As Passed by the House

130th General Assembly
Regular Session
2013-2014
Sub. H. B. No. 314


Representatives Baker, Kunze 

Cosponsors: Representatives Hagan, C., Landis, Antonio, Sprague, Boose, Smith, Stebelton, Hood, Green, Sears, Driehaus, Patterson, O'Brien, Becker, Wachtmann, Hill, Schuring, Amstutz, Beck, Blair, Brown, Buchy, Burkley, Derickson, Dovilla, Hayes, Henne, Lynch, McClain, Pelanda, Perales, Pillich, Rosenberger, Ruhl, Sheehy, Slaby, Strahorn, Terhar, Thompson, Young Speaker Batchelder 



A BILL
To amend sections 4715.30, 4723.481, and 4730.41 and 1
to enact sections 3719.061, 4723.283, 4725.191, 2
4730.252, and 4731.229 of the Revised Code to 3
require a prescriber to obtain written informed 4
consent from a minor's parent, guardian, or other 5
person responsible for the minor before issuing a 6
prescription for a controlled substance that 7
contains an opioid to the minor and to establish 8
sanctions for a prescriber's violation of this 9
requirement.10


BE IT ENACTED BY THE GENERAL ASSEMBLY OF THE STATE OF OHIO:

       Section 1. That sections 4715.30, 4723.481, and 4730.41 be 11
amended and sections 3719.061, 4723.283, 4725.191, 4730.252, and 12
4731.229 of the Revised Code be enacted to read as follows:13

       Sec. 3719.061.  (A)(1) As used in this section:14

       (a) "Medical emergency" means a situation that in a 15
prescriber's good faith medical judgment creates an immediate 16
threat of serious risk to the life or physical health of a minor.17

       (b) "Minor" means a person under eighteen years of age who is 18
not emancipated.19

       (2) For the purposes of this section, a person under eighteen 20
years of age is emancipated only if the person has married, 21
entered the armed services of the United States, became employed 22
and self-sustaining, or has otherwise become independent from the 23
care and control of the person's parent, guardian, or custodian.24

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, 25
before issuing for a minor the first prescription in a single 26
course of treatment for a particular compound that is a controlled 27
substance that contains an opioid, regardless of whether the 28
dosage is modified during that course of treatment, a prescriber 29
shall do all of the following:30

       (1) As part of the prescriber's examination of the minor, 31
assess whether the minor has ever suffered, or is currently 32
suffering, from mental health or substance abuse disorders and 33
whether the minor has taken or is currently taking prescription 34
drugs for treatment of those disorders;35

       (2) Discuss with the minor and the minor's parent, guardian, 36
or other person responsible for the minor all of the following:37

       (a) The risks of addiction and overdose associated with the 38
compound;39

       (b) The increased risk of addiction to controlled substances 40
of individuals suffering from both mental and substance abuse 41
disorders;42

       (c) The dangers of taking controlled substances containing 43
opioids with benzodiazepines, alcohol, or other central nervous 44
system depressants;45

       (d) Any other information in the patient counseling 46
information section of labeling for the compound required under 21 47
C.F.R. 201.57(c)(18).48

       (3) Obtain written consent for the prescription from the 49
minor's parent, guardian, or other person responsible for the 50
minor.51

        The prescriber shall record the consent on a form, separate 52
from any other document the prescriber uses to obtain informed 53
consent for other treatment provided to the minor, that contains 54
all of the following:55

       (a) The name and quantity of the compound being prescribed 56
and the amount of the initial dose;57

       (b) A statement indicating that a controlled substance is a 58
drug or other substance that the United States drug enforcement 59
agency has identified as having a potential for abuse;60

       (c) A statement certifying that the prescriber discussed with 61
the minor and the minor's parent, guardian, or other person 62
responsible for the minor the matters described in division (B)(2) 63
of this section;64

       (d) The number of refills authorized by the prescription;65

       (e) The signature of the minor's parent, guardian, or other 66
person responsible for the minor and the date of signing.67

       (C)(1) The requirements in division (B) of this section do 68
not apply if the minor's treatment with a controlled substance 69
that contains an opioid meets any of the following criteria:70

       (a) The treatment is associated with or incident to a medical 71
emergency.72

       (b) The treatment is associated with or incident to surgery, 73
regardless of whether the surgery is performed on an inpatient or 74
outpatient basis.75

       (c) In the prescriber's professional judgment, fulfilling the 76
requirements of division (B) of this section with respect to the 77
minor's treatment would be a detriment to the minor's health or 78
safety.79

        (d) Except as provided in division (C)(2) of this section, 80
the treatment is rendered in a hospital, ambulatory surgical 81
facility, nursing home, pediatric respite care program, 82
residential care facility, freestanding rehabilitation facility, 83
or similar institutional facility.84

       (2) The exemption in division (C)(1)(d) of this section does 85
not apply to treatment rendered in a prescriber's office that is 86
located on the premises of or adjacent to a facility or other 87
location described in that division.88

        (D) If the exemption in division (C)(1)(c) of this section 89
applies, the prescriber shall notify the appropriate public 90
children services agency of the circumstances precipitating the 91
prescriber's professional judgment to invoke this exemption.92

        (E) The signed consent form shall be maintained in the 93
minor's medical record.94

       Sec. 4715.30.  (A) An applicant for or holder of a 95
certificate or license issued under this chapter is subject to 96
disciplinary action by the state dental board for any of the 97
following reasons:98

       (1) Employing or cooperating in fraud or material deception 99
in applying for or obtaining a license or certificate; 100

       (2) Obtaining or attempting to obtain money or anything of 101
value by intentional misrepresentation or material deception in 102
the course of practice; 103

       (3) Advertising services in a false or misleading manner or 104
violating the board's rules governing time, place, and manner of 105
advertising;106

       (4) Commission of an act that constitutes a felony in this 107
state, regardless of the jurisdiction in which the act was 108
committed;109

        (5) Commission of an act in the course of practice that 110
constitutes a misdemeanor in this state, regardless of the 111
jurisdiction in which the act was committed; 112

       (6) Conviction of, a plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of 113
guilt of, a judicial finding of guilt resulting from a plea of no 114
contest to, or a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention 115
in lieu of conviction for, any felony or of a misdemeanor 116
committed in the course of practice;117

       (7) Engaging in lewd or immoral conduct in connection with 118
the provision of dental services; 119

       (8) Selling, prescribing, giving away, or administering drugs 120
for other than legal and legitimate therapeutic purposes, or 121
conviction of, a plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt 122
of, a judicial finding of guilt resulting from a plea of no 123
contest to, or a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention 124
in lieu of conviction for, a violation of any federal or state law 125
regulating the possession, distribution, or use of any drug; 126

       (9) Providing or allowing dental hygienists, expanded 127
function dental auxiliaries, or other practitioners of auxiliary 128
dental occupations working under the certificate or license 129
holder's supervision, or a dentist holding a temporary limited 130
continuing education license under division (C) of section 4715.16 131
of the Revised Code working under the certificate or license 132
holder's direct supervision, to provide dental care that departs 133
from or fails to conform to accepted standards for the profession, 134
whether or not injury to a patient results; 135

       (10) Inability to practice under accepted standards of the 136
profession because of physical or mental disability, dependence on 137
alcohol or other drugs, or excessive use of alcohol or other 138
drugs; 139

       (11) Violation of any provision of this chapter or any rule 140
adopted thereunder; 141

       (12) Failure to use universal blood and body fluid 142
precautions established by rules adopted under section 4715.03 of 143
the Revised Code; 144

       (13) Except as provided in division (H) of this section, 145
either of the following:146

       (a) Waiving the payment of all or any part of a deductible or 147
copayment that a patient, pursuant to a health insurance or health 148
care policy, contract, or plan that covers dental services, would 149
otherwise be required to pay if the waiver is used as an 150
enticement to a patient or group of patients to receive health 151
care services from that certificate or license holder; 152

       (b) Advertising that the certificate or license holder will 153
waive the payment of all or any part of a deductible or copayment 154
that a patient, pursuant to a health insurance or health care 155
policy, contract, or plan that covers dental services, would 156
otherwise be required to pay.157

       (14) Failure to comply with section 4729.79 of the Revised 158
Code, unless the state board of pharmacy no longer maintains a 159
drug database pursuant to section 4729.75 of the Revised Code;160

       (15) Any of the following actions taken by an agency 161
responsible for authorizing, certifying, or regulating an 162
individual to practice a health care occupation or provide health 163
care services in this state or another jurisdiction, for any 164
reason other than the nonpayment of fees: the limitation, 165
revocation, or suspension of an individual's license to practice; 166
acceptance of an individual's license surrender; denial of a 167
license; refusal to renew or reinstate a license; imposition of 168
probation; or issuance of an order of censure or other reprimand;169

        (16) Failure to cooperate in an investigation conducted by 170
the board under division (D) of section 4715.03 of the Revised 171
Code, including failure to comply with a subpoena or order issued 172
by the board or failure to answer truthfully a question presented 173
by the board at a deposition or in written interrogatories, except 174
that failure to cooperate with an investigation shall not 175
constitute grounds for discipline under this section if a court of 176
competent jurisdiction has issued an order that either quashes a 177
subpoena or permits the individual to withhold the testimony or 178
evidence in issue;179

       (17) Violation of section 3719.061 of the Revised Code. 180

       (B) A manager, proprietor, operator, or conductor of a dental 181
facility shall be subject to disciplinary action if any dentist, 182
dental hygienist, expanded function dental auxiliary, or qualified 183
personnel providing services in the facility is found to have 184
committed a violation listed in division (A) of this section and 185
the manager, proprietor, operator, or conductor knew of the 186
violation and permitted it to occur on a recurring basis. 187

       (C)(1) Subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the board 188
may take one or more of the following disciplinary actions if one 189
or more of the grounds for discipline listed in divisions (A)(1) 190
to (16) and (B) of this section exist: 191

       (1)(a) Censure the license or certificate holder; 192

       (2)(b) Place the license or certificate on probationary 193
status for such period of time the board determines necessary and 194
require the holder to: 195

       (a)(i) Report regularly to the board upon the matters which 196
are the basis of probation; 197

       (b)(ii) Limit practice to those areas specified by the board; 198

       (c)(iii) Continue or renew professional education until a 199
satisfactory degree of knowledge or clinical competency has been 200
attained in specified areas. 201

       (3)(c) Suspend the certificate or license; 202

       (4)(d) Revoke the certificate or license. 203

       (2) For the initial violation of section 3719.061 of the 204
Revised Code by a dentist, the board may impose a fine not to 205
exceed twenty thousand dollars. For each subsequent violation of 206
that section, the board may impose an additional fine not to 207
exceed twenty thousand dollars, suspend for not less than six 208
months the license of the dentist, or both.209

        Disciplinary action under this section shall be taken 210
pursuant to an adjudication conducted under Chapter 119. of the 211
Revised Code.212

       Where the board places a holder of a license or certificate 213
on probationary status pursuant to division (C)(2)(1)(b) of this 214
section, the board may subsequently suspend or revoke the license 215
or certificate if it determines that the holder has not met the 216
requirements of the probation or continues to engage in activities 217
that constitute grounds for discipline pursuant to division (A) or 218
(B) of this section. 219

       Any order suspending a license or certificate for grounds for 220
discipline listed in divisions (A)(1) to (16) of this section221
shall state the conditions under which the license or certificate 222
will be restored, which may include a conditional restoration 223
during which time the holder is in a probationary status pursuant 224
to division (C)(2)(1)(b) of this section. The board shall restore 225
the license or certificate unconditionally when such conditions 226
are met. 227

       (D) If the physical or mental condition of an applicant or a 228
license or certificate holder is at issue in a disciplinary 229
proceeding, the board may order the license or certificate holder 230
to submit to reasonable examinations by an individual designated 231
or approved by the board and at the board's expense. The physical 232
examination may be conducted by any individual authorized by the 233
Revised Code to do so, including a physician assistant, a clinical 234
nurse specialist, a certified nurse practitioner, or a certified 235
nurse-midwife. Any written documentation of the physical 236
examination shall be completed by the individual who conducted the 237
examination. 238

       Failure to comply with an order for an examination shall be 239
grounds for refusal of a license or certificate or summary 240
suspension of a license or certificate under division (E) of this 241
section. 242

       (E) If a license or certificate holder has failed to comply 243
with an order under division (D) of this section, the board may 244
apply to the court of common pleas of the county in which the 245
holder resides for an order temporarily suspending the holder's 246
license or certificate, without a prior hearing being afforded by 247
the board, until the board conducts an adjudication hearing 248
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. If the court 249
temporarily suspends a holder's license or certificate, the board 250
shall give written notice of the suspension personally or by 251
certified mail to the license or certificate holder. Such notice 252
shall inform the license or certificate holder of the right to a 253
hearing pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. 254

       (F) Any holder of a certificate or license issued under this 255
chapter who has pleaded guilty to, has been convicted of, or has 256
had a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of 257
conviction entered against the holder in this state for aggravated 258
murder, murder, voluntary manslaughter, felonious assault, 259
kidnapping, rape, sexual battery, gross sexual imposition, 260
aggravated arson, aggravated robbery, or aggravated burglary, or 261
who has pleaded guilty to, has been convicted of, or has had a 262
judicial finding of eligibility for treatment or intervention in 263
lieu of conviction entered against the holder in another 264
jurisdiction for any substantially equivalent criminal offense, is 265
automatically suspended from practice under this chapter in this 266
state and any certificate or license issued to the holder under 267
this chapter is automatically suspended, as of the date of the 268
guilty plea, conviction, or judicial finding, whether the 269
proceedings are brought in this state or another jurisdiction. 270
Continued practice by an individual after the suspension of the 271
individual's certificate or license under this division shall be 272
considered practicing without a certificate or license. The board 273
shall notify the suspended individual of the suspension of the 274
individual's certificate or license under this division by 275
certified mail or in person in accordance with section 119.07 of 276
the Revised Code. If an individual whose certificate or license is 277
suspended under this division fails to make a timely request for 278
an adjudicatory hearing, the board shall enter a final order 279
revoking the individual's certificate or license. 280

       (G) If the supervisory investigative panel determines both of 281
the following, the panel may recommend that the board suspend an 282
individual's certificate or license without a prior hearing:283

       (1) That there is clear and convincing evidence that an 284
individual has violated divisiondivisions (A)(1) to (16) of this 285
section;286

       (2) That the individual's continued practice presents a 287
danger of immediate and serious harm to the public.288

       Written allegations shall be prepared for consideration by 289
the board. The board, upon review of those allegations and by an 290
affirmative vote of not fewer than four dentist members of the 291
board and seven of its members in total, excluding any member on 292
the supervisory investigative panel, may suspend a certificate or 293
license without a prior hearing. A telephone conference call may 294
be utilized for reviewing the allegations and taking the vote on 295
the summary suspension.296

       The board shall issue a written order of suspension by 297
certified mail or in person in accordance with section 119.07 of 298
the Revised Code. The order shall not be subject to suspension by 299
the court during pendency or any appeal filed under section 119.12 300
of the Revised Code. If the individual subject to the summary 301
suspension requests an adjudicatory hearing by the board, the date 302
set for the hearing shall be within fifteen days, but not earlier 303
than seven days, after the individual requests the hearing, unless 304
otherwise agreed to by both the board and the individual.305

       Any summary suspension imposed under this division shall 306
remain in effect, unless reversed on appeal, until a final 307
adjudicative order issued by the board pursuant to this section 308
and Chapter 119. of the Revised Code becomes effective. The board 309
shall issue its final adjudicative order within seventy-five days 310
after completion of its hearing. A failure to issue the order 311
within seventy-five days shall result in dissolution of the 312
summary suspension order but shall not invalidate any subsequent, 313
final adjudicative order.314

       (H) Sanctions shall not be imposed under division (A)(13) of 315
this section against any certificate or license holder who waives 316
deductibles and copayments as follows: 317

       (1) In compliance with the health benefit plan that expressly 318
allows such a practice. Waiver of the deductibles or copayments 319
shall be made only with the full knowledge and consent of the plan 320
purchaser, payer, and third-party administrator. Documentation of 321
the consent shall be made available to the board upon request. 322

       (2) For professional services rendered to any other person 323
who holds a certificate or license issued pursuant to this chapter 324
to the extent allowed by this chapter and the rules of the board. 325

       (I) In no event shall the board consider or raise during a 326
hearing required by Chapter 119. of the Revised Code the 327
circumstances of, or the fact that the board has received, one or 328
more complaints about a person unless the one or more complaints 329
are the subject of the hearing or resulted in the board taking an 330
action authorized by this section against the person on a prior 331
occasion.332

       (J) The board may share any information it receives pursuant 333
to an investigation under division (D) of section 4715.03 of the 334
Revised Code, including patient records and patient record 335
information, with law enforcement agencies, other licensing 336
boards, and other governmental agencies that are prosecuting, 337
adjudicating, or investigating alleged violations of statutes or 338
administrative rules. An agency or board that receives the 339
information shall comply with the same requirements regarding 340
confidentiality as those with which the state dental board must 341
comply, notwithstanding any conflicting provision of the Revised 342
Code or procedure of the agency or board that applies when it is 343
dealing with other information in its possession. In a judicial 344
proceeding, the information may be admitted into evidence only in 345
accordance with the Rules of Evidence, but the court shall require 346
that appropriate measures are taken to ensure that confidentiality 347
is maintained with respect to any part of the information that 348
contains names or other identifying information about patients or 349
complainants whose confidentiality was protected by the state 350
dental board when the information was in the board's possession. 351
Measures to ensure confidentiality that may be taken by the court 352
include sealing its records or deleting specific information from 353
its records.354

       Sec. 4723.283. (A) For the initial violation of section 355
3719.061 of the Revised Code by a clinical nurse specialist, 356
certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner, the 357
board of nursing, by a vote of a quorum, may impose a fine not to 358
exceed twenty thousand dollars. For each subsequent violation of 359
that section, the board, by a vote of a quorum, may impose an 360
additional fine not to exceed twenty thousand dollars; suspend for 361
not less than six months the nurse's license to practice as a 362
registered nurse, certificate of authority, and certificate to 363
prescribe; or both.364

       (B) Disciplinary action under this section shall be taken 365
pursuant to an adjudication conducted under Chapter 119. of the 366
Revised Code. 367

       When investigating or conducting a hearing on an alleged 368
violation of section 3719.061 of the Revised Code, the board may 369
take any action it is authorized to take under division (D), (F), 370
or (G) of section 4723.28 of the Revised Code. 371

       Sec. 4723.481.  This section establishes standards and 372
conditions regarding the authority of a clinical nurse specialist, 373
certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner to 374
prescribe drugs and therapeutic devices under a certificate to 375
prescribe issued under section 4723.48 of the Revised Code.376

       (A) A clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or 377
certified nurse practitioner shall not prescribe any drug or 378
therapeutic device that is not included in the types of drugs and 379
devices listed on the formulary established in rules adopted under 380
section 4723.50 of the Revised Code.381

       (B) The prescriptive authority of a clinical nurse 382
specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse 383
practitioner shall not exceed the prescriptive authority of the 384
collaborating physician or podiatrist, including the collaborating 385
physician's authority to treat chronic pain with controlled 386
substances and products containing tramadol as described in 387
section 4731.052 of the Revised Code.388

       (C)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) or (3) of this 389
section, a clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or 390
certified nurse practitioner may prescribe to a patient a schedule 391
II controlled substance only if all of the following are the case: 392

       (a) The patient has a terminal condition, as defined in 393
section 2133.01 of the Revised Code.394

       (b) The collaborating physician of the clinical nurse 395
specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse 396
practitioner initially prescribed the substance for the patient.397

       (c) The prescription is for an amount that does not exceed 398
the amount necessary for the patient's use in a single, 399
twenty-four-hour period. 400

       (2) The restrictions on prescriptive authority in division 401
(C)(1) of this section do not apply if a clinical nurse 402
specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse 403
practitioner issues the prescription to the patient from any of 404
the following locations:405

        (a) A hospital registered under section 3701.07 of the 406
Revised Code;407

       (b) An entity owned or controlled, in whole or in part, by a 408
hospital or by an entity that owns or controls, in whole or in 409
part, one or more hospitals;410

        (c) A health care facility operated by the department of 411
mental health and addiction services or the department of 412
developmental disabilities;413

        (d) A nursing home licensed under section 3721.02 of the 414
Revised Code or by a political subdivision certified under section 415
3721.09 of the Revised Code;416

       (e) A county home or district home operated under Chapter 417
5155. of the Revised Code that is certified under the medicare or 418
medicaid program;419

        (f) A hospice care program, as defined in section 3712.01 of 420
the Revised Code;421

       (g) A community mental health services provider, as defined 422
in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code;423

        (h) An ambulatory surgical facility, as defined in section 424
3702.30 of the Revised Code;425

       (i) A freestanding birthing center, as defined in section 426
3702.141 of the Revised Code;427

       (j) A federally qualified health center, as defined in 428
section 3701.047 of the Revised Code;429

       (k) A federally qualified health center look-alike, as 430
defined in section 3701.047 of the Revised Code;431

        (l) A health care office or facility operated by the board of 432
health of a city or general health district or the authority 433
having the duties of a board of health under section 3709.05 of 434
the Revised Code;435

       (m) A site where a medical practice is operated, but only if 436
the practice is comprised of one or more physicians who also are 437
owners of the practice; the practice is organized to provide 438
direct patient care; and the clinical nurse specialist, certified 439
nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner providing services 440
at the site has a standard care arrangement and collaborates with 441
at least one of the physician owners who practices primarily at 442
that site.443

       (3) A clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or 444
certified nurse practitioner shall not issue to a patient a 445
prescription for a schedule II controlled substance from a 446
convenience care clinic even if the clinic is owned or operated by 447
an entity specified in division (C)(2) of this section.448

       (D) A pharmacist who acts in good faith reliance on a 449
prescription issued by a clinical nurse specialist, certified 450
nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner under division 451
(C)(2) of this section is not liable for or subject to any of the 452
following for relying on the prescription: damages in any civil 453
action, prosecution in any criminal proceeding, or professional 454
disciplinary action by the state board of pharmacy under Chapter 455
4729. of the Revised Code.456

       (E) A clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or 457
certified nurse practitioner may personally furnish to a patient a 458
sample of any drug or therapeutic device included in the types of 459
drugs and devices listed on the formulary, except that all of the 460
following conditions apply:461

       (1) The amount of the sample furnished shall not exceed a 462
seventy-two-hour supply, except when the minimum available 463
quantity of the sample is packaged in an amount that is greater 464
than a seventy-two-hour supply, in which case the packaged amount 465
may be furnished.466

       (2) No charge may be imposed for the sample or for furnishing 467
it.468

       (3) Samples of controlled substances may not be personally 469
furnished.470

        (F) A clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or 471
certified nurse practitioner may personally furnish to a patient a 472
complete or partial supply of a drug or therapeutic device 473
included in the types of drugs and devices listed on the 474
formulary, except that all of the following conditions apply:475

       (1) The clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, 476
or certified nurse practitioner shall personally furnish only 477
antibiotics, antifungals, scabicides, contraceptives, prenatal 478
vitamins, antihypertensives, drugs and devices used in the 479
treatment of diabetes, drugs and devices used in the treatment of 480
asthma, and drugs used in the treatment of dyslipidemia.481

       (2) The clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, 482
or certified nurse practitioner shall not furnish the drugs and 483
devices in locations other than a health department operated by 484
the board of health of a city or general health district or the 485
authority having the duties of a board of health under section 486
3709.05 of the Revised Code, a federally funded comprehensive 487
primary care clinic, or a nonprofit health care clinic or program.488

       (3) The clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, 489
or certified nurse practitioner shall comply with all safety 490
standards for personally furnishing supplies of drugs and devices, 491
as established in rules adopted under section 4723.50 of the 492
Revised Code.493

       (G) A clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or 494
certified nurse practitioner shall comply with section 3719.061 of 495
the Revised Code if the nurse prescribes a controlled substance 496
that contains an opioid to a minor, as defined in that section.497

       Sec. 4725.191. (A) For the initial violation of section 498
3719.061 of the Revised Code by an optometrist, the state board of 499
optometry, by an affirmative vote of not fewer than six members, 500
may impose a fine not to exceed twenty thousand dollars. For each 501
subsequent violation of that section, the board, by an affirmative 502
vote of not fewer than six members, may impose an additional fine 503
not to exceed twenty thousand dollars, suspend for not less than 504
six months the operation of the optometrist's certificate of 505
licensure and therapeutic pharmaceutical agents certificate, or 506
both.507

       (B) Disciplinary action under this section shall be taken 508
pursuant to an adjudication conducted under Chapter 119. of the 509
Revised Code.510

       Sec. 4730.252. (A) For the initial violation of section 511
3719.061 of the Revised Code by a physician assistant, the state 512
medical board, by an affirmative vote of not fewer than six 513
members, may impose a fine not to exceed twenty thousand dollars. 514
For each subsequent violation of that section, the board, by an 515
affirmative vote of not fewer than six members, may impose an 516
additional fine not to exceed twenty thousand dollars, suspend for 517
not less than six months the physician assistant's certificate to 518
practice and certificate to prescribe, or both.519

       (B) Except as specified in division (J) of section 4730.25 of 520
the Revised Code, disciplinary action under this section shall be 521
taken pursuant to an adjudication conducted under Chapter 119. of 522
the Revised Code.523

       Sec. 4730.41.  (A) A certificate to prescribe issued under 524
this chapter authorizes a physician assistant to prescribe and 525
personally furnish drugs and therapeutic devices in the exercise 526
of physician-delegated prescriptive authority.527

       (B) In exercising physician-delegated prescriptive authority, 528
a physician assistant is subject to all of the following:529

       (1) The physician assistant shall exercise 530
physician-delegated prescriptive authority only to the extent that 531
the physician supervising the physician assistant has granted that 532
authority.533

       (2) The physician assistant shall comply with all conditions 534
placed on the physician-delegated prescriptive authority, as 535
specified by the supervising physician who is supervising the 536
physician assistant in the exercise of physician-delegated 537
prescriptive authority.538

       (3) If the physician assistant possesses physician-delegated 539
prescriptive authority for controlled substances, the physician 540
assistant shall register with the federal drug enforcement 541
administration.542

       (4) If the physician assistant possesses physician-delegated 543
prescriptive authority for schedule II controlled substances, the 544
physician assistant shall comply with section 4730.411 of the 545
Revised Code.546

       (5) If the physician assistant prescribes a controlled 547
substance that contains an opioid to a minor, the physician 548
assistant shall comply with section 3719.061 of the Revised Code. 549
As used in this division, "minor" has the same meaning as in 550
section 3719.061 of the Revised Code.551

       Sec. 4731.229. (A) As used in this section, "physician" means 552
an individual authorized under this chapter to practice medicine 553
and surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery, or podiatric 554
medicine and surgery.555

       (B) For the initial violation of section 3719.061 of the 556
Revised Code by a physician, the state medical board, by an 557
affirmative vote of not fewer than six members, may impose a fine 558
not to exceed twenty thousand dollars. For each subsequent 559
violation of that section, the board, by an affirmative vote of 560
not fewer than six members, may impose an additional fine not to 561
exceed twenty thousand dollars; suspend for not less than six 562
months the physician's certificate to practice medicine and 563
surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery, or podiatric medicine 564
and surgery; or both.565

       (C) When investigating or conducting a hearing on an alleged 566
violation of section 3719.061 of the Revised Code, the board may 567
take any action it is authorized to take under division (F) of 568
section 4731.22 of the Revised Code. 569

       (D) Except as specified in division (J) of section 4731.22 of 570
the Revised Code, disciplinary action under this section shall be 571
taken pursuant to an adjudication conducted under Chapter 119. of 572
the Revised Code. 573

       Section 2.  That existing sections 4715.30, 4723.481, and 574
4730.41 of the Revised Code are hereby repealed.575