division, "watercraft" includes an outdrive unit 69433
attached to the watercraft.69434

       (4) In the case of transactions for health care services 69435
under division (B)(11) of this section, "price" means the amount 69436
of managed care premiums received each month by a medicaid health 69437
insuring corporation.69438

       (I) "Receipts" means the total amount of the prices of the 69439
sales of vendors, provided that the dollar value of gift cards 69440
distributed pursuant to an awards, loyalty, or promotional 69441
program, and cash discounts allowed and taken on sales at the time 69442
they are consummated are not included, minus any amount deducted 69443
as a bad debt pursuant to section 5739.121 of the Revised Code. 69444
"Receipts" does not include the sale price of property returned or 69445
services rejected by consumers when the full sale price and tax 69446
are refunded either in cash or by credit.69447

       (J) "Place of business" means any location at which a person 69448
engages in business.69449

       (K) "Premises" includes any real property or portion thereof 69450
upon which any person engages in selling tangible personal 69451
property at retail or making retail sales and also includes any 69452
real property or portion thereof designated for, or devoted to, 69453
use in conjunction with the business engaged in by such person.69454

       (L) "Casual sale" means a sale of an item of tangible 69455
personal property that was obtained by the person making the sale, 69456
through purchase or otherwise, for the person's own use and was 69457
previously subject to any state's taxing jurisdiction on its sale 69458
or use, and includes such items acquired for the seller's use that 69459
are sold by an auctioneer employed directly by the person for such 69460
purpose, provided the location of such sales is not the 69461
auctioneer's permanent place of business. As used in this 69462
division, "permanent place of business" includes any location 69463
where such auctioneer has conducted more than two auctions during 69464
the year.69465

       (M) "Hotel" means every establishment kept, used, maintained, 69466
advertised, or held out to the public to be a place where sleeping 69467
accommodations are offered to guests, in which five or more rooms 69468
are used for the accommodation of such guests, whether the rooms 69469
are in one or several structures, except as otherwise provided in 69470
division (G) of section 5739.09 of the Revised Code.69471

       (N) "Transient guests" means persons occupying a room or 69472
rooms for sleeping accommodations for less than thirty consecutive 69473
days.69474

       (O) "Making retail sales" means the effecting of transactions 69475
wherein one party is obligated to pay the price and the other 69476
party is obligated to provide a service or to transfer title to or 69477
possession of the item sold. "Making retail sales" does not 69478
include the preliminary acts of promoting or soliciting the retail 69479
sales, other than the distribution of printed matter which 69480
displays or describes and prices the item offered for sale, nor 69481
does it include delivery of a predetermined quantity of tangible 69482
personal property or transportation of property or personnel to or 69483
from a place where a service is performed, regardless of whether 69484
the vendor is a delivery vendor.69485

       (P) "Used directly in the rendition of a public utility 69486
service" means that property that is to be incorporated into and 69487
will become a part of the consumer's production, transmission, 69488
transportation, or distribution system and that retains its 69489
classification as tangible personal property after such 69490
incorporation; fuel or power used in the production, transmission, 69491
transportation, or distribution system; and tangible personal 69492
property used in the repair and maintenance of the production, 69493
transmission, transportation, or distribution system, including 69494
only such motor vehicles as are specially designed and equipped 69495
for such use. Tangible personal property and services used 69496
primarily in providing highway transportation for hire are not 69497
used directly in the rendition of a public utility service. In 69498
this definition, "public utility" includes a citizen of the United 69499
States holding, and required to hold, a certificate of public 69500
convenience and necessity issued under 49 U.S.C. 41102.69501

       (Q) "Refining" means removing or separating a desirable 69502
product from raw or contaminated materials by distillation or 69503
physical, mechanical, or chemical processes.69504

       (R) "Assembly" and "assembling" mean attaching or fitting 69505
together parts to form a product, but do not include packaging a 69506
product.69507

       (S) "Manufacturing operation" means a process in which 69508
materials are changed, converted, or transformed into a different 69509
state or form from which they previously existed and includes 69510
refining materials, assembling parts, and preparing raw materials 69511
and parts by mixing, measuring, blending, or otherwise committing 69512
such materials or parts to the manufacturing process. 69513
"Manufacturing operation" does not include packaging.69514

       (T) "Fiscal officer" means, with respect to a regional 69515
transit authority, the secretary-treasurer thereof, and with 69516
respect to a county that is a transit authority, the fiscal 69517
officer of the county transit board if one is appointed pursuant 69518
to section 306.03 of the Revised Code or the county auditor if the 69519
board of county commissioners operates the county transit system.69520

       (U) "Transit authority" means a regional transit authority 69521
created pursuant to section 306.31 of the Revised Code or a county 69522
in which a county transit system is created pursuant to section 69523
306.01 of the Revised Code. For the purposes of this chapter, a 69524
transit authority must extend to at least the entire area of a 69525
single county. A transit authority that includes territory in more 69526
than one county must include all the area of the most populous 69527
county that is a part of such transit authority. County population 69528
shall be measured by the most recent census taken by the United 69529
States census bureau.69530

       (V) "Legislative authority" means, with respect to a regional 69531
transit authority, the board of trustees thereof, and with respect 69532
to a county that is a transit authority, the board of county 69533
commissioners.69534

       (W) "Territory of the transit authority" means all of the 69535
area included within the territorial boundaries of a transit 69536
authority as they from time to time exist. Such territorial 69537
boundaries must at all times include all the area of a single 69538
county or all the area of the most populous county that is a part 69539
of such transit authority. County population shall be measured by 69540
the most recent census taken by the United States census bureau.69541

       (X) "Providing a service" means providing or furnishing 69542
anything described in division (B)(3) of this section for 69543
consideration.69544

       (Y)(1)(a) "Automatic data processing" means processing of 69545
others' data, including keypunching or similar data entry services 69546
together with verification thereof, or providing access to 69547
computer equipment for the purpose of processing data.69548

       (b) "Computer services" means providing services consisting 69549
of specifying computer hardware configurations and evaluating 69550
technical processing characteristics, computer programming, and 69551
training of computer programmers and operators, provided in 69552
conjunction with and to support the sale, lease, or operation of 69553
taxable computer equipment or systems.69554

       (c) "Electronic information services" means providing access 69555
to computer equipment by means of telecommunications equipment for 69556
the purpose of either of the following:69557

       (i) Examining or acquiring data stored in or accessible to 69558
the computer equipment;69559

       (ii) Placing data into the computer equipment to be retrieved 69560
by designated recipients with access to the computer equipment.69561

       For transactions occurring on or after the effective date of 69562
the amendment of this section by H.B. 157 of the 127th general 69563
assembly, December 21, 2007, "electronic information services" 69564
does not include electronic publishing as defined in division 69565
(LLL) of this section.69566

       (d) "Automatic data processing, computer services, or 69567
electronic information services" shall not include personal or 69568
professional services.69569

       (2) As used in divisions (B)(3)(e) and (Y)(1) of this 69570
section, "personal and professional services" means all services 69571
other than automatic data processing, computer services, or 69572
electronic information services, including but not limited to:69573

       (a) Accounting and legal services such as advice on tax 69574
matters, asset management, budgetary matters, quality control, 69575
information security, and auditing and any other situation where 69576
the service provider receives data or information and studies, 69577
alters, analyzes, interprets, or adjusts such material;69578

       (b) Analyzing business policies and procedures;69579

       (c) Identifying management information needs;69580

       (d) Feasibility studies, including economic and technical 69581
analysis of existing or potential computer hardware or software 69582
needs and alternatives;69583

       (e) Designing policies, procedures, and custom software for 69584
collecting business information, and determining how data should 69585
be summarized, sequenced, formatted, processed, controlled, and 69586
reported so that it will be meaningful to management;69587

       (f) Developing policies and procedures that document how 69588
business events and transactions are to be authorized, executed, 69589
and controlled;69590

       (g) Testing of business procedures;69591

       (h) Training personnel in business procedure applications;69592

       (i) Providing credit information to users of such information 69593
by a consumer reporting agency, as defined in the "Fair Credit 69594
Reporting Act," 84 Stat. 1114, 1129 (1970), 15 U.S.C. 1681a(f), or 69595
as hereafter amended, including but not limited to gathering, 69596
organizing, analyzing, recording, and furnishing such information 69597
by any oral, written, graphic, or electronic medium;69598

       (j) Providing debt collection services by any oral, written, 69599
graphic, or electronic means.69600

       The services listed in divisions (Y)(2)(a) to (j) of this 69601
section are not automatic data processing or computer services.69602

       (Z) "Highway transportation for hire" means the 69603
transportation of personal property belonging to others for 69604
consideration by any of the following:69605

       (1) The holder of a permit or certificate issued by this 69606
state or the United States authorizing the holder to engage in 69607
transportation of personal property belonging to others for 69608
consideration over or on highways, roadways, streets, or any 69609
similar public thoroughfare;69610

       (2) A person who engages in the transportation of personal 69611
property belonging to others for consideration over or on 69612
highways, roadways, streets, or any similar public thoroughfare 69613
but who could not have engaged in such transportation on December 69614
11, 1985, unless the person was the holder of a permit or 69615
certificate of the types described in division (Z)(1) of this 69616
section;69617

       (3) A person who leases a motor vehicle to and operates it 69618
for a person described by division (Z)(1) or (2) of this section.69619

       (AA)(1) "Telecommunications service" means the electronic 69620
transmission, conveyance, or routing of voice, data, audio, video, 69621
or any other information or signals to a point, or between or 69622
among points. "Telecommunications service" includes such 69623
transmission, conveyance, or routing in which computer processing 69624
applications are used to act on the form, code, or protocol of the 69625
content for purposes of transmission, conveyance, or routing 69626
without regard to whether the service is referred to as voice-over 69627
internet protocol service or is classified by the federal 69628
communications commission as enhanced or value-added. 69629
"Telecommunications service" does not include any of the 69630
following:69631

        (a) Data processing and information services that allow data 69632
to be generated, acquired, stored, processed, or retrieved and 69633
delivered by an electronic transmission to a consumer where the 69634
consumer's primary purpose for the underlying transaction is the 69635
processed data or information;69636

        (b) Installation or maintenance of wiring or equipment on a 69637
customer's premises;69638

        (c) Tangible personal property;69639

       (d) Advertising, including directory advertising;69640

        (e) Billing and collection services provided to third 69641
parties;69642

        (f) Internet access service;69643

        (g) Radio and television audio and video programming 69644
services, regardless of the medium, including the furnishing of 69645
transmission, conveyance, and routing of such services by the 69646
programming service provider. Radio and television audio and video 69647
programming services include, but are not limited to, cable 69648
service, as defined in 47 U.S.C. 522(6), and audio and video 69649
programming services delivered by commercial mobile radio service 69650
providers, as defined in 47 C.F.R. 20.3;69651

        (h) Ancillary service;69652

        (i) Digital products delivered electronically, including 69653
software, music, video, reading materials, or ring tones.69654

        (2) "Ancillary service" means a service that is associated 69655
with or incidental to the provision of telecommunications service, 69656
including conference bridging service, detailed telecommunications 69657
billing service, directory assistance, vertical service, and voice 69658
mail service. As used in this division:69659

        (a) "Conference bridging service" means an ancillary service 69660
that links two or more participants of an audio or video 69661
conference call, including providing a telephone number. 69662
"Conference bridging service" does not include telecommunications 69663
services used to reach the conference bridge.69664

        (b) "Detailed telecommunications billing service" means an 69665
ancillary service of separately stating information pertaining to 69666
individual calls on a customer's billing statement.69667

        (c) "Directory assistance" means an ancillary service of 69668
providing telephone number or address information.69669

        (d) "Vertical service" means an ancillary service that is 69670
offered in connection with one or more telecommunications 69671
services, which offers advanced calling features that allow 69672
customers to identify callers and manage multiple calls and call 69673
connections, including conference bridging service.69674

        (e) "Voice mail service" means an ancillary service that 69675
enables the customer to store, send, or receive recorded messages. 69676
"Voice mail service" does not include any vertical services that 69677
the customer may be required to have in order to utilize the voice 69678
mail service.69679

        (3) "900 service" means an inbound toll telecommunications 69680
service purchased by a subscriber that allows the subscriber's 69681
customers to call in to the subscriber's prerecorded announcement 69682
or live service, and which is typically marketed under the name 69683
"900" service and any subsequent numbers designated by the federal 69684
communications commission. "900 service" does not include the 69685
charge for collection services provided by the seller of the 69686
telecommunications service to the subscriber, or services or 69687
products sold by the subscriber to the subscriber's customer.69688

        (4) "Prepaid calling service" means the right to access 69689
exclusively telecommunications services, which must be paid for in 69690
advance and which enables the origination of calls using an access 69691
number or authorization code, whether manually or electronically 69692
dialed, and that is sold in predetermined units ofor dollars of 69693
which the number declines with use in a known amount.69694

        (5) "Prepaid wireless calling service" means a 69695
telecommunications service that provides the right to utilize 69696
mobile telecommunications service as well as other 69697
non-telecommunications services, including the download of digital 69698
products delivered electronically, and content and ancillary 69699
services, that must be paid for in advance and that is sold in 69700
predetermined units ofor dollars of which the number declines 69701
with use in a known amount.69702

        (6) "Value-added non-voice data service" means a 69703
telecommunications service in which computer processing 69704
applications are used to act on the form, content, code, or 69705
protocol of the information or data primarily for a purpose other 69706
than transmission, conveyance, or routing.69707

        (7) "Coin-operated telephone service" means a 69708
telecommunications service paid for by inserting money into a 69709
telephone accepting direct deposits of money to operate.69710

        (8) "Customer" has the same meaning as in section 5739.034 of 69711
the Revised Code.69712

       (BB) "Laundry and dry cleaning services" means removing soil 69713
or dirt from towels, linens, articles of clothing, or other fabric 69714
items that belong to others and supplying towels, linens, articles 69715
of clothing, or other fabric items. "Laundry and dry cleaning 69716
services" does not include the provision of self-service 69717
facilities for use by consumers to remove soil or dirt from 69718
towels, linens, articles of clothing, or other fabric items.69719

       (CC) "Magazines distributed as controlled circulation 69720
publications" means magazines containing at least twenty-four 69721
pages, at least twenty-five per cent editorial content, issued at 69722
regular intervals four or more times a year, and circulated 69723
without charge to the recipient, provided that such magazines are 69724
not owned or controlled by individuals or business concerns which 69725
conduct such publications as an auxiliary to, and essentially for 69726
the advancement of the main business or calling of, those who own 69727
or control them.69728

       (DD) "Landscaping and lawn care service" means the services 69729
of planting, seeding, sodding, removing, cutting, trimming, 69730
pruning, mulching, aerating, applying chemicals, watering, 69731
fertilizing, and providing similar services to establish, promote, 69732
or control the growth of trees, shrubs, flowers, grass, ground 69733
cover, and other flora, or otherwise maintaining a lawn or 69734
landscape grown or maintained by the owner for ornamentation or 69735
other nonagricultural purpose. However, "landscaping and lawn care 69736
service" does not include the providing of such services by a 69737
person who has less than five thousand dollars in sales of such 69738
services during the calendar year.69739

       (EE) "Private investigation and security service" means the 69740
performance of any activity for which the provider of such service 69741
is required to be licensed pursuant to Chapter 4749. of the 69742
Revised Code, or would be required to be so licensed in performing 69743
such services in this state, and also includes the services of 69744
conducting polygraph examinations and of monitoring or overseeing 69745
the activities on or in, or the condition of, the consumer's home, 69746
business, or other facility by means of electronic or similar 69747
monitoring devices. "Private investigation and security service" 69748
does not include special duty services provided by off-duty police 69749
officers, deputy sheriffs, and other peace officers regularly 69750
employed by the state or a political subdivision.69751

       (FF) "Information services" means providing conversation, 69752
giving consultation or advice, playing or making a voice or other 69753
recording, making or keeping a record of the number of callers, 69754
and any other service provided to a consumer by means of a nine 69755
hundred telephone call, except when the nine hundred telephone 69756
call is the means by which the consumer makes a contribution to a 69757
recognized charity.69758

       (GG) "Research and development" means designing, creating, or 69759
formulating new or enhanced products, equipment, or manufacturing 69760
processes, and also means conducting scientific or technological 69761
inquiry and experimentation in the physical sciences with the goal 69762
of increasing scientific knowledge which may reveal the bases for 69763
new or enhanced products, equipment, or manufacturing processes.69764

       (HH) "Qualified research and development equipment" means 69765
capitalized tangible personal property, and leased personal 69766
property that would be capitalized if purchased, used by a person 69767
primarily to perform research and development. Tangible personal 69768
property primarily used in testing, as defined in division (A)(4) 69769
of section 5739.011 of the Revised Code, or used for recording or 69770
storing test results, is not qualified research and development 69771
equipment unless such property is primarily used by the consumer 69772
in testing the product, equipment, or manufacturing process being 69773
created, designed, or formulated by the consumer in the research 69774
and development activity or in recording or storing such test 69775
results.69776

       (II) "Building maintenance and janitorial service" means 69777
cleaning the interior or exterior of a building and any tangible 69778
personal property located therein or thereon, including any 69779
services incidental to such cleaning for which no separate charge 69780
is made. However, "building maintenance and janitorial service" 69781
does not include the providing of such service by a person who has 69782
less than five thousand dollars in sales of such service during 69783
the calendar year.69784

       (JJ) "Employment service" means providing or supplying 69785
personnel, on a temporary or long-term basis, to perform work or 69786
labor under the supervision or control of another, when the 69787
personnel so provided or supplied receive their wages, salary, or 69788
other compensation from the provider or supplier of the employment 69789
service or from a third party that provided or supplied the 69790
personnel to the provider or supplier. "Employment service" does 69791
not include:69792

       (1) Acting as a contractor or subcontractor, where the 69793
personnel performing the work are not under the direct control of 69794
the purchaser.69795

       (2) Medical and health care services.69796

       (3) Supplying personnel to a purchaser pursuant to a contract 69797
of at least one year between the service provider and the 69798
purchaser that specifies that each employee covered under the 69799
contract is assigned to the purchaser on a permanent basis.69800

       (4) Transactions between members of an affiliated group, as 69801
defined in division (B)(3)(e) of this section.69802

       (5) Transactions where the personnel so provided or supplied 69803
by a provider or supplier to a purchaser of an employment service 69804
are then provided or supplied by that purchaser to a third party 69805
as an employment service, except "employment service" does include 69806
the transaction between that purchaser and the third party.69807

       (KK) "Employment placement service" means locating or finding 69808
employment for a person or finding or locating an employee to fill 69809
an available position.69810

       (LL) "Exterminating service" means eradicating or attempting 69811
to eradicate vermin infestations from a building or structure, or 69812
the area surrounding a building or structure, and includes 69813
activities to inspect, detect, or prevent vermin infestation of a 69814
building or structure.69815

       (MM) "Physical fitness facility service" means all 69816
transactions by which a membership is granted, maintained, or 69817
renewed, including initiation fees, membership dues, renewal fees, 69818
monthly minimum fees, and other similar fees and dues, by a 69819
physical fitness facility such as an athletic club, health spa, or 69820
gymnasium, which entitles the member to use the facility for 69821
physical exercise.69822

       (NN) "Recreation and sports club service" means all 69823
transactions by which a membership is granted, maintained, or 69824
renewed, including initiation fees, membership dues, renewal fees, 69825
monthly minimum fees, and other similar fees and dues, by a 69826
recreation and sports club, which entitles the member to use the 69827
facilities of the organization. "Recreation and sports club" means 69828
an organization that has ownership of, or controls or leases on a 69829
continuing, long-term basis, the facilities used by its members 69830
and includes an aviation club, gun or shooting club, yacht club, 69831
card club, swimming club, tennis club, golf club, country club, 69832
riding club, amateur sports club, or similar organization.69833

       (OO) "Livestock" means farm animals commonly raised for food, 69834
food production, or other agricultural purposes, including, but 69835
not limited to, cattle, sheep, goats, swine, poultry, and captive 69836
deer. "Livestock" does not include invertebrates, amphibians, 69837
reptiles, domestic pets, animals for use in laboratories or for 69838
exhibition, or other animals not commonly raised for food or food 69839
production.69840

       (PP) "Livestock structure" means a building or structure used 69841
exclusively for the housing, raising, feeding, or sheltering of 69842
livestock, and includes feed storage or handling structures and 69843
structures for livestock waste handling.69844

       (QQ) "Horticulture" means the growing, cultivation, and 69845
production of flowers, fruits, herbs, vegetables, sod, mushrooms, 69846
and nursery stock. As used in this division, "nursery stock" has 69847
the same meaning as in section 927.51 of the Revised Code.69848

       (RR) "Horticulture structure" means a building or structure 69849
used exclusively for the commercial growing, raising, or 69850
overwintering of horticultural products, and includes the area 69851
used for stocking, storing, and packing horticultural products 69852
when done in conjunction with the production of those products.69853

       (SS) "Newspaper" means an unbound publication bearing a title 69854
or name that is regularly published, at least as frequently as 69855
biweekly, and distributed from a fixed place of business to the 69856
public in a specific geographic area, and that contains a 69857
substantial amount of news matter of international, national, or 69858
local events of interest to the general public.69859

       (TT) "Professional racing team" means a person that employs 69860
at least twenty full-time employees for the purpose of conducting 69861
a motor vehicle racing business for profit. The person must 69862
conduct the business with the purpose of racing one or more motor 69863
racing vehicles in at least ten competitive professional racing 69864
events each year that comprise all or part of a motor racing 69865
series sanctioned by one or more motor racing sanctioning 69866
organizations. A "motor racing vehicle" means a vehicle for which 69867
the chassis, engine, and parts are designed exclusively for motor 69868
racing, and does not include a stock or production model vehicle 69869
that may be modified for use in racing. For the purposes of this 69870
division:69871

       (1) A "competitive professional racing event" is a motor 69872
vehicle racing event sanctioned by one or more motor racing 69873
sanctioning organizations, at which aggregate cash prizes in 69874
excess of eight hundred thousand dollars are awarded to the 69875
competitors.69876

       (2) "Full-time employee" means an individual who is employed 69877
for consideration for thirty-five or more hours a week, or who 69878
renders any other standard of service generally accepted by custom 69879
or specified by contract as full-time employment.69880

        (UU)(1) "Lease" or "rental" means any transfer of the 69881
possession or control of tangible personal property for a fixed or 69882
indefinite term, for consideration. "Lease" or "rental" includes 69883
future options to purchase or extend, and agreements described in 69884
26 U.S.C. 7701(h)(1) covering motor vehicles and trailers where 69885
the amount of consideration may be increased or decreased by 69886
reference to the amount realized upon the sale or disposition of 69887
the property. "Lease" or "rental" does not include:69888

       (a) A transfer of possession or control of tangible personal 69889
property under a security agreement or a deferred payment plan 69890
that requires the transfer of title upon completion of the 69891
required payments;69892

       (b) A transfer of possession or control of tangible personal 69893
property under an agreement that requires the transfer of title 69894
upon completion of required payments and payment of an option 69895
price that does not exceed the greater of one hundred dollars or 69896
one per cent of the total required payments;69897

       (c) Providing tangible personal property along with an 69898
operator for a fixed or indefinite period of time, if the operator 69899
is necessary for the property to perform as designed. For purposes 69900
of this division, the operator must do more than maintain, 69901
inspect, or set-up the tangible personal property.69902

       (2) "Lease" and "rental," as defined in division (UU) of this 69903
section, shall not apply to leases or rentals that exist before 69904
June 26, 2003.69905

       (3) "Lease" and "rental" have the same meaning as in division 69906
(UU)(1) of this section regardless of whether a transaction is 69907
characterized as a lease or rental under generally accepted 69908
accounting principles, the Internal Revenue Code, Title XIII of 69909
the Revised Code, or other federal, state, or local laws.69910

       (VV) "Mobile telecommunications service" has the same meaning 69911
as in the "Mobile Telecommunications Sourcing Act," Pub. L. No. 69912
106-252, 114 Stat. 631 (2000), 4 U.S.C.A. 124(7), as amended, and, 69913
on and after August 1, 2003, includes related fees and ancillary 69914
services, including universal service fees, detailed billing 69915
service, directory assistance, service initiation, voice mail 69916
service, and vertical services, such as caller ID and three-way 69917
calling.69918

       (WW) "Certified service provider" has the same meaning as in 69919
section 5740.01 of the Revised Code.69920

       (XX) "Satellite broadcasting service" means the distribution 69921
or broadcasting of programming or services by satellite directly 69922
to the subscriber's receiving equipment without the use of ground 69923
receiving or distribution equipment, except the subscriber's 69924
receiving equipment or equipment used in the uplink process to the 69925
satellite, and includes all service and rental charges, premium 69926
channels or other special services, installation and repair 69927
service charges, and any other charges having any connection with 69928
the provision of the satellite broadcasting service.69929

       (YY) "Tangible personal property" means personal property 69930
that can be seen, weighed, measured, felt, or touched, or that is 69931
in any other manner perceptible to the senses. For purposes of 69932
this chapter and Chapter 5741. of the Revised Code, "tangible 69933
personal property" includes motor vehicles, electricity, water, 69934
gas, steam, and prewritten computer software.69935

       (ZZ) "Direct mail" means printed material delivered or 69936
distributed by United States mail or other delivery service to a 69937
mass audience or to addressees on a mailing list provided by the 69938
consumer or at the direction of the consumer when the cost of the 69939
items are not billed directly to the recipients. "Direct mail" 69940
includes tangible personal property supplied directly or 69941
indirectly by the consumer to the direct mail vendor for inclusion 69942
in the package containing the printed material. "Direct mail" does 69943
not include multiple items of printed material delivered to a 69944
single address.69945

       (AAA) "Computer" means an electronic device that accepts 69946
information in digital or similar form and manipulates it for a 69947
result based on a sequence of instructions.69948

       (BBB) "Computer software" means a set of coded instructions 69949
designed to cause a computer or automatic data processing 69950
equipment to perform a task.69951

       (CCC) "Delivered electronically" means delivery of computer 69952
software from the seller to the purchaser by means other than 69953
tangible storage media.69954

       (DDD) "Prewritten computer software" means computer software, 69955
including prewritten upgrades, that is not designed and developed 69956
by the author or other creator to the specifications of a specific 69957
purchaser. The combining of two or more prewritten computer 69958
software programs or prewritten portions thereof does not cause 69959
the combination to be other than prewritten computer software. 69960
"Prewritten computer software" includes software designed and 69961
developed by the author or other creator to the specifications of 69962
a specific purchaser when it is sold to a person other than the 69963
purchaser. If a person modifies or enhances computer software of 69964
which the person is not the author or creator, the person shall be 69965
deemed to be the author or creator only of such person's 69966
modifications or enhancements. Prewritten computer software or a 69967
prewritten portion thereof that is modified or enhanced to any 69968
degree, where such modification or enhancement is designed and 69969
developed to the specifications of a specific purchaser, remains 69970
prewritten computer software; provided, however, that where there 69971
is a reasonable, separately stated charge or an invoice or other 69972
statement of the price given to the purchaser for the modification 69973
or enhancement, the modification or enhancement shall not 69974
constitute prewritten computer software.69975

       (EEE)(1) "Food" means substances, whether in liquid, 69976
concentrated, solid, frozen, dried, or dehydrated form, that are 69977
sold for ingestion or chewing by humans and are consumed for their 69978
taste or nutritional value. "Food" does not include alcoholic 69979
beverages, dietary supplements, soft drinks, or tobacco.69980

       (2) As used in division (EEE)(1) of this section:69981

       (a) "Alcoholic beverages" means beverages that are suitable 69982
for human consumption and contain one-half of one per cent or more 69983
of alcohol by volume.69984

       (b) "Dietary supplements" means any product, other than 69985
tobacco, that is intended to supplement the diet and that is 69986
intended for ingestion in tablet, capsule, powder, softgel, 69987
gelcap, or liquid form, or, if not intended for ingestion in such 69988
a form, is not represented as conventional food for use as a sole 69989
item of a meal or of the diet; that is required to be labeled as a 69990
dietary supplement, identifiable by the "supplement facts" box 69991
found on the label, as required by 21 C.F.R. 101.36; and that 69992
contains one or more of the following dietary ingredients:69993

       (i) A vitamin;69994

       (ii) A mineral;69995

       (iii) An herb or other botanical;69996

       (iv) An amino acid;69997

       (v) A dietary substance for use by humans to supplement the 69998
diet by increasing the total dietary intake;69999

       (vi) A concentrate, metabolite, constituent, extract, or 70000
combination of any ingredient described in divisions 70001
(EEE)(2)(b)(i) to (v) of this section.70002

       (c) "Soft drinks" means nonalcoholic beverages that contain 70003
natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft drinks" does not include 70004
beverages that contain milk or milk products, soy, rice, or 70005
similar milk substitutes, or that contains greater than fifty per 70006
cent vegetable or fruit juice by volume.70007

       (d) "Tobacco" means cigarettes, cigars, chewing or pipe 70008
tobacco, or any other item that contains tobacco.70009

       (FFF) "Drug" means a compound, substance, or preparation, and 70010
any component of a compound, substance, or preparation, other than 70011
food, dietary supplements, or alcoholic beverages that is 70012
recognized in the official United States pharmacopoeia, official 70013
homeopathic pharmacopoeia of the United States, or official 70014
national formulary, and supplements to them; is intended for use 70015
in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of 70016
disease; or is intended to affect the structure or any function of 70017
the body.70018

       (GGG) "Prescription" means an order, formula, or recipe 70019
issued in any form of oral, written, electronic, or other means of 70020
transmission by a duly licensed practitioner authorized by the 70021
laws of this state to issue a prescription.70022

       (HHH) "Durable medical equipment" means equipment, including 70023
repair and replacement parts for such equipment, that can 70024
withstand repeated use, is primarily and customarily used to serve 70025
a medical purpose, generally is not useful to a person in the 70026
absence of illness or injury, and is not worn in or on the body. 70027
"Durable medical equipment" does not include mobility enhancing 70028
equipment.70029

       (III) "Mobility enhancing equipment" means equipment, 70030
including repair and replacement parts for such equipment, that is 70031
primarily and customarily used to provide or increase the ability 70032
to move from one place to another and is appropriate for use 70033
either in a home or a motor vehicle, that is not generally used by 70034
persons with normal mobility, and that does not include any motor 70035
vehicle or equipment on a motor vehicle normally provided by a 70036
motor vehicle manufacturer. "Mobility enhancing equipment" does 70037
not include durable medical equipment.70038

       (JJJ) "Prosthetic device" means a replacement, corrective, or 70039
supportive device, including repair and replacement parts for the 70040
device, worn on or in the human body to artificially replace a 70041
missing portion of the body, prevent or correct physical deformity 70042
or malfunction, or support a weak or deformed portion of the body. 70043
As used in this division, "prosthetic device" does not include 70044
corrective eyeglasses, contact lenses, or dental prosthesis.70045

       (KKK)(1) "Fractional aircraft ownership program" means a 70046
program in which persons within an affiliated group sell and 70047
manage fractional ownership program aircraft, provided that at 70048
least one hundred airworthy aircraft are operated in the program 70049
and the program meets all of the following criteria:70050

       (a) Management services are provided by at least one program 70051
manager within an affiliated group on behalf of the fractional 70052
owners.70053

       (b) Each program aircraft is owned or possessed by at least 70054
one fractional owner.70055

       (c) Each fractional owner owns or possesses at least a 70056
one-sixteenth interest in at least one fixed-wing program 70057
aircraft.70058

       (d) A dry-lease aircraft interchange arrangement is in effect 70059
among all of the fractional owners.70060

       (e) Multi-year program agreements are in effect regarding the 70061
fractional ownership, management services, and dry-lease aircraft 70062
interchange arrangement aspects of the program.70063

       (2) As used in division (KKK)(1) of this section:70064

       (a) "Affiliated group" has the same meaning as in division 70065
(B)(3)(e) of this section.70066

        (b) "Fractional owner" means a person that owns or possesses 70067
at least a one-sixteenth interest in a program aircraft and has 70068
entered into the agreements described in division (KKK)(1)(e) of 70069
this section.70070

       (c) "Fractional ownership program aircraft" or "program 70071
aircraft" means a turbojet aircraft that is owned or possessed by 70072
a fractional owner and that has been included in a dry-lease 70073
aircraft interchange arrangement and agreement under divisions 70074
(KKK)(1)(d) and (e) of this section, or an aircraft a program 70075
manager owns or possesses primarily for use in a fractional 70076
aircraft ownership program.70077

       (d) "Management services" means administrative and aviation 70078
support services furnished under a fractional aircraft ownership 70079
program in accordance with a management services agreement under 70080
division (KKK)(1)(e) of this section, and offered by the program 70081
manager to the fractional owners, including, at a minimum, the 70082
establishment and implementation of safety guidelines; the 70083
coordination of the scheduling of the program aircraft and crews; 70084
program aircraft maintenance; program aircraft insurance; crew 70085
training for crews employed, furnished, or contracted by the 70086
program manager or the fractional owner; the satisfaction of 70087
record-keeping requirements; and the development and use of an 70088
operations manual and a maintenance manual for the fractional 70089
aircraft ownership program.70090

       (e) "Program manager" means the person that offers management 70091
services to fractional owners pursuant to a management services 70092
agreement under division (KKK)(1)(e) of this section.70093

       (LLL) "Electronic publishing" means providing access to one 70094
or more of the following primarily for business customers, 70095
including the federal government or a state government or a 70096
political subdivision thereof, to conduct research: news; 70097
business, financial, legal, consumer, or credit materials; 70098
editorials, columns, reader commentary, or features; photos or 70099
images; archival or research material; legal notices, identity 70100
verification, or public records; scientific, educational, 70101
instructional, technical, professional, trade, or other literary 70102
materials; or other similar information which has been gathered 70103
and made available by the provider to the consumer in an 70104
electronic format. Providing electronic publishing includes the 70105
functions necessary for the acquisition, formatting, editing, 70106
storage, and dissemination of data or information that is the 70107
subject of a sale.70108

       (MMM) "Medicaid health insuring corporation" means a health 70109
insuring corporation that holds a certificate of authority under 70110
Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code and is under contract with the 70111
department of job and family services pursuant to section 5111.17 70112
of the Revised Code.70113

       (NNN) "Managed care premium" means any premium, capitation, 70114
or other payment a medicaid health insuring corporation receives 70115
for providing or arranging for the provision of health care 70116
services to its members or enrollees residing in this state.70117

       (OOO) "Captive deer" means deer and other cervidae that have 70118
been legally acquired, or their offspring, that are privately 70119
owned for agricultural or farming purposes.70120

       (PPP) "Gift card" means a document, card, certificate, or 70121
other record, whether tangible or intangible, that may be redeemed 70122
by a consumer for a dollar value when making a purchase of 70123
tangible personal property or services.70124

       Sec. 5743.03. (A) Except as provided in section 5743.04 of 70125
the Revised Code, the taxes imposed under sections 5743.02, 70126
5743.021, 5743.024, and 5743.026 of the Revised Code shall be paid 70127
by the purchase of stamps. A stamp shall be affixed to each 70128
package of an aggregate denomination not less than the amount of 70129
the tax upon the contents thereof. The stamp, so affixed, shall be 70130
prima-facie evidence of payment of the tax. 70131

       Except as is provided in the rules prescribed by the tax 70132
commissioner under authority of sections 5743.01 to 5743.20 of the 70133
Revised Code, and unless tax stamps have been previously affixed, 70134
they shall be so affixed by each wholesale dealer, and canceled by 70135
writing or stamping across the face thereof the number assigned to 70136
such wholesale dealer by the tax commissioner for that purpose, 70137
prior to the delivery of any cigarettes to any person in this 70138
state, or in the case of a tax levied pursuant to section 70139
5743.021, 5743.024, or 5743.026 of the Revised Code, prior to the 70140
delivery of cigarettes to any person in the county in which the 70141
tax is levied.70142

       (B) Except as provided in the rules prescribed by the 70143
commissioner under authority of sections 5743.01 to 5743.20 of the 70144
Revised Code, each retail dealer, within twenty-four hours after 70145
the receipt of any cigarettes at the retail dealer's place of 70146
business, shall inspect the cigarettes to ensure that tax stamps 70147
are affixed. The inspection shall be completed before the 70148
cigarettes are delivered to any person in this state, or, in the 70149
case of a tax levied pursuant to section 5743.021, 5743.024, or 70150
5743.026 of the Revised Code, before the cigarettes are delivered 70151
to any person in the county in which the tax is levied.70152

       (C) Whenever any cigarettes are found in the place of 70153
business of any retail dealer without proper tax stamps affixed 70154
thereto and canceled, it is presumed that such cigarettes are kept 70155
therein in violation of sections 5743.01 to 5743.20 of the Revised 70156
Code.70157

       (D) Each wholesale dealer who purchases cigarettes without 70158
proper tax stamps affixed thereto shall, on or before the 70159
thirty-first day of the month following the close of each 70160
semiannual period, which period shall end on the thirtieth day of 70161
June and the thirty-first day of December of each year, make and 70162
file a return of the preceding semiannual period, on such form as 70163
is prescribed by the tax commissioner, showing the dealer's entire 70164
purchases and sales of cigarettes and stamps or impressions for 70165
such semiannual period and accurate inventories as of the 70166
beginning and end of each semiannual period of cigarettes, stamped 70167
or unstamped; cigarette tax stamps affixed or unaffixed and unused 70168
meter impressions; and such other information as the commissioner 70169
finds necessary to the proper administration of sections 5743.01 70170
to 5743.20 of the Revised Code. The commissioner may extend the 70171
time for making and filing returns and may remit all or any part 70172
of amounts of penalties that may become due under sections 5743.01 70173
to 5743.20 of the Revised Code. The wholesale dealer shall deliver 70174
the return together with a remittance of the tax deficiency 70175
reported thereon to the treasurer of state. The treasurer of state 70176
shall stamp or otherwise mark on the return the date it was 70177
received and shall also show thereon by stamp or otherwise a 70178
payment or nonpayment of the deficiency shown by the return. 70179
Thereafter, the treasurer of state shall immediately transmit all 70180
returns filed under this section to the commissioner.70181

       (E) Any wholesale dealer who fails to file a return under 70182
this section and the rules of the commissioner, other than a 70183
report required pursuant to division (F) of this section, may be 70184
required, for each day the dealer so fails, to forfeit and pay 70185
into the state treasury the sum of one dollar as revenue arising 70186
from the tax imposed by sections 5743.01 to 5743.20 of the Revised 70187
Code and such sum may be collected by assessment in the manner 70188
provided in section 5743.081 of the Revised Code. If the 70189
commissioner finds it necessary in order to insure the payment of 70190
the tax imposed by sections 5743.01 to 5743.20 of the Revised 70191
Code, the commissioner may require returns and payments to be made 70192
other than semiannually. The returns shall be signed by the 70193
wholesale dealer or an authorized agent thereof.70194

       (F) Each person required to file a tax return under section 70195
5743.03, 5743.52, or 5743.62 of the Revised Code shall report to 70196
the commissioner the quantity of all cigarettes and roll-your-own 70197
cigarette tobacco sold in Ohio for each brand not covered by the 70198
tobacco master settlement agreement for which the person is liable 70199
for the taxes levied under section 5743.02, 5743.51, or 5743.62 of 70200
the Revised Code.70201

       As used in this division, "tobacco master settlement 70202
agreement" has the same meaning as in section 183.01 of the 70203
Revised Code.70204

       (G) The report required by division (F) of this section shall 70205
be made on a form prescribed by the commissioner and shall be 70206
filed not later than the last day of each month for the previous 70207
month, except that if the commissioner determines that the 70208
quantity reported by a person does not warrant monthly reporting, 70209
the commissioner may authorize reporting at less frequent 70210
intervals. The commissioner may assess a penalty of not more than 70211
two hundred fifty dollars for each month or portion thereof that a 70212
person fails to timely file a required report, and such sum may be 70213
collected by assessment in the manner provided in section 5743.081 70214
of the Revised Code. All money collected under this division shall 70215
be considered as revenue arising from the taxes imposed by 70216
sections 5743.01 to 5743.20 of the Revised Code.70217

       (H) The treasurer of state or an agent of the treasurer may 70218
sell cigarette tax stamps only to licensed wholesale or retail 70219
cigarette dealers, except as otherwise authorized by the tax 70220
commissioner, and may charge costs related to the sale of 70221
cigarette stamps to a purchasing dealer. Money collected from such 70222
charges shall be credited to the treasurer of state's 70223
administrative fund created under section 113.20 of the Revised 70224
Code.70225

       Sec. 5743.031.  (A) A wholesale dealer may affix stamps only 70226
to packages of cigarettes that the dealer received directly from a 70227
manufacturer or importer of cigarettes that possesses a valid and 70228
current license under section 5743.15 of the Revised Code, or to 70229
packages of cigarettes that the dealer received from another 70230
wholesale dealer that possesses a valid and current license under 70231
section 5743.15 of the Revised Code, provided that the tax 70232
commissioner has authorized the sale of the cigarettes between 70233
those wholesale dealers and that the wholesale dealer that sells 70234
the cigarettes received them directly from a manufacturer or 70235
importer of cigarettes that possesses a valid and current license 70236
under section 5743.15 of the Revised Code.70237

       (B) Only a wholesale dealer that possesses a valid and 70238
current license under section 5743.15 of the Revised Code may 70239
purchase or obtain tax stamps. A wholesale dealer may not sell or 70240
provide such stamps to any other wholesale dealer or any other 70241
person.70242

       (C) Any person shipping unstamped packages of cigarettes into 70243
this state to a person other than a wholesale dealer licensed 70244
under section 5743.15 of the Revised Code shall, before such 70245
shipment, file notice of the shipment with the tax commissioner. 70246
Any person that transports unstamped packages of cigarettes into 70247
or within this state shall carry in the vehicle used to convey the 70248
shipment invoices or equivalent documentation of the shipment for 70249
all cigarettes in the shipment. The invoices or other 70250
documentation shall show the true name and address of the 70251
consignor or seller, the true name and address of the consignee or 70252
purchaser, and the quantity of the cigarettes being transported. 70253
This division does not apply to any common or contractfor-hire 70254
motor carrier transporting cigarettes through this state to 70255
another location under a proper bill of lading or freight bill 70256
that states the quantity, source, and destination of the 70257
cigarettes.70258

       Sec. 5751.033.  For the purposes of this chapter, gross 70259
receipts shall be sitused to this state as follows:70260

       (A) Gross rents and royalties from real property located in 70261
this state shall be sitused to this state.70262

       (B) Gross rents and royalties from tangible personal property 70263
shall be sitused to this state to the extent the tangible personal 70264
property is located or used in this state.70265

       (C) Gross receipts from the sale of electricity and electric 70266
transmission and distribution services shall be sitused to this 70267
state in the manner provided under section 5733.059 of the Revised 70268
Code.70269

       (D) Gross receipts from the sale of real property located in 70270
this state shall be sitused to this state.70271

       (E) Gross receipts from the sale of tangible personal 70272
property shall be sitused to this state if the property is 70273
received in this state by the purchaser. In the case of delivery 70274
of tangible personal property by commonmotor carrier or by other 70275
means of transportation, the place at which such property is 70276
ultimately received after all transportation has been completed 70277
shall be considered the place where the purchaser receives the 70278
property. For purposes of this section, the phrase "delivery of 70279
tangible personal property by commonmotor carrier or by other 70280
means of transportation" includes the situation in which a 70281
purchaser accepts the property in this state and then transports 70282
the property directly or by other means to a location outside this 70283
state. Direct delivery in this state, other than for purposes of 70284
transportation, to a person or firm designated by a purchaser 70285
constitutes delivery to the purchaser in this state, and direct 70286
delivery outside this state to a person or firm designated by a 70287
purchaser does not constitute delivery to the purchaser in this 70288
state, regardless of where title passes or other conditions of 70289
sale.70290

       (F) Gross receipts from the sale, exchange, disposition, or 70291
other grant of the right to use trademarks, trade names, patents, 70292
copyrights, and similar intellectual property shall be sitused to 70293
this state to the extent that the receipts are based on the amount 70294
of use of the property in this state. If the receipts are not 70295
based on the amount of use of the property, but rather on the 70296
right to use the property, and the payor has the right to use the 70297
property in this state, then the receipts from the sale, exchange, 70298
disposition, or other grant of the right to use such property 70299
shall be sitused to this state to the extent the receipts are 70300
based on the right to use the property in this state.70301

       (G) Gross receipts from the sale of transportation services 70302
by a common or contractmotor carrier shall be sitused to this 70303
state in proportion to the mileage traveled by the carrier during 70304
the tax period on roadways, waterways, airways, and railways in 70305
this state to the mileage traveled by the carrier during the tax 70306
period on roadways, waterways, airways, and railways everywhere. 70307
With prior written approval of the tax commissioner, a common or 70308
contractmotor carrier may use an alternative situsing procedure 70309
for transportation services.70310

        (H) Gross receipts from dividends, interest, and other 70311
sources of income from financial instruments described in 70312
divisions (F)(4), (5), (6), (7), (8), (9), (10), (11), and (13) of 70313
section 5733.056 of the Revised Code shall be sitused to this 70314
state in accordance with the situsing provisions set forth in 70315
those divisions. When applying the provisions of divisions (F)(6), 70316
(8), and (13) of section 5733.056 of the Revised Code, "gross 70317
receipts" shall be substituted for "net gains" wherever "net 70318
gains" appears in those divisions. Nothing in this division limits 70319
or modifies the exclusions enumerated in divisions (E) and (F)(2) 70320
of section 5751.01 of the Revised Code. The tax commissioner may 70321
promulgate rules to further specify the manner in which to situs 70322
gross receipts subject to this division.70323

        (I) Gross receipts from the sale of all other services, and 70324
all other gross receipts not otherwise sitused under this section, 70325
shall be sitused to this state in the proportion that the 70326
purchaser's benefit in this state with respect to what was 70327
purchased bears to the purchaser's benefit everywhere with respect 70328
to what was purchased. The physical location where the purchaser 70329
ultimately uses or receives the benefit of what was purchased 70330
shall be paramount in determining the proportion of the benefit in 70331
this state to the benefit everywhere. If a taxpayer's records do 70332
not allow the taxpayer to determine that location, the taxpayer 70333
may use an alternative method to situs gross receipts under this 70334
division if the alternative method is reasonable, is consistently 70335
and uniformly applied, and is supported by the taxpayer's records 70336
as the records exist when the service is provided or within a 70337
reasonable period of time thereafter.70338

       (J) If the situsing provisions of divisions (A) to (H) of 70339
this section do not fairly represent the extent of a person's 70340
activity in this state, the person may request, or the tax 70341
commissioner may require or permit, an alternative method. Such 70342
request by a person must be made within the applicable statute of 70343
limitations set forth in this chapter.70344

       (K) The tax commissioner may adopt rules to provide 70345
additional guidance to the application of this section, and 70346
provide alternative methods of situsing gross receipts that apply 70347
to all persons, or subset of persons, that are engaged in similar 70348
business or trade activities.70349

       (L) As used in this section, "motor carrier" has the same 70350
meaning as in section 4923.01 of the Revised Code.70351

       Sec. 5751.12.  The tax commissioner may prescribe 70352
requirements for the keeping of records and other pertinent 70353
documents, the filing of copies of federal income tax returns and 70354
determinations, and computations reconciling federal income tax 70355
returns with the returns and reports required by section 5751.05 70356
of the Revised Code. The commissioner may require any person, by 70357
rule or notice served on that person, to keep those records that 70358
the commissioner considers necessary to show whether, and the 70359
extent to which, a person is subject to this chapter. Those 70360
records and other documents shall be open during business hours to 70361
the inspection of the commissioner, and shall be preserved for a 70362
period of four years unless the commissioner, in writing, consents 70363
to their destruction within that period, or by order requires that 70364
they be kept longer. If such records are normally kept by the 70365
person electronically, the person shall provide such records to 70366
the commissioner electronically at the commissioner's request.70367

       Any information required by the tax commissioner under this 70368
chapter is confidential as provided for in section 5703.21 of the 70369
Revised Code. However, the commissioner shall make public an 70370
electronic list of all actively registered persons required to 70371
remit the tax under this chapter, including legal names, trade 70372
names, addresses, and account numbers. In addition, such list 70373
shall include all persons that cancelled their registration at any 70374
time during the preceding four calendar years, including the date 70375
the registration was cancelled.70376

       Sec. 6109.21.  (A) Except as provided in divisions (D)(I) and 70377
(E)(J) of this section, on and after January 1, 1994, no person 70378
shall operate or maintain a public water system in this state 70379
without a license issued by the director of environmental 70380
protection. A person who operates or maintains a public water 70381
system on January 1, 1994, shall obtain an initial license under 70382
this section in accordance with the following schedule:70383

       (1) If the public water system is a community water system, 70384
not later than January 31, 1994; 70385

       (2) If the public water system is not a community water 70386
system and serves a nontransient population, not later than 70387
January 31, 1994;70388

       (3) If the public water system is not a community water 70389
system and serves a transient population, not later than January 70390
31, 1995.70391

       A person proposing to operate or maintain a new public water 70392
system after January 1, 1994, in addition to complying with 70393
section 6109.07 of the Revised Code and rules adopted under it, 70394
shall submit an application for an initial license under this 70395
section to the director prior to commencing operation of the 70396
system. 70397

       A license or license renewal issued under this section shall 70398
be renewed annually. Such a license or license renewal shall 70399
expire on the thirtieth day of January in the year following its 70400
issuance. A license holder that proposes to continue operating the 70401
public water system for which the license or license renewal was 70402
issued shall apply for a license renewal at least thirty days 70403
prior to that expiration date. 70404

       The director shall adopt, and may amend and rescind, rules in 70405
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing 70406
procedures governing and information to be included on 70407
applications for licenses and license renewals under this section. 70408
Through(B)(1) A person who proposes to operate a new public water 70409
system, in addition to complying with section 6109.07 of the 70410
Revised Code and rules adopted under it, shall obtain an initial 70411
license from the director. The person shall submit an application 70412
for the initial license at least forty-five days prior to 70413
commencing the operation of the system.70414

        (C) A license shall expire on the thirtieth day of January in 70415
the year following its issuance.70416

        (D) A license shall be renewed annually. A person proposing 70417
to continue operating a public water system shall apply for a 70418
license renewal at least thirty days prior to the expiration date 70419
of the license.70420

        (E) Through June 30, 2014, each application for a license or 70421
license renewal shall be accompanied by the appropriate fee 70422
established under division (M) of section 3745.11 of the Revised 70423
Code, provided that. However, an applicant for an initial license 70424
who is proposing to operate or maintain a new public water system 70425
after January 1, 1994, shall submit a fee that equals a prorated 70426
amount of the appropriate fee established under that division for 70427
the remainder of the licensing year.70428

       (B)(F) Not later than thirty days after receiving a completed 70429
application and the appropriate license fee for an initiala70430
license under division (A) of this section, the director shall 70431
issue theor license renewal for thea public water system. Not 70432
later than thirty days after receiving a completed application and 70433
the appropriate license fee for a license renewal under division 70434
(A) of this section, the director shall do one of the following:70435

       (1) Issue the license or license renewal for the public water 70436
system;70437

       (2) Issue the license or license renewal subject to terms and 70438
conditions that the director determines are necessary to ensure 70439
compliance with this chapter and rules adopted under it;70440

       (3) Deny the license or license renewal if the director finds 70441
that the public water system was notcannot be operated in 70442
substantial compliance with this chapter and rules adopted under 70443
it.70444

       (C)(G) The director may condition, suspend, or revoke a 70445
license or license renewal issued under this section at any time70446
if the director finds that the public water system was not or will 70447
not be operated in substantial compliance with this chapter and 70448
rules adopted under it. The director shall adopt, and may amend 70449
and rescind, rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 70450
Code governing such suspensions and revocations.70451

       (D)(H) The director shall adopt rules in accordance with 70452
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing procedures and 70453
requirements governing both of the following:70454

        (1) Information to be included on applications for licenses 70455
and license renewals issued under this section;70456

        (2) The issuance, conditioning, suspension, revocation, and 70457
denial of licenses and license renewals under this section. 70458

       (I)(1) As used in division (D)(I) of this section, "church" 70459
means a fellowship of believers, congregation, society, 70460
corporation, convention, or association that is formed primarily 70461
or exclusively for religious purposes and that is not formed or 70462
operated for the private profit of any person.70463

       (2) This section does not apply to a church that operates or 70464
maintains a public water system solely to provide water for that 70465
church or for a campground that is owned by the church and 70466
operated primarily or exclusively for members of the church and 70467
their families. A church that, on or before March 5, 1996, has 70468
obtained a license under this section for such a public water 70469
system need not obtain a license renewal under this section.70470

       (E)(J) This section does not apply to any public or nonpublic 70471
school that meets minimum standards of the state board of 70472
education that operates or maintains a public water system solely 70473
to provide water for that school.70474

       (F)(K) The environmental protection agency shall collect well 70475
log filing fees on behalf of the division of soil and water 70476
resources in the department of natural resources in accordance 70477
with section 1521.05 of the Revised Code and rules adopted under 70478
it. The fees shall be submitted to the division quarterly as 70479
provided in those rules.70480

       Sec. 6111.46.  (A) The environmental protection agency shall 70481
exercise general supervision of the treatment and disposal of 70482
sewage and industrial wastes and the operation and maintenance of 70483
works or means installed for the collection, treatment, and 70484
disposal of sewage and industrial wastes. Such general supervision 70485
shall apply to all features of construction, operation, and 70486
maintenance of the works or means that do or may affect the proper 70487
treatment and disposal of sewage and industrial wastes. 70488

       (B)(1) The agency shall investigate the works or means 70489
employed in the collection, treatment, and disposal of sewage and 70490
industrial wastes whenever considered necessary or whenever 70491
requested to do so by local health officials and may issue and 70492
enforce orders and shall adopt rules governing the operation and 70493
maintenance of the works or means of treatment and disposal of 70494
such sewage and industrial wastes. In adopting rules under this 70495
section, the agency shall establish standards governing the 70496
construction, operation, and maintenance of the works or means of 70497
collection, treatment, and disposal of sewage that is generated at 70498
recreational vehicle parks, recreation camps, combined park-camps, 70499
and temporary park-camps that are separate from such standards 70500
relative to manufactured home parks.70501

       (2) As used in division (B)(1) of this section:70502

       (a) "Manufactured home parks" has the same meaning as in 70503
section 3733.014781.01 of the Revised Code.70504

       (b) "Recreational vehicle parks," "recreation camps," 70505
"combined park-camps," and "temporary park-camps" have the same 70506
meanings as in section 3729.01 of the Revised Code.70507

       (C) The agency may require the submission of records and data 70508
of construction, operation, and maintenance, including plans and 70509
descriptions of existing works or means of treatment and disposal 70510
of such sewage and industrial wastes. When the agency requires the 70511
submission of such records or information, the public officials or 70512
person, firm, or corporation having the works in charge shall 70513
comply promptly with that order.70514

       Section 101.02. That existing sections 7.10, 7.16, 9.34, 70515
9.90, 9.91, 102.02, 103.51, 105.41, 109.57, 109.572, 121.04, 70516
121.08, 121.083, 121.084, 122.07, 123.01, 123.011, 123.024, 70517
123.04, 123.07, 123.08, 123.09, 123.10, 123.101, 123.11, 123.13, 70518
123.14, 123.15, 123.152, 123.17, 123.21, 123.46, 123.47, 123.48, 70519
123.49, 123.77, 124.04, 124.06, 124.11, 124.12, 124.14, 124.231, 70520
124.241, 124.25, 124.26, 124.27, 124.30, 124.31, 125.05, 125.082, 70521
125.14, 126.14, 140.01, 140.03, 140.05, 140.08, 145.01, 145.012, 70522
149.43, 152.09, 152.18, 152.24, 153.01, 153.011, 153.013, 153.02, 70523
153.04, 153.06, 153.07, 153.08, 153.09, 153.11, 153.12, 153.14, 70524
153.16, 153.17, 153.502, 153.503, 153.53, 154.25, 167.04, 173.14, 70525
173.21, 173.23, 173.26, 173.27, 173.391, 173.394, 173.40, 173.42, 70526
173.45, 173.46, 185.01, 185.02, 185.03, 185.05, 185.06, 185.07, 70527
185.09, 185.12, 306.04, 306.36, 306.55, 307.05, 307.051, 307.055, 70528
309.09, 313.121, 313.122, 313.16, 339.091, 340.03, 340.091, 70529
505.37, 505.375, 505.44, 505.72, 705.18, 901.54, 955.16, 955.26, 70530
991.02, 1121.23, 1155.03, 1163.05, 1315.141, 1321.37, 1321.53, 70531
1321.531, 1322.03, 1322.031, 1345.05, 1501.04, 1502.01, 1502.02, 70532
1502.03, 1502.04, 1502.05, 1502.06, 1502.07, 1502.12, 1502.99, 70533
1503.012, 1503.43, 1506.42, 1509.071, 1509.36, 1533.10, 1541.26, 70534
1551.33, 1555.02, 1555.03, 1555.04, 1555.05, 1555.06, 1571.14, 70535
1707.08, 1707.391, 1733.47, 1751.01, 1751.02, 1751.13, 1761.26, 70536
1901.18, 1909.11, 1923.01, 1923.02, 1923.061, 1923.15, 2151.86, 70537
2152.121, 2152.22, 2301.03, 2301.18, 2301.20, 2301.21, 2301.22, 70538
2301.23, 2301.24, 2301.25, 2301.26, 2301.27, 2301.271, 2301.571, 70539
2305.01, 2305.02, 2307.89, 2317.02, 2317.422, 2317.56, 2319.27, 70540
2501.02, 2501.16, 2501.17, 2743.01, 2743.02, 2743.09, 2743.10, 70541
2743.48, 2746.01, 2746.03, 2746.04, 2903.33, 2907.29, 2909.21, 70542
2909.28, 2927.023, 2929.01, 2929.19, 2939.11, 2945.371, 2945.38, 70543
2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, 2953.32, 2961.22, 2967.03, 2967.05, 70544
2967.14, 2967.19, 2967.191, 2967.26, 2967.28, 2981.11, 2981.14, 70545
3125.41, 3301.55, 3304.14, 3304.16, 3304.181, 3304.182, 3305.01, 70546
3305.02, 3305.03, 3305.04, 3305.05, 3305.053, 3305.06, 3313.603, 70547
3313.65, 3313.71, 3313.976, 3313.978, 3313.979, 3314.074, 3317.06, 70548
3317.50, 3317.51, 3318.034, 3318.08, 3318.10, 3318.30, 3318.31, 70549
3318.36, 3318.37, 3319.22, 3319.235, 3333.04, 3333.041, 3333.123, 70550
3333.21, 3333.60, 3333.61, 3333.71, 3333.72, 3333.82, 3333.90, 70551
3345.12, 3345.16, 3345.28, 3345.50, 3345.51, 3345.54, 3345.69, 70552
3345.692, 3347.03, 3353.01, 3353.05, 3353.06, 3353.07, 3353.11, 70553
3383.02, 3383.07, 3701.021, 3701.023, 3701.024, 3701.025, 3701.03, 70554
3701.05, 3701.07, 3701.072, 3701.11, 3701.132, 3701.146, 3701.161, 70555
3701.20, 3701.201, 3701.21, 3701.221, 3701.23, 3701.232, 3701.24, 70556
3701.241, 3701.242, 3701.248, 3701.341, 3701.342, 3701.343, 70557
3701.344, 3701.345, 3701.347, 3701.352, 3701.40, 3701.503, 70558
3701.507, 3701.508, 3701.509, 3701.57, 3701.63, 3701.74, 3701.87, 70559
3701.881, 3702.141, 3702.31, 3702.51, 3702.52, 3702.522, 3702.523, 70560
3702.524, 3702.525, 3702.526, 3702.53, 3702.531, 3702.54, 3702.55, 70561
3702.56, 3702.57, 3702.59, 3702.592, 3702.593, 3702.594, 3702.60, 70562
3702.62, 3703.01, 3703.03, 3703.04, 3703.05, 3703.06, 3703.07, 70563
3703.08, 3703.10, 3703.21, 3703.99, 3704.035, 3705.24, 3705.30, 70564
3706.19, 3709.03, 3709.04, 3709.06, 3709.085, 3709.09, 3709.092, 70565
3709.32, 3709.35, 3710.01, 3710.02, 3710.04, 3710.05, 3710.051, 70566
3710.06, 3710.07, 3710.08, 3710.09, 3710.10, 3710.12, 3710.13, 70567
3710.17, 3711.04, 3711.06, 3711.08, 3711.12, 3711.21, 3712.03, 70568
3712.04, 3712.09, 3713.01, 3713.02, 3713.03, 3713.04, 3713.05, 70569
3713.06, 3713.07, 3713.08, 3713.09, 3713.10, 3714.073, 3715.01, 70570
3715.025, 3715.60, 3715.61, 3715.62, 3715.68, 3716.01, 3716.03, 70571
3717.01, 3717.04, 3717.05, 3717.07, 3717.45, 3717.51, 3718.02, 70572
3718.021, 3718.022, 3718.05, 3718.06, 3718.07, 3718.09, 3719.06, 70573
3721.01, 3721.011, 3721.02, 3721.03, 3721.032, 3721.04, 3721.07, 70574
3721.071, 3721.121, 3721.13, 3721.21, 3721.28, 3721.29, 3721.50, 70575
3721.51, 3723.06, 3723.07, 3723.09, 3725.02, 3727.01, 3727.42, 70576
3729.01, 3729.02, 3729.03, 3729.04, 3729.07, 3729.08, 3730.10, 70577
3733.02, 3733.021, 3733.022, 3733.024, 3733.025, 3733.03, 3733.04, 70578
3733.05, 3733.06, 3733.07, 3733.08, 3733.09, 3733.091, 3733.10, 70579
3733.101, 3733.11, 3733.12, 3733.121, 3733.122, 3733.123, 3733.13, 70580
3733.14, 3733.15, 3733.16, 3733.17, 3733.18, 3733.19, 3733.20, 70581
3733.41, 3733.42, 3734.01, 3734.131, 3734.15, 3734.51, 3734.55, 70582
3734.79, 3734.82, 3735.37, 3737.83, 3737.841, 3742.01, 3742.02, 70583
3742.03, 3742.04, 3742.05, 3742.30, 3742.47, 3742.50, 3743.04, 70584
3743.06, 3743.19, 3743.25, 3745.01, 3745.05, 3745.11, 3745.112, 70585
3748.04, 3748.05, 3748.07, 3748.10, 3748.12, 3748.13, 3748.15, 70586
3748.20, 3749.02, 3749.03, 3749.04, 3752.06, 3770.06, 3781.03, 70587
3781.06, 3781.102, 3781.11, 3781.112, 3783.05, 3791.02, 3791.04, 70588
3791.05, 3791.07, 3791.11, 3791.12, 3793.04, 3793.09, 3905.36, 70589
4104.01, 4104.02, 4104.06, 4104.07, 4104.08, 4104.09, 4104.10, 70590
4104.101, 4104.12, 4104.15, 4104.16, 4104.17, 4104.18, 4104.19, 70591
4104.21, 4104.33, 4104.42, 4104.43, 4104.44, 4104.48, 4105.01, 70592
4105.02, 4105.03, 4105.04, 4105.05, 4105.06, 4105.09, 4105.11, 70593
4105.12, 4105.13, 4105.15, 4105.16, 4105.17, 4105.191, 4105.20, 70594
4105.21, 4115.10, 4115.101, 4121.123, 4121.30, 4123.20, 4163.07, 70595
4169.02, 4169.03, 4169.04, 4171.04, 4301.30, 4303.181, 4303.22, 70596
4313.02, 4501.01, 4501.06, 4503.031, 4503.061, 4503.062, 4503.49, 70597
4503.81, 4506.01, 4506.03, 4506.22, 4506.25, 4507.01, 4507.011, 70598
4507.12, 4507.51, 4510.037, 4510.038, 4511.191, 4511.78, 4513.263, 70599
4513.50, 4730.06, 4730.38, 4730.39, 4730.40, 4730.41, 4730.42, 70600
4731.22, 4731.293, 4736.01, 4740.03, 4740.11, 4740.14, 4743.05, 70601
4763.05, 4765.02, 4765.03, 4765.04, 4765.05, 4765.06, 4765.07, 70602
4765.08, 4765.09, 4765.10, 4765.101, 4765.102, 4765.11, 4765.111, 70603
4765.112, 4765.113, 4765.114, 4765.115, 4765.116, 4765.12, 70604
4765.15, 4765.16, 4765.17, 4765.18, 4765.22, 4765.23, 4765.28, 70605
4765.29, 4765.30, 4765.31, 4765.32, 4765.33, 4765.37, 4765.38, 70606
4765.39, 4765.40, 4765.42, 4765.48, 4765.49, 4765.55, 4765.56, 70607
4766.01, 4766.03, 4766.04, 4766.05, 4766.07, 4766.08, 4766.09, 70608
4766.10, 4766.11, 4766.12, 4766.13, 4766.15, 4766.22, 4773.08, 70609
4781.01, 4781.02, 4781.04, 4781.07, 4781.09, 4781.14, 4781.15, 70610
4781.99, 4905.01, 4905.02, 4905.03, 4905.05, 4905.06, 4905.402, 70611
4905.54, 4905.57, 4905.58, 4905.84, 4905.90, 4907.01, 4907.02, 70612
4907.04, 4907.08, 4907.19, 4907.28, 4907.35, 4907.37, 4907.43, 70613
4907.49, 4907.57, 4907.59, 4907.60, 4907.61, 4907.62, 4909.01, 70614
4909.02, 4909.03, 4909.17, 4909.22, 4909.24, 4909.28, 4911.01, 70615
4927.01, 4929.01, 4929.02, 4929.041, 4933.18, 4933.19, 4939.01, 70616
4953.04, 4961.03, 4965.54, 5101.46, 5101.60, 5101.61, 5104.012, 70617
5104.013, 5104.051, 5104.09, 5104.37, 5107.05, 5111.031, 5111.032, 70618
5111.033, 5111.034, 5111.06, 5111.091, 5111.113, 5111.171, 70619
5111.20, 5111.222, 5111.23, 5111.242, 5111.254, 5111.862, 70620
5111.874, 5111.877, 5111.878, 5111.894, 5111.941, 5111.97, 70621
5112.31, 5112.33, 5112.341, 5112.37, 5112.371, 5112.39, 5119.22, 70622
5119.61, 5119.69, 5119.691, 5119.692, 5119.99, 5120.036, 5120.105, 70623
5120.132, 5120.66, 5122.31, 5123.01, 5123.033, 5123.042, 5123.044, 70624
5123.0412, 5123.0414, 5123.0415, 5123.081, 5123.16, 5123.161, 70625
5123.162, 5123.163, 5123.164, 5123.166, 5123.169, 5123.171, 70626
5123.19, 5123.31, 5123.38, 5123.41, 5123.50, 5123.51, 5123.542, 70627
5123.61, 5123.89, 5126.023, 5126.0220, 5126.0221, 5126.043, 70628
5126.046, 5126.055, 5126.13, 5126.15, 5126.20, 5126.21, 5126.22, 70629
5126.25, 5126.251, 5126.51, 5139.41, 5139.43, 5149.311, 5153.18, 70630
5155.14, 5501.04, 5501.07, 5502.01, 5502.011, 5503.02, 5503.04, 70631
5503.21, 5503.22, 5503.23, 5503.34, 5701.13, 5703.05, 5705.08, 70632
5705.19, 5705.25, 5705.28, 5705.30, 5705.34, 5705.35, 5705.38, 70633
5709.12, 5709.212, 5709.73, 5709.75, 5719.13, 5725.14, 5725.15, 70634
5725.16, 5725.17, 5725.22, 5725.221, 5731.39, 5733.064, 5739.01, 70635
5743.03, 5743.031, 5751.033, 5751.12, 6109.21, and 6111.46 of the 70636
Revised Code are hereby repealed.70637

       Section 105.01. That sections 103.144, 103.145, 103.146, 70638
183.28, 185.04, 185.08, 185.10, 185.11, 340.05, 2301.19, 2909.32, 70639
2909.33, 2909.34, 3301.68, 3333.049, 3333.0411, 3333.33, 3333.70, 70640
3333.80, 3334.111, 3353.02, 3353.03, 3353.04, 3353.09, 3353.15, 70641
3353.20, 3354.23, 3701.02, 3701.032, 3701.12, 3701.33, 3701.34, 70642
3701.35, 3702.521, 3702.5210, 3702.5211, 3702.5212, 3702.5213, 70643
3702.58, 3702.591, 3733.01, 3733.031, 3745.111, 3781.183, 70644
3791.043, 4113.11, 4121.18, 4730.401, 4766.02, 4766.20, 4905.80, 70645
4905.801, 4905.81, 4905.82, 4905.83, 4919.75, 4919.76, 4919.77, 70646
4919.78, 4919.79, 4919.99, 4921.01, 4921.02, 4921.03, 4921.04, 70647
4921.05, 4921.06, 4921.07, 4921.08, 4921.09, 4921.10, 4921.101, 70648
4921.11, 4921.12, 4921.13, 4921.14, 4921.15, 4921.16, 4921.17, 70649
4921.18, 4921.19, 4921.20, 4921.23, 4921.24, 4921.25, 4921.26, 70650
4921.27, 4921.28, 4921.30, 4921.31, 4921.32, 4921.35, 4921.36, 70651
4921.37, 4921.38, 4921.39, 4921.40, 4921.99, 4923.01, 4923.02, 70652
4923.03, 4923.04, 4923.05, 4923.06, 4923.07, 4923.08, 4923.09, 70653
4923.10, 4923.11, 4923.12, 4923.13, 4923.14, 4923.17, 4923.20, 70654
4923.26, 4923.99, 5101.97, 5111.651, 5119.614, 5119.70, 70655
5119.701, 5119.71, 5119.711, 5119.712, 5119.72, 5119.73, 70656
5119.731, 5119.74, 5119.75, 5119.76, 5119.77, 5119.78, 5119.79, 70657
5119.80, 5119.81, 5119.82, 5119.83, 5119.84, 5119.85, 5119.86, 70658
5119.87, 5119.88, 5123.082, 5123.083, 5123.192, 5126.0222, 70659
5126.252, 5126.26, 5126.27, 5126.28, 5126.281, 5126.29, and 70660
5501.09 of the Revised Code are hereby repealed.70661

       Section 110.10. That the version of section 5122.31 of the 70662
Revised Code that is scheduled to take effect on October 1, 2012, 70663
be amended to read as follows:70664

       Sec. 5122.31.  (A) All certificates, applications, records, 70665
and reports made for the purpose of this chapter and sections 70666
2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, and 2945.402 of the Revised 70667
Code, other than court journal entries or court docket entries, 70668
and directly or indirectly identifying a patient or former patient 70669
or person whose hospitalization has been sought under this 70670
chapter, shall be kept confidential and shall not be disclosed by 70671
any person except:70672

       (1) If the person identified, or the person's legal guardian, 70673
if any, or if the person is a minor, the person's parent or legal 70674
guardian, consents, and if the disclosure is in the best interests 70675
of the person, as may be determined by the court for judicial 70676
records and by the chief clinical officer for medical records;70677

       (2) When disclosure is provided for in this chapter or 70678
section 5123.601 of the Revised Code;70679

       (3) That hospitals, boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 70680
mental health services, and community mental health agencies may 70681
release necessary medical information to insurers and other 70682
third-party payers, including government entities responsible for 70683
processing and authorizing payment, to obtain payment for goods 70684
and services furnished to the patient;70685

       (4) Pursuant to a court order signed by a judge;70686

       (5) That a patient shall be granted access to the patient's 70687
own psychiatric and medical records, unless access specifically is 70688
restricted in a patient's treatment plan for clear treatment 70689
reasons;70690

       (6) That hospitals and other institutions and facilities 70691
within the department of mental health may exchange psychiatric 70692
records and other pertinent information with other hospitals, 70693
institutions, and facilities of the department, and with community 70694
mental health agencies and boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 70695
mental health services with which the department has a current 70696
agreement for patient care or services. Records and information 70697
that may be released pursuant to this division shall be limited to 70698
medication history, physical health status and history, financial 70699
status, summary of course of treatment in the hospital, summary of 70700
treatment needs, and a discharge summary, if any.70701

       (7) That hospitals within the department, other institutions 70702
and facilities within the department, hospitals licensed by the 70703
department under section 5119.20 of the Revised Code, and 70704
community mental health agencies may exchange psychiatric records 70705
and other pertinent information with payers and other providers of 70706
treatment and health services if the purpose of the exchange is to 70707
facilitate continuity of care for a patient;70708

       (8) That a patient's family member who is involved in the 70709
provision, planning, and monitoring of services to the patient may 70710
receive medication information, a summary of the patient's 70711
diagnosis and prognosis, and a list of the services and personnel 70712
available to assist the patient and the patient's family, if the 70713
patient's treating physician determines that the disclosure would 70714
be in the best interests of the patient. No such disclosure shall 70715
be made unless the patient is notified first and receives the 70716
information and does not object to the disclosure.70717

       (9) That community mental health agencies may exchange 70718
psychiatric records and certain other information with the board 70719
of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services and other 70720
agencies in order to provide services to a person involuntarily 70721
committed to a board. Release of records under this division shall 70722
be limited to medication history, physical health status and 70723
history, financial status, summary of course of treatment, summary 70724
of treatment needs, and discharge summary, if any.70725

       (10) That information may be disclosed to the executor or the 70726
administrator of an estate of a deceased patient when the 70727
information is necessary to administer the estate;70728

       (11) That records in the possession of the Ohio historical 70729
society may be released to the closest living relative of a 70730
deceased patient upon request of that relative;70731

       (12) That information may be disclosed to staff members of 70732
the appropriate board or to staff members designated by the 70733
director of mental health for the purpose of evaluating the 70734
quality, effectiveness, and efficiency of services and determining 70735
if the services meet minimum standards. Information obtained 70736
during such evaluations shall not be retained with the name of any 70737
patient.70738

       (13) That records pertaining to the patient's diagnosis, 70739
course of treatment, treatment needs, and prognosis shall be 70740
disclosed and released to the appropriate prosecuting attorney if 70741
the patient was committed pursuant to section 2945.38, 2945.39, 70742
2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code, or to the 70743
attorney designated by the board for proceedings pursuant to 70744
involuntary commitment under this chapter.70745

       (14) That the department of mental health may exchange 70746
psychiatric hospitalization records, other mental health treatment 70747
records, and other pertinent information with the department of 70748
rehabilitation and correction to ensure continuity of care for 70749
inmates who are receiving mental health services in an institution 70750
of the department of rehabilitation and correction. The department 70751
shall not disclose those records unless the inmate is notified, 70752
receives the information, and does not object to the disclosure. 70753
The release of records under this division is limited to records 70754
regarding an inmate's medication history, physical health status 70755
and history, summary of course of treatment, summary of treatment 70756
needs, and a discharge summary, if any.70757

       (15) That a community mental health agency that ceases to 70758
operate may transfer to either a community mental health agency 70759
that assumes its caseload or to the board of alcohol, drug 70760
addiction, and mental health services of the service district in 70761
which the patient resided at the time services were most recently 70762
provided any treatment records that have not been transferred 70763
elsewhere at the patient's request.70764

       (B) Before records are disclosed pursuant to divisions 70765
(A)(3), (6), (7), and (9) of this section, the custodian of the 70766
records shall attempt to obtain the patient's consent for the 70767
disclosure. No person shall reveal the contents of a medical 70768
record of a patient except as authorized by law.70769

       (C) The managing officer of a hospital who releases necessary 70770
medical information under division (A)(3) of this section to allow 70771
an insurance carrier or other third party payor to comply with 70772
section 5121.43 of the Revised Code shall neither be subject to 70773
criminal nor civil liability.70774

       Section 110.11. That the existing version of section 5122.31 70775
of the Revised Code that is scheduled to take effect on October 1, 70776
2012, is hereby repealed.70777

       Section 110.12. Sections 110.10 and 110.11 of this act take 70778
effect October 1, 2012.70779

       Section 110.20. That the version of section 5123.19 of the 70780
Revised Code that is scheduled to take effect on October 1, 2012, 70781
be amended to read as follows:70782

       Sec. 5123.19.  (A) As used in this section and in sections 70783
5123.191, 5123.194, 5123.196, 5123.197, 5123.198, and5123.19 to70784
5123.20 of the Revised Code:70785

       (1)(a) "Residential facility" means a home or facility in 70786
which a mentally retarded or developmentally disabled person 70787
resides, except the home of a relative or legal guardian in which 70788
a mentally retarded or developmentally disabled person resides, a 70789
respite care home certified under section 5126.05 of the Revised 70790
Code, a county home or district home operated pursuant to Chapter 70791
5155. of the Revised Code, or a dwelling in which the only 70792
mentally retarded or developmentally disabled residents are in an 70793
independent living arrangement or are being provided supported 70794
living. 70795

        (b) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" 70796
means a residential facility that is considered an intermediate 70797
care facility for the mentally retarded for the purposes of 70798
Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code.70799

       (2) "Political subdivision" means a municipal corporation, 70800
county, or township.70801

       (3) "Independent living arrangement" means an arrangement in 70802
which a mentally retarded or developmentally disabled person 70803
resides in an individualized setting chosen by the person or the 70804
person's guardian, which is not dedicated principally to the 70805
provision of residential services for mentally retarded or 70806
developmentally disabled persons, and for which no financial 70807
support is received for rendering such service from any 70808
governmental agency by a provider of residential services.70809

       (4)(2) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" 70810
has the same meaning as in section 1905(d) of the "Social Security 70811
Act," 101 Stat. 1330-204 (1987), 42 U.S.C. 1396d(d), as amended.70812

        (3) "Licensee" means the person or government agency that has 70813
applied for a license to operate a residential facility and to 70814
which the license was issued under this section.70815

       (4) "Political subdivision" means a municipal corporation, 70816
county, or township.70817

       (5) "Related party" has the same meaning as in section 70818
5123.16 of the Revised Code except that "provider" as used in the 70819
definition of "related party" means a person or government entity 70820
that held or applied for a license to operate a residential 70821
facility, rather than a person or government entity certified to 70822
provide supported living.70823

       (6)(a) Except as provided in division (A)(6)(b) of this 70824
section, "residential facility" means a home or facility, 70825
including a facility certified as an intermediate care facility 70826
for the mentally retarded, in which an individual with mental 70827
retardation or a developmental disability resides.70828

        (b) "Residential facility" does not mean any of the 70829
following:70830

        (i) The home of a relative or legal guardian in which an 70831
individual with mental retardation or a developmental disability 70832
resides;70833

        (ii) A respite care home certified under section 5126.05 of 70834
the Revised Code;70835

        (iii) A county home or district home operated pursuant to 70836
Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code;70837

        (iv) A dwelling in which the only residents with mental 70838
retardation or developmental disabilities are in independent 70839
living arrangements or are being provided supported living.70840

       (B) Every person or government agency desiring to operate a 70841
residential facility shall apply for licensure of the facility to 70842
the director of developmental disabilities unless the residential 70843
facility is subject to section 3721.02, 5119.73, 5103.03, or70844
5119.20, or division (A)(9)(b) of section 5119.22 of the Revised 70845
Code. Notwithstanding Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, a nursing 70846
home that is certified as an intermediate care facility for the 70847
mentally retarded under Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 79 70848
Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C.A. 1396, as amended, shall apply for 70849
licensure of the portion of the home that is certified as an 70850
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded. 70851

       (C) Subject to section 5123.196 of the Revised Code, the 70852
director of developmental disabilities shall license the operation 70853
of residential facilities. An initial license shall be issued for 70854
a period that does not exceed one year, unless the director denies 70855
the license under division (D) of this section. A license shall be 70856
renewed for a period that does not exceed three years, unless the 70857
director refuses to renew the license under division (D) of this 70858
section. The director, when issuing or renewing a license, shall 70859
specify the period for which the license is being issued or 70860
renewed. A license remains valid for the length of the licensing 70861
period specified by the director, unless the license is 70862
terminated, revoked, or voluntarily surrendered.70863

       (D) If it is determined that an applicant or licensee is not 70864
in compliance with a provision of this chapter that applies to 70865
residential facilities or the rules adopted under such a 70866
provision, the director may deny issuance of a license, refuse to 70867
renew a license, terminate a license, revoke a license, issue an 70868
order for the suspension of admissions to a facility, issue an 70869
order for the placement of a monitor at a facility, issue an order 70870
for the immediate removal of residents, or take any other action 70871
the director considers necessary consistent with the director's 70872
authority under this chapter regarding residential facilities. In 70873
the director's selection and administration of the sanction to be 70874
imposed, all of the following apply:70875

       (1) The director may deny, refuse to renew, or revoke a 70876
license, if the director determines that the applicant or licensee 70877
has demonstrated a pattern of serious noncompliance or that a 70878
violation creates a substantial risk to the health and safety of 70879
residents of a residential facility.70880

       (2) The director may terminate a license if more than twelve 70881
consecutive months have elapsed since the residential facility was 70882
last occupied by a resident or a notice required by division (K) 70883
of this section is not given.70884

       (3) The director may issue an order for the suspension of 70885
admissions to a facility for any violation that may result in 70886
sanctions under division (D)(1) of this section and for any other 70887
violation specified in rules adopted under division (H)(2) of this 70888
section. If the suspension of admissions is imposed for a 70889
violation that may result in sanctions under division (D)(1) of 70890
this section, the director may impose the suspension before 70891
providing an opportunity for an adjudication under Chapter 119. of 70892
the Revised Code. The director shall lift an order for the 70893
suspension of admissions when the director determines that the 70894
violation that formed the basis for the order has been corrected.70895

       (4) The director may order the placement of a monitor at a 70896
residential facility for any violation specified in rules adopted 70897
under division (H)(2) of this section. The director shall lift the 70898
order when the director determines that the violation that formed 70899
the basis for the order has been corrected.70900

       (5) If the director determines that two or more residential 70901
facilities owned or operated by the same person or government 70902
entity are not being operated in compliance with a provision of 70903
this chapter that applies to residential facilities or the rules 70904
adopted under such a provision, and the director's findings are 70905
based on the same or a substantially similar action, practice, 70906
circumstance, or incident that creates a substantial risk to the 70907
health and safety of the residents, the director shall conduct a 70908
survey as soon as practicable at each residential facility owned 70909
or operated by that person or government entity. The director may 70910
take any action authorized by this section with respect to any 70911
facility found to be operating in violation of a provision of this 70912
chapter that applies to residential facilities or the rules 70913
adopted under such a provision.70914

       (6) When the director initiates license revocation 70915
proceedings, no opportunity for submitting a plan of correction 70916
shall be given. The director shall notify the licensee by letter 70917
of the initiation of the proceedings. The letter shall list the 70918
deficiencies of the residential facility and inform the licensee 70919
that no plan of correction will be accepted. The director shall 70920
also send a copy of the letter to the county board of 70921
developmental disabilities. The county board shall send a copy of 70922
the letter to each of the following:70923

        (a) Each resident who receives services from the licensee;70924

        (b) The guardian of each resident who receives services from 70925
the licensee if the resident has a guardian;70926

        (c) The parent or guardian of each resident who receives 70927
services from the licensee if the resident is a minor.70928

       (7) Pursuant to rules which shall be adopted in accordance 70929
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the director may order the 70930
immediate removal of residents from a residential facility 70931
whenever conditions at the facility present an immediate danger of 70932
physical or psychological harm to the residents.70933

       (8) In determining whether a residential facility is being 70934
operated in compliance with a provision of this chapter that 70935
applies to residential facilities or the rules adopted under such 70936
a provision, or whether conditions at a residential facility 70937
present an immediate danger of physical or psychological harm to 70938
the residents, the director may rely on information obtained by a 70939
county board of developmental disabilities or other governmental 70940
agencies.70941

       (9) In proceedings initiated to deny, refuse to renew, or 70942
revoke licenses, the director may deny, refuse to renew, or revoke 70943
a license regardless of whether some or all of the deficiencies 70944
that prompted the proceedings have been corrected at the time of 70945
the hearing.70946

       (E) The director shall establish a program under which public 70947
notification may be made when the director has initiated license 70948
revocation proceedings or has issued an order for the suspension 70949
of admissions, placement of a monitor, or removal of residents. 70950
The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of 70951
the Revised Code to implement this division. The rules shall 70952
establish the procedures by which the public notification will be 70953
made and specify the circumstances for which the notification must 70954
be made. The rules shall require that public notification be made 70955
if the director has taken action against the facility in the 70956
eighteen-month period immediately preceding the director's latest 70957
action against the facility and the latest action is being taken 70958
for the same or a substantially similar violation of a provision 70959
of this chapter that applies to residential facilities or the 70960
rules adopted under such a provision. The rules shall specify a 70961
method for removing or amending the public notification if the 70962
director's action is found to have been unjustified or the 70963
violation at the residential facility has been corrected.70964

       (F)(1) Except as provided in division (F)(2) of this section, 70965
appeals from proceedings initiated to impose a sanction under 70966
division (D) of this section shall be conducted in accordance with 70967
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.70968

       (2) Appeals from proceedings initiated to order the 70969
suspension of admissions to a facility shall be conducted in 70970
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, unless the order 70971
was issued before providing an opportunity for an adjudication, in 70972
which case all of the following apply:70973

       (a) The licensee may request a hearing not later than ten 70974
days after receiving the notice specified in section 119.07 of the 70975
Revised Code.70976

       (b) If a timely request for a hearing that includes the 70977
licensee's current address is made, the hearing shall commence not 70978
later than thirty days after the department receives the request.70979

       (c) After commencing, the hearing shall continue 70980
uninterrupted, except for Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays, 70981
unless other interruptions are agreed to by the licensee and the 70982
director.70983

       (d) If the hearing is conducted by a hearing examiner, the 70984
hearing examiner shall file a report and recommendations not later 70985
than ten days after the last of the following:70986

       (i) The close of the hearing;70987

       (ii) If a transcript of the proceedings is ordered, the 70988
hearing examiner receives the transcript;70989

        (iii) If post-hearing briefs are timely filed, the hearing 70990
examiner receives the briefs.70991

       (e) A copy of the written report and recommendation of the 70992
hearing examiner shall be sent, by certified mail, to the licensee 70993
and the licensee's attorney, if applicable, not later than five 70994
days after the report is filed.70995

        (f) Not later than five days after the hearing examiner files 70996
the report and recommendations, the licensee may file objections 70997
to the report and recommendations.70998

       (g) Not later than fifteen days after the hearing examiner 70999
files the report and recommendations, the director shall issue an 71000
order approving, modifying, or disapproving the report and 71001
recommendations.71002

       (h) Notwithstanding the pendency of the hearing, the director 71003
shall lift the order for the suspension of admissions when the 71004
director determines that the violation that formed the basis for 71005
the order has been corrected.71006

       (G) Neither a person or government agency whose application 71007
for a license to operate a residential facility is denied nor a 71008
related party of the person or government agency may apply for a 71009
license to operate a residential facility before the date that is 71010
one year after the date of the denial. Neither a licensee whose 71011
residential facility license is revoked nor a related party of the 71012
licensee may apply for a residential facility license before the 71013
date that is five years after the date of the revocation.71014

        (H) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the 71015
director shall adopt and may amend and rescind rules for licensing 71016
and regulating the operation of residential facilities, including 71017
intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded. The rules 71018
for residential facilities that are intermediate care facilities 71019
for the mentally retarded may differ from those for other 71020
residential facilities. The rules shall establish and specify the 71021
following:71022

       (1) Procedures and criteria for issuing and renewing 71023
licenses, including procedures and criteria for determining the 71024
length of the licensing period that the director must specify for 71025
each license when it is issued or renewed;71026

       (2) Procedures and criteria for denying, refusing to renew, 71027
terminating, and revoking licenses and for ordering the suspension 71028
of admissions to a facility, placement of a monitor at a facility, 71029
and the immediate removal of residents from a facility;71030

       (3) Fees for issuing and renewing licenses, which shall be 71031
deposited into the program fee fund created under section 5123.033 71032
of the Revised Code;71033

       (4) Procedures for surveying residential facilities;71034

       (5) Requirements for the training of residential facility 71035
personnel;71036

       (6) Classifications for the various types of residential 71037
facilities;71038

       (7) Certification procedures for licensees and management 71039
contractors that the director determines are necessary to ensure 71040
that they have the skills and qualifications to properly operate 71041
or manage residential facilities;71042

       (8) The maximum number of persons who may be served in a 71043
particular type of residential facility;71044

       (9) Uniform procedures for admission of persons to and 71045
transfers and discharges of persons from residential facilities;71046

       (10) Other standards for the operation of residential 71047
facilities and the services provided at residential facilities;71048

       (11) Procedures for waiving any provision of any rule adopted 71049
under this section.71050

       (I) Before issuing a license, the director of the department 71051
or the director's designee shall conduct a survey of the 71052
residential facility for which application is made. The director 71053
or the director's designee shall conduct a survey of each licensed 71054
residential facility at least once during the period the license 71055
is valid and may conduct additional inspections as needed. A 71056
survey includes but is not limited to an on-site examination and 71057
evaluation of the residential facility, its personnel, and the 71058
services provided there.71059

       In conducting surveys, the director or the director's 71060
designee shall be given access to the residential facility; all 71061
records, accounts, and any other documents related to the 71062
operation of the facility; the licensee; the residents of the 71063
facility; and all persons acting on behalf of, under the control 71064
of, or in connection with the licensee. The licensee and all 71065
persons on behalf of, under the control of, or in connection with 71066
the licensee shall cooperate with the director or the director's 71067
designee in conducting the survey.71068

       Following each survey, unless the director initiates a 71069
license revocation proceeding, the director or the director's 71070
designee shall provide the licensee with a report listing any 71071
deficiencies, specifying a timetable within which the licensee 71072
shall submit a plan of correction describing how the deficiencies 71073
will be corrected, and, when appropriate, specifying a timetable 71074
within which the licensee must correct the deficiencies. After a 71075
plan of correction is submitted, the director or the director's 71076
designee shall approve or disapprove the plan. A copy of the 71077
report and any approved plan of correction shall be provided to 71078
any person who requests it.71079

       The director shall initiate disciplinary action against any 71080
department employee who notifies or causes the notification to any 71081
unauthorized person of an unannounced survey of a residential 71082
facility by an authorized representative of the department.71083

       (J) In addition to any other information which may be 71084
required of applicants for a license pursuant to this section, the 71085
director shall require each applicant to provide a copy of an 71086
approved plan for a proposed residential facility pursuant to 71087
section 5123.042 of the Revised Code. This division does not apply 71088
to renewal of a license or to an applicant for an initial or 71089
modified license who meets the requirements of section 5123.193 or71090
5123.197 of the Revised Code.71091

       (K) A licensee shall notify the owner of the building in 71092
which the licensee's residential facility is located of any 71093
significant change in the identity of the licensee or management 71094
contractor before the effective date of the change if the licensee 71095
is not the owner of the building.71096

       Pursuant to rules which shall be adopted in accordance with 71097
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the director may require 71098
notification to the department of any significant change in the 71099
ownership of a residential facility or in the identity of the 71100
licensee or management contractor. If the director determines that 71101
a significant change of ownership is proposed, the director shall 71102
consider the proposed change to be an application for development 71103
by a new operator pursuant to section 5123.042 of the Revised Code 71104
and shall advise the applicant within sixty days of the 71105
notification that the current license shall continue in effect or 71106
a new license will be required pursuant to this section. If the 71107
director requires a new license, the director shall permit the 71108
facility to continue to operate under the current license until 71109
the new license is issued, unless the current license is revoked, 71110
refused to be renewed, or terminated in accordance with Chapter 71111
119. of the Revised Code.71112

       (L) A county board of developmental disabilities and any 71113
interested person may file complaints alleging violations of 71114
statute or department rule relating to residential facilities with 71115
the department. All complaints shall be in writing and shall state 71116
the facts constituting the basis of the allegation. The department 71117
shall not reveal the source of any complaint unless the 71118
complainant agrees in writing to waive the right to 71119
confidentiality or until so ordered by a court of competent 71120
jurisdiction.71121

       The department shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 71122
119. of the Revised Code establishing procedures for the receipt, 71123
referral, investigation, and disposition of complaints filed with 71124
the department under this division.71125

       (M) The department shall establish procedures for the 71126
notification of interested parties of the transfer or interim care 71127
of residents from residential facilities that are closing or are 71128
losing their license.71129

       (N) Before issuing a license under this section to a 71130
residential facility that will accommodate at any time more than 71131
one mentally retarded or developmentally disabled individual, the 71132
director shall, by first class mail, notify the following:71133

       (1) If the facility will be located in a municipal 71134
corporation, the clerk of the legislative authority of the 71135
municipal corporation;71136

       (2) If the facility will be located in unincorporated 71137
territory, the clerk of the appropriate board of county 71138
commissioners and the fiscal officer of the appropriate board of 71139
township trustees.71140

       The director shall not issue the license for ten days after 71141
mailing the notice, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal 71142
holidays, in order to give the notified local officials time in 71143
which to comment on the proposed issuance.71144

       Any legislative authority of a municipal corporation, board 71145
of county commissioners, or board of township trustees that 71146
receives notice under this division of the proposed issuance of a 71147
license for a residential facility may comment on it in writing to 71148
the director within ten days after the director mailed the notice, 71149
excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays. If the director 71150
receives written comments from any notified officials within the 71151
specified time, the director shall make written findings 71152
concerning the comments and the director's decision on the 71153
issuance of the license. If the director does not receive written 71154
comments from any notified local officials within the specified 71155
time, the director shall continue the process for issuance of the 71156
license.71157

       (O) Any person may operate a licensed residential facility 71158
that provides room and board, personal care, habilitation 71159
services, and supervision in a family setting for at least six but 71160
not more than eight persons with mental retardation or a 71161
developmental disability as a permitted use in any residential 71162
district or zone, including any single-family residential district 71163
or zone, of any political subdivision. These residential 71164
facilities may be required to comply with area, height, yard, and 71165
architectural compatibility requirements that are uniformly 71166
imposed upon all single-family residences within the district or 71167
zone.71168

       (P) Any person may operate a licensed residential facility 71169
that provides room and board, personal care, habilitation 71170
services, and supervision in a family setting for at least nine 71171
but not more than sixteen persons with mental retardation or a 71172
developmental disability as a permitted use in any multiple-family 71173
residential district or zone of any political subdivision, except 71174
that a political subdivision that has enacted a zoning ordinance 71175
or resolution establishing planned unit development districts may 71176
exclude these residential facilities from those districts, and a 71177
political subdivision that has enacted a zoning ordinance or 71178
resolution may regulate these residential facilities in 71179
multiple-family residential districts or zones as a conditionally 71180
permitted use or special exception, in either case, under 71181
reasonable and specific standards and conditions set out in the 71182
zoning ordinance or resolution to:71183

       (1) Require the architectural design and site layout of the 71184
residential facility and the location, nature, and height of any 71185
walls, screens, and fences to be compatible with adjoining land 71186
uses and the residential character of the neighborhood;71187

       (2) Require compliance with yard, parking, and sign 71188
regulation;71189

       (3) Limit excessive concentration of these residential 71190
facilities.71191

       (Q) This section does not prohibit a political subdivision 71192
from applying to residential facilities nondiscriminatory 71193
regulations requiring compliance with health, fire, and safety 71194
regulations and building standards and regulations.71195

       (R) Divisions (O) and (P) of this section are not applicable 71196
to municipal corporations that had in effect on June 15, 1977, an 71197
ordinance specifically permitting in residential zones licensed 71198
residential facilities by means of permitted uses, conditional 71199
uses, or special exception, so long as such ordinance remains in 71200
effect without any substantive modification.71201

       (S)(1) The director may issue an interim license to operate a 71202
residential facility to an applicant for a license under this 71203
section if either of the following is the case:71204

       (a) The director determines that an emergency exists 71205
requiring immediate placement of persons in a residential 71206
facility, that insufficient licensed beds are available, and that 71207
the residential facility is likely to receive a permanent license 71208
under this section within thirty days after issuance of the 71209
interim license.71210

       (b) The director determines that the issuance of an interim 71211
license is necessary to meet a temporary need for a residential 71212
facility.71213

       (2) To be eligible to receive an interim license, an 71214
applicant must meet the same criteria that must be met to receive 71215
a permanent license under this section, except for any differing 71216
procedures and time frames that may apply to issuance of a 71217
permanent license.71218

       (3) An interim license shall be valid for thirty days and may 71219
be renewed by the director for a period not to exceed one hundred 71220
fifty days.71221

       (4) The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 71222
119. of the Revised Code as the director considers necessary to 71223
administer the issuance of interim licenses.71224

       (T) Notwithstanding rules adopted pursuant to this section 71225
establishing the maximum number of persons who may be served in a 71226
particular type of residential facility, a residential facility 71227
shall be permitted to serve the same number of persons being 71228
served by the facility on the effective date of the rules or the 71229
number of persons for which the facility is authorized pursuant to 71230
a current application for a certificate of need with a letter of 71231
support from the department of developmental disabilities and 71232
which is in the review process prior to April 4, 1986.71233

       (U) The director or the director's designee may enter at any 71234
time, for purposes of investigation, any home, facility, or other 71235
structure that has been reported to the director or that the 71236
director has reasonable cause to believe is being operated as a 71237
residential facility without a license issued under this section.71238

       The director may petition the court of common pleas of the 71239
county in which an unlicensed residential facility is located for 71240
an order enjoining the person or governmental agency operating the 71241
facility from continuing to operate without a license. The court 71242
may grant the injunction on a showing that the person or 71243
governmental agency named in the petition is operating a 71244
residential facility without a license. The court may grant the 71245
injunction, regardless of whether the residential facility meets 71246
the requirements for receiving a license under this section.71247

       Section 110.21. That the existing version of section 5123.19 71248
of the Revised Code that is scheduled to take effect on October 1, 71249
2012, is hereby repealed.71250

       Section 110.22. Sections 110.20 and 110.21 of this act take 71251
effect October 1, 2012.71252

       Section 110.30. That the version of section 5123.61 of the 71253
Revised Code that is scheduled to take effect on October 1, 2012, 71254
be amended to read as follows:71255

       Sec. 5123.61.  (A) As used in this section:71256

       (1) "Law enforcement agency" means the state highway patrol, 71257
the police department of a municipal corporation, or a county 71258
sheriff.71259

       (2) "Abuse" has the same meaning as in section 5123.50 of the 71260
Revised Code, except that it includes a misappropriation, as 71261
defined in that section.71262

       (3) "Neglect" has the same meaning as in section 5123.50 of 71263
the Revised Code.71264

       (B) The department of developmental disabilities shall 71265
establish a registry office for the purpose of maintaining reports 71266
of abuse, neglect, and other major unusual incidents made to the 71267
department under this section and reports received from county 71268
boards of developmental disabilities under section 5126.31 of the 71269
Revised Code. The department shall establish committees to review 71270
reports of abuse, neglect, and other major unusual incidents.71271

       (C)(1) Any person listed in division (C)(2) of this section, 71272
having reason to believe that a person with mental retardation or 71273
a developmental disability has suffered or faces a substantial 71274
risk of suffering any wound, injury, disability, or condition of 71275
such a nature as to reasonably indicate abuse or neglect of that 71276
person, shall immediately report or cause reports to be made of 71277
such information to the entity specified in this division. Except 71278
as provided in section 5120.173 of the Revised Code or as 71279
otherwise provided in this division, the person making the report 71280
shall make it to a law enforcement agency or to the county board 71281
of developmental disabilities. If the report concerns a resident 71282
of a facility operated by the department of developmental 71283
disabilities the report shall be made either to a law enforcement 71284
agency or to the department. If the report concerns any act or 71285
omission of an employee of a county board of developmental 71286
disabilities, the report immediately shall be made to the 71287
department and to the county board.71288

       (2) All of the following persons are required to make a 71289
report under division (C)(1) of this section:71290

       (a) Any physician, including a hospital intern or resident, 71291
any dentist, podiatrist, chiropractor, practitioner of a limited 71292
branch of medicine as specified in section 4731.15 of the Revised 71293
Code, hospital administrator or employee of a hospital, nurse 71294
licensed under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code, employee of an 71295
ambulatory health facility as defined in section 5101.61 of the 71296
Revised Code, employee of a home health agency, employee of an 71297
adult carea residential facility licensed under Chapter 3722.71298
section 5119.22 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 71299
supervision, and person care services for three to sixteen 71300
unrelated adults, or employee of a community mental health 71301
facility;71302

       (b) Any school teacher or school authority, social worker, 71303
psychologist, attorney, peace officer, coroner, or residents' 71304
rights advocate as defined in section 3721.10 of the Revised Code;71305

       (c) A superintendent, board member, or employee of a county 71306
board of developmental disabilities; an administrator, board 71307
member, or employee of a residential facility licensed under 71308
section 5123.19 of the Revised Code; an administrator, board 71309
member, or employee of any other public or private provider of 71310
services to a person with mental retardation or a developmental 71311
disability, or any MR/DD employee, as defined in section 5123.50 71312
of the Revised Code;71313

       (d) A member of a citizen's advisory council established at 71314
an institution or branch institution of the department of 71315
developmental disabilities under section 5123.092 of the Revised 71316
Code;71317

       (e) A clergymanmember of the clergy who is employed in a 71318
position that includes providing specialized services to an 71319
individual with mental retardation or another developmental 71320
disability, while acting in an official or professional capacity 71321
in that position, or a person who is employed in a position that 71322
includes providing specialized services to an individual with 71323
mental retardation or another developmental disability and who, 71324
while acting in an official or professional capacity, renders 71325
spiritual treatment through prayer in accordance with the tenets 71326
of an organized religion.71327

       (3)(a) The reporting requirements of this division do not 71328
apply to employees of the Ohio protection and advocacy system.71329

       (b) An attorney or physician is not required to make a report 71330
pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section concerning any 71331
communication the attorney or physician receives from a client or 71332
patient in an attorney-client or physician-patient relationship, 71333
if, in accordance with division (A) or (B) of section 2317.02 of 71334
the Revised Code, the attorney or physician could not testify with 71335
respect to that communication in a civil or criminal proceeding, 71336
except that the client or patient is deemed to have waived any 71337
testimonial privilege under division (A) or (B) of section 2317.02 71338
of the Revised Code with respect to that communication and the 71339
attorney or physician shall make a report pursuant to division 71340
(C)(1) of this section, if both of the following apply:71341

       (i) The client or patient, at the time of the communication, 71342
is a person with mental retardation or a developmental disability.71343

       (ii) The attorney or physician knows or suspects, as a result 71344
of the communication or any observations made during that 71345
communication, that the client or patient has suffered or faces a 71346
substantial risk of suffering any wound, injury, disability, or 71347
condition of a nature that reasonably indicates abuse or neglect 71348
of the client or patient.71349

       (4) Any person who fails to make a report required under 71350
division (C) of this section and who is an MR/DD employee, as 71351
defined in section 5123.50 of the Revised Code, shall be eligible 71352
to be included in the registry regarding misappropriation, abuse, 71353
neglect, or other specified misconduct by MR/DD employees 71354
established under section 5123.52 of the Revised Code.71355

       (D) The reports required under division (C) of this section 71356
shall be made forthwith by telephone or in person and shall be 71357
followed by a written report. The reports shall contain the 71358
following:71359

       (1) The names and addresses of the person with mental 71360
retardation or a developmental disability and the person's 71361
custodian, if known;71362

       (2) The age of the person with mental retardation or a 71363
developmental disability;71364

       (3) Any other information that would assist in the 71365
investigation of the report.71366

       (E) When a physician performing services as a member of the 71367
staff of a hospital or similar institution has reason to believe 71368
that a person with mental retardation or a developmental 71369
disability has suffered injury, abuse, or physical neglect, the 71370
physician shall notify the person in charge of the institution or 71371
that person's designated delegate, who shall make the necessary 71372
reports.71373

       (F) Any person having reasonable cause to believe that a 71374
person with mental retardation or a developmental disability has 71375
suffered or faces a substantial risk of suffering abuse or neglect 71376
may report or cause a report to be made of that belief to the 71377
entity specified in this division. Except as provided in section 71378
5120.173 of the Revised Code or as otherwise provided in this 71379
division, the person making the report shall make it to a law 71380
enforcement agency or the county board of developmental 71381
disabilities. If the person is a resident of a facility operated 71382
by the department of developmental disabilities, the report shall 71383
be made to a law enforcement agency or to the department. If the 71384
report concerns any act or omission of an employee of a county 71385
board of developmental disabilities, the report immediately shall 71386
be made to the department and to the county board.71387

       (G)(1) Upon the receipt of a report concerning the possible 71388
abuse or neglect of a person with mental retardation or a 71389
developmental disability, the law enforcement agency shall inform 71390
the county board of developmental disabilities or, if the person 71391
is a resident of a facility operated by the department of 71392
developmental disabilities, the director of the department or the 71393
director's designee.71394

       (2) On receipt of a report under this section that includes 71395
an allegation of action or inaction that may constitute a crime 71396
under federal law or the law of this state, the department of 71397
developmental disabilities shall notify the law enforcement 71398
agency.71399

       (3) When a county board of developmental disabilities 71400
receives a report under this section that includes an allegation 71401
of action or inaction that may constitute a crime under federal 71402
law or the law of this state, the superintendent of the board or 71403
an individual the superintendent designates under division (H) of 71404
this section shall notify the law enforcement agency. The 71405
superintendent or individual shall notify the department of 71406
developmental disabilities when it receives any report under this 71407
section.71408

       (4) When a county board of developmental disabilities 71409
receives a report under this section and believes that the degree 71410
of risk to the person is such that the report is an emergency, the 71411
superintendent of the board or an employee of the board the 71412
superintendent designates shall attempt a face-to-face contact 71413
with the person with mental retardation or a developmental 71414
disability who allegedly is the victim within one hour of the 71415
board's receipt of the report.71416

       (H) The superintendent of the board may designate an 71417
individual to be responsible for notifying the law enforcement 71418
agency and the department when the county board receives a report 71419
under this section.71420

       (I) An adult with mental retardation or a developmental 71421
disability about whom a report is made may be removed from the 71422
adult's place of residence only by law enforcement officers who 71423
consider that the adult's immediate removal is essential to 71424
protect the adult from further injury or abuse or in accordance 71425
with the order of a court made pursuant to section 5126.33 of the 71426
Revised Code.71427

       (J) A law enforcement agency shall investigate each report of 71428
abuse or neglect it receives under this section. In addition, the 71429
department, in cooperation with law enforcement officials, shall 71430
investigate each report regarding a resident of a facility 71431
operated by the department to determine the circumstances 71432
surrounding the injury, the cause of the injury, and the person 71433
responsible. The investigation shall be in accordance with the 71434
memorandum of understanding prepared under section 5126.058 of the 71435
Revised Code. The department shall determine, with the registry 71436
office which shall be maintained by the department, whether prior 71437
reports have been made concerning an adult with mental retardation 71438
or a developmental disability or other principals in the case. If 71439
the department finds that the report involves action or inaction 71440
that may constitute a crime under federal law or the law of this 71441
state, it shall submit a report of its investigation, in writing, 71442
to the law enforcement agency. If the person with mental 71443
retardation or a developmental disability is an adult, with the 71444
consent of the adult, the department shall provide such protective 71445
services as are necessary to protect the adult. The law 71446
enforcement agency shall make a written report of its findings to 71447
the department.71448

       If the person is an adult and is not a resident of a facility 71449
operated by the department, the county board of developmental 71450
disabilities shall review the report of abuse or neglect in 71451
accordance with sections 5126.30 to 5126.33 of the Revised Code 71452
and the law enforcement agency shall make the written report of 71453
its findings to the county board.71454

       (K) Any person or any hospital, institution, school, health 71455
department, or agency participating in the making of reports 71456
pursuant to this section, any person participating as a witness in 71457
an administrative or judicial proceeding resulting from the 71458
reports, or any person or governmental entity that discharges 71459
responsibilities under sections 5126.31 to 5126.33 of the Revised 71460
Code shall be immune from any civil or criminal liability that 71461
might otherwise be incurred or imposed as a result of such actions 71462
except liability for perjury, unless the person or governmental 71463
entity has acted in bad faith or with malicious purpose.71464

       (L) No employer or any person with the authority to do so 71465
shall discharge, demote, transfer, prepare a negative work 71466
performance evaluation, reduce pay or benefits, terminate work 71467
privileges, or take any other action detrimental to an employee or 71468
retaliate against an employee as a result of the employee's having 71469
made a report under this section. This division does not preclude 71470
an employer or person with authority from taking action with 71471
regard to an employee who has made a report under this section if 71472
there is another reasonable basis for the action.71473

       (M) Reports made under this section are not public records as 71474
defined in section 149.43 of the Revised Code. Information 71475
contained in the reports on request shall be made available to the 71476
person who is the subject of the report, to the person's legal 71477
counsel, and to agencies authorized to receive information in the 71478
report by the department or by a county board of developmental 71479
disabilities.71480

       (N) Notwithstanding section 4731.22 of the Revised Code, the 71481
physician-patient privilege shall not be a ground for excluding 71482
evidence regarding the injuries or physical neglect of a person 71483
with mental retardation or a developmental disability or the cause 71484
thereof in any judicial proceeding resulting from a report 71485
submitted pursuant to this section.71486

       Section 110.31. That the existing version of section 5123.61 71487
of the Revised Code that is scheduled to take effect on October 1, 71488
2012, is hereby repealed.71489

       Section 110.32. Sections 110.30 and 110.31 of this act take 71490
effect October 1, 2012.71491

       Section 503.10. FISCAL YEAR 2012 GENERAL REVENUE FUND ENDING 71492
BALANCE71493

       Notwithstanding divisions (B) and (C) of section 131.44 of 71494
the Revised Code, the Director of Budget and Management shall 71495
determine the surplus General Revenue Fund revenue that existed on 71496
June 30, 2012, in excess of the amount required under division 71497
(A)(3) of section 131.44 of the Revised Code, and transfer from 71498
the General Revenue Fund, to the extent of the amount so 71499
determined, to the Statewide Treatment and Prevention Fund (Fund 71500
4750), a cash amount of $1,000,000 and to the Long-Term Care 71501
Ombudsman Program Fund (Fund 4C40), a cash amount of $1,500,000.71502

       Section 506.10. OHP HEALTH CARE GRANTS FUND71503

       For fiscal year 2012 and fiscal year 2013, the Department of 71504
Job and Family Services may deposit into the OHP Health Care 71505
Grants Fund (Fund 3FA0) federal grants for the administration of 71506
health care programs that the Department receives under the 71507
"Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act," Public Law 111-148, 71508
and the "Health Care and Education Reconciliation Act of 2010," 71509
Public Law 111-152. The Department shall use the money in the fund 71510
to pay for expenses incurred in carrying out duties the Department 71511
assumes by accepting such federal grants, including expenses for 71512
the administration of health care programs.71513

       Section 512.10. TRANSFER OF FUNDS FOR CASINO CONTROL 71514
COMMISSION OPERATIONS71515

        During fiscal year 2013, the Director of Budget and 71516
Management may, in consultation with the Executive Director of the 71517
Casino Control Commission, transfer cash as necessary for 71518
operating expenses and casino investigations. The transfer shall 71519
be made from the General Revenue Fund to the Casino Control 71520
Commission Operating Fund (Fund 5HS0). Once funds from upfront 71521
license application fees and gross casino revenue taxes have been 71522
accumulated to sustain operations, the Director of Budget and 71523
Management, in consultation with the Executive Director of the 71524
Casino Control Commission, shall establish a repayment schedule 71525
for transfers to the General Revenue Fund from the Casino Control 71526
Commission Operating Fund (Fund 5HS0).71527

       Section 512.20.  PRE-SECURITIZATION TOBACCO PAYMENTS71528

       The Pre-Securitization Tobacco Payments Fund (Fund 5LS0) is 71529
hereby created in the state treasury. All moneys received by the 71530
state in connection with releases from disputed payment accounts 71531
or amounts previously withheld under the Tobacco Master Settlement 71532
Agreement that do not constitute pledged receipts for the Buckeye 71533
Tobacco Settlement Financing Authority Tobacco Settlement Bonds, 71534
Series 2007, shall be credited to the fund and used by the 71535
Director of Budget and Management as authorized in this section.71536

       On July 1 of each fiscal year, or as soon as possible 71537
thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management shall determine, 71538
in consultation with the Attorney General, the amounts needed to 71539
fund tobacco enforcement-related activities and may transfer cash 71540
in those amounts from Fund 5LS0 to the Tobacco Oversight 71541
Administration and Enforcement Fund (Fund U087). The Director of 71542
Budget and Management may transfer remaining cash determined to be 71543
in excess of the tobacco enforcement needs of the Attorney General 71544
from Fund 5LS0 to the General Revenue Fund. 71545

       Upon receipt of all pre-securitization Tobacco Master 71546
Settlement Agreement payments and the transfer of all cash 71547
credited to Fund 5LS0 as authorized in this section, Fund 5LS0 is 71548
abolished.71549

       On July 1, 2012, or as soon as possible thereafter, and upon 71550
the request of the Attorney General, the Director of Budget and 71551
Management may transfer up to $3,000,000 cash from the General 71552
Reimbursement Fund (Fund 1060) to the Tobacco Oversight 71553
Administration and Enforcement Fund (Fund U087). 71554

       Section 512.30. CASH TRANSFER FROM TRAUMA AND EMERGENCY 71555
MEDICAL SERVICES GRANTS FUND71556

        On the effective date of this section, or as soon as possible 71557
thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer 71558
the cash balance in the Trauma and Emergency Medical Services 71559
Grants Fund (Fund 83P0) to the Trauma and Emergency Medical 71560
Services Fund (Fund 83M0). The Director shall cancel any existing 71561
encumbrances against appropriation item 765637, EMS Grants, and 71562
reestablish them against appropriation item 765640, EMS – Grants. 71563
The reestablished encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated.71564

       Section 512.40. CASH TRANSFER FROM ELEMENTARY SCHOOL SEAT 71565
BELT FUND71566

       On the effective date of this section, or as soon as possible 71567
thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer 71568
the cash balance in the Elementary School Seat Belt Fund (Fund 71569
83N0) to the Trauma and Emergency Medical Services Fund (Fund 71570
83M0). The Director shall cancel any existing encumbrances against 71571
appropriation item 761611, Elementary School Seat Belt Program, 71572
and reestablish them against appropriation item 765624, Operating 71573
Expense - Trauma and EMS. The reestablished encumbrance amounts 71574
are hereby appropriated.71575

       Section 512.50. MEDICAID PROGRAM SUPPORT STATE FUND ABOLISHED71576

       The Director of Budget and Management shall transfer any 71577
remaining cash balance in the Medicaid Program Support State Fund 71578
(Fund 5C90) to the Health Care/Medicaid Support and Recoveries 71579
Fund (Fund 5DL0) created under section 5111.941 of the Revised 71580
Code. The Medicaid Program Support State Fund (Fund 5C90) shall 71581
cease to exist once the transfer is complete.71582

       Section 512.60. On the effective date of this section, or as 71583
soon as possible thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management 71584
shall transfer the unencumbered cash balance in the Education 71585
Technology Trust Fund (Fund S087) to the General Revenue Fund.71586

       Section 515.10. On and after July 1, 2012, the eTech Ohio 71587
Commission is hereby abolished and its duties, personnel, assets, 71588
and liabilities are transferred as provided in Sections 515.11 and 71589
515.13 of this act. 71590

       Section 515.11.  (A) On July 1, 2012, responsibility for 71591
administration of the state's educational telecommunications 71592
activities under sections 3333.89, 3333.91, and 3333.92 and new 71593
section 3333.90 of the Revised Code and teacher professional 71594
development for implementing educational technology under section 71595
3319.235 of the Revised Code are transferred from the former eTech 71596
Ohio Commission to the Chancellor of the Ohio Board of Regents. 71597
The Chancellor is thereupon and thereafter successor to, assumes 71598
the obligations of, and otherwise constitutes the continuation of 71599
the eTech Ohio Commission relating to the functions, assets, 71600
records, and obligations of the state regarding those matters. 71601

       (B) Any business related to the matters described in division 71602
(A) of this section commenced but not completed by the former 71603
eTech Ohio Commission shall be completed by the Chancellor in the 71604
same manner, and with the same effect, as if completed by the 71605
eTech Ohio Commission. No validation, cure, right, privilege, 71606
remedy, obligation, or liability is lost or impaired by reason of 71607
the transfer, and shall be recognized, administered, performed, or 71608
enforced by the Chancellor. 71609

       (C) All of the rules of the former eTech Ohio Commission 71610
related to the matters described in division (A) of this section 71611
continue in effect as rules of the Chancellor, until amended or 71612
rescinded by the Chancellor. 71613

       (D) No judicial or administrative action or proceeding 71614
related to the matters described in division (A) of this section 71615
in which the former eTech Ohio Commission is a party, that is 71616
pending on the effective date of this section, is affected by the 71617
transfer. Such action or proceeding shall be prosecuted or 71618
defended in the name of the Chancellor. On application to the 71619
court or other tribunal, the Chancellor of the Ohio Board of 71620
Regents shall be substituted for the eTech Ohio Commission as a 71621
party to such action or proceeding. 71622

       (E) Subject to the lay-off provisions of sections 124.321 to 71623
124.328 and division (C) of new section 3333.90 of the Revised 71624
Code, all employees of the former eTech Ohio Commission assigned 71625
by the Commission to the matters described in division (A) of this 71626
section continue with the Chancellor and retain their positions 71627
and all benefits accruing thereto. 71628

       (F) All books, records, documents, files, transcripts, 71629
equipment, furniture, supplies, and other materials related to the 71630
matters described in division (A) of this section assigned to or 71631
in the possession of the former eTech Ohio Commission shall be 71632
transferred to the Chancellor.71633

       Section 515.12. As of July 1, 2012, the Chancellor of the 71634
Board of Regents shall succeed to and have and perform all 71635
fiduciary duties and responsibilities previously held by the 71636
Director of eTech Ohio for all outstanding capital appropriations 71637
designated for use by eTech Ohio. 71638

       Section 515.13.  (A) On July 1, 2012, responsibility for 71639
administration of the state's educational technology assistance 71640
activities, provided by the former eTech Ohio Commission, is 71641
transferred to the Department of Education. The Department shall 71642
execute the duties described in section 3301.75 of the Revised 71643
Code. The Department is thereupon and thereafter successor to, 71644
assumes the obligations of, and otherwise constitutes the 71645
continuation of the eTech Ohio Commission, in the matters as 71646
described in that section. 71647

       (B) Any business described in section 3301.75 of the Revised 71648
Code but not completed by the former eTech Ohio Commission shall 71649
be completed by the Department of Education in the same manner, 71650
and with the same effect, as if completed by the eTech Ohio 71651
Commission. No validation, cure, right, privilege, remedy, 71652
obligation, or liability is lost or impaired by reason of the 71653
renaming, and shall be recognized, administered, performed, or 71654
enforced by the Department. 71655

       (C) All of the rules of the former eTech Ohio Commission 71656
related to activities described in section 3301.75 of the Revised 71657
Code continue in effect as rules of the State Board of Education, 71658
until amended or rescinded by the State Board. 71659

       (D) No judicial or administrative action or proceeding 71660
related to activities described in section 3301.75 of the Revised 71661
Code, in which the former eTech Ohio Commission is a party, that 71662
is pending on the effective date of this section is affected by 71663
the renaming. Such action or proceeding shall be prosecuted or 71664
defended in the name of the Superintendent of Public Instruction 71665
for the Department. On application to the court or other tribunal, 71666
the Superintendent of Public Instruction shall be substituted for 71667
the eTech Ohio Commission as a party to such action or proceeding. 71668

       (E) Subject to the lay-off provisions of sections 124.321 to 71669
124.328 of the Revised Code, all employees of the former eTech 71670
Ohio Commission assigned to the administration of the state's 71671
educational technology assistance activities, as described in 71672
section 3301.75 of the Revised Code, continue with the Department 71673
of Education and retain their positions and all benefits accruing 71674
thereto. 71675

       (F) All books, records, documents, files, transcripts, 71676
equipment, furniture, supplies, and other materials related to 71677
activities described in section 3301.75 of the Revised Code 71678
assigned to or in the possession of the former eTech Ohio 71679
Commission shall be transferred to the Department of Education. 71680

       Section 601.10. That Section 205.10 of Am. Sub. H.B. 114 of 71681
the 129th General Assembly, as amended by Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 71682
129th General Assembly, be amended to read as follows:71683

       Sec. 205.10. DPS DEPARTMENT OF PUBLIC SAFETY71684

State Highway Safety Fund Group71685

4W40 762321 Operating Expense - BMV $ 80,003,146 $ 82,403,240 82,003,240 71686
4W40 762410 Registrations Supplement $ 28,945,176 $ 29,813,532 71687
5V10 762682 License Plate Contributions $ 2,100,000 $ 2,100,000 71688
7036 761321 Operating Expense - Information and Education $ 7,124,366 $ 7,338,097 6,988,097 71689
7036 761401 Lease Rental Payments $ 9,978,300 $ 2,315,700 71690
7036 764033 Minor Capital Projects $ 1,250,000 $ 1,250,000 71691
7036 764321 Operating Expense - Highway Patrol $ 260,744,934 $ 258,365,903 71692
7036 764605 Motor Carrier Enforcement Expenses $ 2,860,000 $ 2,860,000 71693
8300 761603 Salvage and Exchange - Administration $ 19,469 $ 20,053 71694
8310 761610 Information and Education - Federal $ 422,084 $ 434,746 409,746 71695
8310 764610 Patrol - Federal $ 2,209,936 $ 2,276,234 71696
8310 764659 Transportation Enforcement - Federal $ 5,519,333 $ 5,684,913 71697
8310 765610 EMS - Federal $ 532,007 $ 532,007 71698
8310 769610 Food Stamp Trafficking Enforcement - Federal Investigative Unit Federal Reimbursement $ 1,546,319 $ 1,546,319 71699
8310 769631 Homeland Security - Federal $ 2,184,000 $ 2,184,000 71700
8320 761612 Traffic Safety - Federal $ 16,577,565 $ 16,577,565 71701
8350 762616 Financial Responsibility Compliance $ 5,457,240 $ 5,549,068 5,274,068 71702
8370 764602 Turnpike Policing $ 11,553,959 $ 11,553,959 71703
8380 764606 Patrol Reimbursement $ 50,000 $ 50,000 71704
83C0 764630 Contraband, Forfeiture, Other $ 622,894 $ 622,894 71705
83F0 764657 Law Enforcement Automated Data System $ 9,053,266 $ 9,053,266 71706
83G0 764633 OMVI Enforcement/Education $ 623,230 $ 641,927 71707
83J0 764693 Highway Patrol Justice Contraband $ 2,100,000 $ 2,100,000 71708
83M0 765624 Operating Expense - Trauma and EMS $ 2,632,106 $ 2,711,069 3,204,925 71709
83M0 765640 EMS - Grants $ 0 $ 4,229,819 71710
83N0 761611 Elementary School Seat Belt Program $ 305,600 $ 305,600 0 71711
83P0 765637 EMS Grants $ 4,106,621 $ 4,229,819 0 71712
83R0 762639 Local Immobilization Reimbursement $ 450,000 $ 450,000 71713
83T0 764694 Highway Patrol Treasury Contraband $ 21,000 $ 21,000 71714
8400 764607 State Fair Security $ 1,256,655 $ 1,294,354 71715
8400 764617 Security and Investigations $ 6,432,686 $ 6,432,686 71716
8400 764626 State Fairgrounds Police Force $ 849,883 $ 849,883 71717
8400 769632 Homeland Security - Operating $ 737,791 $ 737,791 71718
8410 764603 Salvage and Exchange - Highway Patrol $ 1,339,399 $ 1,339,399 71719
8460 761625 Motorcycle Safety Education $ 3,185,013 $ 3,280,563 71720
8490 762627 Automated Title Processing Board $ 17,316,755 $ 14,335,513 71721
TOTAL HSF State Highway Safety Fund Group $ 490,110,733 $ 481,261,100 480,399,356 71722

General Services Fund Group71723

4P60 768601 Justice Program Services $ 998,104 $ 1,028,047 71724
4S30 766661 Hilltop Utility Reimbursement $ 540,800 $ 540,800 71725
5ET0 768625 Drug Law Enforcement $ 3,780,000 $ 3,893,400 71726
5Y10 764695 Highway Patrol Continuing Professional Training $ 170,000 $ 170,000 71727
5Y10 767696 Investigative Unit Continuing Professional Training $ 15,000 $ 15,000 71728
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 5,503,904 $ 5,647,247 71729

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group71730

3290 763645 Federal Mitigation Program $ 10,110,332 $ 10,413,642 71731
3370 763609 Federal Disaster Relief $ 27,707,636 $ 27,707,636 71732
3390 763647 Emergency Management Assistance and Training $ 75,664,821 $ 77,934,765 71733
3CB0 768691 Federal Justice Grants - FFY06 $ 200,000 $ 50,000 71734
3CC0 768609 Justice Assistance Grants - FFY07 $ 583,222 $ 310,000 71735
3CD0 768610 Justice Assistance Grants – FFY08 $ 310,000 $ 150,000 71736
3CE0 768611 Justice Assistance Grants – FFY09 $ 865,000 $ 1,200,000 71737
3CV0 768697 Justice Assistance Grants Supplement – FFY08 $ 2,000 $ 0 71738
3DE0 768612 Federal Stimulus - Justice Assistance Grants $ 1,015,000 $ 1,015,000 71739
3DH0 768613 Federal Stimulus - Justice Programs $ 150,000 $ 150,000 71740
3DU0 762628 BMV Grants $ 1,525,000 $ 1,580,000 1,480,000 71741
3EU0 768614 Justice Assistance Grants – FFY10 $ 650,000 $ 920,000 71742
3L50 768604 Justice Program $ 11,400,000 $ 11,400,000 71743
3N50 763644 U.S. Department of Energy Agreement $ 31,672 $ 31,672 71744
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 130,214,683 $ 132,862,715 132,762,715 71745

State Special Revenue Fund Group71746

4V30 763662 EMA Service and Reimbursement $ 4,368,369 $ 4,499,420 71747
5390 762614 Motor Vehicle Dealers Board $ 180,000 $ 185,400 71748
5B90 766632 Private Investigator and Security Guard Provider $ 1,562,637 $ 1,562,637 71749
5BK0 768687 Criminal Justice Services - Operating $ 400,000 $ 400,000 71750
5BK0 768689 Family Violence Shelter Programs $ 750,000 $ 750,000 71751
5CM0 767691 Federal Investigative Seizure Investigative Unit Federal Equitable Sharing - Treasury $ 300,000 $ 300,000 71752
5DS0 769630 Homeland Security $ 1,414,384 $ 1,414,384 71753
5FF0 762621 Indigent Interlock and Alcohol Monitoring $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 71754
5FL0 769634 Investigations $ 899,300 $ 899,300 71755
5LM0 768698 Criminal Justice Services Law Enforcement Support $ 33,991 $ 816,955 71756
6220 767615 Investigative Contraband and Forfeiture $ 375,000 $ 375,000 71757
6570 763652 Utility Radiological Safety $ 1,415,945 $ 1,415,945 71758
6810 763653 SARA Title III HAZMAT Planning $ 262,438 $ 262,438 71759
8500 767628 Investigative Unit Salvage $ 90,000 $ 92,700 71760
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 14,018,073 14,052,064 $ 14,157,224 14,974,179 71761

Liquor Control Fund Group71762

7043 767321 Liquor Enforcement - Operating $ 11,000,000 $ 11,000,000 71763
TOTAL LCF Liquor Control Fund Group $ 11,000,000 $ 11,000,000 71764

Agency Fund Group71765

5J90 761678 Federal Salvage/GSA $ 1,500,000 $ 1,500,000 71766
TOTAL AGY Agency Fund Group $ 1,500,000 $ 1,500,000 71767

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group71768

R024 762619 Unidentified Motor Vehicle Receipts $ 1,885,000 $ 1,885,000 71769
R052 762623 Security Deposits $ 350,000 $ 350,000 71770
TOTAL 090 Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group $ 2,235,000 $ 2,235,000 71771
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 654,582,393 654,616,384 $ 648,663,286 648,518,497 71772

       MOTOR VEHICLE REGISTRATION71773

       The Registrar of Motor Vehicles may deposit revenues to meet 71774
the cash needs of the State Bureau of Motor Vehicles Fund (Fund 71775
4W40) established in section 4501.25 of the Revised Code, obtained 71776
under sections 4503.02 and 4504.02 of the Revised Code, less all 71777
other available cash. Revenue deposited pursuant to this paragraph 71778
shall support, in part, appropriations for operating expenses and 71779
defray the cost of manufacturing and distributing license plates 71780
and license plate stickers and enforcing the law relative to the 71781
operation and registration of motor vehicles. Notwithstanding 71782
section 4501.03 of the Revised Code, the revenues shall be paid 71783
into Fund 4W40 before any revenues obtained pursuant to sections 71784
4503.02 and 4504.02 of the Revised Code are paid into any other 71785
fund. The deposit of revenues to meet the aforementioned cash 71786
needs shall be in approximately equal amounts on a monthly basis 71787
or as otherwise determined by the Director of Budget and 71788
Management pursuant to a plan submitted by the Registrar of Motor 71789
Vehicles.71790

       CAPITAL PROJECTS71791

       The Registrar of Motor Vehicles may transfer cash from the 71792
State Bureau of Motor Vehicles Fund (Fund 4W40) to the State 71793
Highway Safety Fund (Fund 7036) to meet its obligations for 71794
capital projects CIR-047, Department of Public Safety Office 71795
Building and CIR-049, Warehouse Facility. 71796

       OBA BOND AUTHORITY/LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS71797

       The foregoing appropriation item 761401, Lease Rental 71798
Payments, shall be used for payments to the Ohio Building 71799
Authority for the period July 1, 2011, to June 30, 2013, under the 71800
primary leases and agreements for public safety related buildings 71801
financed by obligations issued under Chapter 152. of the Revised 71802
Code. Notwithstanding section 152.24 of the Revised Code, the Ohio 71803
Building Authority may, with approval of the Director of Budget 71804
and Management, lease capital facilities to the Department of 71805
Public Safety.71806

       HILLTOP TRANSFER71807

       The Director of Public Safety shall determine, per an 71808
agreement with the Director of Transportation, the share of each 71809
debt service payment made out of appropriation item 761401, Lease 71810
Rental Payments, that relates to the Department of 71811
Transportation's portion of the Hilltop Building Project, and 71812
shall certify to the Director of Budget and Management the amounts 71813
of this share. The Director of Budget and Management shall 71814
transfer the amounts of such shares from the Highway Operating 71815
Fund (Fund 7002) to the State Highway Safety Fund (Fund 7036).71816

       CASH TRANSFERS TO TRAUMA AND EMERGENCY MEDICAL SERVICES FUND71817

       On July 1, 2011, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 71818
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the unexpended 71819
and unencumbered cash balance in the Seat Belt Education Fund 71820
(Fund 8440) to the Trauma and Emergency Medical Services Fund 71821
(Fund 83M0). Upon completion of the transfer, Fund 8440 is 71822
abolished. The Director shall cancel any existing encumbrances 71823
against appropriation item 761613, Seat Belt Education Program, 71824
and reestablish them against appropriation item 765624, Operating 71825
Expense - Trauma and EMS. The reestablished encumbrance amounts 71826
are hereby appropriated.71827

       CASH TRANSFERS BETWEEN FUNDS71828

        Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the 71829
Director of Budget and Management, upon the written request of the 71830
Director of Public Safety, may approve the transfer of cash 71831
between the following six funds: the Trauma and Emergency Medical 71832
Services Fund (Fund 83M0), the Homeland Security Fund (Fund 5DS0), 71833
the Investigations Fund (Fund 5FL0), the Emergency Management 71834
Agency Service and Reimbursement Fund (Fund 4V30), the Justice 71835
Program Services Fund (Fund 4P60), and the State Bureau of Motor 71836
Vehicles Fund (Fund 4W40).71837

       CASH TRANSFERS TO SECURITY, INVESTIGATIONS, AND POLICING FUND71838

       Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the 71839
Director of Budget and Management, upon the written request of the 71840
Director of Public Safety, may approve the transfer of cash from 71841
the Continuing Professional Training Fund (Fund 5Y10), the State 71842
Highway Patrol Contraband, Forfeiture, and Other Fund (Fund 83C0), 71843
the Trauma and Emergency Medical Services Fund (Fund 83M0), and 71844
the Highway Safety Salvage and Exchange Highway Patrol Fund (Fund 71845
8410) to the Security, Investigations, and Policing Fund (Fund 71846
8400).71847

        CASH TRANSFERS OF SEAT BELT FINE REVENUES 71848

        Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the 71849
Controlling Board, upon request of the Director of Public Safety, 71850
may approve the transfer of cash between the following fourthree71851
funds that receive fine revenues from enforcement of the mandatory 71852
seat belt law: the Trauma and Emergency Medical Services Fund 71853
(Fund 83M0), the Elementary School Program Fund (Fund 83N0), and 71854
the Trauma and Emergency Medical Services Grants Fund (Fund 83P0). 71855

       STATE DISASTER RELIEF71856

       The State Disaster Relief Fund (Fund 5330) may accept 71857
transfers of cash and appropriations from Controlling Board 71858
appropriation items for Ohio Emergency Management Agency disaster 71859
response costs and disaster program management costs, and may also 71860
be used for the following purposes:71861

       (A) To accept transfers of cash and appropriations from 71862
Controlling Board appropriation items for Ohio Emergency 71863
Management Agency public assistance and mitigation program match 71864
costs to reimburse eligible local governments and private 71865
nonprofit organizations for costs related to disasters;71866

       (B) To accept and transfer cash to reimburse the costs 71867
associated with Emergency Management Assistance Compact (EMAC) 71868
deployments;71869

       (C) To accept disaster related reimbursement from federal, 71870
state, and local governments. The Director of Budget and 71871
Management may transfer cash from reimbursements received by this 71872
fund to other funds of the state from which transfers were 71873
originally approved by the Controlling Board.71874

       (D) To accept transfers of cash and appropriations from 71875
Controlling Board appropriation items to fund the State Disaster 71876
Relief Program, for disasters that have been declared by the 71877
Governor, and the State Individual Assistance Program for 71878
disasters that have been declared by the Governor and the federal 71879
Small Business Administration. The Ohio Emergency Management 71880
Agency shall publish and make available application packets 71881
outlining procedures for the State Disaster Relief Program and the 71882
State Individual Assistance Program.71883

       JUSTICE ASSISTANCE GRANT FUND71884

       The federal payments made to the state for the Byrne Justice 71885
Assistance Grants Program under Title II of Division A of the 71886
American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009 shall be deposited 71887
to the credit of the Justice Assistance Grant Fund (Fund 3DE0), 71888
which is hereby created in the state treasury. All investment 71889
earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund.71890

        FEDERAL STIMULUS – JUSTICE PROGRAMS71891

        The federal payments made to the state for the Violence 71892
Against Women Formula Grant under Title II of Division A of the 71893
American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009 shall be deposited 71894
to the credit of the Federal Stimulus – Justice Programs Fund 71895
(Fund 3DH0).71896

        TRANSFER FROM STATE FIRE MARSHAL FUND TO EMERGENCY MANAGEMENT 71897
AGENCY SERVICE AND REIMBURSEMENT FUND71898

        On July 1 of each fiscal year, or as soon as possible 71899
thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer 71900
$200,000 in cash from the State Fire Marshal Fund (Fund 5460) to 71901
the Emergency Management Agency Service and Reimbursement Fund 71902
(Fund 4V30) to be distributed to the Ohio Task Force One – Urban 71903
Search and Rescue Unit and other urban search and rescue programs 71904
around the state.71905

       FAMILY VIOLENCE PREVENTION FUND71906

        Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, in each 71907
of fiscal years 2012 and 2013, the first $750,000 received to the 71908
credit of the Family Violence Prevention Fund (Fund 5BK0) shall be 71909
appropriated to appropriation item 768689, Family Violence Shelter 71910
Programs, and the next $400,000 received to the credit of Fund 71911
5BK0 in each of those fiscal years shall be appropriated to 71912
appropriation item 768687, Criminal Justice Services - Operating. 71913
Any moneys received to the credit of Fund 5BK0 in excess of the 71914
aforementioned appropriated amounts in each fiscal year shall, 71915
upon the approval of the Controlling Board, be used to provide 71916
grants to family violence shelters in Ohio.71917

       SARA TITLE III HAZMAT PLANNING71918

       The SARA Title III HAZMAT Planning Fund (Fund 6810) is 71919
entitled to receive grant funds from the Emergency Response 71920
Commission to implement the Emergency Management Agency's 71921
responsibilities under Chapter 3750. of the Revised Code.71922

       COLLECTIVE BARGAINING INCREASES71923

       Notwithstanding division (D) of section 127.14 and division 71924
(B) of section 131.35 of the Revised Code, except for the General 71925
Revenue Fund, the Controlling Board may, upon the request of 71926
either the Director of Budget and Management, or the Department of 71927
Public Safety with the approval of the Director of Budget and 71928
Management, increase appropriations for any fund, as necessary for 71929
the Department of Public Safety, to assist in paying the costs of 71930
increases in employee compensation that have occurred pursuant to 71931
collective bargaining agreements under Chapter 4117. of the 71932
Revised Code and, for exempt employees, under section 124.152 of 71933
the Revised Code.71934

       CASH BALANCE FUND REVIEW71935

       Not later than the first day of April in each fiscal year of 71936
the biennium, the Director of Budget and Management shall review 71937
the cash balances for each fund, except the State Highway Safety 71938
Fund (Fund 7036) and the State Bureau of Motor Vehicles Fund (Fund 71939
4W40), in the State Highway Safety Fund Group, and shall recommend 71940
to the Controlling Board an amount to be transferred to the credit 71941
of Fund 7036 or Fund 4W40, as appropriate.71942

       Section 601.11. That existing Section 205.10 of Am. Sub. H.B. 71943
114 of the 129th General Assembly, as amended by Am. Sub. H.B. 153 71944
of the 129th General Assembly, is hereby repealed.71945

       Section 601.20. That Section 201 of Sub. H.B. 123 of the 71946
129th General Assembly be amended to read as follows:71947

       Sec. 201.  All items in Sections 201 and 203 of this act are 71948
hereby appropriated out of any moneys in the state treasury to the 71949
credit of the designated fund. For all appropriations made in this 71950
act, those in the first column are for fiscal year 2012, and those 71951
in the second column are for fiscal year 2013.71952

FND AI AI TITLE Appropriations 71953

BWC BUREAU OF WORKERS' COMPENSATION
71954

Workers' Compensation Fund Group71955

7023 855401 William Green Lease Payments to OBA $ 18,291,365 $ 17,533,370 71956
7023 855407 Claims, Risk and Medical Management $ 125,427,732 $ 124,192,959 122,492,959 71957
7023 855408 Fraud Prevention $ 11,331,154 $ 11,164,226 71958
7023 855409 Administrative Services $ 101,724,950 $ 104,136,037 103,346,037 71959
7023 855410 Attorney General Payments $ 4,621,850 $ 4,621,850 71960
8220 855606 Coal Workers' Fund $ 150,586 $ 147,666 71961
8230 855608 Marine Industry $ 76,532 $ 75,527 71962
8250 855605 Disabled Workers Relief Fund $ 322,266 $ 319,718 71963
8260 855609 Safety and Hygiene Operating $ 20,382,567 $ 20,161,132 71964
8260 855610 Gear Program $ 4,000,000 $ 4,000,000 71965
8290 855604 Long Term Care Loan Program $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 100,000 71966
TOTAL WCF Workers' Compensation 71967
Fund Group $ 287,329,002 $ 287,352,485 283,962,485 71968

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group71969

3490 855601 OSHA Enforcement $ 1,670,998 $ 1,647,515 71970
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 1,670,998 $ 1,647,515 71971
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 289,000,000 $ 289,000,000 285,610,000 71972

       WILLIAM GREEN LEASE PAYMENTS71973

       The foregoing appropriation item 855401, William Green Lease 71974
Payments to OBA, shall be used for lease payments to the Ohio 71975
Building Authority, and these appropriations shall be used to meet 71976
all payments at the times they are required to be made during the 71977
period from July 1, 2011, to June 30, 2013, by the Bureau of 71978
Workers' Compensation to the Ohio Building Authority pursuant to 71979
leases and agreements made under Chapter 152. of the Revised Code 71980
and Section 6 of Am. Sub. H.B. 743 of the 118th General Assembly. 71981
Of the amounts received in Fund 7023, appropriation item 855401, 71982
William Green Lease Payments to OBA, up to $35,824,735 shall be 71983
restricted for lease rental payments to the Ohio Building 71984
Authority. If it is determined that additional appropriations are 71985
necessary for such purpose, such amounts are hereby appropriated.71986

       Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, all 71987
tenants of the William Green Building not funded by the Workers' 71988
Compensation Fund (Fund 7023) shall pay their fair share of the 71989
costs of lease payments to the Workers' Compensation Fund (Fund 71990
7023) by intrastate transfer voucher.71991

       WORKERS' COMPENSATION FRAUD UNIT71992

       The Workers' Compensation Section Fund (Fund 1950) 71993
administered by the Attorney General shall receive payments from 71994
the Bureau of Workers' Compensation at the beginning of each 71995
quarter of each fiscal year to fund expenses of the Workers' 71996
Compensation Fraud Unit within the Attorney General's Office. Of 71997
the foregoing appropriation item 855410, Attorney General 71998
Payments, $828,200 in fiscal year 2012 and $828,200 in fiscal year 71999
2013 shall be used to provide these payments.72000

       SAFETY AND HYGIENE72001

       Notwithstanding section 4121.37 of the Revised Code, the 72002
Treasurer of State shall transfer $20,382,567 cash in fiscal year 72003
2012 and $20,161,132 cash in fiscal year 2013 from the State 72004
Insurance Fund to the Safety and Hygiene Fund (Fund 8260).72005

       OSHA ON-SITE CONSULTATION PROGRAM72006

        The Bureau of Workers' Compensation may designate a portion 72007
of appropriation item 855609, Safety and Hygiene Operating, to be 72008
used to match federal funding for the federal Occupational Safety 72009
and Health Administration's (OSHA) on-site consultation program.72010

       VOCATIONAL REHABILITATION72011

       The Bureau of Workers' Compensation and the Rehabilitation 72012
Services Commission shall enter into an interagency agreement for 72013
the provision of vocational rehabilitation services and staff to 72014
mutually eligible clients. The bureau shall provide $605,407 in 72015
fiscal year 2012 and $605,407 in fiscal year 2013 from the State 72016
Insurance Fund to fund vocational rehabilitation services and 72017
staff in accordance with the interagency agreement.72018

       FUND BALANCE72019

       Any unencumbered cash balance in excess of $45,000,000 in the 72020
Workers' Compensation Fund (Fund 7023) on the thirtieth day of 72021
June of each fiscal year shall be used to reduce the 72022
administrative cost rate charged to employers to cover 72023
appropriations for Bureau of Workers' Compensation operations.72024

       Section 601.21. That existing Section 201 of Sub. H.B. 123 of 72025
the 129th General Assembly is hereby repealed.72026

       Section 601.30. That Section 1 of H.B. 124 of the 129th 72027
General Assembly be amended to read as follows:72028

       Sec. 1. All items in this section are hereby appropriated out 72029
of any moneys in the state treasury to the credit of the 72030
designated fund. For all appropriations made in this section, 72031
those in the first column are for fiscal year 2012, and those in 72032
the second column are for fiscal year 2013.72033

Appropriations 72034

FND AI AI TITLE FY 2012 FY 2013 72035

OIC INDUSTRIAL COMMISSION
72036

Workers' Compensation Fund Group72037

5W30 845321 Operating Expenses $ 50,100,000 $ 48,900,000 47,732,000 72038
5W30 845402 Rent - William Green Building $ 5,500,000 $ 5,500,000 72039
5W30 845410 Attorney General Payments $ 3,900,000 $ 4,000,000 72040
TOTAL WCF Workers' Compensation 72041
Fund Group $ 59,500,000 $ 58,400,000 57,232,000 72042
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 59,500,000 $ 58,400,000 57,232,000 72043

       RENT - WILLIAM GREEN BUILDING72044

       The foregoing appropriation item 845402, Rent - William Green 72045
Building, shall be used for rent and operating expenses for the 72046
space occupied by the Industrial Commission in the William Green 72047
Building.72048

       Section 601.31. That existing Section 1 of H.B. 124 of the 72049
129th General Assembly is hereby repealed.72050

       Section 601.40. That Sections 205.10, 207.10, 207.10.80, 72051
207.20.10, 207.20.30, 207.20.90, 209.10, 209.20, 209.30, 211.10, 72052
215.10, 215.20, 223.10, 229.10, 243.10, 261.10.40, 261.10.70, 72053
261.20.10, 261.20.40, 261.20.50, 261.20.60, 261.20.80, 261.20.90, 72054
261.30.10, 261.30.20, 261.30.30, 261.30.40, 261.30.60, 261.30.70, 72055
261.30.80, 261.30.90, 261.40.10, 263.10, 263.10.30, 263.10.90, 72056
263.20.40, 263.20.70, 267.10, 267.10.10, 267.10.20, 267.10.40, 72057
267.30.20, 267.30.40, 279.10, 283.10, 283.20, 283.30, 291.10, 72058
307.10, 309.10, 309.30.10, 309.30.30, 309.30.33, 309.30.53, 72059
309.35.73, 315.10, 327.10, 335.10, 337.10, 343.10, 343.40, 365.10, 72060
367.10, 369.10, 371.10, 371.50.61, 371.60.70, 371.60.80, 373.10, 72061
375.10, 379.10, 387.10, 403.10, 411.10, 415.10, 503.50, 521.70, 72062
and 701.40 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly be 72063
amended to read as follows: 72064

       Sec. 205.10. ADJ ADJUTANT GENERAL72065

General Revenue Fund72066

GRF 745401 Ohio Military Reserve $ 12,308 $ 12,308 72067
GRF 745404 Air National Guard $ 1,810,606 $ 1,810,606 72068
GRF 745407 National Guard Benefits $ 400,000 $ 400,000 72069
GRF 745409 Central Administration $ 2,692,098 $ 2,692,098 2,682,098 72070
GRF 745499 Army National Guard $ 3,687,888 $ 3,689,871 72071
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 8,602,900 $ 8,604,883 8,594,883 72072

General Services Fund Group72073

5340 745612 Property Operations Management $ 534,304 $ 534,304 72074
5360 745605 Marksmanship Activities $ 128,600 $ 128,600 72075
5360 745620 Camp Perry and Buckeye Inn Operations $ 1,178,311 $ 978,846 72076
5370 745604 Ohio National Guard Facilities Maintenance $ 62,000 $ 62,000 72077
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 1,903,215 $ 1,703,750 72078

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group72079

3410 745615 Air National Guard Base Security $ 2,977,692 $ 2,977,692 72080
3420 745616 Army National Guard Service Agreement $ 10,970,050 $ 10,970,050 72081
3E80 745628 Air National Guard Operations and Maintenance $ 16,958,595 $ 16,958,595 72082
3R80 745603 Counter Drug Operations $ 25,000 $ 25,000 72083
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 30,931,337 $ 30,931,337 72084

State Special Revenue Fund Group72085

5U80 745613 Community Match Armories $ 250,000 $ 250,000 72086
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 250,000 $ 250,000 72087

TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 41,687,452 $ 41,489,970 41,479,970 72088

       NATIONAL GUARD BENEFITS72089

       The foregoing appropriation item 745407, National Guard 72090
Benefits, shall be used for purposes of sections 5919.31 and 72091
5919.33 of the Revised Code, and for administrative costs of the 72092
associated programs.72093

       For active duty members of the Ohio National Guard who died 72094
after October 7, 2001, while performing active duty, the death 72095
benefit, pursuant to section 5919.33 of the Revised Code, shall be 72096
paid to the beneficiary or beneficiaries designated on the 72097
member's Servicemembers' Group Life Insurance Policy.72098

       STATE ACTIVE DUTY COSTS72099

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 745409, Central 72100
Administration, $50,000 in each fiscal year shall be used for the 72101
purpose of paying expenses related to state active duty of members 72102
of the Ohio organized militia, in accordance with a proclamation 72103
of the Governor. Expenses include, but are not limited to, the 72104
cost of equipment, supplies, and services, as determined by the 72105
Adjutant General's Department.72106

       Sec. 207.10. DAS DEPARTMENT OF ADMINISTRATIVE SERVICES72107

General Revenue Fund72108

GRF 100403 Public Employees Health Care Program $ 400,000 $ 400,000 344,000 72109
GRF 100415 OAKS Rental Payments $ 23,024,500 $ 23,006,300 72110
GRF 100416 STARS Lease Rental Payments $ 4,970,700 $ 4,971,300 72111
GRF 100418 Web Sites and Business Gateway $ 2,895,063 $ 2,795,176 0 72112
GRF 100419 IT Security Infrastructure $ 742,535 $ 742,648 0 72113
GRF 100439 Equal Opportunity Certification Programs $ 625,000 $ 625,000 0 72114
GRF 100447 OBA - Building Rent Payments $ 53,260,000 $ 83,504,200 72115
GRF 100448 OBA - Building Operating Payments $ 21,000,000 $ 21,000,000 72116
GRF 100449 DAS - Building Operating Payments $ 7,551,245 $ 7,551,571 72117
GRF 100451 Minority Affairs $ 24,016 $ 24,016 0 72118
GRF 100452 Efficiency & Results Program $ 0 $ 650,000 72119
GRF 100456 State IT Services $ 0 $ 3,537,824 72120
GRF 100457 Equal Opportunity Services $ 0 $ 1,610,516 72121
GRF 100458 State Construction Management Services $ 0 $ 2,745,751 72122
GRF 102321 Construction Compliance $ 920,000 $ 920,000 0 72123
GRF 130321 State Agency Support Services $ 2,779,457 $ 2,780,032 2,752,232 72124
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 118,192,516 $ 148,320,243 151,673,694 72125

General Services Fund Group72126

1120 100616 DAS Administration $ 5,974,625 $ 5,886,524 5,827,659 72127
1150 100632 Central Service Agency $ 911,995 $ 912,305 903,182 72128
1170 100644 General Services Division - Operating $ 13,000,000 $ 13,000,000 72129
1220 100637 Fleet Management $ 3,978,827 $ 4,204,066 4,412,025 72130
1250 100622 Human Resources Division - Operating $ 16,922,295 $ 16,717,009 16,549,839 72131
1250 100657 Benefits Communication $ 925,586 $ 921,531 912,316 72132
1280 100620 Collective Bargaining $ 3,462,529 $ 3,464,148 3,429,507 72133
1300 100606 Risk Management Reserve $ 10,349,494 $ 12,149,884 12,028,385 72134
1310 100639 State Architect's Office $ 9,812,132 $ 9,813,342 9,463,342 72135
1320 100631 DAS Building Management $ 11,000,000 $ 11,000,000 72136
1330 100607 IT Services Delivery $ 58,088,940 $ 58,103,005 57,521,975 72137
1880 100649 Equal Opportunity Division - Operating $ 939,559 $ 863,013 72138
2100 100612 State Printing $ 17,597,054 $ 16,659,526 72139
2290 100630 IT Governance $ 14,000,000 $ 14,000,000 72140
2290 100640 Leveraged Enterprise Purchases $ 3,000,000 $ 3,000,000 2,816,535 72141
4270 100602 Investment Recovery $ 4,100,000 $ 4,100,000 4,000,000 72142
4N60 100617 Major IT Purchases $ 1,950,000 $ 4,950,000 72143
4P30 100603 DAS Information Services $ 5,047,565 $ 4,979,392 4,929,598 72144
5C20 100605 MARCS Administration $ 14,075,705 $ 14,077,467 72145
5C30 100608 Skilled Trades $ 404,297 $ 404,375 204,375 72146
5EB0 100635 OAKS Support Organization $ 19,000,539 $ 19,003,108 18,813,077 72147
5EB0 100656 OAKS Updates and Developments $ 12,265,952 $ 8,743,462 8,656,027 72148
5HU0 100655 Construction Reform Demo Compliance $ 150,000 $ 150,000 72149
5L70 100610 Professional Development $ 2,496,679 $ 2,496,760 72150
5V60 100619 Employee Educational Development $ 800,000 $ 850,000 72151
5X30 100634 Centralized Gateway Enhancement $ 2,052,308 $ 2,052,308 72152
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 72153
Group $ 232,306,081 $ 232,501,225 230,566,916 72154

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group72155

3AJ0 100654 ARRA Broadband Mapping Grant $ 270,756 $ 106,347 72156
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 72157
Fund Group $ 270,756 $ 106,347 72158

State Special Revenue Fund Group72159

5JQ0 100658 Professions Professionals Licensing System $ 2,000,000 $ 1,000,000 990,000 72160
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 72161
Fund Group $ 2,000,000 $ 1,000,000 990,000 72162
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 352,769,353 $ 381,927,815 383,336,957 72163


       Sec. 207.10.80. DAS - BUILDING OPERATING PAYMENTS72165

       The foregoing appropriation item 100449, DAS - Building 72166
Operating Payments, shall be used to pay the rent expenses of 72167
veterans organizations pursuant to section 123.024 of the Revised 72168
Code in fiscal years 2012 and 2013.72169

       The foregoing appropriation item, 100449, DAS - Building 72170
Operating Payments, also may be used to provide funding for the 72171
cost of property appraisals or building studies that the 72172
Department of Administrative Services may be required to obtain 72173
for property that is being sold by the state or property under 72174
consideration to be renovated or purchased by the state.72175

       Notwithstanding section 125.28 of the Revised Code, the 72176
remaining portion of the appropriation may be used to pay the 72177
operating expenses of state facilities maintained by the 72178
Department of Administrative Services that are not billed to 72179
building tenants, or other costs associated with the Voinovich 72180
Center in Youngstown, Ohio. These expenses may include, but are 72181
not limited to, the costs for vacant space and space undergoing 72182
renovation, and the rent expenses of tenants that are relocated 72183
because of building renovations. These payments shall be processed 72184
by the Department of Administrative Services through intrastate 72185
transfer vouchers and placed in the Building Management Fund (Fund 72186
1320).72187

       STATE IT SERVICES72188

       The foregoing appropriation item 100456, State IT Services, 72189
shall be used to pay costs associated with the Ohio Business 72190
Gateway, State Portal, and Shared Hosting Service that were 72191
formerly paid from appropriation item 100418, Web Sites and 72192
Business Gateway, and costs associated with statewide operators 72193
and the Ohio Geographically Referenced Information Program that 72194
were formerly paid from appropriation item 100419, IT Security 72195
Infrastructure. The Director of Budget and Management shall cancel 72196
any existing encumbrances against appropriation items 100418, Web 72197
Site and Business Gateway and 100419, IT Security Infrastructure, 72198
and reestablish them against appropriation item 100456, State IT 72199
Services. The reestablished encumbrance amounts are hereby 72200
appropriated.72201

        EQUAL OPPORTUNITY SERVICES72202

        The foregoing appropriation item 100457, Equal Opportunity 72203
Services, shall be used to pay costs associated with the 72204
certification of businesses for participation in the Minority 72205
Business Enterprise and Encouraging Diversity, Growth and Equity 72206
Programs that were formerly paid from appropriation item 100439, 72207
Equal Opportunity Certification Programs; the activities of the 72208
Ohio Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr. Holiday Commission that were 72209
formerly paid from appropriation item 100451, Minority Affairs; 72210
and the monitoring of equal employment opportunity (EEO) and 72211
affirmative action requirements to ensure contractors bidding on 72212
and receiving contracts comply with EEO laws, rules, and 72213
regulations that were formerly paid from appropriation item 72214
102321, Construction Compliance. The Director of Budget and 72215
Management shall cancel any existing encumbrances against 72216
appropriation items 100439, Equal Opportunity Certification 72217
Programs; 100451, Minority Affairs; and 102321, Construction 72218
Compliance, and reestablish them against appropriation item 72219
100457, Equal Opportunity Services. The reestablished encumbrance 72220
amounts are hereby appropriated.72221

        STATE CONSTRUCTION MANAGEMENT SERVICES72222

        The foregoing appropriation item 100458, State Construction 72223
Management Services, shall be used to pay costs of statewide 72224
shared construction-related services and capital improvement 72225
project management services provided through the state's 72226
enterprise resource planning system. 72227

       CASH TRANSFER FROM THE WORKFORCE DEVELOPMENT FUND TO THE 72228
HUMAN RESOURCES SERVICES FUND72229

       Upon request of the Director of Administrative Services, in 72230
FY 2013, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer up 72231
to $975,000 from the Workforce Development Fund (Fund 5D70) to the 72232
Human Resources Services Fund (Fund 1250) to support one-time 72233
human resources administration activities for state agencies. 72234

       Sec. 207.20.10. GENERAL SERVICE CHARGES72235

       The Department of Administrative Services, with the approval 72236
of the Director of Budget and Management, shall establish charges 72237
for recovering the costs of administering the programs funded by 72238
the General Services Fund (Fund 1170) and the State Printing Fund 72239
(Fund 2100). Such charges within Fund 1170 may be used to recover 72240
the cost of paying a vendor to establish reduced pricing for 72241
contracted supplies or services.72242

        If the Director of Administrative Services determines that 72243
additional amounts are necessary to pay for consulting and 72244
administrative costs related to securing lower pricing, the 72245
Director of Administrative Services may request that the Director 72246
of Budget and Management approve additional expenditures. Such 72247
approved additional amounts are appropriated to appropriation item 72248
100644, General Services Division-Operating. 72249

       COMPRESSED NATURAL GAS STUDY COMMITTEE72250

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 100637, Fleet Management, 72251
up to $250,000 in fiscal year 2013 shall be used by the Compressed 72252
Natural Gas Study Committee, created by Section 701.80 of this 72253
act, to examine the use of compressed natural gas in the state's 72254
motor vehicle fleet.72255

       Sec. 207.20.30. EQUAL OPPORTUNITY PROGRAM72256

       The Department of Administrative Services, with the approval 72257
of the Director of Budget and Management, shall establish charges 72258
for recovering the costs of administering the activities supported 72259
by the State EEO Fund (Fund 1880). These charges shall be 72260
deposited to the credit of the State EEO Fund (Fund 1880) upon 72261
payment made by state agencies, state-supported or state-assisted 72262
institutions of higher education, and tax-supported agencies, 72263
municipal corporations, and other political subdivisions of the 72264
state, for services rendered.72265

       LEVERAGED ENTERPRISE PURCHASES72266

        The foregoing appropriation item 100640, Leveraged Enterprise 72267
Purchases, shall be used by the Department of Administrative 72268
Services to make information technology purchases for the benefit 72269
of one or more government entities as authorized under division 72270
(G) of section 125.18 of the Revised Code. If the Director of 72271
Administrative Services determines that the existing appropriation 72272
is insufficient to timely make such purchases, the Director of 72273
Administrative Services shall seek the approval of the Director of 72274
Budget and Management to make the requested purchases. Upon the 72275
approval of the Director of Budget and Management, the additional 72276
amounts necessary to make the purchases are hereby appropriated. 72277

       Sec. 207.20.90. CASH TRANSFERS FROM THE MAJOR IT PURCHASES 72278
FUND72279

       Upon request of the Director of Administrative Services, the 72280
Director of Budget and Management may make the following transfers 72281
from the Major IT Purchases Fund (Fund 4N60):72282

       (1) Up to $2,800,000 in each fiscal year of the biennium to 72283
the State Architect's Fund (Fund 1310) to support the OAKS Capital 72284
Improvements Module and other costs of the State Architect's 72285
Office that are not directly related to capital projects managed 72286
by the State Architect;72287

       (2) Up to $310,276 in fiscal year 2012 and up to $305,921 in 72288
fiscal year 2013 to the Director's Office Fund (Fund 1120) to 72289
support operating expenses of the Accountability and Results 72290
Initiative.72291

       CASH TRANSFERS TO THE MAJOR IT PURCHASES FUND72292

       Upon request of the Director of Administrative Services, the 72293
Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to $4,000,000 72294
from the OAKS Support Organization Fund (Fund 5EB0) to the Major 72295
IT Purchases Fund (Fund 4N60). This amount represents cash 72296
transferred from Fund 4N60 during fiscal year 2010 pursuant to 72297
Section 207.30.80 of Am. Sub. H.B. 1 of the 128th General 72298
Assembly. Any portion of appropriation item 100617, Major IT 72299
Purchases, that is unencumbered and unexpended at the end of 72300
fiscal year 2012 is hereby reappropriated for fiscal year 2013.72301

       Sec. 209.10. AGE DEPARTMENT OF AGING72302

General Revenue Fund72303

GRF 490321 Operating Expenses $ 1,501,616 $ 1,502,442 1,487,418 72304
GRF 490410 Long-Term Care Ombudsman $ 482,271 $ 482,271 477,448 72305
GRF 490411 Senior Community Services $ 7,130,952 $ 7,131,236 7,060,844 72306
GRF 490414 Alzheimer's Respite $ 1,917,740 $ 1,917,757 1,895,245 72307
GRF 490423 Long-Term Care Budget - State $ 3,419,250 $ 3,419,250 3,385,057 72308
GRF 490506 National Senior Service Corps $ 241,413 $ 241,413 72309
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 14,693,242 $ 14,694,369 14,547,425 72310

General Services Fund Group72311

4800 490606 Senior Community Outreach and Education $ 372,518 $ 372,523 72312
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 72313
Group $ 372,518 $ 372,523 72314

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group72315

3220 490618 Federal Aging Grants $ 14,000,000 $ 14,000,000 72316
3C40 490623 Long-Term Care Budget $ 3,525,000 $ 3,525,000 72317
3M40 490612 Federal Independence Services $ 63,655,080 $ 63,655,080 72318
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 72319
Fund Group $ 81,180,080 $ 81,180,080 72320

State Special Revenue Fund Group72321

4C40 490609 Regional Long-Term Care Ombudsman Program $ 935,000 $ 935,000 2,435,000 72322
5BA0 490620 Ombudsman Support $ 750,000 $ 750,000 72323
5K90 490613 Long-Term Care Consumers Guide $ 1,059,400 $ 1,059,400 72324
5W10 490616 Resident Services Coordinator Program $ 344,692 $ 344,700 72325
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 72326
Fund Group $ 3,089,092 $ 3,089,100 4,589,100 72327
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 99,334,932 $ 99,336,072 100,689,128 72328


       Sec. 209.20. LONG-TERM CARE72330

       Pursuant to an interagency agreement, the Department of Job 72331
and Family Services shallmay designate the Department of Aging to 72332
perform assessments under section 5111.204 of the Revised Code. 72333
The Department of Aging shall provide long-term care consultations 72334
under section 173.42 of the Revised Code to assist individuals in 72335
planning for their long-term health care needs. 72336

       The Department of Aging shall administer the Medicaid 72337
waiver-funded PASSPORT Home Care Program, the Choices Program, the 72338
Assisted Living Program, and the PACE Program as delegated by the 72339
Department of Job and Family Services in an interagency agreement. 72340
The foregoing appropriation items 490423, Long-Term Care Budget - 72341
State, and 490623, Long-Term Care Budget, may be used to support 72342
the Department of Aging's administrative costs associated with 72343
operating the PASSPORT, Choices, Assisted Living, and PACE 72344
programs.72345

       Sec. 209.30.  LONG-TERM CARE OMBUDSMAN72346

       The foregoing appropriation item 490410, Long-Term Care 72347
Ombudsman, shall be used for a program to fund ombudsman program 72348
activities as authorized in sections 173.14 to 173.27 and section 72349
173.99 of the Revised Code.72350

       SENIOR COMMUNITY SERVICES72351

       The foregoing appropriation item 490411, Senior Community 72352
Services, shall be used for services designated by the Department 72353
of Aging, including, but not limited to, home-delivered and 72354
congregate meals, transportation services, personal care services, 72355
respite services, adult day services, home repair, care 72356
coordination, and decision support systems. Service priority shall 72357
be given to low income, frail, and cognitively impaired persons 60 72358
years of age and over. The department shall promote cost sharing 72359
by service recipients for those services funded with senior 72360
community services funds, including, when possible, sliding-fee 72361
scale payment systems based on the income of service recipients.72362

       ALZHEIMER'S RESPITE72363

       The foregoing appropriation item 490414, Alzheimer's Respite, 72364
shall be used to fund only Alzheimer's disease services under 72365
section 173.04 of the Revised Code.72366

       SENIOR COMMUNITY OUTREACH AND EDUCATION72367

       The foregoing appropriation item 490606, Senior Community 72368
Outreach and Education, may be used to provide training to workers 72369
in the field of aging pursuant to division (G) of section 173.02 72370
of the Revised Code.72371

       TRANSFER OF APPROPRIATIONS - FEDERAL INDEPENDENCE SERVICES 72372
AND FEDERAL AGING GRANTS72373

       At the request of the Director of Aging, the Director of 72374
Budget and Management may transfer appropriation between 72375
appropriation items 490612, Federal Independence Services, and 72376
490618, Federal Aging Grants. The amounts transferred shall not 72377
exceed 30 per cent of the appropriation from which the transfer is 72378
made. Any transfers shall be reported by the Department of Aging 72379
to the Controlling Board at the next scheduled meeting of the 72380
board.72381

       REGIONAL LONG-TERM CARE OMBUDSMAN PROGRAM72382

       TheOf the foregoing appropriation item 490609, Regional 72383
Long-Term Care Ombudsman Program, $935,000 in each fiscal year72384
shall be used to pay the costs of operating the regional long-term 72385
care ombudsman programs designated by the Long-Term Care 72386
Ombudsman.72387

       Notwithstanding division (B) of section 173.26 of the Revised 72388
Code, of the foregoing appropriation item 490609, Regional 72389
Long-Term Care Ombudsman Program, $1,500,000 in fiscal year 2013 72390
shall be used for costs associated with the Aging in Place Pilot 72391
Program.72392

       TRANSFER OF RESIDENT PROTECTION FUNDS72393

       In each fiscal year, the Director of Budget and Management 72394
may transfer up to $750,000 cash from the Resident Protection Fund 72395
(Fund 4E30), which is used by the Department of Job and Family 72396
Services, to the Ombudsman Support Fund (Fund 5BA0), which is used 72397
by the Department of Aging. The moneys in the Ombudsman Support 72398
Fund may be used by the state office of the Long-Term Care 72399
Ombudsman Program and by regional ombudsman programs to promote 72400
person-centered care in nursing homes.72401

       On July 1, 2011, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 72402
Department of Aging shall certify to the Director of Budget and 72403
Management the amount of the cash balance in the Ombudsman Support 72404
Fund at the end of fiscal year 2011.72405

       LONG-TERM CARE CONSUMERS GUIDE72406

        The foregoing appropriation item 490613, Long-Term Care 72407
Consumers Guide, shall be used to conduct annual customer 72408
satisfaction surveys and to pay for other administrative expenses 72409
related to the publication of the Ohio Long-Term Care Consumer 72410
Guide.72411

       During fiscal year 2012 and fiscal year 2013, the Department 72412
of Aging shall identify methods and tools for assessing consumer 72413
satisfaction with adult care facilities and with the providers of 72414
home and community-based services. The Department shall also 72415
consider the development of a provider fee structure to support 72416
the inclusion of information about adult care facilities and 72417
providers of home and community-based services among the types of 72418
providers reviewed in the Ohio Long-Term Care Consumer Guide.72419

       Sec. 211.10. AGR DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE72420

General Revenue Fund72421

GRF 700401 Animal Disease Control $ 3,936,687 $ 3,936,687 3,836,687 72422
GRF 700403 Dairy Division $ 1,088,115 $ 1,088,115 72423
GRF 700404 Ohio Proud $ 50,000 $ 50,000 72424
GRF 700406 Consumer Analytical Lab $ 1,287,556 $ 1,287,556 72425
GRF 700407 Food Safety $ 848,792 $ 848,792 72426
GRF 700409 Farmland Preservation $ 72,750 $ 72,750 72427
GRF 700412 Weights and Measures $ 600,000 $ 600,000 72428
GRF 700415 Poultry Inspection $ 392,978 $ 392,978 72429
GRF 700418 Livestock Regulation Program $ 1,108,071 $ 1,108,071 72430
GRF 700424 Livestock Testing and Inspections $ 102,770 $ 102,770 72431
GRF 700499 Meat Inspection Program - State Share $ 4,175,097 $ 4,175,097 72432
GRF 700501 County Agricultural Societies $ 391,413 $ 391,413 72433
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 14,054,229 $ 14,054,229 13,954,229 72434

General Services Fund Group72435

5DA0 700644 Laboratory Administration Support $ 1,094,867 $ 1,094,867 72436
5GH0 700655 Central Support Indirect Cost $ 4,456,842 $ 4,456,842 72437
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 5,551,709 $ 5,551,709 72438

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group72439

3260 700618 Meat Inspection Program - Federal Share $ 4,950,000 $ 4,950,000 72440
3360 700617 Ohio Farm Loan Revolving Fund $ 150,000 $ 150,000 72441
3820 700601 Cooperative Contracts $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 72442
3AB0 700641 Agricultural Easement $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 72443
3J40 700607 Indirect Cost $ 600,000 $ 600,000 72444
3R20 700614 Federal Plant Industry $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 72445
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 72446
Fund Group $ 9,700,000 $ 9,700,000 72447

State Special Revenue Fund Group72448

4960 700626 Ohio Grape Industries $ 846,611 $ 846,611 72449
4970 700627 Commodity Handlers Regulatory Program $ 483,402 $ 483,402 72450
4C90 700605 Commercial Feed and Seed $ 1,816,897 $ 1,816,897 72451
4D20 700609 Auction Education $ 41,000 $ 41,000 72452
4E40 700606 Utility Radiological Safety $ 131,785 $ 131,785 72453
4P70 700610 Food Safety Inspection $ 1,085,836 $ 1,085,836 72454
4R00 700636 Ohio Proud Marketing $ 30,500 $ 30,500 72455
4R20 700637 Dairy Industry Inspection $ 1,758,247 $ 1,758,247 72456
4T60 700611 Poultry and Meat Inspection $ 180,000 $ 180,000 72457
4T70 700613 Ohio Proud International and Domestic Market Development $ 50,000 $ 50,000 72458
5780 700620 Ride Inspection Fees $ 1,175,142 $ 1,175,142 72459
5B80 700629 Auctioneers $ 359,823 $ 359,823 72460
5FC0 700648 Plant Pest Program $ 1,164,000 $ 1,164,000 72461
5H20 700608 Metrology Lab and Scale Certification $ 750,000 $ 750,000 72462
5HP0 700656 Livestock Care Standards Board $ 80,000 $ 80,000 72463
5L80 700604 Livestock Management Program $ 584,000 $ 584,000 72464
6520 700634 Animal and Consumer Analytical Laboratory $ 4,366,383 $ 4,366,383 72465
6690 700635 Pesticide, Fertilizer, and Lime Inspection Program $ 3,418,041 $ 3,418,041 72466
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 72467
Fund Group $ 18,321,667 $ 18,321,667 72468

Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group72469

7057 700632 Clean Ohio Agricultural Easement $ 310,000 $ 310,000 72470
TOTAL CLF Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group $ 310,000 $ 310,000 72471

TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 47,937,605 $ 47,937,605 47,837,605 72472

       COUNTY AGRICULTURAL SOCIETIES72473

       The foregoing appropriation item 700501, County Agricultural 72474
Societies, shall be used to reimburse county and independent 72475
agricultural societies for expenses related to Junior Fair 72476
activities.72477

        ABOLISHMENT OF VARIOUS FUNDS72478

        Upon the effective date of this amendment, or as soon as 72479
possible thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management shall 72480
transfer the cash balances in the following twelve funds to the 72481
Indirect Cost Fund (Fund 5GH0): (1) the Federal Grants Fund (Fund 72482
3X60), (2) the Specialty Crops Support Fund (Fund 3X70), (3) the 72483
Fruits and Vegetables Fund (Fund 4930), (4) the Dairy Fund (Fund 72484
4V00), (5) the Animal Industry Fund (Fund 4VS0), (6) the Scale 72485
Certification Fund (Fund 5790), (7) the Weights and Measures 72486
Permits Fund (Fund 58F0), (8) the Food Policy Council Fund (Fund 72487
5FD0), (9) the Sustainable Agriculture Fund (Fund 5FE0), (10) the 72488
Pilot Farmland Preservation Fund (Fund 5GS0), (11) the Farm 72489
Service Electronic Filing Fund (Fund SY70), and (12) the Seed Fund 72490
(Fund SZ40). Upon completion of the cash transfers, the funds from 72491
which the required cash transfers were made are abolished. The 72492
Director shall cancel any existing encumbrances against applicable 72493
line items within the abolished funds and re-establish them 72494
against Fund 5GH0 appropriation item 700655, Central Support 72495
Indirect Cost. The re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby 72496
appropriated.72497

       CLEAN OHIO AGRICULTURAL EASEMENT72498

       The foregoing appropriation item 700632, Clean Ohio 72499
Agricultural Easement, shall be used by the Department of 72500
Agriculture in administering Ohio Agricultural Easement Fund (Fund 72501
7057) projects pursuant to sections 901.21, 901.22, and 5301.67 to 72502
5301.70 of the Revised Code.72503

       Sec. 215.10. ADA DEPARTMENT OF ALCOHOL AND DRUG ADDICTION 72504
SERVICES72505

General Revenue Fund72506

GRF 038401 Treatment Services $ 11,225,590 $ 7,020,974 72507
GRF 038404 Prevention Services $ 868,659 $ 868,659 72508
GRF 038501 Medicaid Match $ 23,959,113 $ 0 72509
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 36,053,362 $ 7,889,633 72510

General Services Fund72511

5T90 038616 Problem Gambling Services $ 335,000 $ 335,000 72512
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 335,000 $ 335,000 72513

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group72514

3G40 038614 Substance Abuse Block Grant $ 69,000,000 $ 69,000,000 72515
3H80 038609 Demonstration Grants $ 8,675,580 $ 8,675,580 72516
3J80 038610 Medicaid $ 69,200,000 $ 0 72517
3N80 038611 Administrative Reimbursement $ 300,000 $ 300,000 72518
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 72519
Fund Group $ 147,175,580 $ 77,975,580 72520

State Special Revenue Fund Group72521

4750 038621 Statewide Treatment and Prevention $ 16,000,000 $ 14,000,000 15,000,000 72522
5JL0 038629 Problem Casino Gambling and Addictions Fund $ 226,612 $ 5,446,364 72523
5JW0 038615 Board Match Reimbursement $ 3,000,000 $ 3,000,000 72524
6890 038604 Education and Conferences $ 75,000 $ 75,000 72525
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 72526
Fund Group $ 19,075,000 19,301,612 $ 17,075,000 23,521,364 72527
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 202,638,942 202,865,554 $ 103,275,213 109,721,577 72528


       Sec. 215.20.  ALCOHOL AND DRUG ADDICTION MEDICAID MATCH72530

       (A) As used in this section, "community alcohol and drug 72531
addiction Medicaid services" means services provided under the 72532
component, or aspect of the component, of the Medicaid program 72533
that the Department of Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services 72534
administers pursuant to a contract entered into with the 72535
Department of Job and Family Services under section 5111.91 of the 72536
Revised Code.72537

       (B) Subject to division (C) of this section, the foregoing 72538
appropriation item 038501, Medicaid Match, shall be used by the 72539
Department of Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services to make payments 72540
for community alcohol and drug addiction Medicaid services.72541

       (C) For state fiscal year 2012, the Department shall allocate 72542
foregoing appropriation item 038501, Medicaid Match, and a portion 72543
of appropriation item 038621, Statewide Treatment and Prevention, 72544
to boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 72545
in accordance with a distribution methodology the Department shall 72546
establish. Notwithstanding sections 5111.911 and 5111.913 of the 72547
Revised Code, the boards shall use the funds allocated to them 72548
under this section to pay claims for community alcohol and drug 72549
addiction Medicaid services provided during fiscal year 2012. The 72550
boards shall use all federal financial participation that the 72551
Department receives for claims paid for community alcohol and drug 72552
addiction Medicaid services provided during fiscal year 2012 as 72553
the first payment source to pay claims for community alcohol and 72554
drug addiction Medicaid services provided during fiscal year 2012. 72555
The boards are not required to use any funds other than the funds 72556
allocated to them under this section and the federal financial 72557
participation received for claims for community alcohol and drug 72558
addiction Medicaid services provided during fiscal year 2012 to 72559
pay for such claims.72560

       (D) The Department shall enter into an agreement with each 72561
board regarding the issue of paying claims that are for community 72562
alcohol and drug addiction Medicaid services provided before July 72563
1, 2011, and submitted for payment on or after that date. Such 72564
claims shall be paid in accordance with the agreements. A board 72565
shall receive the federal financial participation received for 72566
claims for community alcohol and drug addiction Medicaid services 72567
that were provided before July 1, 2011, and paid by the board.72568

       STATEWIDE TREATMENT AND PREVENTION72569

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 038621, Statewide 72570
Treatment and Prevention, up to $1,000,000 in fiscal year 2013 72571
shall be used to fund the pilot program for opioid- and 72572
alcohol-dependent offenders established under Section 737.70 of 72573
H.B. 487 of the 129th General Assembly.72574

       Sec. 223.10. AGO ATTORNEY GENERAL72575

General Revenue Fund72576

GRF 055321 Operating Expenses $ 42,514,169 $ 42,514,169 72577
GRF 055405 Law-Related Education $ 100,000 $ 100,000 72578
GRF 055411 County Sheriffs' Pay Supplement $ 757,921 $ 757,921 72579
GRF 055415 County Prosecutors' Pay Supplement $ 831,499 $ 831,499 72580
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 44,203,589 $ 44,203,589 72581

General Services Fund Group72582

1060 055612 General Reimbursement $ 43,357,968 $ 43,011,277 72583
1950 055660 Workers' Compensation Section $ 8,415,504 $ 8,415,504 72584
4180 055615 Charitable Foundations $ 7,286,000 $ 7,286,000 72585
4200 055603 Attorney General Antitrust $ 1,871,674 $ 1,839,074 72586
4210 055617 Police Officers' Training Academy Fee $ 2,124,942 $ 2,088,805 72587
4Z20 055609 BCI Asset Forfeiture and Cost Reimbursement $ 1,529,685 $ 1,521,731 72588
5900 055633 Peace Officer Private Security Fund $ 98,370 $ 98,370 72589
5A90 055618 Telemarketing Fraud Enforcement $ 7,500 $ 7,500 72590
5L50 055619 Law Enforcement Assistance Program $ 300,222 $ 0 72591
5LR0 055655 Peace Officer Training - Casino $ 192,620 $ 4,629,409 72592
6310 055637 Consumer Protection Enforcement $ 3,799,115 $ 3,718,973 72593
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 72594
Group $ 68,790,980 68,983,600 $ 67,987,234 72,616,643 72595

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group72596

3060 055620 Medicaid Fraud Control $ 4,211,235 $ 4,122,399 72597
3810 055611 Civil Rights Legal Service $ 402,540 $ 402,540 72598
3830 055634 Crime Victims Assistance $ 13,000,000 $ 13,000,000 72599
3E50 055638 Attorney General Pass-Through Funds $ 1,223,606 $ 1,222,172 72600
3R60 055613 Attorney General Federal Funds $ 3,823,251 $ 3,673,251 72601
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 72602
Fund Group $ 22,660,632 $ 22,420,362 72603

State Special Revenue Fund Group72604

4020 055616 Victims of Crime $ 26,000,000 $ 26,000,000 72605
4170 055621 Domestic Violence Shelter $ 25,000 $ 25,000 72606
4190 055623 Claims Section $ 44,197,843 $ 41,953,025 72607
4L60 055606 DARE Programs $ 4,477,962 $ 4,477,962 72608
4Y70 055608 Title Defect Recision $ 600,000 $ 600,000 72609
6590 055641 Solid and Hazardous Waste Background Investigations $ 662,227 $ 651,049 72610
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 72611
Fund Group $ 75,963,032 $ 73,707,036 72612

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group72613

R004 055631 General Holding Account $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 72614
R005 055632 Antitrust Settlements $ 1,000 $ 1,000 72615
R018 055630 Consumer Frauds $ 750,000 $ 750,000 72616
R042 055601 Organized Crime Commission Distributions $ 25,025 $ 25,025 72617
R054 055650 Collection Outside Counsel Payments $ 4,500,000 $ 4,500,000 72618
TOTAL 090 Holding Account 72619
Redistribution Fund Group $ 6,276,025 $ 6,276,025 72620

Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group72621

J087 055635 Law Enforcement Technology, Training, and Facility Enhancements $ 2,300,000 $ 0 72622
U087 055402 Tobacco Settlement Oversight, Administration, and Enforcement $ 2,527,992 $ 2,514,690 72623
TOTAL TSF Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group $ 4,827,992 $ 2,514,690 72624
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 222,722,250 222,914,870 $ 217,108,936 221,738,345 72625

       COUNTY SHERIFFS' PAY SUPPLEMENT72626

        The foregoing appropriation item 055411, County Sheriffs' Pay 72627
Supplement, shall be used for the purpose of supplementing the 72628
annual compensation of county sheriffs as required by section 72629
325.06 of the Revised Code.72630

       At the request of the Attorney General, the Director of 72631
Budget and Management may transfer appropriation from 72632
appropriation item 055321, Operating Expenses, to appropriation 72633
item 055411, County Sheriffs' Pay Supplement. Any appropriation so 72634
transferred shall be used to supplement the annual compensation of 72635
county sheriffs as required by section 325.06 of the Revised Code.72636

       COUNTY PROSECUTORS' PAY SUPPLEMENT72637

       The foregoing appropriation item 055415, County Prosecutors' 72638
Pay Supplement, shall be used for the purpose of supplementing the 72639
annual compensation of certain county prosecutors as required by 72640
section 325.111 of the Revised Code.72641

       At the request of the Attorney General, the Director of 72642
Budget and Management may transfer appropriation from 72643
appropriation item 055321, Operating Expenses, to appropriation 72644
item 055415, County Prosecutors' Pay Supplement. Any appropriation 72645
so transferred shall be used to supplement the annual compensation 72646
of county prosecutors as required by section 325.111 of the 72647
Revised Code.72648

       GENERAL REIMBURSEMENT FUND72649

       Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, 72650
on July 1, 2011, or as soon as possible thereafter, the Director 72651
of Budget and Management shall transfer $160,000 cash from the 72652
General Revenue Fund to the General Reimbursement Fund (Fund 1060) 72653
used by the Office of the Attorney General.72654

       WORKERS' COMPENSATION SECTION72655

       The Workers' Compensation Fund (Fund 1950) is entitled to 72656
receive payments from the Bureau of Workers' Compensation and the 72657
Ohio Industrial Commission at the beginning of each quarter of 72658
each fiscal year to fund legal services to be provided to the 72659
Bureau of Workers' Compensation and the Ohio Industrial Commission 72660
during the ensuing quarter. The advance payment shall be subject 72661
to adjustment.72662

       In addition, the Bureau of Workers' Compensation shall 72663
transfer payments at the beginning of each quarter for the support 72664
of the Workers' Compensation Fraud Unit.72665

       All amounts shall be mutually agreed upon by the Attorney 72666
General, the Bureau of Workers' Compensation, and the Ohio 72667
Industrial Commission.72668

       ATTORNEY GENERAL PASS-THROUGH FUNDS72669

        The foregoing appropriation item 055638, Attorney General 72670
Pass-Through Funds, shall be used to receive federal grant funds 72671
provided to the Attorney General by other state agencies, 72672
including, but not limited to, the Department of Youth Services 72673
and the Department of Public Safety.72674

       GENERAL HOLDING ACCOUNT72675

       The foregoing appropriation item 055631, General Holding 72676
Account, shall be used to distribute moneys under the terms of 72677
relevant court orders or other settlements received in a variety 72678
of cases involving the Office of the Attorney General. If it is 72679
determined that additional amounts are necessary for this purpose, 72680
the amounts are hereby appropriated.72681

        ANTITRUST SETTLEMENTS72682

       The foregoing appropriation item 055632, Antitrust 72683
Settlements, shall be used to distribute moneys under the terms of 72684
relevant court orders or other out of court settlements in 72685
antitrust cases or antitrust matters involving the Office of the 72686
Attorney General. If it is determined that additional amounts are 72687
necessary for this purpose, the amounts are hereby appropriated.72688

       CONSUMER FRAUDS72689

        The foregoing appropriation item 055630, Consumer Frauds, 72690
shall be used for distribution of moneys from court-ordered 72691
judgments against sellers in actions brought by the Office of 72692
Attorney General under sections 1334.08 and 4549.48 and division 72693
(B) of section 1345.07 of the Revised Code. These moneys shall be 72694
used to provide restitution to consumers victimized by the fraud 72695
that generated the court-ordered judgments. If it is determined 72696
that additional amounts are necessary for this purpose, the 72697
amounts are hereby appropriated.72698

       ORGANIZED CRIME COMMISSION DISTRIBUTIONS72699

        The foregoing appropriation item 055601, Organized Crime 72700
Commission Distributions, shall be used by the Organized Crime 72701
Investigations Commission, as provided by section 177.011 of the 72702
Revised Code, to reimburse political subdivisions for the expenses 72703
the political subdivisions incur when their law enforcement 72704
officers participate in an organized crime task force. If it is 72705
determined that additional amounts are necessary for this purpose, 72706
the amounts are hereby appropriated.72707

       COLLECTION OUTSIDE COUNSEL PAYMENTS72708

        The foregoing appropriation item 055650, Collection Outside 72709
Counsel Payments, shall be used for the purpose of paying 72710
contingency counsel fees for cases where debtors mistakenly paid 72711
the client agencies instead of the Attorney General's Revenue 72712
Recovery/Collections Enforcement Section. If it is determined that 72713
additional amounts are necessary for this purpose, the amounts are 72714
hereby appropriated.72715

       Sec. 229.10. OBM OFFICE OF BUDGET AND MANAGEMENT72716

General Revenue Fund72717

GRF 042321 Budget Development and Implementation $ 2,362,025 $ 2,378,166 2,353,166 72718
GRF 042409 Commission Closures $ 50,000 $ 50,000 72719
GRF 042416 Office of Health Transformation $ 306,285 $ 0 499,252 72720
GRF 042423 Liquor Enterprise Transaction $ 500,000 $ 0 72721
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 3,218,310 $ 2,428,166 2,902,418 72722

General Services Fund Group72723

1050 042603 State Accounting and Budgeting $ 21,917,230 21,158,069 $ 22,006,331 22,262,185 72724
5N40 042602 OAKS Project Implementation $ 1,358,000 $ 1,309,500 1,296,000 72725
5Z80 042608 Office of Health Transformation Administration $ 57,752 $ 0 72726
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 23,332,982 22,573,821 $ 23,315,831 23,558,185 72727

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group72728

3CM0 042606 Office of Health Transformation - Federal $ 384,037 $ 145,500 438,723 72729
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 384,037 $ 145,500 438,723 72730

Agency Fund Group72731

5EH0 042604 Forgery Recovery $ 50,000 $ 50,000 49,000 72732
TOTAL AGY Agency Fund Group $ 50,000 $ 50,000 49,000 72733
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 26,985,329 26,226,168 $ 25,939,497 26,948,326 72734

       COMMISSION CLOSURES72735

       The foregoing appropriation item 042409, Commission Closures, 72736
may be used to pay obligations associated with the closure of the 72737
Commission on Dispute Resolution and Conflict Management, the 72738
School Employees Health Care Board, the Legal Rights Service, and 72739
the Workers' Compensation Council. Notwithstanding any provision 72740
of law to the contrary, this appropriation item may also be used 72741
to pay final payroll expenses occurring after the closure of the 72742
Commission on Dispute Resolution and Conflict Management, the 72743
School Employees Health Care Board, the Legal Rights Service, and 72744
the Workers' Compensation Council in the event that appropriations 72745
or cash in the closing agency are insufficient to do so. 72746

       The Director of Budget and Management may request Controlling 72747
Board approval for funds to be transferred to appropriation item 72748
042409, Commission Closures, from appropriation item 911614, CB 72749
Emergency Purposes, for anticipated expenses associated with 72750
agency closures.72751

       LIQUOR ENTERPRISE TRANSACTION72752

       The foregoing appropriation item 042423, Liquor Enterprise 72753
Transaction, shall be used by the Director of Budget and 72754
Management, without need for any other approval, to retain or 72755
contract for the services of commercial appraisers, underwriters, 72756
investment bankers, and financial advisers, as are necessary in 72757
the Director's judgment to commence negotiation of the transfer 72758
agreement referred to in sections 4313.01 and 4313.02 of the 72759
Revised Code, as enacted by this actAm. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 72760
129th General Assembly. Any amounts expended from appropriation 72761
item 042423 shall be reimbursed from the proceeds of the 72762
enterprise acquisition project transaction authorized in those 72763
sections.72764

       The Director of Budget and Management, in consultation with 72765
the Director of Commerce, may negotiate an initial agreement with 72766
JobsOhio, which shall be executed by the Directors of Budget and 72767
Management and Commerce upon its completion. 72768

       AUDIT COSTS AND DUES72769

       All centralized audit costs associated with either Single 72770
Audit Schedules or financial statements prepared in conformance 72771
with generally accepted accounting principles for the state shall 72772
be paid from the foregoing appropriation item 042603, State 72773
Accounting and Budgeting.72774

       Costs associated with the audit of the Auditor of State and 72775
national association dues shall be paid from the foregoing 72776
appropriation item 042321, Budget Development and Implementation.72777

       SHARED SERVICES CENTER72778

       The Director of Budget and Management shall use the OAKS 72779
Project Implementation Fund (Fund 5N40) and the Accounting and 72780
Budgeting Fund (Fund 1050) to support a Shared Services Center 72781
within the Office of Budget and Management for the purpose of 72782
consolidating statewide business functions and common 72783
transactional processes.72784

        The Director of Budget and Management shall include the 72785
recovery of costs to operate the Shared Services Center in the 72786
accounting and budgeting services payroll rate and through a 72787
direct charge using intrastate transfer vouchers to agencies for 72788
services rendered. The Director of Budget and Management shall 72789
determine the cost recovery methodology. Such cost recovery 72790
revenues shall be deposited to the credit of Fund 1050.72791

       INTERNAL CONTROL AND AUDIT OVERSIGHT72792

       The Director of Budget and Management shall include the 72793
recovery of costs to operate the Internal Control and Audit 72794
Oversight Program in the accounting and budgeting services payroll 72795
rate and through a direct charge using intrastate transfer 72796
vouchers to agencies reviewed by the program. The Director of 72797
Budget and Management, with advice from the Internal Audit 72798
Advisory Council, shall determine the cost recovery methodology. 72799
Such cost recovery revenues shall be deposited to the credit of 72800
the Accounting and Budgeting Fund (Fund 1050).72801

       FORGERY RECOVERY72802

       The foregoing appropriation item 042604, Forgery Recovery, 72803
shall be used to reissue warrants that have been certified as 72804
forgeries by the rightful recipient as determined by the Bureau of 72805
Criminal Identification and Investigation and the Treasurer of 72806
State. Upon receipt of funds to cover the reissuance of the 72807
warrant, the Director of Budget and Management shall reissue a 72808
state warrant of the same amount.72809

       GRF TRANSFER TO THE OAKS PROJECT IMPLEMENTATION FUND72810

       On July 1 of each fiscal year, or as soon as possible 72811
thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer 72812
an amount not to exceed $1,100,000 in cash from the General 72813
Revenue Fund to the OAKS Project Implementation Fund (Fund 5N40).72814

       Sec. 243.10. COM DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE72815

General Services Fund Group72816

1630 800620 Division of Administration $ 6,200,000 $ 6,200,000 72817
1630 800637 Information Technology $ 5,999,892 $ 6,011,977 72818
5430 800602 Unclaimed Funds-Operating $ 7,836,107 $ 7,841,473 72819
5430 800625 Unclaimed Funds-Claims $ 69,700,000 $ 69,800,000 68,000,000 72820
5F10 800635 Small Government Fire Departments $ 300,000 $ 300,000 72821
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 72822
Group $ 90,035,999 $ 90,153,450 88,353,450 72823

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group72824

3480 800622 Underground Storage Tanks $ 1,129,518 $ 1,129,518 72825
3480 800624 Leaking Underground Storage Tanks $ 1,556,211 $ 1,556,211 72826
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 72827
Fund Group $ 2,685,729 $ 2,685,729 72828

State Special Revenue Fund Group72829

4B20 800631 Real Estate Appraisal Recovery $ 35,000 $ 35,000 72830
4H90 800608 Cemeteries $ 268,067 $ 268,293 72831
4X20 800619 Financial Institutions $ 2,186,271 $ 1,990,693 1,970,786 72832
5440 800612 Banks $ 7,242,364 $ 6,942,336 6,872,913 72833
5450 800613 Savings Institutions $ 2,257,220 $ 2,259,536 72834
5460 800610 Fire Marshal $ 15,400,000 $ 15,501,562 15,484,574 72835
5460 800639 Fire Department Grants $ 1,698,802 $ 1,698,802 72836
5470 800603 Real Estate Education/Research $ 125,000 $ 125,000 80,655 72837
5480 800611 Real Estate Recovery $ 25,000 $ 25,000 72838
5490 800614 Real Estate $ 3,413,708 $ 3,332,308 72839
5500 800617 Securities $ 4,312,434 $ 4,314,613 4,271,467 72840
5520 800604 Credit Union $ 3,450,390 $ 3,450,390 3,415,886 72841
5530 800607 Consumer Finance $ 3,613,016 $ 3,516,861 3,481,692 72842
5560 800615 Industrial Compliance $ 27,639,372 $ 27,664,695 27,388,048 72843
5FW0 800616 Financial Literacy Education $ 240,000 $ 240,000 200,000 72844
5GK0 800609 Securities Investor Education/Enforcement $ 1,135,000 $ 485,000 480,150 72845
5HV0 800641 Cigarette Enforcement $ 120,000 $ 120,000 118,800 72846
5LN0 800645 Liquor Operating Services $ 0 $ 5,500,000 72847
5LP0 800646 Liquor Regulatory Operating Expense $ 0 $ 8,500,000 72848
5X60 800623 Video Service $ 340,299 $ 340,630 337,224 72849
6530 800629 UST Registration/Permit Fee $ 1,854,675 $ 1,509,653 1,494,556 72850
6A40 800630 Real Estate Appraiser-Operating $ 699,565 $ 648,890 72851
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 72852
Fund Group $ 76,056,183 $ 74,469,262 87,864,580 72853

Liquor Control Fund Group72854

7043 800601 Merchandising $ 472,209,274 $ 0 72855
7043 800627 Liquor Control Operating $ 13,398,274 $ 10,110,479 1,509,374 72856
7043 800633 Development Assistance Debt Service $ 51,973,200 $ 0 72857
7043 800636 Revitalization Debt Service $ 21,129,800 $ 0 72858
TOTAL LCF Liquor Control 72859
Fund Group $ 558,710,548 $ 10,110,479 1,509,374 72860
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 727,488,459 $ 177,418,920 180,413,133 72861

       SMALL GOVERNMENT FIRE DEPARTMENTS72862

       Notwithstanding section 3737.17 of the Revised Code, the 72863
foregoing appropriation item 800635, Small Government Fire 72864
Departments, may be used to provide loans to private fire 72865
departments.72866

       UNCLAIMED FUNDS PAYMENTS72867

       The foregoing appropriation item 800625, Unclaimed 72868
Funds-Claims, shall be used to pay claims under section 169.08 of 72869
the Revised Code. If it is determined that additional amounts are 72870
necessary, the amounts are appropriated.72871

       UNCLAIMED FUNDS TRANSFERS72872

        Notwithstanding division (A) of section 169.05 of the Revised 72873
Code, during the FY 2012-FY 2013 biennium, the Director of Budget 72874
and Management shall request the Director of Commerce to transfer 72875
to the General Revenue Fund up to $215,000,000 of unclaimed funds 72876
that have been reported by holders of unclaimed funds under 72877
section 169.05 of the Revised Code, irrespective of the allocation 72878
of the unclaimed funds under that section. The Director of 72879
Commerce shall transfer the funds at the times requested by the 72880
Director of Budget and Management.72881

       FIRE DEPARTMENT GRANTS72882

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 800639, Fire Department 72883
Grants, up to $1,647,140 in each fiscal year shall be used to make 72884
annual grants to the following eligible recipients: volunteer fire 72885
departments, fire departments that serve one or more small 72886
municipalities or small townships, joint fire districts comprised 72887
of fire departments that primarily serve small municipalities or 72888
small townships, local units of government responsible for such 72889
fire departments, and local units of government responsible for 72890
the provision of fire protection services for small municipalities 72891
or small townships. For the purposes of these grants, a private 72892
fire company, as that phrase is defined in section 9.60 of the 72893
Revised Code, that is providing fire protection services under a 72894
contract to a political subdivision of the state, is an additional 72895
eligible recipient for a training grant.72896

       Eligible recipients that consist of small municipalities or 72897
small townships that all intend to contract with the same fire 72898
department or private fire company for fire protection services 72899
may jointly apply and be considered for a grant. If a joint 72900
applicant is awarded a grant, the State Fire Marshal shall, if 72901
feasible, proportionately award the grant and any equipment 72902
purchased with grant funds to each of the joint applicants based 72903
upon each applicant's contribution to and demonstrated need for 72904
fire protection services.72905

       If the grant awarded to joint applicants is an equipment 72906
grant and the equipment to be purchased cannot be readily 72907
distributed or possessed by multiple recipients, each of the joint 72908
applicants shall be awarded by the State Fire Marshal an ownership 72909
interest in the equipment so purchased in proportion to each 72910
applicant's contribution to and demonstrated need for fire 72911
protection services. The joint applicants shall then mutually 72912
agree on how the equipment is to be maintained, operated, stored, 72913
or disposed of. If, for any reason, the joint applicants cannot 72914
agree as to how jointly owned equipment is to be maintained, 72915
operated, stored, or disposed of or any of the joint applicants no 72916
longer maintain a contract with the same fire protection service 72917
provider as the other applicants, then the joint applicants shall, 72918
with the assistance of the State Fire Marshal, mutually agree as 72919
to how the jointly owned equipment is to be maintained, operated, 72920
stored, disposed of, or owned. If the joint applicants cannot 72921
agree how the grant equipment is to be maintained, operated, 72922
stored, disposed of, or owned, the State Fire Marshal may, in its 72923
discretion, require all of the equipment acquired by the joint 72924
applicants with grant funds to be returned to the State Fire 72925
Marshal. The State Fire Marshal may then award the returned 72926
equipment to any eligible recipients.72927

       The grants shall be used by recipients to purchase 72928
firefighting or rescue equipment or gear or similar items, to 72929
provide full or partial reimbursement for the documented costs of 72930
firefighter training, or, at the discretion of the State Fire 72931
Marshal, to cover fire department costs for providing fire 72932
protection services in that grant recipient's jurisdiction. 72933

       Grant awards for firefighting or rescue equipment or gear or 72934
for fire department costs of providing fire protection services 72935
shall be up to $15,000 per fiscal year, or up to $25,000 per 72936
fiscal year if an eligible entity serves a jurisdiction in which 72937
the Governor declared a natural disaster during the preceding or 72938
current fiscal year in which the grant was awarded. In addition to 72939
any grant funds awarded for rescue equipment or gear, or for fire 72940
department costs associated with the provision of fire protection 72941
services, an eligible entity may receive a grant for up to $15,000 72942
per fiscal year for full or partial reimbursement of the 72943
documented costs of firefighter training. For each fiscal year, 72944
the State Fire Marshal shall determine the total amounts to be 72945
allocated for each eligible purpose.72946

       The grant program shall be administered by the State Fire 72947
Marshal in accordance with rules the State Fire Marshal adopts as 72948
part of the state fire code adopted pursuant to section 3737.82 of 72949
the Revised Code that are necessary for the administration and 72950
operation of the grant program. The rules may further define the 72951
entities eligible to receive grants and establish criteria for the 72952
awarding and expenditure of grant funds, including methods the 72953
State Fire Marshal may use to verify the proper use of grant funds 72954
or to obtain reimbursement for or the return of equipment for 72955
improperly used grant funds. Any amounts in appropriation item 72956
800639, Fire Department Grants, in excess of the amount allocated 72957
for these grants may be used for the administration of the grant 72958
program.72959

       CASH TRANSFERS TO THE DIVISION OF SECURITIES INVESTOR 72960
EDUCATION AND ENFORCEMENT EXPENSE FUND72961

       The Director of Budget and Management, upon the request of 72962
the Director of Commerce, shall transfer up to $485,000 in cash in 72963
each fiscal year from the Division of Securities Fund (Fund 5500) 72964
to the Division of Securities Investor Education and Enforcement 72965
Expense Fund (Fund 5GK0) created in section 1707.37 of the Revised 72966
Code. 72967

       CASH TRANSFER TO VIDEO SERVICE AUTHORIZATION FUND72968

       The Director of Budget and Management, upon the request of 72969
the Director of Commerce, shall transfer up to $340,000 in cash in 72970
each fiscal year from the Division of Administration Fund (Fund 72971
1630) to the Video Service Authorization Fund (Fund 5X60).72972

       INCREASED APPROPRIATION - MERCHANDISING72973

       The foregoing appropriation item 800601, Merchandising, shall 72974
be used under section 4301.12 of the Revised Code. If it is 72975
determined that additional expenditures are necessary, the amounts 72976
are hereby appropriated.72977

       DEVELOPMENT ASSISTANCE DEBT SERVICE72978

        The foregoing appropriation item 800633, Development 72979
Assistance Debt Service, shall be used to pay debt service and 72980
related financing costs at the times they are required to be made 72981
during the period from July 1, 2011, to June 30, 2012, for bond 72982
service charges on obligations issued under Chapter 166. of the 72983
Revised Code. If it is determined that additional appropriations 72984
are necessary for this purpose, such amounts are appropriated, 72985
subject to the limitations set forth in section 166.11 of the 72986
Revised Code. An appropriation for this purpose is not required, 72987
but is made in this form and in this actAm. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 72988
129th General Assembly for record purposes only.72989

        REVITALIZATION DEBT SERVICE72990

       The foregoing appropriation item 800636, Revitalization Debt 72991
Service, shall be used to pay debt service and related financing 72992
costs at the times they are required to be made pursuant to 72993
sections 151.01 and 151.40 of the Revised Code during the period 72994
from July 1, 2011, to June 30, 2012. If it is determined that 72995
additional appropriations are necessary for this purpose, such 72996
amounts are hereby appropriated. The General Assembly acknowledges 72997
the priority of the pledge of a portion of receipts from that 72998
source to obligations issued and to be issued under Chapter 166. 72999
of the Revised Code.73000

        LIQUOR CONTROL FUND TRANSFER73001

        On January 1, 2012, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 73002
Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to $10,600,000 73003
in cash from the General Revenue Fund to the Liquor Control Fund 73004
(Fund 7043) for the liquor permitting and compliance functions of 73005
the Division of Liquor Control in the Department of Commerce and 73006
for the operations of the Liquor Control Commission and the 73007
Department of Public Safety pursuant to Chapter 4301. of the 73008
Revised Code.73009

        On July 1, 2012, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 73010
Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to $21,800,000 73011
in cash from the General Revenue Fund to the Liquor Control Fund 73012
(Fund 7043) for the liquor permitting and compliance functions of 73013
the Division of Liquor Control in the Department of Commerce and 73014
for the operations of the Liquor Control Commission and the 73015
Department of Public Safety pursuant to Chapter 4301. of the 73016
Revised Code.73017

       On July 1, 2012, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 73018
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer $500,000 in cash 73019
from the Liquor Control Fund (Fund 7043) to the State Liquor 73020
Regulatory Fund (Fund 5LP0) created in section 4301.30 of the 73021
Revised Code.73022

       ADMINISTRATIVE ASSESSMENTS73023

       Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, 73024
the Division of Administration Fund (Fund 1630) is entitled to 73025
receive assessments from all operating funds of the Department in 73026
accordance with procedures prescribed by the Director of Commerce 73027
and approved by the Director of Budget and Management.73028

       Sec. 261.10.40. TRAVEL AND TOURISM73029

       The foregoing appropriation item 195407, Travel and Tourism, 73030
shall be used for marketing the state of Ohio as a tourism 73031
destination and to support administrative expenses and contracts 73032
necessary to market Ohio.73033

       STRATEGIC BUSINESS INVESTMENT DIVISION AND REGIONAL OFFICES73034
DEVELOPMENT SERVICES73035

       The foregoing appropriation item 195415, Strategic Business 73036
Investment Division and Regional OfficesDevelopment Services, 73037
shall be used for the operating expenses of the Strategic Business 73038
InvestmentServices Division and the regional economic development 73039
offices and for grants for cooperative economic development 73040
ventures.73041

       Sec. 261.10.70. CLEAN OHIO IMPLEMENTATION73042

        The foregoing appropriation item 195426, Clean Ohio 73043
Implementation, shall be used to fund the costs of administering 73044
the Clean Ohio Revitalization program and other urban 73045
revitalization programs that may be implemented by the Department 73046
of Development Services Agency.73047

       CDBG OPERATING MATCH73048

       The foregoing appropriation item 195497, CDBG Operating 73049
Match, shall be used as matching funds for grants from the United 73050
States Department of Housing and Urban Development pursuant to the 73051
Housing and Community Development Act of 1974 and regulations and 73052
policy guidelines for the programs pursuant thereto.73053

       TECHNOLOGY PROGRAMS AND GRANTS73054

       The foregoing appropriation item 195532, Technology Programs 73055
and Grants, shall be used for the same purposes as funding 73056
previously appropriated for appropriation items 195401, Thomas 73057
Edison Program, and 195422, Technology Action. Of the foregoing 73058
appropriation item 195532, Technology Programs and Grants, up to 73059
$547,341 in fiscal year 2013 shall be used for operating expenses 73060
incurred in administering the Ohio Third Frontier pursuant to 73061
sections 184.10 to 184.20 of the Revised Code; and up to 73062
$13,000,000 in fiscal year 2013 shall be used for the Thomas 73063
Edison Program pursuant to sections 122.28 to 122.38 of the 73064
Revised Code, of which not more than ten per cent shall be used 73065
for operating expenses incurred in administering the program.73066

       BUSINESS ASSISTANCE73067

       The foregoing appropriation item 195533, Business Assistance, 73068
shall be used as matching funds for grants from the United States 73069
Small Business Administration and other federal agencies, pursuant 73070
to Public Law No. 96-302 as amended by Public Law No. 98-395, and 73071
regulations and policy guidelines for the programs pursuant 73072
thereto. This appropriation item also may be used to provide 73073
grants to local organizations to support economic development 73074
activities that promote minority business development, small 73075
business development, entrepreneurship, and exports of Ohio's 73076
goods and services.73077

       APPALACHIA ASSISTANCE73078

       The foregoing appropriation item 195535, Appalachia 73079
Assistance, may be used for the administrative costs of planning 73080
and liaison activities for the Governor's Office of Appalachia, to 73081
provide financial assistance to projects in Ohio's Appalachian 73082
counties, to pay dues for the Appalachian Regional Commission, and 73083
to match federal funds from the Appalachian Regional Commission.73084

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 195535, Appalachia 73085
Assistance, up to $440,000 in fiscal year 2013 shall be used to 73086
support four local development districts. Of that amount, up to 73087
$135,000 shall be allocated to the Ohio Valley Regional 73088
Development Commission, up to $135,000 shall be allocated to the 73089
Ohio Mid-Eastern Government Association, up to $135,000 shall be 73090
allocated to the Buckeye Hills-Hocking Valley Regional Development 73091
District, and up to $35,000 shall be allocated to the Eastgate 73092
Regional Council of Governments. Local development districts 73093
receiving funding under this section shall use the funds for the 73094
implementation and administration of programs and duties under 73095
section 107.21 of the Revised Code. 73096

       Sec. 261.20.10. ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT PROJECTSGARDENING PILOT 73097
PROGRAM73098

       The foregoing appropriation item 195528, Economic Development 73099
Projects, may be used for the purposes of Chapter 122. of the 73100
Revised Code. This appropriation item is made in anticipation of 73101
the evaluation of all powers, functions, and duties of the 73102
Department of Development by the Director of Development, as 73103
prescribed in Section 187.05 of the Revised Code. It is the intent 73104
of the General Assembly that the appropriations in the 73105
appropriation item be reallocated upon completion of the 73106
evaluation.73107

       The foregoing appropriation item 195530, Economic Gardening 73108
Pilot Program, shall be used for the Economic Gardening Technical 73109
Assistance Pilot Program.73110

       Sec. 261.20.40. SUPPORTIVEDEVELOPMENT SERVICES OPERATIONS73111

       The Director of Development Services may assess divisions73112
offices of the departmentagency for the cost of central service 73113
operations. An assessment shall contain the characteristics of 73114
administrative ease and uniform application. A division's payments 73115
shall be credited to the Supportive Services Fund (Fund 1350) 73116
using an intrastate transfer voucher.73117

       ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT CONTINGENCY73118

       The foregoing appropriation item 195677, Economic Development 73119
Contingency, may be used to award funds directly to either (1) 73120
business entities considering Ohio for expansion or new site 73121
location opportunities or (2) political subdivisions to assist 73122
with necessary costs involved in attracting a business entity. In 73123
addition, the Director of Development may award funds for 73124
alternative purposes when appropriate to satisfy an economic 73125
development opportunity or need deemed extraordinary in nature by 73126
the Director.73127

       LEGACY PROJECTS73128

       The foregoing appropriation item 195633, Legacy Projects, 73129
shall be used to support existing grant commitments to companies 73130
incurred prior to fiscal year 2013. A portion of the appropriation 73131
item may also be used to support administrative expenses and other 73132
costs associated with these projects.73133

       DIRECT COST RECOVERYDEVELOPMENT SERVICES REIMBURSABLE73134
EXPENDITURES73135

       The foregoing appropriation item 195636, Direct Cost Recovery73136
Development Services Reimbursable Expenditures, shall be used for 73137
reimbursable costs incurred by the agency. Revenues to the General 73138
Reimbursement Fund (Fund 6850) shall consist of moneys charged for 73139
administrative costs that are not central service costs.73140

       Sec. 261.20.50. HEAP WEATHERIZATION73141

       Up to fifteen per cent of the federal funds deposited to the 73142
credit of the Home Energy Assistance Block Grant Fund (Fund 3K90) 73143
may be expended from appropriation item 195614, HEAP 73144
Weatherization, to provide home weatherization services in the 73145
state as determined by the Director of Development Services. Any 73146
transfers or increases in appropriation for the foregoing 73147
appropriation items 195614, HEAP Weatherization, or 195611, Home 73148
Energy Assistance Block Grant, shall be subject to approval by the 73149
Controlling Board.73150

       Sec. 261.20.60. BUSINESS ASSISTANCE PROGRAMS73151

       The foregoing appropriation item 195649, Business Assistance 73152
Programs, shall be used for administrative expenses associated 73153
with the operation of tax credit programs, loan servicing, the 73154
Ohio Film Office, and the Office of Strategic Business 73155
Investments, and for payments to the JobsOhio corporation 73156
established in Chapter 187. of the Revised Code for services 73157
provided for the administration of the 166 Direct Loan Program, 73158
Ohio Enterprise Bond Fund, Research and Development Loan Program, 73159
and Innovation Ohio Loan Program.73160

        STATE SPECIAL PROJECTS73161

       The State Special Projects Fund (Fund 4F20), may be used for 73162
the deposit of private-sector funds from utility companies and for 73163
the deposit of other miscellaneous state funds. State moneys so 73164
deposited shallmay also be used to match federal housing grants 73165
for the homeless and to market economic development opportunities 73166
in the state. Private-sector moneys shall be deposited for use in 73167
appropriation item 195699, Utility Provided FundsCommunity 73168
Assistance, and shall be used to (1) pay the expenses of verifying 73169
the income-eligibility of HEAP applicants, (2) leverage additional 73170
federal funds, (3) fund special projects to assist homeless 73171
individualsincome-eligible veterans and families with services 73172
and energy assistance programs, (4) fund special projects to 73173
assist with the energy efficiency of households eligible to 73174
participate in the Percentage of Income Payment Plan, and (5) 73175
assist with training programs for agencies that administer 73176
low-income customer assistance programs.73177

       Sec. 261.20.80. MINORITY BUSINESS ENTERPRISE LOAN73178

       All repayments from the Minority Development Financing 73179
Advisory Board Loan Program and the Ohio Mini-Loan Guarantee 73180
Program shall be deposited in the State Treasury to the credit of 73181
the Minority Business Enterprise Loan Fund (Fund 4W10). Operating 73182
costs of administering the Minority Business Enterprise Loan Fund 73183
may be paid from the Minority Business Enterprise Loan Fund (Fund 73184
4W10).73185

       MINORITY BUSINESS BONDING FUND73186

       Notwithstanding Chapters 122., 169., and 175. of the Revised 73187
Code, the Director of Development Services may, upon the 73188
recommendation of the Minority Development Financing Advisory 73189
Board, pledge up to $10,000,000 in the fiscal year 2012-fiscal 73190
year 2013 biennium of unclaimed funds administered by the Director 73191
of Commerce and allocated to the Minority Business Bonding Program 73192
under section 169.05 of the Revised Code. The transfer of any cash 73193
by the Director of Budget and Management from the Department of 73194
Commerce's Unclaimed Funds Fund (Fund 5430) used by the Department 73195
of Commerce to the Department of Development's Minority Business 73196
Bonding Fund (Fund 4490) used by the Development Services Agency73197
shall occur, if requested by the Director of Development Services, 73198
only if such funds are needed for payment of losses arising from 73199
the Minority Business Bonding Program, and only after proceeds of 73200
the initial transfer of $2,700,000 by the Controlling Board to the 73201
Minority Business Bonding Program has been used for that purpose. 73202
Moneys transferred by the Director of Budget and Management from 73203
the Department of Commerce for this purpose may be moneys in 73204
custodial funds held by the Treasurer of State. If expenditures 73205
are required for payment of losses arising from the Minority 73206
Business Bonding Program, such expenditures shall be made from 73207
appropriation item 195623, Minority Business Bonding Contingency 73208
in the Minority Business Bonding Fund, and such amounts are hereby 73209
appropriated.73210

       Sec. 261.20.90. OHIO INCUMBENT WORKFORCE TRAINING VOUCHERS73211

       (A) On July 1, 2011, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 73212
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer up to $20,000,000 73213
cash from the Economic Development Programs Fund (Fund 5JC0) used 73214
by the Board of Regents to the Ohio Incumbent Workforce Job 73215
Training Fund (Fund 5HR0) used by the Department of Development 73216
Services Agency.73217

        On July 1, 2012, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 73218
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer up to $30,000,000 73219
cash from the Economic Development Programs Fund (Fund 5JC0) used 73220
by the Board of Regents to the Ohio Incumbent Workforce Job 73221
Training Fund (Fund 5HR0) used by the Department of Development 73222
Services Agency.73223

        (B) Of the foregoing appropriation item 195526, Ohio73224
Incumbent Workforce Job Training Vouchers, up to $20,000,000 in 73225
fiscal year 2012 and up to $30,000,000 in fiscal year 2013 shall 73226
be used to support the Ohio Incumbent Workforce Training Voucher 73227
Program. The Director of Development Services and the Chief 73228
Investment Officer of JobsOhio may enter into an agreement to 73229
operate the program pursuant to the contract between the 73230
Department of Development Services Agency and JobsOhio under 73231
section 187.04 of the Revised Code. The agreement may include a 73232
provision for granting, loaning, or transferring funds from 73233
appropriation item 195526, Ohio Incumbent Workforce Job Training 73234
Vouchers, to JobsOhio to provide training for incumbent workers.73235

        (C) Regardless of any agreement between the Director and the 73236
Chief Investment Officer under division (B) of this section, the 73237
Ohio Incumbent Workforce Training Voucher Program shall conform to 73238
guidelines for the operation of the program, including, but not 73239
limited to, the following:73240

        (1) A requirement that a training voucher under the program 73241
shall not exceed $6,000 per worker per year;73242

       (2) A provision for an employer of an eligible employee to 73243
apply for a voucher on behalf of the eligible employee;73244

        (3) A provision for an eligible employee to apply directly 73245
for a training voucher with the pre-approval of the employee's 73246
employer; and73247

        (4) A requirement that an employee participating in the 73248
program, or the employee's employer, shall pay for not less than 73249
thirty-three per cent of the training costs under the program.73250

       DEFENSE DEVELOPMENT ASSISTANCE73251

       On July 1 of each fiscal year, or as soon as possible 73252
thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer 73253
$5,000,000 in cash from the Economic Development Projects Fund 73254
(Fund 5JC0) used by the Board of Regents to the Ohio Incumbent 73255
Workforce Job Training Fund (Fund 5HR0) used by the Department of73256
Development Services Agency. The transferred funds are hereby 73257
appropriated in appropriation item 195622, Defense Development 73258
Assistance.73259

       The foregoing appropriation item 195622, Defense Development 73260
Assistance, shall be used for economic development programs and 73261
the creation of new jobs to leverage and support mission gains at 73262
Department of Defense facilities in Ohio by working with future 73263
base realignment and closure activities and ongoing Department of 73264
Defense efficiency initiatives, assisting efforts to secure 73265
Department of Defense support contracts for Ohio companies, 73266
assessing and supporting regional job training and workforce 73267
development needs generated by the Department of Defense and the 73268
Ohio aerospace industry, and for expanding job training and 73269
economic development programs in human performance related 73270
initiatives. These funds shall be matched by private industry 73271
partners or the Department of Defense in an aggregate amount of 73272
$6,000,000 over the FY 2012-FY 2013 biennium.73273

       WORKFORCE DEVELOPMENT PROGRAMS73274

       The foregoing appropriation item 195655, Workforce 73275
Development Programs, may be used for the Ohio Workforce Guarantee 73276
Program to promote training through grants to businesses and, in 73277
the case of a business consortium, to the consortium for training 73278
and education providers for the reimbursement of eligible training 73279
expenses. Not more than ten per cent of appropriation item 195655, 73280
Workforce Development Programs, shall be used for administrative 73281
expenses related to the Ohio Workforce Guarantee Program.73282

       Sec. 261.30.10.  ADVANCED ENERGY FUNDLOAN PROGRAMS73283

       The foregoing appropriation item 195660, Advanced Energy Loan73284
Programs, shall be used to provide financial assistance to 73285
customers for eligible advanced energy projects for residential, 73286
commercial, and industrial business, local government, educational 73287
institution, nonprofit, and agriculture customers, and to pay for 73288
the program's administrative costs as provided in sections 4928.61 73289
to 4928.63 of the Revised Code and rules adopted by the Director 73290
of Development Services.73291

       On July 1 of each fiscal year, or as soon as possible 73292
thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer 73293
$750,000 in cash from the Advanced Energy Fund (Fund 5M50) to the 73294
Alternative Fuel Transportation Grant Fund (Fund 5CG0).73295

       VOLUME CAP ADMINISTRATION73296

       The foregoing appropriation item 195654, Volume Cap 73297
Administration, shall be used for expenses related to the 73298
administration of the Volume Cap Program. Revenues received by the 73299
Volume Cap Administration Fund (Fund 6170) shall consist of 73300
application fees, forfeited deposits, and interest earned from the 73301
custodial account held by the Treasurer of State.73302

       Sec. 261.30.20. INNOVATION OHIO LOAN FUND73303

        The foregoing appropriation item 195664, Innovation Ohio, 73304
shall be used to provide for innovation Ohio purposes, including 73305
loan guarantees and loans under Chapter 166. and particularly 73306
sections 166.12 to 166.16 of the Revised Code.73307

       RESEARCH AND DEVELOPMENT73308

       The foregoing appropriation item 195665, Research and 73309
Development, shall be used to provide for research and development 73310
purposes, including loans, under Chapter 166. and particularly 73311
sections 166.17 to 166.21 of the Revised Code.73312

       LOGISTICS AND DISTRIBUTION INFRASTRUCTURE73313

       Appropriation item 195698, Logistics and Distribution 73314
Infrastructure, shall be used for eligible logistics and 73315
distribution infrastructure projects as defined in section 166.01 73316
of the Revised Code. Any unexpended and unencumbered portion of 73317
the appropriation item at the end of fiscal year 2011 is hereby 73318
reappropriated for the same purpose in fiscal year 2012, and any 73319
unexpended and unencumbered portion of the appropriation item at 73320
the end of fiscal year 2012 is hereby reappropriated for the same 73321
purpose in fiscal year 2013.73322

        After all encumbrances have been paid, the Director of Budget 73323
and Management shall transfer the remaining cash balance in the 73324
Logistics and Distribution Infrastructure Fund (Fund 7008) to the 73325
Facilities Establishment Fund (Fund 7037).73326

       FACILITIES ESTABLISHMENT FUND73327

       The foregoing appropriation item 195615, Facilities 73328
Establishment (Fund 7037), shall be used for the purposes of the 73329
Facilities Establishment Fund under Chapter 166. of the Revised 73330
Code.73331

       Notwithstanding Chapter 166. of the Revised Code, an amount 73332
not to exceed $1,000,000 in cash in fiscal year 2012 may be 73333
transferred from the Facilities Establishment Fund (Fund 7037) to 73334
the Economic Development Financing OperatingBusiness Assistance73335
Fund (Fund 4510). The transfer is subject to Controlling Board 73336
approval under division (B) of section 166.03 of the Revised Code.73337

        Notwithstanding Chapter 166. of the Revised Code, the 73338
Director of Budget and Management may transfer an amount not to 73339
exceed $2,500,000 in cash in each fiscal year from the Facilities 73340
Establishment Fund (Fund 7037) to the Minority Business Enterprise 73341
Loan Fund (Fund 4W10).73342

       On July 1, 20112012, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 73343
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the unexpended 73344
and unencumbered cash balance in the Urban Development Loans Fund 73345
(Fund 5D20) to the Facilities Establishment Fund (Fund 7037).73346

       On July 1, 20112012, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 73347
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the unexpended 73348
and unencumbered cash balance in the Rural Industrial Park Loan 73349
Fund (Fund 4Z60) to the Facilities Establishment Fund (Fund 7037).73350

       CAPITAL ACCESS LOAN PROGRAM73351

       The foregoing appropriation item 195628, Capital Access Loan 73352
Program, shall be used for operating, program, and administrative 73353
expenses of the program. Funds of the Capital Access Loan Program 73354
shall be used to assist participating financial institutions in 73355
making program loans to eligible businesses that face barriers in 73356
accessing working capital and obtaining fixed-asset financing.73357

       Sec. 261.30.30. CLEAN OHIO OPERATING EXPENSES73358

       The foregoing appropriation item 195663, Clean Ohio 73359
OperatingProgram, shall be used by the Department of Development 73360
Services Agency in administering Clean Ohio Revitalization Fund 73361
(Fund 7003) projects pursuant to sections 122.65 to 122.658 of the 73362
Revised Code.73363

       Sec. 261.30.40.  THIRD FRONTIER OPERATING73364

       The foregoing appropriation items 195686, Third Frontier 73365
Operating, and 195620, Third Frontier Operating - Tax, shall be 73366
used for operating expenses incurred by the Department of73367
Development Services Agency in administering projects pursuant to 73368
sections 184.10 to 184.20 of the Revised Code. Operating expenses 73369
paid from item 195686 shall be limited to the administration of 73370
projects funded from the Third Frontier Research & Development 73371
Fund (Fund 7011) and operating expenses paid from item 195620 73372
shall be limited to the administration of projects funded from the 73373
Third Frontier Research & Development Taxable Bond Project Fund 73374
(Fund 7014).73375

       Sec. 261.30.60. JOB READY SITE OPERATINGPROGRAM73376

       The foregoing appropriation item 195688, Job Ready Site 73377
OperatingProgram, shall be used for operating expenses incurred 73378
by the Department of Development Services Agency in administering 73379
Job Ready Site Development Fund (Fund 7012) projects pursuant to 73380
sections 122.085 to 122.0820 of the Revised Code. Operating 73381
expenses include, but are not limited to, certain qualified 73382
expenses of the District Public Works Integrating Committees, as 73383
applicable, engineering review of submitted applications by the 73384
State Architect or a third-party engineering firm, audit and 73385
accountability activities, and costs associated with formal 73386
certifications verifying that site infrastructure is in place and 73387
is functional.73388

       Sec. 261.30.70. OHIO COAL DEVELOPMENT OFFICE73389

       On July 1, 2011, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 73390
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer any unexpended 73391
and unencumbered portion of appropriation item 898604, Coal 73392
Research and Development Fund, used by the Ohio Air Quality 73393
Development Authority, to a new capital appropriation item in the 73394
Department of Development Services Agency, to be determined by the 73395
Director. The Director also shall cancel all outstanding 73396
encumbrances against appropriation item 898604, Coal Research and 73397
Development Fund, and reestablish them against the foregoing new 73398
capital appropriation item. The amounts of the transfer and the 73399
reestablished encumbrances, plus $2,283,264, are hereby 73400
appropriated for fiscal year 2012 in the foregoing new 73401
appropriation item and shall be used to provide funding for coal 73402
research and development purposes.73403

       Sec. 261.30.80. THIRD FRONTIER BIOMEDICAL RESEARCH AND 73404
COMMERCIALIZATION SUPPORT73405

       The General Assembly and the Governor recognize the role that 73406
the biomedical industry has in job creation, innovation, and 73407
economic development throughout Ohio. It is the intent of the 73408
General Assembly, the Governor, the Director of Development 73409
Services, and the Director of Budget and Management to work 73410
together in continuing to provide comprehensive state support for 73411
the biomedical industry.73412

       Sec. 261.30.90. UNCLAIMED FUNDS TRANSFER73413

       (A)(1) Notwithstanding division (A) of section 169.05 of the 73414
Revised Code, upon the request of the Director of Budget and 73415
Management, the Director of Commerce, before June 30, 2012, shall 73416
transfer to the Job Development Initiatives Fund (Fund 5AD0) an 73417
amount not to exceed $25,000,000 in cash of the unclaimed funds 73418
that have been reported by the holders of unclaimed funds under 73419
section 169.05 of the Revised Code, regardless of the allocation 73420
of the unclaimed funds described under that section.73421

       Notwithstanding division (A) of section 169.05 of the Revised 73422
Code, upon the request of the Director of Budget and Management, 73423
the Director of Commerce, before June 30, 2013, shall transfer to 73424
the Job Development Initiatives Fund (Fund 5AD0) an amount not to 73425
exceed $15,000,00018,600,000 in cash of the unclaimed funds that 73426
have been reported by the holders of unclaimed funds under section 73427
169.05 of the Revised Code, regardless of the allocation of the 73428
unclaimed funds described under that section.73429

       (B)(2) Notwithstanding division (A) of section 169.05 of the 73430
Revised Code, upon the request of the Director of Budget and 73431
Management, the Director of Commerce, before June 30, 2012, shall 73432
transfer to the State Special Projects Fund (Fund 4F20) an amount 73433
not to exceed $5,000,000 in cash of the unclaimed funds that have 73434
been reported by the holders of unclaimed funds under section 73435
169.05 of the Revised Code, regardless of the allocation of the 73436
unclaimed funds described under that section.73437

       (B) ASSORTED TRANSFERS FOR RESTRUCTURING73438

       On July 1, 2012, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 73439
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balance 73440
in the Water and Sewer Fund (Fund 4440) to the General 73441
Reimbursement Fund (Fund 6850).73442

       On July 1, 2012, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 73443
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balance 73444
in the Water and Sewer Administration Fund (Fund 6110) to the 73445
General Reimbursement Fund (Fund 6850).73446

       On July 1, 2012, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 73447
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balance 73448
in the Tax Incentive Programs Operating Fund (Fund 4S00) to the 73449
Business Assistance Fund (Fund 4510).73450

       On July 1, 2012, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 73451
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balance 73452
in the Brownfield Stormwater Loan Fund (Fund 5KD0) to the New 73453
Market Tax Credit Program Fund (Fund 5JR0).73454

       Sec. 261.40.10. WORKFORCE DEVELOPMENT73455

       The Director of Development Services and the Director of Job 73456
and Family Services may enter into one or more interagency 73457
agreements between the two departments and take other actions the 73458
directors consider appropriate to further integrate workforce 73459
development into a larger economic development strategy, to 73460
implement the recommendations of the Workforce Policy Board, and 73461
to complete activities related to the transition of the 73462
administration of employment programs identified by the board. 73463
Subject to the approval of the Director of Budget and Management, 73464
the Department of Development Services Agency and the Department 73465
of Job and Family Services may expend moneys to support the 73466
recommendations of the Workforce Policy Board in the area of 73467
integration of employment functions as described in this paragraph 73468
and to complete implementation and transition activities from the 73469
appropriations to those departments.73470

       Sec. 263.10. DDD DEPARTMENT OF DEVELOPMENTAL DISABILITIES73471

General Revenue Fund73472

GRF 320321 Central Administration $ 4,422,794 $ 4,422,794 73473
GRF 320412 Protective Services $ 2,174,826 $ 1,957,343 73474
GRF 320415 Lease-Rental Payments $ 18,394,250 $ 19,907,900 17,907,900 73475
GRF 322407 Medicaid State Match $ 218,034,162 $ 214,902,506 73476
GRF 322420 Screening and Early Intervention $ 0 $ 300,000 73477
GRF 322451 Family Support Services $ 5,932,758 $ 5,932,758 73478
GRF 322501 County Boards Subsidies $ 40,906,365 $ 44,449,280 73479
GRF 322503 Tax Equity $ 14,000,000 $ 14,000,000 73480
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 303,865,155 $ 305,572,581 303,872,581 73481

General Services Fund Group73482

1520 323609 Developmental Center and Residential Operating Services $ 3,414,317 $ 3,414,317 73483
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 3,414,317 $ 3,414,317 73484

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group73485

3A50 320613 DD Council $ 3,341,572 $ 3,341,572 73486
3250 322612 Community Social Service Programs $ 11,017,754 $ 10,604,896 73487
3DZ0 322648 Enhanced Medicaid - Federal $ 10,000,000 $ 0 73488
3G60 322639 Medicaid Waiver - Federal $ 866,566,007 $ 985,566,007 73489
3M70 322650 CAFS Medicaid $ 29,349,502 $ 29,349,502 3,000,000 73490
3A40 323605 Developmental Center and Residential Facility Services and Support $ 180,266,029 $ 179,384,881 174,000,000 73491
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 1,100,540,864 $ 1,208,246,858 1,176,512,475 73492

State Special Revenue Fund Group73493

5GE0 320606 Operating and Services $ 7,406,609 $ 7,407,297 73494
2210 322620 Supplement Service Trust $ 150,000 $ 150,000 73495
4K80 322604 Medicaid Waiver - State Match $ 12,000,000 $ 12,000,000 73496
5CT0 322632 Intensive Behavioral Needs $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 73497
5DJ0 322625 Targeted Case Management Match $ 21,000,000 $ 24,000,000 73498
5DJ0 322626 Targeted Case Management Services $ 57,307,357 $ 66,000,000 73499
5DK0 322629 Capital Replacement Facilities $ 750,000 $ 750,000 73500
5EV0 322627 Program Fees $ 685,000 $ 685,000 73501
5H00 322619 Medicaid Repayment $ 160,000 $ 160,000 73502
5JX0 322651 Interagency Workgroup - Autism $ 45,000 45,000 73503
5Z10 322624 County Board Waiver Match $ 235,000,000 $ 290,000,000 73504
4890 323632 Developmental Center Direct Care Support $ 16,497,170 $ 16,497,169 73505
5S20 590622 Medicaid Administration & Oversight $ 20,875,567 $ 21,727,540 73506
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 372,876,703 $ 440,422,006 73507
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,780,697,039 $ 1,957,655,762 1,924,221,379 73508


       Sec. 263.10.30. FAMILYSCREENING AND EARLY INTERVENTION73510

       The foregoing appropriation item 322420, Screening and Early 73511
Intervention, shall be used for screening and early intervention 73512
programs for children with autism selected by the Director.73513

       FAMILY SUPPORT SERVICES SUBSIDY73514

       (A) The foregoing appropriation item 322451, Family Support 73515
Services, may be used as follows in fiscal year 2012 and fiscal 73516
year 2013:73517

       (1) The appropriation item may be used to provide a subsidy 73518
to county boards of developmental disabilities for family support 73519
services provided under section 5126.11 of the Revised Code. The 73520
subsidy shall be paid in quarterly installments and allocated to 73521
county boards according to a formula the Director of Developmental 73522
Disabilities shall develop in consultation with representatives of 73523
county boards. A county board shall use not more than seven per 73524
cent of its subsidy for administrative costs.73525

       (2) The appropriation item may be used to distribute funds to 73526
county boards for the purpose of addressing economic hardships and 73527
to promote efficiency of operations. In consultation with 73528
representatives of county boards, the Director shall determine the 73529
amount of funds to distribute for these purposes and the criteria 73530
for distributing the funds.73531

       (B) Each county board shall submit reports to the Department 73532
of Developmental Disabilities on the use of funds received under 73533
this section. The reports shall be submitted at the times and in 73534
the manner specified in rules the Director shall adopt in 73535
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.73536

       Sec. 263.10.90. TARGETED CASE MANAGEMENT SERVICES73537

       County boards of developmental disabilities shall pay the 73538
nonfederal portion of targeted case management costs to the 73539
Department of Developmental Disabilities.73540

       The Directors of Developmental Disabilities and Job and 73541
Family Services may enter into an interagency agreement under 73542
which the Department of Developmental Disabilities shall transfer 73543
cash from the Targeted Case Management Fund (Fund 5DJ0) to the 73544
Medicaid Program Support - StateHealth Care/Medicaid Support and 73545
Recoveries Fund (Fund 5C905DL0) used by the Department of Job and 73546
Family Services in an amount equal to the nonfederal portion of 73547
the cost of targeted case management services paid by county 73548
boards, and the Department of Job and Family Services shall pay 73549
the total cost of targeted case management claims. The transfer 73550
shall be made using an intrastate transfer voucher.73551

       Sec. 263.20.40. TRANSFER OF FUNDS FOR DEVELOPMENTAL CENTER 73552
PHARMACY PROGRAMS73553

       The Director of Developmental Disabilities shall quarterly 73554
transfer cash from the Medicaid - Medicare Fund (Fund 3A40) to the 73555
Medicaid Program Support - StateHealth Care/Medicaid Support and 73556
Recoveries Fund (Fund 5C905DL0) used by the Department of Job and 73557
Family Services, in an amount equal to the nonfederal share of 73558
Medicaid prescription drug claim costs for all developmental 73559
centers paid by the Department of Job and Family Services. The 73560
quarterly transfer shall be made using an intrastate transfer 73561
voucher.73562

       Sec. 263.20.70.  RATE INCREASE FOR WAIVER PROVIDERS SERVING 73563
FORMER RESIDENTS OF DEVELOPMENTAL CENTERS OR RESIDENTS OF 73564
CONVERTED FACILITIES73565

       Subject(A) As used in this section, "converted facility" 73566
means an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded as 73567
defined in section 5111.20 of the Revised Code, or former 73568
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded, that 73569
converted some or all of its beds to providing home and 73570
community-based services under the Individual Options Waiver 73571
pursuant to section 5111.874 of the Revised Code.73572

       (B) Subject to approval by the Centers for Medicare and 73573
Medicaid Services, the Department of Job and Family Services shall 73574
increase the rate paid to a provider under the Individual Options 73575
Waiver by fifty-two cents for each fifteen minutes of routine 73576
homemaker/personal care provided to an individual for up to a year 73577
if all of the following apply:73578

       (A)(1) The individual was a resident of a developmental 73579
center or converted facility immediately prior to enrollment in 73580
the waiver;73581

       (B)(2) The provider begins serving the individual on or after 73582
July 1, 2011;73583

       (C)(3) The Director of Developmental Disabilities determines 73584
that the increased rate is warranted by the individual's special 73585
circumstances, including the individual's diagnosis, service 73586
needs, or length of stay at the developmental center or converted 73587
facility, and that serving the individual through the Individual 73588
Options Waiver is fiscally prudent for the Medicaid program. 73589

       Sec. 267.10. EDU DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION73590

General Revenue Fund73591

GRF 200100 Personal Services $ 8,579,178 $ 8,579,178 0 73592
GRF 200320 Maintenance and Equipment $ 2,830,407 $ 2,830,407 0 73593
GRF 200321 Operating Expenses $ 0 $ 13,142,780 73594
GRF 200408 Early Childhood Education $ 23,268,341 $ 23,268,341 73595
GRF 200416 Career-Technical Education Match $ 2,233,195 $ 2,233,195 0 73596
GRF 200420 Computer/Application/ Network Information Technology Development and Support $ 4,241,296 $ 4,241,296 73597
GRF 200421 Alternative Education Programs $ 7,403,998 $ 7,403,998 73598
GRF 200422 School Management Assistance $ 2,842,812 $ 3,000,000 73599
GRF 200424 Policy Analysis $ 328,558 $ 328,558 73600
GRF 200425 Tech Prep Consortia Support $ 260,542 $ 260,542 73601
GRF 200426 Ohio Educational Computer Network $ 17,974,489 $ 17,974,489 73602
GRF 200427 Academic Standards $ 4,346,060 $ 3,700,000 73603
GRF 200437 Student Assessment $ 55,002,167 $ 55,002,167 73604
GRF 200439 Accountability/Report Cards $ 3,579,279 $ 3,579,279 73605
GRF 200442 Child Care Licensing $ 827,140 $ 827,140 73606
GRF 200446 Education Management Information System $ 6,833,070 $ 6,833,070 73607
GRF 200447 GED Testing $ 879,551 $ 879,551 73608
GRF 200448 Educator Preparation $ 786,737 $ 786,737 73609
GRF 200455 Community Schools and Choice Programs $ 2,200,000 $ 2,200,000 73610
GRF 200464 General Technology Operations $ 0 $ 501,677 73611
GRF 200502 Pupil Transportation $ 438,248,936 $ 442,113,527 73612
GRF 200505 School Lunch Match $ 9,100,000 $ 9,100,000 73613
GRF 200511 Auxiliary Services $ 124,194,099 $ 126,194,099 73614
GRF 200532 Nonpublic Administrative Cost Reimbursement $ 56,164,384 $ 57,006,850 73615
GRF 200540 Special Education Enhancements $ 135,820,668 $ 135,820,668 73616
GRF 200545 Career-Technical Education Enhancements $ 8,802,699 $ 8,802,699 73617
GRF 200550 Foundation Funding $ 5,536,347,861 $ 5,610,290,686 5,612,562,311 73618
GRF 200901 Property Tax Allocation - Education $ 1,086,500,000 $ 1,095,000,000 73619
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 7,539,595,467 $ 7,628,256,477 7,630,529,779 73620

General Services Fund Group73621

1380 200606 Computer Services-Operational Information Technology Development and Support $ 7,600,090 $ 7,600,090 6,100,090 73622
4520 200638 Miscellaneous Educational Services Fees and Refunds $ 300,000 $ 300,000 73623
4L20 200681 Teacher Certification and Licensure $ 8,147,756 $ 8,147,756 73624
5960 200656 Ohio Career Information System $ 529,761 $ 529,761 73625
5H30 200687 School District Solvency Assistance $ 25,000,000 $ 25,000,000 73626
TOTAL GSF General Services 73627
Fund Group $ 41,577,607 $ 41,577,607 40,077,607 73628

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group73629

3090 200601 Neglected and Delinquent Education $ 2,168,642 $ 2,168,642 73630
3670 200607 School Food Services $ 6,803,472 $ 6,959,906 73631
3690 200616 Career-Technical Education Federal Enhancement $ 5,000,000 $ 5,000,000 73632
3700 200624 Education of Exceptional Children $ 1,905,000 $ 0 73633
3780 200660 Learn and Serve $ 619,211 $ 619,211 73634
3AF0 200603 Schools Medicaid Administrative Claims $ 639,000 $ 639,000 73635
3AN0 200671 School Improvement Grants $ 20,400,000 $ 20,400,000 73636
3AX0 200698 Improving Health and Educational Outcomes of Young People $ 630,954 $ 630,954 73637
3BK0 200628 Longitudinal Data Systems $ 500,000 $ 250,000 73638
3C50 200661 Early Childhood Education $ 14,554,749 $ 14,554,749 73639
3CG0 200646 Teacher Incentive Fund $ 1,925,881 $ 0 73640
3D10 200664 Drug Free Schools $ 1,500,000 $ 0 73641
3D20 200667 Math Science Partnerships $ 9,500,001 $ 9,500,001 73642
3DG0 200630 Federal Stimulus - McKinney Vento Grants $ 330,512 $ 0 73643
3DJ0 200699 IDEA Part B - Federal Stimulus $ 21,886,803 $ 0 73644
3DK0 200642 Title 1A - Federal Stimulus $ 18,633,673 $ 0 73645
3DL0 200650 IDEA Preschool - Federal Stimulus $ 670,000 $ 0 73646
3DM0 200651 Title IID Technology - Federal Stimulus $ 1,195,100 $ 0 73647
3DP0 200652 Title I School Improvement - Federal Stimulus $ 48,500,000 $ 30,000,000 73648
3EC0 200653 Teacher Incentive - Federal Stimulus $ 7,500,000 $ 7,500,000 73649
3EH0 200620 Migrant Education $ 2,645,905 $ 2,645,905 73650
3EJ0 200622 Homeless Children Education $ 1,759,782 $ 1,759,782 73651
3EN0 200655 State Data Systems - Federal Stimulus $ 2,500,000 $ 2,500,000 73652
3ES0 200657 General Supervisory Enhancement Grant $ 500,000 $ 500,000 73653
3ET0 200658 Education Jobs Fund $ 300,000,000 $ 50,000,000 73654
3FD0 200665 Race to the Top $ 100,000,000 $ 100,000,000 73655
3FE0 200669 Striving Readers $ 180,000 $ 100,000 73656
3H90 200605 Head Start Collaboration Project $ 225,000 $ 225,000 73657
3L60 200617 Federal School Lunch $ 327,516,539 $ 337,323,792 73658
3L70 200618 Federal School Breakfast $ 87,596,850 $ 90,224,756 73659
3L80 200619 Child/Adult Food Programs $ 100,850,833 $ 103,876,359 73660
3L90 200621 Career-Technical Education Basic Grant $ 48,466,864 $ 48,466,864 73661
3M00 200623 ESEA Title 1A $ 530,010,000 $ 530,010,000 73662
3M20 200680 Individuals with Disabilities Education Act $ 443,170,050 $ 443,170,050 73663
3S20 200641 Education Technology $ 9,487,397 $ 9,487,397 73664
3T40 200613 Public Charter Schools $ 14,291,353 $ 14,291,353 73665
3Y20 200688 21st Century Community Learning Centers $ 43,720,462 $ 45,906,485 73666
3Y60 200635 Improving Teacher Quality $ 101,900,000 $ 101,900,000 73667
3Y70 200689 English Language Acquisition $ 8,373,995 $ 8,373,995 73668
3Y80 200639 Rural and Low Income Technical Assistance $ 1,500,000 $ 1,500,000 73669
3Z20 200690 State Assessments $ 11,882,258 $ 11,882,258 73670
3Z30 200645 Consolidated Federal Grant Administration $ 8,949,280 $ 8,949,280 7,949,280 73671
TOTAL FED Federal Special 73672
Revenue Fund Group $ 2,310,389,566 $ 2,011,315,739 2,010,315,739 73673

State Special Revenue Fund Group73674

4540 200610 Guidance and GED Testing $ 1,050,000 $ 1,050,000 73675
4550 200608 Commodity Foods $ 24,000,000 $ 24,000,000 73676
4R70 200695 Indirect Operational Support $ 6,500,000 $ 6,600,000 73677
4V70 200633 Interagency Operational Program Support $ 1,117,725 $ 1,117,725 717,725 73678
5980 200659 Auxiliary Services Reimbursement $ 1,328,910 $ 1,328,910 73679
5BB0 200696 State Action for Education Leadership $ 231,300 $ 0 73680
5BJ0 200626 Half-Mill Maintenance Equalization $ 17,300,000 $ 18,000,000 73681
5D40 200673 Conference/Special Purposes $ 0 $ 100,000 73682
5U20 200685 National Education Statistics $ 300,000 $ 300,000 73683
6200 200615 Educational Improvement Grants $ 3,000,000 $ 3,000,000 73684
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 73685
Fund Group $ 54,827,935 $ 55,396,635 55,096,635 73686

Lottery Profits Education Fund Group73687

7017 200612 Foundation Funding $ 717,500,000 $ 680,500,000 73688
TOTAL LPE Lottery Profits 73689
Education Fund Group $ 717,500,000 $ 680,500,000 73690

Revenue Distribution Fund Group73691

7047 200909 School District Property Tax Replacement-Business $ 722,000,000 $ 475,000,000 73692
7053 200900 School District Property Tax Replacement-Utility $ 34,000,000 $ 30,000,000 73693
TOTAL RDF Revenue Distribution 73694
Fund Group $ 756,000,000 $ 505,000,000 73695
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 11,419,890,575 $ 10,922,046,458 10,921,519,760 73696


       Sec. 267.10.10. OPERATING EXPENSES73698

       The foregoing appropriation item 200321, Operating Expenses, 73699
shall be used to support the same activities as are supported 73700
prior to July 1, 2012, by appropriation items 200100, Personal 73701
Services, and 200320, Maintenance and Equipment. A portion of this 73702
appropriation item also shall be used by the Department of 73703
Education to provide matching funds under 20 U.S.C. 2321, which 73704
are provided by appropriation item 200416, Career-Technical 73705
Education Match, prior to July 1, 2012. 73706

       On July 1, 2012, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 73707
Director of Budget and Management shall cancel any existing 73708
encumbrances against appropriation items 200100, Personal 73709
Services, 200320, Maintenance and Equipment, and 200416, 73710
Career-Technical Education Match, and reestablish them against 73711
appropriation item 200321, Operating Expenses. The reestablished 73712
encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. 73713

       EARLY CHILDHOOD EDUCATION73714

       The Department of Education shall distribute the foregoing 73715
appropriation item 200408, Early Childhood Education, to pay the 73716
costs of early childhood education programs. 73717

       (A) As used in this section:73718

       (1) "Provider" means a city, local, exempted village, or 73719
joint vocational school district, or an educational service 73720
center.73721

       (2) In the case of a city, local, or exempted village school 73722
district, "new eligible provider" means a district that did not 73723
receive state funding for Early Childhood Education in the 73724
previous fiscal year or demonstrates a need for early childhood 73725
programs as defined in division (D) of this section.73726

       (3) "Eligible child" means a child who is at least three 73727
years of age as of the district entry date for kindergarten, is 73728
not of the age to be eligible for kindergarten, and whose family 73729
earns not more than two hundred per cent of the federal poverty 73730
guidelines as defined in division (A)(3) of section 5101.46 of the 73731
Revised Code. Children with an Individualized Education Program 73732
and where the Early Childhood Education program is the least 73733
restrictive environment may be enrolled on their third birthday.73734

       (B) In each fiscal year, up to two per cent of the total 73735
appropriation may be used by the Department for program support 73736
and technical assistance. The Department shall distribute the 73737
remainder of the appropriation in each fiscal year to serve 73738
eligible children.73739

       (C) The Department shall provide an annual report to the 73740
Governor, the Speaker of the House of Representatives, and the 73741
President of the Senate and post the report to the Department's 73742
web site, regarding early childhood education programs operated 73743
under this section and the early learning program guidelines.73744

       (D) After setting aside the amounts to make payments due from 73745
the previous fiscal year, in fiscal year 2012, the Department 73746
shall distribute funds first to recipients of funds for early 73747
childhood education programs under Section 265.10.20 of Am. Sub. 73748
H.B. 1 of the 128th General Assembly in the previous fiscal year 73749
and the balance to new eligible providers of early childhood 73750
education programs under this section or to existing providers to 73751
serve more eligible children or for purposes of program expansion, 73752
improvement, or special projects to promote quality and 73753
innovation.73754

       After setting aside the amounts to make payments due from the 73755
previous fiscal year, in fiscal year 2013, the Department shall 73756
distribute funds first to providers of early childhood education 73757
programs under this section in the previous fiscal year and the 73758
balance to new eligible providers or to existing providers to 73759
serve more eligible children or for purposes of program expansion, 73760
improvement, or special projects to promote quality and 73761
innovation.73762

        Awards under this section shall be distributed on a per-pupil 73763
basis, and in accordance with division (H) of this section. The 73764
Department may adjust the per-pupil amount so that the per-pupil 73765
amount multiplied by the number of eligible children enrolled and 73766
receiving services on the first day of December or the business 73767
day closest to that date equals the amount allocated under this 73768
section.73769

       (E) Costs for developing and administering an early childhood 73770
education program may not exceed fifteen per cent of the total 73771
approved costs of the program.73772

       All providers shall maintain such fiscal control and 73773
accounting procedures as may be necessary to ensure the 73774
disbursement of, and accounting for, these funds. The control of 73775
funds provided in this program, and title to property obtained, 73776
shall be under the authority of the approved provider for purposes 73777
provided in the program unless, as described in division (J) of 73778
this section, the program waives its right for funding or a 73779
program's funding is eliminated or reduced due to its inability to 73780
meet financial or early learning program guidelines. The approved 73781
provider shall administer and use such property and funds for the 73782
purposes specified.73783

       (F) The Department may examine a provider's financial and 73784
program records. If the financial practices of the program are not 73785
in accordance with standard accounting principles or do not meet 73786
financial standards outlined under division (E) of this section, 73787
or if the program fails to substantially meet the early learning 73788
program guidelines, meet a quality rating level in the tiered 73789
quality rating and improvement system developed under section 73790
5104.30 of the Revised Code as prescribed by the Department, or 73791
exhibits below average performance as measured against the 73792
guidelines, the early childhood education program shall propose 73793
and implement a corrective action plan that has been approved by 73794
the Department. The approved corrective action plan shall be 73795
signed by the chief executive officer and the executive of the 73796
official governing body of the provider. The corrective action 73797
plan shall include a schedule for monitoring by the Department. 73798
Such monitoring may include monthly reports, inspections, a 73799
timeline for correction of deficiencies, and technical assistance 73800
to be provided by the Department or obtained by the early 73801
childhood education program. The Department may withhold funding 73802
pending corrective action. If an early childhood education program 73803
fails to satisfactorily complete a corrective action plan, the 73804
Department may deny expansion funding to the program or withdraw 73805
all or part of the funding to the program and establish a new 73806
eligible provider through a selection process established by the 73807
Department.73808

       (G) Each early childhood education program shall do all of 73809
the following:73810

       (1) Meet teacher qualification requirements prescribed by 73811
section 3301.311 of the Revised Code;73812

       (2) Align curriculum to the early learning content standards 73813
developed by the Department;73814

       (3) Meet any child or program assessment requirements 73815
prescribed by the Department;73816

       (4) Require teachers, except teachers enrolled and working to 73817
obtain a degree pursuant to section 3301.311 of the Revised Code, 73818
to attend a minimum of twenty hours every two years of 73819
professional development as prescribed by the Department;73820

       (5) Document and report child progress as prescribed by the 73821
Department;73822

       (6) Meet and report compliance with the early learning 73823
program guidelines as prescribed by the Department;73824

       (7) Participate in the tiered quality rating and improvement 73825
system developed under section 5104.30 of the Revised Code. 73826
Effective July 1, 2016, all programs shall be rated through the 73827
system.73828

       (H) Per-pupil funding for programs subject to this section 73829
shall be sufficient to provide eligible children with services for 73830
a standard early childhood schedule which shall be defined in this 73831
section as a minimum of twelve and one-half hours per school week 73832
as defined in section 3313.62 of the Revised Code for the minimum 73833
school year as defined in sections 3313.48, 3313.481, and 3313.482 73834
of the Revised Code. Nothing in this section shall be construed to 73835
prohibit program providers from utilizing other funds to serve 73836
eligible children in programs that exceed the twelve and one-half 73837
hours per week or that exceed the minimum school year. For any 73838
provider for which a standard early childhood education schedule 73839
creates a hardship or for which the provider shows evidence that 73840
the provider is working in collaboration with a preschool special 73841
education program, the provider may submit a waiver to the 73842
Department requesting an alternate schedule. If the Department 73843
approves a waiver for an alternate schedule that provides services 73844
for less time than the standard early childhood education 73845
schedule, the Department may reduce the provider's annual 73846
allocation proportionately. Under no circumstances shall an annual 73847
allocation be increased because of the approval of an alternate 73848
schedule.73849

       (I) Each provider shall develop a sliding fee scale based on 73850
family incomes and shall charge families who earn more than two 73851
hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelines, as defined in 73852
division (A)(3) of section 5101.46 of the Revised Code, for the 73853
early childhood education program.73854

       The Department shall conduct an annual survey of each 73855
provider to determine whether the provider charges families 73856
tuition or fees, the amount families are charged relative to 73857
family income levels, and the number of families and students 73858
charged tuition and fees for the early childhood program.73859

       (J) If an early childhood education program voluntarily 73860
waives its right for funding, or has its funding eliminated for 73861
not meeting financial standards or the early learning program 73862
guidelines, the provider shall transfer control of title to 73863
property, equipment, and remaining supplies obtained through the 73864
program to providers designated by the Department and return any 73865
unexpended funds to the Department along with any reports 73866
prescribed by the Department. The funding made available from a 73867
program that waives its right for funding or has its funding 73868
eliminated or reduced may be used by the Department for new grant 73869
awards or expansion grants. The Department may award new grants or 73870
expansion grants to eligible providers who apply. The eligible 73871
providers who apply must do so in accordance with the selection 73872
process established by the Department.73873

       (K) As used in this section, "early learning program 73874
guidelines" means the guidelines established by the Department 73875
pursuant to division (C)(3) of Section 206.09.54 of Am. Sub. H.B. 73876
66 of the 126th General Assembly.73877

       (L) Eligible expenditures for the Early Childhood Education 73878
program shall be claimed each fiscal year to help meet the state's 73879
TANF maintenance of effort requirement. The Superintendent of 73880
Public Instruction and the Director of Job and Family Services 73881
shall enter into an interagency agreement to carry out the 73882
requirements under this division, which shall include developing 73883
reporting guidelines for these expenditures.73884

       Sec. 267.10.20. CAREER-TECHNICAL EDUCATION MATCH73885

       TheFor fiscal year 2012, the foregoing appropriation item 73886
200416, Career-Technical Education Match, shall be used by the 73887
Department of Education to provide vocational administration73888
matching funds under 20 U.S.C. 23112321.73889

       The Director of Budget and Management shall transfer any 73890
remaining appropriation from appropriation item 200416, 73891
Career-Technical Education Match, to appropriation item 200426, 73892
Ohio Educational Computer Network, to support the Ohio Educational 73893
Computer Network.73894

       COMPUTER/APPLICATION/NETWORKINFORMATION TECHNOLOGY73895
DEVELOPMENT AND SUPPORT73896

       The foregoing appropriation item 200420, 73897
Computer/Application/NetworkInformation Technology Development 73898
and Support, shall be used to support the development and 73899
implementation of information technology solutions designed to 73900
improve the performance and services of the Department of 73901
Education. Funds may be used for personnel, maintenance, and 73902
equipment costs related to the development and implementation of 73903
these technical system projects. Implementation of these systems 73904
shall allow the Department to provide greater levels of assistance 73905
to school districts and to provide more timely information to the 73906
public, including school districts, administrators, and 73907
legislators. Funds may also be used to support data-driven 73908
decision-making and differentiated instruction, as well as to 73909
communicate academic content standards and curriculum models to 73910
schools through web-based applications.73911

       Sec. 267.10.40. SCHOOL MANAGEMENT ASSISTANCE73912

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200422, School Management 73913
Assistance, $1,000,000 in each fiscal year 2012 and $1,300,000 in 73914
fiscal year 2013 shall be used by the Auditor of State in 73915
consultation with the Department of Education for expenses 73916
incurred in the Auditor of State's role relating to fiscal 73917
caution, fiscal watch, and fiscal emergency activities as defined 73918
in Chapter 3316. of the Revised Code and may also be used by the 73919
Auditor of State to conduct performance audits of other school 73920
districts with priority given to districts in fiscal distress. 73921
Districts in fiscal distress shall be determined by the Auditor of 73922
State and shall include districts that the Auditor of State, in 73923
consultation with the Department of Education, determines are 73924
employing fiscal practices or experiencing budgetary conditions 73925
that could produce a state of fiscal watch or fiscal emergency.73926

       The remainder of appropriation item 200422, School Management 73927
Assistance, shall be used by the Department of Education to 73928
provide fiscal technical assistance and inservice education for 73929
school district management personnel and to administer, monitor, 73930
and implement the fiscal caution, fiscal watch, and fiscal 73931
emergency provisions under Chapter 3316. of the Revised Code.73932

       Sec. 267.30.20. SPECIAL EDUCATION ENHANCEMENTS73933

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200540, Special Education 73934
Enhancements, up to $2,206,875 in each fiscal year shall be used 73935
for home instruction for children with disabilities.73936

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200540, Special Education 73937
Enhancements, up to $45,282,959 in each fiscal year shall be used 73938
to fund special education and related services at county boards of 73939
developmental disabilities for eligible students under section 73940
3317.20 of the Revised Code and at institutions for eligible 73941
students under section 3317.201 of the Revised Code. 73942
Notwithstanding the distribution formulas under sections 3317.20 73943
and 3317.201 of the Revised Code, funding for DD boards and 73944
institutions for fiscal year 2012 and fiscal year 2013 shall be 73945
determined by providing the per pupil amount received by each DD 73946
board and institution for the prior fiscal year for each student 73947
served in the current fiscal year.73948

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200540, Special Education 73949
Enhancements, up to $1,333,468 in each fiscal year shall be used 73950
for parent mentoring programs.73951

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200540, Special Education 73952
Enhancements, up to $2,537,824 in each fiscal year may be used for 73953
school psychology interns.73954

        The remainder of appropriation item 200540, Special Education 73955
Enhancements, shall be distributed by the Department of Education 73956
to county boards of developmental disabilities, educational 73957
service centers, and school districts for preschool special 73958
education units and preschool supervisory units under section 73959
3317.052 of the Revised Code. To the greatest extent possible, the 73960
Department of Education shall allocate these units to school 73961
districts and educational service centers.73962

       The Department may reimburse county DD boards, educational 73963
service centers, and school districts for services provided by 73964
instructional assistants, related services as defined in rule 73965
3301-51-11 of the Administrative Code, physical therapy services 73966
provided by a licensed physical therapist or physical therapist 73967
assistant under the supervision of a licensed physical therapist 73968
as required under Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code and Chapter 73969
4755-27 of the Administrative Code and occupational therapy 73970
services provided by a licensed occupational therapist or 73971
occupational therapy assistant under the supervision of a licensed 73972
occupational therapist as required under Chapter 4755. of the 73973
Revised Code and Chapter 4755-7 of the Administrative Code. 73974
Nothing in this section authorizes occupational therapy assistants 73975
or physical therapist assistants to generate or manage their own 73976
caseloads.73977

       The Department of Education shall require school districts, 73978
educational service centers, and county DD boards serving 73979
preschool children with disabilities to adhere to Ohio's Early 73980
Learning Program Guidelines, participate in the tiered quality 73981
rating and improvement system developed under section 5104.30 of 73982
the Revised Code, and document child progress using research-based 73983
indicators prescribed by the Department and report results 73984
annually. The reporting dates and method shall be determined by 73985
the Department. Effective July 1, 2018, all programs shall be 73986
rated through the tiered quality rating and improvement system.73987

       Sec. 267.30.40. FOUNDATION FUNDING73988

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 73989
Funding, up to $675,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to 73990
support the work of the College of Education and Human Ecology at 73991
the Ohio State University in reviewing and assessing the alignment 73992
of courses offered through the distance learning clearinghouse 73993
established in sections 3333.81 to 3333.88 of the Revised Code 73994
with the academic content standards adopted under division (A) of 73995
section 3301.079 of the Revised Code.73996

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 73997
Funding, up to $250,000 in each fiscal year may be used by the 73998
Department to fund a shared services pilot project involving at 73999
least two educational service centers. The pilot project shall 74000
focus on the design, implementation, and evaluation of a shared 74001
service delivery model. The educational service centers 74002
participating in the pilot project shall submit a report not later 74003
than September 1, 2013, to the Governor, members of the General 74004
Assembly, and members of the State Board of Education, reviewing 74005
the opportunities and challenges of implementing shared services 74006
initiatives as well as any real or projected cost efficiencies 74007
achieved through the pilot project.74008

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 74009
Funding, up to $50,000 shall be expended in each fiscal year for 74010
court payments under section 2151.362 of the Revised Code.74011

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 74012
Funding, up to $8,100,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to 74013
fund gifted education at educational service centers. 74014
Notwithstanding division (D)(5) of section 3317.018 of the Revised 74015
Code, the Department shall distribute the funding through the 74016
unit-based funding methodology in place under division (L) of 74017
section 3317.024, division (E) of section 3317.05, and divisions 74018
(A), (B), and (C) of section 3317.053 of the Revised Code as they 74019
existed prior to fiscal year 2010.74020

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 74021
Funding, up to $10,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to 74022
provide additional state aid to school districts, joint vocational 74023
school districts, and community schools for special education 74024
students under division (C)(3) of section 3317.022 of the Revised 74025
Code, except that the Controlling Board may increase these amounts 74026
if presented with such a request from the Department of Education 74027
at the final meeting of the fiscal year; and up to $2,000,000 in 74028
each fiscal year shall be reserved for Youth Services tuition 74029
payments under section 3317.024 of the Revised Code.74030

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 74031
Funding, up to $41,760,000 in fiscal year 2012 and up to 74032
$35,496,000 in fiscal year 2013 shall be reserved to fund the 74033
state reimbursement of educational service centers under section 74034
3317.11 of the Revised Code and the section of this act entitled 74035
"EDUCATIONAL SERVICE CENTERS FUNDING"; and up to $3,545,752 in 74036
each fiscal year shall be distributed to educational service 74037
centers for School Improvement Initiatives. Educational service 74038
centers shall be required to support districts in the development 74039
and implementation of their continuous improvement plans as 74040
required in section 3302.04 of the Revised Code and to provide 74041
technical assistance and support in accordance with Title I of the 74042
"No Child Left Behind Act of 2001," 115 Stat. 1425, 20 U.S.C. 74043
6317. 74044

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 74045
Funding, up to $700,000 in each fiscal year shall be used by the 74046
Department of Education for a program to pay for educational 74047
services for youth who have been assigned by a juvenile court or 74048
other authorized agency to any of the facilities described in 74049
division (A) of the section of this act entitled "PRIVATE 74050
TREATMENT FACILITY PROJECT."74051

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 74052
Funding, up to $12,522,860 in each fiscal year 2012 and up to 74053
$14,794,485 in fiscal year 2013 shall be used to support the 74054
Cleveland school choice programprograms.74055

       Of the portion of the funds distributed to the Cleveland 74056
Municipal School District under this section, up to $11,901,887 in 74057
each fiscal year shall be used to operate the school choice 74058
program in the Cleveland Municipal School District under sections 74059
3313.974 to 3313.979 of the Revised Code. Notwithstanding 74060
divisions (B) and (C) of section 3313.978 and division (C) of 74061
section 3313.979 of the Revised Code, up to $1,000,000 in each 74062
fiscal year of this amount shall be used by the Cleveland 74063
Municipal School District to provide tutorial assistance as 74064
provided in division (H) of section 3313.974 of the Revised Code. 74065
The Cleveland Municipal School District shall report the use of 74066
these funds in the district's three-year continuous improvement 74067
plan as described in section 3302.04 of the Revised Code in a 74068
manner approved by the Department of Education.74069

       Any sums, in addition to the amounts specifically 74070
appropriated in appropriation item 200550, Foundation Funding, for 74071
payments of the scholarships required under sections 3313.974 to 74072
3313.979 of the Revised Code, which are determined to be necessary 74073
by the Superintendent of Public Instruction, are hereby 74074
appropriated.74075

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 74076
Funding, an amount shall be available in each fiscal year to be 74077
paid to joint vocational school districts in accordance with the 74078
section of this act entitled "FUNDING FOR JOINT VOCATIONAL SCHOOL 74079
DISTRICTS."74080

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 74081
Funding, a portion in each fiscal year shall be paid to city, 74082
exempted village, and local school districts in accordance with 74083
the section of this act entitled "SUPPLEMENTAL SCHOOL DISTRICT 74084
FUNDING."74085

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 74086
Funding, a portion in each fiscal year shall be paid to school 74087
districts and community schools in accordance with the section of 74088
this act entitled "SUBSIDY FOR HIGH PERFORMING SCHOOL DISTRICTS."74089

       The remainder of appropriation item 200550, Foundation 74090
Funding, shall be used to distribute the amounts calculated for 74091
formula aid under Section 267.30.50 of this act.74092

       Appropriation items 200502, Pupil Transportation, 200540, 74093
Special Education Enhancements, and 200550, Foundation Funding, 74094
other than specific set-asides, are collectively used in each 74095
fiscal year to pay state formula aid obligations for school 74096
districts, community schools, STEM schools, and joint vocational 74097
school districts under this act. The first priority of these 74098
appropriation items, with the exception of specific set-asides, is 74099
to fund state formula aid obligations. It may be necessary to 74100
reallocate funds among these appropriation items or use excess 74101
funds from other general revenue fund appropriation items in the 74102
Department of Education's budget in each fiscal year, in order to 74103
meet state formula aid obligations. If it is determined that it is 74104
necessary to transfer funds among these appropriation items or to 74105
transfer funds from other General Revenue Fund appropriations in 74106
the Department of Education's budget to meet state formula aid 74107
obligations, the Department of Education shall seek approval from 74108
the Controlling Board to transfer funds as needed.74109

       Sec. 279.10. EPA ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY74110

General Services Fund Group74111

1990 715602 Laboratory Services $ 402,295 $ 408,560 74112
2190 715604 Central Support Indirect $ 8,594,348 $ 8,555,680 74113
4A10 715640 Operating Expenses $ 2,304,267 $ 2,093,039 74114
4D50 715618 Recycled State Materials $ 0 $ 50,000 74115
TOTAL GSF General Services 74116
Fund Group $ 11,300,910 $ 11,057,279 11,107,279 74117

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group74118

3530 715612 Public Water Supply $ 2,941,282 $ 2,941,282 74119
3540 715614 Hazardous Waste Management - Federal $ 4,193,000 $ 4,193,000 74120
3570 715619 Air Pollution Control - Federal $ 6,310,203 $ 6,310,203 74121
3620 715605 Underground Injection Control - Federal $ 111,874 $ 111,874 74122
3BU0 715684 Water Quality Protection $ 8,100,000 $ 6,785,000 74123
3CS0 715688 Federal NRD Settlements $ 100,000 $ 100,000 74124
3F20 715630 Revolving Loan Fund - Operating $ 907,543 $ 907,543 74125
3F30 715632 Federally Supported Cleanup and Response $ 3,344,746 $ 3,290,405 74126
3F50 715641 Nonpoint Source Pollution Management $ 6,265,000 $ 6,260,000 74127
3T30 715669 Drinking Water State Revolving Fund $ 2,273,323 $ 2,273,323 74128
3V70 715606 Agencywide Grants $ 600,000 $ 600,000 74129
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 74130
Fund Group $ 35,146,971 $ 33,772,630 74131

State Special Revenue Fund Group74132

4J00 715638 Underground Injection Control $ 445,234 $ 445,571 74133
4K20 715648 Clean Air - Non Title V $ 3,152,306 $ 2,906,267 74134
4K30 715649 Solid Waste $ 16,742,551 $ 16,414,654 74135
4K40 715650 Surface Water Protection $ 7,642,625 $ 6,672,246 74136
4K40 715686 Environmental Lab Service $ 2,096,007 $ 2,096,007 74137
4K50 715651 Drinking Water Protection $ 7,410,118 $ 7,405,428 74138
4P50 715654 Cozart Landfill $ 100,000 $ 100,000 74139
4R50 715656 Scrap Tire Management $ 1,368,610 $ 1,376,742 74140
4R90 715658 Voluntary Action Program $ 999,503 $ 997,425 74141
4T30 715659 Clean Air - Title V Permit Program $ 16,349,471 $ 16,241,822 74142
4U70 715660 Construction and Demolition Debris $ 425,913 $ 433,591 74143
5000 715608 Immediate Removal Special Account $ 633,832 $ 634,033 74144
5030 715621 Hazardous Waste Facility Management $ 10,241,107 $ 9,789,620 74145
5050 715623 Hazardous Waste Cleanup $ 12,511,234 $ 12,331,272 74146
5050 715674 Clean Ohio Environmental Review $ 108,104 $ 108,104 74147
5320 715646 Recycling and Litter Control $ 0 $ 4,911,575 74148
5410 715670 Site Specific Cleanup $ 2,048,101 $ 2,048,101 74149
5420 715671 Risk Management Reporting $ 132,636 $ 132,636 74150
5860 715637 Scrap Tire Market Development $ 0 $ 1,497,645 74151
5920 715627 Anti Tampering Settlement $ 2,285 $ 2,285 74152
5BC0 715617 Clean Ohio $ 611,455 $ 611,455 74153
5BC0 715622 Local Air Pollution Control $ 2,297,980 $ 2,297,980 74154
5BC0 715624 Surface Water $ 8,970,181 $ 9,114,974 74155
5BC0 715672 Air Pollution Control $ 4,438,629 $ 4,534,758 74156
5BC0 715673 Drinking and Ground Water $ 4,317,527 $ 4,323,521 74157
5BC0 715675 Hazardous Waste $ 95,266 $ 95,266 74158
5BC0 715676 Assistance and Prevention $ 640,179 $ 645,069 74159
5BC0 715677 Laboratory $ 939,717 $ 958,586 74160
5BC0 715678 Corrective Actions $ 31,765 $ 105,423 74161
5BC0 715687 Areawide Planning Agencies $ 450,000 $ 450,000 74162
5BC0 715692 Administration $ 8,562,476 $ 8,212,627 74163
5BT0 715679 C&DD Groundwater Monitoring $ 203,800 $ 203,800 74164
5BY0 715681 Auto Emissions Test $ 13,029,952 $ 13,242,762 11,242,762 74165
5CD0 715682 Clean Diesel School Buses $ 600,000 $ 600,000 74166
5H40 715664 Groundwater Support $ 77,508 $ 78,212 74167
5N20 715613 Dredge and Fill $ 29,250 $ 29,250 74168
5Y30 715685 Surface Water Improvement $ 2,800,000 $ 2,800,000 74169
6440 715631 ER Radiological Safety $ 279,838 $ 279,966 74170
6600 715629 Infectious Waste Management $ 91,573 $ 88,764 74171
6760 715642 Water Pollution Control Loan Administration $ 4,317,376 $ 4,321,605 74172
6780 715635 Air Toxic Release $ 138,669 $ 138,669 74173
6790 715636 Emergency Planning $ 2,623,192 $ 2,623,252 74174
6960 715643 Air Pollution Control Administration $ 1,100,000 $ 1,100,000 74175
6990 715644 Water Pollution Control Administration $ 220,000 $ 220,000 74176
6A10 715645 Environmental Education $ 1,488,260 $ 1,488,718 74177
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 140,764,230 $ 138,700,461 143,109,681 74178

Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group74179

5S10 715607 Clean Ohio - Operating $ 284,083 $ 284,124 74180
TOTAL CLF Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group $ 284,083 $ 284,124 74181
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 187,496,194 $ 183,814,494 188,273,714 74182

       AUTOMOBILE EMISSIONS TESTING PROGRAM OPERATION AND OVERSIGHT74183

        On July 1 of each fiscal year, or as soon as possible 74184
thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management may transfer up 74185
to $13,029,952 in cash in fiscal year 2012, and up to $13,242,76274186
11,242,762 in cash in fiscal year 2013 from the General Revenue 74187
Fund to the Auto Emissions Test Fund (Fund 5BY0) for the operation 74188
and oversight of the auto emissions testing program.74189

       AREAWIDE PLANNING AGENCIES74190

       The Director of Environmental Protection Agency may award 74191
grants from appropriation item 715687, Areawide Planning Agencies, 74192
to areawide planning agencies engaged in areawide water quality 74193
management and planning activities in accordance with Section 208 74194
of the "Federal Clean Water Act," 33 U.S.C. 1288.74195

       CORRECTIVE CASH TRANSFERS74196

       On July 1, 2011, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 74197
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer $376,891.85 in 74198
cash that was mistakenly deposited in the Clean Air Non Title V 74199
Fund (Fund 4K20) to the Clean Air Title V Permit Fund (Fund 4T30).74200

       On July 1, 2011, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 74201
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer $133,026.63 in 74202
cash that was mistakenly deposited in the Scrap Tire Management 74203
Fund (Fund 4R50) to the Site Specific Cleanup Fund (Fund 5410).74204

       Sec. 283.10. ETC ETECH OHIO74205

General Revenue Fund74206

GRF 935401 Statehouse News Bureau $ 215,561 $ 215,561 0 74207
GRF 935402 Ohio Government Telecommunications Services $ 702,089 $ 702,089 0 74208
GRF 935408 General Operations $ 1,251,789 $ 1,254,193 0 74209
GRF 935409 Technology Operations $ 2,092,432 $ 2,091,823 0 74210
GRF 935410 Content Development, Acquisition, and Distribution $ 2,607,094 $ 2,607,094 0 74211
GRF 935411 Technology Integration and Professional Development $ 4,251,185 $ 4,252,671 0 74212
GRF 935412 Information Technology $ 829,340 $ 829,963 0 74213
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 11,949,490 $ 11,953,394 0 74214

General Services Fund Group74215

4F30 935603 Affiliate Services $ 50,000 $ 50,000 0 74216
4T20 935605 Government Television/Telecommunications Operating $ 25,000 $ 25,000 0 74217
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 75,000 $ 75,000 0 74218

State Special Revenue Fund Group74219

4W90 935630 Telecommunity $ 25,000 $ 25,000 0 74220
4X10 935634 Distance Learning $ 24,150 $ 24,150 0 74221
5D40 935640 Conference/Special Purposes $ 2,100,000 $ 2,100,000 0 74222
5FK0 935608 Media Services $ 637,601 $ 637,956 0 74223
5JU0 935611 Information Technology Services $ 1,455,000 $ 1,455,000 0 74224
5T30 935607 Gates Foundation Grants $ 200,000 $ 171,112 0 74225
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 4,441,751 $ 4,413,218 0 74226
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 16,466,241 $ 16,441,612 0 74227


       Sec. 283.20.  STATEHOUSE NEWS BUREAU74229

       The foregoing appropriation item 935401, Statehouse News 74230
Bureau, shall be used solely to support the operations of the Ohio 74231
Statehouse News Bureau.74232

       OHIO GOVERNMENT TELECOMMUNICATIONS SERVICES74233

       The foregoing appropriation item 935402, Ohio Government 74234
Telecommunications Services, shall be used solely to support the 74235
operations of Ohio Government Telecommunications Services which 74236
include providing multimedia support to the state government and 74237
its affiliated organizations and broadcasting the activities of 74238
the legislative, judicial, and executive branches of state 74239
government, among its other functions.74240

       TECHNOLOGY OPERATIONS74241

       The foregoing appropriation item 935409, Technology 74242
Operations, shall be used by eTech Ohio to pay expenses of eTech 74243
Ohio's network infrastructure, which includes the television and 74244
radio transmission infrastructure and infrastructure that shall 74245
link all public K-12 classrooms to each other and to the Internet, 74246
and provide access to voice, video, other communication services, 74247
and data educational resources for students and teachers. The 74248
foregoing appropriation item 935409, Technology Operations, may 74249
also be used to cover student costs for taking advanced placement 74250
courses and courses that the Chancellor of the Board of Regents 74251
has determined to be eligible for postsecondary credit through the 74252
Ohio Learns Gateway. To the extent that funds remain available for 74253
this purpose, public school students taking advanced placement or 74254
postsecondary courses through the OhioLearns Gateway shall be 74255
eligible to receive a fee waiver to cover the cost of 74256
participating in one course. The fee waivers shall be distributed 74257
until the funds appropriated to support the waivers have been 74258
exhausted.74259

       CONTENT DEVELOPMENT, ACQUISITION, AND DISTRIBUTION74260

       The foregoing appropriation item 935410, Content Development, 74261
Acquisition, and Distribution, shall be used for the development, 74262
acquisition, and distribution of information resources by public 74263
media and radio reading services and for educational use in the 74264
classroom and online.74265

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 935410, Content 74266
Development, Acquisition, and Distribution, up to $658,099 in each74267
fiscal year 2012 shall be allocated equally among the 12 Ohio 74268
educational television stations and used with the advice and 74269
approval of eTech Ohio. Funds shall be used for the production of 74270
interactive instructional programming series with priority given 74271
to resources aligned with state academic content standards in 74272
consultation with the Ohio Department of Education and for 74273
teleconferences to support eTech Ohio. The programming shall be 74274
targeted to the needs of the poorest two hundred school districts 74275
as determined by the district's adjusted valuation per pupil as 74276
defined in former section 3317.0213 of the Revised Code as that 74277
section existed prior to June 30, 2005.74278

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 935410, Content 74279
Development, Acquisition, and Distribution, up to $1,749,283 in 74280
each fiscal year 2012 shall be distributed by eTech Ohio to Ohio's 74281
qualified public educational television stations and educational 74282
radio stations to support their operations. The funds shall be 74283
distributed pursuant to an allocation formula used by the Ohio 74284
Educational Telecommunications Network Commission unless a 74285
substitute formula is developed by eTech Ohio in consultation with 74286
Ohio's qualified public educational television stations and 74287
educational radio stations.74288

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 935410, Content 74289
Development, Acquisition, and Distribution, up to $199,712 in each74290
fiscal year 2012 shall be distributed by eTech Ohio to Ohio's 74291
qualified radio reading services to support their operations. The 74292
funds shall be distributed pursuant to an allocation formula used 74293
by the Ohio Educational Telecommunications Network Commission 74294
unless a substitute formula is developed by eTech Ohio in 74295
consultation with Ohio's qualified radio reading services.74296

       Sec. 283.30. TECHNOLOGY INTEGRATION AND PROFESSIONAL 74297
DEVELOPMENT74298

       The foregoing appropriation item 935411, Technology 74299
Integration and Professional Development, shall be used by eTech 74300
Ohio for the provision of staff development, hardware, software, 74301
telecommunications services, and information resources to support 74302
educational uses of technology in the classroom and at a distance 74303
and for professional development for teachers, administrators, and 74304
technology staff on the use of educational technology in 74305
qualifying public schools, including the State School for the 74306
Blind, the State School for the Deaf, and the Department of Youth 74307
Services.74308

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 935411, Technology 74309
Integration and Professional Development, up to $1,691,701 in each74310
fiscal year 2012 shall be used by eTech Ohio to contract with 74311
educational television to provide Ohio public schools with 74312
instructional resources and services with priority given to 74313
resources and services aligned with state academic content 74314
standards and such resources and services shall be based upon the 74315
advice and approval of eTech Ohio, based on a formula used by the 74316
Ohio SchoolNet Commission unless and until a substitute formula is 74317
developed by eTech Ohio in consultation with Ohio's educational 74318
technology agencies and noncommercial educational television 74319
stations.74320

       Sec. 291.10. DOH DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH74321

General Revenue Fund74322

GRF 440412 Cancer Incidence Surveillance System $ 600,000 $ 600,000 74323
GRF 440413 Local Health Department Support $ 2,302,788 $ 2,303,061 74324
GRF 440416 Mothers and Children Safety Net Services $ 4,227,842 $ 4,228,015 74325
GRF 440418 Immunizations $ 6,430,538 $ 8,930,829 8,825,829 74326
GRF 440431 Free Clinics Safety Net Services $ 437,326 $ 437,326 74327
GRF 440438 Breast and Cervical Cancer Screening $ 823,217 $ 823,217 74328
GRF 440444 AIDS Prevention and Treatment $ 5,842,315 $ 5,842,315 74329
GRF 440451 Public Health Laboratory $ 3,654,348 $ 3,655,449 74330
GRF 440452 Child and Family Health Services Match $ 630,390 $ 630,444 74331
GRF 440453 Health Care Quality Assurance $ 8,170,694 $ 8,174,361 74332
GRF 440454 Local Environmental Health $ 1,310,141 $ 1,310,362 1,194,634 74333
GRF 440459 Help Me Grow $ 33,673,545 $ 33,673,987 74334
GRF 440465 Federally Qualified Health Centers $ 458,688 $ 2,686,688 74335
GRF 440467 Access to Dental Care $ 540,484 $ 540,484 74336
GRF 440468 Chronic Disease and Injury Prevention $ 2,577,251 $ 2,577,251 2,447,251 74337
GRF 440472 Alcohol Testing $ 550,000 $ 1,100,000 74338
GRF 440505 Medically Handicapped Children $ 7,512,451 $ 7,512,451 74339
GRF 440507 Targeted Health Care Services Over 21 $ 1,045,414 $ 1,045,414 74340
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 80,787,432 $ 86,071,654 85,720,926 74341

State Highway Safety Fund Group74342

4T40 440603 Child Highway Safety $ 233,894 $ 233,894 74343
TOTAL HSF State Highway Safety 74344
Fund Group $ 233,894 $ 233,894 74345

General Services Fund Group74346

1420 440646 Agency Health Services $ 8,825,788 $ 8,826,146 74347
2110 440613 Central Support Indirect Costs $ 28,900,000 $ 29,000,000 74348
4730 440622 Lab Operating Expenses $ 5,000,000 $ 5,000,000 74349
5HB0 440470 Breast and Cervical Cancer Screening $ 1,000,000 $ 0 74350
6830 440633 Employee Assistance Program $ 1,100,000 $ 1,100,000 74351
6980 440634 Nurse Aide Training $ 99,239 $ 99,265 74352
TOTAL GSF General Services 74353
Fund Group $ 44,925,027 $ 44,025,411 74354

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group74355

3200 440601 Maternal Child Health Block Grant $ 27,068,886 $ 27,068,886 74356
3870 440602 Preventive Health Block Grant $ 7,826,659 $ 7,826,659 74357
3890 440604 Women, Infants, and Children $ 308,672,689 $ 308,672,689 74358
3910 440606 Medicaid/Medicare $ 29,625,467 $ 29,257,457 74359
3920 440618 Federal Public Health Programs $ 137,976,988 $ 137,976,988 74360
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 74361
Fund Group $ 511,170,689 $ 510,802,679 74362

State Special Revenue Fund Group74363

4700 440647 Fee Supported Programs $ 24,503,065 $ 24,513,973 24,263,973 74364
4710 440619 Certificate of Need $ 878,145 $ 878,433 74365
4770 440627 Medically Handicapped Children Audit $ 3,692,704 $ 3,692,703 74366
4D60 440608 Genetics Services $ 3,310,953 $ 3,311,039 74367
4F90 440610 Sickle Cell Disease Control $ 1,032,754 $ 1,032,824 74368
4G00 440636 Heirloom Birth Certificate $ 5,000 $ 5,000 74369
4G00 440637 Birth Certificate Surcharge $ 5,000 $ 5,000 74370
4L30 440609 Miscellaneous Expenses $ 3,333,164 $ 3,333,164 74371
4P40 440628 Ohio Physician Loan Repayment $ 476,870 $ 476,870 74372
4V60 440641 Save Our Sight $ 2,255,760 $ 2,255,789 74373
5B50 440616 Quality, Monitoring, and Inspection $ 878,638 $ 878,997 74374
5C00 440615 Alcohol Testing and Permit $ 551,018 $ 0 74375
5CN0 440645 Choose Life $ 75,000 $ 75,000 74376
5D60 440620 Second Chance Trust $ 1,151,815 $ 1,151,902 74377
5ED0 440651 Smoke Free Indoor Air $ 190,452 $ 190,452 74378
5G40 440639 Adoption Services $ 20,000 $ 20,000 74379
5L10 440623 Nursing Facility Technical Assistance Program $ 687,500 $ 687,528 74380
5Z70 440624 Ohio Dentist Loan Repayment $ 140,000 $ 140,000 74381
6100 440626 Radiation Emergency Response $ 930,525 $ 930,576 74382
6660 440607 Medically Handicapped Children - County Assessments $ 19,738,286 $ 19,739,617 74383
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 74384
Fund Group $ 63,856,649 $ 63,318,867 63,068,867 74385

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group74386

R014 440631 Vital Statistics $ 44,986 $ 44,986 74387
R048 440625 Refunds, Grants Reconciliation, and Audit Settlements $ 20,000 $ 20,000 74388
TOTAL 090 Holding Account 74389
Redistribution Fund Group $ 64,986 $ 64,986 74390

Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group74391

5BX0 440656 Tobacco Use Prevention $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 74392
TOTAL TSF Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 74393
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 702,038,677 $ 705,517,491 704,916,763 74394


       Sec. 307.10.  INS DEPARTMENT OF INSURANCE74396

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group74397

3EV0 820610 Health Insurance Premium Review $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 74398
3EW0 820611 Health Exchange Planning $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 74399
3U50 820602 OSHIIP Operating Grant $ 2,270,726 $ 2,270,725 74400
TOTAL FED Federal Special 74401
Revenue Fund Group $ 4,270,726 $ 4,270,725 74402

State Special Revenue Fund Group74403

5540 820601 Operating Expenses - OSHIIP $ 190,000 $ 180,000 74404
5540 820606 Operating Expenses $ 22,745,538 $ 22,288,550 22,931,817 74405
5550 820605 Examination $ 9,065,684 $ 8,934,065 8,184,065 74406
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 74407
Fund Group $ 32,001,222 $ 31,402,615 31,295,882 74408
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 36,271,948 $ 35,673,340 35,566,607 74409

       MARKET CONDUCT EXAMINATION74410

       When conducting a market conduct examination of any insurer 74411
doing business in this state, the Superintendent of Insurance may 74412
assess the costs of the examination against the insurer. The 74413
superintendent may enter into consent agreements to impose 74414
administrative assessments or fines for conduct discovered that 74415
may be violations of statutes or rules administered by the 74416
superintendent. All costs, assessments, or fines collected shall 74417
be deposited to the credit of the Department of Insurance 74418
Operating Fund (Fund 5540).74419

       EXAMINATIONS OF DOMESTIC FRATERNAL BENEFIT SOCIETIES74420

       The Director of Budget and Management, at the request of the 74421
Superintendent of Insurance, may transfer funds from the 74422
Department of Insurance Operating Fund (Fund 5540), established by 74423
section 3901.021 of the Revised Code, to the Superintendent's 74424
Examination Fund (Fund 5550), established by section 3901.071 of 74425
the Revised Code, only for expenses incurred in examining domestic 74426
fraternal benefit societies as required by section 3921.28 of the 74427
Revised Code.74428

       TRANSFER FROM FUND 5540 TO GENERAL REVENUE FUND74429

        Not later than the thirty-first day of July each fiscal year, 74430
the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer $5,000,000 74431
from the Department of Insurance Operating Fund (Fund 5540) to the 74432
General Revenue Fund.74433

       Sec. 309.10. JFS DEPARTMENT OF JOB AND FAMILY SERVICES74434

General Revenue Fund74435

GRF 600321 Program Support Services 74436
State $ 34,801,760 $ 31,932,117 31,612,796 74437
Federal $ 9,322,222 $ 9,207,441 9,115,366 74438
Program Support Services Total $ 44,123,982 $ 41,139,558 40,728,162 74439
GRF 600410 TANF State/Maintenance of Effort $ 151,386,934 $ 151,386,934 74440
GRF 600413 Child Care Match State/Maintenance of Effort $ 84,732,730 $ 84,732,730 74441
GRF 600416 Computer Information Technology Projects 74442
State $ 67,955,340 $ 69,263,506 68,570,871 74443
Federal $ 13,105,167 $ 12,937,222 12,807,850 74444
Computer Information Technology Projects Total $ 81,060,507 $ 82,200,728 81,378,721 74445
GRF 600417 Medicaid Provider Audits $ 1,312,992 $ 1,312,992 1,299,862 74446
GRF 600420 Child Support Administration Programs $ 6,163,534 $ 6,065,588 6,004,932 74447
GRF 600421 Office of Family Stability Assistance Programs $ 3,768,929 $ 3,757,493 3,719,918 74448
GRF 600423 Office of Children and Families and Children Programs $ 5,123,406 $ 4,978,756 74449
GRF 600425 Office of Ohio Health Plans Care Programs 74450
State $ 13,149,582 $ 15,740,987 15,583,577 74451
Federal $ 12,556,921 $ 12,286,234 12,163,372 74452
Office of Ohio Health Plans Care Programs Total $ 25,706,503 $ 28,027,221 27,746,949 74453
GRF 600502 Administration Child Support - Local $ 23,814,103 $ 23,814,103 74454
GRF 600511 Disability Financial Assistance $ 26,599,666 $ 27,108,734 74455
GRF 600521 Entitlement Administration Family Assistance - Local $ 72,200,721 $ 72,200,721 74456
GRF 600523 Family and Children and Families Services $ 53,605,323 52,605,323 $ 53,105,323 54,105,323 74457
GRF 600525 Health Care/Medicaid 74458
State $ 4,313,761,372 $ 4,689,051,017 4,689,701,017 74459
Federal $ 7,530,008,024 $ 8,429,762,527 8,430,897,261 74460
Health Care Total $ 11,843,769,396 $ 13,118,813,544 13,120,598,278 74461
GRF 600526 Medicare Part D $ 277,996,490 $ 296,964,743 74462
GRF 600528 Adoption Services 74463
State $ 29,257,932 $ 29,257,932 74464
Federal $ 41,085,169 $ 41,085,169 74465
Adoption Services Total $ 70,343,101 $ 70,343,101 74466
GRF 600533 Child, Family, and Adult Community & Protective Services $ 13,500,000 $ 13,500,000 74467
GRF 600534 Adult Protective Services $ 366,003 $ 366,003 74468
GRF 600535 Early Care and Education $ 123,596,474 $ 123,596,474 74469
GRF 600537 Children's Hospital $ 6,000,000 $ 6,000,000 74470
GRF 600540 Second Harvest Food Banks $ 4,000,000 $ 4,000,000 74471
GRF 600541 Kinship Permanency Incentive Program $ 2,500,000 $ 3,500,000 74472
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund 74473
State $ 5,315,593,291 5,314,593,291 $ 5,711,636,153 5,712,005,426 74474
Federal $ 7,606,077,503 $ 8,505,278,593 8,506,069,018 74475
GRF Total $ 12,921,670,794 12,920,670,794 $ 14,216,914,746 14,218,074,444 74476

General Services Fund Group74477

4A80 600658 Public Assistance Activities $ 34,000,000 $ 34,000,000 74478
5C90 600671 Medicaid Program Support $ 85,800,878 $ 82,839,266 0 74479
5DL0 600639 Medicaid Revenue and Collections Health Care/Medicaid Support - Recoveries $ 89,256,974 $ 84,156,974 166,996,240 74480
5DM0 600633 Administration & Operating $ 20,392,173 $ 19,858,928 19,660,339 74481
5FX0 600638 Medicaid Payment Withholding $ 5,000,000 $ 6,000,000 74482
5HL0 600602 State and County Shared services $ 3,020,000 $ 3,020,000 74483
5P50 600692 Prescription Drug Rebate - State Health Care/Medicaid Support - Drug Rebates $ 220,600,000 $ 242,600,000 74484
6130 600645 Training Activities $ 500,000 $ 500,000 74485
TOTAL GSF General Services 74486
Fund Group $ 458,570,025 $ 472,975,168 472,776,579 74487

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group74488

3270 600606 Child Welfare $ 29,769,865 $ 29,769,866 74489
3310 600615 Veterans Programs $ 0 $ 8,000,000 74490
3310 600624 Employment Services Programs $ 0 $ 33,943,023 74491
3310 600686 Federal Operating Workforce Programs $ 49,128,140 $ 48,203,023 6,260,000 74492
3840 600610 Food Assistance and State Administration Programs $ 180,381,394 $ 180,381,394 74493
3850 600614 Refugee Services $ 11,582,440 $ 12,564,952 74494
3950 600616 Special Activities/Child and Family Services Federal Discretionary Grants $ 2,259,264 $ 2,259,264 74495
3960 600620 Social Services Block Grant $ 64,999,999 $ 64,999,998 74496
3970 600626 Child Support - Federal $ 255,812,837 $ 255,813,528 74497
3980 600627 Adoption Maintenance/ Administration Program - Federal $ 352,183,862 $ 352,184,253 174,178,779 74498
3A20 600641 Emergency Food Distribution $ 5,000,000 $ 5,000,000 74499
3AW0 600675 Faith Based Initiatives $ 544,140 $ 544,140 74500
3D30 600648 Children's Trust Fund Federal $ 2,040,524 $ 2,040,524 74501
3ER0 600603 Health Information Technology $ 411,661,286 $ 416,395,286 74502
3F00 600623 Health Care Federal $ 2,637,061,505 $ 2,720,724,869 74503
3F00 600650 Hospital Care Assurance Match - Federal $ 372,784,046 $ 380,645,627 74504
3FA0 600680 Ohio Health Care Grants - Federal $ 9,405,000 $ 20,000,000 74505
3G50 600655 Interagency Reimbursement $ 1,621,305,787 $ 1,380,391,478 74506
3H70 600617 Child Care Federal $ 208,290,036 $ 204,813,731 74507
3N00 600628 IV-E Foster Care Maintenance Program - Federal $ 133,963,142 $ 133,963,142 311,968,616 74508
3S50 600622 Child Support Projects $ 534,050 $ 534,050 74509
3V00 600688 Workforce Investment Act Programs $ 176,496,250 $ 172,805,562 74510
3V40 600678 Federal Unemployment Programs $ 188,680,096 $ 186,723,415 74511
3V40 600679 Unemployment Compensation UC Review Commission - Federal $ 4,166,988 $ 4,068,758 74512
3V60 600689 TANF Block Grant $ 727,968,260 $ 727,968,260 74513
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 74514
Fund Group $ 7,446,018,911 $ 7,302,795,120 74515

State Special Revenue Fund Group74516

1980 600647 Children's Trust Fund $ 5,873,637 $ 5,873,848 74517
4A90 600607 Unemployment Compensation Administration Fund $ 21,924,998 $ 21,424,998 74518
4A90 600694 Unemployment Compensation UC Review Commission - SAF $ 2,173,167 $ 2,117,031 74519
4E30 600605 Nursing Home Assessments Resident Protection Fund $ 2,878,320 $ 2,878,319 74520
4E70 600604 Child and Family and Children Services Collections $ 400,000 $ 400,000 74521
4F10 600609 Family and Children and Family Services Activities $ 683,359 $ 683,549 74522
4K10 600621 ICF/MR Bed Assessments DDD Support - Franchise Fee $ 41,405,596 $ 44,372,874 74523
4Z10 600625 HealthCare Compliance $ 11,551,076 $ 14,582,000 74524
5AJ0 600631 Money Follows the Person $ 5,483,080 $ 4,733,080 74525
5DB0 600637 Military Injury Grants Relief Subsidies $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 74526
5DP0 600634 Adoption Assistance Loan $ 500,000 $ 500,000 74527
5ES0 600630 Food Bank Assistance $ 500,000 $ 500,000 74528
5GF0 600656 Medicaid Health Care/Medicaid Support - Hospital/UPL $ 436,000,000 $ 436,000,000 74529
5KC0 600682 Health Care Special Activities Grants - State $ 10,000,000 $ 10,000,000 74530
5KU0 600611 Unemployment Compensation Support - Other Sources $ 2,000,000 $ 4,000,000 74531
5R20 600608 Medicaid-Nursing Facilities Long-Term Care Support $ 402,489,308 $ 407,100,746 74532
5S30 600629 MR/DD Medicaid Administration Health Care Program and Oversight DDD Support $ 9,252,738 $ 9,147,791 74533
5U30 600654 Health Care Services Administration Program Support $ 24,400,000 $ 24,400,000 24,156,000 74534
5U60 600663 Children Family and Family Children Support $ 4,000,000 $ 4,000,000 74535
6510 600649 Hospital Care Assurance Program Fund $ 212,526,123 $ 217,008,050 74536
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 74537
Fund Group $ 1,194,041,402 1,196,041,402 $ 1,207,722,286 1,211,478,286 74538

Agency Fund Group74539

1920 600646 Child Support Intercept - Federal $ 130,000,000 $ 130,000,000 129,250,000 74540
5830 600642 Child Support Intercept - State $ 16,000,000 $ 16,000,000 14,000,000 74541
5B60 600601 Food Assistance Intercept $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 1,000,000 74542
TOTAL AGY Agency Fund Group $ 148,000,000 $ 148,000,000 144,250,000 74543

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group74544

R012 600643 Refunds and Audit Settlements $ 2,200,000 $ 2,200,000 74545
R013 600644 Forgery Collections $ 10,000 $ 10,000 74546
TOTAL 090 Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group $ 2,210,000 $ 2,210,000 74547
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 22,170,511,132 22,171,511,132 $ 23,350,617,320 23,351,584,429 74548


       Sec. 309.30.10. HEALTH CARE/MEDICAID74550

       The foregoing appropriation item 600525, Health 74551
Care/Medicaid, shall not be limited by section 131.33 of the 74552
Revised Code.74553

       HEALTH CARE/MEDICAID ENDING BALANCE74554

        Thirty million dollars of the unexpended and unencumbered 74555
portion of appropriation item 600525, Health Care/Medicaid, at the 74556
end of fiscal year 2012 is hereby reappropriated to the Department 74557
of Job and Family Services for payments to nursing facilities for 74558
fiscal year 2013 in accordance with the section of this act titled 74559
"FISCAL YEAR 2013 QUALITY BONUS PAYMENTS TO NURSING FACILITIES."74560

       Sec. 309.30.30. REDUCTION IN MEDICAID PAYMENT RATES74561

       (A) As used in this section, "charge high trim point" means a 74562
measure, excluding the measure established by paragraph (A)(6) of 74563
rule 5101:3-2-07.9 of the Administrative Code, used to determine 74564
whether a claim for a hospital inpatient service qualifies for a 74565
cost outlier payment under the Medicaid program.74566

       (B) For fiscal year 2012 and fiscal year 2013, the Director 74567
of Job and Family Services shall implement purchasing strategies 74568
and rate reductions for hospital and other Medicaid-covered 74569
services, as determined by the Director, that result in payment 74570
rates for those services being at least two per cent less than the 74571
respective payment rates for fiscal year 2011. In implementing the 74572
purchasing strategies and rate reductions, the Director shall do 74573
the following:74574

       (1) Notwithstanding the section of this actAm. Sub. H.B. 153 74575
of the 129th General Assembly titled "CONTINUATION OF MEDICAID 74576
RATES FOR HOSPITAL INPATIENT AND OUTPATIENT SERVICES," modernize 74577
hospital inpatient and outpatient reimbursement methodologies by 74578
doing the following:74579

       (a) Modifying the inpatient hospital capital reimbursement 74580
methodology;74581

       (b) Establishing new diagnosis-related groups in a 74582
cost-neutral manner;74583

       (c) For hospital discharges that occur during the period 74584
beginning October 1, 2011, and ending January 1, 2012, modifying 74585
charge high trim points, as in effect on January 1, 2011, by a 74586
factor of 13.6%;74587

       (d) For hospital discharges that occur during the period 74588
beginning January 1, 2012, and ending on the effective date of the 74589
first of the new diagnosis-related groups established under 74590
division (B)(1)(b) of this section, modifying charge high trim 74591
points, as in effect on October 1, 2011, by a factor of 9.72%;74592

       (e) Implementing other changes the Director considers 74593
appropriate.74594

       (2) Establish selective contracting and prior authorization 74595
requirements for types of medical assistance the Director 74596
identifies.74597

        (C) A managed care organization under contract with the 74598
Department of Job and Family Services pursuant to section 5111.17 74599
of the Revised Code shall use a new diagnosis-related group for a 74600
hospital inpatient service established under division (B)(1)(b) of 74601
this section for purposes of making payments under the Medicaid 74602
care management system for hospital inpatient services that are 74603
provided during the period beginning on the later of the effective 74604
date of the new diagnosis-related group or the effective date of 74605
this amendment and ending July 1, 2013.74606

       (D) The Director shall adopt rules under sectionsections74607
5111.02, 5111.17, and 5111.85 of the Revised Code as necessary to 74608
implement this section. The rules adopted to implement divisions 74609
(B)(1)(a), (b), and (e) of this section shall include quality 74610
factors and quality-based incentive payments.74611

       (D)(E) This section does not apply to nursing facility and 74612
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded services 74613
provided under the Medicaid program.74614

       Sec. 309.30.33.  HOSPITAL INPATIENT AND OUTPATIENT 74615
SUPPLEMENTAL UPPER PAYMENT LIMIT PROGRAM; MEDICAID MANAGED CARE 74616
HOSPITAL INCENTIVE PAYMENT PROGRAM74617

       (A) As used in this section:74618

       (1) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 5112.40 of 74619
the Revised Code.74620

       (2) "Hospital Assessment Fund" means the fund created under 74621
section 5112.45 of the Revised Code.74622

       (3) "Medicaid managed care organization" means an entity 74623
under contract pursuant to section 5111.17 of the Revised Code to 74624
provide or arrange services for Medicaid recipients who are 74625
required or permitted to participate in the Medicaid care 74626
management system.74627

       (B) The Department of Job and Family Services shall submit to 74628
the United States Secretary of Health and Human Services a 74629
Medicaid state plan amendment to do both of the following:74630

       (1) Continue the Hospital Inpatient and Outpatient 74631
Supplemental Upper Payment Limit Program that was established 74632
pursuant to Section 309.30.17 of Am. Sub. H.B. 1 of the 128th 74633
General Assembly, with any modifications necessary to implement 74634
the program as described under division (D) of this section;74635

       (2) Create the Medicaid Managed Care Hospital Incentive 74636
Payment Program, as described under division (E) of this section.74637

       (C) Of the amounts deposited into the Hospital Assessment 74638
Fund in fiscal year 2012 and fiscal year 2013:74639

       (1) Up to $432,432,725 (state and federal) in fiscal year 74640
2012 and up to $415,162,388 (state and federal) in fiscal year 74641
2013 shall be used for the Hospital Inpatient and Outpatient 74642
Supplemental Upper Payment Limit Program;74643

       (2) Up to $162,000,000 (state and federal) in each fiscal 74644
year shall be used for the Medicaid Managed Care Hospital 74645
Incentive Payment Program;74646

       (3) Up to $176,021,111 (state and federal) in fiscal year 74647
2012 and up to $195,158,394 (state and federal) in fiscal year 74648
2013 shall be used for the program authorized by the section of 74649
this actAm. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly titled 74650
"CONTINUATION OF MEDICAID RATES FOR HOSPITAL INPATIENT AND 74651
OUTPATIENT SERVICES."74652

       (D)(1) If the Medicaid state plan amendment submitted under 74653
division (B)(1) of this section is approved, the Department shall 74654
implement the Hospital Inpatient and Outpatient Supplemental Upper 74655
Payment Limit Program during fiscal year 2012 and fiscal year 74656
2013. Under the Program, subject to division (D)(2) of this 74657
section, supplemental Medicaid payments shall be made to hospitals 74658
for Medicaid-covered inpatient and outpatient services. The 74659
Department shall make the payments through amounts that are made 74660
available for the Program under division (C) of this section and 74661
any federal financial participation available for the Program.74662

       (2) The Department shall take all actions necessary to cease 74663
implementation of the Program if the United States Secretary 74664
determines that the assessment imposed under section 5112.41 of 74665
the Revised Code is an impermissible healthcare-related tax under 74666
section 1903(w) of the "Social Security Act," 105 Stat. 1793 74667
(1991), 42 U.S.C. 1396b(w), as amended.74668

       (E)(1) If the Medicaid state plan amendment submitted under 74669
division (B)(2) of this section is approved, the Department shall 74670
implement the Medicaid Managed Care Hospital Incentive Payment 74671
Program. The purpose of the Program is to increase access to 74672
hospital services for Medicaid recipients who are enrolled in 74673
Medicaid managed care organizations.74674

       Under the Program, subject to division (E)(3) of this 74675
section, funds shall be provided to Medicaid managed care 74676
organizations, which shall use the funds to increase payments to 74677
hospitals for providing services to Medicaid recipients who are 74678
enrolled in the organizations. The Department shall provide the 74679
funds through amounts that are made available for the Program 74680
under division (C) of this section and any federal financial 74681
participation available for the Program.74682

       (2) Not later than July 1, 2012, the Department shall select 74683
an actuary to conduct a study of the contracted reimbursement 74684
rates between Medicaid managed care organizations and hospitals. 74685
The actuary shall determine if a reduction in the capitation rates 74686
paid to Medicaid managed care organizations in fiscal year 2013 is 74687
appropriate as a result of the contracted reimbursement rates 74688
between the organizations and hospitals. The actuary shall notify 74689
the Department of its determination.74690

       If the actuary determines that a reduction in the capitation 74691
rates paid to Medicaid managed care organizations in fiscal year 74692
2013 will not achieve $22 million in state savings in fiscal year 74693
2013, the state shall receive the difference between what the 74694
actuary determines the state will save and $22 million. The 74695
Department, in consultation with the Ohio Association of Health 74696
Plans and the Ohio Hospital Association, shall establish a 74697
methodology under which the difference is paid equally by Medicaid 74698
managed care organizations and hospitals in this state.74699

       Notwithstanding anything to the contrary specified in 74700
division (E)(3)(b) or (c) of this section, the Medicaid managed 74701
care organizations and hospitals shall pay the amounts determined 74702
under the methodology, unless the Department waives the 74703
requirement to make the payments. The requirement may be waived if 74704
spending for the Medicaid program in fiscal year 2013 is less than 74705
the amount that is budgeted for that fiscal year. If payments are 74706
made, the amount received by the Department shall be deposited 74707
into the state treasury to the credit of the Health Care 74708
Compliance Fund created under section 5111.1715111.946 of the 74709
Revised Code.74710

       (3)(a) The Department shall not provide funds to Medicaid 74711
managed care organizations under the Program unless an actuary 74712
selected by the Department certifies that the Program would not 74713
violate the actuarial soundness of the capitation rates paid to 74714
Medicaid managed care organizations.74715

       (b) The Department shall not implement the Program in a 74716
manner that causes a hospital to receive less money from the 74717
Hospital Assessment Fund than the hospital would have received if 74718
the Program were not implemented.74719

       (c) The Department shall not implement the Program in a 74720
manner that causes a Medicaid managed care organization to receive 74721
a lower capitation payment rate solely because funds are made 74722
available to the organization under the Program.74723

       (d) The Department shall take all necessary actions to cease 74724
implementation of the Program if the United States Secretary 74725
determines that the assessment imposed under section 5112.41 of 74726
the Revised Code is an impermissible healthcare-related tax under 74727
section 1903(w) of the "Social Security Act," 105 Stat. 1793 74728
(1991), 42 U.S.C. 1396b(w), as amended.74729

       (F) The Director of Budget and Management may authorize 74730
additional expenditures from appropriation item 600623, Health 74731
Care Federal, appropriation item 600525, Health Care/Medicaid, and 74732
appropriation item 600656, Medicaid-Hospital, in order to 74733
implement the programs authorized by this section and to implement 74734
the section of this actAm. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General 74735
Assembly titled "CONTINUATION OF MEDICAID RATES FOR HOSPITAL 74736
INPATIENT AND OUTPATIENT SERVICES." Any amounts authorized are 74737
hereby appropriated.74738

       (G) Nothing in this section reduces payments to children's 74739
hospitals authorized under the section of this actAm. Sub. H.B. 74740
153 of the 129th General Assembly titled "CHILDREN'S HOSPITALS 74741
SUPPLEMENTAL FUNDING."74742

       Sec. 309.30.53. MEDICAID MANAGED CARE EXEMPTIONS74743

       (A) As used in this section, "disabled individual" means any 74744
individual receiving services through the program for medically 74745
handicapped children established under section 3701.023 of the 74746
Revised Code who has one or more of the following conditions:74747

        (1) Cystic fibrosis;74748

        (2) Hemophilia;74749

        (3) Cancer.74750

        (B) Notwithstanding section 5111.16 of the Revised Code, as 74751
amended by this actAm. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General 74752
Assembly, the Department of Job and Family Services shall not 74753
include in the care management system established under that 74754
section in either fiscal year 2012 or fiscal year 2013 any 74755
individual receiving services through the program for medically 74756
handicapped children established under section 3701.023 of the 74757
Revised Code who has one or more of the following conditions and 74758
who was not receiving services through the care management system 74759
immediately before the effective date of this section:74760

       (1) Cystic fibrosis;74761

       (2) Hemophilia;74762

       (3) Cancerany disabled individual who was not receiving 74763
services through the care management system immediately before 74764
June 30, 2011, until the later of the following:74765

        (1) January 1, 2014;74766

        (2) One year after the date that the Department first 74767
designates any individual who receives Medicaid on the basis of 74768
being aged, blind, or disabled who is under twenty-one years of 74769
age as an individual who is permitted or required to participate 74770
in the care management system.74771

       Sec. 309.35.73. HEALTHCARE COMPLIANCE APPROPRIATION74772

        Notwithstanding the provisions of section 5111.1715111.94674773
of the Revised Code specifying the uses of the HealthCareHealth 74774
Care Compliance Fund, appropriations in appropriation item 600625, 74775
HealthCare Compliance, may be used for expenses incurred in 74776
implementation or operation of Health Home programs, contracts for 74777
consultants regarding Medicaid, and for the creation, 74778
modification, or replacement of any federally funded Medicaid 74779
healthcare systems in fiscal year 2012 and fiscal year 2013.74780

       Sec. 315.10.  JSC THE JUDICIARY/SUPREME COURT74781

General Revenue Fund74782

GRF 005321 Operating Expenses - Judiciary/Supreme Court $ 133,704,620 132,347,507 $ 132,565,410 133,922,523 74783
GRF 005406 Law-Related Education $ 236,172 $ 236,172 74784
GRF 005409 Ohio Courts Technology Initiative $ 2,150,000 $ 2,150,000 74785
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 136,090,792 134,733,679 $ 134,951,582 136,308,695 74786

General Services Fund Group74787

6720 005601 Continuing Judicial Education $ 172,142 $ 169,420 74788
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 172,142 $ 169,420 74789

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group74790

3J00 005603 Federal Grants $ 1,653,317 $ 1,605,717 74791
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 1,653,317 $ 1,605,717 74792

State Special Revenue Fund Group74793

4C80 005605 Attorney Services $ 3,718,328 $ 3,695,192 74794
5HT0 005617 Court Interpreter Certification $ 39,000 $ 39,000 74795
5T80 005609 Grants and Awards $ 50,000 $ 50,000 74796
6A80 005606 Supreme Court Admissions $ 1,223,340 $ 1,205,056 74797
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 5,030,668 $ 4,989,248 74798
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 142,946,919 141,589,806 $ 141,715,967 143,073,080 74799

       OPERATING EXPENSES - JUDICIARY/SUPREME COURT74800

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 005321, Operating 74801
Expenses - Judiciary/Supreme Court, up to $206,770 in each fiscal 74802
year may be used to support the functions of the State Criminal 74803
Sentencing Council.74804

       LAW-RELATED EDUCATION74805

       The foregoing appropriation item 005406, Law-Related 74806
Education, shall be distributed directly to the Ohio Center for 74807
Law-Related Education for the purposes of providing continuing 74808
citizenship education activities to primary and secondary 74809
students, expanding delinquency prevention programs, increasing 74810
activities for at-risk youth, and accessing additional public and 74811
private money for new programs.74812

       OHIO COURTS TECHNOLOGY INITIATIVE74813

       The foregoing appropriation item 005409, Ohio Courts 74814
Technology Initiative, shall be used to fund an initiative by the 74815
Supreme Court to facilitate the exchange of information and 74816
warehousing of data by and between Ohio courts and other justice 74817
system partners through the creation of an Ohio Courts Network, 74818
the delivery of technology services to courts throughout the 74819
state, including the provision of hardware, software, and the 74820
development and implementation of educational and training 74821
programs for judges and court personnel, and operation of the 74822
Commission on Technology and the Courts by the Supreme Court for 74823
the promulgation of statewide rules, policies, and uniform 74824
standards, and to aid in the orderly adoption and comprehensive 74825
use of technology in Ohio courts.74826

       CONTINUING JUDICIAL EDUCATION74827

       The Continuing Judicial Education Fund (Fund 6720) shall 74828
consist of fees paid by judges and court personnel for attending 74829
continuing education courses and other gifts and grants received 74830
for the purpose of continuing judicial education. The foregoing 74831
appropriation item 005601, Continuing Judicial Education, shall be 74832
used to pay expenses for continuing education courses for judges 74833
and court personnel. If it is determined by the Administrative 74834
Director of the Supreme Court that additional appropriations are 74835
necessary, the amounts are hereby appropriated.74836

       No money in Fund 6720 shall be transferred to any other fund 74837
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board. 74838
Interest earned on money in Fund 6720 shall be credited to the 74839
fund.74840

       FEDERAL GRANTS74841

       The Federal Grants Fund (Fund 3J00) shall consist of grants 74842
and other moneys awarded to the Supreme Court (The Judiciary) by 74843
the United States Government or other entities that receive the 74844
moneys directly from the United States Government and distribute 74845
those moneys to the Supreme Court (The Judiciary). The foregoing 74846
appropriation item 005603, Federal Grants, shall be used in a 74847
manner consistent with the purpose of the grant or award. If it is 74848
determined by the Administrative Director of the Supreme Court 74849
that additional appropriations are necessary, the amounts are 74850
hereby appropriated.74851

       No money in Fund 3J00 shall be transferred to any other fund 74852
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board. 74853
However, interest earned on money in Fund 3J00 shall be credited 74854
or transferred to the General Revenue Fund.74855

       ATTORNEY SERVICES74856

       The Attorney Services Fund (Fund 4C80), formerly known as the 74857
Attorney Registration Fund, shall consist of money received by the 74858
Supreme Court (The Judiciary) pursuant to the Rules for the 74859
Government of the Bar of Ohio. In addition to funding other 74860
activities considered appropriate by the Supreme Court, the 74861
foregoing appropriation item 005605, Attorney Services, may be 74862
used to compensate employees and to fund appropriate activities of 74863
the following offices established by the Supreme Court: the Office 74864
of Disciplinary Counsel, the Board of Commissioners on Grievances 74865
and Discipline, the Clients' Security Fund, and the Attorney 74866
Services Division. If it is determined by the Administrative 74867
Director of the Supreme Court that additional appropriations are 74868
necessary, the amounts are hereby appropriated.74869

       No money in Fund 4C80 shall be transferred to any other fund 74870
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board. 74871
Interest earned on money in Fund 4C80 shall be credited to the 74872
fund.74873

       COURT INTERPRETER CERTIFICATION74874

       The Court Interpreter Certification Fund (Fund 5HT0) shall 74875
consist of money received by the Supreme Court (The Judiciary) 74876
pursuant to Rules 80 through 87 of the Rules of Superintendence 74877
for the Courts of Ohio. The foregoing appropriation item 005617, 74878
Court Interpreter Certification, shall be used to provide 74879
training, to provide the written examination, and to pay language 74880
experts to rate, or grade, the oral examinations of those applying 74881
to become certified court interpreters. If it is determined by the 74882
Administrative Director that additional appropriations are 74883
necessary, the amounts are hereby appropriated.74884

       No money in Fund 5HT0 shall be transferred to any other fund 74885
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board. 74886
Interest earned on money in Fund 5HT0 shall be credited to the 74887
fund.74888

       GRANTS AND AWARDS74889

       The Grants and Awards Fund (Fund 5T80) shall consist of 74890
grants and other money awarded to the Supreme Court (The 74891
Judiciary) by the State Justice Institute, the Division of 74892
Criminal Justice Services, or other entities. The foregoing 74893
appropriation item 005609, Grants and Awards, shall be used in a 74894
manner consistent with the purpose of the grant or award. If it is 74895
determined by the Administrative Director of the Supreme Court 74896
that additional appropriations are necessary, the amounts are 74897
hereby appropriated.74898

       No money in Fund 5T80 shall be transferred to any other fund 74899
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board. 74900
However, interest earned on money in Fund 5T80 shall be credited 74901
or transferred to the General Revenue Fund.74902

       SUPREME COURT ADMISSIONS74903

       The foregoing appropriation item 005606, Supreme Court 74904
Admissions, shall be used to compensate Supreme Court employees 74905
who are primarily responsible for administering the attorney 74906
admissions program under the Rules for the Government of the Bar 74907
of Ohio, and to fund any other activities considered appropriate 74908
by the court. Moneys shall be deposited into the Supreme Court 74909
Admissions Fund (Fund 6A80) under the Supreme Court Rules for the 74910
Government of the Bar of Ohio. If it is determined by the 74911
Administrative Director of the Supreme Court that additional 74912
appropriations are necessary, the amounts are hereby appropriated.74913

       No money in Fund 6A80 shall be transferred to any other fund 74914
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board. 74915
Interest earned on money in Fund 6A80 shall be credited to the 74916
fund.74917

       Sec. 327.10. LCO LIQUOR CONTROL COMMISSION74918

State Special Revenue Fund Group74919

5LP0 970601 Commission Operating Expense $ 0 $ 754,146 74920
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 0 $ 754,146 74921

Liquor Control Fund Group74922

7043 970321 Operating Expenses $ 753,933 $ 754,146 0 74923
TOTAL LCF Liquor Control Fund Group $ 753,933 $ 754,146 0 74924
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 753,933 $ 754,146 74925


       Sec. 335.10. AMB OHIO MEDICAL TRANSPORTATION BOARD74927

General Services Fund Group74928

4K90 915604 Operating Expenses $ 493,641 $ 493,856 0 74929
TOTAL GSF General Services 74930
Fund Group $ 493,641 $ 493,856 0 74931
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 493,641 $ 493,856 0 74932


       Sec. 337.10. DMH DEPARTMENT OF MENTAL HEALTH74934

General Revenue Fund74935

GRF 332401 Forensic Services $ 3,244,251 $ 3,244,251 74936
GRF 333321 Central Administration $ 16,000,000 $ 16,000,000 74937
GRF 333402 Resident Trainees $ 450,000 $ 450,000 74938
GRF 333403 Pre-Admission Screening Expenses $ 486,119 $ 486,119 286,119 74939
GRF 333415 Lease-Rental Payments $ 18,394,250 $ 19,907,900 17,907,900 74940
GRF 333416 Research Program Evaluation $ 421,724 $ 421,998 74941
GRF 334412 Hospital Services $ 194,918,888 $ 192,051,209 191,051,209 74942
GRF 334506 Court Costs $ 584,210 $ 584,210 74943
GRF 335405 Family & Children First $ 1,386,000 $ 1,386,000 74944
GRF 335419 Community Medication Subsidy $ 8,963,818 $ 8,963,818 74945
GRF 335501 Mental Health Medicaid Match $ 186,400,000 $ 0 74946
GRF 335505 Local Mental Health Systems of Care $ 49,963,776 $ 59,087,955 62,087,955 74947
GRF 335506 Residential State Supplement $ 4,702,875 $ 4,702,875 74948
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 485,915,911 $ 307,286,335 307,086,335 74949

General Services Fund Group74950

1490 333609 Central Office Operating $ 1,343,190 $ 1,343,190 74951
1490 334609 Hospital - Operating Expenses $ 28,190,000 $ 28,190,000 74952
1500 334620 Special Education $ 150,000 $ 150,000 74953
4P90 335604 Community Mental Health Projects $ 4,061,100 $ 250,000 74954
1510 336601 Office of Support Services $ 129,770,770 $ 129,779,822 127,297,130 74955
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 163,515,060 $ 159,713,012 157,230,320 74956

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group74957

3240 333605 Medicaid/Medicare $ 154,500 $ 154,500 74958
3A60 333608 Federal Miscellaneous $ 140,000 $ 140,000 74959
3A70 333612 Social Services Block Grant $ 50,000 $ 50,000 74960
3A80 333613 Federal Grant - Administration $ 4,717,000 $ 4,717,000 74961
3A90 333614 Mental Health Block Grant - Administration $ 748,470 $ 748,470 74962
3B10 333635 Community Medicaid Expansion $ 13,691,682 $ 13,691,682 74963
3240 334605 Medicaid/Medicare $ 28,200,000 $ 28,200,000 74964
3A60 334608 Federal Miscellaneous $ 200,000 $ 200,000 74965
3A80 334613 Federal Letter of Credit $ 200,000 $ 200,000 74966
3A60 335608 Federal Miscellaneous $ 2,170,000 $ 2,170,000 74967
3A70 335612 Social Services Block Grant $ 8,400,000 $ 8,400,000 74968
3A80 335613 Federal Grant - Community Mental Health Board Subsidy $ 2,500,000 $ 2,500,000 74969
3A90 335614 Mental Health Block Grant $ 14,200,000 $ 14,200,000 74970
3B10 335635 Community Medicaid Expansion $ 346,200,000 $ 0 74971
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 421,571,652 $ 75,371,652 74972

State Special Revenue Fund Group74973

2320 333621 Family and Children First Administration $ 448,286 $ 432,197 74974
4850 333632 Mental Health Operating $ 134,233 $ 134,233 74975
4X50 333607 Behavioral Health Medicaid Services $ 3,000,624 $ 3,000,624 74976
5V20 333611 Non-Federal Miscellaneous $ 100,000 $ 100,000 74977
4850 334632 Mental Health Operating $ 2,477,500 $ 2,477,500 74978
5AU0 335615 Behavioral Healthcare $ 6,690,000 $ 6,690,000 74979
6320 335616 Community Capital Replacement $ 350,000 $ 350,000 74980
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 13,200,643 $ 13,184,554 74981
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,084,203,266 $ 555,555,553 552,872,861 74982


       Sec. 343.10. DNR DEPARTMENT OF NATURAL RESOURCES74984

General Revenue Fund74985

GRF 725401 Wildlife-GRF Central Support $ 1,800,000 $ 1,800,000 74986
GRF 725413 Lease Rental Payments $ 20,568,600 $ 19,734,700 74987
GRF 725456 Canal Lands $ 135,000 $ 135,000 74988
GRF 725502 Soil and Water Districts $ 2,900,000 $ 2,900,000 74989
GRF 725505 Healthy Lake Erie Fund $ 0 $ 3,000,000 74990
GRF 725903 Natural Resources General Obligation Debt Service $ 5,375,300 $ 25,209,100 74991
GRF 727321 Division of Forestry $ 4,878,338 $ 4,880,000 74992
GRF 729321 Office of Information Technology $ 194,118 $ 197,117 74993
GRF 730321 Division of Parks and Recreation $ 30,000,000 $ 30,000,000 74994
GRF 736321 Division of Engineering $ 3,024,459 $ 3,025,078 2,995,078 74995
GRF 737321 Division of Soil and Water Resources $ 4,982,961 $ 4,983,356 74996
GRF 741321 Division of Natural Areas and Preserves $ 1,200,000 $ 1,200,000 74997
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 75,058,776 $ 94,064,351 97,034,351 74998

General Services Fund Group74999

1550 725601 Departmental Projects $ 3,365,651 $ 2,725,484 2,512,977 75000
1570 725651 Central Support Indirect $ 5,854,167 $ 5,857,800 75001
2040 725687 Information Services $ 4,659,276 $ 4,643,835 75002
2070 725690 Real Estate Services $ 50,000 $ 50,000 75003
2230 725665 Law Enforcement Administration $ 2,106,776 $ 2,126,432 75004
2270 725406 Parks Projects Personnel $ 436,500 $ 436,500 75005
4300 725671 Canal Lands $ 907,618 $ 907,879 883,879 75006
4D50 725618 Recycled Materials $ 50,000 $ 50,000 0 75007
4S90 725622 NatureWorks Personnel $ 400,358 $ 400,358 75008
4X80 725662 Water Resources Council $ 138,011 $ 138,005 75009
5100 725631 Maintenance - State-owned Residences $ 303,611 $ 303,611 75010
5160 725620 Water Management $ 2,541,565 $ 2,559,292 75011
6350 725664 Fountain Square Facilities Management $ 3,544,623 $ 3,548,445 3,473,413 75012
6970 725670 Submerged Lands $ 836,162 $ 848,546 75013
TOTAL GSF General Services 75014
Fund Group $ 25,194,318 $ 24,596,187 24,234,648 75015

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group75016

3320 725669 Federal Mine Safety Grant $ 258,102 $ 258,102 75017
3B30 725640 Federal Forest Pass-Thru $ 600,000 $ 600,000 75018
3B40 725641 Federal Flood Pass-Thru $ 600,000 $ 600,000 75019
3B50 725645 Federal Abandoned Mine Lands $ 21,007,667 $ 21,207,667 75020
3B60 725653 Federal Land and Water Conservation Grants $ 1,150,000 $ 1,150,000 75021
3B70 725654 Reclamation - Regulatory $ 3,200,000 $ 3,200,000 75022
3P10 725632 Geological Survey - Federal $ 692,401 $ 692,401 75023
3P20 725642 Oil and Gas-Federal $ 234,509 $ 234,509 75024
3P30 725650 Coastal Management - Federal $ 3,290,633 $ 3,290,633 75025
3P40 725660 Federal - Soil and Water Resources $ 1,213,048 $ 1,209,957 75026
3R50 725673 Acid Mine Drainage Abatement/Treatment $ 2,025,001 $ 2,025,001 75027
3Z50 725657 Federal Recreation and Trails $ 1,850,000 $ 1,850,000 75028
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 75029
Fund Group $ 36,121,361 $ 36,318,270 75030

State Special Revenue Fund Group75031

4J20 725628 Injection Well Review $ 130,899 $ 128,466 75032
4M70 725686 Wildfire Suppression $ 100,000 $ 100,000 75033
4U60 725668 Scenic Rivers Protection $ 100,000 $ 100,000 75034
5090 725602 State Forest $ 7,891,747 $ 7,058,793 75035
5110 725646 Ohio Geological Mapping $ 704,777 $ 705,130 75036
5120 725605 State Parks Operations $ 32,284,117 $ 31,550,444 75037
5140 725606 Lake Erie Shoreline $ 1,502,654 $ 1,505,983 75038
5180 725643 Oil and Gas Permit Fees $ 5,821,970 $ 5,623,645 9,823,645 75039
5180 725677 Oil and Gas Well Plugging $ 800,000 $ 800,000 75040
5210 725627 Off-Road Vehicle Trails $ 143,490 $ 143,490 75041
5220 725656 Natural Areas and Preserves $ 546,580 $ 546,639 75042
5260 725610 Strip Mining Administration Fee $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 75043
5270 725637 Surface Mining Administration $ 1,940,977 $ 1,941,532 75044
5290 725639 Unreclaimed Land Fund $ 2,004,180 $ 2,004,180 75045
5310 725648 Reclamation Forfeiture $ 1,423,000 $ 1,423,000 500,000 75046
5320 725644 Litter Control and Recycling $ 4,926,730 $ 4,911,575 0 75047
5860 725633 Scrap Tire Program $ 1,497,645 $ 1,497,645 0 75048
5B30 725674 Mining Regulation $ 28,135 $ 28,135 75049
5BV0 725658 Heidelberg Water Quality Lab $ 250,000 $ 250,000 75050
5BV0 725683 Soil and Water Districts $ 8,000,000 $ 8,000,000 75051
5CU0 725647 Mine Safety $ 3,000,000 $ 3,000,000 75052
5EJ0 725608 Forestry Law Enforcement $ 1,000 $ 1,000 75053
5EK0 725611 Natural Areas & Preserves Law Enforcement $ 1,000 $ 1,000 75054
5EL0 725612 Wildlife Law Enforcement $ 12,000 $ 12,000 75055
5EM0 725613 Park Law Enforcement $ 34,000 $ 34,000 75056
5EN0 725614 Watercraft Law Enforcement $ 2,500 $ 2,500 75057
5HK0 725625 Ohio Nature Preserves $ 1,000 $ 1,000 75058
6150 725661 Dam Safety $ 925,344 $ 926,028 75059
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 75060
Fund Group $ 76,073,745 $ 74,296,185 71,163,965 75061

Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group75062

7061 725405 Clean Ohio Operating $ 300,775 $ 300,775 75063
TOTAL CLF Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group $ 300,775 $ 300,775 75064

Wildlife Fund Group75065

5P20 725634 Wildlife Boater Angler Administration $ 4,000,000 $ 4,000,000 75066
7015 740401 Division of Wildlife Conservation $ 52,721,044 $ 51,669,158 75067
8150 725636 Cooperative Management Projects $ 120,449 $ 120,449 75068
8160 725649 Wetlands Habitat $ 966,885 $ 966,885 75069
8170 725655 Wildlife Conservation Checkoff Fund $ 3,240,000 $ 3,240,000 75070
8180 725629 Cooperative Fisheries Research $ 1,500,000 $ 1,500,000 75071
8190 725685 Ohio River Management $ 128,584 $ 128,584 75072
TOTAL WLF Wildlife Fund Group $ 62,676,962 $ 61,625,076 75073

Waterways Safety Fund Group75074

7086 725414 Waterways Improvement $ 5,692,601 $ 5,693,671 75075
7086 725418 Buoy Placement $ 52,182 $ 52,182 75076
7086 725501 Waterway Safety Grants $ 120,000 $ 120,000 75077
7086 725506 Watercraft Marine Patrol $ 576,153 $ 576,153 75078
7086 725513 Watercraft Educational Grants $ 366,643 $ 366,643 75079
7086 739401 Division of Watercraft $ 18,040,593 $ 17,552,370 75080
TOTAL WSF Waterways Safety Fund 75081
Group $ 24,848,172 $ 24,361,019 75082

Accrued Leave Liability Fund Group75083

4M80 725675 FOP Contract $ 20,219 $ 20,219 75084
TOTAL ALF Accrued Leave 75085
Liability Fund Group $ 20,219 $ 20,219 75086

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group75087

R017 725659 Performance Cash Bond Refunds $ 296,263 $ 296,263 75088
R043 725624 Forestry $ 2,000,000 $ 2,154,750 75089
TOTAL 090 Holding Account 75090
Redistribution Fund Group $ 2,296,263 $ 2,451,013 75091
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 302,590,591 $ 318,033,095 317,509,336 75092


       Sec. 343.40.  LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS75094

       The foregoing appropriation item 725413, Lease Rental 75095
Payments, shall be used to meet all payments at the times they are 75096
required to be made during the period from July 1, 2011, through 75097
June 30, 2013, by the Department of Natural Resources pursuant to 75098
leases and agreements made under section 154.22 of the Revised 75099
Code. These appropriations are the source of funds pledged for 75100
bond service charges or obligations issued pursuant to Chapter 75101
154. of the Revised Code.75102

       CANAL LANDS75103

        The foregoing appropriation item 725456, Canal Lands, shall 75104
be used to transfer funds to the Canal Lands Fund (Fund 4300) to 75105
provide operating expenses for the State Canal Lands Program. The 75106
transfer shall be made using an intrastate transfer voucher and 75107
shall be subject to the approval of the Director of Budget and 75108
Management.75109

       HEALTHY LAKE ERIE FUND75110

       The foregoing appropriation item 725505, Healthy Lake Erie 75111
Fund, shall be used by the Director of Natural Resources, in 75112
consultation with the Director of Agriculture and the Director of 75113
Environmental Protection, to implement nonstatutory 75114
recommendations of the Agriculture Nutrients and Water Quality 75115
Working Group. The Director shall give priority to recommendations 75116
that encourage farmers to adopt agricultural production guidelines 75117
commonly known as 4R nutrient stewardship practices. Funds may 75118
also be used for enhanced soil testing in the Western Lake Erie 75119
Basin, monitoring the quality of Lake Erie and its tributaries, 75120
and establishing pilot projects that have the goal of reducing 75121
algae blooms in Lake Erie.75122

       NATURAL RESOURCES GENERAL OBLIGATION DEBT SERVICE75123

       The foregoing appropriation item 725903, Natural Resources 75124
General Obligation Debt Service, shall be used to pay all debt 75125
service and related financing costs during the period July 1, 75126
2011, through June 30, 2013, on obligations issued under sections 75127
151.01 and 151.05 of the Revised Code.75128

       Sec. 365.10. PUC PUBLIC UTILITIES COMMISSION OF OHIO75129

General Services Fund Group75130

5F60 870622 Utility and Railroad Regulation $ 30,637,234 $ 31,638,708 75131
5F60 870624 NARUC/NRRI Subsidy $ 158,000 $ 158,000 100,000 75132
5F60 870625 Motor Transportation Regulation $ 4,976,641 $ 5,971,218 0 75133
5Q50 870626 Telecommunications Relay Service $ 5,000,000 $ 5,000,000 75134
TOTAL GSF General Services 75135
Fund Group $ 40,771,875 $ 42,767,926 36,738,708 75136

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group75137

3330 870601 Gas Pipeline Safety $ 597,959 $ 597,959 75138
3500 870608 Motor Carrier Safety $ 7,351,660 $ 7,351,660 75139
3CU0 870627 Electric Market Modeling $ 91,183 $ 0 75140
3EA0 870630 Energy Assurance Planning $ 384,000 $ 384,000 75141
3ED0 870631 State Regulators Assistance $ 231,824 $ 231,824 75142
3V30 870604 Commercial Vehicle Information Systems/Networks $ 100,000 $ 100,000 75143
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 75144
Fund Group $ 8,756,626 $ 8,665,443 75145

State Special Revenue Fund Group75146

4A30 870614 Grade Crossing Protection Devices-State $ 1,347,357 $ 1,347,357 75147
4L80 870617 Pipeline Safety-State $ 181,992 $ 181,992 75148
4S60 870618 Hazardous Material Registration $ 450,395 $ 450,395 0 75149
4S60 870621 Hazardous Materials Base State Registration $ 373,346 $ 373,346 0 75150
4U80 870620 Civil Forfeitures $ 277,347 $ 277,496 0 75151
5590 870605 Public Utilities Territorial Administration $ 3,880 $ 3,880 0 75152
5600 870607 Special Assessment $ 97,000 $ 97,000 0 75153
5610 870606 Power Siting Board $ 631,508 $ 631,618 581,618 75154
5BP0 870623 Wireless 9-1-1 Administration $ 36,440,000 $ 18,220,000 17,757,250 75155
5HD0 870629 Radioactive Waste Transportation $ 98,800 $ 98,800 0 75156
5LT0 870640 Intrastate Registration $ 0 $ 180,000 75157
5LT0 870641 Unified Carrier Registration $ 0 $ 420,000 75158
5LT0 870642 Hazardous Materials Registration $ 0 $ 823,741 75159
5LT0 870643 Nonhazardous Materials Civil Forfeiture $ 0 $ 277,496 75160
5LT0 870644 Hazardous Materials Civil Forfeiture $ 0 $ 898,800 75161
5LT0 870645 Motor Carrier Enforcement $ 0 $ 5,401,318 75162
6380 870611 Biofuels/Municipal Waste Technology $ 570 $ 0 75163
6610 870612 Hazardous Materials Transportation $ 898,800 $ 898,800 0 75164
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 75165
Fund Group $ 40,800,995 $ 22,580,684 27,869,572 75166
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 90,329,496 $ 74,014,053 73,273,723 75167

        COMMUNITY-VOICEMAIL SERVICE PILOT PROGRAM75168

       The Community-voicemail Service Pilot Program assessments 75169
authorized by Section 6 of Sub. S.B. 162 of the 128th General 75170
Assembly shall cease. These assessments shall be refunded without 75171
interest to those assessed under the program by the Public 75172
Utilities Commission within 60 days of the effective date of this 75173
section.75174

       FUND ADJUSTMENTS75175

       On July 1, 2012, or as soon as practicable thereafter, the 75176
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balances 75177
in the Hazardous Materials Registration Fund (Fund 4S60) and the 75178
Base State Registration Fund (Fund 4G40) to the Public Utilities 75179
Transportation Safety Fund (Fund 5LT0). The Director shall cancel 75180
any existing encumbrances against appropriation items 870618, 75181
Hazardous Material Registration, and 870621, Hazardous Materials 75182
Base State Registration, and reestablish them against 75183
appropriation item 870642, Hazardous Materials Registration. The 75184
amounts of the reestablished encumbrances are hereby appropriated. 75185
Upon completion of these transfers, the Hazardous Materials 75186
Registration Fund (Fund 4S60) and the Base State Registration Fund 75187
(Fund 4G40) are hereby abolished.75188

       On July 1, 2012, or as soon as practicable thereafter, the 75189
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balance 75190
in the Transportation Enforcement Fund (Fund 4U80) to the Public 75191
Utilities Transportation Safety Fund (Fund 5LT0). The Director 75192
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 75193
870620, Civil Forfeitures, and reestablish them against 75194
appropriation item 870643, Nonhazardous Materials Civil 75195
Forfeitures. The amounts of the reestablished encumbrances are 75196
hereby appropriated. Upon completion of these transfers, the 75197
Transportation Enforcement Fund (Fund 4U80) is hereby abolished.75198

       On July 1, 2012, or as soon as practicable thereafter, the 75199
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balance 75200
in the Radioactive Waste Transportation Fund (Fund 5HD0) to the 75201
Public Utilities Transportation Safety Fund (Fund 5LT0). The 75202
Director shall cancel any existing encumbrances against 75203
appropriation item 870629, Radioactive Waste Transportation, and 75204
reestablish them against appropriation item 870645, Motor Carrier 75205
Enforcement. The amounts of the reestablished encumbrances are 75206
hereby appropriated. Upon completion of these transfers, the 75207
Radioactive Waste Transportation Fund (Fund 5HD0) is hereby 75208
abolished.75209

       On July 1, 2012, or as soon as practicable thereafter, the 75210
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balance 75211
in the Hazardous Materials Transportation Fund (Fund 6610) to the 75212
Public Utilities Transportation Safety Fund (Fund 5LT0). The 75213
Director shall cancel any existing encumbrances against 75214
appropriation item 870612, Hazardous Materials Transportation, and 75215
reestablish them against appropriation item 870644, Hazardous 75216
Materials Civil Forfeitures. The amounts of the reestablished 75217
encumbrances are hereby appropriated. Upon completion of these 75218
transfers, the Hazardous Materials Transportation Fund (Fund 6610) 75219
is hereby abolished.75220

       On July 1, 2012, or as soon as practicable thereafter, the 75221
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer cash in an amount 75222
up to $21,000,000 from the Public Utilities Fund (Fund 5F60) to 75223
the Public Utilities Transportation Safety Fund (Fund 5LT0). The 75224
Director shall cancel any existing encumbrances against 75225
appropriation item 870625, Motor Transportation Regulation, and 75226
reestablish encumbrances or parts of encumbrances as needed in the 75227
fiscal year in the appropriate fund and appropriation item for the 75228
same purpose and to the same vendor. The amounts of the 75229
reestablished encumbrances are hereby appropriated.75230

       The fund created by division (E) of section 4921.21 of the 75231
Revised Code is the same fund, with the same name, as the Motor 75232
Carrier Safety Fund (Fund 3500).75233

       The fund created by division (D) of section 4921.21 of the 75234
Revised Code is the same fund, with the same name, as the 75235
Commercial Vehicle Transportation Systems Fund (Fund 3V30).75236

       Sec. 367.10. PWC PUBLIC WORKS COMMISSION75237

General Revenue Fund75238

GRF 150904 Conservation General Obligation Debt Service $ 21,953,000 $ 29,297,300 75239
GRF 150907 State Capital Improvements $ 106,770,600 $ 215,571,100 208,571,100 75240
General Obligation Debt Service 75241
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 128,723,600 $ 244,868,400 237,868,400 75242

Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group75243

7056 150403 Clean Ohio Operating Expenses $ 300,000 $ 288,980 75244
TOTAL 056 Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group $ 300,000 $ 288,980 75245

TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 129,023,600 $ 245,157,380 238,157,380 75246

       CONSERVATION GENERAL OBLIGATION DEBT SERVICE75247

       The foregoing appropriation item 150904, Conservation General 75248
Obligation Debt Service, shall be used to pay all debt service and 75249
related financing costs during the period from July 1, 2011, 75250
through June 30, 2013, at the times they are required to be made 75251
for obligations issued under sections 151.01 and 151.09 of the 75252
Revised Code.75253

       STATE CAPITAL IMPROVEMENTS GENERAL OBLIGATION DEBT SERVICE75254

       The foregoing appropriation item 150907, State Capital 75255
Improvements General Obligation Debt Service, shall be used to pay 75256
all debt service and related financing costs during the period 75257
from July 1, 2011, through June 30, 2013, at the times they are 75258
required to be made for obligations issued under sections 151.01 75259
and 151.08 of the Revised Code.75260

       CLEAN OHIO OPERATING EXPENSES75261

       The foregoing appropriation item 150403, Clean Ohio Operating 75262
Expenses, shall be used by the Ohio Public Works Commission in 75263
administering Clean Ohio Conservation Fund (Fund 7056) projects 75264
pursuant to sections 164.20 to 164.27 of the Revised Code.75265

       REIMBURSEMENT TO THE GENERAL REVENUE FUND75266

        (A) On or before July 15, 2013, the Director of the Public 75267
Works Commission shall certify to the Director of Budget and 75268
Management the following:75269

        (1) The total amount disbursed from appropriation item 75270
700409, Farmland Preservation, during the FY 2012-FY 2013 75271
biennium; and75272

        (2) The amount of interest earnings that have been credited 75273
to the Clean Ohio Conservation Fund (Fund 7056) that are in excess 75274
of the amount needed for other purposes as calculated by the 75275
Director of the Public Works Commission.75276

        (B) If the Director of Budget and Management determines under 75277
division (A)(2) of this section that there are excess interest 75278
earnings, the Director of Budget and Management shall, on or 75279
before July 15, 2013, transfer the excess interest earnings to the 75280
General Revenue Fund in an amount equal to the total amount 75281
disbursed under division (A)(1) of this section from the Clean 75282
Ohio Conservation Fund (Fund 7056).75283

       Sec. 369.10. RAC STATE RACING COMMISSION75284

State Special Revenue Fund Group75285

5620 875601 Thoroughbred Race Fund $ 1,796,328 $ 1,696,456 75286
5630 875602 Standardbred Development Fund $ 1,697,418 $ 1,697,452 75287
5640 875603 Quarter Horse Development Fund $ 1,000 $ 1,000 75288
5650 875604 Racing Commission Operating $ 3,095,331 $ 2,934,178 75289
5C40 875607 Simulcast Horse Racing Purse $ 12,000,000 $ 12,000,000 75290
5JK0 875610 Racing Commission Fund $ 339,919 $ 8,169,547 75291
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 75292
Fund Group $ 18,590,078 18,929,996 $ 18,329,087 26,498,633 75293

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group75294

R021 875605 Bond Reimbursements $ 100,000 $ 100,000 75295
TOTAL 090 Holding Account Redistribution 75296
Fund Group $ 100,000 $ 100,000 75297
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 18,690,078 19,029,996 $ 18,429,087 26,598,633 75298


       Sec. 371.10. BOR BOARD OF REGENTS75300

General Revenue Fund75301

GRF 235321 Operating Expenses $ 2,300,000 $ 2,300,000 75302
GRF 235401 Lease Rental Payments $ 83,151,600 $ 57,634,400 75303
GRF 235402 Sea Grants $ 285,000 $ 285,000 75304
GRF 235406 Articulation and Transfer $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 75305
GRF 235408 Midwest Higher Education Compact $ 95,000 $ 95,000 75306
GRF 235409 HEI Information System $ 800,000 $ 800,000 75307
GRF 235414 State Grants and Scholarship Administration $ 1,230,000 $ 1,230,000 75308
GRF 235417 Ohio Learning Network eStudent Services $ 2,532,688 $ 2,532,688 75309
GRF 235428 Appalachian New Economy Partnership $ 737,366 $ 737,366 75310
GRF 235433 Economic Growth Challenge $ 440,000 $ 440,000 75311
GRF 235438 Choose Ohio First Scholarship $ 15,750,085 $ 15,750,085 75312
GRF 235443 Adult Basic and Literacy Education - State $ 7,302,416 $ 7,302,416 75313
GRF 235444 Post-Secondary Adult Career-Technical Education $ 15,317,547 $ 15,317,547 75314
GRF 235474 Area Health Education Centers Program Support $ 900,000 $ 900,000 75315
GRF 235478 Statehouse News Bureau $ 0 $ 215,561 75316
GRF 235479 Ohio Government Telecommunications Services $ 0 $ 702,089 75317
GRF 235480 General Technology Operations $ 0 $ 752,516 75318
GRF 235481 Technology Operations $ 0 $ 2,091,823 75319
GRF 235482 Content Development, Acquisition, and Distribution $ 0 $ 2,607,094 75320
GRF 235483 Technology Integration and Professional Development $ 0 $ 4,252,671 75321
GRF 235484 Information Technology $ 0 $ 829,963 75322
GRF 235501 State Share of Instruction $ 1,735,530,031 $ 1,751,225,497 75323
GRF 235502 Student Support Services $ 632,974 $ 632,974 75324
GRF 235504 War Orphans Scholarships $ 4,787,833 $ 4,787,833 75325
GRF 235507 OhioLINK $ 6,100,000 $ 6,100,000 5,950,000 75326
GRF 235508 Air Force Institute of Technology $ 1,740,803 $ 1,740,803 75327
GRF 235510 Ohio Supercomputer Center $ 3,347,418 $ 3,347,418 75328
GRF 235511 Cooperative Extension Service $ 22,220,910 $ 22,220,910 75329
GRF 235514 Central State Supplement $ 11,503,651 $ 10,928,468 75330
GRF 235515 Case Western Reserve University School of Medicine $ 2,146,253 $ 2,146,253 75331
GRF 235519 Family Practice $ 3,166,185 $ 3,166,185 75332
GRF 235520 Shawnee State Supplement $ 2,448,523 $ 2,326,097 75333
GRF 235524 Police and Fire Protection $ 107,814 $ 107,814 75334
GRF 235525 Geriatric Medicine $ 522,151 $ 522,151 75335
GRF 235526 Primary Care Residencies $ 1,500,000 $ 1,500,000 75336
GRF 235535 Ohio Agricultural Research and Development Center $ 33,100,000 $ 33,100,000 75337
GRF 235536 The Ohio State University Clinical Teaching $ 9,668,941 $ 9,668,941 75338
GRF 235537 University of Cincinnati Clinical Teaching $ 7,952,573 $ 7,952,573 75339
GRF 235538 University of Toledo Clinical Teaching $ 6,198,600 $ 6,198,600 75340
GRF 235539 Wright State University Clinical Teaching $ 3,011,400 $ 3,011,400 75341
GRF 235540 Ohio University Clinical Teaching $ 2,911,212 $ 2,911,212 75342
GRF 235541 Northeast Ohio Medical University Clinical Teaching $ 2,994,178 $ 2,994,178 75343
GRF 235552 Capital Component $ 20,638,274 $ 20,638,274 13,628,639 75344
GRF 235555 Library Depositories $ 1,440,342 $ 1,440,342 75345
GRF 235556 Ohio Academic Resources Network $ 3,172,519 $ 3,172,519 75346
GRF 235558 Long-term Care Research $ 195,300 $ 195,300 75347
GRF 235563 Ohio College Opportunity Grant $ 80,284,265 $ 80,284,265 75348
GRF 235572 The Ohio State University Clinic Support $ 766,533 $ 766,533 75349
GRF 235599 National Guard Scholarship Program $ 16,912,271 $ 18,143,293 75350
GRF 235909 Higher Education General Obligation Debt Service $ 108,262,500 $ 201,555,000 75351
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 2,226,105,156 $ 2,310,109,335 2,314,401,417 75352

General Services Fund Group75353

2200 235614 Program Approval and Reauthorization $ 1,311,567 $ 1,457,959 75354
4560 235603 Sales and Services $ 199,250 $ 199,250 75355
4F30 235679 Technology Affiliate Services $ 0 $ 50,000 75356
4T20 235680 Government Television/Telecommunications Operating $ 0 $ 25,000 75357
5JC0 235649 Co-op Internship Program $ 12,000,000 $ 12,000,000 75358
5JC0 235667 Ohio College Opportunity Grant-Proprietary $ 6,000,000 $ 6,000,000 75359
5JC0 235668 Air Force Institute of Technology - Defense/Aerospace Graduate Studies Institute $ 4,000,000 $ 4,000,000 75360
TOTAL GSF General Services 75361
Fund Group $ 23,510,817 $ 23,657,209 23,732,209 75362

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group75363

3120 235609 Tech Prep $ 183,850 $ 183,850 0 75364
3120 235611 Gear-up Grant $ 3,900,000 $ 3,900,000 50,000 75365
3120 235612 Carl D. Perkins Grant/Plan Administration $ 912,961 $ 912,961 75366
3120 235617 Improving Teacher Quality Grant $ 3,200,000 $ 3,200,000 75367
3120 235641 Adult Basic and Literacy Education - Federal $ 14,835,671 $ 14,835,671 75368
3120 235659 Race to the Top Scholarship Program $ 2,400,000 $ 3,780,000 0 75369
3120 235660 Race to the Top Educator Preparation Reform Initiative $ 448,000 $ 1,120,000 0 75370
3120 235661 Americorps Grant $ 260,000 $ 260,000 0 75371
3H20 235608 Human Services Project $ 3,500,000 $ 3,500,000 75372
3N60 235638 College Access Challenge Grant $ 4,381,431 $ 4,381,431 75373
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 75374
Fund Group $ 34,021,913 $ 36,073,913 26,880,063 75375

State Special Revenue Fund Group75376

4E80 235602 Higher Educational Facility Commission Administration $ 29,100 $ 29,100 75377
4W90 235673 Telecommunity $ 0 $ 25,000 75378
4X10 235674 Distance Learning $ 0 $ 24,150 75379
5D40 235675 Conference/Special Purposes $ 0 $ 2,000,000 75380
5FK0 235676 Media Services $ 0 $ 637,956 75381
5FR0 235640 Joyce Foundation Shifting Gears Grant $ 919,719 $ 919,719 75382
5FR0 235647 Developmental Education Initiatives $ 135,000 $ 135,000 75383
5FR0 235657 Win-Win Grant $ 37,000 $ 15,000 75384
5JU0 235677 Information Technology Services $ 0 $ 1,455,000 75385
5P30 235663 Variable Savings Plan $ 8,946,994 $ 9,072,136 75386
5T30 235978 Gates Foundation Grants $ 0 $ 171,112 75387
6450 235664 Guaranteed Savings Plan $ 900,293 $ 907,514 75388
6820 235606 Nursing Loan Program $ 891,320 $ 891,320 75389
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 75390
Fund Group $ 11,859,426 $ 11,969,789 16,283,007 75391

Third Frontier Research & Development Fund Group75392

7011 235634 Research Incentive Third Frontier Fund $ 8,000,000 $ 8,000,000 75393
TOTAL 011 Third Frontier Research & Development Fund Group $ 8,000,000 $ 8,000,000 75394
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 2,303,497,312 $ 2,389,810,246 2,389,296,696 75395


       Sec. 371.50.61. CO-OP INTERNSHIP PROGRAM75397

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 75398
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used by the 75399
Chancellor of the Board of Regents to support the operations of 75400
Ohio University's Voinovich School.75401

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 75402
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year, shall be used by the 75403
Chancellor of the Board of Regents to support the operations of 75404
The Ohio State University's John Glenn School of Public Affairs.75405

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 75406
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to support the 75407
Bliss Institute of Applied Politics at the University of Akron.75408

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 75409
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to support the 75410
Center for Public Management and Regional Affairs at Miami 75411
University.75412

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 75413
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to support the 75414
Washington Center Internship Program.75415

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 75416
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to support the 75417
Maxine Goodman Levin College of Urban Affairsmentoring program of 75418
the Ohio Center for the Advancement of Women in Public Service at 75419
the Cleveland State University.75420

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 75421
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to support the 75422
University of Cincinnati Internship Program.75423

       Sec. 371.60.70. TECHNOLOGY PROGRAMS AND DISTANCE LEARNING 75424
CLEARINGHOUSE75425

        STATEHOUSE NEWS BUREAU 75426

       The foregoing appropriation item 235478, Statehouse News 75427
Bureau, shall be used solely to support the operations of the Ohio 75428
Statehouse News Bureau. 75429

       OHIO GOVERNMENT TELECOMMUNICATIONS SERVICES 75430

       The foregoing appropriation item 235479, Ohio Government 75431
Telecommunications Services, shall be used solely to support the 75432
operations of Ohio Government Telecommunications Services which 75433
include providing multimedia support to the state government and 75434
its affiliated organizations and broadcasting the activities of 75435
the legislative, judicial, and executive branches of state 75436
government, among its other functions. 75437

       TECHNOLOGY OPERATIONS 75438

       The foregoing appropriation item 235481, Technology 75439
Operations, shall be used by the Chancellor to pay expenses of 75440
Ohio's technology network infrastructure, which includes the 75441
television and radio transmission infrastructure and 75442
infrastructure that shall link all public K-12 classrooms to each 75443
other and to the Internet, and provide access to voice, video, 75444
other communication services, and data educational resources for 75445
students and teachers. The foregoing appropriation item 235481, 75446
Technology Operations, may also be used to cover student costs for 75447
taking advanced placement courses and courses that the Chancellor 75448
has determined to be eligible for postsecondary credit through the 75449
Ohio Learns Gateway. To the extent that funds remain available for 75450
this purpose, public school students taking advanced placement or 75451
postsecondary courses through the OhioLearns Gateway shall be 75452
eligible to receive a fee waiver to cover the cost of 75453
participating in one course. The fee waivers shall be distributed 75454
until the funds appropriated to support the waivers have been 75455
exhausted. 75456

       CONTENT DEVELOPMENT, ACQUISITION, AND DISTRIBUTION 75457

       The foregoing appropriation item 235482, Content Development, 75458
Acquisition, and Distribution, shall be used for the development, 75459
acquisition, and distribution of information resources by public 75460
media and radio reading services and for educational use in the 75461
classroom and online. 75462

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235482, Content 75463
Development, Acquisition, and Distribution, up to $658,099 in 75464
fiscal year 2013 shall be allocated equally among the 12 Ohio 75465
educational television stations and used with the advice and 75466
approval of the Chancellor. Funds shall be used for the production 75467
of interactive instructional programming series with priority 75468
given to resources aligned with state academic content standards 75469
in consultation with the Ohio Department of Education and for 75470
teleconferences to support Ohio technology programs. The 75471
programming shall be targeted to the needs of the poorest two 75472
hundred school districts as determined by the district's adjusted 75473
valuation per pupil as defined in former section 3317.0213 of the 75474
Revised Code as that section existed prior to June 30, 2005. 75475

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235482, Content 75476
Development, Acquisition, and Distribution, up to $1,749,283 in 75477
fiscal year 2013 shall be distributed by the Chancellor to Ohio's 75478
qualified public educational television stations and educational 75479
radio stations to support their operations. The funds shall be 75480
distributed pursuant to an allocation formula used by the Ohio 75481
Educational Telecommunications Network Commission unless a 75482
substitute formula is developed by the Chancellor in consultation 75483
with Ohio's qualified public educational television stations and 75484
educational radio stations. 75485

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235482, Content 75486
Development, Acquisition, and Distribution, up to $199,712 in 75487
fiscal year 2013 shall be distributed by the Chancellor to Ohio's 75488
qualified radio reading services to support their operations. The 75489
funds shall be distributed pursuant to an allocation formula used 75490
by the Ohio Educational Telecommunications Network Commission 75491
unless a substitute formula is developed by the Chancellor in 75492
consultation with Ohio's qualified radio reading services. 75493

       TECHNOLOGY INTEGRATION AND PROFESSIONAL DEVELOPMENT 75494

       The foregoing appropriation item 235483, Technology 75495
Integration and Professional Development, shall be used by the 75496
Chancellor for the provision of staff development, hardware, 75497
software, telecommunications services, and information resources 75498
to support educational uses of technology in the classroom and at 75499
a distance and for professional development for teachers, 75500
administrators, and technology staff on the use of educational 75501
technology in qualifying public schools, including the State 75502
School for the Blind, the State School for the Deaf, and the 75503
Department of Youth Services. 75504

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235483, Technology 75505
Integration and Professional Development, up to $1,691,701 in 75506
fiscal year 2013 shall be used by the Chancellor to contract with 75507
educational television to provide Ohio public schools with 75508
instructional resources and services with priority given to 75509
resources and services aligned with state academic content 75510
standards and such resources and services shall be based upon the 75511
advice and approval of the Chancellor, based on a formula used by 75512
the Ohio SchoolNet Commission unless and until a substitute 75513
formula is developed by the Chancellor in consultation with Ohio's 75514
educational technology agencies and noncommercial educational 75515
television stations. 75516

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235483, Technology 75517
Integration and Professional Development, up to $2,560,970 in 75518
fiscal year 2013 shall be used to support the distance learning 75519
clearinghouse, pursuant to divisions (A) to (E) of this section.75520

       TELECOMMUNITY 75521

       The foregoing appropriation item 235673, Telecommunity, shall 75522
be distributed by the Chancellor on a grant basis to eligible 75523
school districts to establish "distance learning" through 75524
interactive video technologies in the school district. Funds to 75525
administer the program shall be expended by the Board of Regents 75526
up to the amount specified. 75527

       DISTANCE LEARNING 75528

       The foregoing appropriation item 235674, Distance Learning, 75529
shall be distributed by the Chancellor on a grant basis to 75530
eligible school districts to establish "distance learning" in the 75531
school district. Per an agreement with Ameritech, school districts 75532
are eligible for funds if they are within an Ameritech service 75533
area. Funds to administer the program shall be expended by the 75534
Board of Regents up to the amount specified in the agreement with 75535
Ameritech. 75536

       GATES FOUNDATION GRANTS 75537

       The foregoing appropriation item 235678, Gates Foundation 75538
Grants, shall be administered by the Chancellor. 75539

       DISTANCE LEARNING CLEARINGHOUSE75540

       (A) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in sections 75541
3333.81 to 3333.88 of the Revised Code, the distance learning 75542
clearinghouse required to be established under those sections 75543
shall be located at the Ohio Resource Center for Mathematics, 75544
Science, and Reading administered by the College of Education and 75545
Human Ecology at The Ohio State University. The College shall 75546
provide access to its online repository of educational content to 75547
offer courses from multiple providers at competitive prices for 75548
Ohio students in grades kindergarten to twelve.75549

       (B) The College shall review the content of each course 75550
offered to assess the course's alignment with the academic 75551
standards adopted under division (A) of section 3301.079 of the 75552
Revised Code and shall publish its determination about the degree 75553
of alignment.75554

        (C) The College shall indicate, for each course offered, the 75555
academic credit that a student may reasonably expect to earn upon 75556
successful completion of the course. However, in accordance with 75557
section 3333.85 of the Revised Code, the school district or school 75558
in which the student is enrolled retains full authority to 75559
determine the credit awarded to the student.75560

        (D) As prescribed by section 3333.84 of the Revised Code, the 75561
fee charged for a course shall be set by the course provider. The 75562
College may retain a percentage of the fee to offset the cost of 75563
maintaining the course repository.75564

        (E) The College may establish policies to protect the 75565
proprietary interest in or intellectual property of the 75566
educational content and courses that are housed in the course 75567
repository. The College may require end users to agree to the 75568
terms of any such policies prior to accessing the repository.75569

       Sec. 371.60.80. (A) The Ohio Digital Learning Task Force is 75570
hereby established to develop a strategy for the expansion of 75571
digital learning that enables students to customize their 75572
education, produces cost savings, and meets the needs of Ohio's 75573
economy. The Task Force shall consist of the following members:75574

       (1) The Chancellor of the Ohio Board of Regents or the 75575
Chancellor's designee;75576

       (2) The Superintendent of Public Instruction or the 75577
Superintendent's designee;75578

       (3) The Director of the Governor's Office of 21st Century 75579
Education or the Director's designee;75580

       (4) Up to six members appointed by the Governor, who shall be 75581
representatives of school districts or community schools, 75582
established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, that are 75583
high-performing of their type and have demonstrated the ability to 75584
incorporate technology into the classroom successfully; 75585

       (5) A member appointed by the President of the Senate;75586

       (6) A member appointed by the Speaker of the House of 75587
Representatives.75588

       (B) Members of the Task Force shall be appointed not later 75589
than sixty days after the effective date of this section. 75590
Vacancies on the Task Force shall be filled in the same manner as 75591
the original appointments. Members shall serve without 75592
compensation.75593

       (C) The Governor shall designate the chairperson of the Task 75594
Force. All meetings of the Task Force shall be held at the call of 75595
the chairperson.75596

       (D) The Task Force shall do all of the following:75597

       (1) Request information from textbook publishers about the 75598
development of digital textbooks and other new digital content 75599
distribution methods for use by primary, secondary, and 75600
post-secondary schools and institutions and examine that 75601
information;75602

       (2) Examine potential cost savings and efficiency of 75603
utilizing digital textbooks and other new digital content 75604
distribution methods in primary, secondary, and post-secondary 75605
schools and institutions;75606

       (3) Examine potential academic benefits of utilizing digital 75607
textbooks and other new digital content distribution methods, 75608
including, but not limited to, the ability to individualize 75609
content to specific student learning styles, accessibility for 75610
individuals with disabilities, and the integration of formative 75611
and other online assessments;75612

        (4) Examine digital content pilot programs and initiatives 75613
currently operating at primary, secondary, and post-secondary 75614
schools and institutions in Ohio, including, but not limited to, 75615
those financed in part with federal funds; 75616

       (5) Examine any state-level initiatives to provide or 75617
facilitate use of digital content in primary, secondary, and 75618
post-secondary schools and institutions in Ohio.75619

        (E) The Task Force shall make recommendations regarding all 75620
of the following:75621

       (1) The creation of high quality digital content and 75622
instruction in grades kindergarten to twelve for free access by 75623
public and nonpublic schools and students receiving home 75624
instruction;75625

       (2) High quality professional development for teachers and 75626
principals providing online instruction or blended learning 75627
programs;75628

       (3) Funding strategies that create incentives for high 75629
performance, innovation, and options in course providers and 75630
delivery;75631

       (4) Student assessment and accountability;75632

       (5) Infrastructure to support digital learning;75633

       (6) Mobile learning and mobile learning applications;75634

       (7) The clearinghouse established under section 3333.82 of 75635
the Revised Code;75636

       (8) Ways to align the resources and digital learning 75637
initiatives of state agencies and offices;75638

       (9) Methods for removing redundancy and inefficiency in, and 75639
for providing coordination, of all digital learning programs, 75640
including the provision of free online instruction to public and 75641
nonpublic schools on a statewide basis;75642

       (10) Methods of addressing future changes in technology and 75643
learning.75644

       (E)(F) Not later than March 1, 2012, the Task Force shall 75645
issue a report of its findings and recommendations to the 75646
Governor, the President of the Senate, and the Speaker of the 75647
House of Representatives. Upon issuance ofAfter issuing its 75648
report, the Task Force shall monitor the implementation of its 75649
recommendations. Not later than June 30, 2012, the Task Force 75650
shall report to the Governor, the President of the Senate, and the 75651
Speaker of the House of Representatives whether digital learning 75652
is advancing in Ohio schools and submit any recommendations to 75653
further enhance the full deployment of useful digital learning 75654
programs and services. The Task Force shall cease to exist on June 75655
30, 2012.75656

       Sec. 373.10. DRC DEPARTMENT OF REHABILITATION AND CORRECTION75657

General Revenue Fund 75658
GRF 501321 Institutional Operations $ 909,547,156 $ 866,592,589 75659
GRF 501403 Prisoner Compensation $ 8,599,255 $ 8,599,255 75660
GRF 501405 Halfway House $ 43,637,069 $ 43,622,104 75661
GRF 501406 Lease Rental Payments $ 42,863,100 $ 104,301,500 75662
GRF 501407 Community Nonresidential Programs $ 25,859,382 $ 25,839,390 75663
GRF 501408 Community Misdemeanor Programs $ 14,906,800 $ 14,906,800 75664
GRF 501501 Community Residential Programs - CBCF $ 62,692,785 $ 62,477,785 75665
GRF 502321 Mental Health Services $ 58,525,816 $ 51,778,513 75666
GRF 503321 Parole and Community Operations $ 68,197,272 $ 63,783,848 75667
GRF 504321 Administrative Operations $ 21,996,504 $ 20,085,474 75668
GRF 505321 Institution Medical Services $ 209,231,014 $ 195,241,961 75669
GRF 506321 Institution Education Services $ 20,237,576 $ 18,086,492 75670
GRF 507321 Institution Recovery Services $ 5,786,109 $ 5,375,737 75671
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 1,492,079,838 $ 1,480,691,448 75672

General Services Fund Group75673

1480 501602 Services and Agricultural Institutional Services $ 3,579,250 $ 3,584,263 75674
2000 501607 Ohio Penal Industries $ 38,000,000 $ 38,000,000 75675
4830 501605 Property Receipts $ 182,723 $ 182,086 75676
4B00 501601 Sewer Treatment Services $ 2,145,630 $ 2,157,682 2,057,682 75677
4D40 501603 Prisoner Programs $ 14,900,000 $ 14,900,000 75678
4L40 501604 Transitional Control $ 1,168,843 $ 1,213,120 1,113,120 75679
4S50 501608 Education Services $ 2,376,041 $ 2,359,775 75680
5710 501606 Training Academy Receipts $ 125,000 $ 125,000 75681
5930 501618 Laboratory Services $ 6,665,137 $ 6,664,729 75682
5AF0 501609 State and Non-Federal Awards $ 1,440,000 $ 1,440,000 75683
5H80 501617 Offender Financial Responsibility $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 75684
5L60 501611 Information Technology Services $ 600,000 $ 600,000 350,000 75685
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 73,182,624 $ 73,226,655 72,776,655 75686

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group75687

3230 501619 Federal Grants $ 9,013,558 $ 9,180,703 75688
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 75689
Fund Group $ 9,013,558 $ 9,180,703 75690

TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,574,276,020 $ 1,563,098,806 1,562,648,806 75691

       TRANSFER OF OPERATING APPROPRIATIONS TO IMPLEMENT CRIMINAL 75692
SENTENCING REFORMS75693

       For the purposes of implementing criminal sentencing reforms, 75694
and notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, 75695
the Director of Budget and Management, at the request of the 75696
Director of Rehabilitation and Correction, may transfer up to 75697
$14,000,000 in appropriations, in each of fiscal years 2012 and 75698
2013, from appropriation item 501321, Institutional Operations, to 75699
any combination of appropriation items 501405, Halfway House; 75700
501407, Community Residential Programs; 501408, Community 75701
Misdemeanor Programs; and 501501, Community Residential Programs - 75702
CBCF.75703

       OHIO BUILDING AUTHORITY LEASE PAYMENTS75704

       The foregoing appropriation item 501406, Lease Rental 75705
Payments, shall be used to meet all payments at the times they are 75706
required to be made during the period from July 1, 2011, through 75707
June 30, 2013, by the Department of Rehabilitation and Correction 75708
to the Ohio Building Authority under the primary leases and 75709
agreements for those buildings made under Chapter 152. of the 75710
Revised Code. These appropriations are the source of funds pledged 75711
for bond service charges or obligations issued pursuant to Chapter 75712
152. of the Revised Code.75713

        OSU MEDICAL CHARGES75714

        Notwithstanding section 341.192 of the Revised Code, at the 75715
request of the Department of Rehabilitation and Correction, The 75716
Ohio State University Medical Center, including the James Cancer 75717
Hospital and Solove Research Institute and the Richard M. Ross 75718
Heart Hospital, shall provide necessary care to persons who are 75719
confined in state adult correctional facilities. The provision of 75720
necessary care shall be billed to the Department at a rate not to 75721
exceed the authorized reimbursement rate for the same service 75722
established by the Department of Job and Family Services under the 75723
Medical Assistance Program.75724

       CASH TRANSFER FROM INSTITUTIONAL SERVICES FUND TO OHIO PENAL 75725
INDUSTRIES FUND75726

       The Director of Budget and Management may transfer an amount 75727
not to exceed $4,000,000 in cash in fiscal year 2013 from the 75728
Institutional Services Fund (Fund 1480) to the Ohio Penal 75729
Industries Fund (Fund 2000).75730

       Sec. 375.10. RSC REHABILITATION SERVICES COMMISSION75731

General Revenue Fund75732

GRF 415402 Independent Living Council $ 252,000 $ 252,000 75733
GRF 415406 Assistive Technology $ 26,618 $ 26,618 75734
GRF 415431 Office for People with Brain Injury $ 126,567 $ 126,567 75735
GRF 415506 Services for People with Disabilities $ 12,777,884 $ 12,777,884 75736
GRF 415508 Services for the Deaf $ 28,000 $ 28,000 75737
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 13,211,069 $ 13,211,069 75738

General Services Fund Group75739

4670 415609 Business Enterprise Operating Expenses $ 1,308,431 $ 1,303,090 75740
TOTAL GSF General Services 75741
Fund Group $ 1,308,431 $ 1,303,090 75742

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group75743

3170 415620 Disability Determination $ 97,579,095 $ 97,579,095 87,579,095 75744
3790 415616 Federal - Vocational Rehabilitation $ 103,160,426 $ 103,150,102 75745
3L10 415601 Social Security Personal Care Assistance $ 3,370,000 $ 3,370,000 75746
3L10 415605 Social Security Community Centers for the Deaf $ 772,000 $ 772,000 75747
3L10 415608 Social Security Special Programs/Assistance $ 1,521,406 $ 1,520,184 75748
3L40 415612 Federal Independent Living Centers or Services $ 652,222 $ 652,222 75749
3L40 415615 Federal - Supported Employment $ 929,755 $ 929,755 75750
3L40 415617 Independent Living/Vocational Rehabilitation Programs $ 2,137,338 $ 2,137,338 75751
TOTAL FED Federal Special 75752
Revenue Fund Group $ 210,122,242 $ 210,110,696 200,110,696 75753

State Special Revenue Fund Group75754

4680 415618 Third Party Funding $ 10,802,589 $ 10,802,589 75755
4L10 415619 Services for Rehabilitation $ 3,700,000 $ 3,700,000 75756
4W50 415606 Program Management Expenses $ 11,636,730 $ 11,587,201 75757
TOTAL SSR State Special 75758
Revenue Fund Group $ 26,139,319 $ 26,089,790 75759
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 250,781,061 $ 250,714,645 240,714,645 75760

       INDEPENDENT LIVING COUNCIL75761

       The foregoing appropriation item 415402, Independent Living 75762
Council, shall be used to fund the operations of the State 75763
Independent Living Council and to support state independent living 75764
centers and independent living services under Title VII of the 75765
Independent Living Services and Centers for Independent Living of 75766
the Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1992, 106 Stat. 4344, 29 75767
U.S.C. 796d.75768

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 415402, Independent 75769
Living Council, $67,662 in each fiscal year shall be used as state 75770
matching funds for vocational rehabilitation innovation and 75771
expansion activities.75772

       ASSISTIVE TECHNOLOGY75773

       The total amount of the foregoing appropriation item 415406, 75774
Assistive Technology, shall be provided to Assistive Technology of 75775
Ohio to provide grants and assistive technology services for 75776
people with disabilities in the State of Ohio.75777

       OFFICE FOR PEOPLE WITH BRAIN INJURY75778

       The foregoing appropriation item 415431, Office for People 75779
with Brain Injury, shall be used to plan and coordinate 75780
head-injury-related services provided by state agencies and other 75781
government or private entities, to assess the needs for such 75782
services, and to set priorities in this area.75783

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 415431, Office for People 75784
with Brain Injury, $44,067 in each fiscal year shall be used as 75785
state matching funds to provide vocational rehabilitation services 75786
to eligible consumers.75787

       VOCATIONAL REHABILITATION SERVICES75788

       The foregoing appropriation item 415506, Services for People 75789
with Disabilities, shall be used as state matching funds to 75790
provide vocational rehabilitation services to eligible consumers.75791

       At the request of the Chancellor of the Board of Regents, the 75792
Director of Budget and Management may transfer any unexpended, 75793
unencumbered appropriation in fiscal year 2012 or fiscal year 2013 75794
from appropriation item 235502, Student Support Services, to 75795
appropriation item 415506, Services for People with Disabilities. 75796
Any appropriation so transferred shall be used by the Ohio 75797
Rehabilitation Services Commission to obtain additional federal 75798
matching funds to serve disabled students.75799

       SERVICES FOR THE DEAF75800

        The foregoing appropriation item 415508, Services for the 75801
Deaf, shall be used to provide grants to community centers for the 75802
deaf.75803

       INDEPENDENT LIVING/VOCATIONAL REHABILITATION PROGRAMS75804

       The foregoing appropriation item 415617, Independent 75805
Living/Vocational Rehabilitation Programs, shall be used to 75806
support vocational rehabilitation programs.75807

       SOCIAL SECURITY REIMBURSEMENT FUNDS75808

       Reimbursement funds received from the Social Security 75809
Administration, United States Department of Health and Human 75810
Services, for the costs of providing services and training to 75811
return disability recipients to gainful employment shall be 75812
expended from the Social Security Reimbursement Fund (Fund 3L10), 75813
to the extent funds are available, as follows:75814

       (A) Appropriation item 415601, Social Security Personal Care 75815
Assistance, to provide personal care services in accordance with 75816
section 3304.41 of the Revised Code;75817

       (B) Appropriation item 415605, Social Security Community 75818
Centers for the Deaf, to provide grants to community centers for 75819
the deaf in Ohio for services to individuals with hearing 75820
impairments; and75821

       (C) Appropriation item 415608, Social Security Special 75822
Programs/Assistance, to provide vocational rehabilitation services 75823
to individuals with severe disabilities who are Social Security 75824
beneficiaries, to enable them to achieve competitive employment. 75825
This appropriation item shall also be used to pay a portion of 75826
indirect costs of the Personal Care Assistance Program and the 75827
Independent Living Programs as mandated by federal OMB Circular 75828
A-87.75829

       PROGRAM MANAGEMENT EXPENSES75830

       The foregoing appropriation item 415606, Program Management 75831
Expenses, shall be used to support the administrative functions of 75832
the commission related to the provision of vocational 75833
rehabilitation, disability determination services, and ancillary 75834
programs.75835

       Sec. 379.10. RDF REVENUE DISTRIBUTION FUNDS75836

Volunteer Firefighters' Dependents Fund75837

7085 800985 Volunteer Firemen's Dependents Fund $ 300,000 $ 300,000 75838
TOTAL 085 Volunteer Firefighters' 75839
Dependents Fund $ 300,000 $ 300,000 75840
Agency Fund Group 75841
4P80 001698 Cash Management Improvement Fund $ 3,100,000 $ 3,100,000 75842
5JG0 110633 Gross Casino Revenue County Fund $ 5,778,617 $ 138,882,294 75843
5JH0 110634 Gross Casino Revenue County Student Fund $ 3,852,412 $ 92,588,196 75844
5JJ0 110636 Gross Casino Revenue Host City Fund $ 566,531 $ 13,615,911 75845
5JK0 875610 Ohio State Racing Commission Fund $ 339,919 $ 8,169,547 75846
5JL0 038629 Problem Casino Gambling and Addictions Fund $ 226,612 $ 5,446,364 75847
5JN0 055654 Ohio Law Enforcement Training Fund $ 226,612 $ 5,446,364 75848
6080 001699 Investment Earnings $ 50,000,000 $ 150,000,000 75849
7062 110962 Resort Area Excise Tax $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 75850
7063 110963 Permissive Tax Distribution $ 1,904,500,000 $ 1,980,700,000 75851
7067 110967 School District Income Tax $ 317,000,000 $ 330,000,000 75852
TOTAL AGY Agency Fund Group $ 2,286,590,703 2,285,797,560 $ 2,728,948,676 2,709,886,401 75853

Holding Account Redistribution75854

R045 110617 International Fuel Tax Distribution $ 40,000,000 $ 40,000,000 75855
TOTAL 090 Holding Account Redistribution Fund 75856
Revenue Distribution Fund Group $ 40,000,000 $ 40,000,000 75857
7049 038900 Indigent Drivers Alcohol Treatment $ 2,200,000 $ 2,200,000 75858
7050 762900 International Registration Plan Distribution $ 30,000,000 $ 30,000,000 75859
7051 762901 Auto Registration Distribution $ 539,000,000 $ 539,000,000 75860
7054 110954 Local Government Property Tax Replacement - Utility $ 16,000,000 $ 11,000,000 75861
7060 110960 Gasoline Excise Tax Fund $ 393,000,000 $ 395,000,000 75862
7065 110965 Public Library Fund $ 354,000,000 $ 345,000,000 75863
7066 800966 Undivided Liquor Permits $ 14,100,000 $ 14,100,000 75864
7068 110968 State and Local Government Highway Distribution $ 193,000,000 $ 196,000,000 75865
7069 110969 Local Government Fund $ 577,000,000 $ 348,000,000 75866
7081 110981 Local Government Property Tax Replacement-Business $ 291,000,000 $ 181,000,000 75867
7082 110982 Horse Racing Tax $ 100,000 $ 100,000 75868
7083 700900 Ohio Fairs Fund $ 1,400,000 $ 1,400,000 75869
TOTAL RDF Revenue Distribution 75870
Fund Group $ 2,410,800,000 $ 2,062,800,000 75871
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 4,737,690,703 4,736,897,560 $ 4,832,048,676 4,812,986,401 75872

       ADDITIONAL APPROPRIATIONS75873

       Appropriation items in this section shall be used for the 75874
purpose of administering and distributing the designated revenue 75875
distribution funds according to the Revised Code. If it is 75876
determined that additional appropriations are necessary for this 75877
purpose, such amounts are hereby appropriated.75878

       GENERAL REVENUE FUND TRANSFERS75879

        Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, in 75880
fiscal year 2012 and fiscal year 2013, the Director of Budget and 75881
Management may transfer from the General Revenue Fund to the Local 75882
Government Tangible Property Tax Replacement Fund (Fund 7081) in 75883
the Revenue Distribution Fund Group, those amounts necessary to 75884
reimburse local taxing units under section 5751.22 of the Revised 75885
Code. Also, in fiscal year 2012 and fiscal year 2013, the Director 75886
of Budget and Management may make temporary transfers from the 75887
General Revenue Fund to ensure sufficient balances in the Local 75888
Government Tangible Property Tax Replacement Fund (Fund 7081) and 75889
to replenish the General Revenue Fund for such transfers.75890

       Sec. 387.10. SFC SCHOOL FACILITIES COMMISSION75891

General Revenue Fund75892

GRF 230908 Common Schools General Obligation Debt Service $ 150,604,900 $ 341,919,400 329,919,400 75893
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 150,604,900 $ 341,919,400 329,919,400 75894

State Special Revenue Fund Group75895

5E30 230644 Operating Expenses $ 8,950,000 $ 8,550,000 75896
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 75897
Fund Group $ 8,950,000 $ 8,550,000 75898
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 159,554,900 $ 350,469,400 338,469,400 75899


       Sec. 403.10. TAX DEPARTMENT OF TAXATION75901

General Revenue Fund75902

GRF 110321 Operating Expenses $ 73,500,000 $ 73,550,000 72,814,500 75903
GRF 110404 Tobacco Settlement Enforcement $ 200,000 $ 200,000 198,000 75904
GRF 110412 Child Support Administration $ 15,804 $ 15,804 15,646 75905
GRF 110901 Property Tax Allocation - Taxation $ 610,900,000 $ 616,000,000 75906
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 684,615,804 $ 689,765,804 689,028,146 75907

General Services Fund Group75908

2280 110628 Tax Reform System Implementation $ 13,638,008 $ 13,642,176 13,505,754 75909
4330 110602 Tape File Account $ 197,802 $ 197,878 195,899 75910
5AP0 110632 Discovery Project $ 2,445,799 $ 2,445,657 2,421,200 75911
5BW0 110630 Tax Amnesty Promotion and Administration $ 2,500,000 $ 0 75912
5CZ0 110631 Vendor's License Application $ 250,000 $ 250,000 75913
5N50 110605 Municipal Income Tax Administration $ 339,798 $ 339,975 336,575 75914
5N60 110618 Kilowatt Hour Tax Administration $ 150,000 $ 150,000 148,500 75915
5V80 110623 Property Tax Administration $ 12,195,733 $ 12,099,303 11,978,310 75916
5W40 110625 Centralized Tax Filing and Payment $ 200,000 $ 200,000 198,000 75917
5W70 110627 Exempt Facility Administration $ 50,000 $ 50,000 49,500 75918
TOTAL GSF General Services 75919
Fund Group $ 31,967,140 $ 29,374,989 29,083,738 75920

State Special Revenue Fund Group75921

4350 110607 Local Tax Administration $ 19,028,339 $ 19,225,941 19,033,682 75922
4360 110608 Motor Vehicle Audit $ 1,474,081 $ 1,474,353 1,459,609 75923
4370 110606 Litter/Natural Resource Tax Administration $ 20,000 $ 20,000 19,800 75924
4380 110609 School District Income Tax $ 5,859,041 $ 5,860,650 5,802,044 75925
4C60 110616 International Registration Plan $ 689,296 $ 689,308 682,415 75926
4R60 110610 Tire Tax Administration $ 245,462 $ 246,660 244,193 75927
5V70 110622 Motor Fuel Tax Administration $ 5,384,254 $ 5,086,236 5,035,374 75928
6390 110614 Cigarette Tax Enforcement $ 1,384,217 $ 1,384,314 1,370,471 75929
6420 110613 Ohio Political Party Distributions $ 500,000 $ 500,000 75930
6880 110615 Local Excise Tax Administration $ 782,630 $ 782,843 775,015 75931
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 75932
Fund Group $ 35,367,320 $ 35,270,305 34,922,603 75933

Agency Fund Group75934

4250 110635 Tax Refunds $ 1,546,800,000 $ 1,546,800,000 75935
7095 110995 Municipal Income Tax $ 21,000,000 $ 21,000,000 75936
TOTAL AGY Agency Fund Group $ 1,567,800,000 $ 1,567,800,000 75937

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group75938

R010 110611 Tax Distributions $ 50,000 $ 50,000 75939
R011 110612 Miscellaneous Income Tax Receipts $ 50,000 $ 50,000 75940
TOTAL 090 Holding Account 75941
Redistribution Fund Group $ 100,000 $ 100,000 75942
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 2,319,850,264 $ 2,322,311,098 2,320,934,487 75943

       HOMESTEAD EXEMPTION, PROPERTY TAX ROLLBACK75944

       The foregoing appropriation item 110901, Property Tax 75945
Allocation - Taxation, is hereby appropriated to pay for the 75946
state's costs incurred due to the Homestead Exemption, the 75947
Manufactured Home Property Tax Rollback, and the Property Tax 75948
Rollback. The Tax Commissioner shall distribute these funds 75949
directly to the appropriate local taxing districts, except for 75950
school districts, notwithstanding the provisions in sections 75951
321.24 and 323.156 of the Revised Code, which provide for payment 75952
of the Homestead Exemption, the Manufactured Home Property Tax 75953
Rollback, and Property Tax Rollback by the Tax Commissioner to the 75954
appropriate county treasurer and the subsequent redistribution of 75955
these funds to the appropriate local taxing districts by the 75956
county auditor.75957

       Upon receipt of these amounts, each local taxing district 75958
shall distribute the amount among the proper funds as if it had 75959
been paid as real property taxes. Payments for the costs of 75960
administration shall continue to be paid to the county treasurer 75961
and county auditor as provided for in sections 319.54, 321.26, and 75962
323.156 of the Revised Code.75963

       Any sums, in addition to the amounts specifically 75964
appropriated in appropriation item 110901, Property Tax Allocation 75965
- Taxation, for the Homestead Exemption, the Manufactured Home 75966
Property Tax Rollback, and the Property Tax Rollback payments, 75967
which are determined to be necessary for these purposes, are 75968
hereby appropriated.75969

       TAX AMNESTY PROMOTION AND ADMINISTRATION75970

       The foregoing appropriation item 110630, Tax Amnesty 75971
Promotion and Administration, shall be used to pay expenses 75972
incurred to promote and administer the tax amnesty program to be 75973
conducted from May 1, 2012, through June 15, 2012, by the 75974
Department of Taxation pursuant to Section 757.40 of this actAm. 75975
Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly.75976

       MUNICIPAL INCOME TAX75977

       The foregoing appropriation item 110995, Municipal Income 75978
Tax, shall be used to make payments to municipal corporations 75979
under section 5745.05 of the Revised Code. If it is determined 75980
that additional appropriations are necessary to make such 75981
payments, such amounts are hereby appropriated.75982

       TAX REFUNDS75983

       The foregoing appropriation item 110635, Tax Refunds, shall 75984
be used to pay refunds under section 5703.052 of the Revised Code. 75985
If it is determined that additional appropriations are necessary 75986
for this purpose, such amounts are hereby appropriated.75987

       INTERNATIONAL REGISTRATION PLAN AUDIT75988

       The foregoing appropriation item 110616, International 75989
Registration Plan, shall be used under section 5703.12 of the 75990
Revised Code for audits of persons with vehicles registered under 75991
the International Registration Plan.75992

       TRAVEL EXPENSES FOR THE STREAMLINED SALES TAX PROJECT75993

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 110607, Local Tax 75994
Administration, the Tax Commissioner may disburse funds, if 75995
available, for the purposes of paying travel expenses incurred by 75996
members of Ohio's delegation to the Streamlined Sales Tax Project, 75997
as appointed under section 5740.02 of the Revised Code. Any travel 75998
expense reimbursement paid for by the Department of Taxation shall 75999
be done in accordance with applicable state laws and guidelines.76000

       CENTRALIZED TAX FILING AND PAYMENT FUND76001

       The Director of Budget and Management, under a plan submitted 76002
by the Tax Commissioner, or as otherwise determined by the 76003
Director of Budget and Management, shall set a schedule to 76004
transfer cash from the General Revenue Fund to the credit of the 76005
Centralized Tax Filing and Payment Fund (Fund 5W40). The transfers 76006
of cash shall not exceed $400,000 in the biennium.76007

       TOBACCO SETTLEMENT ENFORCEMENT76008

       The foregoing appropriation item 110404, Tobacco Settlement 76009
Enforcement, shall be used by the Tax Commissioner to pay costs 76010
incurred in the enforcement of divisions (F) and (G) of section 76011
5743.03 of the Revised Code.76012

       Sec. 411.10.  DVS DEPARTMENT OF VETERANS SERVICES76013

General Revenue Fund76014

GRF 900321 Veterans' Homes $ 27,369,946 $ 27,369,946 76015
GRF 900402 Hall of Fame $ 107,075 $ 107,075 76016
GRF 900408 Department of Veterans Services $ 1,901,823 $ 1,901,823 2,001,823 76017
GRF 900901 Persian Gulf, Afghanistan, and Iraq Compensation Debt Service $ 5,486,600 $ 10,112,100 76018
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 34,865,444 $ 39,490,944 39,590,944 76019

General Services Fund Group76020

4840 900603 Veterans' Homes Services $ 305,806 $ 312,458 76021
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 305,806 $ 312,458 76022

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group76023

3680 900614 Veterans Training $ 769,500 $ 754,377 76024
3740 900606 Troops to Teachers $ 136,786 $ 133,461 76025
3BX0 900609 Medicare Services $ 2,500,000 $ 2,490,169 76026
3L20 900601 Veterans' Homes Operations - Federal $ 23,455,379 $ 23,476,269 76027
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 76028
Fund Group $ 26,861,665 $ 26,854,276 76029

State Special Revenue Fund Group76030

4E20 900602 Veterans' Homes Operating $ 10,117,680 $ 10,319,078 76031
6040 900604 Veterans' Homes Improvement $ 347,598 $ 398,731 76032
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 76033
Fund Group $ 10,465,278 $ 10,717,809 76034

Persian Gulf, Afghanistan, and Iraq Compensation Fund Group76035

7041 900615 Veteran Bonus Program - Administration $ 1,605,410 $ 1,147,703 76036
7041 900641 Persian Gulf, Afghanistan, and Iraq Compensation $ 25,425,000 $ 24,300,000 76037
TOTAL 041 Persian Gulf, 76038
Afghanistan, and Iraq 76039
Compensation Fund Group $ 27,030,410 $ 25,447,703 76040
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 99,528,603 $ 102,823,190 102,923,190 76041

       PERSIAN GULF, AFGHANISTAN AND IRAQ COMPENSATION GENERAL 76042
OBLIGATION DEBT SERVICE76043

       The foregoing appropriation item 900901, Persian Gulf, 76044
Afghanistan and Iraq Compensation Debt Service, shall be used to 76045
pay all debt service and related financing costs during the period 76046
from July 1, 2011, through June 30, 2013, on obligations issued 76047
for Persian Gulf, Afghanistan and Iraq Conflicts Compensation 76048
purposes under sections 151.01 and 151.12 of the Revised Code.76049

       Sec. 415.10. DYS DEPARTMENT OF YOUTH SERVICES76050

General Revenue Fund76051

GRF 470401 RECLAIM Ohio $ 168,716,967 $ 162,362,228 76052
GRF 470412 Lease Rental Payments $ 10,221,800 $ 27,230,100 76053
GRF 470510 Youth Services $ 16,702,728 $ 16,702,728 76054
GRF 472321 Parole Operations $ 10,830,019 $ 10,583,118 76055
GRF 477321 Administrative Operations $ 12,222,051 $ 11,855,389 76056
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 218,693,565 $ 228,733,563 76057

General Services Fund Group76058

1750 470613 Education Reimbursement $ 8,160,277 $ 8,151,056 6,251,056 76059
4790 470609 Employee Food Service $ 150,000 $ 150,000 76060
4A20 470602 Child Support $ 450,000 $ 400,000 76061
4G60 470605 General Operational Funds $ 125,000 $ 125,000 76062
5BN0 470629 E-Rate Program $ 535,000 $ 535,000 76063
TOTAL GSF General Services 76064
Fund Group $ 9,420,277 $ 9,361,056 7,461,056 76065

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group76066

3210 470601 Education $ 1,774,469 $ 1,517,840 76067
3210 470603 Juvenile Justice Prevention $ 300,000 $ 300,000 76068
3210 470606 Nutrition $ 1,747,432 $ 1,704,022 1,400,000 76069
3210 470610 Rehabilitation Programs $ 36,000 $ 36,000 0 76070
3210 470614 Title IV-E Reimbursements $ 6,000,000 $ 6,000,000 76071
3BY0 470635 Federal Juvenile Programs FFY 07 $ 56,471 $ 2,000 76072
3BZ0 470636 Federal Juvenile Programs FFY 08 $ 82,000 $ 1,618 76073
3CP0 470638 Federal Juvenile Programs FFY 09 $ 500,000 $ 300,730 76074
3CR0 470639 Federal Juvenile Programs FFY 10 $ 800,000 $ 479,900 76075
3FB0 470641 Federal Juvenile Programs FFY 11 $ 135,000 $ 600,000 76076
3FC0 470642 Federal Juvenile Programs FFY 12 $ 0 $ 135,000 76077
3V50 470604 Juvenile Justice/Delinquency Prevention $ 2,010,000 $ 2,000,000 76078
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 76079
Fund Group $ 13,441,372 $ 13,077,110 12,737,088 76080

State Special Revenue Fund Group76081

1470 470612 Vocational Education $ 762,126 $ 758,210 76082
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 76083
Fund Group $ 762,126 $ 758,210 76084
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 242,317,340 $ 251,929,939 249,689,917 76085

       COMMUNITY PROGRAMS76086

       For purposes of implementing juvenile sentencing reforms, and 76087
notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the 76088
Department of Youth Services may use up to forty-five per cent of 76089
the unexpended, unencumbered balance of the portion of 76090
appropriation item 470401, RECLAIM Ohio, that is allocated to 76091
juvenile correctional facilities in each fiscal year to expand 76092
Targeted RECLAIM, the Behavioral Health Juvenile Justice 76093
Initiative, and other evidence-based community programs.76094

       OHIO BUILDING AUTHORITY LEASE PAYMENTS76095

       The foregoing appropriation item 470412, Lease Rental 76096
Payments, shall be used to meet all payments at the times they are 76097
required to be made for the period from July 1, 2011, through June 76098
30, 2013, by the Department of Youth Services to the Ohio Building 76099
Authority under the leases and agreements for facilities made 76100
under Chapter 152. of the Revised Code. This appropriation is the 76101
source of funds pledged for bond service charges on related 76102
obligations issued pursuant to Chapter 152. of the Revised Code.76103

       EDUCATION REIMBURSEMENT76104

       The foregoing appropriation item 470613, Education 76105
Reimbursement, shall be used to fund the operating expenses of 76106
providing educational services to youth supervised by the 76107
Department of Youth Services. Operating expenses include, but are 76108
not limited to, teachers' salaries, maintenance costs, and 76109
educational equipment. This appropriation item may be used for 76110
capital expenses related to the education program.76111

       EMPLOYEE FOOD SERVICE AND EQUIPMENT76112

       Notwithstanding section 125.14 of the Revised Code, the 76113
foregoing appropriation item 470609, Employee Food Service, may be 76114
used to purchase any food operational items with funds received 76115
into the fund from reimbursements for state surplus property.76116

       FLEXIBLE FUNDING FOR CHILDREN AND FAMILIES76117

       In collaboration with the county family and children first 76118
council, the juvenile court of that county that receives 76119
allocations from one or both of the foregoing appropriation items 76120
470401, RECLAIM Ohio, and 470510, Youth Services, may transfer 76121
portions of those allocations to a flexible funding pool as 76122
authorized by the section of this actAm. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 76123
129th General Assembly titled "FAMILY AND CHILDREN FIRST FLEXIBLE 76124
FUNDING POOL."76125

       Sec. 503.50. REAPPROPRIATION OF UNEXPENDED ENCUMBERED 76126
BALANCES OF OPERATING APPROPRIATIONS76127

       (A) An unexpended balance of an operating appropriation or 76128
reappropriation that a state agency lawfully encumbered prior to 76129
the close of a fiscal year is hereby reappropriated on the first 76130
day of July of the following fiscal year from the fund from which 76131
it was originally appropriated or reappropriated for the following 76132
period and shall remain available only for the purpose of 76133
discharging the encumbrance:76134

       (1) For an encumbrance for personal services, maintenance, 76135
equipment, or items for resale, other than an encumbrance for an 76136
item of special order manufacture not available on term contract 76137
or in the open market or for reclamation of land or oil and gas 76138
wells, for a period of not more than five months from the end of 76139
the fiscal year;76140

       (2) For an encumbrance for an item of special order 76141
manufacture not available on term contract or in the open market, 76142
for a period of not more than five months from the end of the 76143
fiscal year or, with the written approval of the Director of 76144
Budget and Management, for a period of not more than twelve months 76145
from the end of the fiscal year;76146

       (3) For an encumbrance for reclamation of land or oil and gas 76147
wells, for a period ending when the encumbered appropriation is 76148
expended or for a period of two years, whichever is less;76149

       (4) For an encumbrance for any other expense, for such period 76150
as the Director approves, provided such period does not exceed two 76151
years.76152

       (B) Any operating appropriations for which unexpended 76153
balances are reappropriated beyond a five-month period from the 76154
end of the fiscal year by division (A)(2) of this section shall be 76155
reported to the Controlling Board by the Director of Budget and 76156
Management by the thirty-first day of December of each year. The 76157
report on each such item shall include the item, the cost of the 76158
item, and the name of the vendor. The report shall be updated on a 76159
quarterly basis for encumbrances remaining open.76160

       (C) Upon the expiration of the reappropriation period set out 76161
in division (A) of this section, a reappropriation made by this 76162
section lapses, and the Director of Budget and Management shall 76163
cancel the encumbrance of the unexpended reappropriation not later 76164
than the end of the weekend following the expiration of the 76165
reappropriation period.76166

       (D) Notwithstanding division (C) of this section, with the 76167
approval of the Director of Budget and Management, an unexpended 76168
balance of an encumbrance that was reappropriated on the first day 76169
of July by this section for a period specified in division (A)(3) 76170
or (4) of this section and that remains encumbered at the close of 76171
the fiscal biennium is hereby reappropriated on the first day of 76172
July of the following fiscal biennium from the fund from which it 76173
was originally appropriated or reappropriated for the applicable 76174
period specified in division (A)(3) or (4) of this section and 76175
shall remain available only for the purpose of discharging the 76176
encumbrance.76177

       (E) The Director of Budget and Management may correct 76178
accounting errors committed by the staff of the Office of Budget 76179
and Management, such as re-establishing encumbrances or 76180
appropriations cancelled in error, during the cancellation of 76181
operating encumbrances in November and of nonoperating 76182
encumbrances in December.76183

       (F) The Director of Budget and Management may at any time 76184
correct accounting errors committed by the staff of a state 76185
institution of higher education, as defined in section 3345.011 of 76186
the Revised Code, such as reestablishing prior year nonoperating 76187
encumbrances canceled or modified in error. The reestablished 76188
encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated.76189

       (G) If the Controlling Board approved a purchase, that 76190
approval remains in effect so long as the appropriation used to 76191
make that purchase remains encumbered.76192

       Sec. 521.70.  OVERSIGHT OF FEDERAL STIMULUS FUNDS76193

       (A) The Office of Internal Auditing within the Office of 76194
Budget and Management shall, in connection with its duties under 76195
sections 126.45 to 126.48 of the Revised Code, monitor and measure 76196
the effectiveness of funds allocated to the state as part of the 76197
federal American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009. As such, 76198
the Office of Internal Auditing shall review how funds allocated 76199
to each state agency are spent. For purposes of this section, 76200
"state agency" has the same meaning as in division (A) of section 76201
126.45 of the Revised Code.76202

       In addition to the reports required under section 126.47 of 76203
the Revised Code, the Office of Internal Auditing shall submit76204
prepare a report of its findings for the period beginning July 1, 76205
2011, and ending December 31, 2011. The Office shall submit the 76206
report to the President of the Senate, Minority Leader of the 76207
Senate, Speaker of the House of Representatives, Minority Leader 76208
of the House of Representatives, and the Chairs of the committees 76209
in the Senate and House of Representatives handling finance and 76210
appropriations. The report shall be submitted every six months at 76211
the following intervals:76212

       (1) For the six-month period ending December 31, 2011, not 76213
later thanby February 1, 2012;76214

       (2) For the six-month period ending June 30, 2012, not later 76215
than August 1, 2012;76216

       (3) For the six-month period ending December 31, 2012, not 76217
later than February 1, 2013;76218

       (4) For the six-month period ending June 30, 2013, not later 76219
than August 1, 2013.76220

       (B) When, as part of its compliance with the federal American 76221
Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009 requirements to monitor and 76222
measure the effectiveness of funds for which the state of Ohio is 76223
the prime recipient, and for which reporting authority has not 76224
been delegated to a sub-recipientsubrecipient, the Office of 76225
Budget and Management submits quarterly reports to the federal 76226
government, the Office of Budget and Management shall also submit 76227
those reports to the President of the Senate, Minority Leader of 76228
the Senate, Speaker of the House of Representatives, Minority 76229
Leader of the House of Representatives, and Chairs and ranking 76230
members of the committees in the Senate and House of 76231
Representatives handling finance and appropriations. The Office of 76232
Budget and Management shall continue to submit quarterly reports 76233
to the legislature for the duration of the period in which the 76234
state of Ohio is required to make reports to the federal 76235
government concerning Ohio's use of the federal American Recovery 76236
and Reinvestment Act of 2009 funds.76237

       Sec. 701.40. (A) There is hereby created the Ohio Housing 76238
Study Committee with the purpose of formulating a comprehensive 76239
review of the policies and results of the Ohio Housing Finance 76240
Agency, its programs and its working relationships to ensure that 76241
all Agency programs are evaluated by an objective process to 76242
ensure all Ohioans receive optimal and measurable benefits 76243
afforded to them through the authority of the Agency.76244

       (B) The Committee shall do all of the following:76245

       (1) Perform a comprehensive review of Chapter 175. of the 76246
Revised Code to determine the relevance of the chapter and 76247
determine whether it should be formally reviewed or amended by the 76248
General Assembly, up to and including appropriate legislative 76249
oversight and accountability;76250

       (2) Review the Agency's relationships to ensure an equitable 76251
and level playing field regarding its single- and multi-family 76252
housing programs;76253

       (3) Review the Agency's policy leadership and the measurable 76254
economic impact and other effects of its programs;76255

       (4) Review the Agency's Qualified Allocation Plan development 76256
process and underlying policies to understand whether objective 76257
and measurable results are achieved to fulfill clearly articulated 76258
public policy goals;76259

       (5) Create a quantitative report measuring the economic 76260
benefits of the Agency's single- and multi-family programming over 76261
the last ten years;76262

       (6) Evaluate the possible efficiencies of combining existing 76263
Ohio Department of Development housing-related programming with 76264
those of the Agency.76265

       The Chairperson of the Committee may include other relevant 76266
areas of study as necessary.76267

       (C) The Committee shall commence on the effective date of 76268
this actSeptember 29, 2011, and shall provide a report expressing 76269
its findings and financial, policy, or legislative recommendations 76270
to the Governor, the Speaker of the House of Representatives, and 76271
the President of the Senate on or before MarchDecember 31, 2012. 76272
The Committee shall cease to exist on December 31, 2012.76273

       (D) The Committee shall be comprised of the Auditor of State, 76274
or the Auditor's designee, the Director of Commerce, or the 76275
Director's designee, the Director of Development, or the 76276
Director's designee, and four members of the General Assembly. Two 76277
members shall be appointed by the Speaker of the House of 76278
Representatives and two members shall be appointed by the 76279
President of the Senate.76280

       The Governor, Speaker of the House of Representatives, and 76281
the President of the Senate shall determine the chairperson of the 76282
Committee.76283

       (E) The Committee shall meet on a reasonable basis at the 76284
discretion of the chairperson.76285

       (F) All reasonable expenses incurred by the Committee in 76286
carrying out its responsibilities shall be paid by Ohio Housing 76287
Finance Agency funds. In addition to reasonable expenses, the 76288
Committee shall have the discretion to allocate Agency funds to 76289
contract with the Auditor of State for services rendered in 76290
relation to the Committee carrying out its responsibilities, 76291
including financial- and performance-based audits and other 76292
services. The Auditor of State may contract with an independent 76293
auditor.76294

       The Committee may also contract with other independent 76295
entities for services rendered in relation to the Committee 76296
carrying out its responsibilities. Expenditures to pay for the 76297
services of the Auditor of State, independent auditor, or other 76298
services shall not exceed two hundred thousand dollars.76299

       No entity contracting with the Committee for services 76300
rendered shall have a financial or vested interest in the Ohio 76301
Housing Finance Agency, its affiliates, or its nonprofit partners.76302

       Section 601.41. That existing Sections 205.10, 207.10, 76303
207.10.80, 207.20.10, 207.20.30, 207.20.90, 209.10, 209.20, 76304
209.30, 211.10, 215.10, 215.20, 223.10, 229.10, 243.10, 261.10.40, 76305
261.10.70, 261.20.10, 261.20.40, 261.20.50, 261.20.60, 261.20.80, 76306
261.20.90, 261.30.10, 261.30.20, 261.30.30, 261.30.40, 261.30.60, 76307
261.30.70, 261.30.80, 261.30.90, 261.40.10, 263.10, 263.10.30, 76308
263.10.90, 263.20.40, 263.20.70, 267.10, 267.10.10, 267.10.20, 76309
267.10.40, 267.30.20, 267.30.40, 279.10, 283.10, 283.20, 283.30, 76310
291.10, 307.10, 309.10, 309.30.30, 309.30.33, 309.30.53, 76311
309.35.73, 315.10, 327.10, 335.10, 337.10, 343.10, 343.40, 365.10, 76312
367.10, 369.10, 371.10, 371.50.61, 371.60.70, 371.60.80, 373.10, 76313
375.10, 379.10, 387.10, 403.10, 411.10, 415.10, 503.50, 521.70, 76314
and 701.40 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly are 76315
hereby repealed.76316

       Section 601.43. That Section 247.10 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of 76317
the 129th General Assembly, as amended by Sub. H.B. 319 of the 76318
129th General Assembly, be amended to read as follows:76319

       Sec. 247.10. CEB CONTROLLING BOARD76320

General Revenue Fund76321

GRF 911404 Mandate Assistance $ 2,750,000 $ 0 76322
GRF 911441 Ballot Advertising Costs $ 475,000 $ 475,000 76323
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 3,225,000 $ 475,000 76324

General Services Fund Group76325

5KM0 911614 CB Emergency Purposes $ 10,000,000 $ 10,000,000 76326
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 10,000,000 $ 10,000,000 76327
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 13,225,000 $ 10,475,000 76328

       FEDERAL SHARE76329

       In transferring appropriations to or from appropriation items 76330
that have federal shares identified in this act, the Controlling 76331
Board shall add or subtract corresponding amounts of federal 76332
matching funds at the percentages indicated by the state and 76333
federal division of the appropriations in this act. Such changes 76334
are hereby appropriated.76335

       REDISTRICTING IMPLEMENTATION76336

       The foregoing appropriation item 911404, Mandate Assistance, 76337
shall be used in a method prescribed by the Secretary of State and 76338
transferred by the Director of Budget and Management to implement 76339
this act, which includes remapping and reprecincting counties, and 76340
reprogramming database systems and voting machines. At the end of 76341
fiscal year 2012, an amount equal to the unexpended, unencumbered 76342
portion of appropriation item 911404, Mandate Assistance, is 76343
hereby reappropriated in fiscal year 2013 for the same purpose.76344

       DISASTER SERVICES76345

        Pursuant to requests submitted by the Department of Public 76346
Safety, the Controlling Board may approve transfers from the 76347
Disaster Services Fund (5E20) to a fund and appropriation item 76348
used by the Department of Public Safety to provide for assistance 76349
to political subdivisions made necessary by natural disasters or 76350
emergencies. These transfers may be requested and approved prior 76351
to the occurrence of any specific natural disasters or emergencies 76352
in order to facilitate the provision of timely assistance. The 76353
Emergency Management Agency of the Department of Public Safety 76354
shall use the funding to fund the State Disaster Relief Program 76355
for disasters that have been declared by the Governor, and the 76356
State Individual Assistance Program for disasters that have been 76357
declared by the Governor and the federal Small Business 76358
Administration. The Ohio Emergency Management Agency shall publish 76359
and make available application packets outlining procedures for 76360
the State Disaster Relief Program and the State Individual 76361
Assistance Program.76362

       Fund 5E20 shall be used by the Controlling Board, pursuant to 76363
requests submitted by state agencies, to transfer cash and 76364
appropriations to any fund and appropriation item for the payment 76365
of state agency disaster relief program expenses for disasters 76366
declared by the Governor, if the Director of Budget and Management 76367
determines that sufficient funds exist.76368

       Upon the request of the Department of Public Safety, the 76369
Controlling Board may release up to $3,000,000 for Blanchard River 76370
flood mitigation projects.76371

       BALLOT ADVERTISING COSTS76372

       Pursuant to section 3501.17 of the Revised Code, and upon 76373
requests submitted by the Secretary of State, the Controlling 76374
Board shall approve transfers from the foregoing appropriation 76375
item 911441, Ballot Advertising Costs, to appropriation item 76376
050621, Statewide Ballot Advertising, in order to pay for the cost 76377
of public notices associated with statewide ballot initiatives.76378

       CAPITAL APPROPRIATION INCREASE FOR FEDERAL STIMULUS 76379
ELIGIBILITY76380

        A state agency director shall request that the Controlling 76381
Board increase the amount of the agency's capital appropriations 76382
if the director determines such an increase is necessary for the 76383
agency to receive and use funds under the federal American 76384
Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009. The Controlling Board may 76385
increase the capital appropriations pursuant to the request up to 76386
the exact amount necessary under the federal act if the Board 76387
determines it is necessary for the agency to receive and use those 76388
federal funds.76389

       Section 601.44. That existing Section 247.10 of Am. Sub. H.B. 76390
153 of the 129th General Assembly, as amended by Sub. H.B. 319 of 76391
the 129th General Assembly, is hereby repealed.76392

       Section 601.46. That Sections 261.10 and 261.20.93 of Am. 76393
Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly, as amended by Sub. 76394
H.B. 371 of the 129th General Assembly, be amended to read as 76395
follows:76396

       Sec. 261.10. DEV DEPARTMENT OF DEVELOPMENT SERVICES AGENCY76397

General Revenue Fund76398

GRF 195401 Thomas Edison Program $ 14,820,354 $ 0 76399
GRF 195402 Coal Development Office Research Operating $ 260,983 $ 261,205 76400
GRF 195404 Small Business Development $ 1,565,770 $ 0 76401
GRF 195405 Minority Business Enterprise Division $ 1,118,528 $ 0 76402
GRF 195407 Travel and Tourism $ 5,000,000 $ 0 5,000,000 76403
GRF 195412 Rapid Outreach Grants $ 9,000,000 $ 0 76404
GRF 195415 Strategic Business Investment Division and Regional Offices Development Services $ 4,500,000 $ 0 2,413,387 76405
GRF 195416 Governor's Office of Appalachia $ 3,700,000 $ 3,700,000 0 76406
GRF 195422 Technology Action $ 547,341 $ 0 76407
GRF 195426 Clean Ohio Implementation $ 468,365 $ 0 468,365 76408
GRF 195432 Global Markets $ 3,500,000 $ 0 76409
GRF 195434 Industrial Training Grants $ 10,000,000 $ 0 76410
GRF 195497 CDBG Operating Match $ 1,015,000 $ 0 1,015,000 76411
GRF 195501 Appalachian Local Development Districts $ 391,482 $ 391,482 0 76412
GRF 195502 Appalachian Regional Commission Dues $ 195,000 $ 195,000 0 76413
GRF 195528 Economic Development Projects $ 0 $ 26,943,518 76414
GRF 195530 Economic Gardening Pilot Program $ 0 $ 250,000 76415
GRF 195532 Technology Programs and Grants $ 0 $ 13,547,341 76416
GRF 195533 Business Assistance $ 0 $ 5,899,465 76417
GRF 195535 Appalachia Assistance $ 0 $ 4,286,482 76418
GRF 195901 Coal Research & Development General Obligation Debt Service $ 7,861,100 $ 5,577,700 76419
GRF 195905 Third Frontier Research & Development General Obligation Debt Service $ 29,323,300 $ 63,640,300 76420
GRF 195912 Job Ready Site Development General Obligation Debt Service $ 9,859,200 $ 15,680,500 76421
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 103,126,423 $ 116,389,705 118,039,745 76422

General Services Fund Group76423

1350 195684 Supportive Development Services Operations $ 11,700,000 $ 11,700,000 76424
4W10 195646 Minority Business Enterprise Loan $ 2,500,000 $ 2,500,000 76425
5AD0 195633 Legacy Projects $ 15,000,000 $ 15,000,000 18,600,000 76426
5AD0 195677 Economic Development Contingency $ 10,000,000 $ 0 76427
5W50 195690 Travel and Tourism Cooperative Projects $ 50,000 $ 50,000 76428
6850 195636 Direct Cost Recovery Development Services Reimbursable Expenditures $ 750,000 $ 750,000 76429
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 76430
Group $ 40,000,000 $ 30,000,000 33,600,000 76431

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group76432

3080 195602 Appalachian Regional Commission $ 475,000 $ 475,000 76433
3080 195603 Housing and Urban Development Assistance Programs $ 6,000,000 $ 6,000,000 76434
3080 195605 Federal Projects $ 85,028,606 $ 85,470,106 0 76435
3080 195609 Small Business Administration Grants $ 6,438,143 $ 5,511,381 76436
3080 195618 Energy Federal Grants $ 38,000,000 $ 3,400,000 76437
3080 195670 Home Weatherization Program $ 0 $ 72,670,106 76438
3080 195671 Brownfield Redevelopment $ 0 $ 6,800,000 76439
3080 195672 Manufacturing Extension Partnership $ 0 $ 6,000,000 76440
3350 195610 Energy Conservation and Emerging Technology Programs $ 1,100,000 $ 1,100,000 76441
3AE0 195643 Workforce Development Initiatives $ 16,300,000 $ 16,300,000 76442
3DB0 195642 Federal Stimulus - Energy Efficiency & Conservation Block Grants $ 3,000,000 $ 42,485 76443
3EG0 195608 Federal Energy Sector Training Grants $ 5,000,000 $ 1,344,056 76444
3K80 195613 Community Development Block Grant $ 76,795,818 $ 65,210,000 76445
3K90 195611 Home Energy Assistance Block Grant $ 115,743,608 $ 115,743,608 76446
3K90 195614 HEAP Weatherization $ 22,000,000 $ 22,000,000 76447
3L00 195612 Community Services Block Grant $ 27,240,217 $ 27,240,217 76448
3V10 195601 HOME Program $ 40,000,000 $ 40,000,000 76449
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 76450
Fund Group $ 443,121,392 $ 389,836,853 76451

State Special Revenue Fund Group76452

4500 195624 Minority Business Bonding Program Administration $ 160,110 $ 159,069 76453
4510 195625 Economic Development Financing Operating $ 3,000,000 $ 3,000,000 0 76454
4510 195649 Business Assistance Programs $ 0 $ 3,700,800 76455
4F20 195639 State Special Projects $ 180,437 $ 180,436 76456
4F20 195676 Marketing Initiatives $ 5,000,000 $ 0 76457
4F20 195699 Utility Provided Funds Community Assistance $ 500,000 $ 500,000 76458
4S00 195630 Tax Incentive Programs $ 650,800 $ 650,800 0 76459
5CG0 195679 Alternative Fuel Transportation $ 750,000 $ 750,000 76460
5HJ0 195604 Motion Picture Tax Credit Program $ 50,000 $ 50,000 0 76461
5HR0 195526 Ohio Incumbent Workforce Job Training Vouchers $ 20,000,000 $ 30,000,000 76462
5HR0 195622 Defense Development Assistance $ 5,000,000 $ 5,000,000 76463
5JR0 195635 Redevelopment Program Support $ 0 $ 100,000 76464
5JR0 195656 New Market Tax Credit Program $ 50,000 $ 50,000 0 76465
5KD0 195621 Brownfield Stormwater Loan $ 50,000 $ 50,000 0 76466
5KN0 195640 Local Government Innovation $ 175,000 $ 44,825,000 76467
5LK0 195655 Workforce Development Programs $ 0 $ 10,000,000 76468
5M40 195659 Low Income Energy Assistance (USF) $ 245,000,000 $ 245,000,000 76469
5M50 195660 Advanced Energy Loan Programs $ 8,000,000 $ 0 76470
5W60 195691 International Trade Cooperative Projects $ 160,000 $ 160,000 76471
6170 195654 Volume Cap Administration $ 94,397 $ 92,768 76472
6460 195638 Low- and Moderate- Income Housing Trust Fund $ 53,000,000 $ 53,000,000 76473
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 76474
Fund Group $ 341,820,744 $ 383,468,073 393,468,073 76475

Facilities Establishment Fund Group76476

5S90 195628 Capital Access Loan Program $ 1,500,000 $ 1,500,000 76477
7009 195664 Innovation Ohio $ 15,000,000 $ 15,000,000 76478
7010 195665 Research and Development $ 22,000,000 $ 22,000,000 76479
7037 195615 Facilities Establishment $ 50,000,000 $ 50,000,000 76480
TOTAL 037 Facilities 76481
Establishment Fund Group $ 88,500,000 $ 88,500,000 76482

Clean Ohio Revitalization Fund76483

7003 195663 Clean Ohio Operating Program $ 950,000 $ 950,000 76484
TOTAL 7003 Clean Ohio Revitalization Fund $ 950,000 $ 950,000 76485

Third Frontier Research & Development Fund Group76486

7011 195686 Third Frontier Operating $ 1,149,750 $ 1,149,750 76487
7011 195687 Third Frontier Research & Development Projects $ 183,850,250 $ 133,850,250 76488
7014 195620 Third Frontier Operating - Tax $ 1,700,000 $ 1,700,000 76489
7014 195692 Research & Development Taxable Bond Projects $ 38,300,000 $ 38,300,000 76490
TOTAL 011 Third Frontier Research & Development Fund Group $ 225,000,000 $ 175,000,000 76491

Job Ready Site Development Fund Group76492

7012 195688 Job Ready Site Operating Program $ 800,000 $ 800,000 76493
TOTAL 012 Job Ready Site Development Fund Group $ 800,000 $ 800,000 76494

Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group76495

M087 195435 Biomedical Research and Technology Transfer $ 1,999,224 $ 1,999,224 76496
TOTAL TSF Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group $ 1,999,224 $ 1,999,224 76497
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,245,317,783 $ 1,186,943,855 1,202,193,895 76498


       Sec. 261.20.93. LOCAL GOVERNMENT INNOVATION FUND76500

       The foregoing appropriation item 195640, Local Government 76501
Innovation, shall be used for the purposes of making loans and 76502
grants to political subdivisions under the Local Government 76503
Innovation Program in accordance with sections 189.01 to 189.10 of 76504
the Revised Code. Of the foregoing appropriation item 195640, 76505
Local Government Innovation, up to $175,000 in fiscal year 2012 76506
and $175,000 in fiscal year 2013 shall be used for administrative 76507
costs incurred by the Department of Development Services Agency.76508

       On the effective date of this amendment, or as soon as 76509
possible thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management shall 76510
transfer $175,000 in cash from the General Revenue Fund to the 76511
Local Government Innovation Fund (Fund 5KN0). On July 1, 2012, or 76512
as soon as possible thereafter, the Director of Budget and 76513
Management shall transfer $44,825,000 in cash from the General 76514
Revenue Fund to the Local Government Innovation Fund (Fund 5KN0). 76515

       Section 601.47. That existing Sections 261.10 and 261.20.93 76516
of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly, as amended by 76517
Sub. H.B. 371 of the 129th General Assembly, are hereby repealed.76518

       Section 601.50. That Section 4 of Sub. S.B. 171 of the 129th 76519
General Assembly be amended to read as follows:76520

       Sec. 4. The following agencies are retained under division 76521
(D) of section 101.83 of the Revised Code and expire on December 76522
31, 2016:76523

AGENCY NAME REVISED CODE OR UNCODIFIED SECTION 76524
Academic Distress Commission 3302.10 76525
Advisory Board of Governor's Office of Faith-Based and Community Initiatives 107.12 76526
Advisory Board to Assist and Advise in the Operation of the Ohio Center for Autism and Low Incidence 3323.33, 3323.34 76527
Advisory Council on Amusement Ride Safety 1711.51, 1711.52 76528
Advisory Council of Directors for Prison Labor 5145.162 76529
Advisory Council for Wild, Scenic, or Recreational River Area(s) 1547.84 76530
Advisory Committee on Livestock Exhibitions 901.71 76531
Agricultural Commodity Marketing Programs Operating Committees 924.07 76532
Agricultural Commodity Marketing Programs Coordinating Committee 924.14 76533
Alternative Energy Advisory Committee 4928.64(D) 76534
AMBER Alert Advisory Committee 5502.521 76535
Apprenticeship Council Chapter 4139. 76536
Armory Board of Control 5911.09, 5911.12 76537
Automated Title Processing Board 4505.09(C)(1) 76538
Backflow Advisory Board 3703.21 76539
Banking Commission 1123.01 76540
Board of Directors of the Great Lakes Protection Fund 1506.22 (6161.04) 76541
Board of Directors of the Medical Liability Underwriting Association Stabilization Fund 3929.631 76542
Board of Directors of the Ohio Appalachian Center for Higher Education 3333.58 76543
Board of Directors of the Ohio Health Reinsurance Program 3924.08 - 3924.11 76544
Board of Governors of the Commercial Insurance Joint Underwriting Association 3930.03 76545
Board of Governors of the Medical Liability Underwriting Association 3929.64 76546
Board of Voting Machines Examiners 3506.05 76547
Budget Planning and Management Commission Section 509.10, H.B. 1, 128th G.A. 76548
Brain Injury Advisory Committee 3304.231 76549
Bureau of Workers' Compensation Board of Directors 4121.12 76550
Capitol Square Review and Advisory Board 105.41 76551
Child Care Advisory Council 5104.08 76552
Child Support Guideline Advisory Council 3119.024 76553
Children's Trust Fund Board 3109.15 - 3109.17 76554
Citizen's Advisory Council 5123.092, 5123.093 76555
Clean Ohio Trail Advisory Board 1519.06 76556
Coastal Resources Advisory Council 1506.12 76557
Commission on African-American Males 4112.12, 4112.13 76558
Commission on Hispanic-Latino Affairs 121.31 76559
Commission on Minority Health 3701.78 76560
Committee on Prescriptive Governance 4723.49 - 4723.492 76561
Commodity Advisory Commission 926.32 76562
Consumer Advisory Committee to the Rehabilitation Services Commission 3304.24 76563
Continuing Education Committee 109.80(B) 76564
Council on Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services 3793.09 76565
Council on Unreclaimed Strip Mined Lands 1513.29 76566
County Sheriff's Standard Car Marking and Uniform Commission 311.25 - 311.27 76567
Credential Review Board 3319.65 76568
Credit Union Council 1733.329 76569
Criminal Sentencing Advisory Committee 181.22 76570
Data Collection and Analysis Group 3727.32 76571
Dentist Loan Repayment Advisory Board 3702.92 76572
Department Advisory Council(s) 107.18, 121.13 76573
Development Financing Advisory Council 122.40, 122.41 76574
Early Childhood Advisory Council 3301.90 76575
Education Commission of the States (Interstate Compact for Education) 3301.48, 3301.49 76576
Education Management Information System Advisory Board 3301.0713 76577
Educator Standards Board 3319.60 76578
Electrical Safety Inspector Advisory Committee 3783.08 76579
Emergency Response Commission 3750.02 76580
Engineering Experiment Station Advisory Committee 3335.27 76581
Environmental Education Council 3745.21 76582
Environmental Protection Agency Advisory Board(s) 121.13, 3704.03, 3745.01 76583
eTech Ohio Commission 3353.02 - 3353.04 76584
Ex-Offender Reentry Coalition 5120.07 76585
Farmland Preservation Advisory Board 901.23 76586
Financial Planning and Supervision Commission(s) for Municipal Corporation, County, or Township 118.05 76587
Financial Planning and Supervision Commission for a school district 3316.05 76588
Forestry Advisory Council 1503.40 76589
Governance Authority for a State University or College 3345.75 76590
Governor's Council on People with Disabilities 3303.41 76591
Governor's Policy Information Working Group Section 313, H.B. 420, 127th G.A. 76592
Governor's Residence Advisory Commission 107.40 76593
Grain Marketing Program Operating Committee 924.20 - 924.30 76594
Great Lakes Commission (Great Lakes Basin Compact) 6161.01 76595
Gubernatorial Transition Committee 107.29, 126.26 76596
Help Me Grow Advisory Council 3701.611 76597
Hemophilia Advisory Subcommittee of the Medically Handicapped Children's Medical Advisory Council 3701.0210 76598
Homeland Security Advisory Council 5502.011(E) 76599
Hospital Measures Advisory Council 3727.31 76600
Housing Trust Fund Advisory Committee 174.06 76601
Industrial Commission Nominating Council 4121.04 76602
Industrial Technology and Enterprise Advisory Council 122.29, 122.30 76603
Infant Hearing Screening Subcommittee 3701.507 76604
Infection Control Group 3727.312(D) 76605
Insurance Agent Education Advisory Council 3905.483 76606
Interstate Rail Passenger Advisory Council 4981.35 76607
Joint Select Committee on Volume Cap 133.021 76608
Labor-Management Government Advisory Council 4121.70 76609
Legislative Programming Committee of the Ohio Government Telecommunications Service 3353.07 76610
Legislative Task Force on Redistricting, Reapportionment, and Demographic Research 103.51 76611
Maternity and Newborn Advisory Council 3711.20, 3711.21 76612
Medically Handicapped Children's Medical Advisory Council 3701.025 76613
Midwest Interstate Passenger Rail Compact Commission 4981.361 76614
Milk Sanitation Board 917.03 - 917.032 76615
Mine Subsidence Insurance Governing Board 3929.51 76616
Minority Development Financing Advisory Board 122.72, 122.73 76617
Multi-Agency Radio Communications System (MARCS) Steering Committee Section 15.02, H.B. 640, 123rd G.A. 76618
National Museum of Afro-American History and Culture Planning Committee 149.303 76619
New African Immigrants Commission 4112.31, 4112.32 76620
Ohio Accountability Task Force 3302.021(E) 76621
Ohio Advisory Council for the Aging 173.03 76622
Ohio Agriculture License Plate Scholarship Fund Board 901.90 76623
Ohio Arts Council Chapter 3379. 76624
Ohio Business Gateway Steering Committee 5703.57 76625
Ohio Cemetery Dispute Resolution Commission 4767.05, 4767.06 76626
Ohio Civil Rights Commission Advisory Agencies and Conciliation Councils 4112.04(B)(4) 76627
Ohio Commercial Market Assistance Plan Executive Committee 3930.02 76628
Ohio Commission on Dispute Resolution and Conflict Management 179.02 - 179.04 76629
Ohio Commission on Fatherhood 5101.34 76630
Ohio Community Service Council 121.40 - 121.404 76631
Ohio Council for Interstate Adult Offender Supervision 5149.22 76632
Ohio Cultural Facilities Commission Chapter 3383. 76633
Ohio Cystic Fibrosis Legislative Task Force 101.38 76634
Ohio Developmental Disabilities Council 5123.35 76635
Ohio Expositions Commission 991.02 76636
Ohio Family and Children First Cabinet Council 121.37 76637
Ohio Geographically Referenced Information Program Council 125.901, 125.902 76638
Ohio Geology Advisory Council 1501.11 76639
Ohio Grape Industries Committee 924.51 - 924.55 76640
Ohio Historic Site Preservation Advisory Board 149.301 76641
Ohio Historical Society Board of Trustees 149.30 76642
Ohio Judicial Conference 105.91 - 105.97 76643
Ohio Lake Erie Commission 1506.21 76644
Ohio Legislative Commission on the Education and Preservation of State History Section 701.05, H.B. 1, 128th G.A. 76645
Ohio Medical Quality Foundation 3701.89 76646
Ohio Parks and Recreation Council 1541.40 76647
Ohio Peace Officer Training Commission 109.71, 109.72 76648
Ohio Private Investigation and Security Services Commission 4749.021, 4743.01 76649
Ohio Public Defender Commission 120.01 - 120.03 76650
Ohio Public Library Information Network Board of Trustees 3375.65, 3375.66 76651
Ohio Quarter Horse Development Commission 3769.086 76652
Ohio Small Government Capital Improvements Commission 164.02(C)(D) 76653
Ohio Soil and Water Conservation Commission 1515.02 76654
Ohio Standardbred Development Commission 3769.085 76655
Ohio Subrogation Rights Commission 2323.44 76656
Ohio Thoroughbred Racing Advisory Committee 3769.084 76657
Ohio Transportation Finance Commission 5531.12(B) to (D) 76658
Ohio Tuition Trust Authority 3334.03, 3334.08 76659
Ohio University College of Osteopathic Medicine Advisory Committee 3337.10, 3337.11 76660
Ohio Vendors Representative Committee 3304.34, 20 USC 107 76661
Ohio War Orphans Scholarship Board 5910.02 - 5910.06 76662
Ohio Water Advisory Council 1521.031 76663
Ohio Water Resources Council Advisory Group 1521.19 76664
Ohio Water Resources Council 1521.19 76665
Oil and Gas Commission 1509.35 76666
Operating Committee of the Oil and Gas Marketing Program 1510.06, 1510.11 76667
Organized Crime Investigations Commission 177.01 76668
Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee of the Department of Job and Family Services 5111.084 76669
Physician Assistant Policy Committee of the State Medical Board 4730.05, 4730.06 76670
Physician Loan Repayment Advisory Board 3702.81 76671
Power Siting Board 4906.02 76672
Prequalification Review Board 5525.07 76673
Private Water Systems Advisory Council 3701.346 76674
Public Health Council 3701.33, 3701.34 76675
Public Utilities Commission Nominating Council 4901.021 76676
Public Utility Property Tax Study Committee 5727.85(K) 76677
Radiation Advisory Council 3748.20 76678
Reclamation Commission 1513.05 76679
Reclamation Forfeiture Fund Advisory Board 1513.182 76680
Recreation and Resources Commission 1501.04 76681
Recycling and Litter Prevention Advisory Council 1502.04 76682
School and Ministerial Lands Divestiture Committee 501.041 76683
Savings and Loan Associations and Savings Banks Board 1181.16 76684
Second Chance Trust Fund Advisory Committee 2108.35 76685
Service Coordination Workgroup Section 751.20, H.B. 1, 128th G.A. 76686
Ski Tramway Board 4169.02 76687
Small Business Stationary Source Technical and Environmental Compliance Assistance Council 3704.19 76688
Solid Waste Management Advisory Council 3734.51 76689
Special Commission to Consider the Suspension of Local Government Officials 3.16 76690
Speed to Scale Task Force Section 375.60.80, H.B. 119, 128th G.A. 76691
State Agency Coordinating Group 1521.19 76692
State Audit Committee 126.46 76693
State Council of Uniform State Laws 105.21 - 105.27 76694
State Criminal Sentencing Commission 181.22 - 181.26 76695
State Fire Council 3737.81 76696
State Library Board 3375.01 76697
State Victims Assistance Advisory Council 109.91(B) and (C) 76698
Statewide Consortium of County Law Library Resource Boards 3375.481 76699
STEM Committee 3326.02 76700
Student Tuition Recovery Authority 3332.081 76701
Sunset Review Committee 101.84 - 101.87 76702
Tax Credit Authority 122.17(M) 76703
Technical Advisory Committee to Assist Director of the Ohio Coal Development Office 1551.35 76704
Technical Advisory Council on Oil and Gas 1509.38 76705
Transportation Review Advisory Council 5512.07 - 5512.09 76706
Unemployment Compensation Advisory Council 4141.08 76707
Unemployment Compensation Review Commission 4141.06 76708
Veterans Advisory Committee 5902.02(K) 76709
Volunteer Fire Fighters' Dependents Fund Boards (private volunteer) 146.02 - 146.06 76710
Volunteer Fire Fighters' Dependents Fund Boards (public) 146.02 - 146.06 76711
Water and Sewer Commission 1525.11(C) 76712
Waterways Safety Council 1547.73 76713
Wildlife Council 1531.03 - 1531.05 76714
Workers' Compensation Board of Directors Nominating Committee 4121.123 76715

       Section 601.51. That existing Section 4 of Sub. S.B. 171 of 76716
the 129th General Assembly is hereby repealed.76717

       Section 610.10. That Section 3 of Am. Sub. S.B. 160 of the 76718
121st General Assembly be amended to read as follows:76719

       Sec. 3. Sections 109.57, 109.572, 2950.08, and 2953.32, and 76720
3701.881 of the Revised Code, as amended by this actAm. Sub. S.B. 76721
160 of the 121st General Assembly regarding employment of persons 76722
who provide direct care to older adults, and sections 173.41,76723
3712.09, 3721.121, and 3722.151 of the Revised Code, as enacted by 76724
this actAm. Sub. S.B. 160 of the 121st General Assembly, apply 76725
only to persons who apply for employment on or after the effective 76726
date of this actJanuary 27, 1997.76727

       Section 610.11. That existing Section 3 of Am. Sub. S.B. 160 76728
of the 121st General Assembly is hereby repealed.76729

       Section 620.10. That Section 3 of Am. Sub. S.B. 38 of the 76730
120th General Assembly be amended to read as follows:76731

       Sec. 3. Sections 3301.54, and 5104.09, and 5126.28 of the 76732
Revised Code, as amended by this actAm. Sub. S.B. 38 of the 120th 76733
General Assembly, and sections 109.572, 2151.86, 3301.32, 76734
3301.541, 3319.3113319.39, 3701.881, 5104.012, 5104.013, and 76735
5153.111 of the Revised Code, as enacted by this actAm. Sub. S.B. 76736
38 of the 120th General Assembly, apply only to persons who apply 76737
for employment for a position on or after the effective date of 76738
this actOctober 29, 1993.76739

       Section 620.11. That existing Section 3 of Am. Sub. S.B. 38 76740
of the 120th General Assembly is hereby repealed.76741

       Section 650.10. That Sections 261.10.10, 261.10.20, 76742
261.10.30, 261.10.50, 261.10.60, 261.10.80, 261.10.90, 261.20.20, 76743
261.20.70, 261.30.50, and 263.10.80 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 76744
129th General Assembly are hereby repealed.76745

       Section 701.10.10. OHIO STATEHOUSE SAFETY AND SECURITY STUDY76746

        The Department of Public Safety shall conduct a study of the 76747
safety and security of the Ohio Statehouse complex. The study 76748
shall include recommendations for improving the security protocols 76749
while providing for the health, safety, and convenience of those 76750
who work in, or visit, the statehouse. The report shall be 76751
submitted to the Capitol Square Review and Advisory Board for 76752
adoption not later than December 1, 2012.76753

       Section 701.20. As used in this section, "political 76754
subdivision" has the meaning defined in section 2744.01 of the 76755
Revised Code.76756

        The Auditor of State shall establish, operate, and maintain 76757
one or more web sites to serve as an online clearinghouse of 76758
information about existing joint purchasing programs between or 76759
among political subdivisions in the state, streamlining government 76760
operations, collaboration, and shared services to reduce the cost 76761
of government in this state. The web site may be developed by the 76762
Auditor of State or through the use of outside vendors. Existing 76763
web sites may be used if their content conforms to the 76764
requirements of this section. In establishing, maintaining, and 76765
operating the online clearinghouse web site, the Auditor of State 76766
shall:76767

        (A) Use a domain name for the web site that will be easily 76768
recognized, remembered, and understood by the users of the web 76769
site;76770

        (B) Maintain the web site so that it is fully accessible to 76771
and searchable by members of the public at all times;76772

        (C) Not charge a fee to a person who accesses, searches, or 76773
otherwise uses the web site;76774

        (D) Compile information provided by political subdivisions 76775
about joint purchasing arrangements they are involved in that the 76776
Auditor of State verifies, through meetings with various statewide 76777
associations and others, to have resulted in verifiable cost 76778
savings, and consolidate that information on the web site in a 76779
consistent manner and compile information provided by political 76780
subdivisions that includes savings recommendations from 76781
performance audits, examples of shared services among communities, 76782
shared services agreements to use as templates, and other tools 76783
developed independently by the Auditor of State or requested by 76784
political subdivisions and agreed to by the Auditor of State;76785

        (E) Enable political subdivisions to register and request 76786
inclusion of their submitted information on the web site, as well 76787
as to report state and local barriers to collaboration;76788

        (F) Enable information to be accessed by key word, by program 76789
name, by county, by type of product or service, and by other 76790
useful identifiers;76791

        (G) Maintain adequate systemic security and back-up features, 76792
and develop and maintain a contingency plan for coping with and 76793
recovering from power outages, systemic failures, and other 76794
unforeseen difficulties; and76795

        (H) Maintain the web site in such a manner that it will not 76796
infringe legally protected interests, so that vulnerability of the 76797
web site to interruption because of litigation or the threat of 76798
litigation is reduced.76799

       The Auditor of State shall bear the expense of establishing, 76800
operating, and maintaining the online clearinghouse web site.76801

       Section 701.41. The Department of Administrative Services 76802
shall analyze opportunities to reduce travel expenses through 76803
teleconferencing and web conferencing within state government. The 76804
Department shall assess current teleconferencing capabilities 76805
within state government operations, research industry standards 76806
and best practices, and make recommendations that will optimize 76807
the use of these technologies. Not later than December 31, 2012, 76808
the Department of Administrative Services shall produce a report 76809
with its findings and shall deliver the report to the Speaker and 76810
Minority Leader of the House of Representatives, the President and 76811
Minority Leader of the Senate, and the Governor.76812

       Section 701.50. MARCS STEERING COMMITTEE AND STATEWIDE 76813
COMMUNICATIONS SYSTEM76814

       There is hereby created a Multi-Agency Radio Communications 76815
System (MARCS) Steering Committee consisting of the designees of 76816
the Directors of Administrative Services, Public Safety, Natural 76817
Resources, Transportation, Rehabilitation and Correction, and 76818
Budget and Management, and the State Fire Marshal or the State 76819
Fire Marshal's designee. The Director of Administrative Services 76820
or the Director's designee shall chair the Committee. The 76821
Committee shall provide assistance to the Director of 76822
Administrative Services for effective and efficient implementation 76823
of the MARCS system as well as develop policies for the ongoing 76824
management of the system. Upon dates prescribed by the Directors 76825
of Administrative Services and Budget and Management, the MARCS 76826
Steering Committee shall report to the Directors on the progress 76827
of MARCS implementation and the development of policies related to 76828
the system.76829

       Section 701.60. As used in this section, "business day" means 76830
a day of the week, excluding Saturday, Sunday, or a legal holiday 76831
as defined in section 1.14 of the Revised Code.76832

       Any regional council of governments that was formed and is 76833
operating before the effective date of the amendment by this act 76834
of section 167.04 of the Revised Code shall notify the Auditor of 76835
State of its existence within 30 business days after the effective 76836
date of that amendment, and shall provide on a form prescribed by 76837
the Auditor of State the information required under that section. 76838
The Auditor of State shall review the information and, within one 76839
year after the effective date of that amendment, shall issue a 76840
report to the Governor and the General Assembly. The report shall 76841
address how many regional councils of governments are operating 76842
under Chapter 167. of the Revised Code, whether those regional 76843
councils continue to meet the objectives for which regional 76844
councils were first authorized in 1967, and whether regional 76845
councils are an efficient and effective way for local governments 76846
to share services or to participate in cooperative arrangements.76847

       Section 701.70.10. (A) The construction and energy operations 76848
of the Office of the State Architect and Engineer (OSAE) under 76849
Chapters 123. and 153. are transferred and consolidated into the 76850
construction and capital funding operations of the Ohio Facilities 76851
Construction Commission (OFCC). And the Ohio School Facilities 76852
Commission (OSFC) becomes an independent agency within the Ohio 76853
Facilities Construction Commission. Notwithstanding Chapter 153. 76854
of the Revised Code, the OFCC is thereupon and thereafter 76855
successor to, assumes the power and obligations of, and otherwise 76856
constitutes the continuation of the construction and energy 76857
operations and related management functions of the OSAE as 76858
provided in the applicable sections of Chapter 153. of the Revised 76859
Code or in any agreements relating to capital expenditures for 76860
construction operations functions to which the OSAE is a party. 76861
All statutory references to the OSAE are deemed to be references 76862
to the OFCC.76863

       (B) Any activities relating to the operations and related 76864
management functions commenced but not completed by the OSAE shall 76865
be completed by the OFCC in the same manner and with the same 76866
effect as if completed by the OSAE. No validation, cure, right, 76867
privilege, remedy, obligation, or liability is lost or impaired by 76868
reason of the consolidation, and shall be administered by the 76869
OFCC. All rules, orders, and determinations related to design, 76870
planning, and construction and energy operations and related 76871
management functions of the OSAE continue in effect as rules, 76872
orders, and determinations of the OFCC, until modified or 76873
rescinded by the OFCC. The Director of the Legislative Service 76874
Commission shall renumber the OSAE rules related to the design, 76875
planning, and construction and energy operations and related 76876
management functions to reflect their transfer to the OFCC. 76877

        (C) To the extent possible, all employees of the OSAE shall 76878
be transferred to the OFCC, as the OFCC determines to be necessary 76879
for the successful implementation of this section. All employees 76880
of the OSFC shall remain in their current classifications unless 76881
the OFCC determines otherwise.76882

       (D) No judicial or administrative action or proceeding, to 76883
which the OSAE or an authorized officer of either is a party, that 76884
is pending on the effective date of this section, or on such later 76885
date as may be established by an authorized officer of the OFCC 76886
and that is related to its construction, capital funding, or 76887
energy operation or related management functions, is affected by 76888
the transfer and consolidation of functions. Any such action or 76889
proceeding shall be prosecuted or defended in the name of the 76890
OFCC. On application to the court or agency, the OFCC shall be 76891
substituted for the OSAE or an authorized officer of either as a 76892
party to the action or proceeding.76893

       (E) Notwithstanding any provision of the law to the contrary, 76894
and not sooner than 90 days after the effective date of this 76895
section, and if requested by the OFCC, the Director of Budget and 76896
Management shall make budget changes made necessary by the 76897
transfer, if any, including administrative organization, program 76898
transfers, the creation of new funds, the transfer of state funds, 76899
and the consolidation of funds, as authorized by this section. The 76900
Director of Budget and Management may, if necessary, establish 76901
encumbrances or parts of encumbrances created in fiscal years 2012 76902
and 2013 in the appropriate fund and appropriation item for the 76903
same purpose and for payment to the same vendor in fiscal year 76904
2013. The established encumbrances plus any additional amounts 76905
determined to be necessary for the OFCC to perform the 76906
construction, energy, and capital funding operation and related 76907
management functions of the OSAE are hereby appropriated.76908

       (F) Not later than 30 days after the transfer and 76909
consolidation of the construction, energy, and capital funding 76910
operations and related management functions of the OSAE to the 76911
OFCC, an authorized officer of the OSAE shall certify to the OFCC 76912
the unexpended balance and location of any funds and accounts 76913
designated for building and facility operation and management 76914
functions, and the custody of such funds and accounts shall be 76915
transferred to the OFCC.76916

       (G) The OFCC and the Department of Natural Resources (DNR) 76917
shall cooperate in a study to determine which operation functions, 76918
if any, of the DNR Division of Engineering should be integrated 76919
and consolidated into the OFCC. The study shall be completed not 76920
later than December 31, 2012.76921

       Section 701.70.20. The Division of Labor in the Department of 76922
Commerce is hereby renamed the Division of Industrial Compliance 76923
on the effective date of section 121.04 of the Revised Code, as 76924
amended by this act. The Division and the Superintendent of 76925
Industrial Compliance shall have and perform all the duties, 76926
powers, and obligations of the Division and Superintendent of 76927
Labor. All rules, actions, determinations, commitments, 76928
resolutions, decisions, and agreements pertaining to the duties, 76929
powers, obligations, functions, and rights of the Division or 76930
Superintendent of Labor, in force or in effect on the effective 76931
date of section 121.04 of the Revised Code, as amended by this 76932
act, shall continue in force and effect and apply to the Division 76933
or Superintendent of Industrial Compliance as applicable and 76934
subject to any further lawful action thereon by the Division or 76935
Superintendent of Industrial Compliance. Wherever the 76936
Superintendent of Labor or Division of Labor are referred to in 76937
any provision of law, or in any agreement or document that 76938
pertains to those duties, powers, obligations, functions, and 76939
rights, the reference is to the Superintendent of Industrial 76940
Compliance or Division of Industrial Compliance, as appropriate.76941

       All authorized obligations and supplements thereto of the 76942
Superintendent and Division of Labor are binding on the 76943
Superintendent or Division of Industrial Compliance and nothing in 76944
this act impairs those obligations or rights or the obligations or 76945
rights under any contract. The renaming of the Division of Labor 76946
and Superintendent of Labor does not affect the validity of 76947
agreements or obligations made by that superintendent or division 76948
pursuant to Chapters 121., 3703., 3781., 3791., 4104., 4105., and 76949
4740. of the Revised Code or any other provisions of law.76950

       In connection with the renaming of the Division of Labor, all 76951
real property and interest therein, documents, books, money, 76952
papers, records, machinery, furnishings, office equipment, 76953
furniture, and all other property over which the Superintendent 76954
and Division of Labor have control and the rights of the 76955
Superintendent and Division of Labor to enforce or receive any of 76956
those is automatically transferred to the Superintendent and 76957
Division of Industrial Compliance without necessity for further 76958
action on the part of the Superintendent or Division of Industrial 76959
Compliance, or the Director of Commerce. Additionally, all 76960
appropriations or reappropriations made to the Superintendent and 76961
Division of Labor for the purposes of the performance of their 76962
duties, powers, and obligations, are transferred to the 76963
Superintendent and Division of Industrial Compliance to the extent 76964
of the remaining unexpended or unencumbered balance thereof, 76965
whether allocated or unallocated, and whether obligated or 76966
unobligated.76967

       Section 701.80.  There is hereby created the Compressed 76968
Natural Gas Study Committee to examine the use of compressed 76969
natural gas in the motor vehicle fleets of the state and political 76970
subdivisions. The Committee shall consist of the following seven 76971
members: two members of the Ohio Senate appointed by the President 76972
of the Senate, both of whom shall be of different political 76973
parties; two members of the Ohio House of Representatives 76974
appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives, both of 76975
whom shall be of different political parties; one person appointed 76976
by the Governor who is an Ohio resident and has knowledge of or 76977
experience in the use of alternative motor vehicle fuels; the 76978
Director of Administrative Services or the Director's designee; 76979
and the Director of Transportation, or the Director's designee. 76980
The initial appointments to the Committee shall be made not later 76981
than thirty days after the effective date of this section. If a 76982
member of the Committee who is a member of the Ohio Senate or Ohio 76983
House of Representatives ceases to be a member of the Ohio Senate 76984
or Ohio House of Representatives, that person shall cease to be a 76985
member of the Committee. A vacancy on the Committee shall be 76986
filled in the same manner as the original appointment.76987

       The Committee shall select from among its members a 76988
chairperson, a vice-chairperson, and a secretary. Members of the 76989
Committee shall serve without compensation but shall be reimbursed 76990
for their actual and necessary expenses incurred in the 76991
performance of their duties.76992

       The Committee shall examine the feasibility, budgetary 76993
effect, and return on investment from the use of compressed 76994
natural gas in the motor vehicle fleets of the state and political 76995
subdivisions, including transit fleets operated under Chapter 306. 76996
of the Revised Code. In examining the potential return on 76997
investment, the Committee shall consider the impact of converting 76998
all or part of the different motor vehicle fleets over a period of 76999
two to four years and shall develop various proposals for funding 77000
the conversion of the motor vehicle fleets. The Committee shall 77001
utilize any information collected by the Department of 77002
Administrative Services as part of its fleet management and 77003
requirements concerning use of alternative fuels under sections 77004
125.83 to 125.838 of the Revised Code. The Committee may conduct 77005
public hearings and may hire such consultants or experts and other 77006
persons as the Committee considers necessary to allow the 77007
Committee to fulfill its duties under this act.77008

       Not later than six months after the last initial appointment 77009
is made to the Committee, the Committee shall issue a report on 77010
its findings and recommendations on using compressed natural gas 77011
to fuel the motor vehicle fleets of the state and political 77012
subdivisions, including any recommendation for funding the 77013
conversion to compressed natural gas. The Committee shall furnish 77014
copies of its report to the Governor, the Ohio Senate, and the 77015
Ohio House of Representatives. Upon issuing its report, the 77016
Committee shall cease to exist.77017

       As used in this section, "political subdivision" means a 77018
county, township, municipal corporation, or any other body 77019
corporate and politic that is responsible for government 77020
activities in a geographic area smaller than that of the state.77021

       Section 701.90. (A) As used in this section:77022

       (1) "Eligible business" means a for-profit business 77023
association that has at least six employees but not more than 77024
ninety-nine employees and that has maintained its principal place 77025
of business in the state for at least a two-year period ending on 77026
the date the business applies for assistance under this section. 77027
The business must generate at least seven hundred fifty thousand 77028
dollars but not more than twenty-five million dollars in annual 77029
revenue and must have increased both its number of full-time 77030
equivalent employees in this state and its gross revenue during at 77031
least three of the five years preceding the date of application. 77032

       (2) "Full-time equivalent employee" means the quotient 77033
obtained by dividing the total number of hours for which an 77034
eligible business employs employees during a year by two thousand 77035
eighty.77036

       (B) There is hereby created in the department of development 77037
the economic gardening technical assistance pilot program. The 77038
director of development may contract or coordinate with one or 77039
more persons to aid in the administration and operation of the 77040
program.77041

       The director shall provide technical assistance to eligible 77042
businesses, including, but not limited to, access to information 77043
and market intelligence services, including information on 77044
markets, customers, and competitors, such as business databases, 77045
geographic information systems, search engine marketing, and 77046
business connection development encouraging interaction and 77047
exchange among business owners and resource providers such as 77048
trade associations, academic institutions, business advocacy 77049
organizations, peer-based learning sessions, and mentoring 77050
programs. The director, through the program, is authorized to 77051
promote the general business and industrial interests of the 77052
state.77053

       (C)(1) The director, in selecting eligible businesses to 77054
assist, shall select businesses in more than one industry 77055
classification and, to the extent practicable, shall choose 77056
businesses that are geographically distributed throughout the 77057
state. 77058

       (2) A business receiving assistance under the program must 77059
enter into an agreement with the director to establish the 77060
business's commitment to participate in the program. The agreement 77061
must require, at a minimum, that the business do all of the 77062
following:77063

       (a) Attend the number of meetings between the business and 77064
the director or another person designated by the director as 77065
prescribed in the agreement;77066

       (b) Report job creation data in the manner prescribed by the 77067
director;77068

       (c) Provide financial data in the manner prescribed by the 77069
director.77070

       The director may prescribe in the agreement additional 77071
reporting requirements as are necessary to document the progress 77072
of the business and monitor the business's implementation of the 77073
assistance.77074

       (D) On or before one year after the effective date of the 77075
enactment of this section by Sub. H.B. 487 of the 129th General 77076
Assembly, the director of development shall make available on the 77077
department of development's web site a report that includes, at a 77078
minimum, the number of businesses receiving assistance under this 77079
section, the number of full-time equivalent employees created as a 77080
result of the assistance, the total amount of compensation paid to 77081
such employees, and the locations and types of business conducted 77082
by the businesses. The report shall also evaluate the 77083
effectiveness of the economic gardening technical assistance pilot 77084
program and recommend any changes to be made to the program. The 77085
report shall be submitted to the governor, the speaker and 77086
minority leader of the house of representatives, and the majority 77087
leader and minority leader of the senate.77088

       (E) The director of development shall adopt rules in 77089
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that are 77090
necessary for the administration of the economic gardening 77091
technical assistance pilot program.77092

       Section 701.91. Section 701.90 of this act is hereby 77093
repealed, effective two years after the effective date of that 77094
section.77095

       Section 701.100. Notwithstanding section 131.44 of the 77096
Revised Code, no transfer from the General Revenue Fund to the 77097
Budget Stabilization Fund based on the surplus revenue that 77098
existed on June 30, 2012, shall be made without the prior approval 77099
of the General Assembly.77100

       Section 707.10. For fiscal years 2013 and 2014, the 77101
legislative authority of a municipal corporation in a county, with 77102
a population between three hundred seventy-five thousand and four 77103
hundred thousand according to the most recent federal decennial 77104
census, may conduct a pilot program whereby the legislative 77105
authority may use up to five per cent of the aggregate amount of 77106
money deposited in the municipal corporation's sewer fund and up 77107
to five per cent of the aggregate amount of money deposited in a 77108
fund created by the municipal corporation for water-works for the 77109
purpose of extending the municipal corporation's water or sewerage 77110
system, as applicable, if both of the following apply:77111

        (A) The water or sewerage system is being extended to areas 77112
for economic development purposes.77113

        (B) The areas into which the water or sewerage system is 77114
being extended are the subject of a cooperative economic 77115
development agreement entered into by the municipal corporation 77116
under section 701.07 of the Revised Code.77117

        With regard to either fund, the legislative authority shall 77118
not exceed the five per cent limit established in this section.77119

       Section 733.05.  Not later than ninety days after the 77120
effective date of this section, the Ohio Board of Regents shall 77121
complete a review of each entity that held the Department of 77122
Insurance's designation under section 3305.03 of the Revised Code 77123
immediately prior to the effective date of this act. In conducting 77124
the review, the Board shall comply with the applicable 77125
requirements of sections 3305.03 and 3305.031 of the Revised Code, 77126
as amended and enacted by this act.77127

       Section 733.10. (A) This section applies to a state 77128
university, as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, 77129
that has a main campus subsidy-eligible undergraduate enrollment 77130
of more than 17,000 but less than 22,000 students for fiscal year 77131
2012.77132

       (B) Notwithstanding section 3313.41 of the Revised Code, when 77133
a school district board of education decides to dispose of real 77134
property that the board owns in its corporate capacity, exceeds in 77135
value ten thousand dollars, and is located within one hundred 77136
yards of any classroom or administrative building on the main 77137
campus of the state university as described in division (A) of 77138
this section, prior to offering that property for sale under 77139
divisions (A) to (G) of section 3313.41 of the Revised Code, the 77140
board may offer that property to the board of trustees of the 77141
state university in either or both of the following manners:77142

        (1) In an "as is" condition in return for an agreement 77143
between the board of trustees and the school district board, under 77144
which the university will provide the school district with in-kind 77145
services, educational programs, or other assistance valued in the 77146
aggregate in an amount reasonably related to the appraised fair 77147
market value of the property;77148

        (2) For sale for money at a price that is not higher than the 77149
appraised fair market value of that property.77150

        (C) If the board of trustees does not accept either offer, or 77151
if the agreement is not entered into between the school district 77152
board and the board of trustees, within sixty days after the offer 77153
is made by the district board, the district board then shall offer 77154
the property for sale as provided in division (G) of section 77155
3313.41 of the Revised Code.77156

       (D) This section expires on December 31, 2012.77157

       Section 737.10.  ABOLISHMENT OF THE PUBLIC HEALTH COUNCIL77158

       On the effective date of this section, the Public Health 77159
Council is abolished and the responsibilities of the Public Health 77160
Council are transferred to the Director of Health.77161

        Any business before the Public Health Council commenced but 77162
not completed before the effective date of this section shall be 77163
completed by the Director of Health. The business shall be 77164
completed in the same manner, and with the same effect, as if 77165
completed by the Director of Health immediately prior to the 77166
effective date of this section.77167

        No validation, cure, right, privilege, remedy, obligation, or 77168
liability is lost or impaired by reason of this act's abolishment 77169
of the Public Health Council and transfer of responsibility to the 77170
Director of Health. Each such validation, cure, right, privilege, 77171
remedy, obligation, or liability shall be administered by the 77172
Director of Health.77173

       All rules, orders, and determinations of the Public Health 77174
Council adopted or made immediately prior to the effective date of 77175
this section shall continue in effect as rules, orders, and 77176
determinations of the Director of Health until modified or 77177
rescinded by the Director of Health. If necessary to ensure the 77178
integrity of the numbering system of the Administrative Code, the 77179
Director of the Legislative Service Commission shall renumber the 77180
rules to reflect the transfer of the Public Health Council's 77181
responsibilities to the Director of Health.77182

        Any action or proceeding that is related to the functions or 77183
duties of the Public Health Council pending on the effective date 77184
of this section is not affected by the transfer and shall be 77185
prosecuted or defended in the name of the Director of Health. In 77186
all such actions and proceedings, the Director of Health, on 77187
application to the court, shall be substituted as a party.77188

       Section 737.20. (A) On the effective date of the amendment of 77189
the statutes governing the Division of Recycling and Litter 77190
Prevention in the Department of Natural Resources by this act or 77191
on July 1, 2012, whichever is later, the Division of Recycling and 77192
Litter Prevention is abolished, and all of its functions, together 77193
with its assets and liabilities, are transferred from within the 77194
Department of Natural Resources to within the Environmental 77195
Protection Agency.77196

       (B) Any business commenced but not completed by the Division 77197
of Recycling and Litter Prevention in the Department of Natural 77198
Resources on the effective date of the transfer shall be completed 77199
by the Environmental Protection Agency. Any validation, cure, 77200
right, privilege, remedy, obligation, or liability is not lost or 77201
impaired solely by reason of the transfer required by this section 77202
and shall be administered by the Environmental Protection Agency 77203
in accordance with this act.77204

       (C) All of the rules, orders, and determinations of the 77205
Division of Recycling and Litter Prevention in the Department of 77206
Natural Resources or of the Department of Natural Resources in 77207
relation to that Division continue in effect as rules, orders, and 77208
determinations of the Environmental Protection Agency until 77209
modified or rescinded by the Environmental Protection Agency. If 77210
necessary to ensure the integrity of the numbering of the 77211
Administrative Code, the Director of the Legislative Service 77212
Commission shall renumber rules of the Department of Natural 77213
Resources in relation to the former Division of Recycling and 77214
Litter Prevention in that Department to reflect the transfer to 77215
the Environmental Protection Agency.77216

       (D) Subject to the provisions of the applicable bargaining 77217
unit agreements, all of the positions of the Division of Recycling 77218
and Litter Prevention in the Department of Natural Resources are 77219
transferred to the Environmental Protection Agency. Employees who 77220
transfer with the positions shall retain their same or 77221
substantially similar positions and all the benefits accruing 77222
thereto. Upon completion of the transfer, the employees shall be 77223
subject to the policies and procedures of the Environmental 77224
Protection Agency.77225

       (E) Whenever the Division of Recycling and Litter Prevention 77226
in the Department of Natural Resources or the Chief of the 77227
Division of Recycling and Litter Prevention is referred to in any 77228
law, contract, or other document, the reference shall be deemed to 77229
refer to the Environmental Protection Agency or to the Director of 77230
Environmental Protection, whichever is appropriate in context.77231

       (F) Any action or proceeding pending on the effective date of 77232
the amendment of the statutes governing the Division of Recycling 77233
and Litter Prevention by this act is not affected by the transfer 77234
of the functions of that Division by this act and shall be 77235
prosecuted or defended in the name of the Environmental Protection 77236
Agency. In all such actions and proceedings, the Environmental 77237
Protection Agency, upon application to the court, shall be 77238
substituted as a party.77239

       Section 737.30. The Recycling and Litter Prevention Advisory 77240
Council created within the Environmental Protection Agency by 77241
section 3736.04 of the Revised Code, as amended and renumbered by 77242
this act, is a continuation of the Recycling and Litter Prevention 77243
Advisory Council created within the Division of Recycling and 77244
Litter Prevention in the Department of Natural Resources by 77245
section 1502.04 of the Revised Code prior to its amendment and 77246
renumbering by this act.77247

       Section 737.40. (A) As used in this section:77248

        (1) "Food service operation," "retail food establishment," 77249
and "vending machine location" have the same meanings as in 77250
section 3717.01 of the Revised Code.77251

        (2) "Micro market" means an area or room that has displays of 77252
not more than two hundred fifty linear feet that offer either of 77253
the following:77254

        (a) Prepackaged foods that are not time- or 77255
temperature-controlled for food safety purposes;77256

        (b) Prepackaged foods that are refrigerated or frozen and 77257
time- or temperature-controlled for food safety purposes and that 77258
are stored in equipment that complies with Chapter 3717-1 of the 77259
Administrative Code.77260

        (B) Until the Director of Agriculture adopts rules under 77261
section 3717.04 of the Revised Code governing the licensure of 77262
micro markets, the operation of a micro market is exempt from the 77263
licensure requirements for retail food establishments, food 77264
service operations, and vending machine locations established 77265
under Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code. This division applies to 77266
a micro market that was previously exempted under division (B)(5) 77267
of section 3717.22 of the Revised Code by the Director from being 77268
licensed as a retail food establishment.77269

        (C) Not later than sixty days following the adoption of rules 77270
by the Director under section 3717.04 of the Revised Code 77271
governing the licensure of micro markets, the operator of a micro 77272
market shall apply for a license in accordance with those rules.77273

       Section 737.50. Not later than 30 days after the amendment by 77274
this act of section 3791.11 of the Revised Code takes effect, the 77275
Treasurer of State shall give written notice to each property 77276
owner or lessee who, under former division (D) of that section, 77277
deposited money or a surety or government-issued bond with the 77278
Treasurer of State that the money will be refunded or the bond 77279
will be released within the following time period, and that the 77280
property owner or lessee must file a bond in the manner required 77281
by division (C) of section 3791.11 of the Revised Code immediately 77282
after the refund or release:77283

        (A) If money was deposited, the Treasurer of State will 77284
refund the money to the property owner or lessee within 180 days 77285
after the effective date of section 3791.11 of the Revised Code, 77286
as amended by this act;77287

        (B) If a surety bond was deposited, the Treasurer of State 77288
will release the bond to the property owner or lessee upon the 77289
earlier of the expiration of the bond or within two years after 77290
the effective date of section 3791.11 of the Revised Code, as 77291
amended by this act;77292

        (C) If a government-issued bond was deposited, the Treasurer 77293
of State will release the bond to the property owner or lessee 77294
within 180 days after the effective date of section 3791.11 of the 77295
Revised Code, as amended by this act.77296

       Section 737.60. LUPUS EDUCATION AND AWARENESS PROGRAM77297

       (A) In establishing the Lupus Education and Awareness Program 77298
under sections 3701.77 to 3701.775 of the Revised Code, as enacted 77299
by this act, the General Assembly hereby finds the following:77300

       (1) Lupus is a serious, complex, and debilitating autoimmune 77301
disease that can cause inflammation and tissue damage to virtually 77302
any organ system in the body, including the skin, joints, other 77303
connective tissue, blood and blood vessels, heart, lungs, kidneys, 77304
and brain.77305

       (2) The Lupus Foundation of America, Inc., estimates that 77306
approximately 1.5 to 2 million Americans live with lupus.77307

       (3) According to the Centers for Disease Control and 77308
Prevention, the rate of lupus mortality has increased since the 77309
late 1970s.77310

       (4) The pain and fatigue associated with lupus can threaten 77311
the ability to live independently, maintain employment, and lead a 77312
normal life. One in five individuals with lupus is disabled by the 77313
disease, and consequently receives support from government 77314
programs, including Medicare, Medicaid, Social Security 77315
Disability, and Social Security Supplemental Income.77316

       (5) The estimated average annual cost of medical treatment 77317
for an individual with lupus is between $10,000 and $30,000; for 77318
individuals who have the most serious form of lupus, medical costs 77319
can greatly exceed this amount, causing a significant economic, 77320
emotional, and social burden to the entire family and society.77321

       (6) More than half of individuals with lupus suffer four or 77322
more years and visit three or more physicians before obtaining a 77323
diagnosis of lupus; early diagnosis of and treatment for lupus can 77324
prevent or reduce serious organ damage, disability, and death.77325

       (7) Despite the magnitude of lupus and its impact on 77326
individuals and families, health professional and public 77327
understanding of lupus remains low; only one in five Americans can 77328
provide basic information about lupus, and awareness of lupus is 77329
lowest among adults 18 to 34 years of age - the age group most 77330
likely to develop lupus.77331

       (8) Lupus is a significant national health issue that 77332
deserves a comprehensive and coordinated response by state and 77333
federal governments with involvement of the health care provider, 77334
patient, and public health communities.77335

       (B) The purpose of sections 3701.77 to 3701.775 of the 77336
Revised Code, as enacted by this act, is to create a 77337
multi-pronged, statewide program to promote public and health 77338
professional awareness and increase knowledge concerning the 77339
causes and consequences of lupus, the importance of early 77340
diagnosis and appropriate management, and effective treatment and 77341
management strategies by all of the following:77342

       (1) Conducting educational and training programs for health 77343
professionals on lupus diagnosis and management;77344

       (2) Developing and disseminating educational materials and 77345
information to patients and health professionals on lupus research 77346
results and health care services available;77347

       (3) Designing and implementing a statewide public education 77348
campaign aimed at heightening public awareness of lupus;77349

       (4) Leveraging educational and training resources and 77350
services previously developed by organizations with appropriate 77351
expertise and knowledge of lupus.77352

       Section 737.70. PILOT PROGRAM FOR OPIOID- AND 77353
ALCOHOL-DEPENDENT OFFENDERS77354

       (A) The Department of Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services 77355
shall conduct a pilot program to provide to certain 77356
opioid-dependent, alcohol-dependent, or opioid- and 77357
alcohol-dependent offenders within the criminal justice system 77358
treatment to prevent relapse into dependency, including 77359
medication-assisted treatment. The medication-assisted treatment 77360
shall be provided by using one or more drugs that constitute 77361
long-acting antagonist therapy and meet all of the following 77362
conditions:77363

       (1) There is no potential for abuse of the drugs by the 77364
person to whom they are given or through diversion of the drugs to 77365
others.77366

        (2) There is no potential for a person to become addicted to 77367
or otherwise dependent on the drugs.77368

        (3) The drugs have been approved by the United States Food 77369
and Drug Administration to prevent relapse into opioid dependency, 77370
alcohol dependency, or opioid and alcohol dependency.77371

        (B) The Department shall conduct the program in Franklin 77372
County and Scioto County and may conduct the program in any one or 77373
more other counties the Department selects. In conducting the 77374
program, the Department shall collaborate with the boards of 77375
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services that serve the 77376
counties included in the program. The Department also shall 77377
collaborate with the Departments of Mental Health, Job and Family 77378
Services, and Health and with any other state agency that the 77379
Department determines may be of assistance in accomplishing the 77380
objectives of the program.77381

        (C) The program shall serve not more than one hundred fifty 77382
opioid-dependent or alcohol-dependent offenders selected by the 77383
Department, each of whom meets all of the following criteria:77384

       (1) Is either being released from a community-based 77385
correctional facility or being diverted from prosecution under 77386
section 2935.36 of the Revised Code by a county drug court or 77387
municipal court;77388

        (2) Is transitioning to community-based programs as 77389
prescribed by the court;77390

        (3) Was opioid dependent, alcohol dependent, or opioid and 77391
alcohol dependent at the time of committing the offense for which 77392
the offender was most recently sentenced;77393

       (4) Resides in this state and in the offender's own 77394
court-approved residence or court-approved transitional housing.77395

        (D) A program participant shall do both of the following:77396

        (1) Commit to participate in the program for twelve months 77397
and comply with all requirements established by the program, 77398
sentencing court, and treatment providers, including testing, 77399
counseling, medication therapies, and reporting requirements;77400

        (2) Attend any on-site programming specified by the 77401
sentencing court or treatment provider.77402

        (E) Treatment under the program shall be provided by an 77403
alcohol and drug addiction program certified by the Department 77404
under section 3793.06 of the Revised Code. Treatment shall be 77405
based on an integrated service delivery model. The treatment 77406
provider shall do all of the following:77407

        (1) Conduct a professional, comprehensive substance abuse and 77408
mental health diagnostic assessment of each person who is a 77409
potential program participant to determine whether the person is 77410
opioid dependent, alcohol dependent, or opioid and alcohol 77411
dependent and would benefit from substance abuse treatment and 77412
monitoring to address the dependency;77413

        (2) Determine treatment needs for each program participant 77414
based on the diagnostic assessment;77415

        (3) Develop individualized goals and objectives for each 77416
program participant that follow guidelines provided by the 77417
Department;77418

        (4) Provide initial treatment to each program participant by 77419
persons professionally qualified to provide substance abuse 77420
counseling or treatment;77421

        (5) Provide substance abuse and co-occurring disorder 77422
treatment that includes psychosocial therapies and monthly 77423
medication-assisted treatment;77424

        (6) Provide access to long-acting antagonist therapies to the 77425
same extent that access may be provided to any other 77426
medication-assisted treatment approved by the United States Food 77427
and Drug Administration;77428

        (7) Monitor program compliance through regular urinalysis 77429
drug testing.77430

        (F) Not later than three months after the program has ended, 77431
Kent State University shall prepare a report of the findings 77432
obtained from the program, along with its recommendations, if any. 77433
The University shall include in the report data derived from the 77434
drug testing performed under the program. In preparing the report, 77435
the University shall obtain assistance from the Department of 77436
Alcohol and Drug Addition Services. When the report is complete, 77437
the University shall submit the report to the Governor; President 77438
of the Senate; Speaker of the House of Representatives; 77439
Departments of Mental Health, Job and Family Services, and Health; 77440
and any other agency the Department collaborates with in 77441
conducting the program.77442

       Section 747.10.10.  (A) The Manufactured Homes Commission 77443
shall adopt the rules required by section 4781.26 of the Revised 77444
Code as amended by this act not later than December 1, 2012. After 77445
adopting the rules, the Commission immediately shall notify the 77446
Director of Health.77447

       (B)(1) The rules governing manufactured home parks adopted by 77448
the Public Health Council under former section 3733.02 of the 77449
Revised Code shall remain in effect in a health district until the 77450
Commission adopts rules under section 4781.26 of the Revised Code 77451
as amended by this act.77452

       (2) On the effective date of the rules adopted by the 77453
Commission as required by section 4781.26 of the Revised Code as 77454
amended by this act, the Public Health Council rules adopted under 77455
former section 3733.02 of the Revised Code cease to be effective 77456
within the jurisdiction of that board of health.77457

       (C) No board of health of a city or general health district 77458
shall invoice or collect manufactured home park licensing fees for 77459
calendar year 2013.77460

       (D) As used in this section:77461

       (1) "Manufactured home park," "board of health," and "health 77462
district" have the same meanings as in section 4781.01 of the 77463
Revised Code, as amended by this act.77464

       (2) "Public Health Council" means the Public Health Council 77465
created by section 3701.33 of the Revised Code.77466

       Section 747.10.20.  Any manufactured home park license and 77467
inspection fees collected pursuant to former section 3733.04 of 77468
the Revised Code by a board of health prior to the transition of 77469
the annual license and inspection program to the Manufactured 77470
Homes Commission as required under this act in the amount of two 77471
thousand dollars or less may be transferred to the health fund of 77472
the city or general health district. Any of those funds in excess 77473
of two thousand dollars shall be transferred to the Manufactured 77474
Homes Commission Regulatory Fund created in section 4781.54 of the 77475
Revised Code as enacted by this act.77476

       Section 747.10.30.  Notwithstanding the original term of the 77477
appointment, the term of the Manufactured Homes Commission member 77478
who was appointed by the Governor as a representative of the 77479
Department of Health pursuant to division (B)(2)(b) of section 77480
4781.02 of the Revised Code shall end on the effective date of 77481
that section as amended by this act. The initial term of the 77482
registered sanitarian appointed to the Manufactured Homes 77483
Commission pursuant to section 4781.02 of the Revised Code, as 77484
amended by this act, shall expire on the date when the 77485
representative of the Department of Health's term would have 77486
expired, but for this section.77487

       Section 747.20.10. On the effective date of the amendments 77488
made to section 4765.02 of the Revised Code by this act, the 77489
member of the renamed State Board of Emergency Medical, Fire, and 77490
Transportation Services who is an administrator of an adult or 77491
pediatric trauma center shall cease to be a member of the Board. 77492
On the effective date of the amendments made to section 4765.02 of 77493
the Revised Code by this act, the member of the renamed State 77494
Board of Emergency Medical, Fire, and Transportation Services who 77495
is a member of the Ohio Ambulance Association shall cease to be a 77496
member of the Board. On the effective date of the amendments made 77497
to section 4765.02 of the Revised Code by this act, the member of 77498
the renamed State Board of Emergency Medical, Fire, and 77499
Transportation Services who is a physician certified by the 77500
American board of surgery, American board of osteopathic surgery, 77501
American osteopathic board of emergency medicine, or American 77502
board of emergency medicine, is chief medical officer of an air 77503
medical agency, and is currently active in providing emergency 77504
medical services shall cease to be a member of the Board. On the 77505
effective date of the amendments made to section 4765.02 of the 77506
Revised Code by this act, of the members of the renamed State 77507
Board of Emergency Medical, Fire, and Transportation Services who 77508
were EMTs, advanced EMTs, or paramedics and were appointed to the 77509
Board in that capacity, only the members who are designated by the 77510
Governor to continue to be members of the Board shall continue to 77511
be so; the other persons shall cease to be members of the Board. 77512
On the effective date of the amendments made to section 4765.02 of 77513
the Revised Code by this act, the member of the renamed State 77514
Board of Emergency Medical and Transportation Services who is a 77515
registered nurse and is in the active practice of emergency 77516
nursing shall cease to be a member of the Board. Not later than 77517
sixty days after the effective date of those amendments, the 77518
Governor shall appoint to the renamed State Board of Emergency 77519
Medical and Transportation Services a registered nurse with EMS 77520
certification who is in the active practice of critical care 77521
nursing. The Governor shall appoint this member from among three 77522
persons nominated by the Ohio Nurses Association and three persons 77523
nominated by the Ohio State Council of the Emergency Nurses 77524
Association.77525

       On the effective date of the amendments made to section 77526
4765.02 of the Revised Code by this act, all members of the former 77527
State Board of Emergency Medical Services who do not cease to be 77528
members of the renamed State Board of Emergency Medical, Fire, and 77529
Transportation Services by the terms of this act shall continue to 77530
be members of the renamed State Board of Emergency Medical, Fire, 77531
and Transportation Services, and the dates on which the terms of 77532
the continuing members expire shall be the dates on which their 77533
terms as members of the former State Board of Emergency Medical 77534
Services expired. On the effective date of the amendments made to 77535
section 4765.02 of the Revised Code by this act, the following 77536
members of the former Ohio Medical Transportation Board shall 77537
become members of the State Board of Emergency Medical, Fire, and 77538
Transportation Services, and the dates on which those members' 77539
terms on the State Board of Emergency Medical, Fire, and 77540
Transportation Services expire shall be as follows:77541

       (A) The person who owns or operates a private emergency 77542
medical service organization operating in this state, as 77543
designated by the Governor, term ends November 12, 2012;77544

       (B) The person who owns or operates a nonemergency medical 77545
service organization that provides only ambulette services, term 77546
ends November 12, 2012;77547

       (C) The person who is a member of the Ohio Association of 77548
Critical Care Transport and represents air-based services, term 77549
ends November 12, 2013.77550

       (D) The person who is a member of the Ohio Association of 77551
Critical Care Transport and represents a ground-based mobile 77552
intensive care unit organization, term ends November 12, 2013.77553

       All subsequent terms of office for these six positions on the 77554
State Board of Emergency Medical, Fire, and Transportation 77555
Services shall be for three years as provided in section 4765.02 77556
of the Revised Code.77557

       Section 747.20.20. TRANSFER OF THE MEDICAL TRANSPORTATION 77558
BOARD TO THE DEPARTMENT OF PUBLIC SAFETY77559

       On July 1, 2012, the Medical Transportation Board and all of 77560
its functions are transferred to the Department of Public Safety. 77561
As of such date, the Medical Transportation Board shall operate 77562
under the Department of Public Safety, which shall assume all of 77563
the Board's functions. All assets, liabilities, any capital 77564
spending authority related thereto, and equipment and records, 77565
regardless of form or medium, related to the Medical 77566
Transportation Board's functions are transferred to the Department 77567
of Public Safety on July 1, 2012.77568

       No validation, cure, right, privilege, remedy, obligation, or 77569
liability is lost or impaired by reason of the transfer. All of 77570
the Medical Transportation Board's rules, orders, and 77571
determinations continue in effect as rules, orders, and 77572
determinations of the Department of Public Safety until modified 77573
or rescinded by the Department of Public Safety.77574

       Subject to the lay-off provisions of sections 124.321 to 77575
124.328 of the Revised Code, all employees of the Medical 77576
Transportation Board are transferred to the Department of Public 77577
Safety and shall retain their positions and all benefits accruing 77578
thereto.77579

       No action or proceeding pending on July 1, 2012, is affected 77580
by the transfer and any action or proceeding pending on July 1, 77581
2012, shall be prosecuted or defended in the name of the 77582
Department of Public Safety or its director. In all such actions 77583
and proceedings, the Department of Public Safety or its director, 77584
upon application to the court, shall be substituted as a party.77585

       On or after July 1, 2012, notwithstanding any provision of 77586
law to the contrary, the Director of Budget and Management shall 77587
take any action with respect to budget changes made necessary by 77588
the transfer. The Director may transfer cash balances between 77589
funds. The Director may cancel encumbrances and reestablish 77590
encumbrances or parts of encumbrances as needed in the fiscal year 77591
in the appropriate fund and appropriation item for the same 77592
purpose and to the same vendor. As determined by the Director, 77593
encumbrances reestablished in the fiscal year in a different fund 77594
or appropriation item used by an agency or between agencies are 77595
appropriated. The Director shall reduce each year's appropriation 77596
balances by the amount of the encumbrance canceled in their 77597
respective funds and appropriation item. Any unencumbered or 77598
unallocated appropriation balances from the previous fiscal year 77599
may be transferred to the appropriate appropriation item to be 77600
used for the same purposes, as determined by the Director. Any 77601
such transfers are hereby appropriated.77602

       Section 751.05.  FISCAL YEAR 2013 QUALITY BONUS PAYMENTS TO 77603
NURSING FACILITIES77604

       (A) As used in this section:77605

       (1) "Medicaid days," "nursing facility," and "provider" have 77606
the same meanings as in section 5111.20 of the Revised Code.77607

       (2) "Point days" means the product of the following:77608

       (a) A qualifying nursing facility's quality bonus points for 77609
fiscal year 2013;77610

       (b) The number of the qualifying nursing facility's Medicaid 77611
days in fiscal year 2012.77612

       (3) "Qualifying nursing facility" means a nursing facility 77613
that qualifies for a quality bonus for fiscal year 2013 as 77614
determined under division (C) of this section.77615

       (4) "Quality bonus points" means the amount determined by 77616
subtracting five from the number of points awarded to a qualifying 77617
nursing facility under division (C) of section 5111.244 of the 77618
Revised Code for fiscal year 2013.77619

       (B) Notwithstanding sections 5111.222 and 5111.245 of the 77620
Revised Code, quality bonuses to nursing facilities shall be made 77621
in accordance with this section for fiscal year 2013 rather than 77622
section 5111.245 of the Revised Code.77623

       (C) The Department of Job and Family Services shall pay a 77624
nursing facility provider a quality bonus for fiscal year 2013 if 77625
the provider's nursing facility is awarded more than five points 77626
under division (C) of section 5111.244 of the Revised Code for 77627
fiscal year 2013 and at least one of the points is awarded to the 77628
nursing facility pursuant to division (C)(10), (11), (12), (13), 77629
or (14) of that section.77630

       (D) The total quality bonus to be paid to the provider of a 77631
qualifying nursing facility for fiscal year 2013 shall equal the 77632
product of the following:77633

       (1) The quality bonus per Medicaid day for the fiscal year 77634
determined for the provider's qualifying nursing facility under 77635
division (E) of this section;77636

       (2) The number of the qualifying nursing facility's Medicaid 77637
days in fiscal year 2012.77638

       (E) A qualifying nursing facility's quality bonus per 77639
Medicaid day for fiscal year 2013 shall be the product of the 77640
following:77641

       (1) The nursing facility's quality bonus points for fiscal 77642
year 2013;77643

       (2) The quality bonus per point for fiscal year 2013 77644
determined under division (F) of this section.77645

       (F) The quality bonus per point for fiscal year 2013 shall be 77646
determined as follows:77647

       (1) Determine the number of each qualifying nursing 77648
facility's point days for fiscal year 2013.77649

       (2) Determine the sum of all qualifying nursing facilities' 77650
point days for fiscal year 2013.77651

       (3) Divide thirty million dollars by the sum determined under 77652
division (F)(2) of this section.77653

       (G) The calculation of a qualifying nursing facility's bonus 77654
payment is not subject to appeal under Chapter 119. of the Revised 77655
Code.77656

       (H) The Director of Job and Family Services may adopt rules 77657
under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code as necessary to 77658
implement this section.77659

       Section 751.10. LICENSURE OF ICFs/MR AS RESIDENTIAL 77660
FACILITIES77661

       (A) Until July 1, 2013, a person or government agency that, 77662
on the effective date of this section, operates an intermediate 77663
care facility for the mentally retarded pursuant to a nursing home 77664
license issued under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code shall not 77665
be subject to a penalty under section 5123.99 of the Revised Code 77666
for operating the facility without a license issued under section 77667
5123.19 of the Revised Code notwithstanding sections 5123.20 and 77668
5123.99 of the Revised Code.77669

        (B) Notwithstanding the amendments by this act to sections 77670
3702.62, 3721.01, and 5123.19 of the Revised Code and the repeal 77671
by this act of section 5123.192 of the Revised Code, an 77672
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded that is 77673
licensed as a nursing home under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code 77674
on the effective date of this section shall continue to be a 77675
nursing home for the purposes for which it is considered to be a 77676
nursing home under the law in effect on the day immediately 77677
preceding the effective date of those amendments and that repeal 77678
until the earliest of the following:77679

        (1) The date that the facility's nursing home license is 77680
revoked or voided under section 3721.07 of the Revised Code;77681

        (2) The date that a residential facility license is obtained 77682
for the facility under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code;77683

        (3) July 1, 2013.77684

        (C) Notwithstanding the amendment by this act to section 77685
3721.21 of the Revised Code, a nursing home or part of a nursing 77686
home certified as an intermediate care facility for the mentally 77687
retarded on the effective date of this section shall continue to 77688
be excluded from the definition of "long-term care facility" in 77689
that section for as long as it is certified as an intermediate 77690
care facility for the mentally retarded.77691

       (D) Notwithstanding the amendment by this act to section 77692
3721.50 of the Revised Code, a nursing home or part of a nursing 77693
home licensed under section 3721.02 or 3721.09 of the Revised Code 77694
that is certified as an intermediate care facility for the 77695
mentally retarded on the effective date of this section shall 77696
continue to be exempt from the franchise permit fee under sections 77697
3721.50 to 3721.58 of the Revised Code and instead subject to the 77698
franchise permit fee under sections 5112.30 to 5112.39 of the 77699
Revised Code for as long as it is certified as an intermediate 77700
care facility for the mentally retarded.77701

        (E) Notwithstanding the amendment by this act to section 77702
5123.41 of the Revised Code, a nursing home or part of a nursing 77703
home that is certified as an intermediate care facility for the 77704
mentally retarded on the effective date of this section shall 77705
continue to be a residential facility for the purpose of section 77706
5123.41 of the Revised Code for as long as it is certified as an 77707
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded or is 77708
licensed under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code.77709

        (F) Notwithstanding the amendment by this act to section 77710
5126.51 of the Revised Code, a nursing home or part of a nursing 77711
home that is certified as an intermediate care facility for the 77712
mentally retarded on the effective date of this section shall 77713
continue to be a residential facility for the purpose of section 77714
5126.51 of the Revised Code for as long as it is certified as an 77715
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded or otherwise 77716
meets the definition of "residential facility" in section 5123.19 77717
of the Revised Code.77718

       Section 751.10.10. ADULT CARE FACILITY LICENSURE TRANSITION77719

       Pursuant to the amendment and repeal by this act of sections 77720
5119.22, 5119.70 to 5119.88, and 5119.99 of the Revised Code, the 77721
Director of Mental Health may convert an adult care facility's 77722
license in effect immediately before the effective date of this 77723
section to a license as a residential facility. Until the Director 77724
converts the license or issues an order denying the conversion, 77725
the adult care facility's license is deemed to be a residential 77726
facility license. All rules, orders, and determinations pertaining 77727
to the adult care facility license continue in effect as rules, 77728
orders, and determinations pertaining to the residential facility 77729
license.77730

       Section 751.15. AGING IN PLACE PILOT PROGRAM77731

       (A) As used in this section:77732

       (1) "Aging in Place administrator" means the organization 77733
that contracts with the Department of Aging pursuant to division 77734
(E) of this section to administer the Aging in Place pilot 77735
program.77736

       (2) "Nursing home" and "residential care facility" have the 77737
same meanings as in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.77738

       (3) "Residential facility" means a residential facility as 77739
defined in section 5119.22 or a residential facility as defined in 77740
section 5123.19 of the Revised Code.77741

       (4) "Veteran" means either of the following:77742

        (a) A former member of the armed forces of the United States 77743
who served on active military duty and received an honorable 77744
discharge or honorable separation;77745

        (b) A member of the United States army transport service or 77746
the United States naval transport service who has an honorable 77747
report of separation from the active duty military service, form 77748
DD214 or DD215.77749

       (B) The Department of Aging shall establish the Aging in 77750
Place pilot program in Butler, Clermont, Hamilton, and Warren 77751
counties. Up to one hundred eighty eligible individuals may enroll 77752
in the pilot program to receive home repairs and modifications 77753
that are covered by the pilot program. The pilot program shall be 77754
operated for two years.77755

       (C) To be eligible to enroll in the Aging in Place pilot 77756
program, an individual must meet all of the following 77757
requirements:77758

       (1) The individual must be at least fifty years of age or a 77759
veteran of any age.77760

       (2) The individual must be a resident of one of the counties 77761
in which the pilot program is established.77762

       (3) The individual must reside in a private residence that is 77763
not a nursing home, residential care facility, residential 77764
facility, or other facility that may not operate legally without a 77765
license, certificate, or other authority issued by an agency of 77766
this state or a political subdivision of this state.77767

       (4) The individual or a member of the individual's household 77768
must own the private residence in which the individual resides.77769

       (5) The individual must be at risk of moving to a nursing 77770
home or residential care facility due to a medical condition.77771

       (6) The private residence in which the individual resides 77772
must be in need of a repair or modification covered by the pilot 77773
program.77774

       (7) The individual must meet any other requirements specified 77775
in rules adopted under this section.77776

       (D) The Aging in Place pilot program shall cover home repairs 77777
and modifications specified in rules adopted under this section.77778

       (E) The Department of Aging shall contract with an 77779
organization that meets all of the following requirements to 77780
administer the Aging in Place pilot program:77781

       (1) It must have been founded not later than 1975.77782

       (2) It must provide professional and critical home repair and 77783
modification services to individuals who reside in the counties in 77784
which the pilot program is established and have low incomes or are 77785
elderly or disabled.77786

       (3) It must be exempt from federal income taxation under 77787
section 501(a) and described in section 501(c)(3) of the "Internal 77788
Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 501, as amended.77789

       (F) The Aging in Place administrator may help coordinate the 77790
home repairs and modifications provided under the Aging in Place 77791
pilot program with home health services that individuals enrolled 77792
in the pilot program receive under the Medicaid program or other 77793
programs.77794

       (G) The Aging in Place administrator shall seek 77795
nongovernmental funds to help pay the costs of the Aging in Place 77796
pilot program.77797

       (H) The Department of Job and Family Services shall apply to 77798
the United States Secretary of Health and Human Services for a 77799
federal Medicaid waiver to make the Aging in Place pilot program a 77800
component of the Medicaid program. If the waiver is granted, the 77801
Department of Job and Family Services shall enter into an 77802
interagency agreement with the Department of Aging under section 77803
5111.91 of the Revised Code regarding the Department of Aging's 77804
duties under this section and the Department of Aging shall 77805
establish the pilot program as a Medicaid component. If the waiver 77806
is not granted, the Department of Aging shall establish the pilot 77807
program as a non-Medicaid program.77808

       (I) The Director of Aging shall adopt rules in accordance 77809
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as necessary to implement 77810
this section. If the Aging in Place pilot program is established 77811
as a Medicaid component, the Director of Job and Family Services 77812
shall adopt any rules that are necessary for the Director of Aging 77813
to be able to adopt the rules for the pilot program.77814

       (J) Not later than ninety days after the termination of the 77815
Aging in Place pilot program, the Department of Aging shall 77816
prepare a report regarding the pilot program. On completion of the 77817
report, the Department shall submit it to the Governor and, in 77818
accordance with section 101.68 of the Revised Code, the General 77819
Assembly. The report shall include the Department's conclusions 77820
regarding all of the following:77821

       (1) The number of individuals in the state who would benefit 77822
from the services covered by the pilot program if the services 77823
were made available statewide;77824

       (2) How governmental and nongovernmental resources can be 77825
leveraged most efficiently to make the services available 77826
statewide;77827

       (3) The costs, if any, that the Medicaid program and other 77828
governmental health care programs would incur if the services were 77829
available statewide;77830

       (4) The impact that the services would have on the quality of 77831
patient care and treatment;77832

       (5) The impact that the services would have on the 77833
communities in which they would be provided;77834

       (6) The overall costs and benefits to the state that the 77835
services would have.77836

       Section 751.20. The amendments by this act to Section 3 of 77837
Am. Sub. S.B. 38 of the 120th General Assembly eliminate the 77838
exemptions from the requirements of sections 3701.881 and 5126.28 77839
of the Revised Code that Section 3 of that act gave to persons 77840
who, before October 29, 1993, were employed or had applied for 77841
employment in positions covered by sections 3701.881 and 5126.28 77842
of the Revised Code. The amendments by this act to Section 3 of 77843
Am. Sub. S.B. 160 of the 121st General Assembly eliminate the 77844
exemptions from the requirements of sections 173.41 (as 77845
subsequently renumbered as 173.394) and 3701.881 of the Revised 77846
Code that Section 3 of that act gave to persons who, before 77847
January 27, 1997, were employed or had applied for employment in 77848
positions covered by sections 173.41 (173.394) and 3701.881 of the 77849
Revised Code. The exemptions are eliminated in conjunction with 77850
this act's amendments to sections 173.394, 3701.881, and 5123.081 77851
of the Revised Code and the repeal of section 5126.28 of the 77852
Revised Code so that the Directors of Aging, Health, and 77853
Developmental Disabilities may adopt rules under those amended 77854
sections to make persons formerly exempt from the requirements of 77855
sections 173.394, 3701.881, and 5126.28 of the Revised Code 77856
subject to the requirements of sections 173.394, 3701.881, and 77857
5123.081 of the Revised Code.77858

       Section 753.11. (A) Notwithstanding section 3313.41 of the 77859
Revised Code, during the period beginning June 30, 2005, and 77860
ending December 31, 2005, a school district board of education in 77861
support of economic development within the territory of the 77862
district may dispose of real property that it owns in its 77863
corporate capacity, and that exceeds in value ten thousand 77864
dollars, by direct sale in lieu of offering the property for sale 77865
at public auction as provided in division (A) of that section, in 77866
lieu of offering the property for sale to an entity listed in 77867
division (C) of that section, or in lieu of offering the property 77868
for sale to a community school as provided in division (G) of that 77869
section, if all of the following conditions are satisfied:77870

        (1) The real property is encumbered by easements, liens, or 77871
other use restrictions that benefit the person acquiring the 77872
property under this section;77873

        (2) The real property was part of or adjacent to real 77874
property previously disposed of by the board of education;77875

        (3) The real property when sold will be used for commercial 77876
development.77877

        (B) Notwithstanding division (A)(3) of this section, on or 77878
after the effective date of this section, the real property may be 77879
used for residential development as well as commercial 77880
development.77881

       Section 757.10. A board of township trustees or the 77882
legislative authority of a municipal corporation to which section 77883
5705.19 or 5705.252 of the Revised Code applies, as enacted or 77884
amended by this act, may adopt the resolution proposing the levy 77885
of the tax or the combined questions authorized by those 77886
enactments or amendments and certify a copy of the resolution to 77887
the proper county board of elections as otherwise prescribed by 77888
law after this act becomes law and before the effective date of 77889
those enactments or amendments, requesting that the board of 77890
elections submit the proposal to the electors at the general 77891
election occurring on November 6, 2012. The board of elections, 77892
upon receiving a properly certified copy of such a resolution not 77893
later than four p.m. on August 8, 2012, shall submit the proposal 77894
to electors at that election as otherwise provided under section 77895
5705.25 or 5705.252 of the Revised Code, and such actions of the 77896
board of township trustees, municipal legislative authority, and 77897
board of elections are hereby ratified.77898

       Section 757.20. As used in this section, "qualified property" 77899
means real property that satisfies the qualifications for tax 77900
exemption under the terms of section 5709.07 of the Revised Code 77901
and that is owned by a church as defined in that section.77902

       Notwithstanding section 5713.081 of the Revised Code, when 77903
qualified property has not received tax exemption due to a failure 77904
to comply with Chapter 5713. or section 5715.27 of the Revised 77905
Code, the current owner of the property, or the prior owner of the 77906
property requesting exemption from prior taxes, at any time on or 77907
before twelve months after the effective date of this section, may 77908
file with the Tax Commissioner an application requesting that the 77909
property be placed on the tax-exempt list and that all unpaid 77910
taxes, penalties, and interest on the property be abated.77911

       The application shall be made on the form prescribed by the 77912
Tax Commissioner under section 5715.27 of the Revised Code and 77913
shall list the name of the county in which the property is 77914
located; the property's legal description; its taxable value; the 77915
amount in dollars of the unpaid taxes, penalties, and interest; 77916
the date of acquisition of title to the property; the use of the 77917
property during any time that the unpaid taxes accrued; and any 77918
other information required by the Tax Commissioner. The county 77919
auditor shall supply the required information upon request of the 77920
applicant.77921

       Upon request of the applicant, the county treasurer shall 77922
determine if all taxes, penalties, and interest that became a lien 77923
on the qualified property before it first was used for an exempt 77924
purpose and all special assessments charged against the property 77925
have been paid in full. If so, the county treasurer shall issue a 77926
certificate to the applicant stating that all such taxes, 77927
penalties, interest, and assessments have been paid in full. Prior 77928
to filing the application with the Tax Commissioner, the applicant 77929
shall attach the county treasurer's certificate to it. The Tax 77930
Commissioner shall not consider an application filed under this 77931
section unless such a certificate is attached to it.77932

       Upon receipt of the application and after consideration of 77933
it, the Tax Commissioner shall determine if the applicant meets 77934
the qualifications set forth in this section, and if so shall 77935
issue an order directing that the property be placed on the 77936
tax-exempt list of the county and that all unpaid taxes, 77937
penalties, and interest for every year the property met the 77938
qualifications for exemption described in section 5709.07 of the 77939
Revised Code be abated. If the Tax Commissioner finds that the 77940
property is not now being so used or is being used for a purpose 77941
that would foreclose its right to tax exemption, the Tax 77942
Commissioner shall issue an order denying the application.77943

       If the Tax Commissioner finds that the property is not 77944
entitled to tax exemption and to the abatement of unpaid taxes, 77945
penalties, and interest for any of the years for which the current 77946
or prior owner claims an exemption or abatement, the Tax 77947
Commissioner shall order the county treasurer of the county in 77948
which the property is located to collect all taxes, penalties, and 77949
interest due on the property for those years in accordance with 77950
law.77951

       The Tax Commissioner may apply this section to any qualified 77952
property that is the subject of an application for exemption 77953
pending before the Tax Commissioner on the effective date of this 77954
section, without requiring the property owner to file an 77955
additional application. The Tax Commissioner also may apply this 77956
section to any qualified property that is the subject of an 77957
application for exemption filed on or after the effective date of 77958
this section and on or before twelve months after that effective 77959
date, even though the application does not expressly request 77960
abatement of unpaid taxes, penalties, and interest.77961

       Section 806.10. The items of law contained in this act, and 77962
their applications, are severable. If any item of law contained in 77963
this act, or if any application of any item of law contained in 77964
this act, is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other 77965
items of law contained in this act and their applications that can 77966
be given effect without the invalid item of law or application.77967

       Section 812.10. Sections subject to referendum: general 77968
effective date. Except as otherwise provided in this act, the 77969
amendment, enactment, or repeal by this act of a section is 77970
subject to the referendum under Ohio Constitution, Article II, 77971
Section 1c and therefore takes effect on the ninety-first day 77972
after this act is filed with the Secretary of State.77973

       Section 812.20. Sections exempt from referendum: general 77974
effective date. The amendment, enactment, or repeal by this act of 77975
the following sections is exempt from the referendum under Ohio 77976
Constitution, Article II, Section 1d and section 1.471 of the 77977
Revised Code and therefore takes effect immediately when this act 77978
becomes law:77979

       Sections 145.01, 145.012, 167.04, 306.04, 306.36, 340.091, 77980
901.54, 2927.023, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, 77981
3125.41, 3734.131, 3734.15, 3743.06, 3743.19, 3752.06, 4163.07, 77982
4303.22, 4501.01, 4501.06, 4503.81, 4506.01, 4506.03, 4506.22, 77983
4506.25, 4511.78, 4513.50, 4731.293, 4905.01, 4905.02, 4905.03, 77984
4905.05, 4905.06, 4905.402, 4905.54, 4905.57, 4905.58, 4905.80, 77985
4905.801, 4905.81, 4905.82, 4905.83, 4905.84, 4907.01, 4907.02, 77986
4907.04, 4907.08, 4907.19, 4907.28, 4907.35, 4907.37, 4907.43, 77987
4907.49, 4907.57, 4907.59, 4907.60, 4907.61, 4907.62, 4909.01, 77988
4909.02, 4909.03, 4909.17, 4909.22, 4909.24, 4909.28, 4911.01, 77989
4919.75, 4919.76, 4919.77, 4919.78, 4919.79, 4919.99, 4921.01, 77990
4921.02, 4921.03, 4921.04, 4921.05, 4921.06, 4921.07, 4921.08, 77991
4921.09, 4921.10, 4921.101, 4921.11, 4921.12, 4921.13, 4921.14, 77992
4921.15, 4921.16, 4921.17, 4921.18, 4921.19, 4921.20, 4921.21, 77993
4921.23, 4921.24, 4921.25, 4921.26, 4921.27, 4921.28, 4921.30, 77994
4921.31, 4921.32, 4921.34, 4921.35, 4921.36, 4921.37, 4921.38, 77995
4921.39, 4921.40, 4921.99, 4923.01, 4923.02, 4923.03, 4923.04, 77996
4923.05, 4923.06, 4923.07, 4923.08, 4923.09, 4923.10, 4923.11, 77997
4923.12, 4923.13, 4923.14, 4923.15, 4923.17, 4923.20, 4923.26, 77998
4923.99, 4927.01, 4929.01, 4929.02, 4933.18, 4933.19, 4939.01, 77999
4953.04, 4961.03, 4965.54, 5119.691, 5503.02, 5503.34, 5743.031, 78000
and 5751.033 of the Revised Code.78001

        Section 205.10 of Am. Sub. H.B. 114 of the 129th General 78002
Assembly, as amended by Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General 78003
Assembly.78004

        Section 201 of Sub. H.B. 123 of the 129th General Assembly.78005

        Section 1 of H.B. 124 of the 129th General Assembly.78006

       Sections 205.10, 207.10, 207.10.80, 207.20.10, 207.20.30, 78007
207.20.90, 209.10, 209.30, 211.10, 215.10, 223.10, 229.10, 243.10, 78008
261.10, 261.10.10, 261.10.20, 261.10.30, 261.10.40, 261.10.50, 78009
261.10.60, 261.10.70, 261.10.80, 261.10.90, 261.20.10, 261.20.20, 78010
261.20.40, 261.20.50, 261.20.60, 261.20.70, 261.20.80, 261.20.90, 78011
261.30.10, 261.30.20, 261.30.30, 261.30.40, 261.30.50, 261.30.60, 78012
261.30.70, 261.30.80, 261.30.90, 261.40.10, 263.10, 263.10.30, 78013
263.10.90, 263.20.40, 263.20.70, 267.10, 267.10.20, 267.10.40, 78014
267.30.40, 279.10, 283.10, 283.20, 283.30, 291.10, 307.10, 309.10, 78015
315.10, 327.10, 335.10, 337.10, 343.10, 343.40, 365.10, 367.10, 78016
369.10, 371.10, 371.50.61, 371.60.70, 371.60.80, 373.10, 375.10, 78017
379.10, 387.10, 403.10, 411.10, 415.10, 503.50, 521.70, and 701.40 78018
of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly.78019

       Section 247.10 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General 78020
Assembly, as amended by Sub. H.B. 319 of the 129th General 78021
Assembly.78022

       Sections 261.10 and 261.20.93 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 78023
129th General Assembly, as amended by Sub. H.B. 371 of the 129th 78024
General Assembly.78025

       Sections 515.10, 515.11, 515.12, and 515.13 of this act.78026

       Sections 701.70.10, 701.80, 701.90, 701.91, and 733.10 of 78027
this act.78028

       Sections 812.20 and 812.21 of this act.78029

       Section 812.30 of this act insofar as it refers to parts of 78030
sections that are exempt from the referendum.78031

       Section 812.21. Sections exempt from the referendum: special 78032
effective date. The amendment, enactment, or repeal by this act of 78033
sections 125.05, 152.09, 154.25, 183.28, 3301.75, 3313.603, 78034
3313.976, 3313.978, 3313.979, 3314.074, 3317.06, 3317.50, 3317.51, 78035
3319.22, 3319.235, 3333.82, 3333.90 (3333.59), new 3333.90, 78036
3345.12, 3353.01 (3333.89), 3353.02, 3353.03, 3353.04, 3353.05 78037
(3333.91), 3353.06 (3333.92), 3353.07 (3333.93), 3353.09, 3353.11 78038
(3333.94), 3353.15, and 3353.20 of the Revised Code is exempt from 78039
the referendum under Ohio Constitution, Article II, Section 1d and 78040
section 1.471 of the Revised Code and is therefore entitled to 78041
take effect immediately when this act becomes law. However, the 78042
amendment of those sections takes effect on July 1, 2012, or the 78043
date this act becomes law, whichever is later.78044

       Section 812.30. Mixed sections: general effective dates. The 78045
sections listed in the left-hand column of the following table 78046
combine amendments by this act that are and that are not exempt 78047
from the referendum. The middle column identifies amendments to 78048
the listed sections that are subject to the referendum under Ohio 78049
Constitution, Article II, Section 1c and therefore take effect on 78050
the ninety-first day after this act is filed with the Secretary of 78051
State. The right-hand column identifies amendments to the listed 78052
sections that are exempt from the referendum under Ohio 78053
Constitution, Article II, Section 1d and section 1.471 of the 78054
Revised Code and therefore take effect immediately when this act 78055
becomes law, except as indicated otherwise.78056

Section of law Amendments subject to referendum Amendments exempt from referendum 78057
105.41 All except as described in the right hand column The amendment to division (E)(2) takes effect July 1, 2012, or the date this act becomes law, whichever is later. 78058
4905.90 The amendment in division (A) All amendments except as described in the middle column 78059
5111.941 The amendment that inserts division (A)(4) All amendments except as described in the middle column 78060
5119.61 All amendments except as described in the right-hand column The amendment in division (A) striking "(C)" and inserting "(D)" and the amendment in division (F) striking "abuse" and inserting "addiction" 78061
5119.69 The amendments in relettered divisions (D)(1)(b) and (c) All amendments except as described in the middle column 78062
5502.01 All amendments except as described in the right-hand column The amendment in division (F) 78063

       Section 815.20. The General Assembly, applying the principle 78064
stated in division (B) of section 1.52 of the Revised Code that 78065
amendments are to be harmonized if reasonably capable of 78066
simultaneous operation, finds that the following sections, 78067
presented in this act as composites of the sections as amended by 78068
the acts indicated, are the resulting versions of the sections in 78069
effect prior to the effective date of the sections as presented in 78070
this act:78071

       Section 9.90 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. Sub. 78072
H.B. 153 and Sub. S.B. 171 of the 129th General Assembly.78073

       Section 102.02 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 78074
Sub. H.B. 153 and Sub. S.B. 171 of the 129th General Assembly.78075

       Section 121.04 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 78076
Sub. H.B. 153 and Sub. H.B. 229 of the 129th General Assembly.78077

       Section 123.01 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 78078
Sub. H.B. 133 and Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly.78079

       Section 124.11 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 78080
Sub. H.B. 1 and Sub. S.B. 79 of the 128th General Assembly.78081

       Section 149.43 of the Revised Code as amended by both Sub. 78082
H.B. 64 and Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly.78083

       Section 1923.01 of the Revised Code as amended by both Sub. 78084
H.B. 56 and Am. Sub. S.B. 10 of the 127th General Assembly.78085

       Section 1923.02 of the Revised Code as amended by both Sub. 78086
H.B. 56 and Am. Sub. S.B. 10 of the 127th General Assembly.78087

       Section 3301.55 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 78088
Sub. H.B. 1 and Sub. S.B. 79 of the 128th General Assembly.78089

       Section 4731.22 of the Revised Code as amended by both H.B. 78090
78 and Am. Sub. H.B. 93 of the 129th General Assembly.78091