As Introduced

130th General Assembly
Regular Session
2013-2014
H. B. No. 314


Representatives Baker, Kunze 

Cosponsors: Representatives Hagan, C., Landis, Antonio, Sprague, Boose, Smith, Stebelton, Hood, Green, Sears, Driehaus, Patterson, O'Brien, Becker 



A BILL
To amend sections 4715.30, 4723.481, and 4730.41 and 1
to enact sections 3719.061, 4723.283, 4725.191, 2
4730.252, and 4731.229 of the Revised Code to 3
require a prescriber to obtain written informed 4
consent from a minor's parent, guardian, or other 5
person responsible for the minor before issuing a 6
controlled substance prescription to the minor and 7
to establish sanctions for a prescriber's failure 8
to comply with this requirement.9


BE IT ENACTED BY THE GENERAL ASSEMBLY OF THE STATE OF OHIO:

       Section 1. That sections 4715.30, 4723.481, and 4730.41 be 10
amended and sections 3719.061, 4723.283, 4725.191, 4730.252, and 11
4731.229 of the Revised Code be enacted to read as follows:12

       Sec. 3719.061.  (A)(1) As used in this section:13

       (a) "Medical emergency" means a situation that in a 14
prescriber's good faith medical judgment creates an immediate 15
threat of serious risk to the life or physical health of a minor.16

       (b) "Minor" means a person under eighteen years of age who is 17
not emancipated.18

       (2) For the purposes of this section, a person under eighteen 19
years of age shall be considered emancipated only if the person 20
has married, entered the armed services of the United States, 21
became employed and self-sustaining, or has otherwise become 22
independent from the care and control of the person's parent, 23
guardian, or custodian.24

       (B) Except in a medical emergency, before issuing a 25
prescription for a controlled substance to a minor, a prescriber 26
shall obtain the informed consent of the minor's parent, guardian, 27
or other person responsible for the minor. The informed consent 28
must be recorded on a form separate from any other document the 29
prescriber uses to obtain informed consent for other treatment 30
provided to the minor and contain all of the following:31

       (1) The name and quantity of the controlled substance being 32
prescribed and the amount of each dose;33

       (2) A statement indicating that a controlled substance is a 34
drug or other substance that the United States drug enforcement 35
agency has identified as having a potential for abuse;36

       (3) The number of refills authorized by the prescription;37

       (4) The signature of the minor's parent, guardian, or other 38
person responsible for the minor and the date of signing.39

       (C) The signed consent form shall be maintained in the 40
minor's medical record.41

       Sec. 4715.30.  (A) An applicant for or holder of a 42
certificate or license issued under this chapter is subject to 43
disciplinary action by the state dental board for any of the 44
following reasons:45

       (1) Employing or cooperating in fraud or material deception 46
in applying for or obtaining a license or certificate; 47

       (2) Obtaining or attempting to obtain money or anything of 48
value by intentional misrepresentation or material deception in 49
the course of practice; 50

       (3) Advertising services in a false or misleading manner or 51
violating the board's rules governing time, place, and manner of 52
advertising;53

       (4) Commission of an act that constitutes a felony in this 54
state, regardless of the jurisdiction in which the act was 55
committed;56

        (5) Commission of an act in the course of practice that 57
constitutes a misdemeanor in this state, regardless of the 58
jurisdiction in which the act was committed; 59

       (6) Conviction of, a plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of 60
guilt of, a judicial finding of guilt resulting from a plea of no 61
contest to, or a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention 62
in lieu of conviction for, any felony or of a misdemeanor 63
committed in the course of practice;64

       (7) Engaging in lewd or immoral conduct in connection with 65
the provision of dental services; 66

       (8) Selling, prescribing, giving away, or administering drugs 67
for other than legal and legitimate therapeutic purposes, or 68
conviction of, a plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt 69
of, a judicial finding of guilt resulting from a plea of no 70
contest to, or a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention 71
in lieu of conviction for, a violation of any federal or state law 72
regulating the possession, distribution, or use of any drug; 73

       (9) Providing or allowing dental hygienists, expanded 74
function dental auxiliaries, or other practitioners of auxiliary 75
dental occupations working under the certificate or license 76
holder's supervision, or a dentist holding a temporary limited 77
continuing education license under division (C) of section 4715.16 78
of the Revised Code working under the certificate or license 79
holder's direct supervision, to provide dental care that departs 80
from or fails to conform to accepted standards for the profession, 81
whether or not injury to a patient results; 82

       (10) Inability to practice under accepted standards of the 83
profession because of physical or mental disability, dependence on 84
alcohol or other drugs, or excessive use of alcohol or other 85
drugs; 86

       (11) Violation of any provision of this chapter or any rule 87
adopted thereunder; 88

       (12) Failure to use universal blood and body fluid 89
precautions established by rules adopted under section 4715.03 of 90
the Revised Code; 91

       (13) Except as provided in division (H) of this section, 92
either of the following:93

       (a) Waiving the payment of all or any part of a deductible or 94
copayment that a patient, pursuant to a health insurance or health 95
care policy, contract, or plan that covers dental services, would 96
otherwise be required to pay if the waiver is used as an 97
enticement to a patient or group of patients to receive health 98
care services from that certificate or license holder; 99

       (b) Advertising that the certificate or license holder will 100
waive the payment of all or any part of a deductible or copayment 101
that a patient, pursuant to a health insurance or health care 102
policy, contract, or plan that covers dental services, would 103
otherwise be required to pay.104

       (14) Failure to comply with section 4729.79 of the Revised 105
Code, unless the state board of pharmacy no longer maintains a 106
drug database pursuant to section 4729.75 of the Revised Code;107

       (15) Any of the following actions taken by an agency 108
responsible for authorizing, certifying, or regulating an 109
individual to practice a health care occupation or provide health 110
care services in this state or another jurisdiction, for any 111
reason other than the nonpayment of fees: the limitation, 112
revocation, or suspension of an individual's license to practice; 113
acceptance of an individual's license surrender; denial of a 114
license; refusal to renew or reinstate a license; imposition of 115
probation; or issuance of an order of censure or other reprimand;116

        (16) Failure to cooperate in an investigation conducted by 117
the board under division (D) of section 4715.03 of the Revised 118
Code, including failure to comply with a subpoena or order issued 119
by the board or failure to answer truthfully a question presented 120
by the board at a deposition or in written interrogatories, except 121
that failure to cooperate with an investigation shall not 122
constitute grounds for discipline under this section if a court of 123
competent jurisdiction has issued an order that either quashes a 124
subpoena or permits the individual to withhold the testimony or 125
evidence in issue;126

       (17) Failure to comply with section 3719.061 of the Revised 127
Code. 128

       (B) A manager, proprietor, operator, or conductor of a dental 129
facility shall be subject to disciplinary action if any dentist, 130
dental hygienist, expanded function dental auxiliary, or qualified 131
personnel providing services in the facility is found to have 132
committed a violation listed in division (A) of this section and 133
the manager, proprietor, operator, or conductor knew of the 134
violation and permitted it to occur on a recurring basis. 135

       (C)(1) Subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the board 136
may take one or more of the following disciplinary actions if one 137
or more of the grounds for discipline listed in divisions (A)(1) 138
to (16) and (B) of this section exist: 139

       (1)(a) Censure the license or certificate holder; 140

       (2)(b) Place the license or certificate on probationary 141
status for such period of time the board determines necessary and 142
require the holder to: 143

       (a)(i) Report regularly to the board upon the matters which 144
are the basis of probation; 145

       (b)(ii) Limit practice to those areas specified by the board; 146

       (c)(iii) Continue or renew professional education until a 147
satisfactory degree of knowledge or clinical competency has been 148
attained in specified areas. 149

       (3)(c) Suspend the certificate or license; 150

       (4)(d) Revoke the certificate or license. 151

       (2) Subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the board 152
shall suspend for not less than six months the license of a 153
dentist who fails to comply with section 3719.061 of the Revised 154
Code.155

       Where the board places a holder of a license or certificate 156
on probationary status pursuant to division (C)(2)(1)(b) of this 157
section, the board may subsequently suspend or revoke the license 158
or certificate if it determines that the holder has not met the 159
requirements of the probation or continues to engage in activities 160
that constitute grounds for discipline pursuant to division (A) or 161
(B) of this section. 162

       Any order suspending a license or certificate for a grounds 163
for discipline listed in divisions (A)(1) to (16) of this section164
shall state the conditions under which the license or certificate 165
will be restored, which may include a conditional restoration 166
during which time the holder is in a probationary status pursuant 167
to division (C)(2)(1)(b) of this section. The board shall restore 168
the license or certificate unconditionally when such conditions 169
are met. 170

       (D) If the physical or mental condition of an applicant or a 171
license or certificate holder is at issue in a disciplinary 172
proceeding, the board may order the license or certificate holder 173
to submit to reasonable examinations by an individual designated 174
or approved by the board and at the board's expense. The physical 175
examination may be conducted by any individual authorized by the 176
Revised Code to do so, including a physician assistant, a clinical 177
nurse specialist, a certified nurse practitioner, or a certified 178
nurse-midwife. Any written documentation of the physical 179
examination shall be completed by the individual who conducted the 180
examination. 181

       Failure to comply with an order for an examination shall be 182
grounds for refusal of a license or certificate or summary 183
suspension of a license or certificate under division (E) of this 184
section. 185

       (E) If a license or certificate holder has failed to comply 186
with an order under division (D) of this section, the board may 187
apply to the court of common pleas of the county in which the 188
holder resides for an order temporarily suspending the holder's 189
license or certificate, without a prior hearing being afforded by 190
the board, until the board conducts an adjudication hearing 191
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. If the court 192
temporarily suspends a holder's license or certificate, the board 193
shall give written notice of the suspension personally or by 194
certified mail to the license or certificate holder. Such notice 195
shall inform the license or certificate holder of the right to a 196
hearing pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. 197

       (F) Any holder of a certificate or license issued under this 198
chapter who has pleaded guilty to, has been convicted of, or has 199
had a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of 200
conviction entered against the holder in this state for aggravated 201
murder, murder, voluntary manslaughter, felonious assault, 202
kidnapping, rape, sexual battery, gross sexual imposition, 203
aggravated arson, aggravated robbery, or aggravated burglary, or 204
who has pleaded guilty to, has been convicted of, or has had a 205
judicial finding of eligibility for treatment or intervention in 206
lieu of conviction entered against the holder in another 207
jurisdiction for any substantially equivalent criminal offense, is 208
automatically suspended from practice under this chapter in this 209
state and any certificate or license issued to the holder under 210
this chapter is automatically suspended, as of the date of the 211
guilty plea, conviction, or judicial finding, whether the 212
proceedings are brought in this state or another jurisdiction. 213
Continued practice by an individual after the suspension of the 214
individual's certificate or license under this division shall be 215
considered practicing without a certificate or license. The board 216
shall notify the suspended individual of the suspension of the 217
individual's certificate or license under this division by 218
certified mail or in person in accordance with section 119.07 of 219
the Revised Code. If an individual whose certificate or license is 220
suspended under this division fails to make a timely request for 221
an adjudicatory hearing, the board shall enter a final order 222
revoking the individual's certificate or license. 223

       (G) If the supervisory investigative panel determines both of 224
the following, the panel may recommend that the board suspend an 225
individual's certificate or license without a prior hearing:226

       (1) That there is clear and convincing evidence that an 227
individual has violated divisiondivisions (A)(1) to (16) of this 228
section;229

       (2) That the individual's continued practice presents a 230
danger of immediate and serious harm to the public.231

       Written allegations shall be prepared for consideration by 232
the board. The board, upon review of those allegations and by an 233
affirmative vote of not fewer than four dentist members of the 234
board and seven of its members in total, excluding any member on 235
the supervisory investigative panel, may suspend a certificate or 236
license without a prior hearing. A telephone conference call may 237
be utilized for reviewing the allegations and taking the vote on 238
the summary suspension.239

       The board shall issue a written order of suspension by 240
certified mail or in person in accordance with section 119.07 of 241
the Revised Code. The order shall not be subject to suspension by 242
the court during pendency or any appeal filed under section 119.12 243
of the Revised Code. If the individual subject to the summary 244
suspension requests an adjudicatory hearing by the board, the date 245
set for the hearing shall be within fifteen days, but not earlier 246
than seven days, after the individual requests the hearing, unless 247
otherwise agreed to by both the board and the individual.248

       Any summary suspension imposed under this division shall 249
remain in effect, unless reversed on appeal, until a final 250
adjudicative order issued by the board pursuant to this section 251
and Chapter 119. of the Revised Code becomes effective. The board 252
shall issue its final adjudicative order within seventy-five days 253
after completion of its hearing. A failure to issue the order 254
within seventy-five days shall result in dissolution of the 255
summary suspension order but shall not invalidate any subsequent, 256
final adjudicative order.257

       (H) Sanctions shall not be imposed under division (A)(13) of 258
this section against any certificate or license holder who waives 259
deductibles and copayments as follows: 260

       (1) In compliance with the health benefit plan that expressly 261
allows such a practice. Waiver of the deductibles or copayments 262
shall be made only with the full knowledge and consent of the plan 263
purchaser, payer, and third-party administrator. Documentation of 264
the consent shall be made available to the board upon request. 265

       (2) For professional services rendered to any other person 266
who holds a certificate or license issued pursuant to this chapter 267
to the extent allowed by this chapter and the rules of the board. 268

       (I) In no event shall the board consider or raise during a 269
hearing required by Chapter 119. of the Revised Code the 270
circumstances of, or the fact that the board has received, one or 271
more complaints about a person unless the one or more complaints 272
are the subject of the hearing or resulted in the board taking an 273
action authorized by this section against the person on a prior 274
occasion.275

       (J) The board may share any information it receives pursuant 276
to an investigation under division (D) of section 4715.03 of the 277
Revised Code, including patient records and patient record 278
information, with law enforcement agencies, other licensing 279
boards, and other governmental agencies that are prosecuting, 280
adjudicating, or investigating alleged violations of statutes or 281
administrative rules. An agency or board that receives the 282
information shall comply with the same requirements regarding 283
confidentiality as those with which the state dental board must 284
comply, notwithstanding any conflicting provision of the Revised 285
Code or procedure of the agency or board that applies when it is 286
dealing with other information in its possession. In a judicial 287
proceeding, the information may be admitted into evidence only in 288
accordance with the Rules of Evidence, but the court shall require 289
that appropriate measures are taken to ensure that confidentiality 290
is maintained with respect to any part of the information that 291
contains names or other identifying information about patients or 292
complainants whose confidentiality was protected by the state 293
dental board when the information was in the board's possession. 294
Measures to ensure confidentiality that may be taken by the court 295
include sealing its records or deleting specific information from 296
its records.297

       Sec. 4723.283.  The board of nursing, by a vote of a quorum, 298
shall suspend for not less than six months the certificate of 299
authority of a clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, 300
or certified nurse practitioner who fails to comply with section 301
3719.061 of the Revised Code. Disciplinary action under this 302
section shall be taken pursuant to an adjudication conducted under 303
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. 304

       When investigating or conducting a hearing on an alleged 305
violation of section 3719.061 of the Revised Code, the board may 306
take any action it is authorized to take under division (D), (F), 307
or (G) of section 4723.28 of the Revised Code. 308

       Sec. 4723.481.  This section establishes standards and 309
conditions regarding the authority of a clinical nurse specialist, 310
certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner to 311
prescribe drugs and therapeutic devices under a certificate to 312
prescribe issued under section 4723.48 of the Revised Code.313

       (A) A clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or 314
certified nurse practitioner shall not prescribe any drug or 315
therapeutic device that is not included in the types of drugs and 316
devices listed on the formulary established in rules adopted under 317
section 4723.50 of the Revised Code.318

       (B) The prescriptive authority of a clinical nurse 319
specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse 320
practitioner shall not exceed the prescriptive authority of the 321
collaborating physician or podiatrist, including the collaborating 322
physician's authority to treat chronic pain with controlled 323
substances and products containing tramadol as described in 324
section 4731.052 of the Revised Code.325

       (C)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) or (3) of this 326
section, a clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or 327
certified nurse practitioner may prescribe to a patient a schedule 328
II controlled substance only if all of the following are the case: 329

       (a) The patient has a terminal condition, as defined in 330
section 2133.01 of the Revised Code.331

       (b) The collaborating physician of the clinical nurse 332
specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse 333
practitioner initially prescribed the substance for the patient.334

       (c) The prescription is for an amount that does not exceed 335
the amount necessary for the patient's use in a single, 336
twenty-four-hour period. 337

       (2) The restrictions on prescriptive authority in division 338
(C)(1) of this section do not apply if a clinical nurse 339
specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse 340
practitioner issues the prescription to the patient from any of 341
the following locations:342

        (a) A hospital registered under section 3701.07 of the 343
Revised Code;344

       (b) An entity owned or controlled, in whole or in part, by a 345
hospital or by an entity that owns or controls, in whole or in 346
part, one or more hospitals;347

        (c) A health care facility operated by the department of 348
mental health and addiction services or the department of 349
developmental disabilities;350

        (d) A nursing home licensed under section 3721.02 of the 351
Revised Code or by a political subdivision certified under section 352
3721.09 of the Revised Code;353

       (e) A county home or district home operated under Chapter 354
5155. of the Revised Code that is certified under the medicare or 355
medicaid program;356

        (f) A hospice care program, as defined in section 3712.01 of 357
the Revised Code;358

       (g) A community mental health services provider, as defined 359
in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code;360

        (h) An ambulatory surgical facility, as defined in section 361
3702.30 of the Revised Code;362

       (i) A freestanding birthing center, as defined in section 363
3702.141 of the Revised Code;364

       (j) A federally qualified health center, as defined in 365
section 3701.047 of the Revised Code;366

       (k) A federally qualified health center look-alike, as 367
defined in section 3701.047 of the Revised Code;368

        (l) A health care office or facility operated by the board of 369
health of a city or general health district or the authority 370
having the duties of a board of health under section 3709.05 of 371
the Revised Code;372

       (m) A site where a medical practice is operated, but only if 373
the practice is comprised of one or more physicians who also are 374
owners of the practice; the practice is organized to provide 375
direct patient care; and the clinical nurse specialist, certified 376
nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner providing services 377
at the site has a standard care arrangement and collaborates with 378
at least one of the physician owners who practices primarily at 379
that site.380

       (3) A clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or 381
certified nurse practitioner shall not issue to a patient a 382
prescription for a schedule II controlled substance from a 383
convenience care clinic even if the clinic is owned or operated by 384
an entity specified in division (C)(2) of this section.385

       (D) A pharmacist who acts in good faith reliance on a 386
prescription issued by a clinical nurse specialist, certified 387
nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner under division 388
(C)(2) of this section is not liable for or subject to any of the 389
following for relying on the prescription: damages in any civil 390
action, prosecution in any criminal proceeding, or professional 391
disciplinary action by the state board of pharmacy under Chapter 392
4729. of the Revised Code.393

       (E) A clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or 394
certified nurse practitioner may personally furnish to a patient a 395
sample of any drug or therapeutic device included in the types of 396
drugs and devices listed on the formulary, except that all of the 397
following conditions apply:398

       (1) The amount of the sample furnished shall not exceed a 399
seventy-two-hour supply, except when the minimum available 400
quantity of the sample is packaged in an amount that is greater 401
than a seventy-two-hour supply, in which case the packaged amount 402
may be furnished.403

       (2) No charge may be imposed for the sample or for furnishing 404
it.405

       (3) Samples of controlled substances may not be personally 406
furnished.407

        (F) A clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or 408
certified nurse practitioner may personally furnish to a patient a 409
complete or partial supply of a drug or therapeutic device 410
included in the types of drugs and devices listed on the 411
formulary, except that all of the following conditions apply:412

       (1) The clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, 413
or certified nurse practitioner shall personally furnish only 414
antibiotics, antifungals, scabicides, contraceptives, prenatal 415
vitamins, antihypertensives, drugs and devices used in the 416
treatment of diabetes, drugs and devices used in the treatment of 417
asthma, and drugs used in the treatment of dyslipidemia.418

       (2) The clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, 419
or certified nurse practitioner shall not furnish the drugs and 420
devices in locations other than a health department operated by 421
the board of health of a city or general health district or the 422
authority having the duties of a board of health under section 423
3709.05 of the Revised Code, a federally funded comprehensive 424
primary care clinic, or a nonprofit health care clinic or program.425

       (3) The clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, 426
or certified nurse practitioner shall comply with all safety 427
standards for personally furnishing supplies of drugs and devices, 428
as established in rules adopted under section 4723.50 of the 429
Revised Code.430

       (G) A clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or 431
certified nurse practitioner shall comply with section 3719.061 of 432
the Revised Code if the nurse prescribes a controlled substance to 433
a minor, as defined in that section.434

       Sec. 4725.191.  By an affirmative vote of a majority of its 435
members, the state board of optometry shall suspend for not less 436
than six months the operation of an optometrist's certificate of 437
licensure if the optometrist fails to comply with section 3719.061 438
of the Revised Code. Disciplinary action under this section shall 439
be taken pursuant to an adjudication conducted under Chapter 119. 440
of the Revised Code.441

       Sec. 4730.252.  By an affirmative vote of not fewer than six 442
members, the state medical board shall suspend for not less than 443
six months the certificate to practice of a physician assistant 444
who fails to comply with section 3719.061 of the Revised Code. 445
Except as specified in division (J) of section 4730.25 of the 446
Revised Code, disciplinary action under this section shall be 447
taken pursuant to an adjudication conducted under Chapter 119. of 448
the Revised Code.449

       Sec. 4730.41.  (A) A certificate to prescribe issued under 450
this chapter authorizes a physician assistant to prescribe and 451
personally furnish drugs and therapeutic devices in the exercise 452
of physician-delegated prescriptive authority.453

       (B) In exercising physician-delegated prescriptive authority, 454
a physician assistant is subject to all of the following:455

       (1) The physician assistant shall exercise 456
physician-delegated prescriptive authority only to the extent that 457
the physician supervising the physician assistant has granted that 458
authority.459

       (2) The physician assistant shall comply with all conditions 460
placed on the physician-delegated prescriptive authority, as 461
specified by the supervising physician who is supervising the 462
physician assistant in the exercise of physician-delegated 463
prescriptive authority.464

       (3) If the physician assistant possesses physician-delegated 465
prescriptive authority for controlled substances, the physician 466
assistant shall register with the federal drug enforcement 467
administration.468

       (4) If the physician assistant possesses physician-delegated 469
prescriptive authority for schedule II controlled substances, the 470
physician assistant shall comply with section 4730.411 of the 471
Revised Code.472

       (5) If the physician assistant prescribes controlled 473
substances to a minor, the physician assistant shall comply with 474
section 3719.061 of the Revised Code. As used in this division, 475
"minor" has the same meaning as in section 3719.061 of the Revised 476
Code.477

       Sec. 4731.229.  By an affirmative vote of not fewer than six 478
of its members, the state medical board shall suspend for not less 479
than six months the certificate to practice medicine and surgery, 480
osteopathic medicine and surgery, or podiatric medicine and 481
surgery of a physician who fails to comply with section 3719.061 482
of the Revised Code. 483

       When investigating or conducting a hearing on an alleged 484
violation of section 3719.061 of the Revised Code, the board may 485
take any action it is authorized to take under division (F) of 486
section 4731.22 of the Revised Code. 487

       Except as specified in division (J) of section 4731.22 of the 488
Revised Code, disciplinary action under this section shall be 489
taken pursuant to an adjudication conducted under Chapter 119. of 490
the Revised Code. 491

       Section 2.  That existing sections 4715.30, 4723.481, and 492
4730.41 of the Revised Code are hereby repealed.493