To amend sections 7.10, 7.16, 9.482, 109.572, 109.5721, 111.15, 119.03, 119.12, 121.08, 122.121, 122.136, 122.17, 122.171, 122.21, 122.25, 122.37, 122.64, 122.86, 122.861, 122.89, 122.94, 122.941, 123.01, 124.32, 125.13, 125.182, 126.21, 126.25, 131.02, 133.06, 149.311, 149.38, 150.10, 153.56, 164.26, 166.13, 166.18, 166.21, 173.27, 173.38, 184.02, 191.01, 340.02, 340.021, 718.15, 718.151, 901.22, 903.01, 903.03, 903.07, 903.082, 903.09, 903.10, 903.11, 903.12, 903.13, 903.16, 903.17, 903.25, 921.06, 941.14, 953.22, 1321.535, 1321.55, 1322.03, 1322.031, 1322.04, 1322.041, 1322.051, 1322.06, 1501.01, 1501.011, 1509.01, 1509.02, 1509.04, 1509.05, 1509.06, 1509.071, 1509.08, 1509.11, 1509.222, 1509.223, 1509.23, 1509.27, 1509.33, 1509.34, 1509.99, 1511.01, 1511.02, 1511.021, 1511.022, 1511.05, 1511.07, 1511.99, 1515.01, 1515.02, 1515.08, 1533.081, 1533.10, 1533.11, 1533.12, 1551.34, 1561.31, 1711.50, 1711.53, 2151.417, 2151.421, 2152.19, 2305.25, 2305.252, 2701.09, 2915.01, 2915.03, 2915.06, 2915.061, 2945.402, 3123.89, 3301.0714, 3301.0715, 3302.03, 3302.10, 3313.372, 3313.603, 3313.6013, 3313.6016, 3313.90, 3313.91, 3314.08, 3317.02, 3317.0217, 3317.03, 3319.22, 3319.26, 3321.03, 3321.04, 3321.07, 3321.08, 3321.09, 3324.07, 3326.36, 3328.24, 3331.04, 3333.041, 3333.048, 3333.35, 3333.43, 3333.86, 3345.06, 3358.06, 3365.04, 3365.041, 3365.05, 3365.06, 3365.08, 3365.11, 3701.132, 3701.34, 3701.74, 3701.83, 3701.881, 3702.511, 3702.52, 3702.526, 3702.71, 3702.74, 3702.75, 3702.91, 3702.95, 3704.05, 3730.09, 3731.02, 3734.02, 3734.029, 3734.905, 3737.02, 3745.70, 3750.13, 3750.14, 3770.01, 3770.02, 3770.05, 3772.01, 3772.02, 3772.03, 3772.032, 3772.033, 3772.04, 3772.06, 3772.07, 3772.10, 3772.12, 3772.121, 3772.15, 3772.17, 3772.21, 3772.23, 3772.31, 3772.99, 4121.129, 4123.01, 4123.26, 4123.27, 4123.29, 4123.291, 4123.292, 4123.32, 4123.322, 4123.34, 4123.35, 4123.353, 4123.36, 4123.37, 4123.40, 4123.41, 4123.411, 4123.47, 4123.511, 4123.512, 4123.54, 4123.66, 4123.82, 4123.83, 4125.05, 4141.01, 4141.09, 4141.11, 4141.131, 4141.20, 4141.25, 4141.26, 4141.28, 4141.29, 4141.35, 4511.191, 4729.03, 4729.12, 4729.13, 4729.15, 4729.54, 4729.80, 4729.83, 4729.86, 4731.36, 4737.045, 4740.06, 4743.04, 4758.01, 4758.02, 4758.06, 4758.16, 4758.20, 4758.21, 4758.23, 4758.24, 4758.26, 4758.28, 4758.29, 4758.30, 4758.31, 4758.35, 4758.36, 4758.50, 4758.51, 4758.60, 4758.71, 4781.121, 4781.29, 4905.01, 4905.81, 4905.95, 4921.13, 4921.19, 4923.01, 4923.02, 4923.04, 4928.66, 5104.03, 5123.01, 5123.011, 5123.012, 5123.081, 5123.16, 5123.162, 5123.169, 5123.19, 5123.191, 5123.21, 5123.61, 5123.75, 5123.76, 5123.89, 5124.01, 5124.106, 5124.21, 5124.60, 5124.61, 5124.62, 5124.67, 5126.01, 5126.0219, 5126.041, 5126.046, 5126.051, 5126.08, 5126.21, 5126.25, 5126.42, 5126.43, 5126.45, 5139.05, 5139.34, 5139.36, 5139.41, 5164.34, 5164.342, 5513.01, 5703.052, 5703.056, 5703.059, 5703.21, 5713.012, 5727.47, 5727.91, 5735.01, 5735.026, 5735.03, 5735.06, 5735.062, 5735.07, 5735.09, 5735.12, 5735.141, 5735.23, 5736.06, 5736.09, 5736.13, 5743.01, 5743.02, 5743.021, 5743.024, 5743.025, 5743.03, 5743.04, 5743.05, 5743.051, 5743.112, 5743.32, 5743.51, 5743.52, 5743.62, 5743.63, 5743.65, 5747.02, 5747.025, 5747.08, 5747.71 5747.98, 5749.01, 5749.02, 5749.03, 5749.04, 5749.06, 5749.07, 5749.08, 5749.10, 5749.12, 5749.13, 5749.14, 5749.15, 5749.17, 5751.03, 5751.20, 5902.02, 5903.03, 5903.10, 5903.11, 5903.12, 5903.121, 5907.01, 5907.04, 6109.10, 6111.03, 6111.04, 6111.44, and 6111.99; to amend, for the purpose of adopting new section numbers as indicated in parentheses, sections 1509.061 (1509.091), 1511.022 (939.04), 3365.04 (3365.06), 3365.041 (3365.032), 3365.05 (3365.12), 3365.06 (3365.031), and 3365.11 (3365.09); to enact new sections 3313.6015, 3365.01, 3365.02, 3365.03, 3365.04, 3365.05, 3365.07, 3365.10, 3365.11, and 3365.15 and sections 107.35, 164.261, 190.01, 190.02, 190.03, 190.04, 321.50, 939.01, 939.02, 939.03, 939.05, 939.06, 939.07, 939.08, 939.09, 939.10, 939.11, 1509.051, 1511.023, 1511.09, 2915.062, 3123.90, 3313.902, 3317.162, 3333.0413, 3333.164, 3333.171, 3333.33, 3333.44, 3333.90, 3333.91, 3345.42, 3345.43, 3345.44, 3345.46, 3365.071, 3365.13, 3721.122, 3772.14, 4121.443, 4121.447, 4758.48, 4758.62, 4758.63, 4758.64, 4909.157, 5122.36, 5123.0420, 5139.12, 5139.45, 5736.50, 5749.031, 5903.01, 5903.04, and 5903.05; to repeal sections 183.35, 903.04, 1509.50, 1511.071, 3125.191, 3313.6015, 3345.062, 3345.19, 3365.01, 3365.02, 3365.021, 3365.022, 3365.03, 3365.07, 3365.09, 3365.10, 3365.12, 3365.15, 3702.93, 3750.081, 4123.419, 5124.63, 5124.64, 5726.08, 5733.30, 5735.16, 5743.06, and 5745.10 of the Revised Code; to amend Section 1 of Sub. H.B. 34 of the 130th General Assembly, as subsequently amended; to amend Sections 207.10, 209.30, 211.10, 221.10, 241.10, 257.10, 259.10, 263.10, 263.230, 263.240, 263.250, 263.270, 263.325, 275.10, 282.10, 282.30, 285.10, 285.20, 301.10, 327.10, 327.83, 333.10, 333.80, 340.10, 359.10, 363.10, 363.120, 363.190, 363.200, 365.10, 371.10, 395.10, 403.10, 512.80, and 751.10 of Am. Sub. H.B. 59 of the 130th General Assembly; and to repeal Section 747.40 of Am. Sub. H.B. 59 of the 130th General Assembly to make operating and other appropriations and to provide authorization and conditions for the operation of state programs.

Section 101.01. That sections 7.10, 7.16, 9.482, 109.572, 109.5721, 111.15, 119.03, 119.12, 121.08, 122.121, 122.136, 122.17, 122.171, 122.21, 122.25, 122.37, 122.64, 122.86, 122.861, 122.89, 122.94, 122.941, 123.01, 124.32, 125.13, 125.182, 126.21, 126.25, 131.02, 133.06, 149.311, 149.38, 150.10, 153.56, 164.26, 166.13, 166.18, 166.21, 173.27, 173.38, 184.02, 191.01, 340.02, 340.021, 718.15, 718.151, 901.22, 903.01, 903.03, 903.07, 903.082, 903.09, 903.10, 903.11, 903.12, 903.13, 903.16, 903.17, 903.25, 921.06, 941.14, 953.22, 1321.535, 1321.55, 1322.03, 1322.031, 1322.04, 1322.041, 1322.051, 1322.06, 1501.01, 1501.011, 1509.01, 1509.02, 1509.04, 1509.05, 1509.06, 1509.071, 1509.08, 1509.11, 1509.222, 1509.223, 1509.23, 1509.27, 1509.33, 1509.34, 1509.99, 1511.01, 1511.02, 1511.021, 1511.022, 1511.05, 1511.07, 1511.99, 1515.01, 1515.02, 1515.08, 1533.081, 1533.10, 1533.11, 1533.12, 1551.34, 1561.31, 1711.50, 1711.53, 2151.417, 2151.421, 2152.19, 2305.25, 2305.252, 2701.09, 2915.01, 2915.03, 2915.06, 2915.061, 2945.402, 3123.89, 3301.0714, 3301.0715, 3302.03, 3302.10, 3313.372, 3313.603, 3313.6013, 3313.6016, 3313.90, 3313.91, 3314.08, 3317.02, 3317.0217, 3317.03, 3319.22, 3319.26, 3321.03, 3321.04, 3321.07, 3321.08, 3321.09, 3324.07, 3326.36, 3328.24, 3331.04, 3333.041, 3333.048, 3333.35, 3333.43, 3333.86, 3345.06, 3358.06, 3365.04, 3365.041, 3365.05, 3365.06, 3365.08, 3365.11, 3701.132, 3701.34, 3701.74, 3701.83, 3701.881, 3702.511, 3702.52, 3702.526, 3702.71, 3702.74, 3702.75, 3702.91, 3702.95, 3704.05, 3730.09, 3731.02, 3734.02, 3734.029, 3734.905, 3737.02, 3745.70, 3750.13, 3750.14, 3770.01, 3770.02, 3770.05, 3772.01, 3772.02, 3772.03, 3772.032, 3772.033, 3772.04, 3772.06, 3772.07, 3772.10, 3772.12, 3772.121, 3772.15, 3772.17, 3772.21, 3772.23, 3772.31, 3772.99, 4121.129, 4123.01, 4123.26, 4123.27, 4123.29, 4123.291, 4123.292, 4123.32, 4123.322, 4123.34, 4123.35, 4123.353, 4123.36, 4123.37, 4123.40, 4123.41, 4123.411, 4123.47, 4123.511, 4123.512, 4123.54, 4123.66, 4123.82, 4123.83, 4125.05, 4141.01, 4141.09, 4141.11, 4141.131, 4141.20, 4141.25, 4141.26, 4141.28, 4141.29, 4141.35, 4511.191, 4729.03, 4729.12, 4729.13, 4729.15, 4729.54, 4729.80, 4729.83, 4729.86, 4731.36, 4737.045, 4740.06, 4743.04, 4758.01, 4758.02, 4758.06, 4758.16, 4758.20, 4758.21, 4758.23, 4758.24, 4758.26, 4758.28, 4758.29, 4758.30, 4758.31, 4758.35, 4758.36, 4758.50, 4758.51, 4758.60, 4758.71, 4781.121, 4781.29, 4905.01, 4905.81, 4905.95, 4921.13, 4921.19, 4923.01, 4923.02, 4923.04, 4928.66, 5104.03, 5123.01, 5123.011, 5123.012, 5123.081, 5123.16, 5123.162, 5123.169, 5123.19, 5123.191, 5123.21, 5123.61, 5123.75, 5123.76, 5123.89, 5124.01, 5124.106, 5124.21, 5124.60, 5124.61, 5124.62, 5124.67, 5126.01, 5126.0219, 5126.041, 5126.046, 5126.051, 5126.08, 5126.21, 5126.25, 5126.42, 5126.43, 5126.45, 5139.05, 5139.34, 5139.36, 5139.41, 5164.34, 5164.342, 5513.01, 5703.052, 5703.056, 5703.059, 5703.21, 5713.012, 5727.47, 5727.91, 5735.01, 5735.026, 5735.03, 5735.06, 5735.062, 5735.07, 5735.09, 5735.12, 5735.141, 5735.23, 5736.06, 5736.09, 5736.13, 5743.01, 5743.02, 5743.021, 5743.024, 5743.025, 5743.03, 5743.04, 5743.05, 5743.051, 5743.112, 5743.32, 5743.51, 5743.52, 5743.62, 5743.63, 5743.65, 5747.02, 5747.025, 5747.08, 5747.71, 5747.98, 5749.01, 5749.02, 5749.03, 5749.04, 5749.06, 5749.07, 5749.08, 5749.10, 5749.12, 5749.13, 5749.14, 5749.15, 5749.17, 5751.03, 5751.20, 5902.02, 5903.03, 5903.10, 5903.11, 5903.12, 5903.121, 5907.01, 5907.04, 6109.10, 6111.03, 6111.04, 6111.44, and 6111.99 be amended; sections 1509.061 (1509.091), 1511.022 (939.04), 3365.04 (3365.06), 3365.041 (3365.032), 3365.05 (3365.12), 3365.06 (3365.031), and 3365.11 (3365.09) be amended for the purpose of adopting new section numbers as indicated in parentheses; and new sections 3313.6015, 3365.01, 3365.02, 3365.03, 3365.04, 3365.05, 3365.07, 3365.10, 3365.11, and 3365.15 and sections 107.35, 164.261, 190.01, 190.02, 190.03, 190.04, 321.50, 939.01, 939.02, 939.03, 939.05, 939.06, 939.07, 939.08, 939.09, 939.10, 939.11, 1509.051, 1511.023, 1511.09, 2915.062, 3123.90, 3313.902, 3317.162, 3333.0413, 3333.164, 3333.171, 3333.33, 3333.44, 3333.90, 3333.91, 3345.42, 3345.43, 3345.44, 3345.46, 3365.071, 3365.13, 3721.122, 3772.14, 4121.443, 4121.447, 4758.48, 4758.62, 4758.63, 4758.64, 4909.157, 5122.36, 5123.0420, 5139.12, 5139.45, 5736.50, 5749.031, 5903.01, 5903.04, and 5903.05 of the Revised Code be enacted to read as follows:

Sec. 7.10.  For the publication of advertisements, notices, and proclamations, except those relating to proposed amendments to the Ohio Constitution, required to be published by a public officer of the state, a benevolent or other public institution, a trustee, assignee, executor, or administrator, or by or in any court of record, except when the rate is otherwise fixed by law, publishers of newspapers may charge and receive for such advertisements, notices, and proclamations rates charged on annual contracts by them for a like amount of space to other advertisers who advertise in its general display advertising columns.

For the publication of advertisements, notices, or proclamations required to be published by a public officer of a county, municipal corporation, township, school, or other political subdivision, publishers of newspapers shall establish a government rate, which shall include free publication of advertisements, notices, or proclamations on the newspaper's internet web site, if the newspaper has one. The government rate shall not exceed the lowest classified advertising rate and lowest insert rate paid by other advertisers.

Legal advertising appearing in print, except that relating to proposed amendments to the Ohio Constitution, shall be set up in a compact form, without unnecessary spaces, blanks, or headlines, and printed in not smaller than six-point type. The type used must be of such proportions that the body of the capital letter M is no wider than it is high and all other letters and characters are in proportion.

Except as provided in section 2701.09 of the Revised Code, all legal advertisements or, notices, or proclamations shall be printed in a newspaper of general circulation and shall be posted by the newspaper publisher on the newspaper's internet web site, if the newspaper has one. Publishers of newspapers may not charge for posting advertisements, notices, and proclamations on the newspaper's internet web site, if the newspaper has one.

Sec. 7.16. (A) As used in this section:

(1) "State agency" means any organized body, office, agency, institution, or other entity established by the laws of the state for the exercise of any function of state government, including state institutions of higher education, as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.

(2) "Political subdivision" has the meaning defined in section 2744.01 of the Revised Code.

(B) If a section of the Revised Code or an administrative rule requires a state agency or a political subdivision to publish a notice or advertisement two or more times in a newspaper of general circulation and the section or administrative rule refers to this section, the first publication of the notice or advertisement shall be made in its entirety in a newspaper of general circulation and may be made in a preprinted insert in the newspaper, but the second publication otherwise required by that section or administrative rule may be made in abbreviated form in a newspaper of general circulation in the state or in the political subdivision, as designated in that section or administrative rule, and on the newspaper's internet web site, if the newspaper has one. The state agency or political subdivision may eliminate any further newspaper publications required by that section or administrative rule, provided that the second, abbreviated notice or advertisement meets all of the following requirements:

(1) It is published in the newspaper of general circulation in which the first publication of the notice or advertisement was made and is published on that newspaper's internet web site, if the newspaper has one.

(2) It is published on the state official public notice web site established under section 125.182 of the Revised Code. The publisher of the newspaper shall post the notice or advertisement on the official public notice web site at no additional cost.

(3) It includes a title, followed by a summary paragraph or statement that clearly describes the specific purpose of the notice or advertisement, and includes a statement that the notice or advertisement is posted in its entirety on the state official public notice web site. The notice or advertisement also may be posted on the state agency's or political subdivision's internet web site.

(4) It includes the internet addresses address of the state official public notice web site, and of the newspaper's and state agency's or political subdivision's internet web site if the notice or advertisement is posted on those web sites, and the name, address, telephone number, and electronic mail address of the state agency, political subdivision, or other party responsible for publication of the notice or advertisement.

(C) A notice or advertisement published under this section on an internet web site shall be published in its entirety in accordance with the section of the Revised Code or the administrative rule that requires the publication.

(D) If the state official public notice web site established under section 125.182 of the Revised Code is not operational, the state agency or political subdivision shall not publish a notice or advertisement under this section, but instead shall comply with the publication requirements of the section of the Revised Code or the administrative rule that refers to this section.

Sec. 9.482. (A) As used in this section, "political:

(1) "Political subdivision" has the meaning defined in section 2744.01 of the Revised Code.

(2) "State agency" means any organized body, office, agency, institution, or other entity established by the laws of the state for the exercise of any function of state government. The term includes a state institution of higher education as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.

(B)(1) When legally authorized by their respective legislative authorities to do so, a political subdivision may enter into an agreement with another political subdivision or a state agency whereby a the contracting political subdivision or state agency agrees to exercise any power, perform any function, or render any service for another the contracting recipient political subdivision that the contracting recipient political subdivision is otherwise legally authorized to exercise, perform, or render.

In (2) When legally authorized to do so, a state agency may enter into an agreement with a political subdivision whereby the contracting political subdivision agrees to exercise any power, perform any function, or render any service for the contracting recipient state agency that the contracting recipient state agency is otherwise legally authorized to exercise, perform, or render.

(C) In the absence in the agreement of provisions determining by what officer, office, department, agency, or other authority the powers and duties of a contracting political subdivision shall be exercised or performed, the legislative authority of the contracting political subdivision shall determine and assign the powers and duties.

An agreement shall not suspend the possession by a contracting recipient political subdivision or state agency of any power or function that is exercised or performed on its behalf by another the other contracting political subdivision or the contracting state agency under the agreement.

A political subdivision shall not enter into an agreement to levy any tax or to exercise, with regard to public moneys, any investment powers, perform any investment function, or render any investment service on behalf of a contracting subdivision. Nothing in this paragraph prohibits a political subdivision from entering into an agreement to collect, administer, or enforce any tax on behalf of another political subdivision or to limit the authority of political subdivisions to create and operate joint economic development zones or joint economic development districts as provided in sections 715.69 to 715.83 of the Revised Code.

(C)(D) No county elected officer may be required to exercise any power, perform any function, or render any service under an agreement entered into under this section without the written consent of the county elected officer. No county may enter into an agreement under this section for the exercise, performance, or rendering of any statutory powers, functions, or services of any county elected officer without the written consent of the county elected officer.

(D)(E) No power shall be exercised, no function shall be performed, and no service shall be rendered by a contracting political subdivision or state agency pursuant to an agreement entered into under this section within a political subdivision that is not a party to the agreement, without first obtaining the written consent of the political subdivision that is not a party to the agreement and within which the power is to be exercised, a function is to be performed, or a service is to be rendered.

(E)(F) Chapter 2744. of the Revised Code, insofar as it applies to the operation of a political subdivision, applies to the political subdivisions that are parties to an agreement and to their employees when they are rendering a service outside the boundaries of their employing political subdivision under the agreement. Employees acting outside the boundaries of their employing political subdivision while providing a service under an agreement may participate in any pension or indemnity fund established by the political subdivision to the same extent as while they are acting within the boundaries of the political subdivision, and are entitled to all the rights and benefits of Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code to the same extent as while they are performing a service within the boundaries of the political subdivision.

Sec. 107.35.  Not later than December 31, 2014, the governor's office of workforce transformation, with staff support and assistance from the departments of job and family services and education and the Ohio board of regents, shall establish criteria to use for evaluating the performance of state and local workforce programs using basic, aligned workforce measures related to system efficiency and effectiveness. The office shall develop and make available on the internet through a web site a public dashboard to display metrics regarding the state's administration of primary workforce programs, including the following programs:

(A) The adult basic and literacy education program;

(B) Programs administered under the federal "Carl D. Perkins Career and Technical Education Act of 2006," 120 Stat. 683, 20 U.S.C. 2301 et seq., as amended;

(C) State aid and scholarships within the Ohio board of regents;

(D) Programs administered under title I of the federal "Workforce Investment Act of 1998," 112 Stat. 936, 29 U.S.C. 2801 et seq., as amended.

Sec. 109.572. (A)(1) Upon receipt of a request pursuant to section 121.08, 3301.32, 3301.541, or 3319.39 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:

(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of the Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the violation been committed prior to that date, or a violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a minor drug possession offense;

(b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(1)(a) of this section;

(c) If the request is made pursuant to section 3319.39 of the Revised Code for an applicant who is a teacher, any offense specified in section 3319.31 of the Revised Code.

(2) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 3712.09 or 3721.121 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check with respect to any person who has applied for employment in a position for which a criminal records check is required by those sections. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:

(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;

(b) An existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(2)(a) of this section.

(3) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 173.27, 173.38, 3701.881, 5164.34, 5164.341, 5164.342, 5123.081, or 5123.169 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check of the person for whom the request is made. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of, has or pleaded guilty to, or (except in the case of a request pursuant to section 5164.34, 5164.341, or 5164.342 of the Revised Code) has been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for any of the following, regardless of the date of the conviction, the date or of the entry of the guilty plea, or (except in the case of a request pursuant to section 5164.34, 5164.341, or 5164.342 of the Revised Code) the date the person was found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction:

(a) A violation of section 959.13, 959.131, 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.15, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2903.341, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2905.32, 2905.33, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.24, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2907.33, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.04, 2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.05, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 2913.40, 2913.41, 2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 2913.441, 2913.45, 2913.46, 2913.47, 2913.48, 2913.49, 2913.51, 2917.01, 2917.02, 2917.03, 2917.31, 2919.12, 2919.121, 2919.123, 2919.22, 2919.23, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.03, 2921.11, 2921.12, 2921.13, 2921.21, 2921.24, 2921.32, 2921.321, 2921.34, 2921.35, 2921.36, 2921.51, 2923.12, 2923.122, 2923.123, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2923.162, 2923.21, 2923.32, 2923.42, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.041, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2925.09, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.14, 2925.141, 2925.22, 2925.23, 2925.24, 2925.36, 2925.55, 2925.56, 2927.12, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;

(b) Felonious sexual penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;

(c) A violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996;

(d) A violation of section 2923.01, 2923.02, or 2923.03 of the Revised Code when the underlying offense that is the object of the conspiracy, attempt, or complicity is one of the offenses listed in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (c) of this section;

(e) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (d) of this section.

(4) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 2151.86 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:

(a) A violation of section 959.13, 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.15, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2913.49, 2917.01, 2917.02, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2927.12, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of the Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the violation been committed prior to that date, a violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a minor drug possession offense, two or more OVI or OVUAC violations committed within the three years immediately preceding the submission of the application or petition that is the basis of the request, or felonious sexual penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;

(b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(4)(a) of this section.

(5) Upon receipt of a request pursuant to section 5104.012 or 5104.013 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:

(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.041, 2913.05, 2913.06, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 2913.33, 2913.34, 2913.40, 2913.41, 2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 2913.441, 2913.45, 2913.46, 2913.47, 2913.48, 2913.49, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.11, 2921.13, 2923.01, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of the Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the violation been committed prior to that date, a violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a minor drug possession offense, a violation of section 2923.02 or 2923.03 of the Revised Code that relates to a crime specified in this division, or a second violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code within five years of the date of application for licensure or certification.

(b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses or violations described in division (A)(5)(a) of this section.

(6) Upon receipt of a request pursuant to section 5153.111 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:

(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of the Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the violation been committed prior to that date, or a violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a minor drug possession offense;

(b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(6)(a) of this section.

(7) On receipt of a request for a criminal records check from an individual pursuant to section 4749.03 or 4749.06 of the Revised Code, accompanied by a completed copy of the form prescribed in division (C)(1) of this section and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in a manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists indicating that the person who is the subject of the request has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a felony in this state or in any other state. If the individual indicates that a firearm will be carried in the course of business, the superintendent shall require information from the federal bureau of investigation as described in division (B)(2) of this section. Subject to division (F) of this section, the superintendent shall report the findings of the criminal records check and any information the federal bureau of investigation provides to the director of public safety.

(8) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 1321.37, 1321.53, 1321.531, 1322.03, 1322.031, or 4763.05 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check with respect to any person who has applied for a license, permit, or certification from the department of commerce or a division in the department. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following: a violation of section 2913.02, 2913.11, 2913.31, 2913.51, or 2925.03 of the Revised Code; any other criminal offense involving theft, receiving stolen property, embezzlement, forgery, fraud, passing bad checks, money laundering, or drug trafficking, or any criminal offense involving money or securities, as set forth in Chapters 2909., 2911., 2913., 2915., 2921., 2923., and 2925. of the Revised Code; or any existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to those offenses.

(9) On receipt of a request for a criminal records check from the treasurer of state under section 113.041 of the Revised Code or from an individual under section 4701.08, 4715.101, 4717.061, 4725.121, 4725.501, 4729.071, 4730.101, 4730.14, 4730.28, 4731.081, 4731.15, 4731.171, 4731.222, 4731.281, 4731.296, 4731.531, 4732.091, 4734.202, 4740.061, 4741.10, 4755.70, 4757.101, 4759.061, 4760.032, 4760.06, 4761.051, 4762.031, 4762.06, 4776.021, 4779.091, or 4783.04 of the Revised Code, accompanied by a completed form prescribed under division (C)(1) of this section and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any criminal offense in this state or any other state. Subject to division (F) of this section, the superintendent shall send the results of a check requested under section 113.041 of the Revised Code to the treasurer of state and shall send the results of a check requested under any of the other listed sections to the licensing board specified by the individual in the request.

(10) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 1121.23, 1155.03, 1163.05, 1315.141, 1733.47, or 1761.26 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any criminal offense under any existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States.

(11) On receipt of a request for a criminal records check from an appointing or licensing authority under section 3772.07 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed under division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner prescribed in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty or no contest to any offense under any existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is a disqualifying offense as defined in section 3772.07 of the Revised Code or substantially equivalent to such an offense.

(12) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 2151.33 or 2151.412 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check with respect to any person for whom a criminal records check is required by that section. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:

(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;

(b) An existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(12)(a) of this section.

(B) Subject to division (F) of this section, the superintendent shall conduct any criminal records check to be conducted under this section as follows:

(1) The superintendent shall review or cause to be reviewed any relevant information gathered and compiled by the bureau under division (A) of section 109.57 of the Revised Code that relates to the person who is the subject of the criminal records check, including, if the criminal records check was requested under section 113.041, 121.08, 173.27, 173.38, 1121.23, 1155.03, 1163.05, 1315.141, 1321.37, 1321.53, 1321.531, 1322.03, 1322.031, 1733.47, 1761.26, 2151.86, 3301.32, 3301.541, 3319.39, 3701.881, 3712.09, 3721.121, 3772.07, 4749.03, 4749.06, 4763.05, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5164.34, 5164.341, 5164.342, 5123.081, 5123.169, or 5153.111 of the Revised Code, any relevant information contained in records that have been sealed under section 2953.32 of the Revised Code;

(2) If the request received by the superintendent asks for information from the federal bureau of investigation, the superintendent shall request from the federal bureau of investigation any information it has with respect to the person who is the subject of the criminal records check, including fingerprint-based checks of national crime information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 671 if the request is made pursuant to section 2151.86, 5104.012, or 5104.013 of the Revised Code or if any other Revised Code section requires fingerprint-based checks of that nature, and shall review or cause to be reviewed any information the superintendent receives from that bureau. If a request under section 3319.39 of the Revised Code asks only for information from the federal bureau of investigation, the superintendent shall not conduct the review prescribed by division (B)(1) of this section.

(3) The superintendent or the superintendent's designee may request criminal history records from other states or the federal government pursuant to the national crime prevention and privacy compact set forth in section 109.571 of the Revised Code.

(4) The superintendent shall include in the results of the criminal records check a list or description of the offenses listed or described in division (A)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), (9), (10), (11), or (12) of this section, whichever division requires the superintendent to conduct the criminal records check. The superintendent shall exclude from the results any information the dissemination of which is prohibited by federal law.

(5) The superintendent shall send the results of the criminal records check to the person to whom it is to be sent not later than the following number of days after the date the superintendent receives the request for the criminal records check, the completed form prescribed under division (C)(1) of this section, and the set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section:

(a) If the superintendent is required by division (A) of this section (other than division (A)(3) of this section) to conduct the criminal records check, thirty;

(b) If the superintendent is required by division (A)(3) of this section to conduct the criminal records check, sixty.

(C)(1) The superintendent shall prescribe a form to obtain the information necessary to conduct a criminal records check from any person for whom a criminal records check is to be conducted under this section. The form that the superintendent prescribes pursuant to this division may be in a tangible format, in an electronic format, or in both tangible and electronic formats.

(2) The superintendent shall prescribe standard impression sheets to obtain the fingerprint impressions of any person for whom a criminal records check is to be conducted under this section. Any person for whom a records check is to be conducted under this section shall obtain the fingerprint impressions at a county sheriff's office, municipal police department, or any other entity with the ability to make fingerprint impressions on the standard impression sheets prescribed by the superintendent. The office, department, or entity may charge the person a reasonable fee for making the impressions. The standard impression sheets the superintendent prescribes pursuant to this division may be in a tangible format, in an electronic format, or in both tangible and electronic formats.

(3) Subject to division (D) of this section, the superintendent shall prescribe and charge a reasonable fee for providing a criminal records check under this section. The person requesting the criminal records check shall pay the fee prescribed pursuant to this division. In the case of a request under section 1121.23, 1155.03, 1163.05, 1315.141, 1733.47, 1761.26, 2151.33, 2151.412, or 5164.34 of the Revised Code, the fee shall be paid in the manner specified in that section.

(4) The superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation may prescribe methods of forwarding fingerprint impressions and information necessary to conduct a criminal records check, which methods shall include, but not be limited to, an electronic method.

(D) The results of a criminal records check conducted under this section, other than a criminal records check specified in division (A)(7) of this section, are valid for the person who is the subject of the criminal records check for a period of one year from the date upon which the superintendent completes the criminal records check. If during that period the superintendent receives another request for a criminal records check to be conducted under this section for that person, the superintendent shall provide the results from the previous criminal records check of the person at a lower fee than the fee prescribed for the initial criminal records check.

(E) When the superintendent receives a request for information from a registered private provider, the superintendent shall proceed as if the request was received from a school district board of education under section 3319.39 of the Revised Code. The superintendent shall apply division (A)(1)(c) of this section to any such request for an applicant who is a teacher.

(F)(1) All information regarding the results of a criminal records check conducted under this section that the superintendent reports or sends under division (A)(7) or (9) of this section to the director of public safety, the treasurer of state, or the person, board, or entity that made the request for the criminal records check shall relate to the conviction of the subject person, or the subject person's plea of guilty to, a criminal offense.

(2) Division (F)(1) of this section does not limit, restrict, or preclude the superintendent's release of information that relates to an adjudication of a child as a delinquent child, or that relates to a criminal conviction of a person under eighteen years of age if the person's case was transferred back to a juvenile court under division (B)(2) or (3) of section 2152.121 of the Revised Code and the juvenile court imposed a disposition or serious youthful offender disposition upon the person under either division, if either of the following applies with respect to the adjudication or conviction:

(a) The adjudication or conviction was for a violation of section 2903.01 or 2903.02 of the Revised Code.

(b) The adjudication or conviction was for a sexually oriented offense, as defined in section 2950.01 of the Revised Code, the juvenile court was required to classify the child a juvenile offender registrant for that offense under section 2152.82, 2152.83, or 2152.86 of the Revised Code, and that classification has not been removed.

(G) As used in this section:

(1) "Criminal records check" means any criminal records check conducted by the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation in accordance with division (B) of this section.

(2) "Minor drug possession offense" has the same meaning as in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.

(3) "OVI or OVUAC violation" means a violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or a violation of an existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to section 4511.19 of the Revised Code.

(4) "Registered private provider" means a nonpublic school or entity registered with the superintendent of public instruction under section 3310.41 of the Revised Code to participate in the autism scholarship program or section 3310.58 of the Revised Code to participate in the Jon Peterson special needs scholarship program.

Sec. 109.5721. (A) As used in this section:

(1) "Employment" includes volunteer service.

(2) "Licensure" means the authorization, evidenced by a license, certificate, registration, permit, or other authority that is issued or conferred by a public office, to engage in a profession, occupation, or occupational activity, to be a foster caregiver, or to have control of and operate certain specific equipment, machinery, or premises over which a public office has jurisdiction.

(3) "Participating public office" means a public office that requires a fingerprint background check as a condition of employment with, licensure by, or approval for adoption by the public office and that elects to receive notice under division (C) of this section in accordance with rules adopted by the attorney general.

(4) "Public office" has the same meaning as in section 117.01 of the Revised Code.

(5) "Participating private party" means any person or private entity that is allowed to request a criminal records check pursuant to divisions (A)(2) or (3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code.

(B) Within six months after August 15, 2007, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall establish and maintain a database of fingerprints of individuals on whom the bureau has conducted criminal records checks for the purpose of determining eligibility for employment with, licensure by, or approval for adoption by a public office or participating private party. The superintendent shall maintain the database separate and apart from other records maintained by the bureau. The database shall be known as the retained applicant fingerprint database.

(C) When the superintendent receives information that an individual whose name is in the retained applicant fingerprint database has been arrested for, convicted of, or pleaded guilty to any offense, the superintendent shall promptly notify any participating public office or participating private party that employs, licensed, or approved the individual of the arrest, conviction, or guilty plea. The public office or participating private party that receives the notification and its employees and officers shall use the information contained in the notification solely to determine the individual's eligibility for continued employment with the public office or participating private party, to retain licensure issued by the public office, or to be approved for adoption by the public office. The public office or participating private party and its employees and officers shall not disclose that information to any person for any other purpose.

(D) If an individual has submitted fingerprint impressions for employment with, licensure by, or approval for adoption by a participating public office or participating private party and seeks employment with, licensure by, or approval for adoption by another participating public office or participating private party, the other public office or participating private party shall reprint the individual. If an individual has been reprinted, the superintendent shall update that individual's information accordingly.

(E) The bureau of criminal identification and investigation and the participating public office or participating private party shall use information contained in the retained applicant fingerprint database and in the notice described in division (C) of this section for the purpose of employment with, licensure by, or approval for adoption by the participating public office or participating private party. This information is otherwise confidential and not a public record under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.

(F) The attorney general shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code governing the operation and maintenance of the database. The rules shall provide for, but not be limited to, both of the following:

(1) The expungement or sealing of records of individuals who are deceased or who are no longer employed, granted licensure, or approved for adoption by the public office or participating private party that required submission of the individual's fingerprints;

(2) The terms under which a public office or participating private party may elect to receive notification under division (C) of this section, including payment of any reasonable fee that may be charged for the purpose.

(G) No public office or employee of a public office shall be considered negligent in a civil action solely because the public office did not elect to be a participating public office.

(H)(1) No person shall knowingly use information contained in or received from the retained applicant fingerprint database for purposes not authorized by this section.

(2) No person shall knowingly use information contained in or received from the retained applicant fingerprint database with the intent to harass or intimidate another person.

(3) Whoever violates division (H)(1) or (H)(2) of this section is guilty of unlawful use of retained applicant fingerprint database records. A violation of division (H)(1) of this section is a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. A violation of division (H)(2) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree.

Sec. 111.15.  (A) As used in this section:

(1) "Rule" includes any rule, regulation, bylaw, or standard having a general and uniform operation adopted by an agency under the authority of the laws governing the agency; any appendix to a rule; and any internal management rule. "Rule" does not include any guideline adopted pursuant to section 3301.0714 of the Revised Code, any order respecting the duties of employees, any finding, any determination of a question of law or fact in a matter presented to an agency, or any rule promulgated pursuant to Chapter 119., section 4141.14, division (C)(1) or (2) of section 5117.02, or section 5703.14 of the Revised Code. "Rule" includes any amendment or rescission of a rule.

(2) "Agency" means any governmental entity of the state and includes, but is not limited to, any board, department, division, commission, bureau, society, council, institution, state college or university, community college district, technical college district, or state community college. "Agency" does not include the general assembly, the controlling board, the adjutant general's department, or any court.

(3) "Internal management rule" means any rule, regulation, bylaw, or standard governing the day-to-day staff procedures and operations within an agency.

(4) "Substantive revision" has the same meaning as in division (J) of section 119.01 of the Revised Code.

(B)(1) Any rule, other than a rule of an emergency nature, adopted by any agency pursuant to this section shall be effective on the tenth day after the day on which the rule in final form and in compliance with division (B)(3) of this section is filed as follows:

(a) The rule shall be filed in electronic form with both the secretary of state and the director of the legislative service commission;

(b) The rule shall be filed in electronic form with the joint committee on agency rule review. Division (B)(1)(b) of this section does not apply to any rule to which division (D) of this section does not apply.

An agency that adopts or amends a rule that is subject to division (D) of this section shall assign a review date to the rule that is not later than five years after its effective date. If no review date is assigned to a rule, or if a review date assigned to a rule exceeds the five-year maximum, the review date for the rule is five years after its effective date. A rule with a review date is subject to review under section 119.032 of the Revised Code. This paragraph does not apply to a rule of a state college or university, community college district, technical college district, or state community college.

If all filings are not completed on the same day, the rule shall be effective on the tenth day after the day on which the latest filing is completed. If an agency in adopting a rule designates an effective date that is later than the effective date provided for by division (B)(1) of this section, the rule if filed as required by such division shall become effective on the later date designated by the agency.

Any rule that is required to be filed under division (B)(1) of this section is also subject to division (D) of this section if not exempted by division (D)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), or (8) of this section.

If a rule incorporates a text or other material by reference, the agency shall comply with sections 121.71 to 121.76 of the Revised Code.

(2) A rule of an emergency nature necessary for the immediate preservation of the public peace, health, or safety shall state the reasons for the necessity. The emergency rule, in final form and in compliance with division (B)(3) of this section, shall be filed in electronic form with the secretary of state, the director of the legislative service commission, and the joint committee on agency rule review. The emergency rule is effective immediately upon completion of the latest filing, except that if the agency in adopting the emergency rule designates an effective date, or date and time of day, that is later than the effective date and time provided for by division (B)(2) of this section, the emergency rule if filed as required by such division shall become effective at the later date, or later date and time of day, designated by the agency.

An emergency rule becomes invalid at the end of the ninetieth one hundred twentieth day it is in effect. Prior to that date, the agency may file the emergency rule as a nonemergency rule in compliance with division (B)(1) of this section. The agency may not refile the emergency rule in compliance with division (B)(2) of this section so that, upon the emergency rule becoming invalid under such division, the emergency rule will continue in effect without interruption for another ninety-day one hundred twenty-day period.

(3) An agency shall file a rule under division (B)(1) or (2) of this section in compliance with the following standards and procedures:

(a) The rule shall be numbered in accordance with the numbering system devised by the director for the Ohio administrative code.

(b) The rule shall be prepared and submitted in compliance with the rules of the legislative service commission.

(c) The rule shall clearly state the date on which it is to be effective and the date on which it will expire, if known.

(d) Each rule that amends or rescinds another rule shall clearly refer to the rule that is amended or rescinded. Each amendment shall fully restate the rule as amended.

If the director of the legislative service commission or the director's designee gives an agency notice pursuant to section 103.05 of the Revised Code that a rule filed by the agency is not in compliance with the rules of the legislative service commission, the agency shall within thirty days after receipt of the notice conform the rule to the rules of the commission as directed in the notice.

(C) All rules filed pursuant to divisions (B)(1)(a) and (2) of this section shall be recorded by the secretary of state and the director under the title of the agency adopting the rule and shall be numbered according to the numbering system devised by the director. The secretary of state and the director shall preserve the rules in an accessible manner. Each such rule shall be a public record open to public inspection and may be transmitted to any law publishing company that wishes to reproduce it.

(D) At least sixty-five days before a board, commission, department, division, or bureau of the government of the state files a rule under division (B)(1) of this section, it shall file the full text of the proposed rule in electronic form with the joint committee on agency rule review, and the proposed rule is subject to legislative review and invalidation under division (I) of section 119.03 of the Revised Code. If a state board, commission, department, division, or bureau makes a substantive revision in a proposed rule after it is filed with the joint committee, the state board, commission, department, division, or bureau shall promptly file the full text of the proposed rule in its revised form in electronic form with the joint committee. The latest version of a proposed rule as filed with the joint committee supersedes each earlier version of the text of the same proposed rule. A state board, commission, department, division, or bureau shall also file the rule summary and fiscal analysis prepared under section 127.18 of the Revised Code in electronic form along with a proposed rule, and along with a proposed rule in revised form, that is filed under this division. If a proposed rule has an adverse impact on businesses, the state board, commission, department, division, or bureau also shall file the business impact analysis, any recommendations received from the common sense initiative office, and the associated memorandum of response, if any, in electronic form along with the proposed rule, or the proposed rule in revised form, that is filed under this division.

As used in this division, "commission" includes the public utilities commission when adopting rules under a federal or state statute.

This division does not apply to any of the following:

(1) A proposed rule of an emergency nature;

(2) A rule proposed under section 1121.05, 1121.06, 1155.18, 1163.22, 1349.33, 1707.201, 1733.412, 4123.29, 4123.34, 4123.341, 4123.342, 4123.40, 4123.411, 4123.44, or 4123.442 of the Revised Code;

(3) A rule proposed by an agency other than a board, commission, department, division, or bureau of the government of the state;

(4) A proposed internal management rule of a board, commission, department, division, or bureau of the government of the state;

(5) Any proposed rule that must be adopted verbatim by an agency pursuant to federal law or rule, to become effective within sixty days of adoption, in order to continue the operation of a federally reimbursed program in this state, so long as the proposed rule contains both of the following:

(a) A statement that it is proposed for the purpose of complying with a federal law or rule;

(b) A citation to the federal law or rule that requires verbatim compliance.

(6) An initial rule proposed by the director of health to impose safety standards and quality-of-care standards with respect to a health service specified in section 3702.11 of the Revised Code, or an initial rule proposed by the director to impose quality standards on a facility listed in division (A)(4) of section 3702.30 of the Revised Code, if section 3702.12 of the Revised Code requires that the rule be adopted under this section;

(7) A rule of the state lottery commission pertaining to instant game rules.

If a rule is exempt from legislative review under division (D)(5) of this section, and if the federal law or rule pursuant to which the rule was adopted expires, is repealed or rescinded, or otherwise terminates, the rule is thereafter subject to legislative review under division (D) of this section.

(E) Whenever a state board, commission, department, division, or bureau files a proposed rule or a proposed rule in revised form under division (D) of this section, it shall also file the full text of the same proposed rule or proposed rule in revised form in electronic form with the secretary of state and the director of the legislative service commission. A state board, commission, department, division, or bureau shall file the rule summary and fiscal analysis prepared under section 127.18 of the Revised Code in electronic form along with a proposed rule or proposed rule in revised form that is filed with the secretary of state or the director of the legislative service commission.

Sec. 119.03.  In the adoption, amendment, or rescission of any rule, an agency shall comply with the following procedure:

(A) Reasonable public notice shall be given in the register of Ohio at least thirty days prior to the date set for a hearing, in the form the agency determines. The agency shall file copies of the public notice under division (B) of this section. (The agency gives public notice in the register of Ohio when the public notice is published in the register under that division.)

The public notice shall include:

(1) A statement of the agency's intention to consider adopting, amending, or rescinding a rule;

(2) A synopsis of the proposed rule, amendment, or rule to be rescinded or a general statement of the subject matter to which the proposed rule, amendment, or rescission relates;

(3) A statement of the reason or purpose for adopting, amending, or rescinding the rule;

(4) The date, time, and place of a hearing on the proposed action, which shall be not earlier than the thirty-first nor later than the fortieth day after the proposed rule, amendment, or rescission is filed under division (B) of this section.

In addition to public notice given in the register of Ohio, the agency may give whatever other notice it reasonably considers necessary to ensure notice constructively is given to all persons who are subject to or affected by the proposed rule, amendment, or rescission.

The agency shall provide a copy of the public notice required under division (A) of this section to any person who requests it and pays a reasonable fee, not to exceed the cost of copying and mailing.

(B) The full text of the proposed rule, amendment, or rule to be rescinded, accompanied by the public notice required under division (A) of this section, shall be filed in electronic form with the secretary of state and with the director of the legislative service commission. (If in compliance with this division an agency files more than one proposed rule, amendment, or rescission at the same time, and has prepared a public notice under division (A) of this section that applies to more than one of the proposed rules, amendments, or rescissions, the agency shall file only one notice with the secretary of state and with the director for all of the proposed rules, amendments, or rescissions to which the notice applies.) The proposed rule, amendment, or rescission and public notice shall be filed as required by this division at least sixty-five days prior to the date on which the agency, in accordance with division (D) of this section, issues an order adopting the proposed rule, amendment, or rescission.

If the proposed rule, amendment, or rescission incorporates a text or other material by reference, the agency shall comply with sections 121.71 to 121.76 of the Revised Code.

The proposed rule, amendment, or rescission shall be available for at least thirty days prior to the date of the hearing at the office of the agency in printed or other legible form without charge to any person affected by the proposal. Failure to furnish such text to any person requesting it shall not invalidate any action of the agency in connection therewith.

If the agency files a substantive revision in the text of the proposed rule, amendment, or rescission under division (H) of this section, it shall also promptly file the full text of the proposed rule, amendment, or rescission in its revised form in electronic form with the secretary of state and with the director of the legislative service commission.

The agency shall file the rule summary and fiscal analysis prepared under section 127.18 of the Revised Code in electronic form along with a proposed rule, amendment, or rescission or proposed rule, amendment, or rescission in revised form that is filed with the secretary of state or the director of the legislative service commission.

The director of the legislative service commission shall publish in the register of Ohio the full text of the original and each revised version of a proposed rule, amendment, or rescission; the full text of a public notice; and the full text of a rule summary and fiscal analysis that is filed with the director under this division.

(C) On the date and at the time and place designated in the notice, the agency shall conduct a public hearing at which any person affected by the proposed action of the agency may appear and be heard in person, by the person's attorney, or both, may present the person's position, arguments, or contentions, orally or in writing, offer and examine witnesses, and present evidence tending to show that the proposed rule, amendment, or rescission, if adopted or effectuated, will be unreasonable or unlawful. An agency may permit persons affected by the proposed rule, amendment, or rescission to present their positions, arguments, or contentions in writing, not only at the hearing, but also for a reasonable period before, after, or both before and after the hearing. A person who presents a position or arguments or contentions in writing before or after the hearing is not required to appear at the hearing.

At the hearing, the testimony shall be recorded. Such record shall be made at the expense of the agency. The agency is required to transcribe a record that is not sight readable only if a person requests transcription of all or part of the record and agrees to reimburse the agency for the costs of the transcription. An agency may require the person to pay in advance all or part of the cost of the transcription.

In any hearing under this section the agency may administer oaths or affirmations.

(D) After complying with divisions (A), (B), (C), and (H) of this section, and when the time for legislative review and invalidation under division (I) of this section has expired, the agency may issue an order adopting the proposed rule or the proposed amendment or rescission of the rule, consistent with the synopsis or general statement included in the public notice. At that time the agency shall designate the effective date of the rule, amendment, or rescission, which shall not be earlier than the tenth day after the rule, amendment, or rescission has been filed in its final form as provided in section 119.04 of the Revised Code.

(E) Prior to the effective date of a rule, amendment, or rescission, the agency shall make a reasonable effort to inform those affected by the rule, amendment, or rescission and to have available for distribution to those requesting it the full text of the rule as adopted or as amended.

(F) If the governor, upon the request of an agency, determines that an emergency requires the immediate adoption, amendment, or rescission of a rule, the governor shall issue an order, the text of which shall be filed in electronic form with the agency, the secretary of state, the director of the legislative service commission, and the joint committee on agency rule review, that the procedure prescribed by this section with respect to the adoption, amendment, or rescission of a specified rule is suspended. The agency may then adopt immediately the emergency rule, amendment, or rescission and it becomes effective on the date the rule, amendment, or rescission, in final form and in compliance with division (A)(2) of section 119.04 of the Revised Code, is filed in electronic form with the secretary of state, the director of the legislative service commission, and the joint committee on agency rule review. If all filings are not completed on the same day, the emergency rule, amendment, or rescission shall be effective on the day on which the latest filing is completed. The director shall publish the full text of the emergency rule, amendment, or rescission in the register of Ohio.

The emergency rule, amendment, or rescission shall become invalid at the end of the ninetieth one hundred twentieth day it is in effect. Prior to that date the agency may adopt the emergency rule, amendment, or rescission as a nonemergency rule, amendment, or rescission by complying with the procedure prescribed by this section for the adoption, amendment, and rescission of nonemergency rules. The agency shall not use the procedure of this division to readopt the emergency rule, amendment, or rescission so that, upon the emergency rule, amendment, or rescission becoming invalid under this division, the emergency rule, amendment, or rescission will continue in effect without interruption for another ninety-day one hundred twenty-day period, except when division (I)(2)(a) of this section prevents the agency from adopting the emergency rule, amendment, or rescission as a nonemergency rule, amendment, or rescission within the ninety-day one hundred twenty-day period.

This division does not apply to the adoption of any emergency rule, amendment, or rescission by the tax commissioner under division (C)(2) of section 5117.02 of the Revised Code.

(G) Rules adopted by an authority within the department of job and family services for the administration or enforcement of Chapter 4141. of the Revised Code or of the department of taxation shall be effective without a hearing as provided by this section if the statutes pertaining to such agency specifically give a right of appeal to the board of tax appeals or to a higher authority within the agency or to a court, and also give the appellant a right to a hearing on such appeal. This division does not apply to the adoption of any rule, amendment, or rescission by the tax commissioner under division (C)(1) or (2) of section 5117.02 of the Revised Code, or deny the right to file an action for declaratory judgment as provided in Chapter 2721. of the Revised Code from the decision of the board of tax appeals or of the higher authority within such agency.

(H) When any agency files a proposed rule, amendment, or rescission under division (B) of this section, it shall also file in electronic form with the joint committee on agency rule review the full text of the proposed rule, amendment, or rule to be rescinded in the same form and the public notice required under division (A) of this section. (If in compliance with this division an agency files more than one proposed rule, amendment, or rescission at the same time, and has given a public notice under division (A) of this section that applies to more than one of the proposed rules, amendments, or rescissions, the agency shall file only one notice with the joint committee for all of the proposed rules, amendments, or rescissions to which the notice applies.) If the agency makes a substantive revision in a proposed rule, amendment, or rescission after it is filed with the joint committee, the agency shall promptly file the full text of the proposed rule, amendment, or rescission in its revised form in electronic form with the joint committee. The latest version of a proposed rule, amendment, or rescission as filed with the joint committee supersedes each earlier version of the text of the same proposed rule, amendment, or rescission. An agency shall file the rule summary and fiscal analysis prepared under section 127.18 of the Revised Code in electronic form along with a proposed rule, amendment, or rescission, and along with a proposed rule, amendment, or rescission in revised form, that is filed under this division. If a proposed rule, amendment, or rescission has an adverse impact on businesses, the agency also shall file the business impact analysis, any recommendations received from the common sense initiative office, and the agency's memorandum of response, if any, in electronic form along with the proposed rule, amendment, or rescission, or along with the proposed rule, amendment, or rescission in revised form, that is filed under this division.

This division does not apply to:

(1) An emergency rule, amendment, or rescission;

(2) Any proposed rule, amendment, or rescission that must be adopted verbatim by an agency pursuant to federal law or rule, to become effective within sixty days of adoption, in order to continue the operation of a federally reimbursed program in this state, so long as the proposed rule contains both of the following:

(a) A statement that it is proposed for the purpose of complying with a federal law or rule;

(b) A citation to the federal law or rule that requires verbatim compliance.

If a rule or amendment is exempt from legislative review under division (H)(2) of this section, and if the federal law or rule pursuant to which the rule or amendment was adopted expires, is repealed or rescinded, or otherwise terminates, the rule or amendment, or its rescission, is thereafter subject to legislative review under division (H) of this section.

(I)(1) The joint committee on agency rule review may recommend the adoption of a concurrent resolution invalidating a proposed rule, amendment, rescission, or part thereof if it finds any of the following:

(a) That the rule-making agency has exceeded the scope of its statutory authority in proposing the rule, amendment, or rescission;

(b) That the proposed rule, amendment, or rescission conflicts with another rule, amendment, or rescission adopted by the same or a different rule-making agency;

(c) That the proposed rule, amendment, or rescission conflicts with the legislative intent in enacting the statute under which the rule-making agency proposed the rule, amendment, or rescission;

(d) That the rule-making agency has failed to prepare a complete and accurate rule summary and fiscal analysis of the proposed rule, amendment, or rescission as required by section 127.18 of the Revised Code;

(e) That the proposed rule, amendment, or rescission incorporates a text or other material by reference and either the rule-making agency has failed to file the text or other material incorporated by reference as required by section 121.73 of the Revised Code or, in the case of a proposed rule or amendment, the incorporation by reference fails to meet the standards stated in section 121.72, 121.75, or 121.76 of the Revised Code;

(f) That the rule-making agency has failed to demonstrate through the business impact analysis, recommendations from the common sense initiative office, and the memorandum of response the agency has filed under division (H) of this section that the regulatory intent of the proposed rule, amendment, or rescission justifies its adverse impact on businesses in this state.

The joint committee shall not hold its public hearing on a proposed rule, amendment, or rescission earlier than the forty-first day after the original version of the proposed rule, amendment, or rescission was filed with the joint committee.

The house of representatives and senate may adopt a concurrent resolution invalidating a proposed rule, amendment, rescission, or part thereof. The concurrent resolution shall state which of the specific rules, amendments, rescissions, or parts thereof are invalidated. A concurrent resolution invalidating a proposed rule, amendment, or rescission shall be adopted not later than the sixty-fifth day after the original version of the text of the proposed rule, amendment, or rescission is filed with the joint committee, except that if more than thirty-five days after the original version is filed the rule-making agency either files a revised version of the text of the proposed rule, amendment, or rescission, or revises the rule summary and fiscal analysis in accordance with division (I)(4) of this section, a concurrent resolution invalidating the proposed rule, amendment, or rescission shall be adopted not later than the thirtieth day after the revised version of the proposed rule or rule summary and fiscal analysis is filed. If, after the joint committee on agency rule review recommends the adoption of a concurrent resolution invalidating a proposed rule, amendment, rescission, or part thereof, the house of representatives or senate does not, within the time remaining for adoption of the concurrent resolution, hold five floor sessions at which its journal records a roll call vote disclosing a sufficient number of members in attendance to pass a bill, the time within which that house may adopt the concurrent resolution is extended until it has held five such floor sessions.

Within five days after the adoption of a concurrent resolution invalidating a proposed rule, amendment, rescission, or part thereof, the clerk of the senate shall send the rule-making agency, the secretary of state, and the director of the legislative service commission in electronic form a certified text of the resolution together with a certification stating the date on which the resolution takes effect. The secretary of state and the director of the legislative service commission shall each note the invalidity of the proposed rule, amendment, rescission, or part thereof, and shall each remove the invalid proposed rule, amendment, rescission, or part thereof from the file of proposed rules. The rule-making agency shall not proceed to adopt in accordance with division (D) of this section, or to file in accordance with division (B)(1) of section 111.15 of the Revised Code, any version of a proposed rule, amendment, rescission, or part thereof that has been invalidated by concurrent resolution.

Unless the house of representatives and senate adopt a concurrent resolution invalidating a proposed rule, amendment, rescission, or part thereof within the time specified by this division, the rule-making agency may proceed to adopt in accordance with division (D) of this section, or to file in accordance with division (B)(1) of section 111.15 of the Revised Code, the latest version of the proposed rule, amendment, or rescission as filed with the joint committee. If by concurrent resolution certain of the rules, amendments, rescissions, or parts thereof are specifically invalidated, the rule-making agency may proceed to adopt, in accordance with division (D) of this section, or to file in accordance with division (B)(1) of section 111.15 of the Revised Code, the latest version of the proposed rules, amendments, rescissions, or parts thereof as filed with the joint committee that are not specifically invalidated. The rule-making agency may not revise or amend any proposed rule, amendment, rescission, or part thereof that has not been invalidated except as provided in this chapter or in section 111.15 of the Revised Code.

(2)(a) A proposed rule, amendment, or rescission that is filed with the joint committee under division (H) of this section or division (D) of section 111.15 of the Revised Code shall be carried over for legislative review to the next succeeding regular session of the general assembly if the original or any revised version of the proposed rule, amendment, or rescission is filed with the joint committee on or after the first day of December of any year.

(b) The latest version of any proposed rule, amendment, or rescission that is subject to division (I)(2)(a) of this section, as filed with the joint committee, is subject to legislative review and invalidation in the next succeeding regular session of the general assembly in the same manner as if it were the original version of a proposed rule, amendment, or rescission that had been filed with the joint committee for the first time on the first day of the session. A rule-making agency shall not adopt in accordance with division (D) of this section, or file in accordance with division (B)(1) of section 111.15 of the Revised Code, any version of a proposed rule, amendment, or rescission that is subject to division (I)(2)(a) of this section until the time for legislative review and invalidation, as contemplated by division (I)(2)(b) of this section, has expired.

(3) Invalidation of any version of a proposed rule, amendment, rescission, or part thereof by concurrent resolution shall prevent the rule-making agency from instituting or continuing proceedings to adopt any version of the same proposed rule, amendment, rescission, or part thereof for the duration of the general assembly that invalidated the proposed rule, amendment, rescission, or part thereof unless the same general assembly adopts a concurrent resolution permitting the rule-making agency to institute or continue such proceedings.

The failure of the general assembly to invalidate a proposed rule, amendment, rescission, or part thereof under this section shall not be construed as a ratification of the lawfulness or reasonableness of the proposed rule, amendment, rescission, or any part thereof or of the validity of the procedure by which the proposed rule, amendment, rescission, or any part thereof was proposed or adopted.

(4) In lieu of recommending a concurrent resolution to invalidate a proposed rule, amendment, rescission, or part thereof because the rule-making agency has failed to prepare a complete and accurate fiscal analysis, the joint committee on agency rule review may issue, on a one-time basis, for rules, amendments, rescissions, or parts thereof that have a fiscal effect on school districts, counties, townships, or municipal corporations, a finding that the rule summary and fiscal analysis is incomplete or inaccurate and order the rule-making agency to revise the rule summary and fiscal analysis and refile it with the proposed rule, amendment, rescission, or part thereof. If an emergency rule is filed as a nonemergency rule before the end of the ninetieth day of the emergency rule's effectiveness, and the joint committee issues a finding and orders the rule-making agency to refile under division (I)(4) of this section, the governor may also issue an order stating that the emergency rule shall remain in effect for an additional sixty days after the ninetieth one hundred twentieth day of the emergency rule's effectiveness. The governor's orders shall be filed in accordance with division (F) of this section. The joint committee shall send in electronic form to the rule-making agency, the secretary of state, and the director of the legislative service commission a certified text of the finding and order to revise the rule summary and fiscal analysis, which shall take immediate effect.

An order issued under division (I)(4) of this section shall prevent the rule-making agency from instituting or continuing proceedings to adopt any version of the proposed rule, amendment, rescission, or part thereof until the rule-making agency revises the rule summary and fiscal analysis and refiles it in electronic form with the joint committee along with the proposed rule, amendment, rescission, or part thereof. If the joint committee finds the rule summary and fiscal analysis to be complete and accurate, the joint committee shall issue a new order noting that the rule-making agency has revised and refiled a complete and accurate rule summary and fiscal analysis. The joint committee shall send in electronic form to the rule-making agency, the secretary of state, and the director of the legislative service commission a certified text of this new order. The secretary of state and the director of the legislative service commission shall each link this order to the proposed rule, amendment, rescission, or part thereof. The rule-making agency may then proceed to adopt in accordance with division (D) of this section, or to file in accordance with division (B)(1) of section 111.15 of the Revised Code, the proposed rule, amendment, rescission, or part thereof that was subject to the finding and order under division (I)(4) of this section. If the joint committee determines that the revised rule summary and fiscal analysis is still inaccurate or incomplete, the joint committee shall recommend the adoption of a concurrent resolution in accordance with division (I)(1) of this section.

Sec. 119.12.  Any party adversely affected by any order of an agency issued pursuant to an adjudication denying an applicant admission to an examination, or denying the issuance or renewal of a license or registration of a licensee, or revoking or suspending a license, or allowing the payment of a forfeiture under section 4301.252 of the Revised Code may appeal from the order of the agency to the court of common pleas of the county in which the place of business of the licensee is located or the county in which the licensee is a resident, except that appeals from decisions of the liquor control commission, the Ohio casino control commission, the state medical board, state chiropractic board, and the board of nursing shall be to the court of common pleas of Franklin county. If any party appealing from the order is not a resident of and has no place of business in this state, the party may appeal to the court of common pleas of Franklin county.

Any party adversely affected by any order of an agency issued pursuant to any other adjudication may appeal to the court of common pleas of Franklin county, except that appeals from orders of the fire marshal issued under Chapter 3737. of the Revised Code may be to the court of common pleas of the county in which the building of the aggrieved person is located and except that appeals under division (B) of section 124.34 of the Revised Code from a decision of the state personnel board of review or a municipal or civil service township civil service commission shall be taken to the court of common pleas of the county in which the appointing authority is located or, in the case of an appeal by the department of rehabilitation and correction, to the court of common pleas of Franklin county.

This section does not apply to appeals from the department of taxation.

Any party desiring to appeal shall file a notice of appeal with the agency setting forth the order appealed from and stating that the agency's order is not supported by reliable, probative, and substantial evidence and is not in accordance with law. The notice of appeal may, but need not, set forth the specific grounds of the party's appeal beyond the statement that the agency's order is not supported by reliable, probative, and substantial evidence and is not in accordance with law. The notice of appeal shall also be filed by the appellant with the court. In filing a notice of appeal with the agency or court, the notice that is filed may be either the original notice or a copy of the original notice. Unless otherwise provided by law relating to a particular agency, notices of appeal shall be filed within fifteen days after the mailing of the notice of the agency's order as provided in this section. For purposes of this paragraph, an order includes a determination appealed pursuant to division (C) of section 119.092 of the Revised Code. The amendments made to this paragraph by Sub. H.B. 215 of the 128th general assembly are procedural, and this paragraph as amended by those amendments shall be applied retrospectively to all appeals pursuant to this paragraph filed before the effective date of those amendments September 13, 2010, but not earlier than May 7, 2009, which was the date the supreme court of Ohio released its opinion and judgment in Medcorp, Inc. v. Ohio Dep't. of Job and Family Servs. (2009), 121 Ohio St.3d 622.

The filing of a notice of appeal shall not automatically operate as a suspension of the order of an agency. If it appears to the court that an unusual hardship to the appellant will result from the execution of the agency's order pending determination of the appeal, the court may grant a suspension and fix its terms. If an appeal is taken from the judgment of the court and the court has previously granted a suspension of the agency's order as provided in this section, the suspension of the agency's order shall not be vacated and shall be given full force and effect until the matter is finally adjudicated. No renewal of a license or permit shall be denied by reason of the suspended order during the period of the appeal from the decision of the court of common pleas. In the case of an appeal from the Ohio casino control commission, the state medical board, or the state chiropractic board, the court may grant a suspension and fix its terms if it appears to the court that an unusual hardship to the appellant will result from the execution of the agency's order pending determination of the appeal and the health, safety, and welfare of the public will not be threatened by suspension of the order. This provision shall not be construed to limit the factors the court may consider in determining whether to suspend an order of any other agency pending determination of an appeal.

The final order of adjudication may apply to any renewal of a license or permit which has been granted during the period of the appeal.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, any order issued by a court of common pleas or a court of appeals suspending the effect of an order of the liquor control commission issued pursuant to Chapter 4301. or 4303. of the Revised Code that suspends, revokes, or cancels a permit issued under Chapter 4303. of the Revised Code or that allows the payment of a forfeiture under section 4301.252 of the Revised Code shall terminate not more than six months after the date of the filing of the record of the liquor control commission with the clerk of the court of common pleas and shall not be extended. The court of common pleas, or the court of appeals on appeal, shall render a judgment in that matter within six months after the date of the filing of the record of the liquor control commission with the clerk of the court of common pleas. A court of appeals shall not issue an order suspending the effect of an order of the liquor control commission that extends beyond six months after the date on which the record of the liquor control commission is filed with a court of common pleas.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, any order issued by a court of common pleas or a court of appeals suspending the effect of an order of the Ohio casino control commission issued under Chapter 3772. of the Revised Code that limits, conditions, restricts, suspends, revokes, denies, not renews, fines, or otherwise penalizes an applicant, licensee, or person excluded or ejected from a casino facility in accordance with section 3772.031 of the Revised Code shall terminate not more than six months after the date of the filing of the record of the Ohio casino control commission with the clerk of the court of common pleas and shall not be extended. The court of common pleas, or the court of appeals on appeal, shall render a judgment in that matter within six months after the date of the filing of the record of the Ohio casino control commission with the clerk of the court of common pleas. A court of appeals shall not issue an order suspending the effect of an order of the Ohio casino control commission that extends beyond six months after the date on which the record of the Ohio casino control commission is filed with the clerk of a court of common pleas.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, any order issued by a court of common pleas suspending the effect of an order of the state medical board or state chiropractic board that limits, revokes, suspends, places on probation, or refuses to register or reinstate a certificate issued by the board or reprimands the holder of the certificate shall terminate not more than fifteen months after the date of the filing of a notice of appeal in the court of common pleas, or upon the rendering of a final decision or order in the appeal by the court of common pleas, whichever occurs first.

Within thirty days after receipt of a notice of appeal from an order in any case in which a hearing is required by sections 119.01 to 119.13 of the Revised Code, the agency shall prepare and certify to the court a complete record of the proceedings in the case. Failure of the agency to comply within the time allowed, upon motion, shall cause the court to enter a finding in favor of the party adversely affected. Additional time, however, may be granted by the court, not to exceed thirty days, when it is shown that the agency has made substantial effort to comply. The record shall be prepared and transcribed, and the expense of it shall be taxed as a part of the costs on the appeal. The appellant shall provide security for costs satisfactory to the court of common pleas. Upon demand by any interested party, the agency shall furnish at the cost of the party requesting it a copy of the stenographic report of testimony offered and evidence submitted at any hearing and a copy of the complete record.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, any party desiring to appeal an order or decision of the state personnel board of review shall, at the time of filing a notice of appeal with the board, provide a security deposit in an amount and manner prescribed in rules that the board shall adopt in accordance with this chapter. In addition, the board is not required to prepare or transcribe the record of any of its proceedings unless the appellant has provided the deposit described above. The failure of the board to prepare or transcribe a record for an appellant who has not provided a security deposit shall not cause a court to enter a finding adverse to the board.

Unless otherwise provided by law, in the hearing of the appeal, the court is confined to the record as certified to it by the agency. Unless otherwise provided by law, the court may grant a request for the admission of additional evidence when satisfied that the additional evidence is newly discovered and could not with reasonable diligence have been ascertained prior to the hearing before the agency.

The court shall conduct a hearing on the appeal and shall give preference to all proceedings under sections 119.01 to 119.13 of the Revised Code, over all other civil cases, irrespective of the position of the proceedings on the calendar of the court. An appeal from an order of the state medical board issued pursuant to division (G) of either section 4730.25 or 4731.22 of the Revised Code, or the state chiropractic board issued pursuant to section 4734.37 of the Revised Code, or the liquor control commission issued pursuant to Chapter 4301. or 4303. of the Revised Code, or the Ohio casino control commission issued pursuant to Chapter 3772. of the Revised Code shall be set down for hearing at the earliest possible time and takes precedence over all other actions. The hearing in the court of common pleas shall proceed as in the trial of a civil action, and the court shall determine the rights of the parties in accordance with the laws applicable to a civil action. At the hearing, counsel may be heard on oral argument, briefs may be submitted, and evidence may be introduced if the court has granted a request for the presentation of additional evidence.

The court may affirm the order of the agency complained of in the appeal if it finds, upon consideration of the entire record and any additional evidence the court has admitted, that the order is supported by reliable, probative, and substantial evidence and is in accordance with law. In the absence of this finding, it may reverse, vacate, or modify the order or make such other ruling as is supported by reliable, probative, and substantial evidence and is in accordance with law. The court shall award compensation for fees in accordance with section 2335.39 of the Revised Code to a prevailing party, other than an agency, in an appeal filed pursuant to this section.

The judgment of the court shall be final and conclusive unless reversed, vacated, or modified on appeal. These appeals may be taken either by the party or the agency, shall proceed as in the case of appeals in civil actions, and shall be pursuant to the Rules of Appellate Procedure and, to the extent not in conflict with those rules, Chapter 2505. of the Revised Code. An appeal by the agency shall be taken on questions of law relating to the constitutionality, construction, or interpretation of statutes and rules of the agency, and, in the appeal, the court may also review and determine the correctness of the judgment of the court of common pleas that the order of the agency is not supported by any reliable, probative, and substantial evidence in the entire record.

The court shall certify its judgment to the agency or take any other action necessary to give its judgment effect.

Sec. 121.08.  (A) There is hereby created in the department of commerce the position of deputy director of administration. This officer shall be appointed by the director of commerce, serve under the director's direction, supervision, and control, perform the duties the director prescribes, and hold office during the director's pleasure. The director of commerce may designate an assistant director of commerce to serve as the deputy director of administration. The deputy director of administration shall perform the duties prescribed by the director of commerce in supervising the activities of the division of administration of the department of commerce.

(B) Except as provided in section 121.07 of the Revised Code, the department of commerce shall have all powers and perform all duties vested in the deputy director of administration, the state fire marshal, the superintendent of financial institutions, the superintendent of real estate and professional licensing, the superintendent of liquor control, the superintendent of industrial compliance, the superintendent of unclaimed funds, and the commissioner of securities, and shall have all powers and perform all duties vested by law in all officers, deputies, and employees of those offices. Except as provided in section 121.07 of the Revised Code, wherever powers are conferred or duties imposed upon any of those officers, the powers and duties shall be construed as vested in the department of commerce.

(C)(1) There is hereby created in the department of commerce a division of financial institutions, which shall have all powers and perform all duties vested by law in the superintendent of financial institutions. Wherever powers are conferred or duties imposed upon the superintendent of financial institutions, those powers and duties shall be construed as vested in the division of financial institutions. The division of financial institutions shall be administered by the superintendent of financial institutions.

(2) All provisions of law governing the superintendent of financial institutions shall apply to and govern the superintendent of financial institutions provided for in this section; all authority vested by law in the superintendent of financial institutions with respect to the management of the division of financial institutions shall be construed as vested in the superintendent of financial institutions created by this section with respect to the division of financial institutions provided for in this section; and all rights, privileges, and emoluments conferred by law upon the superintendent of financial institutions shall be construed as conferred upon the superintendent of financial institutions as head of the division of financial institutions. The director of commerce shall not transfer from the division of financial institutions any of the functions specified in division (C)(2) of this section.

(D) There is hereby created in the department of commerce a division of liquor control, which shall have all powers and perform all duties vested by law in the superintendent of liquor control. Wherever powers are conferred or duties are imposed upon the superintendent of liquor control, those powers and duties shall be construed as vested in the division of liquor control. The division of liquor control shall be administered by the superintendent of liquor control.

(E) The director of commerce shall not be interested, directly or indirectly, in any firm or corporation which is a dealer in securities as defined in sections 1707.01 and 1707.14 of the Revised Code, or in any firm or corporation licensed under sections 1321.01 to 1321.19 of the Revised Code.

(F) The director of commerce shall not have any official connection with a savings and loan association, a savings bank, a bank, a bank holding company, a savings and loan association holding company, a consumer finance company, or a credit union that is under the supervision of the division of financial institutions, or a subsidiary of any of the preceding entities, or be interested in the business thereof.

(G) There is hereby created in the state treasury the division of administration fund. The fund shall receive assessments on the operating funds of the department of commerce in accordance with procedures prescribed by the director of commerce and approved by the director of budget and management. All operating expenses of the division of administration shall be paid from the division of administration fund.

(H) There is hereby created in the department of commerce a division of real estate and professional licensing, which shall be under the control and supervision of the director of commerce. The division of real estate and professional licensing shall be administered by the superintendent of real estate and professional licensing. The superintendent of real estate and professional licensing shall exercise the powers and perform the functions and duties delegated to the superintendent under Chapters 4735., 4763., and 4767. of the Revised Code.

(I) There is hereby created in the department of commerce a division of industrial compliance, which shall have all powers and perform all duties vested by law in the superintendent of industrial compliance. Wherever powers are conferred or duties imposed upon the superintendent of industrial compliance, those powers and duties shall be construed as vested in the division of industrial compliance. The division of industrial compliance shall be under the control and supervision of the director of commerce and be administered by the superintendent of industrial compliance.

(J) There is hereby created in the department of commerce a division of unclaimed funds, which shall have all powers and perform all duties delegated to or vested by law in the superintendent of unclaimed funds. Wherever powers are conferred or duties imposed upon the superintendent of unclaimed funds, those powers and duties shall be construed as vested in the division of unclaimed funds. The division of unclaimed funds shall be under the control and supervision of the director of commerce and shall be administered by the superintendent of unclaimed funds. The superintendent of unclaimed funds shall exercise the powers and perform the functions and duties delegated to the superintendent by the director of commerce under section 121.07 and Chapter 169. of the Revised Code, and as may otherwise be provided by law.

(K) The department of commerce or a division of the department created by the Revised Code that is acting with authorization on the department's behalf may request from the bureau of criminal identification and investigation pursuant to section 109.572 of the Revised Code, or coordinate with appropriate federal, state, and local government agencies to accomplish, criminal records checks for the persons whose identities are required to be disclosed by an applicant for the issuance or transfer of a permit, license, certificate of registration, or certification issued or transferred by the department or division. At or before the time of making a request for a criminal records check, the department or division may require any person whose identity is required to be disclosed by an applicant for the issuance or transfer of such a license, permit, certificate of registration, or certification to submit to the department or division valid fingerprint impressions in a format and by any media or means acceptable to the bureau of criminal identification and investigation and, when applicable, the federal bureau of investigation. The department or division may cause the bureau of criminal identification and investigation to conduct a criminal records check through the federal bureau of investigation only if the person for whom the criminal records check would be conducted resides or works outside of this state or has resided or worked outside of this state during the preceding five years, or if a criminal records check conducted by the bureau of criminal identification and investigation within this state indicates that the person may have a criminal record outside of this state.

In the case of a criminal records check under section 109.572 of the Revised Code, the department or division shall forward to the bureau of criminal identification and investigation the requisite form, fingerprint impressions, and fee described in division (C) of that section. When requested by the department or division in accordance with this section, the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall request from the federal bureau of investigation any information it has with respect to the person who is the subject of the requested criminal records check and shall forward the requisite fingerprint impressions and information to the federal bureau of investigation for that criminal records check. After conducting a criminal records check or receiving the results of a criminal records check from the federal bureau of investigation, the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall provide the results to the department or division.

The department or division may require any person about whom a criminal records check is requested to pay to the department or division the amount necessary to cover the fee charged to the department or division by the bureau of criminal identification and investigation under division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code, including, when applicable, any fee for a criminal records check conducted by the federal bureau of investigation.

(L) The director of commerce, or the director's designee, may adopt rules to enhance compliance with statutes pertaining to, and rules adopted by, divisions under the direction, supervision, and control of the department or director by offering incentive-based programs that ensure safety and soundness while promoting growth and prosperity in the state.

Sec. 122.121.  (A) If a local organizing committee, endorsing municipality, or endorsing county enters into a joinder undertaking with a site selection organization, the local organizing committee, endorsing municipality, or endorsing county may apply to the director of development services, on a form and in the manner prescribed by the director, for a grant based on the projected incremental increase in the receipts from the tax imposed under section 5739.02 of the Revised Code within the market area designated under division (C) of this section, for the two-week period that ends at the end of the day after the date on which a game will be held, that is directly attributable, as determined by the director, to the preparation for and presentation of the game. The director shall determine the projected incremental increase in the tax imposed under section 5739.02 of the Revised Code by using a formula approved by the destination marketing association international for event impact or another formula of similar purpose approved by the director. The local organizing committee, endorsing municipality, or endorsing county is eligible to receive a grant under this section only if the projected incremental increase in receipts from the tax imposed under section 5739.02 of the Revised Code, as determined by the director, exceeds two hundred fifty thousand dollars. The amount of the grant shall be not less than fifty per cent of the projected incremental increase in receipts, as determined by the director, but shall not exceed five hundred thousand dollars. The director shall not issue grants with a total value of more than one million dollars in any fiscal year, and shall not issue any grant before July 1, 2013.

(B) If the director of development services approves an application for a local organizing committee, endorsing municipality, or endorsing county and that local organizing committee, endorsing municipality, or endorsing county enters into a joinder agreement with a site selection organization, the local organizing committee, endorsing municipality, or endorsing county shall file a copy of the joinder agreement with the director of development, who immediately shall notify the director of budget and management of the filing. Within thirty days after receiving the notice, the director of budget and management shall establish a schedule to disburse from the general revenue fund to such local organizing committee, endorsing municipality, or endorsing county payments that total the amount certified by the director of development under division (A) of this section, but in no event shall the total amount disbursed exceed five hundred thousand dollars, and no disbursement shall be made before July 1, 2013. The payments grant shall be used exclusively by the local organizing committee, endorsing municipality, or endorsing county to fulfill a portion of its obligations to a site selection organization under game support contracts, which obligations may include the payment of costs relating to the preparations necessary for the conduct of the game, including acquiring, renovating, or constructing facilities; to pay the costs of conducting the game; and to assist the local organizing committee, endorsing municipality, or endorsing county in providing assurances required by a site selection organization sponsoring one or more games.

(C) For the purposes of division (A) of this section, the director of development services, in consultation with the tax commissioner, shall designate the market area for a game. The market area shall consist of the combined statistical area, as defined by the United States office of management and budget, in which an endorsing municipality or endorsing county is located.

(D) A local organizing committee, endorsing municipality, or endorsing county shall provide information required by the director of development services and tax commissioner to enable the director and commissioner to fulfill their duties under this section, including annual audited statements of any financial records required by a site selection organization and data obtained by the local organizing committee, endorsing municipality, or endorsing county relating to attendance at a game and to the economic impact of the game. A local organizing committee, an endorsing municipality, or an endorsing county shall provide an annual audited financial statement if so required by the director and commissioner, not later than the end of the fourth month after the date the period covered by the financial statement ends.

(E) Within thirty days after the game, the local organizing committee, endorsing municipality, or endorsing county shall report to the director of development services about the economic impact of the game. The report shall be in the form and substance required by the director, including, but not limited to, a final income statement for the event showing total revenue and expenditures and revenue and expenditures in the market area for the game, and ticket sales for the game and any related activities for which admission was charged. The director of development shall determine, based on the reported information and the exercise of reasonable judgment, the incremental increase in receipts from the tax imposed under section 5739.02 of the Revised Code directly attributable to the game. If the actual incremental increase in such receipts is less than the projected incremental increase in receipts, the director may require the local organizing committee, endorsing municipality, or endorsing county to refund to the state all or a portion of the grant.

(F) No disbursement may be made under this section if the director of development services determines that it would be used for the purpose of soliciting the relocation of a professional sports franchise located in this state.

(G) This section may not be construed as creating or requiring a state guarantee of obligations imposed on an endorsing municipality or endorsing county under a game support contract or any other agreement relating to hosting one or more games in this state.

Sec. 122.136.  The director of development services shall prepare and submit a report to the governor and the general assembly annually on or before the first day of February August of the services and activities of the employee ownership assistance program for the preceding calendar year. The director shall include in the report information regarding the number, names, and locations of business establishments that have been or likely will be assisted as employee-owned corporations; recommendations on how to better operate the program; information regarding the effectiveness of the program in maintaining and improving employment in the state; and the number of individuals affected by the activities of the program.

Sec. 122.17.  (A) As used in this section:

(1) "Income tax revenue" means the total amount withheld under section 5747.06 of the Revised Code by the taxpayer during the taxable year, or during the calendar year that includes the tax period, from the compensation of each employee or each home-based employee employed in the project to the extent the employee's withholdings are not used to determine the credit under section 122.171 of the Revised Code. "Income tax revenue" excludes amounts withheld before the day the taxpayer becomes eligible for the credit.

(2) "Baseline income tax revenue" means income tax revenue except that the applicable withholding period is the twelve months immediately preceding the date the tax credit authority approves the taxpayer's application or the date the tax credit authority receives the recommendation described in division (C)(2)(a) of this section, whichever occurs first, multiplied by the sum of one plus an annual pay increase factor to be determined by the tax credit authority. If the taxpayer becomes eligible for the credit after the first day of the taxpayer's taxable year or after the first day of the calendar year that includes the tax period, the taxpayer's baseline income tax revenue for the first such taxable or calendar year of credit eligibility shall be reduced in proportion to the number of days during the taxable or calendar year for which the taxpayer was not eligible for the credit. For subsequent taxable or calendar years, "baseline income tax revenue" equals the unreduced baseline income tax revenue for the preceding taxable or calendar year multiplied by the sum of one plus the pay increase factor.

(3) "Excess income tax revenue" means income tax revenue minus baseline income tax revenue.

(4) "Home-based employee" means an employee whose services are performed primarily from the employee's residence in this state exclusively for the benefit of the project and whose rate of pay is at least one hundred thirty-one per cent of the federal minimum wage under 29 U.S.C. 206.

(B) The tax credit authority may make grants under this section to foster job creation in this state. Such a grant shall take the form of a refundable credit allowed against the tax imposed by section 5725.18, 5726.02, 5729.03, 5733.06, 5736.02, or 5747.02 or levied under Chapter 5751. of the Revised Code. The credit shall be claimed for the taxable years or tax periods specified in the taxpayer's agreement with the tax credit authority under division (D) of this section. With respect to taxes imposed under section 5726.02, 5733.06, or 5747.02 or Chapter 5751. of the Revised Code, the credit shall be claimed in the order required under section 5726.98, 5733.98, 5747.98, or 5751.98 of the Revised Code. The amount of the credit available for a taxable year or for a calendar year that includes a tax period equals the excess income tax revenue for that year multiplied by the percentage specified in the agreement with the tax credit authority. Any credit granted under this section against the tax imposed by section 5733.06 or 5747.02 of the Revised Code, to the extent not fully utilized against such tax for taxable years ending prior to 2008, shall automatically be converted without any action taken by the tax credit authority to a credit against the tax levied under Chapter 5751. of the Revised Code for tax periods beginning on or after July 1, 2008, provided that the person to whom the credit was granted is subject to such tax. The converted credit shall apply to those calendar years in which the remaining taxable years specified in the agreement end.

(C)(1) A taxpayer or potential taxpayer who proposes a project to create new jobs in this state may apply to the tax credit authority to enter into an agreement for a tax credit under this section.

An application shall not propose to include both home-based employees and employees who are not home-based employees in the computation of income tax revenue for the purposes of the same tax credit agreement. If a taxpayer or potential taxpayer employs both home-based employees and employees who are not home-based employees in a project, the taxpayer shall submit separate applications for separate tax credit agreements for the project, one of which shall include home-based employees in the computation of income tax revenue and one of which shall include all other employees in the computation of income tax revenue.

The director of development services shall prescribe the form of the application. After receipt of an application, the authority may enter into an agreement with the taxpayer for a credit under this section if it determines all of the following:

(a) The taxpayer's project will increase payroll and income tax revenue;

(b) The taxpayer's project is economically sound and will benefit the people of this state by increasing opportunities for employment and strengthening the economy of this state;

(c) Receiving the tax credit is a major factor in the taxpayer's decision to go forward with the project.

(2)(a) A taxpayer that chooses to begin the project prior to receiving the determination of the authority may, upon submitting the taxpayer's application to the authority, request that the chief investment officer of the nonprofit corporation formed under section 187.01 of the Revised Code and the director review the taxpayer's application and recommend to the authority that the taxpayer's application be considered. As soon as possible after receiving such a request, the chief investment officer and the director shall review the taxpayer's application and, if they determine that the application warrants consideration by the authority, make that recommendation to the authority not later than six months after the application is received by the authority.

(b) The authority shall consider any taxpayer's application for which it receives a recommendation under division (C)(2)(a) of this section. If the authority determines that the taxpayer does not meet all of the criteria set forth in division (C)(1) of this section, the authority and the development services agency shall proceed in accordance with rules adopted by the director pursuant to division (I) of this section.

(D) An agreement under this section shall include all of the following:

(1) A detailed description of the project that is the subject of the agreement;

(2)(a) The term of the tax credit, which, except as provided in division (D)(2)(b) of this section, shall not exceed fifteen years, and the first taxable year, or first calendar year that includes a tax period, for which the credit may be claimed;

(b) If the tax credit is computed on the basis of home-based employees, the term of the credit shall expire on or before the last day of the taxable or calendar year ending before the beginning of the seventh year after September 6, 2012, the effective date of H.B. 327 of the 129th general assembly.

(3) A requirement that the taxpayer shall maintain operations at the project location for at least the greater of seven years or the term of the credit plus three years;

(4) The percentage, as determined by the tax credit authority, of excess income tax revenue that will be allowed as the amount of the credit for each taxable year or for each calendar year that includes a tax period;

(5) The pay increase factor to be applied to the taxpayer's baseline income tax revenue;

(6) A requirement that the taxpayer annually shall report to the director of development services employment, tax withholding, investment, the provision of health care benefits and tuition reimbursement if required in the agreement, and other information the director needs to perform the director's duties under this section;

(7) A requirement that the director of development services annually review the information reported under division (D)(6) of this section and verify compliance with the agreement; if the taxpayer is in compliance, a requirement that the director issue a certificate to the taxpayer stating that the information has been verified and identifying the amount of the credit that may be claimed for the taxable or calendar year;

(8) A provision providing that the taxpayer may not relocate a substantial number of employment positions from elsewhere in this state to the project location unless the director of development services determines that the legislative authority of the county, township, or municipal corporation from which the employment positions would be relocated has been notified by the taxpayer of the relocation.

For purposes of this section, the movement of an employment position from one political subdivision to another political subdivision shall be considered a relocation of an employment position unless the employment position in the first political subdivision is replaced.

(9) If the tax credit is computed on the basis of home-based employees, that the tax credit may not be claimed by the taxpayer until the taxable year or tax period in which the taxpayer employs at least two hundred employees more than the number of employees the taxpayer employed on June 30, 2011.

(E) If a taxpayer fails to meet or comply with any condition or requirement set forth in a tax credit agreement, the tax credit authority may amend the agreement to reduce the percentage or term of the tax credit. The reduction of the percentage or term may take effect in the current taxable or calendar year.

(F) Projects that consist solely of point-of-final-purchase retail facilities are not eligible for a tax credit under this section. If a project consists of both point-of-final-purchase retail facilities and nonretail facilities, only the portion of the project consisting of the nonretail facilities is eligible for a tax credit and only the excess income tax revenue from the nonretail facilities shall be considered when computing the amount of the tax credit. If a warehouse facility is part of a point-of-final-purchase retail facility and supplies only that facility, the warehouse facility is not eligible for a tax credit. Catalog distribution centers are not considered point-of-final-purchase retail facilities for the purposes of this division, and are eligible for tax credits under this section.

(G) Financial statements and other information submitted to the development services agency or the tax credit authority by an applicant or recipient of a tax credit under this section, and any information taken for any purpose from such statements or information, are not public records subject to section 149.43 of the Revised Code. However, the chairperson of the authority may make use of the statements and other information for purposes of issuing public reports or in connection with court proceedings concerning tax credit agreements under this section. Upon the request of the tax commissioner or, if the applicant or recipient is an insurance company, upon the request of the superintendent of insurance, the chairperson of the authority shall provide to the commissioner or superintendent any statement or information submitted by an applicant or recipient of a tax credit in connection with the credit. The commissioner or superintendent shall preserve the confidentiality of the statement or information.

(H) A taxpayer claiming a credit under this section shall submit to the tax commissioner or, if the taxpayer is an insurance company, to the superintendent of insurance, a copy of the director of development services' certificate of verification under division (D)(7) of this section with the taxpayer's tax report or return for the taxable year or for the calendar year that includes the tax period. Failure to submit a copy of the certificate with the report or return does not invalidate a claim for a credit if the taxpayer submits a copy of the certificate to the commissioner or superintendent within sixty days after the commissioner or superintendent requests it.

(I) The director of development services, after consultation with the tax commissioner and the superintendent of insurance and in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt rules necessary to implement this section, including rules that establish a procedure to be followed by the tax credit authority and the development services agency in the event the authority considers a taxpayer's application for which it receives a recommendation under division (C)(2)(a) of this section but does not approve it. The rules may provide for recipients of tax credits under this section to be charged fees to cover administrative costs of the tax credit program. The fees collected shall be credited to the business assistance fund created in section 122.174 of the Revised Code. At the time the director gives public notice under division (A) of section 119.03 of the Revised Code of the adoption of the rules, the director shall submit copies of the proposed rules to the chairpersons of the standing committees on economic development in the senate and the house of representatives.

(J) For the purposes of this section, a taxpayer may include a partnership, a corporation that has made an election under subchapter S of chapter one of subtitle A of the Internal Revenue Code, or any other business entity through which income flows as a distributive share to its owners. A partnership, S-corporation, or other such business entity may elect to pass the credit received under this section through to the persons to whom the income or profit of the partnership, S-corporation, or other entity is distributed. The election shall be made on the annual report required under division (D)(6) of this section. The election applies to and is irrevocable for the credit for which the report is submitted. If the election is made, the credit shall be apportioned among those persons in the same proportions as those in which the income or profit is distributed.

(K) If the director of development services determines that a taxpayer who has received a credit under this section is not complying with the requirement under division (D)(3) of this section, the director shall notify the tax credit authority of the noncompliance. After receiving such a notice, and after giving the taxpayer an opportunity to explain the noncompliance, the tax credit authority may require the taxpayer to refund to this state a portion of the credit in accordance with the following:

(1) If the taxpayer maintained operations at the project location for a period less than or equal to the term of the credit, an amount not exceeding one hundred per cent of the sum of any credits allowed and received under this section;

(2) If the taxpayer maintained operations at the project location for a period longer than the term of the credit, but less than the greater of seven years or the term of the credit plus three years, an amount not exceeding seventy-five per cent of the sum of any credits allowed and received under this section.

In determining the portion of the tax credit to be refunded to this state, the tax credit authority shall consider the effect of market conditions on the taxpayer's project and whether the taxpayer continues to maintain other operations in this state. After making the determination, the authority shall certify the amount to be refunded to the tax commissioner or superintendent of insurance, as appropriate. If the amount is certified to the commissioner, the commissioner shall make an assessment for that amount against the taxpayer under Chapter 5726., 5733., 5736., 5747., or 5751. of the Revised Code. If the amount is certified to the superintendent, the superintendent shall make an assessment for that amount against the taxpayer under Chapter 5725. or 5729. of the Revised Code. The time limitations on assessments under those chapters do not apply to an assessment under this division, but the commissioner or superintendent, as appropriate, shall make the assessment within one year after the date the authority certifies to the commissioner or superintendent the amount to be refunded.

(L) On or before the first day of August each year, the director of development services shall submit a report to the governor, the president of the senate, and the speaker of the house of representatives on the tax credit program under this section. The report shall include information on the number of agreements that were entered into under this section during the preceding calendar year, a description of the project that is the subject of each such agreement, and an update on the status of projects under agreements entered into before the preceding calendar year.

(M) There is hereby created the tax credit authority, which consists of the director of development services and four other members appointed as follows: the governor, the president of the senate, and the speaker of the house of representatives each shall appoint one member who shall be a specialist in economic development; the governor also shall appoint a member who is a specialist in taxation. Of the initial appointees, the members appointed by the governor shall serve a term of two years; the members appointed by the president of the senate and the speaker of the house of representatives shall serve a term of four years. Thereafter, terms of office shall be for four years. Initial appointments to the authority shall be made within thirty days after January 13, 1993. Each member shall serve on the authority until the end of the term for which the member was appointed. Vacancies shall be filled in the same manner provided for original appointments. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which the member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the remainder of that term. Members may be reappointed to the authority. Members of the authority shall receive their necessary and actual expenses while engaged in the business of the authority. The director of development services shall serve as chairperson of the authority, and the members annually shall elect a vice-chairperson from among themselves. Three members of the authority constitute a quorum to transact and vote on the business of the authority. The majority vote of the membership of the authority is necessary to approve any such business, including the election of the vice-chairperson.

The director of development services may appoint a professional employee of the development services agency to serve as the director's substitute at a meeting of the authority. The director shall make the appointment in writing. In the absence of the director from a meeting of the authority, the appointed substitute shall serve as chairperson. In the absence of both the director and the director's substitute from a meeting, the vice-chairperson shall serve as chairperson.

(N) For purposes of the credits granted by this section against the taxes imposed under sections 5725.18 and 5729.03 of the Revised Code, "taxable year" means the period covered by the taxpayer's annual statement to the superintendent of insurance.

(O) On or before the first day of March of each of the five calendar years beginning with 2014, each taxpayer subject to an agreement with the tax credit authority under this section on the basis of home-based employees shall report the number of home-based employees and other employees employed by the taxpayer in this state to the development services agency.

(P) On or before the first day of January of 2019, the director of development services shall submit a report to the governor, the president of the senate, and the speaker of the house of representatives on the effect of agreements entered into under this section in which the taxpayer included home-based employees in the computation of income tax revenue. The report shall include information on the number of such agreements that were entered into in the preceding six years, a description of the projects that were the subjects of such agreements, and an analysis of nationwide home-based employment trends, including the number of home-based jobs created from July 1, 2011, through June 30, 2017, and a description of any home-based employment tax incentives provided by other states during that time.

(Q) The director of development services may require any agreement entered into under this section for a tax credit computed on the basis of home-based employees to contain a provision that the taxpayer makes available health care benefits and tuition reimbursement to all employees.

Sec. 122.171. (A) As used in this section:

(1) "Capital investment project" means a plan of investment at a project site for the acquisition, construction, renovation, or repair of buildings, machinery, or equipment, or for capitalized costs of basic research and new product development determined in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles, but does not include any of the following:

(a) Payments made for the acquisition of personal property through operating leases;

(b) Project costs paid before January 1, 2002;

(c) Payments made to a related member as defined in section 5733.042 of the Revised Code or to a consolidated elected taxpayer or a combined taxpayer as defined in section 5751.01 of the Revised Code.

(2) "Eligible business" means a taxpayer and its related members with Ohio operations satisfying all of the following:

(a) The taxpayer employs at least five hundred full-time equivalent employees or has an annual payroll of at least thirty-five million dollars at the time the tax credit authority grants the tax credit under this section;

(b) The taxpayer makes or causes to be made payments for the capital investment project of one of the following:

(i) If the taxpayer is engaged at the project site primarily as a manufacturer, at least fifty million dollars in the aggregate at the project site during a period of three consecutive calendar years, including the calendar year that includes a day of the taxpayer's taxable year or tax period with respect to which the credit is granted;

(ii) If the taxpayer is engaged at the project site primarily in significant corporate administrative functions, as defined by the director of development services by rule, at least twenty million dollars in the aggregate at the project site during a period of three consecutive calendar years including the calendar year that includes a day of the taxpayer's taxable year or tax period with respect to which the credit is granted;

(iii) If the taxpayer is applying to enter into an agreement for a tax credit authorized under division (B)(3) of this section, at least five million dollars in the aggregate at the project site during a period of three consecutive calendar years, including the calendar year that includes a day of the taxpayer's taxable year or tax period with respect to which the credit is granted.

(c) The taxpayer had a capital investment project reviewed and approved by the tax credit authority as provided in divisions (C), (D), and (E) of this section.

(3) "Full-time equivalent employees" means the quotient obtained by dividing the total number of hours for which employees were compensated for employment in the project by two thousand eighty. "Full-time equivalent employees" shall exclude hours that are counted for a credit under section 122.17 of the Revised Code.

(4) "Income tax revenue" means the total amount withheld under section 5747.06 of the Revised Code by the taxpayer during the taxable year, or during the calendar year that includes the tax period, from the compensation of all employees employed in the project whose hours of compensation are included in calculating the number of full-time equivalent employees.

(5) "Manufacturer" has the same meaning as in section 5739.011 of the Revised Code.

(6) "Project site" means an integrated complex of facilities in this state, as specified by the tax credit authority under this section, within a fifteen-mile radius where a taxpayer is primarily operating as an eligible business.

(7) "Related member" has the same meaning as in section 5733.042 of the Revised Code as that section existed on the effective date of its amendment by Am. Sub. H.B. 215 of the 122nd general assembly, September 29, 1997.

(8) "Taxable year" includes, in the case of a domestic or foreign insurance company, the calendar year ending on the thirty-first day of December preceding the day the superintendent of insurance is required to certify to the treasurer of state under section 5725.20 or 5729.05 of the Revised Code the amount of taxes due from insurance companies.

(B) The tax credit authority created under section 122.17 of the Revised Code may grant tax credits under this section for the purpose of fostering job retention in this state. Upon application by an eligible business and upon consideration of the recommendation of the director of budget and management, tax commissioner, the superintendent of insurance in the case of an insurance company, and director of development services under division (C) of this section, the tax credit authority may grant the following credits against the tax imposed by section 5725.18, 5726.02, 5729.03, 5733.06, 5736.02, 5747.02, or 5751.02 of the Revised Code:

(1) A nonrefundable credit to an eligible business;

(2) A refundable credit to an eligible business meeting the following conditions, provided that the director of budget and management, tax commissioner, superintendent of insurance in the case of an insurance company, and director of development services have recommended the granting of the credit to the tax credit authority before July 1, 2011:

(a) The business retains at least one thousand full-time equivalent employees at the project site.

(b) The business makes or causes to be made payments for a capital investment project of at least twenty-five million dollars in the aggregate at the project site during a period of three consecutive calendar years, including the calendar year that includes a day of the business' taxable year or tax period with respect to which the credit is granted.

(c) In 2010, the business received a written offer of financial incentives from another state of the United States that the director determines to be sufficient inducement for the business to relocate the business' operations from this state to that state.

(3) A refundable credit to an eligible business with a total annual payroll of at least twenty million dollars, provided that the tax credit authority grants the tax credit on or after July 1, 2011, and before January 1, 2014.

The credits authorized in divisions (B)(1), (2), and (3) of this section may be granted for a period up to fifteen taxable years or, in the case of the tax levied by section 5736.02 or 5751.02 of the Revised Code, for a period of up to fifteen calendar years. The credit amount for a taxable year or a calendar year that includes the tax period for which a credit may be claimed equals the income tax revenue for that year multiplied by the percentage specified in the agreement with the tax credit authority. The percentage may not exceed seventy-five per cent. The credit shall be claimed in the order required under section 5725.98, 5726.98, 5729.98, 5733.98, 5747.98, or 5751.98 of the Revised Code. In determining the percentage and term of the credit, the tax credit authority shall consider both the number of full-time equivalent employees and the value of the capital investment project. The credit amount may not be based on the income tax revenue for a calendar year before the calendar year in which the tax credit authority specifies the tax credit is to begin, and the credit shall be claimed only for the taxable years or tax periods specified in the eligible business' agreement with the tax credit authority. In no event shall the credit be claimed for a taxable year or tax period terminating before the date specified in the agreement. Any credit granted under this section against the tax imposed by section 5733.06 or 5747.02 of the Revised Code, to the extent not fully utilized against such tax for taxable years ending prior to 2008, shall automatically be converted without any action taken by the tax credit authority to a credit against the tax levied under Chapter 5751. of the Revised Code for tax periods beginning on or after July 1, 2008, provided that the person to whom the credit was granted is subject to such tax. The converted credit shall apply to those calendar years in which the remaining taxable years specified in the agreement end.

If a nonrefundable credit allowed under division (B)(1) of this section for a taxable year or tax period exceeds the taxpayer's tax liability for that year or period, the excess may be carried forward for the three succeeding taxable or calendar years, but the amount of any excess credit allowed in any taxable year or tax period shall be deducted from the balance carried forward to the succeeding year or period.

(C) A taxpayer that proposes a capital investment project to retain jobs in this state may apply to the tax credit authority to enter into an agreement for a tax credit under this section. The director of development services shall prescribe the form of the application. After receipt of an application, the authority shall forward copies of the application to the director of budget and management, the tax commissioner, the superintendent of insurance in the case of an insurance company, and the director of development services, each of whom shall review the application to determine the economic impact the proposed project would have on the state and the affected political subdivisions and shall submit a summary of their determinations and recommendations to the authority.

(D) Upon review and consideration of the determinations and recommendations described in division (C) of this section, the tax credit authority may enter into an agreement with the taxpayer for a credit under this section if the authority determines all of the following:

(1) The taxpayer's capital investment project will result in the retention of employment in this state.

(2) The taxpayer is economically sound and has the ability to complete the proposed capital investment project.

(3) The taxpayer intends to and has the ability to maintain operations at the project site for at least the greater of (a) the term of the credit plus three years, or (b) seven years.

(4) Receiving the credit is a major factor in the taxpayer's decision to begin, continue with, or complete the project.

(5) If the taxpayer is applying to enter into an agreement for a tax credit authorized under division (B)(3) of this section, the taxpayer's capital investment project will be located in the political subdivision in which the taxpayer maintains its principal place of business or maintains a unit or division with at least four thousand two hundred employees at the project site.

(E) An agreement under this section shall include all of the following:

(1) A detailed description of the project that is the subject of the agreement, including the amount of the investment, the period over which the investment has been or is being made, the number of full-time equivalent employees at the project site, and the anticipated income tax revenue to be generated.

(2) The term of the credit, the percentage of the tax credit, the maximum annual value of tax credits that may be allowed each year, and the first year for which the credit may be claimed.

(3) A requirement that the taxpayer maintain operations at the project site for at least the greater of (a) the term of the credit plus three years, or (b) seven years.

(4)(a) In the case of a credit granted under division (B)(1) of this section, a requirement that the taxpayer retain at least five hundred full-time equivalent employees at the project site and within this state for the entire term of the credit, or a requirement that the taxpayer maintain an annual payroll of at least thirty-five million dollars for the entire term of the credit;

(b) In the case of a credit granted under division (B)(2) of this section, a requirement that the taxpayer retain at least one thousand full-time equivalent employees at the project site and within this state for the entire term of the credit;

(c) In the case of a credit granted under division (B)(3) of this section, either of the following:

(i) A requirement that the taxpayer retain at least five hundred full-time equivalent employees at the project site and within this state for the entire term of the credit and a requirement that the taxpayer maintain an annual payroll of at least twenty million dollars for the entire term of the credit;

(ii) A requirement that the taxpayer maintain an annual payroll of at least thirty-five million dollars for the entire term of the credit.

(5) A requirement that the taxpayer annually report to the director of development services employment, tax withholding, capital investment, and other information the director needs to perform the director's duties under this section.

(6) A requirement that the director of development services annually review the annual reports of the taxpayer to verify the information reported under division (E)(5) of this section and compliance with the agreement. Upon verification, the director shall issue a certificate to the taxpayer stating that the information has been verified and identifying the amount of the credit for the taxable year or calendar year that includes the tax period. In determining the number of full-time equivalent employees, no position shall be counted that is filled by an employee who is included in the calculation of a tax credit under section 122.17 of the Revised Code.

(7) A provision providing that the taxpayer may not relocate a substantial number of employment positions from elsewhere in this state to the project site unless the director of development services determines that the taxpayer notified the legislative authority of the county, township, or municipal corporation from which the employment positions would be relocated.

For purposes of this section, the movement of an employment position from one political subdivision to another political subdivision shall be considered a relocation of an employment position unless the movement is confined to the project site. The transfer of an employment position from one political subdivision to another political subdivision shall not be considered a relocation of an employment position if the employment position in the first political subdivision is replaced by another employment position.

(8) A waiver by the taxpayer of any limitations periods relating to assessments or adjustments resulting from the taxpayer's failure to comply with the agreement.

(F) If a taxpayer fails to meet or comply with any condition or requirement set forth in a tax credit agreement, the tax credit authority may amend the agreement to reduce the percentage or term of the credit. The reduction of the percentage or term may take effect in the current taxable or calendar year.

(G) Financial statements and other information submitted to the department of development services or the tax credit authority by an applicant for or recipient of a tax credit under this section, and any information taken for any purpose from such statements or information, are not public records subject to section 149.43 of the Revised Code. However, the chairperson of the authority may make use of the statements and other information for purposes of issuing public reports or in connection with court proceedings concerning tax credit agreements under this section. Upon the request of the tax commissioner, or the superintendent of insurance in the case of an insurance company, the chairperson of the authority shall provide to the commissioner or superintendent any statement or other information submitted by an applicant for or recipient of a tax credit in connection with the credit. The commissioner or superintendent shall preserve the confidentiality of the statement or other information.

(H) A taxpayer claiming a tax credit under this section shall submit to the tax commissioner or, in the case of an insurance company, to the superintendent of insurance, a copy of the director of development services' certificate of verification under division (E)(6) of this section with the taxpayer's tax report or return for the taxable year or for the calendar year that includes the tax period. Failure to submit a copy of the certificate with the report or return does not invalidate a claim for a credit if the taxpayer submits a copy of the certificate to the commissioner or superintendent within sixty days after the commissioner or superintendent requests it.

(I) For the purposes of this section, a taxpayer may include a partnership, a corporation that has made an election under subchapter S of chapter one of subtitle A of the Internal Revenue Code, or any other business entity through which income flows as a distributive share to its owners. A partnership, S-corporation, or other such business entity may elect to pass the credit received under this section through to the persons to whom the income or profit of the partnership, S-corporation, or other entity is distributed. The election shall be made on the annual report required under division (E)(5) of this section. The election applies to and is irrevocable for the credit for which the report is submitted. If the election is made, the credit shall be apportioned among those persons in the same proportions as those in which the income or profit is distributed.

(J) If the director of development services determines that a taxpayer that received a certificate under division (E)(6) of this section is not complying with the requirement under division (E)(3) of this section, the director shall notify the tax credit authority of the noncompliance. After receiving such a notice, and after giving the taxpayer an opportunity to explain the noncompliance, the authority may terminate the agreement and require the taxpayer, or any related member or members that claimed the tax credit under division (N) of this section, to refund to the state all or a portion of the credit claimed in previous years, as follows:

(1) If the taxpayer maintained operations at the project site for less than or equal to the term of the credit, an amount not to exceed one hundred per cent of the sum of any tax credits allowed and received under this section.

(2) If the taxpayer maintained operations at the project site longer than the term of the credit, but less than the greater of (a) the term of the credit plus three years, or (b) seven years, the amount required to be refunded shall not exceed seventy-five per cent of the sum of any tax credits allowed and received under this section.

In determining the portion of the credit to be refunded to this state, the authority shall consider the effect of market conditions on the taxpayer's project and whether the taxpayer continues to maintain other operations in this state. After making the determination, the authority shall certify the amount to be refunded to the tax commissioner or the superintendent of insurance. If the taxpayer, or any related member or members who claimed the tax credit under division (N) of this section, is not an insurance company, the commissioner shall make an assessment for that amount against the taxpayer under Chapter 5726., 5733., 5736., 5747., or 5751. of the Revised Code. If the taxpayer, or any related member or members that claimed the tax credit under division (N) of this section, is an insurance company, the superintendent of insurance shall make an assessment under section 5725.222 or 5729.102 of the Revised Code. The time limitations on assessments under those chapters and sections do not apply to an assessment under this division, but the commissioner or superintendent shall make the assessment within one year after the date the authority certifies to the commissioner or superintendent the amount to be refunded.

(K) The director of development services, after consultation with the tax commissioner and the superintendent of insurance and in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt rules necessary to implement this section. The rules may provide for recipients of tax credits under this section to be charged fees to cover administrative costs of the tax credit program. The fees collected shall be credited to the business assistance fund created in section 122.174 of the Revised Code. At the time the director gives public notice under division (A) of section 119.03 of the Revised Code of the adoption of the rules, the director shall submit copies of the proposed rules to the chairpersons of the standing committees on economic development in the senate and the house of representatives.

(L) On or before the first day of August of each year, the director of development services shall submit a report to the governor, the president of the senate, and the speaker of the house of representatives on the tax credit program under this section. The report shall include information on the number of agreements that were entered into under this section during the preceding calendar year, a description of the project that is the subject of each such agreement, and an update on the status of projects under agreements entered into before the preceding calendar year.

(M)(1) The aggregate amount of tax credits issued under division (B)(1) of this section during any calendar year for capital investment projects reviewed and approved by the tax credit authority may not exceed the following amounts:

(a) For 2010, thirteen million dollars;

(b) For 2011 through 2023, the amount of the limit for the preceding calendar year plus thirteen million dollars;

(c) For 2024 and each year thereafter, one hundred ninety-five million dollars.

(2) The aggregate amount of tax credits authorized under divisions (B)(2) and (3) of this section and allowed to be claimed by taxpayers in any calendar year for capital improvement projects reviewed and approved by the tax credit authority in 2011, 2012, and 2013 combined shall not exceed twenty-five million dollars. An amount equal to the aggregate amount of credits first authorized in calendar year 2011, 2012, and 2013 may be claimed over the ensuing period up to fifteen years, subject to the terms of individual tax credit agreements.

The limitations in division (M) of this section do not apply to credits for capital investment projects approved by the tax credit authority before July 1, 2009.

(N) This division applies only to an eligible business that is part of an affiliated group that includes a diversified savings and loan holding company or a grandfathered unitary savings and loan holding company, as those terms are defined in section 5726.01 of the Revised Code. Notwithstanding any contrary provision of the agreement between such an eligible business and the tax credit authority, any credit granted under this section against the tax imposed by section 5725.18, 5729.03, 5733.06, 5747.02, or 5751.02 of the Revised Code to the eligible business, at the election of the eligible business and without any action by the tax credit authority, may be shared with any member or members of the affiliated group that includes the eligible business, which member or members may claim the credit against the taxes imposed by section 5725.18, 5726.02, 5729.03, 5733.06, 5747.02, or 5751.02 of the Revised Code. Credits shall be claimed by the eligible business in sequential order, as applicable, first claiming the credits to the fullest extent possible against the tax that the certificate holder is subject to, then against the tax imposed by, sequentially, section 5729.03, 5725.18, 5747.02, 5751.02, and lastly 5726.02 of the Revised Code. The credits may be allocated among the members of the affiliated group in such manner as the eligible business elects, but subject to the sequential order required under this division. This division applies to credits granted before, on, or after March 27, 2013, the effective date of H.B. 510 of the 129th general assembly. Credits granted before that effective date that are shared and allocated under this division may be claimed in those calendar years in which the remaining taxable years specified in the agreement end.

As used in this division, "affiliated group" means a group of two or more persons with fifty per cent or greater of the value of each person's ownership interests owned or controlled directly, indirectly, or constructively through related interests by common owners during all or any portion of the taxable year, and the common owners. "Affiliated group" includes, but is not limited to, any person eligible to be included in a consolidated elected taxpayer group under section 5751.011 of the Revised Code or a combined taxpayer group under section 5751.012 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 122.21.  In administering the urban and rural initiative grant program created under section 122.20 of the Revised Code, the director of development services shall do all of the following:

(A) Annually designate, by the first day of January of each year, the entities that constitute the eligible areas in this state;

(B) Adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing procedures and forms by which eligible applicants in eligible areas may apply for a grant, which procedures shall include a requirement that the applicant file a redevelopment plan; standards and procedures for reviewing applications and awarding grants; procedures for distributing grants to recipients; procedures for monitoring the use of grants by recipients; requirements, procedures, and forms by which recipients who have received grants shall report their use of that assistance; and standards and procedures for terminating and requiring repayment of grants in the event of their improper use. The rules adopted under this division shall comply with sections 122.19 to 122.22 of the Revised Code and shall include a rule requiring that an eligible applicant who receives a grant from the program provide a matching contribution of at least twenty-five per cent of the amount of the grant awarded to the eligible applicant.

The rules shall require that any eligible applicant for a grant for land acquisition demonstrate to the director that the property to be acquired meets all state environmental requirements and that utilities for that property are available and adequate. The rules shall require that any eligible applicant for a grant for property eligible for the voluntary action program created under Chapter 3746. of the Revised Code receive disbursement of grant moneys only after receiving a covenant not to sue from the director of environmental protection under section 3746.12 of the Revised Code and shall require that those moneys be disbursed only as reimbursement of actual expenses incurred in the undertaking of the voluntary action. The rules shall require that whenever any money is granted for land acquisition, infrastructure improvements, or renovation of existing structures in order to develop an industrial park site for a distressed area, labor surplus area, or situational distress area as defined in section 122.19 of the Revised Code that also is a distressed area, labor surplus area, or situational distress area as defined in section 122.23 of the Revised Code, a substantial portion of the site be used for manufacturing, distribution, high technology, research and development, or other businesses in which a majority of the product or service produced is exported out of the state. Any retail use at the site shall not constitute a primary use but only a use incidental to other eligible uses. The rules shall require that whenever any money is granted for land acquisition, infrastructure improvements, and renovation of existing structures in order to develop an industrial park site for a distressed area, labor surplus area, or situational distress area as defined in section 122.19 of the Revised Code that also is a distressed area, labor surplus area, or situational distress area as defined in section 122.23 of the Revised Code, the applicant for the grant shall verify to the department of development services agency the existence of a local economic development planning committee in a municipal corporation, county, or township whose territory includes the eligible area. The committee shall consist of members of the public and private sectors who live in that municipal corporation, county, or township. The local economic development planning committee shall prepare and submit to the department agency a five-year economic development plan for that municipal corporation, county, or township that identifies, for the five-year period covered by the plan, the economic development strategies of a municipal corporation, county, or township whose territory includes the proposed industrial park site. The economic development plan shall describe in detail how the proposed industrial park would complement other current or planned economic development programs for that municipal corporation, county, or township, including, but not limited to, workforce development initiatives, business retention and expansion efforts, small business development programs, and technology modernization programs.

(C) Report to the governor, president of the senate, speaker of the house of representatives, and minority leaders of the senate and the house of representatives by the thirtieth first day of June August of each year on the activities carried out under the program during the preceding calendar year. The report shall include the total number of grants made that year, and, for each individual grant awarded, the following: the amount and recipient, the eligible applicant, the purpose for awarding the grant, the number of firms or businesses operating at the awarded site, the number of employees employed by each firm or business, any excess capacity at an industrial park site, and any additional information the director declares to be relevant.

(D) Inform local governments and others in the state of the availability of grants under section 122.20 of the Revised Code;

(E) Annually compile, pursuant to rules adopted by the director of development services in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, using pertinent information submitted by any municipal corporation, county, or township, a list of industrial parks located in the state. The list shall include the following information, expressed if possible in terms specified in the director's rules adopted under this division: location of each industrial park site, total acreage of each park site, total occupancy of each park site, total capacity for new business at each park site, total capacity of each park site for sewer, water, and electricity, a contact person for each park site, and any additional information the director declares to be relevant. Once the list is compiled, the director shall make it available to the governor, president of the senate, speaker of the house of representatives, and minority leaders of the senate and the house of representatives.

Sec. 122.25.  (A) In administering the program established under section 122.24 of the Revised Code, the director of development services shall do all of the following:

(1) Annually designate, by the first day of January of each year, the entities that constitute the eligible areas in this state as defined in section 122.23 of the Revised Code;

(2) Inform local governments and others in the state of the availability of the program and financial assistance established under sections 122.23 to 122.27 of the Revised Code;

(3) Report to the governor, president of the senate, speaker of the house of representatives, and minority leaders of the senate and the house of representatives by the thirtieth first day of June August of each year on the activities carried out under the program during the preceding calendar year. The report shall include the number of loans made that year and the amount and recipient of each loan.

(4) Work in conjunction with conventional lending institutions, local revolving loan funds, private investors, and other private and public financing sources to provide loans or loan guarantees to eligible applicants;

(5) Establish fees, charges, interest rates, payment schedules, local match requirements, and other terms and conditions for loans and loan guarantees provided under the program;

(6) Require each applicant to demonstrate the suitability of any site for the assistance sought; that the site has been surveyed, that the site has adequate or available utilities, and that there are no zoning restrictions, environmental regulations, or other matters impairing the use of the site for the purpose intended;

(7) Require each applicant to provide a marketing plan and management strategy for the project;

(8) Adopt rules establishing all of the following:

(a) Forms and procedures by which eligible applicants may apply for assistance;

(b) Criteria for reviewing, evaluating, and ranking applications, and for approving applications that best serve the goals of the program;

(c) Reporting requirements and monitoring procedures;

(d) Guidelines regarding situations in which industrial parks would be considered to compete against one another for the purposes of division (B)(2) of section 122.27 of the Revised Code;

(e) Any other rules necessary to implement and administer the program.

(B) The director may adopt rules establishing requirements governing the use of any industrial park site receiving assistance under section 122.24 of the Revised Code, such that a certain portion of the site must be used for manufacturing, distribution, high technology, research and development, or other businesses wherein a majority of the product or service produced is exported out of the state.

(C) As a condition of receiving assistance under section 122.24 of the Revised Code, and except as provided in division (D) of this section, an applicant shall agree, for a period of five years, not to permit the use of a site that is developed or improved with such assistance to cause the relocation of jobs to that site from elsewhere in the state.

(D) A site developed or improved with assistance under section 122.24 of the Revised Code may be the site of jobs relocated from elsewhere in the state if the director of development services does all of the following:

(1) Makes a written determination that the site from which the jobs would be relocated is inadequate to meet market or industry conditions, expansion plans, consolidation plans, or other business considerations affecting the relocating employer;

(2) Provides a copy of the determination required by division (D)(1) of this section to the members of the general assembly whose legislative districts include the site from which the jobs would be relocated;

(3) Determines that the governing body of the area from which the jobs would be relocated has been notified in writing by the relocating company of the possible relocation.

(E) The director of development services shall obtain the approval of the controlling board for any loan or loan guarantee provided under sections 122.23 to 122.27 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 122.37.  (A) There is hereby created in the department of development services agency the steel futures program, for the purpose of preserving and improving the existing industrial base of the state, improving the economy of the state by providing employment, increased productivity, and ensuring continued technological development consistent with these goals, and maintaining a high standard of living for the people of this state. The steel futures progam program may be supplemental to any other enterprise assistance program administered by the director of development services, and shall be administered so as to provide financial and technical assistance to increase the competitiveness of existing steel and steel-related industries in this state, and to encourage establishment and development of new industries of this type within the state.

Within six months after the effective date of this section, the The director shall develop a strategy for financial and technical assistance to steel and steel-related industries in the state, which shall include investment policies with regard to these industries.

(B) In administering the program, the director may consult with appropriate representatives of steel and steel-related industries, appropriate representatives of any union that represents workers in these industries, and other persons with expert knowledge in these industries.

(C) The director of development services shall consult with the chairman chairperson of the public utilities commission to foster development of public and private cooperative efforts that result in energy savings and reduced energy costs for steel and steel-related industries.

(D) Assistance may be made available to steel and steel-related industries undertaking projects the director determines to have long-term implications for and broad applicability to the economy of this state when the director finds:

(1) The undertaking of projects by the industries will benefit the people of the state by creating or preserving jobs and employment opportunities or improving the economic welfare of the people of this state, and promoting development of new technology or improving application of existing steel and steel-related technology.

(2) The undertaking of projects by the industries will allow them to compete more effectively in the marketplace.

(E) Projects eligible to receive assistance under the steel futures program may include, but are not limited to, the following areas:

(1) Research and development specifically related to steel and steel-related industries and feasibility studies for business development within these industries;

(2) Employee training;

(3) Labor and management relations; and

(4) Technology-driven capital investment.

(F) Financial and technical assistance may be in the form and conditioned upon terms as the director considers appropriate.

(G) No later than the thirtieth first day of June in the first year after the effective date of this section, and no later than the thirtieth day of June August of each year thereafter, the director shall submit a report to the general assembly describing projects of the steel futures program, results obtained from completed projects of the program, and program projects for the next fiscal year.

Sec. 122.64.  (A) There is hereby established in the development services agency a business services division. The division shall be supervised by a deputy director appointed by the director of development services.

The division is responsible for the administration of the state economic development financing programs established pursuant to sections 122.17 and 122.18, sections 122.39 and 122.41 to 122.62, and Chapter 166. of the Revised Code.

(B) The director of development services shall:

(1) Receive applications for assistance pursuant to sections 122.39 and 122.41 to 122.62 and Chapter 166. of the Revised Code. The director shall process the applications.

(2) With the approval of the director of administrative services, establish salary schedules for employees of the various positions of employment with the division and assign the various positions to those salary schedules;

(3) Employ and fix the compensation of financial consultants, appraisers, consulting engineers, superintendents, managers, construction and accounting experts, attorneys, and other agents for the assistance programs authorized pursuant to sections 122.17 and 122.18, sections 122.39 and 122.41 to 122.62, and Chapter 166. of the Revised Code as are necessary;

(4) Supervise the administrative operations of the division;

(5) On or before the first day of October August in each year, make an annual report of the activities and operations under assistance programs authorized pursuant to sections 122.39 and 122.41 to 122.62 and Chapter 166. of the Revised Code for the preceding fiscal year to the governor and the general assembly. Each such report shall set forth a complete operating and financial statement covering such activities and operations during the year in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles and shall be audited by a certified public accountant. The director of development services shall transmit a copy of the audited financial report to the office of budget and management.

Sec. 122.86.  (A) As used in this section and section 5747.81 of the Revised Code:

(1) "Small business enterprise" means a corporation, pass-through entity, or other person satisfying all of the following:

(a) At the time of a qualifying investment, the enterprise meets all of the following requirements:

(i) Has no outstanding tax or other liabilities owed to the state;

(ii) Is in good standing with the secretary of state, if the enterprise is required to be registered with the secretary;

(iii) Is current with any court-ordered payments;

(iv) Is not engaged in any illegal activity.

(b) At the time of a qualifying investment, the enterprise's assets according to generally accepted accounting principles do not exceed fifty million dollars, or its annual sales do not exceed ten million dollars. When making this determination, the assets and annual sales of all of the enterprise's related or affiliated entities shall be included in the calculation.

(c) The enterprise employs at least fifty full-time equivalent employees in this state for whom the enterprise is required to withhold income tax under section 5747.06 of the Revised Code, or more than one-half the enterprise's total number of full-time equivalent employees employed anywhere in the United States are employed in this state and are subject to that withholding requirement.

(d) The enterprise, within six months after an eligible investor's qualifying investment is made, invests in or incurs cost for one or more of the following in an amount at least equal to the amount of the qualifying investment:

(i) Tangible personal property, other than motor vehicles operated on public roads and highways, used in business and physically located in this state from the time of its acquisition by the enterprise until the end of the investor's holding period;

(ii) Motor vehicles operated on public roads and highways if, from the time of acquisition by the enterprise until the end of the investor's holding period, the motor vehicles are purchased in this state, registered in this state under Chapter 4503. of the Revised Code, are used primarily for business purposes, and are necessary for the operation of the enterprise's business;

(iii) Real property located in this state that is used in business from the time of its acquisition by the enterprise until the end of the holding period;

(iv) Intangible personal property, including patents, copyrights, trademarks, service marks, or licenses used in business primarily in this state from the time of its acquisition by the enterprise until the end of the holding period;

(v) Compensation for new employees of the enterprise for whom the enterprise is required to withhold income tax under section 5747.06 of the Revised Code, not including increased compensation for owners, officers, or managers of the enterprise. For this purpose compensation for new employees includes compensation for newly hired or retained employees.

(2) "Qualifying investment" means an investment of money made on or after July 1, 2011, to acquire capital stock or other equity interest in a small business enterprise. "Qualifying investment" does not include either of the following:

(a) Any investment of money an eligible investor derives, directly or indirectly, from a grant or loan from the federal government or the state or a political subdivision, including the third frontier program under Chapter 184. of the Revised Code;

(b) Any investment of money which is the basis of a tax credit granted under any other section of the Revised Code.

(3) "Eligible investor" means an individual, estate, or trust subject to the tax imposed by section 5747.02 of the Revised Code, or a pass-through entity in which such an individual, estate, or trust holds a direct or indirect ownership or other equity interest. To qualify as an eligible investor, the individual, estate, trust, or pass-through entity shall not owe any outstanding tax or other liability to the state at the time of a qualifying investment.

(4) "Holding period" means:

(a) For qualifying investments made on or after July 1, 2011, but before July 1, 2013, the two-year period beginning on the day the investment was made;

(b) For qualifying investments made on or after July 1, 2013, the five-year period beginning on the day the investment was a qualifying investment is made.

(5) "Pass-through entity" has the same meaning as in section 5733.04 of the Revised Code.

(B) Any eligible investor that makes a qualifying investment in a small business enterprise on or after July 1, 2011, may apply to the director of development services to obtain a small business investment certificate from the director. Alternatively, a small business enterprise may apply on behalf of eligible investors to obtain the certificates for those investors. The director, in consultation with the tax commissioner, shall prescribe the form or manner in which an applicant shall apply for the certificate, devise the form of the certificate, and prescribe any records or other information an applicant shall furnish with the application to evidence the qualifying investment. The applicant shall state the amount of the intended investment. The applicant shall pay an application fee equal to the greater of one-tenth of one per cent of the amount of the intended investment or one hundred dollars.

A small business investment certificate entitles the certificate holder to receive a tax credit under section 5747.81 of the Revised Code if the certificate holder qualifies for the credit as otherwise provided in this section. If the certificate holder is a pass-through entity, the certificate entitles the entity's equity owners to receive their distributive or proportionate shares of the credit. In any fiscal biennium, an eligible investor may not apply for small business investment certificates representing intended investment amounts in excess of ten million dollars. Such certificates are not transferable.

The director of development services may reserve small business investment certificates to qualifying applicants in the order in which the director receives applications, but may issue the certificates as the applications are completed. An application is completed when the director has validated that an eligible investor has made a qualified investment and the small business enterprise has made the appropriate reinvestment of the qualified investment pursuant to the requirements of division (A)(1)(d) of this section. To qualify for a certificate, an eligible investor must satisfy both of the following, subject to the limitation on the amount of qualifying investments for which certificates may be issued under division (C) of this section:

(1) The eligible investor makes a qualifying investment on or after July 1, 2011.

(2) The eligible investor pledges not to sell or otherwise dispose of the qualifying investment before the conclusion of the applicable holding period.

(C)(1) The amount of any eligible investor's qualifying investments for which small business investment certificates may be issued for a fiscal biennium shall not exceed ten million dollars.

(2) The director of development services shall not issue a small business investment certificate to an eligible investor representing an amount of qualifying investment in excess of the amount of the intended investment indicated on the investor's application for the certificate.

(3) The director of development services shall not issue small business investment certificates in a total amount that would cause the tax credits claimed in any fiscal biennium to exceed one hundred million dollars.

(4) The director of development services may issue a small business investment certificate only if both of the following apply at the time of issuance:

(a) The small business enterprise meets all the requirements listed in divisions (A)(1)(a)(i) to (iv) of this section;

(b) The eligible investor does not owe any outstanding tax or other liability to the state.

(D) Before the end of the applicable holding period of a qualifying investment, each enterprise in which a qualifying investment was made for which a small business investment certificate has been issued, upon the request of the director of development services, shall provide to the director records or other evidence satisfactory to the director that the enterprise is a small business enterprise for the purposes of this section. Each enterprise shall also provide annually to the director records or evidence regarding the number of jobs created or retained in the state. No credit may be claimed under this section and section 5747.81 of the Revised Code if the director finds that an enterprise is not a small business enterprise for the purposes of this section. The director shall compile and maintain a register of small business enterprises qualifying under this section and shall certify the register to the tax commissioner. The director shall also compile and maintain a record of the number of jobs created or retained as a result of qualifying investments made pursuant to this section.

(E) After the conclusion of the applicable holding period for a qualifying investment, a person to whom a small business investment certificate has been issued under this section may claim a credit as provided under section 5747.81 of the Revised Code.

(F) The director of development services, in consultation with the tax commissioner, may adopt rules for the administration of this section, including rules governing the following:

(1) Documents, records, or other information eligible investors shall provide to the director;

(2) Any information a small business enterprise shall provide for the purposes of this section and section 5747.81 of the Revised Code;

(3) Determination of the number of full-time equivalent employees of a small business enterprise;

(4) Verification of a small business enterprise's investment in tangible personal property and intangible personal property under division (A)(1)(d) of this section, including when such investments have been made and where the property is used in business;

(5) Circumstances under which small business enterprises or eligible investors may be subverting the purposes of this section and section 5747.81 of the Revised Code.

There is hereby created in the state treasury the InvestOhio support fund. The fund shall consist of the fees paid under division (B) of this section and shall be used by the development services agency to pay the costs of administering the small business investment certificate program established under this section.

Sec. 122.861.  (A) As used in this section:

(1) "Certified engine configuration" means a new, rebuilt, or remanufactured engine configuration that satisfies divisions (A)(1)(a) and (b) and, if applicable, division (A)(1)(c) of this section:

(a) It has been certified by the administrator of the United States environmental protection agency or the California air resources board.

(b) It meets or is rebuilt or remanufactured to a more stringent set of engine emission standards than when originally manufactured, as determined pursuant to Subtitle G of Title VII of the Energy Policy Act of 2005, Pub. L. No. 109-58, 119 Stat. 838, et seq.

(c) In the case of a certified engine configuration involving the replacement of an existing engine, an engine configuration that replaced an engine that was removed from the vehicle and returned to the supplier for remanufacturing to a more stringent set of engine emissions standards or for scrappage.

(2) "Section 793" means section 793 of the Energy Policy Act of 2005, Pub. L. No. 109-58, 119 Stat. 841, et seq.

(3) "Verified technology" means a pollution control technology, including a retrofit technology, advanced truckstop electrification system, or auxiliary power unit, that has been verified by the administrator of the United States environmental protection agency or the California air resources board.

(B) For the purpose of reducing emissions from diesel engines, the director of environmental protection shall administer a diesel emissions reduction grant program and a diesel emissions reduction revolving loan clean diesel school bus program. The programs shall provide for the implementation in this state of section 793 and shall otherwise be administered in compliance with the requirements of section 793, and any regulations issued pursuant to that section.

The director shall apply to the administrator of the United States environmental protection agency for grant or loan funds available under section 793 to help fund the diesel emissions reduction grant program and the diesel emissions reduction revolving loan clean diesel school bus program.

(C) There is hereby created in the state treasury the diesel emissions reduction revolving loan fund consisting of money appropriated to it by the general assembly, any grants obtained from the federal government under section 793, and any other grants, gifts, or other contributions of money made to the credit of the fund. Money in the fund shall be used for the purpose of making loans for projects relating to certified engine configurations and verified technologies in a manner consistent with the requirements of section 793 and any regulations issued pursuant to that section. Interest earned from moneys in the fund shall be used to administer the diesel emissions reduction revolving loan program.

Sec. 122.89.  (A) The director of development services may execute bonds as surety for minority businesses as principals, on contracts with the state, any political subdivision or instrumentality thereof, or any person as the obligee. The director as surety may exercise all the rights and powers of a company authorized by the department of insurance to execute bonds as surety but shall not be subject to any requirements of a surety company under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code nor to any rules of the department of insurance.

(B) The director, with the advice of the minority development financing advisory board, shall adopt rules under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing procedures for application for surety bonds by minority businesses and for review and approval of applications. The board shall review each application in accordance with the rules and, based on the bond worthiness of each applicant, shall refer all qualified applicants to the director. Based on the recommendation of the board, the director shall determine whether or not the applicant shall receive bonding.

(C) The rules of the board shall require the minority business to pay a premium in advance for the bond to be established by the director, with the advice of the board after the director receives advice from the superintendent of insurance regarding the standard market rates for premiums for similar bonds. All premiums paid by minority businesses shall be paid into the minority business bonding program administrative and loss reserve fund.

(D) The rules of the board shall provide for a retainage of money paid to the minority business or EDGE business enterprise of fifteen per cent for a contract valued at more than fifty thousand dollars and for a retainage of twelve per cent for a contract valued at fifty thousand dollars or less.

(E) The penal sum amounts of all outstanding bonds issued by the director shall not exceed the amount of moneys in the minority business bonding fund and available to the fund under division (B) of section 169.05 of the Revised Code.

(F) The superintendent of insurance shall provide such technical and professional assistance as is considered necessary by the director, including providing advice regarding the standard market rates for bond premiums as described under division (C) of this section.

(G) Notwithstanding any provision of the Revised Code to the contrary, a minority business or EDGE business enterprise may bid or enter into a contract with the state or with any instrumentality of the state without being required to provide a bond as follows:

(1) For the first contract that a minority business or EDGE business enterprise enters into with the state or with any particular instrumentality of the state, the minority business or EDGE business enterprise may bid or enter into a contract valued at twenty-five thousand dollars or less without being required to provide a bond, but only if the minority business or EDGE business enterprise is participating in a qualified contractor assistance program or has successfully completed a qualified contractor assistance program after the effective date of this amendment October 16, 2009;

(2) After the state or any particular instrumentality of the state has accepted the first contract as completed and all subcontractors and suppliers on the contract have been paid, the minority business or EDGE business enterprise may bid or enter into a second contract with the state or with that particular instrumentality of the state valued at fifty thousand dollars or less without being required to provide a bond, but only if the minority business or EDGE business enterprise is participating in a qualified contractor assistance program or has successfully completed a qualified contractor assistance program after the effective date of this amendment October 16, 2009;

(3) After the state or any particular instrumentality of the state has accepted the second contract as completed and all subcontractors and suppliers on the contract have been paid, the minority business or EDGE business enterprise may bid or enter into a third contract with the state or with that particular instrumentality of the state valued at one hundred thousand dollars or less without being required to provide a bond, but only if the minority business or EDGE business enterprise has successfully completed a qualified contractor assistance program after the effective date of this amendment October 16, 2009;

(4) After the state or any particular instrumentality of the state has accepted the third contract as completed and all subcontractors and suppliers on the contract have been paid, the minority business or EDGE business enterprise may bid or enter into a fourth contract with the state or with that particular instrumentality of the state valued at three hundred thousand dollars or less without being required to provide a bond, but only if the minority business or EDGE business enterprise has successfully completed a qualified contractor assistance program after the effective date of this amendment October 16, 2009;

(5) After the state or any instrumentality of the state has accepted the fourth contract as completed and all subcontractors and suppliers on the contract have been paid, upon a showing that with respect to a contract valued at four hundred thousand dollars or less with the state or with any particular instrumentality of the state, that the minority business or EDGE business enterprise either has been denied a bond by two surety companies or that the minority business or EDGE business enterprise has applied to two surety companies for a bond and, at the expiration of sixty days after making the application, has neither received nor been denied a bond, the minority business or EDGE business enterprise may repeat its participation in the unbonded state contractor program. Under no circumstances shall a minority business or EDGE business enterprise be permitted to participate in the unbonded state contractor program more than twice.

(H) Notwithstanding any provision of the Revised Code to the contrary, a minority business or EDGE business enterprise may bid or enter into a contract with any political subdivision of the state or with any instrumentality of a political subdivision without being required to provide a bond as follows:

(1) For the first contract that the minority business or EDGE business enterprise enters into with any particular political subdivision of the state or with any particular instrumentality of a political subdivision, the minority business or EDGE business enterprise may bid or enter into a contract valued at twenty-five thousand dollars or less without being required to provide a bond, but only if the minority business or EDGE business enterprise is participating in a qualified contractor assistance program or has successfully completed a qualified contractor assistance program after the effective date of this amendment October 16, 2009;

(2) After any political subdivision of the state or any instrumentality of a political subdivision has accepted the first contract as completed and all subcontractors and suppliers on the contract have been paid, the minority business or EDGE business enterprise may bid or enter into a second contract with that particular political subdivision of the state or with that particular instrumentality of a political subdivision valued at fifty thousand dollars or less without being required to provide a bond, but only if the minority business or EDGE business enterprise is participating in a qualified contractor assistance program or has successfully completed a qualified contractor assistance program after the effective date of this amendment October 16, 2009;

(3) After any political subdivision of the state or any instrumentality of a political subdivision has accepted the second contract as completed and all subcontractors and suppliers on the contract have been paid, the minority business or EDGE business enterprise may bid or enter into a third contract with that particular political subdivision of the state or with that particular instrumentality of a political subdivision valued at one hundred thousand dollars or less without being required to provide a bond, but only if the minority business or EDGE business enterprise has successfully completed a qualified contractor assistance program after the effective date of this amendment October 16, 2009;

(4) After any political subdivision of the state or any instrumentality of a political subdivision has accepted the third contract as completed and all subcontractors and suppliers on the contract have been paid, the minority business or EDGE business enterprise may bid or enter into a fourth contract with that particular political subdivision of the state or with that particular instrumentality of a political subdivision valued at two hundred thousand dollars or less without being required to provide a bond, but only if the minority business or EDGE business enterprise has successfully completed a qualified contractor assistance program after the effective date of this amendment October 16, 2009;

(5) After any political subdivision of the state or any instrumentality of a political subdivision has accepted the fourth contract as completed and all subcontractors and suppliers on the contract have been paid, upon a showing that with respect to a contract valued at three hundred thousand dollars or less with any political subdivision of the state or any instrumentality of a political subdivision, that the minority business or EDGE business enterprise either has been denied a bond by two surety companies or that the minority business or EDGE business enterprise has applied to two surety companies for a bond and, at the expiration of sixty days after making the application, has neither received nor been denied a bond, the minority business or EDGE business enterprise may repeat its participation in the unbonded political subdivision contractor program. Under no circumstances shall a minority business or EDGE business enterprise be permitted to participate in the unbonded political subdivision contractor program more than twice.

(I) Notwithstanding any provision of the Revised Code to the contrary, if a minority business or EDGE business enterprise has entered into two or more contracts with the state or with any instrumentality of the state, the minority business or EDGE business enterprise may bid or enter into a contract with a political subdivision of the state or with any instrumentality of a political subdivision valued at the level at which the minority business or EDGE business enterprise would qualify if entering into an additional contract with the state.

(J) The director of development services shall coordinate and oversee the unbonded state contractor program described in division (G) of this section, the unbonded political subdivision contractor program described in division (H) of this section, and the approval of a qualified contractor assistance program. The director shall prepare an annual report and submit it to the governor and the general assembly on or before the first day of February August that includes the following: information on the director's activities for the preceding calendar year regarding the unbonded state contractor program, the unbonded political subdivision contractor program, and the qualified contractor assistance program; a summary and description of the operations and activities of these programs; an assessment of the achievements of these programs; and a recommendation as to whether these programs need to continue.

(K) As used in this section:

(1) "EDGE business enterprise" means an EDGE business enterprise certified under section 123.152 of the Revised Code.

(2) "Qualified contractor assistance program" means an educational program or technical assistance program for business development that is designed to assist a minority business or EDGE business enterprise in becoming eligible for bonding and has been approved by the director of development services for use as required under this section.

(3) "Successfully completed a qualified contractor assistance program" means the minority business or EDGE business enterprise completed such a program on or after the effective date of this amendment October 16, 2009.

(4) "Unbonded state contractor program" means the program described in division (G) of this section.

(5) "Unbonded political subdivision contractor program" means the program described in division (H) of this section.

Sec. 122.94.  The director of development services shall:

(A) Promulgate rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for the conduct of the minority business development division's business and for carrying out the purposes of sections 122.92 to 122.94 of the Revised Code;

(B) Prepare an annual report to the governor and the general assembly on or before the first day of February August of its activities for the preceding calendar year.

Sec. 122.941.  (A) On or before the first day of October August in each year, the director of development services shall make an annual report of the activities and operations under the assistance programs of the department development services agency for the preceding fiscal year to the governor and general assembly. The annual report shall include a detailing of those grants, guarantees, loans, and other forms of state assistance to women-owned businesses.

(B) As used in this section:

(1) "Women-owned business" means any individual, partnership, corporation, or joint venture of any kind that is owned and controlled by women who are United States citizens and residents of this state.

(2) "Owned and controlled" means that at least fifty-one per cent of the business, including corporate stock if it is a corporation, is owned by women and that such owners have control over the day-to-day operations of the business and an interest in the capital, assets, and profits and losses of the business proportionate to their percentage of ownership. In order to qualify as a women-owned business, a business shall have been owned by such owners at least one year.

Sec. 123.01.  (A) The department of administrative services, in addition to those powers enumerated in Chapters 124. and 125. of the Revised Code and provided elsewhere by law, shall exercise the following powers:

(1) To prepare and suggest comprehensive plans for the development of grounds and buildings under the control of a state agency;

(2) To acquire, by purchase, gift, devise, lease, or grant, all real estate required by a state agency, in the exercise of which power the department may exercise the power of eminent domain, in the manner provided by sections 163.01 to 163.22 of the Revised Code;

(3) To erect, supervise, and maintain all public monuments and memorials erected by the state, except where the supervision and maintenance is otherwise provided by law;

(4) To procure, by lease, storage accommodations for a state agency;

(5) To lease or grant easements or licenses for unproductive and unused lands or other property under the control of a state agency. Such leases, easements, or licenses may be granted to any person or entity, shall be for a period not to exceed fifteen years, and shall be executed for the state by the director of administrative services, provided that the director shall grant leases, easements, or licenses of university land for periods not to exceed twenty-five years for purposes approved by the respective university's board of trustees wherein the uses are compatible with the uses and needs of the university and may grant leases of university land for periods not to exceed forty years for purposes approved by the respective university's board of trustees pursuant to section 123.17 of the Revised Code.

(6) To lease space for the use of a state agency;

(7) To have general supervision and care of the storerooms, offices, and buildings leased for the use of a state agency;

(8) To exercise general custodial care of all real property of the state;

(9) To assign and group together state offices in any city in the state and to establish, in cooperation with the state agencies involved, rules governing space requirements for office or storage use;

(10) To lease for a period not to exceed forty years, pursuant to a contract awarded under section 125.071 of the Revised Code, providing for the construction thereof, renovation, or other improvement under a lease-purchase plan or lease-leaseback agreement, of buildings, structures, and other improvements for any public purpose, and, in conjunction therewith, to grant leases, easements, or licenses for lands under the control of a state agency for a period not to exceed forty years. The lease-purchase plan or lease-leaseback agreement shall provide that at the end of the lease period, the buildings, structures, and related improvements, together with the land on which they are situated, shall become the property of the state without cost.

(a) Whenever any building, structure, or other improvement is to be so leased by a state agency, the department shall retain either basic plans, specifications, bills of materials, and estimates of cost with sufficient detail to afford bidders all needed information or, alternatively, all of the following plans, details, bills of materials, and specifications:

(i) Full and accurate plans suitable for the use of mechanics and other builders in the improvement;

(ii) Details to scale and full sized, so drawn and represented as to be easily understood;

(iii) Accurate bills showing the exact quantity of different kinds of material necessary to the construction;

(iv) Definite and complete specifications of the work to be performed, together with such directions as will enable a competent mechanic or other builder to carry them out and afford bidders all needed information;

(v) A full and accurate estimate of each item of expense and of the aggregate cost thereof.

(b) The department shall give public notice, in such newspaper, in such form, and with such phraseology as the director of administrative services prescribes, published once each week for four consecutive weeks, of the time when and place where bids will be received for entering into an agreement to lease to a state agency a building, structure, or other improvement. The last publication shall be at least eight days preceding the day for opening the bids. The bids shall contain the terms upon which the builder would propose to lease the building, structure, or other improvement to the state agency. The form of the bid approved by the department shall be used, and a bid is invalid and shall not be considered unless that form is used without change, alteration, or addition. Before submitting bids pursuant to this section, any builder shall comply with Chapter 153. of the Revised Code.

(c) On the day and at the place named for receiving bids for entering into lease agreements with a state agency, the director of administrative services shall open the bids and shall publicly proceed immediately to tabulate the bids upon duplicate sheets. No lease agreement shall be entered into until the bureau of workers' compensation has certified that the person to be awarded the lease agreement has complied with Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code, until, if the builder submitting the lowest and best bid is a foreign corporation, the secretary of state has certified that the corporation is authorized to do business in this state, until, if the builder submitting the lowest and best bid is a person nonresident of this state, the person has filed with the secretary of state a power of attorney designating the secretary of state as its agent for the purpose of accepting service of summons in any action brought under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code, and until the agreement is submitted to the attorney general and the attorney general's approval is certified thereon. Within thirty days after the day on which the bids are received, the department shall investigate the bids received and shall determine that the bureau and the secretary of state have made the certifications required by this section of the builder who has submitted the lowest and best bid. Within ten days of the completion of the investigation of the bids, the department shall award the lease agreement to the builder who has submitted the lowest and best bid and who has been certified by the bureau and secretary of state as required by this section. If bidding for the lease agreement has been conducted upon the basis of basic plans, specifications, bills of materials, and estimates of costs, upon the award to the builder the department, or the builder with the approval of the department, shall appoint an architect or engineer licensed in this state to prepare such further detailed plans, specifications, and bills of materials as are required to construct the building, structure, or improvement. The department shall adopt such rules as are necessary to give effect to this section. The department may reject any bid. Where there is reason to believe there is collusion or combination among bidders, the bids of those concerned therein shall be rejected.

Any person or entity entering into a lease-purchase or lease-leaseback agreement shall provide plans satisfactory to the department that detail the nature and cost, including financing costs, of the construction, renovation, or other improvement.

(11) To acquire by purchase, gift, devise, or grant and to transfer, lease, or otherwise dispose of all real property required to assist in the development of a conversion facility as defined in section 5709.30 of the Revised Code as that section existed before its repeal by Amended Substitute House Bill 95 of the 125th general assembly;

(12) To lease for a period not to exceed forty years, notwithstanding any other division of this section, the state-owned property located at 408-450 East Town Street, Columbus, Ohio, formerly the state school for the deaf, to a developer in accordance with this section. "Developer," as used in this section, has the same meaning as in section 123.77 of the Revised Code.

Such a lease shall be for the purpose of development of the land for use by senior citizens by constructing, altering, renovating, repairing, expanding, and improving the site as it existed on June 25, 1982. A developer desiring to lease the land shall prepare for submission to the department a plan for development. Plans shall include provisions for roads, sewers, water lines, waste disposal, water supply, and similar matters to meet the requirements of state and local laws. The plans shall also include provision for protection of the property by insurance or otherwise, and plans for financing the development, and shall set forth details of the developer's financial responsibility.

The department may employ, as employees or consultants, persons needed to assist in reviewing the development plans. Those persons may include attorneys, financial experts, engineers, and other necessary experts. The department shall review the development plans and may enter into a lease if it finds all of the following:

(a) The best interests of the state will be promoted by entering into a lease with the developer;

(b) The development plans are satisfactory;

(c) The developer has established the developer's financial responsibility and satisfactory plans for financing the development.

The lease shall contain a provision that construction or renovation of the buildings, roads, structures, and other necessary facilities shall begin within one year after the date of the lease and shall proceed according to a schedule agreed to between the department and the developer or the lease will be terminated. The lease shall contain such conditions and stipulations as the director considers necessary to preserve the best interest of the state. Moneys received by the state pursuant to this lease shall be paid into the general revenue fund. The lease shall provide that at the end of the lease period the buildings, structures, and related improvements shall become the property of the state without cost.

(13) To manage the use of space owned and controlled by the department, including space in property under the jurisdiction of the Ohio building authority, by doing all of the following:

(a) Biennially implementing, by state agency location, a census of agency employees assigned space;

(b) Periodically in the discretion of the director of administrative services:

(i) Requiring each state agency to categorize the use of space allotted to the agency between office space, common areas, storage space, and other uses, and to report its findings to the department;

(ii) Creating and updating a master space utilization plan for all space allotted to state agencies. The plan shall incorporate space utilization metrics.

(iii) Conducting a cost-benefit analysis to determine the effectiveness of state-owned buildings;

(iv) Assessing the alternatives associated with consolidating the commercial leases for buildings located in Columbus.

(c) Commissioning a comprehensive space utilization and capacity study in order to determine the feasibility of consolidating existing commercially leased space used by state agencies into a new state-owned facility.

(14) To adopt rules to ensure that energy efficiency and conservation is considered in the purchase of products and equipment, except motor vehicles, by any state agency, department, division, bureau, office, unit, board, commission, authority, quasi-governmental entity, or institution. The department may require minimum energy efficiency standards for purchased products and equipment based on federal testing and labeling if available or on standards developed by the department. When possible, the rules shall apply to the competitive selection of energy consuming systems, components, and equipment under Chapter 125. of the Revised Code.

(15) To ensure energy efficient and energy conserving purchasing practices by doing all of the following:

(a) Identifying available energy efficiency and conservation opportunities;

(b) Providing for interchange of information among purchasing agencies;

(c) Identifying laws, policies, rules, and procedures that should be modified;

(d) Monitoring experience with and the cost-effectiveness of this state's purchase and use of motor vehicles and of major energy-consuming systems, components, equipment, and products having a significant impact on energy consumption by the government;

(e) Providing technical assistance and training to state employees involved in the purchasing process;

(f) Working with the development services agency to make recommendations regarding planning and implementation of purchasing policies and procedures that are supportive of energy efficiency and conservation.

(16) To require all state agencies, departments, divisions, bureaus, offices, units, commissions, boards, authorities, quasi-governmental entities, institutions, and state institutions of higher education to implement procedures to ensure that all of the passenger automobiles they acquire in each fiscal year, except for those passenger automobiles acquired for use in law enforcement or emergency rescue work, achieve a fleet average fuel economy of not less than the fleet average fuel economy for that fiscal year as the department shall prescribe by rule. The department shall adopt the rule prior to the beginning of the fiscal year, in accordance with the average fuel economy standards established by federal law for passenger automobiles manufactured during the model year that begins during the fiscal year.

Each state agency, department, division, bureau, office, unit, commission, board, authority, quasi-governmental entity, institution, and state institution of higher education shall determine its fleet average fuel economy by dividing the total number of passenger vehicles acquired during the fiscal year, except for those passenger vehicles acquired for use in law enforcement or emergency rescue work, by a sum of terms, each of which is a fraction created by dividing the number of passenger vehicles of a given make, model, and year, except for passenger vehicles acquired for use in law enforcement or emergency rescue work, acquired during the fiscal year by the fuel economy measured by the administrator of the United States environmental protection agency, for the given make, model, and year of vehicle, that constitutes an average fuel economy for combined city and highway driving.

As used in division (A)(16) of this section, "acquired" means leased for a period of sixty continuous days or more, or purchased.

(B) This section and section 125.02 of the Revised Code shall not interfere with any of the following:

(1) The power of the adjutant general to purchase military supplies, or with the custody of the adjutant general of property leased, purchased, or constructed by the state and used for military purposes, or with the functions of the adjutant general as director of state armories;

(2) The power of the director of transportation in acquiring rights-of-way for the state highway system, or the leasing of lands for division or resident district offices, or the leasing of lands or buildings required in the maintenance operations of the department of transportation, or the purchase of real property for garage sites or division or resident district offices, or in preparing plans and specifications for and constructing such buildings as the director may require in the administration of the department;

(3) The power of the director of public safety and the registrar of motor vehicles to purchase or lease real property and buildings to be used solely as locations to which a deputy registrar is assigned pursuant to division (B) of section 4507.011 of the Revised Code and from which the deputy registrar is to conduct the deputy registrar's business, the power of the director of public safety to purchase or lease real property and buildings to be used as locations for division or district offices as required in the maintenance of operations of the department of public safety, and the power of the superintendent of the state highway patrol in the purchase or leasing of real property and buildings needed by the patrol, to negotiate the sale of real property owned by the patrol, to rent or lease real property owned or leased by the patrol, and to make or cause to be made repairs to all property owned or under the control of the patrol;

(4) The power of the division of liquor control in the leasing or purchasing of retail outlets and warehouse facilities for the use of the division;

(5) The power of the director of development services to enter into leases of real property, buildings, and office space to be used solely as locations for the state's foreign offices to carry out the purposes of section 122.05 of the Revised Code;

(6) The power of the director of environmental protection to enter into environmental covenants, to grant and accept easements, or to sell property pursuant to division (G) of section 3745.01 of the Revised Code.

(C) Purchases for, and the custody and repair of, buildings under the management and control of the capitol square review and advisory board, the opportunities for Ohioans with disabilities agency, the bureau of workers' compensation, or the departments of public safety, job and family services, mental health and addiction services, developmental disabilities, and rehabilitation and correction; buildings of educational and benevolent institutions under the management and control of boards of trustees; and purchases or leases for, and the custody and repair of, office space used for the purposes of the joint legislative ethics committee are not subject to the control and jurisdiction of the department of administrative services.

If the joint legislative ethics committee so requests, the committee and the director of administrative services may enter into a contract under which the department of administrative services agrees to perform any services requested by the committee that the department is authorized under this section to perform.

(D) Any instrument by which real property is acquired pursuant to this section shall identify the agency of the state that has the use and benefit of the real property as specified in section 5301.012 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 124.32.  (A) A person holding an office or position in the classified service may be transferred to a similar position in another office, department, or institution having the same pay and similar duties, but no transfer shall be made as follows:

(1) From an office or position in one class to an office or position in another class;

(2) To an office or position for original entrance to which there is required by sections 124.01 to 124.64 of the Revised Code, or the rules adopted pursuant to those sections, an examination involving essential tests or qualifications or carrying a salary different from or higher than those required for original entrance to an office or position held by the person proposed to be transferred.

No person in the classified civil service of the state may be transferred without the consent of the director of administrative services.

(B) Any person holding an office or position in the classified service who has been separated from the service without delinquency or misconduct on the person's part may be reinstated within one year from the date of that separation to a vacancy in the same office or in a similar position in the same department, except that a person in the classified service of the state only may be reinstated with the consent of the director of administrative services. But, if that separation is due to injury or physical or psychiatric disability, the person shall be reinstated in the same office held or in a similar position to that held at the time of separation, within thirty sixty days after written application for reinstatement, if the person passes a physical or psychiatric examination made by a licensed physician, a physician assistant, a clinical nurse specialist, a certified nurse practitioner, or a certified nurse-midwife showing that the person has recovered from the injury or physical or psychiatric disability, if the application for reinstatement is filed within two years from the date of separation, and if the application is not filed after the date of service eligibility retirement. The physician, physician assistant, clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse practitioner, or certified nurse-midwife shall be designated by the appointing authority and shall complete any written documentation of the physical or psychiatric examination.

Sec. 125.13.  (A) As used in this section:

(1) "Emergency medical service organization" has the same meaning as in section 4765.01 of the Revised Code.

(2) "Private fire company" has the same meaning as in section 9.60 of the Revised Code.

(B) Except as otherwise provided in section 5139.03 of the Revised Code, whenever a state agency determines that it has excess or surplus supplies, it shall notify the director of administrative services. Upon request by the director and on forms provided by the director, the state agency shall furnish to the director a list of all those excess and surplus supplies and an appraisal of their value.

(C) The director of administrative services shall take immediate control of a state agency's excess and surplus supplies, except for the following excess and surplus supplies:

(1) Excess or surplus supplies that have a value below the minimum value that the director establishes for excess and surplus supplies under division (F) of this section;

(2) Excess or surplus supplies that the director has authorized an agency to donate to a public entity, including, but not limited to, public schools and surplus computers and computer equipment transferred to a public school under division (H) of this section;

(3) Excess or surplus supplies that an agency trades in as full or partial payment when purchasing a replacement item;

(4) Hazardous property.

(D) The director shall inventory excess and surplus supplies in the director's control and may have the supplies repaired.

(E) The director may do either of the following:

(1) Dispose of declared surplus or excess supplies in the director's control by sale, lease, donation, or transfer. If the director does so, the director shall dispose of those supplies in the following order of priority:

(a) To state agencies;

(b) To state-supported or state-assisted institutions of higher education;

(c) To tax-supported agencies, municipal corporations, or other political subdivisions of this state, private fire companies, or private, nonprofit emergency medical service organizations;

(d) To nonpublic elementary and secondary schools chartered by the state board of education under section 3301.16 of the Revised Code;

(e) To the general public by auction, sealed bid, sale, or negotiation.

(2) If the director has attempted to dispose of any declared surplus or excess motor vehicle that does not exceed four thousand five hundred dollars in value pursuant to divisions (E)(1)(a) to (c) of this section, donate the motor vehicle to a nonprofit organization exempt from federal income taxation pursuant to 26 U.S.C. 501(a) and (c)(3) for the purpose of meeting the transportation needs of participants in the Ohio works first program established under Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code and participants in the prevention, retention, and contingency program established under Chapter 5108. of the Revised Code. The director may not donate a motor vehicle furnished to the state highway patrol to a nonprofit organization pursuant to this division.

(F) The director may adopt rules governing the sale, lease, or transfer of surplus and excess supplies in the director's control by public auction, sealed bid, sale, or negotiation, except that no employee of the disposing agency shall be allowed to purchase, lease, or receive any such supplies. The director may dispose of declared surplus or excess supplies, including motor vehicles, in the director's control as the director determines proper if such supplies cannot be disposed of pursuant to division (E) of this section. The director shall by rule establish a minimum value for excess and surplus supplies and prescribe procedures for a state agency to follow in disposing of excess and surplus supplies in its control that have a value below the minimum value established by the director.

(G) No state-supported or state-assisted institution of higher education, tax-supported agency, municipal corporation, or other political subdivision of this state, private fire company, or private, nonprofit emergency medical service organization shall sell, lease, or transfer excess or surplus supplies acquired under this section to private entities or the general public at a price greater than the price it originally paid for those supplies.

(H) The director of administrative services may authorize any state agency to transfer surplus computers and computer equipment that are not needed by other state agencies directly to an accredited public school within the state. The computers and computer equipment may be repaired or refurbished prior to transfer. The state agency may charge a service fee to the public schools for the property not to exceed the direct cost of repairing or refurbishing it. The state agency shall deposit such funds into the account used for repair or refurbishment.

Sec. 125.182. (A) The office of information technology, by itself or by contract with another entity, shall establish, operate, and maintain a state the official public notice web site. In establishing, maintaining, and operating the state official public notice web site, the office of information technology or its contractor shall:

(A)(1) Use a domain name for the web site that will be easily recognizable and remembered by and understandable to users of the web site;

(B)(2) Maintain the web site on the internet so that it is fully accessible to and searchable by members of the public at all times, other than during maintenance or acts of God outside the office's or its contractor's control;

(C)(3) Not charge a fee to a person who that accesses, the web site to view notices or to perform searches, or otherwise uses of the web site, provided that the office or its contractor may charge a fee for enhanced search and customized content delivery features;

(D)(4) Not charge a fee to a state agency or political subdivision for publishing a notice on the web site;

(E)(5) Ensure that notices displayed on the web site conform to the requirements that would apply to the notices if they were being published in a newspaper, as directed in section 7.16 of the Revised Code or in the relevant provision of the statute or rule that requires the notice;

(F)(6) Ensure that notices continue to be displayed on the web site for not less than the length of time required by the relevant provision of the statute or rule that requires the notice;

(G) Devise and display on the web site a form that may be downloaded and used to request publication of a notice on the web site;

(H) Enable responsible parties to submit notices and requests for their publication;

(I)(7) Maintain an archive of notices that no longer are displayed on the web site;

(J)(8) Enable notices, both those currently displayed and those archived, to be accessed by key word, by party name, by case number, by county, and by other useful identifiers;

(K)(9) Maintain adequate systemic security and backup features, and develop and maintain a contingency plan for coping with and recovering from power outages, systemic failures, and other unforeseeable difficulties;

(L) Maintain the web site in such a manner that it will not infringe legally protected interests, so that vulnerability of the web site to interruption because of litigation or the threat of litigation is reduced; and

(M) Submit a status report to the secretary of state twice annually that demonstrates compliance with statutory requirements governing publication of notices.

The office of information technology shall bear the expense of maintaining the state public notice web site domain name (10) Provide access to the web site to the publisher of any Ohio newspaper or daily law journal that qualifies under the Revised Code to publish notices and advertisements, for the posting of notices and advertisements at no cost, or for a reasonable, uniform fee for the service; and

(11) Provide, if requested, a regularly scheduled feed or similar data transfer to the department of administrative services of notices and advertisements posted on the web site, provided that the office of information technology or its contractor shall not be required to provide the feed or transfer more often than once every business day.

(B) An error in a notice or advertisement posted on the official public notice web site, or a temporary web site outage or service interruption preventing the posting or display of a notice or advertisement on that web site, does not constitute a defect in making legal publication of the notice or advertisement, and publication requirements shall be considered met if the notice or advertisement published in the newspaper or daily law journal is correct.

(C) The publisher of a newspaper of general circulation or of a daily law journal that maintains a web site shall include on its web site a link to the official public notice web site.

Sec. 126.21.  (A) The director of budget and management shall do all of the following:

(1) Keep all necessary accounting records;

(2) Prescribe and maintain the accounting system of the state and establish appropriate accounting procedures and charts of accounts;

(3) Establish procedures for the use of written, electronic, optical, or other communications media for approving and reviewing payment vouchers;

(4) Reconcile, in the case of any variation between the amount of any appropriation and the aggregate amount of items of the appropriation, with the advice and assistance of the state agency affected by it and the legislative service commission, totals so as to correspond in the aggregate with the total appropriation. In the case of a conflict between the item and the total of which it is a part, the item shall be considered the intended appropriation.

(5) Evaluate on an ongoing basis and, if necessary, recommend improvements to the internal controls used in state agencies;

(6) Authorize the establishment of petty cash accounts. The director may withdraw approval for any petty cash account and require the officer in charge to return to the state treasury any unexpended balance shown by the officer's accounts to be on hand. Any officer who is issued a warrant for petty cash shall render a detailed account of the expenditures of the petty cash and shall report when requested the balance of petty cash on hand at any time.

(7) Process orders, invoices, vouchers, claims, and payrolls and prepare financial reports and statements;

(8) Perform extensions, reviews, and compliance checks prior to or after approving a payment as the director considers necessary;

(9) Issue the official comprehensive annual financial report of the state. The report shall cover all funds of the state reporting entity and shall include basic financial statements and required supplementary information prepared in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles and other information as the director provides. All state agencies, authorities, institutions, offices, retirement systems, and other component units of the state reporting entity as determined by the director shall furnish the director whatever financial statements and other information the director requests for the report, in the form, at the times, covering the periods, and with the attestation the director prescribes. The information for state institutions of higher education, as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, shall be submitted to the chancellor by the Ohio board of regents. The board shall establish a due date by which each such institution shall submit the information to the board, but no such date shall be later than one hundred twenty days after the end of the state fiscal year unless a later date is approved by the director.

(B) In addition to the director's duties under division (A) of this section, the director may establish and administer one or more state payment card programs that permit or require state agencies and political subdivisions to use a payment card to purchase equipment, materials, supplies, or services in accordance with guidelines issued by the director. The chief administrative officer of a state agency or political subdivision that uses a payment card for such purposes shall ensure that purchases made with the card are made in accordance with the guidelines issued by the director and do not exceed the unexpended, unencumbered, unobligated balance in the appropriation to be charged for the purchase. State agencies may participate in only those state payment card programs that the director establishes pursuant to this section.

(C) In addition to the director's duties under divisions (A) and (B) of this section, the director may enter into any contract or agreement necessary for and incidental to the performance of the director's duties or the duties of the office of budget and management.

(D) In addition to the director's duties under divisions (A), (B), and (C) of this section, the director may operate a shared services center within the office of budget and management for the purpose of consolidating common business functions and transactional processes. The services offered by the shared services center may be provided to any state agency or political subdivision. In consultation with the director of administrative services, the director may appoint and fix the compensation of employees of the office of budget and management whose primary duties include the consolidation of statewide financing common business functions and common transactional processes.

(E) The director may transfer cash between funds other than the general revenue fund in order to correct an erroneous payment or deposit regardless of the fiscal year during which the erroneous payment or deposit occurred.

(F) As used in divisions (B) and (D) of this section:

(1) "Political subdivision" has the same meaning as in section 2744.01 of the Revised Code.

(2) "State agency" has the same meaning as in section 9.482 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 126.25.  The accounting and budgeting services provided by the director of budget and management under section 126.21 of the Revised Code shall be supported by user charges. The director shall determine a rate that is sufficient to defray the expense of those services and the manner by which those charges shall be collected. All money collected from user the charges shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the accounting and budgeting fund, which is hereby created. Rebates or revenue shares received from any state payment card program established under division (B) of section 126.21 of the Revised Code and miscellaneous payments that reimburse expenses paid from the accounting and budgeting fund may be deposited into the accounting and budgeting fund and used to support accounting and budgeting the services provided by the director.

Sec. 131.02. (A) Except as otherwise provided in section 4123.37, section 5703.061, and division (K) of section 4123.511 of the Revised Code, whenever any amount is payable to the state, the officer, employee, or agent responsible for administering the law under which the amount is payable shall immediately proceed to collect the amount or cause the amount to be collected and shall pay the amount into the state treasury or into the appropriate custodial fund in the manner set forth pursuant to section 113.08 of the Revised Code. Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the amount is not paid within forty-five days after payment is due, the officer, employee, or agent shall certify the amount due to the attorney general, in the form and manner prescribed by the attorney general, and notify the director of budget and management thereof. In the case of an amount payable by a student enrolled in a state institution of higher education, the amount shall be certified within the later of forty-five days after the amount is due or the tenth day after the beginning of the next academic semester, quarter, or other session following the session for which the payment is payable. The attorney general may assess the collection cost to the amount certified in such manner and amount as prescribed by the attorney general. If an amount payable to a political subdivision is past due, the political subdivision may, with the approval of the attorney general, certify the amount to the attorney general pursuant to this section.

For the purposes of this section, the attorney general and the officer, employee, or agent responsible for administering the law under which the amount is payable shall agree on the time a payment is due, and that agreed upon time shall be one of the following times:

(1) If a law, including an administrative rule, of this state prescribes the time a payment is required to be made or reported, when the payment is required by that law to be paid or reported.

(2) If the payment is for services rendered, when the rendering of the services is completed.

(3) If the payment is reimbursement for a loss, when the loss is incurred.

(4) In the case of a fine or penalty for which a law or administrative rule does not prescribe a time for payment, when the fine or penalty is first assessed.

(5) If the payment arises from a legal finding, judgment, or adjudication order, when the finding, judgment, or order is rendered or issued.

(6) If the payment arises from an overpayment of money by the state to another person, when the overpayment is discovered.

(7) The date on which the amount for which an individual is personally liable under section 5735.35, section 5739.33, or division (G) of section 5747.07 of the Revised Code is determined.

(8) Upon proof of claim being filed in a bankruptcy case.

(9) For premiums and assessments due under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code, thirty days after the date upon which subscribers to the state insurance fund must report actual payrolls for the policy year pursuant to section 4123.26 of the Revised Code for employers described in division (B)(2) of section 4123.01 of the Revised Code or pursuant to section 4123.41 of the Revised Code for employers described in division (B)(1) of section 4123.01 of the Revised Code.

(10) Any other appropriate time determined by the attorney general and the officer, employee, or agent responsible for administering the law under which the amount is payable on the basis of statutory requirements or ordinary business processes of the state agency to which the payment is owed.

(B)(1) The attorney general shall give immediate notice by mail or otherwise to the party indebted of the nature and amount of the indebtedness.

(2) If the amount payable to this state arises from a tax levied under Chapter 5733., 5739., 5741., 5747., or 5751. of the Revised Code, the notice also shall specify all of the following:

(a) The assessment or case number;

(b) The tax pursuant to which the assessment is made;

(c) The reason for the liability, including, if applicable, that a penalty or interest is due;

(d) An explanation of how and when interest will be added to the amount assessed;

(e) That the attorney general and tax commissioner, acting together, have the authority, but are not required, to compromise the claim and accept payment over a reasonable time, if such actions are in the best interest of the state.

(C) The attorney general shall collect the claim or secure a judgment and issue an execution for its collection.

(D) Each claim shall bear interest, from the day on which the claim became due, at the rate per annum required by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code.

(E) The attorney general and the chief officer of the agency reporting a claim, acting together, may do any of the following if such action is in the best interests of the state:

(1) Compromise the claim;

(2) Extend for a reasonable period the time for payment of the claim by agreeing to accept monthly or other periodic payments. The agreement may require security for payment of the claim.

(3) Add fees to recover the cost of processing checks or other draft instruments returned for insufficient funds and the cost of providing electronic payment options.

(F)(1) Except as provided in division (F)(2) of this section, if the attorney general finds, after investigation, that any claim due and owing to the state is uncollectible, the attorney general, with the consent of the chief officer of the agency reporting the claim, may do the following:

(a) Sell, convey, or otherwise transfer the claim to one or more private entities for collection;

(b) Cancel the claim or cause it to be canceled.

(2) The attorney general shall cancel or cause to be canceled an unsatisfied claim on the date that is forty years after the date the claim is certified.

(3) No initial action shall be commenced to collect any tax payable to the state that is administered by the tax commissioner, whether or not such tax is subject to division (B) of this section, or any penalty, interest, or additional charge on such tax, after the expiration of the period ending on the later of the dates specified in divisions (F)(3)(a) and (b) of this section, provided that such period shall be extended by the period of any stay to such collection or by any other period to which the parties mutually agree. If the initial action in aid of execution is commenced before the later of the dates specified in divisions (F)(3)(a) and (b) of this section, any and all subsequent actions may be pursued in aid of execution of judgment for as long as the debt exists.

(a) Seven years after the assessment of the tax, penalty, interest, or additional charge is issued.

(b) Four years after the assessment of the tax, penalty, interest, or additional charge becomes final. For the purposes of division (F)(3)(b) of this section, the assessment becomes final at the latest of the following: upon expiration of the period to petition for reassessment, or if applicable, to appeal a final determination of the commissioner or decision of the board of tax appeals or a court, or, if applicable, upon decision of the United States supreme court.

For the purposes of division (F)(3) of this section, an initial action to collect a tax debt is commenced at the time when any action, including any action in aid of execution on a judgment, commences after a certified copy of the tax commissioner's entry making an assessment final has been filed in the office of the clerk of court of common pleas in the county in which the taxpayer resides or has its principal place of business in this state, or in the office of the clerk of court of common pleas of Franklin county, as provided in section 5739.13, 5741.14, 5747.13, or 5751.09 of the Revised Code or in any other applicable law requiring such a filing. If an assessment has not been issued and there is no time limitation on the issuance of an assessment under applicable law, an action to collect a tax debt commences when the action is filed in the courts of this state to collect the liability.

(4) If information contained in a claim that is sold, conveyed, or transferred to a private entity pursuant to this section is confidential pursuant to federal law or a section of the Revised Code that implements a federal law governing confidentiality, such information remains subject to that law during and following the sale, conveyance, or transfer.

Sec. 133.06.  (A) A school district shall not incur, without a vote of the electors, net indebtedness that exceeds an amount equal to one-tenth of one per cent of its tax valuation, except as provided in divisions (G) and (H) of this section and in division (C) of section 3313.372 of the Revised Code, or as prescribed in section 3318.052 or 3318.44 of the Revised Code, or as provided in division (J) of this section.

(B) Except as provided in divisions (E), (F), and (I) of this section, a school district shall not incur net indebtedness that exceeds an amount equal to nine per cent of its tax valuation.

(C) A school district shall not submit to a vote of the electors the question of the issuance of securities in an amount that will make the district's net indebtedness after the issuance of the securities exceed an amount equal to four per cent of its tax valuation, unless the superintendent of public instruction, acting under policies adopted by the state board of education, and the tax commissioner, acting under written policies of the commissioner, consent to the submission. A request for the consents shall be made at least one hundred twenty days prior to the election at which the question is to be submitted.

The superintendent of public instruction shall certify to the district the superintendent's and the tax commissioner's decisions within thirty days after receipt of the request for consents.

If the electors do not approve the issuance of securities at the election for which the superintendent of public instruction and tax commissioner consented to the submission of the question, the school district may submit the same question to the electors on the date that the next special election may be held under section 3501.01 of the Revised Code without submitting a new request for consent. If the school district seeks to submit the same question at any other subsequent election, the district shall first submit a new request for consent in accordance with this division.

(D) In calculating the net indebtedness of a school district, none of the following shall be considered:

(1) Securities issued to acquire school buses and other equipment used in transporting pupils or issued pursuant to division (D) of section 133.10 of the Revised Code;

(2) Securities issued under division (F) of this section, under section 133.301 of the Revised Code, and, to the extent in excess of the limitation stated in division (B) of this section, under division (E) of this section;

(3) Indebtedness resulting from the dissolution of a joint vocational school district under section 3311.217 of the Revised Code, evidenced by outstanding securities of that joint vocational school district;

(4) Loans, evidenced by any securities, received under sections 3313.483, 3317.0210, and 3317.0211 of the Revised Code;

(5) Debt incurred under section 3313.374 of the Revised Code;

(6) Debt incurred pursuant to division (B)(5) of section 3313.37 of the Revised Code to acquire computers and related hardware;

(7) Debt incurred under section 3318.042 of the Revised Code.

(E) A school district may become a special needs district as to certain securities as provided in division (E) of this section.

(1) A board of education, by resolution, may declare its school district to be a special needs district by determining both of the following:

(a) The student population is not being adequately serviced by the existing permanent improvements of the district.

(b) The district cannot obtain sufficient funds by the issuance of securities within the limitation of division (B) of this section to provide additional or improved needed permanent improvements in time to meet the needs.

(2) The board of education shall certify a copy of that resolution to the superintendent of public instruction with a statistical report showing all of the following:

(a) The history of and a projection of the growth of the tax valuation;

(b) The projected needs;

(c) The estimated cost of permanent improvements proposed to meet such projected needs.

(3) The superintendent of public instruction shall certify the district as an approved special needs district if the superintendent finds both of the following:

(a) The district does not have available sufficient additional funds from state or federal sources to meet the projected needs.

(b) The projection of the potential average growth of tax valuation during the next five years, according to the information certified to the superintendent and any other information the superintendent obtains, indicates a likelihood of potential average growth of tax valuation of the district during the next five years of an average of not less than one and one-half per cent per year. The findings and certification of the superintendent shall be conclusive.

(4) An approved special needs district may incur net indebtedness by the issuance of securities in accordance with the provisions of this chapter in an amount that does not exceed an amount equal to the greater of the following:

(a) Twelve per cent of the sum of its tax valuation plus an amount that is the product of multiplying that tax valuation by the percentage by which the tax valuation has increased over the tax valuation on the first day of the sixtieth month preceding the month in which its board determines to submit to the electors the question of issuing the proposed securities;

(b) Twelve per cent of the sum of its tax valuation plus an amount that is the product of multiplying that tax valuation by the percentage, determined by the superintendent of public instruction, by which that tax valuation is projected to increase during the next ten years.

(F) A school district may issue securities for emergency purposes, in a principal amount that does not exceed an amount equal to three per cent of its tax valuation, as provided in this division.

(1) A board of education, by resolution, may declare an emergency if it determines both of the following:

(a) School buildings or other necessary school facilities in the district have been wholly or partially destroyed, or condemned by a constituted public authority, or that such buildings or facilities are partially constructed, or so constructed or planned as to require additions and improvements to them before the buildings or facilities are usable for their intended purpose, or that corrections to permanent improvements are necessary to remove or prevent health or safety hazards.

(b) Existing fiscal and net indebtedness limitations make adequate replacement, additions, or improvements impossible.

(2) Upon the declaration of an emergency, the board of education may, by resolution, submit to the electors of the district pursuant to section 133.18 of the Revised Code the question of issuing securities for the purpose of paying the cost, in excess of any insurance or condemnation proceeds received by the district, of permanent improvements to respond to the emergency need.

(3) The procedures for the election shall be as provided in section 133.18 of the Revised Code, except that:

(a) The form of the ballot shall describe the emergency existing, refer to this division as the authority under which the emergency is declared, and state that the amount of the proposed securities exceeds the limitations prescribed by division (B) of this section;

(b) The resolution required by division (B) of section 133.18 of the Revised Code shall be certified to the county auditor and the board of elections at least one hundred days prior to the election;

(c) The county auditor shall advise and, not later than ninety-five days before the election, confirm that advice by certification to, the board of education of the information required by division (C) of section 133.18 of the Revised Code;

(d) The board of education shall then certify its resolution and the information required by division (D) of section 133.18 of the Revised Code to the board of elections not less than ninety days prior to the election.

(4) Notwithstanding division (B) of section 133.21 of the Revised Code, the first principal payment of securities issued under this division may be set at any date not later than sixty months after the earliest possible principal payment otherwise provided for in that division.

(G)(1) The board of education may contract with an architect, professional engineer, or other person experienced in the design and implementation of energy conservation measures for an analysis and recommendations pertaining to installations, modifications of installations, or remodeling that would significantly reduce energy consumption in buildings owned by the district. The report shall include estimates of all costs of such installations, modifications, or remodeling, including costs of design, engineering, installation, maintenance, repairs, measurement and verification of energy savings, and debt service, forgone residual value of materials or equipment replaced by the energy conservation measure, as defined by the Ohio school facilities commission, a baseline analysis of actual energy consumption data for the preceding three years with the utility baseline based on only the actual energy consumption data for the preceding twelve months, and estimates of the amounts by which energy consumption and resultant operational and maintenance costs, as defined by the commission, would be reduced.

If the board finds after receiving the report that the amount of money the district would spend on such installations, modifications, or remodeling is not likely to exceed the amount of money it would save in energy and resultant operational and maintenance costs over the ensuing fifteen years, the board may submit to the commission a copy of its findings and a request for approval to incur indebtedness to finance the making or modification of installations or the remodeling of buildings for the purpose of significantly reducing energy consumption.

The school facilities commission, in consultation with the auditor of state, may deny a request under this division by the board of education any school district is in a state of fiscal watch pursuant to division (A) of section 3316.03 of the Revised Code, if it determines that the expenditure of funds is not in the best interest of the school district.

No district board of education of a school district that is in a state of fiscal emergency pursuant to division (B) of section 3316.03 of the Revised Code shall submit a request without submitting evidence that the installations, modifications, or remodeling have been approved by the district's financial planning and supervision commission established under section 3316.05 of the Revised Code.

No board of education of a school district that, for three or more consecutive years, has been declared to be in a state of academic emergency under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code, as that section existed prior to March 22, 2013, and has failed to meet adequate yearly progress, or has met any condition set forth in division (A)(2), (3), or (4)(1)(b), (c), or (d) of section 3302.10 of the Revised Code shall submit a request without first receiving approval to incur indebtedness from the district's academic distress commission, if one has been established for the district under that section, for so long as such commission continues to be required in operation for the district.

(2) The school facilities commission shall approve the board's request provided that the following conditions are satisfied:

(a) The commission determines that the board's findings are reasonable.

(b) The request for approval is complete.

(c) The installations, modifications, or remodeling are consistent with any project to construct or acquire classroom facilities, or to reconstruct or make additions to existing classroom facilities under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 or sections 3318.40 to 3318.45 of the Revised Code.

Upon receipt of the commission's approval, the district may issue securities without a vote of the electors in a principal amount not to exceed nine-tenths of one per cent of its tax valuation for the purpose of making such installations, modifications, or remodeling, but the total net indebtedness of the district without a vote of the electors incurred under this and all other sections of the Revised Code, except section 3318.052 of the Revised Code, shall not exceed one per cent of the district's tax valuation.

(3) So long as any securities issued under this division remain outstanding, the board of education shall monitor the energy consumption and resultant operational and maintenance costs of buildings in which installations or modifications have been made or remodeling has been done pursuant to this division and. Except as provided in division (G)(4) of this section, the board shall maintain and annually update a report in a form and manner prescribed by the school facilities commission documenting the reductions in energy consumption and resultant operational and maintenance cost savings attributable to such installations, modifications, or remodeling. The report shall be certified by an architect or engineer independent of any person that provided goods or services to the board in connection with the energy conservation measures that are the subject of the report. The resultant operational and maintenance cost savings shall be certified by the school district treasurer. The report shall be submitted annually to the commission.

(4) If the school facilities commission verifies that the certified annual reports submitted to the commission by a board of education under division (G)(3) of this section fulfill the guarantee required under division (B) of section 3313.372 of the Revised Code for three consecutive years, the board of education shall no longer be subject to the annual reporting requirements of division (G)(3) of this section.

(H) With the consent of the superintendent of public instruction, a school district may incur without a vote of the electors net indebtedness that exceeds the amounts stated in divisions (A) and (G) of this section for the purpose of paying costs of permanent improvements, if and to the extent that both of the following conditions are satisfied:

(1) The fiscal officer of the school district estimates that receipts of the school district from payments made under or pursuant to agreements entered into pursuant to section 725.02, 1728.10, 3735.671, 5709.081, 5709.082, 5709.40, 5709.41, 5709.62, 5709.63, 5709.632, 5709.73, 5709.78, or 5709.82 of the Revised Code, or distributions under division (C) of section 5709.43 of the Revised Code, or any combination thereof, are, after accounting for any appropriate coverage requirements, sufficient in time and amount, and are committed by the proceedings, to pay the debt charges on the securities issued to evidence that indebtedness and payable from those receipts, and the taxing authority of the district confirms the fiscal officer's estimate, which confirmation is approved by the superintendent of public instruction;

(2) The fiscal officer of the school district certifies, and the taxing authority of the district confirms, that the district, at the time of the certification and confirmation, reasonably expects to have sufficient revenue available for the purpose of operating such permanent improvements for their intended purpose upon acquisition or completion thereof, and the superintendent of public instruction approves the taxing authority's confirmation.

The maximum maturity of securities issued under division (H) of this section shall be the lesser of twenty years or the maximum maturity calculated under section 133.20 of the Revised Code.

(I) A school district may incur net indebtedness by the issuance of securities in accordance with the provisions of this chapter in excess of the limit specified in division (B) or (C) of this section when necessary to raise the school district portion of the basic project cost and any additional funds necessary to participate in a project under Chapter 3318. of the Revised Code, including the cost of items designated by the Ohio school facilities commission as required locally funded initiatives, the cost of other locally funded initiatives in an amount that does not exceed fifty per cent of the district's portion of the basic project cost, and the cost for site acquisition. The school facilities commission shall notify the superintendent of public instruction whenever a school district will exceed either limit pursuant to this division.

(J) A school district whose portion of the basic project cost of its classroom facilities project under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code is greater than or equal to one hundred million dollars may incur without a vote of the electors net indebtedness in an amount up to two per cent of its tax valuation through the issuance of general obligation securities in order to generate all or part of the amount of its portion of the basic project cost if the controlling board has approved the school facilities commission's conditional approval of the project under section 3318.04 of the Revised Code. The school district board and the Ohio school facilities commission shall include the dedication of the proceeds of such securities in the agreement entered into under section 3318.08 of the Revised Code. No state moneys shall be released for a project to which this section applies until the proceeds of any bonds issued under this section that are dedicated for the payment of the school district portion of the project are first deposited into the school district's project construction fund.

Sec. 149.311.  (A) As used in this section:

(1) "Historic building" means a building, including its structural components, that is located in this state and that is either individually listed on the national register of historic places under 16 U.S.C. 470a, located in a registered historic district, and certified by the state historic preservation officer as being of historic significance to the district, or is individually listed as an historic landmark designated by a local government certified under 16 U.S.C. 470a(c).

(2) "Qualified rehabilitation expenditures" means expenditures paid or incurred during the rehabilitation period, and before and after that period as determined under 26 U.S.C. 47, by an owner or qualified lessee of an historic building to rehabilitate the building. "Qualified rehabilitation expenditures" includes architectural or engineering fees paid or incurred in connection with the rehabilitation, and expenses incurred in the preparation of nomination forms for listing on the national register of historic places. "Qualified rehabilitation expenditures" does not include any of the following:

(a) The cost of acquiring, expanding, or enlarging an historic building;

(b) Expenditures attributable to work done to facilities related to the building, such as parking lots, sidewalks, and landscaping;

(c) New building construction costs.

(3) "Owner" of an historic building means a person holding the fee simple interest in the building. "Owner" does not include the state or a state agency, or any political subdivision as defined in section 9.23 of the Revised Code.

(4) "Qualified lessee" means a person subject to a lease agreement for an historic building and eligible for the federal rehabilitation tax credit under 26 U.S.C. 47. "Qualified lessee" does not include the state or a state agency or political subdivision as defined in section 9.23 of the Revised Code.

(5) "Certificate owner" means the owner or qualified lessee of an historic building to which a rehabilitation tax credit certificate was issued under this section.

(6) "Registered historic district" means an historic district listed in the national register of historic places under 16 U.S.C. 470a, an historic district designated by a local government certified under 16 U.S.C. 470a(c), or a local historic district certified under 36 C.F.R. 67.8 and 67.9.

(7) "Rehabilitation" means the process of repairing or altering an historic building or buildings, making possible an efficient use while preserving those portions and features of the building and its site and environment that are significant to its historic, architectural, and cultural values.

(8) "Rehabilitation period" means one of the following:

(a) If the rehabilitation initially was not planned to be completed in stages, a period chosen by the owner or qualified lessee not to exceed twenty-four months during which rehabilitation occurs;

(b) If the rehabilitation initially was planned to be completed in stages, a period chosen by the owner or qualified lessee not to exceed sixty months during which rehabilitation occurs. Each stage shall be reviewed as a phase of a rehabilitation as determined under 26 C.F.R. 1.48-12 or a successor to that section.

(9) "State historic preservation officer" or "officer" means the state historic preservation officer appointed by the governor under 16 U.S.C. 470a.

(B) The owner or qualified lessee of an historic building may apply to the director of development services for a rehabilitation tax credit certificate for qualified rehabilitation expenditures paid or incurred by such owner or qualified lessee after April 4, 2007, for rehabilitation of an historic building. If the owner of an historic building enters a pass-through agreement with a qualified lessee for the purposes of the federal rehabilitation tax credit under 26 U.S.C. 47, the qualified rehabilitation expenditures paid or incurred by the owner after April 4, 2007, may be attributed to the qualified lessee.

The form and manner of filing such applications shall be prescribed by rule of the director. Each application shall state the amount of qualified rehabilitation expenditures the applicant estimates will be paid or incurred. The director may require applicants to furnish documentation of such estimates.

The director, after consultation with the tax commissioner and in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt rules that establish all of the following:

(1) Forms and procedures by which applicants may apply for rehabilitation tax credit certificates;

(2) Criteria for reviewing, evaluating, and approving applications for certificates within the limitations under division (D) of this section, criteria for assuring that the certificates issued encompass a mixture of high and low qualified rehabilitation expenditures, and criteria for issuing certificates under division (C)(3)(b) of this section;

(3) Eligibility requirements for obtaining a certificate under this section;

(4) The form of rehabilitation tax credit certificates;

(5) Reporting requirements and monitoring procedures;

(6) Procedures and criteria for conducting cost-benefit analyses of historic buildings that are the subjects of applications filed under this section. The purpose of a cost-benefit analysis shall be to determine whether rehabilitation of the historic building will result in a net revenue gain in state and local taxes once the building is used.

(7) Any other rules necessary to implement and administer this section.

(C) The director of development services shall review the applications with the assistance of the state historic preservation officer and determine whether all of the following criteria are met:

(1) That the building that is the subject of the application is an historic building and the applicant is the owner or qualified lessee of the building;

(2) That the rehabilitation will satisfy standards prescribed by the United States secretary of the interior under 16 U.S.C. 470, et seq., as amended, and 36 C.F.R. 67.7 or a successor to that section;

(3) That receiving a rehabilitation tax credit certificate under this section is a major factor in:

(a) The applicant's decision to rehabilitate the historic building; or

(b) To increase the level of investment in such rehabilitation.

An applicant shall demonstrate to the satisfaction of the state historic preservation officer and director of development services that the rehabilitation will satisfy the standards described in division (C)(2) of this section before the applicant begins the physical rehabilitation of the historic building.

(D)(1) If the director of development services determines that an application meets the criteria in divisions (C)(1), (2), and (3) of this section, the director shall conduct a cost-benefit analysis for the historic building that is the subject of the application to determine whether rehabilitation of the historic building will result in a net revenue gain in state and local taxes once the building is used. The director shall consider the results of the cost-benefit analysis in determining whether to approve the application. The director shall also consider the potential economic impact and the regional distributive balance of the credits throughout the state. The director may approve an application only after completion of the cost-benefit analysis.

(2) A rehabilitation tax credit certificate shall not be issued for an amount greater than the estimated amount furnished by the applicant on the application for such certificate and approved by the director. The director shall not approve more than a total of sixty million dollars of rehabilitation tax credits per fiscal year but the director may reallocate unused tax credits from a prior fiscal year for new applicants and such reallocated credits shall not apply toward the dollar limit of this division.

(3) For rehabilitations with a rehabilitation period not exceeding twenty-four months as provided in division (A)(7)(8)(a) of this section, a rehabilitation tax credit certificate shall not be issued before the rehabilitation of the historic building is completed.

(4) For rehabilitations with a rehabilitation period not exceeding sixty months as provided in division (A)(7)(8)(b) of this section, a rehabilitation tax credit certificate shall not be issued before a stage of rehabilitation is completed. After all stages of rehabilitation are completed, if the director cannot determine that the criteria in division (C) of this section are satisfied for all stages of rehabilitations, the director shall certify this finding to the tax commissioner, and any rehabilitation tax credits received by the applicant shall be repaid by the applicant and may be collected by assessment as unpaid tax by the commissioner.

(5) The director of development services shall require the applicant to provide a third-party cost certification by a certified public accountant of the actual costs attributed to the rehabilitation of the historic building when qualified rehabilitation expenditures exceed two hundred thousand dollars.

If an applicant whose application is approved for receipt of a rehabilitation tax credit certificate fails to provide to the director sufficient evidence of reviewable progress, including a viable financial plan, copies of final construction drawings, and evidence that the applicant has obtained all historic approvals within twelve months after the date the applicant received notification of approval, and if the applicant fails to provide evidence to the director that the applicant has secured and closed on financing for the rehabilitation within eighteen months after receiving notification of approval, the director may rescind the approval of the application. The director shall notify the applicant if the approval has been rescinded. Credits that would have been available to an applicant whose approval was rescinded shall be available for other qualified applicants. Nothing in this division prohibits an applicant whose approval has been rescinded from submitting a new application for a rehabilitation tax credit certificate.

(E) Issuance of a certificate represents a finding by the director of development services of the matters described in divisions (C)(1), (2), and (3) of this section only; issuance of a certificate does not represent a verification or certification by the director of the amount of qualified rehabilitation expenditures for which a tax credit may be claimed under section 5725.151, 5725.34, 5726.52, 5729.17, 5733.47, or 5747.76 of the Revised Code. The amount of qualified rehabilitation expenditures for which a tax credit may be claimed is subject to inspection and examination by the tax commissioner or employees of the commissioner under section 5703.19 of the Revised Code and any other applicable law. Upon the issuance of a certificate, the director shall certify to the tax commissioner, in the form and manner requested by the tax commissioner, the name of the applicant, the amount of qualified rehabilitation expenditures shown on the certificate, and any other information required by the rules adopted under this section.

(F)(1) On or before the first day of April August each year, the director of development services and tax commissioner jointly shall submit to the president of the senate and the speaker of the house of representatives a report on the tax credit program established under this section and sections 5725.151, 5725.34, 5726.52, 5729.17, 5733.47, and 5747.76 of the Revised Code. The report shall present an overview of the program and shall include information on the number of rehabilitation tax credit certificates issued under this section during the preceding fiscal year, an update on the status of each historic building for which an application was approved under this section, the dollar amount of the tax credits granted under sections 5725.151, 5725.34, 5726.52, 5729.17, 5733.47, and 5747.76 of the Revised Code, and any other information the director and commissioner consider relevant to the topics addressed in the report.

(2) On or before December 1, 2015, the director of development services and tax commissioner jointly shall submit to the president of the senate and the speaker of the house of representatives a comprehensive report that includes the information required by division (F)(1) of this section and a detailed analysis of the effectiveness of issuing tax credits for rehabilitating historic buildings. The report shall be prepared with the assistance of an economic research organization jointly chosen by the director and commissioner.

(G) There is hereby created in the state treasury the historic rehabilitation tax credit operating fund. The director of development services is authorized to charge reasonable application and other fees in connection with the administration of tax credits authorized by this section and sections 5725.151, 5725.34, 5726.52, 5729.17, 5733.44 5733.47, and 5747.76 of the Revised Code. Any such fees collected shall be credited to the fund and used to pay reasonable costs incurred by the department of development services in administering this section and sections 5725.151, 5725.34, 5726.52, 5729.17, 5733.44 5733.47, and 5747.76 of the Revised Code.

The Ohio historic preservation office is authorized to charge reasonable fees in connection with its review and approval of applications under this section. Any such fees collected shall be credited to the fund and used to pay administrative costs incurred by the Ohio historic preservation office pursuant to this section.

Sec. 149.38.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in section 307.847 of the Revised Code, there is hereby created in each county a county records commission, composed of a member of the board of county commissioners as chairperson, the prosecuting attorney, the auditor, the recorder, and the clerk of the court of common pleas. The commission shall appoint a secretary, who may or may not be a member of the commission and who shall serve at the pleasure of the commission. The commission may employ an archivist or records manager to serve under its direction. The commission shall meet at least once every six months and upon the call of the chairperson.

(B)(1) The functions of the county records commission shall be to provide rules for retention and disposal of records of the county, and to review applications for one-time disposal of obsolete records and schedules of records retention and disposition submitted by county offices. The commission may dispose of records pursuant to the procedure outlined in this section. The commission, at any time, may review any schedule it has previously approved and, for good cause shown, may revise that schedule, subject to division (D) of this section.

(2)(a) As used in division (B)(2) of this section, "paper case records" means written reports of child abuse or neglect, written records of investigations, or other written records required to be prepared under section 2151.421, 5101.13, 5153.166, or 5153.17 of the Revised Code.

(b) A county public children services agency may submit to the county records commission applications for one-time disposal, or schedules of records retention and disposition, of paper case records that have been entered into permanently maintained and retrievable fields in the state automated child welfare information system established under section 5101.13 of the Revised Code or entered into other permanently maintained and retrievable electronic files. The county records commission may dispose of the paper case records pursuant to the procedure outlined in this section.

(C)(1) When the county records commission has approved any county application for one-time disposal of obsolete records or any schedule of records retention and disposition, the commission shall send that application or schedule to the Ohio historical society for its review. The Ohio historical society shall review the application or schedule within a period of not more than sixty days after its receipt of it. During the sixty-day review period, the Ohio historical society may select for its custody from the application for one-time disposal of obsolete records any records it considers to be of continuing historical value, and shall denote upon any schedule of records retention and disposition any records for which the Ohio historical society will require a certificate of records disposal prior to their disposal.

(2) Upon completion of its review, the Ohio historical society shall forward the application for one-time disposal of obsolete records or the schedule of records retention and disposition to the auditor of state for the auditor's approval or disapproval. The auditor of state shall approve or disapprove the application or schedule within a period of not more than sixty days after receipt of it.

(3) Before public records are to be disposed of pursuant to an approved schedule of records retention and disposition, the county records commission shall inform the Ohio historical society of the disposal through the submission of a certificate of records disposal for only the records required by the schedule to be disposed of and shall give the society the opportunity for a period of fifteen business days to select for its custody those records, from the certificate submitted, that it considers to be of continuing historical value. Upon the expiration of the fifteen-business-day period, the county records commission also shall notify the public libraries, county historical society, state universities, and other public or quasi-public institutions, agencies, or corporations in the county that have provided the commission with their name and address for these notification purposes, that the commission has informed the Ohio historical society of the records disposal and that the notified entities, upon written agreement with the Ohio historical society pursuant to section 149.31 of the Revised Code, may select records of continuing historical value, including records that may be distributed to any of the notified entities under section 149.31 of the Revised Code. Any notified entity that notifies the county records commission of its intent to review and select records of continuing historical value from certificates of records disposal is responsible for the cost of any notice given and for the transportation of those records.

(D) The rules of the county records commission shall include a rule that requires any receipts, checks, vouchers, or other similar records pertaining to expenditures from the delinquent tax and assessment collection fund created in section 321.261 of the Revised Code, from the real estate assessment fund created in section 325.31 of the Revised Code, or from amounts allocated for the furtherance of justice to the county sheriff under section 325.071 of the Revised Code or to the prosecuting attorney under section 325.12 of the Revised Code to be retained for at least four years.

(E) No person shall knowingly violate the rule adopted under division (D) of this section. Whoever violates that rule is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree.

Sec. 150.10.  (A) On the first day of January of the second year after the date of entering into an agreement under section 150.05 of the Revised Code and on the first day of August of each ensuing year, the authority shall file with the clerk of the house of representatives, the clerk of the senate, and the chairpersons of the house and senate standing committees predominantly concerned with economic development a written report on the Ohio venture capital program. The report shall include all the following:

(1) A description of the details of the investment policy established or modified in accordance with sections 150.03 and 150.04 of the Revised Code;

(2) The authority's assessment of the program's achievement of its purpose stated in section 150.01 of the Revised Code;

(3) The value of tax credit certificates issued by the authority under section 150.07 of the Revised Code in each fiscal year ending on or before the preceding thirtieth day of June;

(4) The amount of tax credits claimed pursuant to section 5707.031, 5725.19, 5726.53, 5727.241, 5729.08, 5733.49, or 5747.80 of the Revised Code, as to the respective taxes involved;

(5) The financial status of the Ohio venture capital fund;

(6) The names of venture capital funds in which money from the program fund has been invested and the locations of their principal offices, and the names of the enterprises in which each of those venture capital funds has invested such money and the locations of those enterprises' principal offices;

(7) Any recommendations for modifying the program to better achieve the purpose stated in section 150.01 of the Revised Code.

(B) During each year that a report is issued under division (A) of this section, the chairperson of the authority, or another member of the authority designated by the chairperson as the authority's representative, shall be required to appear in person before the standing committees of the house and senate predominantly concerned with economic development to give testimony concerning the status of the Ohio venture capital program.

Sec. 153.56. (A) Any person to whom any money is due for labor or work performed or materials furnished in a public improvement as provided in section 153.54 of the Revised Code, at any time after performing the labor or work or furnishing the materials, but not later than ninety days after the completion of the contract by the principal contractor or design-build firm and the acceptance of the public improvement for which the bond was provided by the duly authorized board or officer, shall furnish the sureties on the bond, a statement of the amount due to the person.

(B) A suit shall not be brought against sureties on the bond until after sixty days after the furnishing of the statement described in division (A) of this section. If the indebtedness is not paid in full at the expiration of that sixty days, and if the person complies with division (C) of this section, the person may bring an action in the person's own name upon the bond, as provided in sections 2307.06 and 2307.07 of the Revised Code, that action to be commenced, notwithstanding section 2305.12 of the Revised Code, not later than one year from the date of acceptance of the public improvement for which the bond was provided.

(C) To exercise rights under this section, a subcontractor or materials supplier supplying labor or materials that cost more than thirty thousand dollars, who is not in direct privity of contract with the principal contractor or design-build firm for the public improvement, shall serve a notice of furnishing upon the principal contractor or design-build firm in the form provided in section 1311.261 of the Revised Code.

(D) A subcontractor or materials supplier who serves a notice of furnishing under division (C) of this section as required to exercise rights under this section has the right of recovery only as to amounts owed for labor and work performed and materials furnished during and after the twenty-one days immediately preceding service of the notice of furnishing.

(E) For purposes of this section:

(1) "Design-build firm" has the same meaning as in section 153.65 of the Revised Code.

(2) "Principal contractor" has the same meaning as in section 1311.25 of the Revised Code, and may include a "construction manager" and a "construction manager at risk" as defined in section 9.33 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 164.26. (A) The director of the Ohio public works commission shall establish policies related to the need for long-term ownership, or long-term control through a lease or the purchase of an easement, of real property that is the subject of an application for a grant under sections 164.20 to 164.27 of the Revised Code and establish requirements for documentation to be submitted by grant applicants that is necessary for the proper administration of this division. The policies shall provide for proper penalties, including liquidated damages and grant repayment, for entities that fail to comply with the long-term ownership or control requirements established under this division.

The director also shall adopt policies delineating what constitutes administrative costs for purposes of division (F) of section 164.27 of the Revised Code.

(B) The Ohio public works commission shall administer sections 164.20 to 164.27 of the Revised Code and shall exercise any authority and use any procedures granted or established under sections 164.02 and 164.05 of the Revised Code that are necessary for that purpose.

Sec. 164.261.  All of the following apply to any repayment of a grant awarded under sections 164.20 to 164.27 of the Revised Code:

(A) The Ohio public works commission shall deposit the grant repayment into the clean Ohio conservation fund created in section 164.27 of the Revised Code.

(B) The commission shall return the grant repayment to the natural resource assistance council that approved the grant application.

(C) The grant repayment shall be used for the same purpose as the grant was originally approved for, as provided in section 164.22 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 166.13. (A) Prior to entering into each agreement to provide innovation financial assistance under sections 166.12, 166.15, and 166.16 of the Revised Code, the director of development services shall determine whether the assistance will conform to the requirements of sections 166.12 to 166.16 of the Revised Code. Such determination, and the facts upon which it is based, shall be set forth by the director in submissions made to the controlling board when the director seeks a release of moneys under section 166.12 of the Revised Code. An agreement to provide assistance under sections 166.12, 166.15, and 166.16 of the Revised Code shall set forth the determination, which shall be conclusive for purposes of the validity and enforceability of the agreement and any innovation loan guarantees, innovation loans, or other agreements entered into pursuant to the agreement to provide innovation financial assistance.

(B) Whenever a person applies for innovation financial assistance under sections 166.12, 166.15, and 166.16 of the Revised Code and the eligible innovation project for which innovation financial assistance is requested is to relocate an eligible innovation project that is currently being operated by the person and that is located in another county, municipal corporation, or township, the director person shall provide written notification to the appropriate local governmental bodies and state officials. The notification shall contain the following information:

(1) The name of the person applying for innovation financial assistance;

(2) The county, and the municipal corporation or township, in which the eligible innovation project for which innovation financial assistance is requested is located; and

(3) The county, and the municipal corporation or township, in which the eligible innovation project to be replaced is located director may not enter into an agreement to provide innovation financial assistance until the director determines that the appropriate local government bodies and state officials have been notified.

(C) As used in division (B) of this section:

(1) "Appropriate local governmental bodies" means:

(a) The boards of county commissioners or legislative authorities of the county in which the project for which innovation financial assistance is requested is located and of the county in which the eligible innovation project to be replaced is located;

(b) The legislative authority of the municipal corporation or the board of township trustees of the township in which the eligible innovation project for which innovation financial assistance is requested is located; and

(c) The legislative authority of the municipal corporation or the board of township trustees of the township in which the eligible innovation project to be replaced is located.

(2) "State officials" means:

(a) The state representative and state senator in whose districts the project for which innovation financial assistance is requested is located;

(b) The state representative and state senator in whose districts the innovation project to be replaced is located.

Sec. 166.18. (A) Prior to entering into each agreement to provide research and development financial assistance, the director of development services shall determine whether the assistance will conform to the requirements of sections 166.17 to 166.21, 5733.352, and 5747.331 of the Revised Code. Such determination, and the facts upon which it is based, shall be set forth by the director in submissions made to the controlling board when the director seeks a release of moneys under section 166.17 of the Revised Code. An agreement to provide research and development financial assistance under section 166.17 or 166.21 of the Revised Code shall set forth the determination, which shall be conclusive for purposes of the validity and enforceability of the agreement, and any loans or other agreements entered into pursuant to the agreement, to provide research and development financial assistance.

(B) Whenever a person applies for research and development financial assistance, and the eligible research and development project for which that assistance is requested is to relocate an eligible research and development project that is currently being operated by the person and that is located in another county, municipal corporation, or township within the state, the director person shall provide written notification to the appropriate local governmental bodies and state officials. The notification shall state all of the following:

(1) The name of the person applying for research and development financial assistance;

(2) The county, and the municipal corporation or township, in which the project for which research and development financial assistance is requested will be located;

(3) The county, and the municipal corporation or township, in which the eligible research and development project is located at the time such financial assistance is requested director may not enter into an agreement to provide research and development financial assistance until the director determines that the appropriate local government bodies and state officials have been notified.

(C) As used in division (B) of this section:

(1) "Appropriate local governmental bodies" means all of the following:

(a) The board of county commissioners of or legislative authorities of special districts in the county in which the eligible research and development project for which research and development financial assistance is requested is located and of the county in which the project will be located;

(b) The legislative authority of the municipal corporation or the board of township trustees of the township in which the eligible research and development project for which research and development financial assistance is requested is located and of the municipal corporation or township in which the project will be located.

(2) "State officials" means both of the following:

(a) The state representative and state senator in whose district the eligible research and development project for which research and development financial assistance is requested is located;

(b) The state representative and state senator in whose district the eligible research and development project will be located.

Sec. 166.21. (A) The director of development services, with the approval of the controlling board and subject to other applicable provisions of this chapter, may lend moneys in the research and development loan fund to persons for the purpose of paying allowable costs of eligible research and development projects, if the director determines that all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The project is an eligible research and development project and is economically sound;

(2) The amount to be lent from the research and development loan fund will not exceed seventy-five per cent of the total costs of the eligible research and development project;

(3) The repayment of the loan from the research and development loan fund will be secured by a mortgage, assignment, pledge, lien provided for under section 9.661 of the Revised Code, or other interest in property or other assets of the borrower, at such level of priority and value as the director considers necessary, provided that, in making such a determination, the director shall take into account the value of any rights granted by the borrower to the director to control the use of any assets of the borrower under the circumstances described in the loan documents.

(B) The determinations of the director under division (A) of this section shall be conclusive for purposes of the validity of a loan commitment evidenced by a loan agreement signed by the director.

(C) Fees, charges, rates of interest, times of payment of interest and principal, and other terms and conditions of, and security for, loans made from the research and development loan fund shall be such as the director determines to be appropriate and in furtherance of the purpose for which the loans are made. The moneys used in making loans shall be disbursed from the fund upon order of the director. Unless otherwise specified in any indenture or other instrument securing obligations under division (D) of section 166.08 of the Revised Code, any payments of principal and interest from loans made from the fund shall be paid to the fund and used for the purpose of making loans under this section.

(D)(1) As used in this division, "qualified research and development loan payments" means payments of principal and interest on a loan made from the research and development loan fund.

(2) Each year, the director may, upon request, issue a certificate to a borrower of moneys from the research and development loan fund indicating the amount of the qualified research and development loan payments made by or on behalf of the borrower during the calendar year immediately preceding the tax year, as defined in section 5733.04 of the Revised Code, or taxable year, as defined in section 5747.01 of the Revised Code, for which the certificate is issued. In addition to indicating the amount of qualified research and development loan payments, the certificate shall include a determination of the director that as of the thirty-first day of December of the calendar year for which the certificate is issued, the borrower is not in default under the loan agreement, lease, or other instrument governing repayment of the loan, including compliance with the job creation and retention commitments that are part of the qualified research and development project. If the director determines that a borrower is in default under the loan agreement, lease, or other instrument governing repayment of the loan, the director may reduce the amount, percentage, or term of the credit allowed under section 5733.352, 5747.331, or 5751.52 of the Revised Code with respect to the certificate issued to the borrower. The director shall not issue a certificate in an amount that exceeds one hundred fifty thousand dollars.

(E) The director may take actions necessary or appropriate to collect or otherwise deal with any loan made under this section.

(F) The director may fix service charges for the making of a loan. The charges shall be payable at such times and place and in such amounts and manner as may be prescribed by the director.

(G)(1) There shall be credited to the research and development loan fund moneys received by this state from the repayment of loans, including interest thereon, made from the fund, and moneys received from the sale, lease, or other disposition of property acquired or constructed with moneys in the fund derived from the proceeds of the sale of obligations under section 166.08 of the Revised Code. Moneys in the fund shall be applied as provided in this chapter pursuant to appropriations made by the general assembly.

(2) In addition to the requirements in division (G)(1) of this section, moneys referred to in that division may be deposited to the credit of separate accounts established by the director of development services within the research and development loan fund or in the bond service fund and pledged to the security of obligations, applied to the payment of bond service charges without need for appropriation, released from any such pledge and transferred to the research and development loan fund, all as and to the extent provided in the bond proceedings pursuant to written directions of the director of development. Accounts may be established by the director in the research and development loan fund for particular projects or otherwise. The director may withdraw from the fund or, subject to provisions of the applicable bond proceedings, from any special funds established pursuant to the bond proceedings, or from any accounts in such funds, any amounts of investment income required to be rebated and paid to the federal government in order to maintain the exemption from federal income taxation of interest on obligations issued under this chapter, which withdrawal and payment may be made without the necessity for appropriation.

Sec. 173.27.  (A) As used in this section:

(1) "Applicant" means a person who is under final consideration for employment hiring by a responsible party in a full-time, part-time, or temporary position that involves providing ombudsman services to residents and recipients. "Applicant" includes a person who is under final consideration for employment being hired as the state long-term care ombudsman or the head of a regional long-term care ombudsman program. "Applicant" does not include a person seeking to provide ombudsman services to residents and recipients as a volunteer without receiving or expecting to receive any form of remuneration other than reimbursement for actual expenses.

(2) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in section 109.572 of the Revised Code.

(3) "Disqualifying offense" means any of the offenses listed or described in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (e) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code.

(4) "Employee" means a person employed by a responsible party in a full-time, part-time, or temporary position that involves providing ombudsman services to residents and recipients. "Employee" includes the person employed as the state long-term care ombudsman and a person employed as the head of a regional long-term care ombudsman program. "Employee" does not include a person who provides ombudsman services to residents and recipients as a volunteer without receiving or expecting to receive any form of remuneration other than reimbursement for actual expenses.

(5) "Responsible party" means the following:

(a) In the case of an applicant who is under final consideration for employment being hired as the state long-term care ombudsman or the person employed as the state long-term care ombudsman, the director of aging;

(b) In the case of any other applicant who is under final consideration for employment with being hired by the state long-term care ombudsman program or any other employee of the state long-term care ombudsman program, the state long-term care ombudsman;

(c) In the case of an applicant who is under final consideration for employment with being hired by a regional long-term care ombudsman program (including as the head of the regional program) or an employee of a regional long-term care ombudsman program (including the head of a regional program), the regional long-term care ombudsman program.

(B) A responsible party may not employ hire an applicant or continue to employ retain an employee in a position that involves providing ombudsman services to residents and recipients if any of the following apply:

(1) A review of the databases listed in division (D) of this section reveals any of the following:

(a) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more of the databases listed in divisions (D)(1) to (5) of this section;

(b) That there is in the state nurse aide registry established under section 3721.32 of the Revised Code a statement detailing findings by the director of health that the applicant or employee neglected or abused a long-term care facility or residential care facility resident or misappropriated property of such a resident;

(c) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more of the databases, if any, specified in rules adopted under this section and the rules prohibit the responsible party from employing an applicant or continuing to employ an employee included in such a database in a position that involves providing ombudsman services to residents and recipients.

(2) After the applicant or employee is provided, pursuant to division (E)(2)(a) of this section, a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and the standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section, the applicant or employee fails to complete the form or provide the applicant's or employee's fingerprint impressions on the standard impression sheet.

(3) Unless the applicant or employee meets standards specified in rules adopted under this section, the applicant or employee is found by a criminal records check required by this section to have been convicted of, or pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense.

(C) A responsible party or a responsible party's designee shall inform each applicant of both of the following at the time of the applicant's initial application for employment in hiring into a position that involves providing ombudsman services to residents and recipients:

(1) That a review of the databases listed in division (D) of this section will be conducted to determine whether the responsible party is prohibited by division (B)(1) of this section from employing hiring the applicant in into the position;

(2) That, unless the database review reveals that the applicant may not be employed in hired into the position, a criminal records check of the applicant will be conducted and the applicant is required to provide a set of the applicant's fingerprint impressions as part of the criminal records check.

(D) As a condition of any applicant's being employed hired by a responsible party in a position that involves providing ombudsman services to residents and recipients, the responsible party or designee shall conduct a database review of the applicant in accordance with rules adopted under this section. If rules adopted under this section so require, the responsible party or designee shall conduct a database review of an employee in accordance with the rules as a condition of the responsible party continuing to employ retaining the employee in a position that involves providing ombudsman services to residents and recipients. A database review shall determine whether the applicant or employee is included in any of the following:

(1) The excluded parties list system that is maintained by the United States general services administration pursuant to subpart 9.4 of the federal acquisition regulation and available at the federal web site known as the system for award management;

(2) The list of excluded individuals and entities maintained by the office of inspector general in the United States department of health and human services pursuant to section 1128 of the "Social Security Act," 94 Stat. 2619 (1980), 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7, as amended, and section 1156 of the "Social Security Act," 96 Stat. 388 (1982), 42 U.S.C. 1320c-5, as amended;

(3) The registry of MR/DD employees established under section 5123.52 of the Revised Code;

(4) The internet-based sex offender and child-victim offender database established under division (A)(11) of section 2950.13 of the Revised Code;

(5) The internet-based database of inmates established under section 5120.66 of the Revised Code;

(6) The state nurse aide registry established under section 3721.32 of the Revised Code;

(7) Any other database, if any, specified in rules adopted under this section.

(E)(1) As a condition of any applicant's being employed by a responsible party in on hiring an applicant into a position that involves providing ombudsman services to residents and recipients, the responsible party or designee shall request that the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation conduct a criminal records check of the applicant. If rules adopted under this section so require, the responsible party or designee shall request that the superintendent conduct a criminal records check of an employee at times specified in the rules as a condition of the responsible party continuing to employ for retaining the employee in a position that involves providing ombudsman services to residents and recipients. However, the responsible party or designee is not required to request the criminal records check of the applicant or employee if the responsible party is prohibited by division (B)(1) of this section from employing hiring the applicant or continuing to employ retaining the employee in a position that involves providing ombudsman services to residents and recipients. If an applicant or employee for whom a criminal records check request is required by this section does not present proof of having been a resident of this state for the five-year period immediately prior to the date the criminal records check is requested or provide evidence that within that five-year period the superintendent has requested information about the applicant or employee from the federal bureau of investigation in a criminal records check, the responsible party or designee shall request that the superintendent obtain information from the federal bureau of investigation as part of the criminal records check. Even if an applicant or employee for whom a criminal records check request is required by this section presents proof of having been a resident of this state for the five-year period, the responsible party or designee may request that the superintendent include information from the federal bureau of investigation in the criminal records check.

(2) A responsible party or designee shall do all of the following:

(a) Provide to each applicant and employee for whom a criminal records check request is required by this section a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section;

(b) Obtain the completed form and standard impression sheet from the applicant or employee;

(c) Forward the completed form and standard impression sheet to the superintendent.

(3) A responsible party shall pay to the bureau of criminal identification and investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each criminal records check the responsible party or the responsible party's designee requests under this section. The responsible party may charge an applicant a fee not exceeding the amount the responsible party pays to the bureau under this section if the responsible party or designee notifies the applicant at the time of initial application for employment hiring into the position in question of the amount of the fee.

(F)(1) A responsible party may employ conditionally hire an applicant for whom a criminal records check is required by this section prior to obtaining the results of the criminal records check if both of the following apply:

(a) The responsible party is not prohibited by division (B)(1) of this section from employing hiring the applicant in a position that involves providing ombudsman services to residents and recipients;

(b) The responsible party or designee requests the criminal records check in accordance with division (E) of this section not later than five business days after the responsible party conditionally hires the applicant begins conditional employment.

(2) A responsible party shall terminate the employment of an applicant employed conditionally under division (F)(1) of this section remove a conditionally hired applicant from any job duties that require a criminal records check if the results of the criminal records check, other than the results of any request for information from the federal bureau of investigation, are not obtained within the period ending sixty days after the date the request for the criminal records check is made. Regardless

Regardless of when the results of the criminal records check are obtained, if the results indicate that the conditionally hired applicant has been convicted of, or pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense, the responsible party shall terminate the applicant's employment unless the applicant meets standards specified in rules adopted under this section that permit the responsible party to employ hire the applicant and the responsible party chooses to employ hire the applicant. Termination of employment under this division shall be considered just cause for discharge for purposes of division (D)(2) of section 4141.29 of the Revised Code if the applicant makes any attempt to deceive the responsible party or designee about the applicant's criminal record.

(G) The report of any criminal records check conducted pursuant to a request made under this section is not a public record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not be made available to any person other than the following:

(1) The applicant or employee who is the subject of the criminal records check or the applicant's or employee's representative;

(2) The responsible party or designee;

(3) In the case of a criminal records check conducted for an applicant who is under final consideration for employment with hiring by a regional long-term care ombudsman program (including as the head of the regional program) or for an employee of a regional long-term care ombudsman program (including the head of a regional program), the state long-term care ombudsman or a representative of the office of the state long-term care ombudsman program who is responsible for monitoring the regional program's compliance with this section;

(4) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual involved in a case dealing with any of the following:

(a) A denial of employment hiring of the applicant or of retention of the employee;

(b) Employment or unemployment benefits of the applicant or employee;

(c) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid program or a program the department of aging administers.

(H) In a tort or other civil action for damages that is brought as the result of an injury, death, or loss to person or property caused by an applicant who a responsible party hires, or an employee who a responsible party employs, in a position that involves providing ombudsman services to residents and recipients, all of the following shall apply:

(1) If the responsible party employed hired the applicant or retained the employee in good faith and reasonable reliance on the report of a criminal records check requested under this section, the responsible party shall not be found negligent solely because of its reliance on the report, even if the information in the report is determined later to have been incomplete or inaccurate.

(2) If the responsible party employed conditionally hired the applicant in good faith on a conditional basis pursuant to division (F) of this section, the responsible party shall not be found negligent solely because it employed conditionally hired the applicant prior to receiving the report of a criminal records check requested under this section.

(3) If the responsible party in good faith employed hired the applicant or retained the employee because the applicant or employee meets standards specified in rules adopted under this section, the responsible party shall not be found negligent solely because the applicant or employee has been convicted of, or pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense.

(I) The state long-term care ombudsman may not act as the director of aging's designee for the purpose of this section. The head of a regional long-term care ombudsman program may not act as the regional program's designee for the purpose of this section if the head is the employee for whom a database review or criminal records check is being conducted.

(J) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section.

(1) The rules may do the following:

(a) Require employees to undergo database reviews and criminal records checks under this section;

(b) If the rules require employees to undergo database reviews and criminal records checks under this section, exempt one or more classes of employees from the requirements;

(c) For the purpose of division (D)(7) of this section, specify other databases that are to be checked as part of a database review conducted under this section.

(2) The rules shall specify all of the following:

(a) The procedures for conducting database reviews under this section;

(b) If the rules require employees to undergo database reviews and criminal records checks under this section, the times at which the database reviews and criminal records checks are to be conducted;

(c) If the rules specify other databases to be checked as part of the database reviews, the circumstances under which a responsible party is prohibited from employing hiring an applicant or continuing to employ retaining an employee who is found by a database review to be included in one or more of those databases;

(d) Standards that an applicant or employee must meet for a responsible party to be permitted to employ hire the applicant or continue to employ retain the employee in a position that involves providing ombudsman services to residents and recipients if the applicant or employee is found by a criminal records check required by this section to have been convicted of, or pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense.

Sec. 173.38.  (A) As used in this section:

(1)(a) "Applicant" means a all of the following:

(i) A person who is under final consideration for employment with hiring by a responsible party in a full-time, part-time, or temporary direct-care position or is referred to a responsible party by an employment service for such a position. "Applicant";

(ii) A self-employed provider bidding on a contract or grant with an area agency on aging to provide community-based long-term care services;

(iii) A self-employed provider applying under section 173.391 of the Revised Code for certification to provide community-based long-term care services.

(b) "Applicant" does not include a person being considered for a direct-care position as a volunteer.

(2) "Area agency on aging" has the same meaning as in section 173.14 of the Revised Code.

(3) "Community-based long-term care services" means community-based long-term care services, as defined in section 173.14 of the Revised Code, that are provided under a program the department of aging administers.

(4) "Consumer" means an individual who receives community-based long-term care services.

(5) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in section 109.572 of the Revised Code.

(6)(a) "Direct-care position" means an employment position in which an employee has either or both of the following:

(i) In-person contact with one or more consumers;

(ii) Access to one or more consumers' personal property or records.

(b) "Direct-care position" does not include a person whose sole duties are transporting individuals under Chapter 306. of the Revised Code.

(7) "Disqualifying offense" means any of the offenses listed or described in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (e) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code.

(8)(a) "Employee" means a all of the following:

(i) A person employed by a responsible party in a full-time, part-time, or temporary direct-care position and a person who works in such a position due to being referred to a responsible party by an employment service. "Employee";

(ii) A self-employed provider who has a contract or grant with an area agency on aging to provide community-based long-term care services;

(iii) A self-employed provider certified under section 173.391 of the Revised Code to provide community-based long-term care services.

(b) "Employee" does not include a person who works in a direct-care position as a volunteer.

(9) "PASSPORT administrative agency" has the same meaning as in section 173.42 of the Revised Code.

(10) "Provider" has the same meaning as in section 173.39 of the Revised Code.

(11) "Responsible party" means the following:

(a) An area agency on aging in the case of either any of the following:

(i) A person who is an applicant because the agency is giving the person is under final consideration for employment with the agency in being hired into a full-time, part-time, or temporary direct-care position or is an employment service referred the person to the agency by an employment service for such a position;

(ii) A person who is an employee because the agency employs the person is employed by the agency in a full-time, part-time, or temporary direct-care position or works in such a position due to being an employment service referred the person to the agency by an employment service for employment in such a position;

(iii) A self-employed provider who is an applicant because the provider is bidding on a contract or grant with the agency to provide community-based long-term care services;

(iv) A self-employed provider who is an employee because the provider has a contract or grant with the agency to provide community-based long-term care services.

(b) A PASSPORT administrative agency in the case of either any of the following:

(i) A person who is an applicant because the agency is giving the person is under final consideration for employment with the agency in being hired into a full-time, part-time, or temporary direct-care position or is an employment service referred the person to the agency by an employment service for such a position;

(ii) A person who is an employee because the agency employs the person is employed by the agency in a full-time, part-time, or temporary direct-care position or works in such a position due to being an employment service referred the person to the agency by an employment service for employment in such a position;

(iii) A self-employed provider who is an applicant because the provider is applying under section 173.391 of the Revised Code for certification to provide community-based long-term care services and intends to provide the services in the area served by the agency;

(iv) A self-employed provider who is an employee because the provider is certified under section 173.391 of the Revised Code to provide community-based long-term care services and provides the services in the area served by the agency.

(c) A provider in the case of either of the following:

(i) A person who is an applicant because the provider is giving the person is under final consideration for employment with the provider in being hired into a full-time, part-time, or temporary direct-care position or is an employment service referred the person to the provider by an employment service for such a position;

(ii) A person who is an employee because the provider employs the person is employed by the provider in a full-time, part-time, or temporary direct-care position or works in such a position due to being an employment service referred the person to the provider by an employment service for employment in such a position.

(d) A subcontractor in the case of either of the following:

(i) A person who is an applicant because the subcontractor is giving the person is under final consideration for employment with the subcontractor in being hired into a full-time, part-time, or temporary direct-care position or is an employment service referred the person to the subcontractor by an employment service for such a position;

(ii) A person who is an employee because the subcontractor employs the person is employed by the subcontractor in a full-time, part-time, or temporary direct-care position or works in such a position due to being an employment service referred the person to the subcontractor by an employment service for employment in such a position.

(e) A consumer who, as the employer of record, directs a consumer-directed provider.

(12) "Self-employed" means the state of working for one's self with no employees. A consumer-directed provider is not self-employed because the consumer is the employer of record.

(13) "Subcontractor" has the meaning specified in rules adopted under this section.

(13)(14) "Volunteer" means a person who serves in a direct-care position without receiving or expecting to receive any form of remuneration other than reimbursement for actual expenses.

(14)(15) "Waiver agency" has the same meaning as in section 5164.342 of the Revised Code.

(B) This section does not apply to any individual who is subject to a database review or criminal records check under section 3701.881 of the Revised Code or to any individual who is subject to a criminal records check under section 3721.121 of the Revised Code. If a provider or subcontractor also is a waiver agency, the provider or subcontractor may provide for applicants and employees to undergo database reviews and criminal records checks in accordance with section 5164.342 of the Revised Code rather than this section.

(C) No responsible party shall employ hire an applicant or continue to employ retain an employee in a direct-care position if any of the following apply:

(1) A review of the databases listed in division (E) of this section reveals any of the following:

(a) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more of the databases listed in divisions (E)(1) to (5) of this section;

(b) That there is in the state nurse aide registry established under section 3721.32 of the Revised Code a statement detailing findings by the director of health that the applicant or employee neglected or abused a long-term care facility or residential care facility resident or misappropriated property of such a resident;

(c) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more of the databases, if any, specified in rules adopted under this section and the rules prohibit the responsible party from employing hiring an applicant or continuing to employ retaining an employee included in such a database in a direct-care position.

(2) After the applicant or employee is provided, pursuant to division (F)(2)(a) of this section, a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and the standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section, the applicant or employee fails to complete the form or provide the applicant's or employee's fingerprint impressions on the standard impression sheet.

(3) Unless the applicant or employee meets standards specified in rules adopted under this section, the applicant or employee is found by a criminal records check required by this section to have been convicted of, or pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense.

(D) Except as provided by division (G) of this section, the chief administrator of a responsible party shall inform each applicant of both of the following at the time of the applicant's initial application for employment hiring into a direct-care position or referral to the responsible party by an employment service for a direct-care position:

(1) That a review of the databases listed in division (E) of this section will be conducted to determine whether the responsible party is prohibited by division (C)(1) of this section from employing hiring the applicant in into the direct-care position;

(2) That, unless the database review reveals that the applicant may not be employed in hired into the direct-care position, a criminal records check of the applicant will be conducted and the applicant is required to provide a set of the applicant's fingerprint impressions as part of the criminal records check.

(E) As a condition of employing for hiring any applicant in into a direct-care position, the chief administrator of a responsible party shall conduct a database review of the applicant in accordance with rules adopted under this section. If rules adopted under this section so require, the chief administrator of a responsible party shall conduct a database review of an employee in accordance with the rules as a condition of continuing to employ retaining the employee in a direct-care position. However, a chief administrator is not required to conduct a database review of an applicant or employee if division (G) of this section applies. A database review shall determine whether the applicant or employee is included in any of the following:

(1) The excluded parties list system that is maintained by the United States general services administration pursuant to subpart 9.4 of the federal acquisition regulation and available at the federal web site known as the system for award management;

(2) The list of excluded individuals and entities maintained by the office of inspector general in the United States department of health and human services pursuant to the "Social Security Act," sections 1128 and 1156, 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7 and 1320c-5;

(3) The registry of MR/DD employees established under section 5123.52 of the Revised Code;

(4) The internet-based sex offender and child-victim offender database established under division (A)(11) of section 2950.13 of the Revised Code;

(5) The internet-based database of inmates established under section 5120.66 of the Revised Code;

(6) The state nurse aide registry established under section 3721.32 of the Revised Code;

(7) Any other database, if any, specified in rules adopted under this section.

(F)(1) As a condition of employing for hiring any applicant in into a direct-care position, the chief administrator of a responsible party shall request that the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation conduct a criminal records check of the applicant. If rules adopted under this section so require, the chief administrator of a responsible party shall request that the superintendent conduct a criminal records check of an employee at times specified in the rules as a condition of continuing to employ for retaining the employee in a direct-care position. However, the chief administrator is not required to request the criminal records check of the applicant or employee if division (G) of this section applies or the responsible party is prohibited by division (C)(1) of this section from employing hiring the applicant or continuing to employ retaining the employee in a direct-care position. If an applicant or employee for whom a criminal records check request is required by this section does not present proof of having been a resident of this state for the five-year period immediately prior to the date the criminal records check is requested or provide evidence that within that five-year period the superintendent has requested information about the applicant or employee from the federal bureau of investigation in a criminal records check, the chief administrator shall request that the superintendent obtain information from the federal bureau of investigation as part of the criminal records check. Even if an applicant or employee for whom a criminal records check request is required by this section presents proof of having been a resident of this state for the five-year period, the chief administrator may request that the superintendent include information from the federal bureau of investigation in the criminal records check.

(2) The chief administrator shall do all of the following:

(a) Provide to each applicant and employee for whom a criminal records check request is required by this section a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section;

(b) Obtain the completed form and standard impression sheet from the applicant or employee;

(c) Forward the completed form and standard impression sheet to the superintendent.

(3) A responsible party shall pay to the bureau of criminal identification and investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each criminal records check the responsible party requests under this section. A responsible party may charge an applicant a fee not exceeding the amount the responsible party pays to the bureau under this section if both of the following apply:

(a) The responsible party notifies the applicant at the time of initial application for employment hiring into the position in question of the amount of the fee and that, unless the fee is paid, the applicant will not be considered for employment the hiring.

(b) The medicaid program does not pay the responsible party for the fee it pays to the bureau under this section.

(G) Divisions (D) to (F) of this section do not apply with regard to an applicant or employee if the applicant or employee is referred to a responsible party by an employment service that supplies full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for direct-care positions and both of the following apply:

(1) The chief administrator of the responsible party receives from the employment service confirmation that a review of the databases listed in division (E) of this section was conducted of the applicant or employee.

(2) The chief administrator of the responsible party receives from the employment service, applicant, or employee a report of the results of a criminal records check of the applicant or employee that has been conducted by the superintendent within the one-year period immediately preceding the following:

(a) In the case of an applicant, the date of the applicant's referral by the employment service to the responsible party;

(b) In the case of an employee, the date by which the responsible party would otherwise have to request a criminal records check of the employee under division (F) of this section.

(H)(1) A responsible party may employ conditionally hire an applicant for whom a criminal records check request is required by this section prior to obtaining the results of the criminal records check if the responsible party is not prohibited by division (C)(1) of this section from employing hiring the applicant in a direct-care position and either of the following applies:

(a) The chief administrator of the responsible party requests the criminal records check in accordance with division (F) of this section not later than five business days after the responsible party conditionally hires the applicant begins conditional employment.

(b) The applicant is referred to the responsible party by an employment service, the employment service or the applicant provides the chief administrator of the responsible party a letter that is on the letterhead of the employment service, the letter is dated and signed by a supervisor or another designated official of the employment service, and the letter states all of the following:

(i) That the employment service has requested the superintendent to conduct a criminal records check regarding the applicant;

(ii) That the requested criminal records check is to include a determination of whether the applicant has been convicted of, or pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense;

(iii) That the employment service has not received the results of the criminal records check as of the date set forth on the letter;

(iv) That the employment service promptly will send a copy of the results of the criminal records check to the chief administrator of the responsible party when the employment service receives the results.

(2) If a responsible party employs an applicant conditionally hires an applicant pursuant to division (H)(1)(b) of this section, the employment service, on its receipt of the results of the criminal records check, promptly shall send a copy of the results to the chief administrator of the responsible party.

(3) A responsible party that employs conditionally hires an applicant conditionally pursuant to division (H)(1)(a) or (b) of this section shall terminate the applicant's employment remove the conditionally hired applicant from any job duties that require a criminal records check if the results of the criminal records check, other than the results of any request for information from the federal bureau of investigation, are not obtained within the period ending sixty days after the date the request for the criminal records check is made. Regardless

Regardless of when the results of the criminal records check are obtained, if the results indicate that the conditionally hired applicant has been convicted of, or pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense, the responsible party shall terminate the conditionally hired applicant's employment unless the applicant meets standards specified in rules adopted under this section that permit the responsible party to employ hire the applicant and the responsible party chooses to employ hire the applicant. Termination of employment under this division shall be considered just cause for discharge for purposes of division (D)(2) of section 4141.29 of the Revised Code if the applicant makes any attempt to deceive the responsible party about the applicant's criminal record.

(I) The report of any criminal records check conducted pursuant to a request made under this section is not a public record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not be made available to any person other than the following:

(1) The applicant or employee who is the subject of the criminal records check or the applicant's or employee's representative;

(2) The chief administrator of the responsible party requesting the criminal records check record or the administrator's representative;

(3) The administrator of any other facility, agency, or program that provides community-based long-term care services that is owned or operated by the same entity that owns or operates the responsible party that requested the criminal records check;

(4) The employment service that requested the criminal records check;

(5) The director of aging or a person authorized by the director to monitor a responsible party's compliance with this section;

(6) The medicaid director and the staff of the department of medicaid who are involved in the administration of the medicaid program if either of the following apply:

(a) In the case of a criminal records check requested by a provider or subcontractor, the provider or subcontractor also is a waiver agency;

(b) In the case of a criminal records check requested by an employment service, the employment service makes the request for an applicant or employee the employment service refers to a provider or subcontractor that also is a waiver agency.

(7) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual involved in a case dealing with any of the following:

(a) A denial of employment hiring of the applicant or of retention of the employee;

(b) Employment or unemployment benefits of the applicant or employee;

(c) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid program or a program the department of aging administers.

(J) In a tort or other civil action for damages that is brought as the result of an injury, death, or loss to person or property caused by an applicant who a responsible party hires, or an employee who a responsible party employs, in a direct-care position, all of the following shall apply:

(1) If the responsible party employed hired the applicant or retained the employee in good faith and reasonable reliance on the report of a criminal records check requested under this section, the responsible party shall not be found negligent solely because of its reliance on the report, even if the information in the report is determined later to have been incomplete or inaccurate.

(2) If the responsible party employed conditionally hired the applicant in good faith on a conditional basis pursuant to division (H) of this section, the responsible party shall not be found negligent solely because it employed conditionally hired the applicant prior to receiving the report of a criminal records check requested under this section.

(3) If the responsible party in good faith employed hired the applicant or retained the employee because the applicant or employee meets standards specified in rules adopted under this section, the responsible party shall not be found negligent solely because the applicant or employee has been convicted of, or pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense.

(K) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section.

(1) The rules may do the following:

(a) Require employees to undergo database reviews and criminal records checks under this section;

(b) If the rules require employees to undergo database reviews and criminal records checks under this section, exempt one or more classes of employees from the requirements;

(c) For the purpose of division (E)(7) of this section, specify other databases that are to be checked as part of a database review conducted under this section.

(2) The rules shall specify all of the following:

(a) The meaning of the term "subcontractor";

(b) The procedures for conducting database reviews under this section;

(c) If the rules require employees to undergo database reviews and criminal records checks under this section, the times at which the database reviews and criminal records checks are to be conducted;

(d) If the rules specify other databases to be checked as part of the database reviews, the circumstances under which a responsible party is prohibited from employing hiring an applicant or continuing to employ retaining an employee who is found by a database review to be included in one or more of those databases;

(e) Standards that an applicant or employee must meet for a responsible party to be permitted to employ hire the applicant or continue to employ retain the employee in a direct-care position if the applicant or employee is found by a criminal records check required by this section to have been convicted of, or pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense.

Sec. 184.02.  (A) In addition to the powers and duties under sections 184.10 to 184.20 and 184.37 of the Revised Code, the third frontier commission may perform any act to ensure the performance of any function necessary or appropriate to carry out the purposes of, and exercise the powers granted under, sections 184.01 and 184.02 of the Revised Code. In addition, the commission may do any of the following:

(1) Adopt, amend, and rescind rules under section 111.15 of the Revised Code for the administration of any aspect of its operations;

(2) Adopt bylaws governing its operations, including bylaws that establish procedures and set policies as may be necessary to assist with the furtherance of its purposes;

(3) Appoint and set the compensation of employees needed to carry out its duties;

(4) Contract with, retain the services of, or designate, and fix the compensation of, such financial consultants, accountants, other consultants and advisors, and other independent contractors as may be necessary or desirable to carry out its duties;

(5) Solicit input and comments from the third frontier advisory board, and specialized industry, professional, and other relevant interest groups concerning its purposes;

(6) Facilitate alignment of the state's science and technology programs and activities;

(7) Make grants and loans to individuals, public agencies, private companies or organizations, or joint ventures for any of the broad range of activities related to its purposes.

(B) In addition to the powers and duties under sections 184.10 to 184.20 and 184.37 of the Revised Code, the commission shall do all of the following:

(1) Establish a competitive process for the award of grants and loans that is designed to fund the most meritorious proposals and, when appropriate, provide for peer review of proposals;

(2) Within ninety days after the end of each fiscal On or before the first day of August of each year, submit to the governor and the general assembly a report of the activities of the commission during the preceding fiscal year;

(3) With specific application to the biomedical research and technology transfer trust fund, periodically make strategic assessments of the types of state investments in biomedical research and biotechnology in the state that would likely create jobs and business opportunities in the state and produce the most beneficial long-term improvements to the public health of Ohioans, including, but not limited to, biomedical research and biotechnology initiatives that address tobacco-related illnesses as may be outlined in any master agreement. The commission shall award grants and loans from the fund pursuant to a process established under division (B)(1) of this section.

Sec. 190.01. As used in this division:

(A) "Subdivision" has the same meaning as in section 5705.01 of the Revised Code.

(B) "Eligible subdivision" means a subdivision that is located in an eligible county.

(C) "Eligible county" means a county appearing on the most recent determination certified by the chief of the division of oil and gas resources management under division (C)(2) of section 1509.11 of the Revised Code.

(D) "Foundation for Appalachian Ohio" means a nonprofit corporation named "The Foundation for Appalachian Ohio."

Sec. 190.02. (A) There is hereby created the Ohio shale products regional commission. The commission shall ensure the long-term growth and continued prosperity of eligible subdivisions by doing all of the following:

(1) Awarding grants from the severance tax endowment fund and the severance tax infrastructure fund;

(2) Identifying local match programs for investments in eligible subdivisions;

(3) Assisting the short-term and long-term needs of eligible subdivisions;

(4) Overseeing the long-term success of eligible subdivisions.

(B)(1) The commission shall consist of the following members, appointed by the governor:

(a) One member who is a county or civil engineer;

(b) One member with experience in local economic development;

(c) One member representing the region that includes all eligible counties;

(d) One member representing eligible counties;

(e) One member representing municipal corporations that are eligible subdivisions;

(f) One member representing townships that are eligible subdivisions;

(g) One member of the public recommended to the governor by the speaker of the house of representatives;

(h) One member of the public recommended to the governor by the president of the senate;

(i) The president of the foundation for Appalachian Ohio or the president's designee.

(2) In addition to the members described in division (B)(1) of this section, the commission shall consist of the following ex officio members:

(a) The director of natural resources;

(b) The chief investment officer of the nonprofit corporation formed under Chapter 187. of the Revised Code;

(c) The director of transportation;

(d) The director of the governor's office of Appalachian Ohio.

(C) The governor shall appoint the first members of the commission not later than October 1, 2014. Commission members described in divisions (B)(1)(a) to (h) of this section shall serve four-year terms, except that for the first term beginning after the effective date of this section, members described in divisions (B)(1)(c), (d), (f), and (g) of this section each shall serve a two-year term. The member described in division (B)(1)(i) of this section shall continue to serve until the member is no longer eligible to serve on the commission or is removed by the governor for any of the reasons described in section 3.04 of the Revised Code.

Members described in divisions (B)(1)(a) to (h) of this section may be reappointed. Each member shall hold office until the later of the end of the term for which the member was appointed or the date the member's successor takes office. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring before the expiration of the term for which the member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the remainder of the unexpired term. A vacancy in the commission shall be filled in the same manner as the original appointment. Members described in division (B)(1) of this section may be removed by the governor for any of the reasons described in section 3.04 of the Revised Code.

The governor shall not appoint an individual to the commission, nor shall an individual serve on the commission if the individual has been convicted of or pleaded guilty or no contest to a felony offense. Members under indictment for a felony offense shall resign by force of law from the commission immediately upon indictment.

A member described in division (B)(1) of this section who fails to attend at least sixty per cent of the meetings of the commission during any two-year period shall resign by force of law from the commission immediately upon failing to meet this requirement.

(D) At the first meeting of the commission, which shall occur not later than one year after the effective date of this section, members of the commission shall elect a chairperson and a vice-chairperson. The vice-chairperson shall assume the duties of the chairperson in the absence of the chairperson. The commission shall meet annually or more frequently at the call of the chairperson. A majority of the commission constitutes a quorum. The member described in division (B)(1)(i) of this section shall not serve as a chairperson or vice-chairperson. The commission is a public body for purposes of section 121.22 of the Revised Code. Records of the commission are public records for purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code.

(E) Each member shall be reimbursed for travel expenses actually and necessarily incurred in the performance of their duties for the commission. The commission may approve and incur expenses that are necessary to assist the commission in the performance of its duties, including engaging the services of an attorney or a specialist to advise the commission on matters before it.

(F) As requested by the commission, the governor's office of Appalachian Ohio shall provide staff and administrative assistance to the commission, including assistance to prepare the report required under division (H) of this section.

(G) Expenses incurred by the Ohio shale products regional commission or members of the commission under division (E) of this section and expenses incurred by the governor's office of Appalachian Ohio for any assistance provided under division (F) of this section shall be paid by the commission from the severance tax infrastructure fund. After July 1, 2025, if the payment from the severance tax infrastructure fund would exceed the amount of interest earned on money in the fund during the preceding fiscal year, the excess shall be paid from the severance tax endowment fund. If the payment from the severance tax endowment fund would exceed the amount of interest earned on money in the fund during the preceding fiscal year, the excess shall be paid from the severance tax infrastructure fund.

(H) On or before the first day of November of each year, the commission shall submit a report to the governor that includes financial statements for the severance tax endowment fund and the severance tax infrastructure fund and information about persons or eligible subdivisions requesting funds from the commission, the amount so requested, and the purpose to which the requested funds were required to be used. The report shall also include the names of any persons or eligible subdivisions receiving funds from the commission, any amount so distributed, and the purpose for which the requested funds were required to be used. The report is subject to audit by the auditor of state under Chapter 117. of the Revised Code.

Sec. 190.03. There is hereby created the severance tax infrastructure fund, which shall be in the custody of the treasurer of state, but shall not be a part of the state treasury. The fund shall consist of money transferred to it from the severance tax receipts fund under section 5749.02 of the Revised Code. Money in the fund shall be used by the Ohio shale products regional commission for the public purpose of awarding grants to eligible subdivisions to support and supplement investments in those subdivisions and to pay the expenses of the commission or members of the commission under division (E) of section 190.02 of the Revised Code and the expenses of the governor's office of Appalachian Ohio as authorized under division (F) of section 190.02 of the Revised Code. Interest earned on the money in the fund shall be credited to the fund.

The commission is the trustee of the severance tax infrastructure fund. Disbursements from the fund shall be paid by the treasurer of state only upon instruments duly authorized by the commission. At the request of the commission, the treasurer of state shall select and contract with one or more investment managers to invest money credited to the fund. The eligible list of investments shall be the same as for the public employees retirement system under section 145.11 of the Revised Code. All investments shall be subject to the same limitations and requirements as the retirement system under that section and sections 145.112 and 145.113 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 190.04. There is hereby created the severance tax endowment fund, which shall be in the custody of the treasurer of state, but shall not be a part of the state treasury. The fund shall consist of money transferred to it from the severance tax receipts fund under section 5749.02 of the Revised Code. Money in the fund shall be used by the Ohio shale products regional commission for the public purpose of awarding grants for projects in subdivisions that were eligible subdivisions for any fiscal year that target long-term growth and continued prosperity in those subdivisions and to pay the expenses of the commission or members of the commission under division (E) of section 190.02 of the Revised Code and the expenses of the governor's office of Appalachian Ohio as authorized under division (F) of section 190.02 of the Revised Code.

The commission is the trustee of the severance tax endowment fund. Disbursements from the fund shall be paid by the treasurer of state only upon instruments duly authorized by the commission. At the request of the commission, the treasurer of state shall select and contract with one or more investment managers to invest money credited to the fund. The eligible list of investments shall be the same as for the public employees retirement system under section 145.11 of the Revised Code. All investments shall be subject to the same limitations and requirements as the retirement system under that section and sections 145.112 and 145.113 of the Revised Code.

The commission shall not prepare instruments requesting disbursement from the severance tax endowment fund before July 1, 2025. The treasurer of state shall not disburse money from the severance tax endowment fund before July 1, 2025.

Sec. 191.01.  As used in this chapter:

(A) "Administrative safeguards," "availability," "confidentiality," "integrity," "physical safeguards," and "technical safeguards" have the same meanings as in 45 C.F.R. 164.304.

(B) "Business associate," "covered entity," "health plan," "individually identifiable health information," and "protected health information" have the same meanings as in 45 C.F.R. 160.103.

(C) "Executive director of the office of health transformation" or "executive director" means the executive director of the office of health transformation or the chief administrative officer of a successor governmental entity responsible for health system oversight in this state.

(D) "Government program providing public benefits" means any program administered by a state agency that has been identified, pursuant to section 191.02 of the Revised Code, by the executive director of the office of health transformation in consultation with the individuals specified in that section.

(E) "Office of health transformation" means the office of health transformation created by executive order 2011-02K.

(F) "Operating protocol" means a protocol adopted by the executive director of the office of health transformation or the executive director's designee under division (D) of section 191.06 of the Revised Code.

(G) "Participating agency" means a state agency that participates in a health transformation initiative as specified in the one or more operating protocols adopted for the initiative under division (D) of section 191.06 of the Revised Code.

(H) "Personally identifiable information" means information that meets both of the following criteria:

(1) It identifies an individual or there is a reasonable basis to believe that it may be used to identify an individual;

(2) It relates to an individual's eligibility for, application for, or receipt of public benefits from a government program providing public benefits.

(I) "State agency" means each of the following:

(1) The department of administrative services;

(2) The department of aging;

(3) The development services agency;

(4) The department of developmental disabilities;

(5) The department of education;

(6) The department of health;

(7) The department of insurance;

(8) The department of job and family services;

(9) The department of medicaid;

(10) The department of mental health and addiction services;

(11) The department of rehabilitation and correction;

(12) The department of taxation;

(13) The department of veterans services;

(14) The department of youth services;

(15) The opportunities for Ohioans with disabilities agency.

(J) "Unsecured" has the same meaning as in 16 C.F.R. 318.2.

Sec. 321.50. Every county treasurer who receives money from the county severance tax fund under division (C)(7)(b)(ii) of section 5749.02 of the Revised Code shall create in the county treasury a severance tax fund. The treasurer shall deposit any money so received in the fund. The treasurer shall notify the county auditor whenever the treasurer deposits money in the fund.

Money in a county's severance tax fund shall be distributed according to an order of the county budget commission to subdivisions located in the county according to procedures and standards prescribed by the budget commission. The treasurer shall transfer money from the severance tax fund to subdivisions located in the county as prescribed in such order.

Sec. 340.02.  (A) For each alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district, there shall be appointed a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services consisting of eighteen members or fourteen members. Should the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services elect to remain at eighteen members, as provided under section 340.02 of the Revised Code as it existed immediately prior to the date of this amendment, the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services and the board of county commissioners shall not be required to take any action. Should the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services elect a recommendation to become a fourteen-member board, that recommendation must be approved by the board of county commissioners of the county in which the alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health district is located in order for the transition to a fourteen-member board to occur. Not later than September 30, 2013, each board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services wishing to become a fourteen-member board shall notify the board of county commissioners of that recommendation. Failure of the board of county commissioners to take action within thirty days after receipt of the recommendation shall be deemed agreement by the board of county commissioners to transition to a fourteen-member board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services. Should the board of county commissioners reject the recommendation, the board of county commissioners shall adopt a resolution stating that rejection within thirty days after receipt of the recommendation. Upon adoption of the resolution, the board of county commissioners shall meet with the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services to discuss the matter. After the meeting, the board of county commissioners shall notify the department of mental health and addiction services of its election not later than January 1, 2014. In a joint-county district, a majority of the boards of county commissioners must not reject the recommendation of a joint-county board to become a fourteen-member board in order for the transition to a fourteen-member board to occur. Should the joint-county district have an even number of counties, and the boards of county commissioners of these counties tie in terms of whether or not to accept the recommendation of the alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services board, the recommendation of the alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service board to become a fourteen-member board shall prevail. The election shall be final. Failure to provide notice of its election to the department on or before January 1, 2014, shall constitute an election to continue to operate as an eighteen-member board, which election shall also be final. If an existing board provides timely notice of its election to transition to operate as a fourteen-member board, the number of board members may decline from eighteen to fourteen by attrition as current members' terms expire. However, the composition of the board must reflect the requirements set forth in this section for fourteen-member boards. For all boards, half of the members shall be interested in mental health services and half of the members shall be interested in alcohol, drug, or gambling addiction services. All members shall be residents of the service district. The membership shall, as nearly as possible, reflect the composition of the population of the service district as to race and sex.

(B) For boards operating as eighteen-member boards, the director of mental health and addiction services shall appoint eight members of the board and the board of county commissioners shall appoint ten members. For boards operating as fourteen-member boards, the director of mental health and addiction services shall appoint six members of the board and the board of county commissioners shall appoint eight members. In a joint-county district, the county commissioners of each participating county shall appoint members in as nearly as possible the same proportion as that county's population bears to the total population of the district, except that at least one member shall be appointed from each participating county.

(C) The director of mental health and addiction services shall ensure that at least one member of the board is a clinician with experience in the delivery of mental health services, at least one member of the board is a person who has received or is receiving mental health services paid for by public funds, at least one member of the board is a parent or other relative of such a person, at least one member of the board is a clinician with experience in the delivery of addiction services, at least one member of the board is a person who has received or is receiving addiction services paid for by public funds, and at least one member of the board is a parent or other relative of such a person. A single member who meets both qualifications may fulfill the requirement for a clinician with experience in the delivery of mental health services and a clinician with experience in the delivery of addiction services.

(D) No member or employee of a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services shall serve as a member of the board of any provider with which the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services has entered into a contract for the provision of services or facilities. No member of a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services shall be an employee of any provider with which the board has entered into a contract for the provision of services or facilities. No person shall be an employee of a board and such a provider unless the board and provider both agree in writing.

(E) No person shall serve as a member of the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services whose spouse, child, parent, brother, sister, grandchild, stepparent, stepchild, stepbrother, stepsister, father-in-law, mother-in-law, son-in-law, daughter-in-law, brother-in-law, or sister-in-law serves as a member of the board of any provider with which the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services has entered into a contract for the provision of services or facilities. No person shall serve as a member or employee of the board whose spouse, child, parent, brother, sister, stepparent, stepchild, stepbrother, stepsister, father-in-law, mother-in-law, son-in-law, daughter-in-law, brother-in-law, or sister-in-law serves as a county commissioner of a county or counties in the alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district.

(F) Each year each board member shall attend at least one inservice training session provided or approved by the department of mental health and addiction services.

(G) For boards operating as eighteen-member boards, each member shall be appointed for a term of four years, commencing the first day of July, except that one-third of initial appointments to a newly established board, and to the extent possible to expanded boards, shall be for terms of two years, one-third of initial appointments shall be for terms of three years, and one-third of initial appointments shall be for terms of four years. For boards operating as fourteen-member boards, each member shall be appointed for a term of four years, commencing the first day of July, except that four of the initial appointments to a newly established board, and to the extent possible to expanded boards, shall be for terms of two years, five initial appointments shall be for terms of three years, and five initial appointments shall be for terms of four years. No member shall serve more than two consecutive four-year terms under the same appointing authority. A member may serve for three consecutive terms under the same appointing authority only if one of the terms is for less than two years. A member who has served two consecutive four-year terms or three consecutive terms totaling less than ten years is eligible for reappointment by the same appointing authority one year following the end of the second or third term, respectively.

When a vacancy occurs, appointment for the expired or unexpired term shall be made in the same manner as an original appointment. The appointing authority shall be notified by certified mail of any vacancy and shall fill the vacancy within sixty days following that notice.

Any member of the board may be removed from office by the appointing authority for neglect of duty, misconduct, or malfeasance in office, and shall be removed by the appointing authority if the member is barred by this section from serving as a board member. The member shall be informed in writing of the charges and afforded an opportunity for a hearing. Upon the absence of a member within one year from either four board meetings or from two board meetings without prior notice, the board shall notify the appointing authority, which may vacate the appointment and appoint another person to complete the member's term.

Members of the board shall serve without compensation, but shall be reimbursed for actual and necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their official duties, as defined by rules of the department of mental health and addiction services.

Sec. 340.021.  (A) In an alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district where the board of county commissioners has established an alcohol and drug addiction services board, the community mental health board established under former section 340.02 of the Revised Code shall serve as the entity responsible for providing mental health services in the county. A community mental health board has all the powers, duties, and obligations of a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services with regard to mental health services. An alcohol and drug addiction services board has all the powers, duties, and obligations of a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services with regard to addiction services. Any provision of the Revised Code that refers to a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services with regard to mental health services also refers to a community mental health board and any provision that refers to a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services with regard to alcohol and drug addiction services also refers to an alcohol and drug addiction services board.

An alcohol and drug addiction services board shall consist of eighteen members or fourteen members, at the election of the board. Not later than January 1, 2014, each alcohol and drug addiction services board shall notify the department of mental health and addiction services of its election to operate as an eighteen-member board or to operate as a fourteen-member board. The election shall be final. Failure to provide notice of its election to the department on or before January 1, 2014, shall constitute an election to continue to operate as an eighteen-member board. If an existing board provides timely notice of its election to operate as a fourteen-member board, the number of board members may decline from eighteen to fourteen by attrition as current members' terms expire. However, the composition of the board must reflect the requirements set forth in this section and in applicable provisions of section 340.02 of the Revised Code for fourteen-member boards. For boards operating as eighteen-member boards, six members shall be appointed by the director of mental health and addiction services and twelve members shall be appointed by the board of county commissioners. The director of mental health and addiction services shall ensure that at least one member of the board is a person who has received or is receiving services for alcohol, drug, or gambling addiction paid for with public funds, at least one member is a parent or relative of such a person, and at least one member is a clinician with experience in the delivery of addiction services. The membership of the board shall, as nearly as possible, reflect the composition of the population of the service district as to race and sex. Members shall be residents of the service district and shall be interested in alcohol, drug, or gambling addiction services. Requirements for membership, including prohibitions against certain family and business relationships, and terms of office shall be the same as those for members of boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services.

A community mental health board shall consist of eighteen members or fourteen members, at the election of the board. Not later than January 1, 2014, each community mental health board shall notify the department of mental health and addiction services of its election to operate as an eighteen-member board or to operate as a fourteen-member board. The election shall be final. Failure to provide notice of its election to the department on or before January 1, 2014, shall constitute an election to continue to operate as an eighteen-member board. If an existing board provides timely notice of its election to operate as a fourteen-member board, the number of board members may decline from eighteen to fourteen by attrition as current members' terms expire. However, the composition of the board must reflect the requirements set forth in this section and in applicable provisions of section 340.02 of the Revised Code for fourteen-member boards. For boards operating as eighteen-member boards, six members shall be appointed by the director of mental health and addiction services and twelve members shall be appointed by the board of county commissioners. The director of mental health and addiction services shall ensure that at least one member of the board is a person who has received or is receiving mental health services paid for with public funds, at least one member is a parent or relative of such a person, and at least one member is a clinician with experience in the delivery of mental health services. The membership of the board as nearly as possible shall reflect the composition of the population of the service district as to race and sex. Members shall be residents of the service district and shall be interested in mental health services. Requirements for membership, including prohibitions against certain family and business relationships, and terms of office shall be the same as those for members of boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services.

(B)(1) If a board of county commissioners subject to division (A) of this section did not adopt a final resolution providing for a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services on or before July 1, 2007, the board of county commissioners may establish a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services on or after the effective date of this amendment September 23, 2008. To establish the board, the board of county commissioners shall adopt a resolution providing for the board's establishment. The composition of the board, the procedures for appointing members, and all other matters related to the board and its members are subject to section 340.02 of the Revised Code, with the following exceptions:

(a) For initial appointments to the board, the county's community mental health board and alcohol and drug addiction services board shall jointly recommend members of those boards for reappointment and shall submit the recommendations to the board of county commissioners and the director of mental health and addiction services.

(b) To the greatest extent possible, the appointing authorities shall appoint the initial members from among the members jointly recommended under division (B)(1)(a) of this section.

(2) If a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services is established pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section, the board has the same rights, privileges, immunities, powers, and duties that were possessed by the county's community mental health board and alcohol and drug addiction services board. When the board is established, all property and obligations of the community mental health board and alcohol and drug addiction services board shall be transferred to the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services.

Sec. 718.15.  A municipal corporation, by ordinance, may grant a refundable or nonrefundable credit against its tax on income to a taxpayer that also receives a tax credit under section 122.17 of the Revised Code to foster job creation in the municipal corporation. If a credit is granted under this section, it shall be measured as a percentage of the new income tax revenue the municipal corporation derives from new employees of the taxpayer and shall be for a term not exceeding fifteen years. Before the municipal corporation passes an ordinance granting a credit, the municipal corporation and the taxpayer shall enter into an agreement specifying all the conditions of the credit.

Sec. 718.151. A municipal corporation, by ordinance, may grant a refundable or nonrefundable credit against its tax on income to a taxpayer that receives a nonrefundable tax credit under section 122.171 of the Revised Code and may grant a refundable credit against its tax on income to a taxpayer that receives a refundable tax credit under that section for the purpose of fostering job retention in the municipal corporation. If a credit is granted under this section, it shall be measured as a percentage of the income tax revenue the municipal corporation derives from the retained employees of the taxpayer, and shall be for a term not exceeding fifteen years. Before a municipal corporation passes an ordinance allowing such a credit, the municipal corporation and the taxpayer shall enter into an agreement specifying all the conditions of the credit.

Sec. 901.22.  (A) The director of agriculture, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt rules that do all of the following:

(1) Establish procedures and eligibility criteria for making matching grants to municipal corporations, counties, townships, soil and water conservation districts established under Chapter 1515. of the Revised Code, and charitable organizations described in division (B) of section 5301.69 of the Revised Code for the purchase of agricultural easements. With respect to agricultural easements that are purchased or proposed to be purchased with such matching grants that consist in whole or in part of moneys from the clean Ohio agricultural easement fund created in section 901.21 of the Revised Code, the rules shall establish all of the following:

(a) Procedures for all of the following:

(i) Soliciting and accepting applications for matching grants;

(ii) Participation by local governments and by the public in the process of making matching grants to charitable organizations;

(iii) Notifying local governments, charitable organizations, and organizations that represent the interests of farmers of the ranking system established in rules adopted under division (A)(1)(b) of this section.

(b) A ranking system for applications for the matching grants that is based on the soil type, proximity of the land or other land that is conducive to agriculture as defined by rules adopted under this section and that is the subject of an application to other agricultural land or other land that is conducive to agriculture as defined by rules adopted under this section and that is already or is in the process of becoming permanently protected from development, farm stewardship, development pressure, and, if applicable, a local comprehensive land use plan involved with a proposed agricultural easement. The rules shall require that preference be given to proposed agricultural easements that involve the greatest proportion of all of the following:

(i) Prime soils, unique or locally important soils, microclimates, or similar features;

(ii) Land that is adjacent to or that is in close proximity to other agricultural land or other land that is conducive to agriculture as defined by rules adopted under this section and that is already or is in the process of becoming permanently protected from development, by agricultural easement or otherwise, so that a buffer would exist between the land involving the proposed agricultural easement and areas that have been developed or likely will be developed for purposes other than agriculture;

(iii) The use of best management practices, including federally or state approved conservation plans, and a history of substantial compliance with applicable federal and state laws;

(iv) Development pressure that is imminent, but not a result of current location in the direct path of urban development;

(v) Areas identified for agricultural protection in local comprehensive land use plans.

(c) Any other criteria that the director determines are necessary for selecting applications for matching grants;

(d) Requirements regarding the information that must be included in the annual monitoring report that must be prepared for an agricultural easement under division (E)(2) of section 5301.691 of the Revised Code, procedures for submitting a copy of the report to the office of farmland preservation in the department of agriculture, and requirements and procedures governing corrective actions that may be necessary to enforce the terms of the agricultural easement.

(2) Establish provisions that shall be included in the instrument conveying to a municipal corporation, county, township, soil and water conservation district, or charitable organization any agricultural easement purchased with matching grant funds provided by the director under this section, including, without limitation, all of the following provisions:

(a) A provision stating that an easement so purchased may be extinguished only if an unexpected change in the conditions of or surrounding the land that is subject to the easement makes impossible or impractical the continued use of the land for the purposes described in the easement, or if the requirements of the easement are extinguished by judicial proceedings;

(b) A provision requiring that, upon the sale, exchange, or involuntary conversion of the land subject to the easement, the holder of the easement shall be paid an amount of money that is at least equal to the proportionate value of the easement compared to the total value of the land at the time the easement was acquired;

(c) A provision requiring that, upon receipt of the portion of the proceeds of a sale, exchange, or involuntary conversion described in division (A)(2)(b) of this section, the municipal corporation, county, township, soil and water conservation district, or charitable organization remit to the director an amount of money equal to the percentage of the cost of purchasing the easement it received as a matching grant under this section.

Moneys received by the director pursuant to rules adopted under division (A)(2)(c) of this section shall be credited to the agricultural easement purchase fund created in section 901.21 of the Revised Code.

(3) Establish a provision that provides a charitable organization, municipal corporation, township, county, or soil and water conservation district with the option of purchasing agricultural easements either in installments or with a lump sum payment. The rules shall include a requirement that a charitable organization, municipal corporation, township, county, or soil and water conservation district negotiate with the seller of the agricultural easement concerning any installment payment terms, including the dates and amounts of payments and the interest rate on the outstanding balance. The rules also shall require the director to approve any method of payment that is undertaken in accordance with the rules adopted under division (A)(3) of this section.

(4) Establish any other requirements that the director considers to be necessary or appropriate to implement or administer a program to make matching grants under this section and monitor those grants.

(B) The director may develop guidelines regarding the acquisition of agricultural easements by the department of agriculture and the provisions of instruments conveying those easements. The director may make the guidelines available to public and private entities authorized to acquire and hold agricultural easements.

(C) The director may provide technical assistance in developing a program for the acquisition and monitoring of agricultural easements to public and private entities authorized to hold agricultural easements. The technical assistance may include, without limitation, reviewing and providing advisory recommendations regarding draft instruments conveying agricultural easements.

(D)(1) The director may make matching grants from the agricultural easement purchase fund and the clean Ohio agricultural easement fund to municipal corporations, counties, townships, soil and water conservation districts, and charitable organizations to assist those political subdivisions and charitable organizations in purchasing agricultural easements. Application for a matching grant shall be made on forms prescribed and provided by the director. The matching grants shall be made in compliance with the criteria and procedures established in rules adopted under this section. Instruments conveying agricultural easements purchased with matching grant funds provided under this section, at a minimum, shall include the mandatory provisions set forth in those rules.

Matching grants made under this division using moneys from the clean Ohio agricultural easement fund created in section 901.21 of the Revised Code may provide up to seventy-five per cent of the value of an agricultural easement as determined by a general real estate appraiser who is certified under Chapter 4763. of the Revised Code or as determined through a points-based appraisal system established under division (D)(2) of this section. Not less than twenty-five per cent of the value of the agricultural easement shall be provided by the recipient of the matching grant or donated by the person who is transferring the easement to the grant recipient. The amount of such a matching grant used for the purchase of a single agricultural easement shall not exceed one million dollars.

(2) The director shall establish a points-based appraisal system for the purposes of division (D)(1) of this section. The director may include any or all of the following factors in the system:

(a) Whether the applicable county auditor has determined that the land is land that is devoted exclusively to agriculture for the purposes of sections 5713.30 to 5713.38 of the Revised Code;

(b) Changes in land values following the completion of the applicable county auditor's reappraisal or triennial update;

(c) Soil types and productivity;

(d) Proximity of the land to land that is already subject to an agricultural easement, conservation easement created under sections 5301.67 to 5301.70 of the Revised Code, or similar land-use limitation;

(e) Proximity of the land to water and sewer lines, road interchanges, and nonagricultural development;

(f) Parcel size and roadway frontage of the land;

(g) Existence of an agreement entered into under division (D) of section 1515.08 of the Revised Code or of an operation and management plan developed under division (A) of section 1511.021 of the Revised Code, as applicable;

(h) Existence of a nutrient management plan developed under division (A) of section 939.03 of the Revised Code, as applicable;

(i) Existence of a comprehensive plan that is adopted under section 303.02 or 519.02 of the Revised Code or that is adopted by the planning commission of a municipal corporation under section 713.06 of the Revised Code;

(i)(j) Any other factors that the director determines are necessary for inclusion in the system.

(E) An agricultural easement acquired as a result of a matching grant awarded under division (D) of this section may include a provision to preserve a unique natural or physical feature on the land so long as the use of the land remains predominantly agricultural.

(F) For any agricultural easement purchased with a matching grant that consists in whole or in part of moneys from the clean Ohio agricultural easement fund, the director shall be named as a grantee on the instrument conveying the easement, as shall the municipal corporation, county, township, soil and water conservation district, or charitable organization that receives the grant.

(G)(1) The director shall monitor and evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of the agricultural easement program as a farmland preservation tool. On or before July 1, 1999, and the first day of July of each year thereafter, the director shall prepare and submit a report to the chairpersons of the standing committees of the senate and the house of representatives that consider legislation regarding agriculture. The report shall consider and address the following criteria to determine the program's effectiveness:

(a) The number of agricultural easements purchased during the preceding year;

(b) The location of those easements;

(c) The number of acres of land preserved for agricultural use;

(d) The amount of money used by a municipal corporation, township, county, or soil and water conservation district from any fund to purchase the agricultural easements;

(e) The number of state matching grants given to purchase the agricultural easements;

(f) The amount of state matching grant moneys used to purchase the agricultural easements.

(2) The report also shall consider and include, at a minimum, the following information for each county to determine the program's efficiency:

(a) The total number of acres in the county;

(b) The total number of acres in current agricultural use;

(c) The total number of acres preserved for agricultural use in the preceding year;

(d) The average cost, per acre, of land preserved for agricultural use in the preceding year.

Sec. 903.01.  As used in this chapter:

(A) "Agricultural animal" means any animal generally used for food or in the production of food, including cattle, sheep, goats, rabbits, poultry, and swine; horses; alpacas; llamas; and any other animal included by the director of agriculture by rule. "Agricultural animal" does not include fish or other aquatic animals regardless of whether they are raised at fish hatcheries, fish farms, or other facilities that raise aquatic animals.

(B) "Animal feeding facility" means a lot, building, or structure where both of the following conditions are met:

(1) Agricultural animals have been, are, or will be stabled or confined and fed or maintained there for a total of forty-five days or more in any twelve-month period.

(2) Crops, vegetative forage growth, or post-harvest residues are not sustained in the normal growing season over any portion of the lot, building, or structure.

"Animal feeding facility" also includes land that is owned or leased by or otherwise is under the control of the owner or operator of the lot, building, or structure and on which manure originating from agricultural animals in the lot, building, or structure or a production area is or may be applied.

Two or more animal feeding facilities under common ownership shall be considered to be a single animal feeding facility for the purposes of this chapter if they adjoin each other or if they use a common area or system for the disposal of manure.

(C) "Animal feeding operation" has the same meaning as "animal feeding facility."

(D) "Cattle" includes, but is not limited to, heifers, steers, bulls, and cow and calf pairs.

(E) "Concentrated animal feeding facility" means an animal feeding facility with a total design capacity equal to or more than the number of animals specified in any of the categories in division (M) of this section.

(F) "Concentrated animal feeding operation" means an animal feeding facility that complies with one of the following:

(1) Has a total design capacity equal to or more than the number of animals specified in any of the categories in division (M) of this section;

(2) Satisfies the criteria in division (M), (Q), or (FF) of this section;

(3) Is designated by the director of agriculture as a medium or small concentrated animal feeding operation pursuant to rules.

(G) "Discharge" means to add from a point source to waters of the state.

(H) "Federal Water Pollution Control Act" means the "Federal Water Pollution Control Act Amendments of 1972," 86 Stat. 816, 33 U.S.C. 1251 et. seq., as amended, and regulations adopted under it.

(I) "Finalized," with respect to the programs required under division (A)(1) of section 903.02 and division (A)(1) of section 903.03 of the Revised Code, means that all rules that are necessary for the administration of this chapter have been adopted and all employees of the department of agriculture that are necessary for the administration of this chapter have been employed.

(J) "General permit" has the meaning that is established in rules.

(K) "Individual permit" has the meaning that is established in rules.

(L) "Installation permit" means a permit for the installation or modification of a disposal system or any part of a disposal system issued by the director of environmental protection under division (J)(1) of section 6111.03 of the Revised Code.

(M) "Large concentrated animal feeding operation" means an animal feeding facility that stables or confines at least the number of animals specified in any of the following categories:

(1) Seven hundred mature dairy cattle whether milked or dry;

(2) One thousand veal calves;

(3) One thousand cattle other than mature dairy cattle or veal calves;

(4) Two thousand five hundred swine that each weigh fifty-five pounds or more;

(5) Ten thousand swine that each weigh less than fifty-five pounds;

(6) Five hundred horses;

(7) Ten thousand sheep or lambs;

(8) Fifty-five thousand turkeys;

(9) Thirty thousand laying hens or broilers if the animal feeding facility uses a liquid manure handling system;

(10) One hundred twenty-five thousand chickens, other than laying hens, if the animal feeding facility uses a manure handling system that is not a liquid manure handling system;

(11) Eighty-two thousand laying hens if the animal feeding facility uses a manure handling system that is not a liquid manure handling system;

(12) Thirty thousand ducks if the animal feeding facility uses a manure handling system that is not a liquid manure handling system;

(13) Five thousand ducks if the animal feeding facility uses a liquid manure handling system.

(N) "Major concentrated animal feeding facility" means a concentrated animal feeding facility with a total design capacity of more than ten times the number of animals specified in any of the categories in division (M) of this section.

(O) "Manure" means any of the following wastes used in or resulting from the production of agricultural animals or direct agricultural products such as milk or eggs: animal excreta, discarded products, bedding, process waste water, process generated waste water, waste feed, silage drainage, and compost products resulting from mortality composting or the composting of animal excreta.

(P) "Manure storage or treatment facility" means any excavated, diked, or walled structure or combination of structures designed for the biological stabilization, holding, or storage of manure.

(Q) "Medium concentrated animal feeding operation" means an animal feeding facility that satisfies both of the following:

(1) The facility stables or confines the number of animals specified in any of the following categories:

(a) Two hundred to six hundred ninety-nine mature dairy cattle whether milked or dry;

(b) Three hundred to nine hundred ninety-nine veal calves;

(c) Three hundred to nine hundred ninety-nine cattle other than mature dairy cattle or veal calves;

(d) Seven hundred fifty to two thousand four hundred ninety-nine swine that each weigh fifty-five pounds or more;

(e) Three thousand to nine thousand nine hundred ninety-nine swine that each weigh less than fifty-five pounds;

(f) One hundred fifty to four hundred ninety-nine horses;

(g) Three thousand to nine thousand nine hundred ninety-nine sheep or lambs;

(h) Sixteen thousand five hundred to fifty-four thousand nine hundred ninety-nine turkeys;

(i) Nine thousand to twenty-nine thousand nine hundred ninety-nine laying hens or broilers if the animal feeding facility uses a liquid manure handling system;

(j) Thirty-seven thousand five hundred to one hundred twenty-four thousand nine hundred ninety-nine chickens, other than laying hens, if the animal feeding facility uses a manure handling system that is not a liquid manure handling system;

(k) Twenty-five thousand to eighty-one thousand nine hundred ninety-nine laying hens if the animal feeding facility uses a manure handling system that is not a liquid manure handling system;

(l) Ten thousand to twenty-nine thousand nine hundred ninety-nine ducks if the animal feeding facility uses a manure handling system that is not a liquid manure handling system;

(m) One thousand five hundred to four thousand nine hundred ninety-nine ducks if the animal feeding facility uses a liquid manure handling system.

(2) The facility does one of the following:

(a) Discharges pollutants into waters of the United States through a ditch constructed by humans, a flushing system constructed by humans, or another similar device constructed by humans;

(b) Discharges pollutants directly into waters of the United States that originate outside of and that pass over, across, or through the facility or otherwise come into direct contact with the animals at the facility.

"Medium concentrated animal feeding operation" includes an animal feeding facility that is designated by the director as a medium concentrated animal feeding operation pursuant to rules.

(R) "Mortality composting" means the controlled decomposition of organic solid material consisting of dead animals that stabilizes the organic fraction of the material.

(S) "NPDES permit" means a permit issued under the national pollutant discharge elimination system established in section 402 of the Federal Water Pollution Control Act and includes the renewal of such a permit. "NPDES permit" includes the federally enforceable provisions of a permit to operate into which NPDES permit provisions have been incorporated.

(T) "Permit" includes an initial, renewed, or modified permit to install, permit to operate, NPDES permit, and installation permit unless expressly stated otherwise.

(U) "Permit to install" means a permit issued under section 903.02 of the Revised Code.

(V) "Permit to operate" means a permit issued or renewed under section 903.03 of the Revised Code and includes incorporated NPDES permit provisions, if applicable.

(W) "Person" has the same meaning as in section 1.59 of the Revised Code and also includes the state, any political subdivision of the state, any interstate body created by compact, the United States, or any department, agency, or instrumentality of any of those entities.

(X) "Point source" has the same meaning as in the Federal Water Pollution Control Act.

(Y) "Pollutant" means dredged spoil, solid waste, incinerator residue, filter backwash, sewage, garbage, sewage sludge, munitions, chemical wastes, biological materials, radioactive materials except those regulated under the "Atomic Energy Act of 1954," 68 Stat. 919, 42 U.S.C. 2011, as amended, heat, wrecked or discarded equipment, rock, sand, cellar dirt, and industrial, municipal, and agricultural waste, including manure, discharged into water. "Pollutant" does not include either of the following:

(1) Sewage from vessels;

(2) Water, gas, or other material that is injected into a well to facilitate production of oil or gas, or water derived in association with oil and gas production and disposed of in a well, if the well that is used either to facilitate production or for disposal purposes is approved by the state and if the state determines that the injection or disposal will not result in the degradation of ground or surface water resources.

(Z) "Process generated waste water" means water that is directly or indirectly used in the operation of an animal feeding facility for any of the following:

(1) Spillage or overflow from animal watering systems;

(2) Washing, cleaning, or flushing pens, barns, manure pits, or other areas of an animal feeding facility;

(3) Direct contact swimming, washing, or spray cooling of animals;

(4) Dust control.

(AA) "Process waste water" means any process generated waste water and any precipitation, including rain or snow, that comes into contact with manure, litter, bedding, or any other raw material or intermediate or final material or product used in or resulting from the production of animals or direct products such as milk or eggs.

(BB) "Production area" means any of the following components of an animal feeding facility:

(1) Animal confinement areas, including, but not limited to, open lots, housed lots, feedlots, confinement houses, stall barns, free stall barns, milkrooms, milking centers, cowyards, barnyards, medication pens, animal walkways, and stables;

(2) Manure storage areas, including, but not limited to, manure storage or treatment facilities;

(3) Raw material storage areas, including, but not limited to, feed silos, silage bunkers, commodity buildings, and bedding materials;

(4) Waste containment areas, including, but not limited to, any of the following:

(a) An egg washing or egg processing facility;

(b) An area used in the storage, handling, treatment, or disposal of mortalities;

(c) Settling basins, runoff ponds, liquid impoundments, and areas within berms and diversions that are designed and maintained to separate uncontaminated storm water runoff from contaminated water and to contain and treat contaminated storm water runoff.

(CC) "Public meeting" means a nonadversarial public hearing at which a person may present written or oral statements for the director of agriculture's consideration and includes public hearings held under section 6111.12 of the Revised Code.

(DD) "Review compliance certificate" means a certificate issued under section 903.04 of the Revised Code.

(EE) "Rule" means a rule adopted under section 903.10 of the Revised Code.

(FF)(EE) "Small concentrated animal feeding operation" means an animal feeding facility that is not a large or medium concentrated animal feeding operation and that is designated by the director as a small concentrated animal feeding operation pursuant to rules.

(GG)(FF) "Waters of the state" has the same meaning as in section 6111.01 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 903.03.  (A)(1) Not later than one hundred eighty days after March 15, 2001, the director of agriculture shall prepare a program for the issuance of permits to operate under this section.

(2) Except for a concentrated animal feeding facility that is operating under an installation permit or a review compliance certificate, on and after the date on which the director has finalized the program required under division (A)(1) of this section, no person shall own or operate a concentrated animal feeding facility without a permit to operate issued by the director under this section.

(B) The director or the director's authorized representative may help an applicant for a permit to operate during the permitting process by providing guidance and technical assistance.

(C) An applicant for a permit to operate shall submit a fee in an amount established by rule together with, except as otherwise provided in division (E) of this section, an application to the director on a form that the director prescribes and provides. The applicant shall include with the application all of the following information:

(1) The name and address of the applicant, of all partners if the applicant is a partnership, of all members if the applicant is a limited liability company, or of all officers and directors if the applicant is a corporation, and of any other person who has a right to control or in fact controls management of the applicant or the selection of officers, directors, or managers of the applicant. As used in division (C)(1) of this section, "control" has the same meaning as in division (C)(1) of section 903.02 of the Revised Code.

(2) Information concerning the applicant's past compliance with laws pertaining to environmental protection that is required to be provided under section 903.05 of the Revised Code, if applicable;

(3) A manure management plan for the concentrated animal feeding facility that conforms to best management practices regarding the handling, storage, transportation, and land application of manure generated at the facility and that contains any other information required by rule;

(4) An insect and rodent control plan for the concentrated animal feeding facility that conforms to best management practices and is prepared in accordance with section 903.06 of the Revised Code;

(5) In the case of an application for a major concentrated animal feeding facility, written proof that the person who would be responsible for the supervision of the management and handling of manure at the facility has been issued a livestock manager certification in accordance with section 903.07 of the Revised Code or will obtain a livestock manager certification prior to applying any manure to land.

(D) The director shall issue permits to operate in accordance with section 903.09 of the Revised Code. The director shall deny a permit to operate if either of the following applies:

(1) The permit application contains misleading or false information;.

(2) The manure management plan or insect and rodent control plan fails to conform to best management practices.

Additional grounds for the denial of a permit to operate shall be those established in this chapter and in rules.

(E) The director shall issue general permits to operate for categories of concentrated animal feeding facilities that will apply in lieu of individual permits to operate, provided that each category of facilities meets all of the criteria established in rules for general permits to operate. A person who is required to obtain a permit to operate shall submit to the director a notice of the person's intent to be covered under an existing general permit or, at the person's option, shall submit an application for an individual permit to operate. Upon receipt of a notice of intent to be covered under an existing general permit, the director shall notify the applicant in writing that the person is covered by the general permit if the person satisfies the criteria established in rules for eligibility for such coverage. If the person is ineligible for coverage under the general permit, the director shall require the submission of an application for an individual permit to operate.

(F) A permit to operate shall be valid for a period of five years.

(G) A permit to operate may be renewed. An application for renewal of a permit to operate shall be submitted to the director at least one hundred eighty days prior to the expiration date of the permit to operate and shall comply with the requirements governing applications for permits to operate that are established under this section and by rules, including requirements pertaining to public notice and participation.

(H) The director may modify, suspend, or revoke a permit to operate in accordance with rules.

(I) The owner or operator of a concentrated animal feeding facility who proposes to make a major operational change at the facility shall submit an application for approval of the change to the director in accordance with rules.

Sec. 903.07.  (A) On and after the date that is established in rules by the director of agriculture, both of the following apply:

(1) The management and handling of manure at a major concentrated animal feeding facility, including the land application of manure or the removal of manure from a manure storage or treatment facility, shall be conducted only by or under the supervision of a person holding a livestock manager certification issued under this section. A person managing or handling manure who is acting under the instructions and control of a person holding a livestock manager certification is considered to be under the supervision of the certificate holder if the certificate holder is responsible for the actions of the person and is available when needed even though the certificate holder is not physically present at the time of the manure management or handling.

(2) No person shall transport and land apply annually or buy, sell, or land apply annually the volume of manure established in rules adopted by the director under division (E)(D)(5) of section 903.10 of the Revised Code unless the person holds a livestock manager certification issued under this section.

(B) The director shall issue a livestock manager certification to a person who has submitted a complete application for certification on a form prescribed and provided by the director, together with the appropriate application fee, and who has completed successfully the required training and has passed the required examination. The director may suspend or revoke a livestock manager certification and may reinstate a suspended or revoked livestock manager certification in accordance with rules.

(C) Information required to be included in an application for a livestock manager certification, the amount of the application fee, requirements regarding training and the examination, requirements governing the management and handling of manure, including the land application of manure, and requirements governing the keeping of records regarding the handling of manure, including the land application of manure, shall be established in rules.

Sec. 903.082. (A) The director of agriculture may determine that an animal feeding facility that is not a concentrated animal feeding facility nevertheless shall be required to apply for and receive a permit to operate when all of the following apply:

(1) The director has received from the chief of the division of soil and water resources in the department of natural resources a copy of an order issued specified a corrective action to be taken under section 1511.02 939.09 of the Revised Code that specifies that the animal feeding facility has caused agricultural pollution by failure to comply with standards established under that section and that the animal feeding facility therefore should be required to be permitted as a concentrated animal feeding facility.

(2) The director or the director's authorized representative has inspected the animal feeding facility.

(3) The director or the director's authorized representative finds that the facility is not being operated in a manner that protects the waters of the state.

(B) In a situation in which best management practices cannot be implemented without modifying the existing animal feeding facility, the owner or operator of the facility shall apply for a permit to install for the facility.

(C) In the case of an animal feeding facility for which a permit to operate is required under this section, a permit to operate shall not be required after the end of the five-year term of the permit if the problems that caused the facility to be required to obtain the permit have been corrected to the director's satisfaction.

Sec. 903.09. (A) Prior to issuing or modifying a permit to install, permit to operate, or NPDES permit, the director of agriculture shall issue a draft permit. The director or the director's representative shall mail notice of the issuance of a draft permit to the applicant and shall publish the notice once in a newspaper of general circulation in the county in which the concentrated animal feeding facility or discharger is located or proposed to be located. The director shall mail notice of the issuance of a draft permit and a copy of the draft permit to the board of county commissioners of the county and the board of township trustees of the township in which the concentrated animal feeding facility or discharger is located or proposed to be located. The director or the director's representative also shall provide notice of the issuance of a draft NPDES permit to any other persons that are entitled to notice under the Federal Water Pollution Control Act. Notice of the issuance of a draft permit to install, permit to operate, or NPDES permit shall include the address where written comments concerning the draft permit may be submitted and the period of time during which comments will be accepted as established by rule.

If the director receives written comments in an amount that demonstrates significant public interest, as defined by rule, in the draft permit, the director shall schedule one public meeting to provide information to the public and to hear comments pertinent to the draft permit. The notice of the public meeting shall be provided in the same manner as the notice of the issuance of the draft permit.

(B) If a person is required to obtain both a permit to install and a permit to operate, including any permit to operate with NPDES provisions, and public meetings are required for both permits, the public meetings for the permits shall be combined.

(C) The director shall apply the antidegradation policy adopted under section 6111.12 of the Revised Code to permits issued under this chapter to the same degree and under the same circumstances as it applies to permits issued under Chapter 6111. of the Revised Code. The director shall hold one public meeting to consider antidegradation issues when such a meeting is required by the antidegradation policy. When allowed by the antidegradation policy, the director shall hold the public meeting on antidegradation issues concurrently with any public meeting held for the draft permit.

(D) The director or the director's representative shall publish notice of the issuance of a final permit to install, permit to operate, or NPDES permit once in a newspaper of general circulation in the county in which the concentrated animal feeding facility or discharger is located.

(E) Notice or a public meeting is not required for the modification of a permit made with the consent of the permittee for the correction of typographical errors.

(F) The denial, modification, suspension, or revocation of a permit to install, permit to operate, or NPDES permit without the consent of the applicant or permittee shall be preceded by a proposed action stating the director's intention to issue an order with respect to the permit and the reasons for it.

The director shall mail to the applicant or the permittee notice of the director's proposed action to deny, modify, suspend, or revoke a permit to install, permit to operate, or NPDES permit. The director shall publish the notice once in a newspaper of general circulation in the county in which the concentrated animal feeding facility or concentrated animal feeding operation is located or proposed to be located. The director shall mail a copy of the notice of the proposed action to the board of county commissioners of the county and to the board of township trustees of the township in which the concentrated animal feeding facility or concentrated animal feeding operation is located or proposed to be located. The director also shall provide notice of the director's proposed action to deny, modify, suspend, or revoke a permit to install, permit to operate, or NPDES permit to any other person that is entitled to notice under the Federal Water Pollution Control Act. The notice of the director's proposed action to deny, modify, suspend, or revoke a permit to install, permit to operate, or NPDES permit shall include the address where written comments concerning the director's proposed action may be submitted and the period of time during which comments will be accepted as established by rule. If the director receives written comments in an amount that demonstrates significant public interest, as defined by rule, the director shall schedule one public meeting to provide information to the public and to hear comments pertinent to the proposed action. The notice of the public meeting shall be provided in the same manner as the notice of the director's proposed action.

The director shall not issue an order that makes the proposed action final until the applicant or permittee has had an opportunity for an adjudication hearing in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, except that section 119.12 of the Revised Code does not apply. An order of the director that finalizes the proposed action or an order issuing a permit without a prior proposed action may be appealed to the environmental review appeals commission under sections 3745.04 to 3745.06 of the Revised Code.

(G)(1) The director shall issue an order issuing or denying an application for a permit to operate that contains NPDES provisions or for a NPDES permit, as well as any application for a permit to install that is submitted simultaneously, not later than one hundred eighty days after receiving the application.

(2) In the case of an application for a permit to install or permit to operate that is not connected with an application for a NPDES permit, the director shall issue or propose to deny the permit not later than ninety days after receiving the application. If the director has proposed to deny the permit to install or permit to operate under division (G)(2) of this section, the director shall issue an order denying the permit or, if the director decides against the proposed denial, issuing the permit not later than one hundred eighty days after receiving the application. If the director denies the permit, the director shall notify the applicant in writing of the reason for the denial.

(H) All rulemaking and the issuance of civil penalties under this chapter shall comply with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.

(I) Upon the transfer of ownership of an animal feeding facility for which a permit to install, an installation permit, a review compliance certificate, or a permit to operate that contains no NPDES provisions has been issued, the permit or certificate shall be transferred to the new owner of the animal feeding facility except as provided in division (C) of section 903.05 of the Revised Code. In the case of the transfer of ownership of a point source for which a NPDES permit or a permit to operate that contains NPDES provisions has been issued, the permit shall be transferred in accordance with rules.

(J) Applications for installation permits for animal feeding facilities pending before the director of environmental protection on the date on which the director of agriculture has finalized the programs required under division (A)(1) of section 903.02 and division (A)(1) of section 903.03 of the Revised Code shall be transferred to the director of agriculture. In the case of an applicant who is required to obtain a permit to install and a permit to operate under sections 903.02 and 903.03, respectively, of the Revised Code, the director of agriculture shall process the pending application for an installation permit as an application for a permit to install and a permit to operate.

(K) Applications for NPDES permits for either of the following that are pending before the director of environmental protection on the date on which the United States environmental protection agency approves the NPDES program submitted by the director of agriculture under section 903.08 of the Revised Code shall be transferred to the director of agriculture:

(1) The discharge of pollutants from a concentrated animal feeding operation;

(2) The discharge of storm water resulting from an animal feeding facility.

In the case of an applicant who is required to obtain a NPDES permit under section 903.08 of the Revised Code, the director of agriculture shall process the pending application as an application for a NPDES permit under that section.

Sec. 903.10.  The director of agriculture may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that do all of the following:

(A) Establish all of the following concerning permits to install and permits to operate:

(1) A description of what constitutes a modification of a concentrated animal feeding facility;

(2) A description of what constitutes a major operational change at a concentrated animal feeding facility;

(3) The amount of the fee that must be submitted with each permit application and each application for a permit modification;

(4) Information that must be included in the designs and plans required to be submitted with an application for a permit to install and criteria for approving, disapproving, or requiring modification of the designs and plans;

(5) Information that must be included in a manure management plan required to be submitted with an application for a permit to operate;

(6) Information that must be included in an application for the modification of an installation permit, a permit to install, or a permit to operate;

(7) Information that must be included in an application for approval of a major operational change at a concentrated animal feeding facility;

(8) Any additional information that must be included with a permit application;

(9) Procedures for the issuance, denial, modification, transfer, suspension, and revocation of permits to install and permits to operate, including general permits;

(10) Procedures for the approval or denial of an application for approval of a major operational change at a concentrated animal feeding facility;

(11) Grounds for the denial, modification, suspension, or revocation of permits to install and permits to operate in addition to the grounds established in division (D) of section 903.02 and division (D) of section 903.03 of the Revised Code;

(12) Grounds for the denial of an application for approval of a major operational change at a concentrated animal feeding facility;

(13) A requirement that a person that is required to obtain both a permit to install and a permit to operate submit applications for those permits simultaneously;

(14) A definition of "general permit to operate" that establishes categories of concentrated animal feeding facilities to be covered under such a permit and a definition of "individual permit to operate" together with the criteria for issuing a general permit to operate and the criteria for determining a person's eligibility to operate under a general permit to operate.

(B) Establish all of the following for the purposes of review compliance certificates issued under section 903.04 of the Revised Code:

(1) The form of a certificate;

(2) Criteria for what constitutes a significant capital expenditure under division (D) of that section;

(3) Deadlines and procedures for submitting information under division (E)(2) of that section.

(C) Establish best management practices that minimize water pollution, odors, insects, and rodents, that govern the land application of manure that originated at a concentrated animal feeding facility, and that govern all of the following activities that occur at a concentrated animal feeding facility:

(1) Manure management, including the storage, handling, transportation, and land application of manure. Rules adopted under division (C)(B)(1) of this section shall include practices that prevent surface and ground water contamination caused by the storage of manure or the land application of manure and prevent the contamination of water in drainage tiles that may be caused by that application.

(2) Disposal of dead livestock;

(3) Production of biodiesel, biomass energy, electric or heat energy, and biologically derived methane gas as those terms are defined in section 5713.30 of the Revised Code;

(4) Any other activity that the director considers appropriate.

Best management practices established in rules adopted under division (C)(B) of this section shall not conflict with best management practices established in rules that have been adopted under any other section of the Revised Code. The rules adopted under division (C)(B) of this section shall establish guidelines that require owners or operators of concentrated animal feeding facilities to consult with and work with local officials, including boards of county commissioners and boards of township trustees, in addressing issues related to local government infrastructure needs and the financing of that infrastructure.

(D)(C) Establish all of the following concerning insect and rodent control plans required under section 903.06 of the Revised Code:

(1) The information to be included in an insect and rodent control plan;

(2) Criteria for approving, disapproving, or requiring modification of an insect and rodent control plan;

(3) Criteria for determining compliance with or violation of an insect and rodent control plan;

(4) Procedures and standards for monitoring insect and rodent control plans;

(5) Procedures and standards for enforcing insect and rodent control plans at concentrated animal feeding facilities at which insects or rodents constitute a nuisance or adversely affect public health;

(6) The amount of civil penalties for violation of an insect and rodent control plan assessed by the director of agriculture under division (B) of section 903.16 of the Revised Code, provided that the rules adopted under division (D)(C)(6) of this section shall not establish a civil penalty of more than ten thousand dollars for a violation involving a concentrated animal feeding facility that is not a major concentrated animal feeding facility and shall not establish a civil penalty of more than twenty-five thousand dollars for a violation involving a major concentrated animal feeding facility;

(7) The time period within which the director must approve or deny an insect and rodent control plan after receiving it;

(8) Any other provisions necessary to administer and enforce section 903.12 of the Revised Code.

(E)(D) Establish all of the following concerning livestock manager certifications required under section 903.07 of the Revised Code:

(1) The information to be included in an application for a livestock manager certification and the amount of the application fee;

(2) The content of the training required to be completed and of the examination required to be passed by an applicant for a livestock manager certification. The training shall include and the examination shall test the applicant's knowledge of information on topics that include calculating nutrient values in manure, devising and implementing a plan for the land application of manure, removing manure held in a manure storage or treatment facility, and following best management practices established in rules for disposal of dead animals and manure management, including practices that control odor and protect the environment. The director may specify other types of recognized training programs that, if completed, are considered to satisfy the training and examination requirement.

(3) Criteria and procedures for the issuance, denial, suspension, revocation, or reinstatement of a livestock manager certification;

(4) The length of time during which livestock manager certifications will be valid and procedures for their renewal;

(5) The volume of manure that must be transported and land applied annually or the volume of manure that must be bought, sold, or land applied annually by a person in order for the person to be required to obtain a livestock manager certification under division (A)(2) of section 903.07 of the Revised Code;

(6) Requirements governing the management and handling of manure, including the land application of manure;

(7) Requirements governing the keeping of records regarding the handling of manure, including the land application of manure;

(8) Any other provisions necessary to administer and enforce section 903.07 of the Revised Code.

(F)(E) Establish all of the following concerning NPDES permits:

(1) The designation of concentrated animal feeding operations that are subject to NPDES permit requirements under section 903.08 of the Revised Code;

(2) Effluent limitations governing discharges into waters of the state that are authorized by permits;

(3) Variances from effluent limitations and other permit requirements to the extent that the variances are consistent with the Federal Water Pollution Control Act;

(4) Terms and conditions to be included in a permit, including, as applicable, best management practices; installation of discharge or water quality monitoring methods or equipment; creation and retention of records; submission of periodic reports; schedules of compliance; net volume, net weight, and, where necessary, concentration and mass loading limits of manure that may be discharged into waters of the state; and authorized duration and frequency of any discharges into waters of the state;

(5) Procedures for the submission of applications for permits and notices of intent to be covered by general permits, including information that must be included in the applications and notices;

(6) The amount of the fee that must be submitted with an application for a permit;

(7) Procedures for processing permit applications, including public notice and participation requirements;

(8) Procedures for notifying the United States environmental protection agency of the submission of permit applications, the director's action on those applications, and any other reasonable and relevant information;

(9) Procedures for notifying and receiving and responding to recommendations from other states whose waters may be affected by the issuance of a permit;

(10) Procedures for the transfer of permits to new owners or operators;

(11) Grounds and procedures for the issuance, denial, modification, suspension, or revocation of permits, including general permits;

(12) A definition of "general NPDES permit" that establishes categories of point sources to be covered under such a permit and a definition of "individual NPDES permit" together with the criteria for issuing a general NPDES permit and the criteria for determining a person's eligibility to discharge under a general NPDES permit.

The rules adopted under division (F)(E) of this section shall be consistent with the requirements of the Federal Water Pollution Control Act.

(G)(F) Establish public notice and participation requirements, in addition to the procedures established in rules adopted under division (F)(E)(7) of this section, for the issuance, denial, modification, transfer, suspension, and revocation of permits to install, permits to operate, and NPDES permits consistent with section 903.09 of the Revised Code, including a definition of what constitutes significant public interest for the purposes of divisions (A) and (F) of section 903.09 of the Revised Code and procedures for public meetings. The rules shall require that information that is presented at such a public meeting be limited to the criteria that are applicable to the permit application that is the subject of the public meeting.

(H)(G) Establish the amount of civil penalties assessed by the director of agriculture under division (B) of section 903.16 of the Revised Code for violation of the terms and conditions of a permit to install, or permit to operate, or review compliance certificate, provided that the rules adopted under this division shall not establish a civil penalty of more than ten thousand dollars per day for each violation;

(I)(H) Establish procedures for the protection of trade secrets from public disclosure. The procedures shall authorize the release of trade secrets to officers, employees, or authorized representatives of the state, another state, or the United States when necessary for an enforcement action brought under this chapter or when otherwise required by the Federal Water Pollution Control Act. The rules shall require at least ten days' written notice to the person to whom a trade secret applies prior to the release of the trade secret. Rules adopted under this division do not apply to any information that is contained in applications, including attachments, for NPDES permits and that is required to be submitted under section 903.08 of the Revised Code or rules adopted under division (F)(E) of this section.

(J)(I) Establish any other provisions necessary to administer and enforce this chapter.

Sec. 903.11.  (A) The director of agriculture may enter into contracts or agreements to carry out the purposes of this chapter with any public or private person, including OSU extension, the natural resources conservation service in the United States department of agriculture, the environmental protection agency, the division of soil and water resources in the department of natural resources, and soil and water conservation districts established under Chapter 1515. of the Revised Code. However, the director shall not enter into a contract or agreement with a private person for the review of applications for permits to install, permits to operate, or NPDES permits, or review compliance certificates that are issued under this chapter or for the inspection of a facility regulated under this chapter or with any person for the issuance of any of those permits or certificates or for the enforcement of this chapter and rules adopted under it.

(B) The director may administer grants and loans using moneys from the federal government and other sources, public or private, for carrying out any of the director's functions. Nothing in this chapter shall be construed to limit the eligibility of owners or operators of animal feeding facilities or other agricultural enterprises to receive moneys from the water pollution control loan fund established under section 6111.036 of the Revised Code and the nonpoint source pollution management fund established under section 6111.037 of the Revised Code.

The director of agriculture shall provide the director of environmental protection with written recommendations for providing financial assistance from those funds to agricultural enterprises. The director of environmental protection shall consider the recommendations in developing priorities for providing financial assistance from the funds.

Sec. 903.12.  (A) The director of agriculture or the director's authorized representative at reasonable times may enter on any public or private property, real or personal, to make investigations and inspections, including the sampling of discharges and the inspection of discharge monitoring equipment, or to otherwise execute duties that are necessary for the administration and enforcement of this chapter. The director or the director's authorized representative at reasonable times may examine and copy any records pertaining to discharges that are subject to this chapter or any records that are required to be maintained by the terms and conditions of a permit or review compliance certificate issued under this chapter. If refused entry, the director or the director's authorized representative may apply for and the court of common pleas having jurisdiction may issue an appropriate warrant.

(B) No person to whom a permit or review compliance certificate has been issued under this chapter shall refuse entry to the director or the director's authorized representative or purposely hinder or thwart the director or the director's authorized representative in the exercise of any authority granted under division (A) of this section.

Sec. 903.13.  In a private civil action for an alleged nuisance related to agricultural activities conducted at a concentrated animal feeding facility, it is an affirmative defense if the person owning, operating, or otherwise responsible for the concentrated animal feeding facility is in compliance with best management practices established in the installation permit, or permit to operate, or review compliance certificate issued for the concentrated animal feeding facility and the agricultural activities do not violate federal, state, and local laws governing nuisances.

Sec. 903.16.  (A) The director of agriculture may propose to require corrective actions and assess a civil penalty against an owner or operator of a concentrated animal feeding facility if the director or the director's authorized representative determines that the owner or operator is not in compliance with section 903.02, or 903.03, or 903.04 or division (A) of section 903.07 of the Revised Code, the terms and conditions of a permit to install, or permit to operate, or review compliance certificate issued for the concentrated animal feeding facility, including the requirements established under division (C) of section 903.06 of the Revised Code, or rules adopted under division (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), or (J)(I) of section 903.10 of the Revised Code. However, the director may impose a civil penalty only if all of the following occur:

(1) The owner or operator is notified in writing of the deficiencies resulting in noncompliance, the actions that the owner or operator must take to correct the deficiencies, and the time period within which the owner or operator must correct the deficiencies and attain compliance.

(2) After the time period specified in the notice has elapsed, the director or the director's duly authorized representative has inspected the concentrated animal feeding facility, determined that the owner or operator is still not in compliance, and issued a notice of an adjudication hearing.

(3) The director affords the owner or operator an opportunity for an adjudication hearing under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to challenge the director's determination that the owner or operator is not in compliance or the imposition of the civil penalty, or both. However, the owner or operator may waive the right to an adjudication hearing.

(B) If the opportunity for an adjudication hearing is waived or if, after an adjudication hearing, the director determines that a violation has occurred or is occurring, the director may issue an order requiring compliance and assess the civil penalty. The order and the assessment of the civil penalty may be appealed in accordance with section 119.12 of the Revised Code.

Civil penalties shall be assessed under this division as follows:

(1) A person who has violated section 903.02, or 903.03, or 903.04 of the Revised Code, the terms and conditions of a permit to install, or permit to operate, or review compliance certificate, or rules adopted under division (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), or (J)(I) of section 903.10 of the Revised Code shall pay a civil penalty in an amount established in rules unless the violation is of the requirements established under division (C) of section 903.06 or division (A) of section 903.07 of the Revised Code.

(2) A person who has violated the requirements established under division (C) of section 903.06 of the Revised Code shall pay a civil penalty in an amount established in rules for each violation. Each seven-day period during which a violation continues constitutes a separate violation.

(3) A person who has violated the requirements established under division (A) of section 903.07 of the Revised Code shall pay a civil penalty of not more than ten thousand dollars for each violation. Each thirty-day period during which a violation continues constitutes a separate violation.

(C) The attorney general, upon the written request of the director, shall bring an action for an injunction in any court of competent jurisdiction against any person violating or threatening to violate section 903.02, or 903.03, or 903.04 or division (A) of section 903.07 of the Revised Code; the terms and conditions of a permit to install, or permit to operate, or review compliance certificate, including the requirements established under division (C) of section 903.06 of the Revised Code; rules adopted under division (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), or (J)(I) of section 903.10 of the Revised Code; or an order issued under division (B) of this section or division (B) of section 903.07 of the Revised Code.

(D)(1) In lieu of seeking civil penalties under division (A) of this section, the director may request the attorney general, in writing, to bring an action for a civil penalty in a court of competent jurisdiction against any person that has violated or is violating division (A) of section 903.07 of the Revised Code or the terms and conditions of a permit to install, or permit to operate, or review compliance certificate, including the requirements established under division (C) of section 903.06 of the Revised Code.

(2) The director may request the attorney general, in writing, to bring an action for a civil penalty in a court of competent jurisdiction against any person that has violated or is violating section 903.02, or 903.03, or 903.04 of the Revised Code, rules adopted under division (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), or (J)(I) of section 903.10 of the Revised Code, or an order issued under division (B) of this section or division (B) of section 903.07 of the Revised Code.

(3) A person who has committed a violation for which the attorney general may bring an action for a civil penalty under division (D)(1) or (2) of this section shall pay a civil penalty of not more than ten thousand dollars per violation. Each day that a violation continues constitutes a separate violation.

(E) In addition to any other penalties imposed under this section, the director may impose an administrative penalty against an owner or operator of a concentrated animal feeding facility if the director or the director's authorized representative determines that the owner or operator is not in compliance with best management practices that are established in rules adopted under division (B) or (C) or (D) of section 903.10 of the Revised Code or in the permit to install, or permit to operate, or review compliance certificate issued for the facility. The administrative penalty shall not exceed five thousand dollars.

The director shall afford the owner or operator an opportunity for an adjudication hearing under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to challenge the director's determination under this division, the director's imposition of an administrative penalty under this division, or both. The director's determination and the imposition of the administrative penalty may be appealed in accordance with section 119.12 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 903.17.  (A) The director of agriculture may propose to require corrective actions and assess a civil penalty against an owner or operator of an animal feeding operation if the director or the director's authorized representative determines that the owner or operator is not in compliance with section 903.08 of the Revised Code, the terms and conditions of a NPDES permit, the NPDES provisions of a permit to operate, or rules adopted under division (F)(E) of section 903.10 of the Revised Code. However, the director may impose a civil penalty only if all of the following occur:

(1) The owner or operator is notified in writing of the deficiencies resulting in noncompliance, the actions that the owner or operator must take to correct the deficiencies, and the time period within which the owner or operator must correct the deficiencies and attain compliance.

(2) After the time period specified in the notice has elapsed, the director or the director's duly authorized representative has inspected the animal feeding operation, determined that the owner or operator is still not in compliance, and issued a notice of violation to require corrective actions.

(3) The director affords the owner or operator an opportunity for an adjudication hearing under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to challenge the director's determination that the owner or operator is not in compliance or the imposition of the civil penalty, or both. However, the owner or operator may waive the right to an adjudication hearing.

(B) If the opportunity for an adjudication hearing is waived or if, after an adjudication hearing, the director determines that a violation has occurred or is occurring, the director may issue an order and assess a civil penalty of not more than ten thousand dollars per violation against the violator. For purposes of determining the civil penalty, each day that a violation continues constitutes a separate and distinct violation. The order and the assessment of the civil penalty may be appealed in accordance with section 119.12 of the Revised Code.

(C) To the extent consistent with the Federal Water Pollution Control Act, the director shall consider technical feasibility and economic costs in issuing orders under this section.

(D)(1) The attorney general, upon the written request of the director, shall bring an action for an injunction in any court of competent jurisdiction against any person violating or threatening to violate section 903.08 of the Revised Code, the terms and conditions of a NPDES permit, the NPDES provisions of a permit to operate, rules adopted under division (F)(E) of section 903.10 of the Revised Code, or an order issued under division (B) of this section.

(2) In lieu of seeking civil penalties under division (A) of this section, the director may request, in writing, the attorney general to bring an action for a civil penalty of not more than ten thousand dollars per violation in a court of competent jurisdiction against any person that has violated or is violating section 903.08 of the Revised Code, the terms and conditions of a NPDES permit, the NPDES provisions of a permit to operate, rules adopted under division (F)(E) of section 903.10 of the Revised Code, or an order issued under division (B) of this section. For purposes of determining the civil penalty to be assessed under division (B) of this section, each day that a violation continues constitutes a separate and distinct violation.

(E) In addition to any other penalties imposed under this section, the director may impose an administrative penalty against an owner or operator of an animal feeding operation if the director or the director's authorized representative determines that the owner or operator has discharged pollutants into waters of the state in violation of section 903.08 of the Revised Code or the terms and conditions of a NPDES permit or the NPDES provisions of the permit to operate issued for the operation. The administrative penalty shall not exceed five thousand dollars.

The director shall afford the owner or operator an opportunity for an adjudication hearing under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to challenge the director's determination under this division, the director's imposition of an administrative penalty under this division, or both. The director's determination and the imposition of the administrative penalty may be appealed in accordance with section 119.12 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 903.25. An owner or operator of an animal feeding facility who holds a permit to install, a permit to operate, a review compliance certificate, or a NPDES permit or who is operating under an operation and a nutrient management plan, as defined in section 1511.01 939.01 of the Revised Code, approved by the chief of the division of soil and water resources in the department of natural resources director of agriculture or the director's designee under section 1511.02 939.02 of the Revised Code or by the supervisors of the appropriate soil and water conservation district under section 1515.08 of the Revised Code shall not be required by any political subdivision of the state or any officer, employee, agency, board, commission, department, or other instrumentality of a political subdivision to obtain a license, permit, or other approval pertaining to manure, insects or rodents, odor, or siting requirements for installation of an animal feeding facility.

Sec. 921.06.  (A)(1) No individual shall do any of the following without having a commercial applicator license issued by the director of agriculture:

(a) Apply pesticides for a pesticide business without direct supervision;

(b) Apply pesticides as part of the individual's duties while acting as an employee of the United States government, a state, county, township, or municipal corporation, or a park district, port authority, or sanitary district created under Chapter 1545., 4582., or 6115. of the Revised Code, respectively;

(c) Apply restricted use pesticides. Division (A)(1)(c) of this section does not apply to a private applicator or an immediate family member or a subordinate employee of a private applicator who is acting under the direct supervision of that private applicator.

(d) If the individual is the owner of a business other than a pesticide business or an employee of such an owner, apply pesticides at any of the following publicly accessible sites that are located on the property:

(i) Food service operations that are licensed under Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code;

(ii) Retail food establishments that are licensed under Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code;

(iii) Golf courses;

(iv) Rental properties of more than four apartment units at one location;

(v) Hospitals or medical facilities as defined in section 3701.01 of the Revised Code;

(vi) Child day-care centers or school child day-care centers as defined in section 5104.01 of the Revised Code;

(vii) Facilities owned or operated by a school district established under Chapter 3311. of the Revised Code, including an education educational service center, a community school established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, or a chartered or nonchartered nonpublic school that meets minimum standards established by the state board of education;

(viii) Colleges as defined in section 3365.01 State institutions of higher education as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, nonprofit institutions holding a certificate of authorization pursuant to Chapter 1713. of the Revised Code, institutions holding a certificate of registration from the state board of career colleges and schools and program authorization for an associate or bachelor's degree program issued under section 3332.05 of the Revised Code, and private institutions exempt from regulation under Chapter 3332. of the Revised Code as prescribed in section 3333.046 of the Revised Code;

(ix) Food processing establishments as defined in section 3715.021 of the Revised Code;

(x) Any other site designated by rule.

(e) Conduct authorized diagnostic inspections.

(2) Divisions (A)(1)(a) to (d) of this section do not apply to an individual who is acting as a trained serviceperson under the direct supervision of a commercial applicator.

(3) Licenses shall be issued for a period of time established by rule and shall be renewed in accordance with deadlines established by rule. The fee for each such license shall be established by rule. If a license is not issued or renewed, the application fee shall be retained by the state as payment for the reasonable expense of processing the application. The director shall by rule classify by pesticide-use category licenses to be issued under this section. A single license may include more than one pesticide-use category. No individual shall be required to pay an additional license fee if the individual is licensed for more than one category.

The fee for each license or renewal does not apply to an applicant who is an employee of the department of agriculture whose job duties require licensure as a commercial applicator as a condition of employment.

(B) Application for a commercial applicator license shall be made on a form prescribed by the director. Each application for a license shall state the pesticide-use category or categories of license for which the applicant is applying and other information that the director determines essential to the administration of this chapter.

(C) If the director finds that the applicant is competent to apply pesticides and conduct diagnostic inspections and that the applicant has passed both the general examination and each applicable pesticide-use category examination as required under division (A) of section 921.12 of the Revised Code, the director shall issue a commercial applicator license limited to the pesticide-use category or categories for which the applicant is found to be competent. If the director rejects an application, the director may explain why the application was rejected, describe the additional requirements necessary for the applicant to obtain a license, and return the application. The applicant may resubmit the application without payment of any additional fee.

(D)(1) A person who is a commercial applicator shall be deemed to hold a private applicator's license for purposes of applying pesticides on agricultural commodities that are produced by the commercial applicator.

(2) A commercial applicator shall apply pesticides only in the pesticide-use category or categories in which the applicator is licensed under this chapter.

(E) All money collected under this section shall be credited to the pesticide, fertilizer, and lime program fund created in section 921.22 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 939.01.  As used in this chapter:

(A) "Conservation" means the wise use and management of natural resources.

(B) "Pollution abatement practice" means any residual farm products or manure pollution abatement facility, structure, or procedure and the operation and management associated with it as contained in nutrient management plans.

(C) "Agricultural pollution" means failure to use management or conservation practices in farming operations to abate the degradation of the waters of the state by residual farm products or manure, including attached substances.

(D) "Waters of the state" means all streams, lakes, ponds, wetlands, watercourses, waterways, wells, springs, irrigation systems, drainage systems, and all other bodies or accumulations of water, surface and underground, natural or artificial, regardless of the depth of the strata in which underground water is located, that are situated wholly or partly within, or border on, this state or are within its jurisdiction, except those private waters that do not combine or effect a junction with natural surface or underground waters.

(E) "Nutrient management plan" means a written record, developed or approved by the director of agriculture, the director's designee, or the board of supervisors of a soil and water conservation district, for the owner or operator of agricultural land or an animal feeding operation that contains both of the following:

(1) Implementation schedules and operational procedures for a level of management and pollution abatement practices that will abate the degradation of the waters of the state by residual farm products and manure, including attached pollutants;

(2) Best management practices that are to be used by the owner or operator.

(F) "Residual farm products" means bedding, wash waters, waste feed, and silage drainage. "Residual farm products" also includes the compost products resulting from the composting of dead animals in operations subject to section 939.04 of the Revised Code when either of the following applies:

(1) The composting is conducted by the person who raises the animals and the compost product is used in agricultural operations owned or operated by that person regardless of whether the person owns the animals.

(2) The composting is conducted by the person who owns the animals, but does not raise them and the compost product is used in agricultural operations either by a person who raises the animals or by a person who raises grain that is used to feed them and that is supplied by the owner of the animals.

(G) "Composting" means the controlled decomposition of organic solid material consisting of dead animals that stabilizes the organic fraction of the material.

(H) "Manure" means animal excreta.

(I) "Animal feeding operation" means the production area, as defined in section 903.01 of the Revised Code, of an agricultural operation where agricultural animals are kept and raised in confined areas. "Animal feeding operation" does not include a facility that possesses a permit issued under Chapter 903. or division (J) of section 6111.03 of the Revised Code.

(J) "Soil and water conservation district" has the same meaning as in section 1515.01 of the Revised Code.

(K) "Ohio soil and water conservation commission" means the Ohio soil and water conservation commission established in section 1515.02 of the Revised Code.

(L) "Best management practices" means practices or a combination of practices that are determined to be the most effective and practicable means of preventing or reducing agricultural pollution sources to a level compatible with the attainment of applicable water quality standards. "Best management practices" includes structural and nonstructural practices, conservation practices, and operation and maintenance procedures.

Sec. 939.02.  The director of agriculture shall do all of the following:

(A) Administer this chapter and those provisions of Chapter 1515. of the Revised Code pertaining to state responsibilities and provide staff assistance to the Ohio soil and water conservation commission in exercising its statutory responsibilities pertaining to agricultural pollution;

(B) Coordinate the development and implementation of cooperative programs and working agreements between soil and water conservation districts and the department of agriculture or other agencies of local, state, and federal government;

(C) Adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that do or comply with all of the following:

(1) Establish technically feasible and economically reasonable standards to achieve a level of management and conservation practices in farming operations that will abate the degradation of the waters of the state by residual farm products or manure, including attached substances, and establish criteria for determination of the acceptability of such management and conservation practices;

(2) Establish procedures for the administration of rules regarding agricultural pollution abatement and for enforcement of those rules;

(3) Specify the agricultural pollution abatement practices eligible for state cost sharing and determine the conditions for eligibility, the construction standards and specifications, the useful life, the maintenance requirements, and the limits of cost sharing for those practices. Eligible practices shall be limited to practices that address agricultural operations and that require expenditures that are likely to exceed the economic returns to the owner or operator and that abate degradation of the waters of the state by residual farm products or manure, including attached pollutants.

(4) Establish procedures for administering grants to owners or operators of agricultural land or animal feeding operations for the implementation of nutrient management plans;

(5) Do both of the following with regard to composting conducted in conjunction with agricultural operations:

(a) Establish methods, techniques, or practices for composting dead animals, or particular types of dead animals, that are to be used at such operations, as the director considers to be necessary or appropriate;

(b) Establish requirements and procedures governing the review and approval or disapproval of composting plans by the supervisors of soil and water conservation districts under division (T) of section 1515.08 of the Revised Code.

(6) Establish best management practices for inclusion in nutrient management plans;

(7) Establish the amount of civil penalties assessed by the director under division (B) of section 939.09 of the Revised Code for violation of rules adopted under division (C) of this section;

(8) Be adopted after the director does all of the following:

(a) Mails notice to each statewide organization that the director determines represents persons or local governmental agencies that would be affected by a proposed rule at least thirty-five days before any public hearing on the proposed rule;

(b) Mails a copy of each proposed rule to any person who requests a copy within five days after receipt of the request;

(c) Consults with appropriate state and local governmental agencies or their representatives, including statewide organizations of local governmental officials, industrial representatives, and other interested persons;

(d) If the rule is adopted under division (C)(1) of this section, develops an economic impact statement concerning the effect of the proposed rule.

(9) Not conflict with air or water quality standards adopted pursuant to section 3704.03 or 6111.041 of the Revised Code. Compliance with rules adopted under this section does not affect liability for noncompliance with air or water quality standards adopted pursuant to section 3704.03 or 6111.041 of the Revised Code.

(D) Cost share with landowners on practices established in rules adopted under division (C)(3) of this section as moneys are appropriated and available for that purpose. A practice for which cost share is provided shall be maintained for its useful life. Failure to maintain a cost share practice for its useful life subjects the landowner to full repayment to the department.

(E) Employ field assistants and other employees that are necessary for the performance of the work prescribed by Chapter 1515. of the Revised Code pertaining to agricultural pollution, for performance of the work of the department under this chapter, and as agreed to in working agreements or contractual arrangements with soil and water conservation districts, prescribe their duties, and fix their compensation in accordance with schedules that are provided by law for the compensation of state employees. All such employees of the department, unless specifically exempted by law, shall be employed subject to the classified civil service laws in force at the time of employment.

(F) When necessary for the purposes of this chapter or the provisions of Chapter 1515. of the Revised Code pertaining to agricultural pollution, develop or approve nutrient management plans. The director may designate an employee of the department to develop or approve nutrient management plans in lieu of the director.

This section does not restrict the manure of domestic or farm animals defecated on land outside an animal feeding operation or runoff from that land into the waters of the state.

Sec. 939.03.  (A) A person who owns or operates agricultural land or an animal feeding operation may develop and operate under a nutrient management plan approved by the director of agriculture or the director's designee under section 939.02 of the Revised Code or by the supervisors of the applicable soil and water conservation district under section 1515.08 of the Revised Code.

(B) A person who wishes to make a complaint regarding nuisances involving agricultural pollution may do so orally or by submitting a written, signed, and dated complaint to the director or to the director's designee. After receiving an oral complaint, the director or the director's designee may cause an investigation to be conducted to determine whether agricultural pollution has occurred or is imminent. After receiving a written, signed, and dated complaint, the director or the director's designee shall cause such an investigation to be conducted.

(C) In a private civil action for nuisances involving agricultural pollution, it is an affirmative defense if the person owning, operating, or otherwise responsible for agricultural land or an animal feeding operation is operating under and in substantial compliance with an approved nutrient management plan developed under division (A) of this section, with a nutrient management plan developed by the director or the director's designee under section 939.02 of the Revised Code or by the supervisors of the applicable soil and water conservation district under section 1515.08 of the Revised Code, or with a nutrient management plan required under division (A)(2) of section 939.09 of the Revised Code. Nothing in this section is in derogation of the authority granted to the director in division (C) of section 939.02 and in section 939.09 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 1511.022 939.04.  (A) Any person who owns or operates an agricultural operation, or owns the animals raised by the owner or operator of an agricultural operation, and who wishes to conduct composting of dead animals resulting from the agricultural operation shall do both of the following:

(1) Participate in an educational course concerning composting conducted by OSU extension and obtain a certificate of completion for the course;

(2) Use the appropriate method, technique, or practice of composting established in rules adopted under division (E)(8)(C)(5) of section 1511.02 939.02 of the Revised Code.

(B) Any person who fails to comply with division (A) of this section shall prepare and operate under a composting plan in accordance with an order issued required by the chief of the division of soil and water resources director of agriculture under division (G)(A)(2) of section 1511.02 939.09 of the Revised Code. If the person's proposed composting plan is disapproved by the board of supervisors of the appropriate soil and water conservation district under division (Q)(T)(3) of section 1515.08 of the Revised Code, the person may appeal the plan disapproval to the chief director, who shall afford the person a hearing. Following the hearing, the chief director shall uphold the plan disapproval or reverse it. If the chief director reverses the disapproval, the plan shall be deemed approved.

Sec. 939.05.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this section, the director of agriculture, an employee of the department of agriculture, the supervisors of a soil and water conservation district, an employee of a district, and a contractor of the department or a district shall not disclose either of the following:

(1) Information, including data from geographic information systems and global positioning systems, provided by a person who owns or operates agricultural land or an animal feeding operation and operates under a nutrient management plan;

(2) Information gathered as a result of an inspection of agricultural land or an animal feeding operation to determine whether the person who owns or operates the land or operation is in compliance with a nutrient management plan.

(B) The director or the supervisors of a district may release or disclose information specified in division (A)(1) or (2) of this section to a person or a federal, state, or local agency working in cooperation with the director or the supervisors in the development of a nutrient management plan or an inspection to determine compliance with such a plan if the director or supervisors determine that the person or federal, state, or local agency will not subsequently disclose the information to another person.

Sec. 939.06.  The director of agriculture may enter into contracts or agreements with an agency of the United States government, or any other public or private agency or organization, for the performance of the duties of the department of agriculture under this chapter or for accomplishing cooperative projects within the scope of those duties.

Sec. 939.07.  The director of agriculture may accept donations, grants, and contributions in money, service, or equipment to enhance or expedite the work of the department of agriculture under this chapter.

Sec. 939.08.  The director of agriculture, subject to approval of the terms of the agreement by the Ohio soil and water conservation commission, shall enter into cooperative agreements with the board of supervisors of a soil and water conservation district desiring to enter into those agreements pursuant to section 1515.08 of the Revised Code. The agreements shall be entered into to obtain compliance with rules of the director pertaining to agricultural pollution abatement.

The director or a person designated by the director may enter at reasonable times on private or public property to inspect and investigate conditions relating to agricultural pollution of the waters of the state. Upon refusal of entry, the director or the director's designee may apply for and a judge of the court of common pleas of the county where the land is located may issue an appropriate inspection warrant as necessary to achieve the purposes of this chapter.

Sec. 939.09. (A)(1) The director of agriculture may propose to require corrective actions and assess a civil penalty against an owner or operator of agricultural land or an animal feeding operation if the director or the director's designee determines that the owner or operator is doing one of the following:

(a) Not complying with a standard established in rules adopted under division (C)(1) of section 939.02 of the Revised Code;

(b) Not operating in accordance with an approved nutrient management plan that is developed under division (A) of section 939.03 of the Revised Code, with a nutrient management plan developed by the director or the director's designee under section 939.02 of the Revised Code or by the supervisors of the applicable soil and water conservation district under section 1515.08 of the Revised Code, or with a nutrient management plan required by the director under division (A)(2) of this section;

(c) Not complying with a standard established in rules adopted under division (C)(5)(a) of section 939.02 of the Revised Code;

(d) Not operating in accordance with a composting plan that is approved in accordance with rules adopted under division (C)(5)(b) of section 939.02 of the Revised Code or required by the director under division (A)(2) of this section.

(2) The director may include in the corrective actions a requirement that an owner or operator do one of the following:

(a) Operate under a nutrient management plan approved by the director or the director's designee under section 939.02 of the Revised Code;

(b) If the owner or operator has failed to operate in accordance with an existing nutrient management plan, operate in accordance with that plan;

(c) Prepare a composting plan in accordance with rules adopted under division (C)(5)(b) of section 939.02 of the Revised Code and operate in accordance with that plan;

(d) If the owner or operator has failed to operate in accordance with an existing composting plan, operate in accordance with that plan.

(3) The director may impose a civil penalty only if all of the following occur:

(a) The owner or operator is notified in writing of the deficiencies resulting in noncompliance, the actions that the owner or operator must take to correct the deficiencies, and the time period within which the owner or operator must correct the deficiencies and attain compliance.

(b) After the time period specified in the notice has elapsed, the director or the director's designee has inspected the agricultural land or animal feeding operation, determined that the owner or operator is still not in compliance, and issued a notice of an adjudication hearing.

(c) The director affords the owner or operator an opportunity for an adjudication hearing under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to challenge the director's determination that the owner or operator is not in compliance or the imposition of the civil penalty, or both. However, the owner or operator may waive the right to an adjudication hearing.

(4) If the opportunity for an adjudication hearing is waived or if, after an adjudication hearing, the director determines that noncompliance has occurred or is occurring, the director may issue an order requiring compliance and assess the civil penalty. The order and the assessment of the civil penalty may be appealed in accordance with section 119.12 of the Revised Code.

(5) A person who has violated rules adopted under division (C) of section 939.02 of the Revised Code shall pay a civil penalty in an amount established in rules adopted under that section.

(B) The attorney general, upon the written request of the director, shall bring an action for an injunction in any court of competent jurisdiction against any person violating or threatening to violate rules adopted under division (C) of section 939.02 of the Revised Code or an order issued under division (A)(4) of this section.

(C)(1) In lieu of seeking civil penalties under division (A) of this section, the director may request the attorney general, in writing, to bring an action for a civil penalty in a court of competent jurisdiction against any person that has violated or is violating a rule adopted under division (C) of section 939.02 of the Revised Code.

(2) A person who has committed a violation for which the attorney general may bring an action for a civil penalty under division (C)(1) of this section shall pay a civil penalty of not more than ten thousand dollars per violation. Each day that a violation continues constitutes a separate violation.

(D) In addition to any other penalties imposed under this section, the director may impose an administrative penalty against an owner or operator of agricultural land or an animal feeding operation if the director or the director's designee determines that the owner or operator is not in compliance with best management practices that are established in rules adopted under division (C) of section 939.02 of the Revised Code. The administrative penalty shall not exceed five thousand dollars.

The director shall afford the owner or operator an opportunity for an adjudication hearing under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to challenge the director's determination under this division, the director's imposition of an administrative penalty under this division, or both. The director's determination and the imposition of the administrative penalty may be appealed in accordance with section 119.12 of the Revised Code.

(E) Notwithstanding any other provision in this section, if the director determines that an emergency exists requiring immediate action to protect the public health or safety or the environment, the director may issue an order, without notice or adjudication hearing, stating the existence of the emergency and requiring that action be taken that is necessary to meet the emergency. The order shall take effect immediately. A person to whom the order is directed shall comply immediately, but on application to the director shall be afforded an adjudication hearing in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as soon as possible and not later than thirty days after application. On the basis of the hearing, the director shall continue the order in effect, revoke it, or modify it. The director's order is appealable in accordance with section 119.12 of the Revised Code. No emergency order shall remain in effect for more than one hundred twenty days after its issuance.

(F) A person that is responsible for causing or allowing the unauthorized spill, release, or discharge of manure or residual farm products that requires emergency action to protect public health or safety or the environment is liable to the director for the costs incurred in investigating, mitigating, minimizing, removing, or abating the spill, release, or discharge. Upon request of the director, the attorney general shall bring a civil action against the responsible person or persons to recover those costs.

(G) Money recovered under division (F) of this section and money collected from civil penalties under this section shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the agricultural pollution abatement fund created in section 939.11 of the Revised Code.

(H) As used in this section, "noncompliance" means doing one of the actions specified in division (A)(1) of this section.

Sec. 939.10.  A person claiming to be deprived of a right or protection afforded the person by law by an action of the director of agriculture under this chapter, except the adoption of a rule, may appeal to the court of common pleas of Franklin county or the court of common pleas of the county in which the alleged violation exists.

If the court finds that the action of the director appealed from was lawful and reasonable, it shall affirm the action. If the court finds that the action was unreasonable or unlawful, it shall vacate the action and order the action to be taken that it finds the director should have taken. The judgment of the court is final unless reversed, vacated, or modified on appeal.

Sec. 939.11.  There is hereby created in the state treasury the agricultural pollution abatement fund, which shall be administered by the director of agriculture. The fund may be used to pay costs incurred by the department of agriculture under division (F) of section 939.09 of the Revised Code in investigating, mitigating, minimizing, removing, or abating any pollution of the waters of the state caused by agricultural pollution or an unauthorized release, spill, or discharge of manure or residual farm products into or on the environment that requires emergency action to protect the public health.

Sec. 941.14.  (A) The owner shall burn the body of an animal that has died of, or been destroyed because of, a dangerously infectious or contagious disease, bury it not less than four feet under the surface of the ground, dissolve it by alkaline hydrolysis, remove it in a watertight tank to a rendering establishment, or otherwise dispose of it in accordance with section 939.04 or 953.26 or 1511.022 of the Revised Code within twenty-four hours after knowledge thereof or after notice in writing from the department of agriculture.

(B) The owner of premises that contain a dead animal shall burn the body of the animal, bury it not less than four feet beneath the surface of the ground, dissolve it by alkaline hydrolysis, remove it in a watertight tank to a rendering establishment, or otherwise dispose of it in accordance with section 939.04 or 953.26 or 1511.022 of the Revised Code within a reasonable time after knowledge thereof or after notice in writing from the department or from the township trustees of the township in which the owner's premises are located.

(C) Notwithstanding division (A) or (B) of this section, the director of agriculture, in written notice sent to the owner of a dead animal, may require the owner to employ a specific method of disposition of the body, including burning, burying, rendering, composting, or alkaline hydrolysis, when that method does not conflict with any law or rule governing the disposal of infectious wastes and, in the director's judgment, is necessary for purposes of animal disease control. No person shall fail to employ the method of disposition required under this division.

(D) The director, in written notice sent to the owner of a dead animal, may prohibit the owner from transporting the body of the dead animal on any street or highway if that prohibition does not conflict with any law or rule governing the transportation of infectious wastes and, in the director's judgment, is necessary for purposes of animal disease control. No person shall fail to comply with a prohibition issued under this division.

(E) As used in this section, "infectious wastes" has the same meaning as in section 3734.01 of the Revised Code, and "street" or "highway" has the same meaning as in section 4511.01 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 953.22.  (A) No person shall engage in the business of disposing of, picking up, rendering, or collecting raw rendering material or transporting the material to a composting facility without a license to do so from the department of agriculture.

(B) This chapter does not apply to any of the following:

(1) A farmer who slaughters the farmer's own animals, raised by the farmer on the farmer's own farm, processes the farmer's own meat therefrom, and disposes of the farmer's raw rendering material only by delivery to a person licensed under section 953.23 of the Revised Code;

(2) A person whose only connection with raw rendering material is curing hides and skins;

(3) A person whose only connection with raw rendering material is operating a pet cemetery;

(4) A person who is conducting composting, as defined in section 1511.01 939.01 of the Revised Code, in accordance with section 1511.022 939.04 of the Revised Code;

(5) A person whose only connection with raw rendering material is trapping wild animals in accordance with a nuisance wild animal permit issued by the chief of the division of wildlife in the department of natural resources under rules adopted pursuant to section 1531.08 of the Revised Code;

(6) A county dog warden or animal control officer who transports raw rendering material only for disposal purposes.

Sec. 1321.535.  (A) Each applicant for a mortgage loan originator license shall submit to a written test that is developed and approved by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry and administered by a test provider approved by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry based upon reasonable standards.

(1)(A) The test shall adequately measure the applicant's knowledge and comprehension in appropriate subject matters, including ethics and federal and state law related to mortgage origination, fraud, consumer protection, the nontraditional mortgage marketplace, and fair lending issues.

(2)(B) An individual shall not be considered to have passed the test unless the individual achieves a test score of answers at least seventy-five per cent correct answers on all of the questions and at least seventy-five per cent correct answers on all questions relating to Ohio mortgage lending laws and the Ohio consumer sales practices act, Chapter 1345. of the Revised Code, as it applies to registrants and licensees correctly.

(3)(C) An individual may retake the test three consecutive times provided the period between taking the tests is at least thirty days.

(4)(D) After failing three consecutive tests, an individual shall be required to wait at least six months before taking the test again.

(5)(E) If a mortgage loan originator fails to maintain a valid license for a period of five years or longer, the individual shall be required to retake the test. For this purpose, any time during which the individual is a registered mortgage loan originator shall not be taken into account.

(B) Notwithstanding division (A) of this section, if the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry fails to have in place a testing process that meets the criteria set forth in that division, the superintendent shall require, until that process is in place, evidence that the mortgage loan originator applicant passed a written test acceptable to the superintendent.

Sec. 1321.55.  (A) Every registrant shall keep records pertaining to loans made under sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised Code. Such records shall be segregated from records pertaining to transactions that are not subject to these sections of the Revised Code. Every registrant shall preserve records pertaining to loans made under sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised Code for at least two years after making the final entry on such records. Accounting systems maintained in whole or in part by mechanical or electronic data processing methods that provide information equivalent to that otherwise required are acceptable for this purpose. At least once each eighteen-month cycle, the division of financial institutions shall make or cause to be made an examination of records pertaining to loans made under sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised Code, for the purpose of determining whether the registrant is complying with these sections and of verifying the registrant's annual report.

(B)(1) As required by the superintendent of financial institutions, each registrant shall file with the division each year a an annual report under oath or affirmation, on forms supplied by the division, concerning the business and operations for the preceding calendar year. Whenever a registrant operates two or more registered offices or whenever two or more affiliated registrants operate registered offices, then a composite report of the group of registered offices may be filed in lieu of individual reports. For purposes of compliance with this requirement, the superintendent may accept call reports or other reports of condition submitted to the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry in lieu of the annual report.

(2) The division superintendent shall publish annually an analysis of the information required under division divisions (B)(1) and (3) of this section, but the individual reports, whether filed with the superintendent or the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry, shall not be public records and shall not be open to public inspection.

(3) Each mortgage licensee shall submit to the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry call reports or other reports of condition, which shall be in such form and shall contain such information as the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry may require.

(C)(1) The following information is confidential:

(a) Examination information, and any information leading to or arising from an examination;

(b) Investigation information, and any information arising from or leading to an investigation.

(2) The information described in division (C)(1) of this section shall remain confidential for all purposes except when it is necessary for the superintendent to take official action regarding the affairs of a registrant or licensee, or in connection with criminal or civil proceedings to be initiated by a prosecuting attorney or the attorney general. This information may also be introduced into evidence or disclosed when and in the manner authorized by section 1181.25 of the Revised Code.

(D) All application information, except social security numbers, employer identification numbers, financial account numbers, the identity of the institution where financial accounts are maintained, personal financial information, fingerprint cards and the information contained on such cards, and criminal background information, is a public record as defined in section 149.43 of the Revised Code.

(E) This section does not prevent the division of financial institutions from releasing to or exchanging with other financial institution regulatory authorities information relating to registrants and licensees. For this purpose, a "financial institution regulatory authority" includes a regulator of a business activity in which a registrant or licensee is engaged, or has applied to engage in, to the extent that the regulator has jurisdiction over a registrant or licensee engaged in that business activity. A registrant or licensee is engaged in a business activity, and a regulator of that business activity has jurisdiction over the registrant or licensee, whether the registrant or licensee conducts the activity directly or a subsidiary or affiliate of the registrant or licensee conducts the activity.

(1) Any confidentiality or privilege arising under federal or state law with respect to any information or material provided to the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry shall continue to apply to the information or material after the information or material has been provided to the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry. The information and material so provided may be shared with all state and federal regulatory officials with mortgage industry oversight authority without the loss of confidentiality or privilege protections provided by federal law or the law of any state. Information or material described in division (E)(1) of this section to which confidentiality or privilege applies shall not be subject to any of the following:

(a) Disclosure under any federal or state law governing disclosure to the public of information held by an officer or an agency of the federal government or of the respective state;

(b) Subpoena or discovery, or admission into evidence, in any private civil action or administrative process, unless the person to whom such information or material pertains waives, in whole or in part and at the discretion of the person, any privilege held by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry with respect to that information or material.

(2) The superintendent, in order to promote more effective regulation and reduce regulatory burden through supervisory information sharing, may enter into sharing arrangements with other governmental agencies, the conference of state bank supervisors, and the American association of residential mortgage regulators.

(3) Any state law, including section 149.43 of the Revised Code, relating to the disclosure of confidential supervisory information or any information or material described in division (C)(1) or (E)(1) of this section that is inconsistent with this section shall be superseded by the requirements of this section.

(F) This section shall not apply with respect to information or material relating to the employment history of, and publicly adjudicated disciplinary and enforcement actions against, mortgage loan originators that is included in the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry for access by the public.

(G) This section does not prevent the division from releasing information relating to registrants and licensees to the attorney general, to the superintendent of real estate and professional licensing for purposes relating to the administration of Chapters 4735. and 4763. of the Revised Code, to the superintendent of insurance for purposes relating to the administration of Chapter 3953. of the Revised Code, to the commissioner of securities for purposes relating to the administration of Chapter 1707. of the Revised Code, or to local law enforcement agencies and local prosecutors. Information the division releases pursuant to this section remains confidential.

(H) The superintendent of financial institutions shall, by rule adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, establish a process by which mortgage loan originators may challenge information provided to the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry by the superintendent.

(I) No person, in connection with any examination or investigation conducted by the superintendent under sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised Code, shall knowingly do any of the following:

(1) Circumvent, interfere with, obstruct, or fail to cooperate, including making a false or misleading statement, failing to produce records, or intimidating or suborning any witness;

(2) Withhold, abstract, remove, mutilate, destroy, or secrete any books, records, computer records, or other information;

(3) Tamper with, alter, or manufacture any evidence.

Sec. 1322.03.  (A) An application for a certificate of registration as a mortgage broker shall be in writing, under oath, and in the form prescribed by the superintendent of financial institutions. The application shall be accompanied by a nonrefundable application fee of five hundred dollars for each location of an office to be maintained by the applicant in accordance with division (A) of section 1322.02 of the Revised Code and any additional fee required by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry. The application shall provide all of the following:

(1) The location or locations where the business is to be transacted and whether any location is a residence. If any location where the business is to be transacted is a residence, the superintendent may require that the application be accompanied by a copy of a zoning permit authorizing the use of the residence for commercial purposes, or by a written opinion or other document issued by the county or political subdivision where the residence is located certifying that the use of the residence to transact business as a mortgage broker is not prohibited by the county or political subdivision.

(2)(a) In the case of a sole proprietor, the name and address of the sole proprietor;

(b) In the case of a partnership, the name and address of each partner;

(c) In the case of a corporation, the name and address of each shareholder owning five per cent or more of the corporation;

(d) In the case of any other entity, the name and address of any person that owns five per cent or more of the entity that will transact business as a mortgage broker.

(3) Each applicant shall designate an employee or owner of the applicant as the applicant's operations manager. While acting as the operations manager, the employee or owner shall be licensed as a loan originator under sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the Revised Code and shall not be employed by any other mortgage broker.

(4) Evidence that the person designated on the application pursuant to division (A)(3) of this section possesses at least three years of experience in the residential mortgage and lending field, which experience may include employment with or as a mortgage broker or with a depository institution, mortgage lending institution, or other lending institution, or possesses at least three years of other experience related specifically to the business of residential mortgage loans that the superintendent determines meets the requirements of division (A)(4) of this section;

(5) Evidence that the person designated on the application pursuant to division (A)(3) of this section has successfully completed the pre-licensing instruction requirements set forth in section 1322.031 of the Revised Code;

(6) Evidence of compliance with the surety bond requirements of section 1322.05 of the Revised Code and with sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the Revised Code;

(7) In the case of a foreign business entity, evidence that it maintains a license or registration pursuant to Chapter 1703., 1705., 1775., 1776., 1777., 1782., or 1783. of the Revised Code to transact business in this state;

(8) Evidence that the applicant's operations manager has successfully completed the written test required under division (A) of by section 1322.051 of the Revised Code;

(9) Any further information that the superintendent requires.

(B) Upon the filing of the application and payment of the nonrefundable application fee and any fee required by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry, the superintendent of financial institutions shall investigate the applicant, and any individual whose identity is required to be disclosed in the application, as set forth in division (B) of this section.

(1)(a) Notwithstanding division (K) of section 121.08 of the Revised Code, the superintendent shall obtain a criminal history records check and, as part of that records check, request that criminal record information from the federal bureau of investigation be obtained. To fulfill this requirement, the superintendent shall do either of the following:

(i) Request the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation, or a vendor approved by the bureau, to conduct a criminal records check based on the applicant's fingerprints or, if the fingerprints are unreadable, based on the applicant's social security number, in accordance with division (A)(12) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code;

(ii) Authorize the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry to request a criminal history background check.

(b) Any fee required under division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code or by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry shall be paid by the applicant.

(2) The superintendent shall conduct a civil records check.

(3) If, in order to issue a certificate of registration to an applicant, additional investigation by the superintendent outside this state is necessary, the superintendent may require the applicant to advance sufficient funds to pay the actual expenses of the investigation, if it appears that these expenses will exceed five hundred dollars. The superintendent shall provide the applicant with an itemized statement of the actual expenses that the applicant is required to pay.

(C) The superintendent shall pay all funds advanced and application and renewal fees and penalties the superintendent receives pursuant to this section and section 1322.04 of the Revised Code to the treasurer of state to the credit of the consumer finance fund created in section 1321.21 of the Revised Code.

(D) If an application for a mortgage broker certificate of registration does not contain all of the information required under division (A) of this section, and if that information is not submitted to the superintendent or to the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry within ninety days after the superintendent or the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry requests the information in writing, including by electronic transmission or facsimile, the superintendent may consider the application withdrawn.

(E) A mortgage broker certificate of registration and the authority granted under that certificate is not transferable or assignable and cannot be franchised by contract or any other means.

(F) The registration requirements of this chapter apply to any person acting as a mortgage broker, and no person is exempt from the requirements of this chapter on the basis of prior work or employment as a mortgage broker.

(G) The superintendent may establish relationships or enter into contracts with the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry, or any entities designated by it, to collect and maintain records and process transaction fees or other fees related to mortgage broker certificates of registration or the persons associated with a mortgage broker.

Sec. 1322.031. (A) An application for a license as a loan originator shall be in writing, under oath, and in the form prescribed by the superintendent of financial institutions. The application shall be accompanied by a nonrefundable application fee of one hundred fifty dollars and any additional fee required by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry.

(B)(1) The application shall provide evidence, acceptable to the superintendent, that the applicant has successfully completed at least twenty-four hours of pre-licensing instruction consisting of all of the following:

(a) Twenty hours of instruction in a course or program of study reviewed and approved by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry;

(b) Four hours of instruction in a course or program of study reviewed and approved by the superintendent concerning state lending laws and the Ohio consumer sales practices act, Chapter 1345. of the Revised Code, as it applies to registrants and licensees.

(2) Notwithstanding division (B)(1) of this section, until the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry implements a review and approval program, the application shall provide evidence, as determined by the superintendent, that the applicant has successfully completed at least twenty-four hours of instruction in a course or program of study approved by the superintendent that consists of at least all of the following:

(a) Four hours of instruction concerning state and federal mortgage lending laws, which shall include no less than two hours on this chapter;

(b) Four hours of instruction concerning the Ohio consumer sales practices act, Chapter 1345. of the Revised Code, as it applies to registrants and licensees;

(c) Four hours of instruction concerning the loan application process;

(d) Two hours of instruction concerning the underwriting process;

(e) Two hours of instruction concerning the secondary market for mortgage loans;

(f) Four hours of instruction concerning the loan closing process;

(g) Two hours of instruction covering basic mortgage financing concepts and terms;

(h) Two hours of instruction concerning the ethical responsibilities of a registrant and a licensee, including with respect to confidentiality, consumer counseling, and the duties and standards of care created in section 1322.081 of the Revised Code.

(3) For purposes of division (B)(1)(a) of this section, the review and approval of a course or program of study includes the review and approval of the provider of the course or program of study.

(4) If an applicant held a valid loan originator license issued by this state at any time during the immediately preceding five-year period, the applicant shall not be required to complete any additional pre-licensing instruction. For this purpose, any time during which the individual is a registered loan originator shall not be taken into account.

(5) A person having successfully completed the pre-licensing education requirement reviewed and approved by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry for any state within the previous five years shall be granted credit toward completion of the pre-licensing education requirement of this state.

(C) In addition to the information required under division (B) of this section, the application shall provide both of the following:

(1) Evidence that the applicant passed a written test that meets the requirements described in division (B) of section 1322.051 of the Revised Code;

(2) Any further information that the superintendent requires.

(D) Upon the filing of the application and payment of the application fee and any fee required by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry, the superintendent of financial institutions shall investigate the applicant as set forth in division (D) of this section.

(1)(a) Notwithstanding division (K) of section 121.08 of the Revised Code, the superintendent shall obtain a criminal history records check and, as part of the records check, request that criminal record information from the federal bureau of investigation be obtained. To fulfill this requirement, the superintendent shall do either of the following:

(i) Request the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation, or a vendor approved by the bureau, to conduct a criminal records check based on the applicant's fingerprints or, if the fingerprints are unreadable, based on the applicant's social security number, in accordance with division (A)(12) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code;

(ii) Authorize the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry to request a criminal history background check.

(b) Any fee required under division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code or by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry shall be paid by the applicant.

(2) The superintendent shall conduct a civil records check.

(3) If, in order to issue a license to an applicant, additional investigation by the superintendent outside this state is necessary, the superintendent may require the applicant to advance sufficient funds to pay the actual expenses of the investigation, if it appears that these expenses will exceed one hundred fifty dollars. The superintendent shall provide the applicant with an itemized statement of the actual expenses that the applicant is required to pay.

(E)(1) In connection with applying for a loan originator license, the applicant shall furnish to the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry the following information concerning the applicant's identity:

(a) The applicant's fingerprints for submission to the federal bureau of investigation, and any other governmental agency or entity authorized to receive such information, for purposes of a state, national, and international criminal history background check;

(b) Personal history and experience in a form prescribed by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry, along with authorization for the superintendent and the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry to obtain the following:

(i) An independent credit report from a consumer reporting agency;

(ii) Information related to any administrative, civil, or criminal findings by any governmental jurisdiction.

(2) In order to effectuate the purposes of divisions (E)(1)(a) and (E)(1)(b)(ii) of this section, the superintendent may use the conference of state bank supervisors, or a wholly owned subsidiary, as a channeling agent for requesting information from and distributing information to the United States department of justice or any other governmental agency. The superintendent may also use the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry as a channeling agent for requesting information from and distributing information to any source related to matters subject to those divisions of this section.

(F) The superintendent shall pay all funds advanced and application and renewal fees and penalties the superintendent receives pursuant to this section and section 1322.041 of the Revised Code to the treasurer of state to the credit of the consumer finance fund created in section 1321.21 of the Revised Code.

(G) If an application for a loan originator license does not contain all of the information required under this section, and if that information is not submitted to the superintendent or to the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry within ninety days after the superintendent or the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry requests the information in writing, including by electronic transmission or facsimile, the superintendent may consider the application withdrawn.

(H)(1) The business of a loan originator shall principally be transacted at an office of the mortgage broker with whom the licensee is employed or associated, which office is registered in accordance with division (A) of section 1322.02 of the Revised Code. Each original loan originator license shall be deposited with and maintained by the mortgage broker at the mortgage broker's main office. A copy of the license shall be maintained and displayed at the office where the loan originator principally transacts business.

(2) If a loan originator's employment or association is terminated for any reason, the mortgage broker shall return the original loan originator license to the superintendent within five business days after the termination. The licensee may request the transfer of the license to another mortgage broker by submitting a transfer application, along with a fifteen dollar fee and any fee required by the national mortgage licensing system and registry, to the superintendent or may request the superintendent in writing to hold the license in escrow. Any licensee whose license is held in escrow shall cease activity as a loan originator. A licensee whose license is held in escrow shall be required to apply for renewal annually and to comply with the annual continuing education requirement.

(3) A mortgage broker may employ or be associated with a loan originator on a temporary basis pending the transfer of the loan originator's license to the mortgage broker, if the mortgage broker receives written confirmation from the superintendent that the loan originator is licensed under sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the Revised Code.

(4) Notwithstanding divisions (H)(1) to (3) of this section, if a licensee is employed by or associated with a person or entity listed in division (G)(2) of section 1322.01 of the Revised Code, all of the following apply:

(a) The licensee shall maintain and display the original loan originator license at the office where the licensee principally transacts business;

(b) If the loan originator's employment or association is terminated, the loan originator shall return the original loan originator license to the superintendent within five business days after termination. The licensee may request the transfer of the license to a mortgage broker or another person or entity listed in division (G)(2) of section 1322.01 of the Revised Code by submitting a transfer application, along with a fifteen-dollar fee and any fee required by the national mortgage licensing system and registry, to the superintendent or may request the superintendent in writing to hold the license in escrow. A licensee whose license is held in escrow shall cease activity as a loan originator. A licensee whose license is held in escrow shall be required to apply for renewal annually and to comply with the annual continuing education requirement.

(c) The licensee may seek to be employed or associated with a mortgage broker or person or entity listed in division (G)(2) of section 1322.01 of the Revised Code if the mortgage broker or person or entity receives written confirmation from the superintendent that the loan originator is licensed under sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the Revised Code.

(I) The superintendent may establish relationships or enter into contracts with the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry, or any entities designated by it, to collect and maintain records and process transaction fees or other fees related to loan originator licenses or the persons associated with a licensee.

(J) A loan originator license, or the authority granted under that license, is not assignable and cannot be franchised by contract or any other means.

Sec. 1322.04.  (A) Upon the conclusion of the investigation required under division (B) of section 1322.03 of the Revised Code, the superintendent of financial institutions shall issue a certificate of registration to the applicant if the superintendent finds that the following conditions are met:

(1) The application is accompanied by the application fee and any fee required by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry.

(a) If a check or other draft instrument is returned to the superintendent for insufficient funds, the superintendent shall notify the applicant by certified mail, return receipt requested, that the application will be withdrawn unless the applicant, within thirty days after receipt of the notice, submits the application fee and a one-hundred-dollar penalty to the superintendent. If the applicant does not submit the application fee and penalty within that time period, or if any check or other draft instrument used to pay the fee or penalty is returned to the superintendent for insufficient funds, the application shall be withdrawn.

(b) If a check or other draft instrument is returned to the superintendent for insufficient funds after the certificate of registration has been issued, the superintendent shall notify the registrant by certified mail, return receipt requested, that the certificate of registration issued in reliance on the check or other draft instrument will be canceled unless the registrant, within thirty days after receipt of the notice, submits the application fee and a one-hundred-dollar penalty to the superintendent. If the registrant does not submit the application fee and penalty within that time period, or if any check or other draft instrument used to pay the fee or penalty is returned to the superintendent for insufficient funds, the certificate of registration shall be canceled immediately without a hearing, and the registrant shall cease activity as a mortgage broker.

(2) If the application is for a location that is a residence, evidence that the use of the residence to transact business as a mortgage broker is not prohibited.

(3) The person designated on the application pursuant to division (A)(3) of section 1322.03 of the Revised Code meets the experience requirements provided in division (A)(4) of section 1322.03 of the Revised Code and the education requirements set forth in division (A)(5) of section 1322.03 of the Revised Code.

(4) The applicant maintains all necessary filings and approvals required by the secretary of state.

(5) The applicant complies with the surety bond requirements of section 1322.05 of the Revised Code.

(6) The applicant complies with sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the Revised Code and the rules adopted thereunder.

(7) Neither the applicant nor any person whose identity is required to be disclosed on an application for a mortgage broker certificate of registration has had a mortgage broker certificate of registration or loan originator license, or any comparable authority, revoked in any governmental jurisdiction or has pleaded guilty or nolo contendere to or been convicted of any of the following in a domestic, foreign, or military court:

(a) During the seven-year period immediately preceding the date of application for the certificate of registration, a misdemeanor involving theft or any felony;

(b) At any time prior to the date the application for the certificate of registration is approved, a felony involving an act of fraud, dishonesty, a breach of trust, theft, or money laundering.

(8) Based on the totality of the circumstances and information submitted in the application, the applicant has proven to the superintendent, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the applicant is of good business repute, appears qualified to act as a mortgage broker, has fully complied with sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the Revised Code and the rules adopted thereunder, and meets all of the conditions for issuing a mortgage broker certificate of registration.

(9) The applicant's operations manager successfully completed the examination required under division (A) of by section 1322.051 of the Revised Code.

(10) The applicant's financial responsibility, experience, character, and general fitness command the confidence of the public and warrant the belief that the business will be operated honestly and fairly in compliance with the purposes of sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the Revised Code and the rules adopted thereunder. The superintendent shall not use a credit score as the sole basis for registration denial.

(B) For purposes of determining whether an applicant that is a partnership, corporation, or other business entity or association has met the conditions set forth in divisions (A)(7), (A)(8), and (A)(10) of this section, the superintendent shall determine which partners, shareholders, or persons named in the application pursuant to division (A)(2) of section 1322.03 of the Revised Code must meet the conditions set forth in divisions (A)(7), (A)(8), and (A)(10) of this section. This determination shall be based on the extent and nature of the partner's, shareholder's, or person's ownership interest in the partnership, corporation, or other business entity or association that is the applicant and on whether the person is in a position to direct, control, or adversely influence the operations of the applicant.

(C) The certificate of registration issued pursuant to division (A) of this section may be renewed annually on or before the thirty-first day of December if the superintendent finds that all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The renewal application is accompanied by a nonrefundable renewal fee of five hundred dollars for each location of an office to be maintained by the applicant in accordance with division (A) of section 1322.02 of the Revised Code and any fee required by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry. If a check or other draft instrument is returned to the superintendent for insufficient funds, the superintendent shall notify the registrant by certified mail, return receipt requested, that the certificate of registration renewed in reliance on the check or other draft instrument will be canceled unless the registrant, within thirty days after receipt of the notice, submits the renewal fee and a one-hundred-dollar penalty to the superintendent. If the registrant does not submit the renewal fee and penalty within that time period, or if any check or other draft instrument used to pay the fee or penalty is returned to the superintendent for insufficient funds, the certificate of registration shall be canceled immediately without a hearing and the registrant shall cease activity as a mortgage broker.

(2) The operations manager designated under division (A)(3) of section 1322.03 of the Revised Code has completed, at least eight hours of continuing education as required under section 1322.052 of the Revised Code.

(3) The applicant meets the conditions set forth in divisions (A)(2) to (10) of this section.

(4) The applicant's mortgage broker certificate of registration is not subject to an order of suspension or an unpaid and past due fine imposed by the superintendent.

(D)(1) Subject to division (D)(2) of this section, if a renewal fee or additional fee required by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry is received by the superintendent after the thirty-first day of December, the mortgage broker certificate of registration shall not be considered renewed, and the applicant shall cease activity as a mortgage broker.

(2) Division (D)(1) of this section shall not apply if the applicant, no later than the thirty-first day of January, submits the renewal fee or additional fee and a one-hundred-dollar penalty to the superintendent.

(E) If the person designated as the operations manager pursuant to division (A)(3) of section 1322.03 of the Revised Code is no longer the operations manager, the registrant shall do all of the following:

(1) Within ninety days after the departure of the designated operations manager, designate another person as the operations manager;

(2) Within ten days after the designation described in division (E)(1) of this section, notify the superintendent in writing of the designation;

(3) Submit any additional information that the superintendent requires to establish that the newly designated operations manager complies with the requirements set forth in section 1322.03 of the Revised Code.

(F) The registrant shall cease operations if it is without an operations manager approved by the superintendent for more than one hundred eighty days unless otherwise authorized in writing by the superintendent due to exigent circumstances.

(G) Mortgage broker certificates of registration issued on or after May 1, 2010, annually expire on the thirty-first day of December.

Sec. 1322.041. (A) Upon the conclusion of the investigation required under division (D) of section 1322.031 of the Revised Code, the superintendent of financial institutions shall issue a loan originator license to the applicant if the superintendent finds that the following conditions are met:

(1) The application is accompanied by the application fee and any fee required by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry.

(a) If a check or other draft instrument is returned to the superintendent for insufficient funds, the superintendent shall notify the applicant by certified mail, return receipt requested, that the application will be withdrawn unless the applicant, within thirty days after receipt of the notice, submits the application fee and a one-hundred-dollar penalty to the superintendent. If the applicant does not submit the application fee and penalty within that time period, or if any check or other draft instrument used to pay the fee or penalty is returned to the superintendent for insufficient funds, the application shall be withdrawn.

(b) If a check or other draft instrument is returned to the superintendent for insufficient funds after the license has been issued, the superintendent shall notify the licensee by certified mail, return receipt requested, that the license issued in reliance on the check or other draft instrument will be canceled unless the licensee, within thirty days after receipt of the notice, submits the application fee and a one-hundred-dollar penalty to the superintendent. If the licensee does not submit the application fee and penalty within that time period, or if any check or other draft instrument used to pay the fee or penalty is returned to the superintendent for insufficient funds, the license shall be canceled immediately without a hearing, and the licensee shall cease activity as a loan originator.

(2) The applicant complies with sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the Revised Code and the rules adopted thereunder.

(3) The applicant has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty or nolo contendere to any of the following in a domestic, foreign, or military court:

(a) During the seven-year period immediately preceding the date of application for the license, a misdemeanor involving theft or any felony;

(b) At any time prior to the date the application for the license is approved, a felony involving an act of fraud, dishonesty, a breach of trust, theft, or money laundering.

(4) Based on the totality of the circumstances and information submitted in the application, the applicant has proven to the superintendent, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the applicant is of good business repute, appears qualified to act as a loan originator, has fully complied with sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the Revised Code and the rules adopted thereunder, and meets all of the conditions for issuing a loan originator license.

(5) The applicant successfully completed the written test required under division (B) of by section 1322.051 of the Revised Code and completed the prelicensing instruction set forth in division (B) of section 1322.031 of the Revised Code.

(6) The applicant's financial responsibility, character, and general fitness command the confidence of the public and warrant the belief that the business will be operated honestly and fairly in compliance with the purposes of sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the Revised Code. The superintendent shall not use a credit score as the sole basis for a license denial.

(7) The applicant is in compliance with the surety bond requirements of section 1322.05 of the Revised Code.

(8) The applicant has not had a loan originator license, or comparable authority, revoked in any governmental jurisdiction.

(B) The license issued under division (A) of this section may be renewed annually on or before the thirty-first day of December if the superintendent finds that all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The renewal application is accompanied by a nonrefundable renewal fee of one hundred fifty dollars and any fee required by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry. If a check or other draft instrument is returned to the superintendent for insufficient funds, the superintendent shall notify the licensee by certified mail, return receipt requested, that the license renewed in reliance on the check or other draft instrument will be canceled unless the licensee, within thirty days after receipt of the notice, submits the renewal fee and a one-hundred-dollar penalty to the superintendent. If the licensee does not submit the renewal fee and penalty within that time period, or if any check or other draft instrument used to pay the fee or penalty is returned to the superintendent for insufficient funds, the license shall be canceled immediately without a hearing, and the licensee shall cease activity as a loan originator.

(2) The applicant has completed at least eight hours of continuing education as required under section 1322.052 of the Revised Code.

(3) The applicant meets the conditions set forth in divisions (A)(2) to (8) of this section; provided, however, that an applicant who was issued a loan officer license prior to January 1, 2010, and has continuously maintained that license shall not be required to meet the condition described in division (B)(1)(b) of section 1322.031 of the Revised Code.

(4) The applicant's license is not subject to an order of suspension or an unpaid and past due fine imposed by the superintendent.

(C)(1) Subject to division (C)(2) of this section, if a license renewal application or renewal fee, including any fee required by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry, is received by the superintendent after the thirty-first day of December, the license shall not be considered renewed, and the applicant shall cease activity as a loan originator.

(2) Division (C)(1) of this section shall not apply if the applicant, no later than the thirty-first day of January, submits the renewal application and fees and a one-hundred-dollar penalty to the superintendent.

(D) Loan originator licenses issued on or after May 1, 2010, annually expire on the thirty-first day of December.

Sec. 1322.051.  (A) Each person designated under division (A)(3) of section 1322.03 of the Revised Code to act as operations manager for a mortgage broker business shall submit to a written test approved by the superintendent of financial institutions. An individual shall not be considered to have passed the written test unless the individual achieves a test score of at least seventy-five per cent correct answers to all questions.

(B) Each and each applicant for a loan originator license shall submit to a written test that is developed and approved by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry and administered by a test provider approved by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry based on reasonable standards.

(1)(A) The test shall adequately measure the designee's or applicant's knowledge and comprehension in appropriate subject areas, including ethics, federal and state law related to mortgage origination, fraud, consumer protection, and the nontraditional mortgage marketplace, and fair lending issues.

(2)(B) An individual shall not be considered to have passed the written test unless the individual achieves a test score of answers at least seventy-five per cent correct answers on all of the questions and at least seventy-five per cent correct answers on all questions relating to state mortgage lending laws and the Ohio consumer sales practices act, Chapter 1345. of the Revised Code, as it applies to registrants and licensees correctly.

(3)(C) An individual may retake the test three consecutive times provided the period between taking the tests is at least thirty days. If an individual fails three consecutive tests, the individual shall be required to wait at least six months before taking the test again.

(4)(D) If a loan originator fails to maintain a valid loan originator license for a period of five years or longer, the individual shall be required to retake the test.

For this purpose, any time during which the individual is a registered loan originator shall not be taken into account.

(C) Notwithstanding division (B) of this section, until the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry implements a testing process that meets the criteria set forth in that division, the superintendent shall require each applicant to pass a written test acceptable to the superintendent.

Sec. 1322.06.  (A) As often as the superintendent of financial institutions considers it necessary, the superintendent may examine the registrant's or licensee's records, including all records created or processed by a licensee, pertaining to business transacted pursuant to sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the Revised Code.

(B) A registrant or licensee shall maintain records pertaining to business transacted pursuant to sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the Revised Code, including copies of all mortgage loan origination disclosure statements prepared in accordance with section 1322.062 of the Revised Code, for four years. For purposes of this division, "registrant or licensee" includes any person whose certificate of registration or license is cancelled, surrendered, or revoked or who otherwise ceases to engage in business as a mortgage broker or loan originator.

No registrant or licensee shall fail to comply with this division.

(C) Each registrant and licensee shall submit to the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry call reports or other reports of condition, which reports shall be in such form and shall contain such information as the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry may require.

(D)(1) As required by the superintendent, each registrant shall file with the division of financial institutions an annual report under oath or affirmation, on forms supplied by the division, concerning the business and operations of the registrant for the preceding calendar year. If a registrant operates two or more registered offices, or two or more affiliated registrants operate registered offices, a composite report of the group of registered offices may be filed in lieu of individual reports. For purposes of compliance with this requirement, the superintendent may accept call reports or other reports of condition submitted to the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry in lieu of the annual report.

(2) The division superintendent shall publish annually an analysis of the information required under division (D)(1) of this section, but the individual reports, whether filed with the superintendent or the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry, shall not be public records and shall not be open to public inspection or otherwise be subject to section 149.43 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 1501.01. (A) Except where otherwise expressly provided, the director of natural resources shall formulate and institute all the policies and programs of the department of natural resources. The chief of any division of the department shall not enter into any contract, agreement, or understanding unless it is approved by the director. No appointee or employee of the director, other than the assistant director, may bind the director in a contract except when given general or special authority to do so by the director.

The director may enter into contracts or agreements with any agency of the United States government, any other public agency, or any private entity or organization for the performance of the duties of the department.

(B) The director shall correlate and coordinate the work and activities of the divisions in the department to eliminate unnecessary duplications of effort and overlapping of functions. The chiefs of the various divisions of the department shall meet with the director at least once each month at a time and place designated by the director.

The director may create advisory boards to any of those divisions in conformity with section 121.13 of the Revised Code.

(C) The director may accept and expend gifts, devises, and bequests of money, lands, and other properties on behalf of the department or any division thereof under the terms set forth in section 9.20 of the Revised Code. Any political subdivision of this state may make contributions to the department for the use of the department or any division therein according to the terms of the contribution.

(D) The director may publish and sell or otherwise distribute data, reports, and information.

(E) The director may identify and develop the geographic information system needs for the department, which may include, but not be limited to, all of the following:

(1) Assisting in the training and education of department resource managers, administrators, and other staff in the application and use of geographic information system technology;

(2) Providing technical support to the department in the design, preparation of data, and use of appropriate geographic information system applications in order to help solve resource related problems and to improve the effectiveness and efficiency of department delivered services;

(3) Creating, maintaining, and documenting spatial digital data bases;

(4) Providing information to and otherwise assisting government officials, planners, and resource managers in understanding land use planning and resource management;

(5) Providing continuing assistance to local government officials and others in natural resource digital data base development and in applying and utilizing the geographic information system for land use planning, current agricultural use value assessment, development reviews, coastal management, and other resource management activities;

(6) Coordinating and administering the remote sensing needs of the department, including the collection and analysis of aerial photography, satellite data, and other data pertaining to land, water, and other resources of the state;

(7) Preparing and publishing maps and digital data relating to the state's land use and land cover over time on a local, regional, and statewide basis;

(8) Locating and distributing hard copy maps, digital data, aerial photography, and other resource data and information to government agencies and the public;

(9) Preparing special studies and executing any other related duties, functions, and responsibilities identified by the director;

(10) Entering into contracts or agreements with any agency of the United States government, any other public agency, or any private agency or organization for the performance of the duties specified in division (E) of this section or for accomplishing cooperative projects within those duties;

(11) Entering into agreements with local government agencies for the purposes of land use inventories, Ohio capability analysis data layers, and other duties related to resource management.

(F) The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to permit the department to accept by means of a credit card the payment of fees, charges, and rentals at those facilities described in section 1501.07 of the Revised Code that are operated by the department, for any data, reports, or information sold by the department, and for any other goods or services provided by the department.

(G) Whenever authorized by the governor to do so, the director may appropriate property for the uses and purposes authorized to be performed by the department and on behalf of any division within the department. This authority shall be exercised in the manner provided in sections 163.01 to 163.22 of the Revised Code for the appropriation of property by the director of administrative services. This authority to appropriate property is in addition to the authority provided by law for the appropriation of property by divisions of the department. The director of natural resources also may acquire by purchase, lease, or otherwise such real and personal property rights or privileges in the name of the state as are necessary for the purposes of the department or any division therein. The director, with the approval of the governor and the attorney general, in accordance with section 5301.13 of the Revised Code, if applicable, may sell, lease, or exchange portions of lands or property, real or personal, of any division of the department or grant easements or licenses for the use thereof, or enter into agreements for the sale of water from lands and waters under the administration or care of the department or any of its divisions, when the sale, lease, exchange, easement, agreement, or license for use is in an amount that is less than one million dollars and is advantageous to the state, provided that such approval is not required for leases and contracts made under section 1501.07, 1501.09, or 1520.03 or Chapter 1523. of the Revised Code. With the approval of the governor, the director, in accordance with section 5301.13 of the Revised Code, if applicable, may sell, lease, or exchange portions of, grant easements or licenses for the use of, or enter into agreements for the sale of such lands, property, or waters in an amount of one million dollars or more when the sale, lease, exchange, easement, agreement, or license is advantageous to the state. Water may be sold from a reservoir only to the extent that the reservoir was designed to yield a supply of water for a purpose other than recreation or wildlife, and the water sold is in excess of that needed to maintain the reservoir for purposes of recreation or wildlife.

Money received from such sales, leases, easements, exchanges, agreements, or licenses for use, except revenues required to be set aside or paid into depositories or trust funds for the payment of bonds issued under sections 1501.12 to 1501.15 of the Revised Code, and to maintain the required reserves therefor as provided in the orders authorizing the issuance of such bonds or the trust agreements securing such bonds, revenues required to be paid and credited pursuant to the bond proceeding applicable to obligations issued pursuant to section 154.22, and revenues generated under section 1520.05 of the Revised Code, shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the fund of the division of the department having prior jurisdiction over the lands or property. If no such fund exists, the money shall be credited to the general revenue fund. All such money received from lands or properties administered by the division of wildlife shall be credited to the wildlife fund.

(H) The director shall provide for the custody, safekeeping, and deposit of all moneys, checks, and drafts received by the department or its employees prior to paying them to the treasurer of state under section 113.08 of the Revised Code.

(I) The director shall cooperate with the nature conservancy, other nonprofit organizations, and the United States fish and wildlife service in order to secure protection of islands in the Ohio river and the wildlife and wildlife habitat of those islands.

(J) Any instrument by which real property is acquired pursuant to this section shall identify the agency of the state that has the use and benefit of the real property as specified in section 5301.012 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 1501.011. (A) Except as provided in divisions (B), (C), and (D) of this section, the Ohio facilities construction commission shall supervise the design and construction of, and make contracts for the construction, reconstruction, improvement, enlargement, alteration, repair, or decoration of, any projects or improvements for the department of natural resources that may be authorized by legislative appropriations or any other funds available therefor, the estimated cost of which amounts to two hundred thousand dollars or more or the amount determined pursuant to section 153.53 of the Revised Code or more.

(B) The department of natural resources shall administer the construction of improvements under an agreement with the supervisors of a soil and water conservation district pursuant to division (I) of section 1515.08 of the Revised Code.

(C)(1) The department of natural resources shall supervise the design and construction of, and make contracts for the construction, reconstruction, improvement, enlargement, alteration, repair, or decoration of, any of the following activities, projects, or improvements:

(a) Dam repairs administered by the division of engineering under Chapter 1507. of the Revised Code;

(b) Projects or improvements administered by the division of watercraft and funded through the waterways safety fund established in section 1547.75 of the Revised Code;

(c) Projects or improvements administered by the division of wildlife under Chapter 1531. or 1533. of the Revised Code;

(d) Activities conducted by the department pursuant to section 5511.05 of the Revised Code in order to maintain the department's roadway inventory.

(2) If a contract to be let under division (C)(1) of this section involves an exigency that concerns the public health, safety, or welfare or addresses an emergency situation in which timeliness is crucial in preventing the cost of the contract from increasing significantly, pursuant to the declaration of a public exigency, the department may award the contract without competitive bidding or selection as otherwise required by Chapter 153. of the Revised Code.

A notice published by the department of natural resources regarding an activity, project, or improvement shall be published as contemplated in section 7.16 of the Revised Code.

(D) The executive director of the Ohio facilities construction commission may authorize the department of natural resources to administer any other project or improvement, the estimated cost of which, including design fees, construction, equipment, and contingency amounts, is not more than one million five hundred thousand dollars.

Sec. 1509.01.  As used in this chapter:

(A) "Well" means any borehole, whether drilled or bored, within the state for production, extraction, or injection of any gas or liquid mineral, excluding potable water to be used as such, but including natural or artificial brines and oil field waters.

(B) "Oil" means crude petroleum oil and all other hydrocarbons, regardless of gravity, that are produced in liquid form by ordinary production methods, but does not include hydrocarbons that were originally in a gaseous phase in the reservoir.

(C) "Gas" means all natural gas and all other fluid hydrocarbons that are not oil, including condensate.

(D) "Condensate" means liquid hydrocarbons separated at or near the well pad or along the gas production or gathering system prior to gas processing.

(E) "Pool" means an underground reservoir containing a common accumulation of oil or gas, or both, but does not include a gas storage reservoir. Each zone of a geological structure that is completely separated from any other zone in the same structure may contain a separate pool.

(F) "Field" means the general area underlaid by one or more pools.

(G) "Drilling unit" means the minimum acreage on which one well may be drilled, but does not apply to a well for injecting gas into or removing gas from a gas storage reservoir.

(H) "Waste" includes all of the following:

(1) Physical waste, as that term generally is understood in the oil and gas industry;

(2) Inefficient, excessive, or improper use, or the unnecessary dissipation, of reservoir energy;

(3) Inefficient storing of oil or gas;

(4) Locating, drilling, equipping, operating, or producing an oil or gas well in a manner that reduces or tends to reduce the quantity of oil or gas ultimately recoverable under prudent and proper operations from the pool into which it is drilled or that causes or tends to cause unnecessary or excessive surface loss or destruction of oil or gas;

(5) Other underground or surface waste in the production or storage of oil, gas, or condensate, however caused.

(I) "Correlative rights" means the reasonable opportunity to every person entitled thereto to recover and receive the oil and gas in and under the person's tract or tracts, or the equivalent thereof, without having to drill unnecessary wells or incur other unnecessary expense.

(J) "Tract" means a single, individually taxed individual parcel of land appearing on the tax list or a portion of a single, individual parcel of land.

(K) "Owner," unless referring to a mine, means the person who has the right to drill on a tract or drilling unit, to drill into and produce from a pool, and to appropriate the oil or gas produced therefrom either for the person or for others, except that a person ceases to be an owner with respect to a well when the well has been plugged in accordance with applicable rules adopted and orders issued under this chapter. "Owner" does not include a person who obtains a lease of the mineral rights for oil and gas on a parcel of land if the person does not attempt to produce or produce oil or gas from a well or obtain a permit under this chapter for a well or if the entire interest of a well is transferred to the person in accordance with division (B) of section 1509.31 of the Revised Code.

(L) "Royalty interest" means the fee holder's share in the production from a well.

(M) "Discovery well" means the first well capable of producing oil or gas in commercial quantities from a pool.

(N) "Prepared clay" means a clay that is plastic and is thoroughly saturated with fresh water to a weight and consistency great enough to settle through saltwater in the well in which it is to be used, except as otherwise approved by the chief of the division of oil and gas resources management.

(O) "Rock sediment" means the combined cutting and residue from drilling sedimentary rocks and formation.

(P) "Excavations and workings," "mine," and "pillar" have the same meanings as in section 1561.01 of the Revised Code.

(Q) "Coal bearing township" means a township designated as such by the chief of the division of mineral resources management under section 1561.06 of the Revised Code.

(R) "Gas storage reservoir" means a continuous area of a subterranean porous sand or rock stratum or strata into which gas is or may be injected for the purpose of storing it therein and removing it therefrom and includes a gas storage reservoir as defined in section 1571.01 of the Revised Code.

(S) "Safe Drinking Water Act" means the "Safe Drinking Water Act," 88 Stat. 1661 (1974), 42 U.S.C.A. 300(f), as amended by the "Safe Drinking Water Amendments of 1977," 91 Stat. 1393, 42 U.S.C.A. 300(f), the "Safe Drinking Water Act Amendments of 1986," 100 Stat. 642, 42 U.S.C.A. 300(f), and the "Safe Drinking Water Act Amendments of 1996," 110 Stat. 1613, 42 U.S.C.A. 300(f), and regulations adopted under those acts.

(T) "Person" includes any political subdivision, department, agency, or instrumentality of this state; the United States and any department, agency, or instrumentality thereof; and any legal entity defined as a person under section 1.59 of the Revised Code.

(U) "Brine" means all saline geological formation water resulting from, obtained from, or produced in connection with exploration, drilling, well stimulation, production of oil or gas, or plugging of a well.

(V) "Waters of the state" means all streams, lakes, ponds, marshes, watercourses, waterways, springs, irrigation systems, drainage systems, and other bodies of water, surface or underground, natural or artificial, that are situated wholly or partially within this state or within its jurisdiction, except those private waters that do not combine or effect a junction with natural surface or underground waters.

(W) "Exempt Mississippian well" means a well that meets all of the following criteria:

(1) Was drilled and completed before January 1, 1980;

(2) Is located in an unglaciated part of the state;

(3) Was completed in a reservoir no deeper than the Mississippian Big Injun sandstone in areas underlain by Pennsylvanian or Permian stratigraphy, or the Mississippian Berea sandstone in areas directly underlain by Permian stratigraphy;

(4) Is used primarily to provide oil or gas for domestic use.

(X) "Exempt domestic well" means a well that meets all of the following criteria:

(1) Is owned by the owner of the surface estate of the tract on which the well is located;

(2) Is used primarily to provide gas for the owner's domestic use;

(3) Is located more than two hundred feet horizontal distance from any inhabited private dwelling house other than an inhabited private dwelling house located on the tract on which the well is located;

(4) Is located more than two hundred feet horizontal distance from any public building that may be used as a place of resort, assembly, education, entertainment, lodging, trade, manufacture, repair, storage, traffic, or occupancy by the public.

(Y) "Urbanized area" means an area where a well or production facilities of a well are located within a municipal corporation or within a township that has an unincorporated population of more than five thousand in the most recent federal decennial census prior to the issuance of the permit for the well or production facilities.

(Z) "Well stimulation" or "stimulation of a well" means the process of enhancing well productivity, including hydraulic fracturing operations.

(AA) "Production operation" means all operations and activities and all related equipment, facilities, and other structures that may be used in or associated with the exploration and production of oil, gas, or other mineral resources that are regulated under this chapter, including operations and activities associated with site preparation, site construction, access road construction, well drilling, well completion, well stimulation, well site activities, reclamation, and plugging. "Production operation" also includes all of the following:

(1) The piping, equipment, and facilities used for the production and preparation of hydrocarbon gas or liquids for transportation or delivery;

(2) The processes of extraction and recovery, lifting, stabilization, treatment, separation, production processing, storage, waste disposal, and measurement of hydrocarbon gas and liquids, including related equipment and facilities;

(3) The processes and related equipment and facilities associated with production compression, gas lift, gas injection, fuel gas supply, well drilling, well stimulation, and well completion activities, including dikes, pits, and earthen and other impoundments used for the temporary storage of fluids and waste substances associated with well drilling, well stimulation, and well completion activities;

(4) Equipment and facilities at a wellpad or other location that are used for the transportation, handling, recycling, temporary storage, management, processing, or treatment of any equipment, material, and by-products or other substances from an operation at a wellpad that may be used or reused at the same or another operation at a wellpad or that will be disposed of in accordance with applicable laws and rules adopted under them.

(BB) "Annular overpressurization" means the accumulation of fluids within an annulus with sufficient pressure to allow migration of annular fluids into underground sources of drinking water.

(CC) "Idle and orphaned well" means a well for which a bond has been forfeited or an abandoned well for which no money is available to plug the well in accordance with this chapter and rules adopted under it.

(DD) "Temporarily inactive well" means a well that has been granted temporary inactive status under section 1509.062 of the Revised Code.

(EE) "Material and substantial violation" means any of the following:

(1) Failure to obtain a permit to drill, reopen, convert, plugback, or plug a well under this chapter;

(2) Failure to obtain, maintain, update, or submit proof of insurance coverage that is required under this chapter;

(3) Failure to obtain, maintain, update, or submit proof of a surety bond that is required under this chapter;

(4) Failure to plug an abandoned well or idle and orphaned well unless the well has been granted temporary inactive status under section 1509.062 of the Revised Code or the chief of the division of oil and gas resources management has approved another option concerning the abandoned well or idle and orphaned well;

(5) Failure to restore a disturbed land surface as required by section 1509.072 of the Revised Code;

(6) Failure to reimburse the oil and gas well fund pursuant to a final order issued under section 1509.071 of the Revised Code;

(7) Failure to comply with a final nonappealable order of the chief issued under section 1509.04 of the Revised Code;

(8) Failure to submit a report, test result, fee, or document that is required in this chapter or rules adopted under it;

(9) Failure to correct the violations identified in a compliance notice within sixty days after the issuance of the compliance notice unless another period of time is specified in the compliance notice;

(10) Receiving compliance notices for the same or similar violations of this chapter or rules adopted under it that present an imminent danger to the health or safety of a person or result in or are likely to result in substantial damage to the natural resources of this state;

(11) Submission of falsified information under this chapter.

(FF) "Severer" has the same meaning as in section 5749.01 of the Revised Code.

(GG) "Horizontal well" means a well that is drilled for the production of oil or gas in which the wellbore reaches a horizontal or near horizontal position in the Point Pleasant, Utica, or Marcellus formation and the well is stimulated.

(HH) "Well pad" means the area that is cleared or prepared for the drilling of one or more horizontal wells.

Sec. 1509.02.  There is hereby created in the department of natural resources the division of oil and gas resources management, which shall be administered by the chief of the division of oil and gas resources management. The division has sole and exclusive authority to regulate the permitting, location, and spacing of oil and gas wells and production operations within the state, excepting only those activities regulated under federal laws for which oversight has been delegated to the environmental protection agency and activities regulated under sections 6111.02 to 6111.028 of the Revised Code. The regulation of oil and gas activities is a matter of general statewide interest that requires uniform statewide regulation, and this chapter and rules adopted under it constitute a comprehensive plan with respect to all aspects of the locating, drilling, well stimulation, completing, and operating of oil and gas wells within this state, including site construction and restoration, permitting related to those activities, and the disposal of wastes from those wells. In order to assist the division in the furtherance of its sole and exclusive authority as established in this section, the chief may enter into cooperative agreements with other state agencies for advice and consultation, including visitations at the surface location of a well on behalf of the division. Such cooperative agreements do not confer on other state agencies any authority to administer or enforce this chapter and rules adopted under it. In addition, such cooperative agreements shall not be construed to dilute or diminish the division's sole and exclusive authority as established in this section. Nothing in this section affects the authority granted to the director of transportation and local authorities in section 723.01 or 4513.34 of the Revised Code, provided that the authority granted under those sections shall not be exercised in a manner that discriminates against, unfairly impedes, or obstructs oil and gas activities and operations regulated under this chapter.

The chief shall not hold any other public office, nor shall the chief be engaged in any occupation or business that might interfere with or be inconsistent with the duties as chief.

All moneys collected by the chief pursuant to sections 1509.06, 1509.061, 1509.062, 1509.071, 1509.091, 1509.13, 1509.22, 1509.222, 1509.28, and 1509.34, and 1509.50 of the Revised Code, ninety per cent of moneys received by the treasurer of state from the tax levied in divisions (A)(5) and (6) of section 5749.02 of the Revised Code, all civil penalties paid under section 1509.33 of the Revised Code, and, notwithstanding any section of the Revised Code relating to the distribution or crediting of fines for violations of the Revised Code, all fines imposed under divisions (A) and (B) of section 1509.99 of the Revised Code and fines imposed under divisions (C) and (D) of section 1509.99 of the Revised Code for all violations prosecuted by the attorney general and for violations prosecuted by prosecuting attorneys that do not involve the transportation of brine by vehicle shall be deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the oil and gas well fund, which is hereby created. Fines imposed under divisions (C) and (D) of section 1509.99 of the Revised Code for violations prosecuted by prosecuting attorneys that involve the transportation of brine by vehicle and penalties associated with a compliance agreement entered into pursuant to this chapter shall be paid to the county treasury of the county where the violation occurred.

The fund shall be used solely and exclusively for the purposes enumerated in division (B) of section 1509.071 of the Revised Code, for the expenses of the division associated with the administration of this chapter and Chapter 1571. of the Revised Code and rules adopted under them, and for expenses that are critical and necessary for the protection of human health and safety and the environment related to oil and gas production in this state. The expenses of the division in excess of the moneys available in the fund shall be paid from general revenue fund appropriations to the department.

Sec. 1509.04. (A) The chief of the division of oil and gas resources management, or the chief's authorized representatives, shall enforce this chapter and the rules, terms and conditions of permits and registration certificates, and orders adopted or issued pursuant thereto, except that any peace officer, as defined in section 2935.01 of the Revised Code, may arrest for violations of this chapter involving transportation of brine by vehicle. The enforcement authority of the chief includes the authority to issue compliance notices and to enter into compliance agreements.

(B)(1) The chief or the chief's authorized representative may issue an administrative order to an owner or other person for a violation of this chapter or rules adopted under it, terms and conditions of a permit issued under it, a registration certificate that is required under this chapter, or orders issued under this chapter.

(2)(a) If an owner or other person who is required to submit a report, test result, fee, or document by this chapter or rules adopted under it submits a request for an extension of time to submit the report, test result, fee, or document to the chief prior to the date on which the report, test result, fee, or document is due, the chief may grant an extension of not more than sixty additional days from the original date on which the report, test result, fee, or document is due.

(b) If an owner or other person who is required to submit a report, test result, fee, or document by this chapter or rules adopted under it fails to submit the report, test result, fee, or document before or on the date on which it is due and the chief has not granted an extension of time under division (B)(2)(a) of this section, the chief shall make a reasonable attempts attempt to notify the owner or other person of the failure to submit the report, test result, fee, or document. If an owner or other person who receives such a notification fails to submit the report, test result, fee, or document on or before thirty days after the date on which the chief so notified the owner or other person, the chief may issue an order under division (B)(2)(c)(3) of this section.

(c)(3) The chief may issue an order finding that an owner or other person has committed a material and substantial violation. In the order, the chief may suspend activities that are authorized under a permit or registration certificate that is issued under this chapter or revoke a permit or registration certificate.

(C) The chief, by order, immediately may suspend drilling, operating, injection, brine transportation, or plugging activities that are related to a material and substantial violation and suspend and or revoke an unused permit after finding either of the following:

(1) An owner or other person has failed to comply with an order issued under division (B)(2)(c)(3) of this section that is final and nonappealable.

(2) An owner or other person is causing, engaging in, or maintaining a condition or activity that the chief determines presents an imminent danger to the health or safety of the public a person or that results in or is likely to result in immediate substantial damage to the natural resources of this state.

(D)(1) The chief may issue an order under division (C) of this section without prior notification if reasonable attempts to notify the owner or other person have failed or if the owner or other person is currently in material breach of a prior order, but in such an event notification shall be given as soon thereafter as practical.

(2) Not later than five business days after the issuance of an order under division (C) of this section, the chief or the chief's designee shall provide the owner or other person an opportunity to be heard and to present evidence that one of the following applies:

(a) The condition or activity does not present an imminent danger to the public health or safety of a person or is not likely to result in immediate substantial damage to natural resources.

(b) Required records, reports, or logs have been submitted The condition or activity that is the basis of a material and substantial violation has been corrected.

(3)(a) If the chief, after considering evidence presented by the owner or other person under division (D)(2)(a) of this section, determines that the activities do not present such a threat or that the required records, reports, or logs have been submitted under division (D)(2)(b) of this section condition or activity that is the basis of a material and substantial violation has been corrected, the chief shall revoke rescind the order. The

(b) If the chief, after considering evidence presented by the owner or other person under division (D)(2)(a) of this section, determines that the activities present such a threat or that the condition or activity that is the basis of a material and substantial violation has not been corrected, the chief may issue an order that does either of the following:

(i) Suspends the drilling, operating, plugging, injection, or brine transportation activities of the owner or other person for a specified period of time;

(ii) Revokes the permit or registration certificate, as applicable, associated with the drilling, operating, plugging, injection, or brine transportation activities of the owner or other person that is the basis of the suspension order issued under division (C) of this section.

(c) The owner may appeal or other person to whom an order was issued under division (D)(3)(b) of this section may appeal the order to the oil and gas commission under section 1509.36 of the Revised Code or to the court of common pleas of the county in which the activity that is the subject of the order is located.

(E) The chief may issue a bond forfeiture order pursuant to section 1509.071 of the Revised Code for failure to comply with a final nonappealable order issued or compliance agreement entered into under this section.

(F) The chief may notify drilling contractors, transporters, service companies, or other similar entities of the compliance status of an owner.

If the owner fails to comply with a prior enforcement action of the chief, the chief may issue a suspension order without prior notification, but in such an event the chief shall give notice as soon thereafter as practical. Not later than five calendar business days after the issuance of an order, the chief shall provide the owner an opportunity to be heard and to present evidence that required records, reports, or logs have been submitted. If the chief, after considering the evidence presented by the owner, determines that the requirements have been satisfied, the chief shall revoke rescind the suspension order. The owner may appeal a suspension order to the oil and gas commission under section 1509.36 of the Revised Code or to the court of common pleas of the county in which the activity that is the subject of the suspension order is located.

(G) The prosecuting attorney of the county or the attorney general, upon the request of the chief, may apply to the court of common pleas in the county in which any of the provisions of this chapter or any rules, terms or conditions of a permit or registration certificate, or orders adopted or issued pursuant to this chapter are being violated for a temporary restraining order, preliminary injunction, or permanent injunction restraining any person from such the violation.

Sec. 1509.05.  (A) No person shall drill a new well, drill an existing well any deeper, reopen a well, convert a well to any use other than its original purpose, or plug back a well to a source of supply different from the existing pool, without having a permit to do so issued by the chief of the division of oil and gas resources management, and until the original permit or a photostatic copy thereof is posted or displayed in a conspicuous and easily accessible place at the well site, with the name, current address, and telephone number of the permit holder and the telephone numbers for fire and emergency medical services maintained on the posted permit or copy. The permit or a copy shall be continuously displayed in that manner at all times during the work authorized by the permit.

(B) The chief may issue an order refusing to issue a permit required by this section or section 1509.21 or 1509.22 of the Revised Code to an applicant who at the time of application for a permit has been issued an order for a material and substantial violation and has failed to comply with the order. The chief shall refuse to issue a permit to an applicant who at the time of application for a permit has been found liable by a nonappealable order of a court of competent jurisdiction for damage to streets, roads, highways, bridges, culverts, or drainways under section 4513.34 or 5577.12 of the Revised Code until the applicant provides the chief with evidence of compliance with the order. No applicant shall attempt to circumvent this division by applying for a permit under a different name or business organization name, by transferring responsibility to another person or entity, by abandoning a well or lease, or by any other similar act.

Sec. 1509.051.  (A) A person who has not been issued a permit or a registration certificate or who has not received an order authorizing activities under this chapter, but who intends to apply or has applied for such a permit, registration certificate, or order shall register with the division of oil and gas resources management on a form and in the manner prescribed by the chief of the division of oil and gas resources management. The registration shall include all of the following:

(1) The name, address, and telephone number of the applicant's principal place of business;

(2) The address and telephone number of the applicant's principal place of business in this state if it is different from the information provided under division (A)(1) of this section;

(3) A listing of all key employees of the applicant;

(4) A listing of all of the following during the five years immediately preceding the submission of the registration:

(a) All consent orders entered into by the applicant or a key employee of the applicant in connection with any violation of the Federal Water Pollution Control Act by the applicant or a key employee of the applicant or in connection with any violation of this state's or any other state's laws implementing the Federal Water Pollution Control Act pursuant to delegation by the United States environmental protection agency by the applicant or a key employee of the applicant;

(b) All administrative or civil enforcement orders issued to the applicant or a key employee of the applicant in connection with any violation of the Federal Water Pollution Control Act by the applicant or a key employee of the applicant or in connection with any violation of this state's or any other state's laws implementing the Federal Water Pollution Control Act pursuant to delegation by the United States environmental protection agency by the applicant or a key employee of the applicant;

(c) All civil actions in which the applicant or a key employee of the applicant was determined by the trier of fact to be liable in damages or was the subject of injunctive relief or another type of civil relief in connection with any violation of the Federal Water Pollution Control Act by the applicant or a key employee of the applicant or in connection with any violation of this state's or any other state's laws implementing the Federal Water Pollution Control Act pursuant to delegation by the United States environmental protection agency by the applicant or a key employee of the applicant;

(d) All criminal actions in which the applicant or a key employee of the applicant pleaded guilty to or was convicted of any violation of the Federal Water Pollution Control Act or any violation of this state's or any other state's laws implementing the Federal Water Pollution Control Act pursuant to delegation by the United States environmental protection agency.

(B) The chief may issue an order denying an application submitted under this chapter if the chief finds from the information submitted under division (A) of this section that the applicant or any key employee of the applicant has a history of noncompliance with the Federal Water Pollution Control Act or with this state's or any other state's laws implementing the Federal Water Pollution Control Act pursuant to delegation by the United States environmental protection agency that indicates that the applicant lacks sufficient reliability, expertise, and competence to operate a proposed new well or brine transportation business or other facility or operation that is authorized by the permit or order, as applicable, in substantial compliance with this chapter and rules adopted under it.

(C) The chief may issue an order denying an application submitted under this chapter if the chief finds that the information submitted under division (A) of this section is false or materially incomplete.

(D) As used in this section:

(1) "Applicant" means a person who intends to apply or has applied for a permit, registration certificate, or order authorizing activities under this chapter.

(2) "Federal Water Pollution Control Act" has the same meaning as in section 6111.01 of the Revised Code.

(3) "Key employee" means an individual who is employed by an applicant in a supervisory capacity or who is empowered to make discretionary decisions with respect to the operations of the applicant or another person who has supervisory capacity or who is empowered to make discretionary decisions with respect to the operations of the applicant. If the applicant has entered into a contract with another person to operate a well that is the subject of the application, "key employee" includes an employee of the contractor who acts in a supervisory capacity or is empowered to make discretionary decisions with respect to the operation of the well. "Key employee" does not include an employee who is exclusively engaged in any of the following: the physical or mechanical construction or operation of a well, physical or mechanical duties related to the transportation of brine, or in the physical or mechanical duties related to other activities authorized under this chapter.

Sec. 1509.06. (A) An application for a permit to drill a new well, drill an existing well deeper, reopen a well, convert a well to any use other than its original purpose, or plug back a well to a different source of supply, including associated production operations, shall be filed with the chief of the division of oil and gas resources management upon such form as the chief prescribes and shall contain each of the following that is applicable:

(1) The name and address of the owner and, if a corporation, the name and address of the statutory agent;

(2) The signature of the owner or the owner's authorized agent. When an authorized agent signs an application, it shall be accompanied by a certified copy of the appointment as such agent.

(3) The names and addresses of all persons holding the royalty interest in the tract upon which the well is located or is to be drilled or within a proposed drilling unit;

(4) The location of the tract or drilling unit on which the well is located or is to be drilled identified by section or lot number, city, village, township, and county;

(5) Designation of the well by name and number;

(6)(a) The geological formation to be tested or used and the proposed total depth of the well;

(b) If the well is for the injection of a liquid, identity of the geological formation to be used as the injection zone and the composition of the liquid to be injected.

(7) The type of drilling equipment to be used;

(8)(a) An identification, to the best of the owner's knowledge, of each proposed source of ground water and surface water that will be used in the production operations of the well. The identification of each proposed source of water shall indicate if the water will be withdrawn from the Lake Erie watershed or the Ohio river watershed. In addition, the owner shall provide, to the best of the owner's knowledge, the proposed estimated rate and volume of the water withdrawal for the production operations. If recycled water will be used in the production operations, the owner shall provide the estimated volume of recycled water to be used. The owner shall submit to the chief an update of any of the information that is required by division (A)(8)(a) of this section if any of that information changes before the chief issues a permit for the application.

(b) Except as provided in division (A)(8)(c) of this section, for an application for a permit to drill a new well within an urbanized area, the results of sampling of water wells within three hundred feet of the proposed well prior to commencement of drilling. In addition, the owner shall include a list that identifies the location of each water well where the owner of the property on which the water well is located denied the owner access to sample the water well. The sampling shall be conducted in accordance with the guidelines established in "Best Management Practices For Pre-drilling Water Sampling" in effect at the time that the application is submitted. The division shall furnish those guidelines upon request and shall make them available on the division's web site. If the chief determines that conditions at the proposed well site warrant a revision, the chief may revise the distance established in this division for purposes of pre-drilling water sampling.

(c) For an application for a permit to drill a new horizontal well, the results of sampling of water wells within one thousand five hundred feet of the proposed horizontal wellhead prior to commencement of drilling. In addition, the owner shall include a list that identifies the location of each water well where the owner of the property on which the water well is located denied the owner access to sample the water well. The sampling shall be conducted in accordance with the guidelines established in "Best Management Practices For Pre-drilling Water Sampling" in effect at the time that the application is submitted. The division shall furnish those guidelines upon request and shall make them available on the division's web site. If the chief determines that conditions at the proposed well site warrant a revision, the chief may revise the distance established in this division for purposes of pre-drilling water sampling.

(9) For an application for a permit to drill a new well within an urbanized area, a sworn statement that the applicant has provided notice by regular mail of the application to the owner of each parcel of real property that is located within five hundred feet of the surface location of the well and to the executive authority of the municipal corporation or the board of township trustees of the township, as applicable, in which the well is to be located. In addition, the notice shall contain a statement that informs an owner of real property who is required to receive the notice under division (A)(9) of this section that within five days of receipt of the notice, the owner is required to provide notice under section 1509.60 of the Revised Code to each residence in an occupied dwelling that is located on the owner's parcel of real property. The notice shall contain a statement that an application has been filed with the division of oil and gas resources management, identify the name of the applicant and the proposed well location, include the name and address of the division, and contain a statement that comments regarding the application may be sent to the division. The notice may be provided by hand delivery or regular mail. The identity of the owners of parcels of real property shall be determined using the tax records of the municipal corporation or county in which a parcel of real property is located as of the date of the notice.

(10) A plan for restoration of the land surface disturbed by drilling operations. The plan shall provide for compliance with the restoration requirements of division (A) of section 1509.072 of the Revised Code and any rules adopted by the chief pertaining to that restoration.

(11)(a) A description by name or number of the county, township, and municipal corporation roads, streets, and highways that the applicant anticipates will be used for access to and egress from the well site;

(b) For an application for a permit for a horizontal well, a copy of an agreement concerning maintenance and safe use of the roads, streets, and highways described in division (A)(11)(a) of this section entered into on reasonable terms with the public official that has the legal authority to enter into such maintenance and use agreements for each county, township, and municipal corporation, as applicable, in which any such road, street, or highway is located or an affidavit on a form prescribed by the chief attesting that the owner attempted in good faith to enter into an agreement under division (A)(11)(b) of this section with the applicable public official of each such county, township, or municipal corporation, but that no agreement was executed.

(12) Such other relevant information as the chief prescribes by rule.

Each application shall be accompanied by a map, on a scale not smaller than four hundred feet to the inch, prepared by an Ohio registered surveyor, showing the location of the well and containing such other data as may be prescribed by the chief. If the well is or is to be located within the excavations and workings of a mine, the map also shall include the location of the mine, the name of the mine, and the name of the person operating the mine.

(B) The chief shall cause a copy of the weekly circular prepared by the division to be provided to the county engineer of each county that contains active or proposed drilling activity. The weekly circular shall contain, in the manner prescribed by the chief, the names of all applicants for permits, the location of each well or proposed well, the information required by division (A)(11) of this section, and any additional information the chief prescribes. In addition, the chief promptly shall transfer an electronic copy or facsimile, or if those methods are not available to a municipal corporation or township, a copy via regular mail, of a drilling permit application to the clerk of the legislative authority of the municipal corporation or to the clerk of the township in which the well or proposed well is or is to be located if the legislative authority of the municipal corporation or the board of township trustees has asked to receive copies of such applications and the appropriate clerk has provided the chief an accurate, current electronic mailing address or facsimile number, as applicable.

(C)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) of this section, the chief shall not issue a permit for at least ten days after the date of filing of the application for the permit unless, upon reasonable cause shown, the chief waives that period or a request for expedited review is filed under this section. However, the chief shall issue a permit within twenty-one days of the filing of the application unless the chief denies the application by order.

(2) If the location of a well or proposed well will be or is within an urbanized area, the chief shall not issue a permit for at least eighteen days after the date of filing of the application for the permit unless, upon reasonable cause shown, the chief waives that period or the chief at the chief's discretion grants a request for an expedited review. However, the chief shall issue a permit for a well or proposed well within an urbanized area within thirty days of the filing of the application unless the chief denies the application by order.

(D) An applicant may file a request with the chief for expedited review of a permit application if the well is not or is not to be located in a gas storage reservoir or reservoir protective area, as "reservoir protective area" is defined in section 1571.01 of the Revised Code. If the well is or is to be located in a coal bearing township, the application shall be accompanied by the affidavit of the landowner prescribed in section 1509.08 of the Revised Code.

In addition to a complete application for a permit that meets the requirements of this section and the permit fee prescribed by this section, a request for expedited review shall be accompanied by a separate nonrefundable filing fee of two hundred fifty dollars. Upon the filing of a request for expedited review, the chief shall cause the county engineer of the county in which the well is or is to be located to be notified of the filing of the permit application and the request for expedited review by telephone or other means that in the judgment of the chief will provide timely notice of the application and request. The chief shall issue a permit within seven days of the filing of the request unless the chief denies the application by order. Notwithstanding the provisions of this section governing expedited review of permit applications, the chief may refuse to accept requests for expedited review if, in the chief's judgment, the acceptance of the requests would prevent the issuance, within twenty-one days of their filing, of permits for which applications are pending.

(E) A well shall be drilled and operated in accordance with the plans, sworn statements, and other information submitted in the approved application.

(F) The chief shall issue an order denying a permit if the chief finds that there is a substantial risk that the operation will result in violations of this chapter or rules adopted under it that will present an imminent danger to public health or safety or damage to the environment, provided that where the chief finds that terms or conditions to the permit can reasonably be expected to prevent such violations, the chief shall issue the permit subject to those terms or conditions, including, if applicable, terms and conditions regarding subjects identified in rules adopted under section 1509.03 of the Revised Code. The issuance of a permit shall not be considered an order of the chief.

The chief shall post notice of each permit that has been approved under this section on the division's web site not later than two business days after the application for a permit has been approved.

(G) Each application for a permit required by section 1509.05 of the Revised Code, except an application to plug back an existing well that is required by that section and an application for a well drilled or reopened for purposes of section 1509.22 of the Revised Code, also shall be accompanied by a nonrefundable fee as follows:

(1) Five hundred dollars for a permit to conduct activities in a township with a population of fewer than ten thousand;

(2) Seven hundred fifty dollars for a permit to conduct activities in a township with a population of ten thousand or more, but fewer than fifteen thousand;

(3) One thousand dollars for a permit to conduct activities in either of the following:

(a) A township with a population of fifteen thousand or more;

(b) A municipal corporation regardless of population.

(4) If the application is for a permit that requires mandatory pooling, an additional five thousand dollars.

For purposes of calculating fee amounts, populations shall be determined using the most recent federal decennial census.

Each application for the revision or reissuance of a permit shall be accompanied by a nonrefundable fee of two hundred fifty dollars.

(H)(1) Prior to the commencement of well pad construction and prior to the issuance of a permit to drill a proposed horizontal well or a proposed well that is to be located in an urbanized area, the division shall conduct a site review to identify and evaluate any site-specific terms and conditions that may be attached to the permit. At the site review, a representative of the division shall consider fencing, screening, and landscaping requirements, if any, for similar structures in the community in which the well is proposed to be located. The terms and conditions that are attached to the permit shall include the establishment of fencing, screening, and landscaping requirements for the surface facilities of the proposed well, including a tank battery of the well.

(2) Prior to the issuance of a permit to drill a proposed well, the division shall conduct a review to identify and evaluate any site-specific terms and conditions that may be attached to the permit if the proposed well will be located in a one-hundred-year floodplain or within the five-year time of travel associated with a public drinking water supply.

(I) A permit shall be issued by the chief in accordance with this chapter. A permit issued under this section for a well that is or is to be located in an urbanized area shall be valid for twelve months, and all other permits issued under this section shall be valid for twenty-four months.

(J) An applicant or a permittee, as applicable, shall submit to the chief an update of the information that is required under division (A)(8)(a) of this section if any of that information changes prior to commencement of production operations.

(K) A permittee or a permittee's authorized representative shall notify an inspector from the division at least twenty-four hours, or another time period agreed to by the chief's authorized representative, prior to the commencement of well pad construction and of drilling, reopening, converting, well stimulation, or plugback operations.

Sec. 1509.071.  (A) When the chief of the division of oil and gas resources management finds that an owner has failed to comply with a final nonappealable order issued or compliance agreement entered into under section 1509.04, the restoration requirements of section 1509.072, plugging requirements of section 1509.12, or permit provisions of section 1509.13 of the Revised Code, or rules and orders relating thereto, the chief shall make a finding of that fact and declare any surety bond filed to ensure compliance with those sections and rules forfeited in the amount set by rule of the chief. The chief thereupon shall certify the total forfeiture to the attorney general, who shall proceed to collect the amount of the forfeiture. In addition, the chief may require an owner, operator, producer, or other person who forfeited a surety bond to post a new surety bond in the amount of fifteen thousand dollars for a single well, thirty thousand dollars for two wells, or fifty thousand dollars for three or more wells.

In lieu of total forfeiture, the surety or owner, at the surety's or owner's option, may cause the well to be properly plugged and abandoned and the area properly restored or pay to the treasurer of state the cost of plugging and abandonment.

(B) All moneys collected because of forfeitures of bonds as provided in this section shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the oil and gas well fund created in section 1509.02 of the Revised Code.

The chief annually shall may spend not less than fourteen per cent of the revenue credited to the fund during the previous fiscal year for the following purposes:

(1) In accordance with division (D) of this section, to plug idle and orphaned wells or to restore the land surface properly as required in section 1509.072 of the Revised Code;

(2) In accordance with division (E) of this section, to correct conditions that the chief reasonably has determined are causing imminent health or safety risks at an idle and orphaned well or a well for which the owner cannot be contacted in order to initiate a corrective action within a reasonable period of time as determined by the chief;

(3) In accordance with rules adopted under division (I) of this section, to develop infrastructure as a solution to problems directly attributable to historic production operations.

Expenditures from the fund shall be made only for lawful purposes. In addition, expenditures from the fund shall not be made to purchase real property or to remove a dwelling in order to access a well.

(C)(1) Upon determining that the owner of a well has failed to properly plug and abandon it or to properly restore the land surface at the well site in compliance with the applicable requirements of this chapter and applicable rules adopted and orders issued under it or that a well is an abandoned well for which no funds are available to plug the well in accordance with this chapter, the chief shall do all of the following:

(a) Determine from the records in the office of the county recorder of the county in which the well is located the identity of the owner of the land on which the well is located, the identity of the owner of the oil or gas lease under which the well was drilled or the identity of each person owning an interest in the lease, and the identities of the persons having legal title to, or a lien upon, any of the equipment appurtenant to the well;

(b) Mail notice to the owner of the land on which the well is located informing the landowner that the well is to be plugged. If the owner of the oil or gas lease under which the well was drilled is different from the owner of the well or if any persons other than the owner of the well own interests in the lease, the chief also shall mail notice that the well is to be plugged to the owner of the lease or to each person owning an interest in the lease, as appropriate.

(c) Mail notice to each person having legal title to, or a lien upon, any equipment appurtenant to the well, informing the person that the well is to be plugged and offering the person the opportunity to plug the well and restore the land surface at the well site at the person's own expense in order to avoid forfeiture of the equipment to this state.

(2) If none of the persons described in division (C)(1)(c) of this section plugs the well within sixty days after the mailing of the notice required by that division, all equipment appurtenant to the well is hereby declared to be forfeited to this state without compensation and without the necessity for any action by the state for use to defray the cost of plugging and abandoning the well and restoring the land surface at the well site.

(D) Expenditures from the fund for the purpose of division (B)(1) of this section shall be made in accordance with either of the following:

(1) The expenditures may be made pursuant to contracts entered into by the chief with persons who agree to furnish all of the materials, equipment, work, and labor as specified and provided in such a contract for activities associated with the restoration or plugging of a well as determined by the chief. The activities may include excavation to uncover a well, geophysical methods to locate a buried well when clear evidence of leakage from the well exists, cleanout of wellbores to remove material from a failed plugging of a well, plugging operations, installation of vault and vent systems, including associated engineering certifications and permits, restoration of property, and repair of damage to property that is caused by such activities. Expenditures shall not be used for salaries, maintenance, equipment, or other administrative purposes, except for costs directly attributed to the plugging of an idle and orphaned well. Agents or employees of persons contracting with the chief for a restoration or plugging project may enter upon any land, public or private, on which the well is located for the purpose of performing the work. Prior to such entry, the chief shall give to the following persons written notice of the existence of a contract for a project to restore or plug a well, the names of the persons with whom the contract is made, and the date that the project will commence: the owner of the well, the owner of the land upon which the well is located, the owner or agents of adjoining land, and, if the well is located in the same township as or in a township adjacent to the excavations and workings of a mine and the owner or lessee of that mine has provided written notice identifying those townships to the chief at any time during the immediately preceding three years, the owner or lessee of the mine.

(2)(a) The owner of the land on which a well is located who has received notice under division (C)(1)(b) of this section may plug the well and be reimbursed by the division of oil and gas resources management for the reasonable cost of plugging the well. In order to plug the well, the landowner shall submit an application to the chief on a form prescribed by the chief and approved by the technical advisory council on oil and gas created in section 1509.38 of the Revised Code. The application, at a minimum, shall require the landowner to provide the same information as is required to be included in the application for a permit to plug and abandon under section 1509.13 of the Revised Code. The application shall be accompanied by a copy of a proposed contract to plug the well prepared by a contractor regularly engaged in the business of plugging oil and gas wells. The proposed contract shall require the contractor to furnish all of the materials, equipment, work, and labor necessary to plug the well properly and shall specify the price for doing the work, including a credit for the equipment appurtenant to the well that was forfeited to the state through the operation of division (C)(2) of this section. Expenditures under division (D)(2)(a) of this section shall be consistent with the expenditures for activities described in division (D)(1) of this section. The application also shall be accompanied by the permit fee required by section 1509.13 of the Revised Code unless the chief, in the chief's discretion, waives payment of the permit fee. The application constitutes an application for a permit to plug and abandon the well for the purposes of section 1509.13 of the Revised Code.

(b) Within thirty days after receiving an application and accompanying proposed contract under division (D)(2)(a) of this section, the chief shall determine whether the plugging would comply with the applicable requirements of this chapter and applicable rules adopted and orders issued under it and whether the cost of the plugging under the proposed contract is reasonable. If the chief determines that the proposed plugging would comply with those requirements and that the proposed cost of the plugging is reasonable, the chief shall notify the landowner of that determination and issue to the landowner a permit to plug and abandon the well under section 1509.13 of the Revised Code. Upon approval of the application and proposed contract, the chief shall transfer ownership of the equipment appurtenant to the well to the landowner. The chief may disapprove an application submitted under division (D)(2)(a) of this section if the chief determines that the proposed plugging would not comply with the applicable requirements of this chapter and applicable rules adopted and orders issued under it, that the cost of the plugging under the proposed contract is unreasonable, or that the proposed contract is not a bona fide, arm's length contract.

(c) After receiving the chief's notice of the approval of the application and permit to plug and abandon a well under division (D)(2)(b) of this section, the landowner shall enter into the proposed contract to plug the well.

(d) Upon determining that the plugging has been completed in compliance with the applicable requirements of this chapter and applicable rules adopted and orders issued under it, the chief shall reimburse the landowner for the cost of the plugging as set forth in the proposed contract approved by the chief. The reimbursement shall be paid from the oil and gas well fund. If the chief determines that the plugging was not completed in accordance with the applicable requirements, the chief shall not reimburse the landowner for the cost of the plugging, and the landowner or the contractor, as applicable, promptly shall transfer back to this state title to and possession of the equipment appurtenant to the well that previously was transferred to the landowner under division (D)(2)(b) of this section. If any such equipment was removed from the well during the plugging and sold, the landowner shall pay to the chief the proceeds from the sale of the equipment, and the chief promptly shall pay the moneys so received to the treasurer of state for deposit into the oil and gas well fund.

The chief may establish an annual limit on the number of wells that may be plugged under division (D)(2) of this section or an annual limit on the expenditures to be made under that division.

As used in division (D)(2) of this section, "plug" and "plugging" include the plugging of the well and the restoration of the land surface disturbed by the plugging.

(E) Expenditures from the oil and gas well fund for the purpose of division (B)(2) of this section may be made pursuant to contracts entered into by the chief with persons who agree to furnish all of the materials, equipment, work, and labor as specified and provided in such a contract. The competitive bidding requirements of Chapter 153. of the Revised Code do not apply if the chief reasonably determines that an emergency situation exists requiring immediate action for the correction of the applicable health or safety risk. A contract or purchase of materials for purposes of addressing the emergency situation is not subject to division (B) of section 127.16 of the Revised Code. The chief, designated representatives of the chief, and agents or employees of persons contracting with the chief under this division may enter upon any land, public or private, for the purpose of performing the work.

(F) Contracts entered into by the chief under this section are not subject to any of the following:

(1) Chapter 4115. of the Revised Code;

(2) Section 153.54 of the Revised Code, except that the contractor shall obtain and provide to the chief as a bid guaranty a surety bond or letter of credit in an amount equal to ten per cent of the amount of the contract;

(3) Section 4733.17 of the Revised Code.

(G) The owner of land on which a well is located who has received notice under division (C)(1)(b) of this section, in lieu of plugging the well in accordance with division (D)(2) of this section, may cause ownership of the well to be transferred to an owner who is lawfully doing business in this state and who has met the financial responsibility requirements established under section 1509.07 of the Revised Code, subject to the approval of the chief. The transfer of ownership also shall be subject to the landowner's filing the appropriate forms required under section 1509.31 of the Revised Code and providing to the chief sufficient information to demonstrate the landowner's or owner's right to produce a formation or formations. That information may include a deed, a lease, or other documentation of ownership or property rights.

The chief shall approve or disapprove the transfer of ownership of the well. If the chief approves the transfer, the owner is responsible for operating the well in accordance with this chapter and rules adopted under it, including, without limitation, all of the following:

(1) Filing an application with the chief under section 1509.06 of the Revised Code if the owner intends to drill deeper or produce a formation that is not listed in the records of the division for that well;

(2) Taking title to and possession of the equipment appurtenant to the well that has been identified by the chief as having been abandoned by the former owner;

(3) Complying with all applicable requirements that are necessary to drill deeper, plug the well, or plug back the well.

(H) The chief shall issue an order that requires the owner of a well to pay the actual documented costs of a corrective action that is described in division (B)(2) of this section concerning the well. The chief shall transmit the money so recovered to the treasurer of state who shall deposit the money in the state treasury to the credit of the oil and gas well fund.

(I) The chief shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code regarding the development of infrastructure as a solution to problems directly attributable to historic production operations. The rules shall establish criteria for determining the types of infrastructure for which revenues may be used under division (B)(3) of this section.

(J) The chief may engage in cooperative projects under this section with any agency of this state, another state, or the United States; any other governmental agencies; or any state university or college as defined in section 3345.27 of the Revised Code. A contract entered into for purposes of a cooperative project is not subject to division (B) of section 127.16 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 1509.08.  Upon receipt of an application for a permit required by section 1509.05 of the Revised Code, or upon receipt of an application for a permit to plug and abandon under section 1509.13 of the Revised Code, the chief of the division of oil and gas resources management shall determine whether the well is or is to be located in a coal bearing township.

Whether or not the well is or is to be located in a coal bearing township, the chief, by order, may refuse to issue a permit required by section 1509.05 of the Revised Code to any applicant who at the time of applying for the permit is in material or substantial violation of this chapter or rules adopted or orders issued under it. The chief shall refuse to issue a permit to any applicant who at the time of applying for the permit has been found liable by a final nonappealable order of a court of competent jurisdiction for damage to streets, roads, highways, bridges, culverts, or drainways pursuant to section 4513.34 or 5577.12 of the Revised Code until the applicant provides the chief with evidence of compliance with the order. No applicant shall attempt to circumvent this provision by applying for a permit under a different name or business organization name, by transferring responsibility to another person or entity, by abandoning the well or lease, or by any other similar act.

If the well is not or is not to be located in a coal bearing township, or if it is to be located in a coal bearing township, but the landowner submits an affidavit attesting to ownership of the property in fee simple, including the coal, and has no objection to the well, the chief shall issue the permit.

If the application to drill, reopen, or convert concerns a well that is or is to be located in a coal bearing township, the chief shall transmit to the chief of the division of mineral resources management two copies of the application and three copies of the map required in section 1509.06 of the Revised Code, except that, when the affidavit with the waiver of objection described above is submitted, the chief of the division of oil and gas resources management shall not transmit the copies.

The chief of the division of mineral resources management immediately shall notify the owner or lessee of any affected mine that the application has been filed and send to the owner or lessee two copies of the map accompanying the application setting forth the location of the well.

If the owner or lessee objects to the location of the well or objects to any location within fifty feet of the original location as a possible site for relocation of the well, the owner or lessee shall notify the chief of the division of mineral resources management of the objection, giving the reasons for the objection and, if applicable, indicating on a copy of the map the particular location or locations within fifty feet of the original location to which the owner or lessee objects as a site for possible relocation of the well, within six days after the receipt of the notice. If the chief receives no objections from the owner or lessee of the mine within ten days after the receipt of the notice by the owner or lessee, or if in the opinion of the chief the objections offered by the owner or lessee are not sufficiently well founded, the chief immediately shall notify the owner or lessee of those findings. The owner or lessee may appeal the decision of the chief to the reclamation commission under section 1513.13 of the Revised Code. The appeal shall be filed within fifteen days, notwithstanding provisions in divisions division (A)(1) of section 1513.13 of the Revised Code to the contrary, from the date on which the owner or lessee receives the notice. If the appeal is not filed within that time, the chief immediately shall approve the application, retain a copy of the application and map, and return a copy of the application to the chief of the division of oil and gas resources management with the approval noted on it. The chief of the division of oil and gas resources management then shall issue the permit if the provisions of this chapter pertaining to the issuance of such a permit have been complied with.

If the chief of the division of mineral resources management receives an objection from the owner or lessee of the mine as to the location of the well within ten days after receipt of the notice by the owner or lessee, and if in the opinion of the chief the objection is well founded, the chief shall disapprove the application and immediately return it to the chief of the division of oil and gas resources management together with the reasons for disapproval and a suggestion for a new location for the well, provided that the suggested new location shall not be a location within fifty feet of the original location to which the owner or lessee has objected as a site for possible relocation of the well if the chief of the division of mineral resources management has determined that the objection is well founded. The chief of the division of oil and gas resources management immediately shall notify the applicant for the permit of the disapproval and any suggestion made by the chief of the division of mineral resources management as to a new location for the well. The applicant may withdraw the application or amend the application to drill the well at the location suggested by the chief, or the applicant may appeal the disapproval of the application by the chief to the reclamation commission.

If the chief of the division of mineral resources management receives no objection from the owner or lessee of a mine as to the location of the well, but does receive an objection from the owner or lessee as to one or more locations within fifty feet of the original location as possible sites for relocation of the well within ten days after receipt of the notice by the owner or lessee, and if in the opinion of the chief the objection is well founded, the chief nevertheless shall approve the application and shall return it immediately to the chief of the division of oil and gas resources management together with the reasons for disapproving any of the locations to which the owner or lessee objects as possible sites for the relocation of the well. The chief of the division of oil and gas resources management then shall issue a permit if the provisions of this chapter pertaining to the issuance of such a permit have been complied with, incorporating as a term or condition of the permit that the applicant is prohibited from commencing drilling at any location within fifty feet of the original location that has been disapproved by the chief of the division of mineral resources management. The applicant may appeal to the reclamation commission the terms and conditions of the permit prohibiting the commencement of drilling at any such location disapproved by the chief of the division of mineral resources management.

Any such appeal shall be filed within fifteen days, notwithstanding provisions in division (A)(1) of section 1513.13 of the Revised Code to the contrary, from the date the applicant receives notice of the disapproval of the application, any other location within fifty feet of the original location, or terms or conditions of the permit, or the owner or lessee receives notice of the chief's decision. No approval or disapproval of an application shall be delayed by the chief of the division of mineral resources management for more than fifteen days from the date of sending the notice of the application to the mine owner or lessee as required by this section.

All appeals provided for in this section shall be treated as expedited appeals. The reclamation commission shall hear any such appeal in accordance with section 1513.13 of the Revised Code and issue a decision within thirty days of the filing of the notice of appeal.

The chief of the division of oil and gas resources management shall not issue a permit to drill a new well or reopen a well that is or is to be located within three hundred feet of any opening of any mine used as a means of ingress, egress, or ventilation for persons employed in the mine, nor within one hundred feet of any building or inflammable structure connected with the mine and actually used as a part of the operating equipment of the mine, unless the chief of the division of mineral resources management determines that life or property will not be endangered by drilling and operating the well in that location.

The chief of the division of mineral resources management may suspend the drilling or reopening of a well in a coal bearing township after determining that the drilling or reopening activities present an imminent and substantial threat to public health or safety or to miners' health or safety and having been unable to contact the chief of the division of oil and gas resources management to request an order of suspension under section 1509.06 of the Revised Code. Before issuing a suspension order for that purpose, the chief of the division of mineral resources management shall notify the owner in a manner that in the chief's judgment would provide reasonable notification that the chief intends to issue a suspension order. The chief may issue such an order without prior notification if reasonable attempts to notify the owner have failed, but in that event notification shall be given as soon thereafter as practical. Within five calendar days after the issuance of the order, the chief shall provide the owner an opportunity to be heard and to present evidence that the activities do not present an imminent and substantial threat to public health or safety or to miners' health or safety. If, after considering the evidence presented by the owner, the chief determines that the activities do not present such a threat, the chief shall revoke the suspension order. An owner may appeal a suspension order issued by the chief of the division of mineral resources management under this section to the reclamation commission in accordance with section 1513.13 of the Revised Code or may appeal the order directly to the court of common pleas of the county in which the well is located.

Sec. 1509.061 1509.091.  An owner of a well who has been issued a permit under section 1509.06 of the Revised Code may submit to the chief of the division of oil and gas resources management, on a form prescribed by the chief, a request to revise an existing tract upon which exists a producing or idle well. The chief shall adopt, and may amend and rescind, rules under section 1509.03 of the Revised Code that are necessary for the administration of this section. The rules at least shall stipulate the information to be included on the request form and shall establish a fee to be paid by the person submitting the request, which fee shall not exceed two hundred fifty dollars.

The chief shall approve a request submitted under this section unless it would result in a violation of this chapter or rules adopted under it, including provisions establishing spacing or minimum acreage requirements.

Sec. 1509.11. (A)(1) The owner of any well, except a horizontal well, that is producing or capable of producing oil or gas shall file with the chief of the division of oil and gas resources management, on or before the thirty-first day of March, a statement of production of oil, gas, and brine for the last preceding calendar year in such form as the chief may prescribe. An owner that has more than one hundred such wells in this state shall submit electronically the statement of production in a format that is approved by the chief. The chief shall include on the form, at the minimum, a request for the submittal of the information that a person who is regulated under this chapter is required to submit under the "Emergency Planning and Community Right-To-Know Act of 1986," 100 Stat. 1728, 42 U.S.C.A. 11001, and regulations adopted under it, and that the division of oil and gas resources management does not obtain through other reporting mechanisms.

(2) The owner of any horizontal well that is producing or capable of producing oil or gas shall file with the chief, on the forty-fifth day following the close of each calendar quarter, a statement of production of oil, gas, and brine for the preceding calendar quarter in a form that the chief prescribes. An owner that has more than one hundred horizontal wells in this state shall submit electronically the statement of production in a format that is approved by the chief. The chief shall include on the form, at a minimum, a request for the submittal of the information that a person who is regulated under this chapter is required to submit under the "Emergency Planning and Community Right-To-Know Act of 1986," 100 Stat. 1728, 42 U.S.C. 11001, and regulations adopted under it, and that the division does not obtain through other reporting mechanisms.

(B) The chief shall not disclose information received from the department of taxation under division (C)(12) of section 5703.21 of the Revised Code until the related statement of production required by division (A) of this section is filed with the chief.

(C) Not later than the thirty-first day of July of each year, the chief shall do both of the following:

(1) Calculate for each county and certify to the director of budget and management and the tax commissioner the number of horizontal wells drilled and holding a permit issued under section 1509.06 of the Revised Code located in the county on the last day of the preceding fiscal year divided by the number of all horizontal wells drilled and holding such permits on that day. The chief shall not adjust any county's calculation after the calculations are so certified.

(2) Determine which counties in the state had active oil and gas development in the Point Pleasant, Utica, or Marcellus formation in the preceding fiscal year and, as soon as is practicable, certify that determination to the Ohio shale products regional commission.

Sec. 1509.222.  (A)(1) Except as provided in section 1509.226 of the Revised Code, no person shall transport brine by vehicle in this state unless the business entity that employs the person first registers with and obtains a registration certificate and identification number from the chief of the division of oil and gas resources management.

(2) No more than one registration certificate shall be required of any business entity. Registration certificates issued under this section are not transferable. An applicant shall file an application with the chief, containing such information in such form as the chief prescribes. The application shall include at least all of the following:

(a) A list that identifies each pipeline, vehicle, vessel, railcar, and container that will be used in the transportation of brine;

(b) A plan for disposal that provides for compliance with the requirements of this chapter and rules of the chief pertaining to the transportation of brine by vehicle and the disposal of brine so transported and that lists all disposal sites that the applicant intends to use;

(c) The bond required by section 1509.225 of the Revised Code;

(d) A certificate issued by an insurance company authorized to do business in this state certifying that the applicant has in force a liability insurance policy in an amount not less than three hundred thousand dollars bodily injury coverage and three hundred thousand dollars property damage coverage to pay damages for injury to persons or property caused by the collecting, handling, transportation, or disposal of brine.

The insurance policy required by division (A)(2)(d) of this section shall be maintained in effect during the term of the registration certificate. The policy or policies providing the coverage shall require the insurance company to give notice to the chief if the policy or policies lapse for any reason. Upon such termination of the policy, the chief may suspend the registration certificate until proper insurance coverage is obtained.

(3) Each application for a registration certificate shall be accompanied by a nonrefundable fee of five hundred dollars.

(4) If a business entity that has been issued a registration certificate under this section changes its name due to a business reorganization or merger, the business entity shall revise the bond or certificates of deposit required by section 1509.225 of the Revised Code and obtain a new certificate from an insurance company in accordance with division (A)(2)(e)(d) of this section to reflect the change in the name of the business entity.

(B) The chief shall issue an order denying an application for a registration certificate if the chief finds that either of the following applies:

(1) The applicant, at the time of applying for the registration certificate, has been found liable by a final nonappealable order of a court of competent jurisdiction for damage to streets, roads, highways, bridges, culverts, or drainways pursuant to section 4513.34 or 5577.12 of the Revised Code until the applicant provides the chief with evidence of compliance with the order.

(2) The applicant's plan for disposal does not provide for compliance with the requirements of this chapter and rules of the chief pertaining to the transportation of brine by vehicle and the disposal of brine so transported.

(C) No applicant shall attempt to circumvent division (B) of this section by applying for a registration certificate under a different name or business organization name, by transferring responsibility to another person or entity, or by any similar act.

(D) A registered transporter shall not allow any other person to use the transporter's registration certificate to transport brine.

(E) A registered transporter shall apply to revise a disposal plan under procedures that the chief shall prescribe by rule. However, at a minimum, an application for a revision shall list all sources and disposal sites of brine currently transported. The chief shall deny any application for a revision of a plan under this division if the chief finds that the proposed revised plan does not provide for compliance with the requirements of this chapter and rules of the chief pertaining to the transportation of brine by vehicle and the disposal of brine so transported. Approvals and denials of revisions shall be by order of the chief.

(E)(F) The chief may adopt rules, issue orders, and attach terms and conditions to registration certificates as may be necessary to administer, implement, and enforce sections 1509.222 to 1509.226 of the Revised Code for protection of public health or safety or conservation of natural resources.

Sec. 1509.223.  (A)(1) No permit holder or owner of a well shall enter into an agreement with or permit any person to transport brine produced from the well who is not registered pursuant to section 1509.222 of the Revised Code or exempt from registration under section 1509.226 of the Revised Code.

(2) No permit holder or owner of a well for which a permit has been issued under division (D) of section 1509.22 of the Revised Code shall enter into an agreement with or permit any person who is not registered pursuant to section 1509.222 of the Revised Code to dispose of brine at the well.

(B) Each registered transporter shall file with the chief of the division of oil and gas resources management, on or before the fifteenth day of April, a statement concerning brine transported, including quantities transported and source and delivery points, during the last preceding calendar year, and such other information in such form as the chief may prescribe.

(C) Each registered transporter shall keep on each vehicle, vessel, railcar, and container used to transport brine a daily log and have it available upon the request of the chief or, an authorized representative of the chief, or a peace officer. In addition, each registered transporter shall keep a daily log for each pipeline used to transport brine and have it available upon the request of the chief, an authorized representative of the chief, or a peace officer. The log shall, at a minimum, include all of the following information:

(1) The name of the owner or owners of the well or wells producing the brine to be transported;

(2) The date and time the brine is loaded or transported through a pipeline, as applicable;

(3) The name of the driver, if applicable;

(4) The amount of brine loaded at each collection point or the amount of brine transported through a pipeline, as applicable;

(5) The disposal location;

(6) The date and time the brine is disposed of and the amount of brine disposed of at each location.

The chief, by rule, may establish procedures for the electronic submission to the chief of the information that is required to be included in the a daily log. No registered transporter shall falsify or fail to keep or submit the a log required by this division.

(D) Each registered transporter shall legibly identify with reflective paints all vehicles, vessels, railcars, and containers employed in transporting or disposing of brine. Letters shall be no less than four inches in height and shall indicate the identification number issued by the chief, the word "brine," and the name and telephone number of the transporter.

Each registered transporter shall legibly identify each pipeline employed in transporting or disposing of brine on the surface of the ground in a manner similar to the identification of underground gas lines. The identification shall include the identification number issued by the chief, the word "brine," and the name and telephone number of the transporter.

(E) The chief shall maintain and keep a current list of persons registered to transport brine under section 1509.222 of the Revised Code. The list shall be open to public inspection. It is an affirmative defense to a charge under division (A) of this section that at the time the permit holder or owner of a well entered into an agreement with or permitted a person to transport or dispose of brine, the person was shown on the list as currently registered to transport brine.

Sec. 1509.23.  (A) Rules of the chief of the division of oil and gas resources management may specify practices to be followed in the drilling and treatment of wells, production of oil and gas, and plugging of wells for protection of public health or safety or to prevent damage to natural resources, including specification of the following:

(1)(A) Appropriate devices;

(2)(B) Minimum distances that wells and other excavations, structures, and equipment shall be located from water wells, streets, roads, highways, rivers, lakes, streams, ponds, other bodies of water, railroad tracks, public or private recreational areas, zoning districts, and buildings or other structures. Rules adopted under this division (A)(2) of this section shall not conflict with section 1509.021 of the Revised Code.

(3)(C) Other methods of operation;

(4)(D) Procedures, methods, and equipment and other requirements for equipment to prevent and contain discharges of oil and brine from oil production facilities and oil drilling and workover facilities consistent with and equivalent in scope, content, and coverage to section 311(j)(1)(c) of the "Federal Water Pollution Control Act Amendments of 1972," 86 Stat. 886, 33 U.S.C.A. 1251, as amended, and regulations adopted under it. In addition, the rules may specify procedures, methods, and equipment and other requirements for equipment to prevent and contain surface and subsurface discharges of fluids, condensates, and gases.

(5)(E) Notifications;

(6)(F) Requirements governing the location and construction of fresh water impoundments that are part of a production operation.

(B) The chief, in consultation with the emergency response commission created in section 3750.02 of the Revised Code, shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that specify the information that shall be included in an electronic database that the chief shall create and host. The information shall be that which the chief considers to be appropriate for the purpose of responding to emergency situations that pose a threat to public health or safety or the environment. At the minimum, the information shall include that which a person who is regulated under this chapter is required to submit under the "Emergency Planning and Community Right-To-Know Act of 1986," 100 Stat. 1728, 42 U.S.C.A. 11001, and regulations adopted under it.

In addition, the rules shall specify whether and to what extent the database and the information that it contains will be made accessible to the public. The rules shall ensure that the database will be made available via the internet or a system of computer disks to the emergency response commission and to every local emergency planning committee and fire department in this state.

Sec. 1509.27.  If a tract of land is of insufficient size or shape to meet the requirements for drilling a well thereon as provided in section 1509.24 or 1509.25 of the Revised Code, whichever is applicable, and the owner of the tract who also is the owner of the mineral interest has been unable to form a drilling unit under agreement as provided in section 1509.26 of the Revised Code, on a just and equitable basis, such an owner may make application to the division of oil and gas resources management for a mandatory pooling order.

The application shall include information as shall be reasonably required by the chief of the division of oil and gas resources management and shall be accompanied by an application for a permit as required by section 1509.05 of the Revised Code. The chief shall notify all mineral rights owners of land tracts within the area proposed to be pooled by an order and included within the drilling unit of the filing of the application and of their right to a hearing. After the hearing or after the expiration of thirty days from the date notice of application was mailed to such owners, the chief, if satisfied that the application is proper in form and that mandatory pooling is necessary to protect correlative rights and to provide effective development, use, and conservation of oil and gas, shall issue a drilling permit and a mandatory pooling order complying with the requirements for drilling a well as provided in section 1509.24 or 1509.25 of the Revised Code, whichever is applicable. The mandatory pooling order shall:

(A) Designate the boundaries of the drilling unit within which the well shall be drilled;

(B) Designate the proposed production site;

(C) Describe each separately owned tract or part thereof pooled by the order;

(D) Allocate on a surface acreage basis a pro rata portion of the production to the owner of each tract pooled by the order. The pro rata portion shall be in the same proportion that the percentage of the owner's tract's acreage is to the state minimum acreage requirements established in rules adopted under this chapter for a drilling unit unless the applicant demonstrates to the chief using geological evidence that the geologic structure containing the oil or gas is larger than the minimum acreage requirement in which case the pro rata portion shall be in the same proportion that the percentage of the owner's tract's acreage is to the geologic structure.

(E) Specify the basis upon which each mineral rights owner of a tract pooled by the order shall share all reasonable costs and expenses of drilling and producing if the mineral rights owner elects to participate in the drilling and operation of the well;

(F) Designate the person to whom the permit shall be issued.

A person shall not submit more than five applications for mandatory pooling orders per year under this section unless otherwise approved by the chief.

No surface operations or disturbances to the surface of the land shall occur on a tract pooled by an order without the written consent of or a written agreement with the surface rights owner of the tract that approves the operations or disturbances.

If an a mineral rights owner of a tract pooled by the order does not elect to participate in the risk and cost of the drilling and operation of a well, the mineral rights owner shall be designated as a nonparticipating owner in the drilling and operation of the well on a limited or carried basis and is subject to terms and conditions determined by the chief to be just and reasonable. In addition, if an a mineral rights owner is designated as a nonparticipating owner, the mineral rights owner is not liable for actions or conditions associated with the drilling or operation of the well. If the applicant bears the costs of drilling, equipping, and operating a well for the benefit of a nonparticipating owner, as provided for in the pooling order, then the applicant shall be entitled to the share of production from the drilling unit accruing to the interest of that nonparticipating owner, exclusive of the nonparticipating owner's proportionate share of the royalty interest until there has been received the share of costs charged to that nonparticipating owner plus such additional percentage of the share of costs as the chief shall determine. The total amount receivable hereunder shall in no event exceed two hundred per cent of the share of costs charged to that nonparticipating owner. After receipt of that share of costs by such an applicant, a nonparticipating owner shall receive a proportionate share of the working interest in the well in addition to a proportionate share of the royalty interest, if any.

If there is a dispute as to costs of drilling, equipping, or operating a well, the chief shall determine those costs.

Sec. 1509.33.  (A) Whoever violates sections 1509.01 to 1509.31 of the Revised Code, or any rules adopted or orders or terms or conditions of a permit or registration certificate issued pursuant to these sections for which no specific penalty is provided in this section, shall pay a civil penalty of not more than four ten thousand dollars for each offense.

(B) Whoever violates section 1509.221 of the Revised Code or any rules adopted or orders or terms or conditions of a permit issued thereunder shall pay a civil penalty of not more than two ten thousand five hundred dollars for each violation.

(C) Whoever violates division (D) of section 1509.22 or division (A)(1) of section 1509.222 of the Revised Code shall pay a civil penalty of not less than two thousand five hundred dollars nor more than twenty thousand dollars for each violation.

(D) Whoever violates division (A) of section 1509.22 of the Revised Code shall pay a civil penalty of not less than two thousand five hundred dollars nor more than ten thousand dollars for each violation.

(E) Whoever violates division (A) of section 1509.223 of the Revised Code shall pay a civil penalty of not more than ten thousand dollars for each violation.

(F) Whoever violates section 1509.072 of the Revised Code or any rules adopted or orders issued to administer, implement, or enforce that section shall pay a civil penalty of not more than five thousand dollars for each violation.

(G) In addition to any other penalties provided in this chapter, whoever violates section 1509.05, section 1509.21, division (B) of section 1509.22, or division (A)(1) of section 1509.222 of the Revised Code or a term or condition of a permit or an order issued by the chief of the division of oil and gas resources management under this chapter or knowingly violates division (A) of section 1509.223 of the Revised Code is liable for any damage or injury caused by the violation and for the cost of rectifying the violation and conditions caused by the violation. If two or more persons knowingly violate one or more of those divisions in connection with the same event, activity, or transaction, they are jointly and severally liable under this division.

(H) The attorney general, upon the request of the chief of the division of oil and gas resources management, shall commence an action under this section against any person who violates sections 1509.01 to 1509.31 of the Revised Code, or any rules adopted or orders or terms or conditions of a permit or registration certificate issued pursuant to these sections. Any action under this section is a civil action, governed by the Rules of Civil Procedure and other rules of practice and procedure applicable to civil actions. The remedy provided in this division is cumulative and concurrent with any other remedy provided in this chapter, and the existence or exercise of one remedy does not prevent the exercise of any other, except that no person shall be subject to both a civil penalty under division (A), (B), (C), or (D) of this section and a criminal penalty under fine established in section 1509.99 of the Revised Code for the same offense.

(I) For purposes of this section, each day of violation constitutes a separate offense.

Sec. 1509.34. (A)(1) If an owner fails to pay the fees imposed by this chapter, or if the chief of the division of oil and gas resources management incurs costs under division (E) of section 1509.071 of the Revised Code to correct conditions associated with the owner's well that the chief reasonably has determined are causing imminent health or safety risks, the division of oil and gas resources management shall have a priority lien against that owner's interest in the applicable well in front of all other creditors for the amount of any such unpaid fees and costs incurred. The chief shall file a statement in the office of the county recorder of the county in which the applicable well is located of the amount of the unpaid fees and costs incurred as described in this division. The statement shall constitute a lien on the owner's interest in the well as of the date of the filing. The lien shall remain in force so long as any portion of the lien remains unpaid or until the chief issues a certificate of release of the lien. If the chief issues a certificate of release of the lien, the chief shall file the certificate of release in the office of the applicable county recorder.

(2) A lien imposed under division (A)(1) of this section shall be in addition to any lien imposed by the attorney general for failure to pay the assessment imposed by section 1509.50 of the Revised Code or the tax levied under division (A)(5) or (6) or (B) of section 5749.02 of the Revised Code, as applicable.

(3) If the attorney general cannot collect from a severer or an owner for an outstanding balance of amounts due under section 1509.50 of the Revised Code or of unpaid taxes levied under division (A)(5) or (6) or (B) of section 5749.02 of the Revised Code, as applicable, the tax commissioner may request the chief to impose a priority lien against the owner's interest in the applicable well. Such a lien has priority in front of all other creditors.

(B) The chief promptly shall issue a certificate of release of a lien under either of the following circumstances:

(1) Upon the repayment in full of the amount of unpaid fees imposed by this chapter or costs incurred by the chief under division (E) of section 1509.071 of the Revised Code to correct conditions associated with the owner's well that the chief reasonably has determined are causing imminent health or safety risks;

(2) Any other circumstance that the chief determines to be in the best interests of the state.

(C) The chief may modify the amount of a lien under this section. If the chief modifies a lien, the chief shall file a statement in the office of the county recorder of the applicable county of the new amount of the lien.

(D) An owner regarding which the division has recorded a lien against the owner's interest in a well in accordance with this section shall not transfer a well, lease, or mineral rights to another owner or person until the chief issues a certificate of release for each lien against the owner's interest in the well.

(E) All money from the collection of liens under this section shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the oil and gas well fund created in section 1509.02 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 1509.99.  (A) Whoever violates sections 1509.01 to 1509.31 of the Revised Code or any rules adopted or orders or terms or conditions of a permit issued pursuant to these sections for which no specific penalty is provided in this section shall be fined not less than one five hundred nor more than one five thousand dollars and imprisoned for not more than six months for a first offense; for each subsequent offense the person shall be fined not less than two hundred one thousand nor more than two ten thousand dollars and imprisoned for not more than one year.

(B) Whoever violates section 1509.221 of the Revised Code or any rules adopted or orders or terms or conditions of a permit issued thereunder shall be fined not more than five thousand dollars for each day of each violation.

(C) Whoever knowingly violates section 1509.072, division (A), (B), or (D) of section 1509.22, division (A)(1) or (C) of section 1509.222, or division (A) or (D) of section 1509.223 of the Revised Code or any rules adopted or orders issued under division (C) of section 1509.22 or rules adopted or orders or terms or conditions of a registration certificate issued under division (E)(F) of section 1509.222 of the Revised Code is guilty of a felony and shall be fined not less than ten thousand dollars nor more than fifty thousand dollars or imprisoned for six months three years, or both for a first offense; for each subsequent offense the person shall be fined not less than twenty thousand dollars nor more than one hundred thousand dollars or imprisoned for two six years, or both. Whoever negligently violates those divisions, sections, rules, orders, or terms or conditions of a registration certificate is guilty of a felony and shall be fined not more less than five thousand dollars nor more than twenty-five thousand dollars or imprisoned for not more than one year, or both; for each subsequent offense the person shall be fined not less than ten thousand dollars nor more than fifty thousand dollars or imprisoned for two years, or both.

(D) Whoever negligently violates division (C) of section 1509.223 of the Revised Code shall be fined not more than five hundred one thousand dollars for a first offense and not more than one ten thousand dollars for a subsequent offense.

(E) If a person is convicted of or pleads guilty to a violation of any section of this chapter, in addition to the financial sanctions authorized by this chapter or section 2929.18 or 2929.28 or any other section of the Revised Code, the court imposing the sentence on the person may order the person to reimburse the state agency or a political subdivision for any response costs that it incurred in responding to the violation, including the cost of rectifying the violation and conditions caused by the violation.

(F) The prosecuting attorney of the county in which the offense was committed or the attorney general may prosecute an action under this section.

(F)(G) For purposes of this section, each day of violation constitutes a separate offense.

Sec. 1511.01.  For the purposes of As used in this chapter:

(A) "Conservation" means the wise use and management of natural resources.

(B) "Critical natural resource area" means an area identified by the director of natural resources in which occurs a natural resource that requires special management because of its importance to the well-being of the surrounding communities, the region, or the state.

(C) "Pollution Erosion and sediment abatement practice" means any erosion control or animal waste pollution abatement facility, and sediment reduction structure, practice, or procedure and the design, operation, and management associated with it as contained in operation and management plans developed or approved by the chief of the division of soil and water resources or by boards of supervisors of soil and water conservation districts established under Chapter 1515. of the Revised Code.

(D) "Agricultural Sediment pollution" means failure to use management or conservation practices in farming or silvicultural operations to abate wind or water erosion of the soil or to abate that may result in the degradation of the waters of the state by animal waste or soil sediment, including attached substances attached thereto.

(E) "Waters of the state" means all streams, lakes, ponds, wetlands, watercourses, waterways, wells, springs, irrigation systems, drainage systems, and all other bodies or accumulations of water, surface and underground, natural or artificial, regardless of the depth of the strata in which underground water is located, that are situated wholly or partly within, or border upon, this state or are within its jurisdiction, except those private waters that do not combine or effect a junction with natural surface or underground waters.

(F) "Operation and management plan" means a written record, developed or approved by the district board of supervisors of a soil and water conservation district or the chief, for the owner or operator of agricultural land or a concentrated animal feeding operation that contains implementation schedules and operational procedures for a level of management and pollution erosion and sediment abatement practices that will abate the degradation of the waters of the state by animal waste and by soil sediment, including attached pollutants.

(G) "Animal waste" means animal excreta, discarded products, bedding, wash waters, waste feed, and silage drainage. "Animal waste" also includes the compost products resulting from the composting of dead animals in operations subject to section 1511.022 of the Revised Code when either of the following applies:

(1) The composting is conducted by the person who raises the animals and the compost product is used in agricultural operations owned or operated by that person, regardless of whether the person owns the animals;

(2) The composting is conducted by the person who owns the animals, but does not raise them and the compost product is used in agricultural operations either by a person who raises the animals or by a person who raises grain that is used to feed them and that is supplied by the owner of the animals.

(H) "Composting" means the controlled decomposition of organic solid material consisting of dead animals that stabilizes the organic fraction of the material "Soil erosion management plan" means a written record, developed or approved by the board of supervisors of a soil and water conservation district or the chief, that may contain implementation schedules and operational procedures for a level of land and water management that will abate wind or water erosion of the soil or abate the degradation of the waters of the state by sediment from agricultural operations.

(H) "Soil and water conservation district" has the same meaning as in section 1515.01 of the Revised Code.

(I) "Timber harvest plan" means a written record, developed or approved by the board of supervisors of a soil and water conservation district or the chief, that may contain implementation schedules and operational procedures for a level of land and water management that will abate wind or water erosion of the soil or abate the degradation of the waters of the state by sediment from timber operations.

Sec. 1511.02.  The chief of the division of soil and water resources, subject to the approval of the director of natural resources, shall do all of the following:

(A) Provide administrative leadership to local soil and water conservation districts in planning, budgeting, staffing, and administering district programs and the training of district supervisors and personnel in their duties, responsibilities, and authorities as prescribed in this chapter and Chapter 1515. of the Revised Code;

(B) Administer this chapter and Chapter 1515. of the Revised Code pertaining to state responsibilities and provide staff assistance to the Ohio soil and water conservation commission in exercising its statutory responsibilities;

(C) Assist in expediting state responsibilities for watershed development and other natural resource conservation works of improvement;

(D) Coordinate the development and implementation of cooperative programs and working agreements between local soil and water conservation districts and divisions or sections of the department of natural resources, or other agencies of local, state, and federal government;

(E) Subject to the approval of the Ohio soil and water conservation commission, adopt, amend, or rescind rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. Rules adopted pursuant to this section:

(1) Shall establish technically feasible and economically reasonable standards to achieve a level of management and conservation practices in farming or silvicultural operations that will abate wind or water erosion of the soil or abate the degradation of the waters of the state by animal waste or by soil sediment, including attached substances attached thereto, and establish criteria for determination of the acceptability of such management and conservation practices;

(2) Shall establish technically feasible and economically reasonable standards to achieve a level of management and conservation practices that will abate wind or water erosion of the soil or abate the degradation of the waters of the state by soil sediment in conjunction with land grading, excavating, filling, or other soil-disturbing activities on land used or being developed for nonfarm commercial, industrial, residential, or other nonfarm purposes, and establish criteria for determination of the acceptability of such management and conservation practices. The standards shall be designed to implement applicable areawide waste treatment management plans prepared under section 208 of the "Federal Water Pollution Control Act," 86 Stat. 816 (1972), 33 U.S.C.A. 1288, as amended. The standards and criteria shall not apply in any municipal corporation or county that adopts ordinances or rules pertaining to sediment control, nor to lands being used in a strip mine operation as defined in section 1513.01 of the Revised Code, nor to lands being used in a surface mining operation as defined in section 1514.01 of the Revised Code.

(3) May recommend criteria and procedures for the approval of urban sediment pollution abatement plans and issuance of permits prior to any grading, excavating, filling, or other whole or partial disturbance of five or more contiguous acres of land owned by one person or operated as one development unit and require implementation of such a plan. Areas of less than five contiguous acres are not exempt from compliance with other provisions of this chapter and rules adopted under them.

(4) Shall establish procedures for administration of rules for agricultural sediment pollution abatement and urban sediment pollution abatement and for enforcement of rules for agricultural pollution abatement;

(5) Shall specify the pollution erosion and sediment abatement practices eligible for state cost sharing and determine the conditions for eligibility, the construction standards and specifications, the useful life, the maintenance requirements, and the limits of cost sharing for those practices. Eligible practices shall be limited to practices that address agricultural or silvicultural operations and that require expenditures that are likely to exceed the economic returns to the owner or operator and that abate soil erosion or degradation of the waters of the state by animal waste or soil sediment, including attached pollutants attached thereto.

(6) Shall establish procedures for administering grants to owners or operators of agricultural land or concentrated animal feeding operations for the implementation of operation and management plans;

(7) Shall establish procedures for administering grants to soil and water conservation districts for urban sediment pollution abatement programs, specify the types of projects eligible for grants, establish limits on the availability of grants, and establish requirements governing the execution of projects to encourage the reduction of erosion and sedimentation associated with soil-disturbing activities;

(8) Shall do all of the following with regard to composting conducted in conjunction with agricultural operations:

(a) Provide for the distribution of educational material concerning composting to the offices of OSU extension for the purposes of section 1511.022 of the Revised Code;

(b) Establish methods, techniques, or practices for composting dead animals, or particular types of dead animals, that are to be used at such operations, as the chief considers to be necessary or appropriate;

(c) Establish requirements and procedures governing the review and approval or disapproval of composting plans by the supervisors of soil and water conservation districts under division (Q) of section 1515.08 of the Revised Code.

(9) Shall be adopted, amended, or rescinded after the chief does all of the following:

(a) Mails notice to each statewide organization that the chief determines represents persons or local governmental agencies who would be affected by the proposed rule, amendment thereto, or rescission thereof at least thirty-five days before any public hearing thereon;

(b) Mails a copy of each proposed rule, amendment thereto, or rescission thereof to any person who requests a copy, within five days after receipt of the request;

(c) Consults with appropriate state and local governmental agencies or their representatives, including statewide organizations of local governmental officials, industrial representatives, and other interested persons;

(d) If the rule relates to agricultural pollution abatement, develops an economic impact statement concerning the effect of the proposed rule or amendment.

(10)(9) Shall not conflict with air or water quality standards adopted pursuant to section 3704.03 or 6111.041 of the Revised Code. Compliance with rules adopted pursuant to this section does not affect liability for noncompliance with air or water quality standards adopted pursuant to section 3704.03 or 6111.041 of the Revised Code. The application of a level of management and conservation practices recommended under this section to control windblown soil from farming operations creates a presumption of compliance with section 3704.03 of the Revised Code as that section applies to windblown soil.

(11)(10) Insofar as the rules relate to urban sediment pollution, shall not be applicable in a municipal corporation or county that adopts ordinances or rules for urban sediment control, except that a municipal corporation or county that adopts such ordinances or rules may receive moneys for urban sediment control that are disbursed by the board of supervisors of the applicable soil and water conservation district under division (N)(O) of section 1515.08 of the Revised Code. The rules shall not exempt any person from compliance with municipal ordinances enacted pursuant to Section 3 of Article XVIII, Ohio Constitution.

(F) Cost share with landowners on practices established pursuant to division (E)(5) of this section as moneys are appropriated and available for that purpose. Any practice for which cost share is provided shall be maintained for its useful life. Failure to maintain a cost share practice for its useful life shall subject the landowner to full repayment to the division.

(G) Issue orders requiring compliance with any rule adopted under division (E)(1) of this section or with section 1511.022 of the Revised Code. Before the chief issues an order, the chief shall afford each person allegedly liable an adjudication hearing under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. The chief may require in an order that a person who has caused agricultural sediment pollution by failure to comply with the standards established under division (E)(1) of this section operate under an operation and management plan approved by the chief under this section. The chief shall require in an order that a person who has failed to comply with division (A) of section 1511.022 of the Revised Code prepare a composting plan in accordance with rules adopted under division (E)(10)(c) of this section and operate in accordance with that plan or that a person who has failed to operate in accordance with such a plan begin to operate in accordance with it. Each order shall be issued in writing and contain a finding by the chief of the facts upon which the order is based and the standard that is not being met.

(H) Employ field assistants and such other employees as are necessary for the performance of the work prescribed by Chapter 1515. of the Revised Code, for performance of work of the division, and as agreed to under working agreements or contractual arrangements with local soil and water conservation districts, prescribe their duties, and fix their compensation in accordance with such schedules as are provided by law for the compensation of state employees.

All employees of the division, unless specifically exempted by law, shall be employed subject to the classified civil service laws in force at the time of employment.

(I) In connection with new or relocated projects involving highways, underground cables, pipelines, railroads, and other improvements affecting soil and water resources, including surface and subsurface drainage:

(1) Provide engineering service as is mutually agreeable to the Ohio soil and water conservation commission and the director to aid in the design and installation of soil and water conservation practices as a necessary component of such projects;

(2) Maintain close liaison between the owners of lands on which the projects are executed, local soil and water conservation districts, and authorities responsible for such projects;

(3) Review plans for such projects to ensure their compliance with standards developed under division (E) of this section in cooperation with the department of transportation or with any other interested agency that is engaged in soil or water conservation projects in the state in order to minimize adverse impacts on soil and water resources adjacent to or otherwise affected by these projects;

(4) Recommend measures to retard erosion and protect soil and water resources through the installation of water impoundment or other soil and water conservation practices;

(5) Cooperate with other agencies and subdivisions of the state to protect the agricultural status of rural lands adjacent to such projects and control adverse impacts on soil and water resources.

(J) Collect, analyze, inventory, and interpret all available information pertaining to the origin, distribution, extent, use, and conservation of the soil resources of the state;

(K) Prepare and maintain up-to-date reports, maps, and other materials pertaining to the soil resources of the state and their use and make that information available to governmental agencies, public officials, conservation entities, and the public;

(L) Provide soil and water conservation districts with technical assistance, including on-site soil investigations and soil interpretation reports on the suitability or limitations of soil to support a particular use or to plan soil conservation measures. The assistance shall be upon such terms as are mutually agreeable to the districts and the department of natural resources.

(M) Assist local government officials in utilizing land use planning and zoning, current agricultural use value assessment, development reviews, and land management activities;

(N) When necessary for the purposes of this chapter or Chapter 1515. of the Revised Code, develop or approve operation and management plans.

This section does not restrict the excrement of domestic or farm animals defecated on land outside a concentrated animal feeding operation or runoff therefrom into the waters of the state.

Sec. 1511.021.  (A)(1) Any person who owns or operates agricultural land or a concentrated animal feeding operation may develop and operate under an operation and management plan approved by the chief of the division of soil and water resources under section 1511.02 of the Revised Code or by the supervisors of the local applicable soil and water conservation district under section 1515.08 of the Revised Code.

(2) An operation and management plan developed under division (A)(1) of this section, developed by the chief under section 1511.02 of the Revised Code or by the supervisors of a soil and water conservation district under section 1515.08 of the Revised Code, or required by an order issued by the chief under division (G) of section 1511.02 of the Revised Code may include a soil erosion management plan, a timber harvest plan, or both.

(B) Any person who wishes to make a complaint regarding nuisances involving agricultural sediment pollution may do so orally or by submitting a written, signed, and dated complaint to the chief or to the chief's designee. After receiving an oral complaint, the chief or the chief's designee may cause an investigation to be conducted to determine whether agricultural sediment pollution has occurred or is imminent. After receiving a written, signed, and dated complaint, the chief or the chief's designee shall cause such an investigation to be conducted.

(C) In a private civil action for nuisances involving agricultural sediment pollution, it is an affirmative defense if the person owning, operating, or otherwise responsible for agricultural land or a concentrated animal feeding operation is operating under and in substantial compliance with an approved operation and management plan developed under division (A) of this section, with an operation and management plan developed by the chief under section 1511.02 of the Revised Code or by the supervisors of the local applicable soil and water conservation district under section 1515.08 of the Revised Code, or with an operation and management plan required by an order issued by the chief under division (G) of section 1511.02 of the Revised Code. Nothing in this section is in derogation of the authority granted to the chief in division (E) of section 1511.02 and in section 1511.07 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 1511.023.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this section, the director of natural resources, an employee of the department of natural resources, the supervisors of a soil and water conservation district, an employee of a district, and a contractor of the department or a district shall not disclose either of the following:

(1) Information, including data from geographic information systems and global positioning systems, provided by a person who owns or operates agricultural land and operates under an operation and management plan;

(2) Information gathered as a result of an inspection of agricultural land to determine whether the person who owns or operates the land is in compliance with an operation and management plan.

(B) The director or the supervisors of a district may release or disclose information specified in division (A)(1) or (2) of this section to a person or a federal, state, or local agency working in cooperation with the chief of the division of soil and water resources or the supervisors in the development of an operation and management plan or an inspection to determine compliance with such a plan if the director or supervisors determine that the person or federal, state, or local agency will not subsequently disclose the information to another person.

Sec. 1511.05.  The chief of the division of soil and water resources, subject to approval of the terms of the agreement by the Ohio soil and water conservation commission, shall enter into cooperative agreements with the board of supervisors of any soil and water conservation district desiring to enter into such agreements pursuant to section 1515.08 of the Revised Code. Such agreements shall be entered into to obtain compliance with rules and orders of the chief pertaining to agricultural sediment pollution abatement and urban sediment pollution abatement.

The chief or any person designated by the chief may upon obtaining agreement with the owner, tenant, or manager of any land, public or private, enter thereon to make inspections to determine whether or not there is compliance with the rules adopted under division (E)(1) of section 1511.02 of the Revised Code. Upon reason to believe there is a violation, the chief or the chief's designee may apply for and a judge of the court of common pleas for the county where the land is located may issue an appropriate inspection warrant as necessary to achieve the purposes of this chapter.

Sec. 1511.07.  (A)(1) No person shall fail to comply with an order of the chief of the division of soil and water resources issued pursuant to division (G) of section 1511.02 of the Revised Code.

(2) In addition to the remedies provided and irrespective of whether an adequate remedy at law exists, the chief may apply to the court of common pleas in the county where a violation of a standard established under division (E)(1) or (8)(b) of section 1511.02 of the Revised Code causes pollution of the waters of the state for an order to compel the violator to cease the violation and to remove the agricultural pollutant or to comply with the rules adopted under division (E)(8)(b) of that section, as appropriate comply with the standards established under that division.

(3) In addition to the remedies provided and irrespective of whether an adequate remedy at law exists, whenever the chief officially determines that an emergency exists because of an unauthorized release, spill, or discharge of animal waste, or a violation of a rule adopted under division (E)(8)(b) of section 1511.02 of the Revised Code, sediment pollution that causes pollution of the waters of the state, the chief may, without notice or hearing, issue an order reciting the existence of the emergency and requiring that necessary action be taken to meet the emergency. The order shall be effective immediately. Any person to whom the order is directed shall comply with the order immediately, but on application to the chief shall be afforded a hearing as soon as possible, but not later than twenty days after making the application. On the basis of the hearing, the chief shall continue the order in effect, revoke it, or modify it. No emergency order shall remain in effect for more than sixty days after its issuance. If a person to whom an order is issued does not comply with the order within a reasonable period, as determined by the chief, the chief or the chief's designee may enter upon private or public lands and take action to mitigate, minimize, remove, or abate the release, spill, discharge, or conditions caused by the violation of the rule sediment pollution.

(B) The attorney general, upon the written request of the chief, shall bring appropriate legal action in Franklin county against any person who fails to comply with an order of the chief issued pursuant to division (G) of section 1511.02 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 1511.09.  The soil and water resources administration fund is hereby created in the state treasury. The fund shall consist of money credited to it from all fines, penalties, costs, and damages, except court costs, that are collected either by the chief of the division of soil and water resources or the attorney general in consequence of any violation of this chapter or rules adopted or orders issued under it. The chief shall use money in the fund to administer and enforce this chapter and rules adopted under it.

Sec. 1511.99.  Whoever violates division (A) of section 1511.07 of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree. Each day of violation is a separate offense. In addition to the penalty provided in this division, the sentencing court may assess damages in an amount equal to the costs of reclaiming, restoring, or otherwise repairing any damage to public or private property caused by any violation of division (A) of section 1511.07 of the Revised Code. All fines and moneys assessed as damages under this section shall be paid into the agricultural pollution abatement soil and water resources administration fund created in section 1511.071 1511.09 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 1515.01.  As used in this chapter:

(A) "Soil and water conservation district" means a district organized in accordance with this chapter.

(B) "Supervisor" means one of the members of the governing body of a district.

(C) "Landowner," "owner," or "owner of land" means an owner of record as shown by the records in the office of the county recorder. With respect to an improvement or a proposed improvement, "landowner," "owner," or "owner of land" also includes any public corporation and the director of any department, office, or institution of the state that is affected by the improvement or that would be affected by the proposed improvement, but that does not own any right, title, estate, or interest in or to any real property.

(D) "Land occupier" or "occupier of land" means any person, firm, or corporation that controls the use of land whether as landowner, lessee, renter, or tenant.

(E) "Due notice" means notice published at least twice, stating time and place, with an interval of at least thirteen days between the two publication dates, in a newspaper of general circulation within a soil and water conservation district.

(F) "Agricultural pollution" means failure to use management or conservation practices in farming or silvicultural operations to abate wind or water erosion of the soil or to abate the degradation of the waters of the state by animal waste or soil sediment including substances attached thereto.

(G) "Urban sediment pollution" means failure to use management or conservation practices to abate wind or water erosion of the soil or to abate the degradation of the waters of the state by soil sediment in conjunction with land grading, excavating, filling, or other soil disturbing activities on land used or being developed for nonfarm commercial, industrial, residential, or other nonfarm purposes, except lands being used in a strip mine operation as defined in section 1513.01 of the Revised Code and except lands being used in a surface mining operation as defined in section 1514.01 of the Revised Code.

(H)(G) "Uniform assessment" means an assessment that is both of the following:

(1) Based upon a complete appraisal of each parcel of land, together with all improvements thereon, within a project area and of the benefits or damages brought about as a result of the project that is determined by criteria applied equally to all parcels within the project area;

(2) Levied upon the parcels at a uniform rate on the basis of the appraisal.

(I)(H) "Varied assessment" means any assessment that does not meet the criteria established in division (H)(G) of this section.

(J)(I) "Project area" means an area determined and certified by the supervisors of a soil and water conservation district under section 1515.19 of the Revised Code.

(K)(J) "Benefit" or "benefits" means advantages to land and owners, to public corporations, and to the state resulting from drainage, conservation, control, and management of water and from environmental, wildlife, and recreational improvements. "Benefit" or "benefits" includes, but is not limited to, any of the following factors:

(1) Elimination or reduction of damage from flooding;

(2) Removal of water conditions that jeopardize public health, safety, or welfare;

(3) Increased value of land resulting from an improvement;

(4) Use of water for irrigation, storage, regulation of stream flow, soil conservation, water supply, or any other incidental purpose;

(5) Providing an outlet for the accelerated runoff from artificial drainage if a stream, watercourse, channel, or ditch that is under improvement is called upon to discharge functions for which it was not designed. Uplands that have been removed from their natural state by deforestation, cultivation, artificial drainage, urban development, or other human methods shall be considered to be benefited by an improvement that is required to dispose of the accelerated flow of water from the uplands.

(L)(K) "Improvement" or "conservation works of improvement" means an improvement that is made under the authority established in division (C) of section 1515.08 of the Revised Code.

(M)(L) "Land" has the same meaning as in section 6131.01 of the Revised Code.

(M) "Agricultural pollution," "animal feeding operation," and "nutrient management plan" have the same meanings as in section 939.01 of the Revised Code.

(N) "Operation and management plan" and "sediment pollution" have the same meanings as in section 1511.01 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 1515.02.  There is hereby established in the department of natural resources the Ohio soil and water conservation commission. The commission shall consist of seven members of equal status and authority, four six of whom shall be appointed by the governor with the advice and consent of the senate, and one of whom shall be designated by resolution of the board of directors of the Ohio federation of soil and water conservation districts. The other two members shall be the director directors of agriculture and, environmental protection, and natural resources, the vice-president for agricultural administration of the Ohio state university. The director of natural resources may participate in the deliberations, and an officer of the Ohio federation of soil and water conservation districts, or their designees, may serve as ex officio members of the commission, but without the power to vote. A vacancy in the office of an appointed member shall be filled by the governor, with the advice and consent of the senate. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which the member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the remainder of that term. Of the appointed members, two shall be farmers and all four shall be persons who have a knowledge of or interest in agricultural production and the natural resources of the state. One member shall represent rural interests and one member shall represent urban interests. Not more than two three of the appointed members shall be members of the same political party.

Terms of office of the member designated by the board of directors of the federation and the members appointed by the governor shall be for four years, commencing on the first day of July and ending on the thirtieth day of June.

Each appointed member shall hold office from the date of appointment until the end of the term for which the member was appointed. Any appointed member shall continue in office subsequent to the expiration date of the member's term until the member's successor takes office, or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, whichever occurs first.

The commission shall organize by selecting from its members a chairperson and a vice-chairperson. The commission shall hold at least one regular meeting in each quarter of each calendar year and shall keep a record of its proceedings, which shall be open to the public for inspection. Special meetings may be called by the chairperson and shall be called by the chairperson upon receipt of a written request signed by two or more members of the commission. Written notice of the time and place of each meeting shall be sent to each member of the commission. A majority of the commission shall constitute a quorum.

The commission may adopt rules as necessary to carry out the purposes of this chapter, subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.

The governor may remove any appointed member of the commission at any time for inefficiency, neglect of duty, or malfeasance in office, after giving to the member a copy of the charges against the member and an opportunity to be heard publicly in person or by counsel in the member's defense. Any such act of removal by the governor is final. A statement of the findings of the governor, the reason for the governor's action, and the answer, if any, of the member shall be filed by the governor with the secretary of state and shall be open to public inspection.

All members of the commission shall be reimbursed for the necessary expenses incurred by them in the performance of their duties as members.

Upon recommendation by the commission, the director of natural resources shall designate an executive secretary and provide staff necessary to carry out the powers and duties of the commission. The commission may utilize the services of such staff members in the college of agriculture of the Ohio state university as may be agreed upon by the commission and the college.

The commission shall do all of the following:

(A) Determine distribution of funds under section 1515.14 of the Revised Code, recommend to the director of natural resources and other agencies the levels of appropriations to special funds established to assist soil and water conservation districts, and recommend the amount of federal funds to be requested and policies for the use of such funds in support of soil and water conservation district programs;

(B) Assist in keeping the supervisors of soil and water conservation districts informed of their powers and duties, program opportunities, and the activities and experience of all other districts, and facilitate the interchange of advice, experience, and cooperation between the districts;

(C) Seek the cooperation and assistance of the federal government or any of its agencies, and of agencies of this state, in the work of the districts;

(D) Adopt appropriate rules governing the conduct of elections provided for in this chapter, subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, provided that only owners and occupiers of lands situated within the boundaries of the districts or proposed districts to which the elections apply shall be eligible to vote in the elections;

(E) Recommend to the director priorities for planning and construction of small watershed projects, and make recommendations to the director concerning coordination of programs as proposed and implemented in agreements with soil and water conservation districts;

(F) Recommend to the director, the governor, and the general assembly programs and legislation with respect to the operations of soil and water conservation districts that will encourage proper soil, water, and other natural resource management and promote the economic and social development of the state.

Sec. 1515.08.  The supervisors of a soil and water conservation district have the following powers in addition to their other powers:

(A) To conduct surveys, investigations, and research relating to the character of soil erosion, floodwater and sediment damages, and the preventive and control measures and works of improvement for flood prevention and the conservation, development, utilization, and disposal of water needed within the district, and to publish the results of those surveys, investigations, or research, provided that no district shall initiate any research program except in cooperation or after consultation with the Ohio agricultural research and development center;

(B) To develop plans for the conservation of soil resources, for the control and prevention of soil erosion, and for works of improvement for flood prevention and the conservation, development, utilization, and disposal of water within the district, and to publish those plans and information;

(C) To implement, construct, repair, maintain, and operate preventive and control measures and other works of improvement for natural resource conservation and development and flood prevention, and the conservation, development, utilization, and disposal of water within the district on lands owned or controlled by this state or any of its agencies and on any other lands within the district, which works may include any facilities authorized under state or federal programs, and to acquire, by purchase or gift, to hold, encumber, or dispose of, and to lease real and personal property or interests in such property for those purposes;

(D) To cooperate or enter into agreements with any occupier of lands within the district in the carrying on of natural resource conservation operations and works of improvement for flood prevention and the conservation, development, utilization, and management of natural resources within the district, subject to such conditions as the supervisors consider necessary;

(E) To accept donations, gifts, grants, and contributions in money, service, materials, or otherwise, and to use or expend them according to their terms;

(F) To adopt, amend, and rescind rules to carry into effect the purposes and powers of the district;

(G) To sue and plead in the name of the district, and be sued and impleaded in the name of the district, with respect to its contracts and, as indicated in section 1515.081 of the Revised Code, certain torts of its officers, employees, or agents acting within the scope of their employment or official responsibilities, or with respect to the enforcement of its obligations and covenants made under this chapter;

(H) To make and enter into all contracts, leases, and agreements and execute all instruments necessary or incidental to the performance of the duties and the execution of the powers of the district under this chapter, provided that all of the following apply:

(1) Except as provided in section 307.86 of the Revised Code regarding expenditures by boards of county commissioners, when the cost under any such contract, lease, or agreement, other than compensation for personal services or rental of office space, involves an expenditure of more than the amount established in that section regarding expenditures by boards of county commissioners, the supervisors shall make a written contract with the lowest and best bidder after advertisement, for not less than two nor more than four consecutive weeks preceding the day of the opening of bids, in a newspaper of general circulation within the district or as provided in section 7.16 of the Revised Code and in such other publications as the supervisors determine. The notice shall state the general character of the work and materials to be furnished, the place where plans and specifications may be examined, and the time and place of receiving bids.

(2) Each bid for a contract shall contain the full name of every person interested in it.

(3) Each bid for a contract for the construction, demolition, alteration, repair, or reconstruction of an improvement shall meet the requirements of section 153.54 of the Revised Code.

(4) Each bid for a contract, other than a contract for the construction, demolition, alteration, repair, or reconstruction of an improvement, at the discretion of the supervisors, may be accompanied by a bond or certified check on a solvent bank in an amount not to exceed five per cent of the bid, conditioned that, if the bid is accepted, a contract shall be entered into.

(5) The supervisors may reject any and all bids.

(I) To make agreements with the department of natural resources giving it control over lands of the district for the purpose of construction of improvements by the department under section 1501.011 of the Revised Code;

(J) To charge, alter, and collect rentals and other charges for the use or services of any works of the district;

(K) To enter, either in person or by designated representatives, upon lands, private or public, in the necessary discharge of their duties;

(L) To enter into agreements or contracts with the department for the determination, implementation, inspection, and funding of agricultural sediment pollution abatement and urban sediment pollution abatement measures whereby landowners, operators, managers, and developers may meet adopted state standards for a quality environment, except that failure of a district board of supervisors to negotiate an agreement or contract with the department shall authorize the division of soil and water resources to implement the required program;

(M) To enter into agreements or contracts with the department of agriculture for the determination, implementation, inspection, and funding of agricultural pollution abatement measures whereby landowners, operators, and managers may meet adopted state standards for a quality environment, except that failure of a district board of supervisors to negotiate an agreement or contract with that department shall authorize the department to implement the required program;

(N) To conduct demonstrations and provide information to the public regarding practices and methods for natural resource conservation, development, and utilization;

(N)(O) To enter into contracts or agreements with the chief of the division of soil and water resources to implement and administer a program for urban sediment pollution abatement and to receive and expend moneys provided by the chief for that purpose;

(O)(P) To develop operation and management plans, as defined in section 1511.01 of the Revised Code, as necessary;

(P)(Q) To determine whether operation and management plans developed under division (A) of section 1511.021 of the Revised Code comply with the standards established under division (E)(1) of section 1511.02 of the Revised Code and to approve or disapprove the plans, based on such compliance. If an operation and management plan is disapproved, the board shall provide a written explanation to the person who submitted the plan. The person may appeal the plan disapproval to the chief, who shall afford the person a hearing. Following the hearing, the chief shall uphold the plan disapproval or reverse it. If the chief reverses the plan disapproval, the plan shall be deemed approved under this division. In the event that any person operating or owning agricultural land or a concentrated animal feeding operation in accordance with an approved operation and management plan who, in good faith, is following that plan, causes agricultural sediment pollution, the plan shall be revised in a fashion necessary to mitigate the agricultural sediment pollution, as determined and approved by the board of supervisors of the soil and water conservation district.

(Q)(R) To develop nutrient management plans as necessary;

(S) To determine whether nutrient management plans developed under division (A) of section 939.03 of the Revised Code comply with the standards established in rules adopted under division (C)(1) of section 939.02 of the Revised Code and to approve or disapprove the plans based on such compliance. If a nutrient management plan is disapproved, the board shall provide a written explanation to the person who submitted the plan. The person may appeal the plan disapproval to the director of agriculture who shall afford the person a hearing. Following the hearing, the director shall uphold the plan disapproval or reverse it. If the director reverses the plan disapproval, the plan shall be deemed approved under this division. In the event that a person operating or owning agricultural land or an animal feeding operation in accordance with an approved nutrient management plan who, in good faith, is following that plan causes agricultural pollution, the plan shall be revised in a manner necessary to mitigate the agricultural pollution as determined and approved by the board of supervisors of the soil and water conservation district.

(T) With regard to composting conducted in conjunction with agricultural operations, to do all of the following:

(1) Upon request or upon their own initiative, inspect composting at any such operation to determine whether the composting is being conducted in accordance with section 1511.022 939.04 of the Revised Code;

(2) If the board determines that composting is not being so conducted, request the chief director of agriculture to issue an order under division (G) of section 1511.02 of the Revised Code requiring take corrective actions under section 939.09 of the Revised Code that require the person who is conducting the composting to prepare a composting plan in accordance with rules adopted under division (E)(8)(c)(C)(5)(a) of that section 939.02 of the Revised Code and to operate in accordance with that plan or to operate in accordance with a previously prepared plan, as applicable;

(3) In accordance with rules adopted under division (E)(8)(c)(C)(5)(b) of section 1511.02 939.02 of the Revised Code, review and approve or disapprove any such composting plan. If a plan is disapproved, the board shall provide a written explanation to the person who submitted the plan.

As used in division (Q)(T) of this section, "composting" has the same meaning as in section 1511.01 939.01 of the Revised Code.

(R)(U) With regard to conservation activities that are conducted in conjunction with agricultural operations, to assist the county auditor, upon request, in determining whether a conservation activity is a conservation practice for purposes of Chapter 929. or sections 5713.30 to 5713.37 and 5715.01 of the Revised Code.

As used in this division, "conservation practice" has the same meaning as in section 5713.30 of the Revised Code.

(S)(V) To do all acts necessary or proper to carry out the powers granted in this chapter.

The director of natural resources shall make recommendations to reduce the adverse environmental effects of each project that a soil and water conservation district plans to undertake under division (A), (B), (C), or (D) of this section and that will be funded in whole or in part by moneys authorized under section 1515.16 of the Revised Code and shall disapprove any such project that the director finds will adversely affect the environment without equal or greater benefit to the public. The director's disapproval or recommendations, upon the request of the district filed in accordance with rules adopted by the Ohio soil and water conservation commission, shall be reviewed by the commission, which may confirm the director's decision, modify it, or add recommendations to or approve a project the director has disapproved.

Any instrument by which real property is acquired pursuant to this section shall identify the agency of the state that has the use and benefit of the real property as specified in section 5301.012 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 1533.081. (A) As used in this section:

(1) "Energy facility" has the same meaning as in section 1551.01 of the Revised Code means wind turbines and associated facilities with a single interconnection to the electrical grid that are designated for, or capable of, operation at an aggregate capacity of five or more megawatts.

(2) "Energy facility Incidental taking" means a facility at which energy is produced the killing or injuring of a wild animal occurring by chance or without intention.

(B) A person operating an energy facility whose operation may result in the incidental taking of a wild animal shall obtain a permit to do so for such an incidental taking from the chief of the division of wildlife under this section. The chief shall adopt rules under section 1531.10 of the Revised Code that are necessary to administer this section. The rules may include the establishment of a fee for such a permit.

Sec. 1533.10.  Except as provided in this section or division (A)(2) of section 1533.12 or section 1533.73 or 1533.731 of the Revised Code, no person shall hunt any wild bird or wild quadruped without a hunting license. Each day that any person hunts within the state without procuring such a license constitutes a separate offense. Except as otherwise provided in this section, every applicant for a hunting license who is a resident of the state and eighteen years of age or more shall procure a resident hunting license or an apprentice resident hunting license, the fee for which shall be eighteen dollars unless the rules adopted under division (B) of section 1533.12 of the Revised Code provide for issuance of a resident hunting license to the applicant free of charge. Except as provided in rules adopted under division (B)(2) of that section, each applicant who is a resident of this state and who at the time of application is sixty-six years of age or older shall procure a special senior hunting license, the fee for which shall be one-half of the regular hunting license fee. Every applicant who is under the age of eighteen years shall procure a special youth hunting license or an apprentice youth hunting license, the fee for which shall be one-half of the regular hunting license fee.

A resident of this state who owns lands in the state and the owner's children of any age and grandchildren under eighteen years of age may hunt on the lands without a hunting license. A resident of any other state who owns real property in this state, and the spouse and children living with the property owner, may hunt on that property without a license, provided that the state of residence of the real property owner allows residents of this state owning real property in that state, and the spouse and children living with the property owner, to hunt without a license. If the owner of land in this state is a limited liability company or a limited liability partnership that consists of three or fewer individual members or partners, as applicable, an individual member or partner who is a resident of this state and the member's or partner's children of any age and grandchildren under eighteen years of age may hunt on the land owned by the limited liability company or limited liability partnership without a hunting license. In addition, if the owner of land in this state is a trust that has a total of three or fewer trustees and beneficiaries, an individual who is a trustee or beneficiary and who is a resident of this state and the individual's children of any age and grandchildren under eighteen years of age may hunt on the land owned by the trust without a hunting license. The tenant and children of the tenant, residing on lands in the state, may hunt on them without a hunting license.

Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(1) of section 1533.12 of the Revised Code, every applicant for a hunting license who is a nonresident of the state and who is eighteen years of age or older shall procure a nonresident hunting license or an apprentice nonresident hunting license, the fee for which shall be one hundred twenty-four forty-nine dollars unless the applicant is a resident of a state that is a party to an agreement under section 1533.91 of the Revised Code, in which case the fee shall be eighteen dollars. Apprentice resident hunting licenses, apprentice youth hunting licenses, and apprentice nonresident hunting licenses are subject to the requirements established under section 1533.102 of the Revised Code and rules adopted pursuant to it.

The chief of the division of wildlife may issue a small game hunting license expiring three days from the effective date of the license to a nonresident of the state, the fee for which shall be thirty-nine dollars. No person shall take or possess deer, wild turkeys, fur-bearing animals, ducks, geese, brant, or any nongame animal while possessing only a small game hunting license. A small game hunting license or an apprentice nonresident hunting license does not authorize the taking or possessing of ducks, geese, or brant without having obtained, in addition to the small game hunting license or the apprentice nonresident hunting license, a wetlands habitat stamp as provided in section 1533.112 of the Revised Code. A small game hunting license or an apprentice nonresident hunting license does not authorize the taking or possessing of deer, wild turkeys, or fur-bearing animals. A nonresident of the state who wishes to take or possess deer, wild turkeys, or fur-bearing animals in this state shall procure, respectively, a deer or wild turkey permit as provided in section 1533.11 of the Revised Code or a fur taker permit as provided in section 1533.111 of the Revised Code in addition to a nonresident hunting license, an apprentice nonresident hunting license, a special youth hunting license, or an apprentice youth hunting license, as applicable, as provided in this section.

No person shall procure or attempt to procure a hunting license by fraud, deceit, misrepresentation, or any false statement.

This section does not authorize the taking and possessing of deer or wild turkeys without first having obtained, in addition to the hunting license required by this section, a deer or wild turkey permit as provided in section 1533.11 of the Revised Code or the taking and possessing of ducks, geese, or brant without first having obtained, in addition to the hunting license required by this section, a wetlands habitat stamp as provided in section 1533.112 of the Revised Code.

This section does not authorize the hunting or trapping of fur-bearing animals without first having obtained, in addition to a hunting license required by this section, a fur taker permit as provided in section 1533.111 of the Revised Code.

No hunting license shall be issued unless it is accompanied by a written explanation of the law in section 1533.17 of the Revised Code and the penalty for its violation, including a description of terms of imprisonment and fines that may be imposed.

No hunting license, other than an apprentice hunting license, shall be issued unless the applicant presents to the agent authorized to issue the license a previously held hunting license or evidence of having held such a license in content and manner approved by the chief, a certificate of completion issued upon completion of a hunter education and conservation course approved by the chief, or evidence of equivalent training in content and manner approved by the chief. A previously held apprentice hunting license does not satisfy the requirement concerning the presentation of a previously held hunting license or evidence of it.

No person shall issue a hunting license, except an apprentice hunting license, to any person who fails to present the evidence required by this section. No person shall purchase or obtain a hunting license, other than an apprentice hunting license, without presenting to the issuing agent the evidence required by this section. Issuance of a hunting license in violation of the requirements of this section is an offense by both the purchaser of the illegally obtained hunting license and the clerk or agent who issued the hunting license. Any hunting license issued in violation of this section is void.

The chief, with approval of the wildlife council, shall adopt rules prescribing a hunter education and conservation course for first-time hunting license buyers, other than buyers of apprentice hunting licenses, and for volunteer instructors. The course shall consist of subjects including, but not limited to, hunter safety and health, use of hunting implements, hunting tradition and ethics, the hunter and conservation, the law in section 1533.17 of the Revised Code along with the penalty for its violation, including a description of terms of imprisonment and fines that may be imposed, and other law relating to hunting. Authorized personnel of the division or volunteer instructors approved by the chief shall conduct such courses with such frequency and at such locations throughout the state as to reasonably meet the needs of license applicants. The chief shall issue a certificate of completion to each person who successfully completes the course and passes an examination prescribed by the chief.

Sec. 1533.11.  (A)(1) Except as provided in this section or section 1533.731 of the Revised Code, no person shall hunt deer on lands of another without first obtaining an annual deer permit. Except as provided in this section, no person shall hunt wild turkeys on lands of another without first obtaining an annual wild turkey permit. Each

(2) Each applicant for a deer or wild turkey permit shall pay an annual fee of twenty-three dollars for each the permit unless the rules adopted under division (B) of section 1533.12 of the Revised Code provide for issuance of a deer or wild turkey permit to the applicant free of charge. Except as provided in rules adopted under division (B)(2) of that section, each applicant who is a resident of this state and who at the time of application is sixty-six years of age or older shall procure a senior deer or wild turkey permit, the fee for which shall be one-half of the regular deer or wild turkey permit fee. Each applicant who is under the age of eighteen years shall procure a youth deer or wild turkey permit, the fee for which shall be one-half of the regular deer or wild turkey permit fee. Except

(3) Each applicant for a deer permit who is a resident of this state shall procure a resident deer permit, the fee for which is twenty-three dollars unless the rules adopted under division (B) of section 1533.12 of the Revised Code provide for issuance of a deer permit to the applicant free of charge. Each applicant for a deer permit who is a nonresident of this state shall procure a nonresident deer permit, the fee for which is ninety-nine dollars unless the rules adopted under that division provide for issuance of a deer permit to the applicant free of charge. Except as provided in rules adopted under division (B)(2) of section 1533.12 of the Revised Code, each applicant who is a resident of this state and who at the time of application is sixty-six years of age or older shall procure a senior resident deer permit, the fee for which is one-half of the regular resident deer permit fee. Each applicant who is under the age of eighteen years, regardless of residency, shall procure a youth deer permit, the fee for which is one-half of the regular resident deer permit fee.

(4) As used in this chapter, "deer permit" includes a resident deer permit and a nonresident deer permit unless the context indicates otherwise.

(5) Except as provided in division (A)(2) of section 1533.12 of the Revised Code, a deer or wild turkey permit shall run concurrently with the hunting license. The money received shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the wildlife fund, created in section 1531.17 of the Revised Code, exclusively for the use of the division of wildlife in the acquisition and development of land for deer or wild turkey management, for investigating deer or wild turkey problems, and for the stocking, management, and protection of deer or wild turkey. Every person, while hunting deer or wild turkey on lands of another, shall carry the person's deer or wild turkey permit and exhibit it to any enforcement officer so requesting. Failure to so carry and exhibit such a permit constitutes an offense under this section. The chief of the division of wildlife shall adopt any additional rules the chief considers necessary to carry out this section and section 1533.10 of the Revised Code.

An owner who is a resident of this state or an owner who is exempt from obtaining a hunting license under section 1533.10 of the Revised Code and the children of the owner of lands in this state may hunt deer or wild turkey thereon without a deer or wild turkey permit. If the owner of land in this state is a limited liability company or a limited liability partnership that consists of three or fewer individual members or partners, as applicable, an individual member or partner who is a resident of this state and the member's or partner's children of any age may hunt deer or wild turkey on the land owned by the limited liability company or limited liability partnership without a deer or wild turkey permit. In addition, if the owner of land in this state is a trust that has a total of three or fewer trustees and beneficiaries, an individual who is a trustee or beneficiary and who is a resident of this state and the individual's children of any age may hunt deer or wild turkey on the land owned by the trust without a deer or wild turkey permit. The tenant and children of the tenant may hunt deer or wild turkey on lands where they reside without a deer or wild turkey permit.

(B) A deer or wild turkey permit is not transferable. No person shall carry a deer or wild turkey permit issued in the name of another person.

(C) The wildlife refunds fund is hereby created in the state treasury. The fund shall consist of money received from application fees for deer permits that are not issued. Money in the fund shall be used to make refunds of such application fees.

(D) If the division establishes a system for the electronic submission of information regarding deer or wild turkey that are taken, the division shall allow the owner and the children of the owner of lands in this state to use the owner's name or address for purposes of submitting that information electronically via that system.

Sec. 1533.12.  (A)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(2) of this section, every person on active duty in the armed forces of the United States who is stationed in this state and who wishes to engage in an activity for which a license, permit, or stamp is required under this chapter first shall obtain the requisite license, permit, or stamp. Such a person is eligible to obtain a resident hunting or fishing license regardless of whether the person qualifies as a resident of this state. To obtain a resident hunting or fishing license, the person shall present a card or other evidence identifying the person as being on active duty in the armed forces of the United States and as being stationed in this state.

(2) Every person on active duty in the armed forces of the United States, while on leave or furlough, may take or catch fish of the kind lawfully permitted to be taken or caught within the state, may hunt any wild bird or wild quadruped lawfully permitted to be hunted within the state, and may trap fur-bearing animals lawfully permitted to be trapped within the state, without procuring a fishing license, a hunting license, a fur taker permit, or a wetlands habitat stamp required by this chapter, provided that the person shall carry on the person when fishing, hunting, or trapping, a card or other evidence identifying the person as being on active duty in the armed forces of the United States, and provided that the person is not otherwise violating any of the hunting, fishing, and trapping laws of this state.

In order to hunt deer or wild turkey, any such person shall obtain a resident deer or wild turkey permit, as applicable, under section 1533.11 of the Revised Code. Such a person is eligible to obtain a resident deer permit regardless of whether the person is a resident of this state. However, the person need not obtain a hunting license in order to obtain such a either permit.

(B) The chief of the division of wildlife shall provide by rule adopted under section 1531.10 of the Revised Code all of the following:

(1) Every resident of this state with a disability that has been determined by the veterans administration to be permanently and totally disabling, who receives a pension or compensation from the veterans administration, and who received an honorable discharge from the armed forces of the United States, and every veteran to whom the registrar of motor vehicles has issued a set of license plates under section 4503.41 of the Revised Code, shall be issued a fishing license, hunting license, fur taker permit, deer or wild turkey permit, or wetlands habitat stamp, or any combination of those licenses, permits, and stamp, free of charge on an annual, multi-year, or lifetime basis as determined appropriate by the chief when application is made to the chief in the manner prescribed by and on forms provided by the chief.

(2) Every resident of the state who was born on or before December 31, 1937, shall be issued an annual fishing license, hunting license, fur taker permit, deer or wild turkey permit, or wetlands habitat stamp, or any combination of those licenses, permits, and stamp, free of charge when application is made to the chief in the manner prescribed by and on forms provided by the chief.

(3) Every resident of state or county institutions, charitable institutions, and military homes in this state shall be issued an annual fishing license free of charge when application is made to the chief in the manner prescribed by and on forms provided by the chief.

(4) Any mobility impaired or blind person, as defined in section 955.011 of the Revised Code, who is a resident of this state and who is unable to engage in fishing without the assistance of another person shall be issued an annual fishing license free of charge when application is made to the chief in the manner prescribed by and on forms provided by the chief. The person who is assisting the mobility impaired or blind person may assist in taking or catching fish of the kind permitted to be taken or caught without procuring the license required under section 1533.32 of the Revised Code, provided that only one line is used by both persons.

(5) As used in division (B)(5) of this section, "prisoner of war" means any regularly appointed, enrolled, enlisted, or inducted member of the military forces of the United States who was captured, separated, and incarcerated by an enemy of the United States.

Any person who has been a prisoner of war, was honorably discharged from the military forces, and is a resident of this state shall be issued a fishing license, hunting license, fur taker permit, or wetlands habitat stamp, or any combination of those licenses, permits, and stamp, free of charge on an annual, multi-year, or lifetime basis as determined appropriate by the chief when application is made to the chief in the manner prescribed by and on forms provided by the chief.

(C) The chief shall adopt rules pursuant to section 1531.08 of the Revised Code designating not more than two days, which need not be consecutive, in each year as "free sport fishing days" on which any resident may exercise the privileges accorded the holder of a fishing license issued under section 1533.32 of the Revised Code without procuring such a license, provided that the person is not otherwise violating any of the fishing laws of this state.

Sec. 1551.34.  On or before the thirty-first first day of March August of the second each even-numbered year of each biennium, the director of the Ohio coal development office established under section 1551.32 of the Revised Code shall submit to the governor and the general assembly an Ohio coal development agenda. Prior to each submission, the office shall solicit public comment on the agenda to give interested parties an opportunity to comment on the agenda. The director shall consider any public comments received prior to the agenda's submission. The agenda shall include, but is not limited to, all of the following:

(A) A characterization of Ohio coal, constraints on its maximum use, and opportunities for overcoming those constraints;

(B) A characterization of the current and potential markets for Ohio coal, constraints on increased market demand for it, and opportunities for overcoming those constraints;

(C) Identification of each of the office's programs and its correspondence to the purposes of the office;

(D) A description of the office's current projects that includes the status of each project and a specific description of the office's activities in all of the following areas:

(1) Commercialization of available technology;

(2) Marketplace adoption of that technology;

(3) Enhancement of user markets for Ohio coal.

(E) The types of projects to be funded in the succeeding biennium;

(F) Anticipated expenditures for, the relative priority of, and the potential benefits of each type of project to be funded in the succeeding biennium;

(G) The results obtained from completed projects and dissemination of those results;

(H) A fiscal report of the office's activities under sections 1551.30 to 1551.35 and Chapter 1555. of the Revised Code during the preceding biennium;

(I) The criteria used to select the office's specific types of projects. The criteria shall consider all of the following:

(1) A project's relationship to and support of the office's purposes;

(2) The technology involved, its applicability to Ohio coal, and its potential rate and probability of marketplace adoption;

(3) The commercial readiness of a project's facility, technology, or equipment;

(4) The cost and relative risk to the state and the participation of other investors or interested parties in a project's financing;

(5) The likelihood that results of a project would not be achieved in the absence of the office's assistance.

Sec. 1561.31.  Each deputy mine inspector shall inspect each mine in the inspector's district, the owner, lessee, agent, or operator of which is an employer as defined in section 4123.01 of the Revised Code, or any other mine at which three or more persons work, at intervals not exceeding three months between inspections, and all other mines in the inspector's district as often as practical, noting particularly the location and condition of buildings, the condition of the boiler, machinery, workings of the mine, the traveling ways and haulageways, the circulation and condition of the air and drainage, and the condition of electrical circuits and appliances. The inspector shall make tests for poisonous, explosive, and noxious gases, and shall specifically order compliance with any section of this chapter and Chapters 1563., 1565., and 1567. and sections 1509.09, 1509.12, 1509.13, 1509.14, 1509.15, 1509.17, and 1509.18 of the Revised Code that the inspector finds is being violated.

Upon completion of the inspection of a mine, the inspector shall fill out a report of the conditions found during inspections on a form provided by the chief of the division of mineral resources management, which form shall provide for statements as to whether the laws are being observed or violated, and if violated, the nature and extent thereof, the date of the inspection, the number of persons employed in and about the mine, whether or not a certificate of compliance the proof of workers' compensation coverage issued pursuant to section 4123.35 of the Revised Code is posted and the date of expiration thereof, and matters, things, and practices that specifically are covered by law, order of the chief, or previous order of the inspector. The inspector shall make this report in quadruplicate or quintuplicate, and send the original to the chief, post a copy at the mine, give a copy to the mine superintendent, and retain a copy for the inspector's files. Where the miners of a mine have a mine safety committee, the inspector shall post one additional copy of the report of that mine at that mine for the use and possession of the committee. The report required by this section shall be known as the inspector's routine report.

If an inspector orders compliance with this chapter and Chapters 1563., 1565., and 1567. and sections 1509.09, 1509.12, 1509.13, 1509.14, 1509.15, 1509.17, and 1509.18 of the Revised Code, and is assured by the superintendent of the mine to which the order applies that the order will be complied with, the inspector shall revisit the mine within a reasonable period of time and ascertain whether or not the order has been complied with. The inspector shall report the inspector's findings to the chief on a form to be provided by the chief, and take action to enforce compliance.

Sec. 1711.50.  As used in sections 1711.50 to 1711.57 of the Revised Code:

(A) "Amusement ride" means any mechanical, aquatic, or inflatable device, or combination of those devices that carries or conveys passengers on, along, around, over, or through a fixed or restricted course or within a defined area for the purpose of providing amusement, pleasure, or excitement. "Amusement ride" includes carnival rides, bungee jumping facilities, and fair rides, but does not include passenger tramways as defined in section 4169.01 of the Revised Code or amusement rides operated solely at trade shows for a limited period of time. For purposes of this division (A) of this section, "trade show" means a place of exhibition not open to the general public where amusement ride manufacturers display, promote, operate, and sell amusement rides to prospective purchasers.

(B) "Temporary amusement ride" means an amusement ride that is relocated at least once per year with or without disassembly.

(C) "Permanent amusement ride" means an amusement ride that is erected to remain a lasting part of the premises.

(D) "Owner" means any person who owns or leases and controls or manages the operation of an amusement ride, and includes individuals, partnerships, corporations, both profit and nonprofit, and the state and any of its political subdivisions and their departments or agencies.

(E) "Operation" means the use or operation, or both, of an amusement ride with riders.

(F) "Rider" means any person who sits, stands, or is otherwise conveyed or carried as a passenger on an amusement ride, but does not include employees or agents of the owner of the amusement ride.

(G) "Amusement ride operator" means any person causing the amusement ride to go, stop, or perform its function.

(H) "Reassembly" means the installation, erection, or reconstruction of the main mechanical, safety, electrical, or electronic components of an amusement ride following transportation or storage and prior to operation. Replacement of mechanical, safety, electrical, or electronic components of an amusement ride for the purpose of repair or maintenance is not reassembly.

(I) "Repair" means to restore an amusement ride to a condition equal to or better than original design specifications.

(J) "Maintenance" means the preservation and upkeep of an amusement ride for the purpose of maintaining its designed operational capability.

(K) "Inspection" means a physical examination of an amusement ride by an inspector for the purpose of approving the application for a permit. "Inspection" includes a reinspection.

(L) "Accident" means an occurrence during the operation of an amusement ride which that results in death or injury requiring immediate hospital admission.

(M) "Serious injury" means an injury that does not require immediate hospital admission but does require medical treatment, other than first aid, by a physician.

(N) "First aid" means the one-time treatment or subsequent observation of scratches, cuts not requiring stitches, burns, splinters, and contusions or a diagnostic procedure, including examinations and x-rays, which that does not ordinarily require medical treatment even though provided by a physician or other licensed professional personnel.

(O) "Advisory council" means the advisory council on amusement ride safety created by section 1711.51 of the Revised Code.

(P) "Safe operation" means, except as provided in section 1711.57 of the Revised Code, the practical application of maintenance, inspection, and operational processes, as indicated by the manufacturer, owner, or advisory council, that secures a rider from threat of physical danger, harm, or loss.

(Q) "Private facility" means any facility that is accessible only to members of the facility and not accessible to the general public, even upon payment of a fee or charge, and that requires approval for membership by a membership committee representing the current members who have a policy requiring monetary payment to belong to the facility.

(R) "Bungee jumping" means a fall or jump from a height by an individual who is attached to an elastic cord that prevents the individual from hitting the ground, water, or other solid, semi-solid, liquid, or elastic surface.

(S) "Bungee jumping facility" means a device or structure utilized for bungee jumping.

(T) "Kiddie ride" means an amusement ride designed for use by children under thirteen years of age who are unaccompanied by another person. "Kiddie ride" includes a roller coaster that is not more than forty feet in elevation at any point on the ride.

Sec. 1711.53.  (A)(1) No person shall operate an amusement ride within the state without a permit issued by the director of agriculture under division (A)(2) of this section. The owner of an amusement ride, whether the ride is a temporary amusement ride or a permanent amusement ride, who desires to operate the amusement ride within the state shall, prior to the operation of the amusement ride and annually thereafter, submit to the department of agriculture an application for a permit, together with the appropriate permit and inspection fee, on a form to be furnished by the department. Prior to issuing any permit the department shall, within thirty days after the date on which it receives the application, inspect each amusement ride described in the application. The owner of an amusement ride shall have the amusement ride ready for inspection not later than two hours after the time that is requested by the person for the inspection.

(2) For each amusement ride found to comply with the rules adopted by the director under division (B) of this section and division (B) of section 1711.551 of the Revised Code, the director shall issue an annual permit, provided that evidence of liability insurance coverage for the amusement ride as required by section 1711.54 of the Revised Code is on file with the department.

(3) The director shall issue with each permit a decal indicating that the amusement ride has been issued the permit. The owner of the amusement ride shall affix the decal on the ride at a location where the decal is easily visible to the patrons of the ride. A copy of the permit shall be kept on file at the same address as the location of the amusement ride identified on the permit, and shall be made available for inspection, upon reasonable demand, by any person. An owner may operate an amusement ride prior to obtaining a permit, provided that the operation is for the purpose of testing the amusement ride or training amusement ride operators and other employees of the owner and the amusement ride is not open to the public.

(B) The director, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt rules providing for a schedule of fines, with no fine exceeding five thousand dollars, for violations of sections 1711.50 to 1711.57 of the Revised Code or any rules adopted under this division and for the classification of amusement rides and rules for the safe operation and inspection of all amusement rides as are necessary for amusement ride safety and for the protection of the general public. Rules adopted by the director for the safe operation and inspection of amusement rides shall be reasonable and based upon generally accepted engineering standards and practices. In adopting rules under this section, the director may adopt by reference, in whole or in part, the national fire code or the national electrical code (NEC) prepared by the national fire protection association, the standards of the American society for testing and materials (ASTM) or the American national standards institute (ANSI), or any other principles, tests, or standards of nationally recognized technical or scientific authorities. Insofar as is practicable and consistent with sections 1711.50 to 1711.57 of the Revised Code, rules adopted under this division shall be consistent with the rules of other states. The department shall cause sections 1711.50 to 1711.57 of the Revised Code and the rules adopted in accordance with this division and division (B) of section 1711.551 of the Revised Code to be published in pamphlet form and a copy to be furnished without charge to each owner of an amusement ride who holds a current permit or is an applicant therefor.

(C) With respect to an application for a permit for an amusement ride, an owner may apply to the director for a waiver or modification of any rule adopted under division (B) of this section if there are practical difficulties or unnecessary hardships for the amusement ride to comply with the rules. Any application shall set forth the reasons for the request. The director, with the approval of the advisory council on amusement ride safety, may waive or modify the application of a rule to any amusement ride if the public safety is secure. Any authorization by the director under this division shall be in writing and shall set forth the conditions under which the waiver or modification is authorized, and the department shall retain separate records of all proceedings under this division.

(D)(1) The director shall employ and provide for training of a chief inspector and additional inspectors and employees as may be necessary to administer and enforce sections 1711.50 to 1711.57 of the Revised Code. The director may appoint or contract with other persons to perform inspections of amusement rides, provided that the persons meet the qualifications for inspectors established by rules adopted under division (B) of this section and are not owners, or employees of owners, of any amusement ride subject to inspection under sections 1711.50 to 1711.57 of the Revised Code. No person shall inspect an amusement ride who, within six months prior to the date of inspection, was an employee of the owner of the ride.

(2) Before the director contracts with other persons to inspect amusement rides, the director shall seek the advice of the advisory council on amusement ride safety on whether to contract with those persons. The advice shall not be binding upon the director. After having received the advice of the council, the director may proceed to contract with inspectors in accordance with the procedures specified in division (E)(2) of section 1711.11 of the Revised Code.

(3) With the advice and consent of the advisory council on amusement ride safety, the director may employ a special consultant to conduct an independent investigation of an amusement ride accident. This consultant need not be in the civil service of the state, but shall have qualifications to conduct the investigation acceptable to the council.

(E)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (E)(1) of this section, the department shall charge the following amusement ride fees:

The go kart inspection fee is in addition to the inspection fee for the go kart track.

The fees for an expedited inspection, failure to cancel a scheduled inspection, and failure to have an amusement ride ready for inspection do not apply to go karts.

As used in division (E)(1) of this section, "expedited inspection" means an inspection of an amusement ride by the department not later than ten days after the owner of the amusement ride files an application for a permit under this section.

(2) All fees and fines collected by the department under sections 1711.50 to 1711.57 of the Revised Code shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the amusement ride inspection fund, which is hereby created, and shall be used only for the purpose of administering and enforcing sections 1711.11 and 1711.50 to 1711.57 of the Revised Code.

(3) The owner of an amusement ride shall be required to pay a reinspection fee only if the reinspection was conducted at the owner's request under division (F) of this section, if the reinspection is required by division (F) of this section because of an accident, or if the reinspection is required by division (F) of section 1711.55 of the Revised Code. If a reinspection is conducted at the request of the chief officer of a fair, festival, or event where the ride is operating, the reinspection fee shall be charged to the fair, festival, or event.

(4) The rules adopted under division (B) of this section shall define "kiddie rides," "roller coaster," "aerial lifts," "go karts," and "other rides" for purposes of determining the fees under division (E) of this section. The rules shall define "other rides" to include go kart tracks.

(F) A reinspection of an amusement ride shall take place if an accident occurs, if the owner of the ride or the chief officer of the fair, festival, or event where the ride is operating requests a reinspection, or if the reinspection is required by division (F) of section 1711.55 of the Revised Code.

(G) As a supplement to its annual inspection of a temporary amusement ride, the department may inspect the ride during each scheduled event, as listed in the schedule of events provided to the department by the owner pursuant to division (C) of section 1711.55 of the Revised Code, at which the ride is operated in this state. These supplemental inspections are in addition to any other inspection or reinspection of the ride as may be required under sections 1711.50 to 1711.57 of the Revised Code, and the owner of the temporary amusement ride is not required to pay an inspection or reinspection fee for this supplemental inspection. Nothing in this division shall be construed to prohibit the owner of a temporary amusement ride having a valid permit to operate in this state from operating the ride at a scheduled event before the department conducts a supplemental inspection.

(H) The department may annually conduct a midseason operational inspection of every amusement ride upon which it conducts an annual inspection pursuant to division (A) of this section. The midseason operational inspection is in addition to any other inspection or reinspection of the amusement ride as may be required pursuant to sections 1711.50 to 1711.57 of the Revised Code. The owner of an amusement ride shall submit to the department, at the time determined by the department, the midseason operational inspection fee specified in division (E) of this section. The director, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt rules specifying the time period during which the department will conduct midseason operational inspections.

Sec. 2151.417.  (A) Any court that issues a dispositional order pursuant to section 2151.353, 2151.414, or 2151.415 of the Revised Code may review at any time the child's placement or custody arrangement, the case plan prepared for the child pursuant to section 2151.412 of the Revised Code, the actions of the public children services agency or private child placing agency in implementing that case plan, the child's permanency plan if the child's permanency plan has been approved, and any other aspects of the child's placement or custody arrangement. In conducting the review, the court shall determine the appropriateness of any agency actions, the safety and appropriateness of continuing the child's placement or custody arrangement, and whether any changes should be made with respect to the child's permanency plan or placement or custody arrangement or with respect to the actions of the agency under the child's placement or custody arrangement. Based upon the evidence presented at a hearing held after notice to all parties and the guardian ad litem of the child, the court may require the agency, the parents, guardian, or custodian of the child, and the physical custodians of the child to take any reasonable action that the court determines is necessary and in the best interest of the child or to discontinue any action that it determines is not in the best interest of the child.

(B) If a court issues a dispositional order pursuant to section 2151.353, 2151.414, or 2151.415 of the Revised Code, the court has continuing jurisdiction over the child as set forth in division (E)(1) of section 2151.353 of the Revised Code. The court may amend a dispositional order in accordance with division (E)(2) of section 2151.353 of the Revised Code at any time upon its own motion or upon the motion of any interested party. The court shall comply with section 2151.42 of the Revised Code in amending any dispositional order pursuant to this division.

(C) Any court that issues a dispositional order pursuant to section 2151.353, 2151.414, or 2151.415 of the Revised Code shall hold a review hearing one year after the earlier of the date on which the complaint in the case was filed or the child was first placed into shelter care to review the case plan prepared pursuant to section 2151.412 of the Revised Code and the child's placement or custody arrangement, to approve or review the permanency plan for the child, and to make changes to the case plan and placement or custody arrangement consistent with the permanency plan. The court shall schedule the review hearing at the time that it holds the dispositional hearing pursuant to section 2151.35 of the Revised Code.

The court shall hold a similar review hearing no later than every twelve months after the initial review hearing until the child is adopted, returned to the parents, or the court otherwise terminates the child's placement or custody arrangement, except that the dispositional hearing held pursuant to section 2151.415 of the Revised Code shall take the place of the first review hearing to be held under this section. The court shall schedule each subsequent review hearing at the conclusion of the review hearing immediately preceding the review hearing to be scheduled.

(D) If, within fourteen days after a written summary of an administrative review is filed with the court pursuant to section 2151.416 of the Revised Code, the court does not approve the proposed change to the case plan filed pursuant to division (E) of section 2151.416 of the Revised Code or a party or the guardian ad litem requests a review hearing pursuant to division (E) of that section, the court shall hold a review hearing in the same manner that it holds review hearings pursuant to division (C) of this section, except that if a review hearing is required by this division and if a hearing is to be held pursuant to division (C) of this section or section 2151.415 of the Revised Code, the hearing held pursuant to division (C) of this section or section 2151.415 of the Revised Code shall take the place of the review hearing required by this division.

(E) If a court determines pursuant to section 2151.419 of the Revised Code that a public children services agency or private child placing agency is not required to make reasonable efforts to prevent the removal of a child from the child's home, eliminate the continued removal of a child from the child's home, and return the child to the child's home, and the court does not return the child to the child's home pursuant to division (A)(3) of section 2151.419 of the Revised Code, the court shall hold a review hearing to approve the permanency plan for the child and, if appropriate, to make changes to the child's case plan and the child's placement or custody arrangement consistent with the permanency plan. The court may hold the hearing immediately following the determination under section 2151.419 of the Revised Code and shall hold it no later than thirty days after making that determination.

(F) The court shall give notice of the review hearings held pursuant to this section to every interested party, including, but not limited to, the appropriate agency employees who are responsible for the child's care and planning, the child's parents, any person who had guardianship or legal custody of the child prior to the custody order, the child's guardian ad litem, and the child. The court shall summon every interested party to appear at the review hearing and give them an opportunity to testify and to present other evidence with respect to the child's custody arrangement, including, but not limited to, the following: the case plan for the child,; the permanency plan, if one exists; the actions taken by the child's custodian; the need for a change in the child's custodian or caseworker; and the need for any specific action to be taken with respect to the child. The court shall require any interested party to testify or present other evidence when necessary to a proper determination of the issues presented at the review hearing. In any review hearing that pertains to a permanency plan for a child who will not be returned to the parent, the court shall consider in-state and out-of-state placement options and the court shall determine whether the in-state or the out-of-state placement continues to be appropriate and in the best interests of the child. In any review hearing that pertains to a permanency plan for a child, the court or a citizens board appointed by the court pursuant to division (H) of this section shall consult with the child, in an age-appropriate manner, regarding the proposed permanency plan for the child.

(G) After the review hearing, the court shall take the following actions based upon the evidence presented:

(1) If an administrative review has been conducted, determine whether the conclusions of the review are supported by a preponderance of the evidence and approve or modify the case plan based upon that evidence;

(2) If the hearing was held under division (C) or (E) of this section, approve a permanency plan for the child that specifies whether and, if applicable, when the child will be safely returned home or placed for adoption, for legal custody, or in a planned permanent living arrangement. A permanency plan approved after a hearing under division (E) of this section shall not include any provision requiring the child to be returned to the child's home.

(3) If the child is in temporary custody, do all of the following:

(a) Determine whether the child can and should be returned home with or without an order for protective supervision;

(b) If the child can and should be returned home with or without an order for protective supervision, terminate the order for temporary custody;

(c) If the child cannot or should not be returned home with an order for protective supervision, determine whether the agency currently with custody of the child should retain custody or whether another public children services agency, private child placing agency, or an individual should be given custody of the child.

The court shall comply with section 2151.42 of the Revised Code in taking any action under this division.

(4) If the child is in permanent custody, determine what actions are required by the custodial agency and of any other organizations or persons in order to facilitate an adoption of the child and make any appropriate orders with respect to the custody arrangement or conditions of the child, including, but not limited to, a transfer of permanent custody to another public children services agency or private child placing agency;

(5) Journalize the terms of the updated case plan for the child.

(H) The court may appoint a referee or a citizens review board to conduct the review hearings that the court is required by this section to conduct, subject to the review and approval by the court of any determinations made by the referee or citizens review board. If the court appoints a citizens review board to conduct the review hearings, the board shall consist of one member representing the general public and four members who are trained or experienced in the care or placement of children and have training or experience in the fields of medicine, psychology, social work, education, or any related field. Of the initial appointments to the board, two shall be for a term of one year, two shall be for a term of two years, and one shall be for a term of three years, with all the terms ending one year after the date on which the appointment was made. Thereafter, all terms of the board members shall be for three years and shall end on the same day of the same month of the year as did the term that they succeed. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which the member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the remainder of the term.

(I) A copy of the court's determination following any review hearing held pursuant to this section shall be sent to the custodial agency, the guardian ad litem of the child who is the subject of the review hearing, and, if that child is not the subject of a permanent commitment hearing, the parents of the child.

(J) If the hearing held under this section takes the place of an administrative review that otherwise would have been held under section 2151.416 of the Revised Code, the court at the hearing held under this section shall do all of the following in addition to any other requirements of this section:

(1) Determine the continued necessity for and the safety and appropriateness of the child's placement;

(2) Determine the extent of compliance with the child's case plan;

(3) Determine the extent of progress that has been made toward alleviating or mitigating the causes necessitating the child's placement in foster care;

(4) Project a likely date by which the child may be safely returned home or placed for adoption or legal custody.

(K)(1) Whenever the court is required to approve a permanency plan under this section or section 2151.415 of the Revised Code, the public children services agency or private child placing agency that filed the complaint in the case, has custody of the child, or will be given custody of the child shall develop a permanency plan for the child. The agency must file the plan with the court prior to the hearing under this section or section 2151.415 of the Revised Code.

(2) The permanency plan developed by the agency must specify whether and, if applicable, when the child will be safely returned home or placed for adoption or legal custody. If the agency determines that there is a compelling reason why returning the child home or placing the child for adoption or legal custody is not in the best interest of the child, the plan shall provide that the child will be placed in a planned permanent living arrangement. A permanency plan developed as a result of a determination made under division (A)(2) of section 2151.419 of the Revised Code may not include any provision requiring the child to be returned home.

(3)(a) Whenever a court is required under this section or section 2151.415 or 2151.419 of the Revised Code to conduct a review hearing to approve a permanency plan, the court shall determine whether the agency required to develop the plan has made reasonable efforts to finalize it. If the court determines the agency has not made reasonable efforts to finalize the plan, the court shall issue an order finalizing a permanency plan requiring the agency to use reasonable efforts to do the following:

(i) Place the child in a timely manner into a permanent placement;

(ii) Complete whatever steps are necessary to finalize the permanent placement of the child.

(b) In making reasonable efforts as required in division (K)(3)(a) of this section, the agency shall consider the child's health and safety as the paramount concern.

Sec. 2151.421.  (A)(1)(a) No person described in division (A)(1)(b) of this section who is acting in an official or professional capacity and knows, or has reasonable cause to suspect based on facts that would cause a reasonable person in a similar position to suspect, that a child under eighteen years of age or a mentally retarded, developmentally disabled, or physically impaired child under twenty-one years of age has suffered or faces a threat of suffering any physical or mental wound, injury, disability, or condition of a nature that reasonably indicates abuse or neglect of the child shall fail to immediately report that knowledge or reasonable cause to suspect to the entity or persons specified in this division. Except as provided in section 5120.173 of the Revised Code, the person making the report shall make it to the public children services agency or a municipal or county peace officer in the county in which the child resides or in which the abuse or neglect is occurring or has occurred. In the circumstances described in section 5120.173 of the Revised Code, the person making the report shall make it to the entity specified in that section.

(b) Division (A)(1)(a) of this section applies to any person who is an attorney; physician, including a hospital intern or resident; dentist; podiatrist; practitioner of a limited branch of medicine as specified in section 4731.15 of the Revised Code; registered nurse; licensed practical nurse; visiting nurse; other health care professional; licensed psychologist; licensed school psychologist; independent marriage and family therapist or marriage and family therapist; speech pathologist or audiologist; coroner; administrator or employee of a child day-care center; administrator or employee of a residential camp or child day camp; administrator or employee of a certified child care agency or other public or private children services agency; school teacher; school employee; school authority; person engaged in social work or the practice of professional counseling; agent of a county humane society; person, other than a cleric, rendering spiritual treatment through prayer in accordance with the tenets of a well-recognized religion; employee of a county department of job and family services who is a professional and who works with children and families; superintendent or regional administrator employed by the department of youth services; superintendent, board member, or employee of a county board of developmental disabilities; investigative agent contracted with by a county board of developmental disabilities; employee of the department of developmental disabilities; employee of a facility or home that provides respite care in accordance with section 5123.171 of the Revised Code; employee of a home health agency; employee of an entity that provides homemaker services; a person performing the duties of an assessor pursuant to Chapter 3107. or 5103. of the Revised Code; or third party employed by a public children services agency to assist in providing child or family related services.

(2) Except as provided in division (A)(3) of this section, an attorney or a physician is not required to make a report pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section concerning any communication the attorney or physician receives from a client or patient in an attorney-client or physician-patient relationship, if, in accordance with division (A) or (B) of section 2317.02 of the Revised Code, the attorney or physician could not testify with respect to that communication in a civil or criminal proceeding.

(3) The client or patient in an attorney-client or physician-patient relationship described in division (A)(2) of this section is deemed to have waived any testimonial privilege under division (A) or (B) of section 2317.02 of the Revised Code with respect to any communication the attorney or physician receives from the client or patient in that attorney-client or physician-patient relationship, and the attorney or physician shall make a report pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section with respect to that communication, if all of the following apply:

(a) The client or patient, at the time of the communication, is either a child under eighteen years of age or a mentally retarded, developmentally disabled, or physically impaired person under twenty-one years of age.

(b) The attorney or physician knows, or has reasonable cause to suspect based on facts that would cause a reasonable person in similar position to suspect, as a result of the communication or any observations made during that communication, that the client or patient has suffered or faces a threat of suffering any physical or mental wound, injury, disability, or condition of a nature that reasonably indicates abuse or neglect of the client or patient.

(c) The abuse or neglect does not arise out of the client's or patient's attempt to have an abortion without the notification of her parents, guardian, or custodian in accordance with section 2151.85 of the Revised Code.

(4)(a) No cleric and no person, other than a volunteer, designated by any church, religious society, or faith acting as a leader, official, or delegate on behalf of the church, religious society, or faith who is acting in an official or professional capacity, who knows, or has reasonable cause to believe based on facts that would cause a reasonable person in a similar position to believe, that a child under eighteen years of age or a mentally retarded, developmentally disabled, or physically impaired child under twenty-one years of age has suffered or faces a threat of suffering any physical or mental wound, injury, disability, or condition of a nature that reasonably indicates abuse or neglect of the child, and who knows, or has reasonable cause to believe based on facts that would cause a reasonable person in a similar position to believe, that another cleric or another person, other than a volunteer, designated by a church, religious society, or faith acting as a leader, official, or delegate on behalf of the church, religious society, or faith caused, or poses the threat of causing, the wound, injury, disability, or condition that reasonably indicates abuse or neglect shall fail to immediately report that knowledge or reasonable cause to believe to the entity or persons specified in this division. Except as provided in section 5120.173 of the Revised Code, the person making the report shall make it to the public children services agency or a municipal or county peace officer in the county in which the child resides or in which the abuse or neglect is occurring or has occurred. In the circumstances described in section 5120.173 of the Revised Code, the person making the report shall make it to the entity specified in that section.

(b) Except as provided in division (A)(4)(c) of this section, a cleric is not required to make a report pursuant to division (A)(4)(a) of this section concerning any communication the cleric receives from a penitent in a cleric-penitent relationship, if, in accordance with division (C) of section 2317.02 of the Revised Code, the cleric could not testify with respect to that communication in a civil or criminal proceeding.

(c) The penitent in a cleric-penitent relationship described in division (A)(4)(b) of this section is deemed to have waived any testimonial privilege under division (C) of section 2317.02 of the Revised Code with respect to any communication the cleric receives from the penitent in that cleric-penitent relationship, and the cleric shall make a report pursuant to division (A)(4)(a) of this section with respect to that communication, if all of the following apply:

(i) The penitent, at the time of the communication, is either a child under eighteen years of age or a mentally retarded, developmentally disabled, or physically impaired person under twenty-one years of age.

(ii) The cleric knows, or has reasonable cause to believe based on facts that would cause a reasonable person in a similar position to believe, as a result of the communication or any observations made during that communication, the penitent has suffered or faces a threat of suffering any physical or mental wound, injury, disability, or condition of a nature that reasonably indicates abuse or neglect of the penitent.

(iii) The abuse or neglect does not arise out of the penitent's attempt to have an abortion performed upon a child under eighteen years of age or upon a mentally retarded, developmentally disabled, or physically impaired person under twenty-one years of age without the notification of her parents, guardian, or custodian in accordance with section 2151.85 of the Revised Code.

(d) Divisions (A)(4)(a) and (c) of this section do not apply in a cleric-penitent relationship when the disclosure of any communication the cleric receives from the penitent is in violation of the sacred trust.

(e) As used in divisions (A)(1) and (4) of this section, "cleric" and "sacred trust" have the same meanings as in section 2317.02 of the Revised Code.

(B) Anyone who knows, or has reasonable cause to suspect based on facts that would cause a reasonable person in similar circumstances to suspect, that a child under eighteen years of age or a mentally retarded, developmentally disabled, or physically impaired person under twenty-one years of age has suffered or faces a threat of suffering any physical or mental wound, injury, disability, or other condition of a nature that reasonably indicates abuse or neglect of the child may report or cause reports to be made of that knowledge or reasonable cause to suspect to the entity or persons specified in this division. Except as provided in section 5120.173 of the Revised Code, a person making a report or causing a report to be made under this division shall make it or cause it to be made to the public children services agency or to a municipal or county peace officer. In the circumstances described in section 5120.173 of the Revised Code, a person making a report or causing a report to be made under this division shall make it or cause it to be made to the entity specified in that section.

(C) Any report made pursuant to division (A) or (B) of this section shall be made forthwith either by telephone or in person and shall be followed by a written report, if requested by the receiving agency or officer. The written report shall contain:

(1) The names and addresses of the child and the child's parents or the person or persons having custody of the child, if known;

(2) The child's age and the nature and extent of the child's injuries, abuse, or neglect that is known or reasonably suspected or believed, as applicable, to have occurred or of the threat of injury, abuse, or neglect that is known or reasonably suspected or believed, as applicable, to exist, including any evidence of previous injuries, abuse, or neglect;

(3) Any other information that might be helpful in establishing the cause of the injury, abuse, or neglect that is known or reasonably suspected or believed, as applicable, to have occurred or of the threat of injury, abuse, or neglect that is known or reasonably suspected or believed, as applicable, to exist.

Any person, who is required by division (A) of this section to report child abuse or child neglect that is known or reasonably suspected or believed to have occurred, may take or cause to be taken color photographs of areas of trauma visible on a child and, if medically indicated, cause to be performed radiological examinations of the child.

(D) As used in this division, "children's advocacy center" and "sexual abuse of a child" have the same meanings as in section 2151.425 of the Revised Code.

(1) When a municipal or county peace officer receives a report concerning the possible abuse or neglect of a child or the possible threat of abuse or neglect of a child, upon receipt of the report, the municipal or county peace officer who receives the report shall refer the report to the appropriate public children services agency.

(2) When a public children services agency receives a report pursuant to this division or division (A) or (B) of this section, upon receipt of the report, the public children services agency shall do both of the following:

(a) Comply with section 2151.422 of the Revised Code;

(b) If the county served by the agency is also served by a children's advocacy center and the report alleges sexual abuse of a child or another type of abuse of a child that is specified in the memorandum of understanding that creates the center as being within the center's jurisdiction, comply regarding the report with the protocol and procedures for referrals and investigations, with the coordinating activities, and with the authority or responsibility for performing or providing functions, activities, and services stipulated in the interagency agreement entered into under section 2151.428 of the Revised Code relative to that center.

(E) No township, municipal, or county peace officer shall remove a child about whom a report is made pursuant to this section from the child's parents, stepparents, or guardian or any other persons having custody of the child without consultation with the public children services agency, unless, in the judgment of the officer, and, if the report was made by physician, the physician, immediate removal is considered essential to protect the child from further abuse or neglect. The agency that must be consulted shall be the agency conducting the investigation of the report as determined pursuant to section 2151.422 of the Revised Code.

(F)(1) Except as provided in section 2151.422 of the Revised Code or in an interagency agreement entered into under section 2151.428 of the Revised Code that applies to the particular report, the public children services agency shall investigate, within twenty-four hours, each report of child abuse or child neglect that is known or reasonably suspected or believed to have occurred and of a threat of child abuse or child neglect that is known or reasonably suspected or believed to exist that is referred to it under this section to determine the circumstances surrounding the injuries, abuse, or neglect or the threat of injury, abuse, or neglect, the cause of the injuries, abuse, neglect, or threat, and the person or persons responsible. The investigation shall be made in cooperation with the law enforcement agency and in accordance with the memorandum of understanding prepared under division (J) of this section. A representative of the public children services agency shall, at the time of initial contact with the person subject to the investigation, inform the person of the specific complaints or allegations made against the person. The information shall be given in a manner that is consistent with division (H)(1) of this section and protects the rights of the person making the report under this section.

A failure to make the investigation in accordance with the memorandum is not grounds for, and shall not result in, the dismissal of any charges or complaint arising from the report or the suppression of any evidence obtained as a result of the report and does not give, and shall not be construed as giving, any rights or any grounds for appeal or post-conviction relief to any person. The public children services agency shall report each case to the uniform statewide automated child welfare information system that the department of job and family services shall maintain in accordance with section 5101.13 of the Revised Code. The public children services agency shall submit a report of its investigation, in writing, to the law enforcement agency.

(2) The public children services agency shall make any recommendations to the county prosecuting attorney or city director of law that it considers necessary to protect any children that are brought to its attention.

(G)(1)(a) Except as provided in division (H)(3) of this section, anyone or any hospital, institution, school, health department, or agency participating in the making of reports under division (A) of this section, anyone or any hospital, institution, school, health department, or agency participating in good faith in the making of reports under division (B) of this section, and anyone participating in good faith in a judicial proceeding resulting from the reports, shall be immune from any civil or criminal liability for injury, death, or loss to person or property that otherwise might be incurred or imposed as a result of the making of the reports or the participation in the judicial proceeding.

(b) Notwithstanding section 4731.22 of the Revised Code, the physician-patient privilege shall not be a ground for excluding evidence regarding a child's injuries, abuse, or neglect, or the cause of the injuries, abuse, or neglect in any judicial proceeding resulting from a report submitted pursuant to this section.

(2) In any civil or criminal action or proceeding in which it is alleged and proved that participation in the making of a report under this section was not in good faith or participation in a judicial proceeding resulting from a report made under this section was not in good faith, the court shall award the prevailing party reasonable attorney's fees and costs and, if a civil action or proceeding is voluntarily dismissed, may award reasonable attorney's fees and costs to the party against whom the civil action or proceeding is brought.

(H)(1) Except as provided in divisions (H)(4) and (N) of this section, a report made under this section is confidential. The information provided in a report made pursuant to this section and the name of the person who made the report shall not be released for use, and shall not be used, as evidence in any civil action or proceeding brought against the person who made the report. Nothing in this division shall preclude the use of reports of other incidents of known or suspected abuse or neglect in a civil action or proceeding brought pursuant to division (M) of this section against a person who is alleged to have violated division (A)(1) of this section, provided that any information in a report that would identify the child who is the subject of the report or the maker of the report, if the maker of the report is not the defendant or an agent or employee of the defendant, has been redacted. In a criminal proceeding, the report is admissible in evidence in accordance with the Rules of Evidence and is subject to discovery in accordance with the Rules of Criminal Procedure.

(2) No person shall permit or encourage the unauthorized dissemination of the contents of any report made under this section.

(3) A person who knowingly makes or causes another person to make a false report under division (B) of this section that alleges that any person has committed an act or omission that resulted in a child being an abused child or a neglected child is guilty of a violation of section 2921.14 of the Revised Code.

(4) If a report is made pursuant to division (A) or (B) of this section and the child who is the subject of the report dies for any reason at any time after the report is made, but before the child attains eighteen years of age, the public children services agency or municipal or county peace officer to which the report was made or referred, on the request of the child fatality review board, shall submit a summary sheet of information providing a summary of the report to the review board of the county in which the deceased child resided at the time of death. On the request of the review board, the agency or peace officer may, at its discretion, make the report available to the review board. If the county served by the public children services agency is also served by a children's advocacy center and the report of alleged sexual abuse of a child or another type of abuse of a child is specified in the memorandum of understanding that creates the center as being within the center's jurisdiction, the agency or center shall perform the duties and functions specified in this division in accordance with the interagency agreement entered into under section 2151.428 of the Revised Code relative to that advocacy center.

(5) A public children services agency shall advise a person alleged to have inflicted abuse or neglect on a child who is the subject of a report made pursuant to this section, including a report alleging sexual abuse of a child or another type of abuse of a child referred to a children's advocacy center pursuant to an interagency agreement entered into under section 2151.428 of the Revised Code, in writing of the disposition of the investigation. The agency shall not provide to the person any information that identifies the person who made the report, statements of witnesses, or police or other investigative reports.

(I) Any report that is required by this section, other than a report that is made to the state highway patrol as described in section 5120.173 of the Revised Code, shall result in protective services and emergency supportive services being made available by the public children services agency on behalf of the children about whom the report is made, in an effort to prevent further neglect or abuse, to enhance their welfare, and, whenever possible, to preserve the family unit intact. The agency required to provide the services shall be the agency conducting the investigation of the report pursuant to section 2151.422 of the Revised Code.

(J)(1) Each public children services agency shall prepare a memorandum of understanding that is signed by all of the following:

(a) If there is only one juvenile judge in the county, the juvenile judge of the county or the juvenile judge's representative;

(b) If there is more than one juvenile judge in the county, a juvenile judge or the juvenile judges' representative selected by the juvenile judges or, if they are unable to do so for any reason, the juvenile judge who is senior in point of service or the senior juvenile judge's representative;

(c) The county peace officer;

(d) All chief municipal peace officers within the county;

(e) Other law enforcement officers handling child abuse and neglect cases in the county;

(f) The prosecuting attorney of the county;

(g) If the public children services agency is not the county department of job and family services, the county department of job and family services;

(h) The county humane society;

(i) If the public children services agency participated in the execution of a memorandum of understanding under section 2151.426 of the Revised Code establishing a children's advocacy center, each participating member of the children's advocacy center established by the memorandum.

(2) A memorandum of understanding shall set forth the normal operating procedure to be employed by all concerned officials in the execution of their respective responsibilities under this section and division (C) of section 2919.21, division (B)(1) of section 2919.22, division (B) of section 2919.23, and section 2919.24 of the Revised Code and shall have as two of its primary goals the elimination of all unnecessary interviews of children who are the subject of reports made pursuant to division (A) or (B) of this section and, when feasible, providing for only one interview of a child who is the subject of any report made pursuant to division (A) or (B) of this section. A failure to follow the procedure set forth in the memorandum by the concerned officials is not grounds for, and shall not result in, the dismissal of any charges or complaint arising from any reported case of abuse or neglect or the suppression of any evidence obtained as a result of any reported child abuse or child neglect and does not give, and shall not be construed as giving, any rights or any grounds for appeal or post-conviction relief to any person.

(3) A memorandum of understanding shall include all of the following:

(a) The roles and responsibilities for handling emergency and nonemergency cases of abuse and neglect;

(b) Standards and procedures to be used in handling and coordinating investigations of reported cases of child abuse and reported cases of child neglect, methods to be used in interviewing the child who is the subject of the report and who allegedly was abused or neglected, and standards and procedures addressing the categories of persons who may interview the child who is the subject of the report and who allegedly was abused or neglected.

(4) If a public children services agency participated in the execution of a memorandum of understanding under section 2151.426 of the Revised Code establishing a children's advocacy center, the agency shall incorporate the contents of that memorandum in the memorandum prepared pursuant to this section.

(5) The clerk of the court of common pleas in the county may sign the memorandum of understanding prepared under division (J)(1) of this section. If the clerk signs the memorandum of understanding, the clerk shall execute all relevant responsibilities as required of officials specified in the memorandum.

(K)(1) Except as provided in division (K)(4) of this section, a person who is required to make a report pursuant to division (A) of this section may make a reasonable number of requests of the public children services agency that receives or is referred the report, or of the children's advocacy center that is referred the report if the report is referred to a children's advocacy center pursuant to an interagency agreement entered into under section 2151.428 of the Revised Code, to be provided with the following information:

(a) Whether the agency or center has initiated an investigation of the report;

(b) Whether the agency or center is continuing to investigate the report;

(c) Whether the agency or center is otherwise involved with the child who is the subject of the report;

(d) The general status of the health and safety of the child who is the subject of the report;

(e) Whether the report has resulted in the filing of a complaint in juvenile court or of criminal charges in another court.

(2) A person may request the information specified in division (K)(1) of this section only if, at the time the report is made, the person's name, address, and telephone number are provided to the person who receives the report.

When a municipal or county peace officer or employee of a public children services agency receives a report pursuant to division (A) or (B) of this section the recipient of the report shall inform the person of the right to request the information described in division (K)(1) of this section. The recipient of the report shall include in the initial child abuse or child neglect report that the person making the report was so informed and, if provided at the time of the making of the report, shall include the person's name, address, and telephone number in the report.

Each request is subject to verification of the identity of the person making the report. If that person's identity is verified, the agency shall provide the person with the information described in division (K)(1) of this section a reasonable number of times, except that the agency shall not disclose any confidential information regarding the child who is the subject of the report other than the information described in those divisions.

(3) A request made pursuant to division (K)(1) of this section is not a substitute for any report required to be made pursuant to division (A) of this section.

(4) If an agency other than the agency that received or was referred the report is conducting the investigation of the report pursuant to section 2151.422 of the Revised Code, the agency conducting the investigation shall comply with the requirements of division (K) of this section.

(L) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. The department of job and family services may enter into a plan of cooperation with any other governmental entity to aid in ensuring that children are protected from abuse and neglect. The department shall make recommendations to the attorney general that the department determines are necessary to protect children from child abuse and child neglect.

(M) Whoever violates division (A) of this section is liable for compensatory and exemplary damages to the child who would have been the subject of the report that was not made. A person who brings a civil action or proceeding pursuant to this division against a person who is alleged to have violated division (A)(1) of this section may use in the action or proceeding reports of other incidents of known or suspected abuse or neglect, provided that any information in a report that would identify the child who is the subject of the report or the maker of the report, if the maker is not the defendant or an agent or employee of the defendant, has been redacted.

(N)(1) As used in this division:

(a) "Out-of-home care" includes a nonchartered nonpublic school if the alleged child abuse or child neglect, or alleged threat of child abuse or child neglect, described in a report received by a public children services agency allegedly occurred in or involved the nonchartered nonpublic school and the alleged perpetrator named in the report holds a certificate, permit, or license issued by the state board of education under section 3301.071 or Chapter 3319. of the Revised Code.

(b) "Administrator, director, or other chief administrative officer" means the superintendent of the school district if the out-of-home care entity subject to a report made pursuant to this section is a school operated by the district.

(2) No later than the end of the day following the day on which a public children services agency receives a report of alleged child abuse or child neglect, or a report of an alleged threat of child abuse or child neglect, that allegedly occurred in or involved an out-of-home care entity, the agency shall provide written notice of the allegations contained in and the person named as the alleged perpetrator in the report to the administrator, director, or other chief administrative officer of the out-of-home care entity that is the subject of the report unless the administrator, director, or other chief administrative officer is named as an alleged perpetrator in the report. If the administrator, director, or other chief administrative officer of an out-of-home care entity is named as an alleged perpetrator in a report of alleged child abuse or child neglect, or a report of an alleged threat of child abuse or child neglect, that allegedly occurred in or involved the out-of-home care entity, the agency shall provide the written notice to the owner or governing board of the out-of-home care entity that is the subject of the report. The agency shall not provide witness statements or police or other investigative reports.

(3) No later than three days after the day on which a public children services agency that conducted the investigation as determined pursuant to section 2151.422 of the Revised Code makes a disposition of an investigation involving a report of alleged child abuse or child neglect, or a report of an alleged threat of child abuse or child neglect, that allegedly occurred in or involved an out-of-home care entity, the agency shall send written notice of the disposition of the investigation to the administrator, director, or other chief administrative officer and the owner or governing board of the out-of-home care entity. The agency shall not provide witness statements or police or other investigative reports.

(O) As used in this section, "investigation" means the public children services agency's response to an accepted report of child abuse or neglect through either an alternative response or a traditional response.

Sec. 2152.19.  (A) If a child is adjudicated a delinquent child, the court may make any of the following orders of disposition, in addition to any other disposition authorized or required by this chapter:

(1) Any order that is authorized by section 2151.353 of the Revised Code for the care and protection of an abused, neglected, or dependent child;

(2) Commit the child to the temporary custody of any school, camp, institution, or other facility operated for the care of delinquent children by the county, by a district organized under section 2152.41 or 2151.65 of the Revised Code, or by a private agency or organization, within or without the state, that is authorized and qualified to provide the care, treatment, or placement required, including, but not limited to, a school, camp, or facility operated under section 2151.65 of the Revised Code;

(3) Place the child in a detention facility or district detention facility operated under section 2152.41 of the Revised Code, for up to ninety days;

(4) Place the child on community control under any sanctions, services, and conditions that the court prescribes. As a condition of community control in every case and in addition to any other condition that it imposes upon the child, the court shall require the child to abide by the law during the period of community control. As referred to in this division, community control includes, but is not limited to, the following sanctions and conditions:

(a) A period of basic probation supervision in which the child is required to maintain contact with a person appointed to supervise the child in accordance with sanctions imposed by the court;

(b) A period of intensive probation supervision in which the child is required to maintain frequent contact with a person appointed by the court to supervise the child while the child is seeking or maintaining employment and participating in training, education, and treatment programs as the order of disposition;

(c) A period of day reporting in which the child is required each day to report to and leave a center or another approved reporting location at specified times in order to participate in work, education or training, treatment, and other approved programs at the center or outside the center;

(d) A period of community service of up to five hundred hours for an act that would be a felony or a misdemeanor of the first degree if committed by an adult, up to two hundred hours for an act that would be a misdemeanor of the second, third, or fourth degree if committed by an adult, or up to thirty hours for an act that would be a minor misdemeanor if committed by an adult;

(e) A requirement that the child obtain a high school diploma, a certificate of high school equivalence, vocational training, or employment;

(f) A period of drug and alcohol use monitoring;

(g) A requirement of alcohol or drug assessment or counseling, or a period in an alcohol or drug treatment program with a level of security for the child as determined necessary by the court;

(h) A period in which the court orders the child to observe a curfew that may involve daytime or evening hours;

(i) A requirement that the child serve monitored time;

(j) A period of house arrest without electronic monitoring or continuous alcohol monitoring;

(k) A period of electronic monitoring or continuous alcohol monitoring without house arrest, or house arrest with electronic monitoring or continuous alcohol monitoring or both electronic monitoring and continuous alcohol monitoring, that does not exceed the maximum sentence of imprisonment that could be imposed upon an adult who commits the same act.

A period of house arrest with electronic monitoring or continuous alcohol monitoring or both electronic monitoring and continuous alcohol monitoring, imposed under this division shall not extend beyond the child's twenty-first birthday. If a court imposes a period of house arrest with electronic monitoring or continuous alcohol monitoring or both electronic monitoring and continuous alcohol monitoring, upon a child under this division, it shall require the child: to remain in the child's home or other specified premises for the entire period of house arrest with electronic monitoring or continuous alcohol monitoring or both except when the court permits the child to leave those premises to go to school or to other specified premises. Regarding electronic monitoring, the court also shall require the child to be monitored by a central system that can determine the child's location at designated times; to report periodically to a person designated by the court; and to enter into a written contract with the court agreeing to comply with all requirements imposed by the court, agreeing to pay any fee imposed by the court for the costs of the house arrest with electronic monitoring, and agreeing to waive the right to receive credit for any time served on house arrest with electronic monitoring toward the period of any other dispositional order imposed upon the child if the child violates any of the requirements of the dispositional order of house arrest with electronic monitoring. The court also may impose other reasonable requirements upon the child.

Unless ordered by the court, a child shall not receive credit for any time served on house arrest with electronic monitoring or continuous alcohol monitoring or both toward any other dispositional order imposed upon the child for the act for which was imposed the dispositional order of house arrest with electronic monitoring or continuous alcohol monitoring. As used in this division and division (A)(4)(l) of this section, "continuous alcohol monitoring" has the same meaning as in section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.

(l) A suspension of the driver's license, probationary driver's license, or temporary instruction permit issued to the child for a period of time prescribed by the court, or a suspension of the registration of all motor vehicles registered in the name of the child for a period of time prescribed by the court. A child whose license or permit is so suspended is ineligible for issuance of a license or permit during the period of suspension. At the end of the period of suspension, the child shall not be reissued a license or permit until the child has paid any applicable reinstatement fee and complied with all requirements governing license reinstatement.

(5) Commit the child to the custody of the court;

(6) Require the child to not be absent without legitimate excuse from the public school the child is supposed to attend for five or more consecutive days, seven or more school days in one school month, or twelve or more school days in a school year;

(7)(a) If a child is adjudicated a delinquent child for being a chronic truant or a habitual truant who previously has been adjudicated an unruly child for being a habitual truant, do either or both of the following:

(i) Require the child to participate in a truancy prevention mediation program;

(ii) Make any order of disposition as authorized by this section, except that the court shall not commit the child to a facility described in division (A)(2) or (3) of this section unless the court determines that the child violated a lawful court order made pursuant to division (C)(1)(e) of section 2151.354 of the Revised Code or division (A)(6) of this section.

(b) If a child is adjudicated a delinquent child for being a chronic truant or a habitual truant who previously has been adjudicated an unruly child for being a habitual truant and the court determines that the parent, guardian, or other person having care of the child has failed to cause the child's attendance at school in violation of section 3321.38 of the Revised Code, do either or both of the following:

(i) Require the parent, guardian, or other person having care of the child to participate in a truancy prevention mediation program;

(ii) Require the parent, guardian, or other person having care of the child to participate in any community service program, preferably a community service program that requires the involvement of the parent, guardian, or other person having care of the child in the school attended by the child.

(8) Make any further disposition that the court finds proper, except that the child shall not be placed in any of the following:

(a) A a state correctional institution, a county, multicounty, or municipal jail or workhouse, or another place in which an adult convicted of a crime, under arrest, or charged with a crime is held;

(b) A community corrections facility, if the child would be covered by the definition of public safety beds for purposes of sections 5139.41 to 5139.43 of the Revised Code if the court exercised its authority to commit the child to the legal custody of the department of youth services for institutionalization or institutionalization in a secure facility pursuant to this chapter.

(B) If a child is adjudicated a delinquent child, in addition to any order of disposition made under division (A) of this section, the court, in the following situations and for the specified periods of time, shall suspend the child's temporary instruction permit, restricted license, probationary driver's license, or nonresident operating privilege, or suspend the child's ability to obtain such a permit:

(1) If the child is adjudicated a delinquent child for violating section 2923.122 of the Revised Code, impose a class four suspension of the child's license, permit, or privilege from the range specified in division (A)(4) of section 4510.02 of the Revised Code or deny the child the issuance of a license or permit in accordance with division (F)(1) of section 2923.122 of the Revised Code.

(2) If the child is adjudicated a delinquent child for committing an act that if committed by an adult would be a drug abuse offense or for violating division (B) of section 2917.11 of the Revised Code, suspend the child's license, permit, or privilege for a period of time prescribed by the court. The court, in its discretion, may terminate the suspension if the child attends and satisfactorily completes a drug abuse or alcohol abuse education, intervention, or treatment program specified by the court. During the time the child is attending a program described in this division, the court shall retain the child's temporary instruction permit, probationary driver's license, or driver's license, and the court shall return the permit or license if it terminates the suspension as described in this division.

(C) The court may establish a victim-offender mediation program in which victims and their offenders meet to discuss the offense and suggest possible restitution. If the court obtains the assent of the victim of the delinquent act committed by the child, the court may require the child to participate in the program.

(D)(1) If a child is adjudicated a delinquent child for committing an act that would be a felony if committed by an adult and if the child caused, attempted to cause, threatened to cause, or created a risk of physical harm to the victim of the act, the court, prior to issuing an order of disposition under this section, shall order the preparation of a victim impact statement by the probation department of the county in which the victim of the act resides, by the court's own probation department, or by a victim assistance program that is operated by the state, a county, a municipal corporation, or another governmental entity. The court shall consider the victim impact statement in determining the order of disposition to issue for the child.

(2) Each victim impact statement shall identify the victim of the act for which the child was adjudicated a delinquent child, itemize any economic loss suffered by the victim as a result of the act, identify any physical injury suffered by the victim as a result of the act and the seriousness and permanence of the injury, identify any change in the victim's personal welfare or familial relationships as a result of the act and any psychological impact experienced by the victim or the victim's family as a result of the act, and contain any other information related to the impact of the act upon the victim that the court requires.

(3) A victim impact statement shall be kept confidential and is not a public record. However, the court may furnish copies of the statement to the department of youth services if the delinquent child is committed to the department or to both the adjudicated delinquent child or the adjudicated delinquent child's counsel and the prosecuting attorney. The copy of a victim impact statement furnished by the court to the department pursuant to this section shall be kept confidential and is not a public record. If an officer is preparing pursuant to section 2947.06 or 2951.03 of the Revised Code or Criminal Rule 32.2 a presentence investigation report pertaining to a person, the court shall make available to the officer, for use in preparing the report, a copy of any victim impact statement regarding that person. The copies of a victim impact statement that are made available to the adjudicated delinquent child or the adjudicated delinquent child's counsel and the prosecuting attorney pursuant to this division shall be returned to the court by the person to whom they were made available immediately following the imposition of an order of disposition for the child under this chapter.

The copy of a victim impact statement that is made available pursuant to this division to an officer preparing a criminal presentence investigation report shall be returned to the court by the officer immediately following its use in preparing the report.

(4) The department of youth services shall work with local probation departments and victim assistance programs to develop a standard victim impact statement.

(E) If a child is adjudicated a delinquent child for being a chronic truant or a habitual truant who previously has been adjudicated an unruly child for being a habitual truant and the court determines that the parent, guardian, or other person having care of the child has failed to cause the child's attendance at school in violation of section 3321.38 of the Revised Code, in addition to any order of disposition it makes under this section, the court shall warn the parent, guardian, or other person having care of the child that any subsequent adjudication of the child as an unruly or delinquent child for being a habitual or chronic truant may result in a criminal charge against the parent, guardian, or other person having care of the child for a violation of division (C) of section 2919.21 or section 2919.24 of the Revised Code.

(F)(1) During the period of a delinquent child's community control granted under this section, authorized probation officers who are engaged within the scope of their supervisory duties or responsibilities may search, with or without a warrant, the person of the delinquent child, the place of residence of the delinquent child, and a motor vehicle, another item of tangible or intangible personal property, or other real property in which the delinquent child has a right, title, or interest or for which the delinquent child has the express or implied permission of a person with a right, title, or interest to use, occupy, or possess if the probation officers have reasonable grounds to believe that the delinquent child is not abiding by the law or otherwise is not complying with the conditions of the delinquent child's community control. The court that places a delinquent child on community control under this section shall provide the delinquent child with a written notice that informs the delinquent child that authorized probation officers who are engaged within the scope of their supervisory duties or responsibilities may conduct those types of searches during the period of community control if they have reasonable grounds to believe that the delinquent child is not abiding by the law or otherwise is not complying with the conditions of the delinquent child's community control. The court also shall provide the written notice described in division (E)(2) of this section to each parent, guardian, or custodian of the delinquent child who is described in that division.

(2) The court that places a child on community control under this section shall provide the child's parent, guardian, or other custodian with a written notice that informs them that authorized probation officers may conduct searches pursuant to division (E)(1) of this section. The notice shall specifically state that a permissible search might extend to a motor vehicle, another item of tangible or intangible personal property, or a place of residence or other real property in which a notified parent, guardian, or custodian has a right, title, or interest and that the parent, guardian, or custodian expressly or impliedly permits the child to use, occupy, or possess.

(G) If a juvenile court commits a delinquent child to the custody of any person, organization, or entity pursuant to this section and if the delinquent act for which the child is so committed is a sexually oriented offense or is a child-victim oriented offense, the court in the order of disposition shall do one of the following:

(1) Require that the child be provided treatment as described in division (A)(2) of section 5139.13 of the Revised Code;

(2) Inform the person, organization, or entity that it is the preferred course of action in this state that the child be provided treatment as described in division (A)(2) of section 5139.13 of the Revised Code and encourage the person, organization, or entity to provide that treatment.

Sec. 2305.25. As used in this section and sections 2305.251 to 2305.253 of the Revised Code:

(A)(1) "Health care entity" means an entity, whether acting on its own behalf or on behalf of or in affiliation with other health care entities, that conducts as part of its regular business activities professional credentialing or quality review activities involving the competence of, professional conduct of, or quality of care provided by health care providers, including both individuals who provide health care and entities that provide health care.

(2) "Health care entity" includes any entity described in division (A)(1) of this section, regardless of whether it is a government entity; for-profit or nonprofit corporation; limited liability company; partnership; professional corporation; state or local society composed of physicians, dentists, optometrists, psychologists, or pharmacists; or other health care organization.

(B) "Health insuring corporation" means an entity that holds a certificate of authority under Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code. "Health insuring corporation" includes wholly owned subsidiaries of a health insuring corporation.

(C) "Hospital" means either of the following:

(1) An institution that has been registered or licensed by the department of health as a hospital;

(2) An entity, other than an insurance company authorized to do business in this state, that owns, controls, or is affiliated with an institution that has been registered or licensed by the department of health as a hospital.

(D) "Incident report or risk management report" means a report of an incident involving injury or potential injury to a patient as a result of patient care provided by health care providers, including both individuals who provide health care and entities that provide health care, that is prepared by or for the use of a peer review committee of a health care entity and is within the scope of the functions of that committee.

(E)(1) "Peer review committee" means a utilization review committee, quality assessment committee, performance improvement committee, tissue committee, credentialing committee, or other committee that does either of the following:

(a) Conducts professional credentialing or quality review activities involving the competence of, professional conduct of, or quality of care provided by health care providers, including both individuals who provide health care and entities that provide health care;

(b) Conducts any other attendant hearing process initiated as a result of a peer review committee's recommendations or actions.

(2) "Peer review committee" includes all of the following:

(a) A peer review committee of a hospital or long-term care facility or a peer review committee of a nonprofit health care corporation that is a member of the hospital or long-term care facility or of which the hospital or facility is a member;

(b) A peer review committee of a community mental health center;

(c) A board or committee of a hospital, a long-term care facility, or other health care entity when reviewing professional qualifications or activities of health care providers, including both individuals who provide health care and entities that provide health care;

(d) A peer review committee, professional standards review committee, or arbitration committee of a state or local society composed of members who are in active practice as physicians, dentists, optometrists, psychologists, or pharmacists;

(e) A peer review committee of a health insuring corporation that has at least a two-thirds majority of member physicians in active practice and that conducts professional credentialing and quality review activities involving the competence or professional conduct of health care providers that adversely affects or could adversely affect the health or welfare of any patient;

(f) A peer review committee of a health insuring corporation that has at least a two-thirds majority of member physicians in active practice and that conducts professional credentialing and quality review activities involving the competence or professional conduct of a health care facility that has contracted with the health insuring corporation to provide health care services to enrollees, which conduct adversely affects, or could adversely affect, the health or welfare of any patient;

(g) A peer review committee of a sickness and accident insurer that has at least a two-thirds majority of physicians in active practice and that conducts professional credentialing and quality review activities involving the competence or professional conduct of health care providers that adversely affects or could adversely affect the health or welfare of any patient;

(h) A peer review committee of a sickness and accident insurer that has at least a two-thirds majority of physicians in active practice and that conducts professional credentialing and quality review activities involving the competence or professional conduct of a health care facility that has contracted with the insurer to provide health care services to insureds, which conduct adversely affects, or could adversely affect, the health or welfare of any patient;

(i) A peer review committee of any insurer authorized under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code to do the business of medical professional liability insurance in this state that conducts professional quality review activities involving the competence or professional conduct of health care providers that adversely affects or could affect the health or welfare of any patient;

(j) A peer review committee of the bureau of workers' compensation or the industrial commission that is responsible for reviewing the professional qualifications and the performance of providers certified by the bureau to participate in the health partnership program or of providers conducting medical examinations or file reviews for the bureau or the commission;

(k) Any other peer review committee of a health care entity.

(F) "Physician" means an individual authorized to practice medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery, or podiatric medicine and surgery.

(G) "Sickness and accident insurer" means an entity authorized under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code to do the business of sickness and accident insurance in this state.

(H) "Tort action" means a civil action for damages for injury, death, or loss to a patient of a health care entity. "Tort action" includes a product liability claim, as defined in section 2307.71 of the Revised Code, and an asbestos claim, as defined in section 2307.91 of the Revised Code, but does not include a civil action for a breach of contract or another agreement between persons.

Sec. 2305.252.  (A) Proceedings and records within the scope of a peer review committee of a health care entity shall be held in confidence and shall not be subject to discovery or introduction in evidence in any civil action against a health care entity or health care provider, including both individuals who provide health care and entities that provide health care, arising out of matters that are the subject of evaluation and review by the peer review committee. No individual who attends a meeting of a peer review committee, serves as a member of a peer review committee, works for or on behalf of a peer review committee, or provides information to a peer review committee shall be permitted or required to testify in any civil action as to any evidence or other matters produced or presented during the proceedings of the peer review committee or as to any finding, recommendation, evaluation, opinion, or other action of the committee or a member thereof. Information, documents, or records otherwise available from original sources are not to be construed as being unavailable for discovery or for use in any civil action merely because they were produced or presented during proceedings of a peer review committee, but the information, documents, or records are available only from the original sources and cannot be obtained from the peer review committee's proceedings or records. An individual who testifies before a peer review committee, serves as a representative of a peer review committee, serves as a member of a peer review committee, works for or on behalf of a peer review committee, or provides information to a peer review committee shall not be prevented from testifying as to matters within the individual's knowledge, but the individual cannot be asked about the individual's testimony before the peer review committee, information the individual provided to the peer review committee, or any opinion the individual formed as a result of the peer review committee's activities. An order by a court to produce for discovery or for use at trial the proceedings or records described in this section is a final order.

(B) Division (A) of this section applies to a peer review committee of the bureau of workers' compensation that is responsible for reviewing the professional qualifications and the performance of providers certified by the bureau to participate in the health partnership program created under sections 4121.44 and 4121.441 of the Revised Code, except that the proceedings and records within the scope of the peer review committee are subject to discovery or court subpoena and may be admitted into evidence in any criminal action or administrative or civil action initiated, prosecuted, or adjudicated by the bureau involving an alleged violation of applicable statutes or administrative rules. The bureau may share proceedings and records within the scope of the peer review committee, including claimant records and claim file information, with law enforcement agencies, licensing boards, and other governmental agencies that are prosecuting, adjudicating, or investigating alleged violations of applicable statutes or administrative rules. Recipients of claimant records and claim file information provided by the bureau pursuant to this division shall take appropriate measures to maintain the confidentiality of the information.

Sec. 2701.09.  In any county in which a daily law journal is printed, the judges of the courts of record, other than the court of appeals, shall jointly designate such daily law journal as the journal in which shall be published all calendars of the courts of record in such county, which calendars shall contain the numbers and titles of causes, and names of attorneys appearing therein, together with the motion dockets and such particulars and notices respecting causes, as may be specified by the judges, and each notice required to be published by any of such judges.

In all cases, proceedings, administrations of estates, assignments, and matters pending in any of the courts of record of such counties in which legal notices or advertisements are required to be published, such law journal shall, once a week and on the same day of the week, publish an abstract of each such legal notice or advertisement, but the jurisdiction over, or irregularity of, a proceeding, trial, or judgment shall not be affected by anything therein. The publisher of the daily law journal also shall post the legal notice or advertisement in its entirety on the daily law journal's web site, if the daily law journal has one, and on the official public notice web site established under section 125.182 of the Revised Code at no additional cost.

For the publication of such calendars, motion dockets, and notices, the fees for which are not fixed by law, the publisher of the paper journal shall receive a sum to be fixed by the judges for each case brought, to be paid in advance by the party filing the petition, transcripts for appeal, or lien, to be taxed in the costs and collected as other costs. For the publication of abstracts of legal advertising notices or advertisements, such publisher shall receive a sum to be fixed by the judges for each case, proceeding, or matter, in which such advertising is had, to be taxed and collected as a part of the costs thereof.

Sec. 2915.01.  As used in this chapter:

(A) "Bookmaking" means the business of receiving or paying off bets.

(B) "Bet" means the hazarding of anything of value upon the result of an event, undertaking, or contingency, but does not include a bona fide business risk.

(C) "Scheme of chance" means a slot machine unless authorized under Chapter 3772. of the Revised Code, lottery unless authorized under Chapter 3770. of the Revised Code, numbers game, pool conducted for profit, or other scheme in which a participant gives a valuable consideration for a chance to win a prize, but does not include bingo, a skill-based amusement machine, or a pool not conducted for profit. "Scheme of chance" includes the use of an electronic device to reveal the results of a game entry if valuable consideration is paid, directly or indirectly, for a chance to win a prize. Valuable consideration is deemed to be paid for a chance to win a prize in the following instances:

(1) Less than fifty per cent of the goods or services sold by a scheme of chance operator in exchange for game entries are used or redeemed by participants at any one location;

(2) Less than fifty per cent of participants who purchase goods or services at any one location do not accept, use, or redeem the goods or services sold or purportedly sold;

(3) More than fifty per cent of prizes at any one location are revealed to participants through an electronic device simulating a game of chance or a "casino game" as defined in section 3772.01 of the Revised Code;

(4) The good or service sold by a scheme of chance operator in exchange for a game entry cannot be used or redeemed in the manner advertised;

(5) A participant pays more than fair market value for goods or services offered by a scheme of chance operator in order to receive one or more game entries;

(6) A participant may use the electronic device to purchase additional game entries;

(7) A participant may purchase additional game entries by using points or credits won as prizes while using the electronic device;

(8) A scheme of chance operator pays out in prize money more than twenty per cent of the gross revenue received at one location; or

(9) A participant makes a purchase or exchange in order to obtain any good or service that may be used to facilitate play on the electronic device.

As used in this division, "electronic device" means a mechanical, video, digital, or electronic machine or device that is capable of displaying information on a screen or other mechanism and that is owned, leased, or otherwise possessed by any person conducting a scheme of chance, or by that person's partners, affiliates, subsidiaries, or contractors.

(D) "Game of chance" means poker, craps, roulette, or other game in which a player gives anything of value in the hope of gain, the outcome of which is determined largely by chance, but does not include bingo.

(E) "Game of chance conducted for profit" means any game of chance designed to produce income for the person who conducts or operates the game of chance, but does not include bingo.

(F) "Gambling device" means any of the following:

(1) A book, totalizer, or other equipment for recording bets;

(2) A ticket, token, or other device representing a chance, share, or interest in a scheme of chance or evidencing a bet;

(3) A deck of cards, dice, gaming table, roulette wheel, slot machine, or other apparatus designed for use in connection with a game of chance;

(4) Any equipment, device, apparatus, or paraphernalia specially designed for gambling purposes;

(5) Bingo supplies sold or otherwise provided, or used, in violation of this chapter;

(6) Skill-based amusement machines or slot machines used in violation of this chapter or Chapter 3772. of the Revised Code.

(G) "Gambling offense" means any of the following:

(1) A violation of section 2915.02, 2915.03, 2915.04, 2915.05, 2915.06, 2915.062, 2915.07, 2915.08, 2915.081, 2915.082, 2915.09, 2915.091, 2915.092, 2915.10, or 2915.11 or of division (D), (E), or (F) of section 3772.99 of the Revised Code;

(2) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this or any other state or the United States substantially equivalent to any section listed in division (G)(1) of this section or a violation of section 2915.06 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996;

(3) An offense under an existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this or any other state or the United States, of which gambling is an element;

(4) A conspiracy or attempt to commit, or complicity in committing, any offense under division (G)(1), (2), or (3) of this section.

(H) Except as otherwise provided in this chapter, "charitable organization" means either of the following:

(1) An organization that is, and has received from the internal revenue service a determination letter that currently is in effect stating that the organization is, exempt from federal income taxation under subsection 501(a) and described in subsection 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code;

(2) A volunteer rescue service organization, volunteer firefighter's organization, veteran's organization, fraternal organization, or sporting organization that is exempt from federal income taxation under subsection 501(c)(4), (c)(7), (c)(8), (c)(10), or (c)(19) of the Internal Revenue Code.

To qualify as a "charitable organization," an organization shall have been in continuous existence as such in this state for a period of two years immediately preceding either the making of an application for a bingo license under section 2915.08 of the Revised Code or the conducting of any game of chance as provided in division (D) of section 2915.02 of the Revised Code.

(I) "Religious organization" means any church, body of communicants, or group that is not organized or operated for profit and that gathers in common membership for regular worship and religious observances.

(J) "Veteran's organization" means any individual post or state headquarters of a national veteran's association or an auxiliary unit of any individual post of a national veteran's association, which post, state headquarters, or auxiliary unit is incorporated as a nonprofit corporation and either has received a letter from the state headquarters of the national veteran's association indicating that the individual post or auxiliary unit is in good standing with the national veteran's association or has received a letter from the national veteran's association indicating that the state headquarters is in good standing with the national veteran's association. As used in this division, "national veteran's association" means any veteran's association that has been in continuous existence as such for a period of at least five years and either is incorporated by an act of the United States congress or has a national dues-paying membership of at least five thousand persons.

(K) "Volunteer firefighter's organization" means any organization of volunteer firefighters, as defined in section 146.01 of the Revised Code, that is organized and operated exclusively to provide financial support for a volunteer fire department or a volunteer fire company and that is recognized or ratified by a county, municipal corporation, or township.

(L) "Fraternal organization" means any society, order, state headquarters, or association within this state, except a college or high school fraternity, that is not organized for profit, that is a branch, lodge, or chapter of a national or state organization, that exists exclusively for the common business or sodality of its members.

(M) "Volunteer rescue service organization" means any organization of volunteers organized to function as an emergency medical service organization, as defined in section 4765.01 of the Revised Code.

(N) "Charitable bingo game" means any bingo game described in division (O)(1) or (2) of this section that is conducted by a charitable organization that has obtained a license pursuant to section 2915.08 of the Revised Code and the proceeds of which are used for a charitable purpose.

(O) "Bingo" means either of the following:

(1) A game with all of the following characteristics:

(a) The participants use bingo cards or sheets, including paper formats and electronic representation or image formats, that are divided into twenty-five spaces arranged in five horizontal and five vertical rows of spaces, with each space, except the central space, being designated by a combination of a letter and a number and with the central space being designated as a free space.

(b) The participants cover the spaces on the bingo cards or sheets that correspond to combinations of letters and numbers that are announced by a bingo game operator.

(c) A bingo game operator announces combinations of letters and numbers that appear on objects that a bingo game operator selects by chance, either manually or mechanically, from a receptacle that contains seventy-five objects at the beginning of each game, each object marked by a different combination of a letter and a number that corresponds to one of the seventy-five possible combinations of a letter and a number that can appear on the bingo cards or sheets.

(d) The winner of the bingo game includes any participant who properly announces during the interval between the announcements of letters and numbers as described in division (O)(1)(c) of this section, that a predetermined and preannounced pattern of spaces has been covered on a bingo card or sheet being used by the participant.

(2) Instant bingo, punch boards, and raffles.

(P) "Conduct" means to back, promote, organize, manage, carry on, sponsor, or prepare for the operation of bingo or a game of chance, a scheme of chance, or a sweepstakes, or a skill-based amusement machine.

(Q) "Bingo game operator" means any person, except security personnel, who performs work or labor at the site of bingo, including, but not limited to, collecting money from participants, handing out bingo cards or sheets or objects to cover spaces on bingo cards or sheets, selecting from a receptacle the objects that contain the combination of letters and numbers that appear on bingo cards or sheets, calling out the combinations of letters and numbers, distributing prizes, selling or redeeming instant bingo tickets or cards, supervising the operation of a punch board, selling raffle tickets, selecting raffle tickets from a receptacle and announcing the winning numbers in a raffle, and preparing, selling, and serving food or beverages.

(R) "Participant" means any person who plays bingo.

(S) "Bingo session" means a period that includes both of the following:

(1) Not to exceed five continuous hours for the conduct of one or more games described in division (O)(1) of this section, instant bingo, and seal cards;

(2) A period for the conduct of instant bingo and seal cards for not more than two hours before and not more than two hours after the period described in division (S)(1) of this section.

(T) "Gross receipts" means all money or assets, including admission fees, that a person receives from bingo without the deduction of any amounts for prizes paid out or for the expenses of conducting bingo. "Gross receipts" does not include any money directly taken in from the sale of food or beverages by a charitable organization conducting bingo, or by a bona fide auxiliary unit or society of a charitable organization conducting bingo, provided all of the following apply:

(1) The auxiliary unit or society has been in existence as a bona fide auxiliary unit or society of the charitable organization for at least two years prior to conducting bingo.

(2) The person who purchases the food or beverage receives nothing of value except the food or beverage and items customarily received with the purchase of that food or beverage.

(3) The food and beverages are sold at customary and reasonable prices.

(U) "Security personnel" includes any person who either is a sheriff, deputy sheriff, marshal, deputy marshal, township constable, or member of an organized police department of a municipal corporation or has successfully completed a peace officer's training course pursuant to sections 109.71 to 109.79 of the Revised Code and who is hired to provide security for the premises on which bingo is conducted.

(V) "Charitable purpose" means that the net profit of bingo, other than instant bingo, is used by, or is given, donated, or otherwise transferred to, any of the following:

(1) Any organization that is described in subsection 509(a)(1), 509(a)(2), or 509(a)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and is either a governmental unit or an organization that is tax exempt under subsection 501(a) and described in subsection 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code;

(2) A veteran's organization that is a post, chapter, or organization of veterans, or an auxiliary unit or society of, or a trust or foundation for, any such post, chapter, or organization organized in the United States or any of its possessions, at least seventy-five per cent of the members of which are veterans and substantially all of the other members of which are individuals who are spouses, widows, or widowers of veterans, or such individuals, provided that no part of the net earnings of such post, chapter, or organization inures to the benefit of any private shareholder or individual, and further provided that the net profit is used by the post, chapter, or organization for the charitable purposes set forth in division (B)(12) of section 5739.02 of the Revised Code, is used for awarding scholarships to or for attendance at an institution mentioned in division (B)(12) of section 5739.02 of the Revised Code, is donated to a governmental agency, or is used for nonprofit youth activities, the purchase of United States or Ohio flags that are donated to schools, youth groups, or other bona fide nonprofit organizations, promotion of patriotism, or disaster relief;

(3) A fraternal organization that has been in continuous existence in this state for fifteen years and that uses the net profit exclusively for religious, charitable, scientific, literary, or educational purposes, or for the prevention of cruelty to children or animals, if contributions for such use would qualify as a deductible charitable contribution under subsection 170 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(4) A volunteer firefighter's organization that uses the net profit for the purposes set forth in division (K) of this section.

(W) "Internal Revenue Code" means the "Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 1, as now or hereafter amended.

(X) "Youth athletic organization" means any organization, not organized for profit, that is organized and operated exclusively to provide financial support to, or to operate, athletic activities for persons who are twenty-one years of age or younger by means of sponsoring, organizing, operating, or contributing to the support of an athletic team, club, league, or association.

(Y) "Youth athletic park organization" means any organization, not organized for profit, that satisfies both of the following:

(1) It owns, operates, and maintains playing fields that satisfy both of the following:

(a) The playing fields are used at least one hundred days per year for athletic activities by one or more organizations, not organized for profit, each of which is organized and operated exclusively to provide financial support to, or to operate, athletic activities for persons who are eighteen years of age or younger by means of sponsoring, organizing, operating, or contributing to the support of an athletic team, club, league, or association.

(b) The playing fields are not used for any profit-making activity at any time during the year.

(2) It uses the proceeds of bingo it conducts exclusively for the operation, maintenance, and improvement of its playing fields of the type described in division (Y)(1) of this section.

(Z) "Bingo supplies" means bingo cards or sheets; instant bingo tickets or cards; electronic bingo aids; raffle tickets; punch boards; seal cards; instant bingo ticket dispensers; and devices for selecting or displaying the combination of bingo letters and numbers or raffle tickets. Items that are "bingo supplies" are not gambling devices if sold or otherwise provided, and used, in accordance with this chapter. For purposes of this chapter, "bingo supplies" are not to be considered equipment used to conduct a bingo game.

(AA) "Instant bingo" means a form of bingo that shall use folded or banded tickets or paper cards with perforated break-open tabs, a face of which is covered or otherwise hidden from view to conceal a number, letter, or symbol, or set of numbers, letters, or symbols, some of which have been designated in advance as prize winners, and may also include games in which some winners are determined by the random selection of one or more bingo numbers by the use of a seal card or bingo blower. In all "instant bingo" the prize amount and structure shall be predetermined. "Instant bingo" does not include any device that is activated by the insertion of a coin, currency, token, or an equivalent, and that contains as one of its components a video display monitor that is capable of displaying numbers, letters, symbols, or characters in winning or losing combinations.

(BB) "Seal card" means a form of instant bingo that uses instant bingo tickets in conjunction with a board or placard that contains one or more seals that, when removed or opened, reveal predesignated winning numbers, letters, or symbols.

(CC) "Raffle" means a form of bingo in which the one or more prizes are won by one or more persons who have purchased a raffle ticket. The one or more winners of the raffle are determined by drawing a ticket stub or other detachable section from a receptacle containing ticket stubs or detachable sections corresponding to all tickets sold for the raffle. "Raffle" does not include the drawing of a ticket stub or other detachable section of a ticket purchased to attend a professional sporting event if both of the following apply:

(1) The ticket stub or other detachable section is used to select the winner of a free prize given away at the professional sporting event; and

(2) The cost of the ticket is the same as the cost of a ticket to the professional sporting event on days when no free prize is given away.

(DD) "Punch board" means a board containing a number of holes or receptacles of uniform size in which are placed, mechanically and randomly, serially numbered slips of paper that may be punched or drawn from the hole or receptacle when used in conjunction with instant bingo. A player may punch or draw the numbered slips of paper from the holes or receptacles and obtain the prize established for the game if the number drawn corresponds to a winning number or, if the punch board includes the use of a seal card, a potential winning number.

(EE) "Gross profit" means gross receipts minus the amount actually expended for the payment of prize awards.

(FF) "Net profit" means gross profit minus expenses.

(GG) "Expenses" means the reasonable amount of gross profit actually expended for all of the following:

(1) The purchase or lease of bingo supplies;

(2) The annual license fee required under section 2915.08 of the Revised Code;

(3) Bank fees and service charges for a bingo session or game account described in section 2915.10 of the Revised Code;

(4) Audits and accounting services;

(5) Safes;

(6) Cash registers;

(7) Hiring security personnel;

(8) Advertising bingo;

(9) Renting premises in which to conduct a bingo session;

(10) Tables and chairs;

(11) Expenses for maintaining and operating a charitable organization's facilities, including, but not limited to, a post home, club house, lounge, tavern, or canteen and any grounds attached to the post home, club house, lounge, tavern, or canteen;

(12) Payment of real property taxes and assessments that are levied on a premises on which bingo is conducted;

(13) Any other product or service directly related to the conduct of bingo that is authorized in rules adopted by the attorney general under division (B)(1) of section 2915.08 of the Revised Code.

(HH) "Person" has the same meaning as in section 1.59 of the Revised Code and includes any firm or any other legal entity, however organized.

(II) "Revoke" means to void permanently all rights and privileges of the holder of a license issued under section 2915.08, 2915.081, or 2915.082 of the Revised Code or a charitable gaming license issued by another jurisdiction.

(JJ) "Suspend" means to interrupt temporarily all rights and privileges of the holder of a license issued under section 2915.08, 2915.081, or 2915.082 of the Revised Code or a charitable gaming license issued by another jurisdiction.

(KK) "Distributor" means any person who purchases or obtains bingo supplies and who does either of the following:

(1) Sells, offers for sale, or otherwise provides or offers to provide the bingo supplies to another person for use in this state;

(2) Modifies, converts, adds to, or removes parts from the bingo supplies to further their promotion or sale for use in this state.

(LL) "Manufacturer" means any person who assembles completed bingo supplies from raw materials, other items, or subparts or who modifies, converts, adds to, or removes parts from bingo supplies to further their promotion or sale.

(MM) "Gross annual revenues" means the annual gross receipts derived from the conduct of bingo described in division (O)(1) of this section plus the annual net profit derived from the conduct of bingo described in division (O)(2) of this section.

(NN) "Instant bingo ticket dispenser" means a mechanical device that dispenses an instant bingo ticket or card as the sole item of value dispensed and that has the following characteristics:

(1) It is activated upon the insertion of United States currency.

(2) It performs no gaming functions.

(3) It does not contain a video display monitor or generate noise.

(4) It is not capable of displaying any numbers, letters, symbols, or characters in winning or losing combinations.

(5) It does not simulate or display rolling or spinning reels.

(6) It is incapable of determining whether a dispensed bingo ticket or card is a winning or nonwinning ticket or card and requires a winning ticket or card to be paid by a bingo game operator.

(7) It may provide accounting and security features to aid in accounting for the instant bingo tickets or cards it dispenses.

(8) It is not part of an electronic network and is not interactive.

(OO)(1) "Electronic bingo aid" means an electronic device used by a participant to monitor bingo cards or sheets purchased at the time and place of a bingo session and that does all of the following:

(a) It provides a means for a participant to input numbers and letters announced by a bingo caller.

(b) It compares the numbers and letters entered by the participant to the bingo faces previously stored in the memory of the device.

(c) It identifies a winning bingo pattern.

(2) "Electronic bingo aid" does not include any device into which a coin, currency, token, or an equivalent is inserted to activate play.

(PP) "Deal of instant bingo tickets" means a single game of instant bingo tickets all with the same serial number.

(QQ)(1) "Slot machine" means either of the following:

(a) Any mechanical, electronic, video, or digital device that is capable of accepting anything of value, directly or indirectly, from or on behalf of a player who gives the thing of value in the hope of gain;

(b) Any mechanical, electronic, video, or digital device that is capable of accepting anything of value, directly or indirectly, from or on behalf of a player to conduct bingo or a scheme or game of chance.

(2) "Slot machine" does not include a skill-based amusement machine or an instant bingo ticket dispenser.

(RR) "Net profit from the proceeds of the sale of instant bingo" means gross profit minus the ordinary, necessary, and reasonable expense expended for the purchase of instant bingo supplies, and, in the case of instant bingo conducted by a veteran's, fraternal, or sporting organization, minus the payment by that organization of real property taxes and assessments levied on a premises on which instant bingo is conducted.

(SS) "Charitable instant bingo organization" means an organization that is exempt from federal income taxation under subsection 501(a) and described in subsection 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and is a charitable organization as defined in this section. A "charitable instant bingo organization" does not include a charitable organization that is exempt from federal income taxation under subsection 501(a) and described in subsection 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is created by a veteran's organization, a fraternal organization, or a sporting organization in regards to bingo conducted or assisted by a veteran's organization, a fraternal organization, or a sporting organization pursuant to section 2915.13 of the Revised Code.

(TT) "Game flare" means the board or placard that accompanies each deal of instant bingo tickets and that has printed on or affixed to it the following information for the game:

(1) The name of the game;

(2) The manufacturer's name or distinctive logo;

(3) The form number;

(4) The ticket count;

(5) The prize structure, including the number of winning instant bingo tickets by denomination and the respective winning symbol or number combinations for the winning instant bingo tickets;

(6) The cost per play;

(7) The serial number of the game.

(UU)(1) "Skill-based amusement machine" means a mechanical, video, digital, or electronic device that rewards the player or players, if at all, only with merchandise prizes or with redeemable vouchers redeemable only for merchandise prizes, provided that with respect to rewards for playing the game all of the following apply:

(a) The wholesale value of a merchandise prize awarded as a result of the single play of a machine does not exceed ten dollars;

(b) Redeemable vouchers awarded for any single play of a machine are not redeemable for a merchandise prize with a wholesale value of more than ten dollars;

(c) Redeemable vouchers are not redeemable for a merchandise prize that has a wholesale value of more than ten dollars times the fewest number of single plays necessary to accrue the redeemable vouchers required to obtain that prize; and

(d) Any redeemable vouchers or merchandise prizes are distributed at the site of the skill-based amusement machine at the time of play.

A card for the purchase of gasoline is a redeemable voucher for purposes of division (UU)(1) of this section even if the skill-based amusement machine for the play of which the card is awarded is located at a place where gasoline may not be legally distributed to the public or the card is not redeemable at the location of, or at the time of playing, the skill-based amusement machine.

(2) A device shall not be considered a skill-based amusement machine and shall be considered a slot machine if it pays cash or one or more of the following apply:

(a) The ability of a player to succeed at the game is impacted by the number or ratio of prior wins to prior losses of players playing the game.

(b) Any reward of redeemable vouchers is not based solely on the player achieving the object of the game or the player's score;

(c) The outcome of the game, or the value of the redeemable voucher or merchandise prize awarded for winning the game, can be controlled by a source other than any player playing the game.

(d) The success of any player is or may be determined by a chance event that cannot be altered by player actions.

(e) The ability of any player to succeed at the game is determined by game features not visible or known to the player.

(f) The ability of the player to succeed at the game is impacted by the exercise of a skill that no reasonable player could exercise.

(3) All of the following apply to any machine that is operated as described in division (UU)(1) of this section:

(a) As used in division (UU) of this section, "game" and "play" mean one event from the initial activation of the machine until the results of play are determined without payment of additional consideration. An individual utilizing a machine that involves a single game, play, contest, competition, or tournament may be awarded redeemable vouchers or merchandise prizes based on the results of play.

(b) Advance play for a single game, play, contest, competition, or tournament participation may be purchased. The cost of the contest, competition, or tournament participation may be greater than a single noncontest, competition, or tournament play.

(c) To the extent that the machine is used in a contest, competition, or tournament, that contest, competition, or tournament has a defined starting and ending date and is open to participants in competition for scoring and ranking results toward the awarding of redeemable vouchers or merchandise prizes that are stated prior to the start of the contest, competition, or tournament.

(4) For purposes of division (UU)(1) of this section, the mere presence of a device, such as a pin-setting, ball-releasing, or scoring mechanism, that does not contribute to or affect the outcome of the play of the game does not make the device a skill-based amusement machine.

(VV) "Merchandise prize" means any item of value, but shall not include any of the following:

(1) Cash, gift cards, or any equivalent thereof;

(2) Plays on games of chance, state lottery tickets, bingo, or instant bingo;

(3) Firearms, tobacco, or alcoholic beverages; or

(4) A redeemable voucher that is redeemable for any of the items listed in division (VV)(1), (2), or (3) of this section.

(WW) "Redeemable voucher" means any ticket, token, coupon, receipt, or other noncash representation of value.

(XX) "Pool not conducted for profit" means a scheme in which a participant gives a valuable consideration for a chance to win a prize and the total amount of consideration wagered is distributed to a participant or participants.

(YY) "Sporting organization" means a hunting, fishing, or trapping organization, other than a college or high school fraternity or sorority, that is not organized for profit, that is affiliated with a state or national sporting organization, including but not limited to, the league of Ohio sportsmen, and that has been in continuous existence in this state for a period of three years.

(ZZ) "Community action agency" has the same meaning as in section 122.66 of the Revised Code.

(AAA)(1) "Sweepstakes terminal device" means a mechanical, video, digital, or electronic machine or device that is owned, leased, or otherwise possessed by any person conducting a sweepstakes, or by that person's partners, affiliates, subsidiaries, or contractors, that is intended to be used by a sweepstakes participant, and that is capable of displaying information on a screen or other mechanism. A device is a sweepstakes terminal device if any of the following apply:

(a) The device uses a simulated game terminal as a representation of the prizes associated with the results of the sweepstakes entries.

(b) The device utilizes software such that the simulated game influences or determines the winning of or value of the prize.

(c) The device selects prizes from a predetermined finite pool of entries.

(d) The device utilizes a mechanism that reveals the content of a predetermined sweepstakes entry.

(e) The device predetermines the prize results and stores those results for delivery at the time the sweepstakes entry results are revealed.

(f) The device utilizes software to create a game result.

(g) The device reveals the prize incrementally, even though the device does not influence the awarding of the prize or the value of any prize awarded.

(h) The device determines and associates the prize with an entry or entries at the time the sweepstakes is entered.

(2) As used in this division and in section 2915.02 of the Revised Code:

(a) "Enter" means the act by which a person becomes eligible to receive any prize offered in a sweepstakes.

(b) "Entry" means one event from the initial activation of the sweepstakes terminal device until all the sweepstakes prize results from that activation are revealed.

(c) "Prize" means any gift, award, gratuity, good, service, credit, reward, or any other thing of value that may be transferred to a person, whether possession of the prize is actually transferred, or placed on an account or other record as evidence of the intent to transfer the prize.

(d) "Sweepstakes terminal device facility" means any location in this state where a sweepstakes terminal device is provided to a sweepstakes participant, except as provided in division (G) of section 2915.02 of the Revised Code.

(BBB) "Sweepstakes" means any game, contest, advertising scheme or plan, or other promotion where consideration is not required for a person to enter to win or become eligible to receive any prize, the determination of which is based upon chance. "Sweepstakes" does not include bingo as authorized under this chapter, pari-mutuel wagering as authorized by Chapter 3769. of the Revised Code, lotteries conducted by the state lottery commission as authorized by Chapter 3770. of the Revised Code, and casino gaming as authorized by Chapter 3772. of the Revised Code.

Sec. 2915.03.  (A) No person, being the owner or lessee, or having custody, control, or supervision of premises, shall:

(1) Use or occupy such premises for gambling in violation of section 2915.02, 2915.06, or 2915.062 or of division (E)(12) of section 3772.99 of the Revised Code;

(2) Recklessly permit such premises to be used or occupied for gambling in violation of section 2915.02, 2915.06, or 2915.062 or of division (E)(12) of section 3772.99 of the Revised Code.

(B) Whoever violates this section is guilty of operating a gambling house, a misdemeanor felony of the first fifth degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of a gambling offense, operating a gambling house is a felony of the fifth fourth degree.

(C) Premises used or occupied in violation of this section constitute a nuisance subject to abatement pursuant to sections 3767.01 to 3767.99 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 2915.06. (A) No person shall give to another person any item described in division (VV)(1), (2), (3), or (4) of section 2915.01 of the Revised Code in exchange for a noncash prize, toy, or novelty received as a reward for playing or operating a skill-based amusement machine or for a free or reduced-price game won on a skill-based amusement machine.

(B) No person shall conduct, or participate in the conduct of, a skill-based amusement machine without first obtaining a license under Chapter 3772. of the Revised Code.

(C) Whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of skill-based amusement machine prohibited conduct. A violation of division (A) of this section is a misdemeanor felony of the first fifth degree for each redemption of a prize that is involved in the violation. If the offender previously has been convicted of a gambling offense, violation of division (A) of this section, a violation of that division is a felony of the fifth fourth degree for each redemption of a prize that is involved in the violation. The maximum fine authorized to be imposed for a felony of the fifth fourth degree shall be imposed upon the offender.

(D) Whoever violates division (B) of this section is guilty of conducting an illegal skill-based amusement machine, a felony of the fifth degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of a gambling offense, violation of division (B) of this section is a felony of the fourth degree.

(E) Premises used or occupied in violation of this section constitute a nuisance subject to abatement under Chapter 3767. of the Revised Code.

Sec. 2915.061. Any regulation of skill-based amusement machines shall be governed by this chapter and Chapter 3772. of the Revised Code and not by Chapter 1345. of the Revised Code.

Sec. 2915.062.  (A) Except as otherwise expressly permitted by law, no person shall conduct, or participate in the conduct of, a casino game, as defined in section 3772.01 of the Revised Code, without first obtaining a license under Chapter 3772. of the Revised Code.

(B) Whoever violates this section is guilty of conducting an illegal casino game, a felony of the fifth degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of a gambling offense, violation of this section is a felony of the fourth degree.

(C) Premises used or occupied in violation of this section constitute a nuisance subject to abatement under Chapter 3767. of the Revised Code.

Sec. 2945.402.  (A) In approving a conditional release, the trial court may set any conditions on the release with respect to the treatment, evaluation, counseling, or control of the defendant or person that the court considers necessary to protect the public safety and the welfare of the defendant or person. The trial court may revoke a defendant's or person's conditional release and order reinstatement of the previous placement or reinstitutionalization at any time the conditions of the release have not been satisfied, provided that the revocation shall be in accordance with this section.

(B) A conditional release is a commitment. The hearings on continued commitment as described in section 2945.401 of the Revised Code apply to a defendant or person on conditional release.

(C) A person, agency, or facility that is assigned to monitor a defendant or person on conditional release immediately shall notify the trial court on learning that the defendant or person being monitored has violated the terms of the conditional release. Upon learning of any violation of the terms of the conditional release, the trial court may issue a temporary order of detention or, if necessary, an arrest warrant for the defendant or person. Within ten court days after the defendant's or person's detention or arrest, the trial court shall conduct a hearing to determine whether the conditional release should be modified or terminated. At the hearing, the defendant or person shall have the same rights as are described in division (C) of section 2945.40 of the Revised Code. The trial court may order a continuance of the ten-court-day period for no longer than ten days for good cause shown or for any period on motion of the defendant or person. If the trial court fails to conduct the hearing within the ten-court-day period and does not order a continuance in accordance with this division, the defendant or person shall be restored to the prior conditional release status.

(D) The trial court shall give all parties reasonable notice of a hearing conducted under this section. At the hearing, the prosecutor shall present the case demonstrating that the defendant or person violated the terms of the conditional release. If the court finds by a preponderance of the evidence that the defendant or person violated the terms of the conditional release, the court may continue, modify, or terminate the conditional release and shall enter its order accordingly.

(E)(1) If a court approves a conditional release, the court shall report the approval and information pertaining to the release to the local law enforcement agency. The local law enforcement agency shall enter the approval and information into the national crime information center supervised release file through the law enforcement automated data system. The information required by divisions (E)(1)(c) and (d) of this section shall be entered into the file's miscellaneous field. The information reported and entered shall include all of the following:

(a) The name of the court providing the information;

(b) The offense or offenses with which the defendant or person was charged;

(c) Whether the person was found not guilty by reason of insanity or incompetent to stand trial with no substantial probability of becoming competent even with a course of treatment;

(d) The reason for the conditional release;

(e) Any other information required for the entry of information into the national crime information center supervised release file.

(2) Information entered into the national crime information center supervised release file pursuant to this section shall remain in the file until the termination of the conditional release or commitment.

(3) If a defendant or person about whom information is entered into the national crime information center supervised release file pursuant to division (E)(1) of this section has contact with a law enforcement agency after the information is entered, the agency shall report the contact to the department of mental health and addiction services and, if the terms of the release require the defendant or person to receive mental health treatment, to the person, office, or agency providing the treatment.

(4) As used in division (E) of this section, "local law enforcement agency" means the police department of a municipal corporation in which the offense with which a releasee was charged allegedly occurred or, if the offense did not allegedly occur in a municipal corporation, the sheriff of the county in which the offense allegedly occurred.

Sec. 3123.89. (A) Subject to section 3770.071 of the Revised Code, a child support enforcement agency that determines that an obligor who is the recipient of a lottery prize award is subject to a final and enforceable determination of default made under sections 3123.01 to 3123.07 of the Revised Code shall issue an intercept directive to the director of the state lottery commission. A copy of this intercept directive shall be sent to the obligor.

(B) The intercept directive shall require the director or the director's designee to transmit an amount or amounts from the proceeds of the specified lottery prize award to the office of child support in the department of job and family services. The intercept directive also shall contain all of the following information:

(1) The name, address, and social security number or taxpayer identification number of the obligor;

(2) A statement that the obligor has been determined to be in default under a support order;

(3) The amount of the arrearage owed by the obligor as determined by the agency.

(C) After receipt of an intercept directive and in accordance with section 3770.071 of the Revised Code, the director or the director's designee shall deduct the amount or amounts specified from the proceeds of the lottery prize award referred to in the directive and transmit the amounts to the office of child support.

(D) The department of job and family services shall develop and implement a data match program with the state lottery commission or its lottery sales agents to identify obligors who are subject to a final and enforceable determination of default made under sections 3123.01 to 3123.07 of the Revised Code in accordance with section 3770.071 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 3123.90.  (A) As used in this section, "casino facility," "casino operator," and "management company" have the meanings defined in section 3772.01 of the Revised Code.

(B) The department of job and family services shall develop and implement a data match program with each casino facility's casino operator or management company to identify obligors who are subject to a final and enforceable determination of default made under sections 3123.01 to 3123.07 of the Revised Code.

(C) Upon the data match program's implementation, if a person's winnings at a casino facility are an amount for which reporting to the internal revenue service of the amount is required by section 6041 of the Internal Revenue Code, as amended, the casino operator or management company shall determine if the person entitled to the winnings is in default under a support order. If the casino operator or management company determines that the person is in default, the casino operator or management company shall withhold from the person's winnings an amount sufficient to satisfy any past due support owed by the obligor identified in the data match up to the amount of the winnings.

(D) Not later than seven days after withholding the amount, the casino operator or management company shall transmit any amount withheld to the department as payment on the support obligation.

(E) The Department may adopt rules under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as are necessary for implementation of this section.

Sec. 3301.0714.  (A) The state board of education shall adopt rules for a statewide education management information system. The rules shall require the state board to establish guidelines for the establishment and maintenance of the system in accordance with this section and the rules adopted under this section. The guidelines shall include:

(1) Standards identifying and defining the types of data in the system in accordance with divisions (B) and (C) of this section;

(2) Procedures for annually collecting and reporting the data to the state board in accordance with division (D) of this section;

(3) Procedures for annually compiling the data in accordance with division (G) of this section;

(4) Procedures for annually reporting the data to the public in accordance with division (H) of this section.

(B) The guidelines adopted under this section shall require the data maintained in the education management information system to include at least the following:

(1) Student participation and performance data, for each grade in each school district as a whole and for each grade in each school building in each school district, that includes:

(a) The numbers of students receiving each category of instructional service offered by the school district, such as regular education instruction, vocational education instruction, specialized instruction programs or enrichment instruction that is part of the educational curriculum, instruction for gifted students, instruction for students with disabilities, and remedial instruction. The guidelines shall require instructional services under this division to be divided into discrete categories if an instructional service is limited to a specific subject, a specific type of student, or both, such as regular instructional services in mathematics, remedial reading instructional services, instructional services specifically for students gifted in mathematics or some other subject area, or instructional services for students with a specific type of disability. The categories of instructional services required by the guidelines under this division shall be the same as the categories of instructional services used in determining cost units pursuant to division (C)(3) of this section.

(b) The numbers of students receiving support or extracurricular services for each of the support services or extracurricular programs offered by the school district, such as counseling services, health services, and extracurricular sports and fine arts programs. The categories of services required by the guidelines under this division shall be the same as the categories of services used in determining cost units pursuant to division (C)(4)(a) of this section.

(c) Average student grades in each subject in grades nine through twelve;

(d) Academic achievement levels as assessed under sections 3301.0710, 3301.0711, and 3301.0712 of the Revised Code;

(e) The number of students designated as having a disabling condition pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 3301.0711 of the Revised Code;

(f) The numbers of students reported to the state board pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 3301.0711 of the Revised Code;

(g) Attendance rates and the average daily attendance for the year. For purposes of this division, a student shall be counted as present for any field trip that is approved by the school administration.

(h) Expulsion rates;

(i) Suspension rates;

(j) Dropout rates;

(k) Rates of retention in grade;

(l) For pupils in grades nine through twelve, the average number of carnegie units, as calculated in accordance with state board of education rules;

(m) Graduation rates, to be calculated in a manner specified by the department of education that reflects the rate at which students who were in the ninth grade three years prior to the current year complete school and that is consistent with nationally accepted reporting requirements;

(n) Results of diagnostic assessments administered to kindergarten students as required under section 3301.0715 of the Revised Code to permit a comparison of the academic readiness of kindergarten students. However, no district shall be required to report to the department the results of any diagnostic assessment administered to a kindergarten student, except for the language and reading assessment described in division (A)(2) of section 3301.0715 of the Revised Code, if the parent of that student requests the district not to report those results.

(2) Personnel and classroom enrollment data for each school district, including:

(a) The total numbers of licensed employees and nonlicensed employees and the numbers of full-time equivalent licensed employees and nonlicensed employees providing each category of instructional service, instructional support service, and administrative support service used pursuant to division (C)(3) of this section. The guidelines adopted under this section shall require these categories of data to be maintained for the school district as a whole and, wherever applicable, for each grade in the school district as a whole, for each school building as a whole, and for each grade in each school building.

(b) The total number of employees and the number of full-time equivalent employees providing each category of service used pursuant to divisions (C)(4)(a) and (b) of this section, and the total numbers of licensed employees and nonlicensed employees and the numbers of full-time equivalent licensed employees and nonlicensed employees providing each category used pursuant to division (C)(4)(c) of this section. The guidelines adopted under this section shall require these categories of data to be maintained for the school district as a whole and, wherever applicable, for each grade in the school district as a whole, for each school building as a whole, and for each grade in each school building.

(c) The total number of regular classroom teachers teaching classes of regular education and the average number of pupils enrolled in each such class, in each of grades kindergarten through five in the district as a whole and in each school building in the school district.

(d) The number of lead teachers employed by each school district and each school building.

(3)(a) Student demographic data for each school district, including information regarding the gender ratio of the school district's pupils, the racial make-up of the school district's pupils, the number of limited English proficient students in the district, and an appropriate measure of the number of the school district's pupils who reside in economically disadvantaged households. The demographic data shall be collected in a manner to allow correlation with data collected under division (B)(1) of this section. Categories for data collected pursuant to division (B)(3) of this section shall conform, where appropriate, to standard practices of agencies of the federal government.

(b) With respect to each student entering kindergarten, whether the student previously participated in a public preschool program, a private preschool program, or a head start program, and the number of years the student participated in each of these programs.

(4) Any data required to be collected pursuant to federal law.

(C) The education management information system shall include cost accounting data for each district as a whole and for each school building in each school district. The guidelines adopted under this section shall require the cost data for each school district to be maintained in a system of mutually exclusive cost units and shall require all of the costs of each school district to be divided among the cost units. The guidelines shall require the system of mutually exclusive cost units to include at least the following:

(1) Administrative costs for the school district as a whole. The guidelines shall require the cost units under this division (C)(1) to be designed so that each of them may be compiled and reported in terms of average expenditure per pupil in formula ADM in the school district, as determined pursuant to section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.

(2) Administrative costs for each school building in the school district. The guidelines shall require the cost units under this division (C)(2) to be designed so that each of them may be compiled and reported in terms of average expenditure per full-time equivalent pupil receiving instructional or support services in each building.

(3) Instructional services costs for each category of instructional service provided directly to students and required by guidelines adopted pursuant to division (B)(1)(a) of this section. The guidelines shall require the cost units under division (C)(3) of this section to be designed so that each of them may be compiled and reported in terms of average expenditure per pupil receiving the service in the school district as a whole and average expenditure per pupil receiving the service in each building in the school district and in terms of a total cost for each category of service and, as a breakdown of the total cost, a cost for each of the following components:

(a) The cost of each instructional services category required by guidelines adopted under division (B)(1)(a) of this section that is provided directly to students by a classroom teacher;

(b) The cost of the instructional support services, such as services provided by a speech-language pathologist, classroom aide, multimedia aide, or librarian, provided directly to students in conjunction with each instructional services category;

(c) The cost of the administrative support services related to each instructional services category, such as the cost of personnel that develop the curriculum for the instructional services category and the cost of personnel supervising or coordinating the delivery of the instructional services category.

(4) Support or extracurricular services costs for each category of service directly provided to students and required by guidelines adopted pursuant to division (B)(1)(b) of this section. The guidelines shall require the cost units under division (C)(4) of this section to be designed so that each of them may be compiled and reported in terms of average expenditure per pupil receiving the service in the school district as a whole and average expenditure per pupil receiving the service in each building in the school district and in terms of a total cost for each category of service and, as a breakdown of the total cost, a cost for each of the following components:

(a) The cost of each support or extracurricular services category required by guidelines adopted under division (B)(1)(b) of this section that is provided directly to students by a licensed employee, such as services provided by a guidance counselor or any services provided by a licensed employee under a supplemental contract;

(b) The cost of each such services category provided directly to students by a nonlicensed employee, such as janitorial services, cafeteria services, or services of a sports trainer;

(c) The cost of the administrative services related to each services category in division (C)(4)(a) or (b) of this section, such as the cost of any licensed or nonlicensed employees that develop, supervise, coordinate, or otherwise are involved in administering or aiding the delivery of each services category.

(D)(1) The guidelines adopted under this section shall require school districts to collect information about individual students, staff members, or both in connection with any data required by division (B) or (C) of this section or other reporting requirements established in the Revised Code. The guidelines may also require school districts to report information about individual staff members in connection with any data required by division (B) or (C) of this section or other reporting requirements established in the Revised Code. The guidelines shall not authorize school districts to request social security numbers of individual students. The guidelines shall prohibit the reporting under this section of a student's name, address, and social security number to the state board of education or the department of education. The guidelines shall also prohibit the reporting under this section of any personally identifiable information about any student, except for the purpose of assigning the data verification code required by division (D)(2) of this section, to any other person unless such person is employed by the school district or the information technology center operated under section 3301.075 of the Revised Code and is authorized by the district or technology center to have access to such information or is employed by an entity with which the department contracts for the scoring or the development of state assessments. The guidelines may require school districts to provide the social security numbers of individual staff members and the county of residence for a student. Nothing in this section prohibits the state board of education or department of education from providing a student's county of residence to the department of taxation to facilitate the distribution of tax revenue.

(2)(a) The guidelines shall provide for each school district or community school to assign a data verification code that is unique on a statewide basis over time to each student whose initial Ohio enrollment is in that district or school and to report all required individual student data for that student utilizing such code. The guidelines shall also provide for assigning data verification codes to all students enrolled in districts or community schools on the effective date of the guidelines established under this section. The assignment of data verification codes for other entities, as described in division (D)(2)(c) of this section, the use of those codes, and the reporting and use of associated individual student data shall be coordinated by the department in accordance with state and federal law.

School districts shall report individual student data to the department through the information technology centers utilizing the code. The entities described in division (D)(2)(c) of this section shall report individual student data to the department in the manner prescribed by the department.

Except as provided in sections 3301.941, 3310.11, 3310.42, 3310.63, 3313.978, and 3317.20 of the Revised Code, at no time shall the state board or the department have access to information that would enable any data verification code to be matched to personally identifiable student data.

(b) Each school district and community school shall ensure that the data verification code is included in the student's records reported to any subsequent school district, community school, or state institution of higher education, as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, in which the student enrolls. Any such subsequent district or school shall utilize the same identifier in its reporting of data under this section.

(c) The director of any state agency that administers a publicly funded program providing services to children who are younger than compulsory school age, as defined in section 3321.01 of the Revised Code, including the directors of health, job and family services, mental health and addiction services, and developmental disabilities, shall request and receive, pursuant to sections 3301.0723 and 3701.62 of the Revised Code, a data verification code for a child who is receiving those services.

(E) The guidelines adopted under this section may require school districts to collect and report data, information, or reports other than that described in divisions (A), (B), and (C) of this section for the purpose of complying with other reporting requirements established in the Revised Code. The other data, information, or reports may be maintained in the education management information system but are not required to be compiled as part of the profile formats required under division (G) of this section or the annual statewide report required under division (H) of this section.

(F) Beginning with the school year that begins July 1, 1991, the board of education of each school district shall annually collect and report to the state board, in accordance with the guidelines established by the board, the data required pursuant to this section. A school district may collect and report these data notwithstanding section 2151.357 or 3319.321 of the Revised Code.

(G) The state board shall, in accordance with the procedures it adopts, annually compile the data reported by each school district pursuant to division (D) of this section. The state board shall design formats for profiling each school district as a whole and each school building within each district and shall compile the data in accordance with these formats. These profile formats shall:

(1) Include all of the data gathered under this section in a manner that facilitates comparison among school districts and among school buildings within each school district;

(2) Present the data on academic achievement levels as assessed by the testing of student achievement maintained pursuant to division (B)(1)(d) of this section.

(H)(1) The state board shall, in accordance with the procedures it adopts, annually prepare a statewide report for all school districts and the general public that includes the profile of each of the school districts developed pursuant to division (G) of this section. Copies of the report shall be sent to each school district.

(2) The state board shall, in accordance with the procedures it adopts, annually prepare an individual report for each school district and the general public that includes the profiles of each of the school buildings in that school district developed pursuant to division (G) of this section. Copies of the report shall be sent to the superintendent of the district and to each member of the district board of education.

(3) Copies of the reports received from the state board under divisions (H)(1) and (2) of this section shall be made available to the general public at each school district's offices. Each district board of education shall make copies of each report available to any person upon request and payment of a reasonable fee for the cost of reproducing the report. The board shall annually publish in a newspaper of general circulation in the school district, at least twice during the two weeks prior to the week in which the reports will first be available, a notice containing the address where the reports are available and the date on which the reports will be available.

(I) Any data that is collected or maintained pursuant to this section and that identifies an individual pupil is not a public record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code.

(J) As used in this section:

(1) "School district" means any city, local, exempted village, or joint vocational school district and, in accordance with section 3314.17 of the Revised Code, any community school. As used in division (L) of this section, "school district" also includes any educational service center or other educational entity required to submit data using the system established under this section.

(2) "Cost" means any expenditure for operating expenses made by a school district excluding any expenditures for debt retirement except for payments made to any commercial lending institution for any loan approved pursuant to section 3313.483 of the Revised Code.

(K) Any person who removes data from the information system established under this section for the purpose of releasing it to any person not entitled under law to have access to such information is subject to section 2913.42 of the Revised Code prohibiting tampering with data.

(L)(1) In accordance with division (L)(2) of this section and the rules adopted under division (L)(10) of this section, the department of education may sanction any school district that reports incomplete or inaccurate data, reports data that does not conform to data requirements and descriptions published by the department, fails to report data in a timely manner, or otherwise does not make a good faith effort to report data as required by this section.

(2) If the department decides to sanction a school district under this division, the department shall take the following sequential actions:

(a) Notify the district in writing that the department has determined that data has not been reported as required under this section and require the district to review its data submission and submit corrected data by a deadline established by the department. The department also may require the district to develop a corrective action plan, which shall include provisions for the district to provide mandatory staff training on data reporting procedures.

(b) Withhold up to ten per cent of the total amount of state funds due to the district for the current fiscal year and, if not previously required under division (L)(2)(a) of this section, require the district to develop a corrective action plan in accordance with that division;

(c) Withhold an additional amount of up to twenty per cent of the total amount of state funds due to the district for the current fiscal year;

(d) Direct department staff or an outside entity to investigate the district's data reporting practices and make recommendations for subsequent actions. The recommendations may include one or more of the following actions:

(i) Arrange for an audit of the district's data reporting practices by department staff or an outside entity;

(ii) Conduct a site visit and evaluation of the district;

(iii) Withhold an additional amount of up to thirty per cent of the total amount of state funds due to the district for the current fiscal year;

(iv) Continue monitoring the district's data reporting;

(v) Assign department staff to supervise the district's data management system;

(vi) Conduct an investigation to determine whether to suspend or revoke the license of any district employee in accordance with division (N) of this section;

(vii) If the district is issued a report card under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code, indicate on the report card that the district has been sanctioned for failing to report data as required by this section;

(viii) If the district is issued a report card under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code and incomplete or inaccurate data submitted by the district likely caused the district to receive a higher performance rating than it deserved under that section, issue a revised report card for the district;

(ix) Any other action designed to correct the district's data reporting problems.

(3) Any time the department takes an action against a school district under division (L)(2) of this section, the department shall make a report of the circumstances that prompted the action. The department shall send a copy of the report to the district superintendent or chief administrator and maintain a copy of the report in its files.

(4) If any action taken under division (L)(2) of this section resolves a school district's data reporting problems to the department's satisfaction, the department shall not take any further actions described by that division. If the department withheld funds from the district under that division, the department may release those funds to the district, except that if the department withheld funding under division (L)(2)(c) of this section, the department shall not release the funds withheld under division (L)(2)(b) of this section and, if the department withheld funding under division (L)(2)(d) of this section, the department shall not release the funds withheld under division (L)(2)(b) or (c) of this section.

(5) Notwithstanding anything in this section to the contrary, the department may use its own staff or an outside entity to conduct an audit of a school district's data reporting practices any time the department has reason to believe the district has not made a good faith effort to report data as required by this section. If any audit conducted by an outside entity under division (L)(2)(d)(i) or (5) of this section confirms that a district has not made a good faith effort to report data as required by this section, the district shall reimburse the department for the full cost of the audit. The department may withhold state funds due to the district for this purpose.

(6) Prior to issuing a revised report card for a school district under division (L)(2)(d)(viii) of this section, the department may hold a hearing to provide the district with an opportunity to demonstrate that it made a good faith effort to report data as required by this section. The hearing shall be conducted by a referee appointed by the department. Based on the information provided in the hearing, the referee shall recommend whether the department should issue a revised report card for the district. If the referee affirms the department's contention that the district did not make a good faith effort to report data as required by this section, the district shall bear the full cost of conducting the hearing and of issuing any revised report card.

(7) If the department determines that any inaccurate data reported under this section caused a school district to receive excess state funds in any fiscal year, the district shall reimburse the department an amount equal to the excess funds, in accordance with a payment schedule determined by the department. The department may withhold state funds due to the district for this purpose.

(8) Any school district that has funds withheld under division (L)(2) of this section may appeal the withholding in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.

(9) In all cases of a disagreement between the department and a school district regarding the appropriateness of an action taken under division (L)(2) of this section, the burden of proof shall be on the district to demonstrate that it made a good faith effort to report data as required by this section.

(10) The state board of education shall adopt rules under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement division (L) of this section.

(M) No information technology center or school district shall acquire, change, or update its student administration software package to manage and report data required to be reported to the department unless it converts to a student software package that is certified by the department.

(N) The state board of education, in accordance with sections 3319.31 and 3319.311 of the Revised Code, may suspend or revoke a license as defined under division (A) of section 3319.31 of the Revised Code that has been issued to any school district employee found to have willfully reported erroneous, inaccurate, or incomplete data to the education management information system.

(O) No person shall release or maintain any information about any student in violation of this section. Whoever violates this division is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.

(P) The department shall disaggregate the data collected under division (B)(1)(n) of this section according to the race and socioeconomic status of the students assessed. No data collected under that division shall be included on the report cards required by section 3302.03 of the Revised Code.

(Q) If the department cannot compile any of the information required by division (H) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code based upon the data collected under this section, the department shall develop a plan and a reasonable timeline for the collection of any data necessary to comply with that division.

Sec. 3301.0715.  (A) Except as otherwise required under division (B)(1) of section 3313.608 of the Revised Code, the board of education of each city, local, and exempted village school district shall administer each applicable diagnostic assessment developed and provided to the district in accordance with section 3301.079 of the Revised Code to the following:

(1) Any student who transfers into the district or to a different school within the district if each applicable diagnostic assessment was not administered by the district or school the student previously attended in the current school year, within thirty days after the date of transfer. If the district or school into which the student transfers cannot determine whether the student has taken any applicable diagnostic assessment in the current school year, the district or school may administer the diagnostic assessment to the student. However, if a student transfers into the district prior to the administration of the diagnostic assessments to all students under division (B) of this section, the district may administer the diagnostic assessments to that student on the date or dates determined under that division.

(2)(a) Prior to July 1, 2014, each kindergarten student, not earlier than four weeks prior to the first day of school and not later than the first day of October.

(b) Beginning July 1, 2014, each Each kindergarten student, not earlier than the first day of the school year and not later than the first day of November, except that the language and reading skills portion of the assessment shall be administered by the thirtieth day of September to fulfill the requirements of division (B) of section 3313.608 of the Revised Code.

For the purpose of division (A)(2) of this section, the district shall administer the kindergarten readiness assessment provided by the department of education. In no case shall the results of the readiness assessment be used to prohibit a student from enrolling in kindergarten.

(3) Each student enrolled in first, second, or third grade.

Division (A) of this section does not apply to students with significant cognitive disabilities, as defined by the department of education.

(B) Each district board shall administer each diagnostic assessment when the board deems appropriate, provided the administration complies with section 3313.608 of the Revised Code. However, the board shall administer any diagnostic assessment at least once annually to all students in the appropriate grade level. A district board may administer any diagnostic assessment in the fall and spring of a school year to measure the amount of academic growth attributable to the instruction received by students during that school year.

(C) Any district that received an excellent or effective rating a grade of "A" or "B" for the performance index score under division (A)(1)(b), (B)(1)(b), or (C)(1)(b) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code or for the value-added progress dimension under division (A)(1)(e), (B)(1)(e), or (C)(1)(e) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code for the immediately preceding school year, pursuant to section 3302.03 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to March 22, 2013, or the equivalent of such rating as determined by the department of education, may use different diagnostic assessments from those adopted under division (D) of section 3301.079 of the Revised Code in order to satisfy the requirements of division (A)(2)(3) of this section.

(D) Each district board shall utilize and score any diagnostic assessment administered under division (A) of this section in accordance with rules established by the department. After the administration of any diagnostic assessment, each district shall provide a student's completed diagnostic assessment, the results of such assessment, and any other accompanying documents used during the administration of the assessment to the parent of that student, and shall include all such documents and information in any plan developed for the student under division (C) of section 3313.608 of the Revised Code. Each district shall submit to the department, in the manner the department prescribes, the results of the diagnostic assessments administered under this section, regardless of the type of assessment used under section 3313.608 of the Revised Code. The department may issue reports with respect to the data collected. The department may report school and district level kindergarten diagnostic assessment data and use diagnostic assessment data to calculate the measure prescribed by divisions (B)(1)(g) and (C)(1)(g) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code.

(E) Each district board shall provide intervention services to students whose diagnostic assessments show that they are failing to make satisfactory progress toward attaining the academic standards for their grade level.

Sec. 3302.03.  Annually, not later than the fifteenth day of September or the preceding Friday when that day falls on a Saturday or Sunday, the department of education shall assign a letter grade for overall academic performance and for each separate performance measure for each school district, and each school building in a district, in accordance with this section. The state board shall adopt rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to establish performance criteria for each letter grade and prescribe a method by which the department assigns each letter grade. For a school building to which any of the performance measures do not apply, due to grade levels served by the building, the state board shall designate the performance measures that are applicable to the building and that must be calculated separately and used to calculate the building's overall grade. The department shall issue annual report cards reflecting the performance of each school district, each building within each district, and for the state as a whole using the performance measures and letter grade system described in this section. The department shall include on the report card for each district and each building within each district the most recent two-year trend data in student achievement for each subject and each grade.

(A)(1) For the 2012-2013 school year, the department shall issue grades as described in division (E) of this section for each of the following performance measures:

(a) Annual measurable objectives;

(b) Performance index score for a school district or building. Grades shall be awarded as a percentage of the total possible points on the performance index system as adopted by the state board. In adopting benchmarks for assigning letter grades under division (A)(1)(b) of this section, the state board of education shall designate ninety per cent or higher for an "A," at least seventy per cent but not more than eighty per cent for a "C," and less than fifty per cent for an "F."

(c) The extent to which the school district or building meets each of the applicable performance indicators established by the state board under section 3302.02 of the Revised Code and the percentage of applicable performance indicators that have been achieved. In adopting benchmarks for assigning letter grades under division (A)(1)(c) of this section, the state board shall designate ninety per cent or higher for an "A."

(d) The four- and five-year adjusted cohort graduation rates.

In adopting benchmarks for assigning letter grades under division (A)(1)(d), (B)(1)(d), or (C)(1)(d) of this section, the department shall designate a four-year adjusted cohort graduation rate of ninety-three per cent or higher for an "A" and a five-year cohort graduation rate of ninety-five per cent or higher for an "A."

(e) The overall score under the value-added progress dimension of a school district or building, for which the department shall use up to three years of value-added data as available. The letter grade assigned for this growth measure shall be as follows:

(i) A score that is at least two standard errors of measure above the mean score shall be designated as an "A."

(ii) A score that is at least one standard error of measure but less than two standard errors of measure above the mean score shall be designated as a "B."

(iii) A score that is less than one standard error of measure above the mean score but greater than or equal to one standard error of measure below the mean score shall be designated as a "C."

(iv) A score that is not greater than one standard error of measure below the mean score but is greater than or equal to two standard errors of measure below the mean score shall be designated as a "D."

(v) A score that is not greater than two standard errors of measure below the mean score shall be designated as an "F."

Whenever the value-added progress dimension is used as a graded performance measure, whether as an overall measure or as a measure of separate subgroups, the grades for the measure shall be calculated in the same manner as prescribed in division (A)(1)(e) of this section.

(f) The value-added progress dimension score for a school district or building disaggregated for each of the following subgroups: students identified as gifted, students with disabilities, and students whose performance places them in the lowest quintile for achievement on a statewide basis. Each subgroup shall be a separate graded measure.

(2) Not later than April 30, 2013, the state board of education shall adopt a resolution describing the performance measures, benchmarks, and grading system for the 2012-2013 school year and, not later than June 30, 2013, shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that prescribe the methods by which the performance measures under division (A)(1) of this section shall be assessed and assigned a letter grade, including performance benchmarks for each letter grade.

At least forty-five days prior to the state board's adoption of rules to prescribe the methods by which the performance measures under division (A)(1) of this section shall be assessed and assigned a letter grade, the department shall conduct a public presentation before the standing committees of the house of representatives and the senate that consider education legislation describing such methods, including performance benchmarks.

(3) There shall not be an overall letter grade for a school district or building for the 2012-2013 school year.

(B)(1) For the 2013-2014 school year, the department shall issue grades as described in division (E) of this section for each of the following performance measures:

(a) Annual measurable objectives;

(b) Performance index score for a school district or building. Grades shall be awarded as a percentage of the total possible points on the performance index system as created by the department. In adopting benchmarks for assigning letter grades under division (B)(1)(b) of this section, the state board shall designate ninety per cent or higher for an "A," at least seventy per cent but not more than eighty per cent for a "C," and less than fifty per cent for an "F."

(c) The extent to which the school district or building meets each of the applicable performance indicators established by the state board under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code and the percentage of applicable performance indicators that have been achieved. In adopting benchmarks for assigning letter grades under division (B)(1)(c) of this section, the state board shall designate ninety per cent or higher for an "A."

(d) The four- and five-year adjusted cohort graduation rates;

(e) The overall score under the value-added progress dimension of a school district or building, for which the department shall use up to three years of value-added data as available.

(f) The value-added progress dimension score for a school district or building disaggregated for each of the following subgroups: students identified as gifted in superior cognitive ability and specific academic ability fields under Chapter 3324. of the Revised Code, students with disabilities, and students whose performance places them in the lowest quintile for achievement on a statewide basis. Each subgroup shall be a separate graded measure.

(g) Whether a school district or building is making progress in improving literacy in grades kindergarten through three, as determined using a method prescribed by the state board. The state board shall adopt rules to prescribe benchmarks and standards for assigning grades to districts and buildings for purposes of division (B)(1)(g) of this section. In adopting benchmarks for assigning letter grades under divisions (B)(1)(g) and (C)(1)(g) of this section, the state board shall determine progress made based on the reduction in the percentage of students scoring below grade level, or below proficient, compared from year to year on the reading and writing diagnostic assessments administered under section 3301.0715 of the Revised Code and the third grade English language arts assessment under section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code, as applicable. The state board shall designate for a "C" grade a value that is not lower than the statewide average value for this measure. No grade shall be issued under divisions (B)(1)(g) and (C)(1)(g) of this section for a district or building in which less than five per cent of students have scored below grade level on the diagnostic assessment administered to students in kindergarten under division (B)(1) of section 3313.608 of the Revised Code.

(2) In addition to the graded measures in division (B)(1) of this section, the department shall include on a school district's or building's report card all of the following without an assigned letter grade:

(a) The percentage of students enrolled in a district or building participating in advanced placement classes and the percentage of those students who received a score of three or better on advanced placement examinations;

(b) The number of a district's or building's students who have earned at least three college credits through dual enrollment or advanced standing programs, such as the post-secondary enrollment options program under Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code and state-approved career-technical courses offered through dual enrollment or statewide articulation, that appear on a student's transcript or other official document, either of which is issued by the institution of higher education from which the student earned the college credit. The credits earned that are reported under divisions (B)(2)(b) and (C)(2)(c) of this section shall not include any that are remedial or developmental and shall include those that count toward the curriculum requirements established for completion of a degree.

(c) The percentage of students enrolled in a district or building who have taken a national standardized test used for college admission determinations and the percentage of those students who are determined to be remediation-free in accordance with standards adopted under division (F) of section 3345.061 of the Revised Code;

(d) The percentage of the district's or the building's students who receive industry credentials. The state board shall adopt criteria for acceptable industry credentials.

(e) The percentage of students enrolled in a district or building who are participating in an international baccalaureate program and the percentage of those students who receive a score of four or better on the international baccalaureate examinations.

(f) The percentage of the district's or building's students who receive an honors diploma under division (B) of section 3313.61 of the Revised Code.

(3) Not later than December 31, 2013, the state board shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that prescribe the methods by which the performance measures under divisions (B)(1)(f) and (B)(1)(g) of this section will be assessed and assigned a letter grade, including performance benchmarks for each grade.

At least forty-five days prior to the state board's adoption of rules to prescribe the methods by which the performance measures under division (B)(1) of this section shall be assessed and assigned a letter grade, the department shall conduct a public presentation before the standing committees of the house of representatives and the senate that consider education legislation describing such methods, including performance benchmarks.

(4) There shall not be an overall letter grade for a school district or building for the 2013-2014 school year.

(C)(1) For the 2014-2015 school year and each school year thereafter, the department shall issue grades as described in division (E) of this section for each of the following performance measures and an overall letter grade based on an aggregate of those measures:

(a) Annual measurable objectives;

(b) Performance index score for a school district or building. Grades shall be awarded as a percentage of the total possible points on the performance index system as created by the department. In adopting benchmarks for assigning letter grades under division (C)(1)(b) of this section, the state board shall designate ninety per cent or higher for an "A," at least seventy per cent but not more than eighty per cent for a "C," and less than fifty per cent for an "F."

(c) The extent to which the school district or building meets each of the applicable performance indicators established by the state board under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code and the percentage of applicable performance indicators that have been achieved. In adopting benchmarks for assigning letter grades under division (C)(1)(c) of this section, the state board shall designate ninety per cent or higher for an "A."

(d) The four- and five-year adjusted cohort graduation rates;

(e) The overall score under the value-added progress dimension, or another measure of student academic progress if adopted by the state board, of a school district or building, for which the department shall use up to three years of value-added data as available.

In adopting benchmarks for assigning letter grades for overall score on value-added progress dimension under division (C)(1)(e) of this section, the state board shall prohibit the assigning of a grade of "A" for that measure unless the district's or building's grade assigned for value-added progress dimension for all subgroups under division (C)(1)(f) of this section is a "B" or higher.

For the metric prescribed by division (C)(1)(e) of this section, the state board may adopt a student academic progress measure to be used instead of the value-added progress dimension. If the state board adopts such a measure, it also shall prescribe a method for assigning letter grades for the new measure that is comparable to the method prescribed in division (A)(1)(e) of this section.

(f) The value-added progress dimension score of a school district or building disaggregated for each of the following subgroups: students identified as gifted in superior cognitive ability and specific academic ability fields under Chapter 3324. of the Revised Code, students with disabilities, and students whose performance places them in the lowest quintile for achievement on a statewide basis, as determined by a method prescribed by the state board. Each subgroup shall be a separate graded measure.

The state board may adopt student academic progress measures to be used instead of the value-added progress dimension. If the state board adopts such measures, it also shall prescribe a method for assigning letter grades for the new measures that is comparable to the method prescribed in division (A)(1)(e) of this section.

(g) Whether a school district or building is making progress in improving literacy in grades kindergarten through three, as determined using a method prescribed by the state board. The state board shall adopt rules to prescribe benchmarks and standards for assigning grades to a district or building for purposes of division (C)(1)(g) of this section. The state board shall designate for a "C" grade a value that is not lower than the statewide average value for this measure. No grade shall be issued under division (C)(1)(g) of this section for a district or building in which less than five per cent of students have scored below grade level on the kindergarten diagnostic assessment under division (B)(1) of section 3313.608 of the Revised Code.

(2) In addition to the graded measures in division (C)(1) of this section, the department shall include on a school district's or building's report card all of the following without an assigned letter grade:

(a) The percentage of students enrolled in a district or building who have taken a national standardized test used for college admission determinations and the percentage of those students who are determined to be remediation-free in accordance with the standards adopted under division (F) of section 3345.061 of the Revised Code;

(b) The percentage of students enrolled in a district or building participating in advanced placement classes and the percentage of those students who received a score of three or better on advanced placement examinations;

(c) The number of a district's or building's students who have earned at least three college credits through dual enrollment advanced standing programs, such as the post-secondary enrollment options college credit plus program under Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code and state-approved career-technical courses offered through dual enrollment or statewide articulation, that appear on a student's transcript or other official document, either of which is issued by the institution of higher education from which the student earned the college credit. The credits earned that are reported under divisions (B)(2)(b) and (C)(2)(c) of this section shall not include any that are remedial or developmental and shall include those that count toward the curriculum requirements established for completion of a degree.

(d) The percentage of the district's or building's students who receive an honor's diploma under division (B) of section 3313.61 of the Revised Code;

(e) The percentage of the district's or building's students who receive industry credentials;

(f) The percentage of students enrolled in a district or building who are participating in an international baccalaureate program and the percentage of those students who receive a score of four or better on the international baccalaureate examinations;

(g) The results of the college and career-ready assessments administered under division (B)(1) of section 3301.0712 of the Revised Code.

(3) The state board shall adopt rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that establish a method to assign an overall grade for a school district or school building for the 2014-2015 school year and each school year thereafter. The rules shall group the performance measures in divisions (C)(1) and (2) of this section into the following components:

(a) Gap closing, which shall include the performance measure in division (C)(1)(a) of this section;

(b) Achievement, which shall include the performance measures in divisions (C)(1)(b) and (c) of this section;

(c) Progress, which shall include the performance measures in divisions (C)(1)(e) and (f) of this section;

(d) Graduation, which shall include the performance measure in division (C)(1)(d) of this section;

(e) Kindergarten through third-grade literacy, which shall include the performance measure in division (C)(1)(g) of this section;

(f) Prepared for success, which shall include the performance measures in divisions (C)(2)(a), (b), (c), (d), (e), and (f) of this section. The state board shall develop a method to determine a grade for the component in division (C)(3)(f) of this section using the performance measures in divisions (C)(2)(a), (b), (c), (d), (e), and (f) of this section. When available, the state board may incorporate the performance measure under division (C)(2)(g) of this section into the component under division (C)(3)(f) of this section. When determining the overall grade for the prepared for success component prescribed by division (C)(3)(f) of this section, no individual student shall be counted in more than one performance measure. However, if a student qualifies for more than one performance measure in the component, the state board may, in its method to determine a grade for the component, specify an additional weight for such a student that is not greater than or equal to 1.0. In determining the overall score under division (C)(3)(f) of this section, the state board shall ensure that the pool of students included in the performance measures aggregated under that division are all of the students included in the four- and five-year adjusted graduation cohort.

In the rules adopted under division (C)(3) of this section, the state board shall adopt a method for determining a grade for each component in divisions (C)(3)(a) to (f) of this section. The state board also shall establish a method to assign an overall grade of "A," "B," "C," "D," or "F" using the grades assigned for each component. The method the state board adopts for assigning an overall grade shall give equal weight to the components in divisions (C)(3)(b) and (c) of this section.

At least forty-five days prior to the state board's adoption of rules to prescribe the methods for calculating the overall grade for the report card, as required by this division, the department shall conduct a public presentation before the standing committees of the house of representatives and the senate that consider education legislation describing the format for the report card, weights that will be assigned to the components of the overall grade, and the method for calculating the overall grade.

(D) Not later than July 1, 2015, the state board shall develop a measure of student academic progress for high school students. Beginning with the report card for the 2015-2016 school year, each school district and applicable school building shall be assigned a separate letter grade for this measure and the district's or building's grade for that measure shall be included in determining the district's or building's overall letter grade. This measure shall be included within the measure prescribed in division (C)(3)(c) of this section in the calculation for the overall letter grade.

(E) The letter grades assigned to a school district or building under this section shall be as follows:

(1) "A" for a district or school making excellent progress;

(2) "B" for a district or school making above average progress;

(3) "C" for a district or school making average progress;

(4) "D" for a district or school making below average progress;

(5) "F" for a district or school failing to meet minimum progress.

(F) When reporting data on student achievement and progress, the department shall disaggregate that data according to the following categories:

(1) Performance of students by grade-level;

(2) Performance of students by race and ethnic group;

(3) Performance of students by gender;

(4) Performance of students grouped by those who have been enrolled in a district or school for three or more years;

(5) Performance of students grouped by those who have been enrolled in a district or school for more than one year and less than three years;

(6) Performance of students grouped by those who have been enrolled in a district or school for one year or less;

(7) Performance of students grouped by those who are economically disadvantaged;

(8) Performance of students grouped by those who are enrolled in a conversion community school established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code;

(9) Performance of students grouped by those who are classified as limited English proficient;

(10) Performance of students grouped by those who have disabilities;

(11) Performance of students grouped by those who are classified as migrants;

(12) Performance of students grouped by those who are identified as gifted in superior cognitive ability and the specific academic ability fields of reading and math pursuant to Chapter 3324. of the Revised Code. In disaggregating specific academic ability fields for gifted students, the department shall use data for those students with specific academic ability in math and reading. If any other academic field is assessed, the department shall also include data for students with specific academic ability in that field as well.

(13) Performance of students grouped by those who perform in the lowest quintile for achievement on a statewide basis, as determined by a method prescribed by the state board.

The department may disaggregate data on student performance according to other categories that the department determines are appropriate. To the extent possible, the department shall disaggregate data on student performance according to any combinations of two or more of the categories listed in divisions (F)(1) to (13) of this section that it deems relevant.

In reporting data pursuant to division (F) of this section, the department shall not include in the report cards any data statistical in nature that is statistically unreliable or that could result in the identification of individual students. For this purpose, the department shall not report student performance data for any group identified in division (F) of this section that contains less than ten students. If the department does not report student performance data for a group because it contains less than ten students, the department shall indicate on the report card that is why data was not reported.

(G) The department may include with the report cards any additional education and fiscal performance data it deems valuable.

(H) The department shall include on each report card a list of additional information collected by the department that is available regarding the district or building for which the report card is issued. When available, such additional information shall include student mobility data disaggregated by race and socioeconomic status, college enrollment data, and the reports prepared under section 3302.031 of the Revised Code.

The department shall maintain a site on the world wide web. The report card shall include the address of the site and shall specify that such additional information is available to the public at that site. The department shall also provide a copy of each item on the list to the superintendent of each school district. The district superintendent shall provide a copy of any item on the list to anyone who requests it.

(I) Division (I) of this section does not apply to conversion community schools that primarily enroll students between sixteen and twenty-two years of age who dropped out of high school or are at risk of dropping out of high school due to poor attendance, disciplinary problems, or suspensions.

(1) For any district that sponsors a conversion community school under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, the department shall combine data regarding the academic performance of students enrolled in the community school with comparable data from the schools of the district for the purpose of determining the performance of the district as a whole on the report card issued for the district under this section or section 3302.033 of the Revised Code.

(2) Any district that leases a building to a community school located in the district or that enters into an agreement with a community school located in the district whereby the district and the school endorse each other's programs may elect to have data regarding the academic performance of students enrolled in the community school combined with comparable data from the schools of the district for the purpose of determining the performance of the district as a whole on the district report card. Any district that so elects shall annually file a copy of the lease or agreement with the department.

(3) Any municipal school district, as defined in section 3311.71 of the Revised Code, that sponsors a community school located within the district's territory, or that enters into an agreement with a community school located within the district's territory whereby the district and the community school endorse each other's programs, may exercise either or both of the following elections:

(a) To have data regarding the academic performance of students enrolled in that community school combined with comparable data from the schools of the district for the purpose of determining the performance of the district as a whole on the district's report card;

(b) To have the number of students attending that community school noted separately on the district's report card.

The election authorized under division (I)(3)(a) of this section is subject to approval by the governing authority of the community school.

Any municipal school district that exercises an election to combine or include data under division (I)(3) of this section, by the first day of October of each year, shall file with the department documentation indicating eligibility for that election, as required by the department.

(J) The department shall include on each report card the percentage of teachers in the district or building who are highly qualified, as defined by the "No Child Left Behind Act of 2001," and a comparison of that percentage with the percentages of such teachers in similar districts and buildings.

(K)(1) In calculating English language arts, mathematics, social studies, or science assessment passage rates used to determine school district or building performance under this section, the department shall include all students taking an assessment with accommodation or to whom an alternate assessment is administered pursuant to division (C)(1) or (3) of section 3301.0711 of the Revised Code.

(2) In calculating performance index scores, rates of achievement on the performance indicators established by the state board under section 3302.02 of the Revised Code, and annual measurable objectives for determining adequate yearly progress for school districts and buildings under this section, the department shall do all of the following:

(a) Include for each district or building only those students who are included in the ADM certified for the first full school week of October and are continuously enrolled in the district or building through the time of the spring administration of any assessment prescribed by division (A)(1) or (B)(1) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code that is administered to the student's grade level;

(b) Include cumulative totals from both the fall and spring administrations of the third grade English language arts achievement assessment;

(c) Except as required by the "No Child Left Behind Act of 2001," exclude for each district or building any limited English proficient student who has been enrolled in United States schools for less than one full school year.

(L) Beginning with the 2015-2016 school year and at least once every three years thereafter, the state board of education shall review and may adjust the benchmarks for assigning letter grades to the performance measures and components prescribed under divisions (C)(3) and (D) of this section.

Sec. 3302.10.  (A) Beginning July 1, 2007, the superintendent of public instruction shall establish an academic distress commission for each (1) Subject to division (A)(2) of this section, any school district that meets any combination of the following conditions for two of the three or more consecutive most recent years shall be subject to the establishment of an academic distress commission:

(1)(a) The district has been declared to be in a state of academic emergency under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code, as that section existed prior to the effective date of this amendment March 22, 2013, and has failed to make adequate yearly progress;.

(2)(b) The district has received a grade of "F" for the performance index score and a grade of "D" or "F" for the value-added progress dimension of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code; for the 2013-2014 school year.

(3)(c) The district has received an overall grade of "F" under division (C)(2) or a grade of "F" for the value-added progress dimension under division (C)(1)(e)(3) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code;

(4) At least fifty per cent of the schools operated by the district have received an overall grade of "D" or "F" under division (C)(3) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code.

(d) The district's academic performance makes it subject to the most severe level of state intervention as specified by the most recent "Elementary and Secondary Education Act" waiver issued to the state by the United States department of education.

(2) A school district that meets any of the conditions prescribed in division (A)(1) of this section but has received on the report card issued for the most recent school year a grade of "A" or "B" on at least two components prescribed under division (C)(3) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code shall not be subject to the establishment of an academic distress commission for the following school year.

(B) Each commission shall assist the district for which it was established in improving the district's academic performance.

Each commission is a body both corporate and politic, constituting an agency and instrumentality of the state and performing essential governmental functions of the state. A commission shall be known as the "academic distress commission for ............... (name of school district)," and, in that name, may exercise all authority vested in such a commission by this section. A separate commission shall be established for each school district to which this division applies.

(B)(C) Each academic distress commission shall consist of five voting members, three of whom shall be appointed by the superintendent of public instruction and two of whom shall be residents of the applicable school district appointed by the president of the district board of education. When a school district becomes subject to this section, the superintendent of public instruction shall provide written notification of that fact to the district board of education and shall request the president of the district board to submit to the superintendent of public instruction, in writing, the names of the president's appointees to the commission. The superintendent of public instruction and the president of the district board shall make appointments to the commission within thirty days after the district is notified that it is subject to this section.

Members of the commission shall serve at the pleasure of their appointing authority during the life of the commission. In the event of the death, resignation, incapacity, removal, or ineligibility to serve of a member, the appointing authority shall appoint a successor within fifteen days after the vacancy occurs. Members shall serve without compensation, but shall be paid by the commission their necessary and actual expenses incurred while engaged in the business of the commission.

(C)(D) Immediately after appointment of the initial members of an academic distress commission, the superintendent of public instruction shall call the first meeting of the commission and shall cause written notice of the time, date, and place of that meeting to be given to each member of the commission at least forty-eight hours in advance of the meeting. The first meeting shall include an overview of the commission's roles and responsibilities, the requirements of section 2921.42 and Chapter 102. of the Revised Code as they pertain to commission members, the requirements of section 121.22 of the Revised Code, and the provisions of division (F)(H) of this section. At its first meeting, the commission shall adopt temporary bylaws in accordance with division (D)(F) of this section to govern its operations until the adoption of permanent bylaws.

(E) The superintendent of public instruction shall designate a chairperson for the commission from among the members appointed by the superintendent. The chairperson shall call and conduct meetings, set meeting agendas, and serve as a liaison between the commission and the district board of education. The chairperson also shall appoint a secretary, who shall not be a member of the commission.

The department of education shall provide administrative support for the commission, provide data requested by the commission, and inform the commission of available state resources that could assist the commission in its work.

(D)(F) Each academic distress commission may adopt and alter bylaws and rules, which shall not be subject to section 111.15 or Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, for the conduct of its affairs and for the manner, subject to this section, in which its powers and functions shall be exercised and embodied.

(E)(G) Three members of an academic distress commission constitute a quorum of the commission. The affirmative vote of three members of the commission is necessary for any action taken by vote of the commission. No vacancy in the membership of the commission shall impair the rights of a quorum by such vote to exercise all the rights and perform all the duties of the commission. Members of the commission are not disqualified from voting by reason of the functions of any other office they hold and are not disqualified from exercising the functions of the other office with respect to the school district, its officers, or the commission.

(F)(H) The members of an academic distress commission, the superintendent of public instruction, and any person authorized to act on behalf of or assist them shall not be personally liable or subject to any suit, judgment, or claim for damages resulting from the exercise of or failure to exercise the powers, duties, and functions granted to them in regard to their functioning under this section, but the commission, superintendent of public instruction, and such other persons shall be subject to mandamus proceedings to compel performance of their duties under this section.

(G)(I) Each member of an academic distress commission shall file the statement described in section 102.02 of the Revised Code with the Ohio ethics commission. The statement shall be confidential, subject to review, as described in division (B) of that section.

(H)(J) Meetings of each academic distress commission shall be subject to section 121.22 of the Revised Code.

(I)(K)(1) Within one hundred twenty days after the first meeting of an academic distress commission, the commission shall adopt an academic recovery plan to improve academic performance in the school district. The plan shall address academic problems at both the district and school levels. The plan shall include the following:

(a) Short-term and long-term actions to be taken to improve the district's academic performance, including any actions required by section 3302.04 or 3302.041 of the Revised Code;

(b) The sequence and timing of the actions described in division (I)(K)(1)(a) of this section and the persons responsible for implementing the actions;

(c) Resources that will be applied toward improvement efforts;

(d) Procedures for monitoring and evaluating improvement efforts;

(e) Requirements for reporting to the commission and the district board of education on the status of improvement efforts.

(2) The commission may amend the academic recovery plan subsequent to adoption. The commission shall update the plan at least annually.

(3) The commission shall submit the academic recovery plan it adopts or updates to the superintendent of public instruction for approval immediately following its adoption or updating. The superintendent shall evaluate the plan and either approve or disapprove it within thirty days after its submission. If the plan is disapproved, the superintendent shall recommend modifications that will render it acceptable. No academic distress commission shall implement an academic recovery plan unless the superintendent has approved it.

(4) County, state, and school district officers and employees shall assist the commission diligently and promptly in the implementation of the academic recovery plan.

(J)(L) Each academic distress commission shall seek input from the district board of education regarding ways to improve the district's academic performance, but any decision of the commission related to any authority granted to the commission under this section shall be final.

The commission may do any of the following:

(1) Appoint school building administrators and reassign administrative personnel;

(2) Terminate the contracts of administrators or administrative personnel. The commission shall not be required to comply with section 3319.16 of the Revised Code with respect to any contract terminated under this division.

(3) Contract with a private entity to perform school or district management functions;

(4) Establish a budget for the district and approve district appropriations and expenditures, unless a financial planning and supervision commission has been established for the district pursuant to section 3316.05 of the Revised Code.

(K)(M) If the board of education of a district for which an academic distress commission has been established under this section renews any collective bargaining agreement under Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code during the existence of the commission, the district board shall not enter into any agreement that would render any decision of the commission unenforceable. Section 3302.08 of the Revised Code does not apply to this division.

Notwithstanding any provision to the contrary in Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code, if the board of education has entered into a collective bargaining agreement after September 29, 2005, that contains stipulations relinquishing one or more of the rights or responsibilities listed in division (C) of section 4117.08 of the Revised Code, those stipulations are not enforceable and the district board shall resume holding those rights or responsibilities as if it had not relinquished them in that agreement until such time as both the academic distress commission ceases to exist and the district board agrees to relinquish those rights or responsibilities in a new collective bargaining agreement. The provisions of this paragraph apply to a collective bargaining agreement entered into after September 29, 2005, and those provisions are deemed to be part of that agreement regardless of whether the district satisfied the conditions prescribed in division (A) of this section at the time the district entered into that agreement.

(L)(N)(1) An academic distress commission shall cease to exist when the district for which it was established receives a performance rating of in need of continuous improvement or better, under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code as that section existed prior to the effective date of this amendment, or a has received, on two of the three most recent report cards, any combination of the following:

(a) A grade of "C" or better for both the performance index score under division (A)(1)(b), (B)(1)(b), or (C)(1)(b) and the value-added progress dimension under division (A)(1)(e), (B)(1)(e), or (C)(1)(e) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code for two of the three prior school years; however, the;

(b) An overall grade of "C" or better under division (C)(3) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code;

(c) A level of academic performance such that the school district is no longer subject to the most severe level of state intervention as described in division (A)(1)(d) of this section.

(2) The superintendent of public instruction may dissolve the commission earlier than as prescribed by division (N)(1) of this section if the superintendent determines that the district can perform adequately without the supervision of the commission. Upon termination of the commission, the department of education shall compile a final report of the commission's activities to assist other academic distress commissions in the conduct of their functions.

Sec. 3313.372.  (A) As used in this section, "energy conservation measure" means an installation or modification of an installation in, or remodeling of, a building, to reduce energy consumption. It includes:

(1) Insulation of the building structure and systems within the building;

(2) Storm windows and doors, multiglazed windows and doors, heat absorbing or heat reflective glazed and coated window and door systems, additional glazing, reductions in glass area, and other window and door system modifications that reduce energy consumption;

(3) Automatic energy control systems;

(4) Heating, ventilating, or air conditioning system modifications or replacements;

(5) Caulking and weatherstripping;

(6) Replacement or modification of lighting fixtures to increase the energy efficiency of the system without increasing the overall illumination of a facility, unless such increase in illumination is necessary to conform to the applicable state or local building code for the proposed lighting system;

(7) Energy recovery systems;

(8) Cogeneration systems that produce steam or forms of energy such as heat, as well as electricity, for use primarily within a building or complex of buildings;

(9) Any other modification, installation, or remodeling approved by the Ohio school facilities commission as an energy conservation measure.

(B) A board of education of a city, exempted village, local, or joint vocational school district may enter into an installment payment contract for the purchase and installation of energy conservation measures. The provisions of such installment payment contracts dealing with interest charges and financing terms shall not be subject to the competitive bidding requirements of section 3313.46 of the Revised Code, and shall be on the following terms:

(1) Not less than one-fifteenth of the costs thereof shall be paid within two years from the date of purchase.

(2) The remaining balance of the costs thereof shall be paid within fifteen years from the date of purchase.

The provisions of any installment payment contract entered into pursuant to this section shall provide that all payments, except payments for repairs and obligations on termination of the contract prior to its expiration, be stated as a percentage of shall not exceed the calculated energy, water, or waste water cost savings, avoided operating costs, and avoided capital costs attributable to the one or more measures over a defined period of time. Those payments shall be made only to the extent that the savings described in this division actually occur. The contractor shall warrant and guarantee that the energy conservation measures shall realize guaranteed savings and shall be responsible to pay an amount equal to any savings shortfall.

An installment payment contract entered into by a board of education under this section shall require the board to contract in accordance with division (A) of section 3313.46 of the Revised Code for the installation, modification, or remodeling of energy conservation measures unless division (A) of section 3313.46 of the Revised Code does not apply pursuant to division (B)(3) of that section, in which case the contract shall be awarded through a competitive selection process pursuant to rules adopted by the school facilities commission.

An installment payment contract entered into by a board of education under this section may include services for measurement and verification of energy savings associated with the guarantee. The annual cost of measurement and verification services shall not exceed ten per cent of the guaranteed savings in any year of the installment payment contract.

(C) The board may issue the notes of the school district signed by the president and the treasurer of the board and specifying the terms of the purchase and securing the deferred payments provided in this section, payable at the times provided and bearing interest at a rate not exceeding the rate determined as provided in section 9.95 of the Revised Code. The notes may contain an option for prepayment and shall not be subject to Chapter 133. of the Revised Code. In the resolution authorizing the notes, the board may provide, without the vote of the electors of the district, for annually levying and collecting taxes in amounts sufficient to pay the interest on and retire the notes, except that the total net indebtedness of the district without a vote of the electors incurred under this and all other sections of the Revised Code, except section 3318.052 of the Revised Code, shall not exceed one per cent of the district's tax valuation. Revenues derived from local taxes or otherwise, for the purpose of conserving energy or for defraying the current operating expenses of the district, may be applied to the payment of interest and the retirement of such notes. The notes may be sold at private sale or given to the contractor under the installment payment contract authorized by division (B) of this section.

(D) Debt incurred under this section shall not be included in the calculation of the net indebtedness of a school district under section 133.06 of the Revised Code.

(E) No school district board shall enter into an installment payment contract under division (B) of this section unless it first obtains a report of the costs of the energy conservation measures and the savings thereof as described under division (G) of section 133.06 of the Revised Code as a requirement for issuing energy securities, makes a finding that the amount spent on such measures is not likely to exceed the amount of money it would save in energy costs and resultant operational and maintenance costs as described in that division, except that that finding shall cover the ensuing fifteen years, and the Ohio school facilities commission determines that the district board's findings are reasonable and approves the contract as described in that division.

The district board shall monitor the savings and maintain a report of those savings, which shall be submitted to the commission in the same manner as required by division (G) of section 133.06 of the Revised Code in the case of energy securities.

Sec. 3313.6013. (A) As used in this section, "dual enrollment advanced standing program" means a program that enables a student to earn credit toward a degree from an institution of higher education while enrolled in high school or that enables a student to complete coursework while enrolled in high school that may earn credit toward a degree from an institution of higher education upon the student's attainment of a specified score on an examination covering the coursework. Dual enrollment Advanced standing programs may include any of the following:

(1) The post-secondary enrollment options college credit plus program established under Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code;

(2) Advanced placement courses;

(3) Any similar program established pursuant to an agreement between a school district or chartered nonpublic high school and an institution of higher education International baccalaureate diploma courses;

(4) Early college high schools school programs.

(B) Each city, local, exempted village, and joint vocational school district and each chartered nonpublic high school shall provide students enrolled in grades nine through twelve with the opportunity to participate in a dual enrollment an advanced standing program. For this purpose, each school district and chartered nonpublic high school shall offer at least one dual enrollment advanced standing program in accordance with division (B)(1) or (2) of this section, as applicable.

(1) A city, local, or exempted village school district meets the requirements of this division through its mandatory participation in the post-secondary enrollment options college credit plus program established under Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code. However, a city, local, or exempted village school district may offer any other dual enrollment advanced standing program, in addition to the post-secondary enrollment options college credit plus program, and each joint vocational school district shall offer at least one other dual enrollment advanced standing program, to students in good standing, as defined by the partnership for continued learning under section 3301.42 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to October 16, 2009, or as subsequently defined by the department of education.

(2) A chartered nonpublic high school that elects to participate in the post-secondary enrollment options college credit plus program established under Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code meets the requirements of this division. Each chartered nonpublic high school that elects not to participate in the post-secondary enrollment options college credit plus program instead shall offer at least one other dual enrollment advanced standing program to students in good standing, as defined by the partnership for continued learning under section 3301.42 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to October 16, 2009, or as subsequently defined by the department of education.

(C) Each school district and each chartered nonpublic high school shall provide information about the dual enrollment advanced standing programs offered by the district or school to all students enrolled in grades eight through eleven.

(D) No Except for the college credit plus program as described in division (A)(1) of this section, no city, local, exempted village, and joint vocational school district shall charge an enrolled student an additional fee or tuition for participation in any dual enrollment advanced standing program offered by the district. Students may be required to pay the costs associated with taking an advanced placement or international baccalaureate examination.

(E) Any agreement between a school district or school and an associated college, as defined in section 3365.10 of the Revised Code, governing the operation of an early college high school program shall be subject to the requirements of the college credit plus program, with the following exceptions:

(1) Any aspect of the agreement that does not relate to the conferral of transcripted credit, as defined in section 3365.01 of the Revised Code, shall not be subject to the requirements of the college credit plus program.

(2) If the early college high school program began operating prior to July 1, 2014, the agreement shall not be subject to the requirements of the college credit plus program until the later of the date on which the existing agreement expires or July 1, 2015.

(3) If the district, school, or associated college obtains a waiver for the agreement under section 3365.10 of the Revised Code, the agreement shall not be subject to the requirements of the college credit plus program.

(4) If the district, school, or associated college operating the early college high school program was granted an award under Section 263.325 of Am. Sub. H.B. 59 of the 130th general assembly for the 2014-2015 school year, as the lead applicant on the grant or as part of a consortium, for a project involving the establishment or expansion of an early college high school, the agreement shall not be subject to the requirements of the college credit plus program during the period of time for which the project is funded by the grant award under that section.

The college credit plus program shall not govern any advanced placement course or international baccalaureate diploma course as described under this section.

(F) As used in this section, "early college high school program" means a program operated by a school district or school and an associated college, as defined in section 3365.10 of the Revised Code, that provides a personalized learning plan, which is based on accelerated curriculum and includes both high school and college-level coursework, and enables the following students to earn a high school diploma and an associate degree, or the equivalent number of transcripted credits, upon successful completion of the program:

(1) Students who are underrepresented in regard to completing post-secondary education;

(2) Students who are economically disadvantaged, as defined by the department of education;

(3) Students whose parents did not earn a college degree.

Sec. 3313.603.  (A) As used in this section:

(1) "One unit" means a minimum of one hundred twenty hours of course instruction, except that for a laboratory course, "one unit" means a minimum of one hundred fifty hours of course instruction.

(2) "One-half unit" means a minimum of sixty hours of course instruction, except that for physical education courses, "one-half unit" means a minimum of one hundred twenty hours of course instruction.

(B) Beginning September 15, 2001, except as required in division (C) of this section and division (C) of section 3313.614 of the Revised Code, the requirements for graduation from every high school shall include twenty units earned in grades nine through twelve and shall be distributed as follows:

(1) English language arts, four units;

(2) Health, one-half unit;

(3) Mathematics, three units;

(4) Physical education, one-half unit;

(5) Science, two units until September 15, 2003, and three units thereafter, which at all times shall include both of the following:

(a) Biological sciences, one unit;

(b) Physical sciences, one unit.

(6) History and government, one unit, which shall comply with division (M) of this section and shall include both of the following:

(a) American history, one-half unit;

(b) American government, one-half unit.

(7) Social studies, two units.

(8) Elective units, seven units until September 15, 2003, and six units thereafter.

Each student's electives shall include at least one unit, or two half units, chosen from among the areas of business/technology, fine arts, and/or foreign language.

(C) Beginning with students who enter ninth grade for the first time on or after July 1, 2010, except as provided in divisions (D) to (F) of this section, the requirements for graduation from every public and chartered nonpublic high school shall include twenty units that are designed to prepare students for the workforce and college. The units shall be distributed as follows:

(1) English language arts, four units;

(2) Health, one-half unit, which shall include instruction in nutrition and the benefits of nutritious foods and physical activity for overall health;

(3) Mathematics, four units, which shall include one unit of algebra II or the equivalent of algebra II;

(4) Physical education, one-half unit;

(5) Science, three units with inquiry-based laboratory experience that engages students in asking valid scientific questions and gathering and analyzing information, which shall include the following, or their equivalent:

(a) Physical sciences, one unit;

(b) Life sciences, one unit;

(c) Advanced study in one or more of the following sciences, one unit:

(i) Chemistry, physics, or other physical science;

(ii) Advanced biology or other life science;

(iii) Astronomy, physical geology, or other earth or space science.

(6) History and government, one unit, which shall comply with division (M) of this section and shall include both of the following:

(a) American history, one-half unit;

(b) American government, one-half unit.

(7) Social studies, two units.

Each school shall integrate the study of economics and financial literacy, as expressed in the social studies academic content standards adopted by the state board of education under division (A)(1) of section 3301.079 of the Revised Code and the academic content standards for financial literacy and entrepreneurship adopted under division (A)(2) of that section, into one or more existing social studies credits required under division (C)(7) of this section, or into the content of another class, so that every high school student receives instruction in those concepts. In developing the curriculum required by this paragraph, schools shall use available public-private partnerships and resources and materials that exist in business, industry, and through the centers for economics education at institutions of higher education in the state.

(8) Five units consisting of one or any combination of foreign language, fine arts, business, career-technical education, family and consumer sciences, technology, agricultural education, a junior reserve officer training corps (JROTC) program approved by the congress of the United States under title 10 of the United States Code, or English language arts, mathematics, science, or social studies courses not otherwise required under division (C) of this section.

Ohioans must be prepared to apply increased knowledge and skills in the workplace and to adapt their knowledge and skills quickly to meet the rapidly changing conditions of the twenty-first century. National studies indicate that all high school graduates need the same academic foundation, regardless of the opportunities they pursue after graduation. The goal of Ohio's system of elementary and secondary education is to prepare all students for and seamlessly connect all students to success in life beyond high school graduation, regardless of whether the next step is entering the workforce, beginning an apprenticeship, engaging in post-secondary training, serving in the military, or pursuing a college degree.

The Ohio core curriculum is the standard expectation for all students entering ninth grade for the first time at a public or chartered nonpublic high school on or after July 1, 2010. A student may satisfy this expectation through a variety of methods, including, but not limited to, integrated, applied, career-technical, and traditional coursework.

Whereas teacher quality is essential for student success in completing the Ohio core curriculum, the general assembly shall appropriate funds for strategic initiatives designed to strengthen schools' capacities to hire and retain highly qualified teachers in the subject areas required by the curriculum. Such initiatives are expected to require an investment of $120,000,000 over five years.

Stronger coordination between high schools and institutions of higher education is necessary to prepare students for more challenging academic endeavors and to lessen the need for academic remediation in college, thereby reducing the costs of higher education for Ohio's students, families, and the state. The state board and the chancellor of the Ohio board of regents shall develop policies to ensure that only in rare instances will students who complete the Ohio core curriculum require academic remediation after high school.

School districts, community schools, and chartered nonpublic schools shall integrate technology into learning experiences across the curriculum in order to maximize efficiency, enhance learning, and prepare students for success in the technology-driven twenty-first century. Districts and schools shall use distance and web-based course delivery as a method of providing or augmenting all instruction required under this division, including laboratory experience in science. Districts and schools shall utilize technology access and electronic learning opportunities provided by the broadcast educational media commission, chancellor, the Ohio learning network, education technology centers, public television stations, and other public and private providers.

(D) Except as provided in division (E) of this section, a student who enters ninth grade on or after July 1, 2010, and before July 1, 2014 2016, may qualify for graduation from a public or chartered nonpublic high school even though the student has not completed the Ohio core curriculum prescribed in division (C) of this section if all of the following conditions are satisfied:

(1) After the student has attended high school for two years, as determined by the school, the student and the student's parent, guardian, or custodian sign and file with the school a written statement asserting the parent's, guardian's, or custodian's consent to the student's graduating without completing the Ohio core curriculum and acknowledging that one consequence of not completing the Ohio core curriculum is ineligibility to enroll in most state universities in Ohio without further coursework.

(2) The student and parent, guardian, or custodian fulfill any procedural requirements the school stipulates to ensure the student's and parent's, guardian's, or custodian's informed consent and to facilitate orderly filing of statements under division (D)(1) of this section.

(3) The student and the student's parent, guardian, or custodian and a representative of the student's high school jointly develop an individual career a student success plan for the student under division (C)(1) of section 3313.6015 of the Revised Code that specifies the student matriculating to a two-year degree program, acquiring a business and industry credential, or entering an apprenticeship.

(4) The student's high school provides counseling and support for the student related to the plan developed under division (D)(3) of this section during the remainder of the student's high school experience.

(5) The student successfully completes, at a minimum, the curriculum prescribed in division (B) of this section.

The department of education, in collaboration with the chancellor, shall analyze student performance data to determine if there are mitigating factors that warrant extending the exception permitted by division (D) of this section to high school classes beyond those entering ninth grade before July 1, 2014 2016. The department shall submit its findings and any recommendations not later than August 1, 2014 2016, to the speaker and minority leader of the house of representatives, the president and minority leader of the senate, the chairpersons and ranking minority members of the standing committees of the house of representatives and the senate that consider education legislation, the state board of education, and the superintendent of public instruction.

(E) Each school district and chartered nonpublic school retains the authority to require an even more rigorous minimum curriculum for high school graduation than specified in division (B) or (C) of this section. A school district board of education, through the adoption of a resolution, or the governing authority of a chartered nonpublic school may stipulate any of the following:

(1) A minimum high school curriculum that requires more than twenty units of academic credit to graduate;

(2) An exception to the district's or school's minimum high school curriculum that is comparable to the exception provided in division (D) of this section but with additional requirements, which may include a requirement that the student successfully complete more than the minimum curriculum prescribed in division (B) of this section;

(3) That no exception comparable to that provided in division (D) of this section is available.

(F) A student enrolled in a dropout prevention and recovery program, which program has received a waiver from the department, may qualify for graduation from high school by successfully completing a competency-based instructional program administered by the dropout prevention and recovery program in lieu of completing the Ohio core curriculum prescribed in division (C) of this section. The department shall grant a waiver to a dropout prevention and recovery program, within sixty days after the program applies for the waiver, if the program meets all of the following conditions:

(1) The program serves only students not younger than sixteen years of age and not older than twenty-one years of age.

(2) The program enrolls students who, at the time of their initial enrollment, either, or both, are at least one grade level behind their cohort age groups or experience crises that significantly interfere with their academic progress such that they are prevented from continuing their traditional programs.

(3) The program requires students to attain at least the applicable score designated for each of the assessments prescribed under division (B)(1) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code or, to the extent prescribed by rule of the state board under division (D)(6) of section 3301.0712 of the Revised Code, division (B)(2) of that section.

(4) The program develops an individual career a student success plan for the student under division (C)(1) of section 3313.6015 of the Revised Code that specifies the student's matriculating to a two-year degree program, acquiring a business and industry credential, or entering an apprenticeship.

(5) The program provides counseling and support for the student related to the plan developed under division (F)(4) of this section during the remainder of the student's high school experience.

(6) The program requires the student and the student's parent, guardian, or custodian to sign and file, in accordance with procedural requirements stipulated by the program, a written statement asserting the parent's, guardian's, or custodian's consent to the student's graduating without completing the Ohio core curriculum and acknowledging that one consequence of not completing the Ohio core curriculum is ineligibility to enroll in most state universities in Ohio without further coursework.

(7) Prior to receiving the waiver, the program has submitted to the department an instructional plan that demonstrates how the academic content standards adopted by the state board under section 3301.079 of the Revised Code will be taught and assessed.

(8) Prior to receiving the waiver, the program has submitted to the department a policy on career advising that satisfies the requirements of section 3313.6015 of the Revised Code, with an emphasis on how every student will receive career advising.

(9) Prior to receiving the waiver, the program has submitted to the department a written agreement outlining the future cooperation between the program and any combination of local job training, postsecondary education, nonprofit, and health and social service organizations to provide services for students in the program and their families.

Divisions (F)(8) and (9) of this section apply only to waivers granted on or after the effective date of this amendment.

If the department does not act either to grant the waiver or to reject the program application for the waiver within sixty days as required under this section, the waiver shall be considered to be granted.

(G) Every high school may permit students below the ninth grade to take advanced work. If a high school so permits, it shall award high school credit for successful completion of the advanced work and shall count such advanced work toward the graduation requirements of division (B) or (C) of this section if the advanced work was both:

(1) Taught by a person who possesses a license or certificate issued under section 3301.071, 3319.22, or 3319.222 of the Revised Code that is valid for teaching high school;

(2) Designated by the board of education of the city, local, or exempted village school district, the board of the cooperative education school district, or the governing authority of the chartered nonpublic school as meeting the high school curriculum requirements.

Each high school shall record on the student's high school transcript all high school credit awarded under division (G) of this section. In addition, if the student completed a seventh- or eighth-grade fine arts course described in division (K) of this section and the course qualified for high school credit under that division, the high school shall record that course on the student's high school transcript.

(H) The department shall make its individual academic career plan available through its Ohio career information system web site for districts and schools to use as a tool for communicating with and providing guidance to students and families in selecting high school courses.

(I) Units earned in English language arts, mathematics, science, and social studies that are delivered through integrated academic and career-technical instruction are eligible to meet the graduation requirements of division (B) or (C) of this section.

(J) The state board, in consultation with the chancellor, shall adopt a statewide plan implementing methods for students to earn units of high school credit based on a demonstration of subject area competency, instead of or in combination with completing hours of classroom instruction. The state board shall adopt the plan not later than March 31, 2009, and commence phasing in the plan during the 2009-2010 school year. The plan shall include a standard method for recording demonstrated proficiency on high school transcripts. Each school district and community school shall comply with the state board's plan adopted under this division and award units of high school credit in accordance with the plan. The state board may adopt existing methods for earning high school credit based on a demonstration of subject area competency as necessary prior to the 2009-2010 school year.

(K) This division does not apply to students who qualify for graduation from high school under division (D) or (F) of this section, or to students pursuing a career-technical instructional track as determined by the school district board of education or the chartered nonpublic school's governing authority. Nevertheless, the general assembly encourages such students to consider enrolling in a fine arts course as an elective.

Beginning with students who enter ninth grade for the first time on or after July 1, 2010, each student enrolled in a public or chartered nonpublic high school shall complete two semesters or the equivalent of fine arts to graduate from high school. The coursework may be completed in any of grades seven to twelve. Each student who completes a fine arts course in grade seven or eight may elect to count that course toward the five units of electives required for graduation under division (C)(8) of this section, if the course satisfied the requirements of division (G) of this section. In that case, the high school shall award the student high school credit for the course and count the course toward the five units required under division (C)(8) of this section. If the course in grade seven or eight did not satisfy the requirements of division (G) of this section, the high school shall not award the student high school credit for the course but shall count the course toward the two semesters or the equivalent of fine arts required by this division.

(L) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this section, the board of education of each school district and the governing authority of each chartered nonpublic school may adopt a policy to excuse from the high school physical education requirement each student who, during high school, has participated in interscholastic athletics, marching band, or cheerleading for at least two full seasons or in the junior reserve officer training corps for at least two full school years. If the board or authority adopts such a policy, the board or authority shall not require the student to complete any physical education course as a condition to graduate. However, the student shall be required to complete one-half unit, consisting of at least sixty hours of instruction, in another course of study. In the case of a student who has participated in the junior reserve officer training corps for at least two full school years, credit received for that participation may be used to satisfy the requirement to complete one-half unit in another course of study.

(M) It is important that high school students learn and understand United States history and the governments of both the United States and the state of Ohio. Therefore, beginning with students who enter ninth grade for the first time on or after July 1, 2012, the study of American history and American government required by divisions (B)(6) and (C)(6) of this section shall include the study of all of the following documents:

(1) The Declaration of Independence;

(2) The Northwest Ordinance;

(3) The Constitution of the United States with emphasis on the Bill of Rights;

(4) The Ohio Constitution.

The study of each of the documents prescribed in divisions (M)(1) to (4) of this section shall include study of that document in its original context.

The study of American history and government required by divisions (B)(6) and (C)(6) of this section shall include the historical evidence of the role of documents such as the Federalist Papers and the Anti-Federalist Papers to firmly establish the historical background leading to the establishment of the provisions of the Constitution and Bill of Rights.

Sec. 3313.6015.  (A)(1) Beginning in the 2014-2015 school year, the board of education of each city, local, exempted village, and joint vocational school district shall adopt a policy on career advising that complies with this section. Thereafter, the policy shall be updated at least once every two years.

(2) The board shall make the policy publicly available to students, parents, guardians, or custodians, local post-secondary institutions, and residents of the district. The district shall post the policy in a prominent location on its web site, if it has one.

(B) The policy on career advising shall specify how the district will do all of the following:

(1) Provide students with grade-level examples that link their schoolwork to one or more career fields. A district may use career connections developed under division (B)(2) of section 3301.079 of the Revised Code for this purpose.

(2) Create a plan to provide career advising to students in grades six through twelve;

(3) Provide additional interventions and career advising for students who are identified as at risk of dropping out of school in accordance with division (C) of this section;

(4) Train its employees on how to advise students on career pathways, including training on advising students using online tools;

(5) Develop multiple, clear academic pathways through high school that students may choose in order to earn a high school diploma;

(6) Identify and publicize courses that can award students both traditional academic and career-technical credit;

(7) Document the career advising provided to each student for review by the student, the student's parent, guardian, or custodian, and future schools that the student may attend. A district shall not otherwise release this information without the written consent of the student's parent, guardian, or custodian, if the student is less than eighteen years old, or the written consent of the student, if the student is at least eighteen years old.

(8) Prepare students for their transition from high school to their post-secondary destinations, including any special interventions that are necessary for students in need of remediation in mathematics or English language arts.

(C)(1) Each district shall identify students who are at risk of dropping out of school using a method that is both research-based and locally-based. If a student is identified as at risk of dropping out of school, the district shall develop a student success plan that addresses the student's academic pathway to a successful graduation and the role of career-technical education, competency-based education, and experiential learning, as appropriate, in that pathway.

(2) Prior to developing a student success plan for a student, the district shall invite the student's parent, guardian, or custodian to assist in developing the plan. If the student's parent, guardian, or custodian does not participate in the development of the plan, the district shall provide to the parent, guardian, or custodian a copy of the student's success plan and a statement of the importance of a high school diploma and the academic pathways available to the student in order to successfully graduate.

(3) Following the development of a student success plan for a student, the district shall provide career advising to the student that is aligned with the plan and the district's plan to provide career advising created under division (B)(2) of this section.

(D) Not later than September 30, 2014, the department of education shall develop and post on its web site model policies on career advising and model student success plans.

Sec. 3313.6016.  (A) Beginning in the 2011-2012 school year, the department of education shall administer a pilot program requiring daily physical activity for students. Any school district; community school established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code; science, technology, engineering, and mathematics school established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised Code; or chartered nonpublic school annually may elect to participate in the pilot program by notifying the department of its interest by a date established by the department. If a school district elects to participate in the pilot program, the district shall select one or more school buildings to participate in the program. To the maximum extent possible, the department shall seek to include in the pilot program districts and schools that are located in urban, suburban, and rural areas distributed geographically throughout the state. The department shall administer the pilot program in accordance with this section.

(B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, each district or school participating in the pilot program shall require all students in the school building selected under division (A) of this section to engage in at least thirty minutes of moderate to rigorous physical activity each school day or at least one hundred fifty minutes of moderate to rigorous physical activity each week, exclusive of recess. Physical activity engaged in during the following may count toward the daily requirement:

(1) A physical education course;

(2) A program or activity occurring before or after the regular school day, as defined in section 3313.814 of the Revised Code, that is sponsored or approved by the school of attendance, provided school officials are able to monitor students' participation to ensure compliance with the requirement.

(C) None of the following shall be subject to the requirement of division (B) of this section:

(1) Any student enrolled in the post-secondary enrollment options college credit plus program established under Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code;

(2) Any student enrolled in a career-technical education program operated by the district or school;

(3) Any student enrolled in a dropout prevention and recovery program operated by the district or school.

(D) For any period in which a student is participating in interscholastic athletics, marching band, cheerleading, or a junior reserve officer training corps program, the district or school may excuse the student from the requirement of division (B) of this section.

(E) The district or school may excuse any kindergarten student who is not enrolled in all-day kindergarten, as defined in section 3321.05 of the Revised Code, from the requirement of division (B) of this section.

(F) Each district or school annually shall report to the department, in the manner prescribed by the department, how the district or school implemented the thirty minutes of daily physical activity and the financial costs of implementation. The department shall issue an annual report of the data collected under this division.

Sec. 3313.90.  As used in this section, "formula ADM" has the same meaning as in section 3317.02 of the Revised Code. Notwithstanding division (D) of section 3311.19 and division (D) of section 3311.52 of the Revised Code, the provisions of this section that apply to a city school district do not apply to any joint vocational or cooperative education school district.

(A) Each Except as provided in division (B) of this section, each city, local, and exempted village school district shall, by one of the following means, provide vocational to students enrolled in grades seven through twelve career-technical education adequate to prepare a pupil student enrolled therein for an occupation:

(1) Establishing and maintaining a vocational career-technical education program that meets standards adopted by the state board of education;

(2) Being a member of a joint vocational school district that meets standards adopted by the state board;

(3) Contracting for vocational career-technical education with a joint vocational school district or another school district that meets the standards adopted by the state board.

The standards of the state board of education shall include criteria for the participation by nonpublic students in vocational career-technical education programs without financial assessment, charge, or tuition to such student except such assessments, charges, or tuition paid by resident public school students in such programs. Such nonpublic school students shall be included in the formula ADM of the school district maintaining the vocational career-technical education program as part-time students in proportion to the time spent in the vocational career-technical education program.

By the thirtieth day of October of each year, the superintendent of public instruction shall determine and certify to the superintendent of each school district subject to this section either that the district is in compliance with the requirements of this section for the current school year or that the district is not in compliance. If the superintendent certifies that the district is not in compliance, he shall notify the board of education of the district of the actions necessary to bring the district into compliance with this section.

In meeting standards established by the state board of education, school districts, where practicable, shall provide vocational career-technical education programs in high schools. A minimum enrollment of fifteen hundred pupils students in grades nine through twelve is established as a base for comprehensive vocational career-technical education course offerings. Beginning with the 2014-2015 school year, this base shall increase to a minimum enrollment of two thousand two hundred fifty students in grades seven through twelve. A school district may meet this requirement alone, through a cooperative arrangement pursuant to section 3313.92 of the Revised Code, through school district consolidation, by membership in a joint vocational school district, by contract with a school district, by contract with a school licensed by any state agency established by the Revised Code which school operates its courses offered for contracting with public schools under standards as to staffing and facilities comparable to those prescribed by the state board of education for public schools provided no instructor in such courses shall be required to be certificated by the state department of education, or in a combination of such ways. Exceptions to the minimum requirement of fifteen hundred pupils enrollment prescribed by this section may be made by the state board of education based on sparsity of population or other factors indicating that comprehensive educational and vocational career-technical education programs as required by this section can be provided through an alternate plan.

(B) Approval of state funds for the construction and operation of vocational facilities in any city, local, or exempted village school district shall be contingent upon a comprehensive vocational program plan approved by the state board of education no later than July 1, 1970. The state board of education shall not approve a school district plan unless the plan proposed reasonably meets the vocational needs of other school districts in the general area of the school districts in the general area of the school district submitting the plan. The plan shall be submitted to the state board of education no later than April 1, 1970. Such plan shall contain:

(1) The organization for vocational education pursuant to the requirements of this section;

(2) Vocational programs to be offered in the respective comprehensive high schools, in specialized schools or skill centers, and in joint vocational schools;

(3) Remodeled, additional, and new vocational facilities required at the respective locations.

In approving the organization for vocational education the state board of education shall provide that no city, local, or exempted village school district is excluded in the statewide plan For any particular school year, the board of education of a city, local, or exempted village school district may obtain from the department a waiver from the requirement to provide career-technical education to students enrolled in grades seven and eight by doing both of the following:

(1) Adopting, at a regularly scheduled board meeting, a resolution to request the waiver;

(2) Submitting a copy of the resolution to the department by the thirtieth day of September of the school year for which career-technical education will not be provided to students enrolled in grades seven and eight.

(C)(1) The lead district of a career-technical planning district offering a pre-apprenticeship program may enter into an agreement with a private entity to provide students with the opportunity to begin an apprenticeship program prior to graduating from high school.

(2) Students enrolled in an apprenticeship program pursuant to a lead district's agreement with a private entity under division (C)(1) of this section shall be included in the enrollment of the student's resident district as reported under section 3317.03 of the Revised Code and, where appropriate, in the student count reported under section 3317.03 of the Revised Code for the appropriate career-technical education categories for the portion of the day they attend the apprenticeship program.

Sec. 3313.902.  (A) As used in this section:

(1) "Approved industry credential or certificate" means a credential or certificate that is approved by the chancellor of the Ohio board of regents.

(2) "Eligible institution" means any of the following:

(a) A community college established under Chapter 3354. of the Revised Code;

(b) A technical college established under Chapter 3357. of the Revised Code;

(c) A state community college established under Chapter 3358. of the Revised Code;

(d) An Ohio technical center recognized by the chancellor that provides post-secondary workforce education.

(3) "Eligible student" means an individual who is at least twenty-two years of age and has not received a high school diploma or a certificate of high school equivalence, as defined in section 4109.06 of the Revised Code.

(B) The adult career opportunity pilot program is hereby established to permit an eligible institution to obtain approval from the state board of education and the chancellor to develop and offer a program of study that allows an eligible student to obtain a high school diploma. A program shall be eligible for this approval if it satisfies all of the following requirements:

(1) The program allows an eligible student to complete the requirements for obtaining a high school diploma while completing requirements for an approved industry credential or certificate.

(2) The program includes career advising and outreach.

(3) The program includes opportunities for students to receive a competency-based education.

(C) The superintendent of public instruction, in consultation with the chancellor, shall adopt rules for the implementation of the adult career opportunity pilot program, including the requirements for applying for program approval.

Sec. 3313.91.  Notwithstanding division (D) of section 3311.19 and division (D) of section 3311.52 of the Revised Code, the provisions of this section and section 3313.911 of the Revised Code that apply to a city school district do not apply to any joint vocational or cooperative education school district unless otherwise specified.

The board of education of any city, local, exempted village, or joint vocational school district may contract with any public agency, board, or bureau, or with any private individual or firm for the purchase of any vocational career-technical education or vocational rehabilitation service for any resident of the district under the age of twenty-one years and may pay for such services with public funds. Any Except as provided in division (C) of section 3313.90 of the Revised Code, any such vocational career-technical education or vocational rehabilitation service shall meet the same requirements, including those for teachers, facilities, and equipment, as those required of the public schools and be approved by the state department of education.

The state board of education may assign city, local, or exempted village school districts to joint vocational districts and pursuant to state board rules, shall require such districts to enter into contractual agreements pursuant to section 3313.90 of the Revised Code so that special education students as well as others may receive suitable vocational services. Such rules shall prescribe a formula under which the district that contracts to receive the services agrees to pay an annual fee to the district providing the vocational career-technical education program. The amount of the fee shall be computed in accordance with a formula prescribed by state board rule, but the rule shall permit the superintendent of public instruction to prescribe a lower fee than the amount required to be paid by the formula in cases where he the superintendent determines either that the approved vocational career-technical course offerings of the district that is to pay the fee are of sufficient breadth to warrant a lower annual fee, or that the situation warrants a lower annual fee.

Sec. 3314.08.  (A) As used in this section:

(1)(a) "Category one career-technical education student" means a student who is receiving the career-technical education services described in division (A) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.

(b) "Category two career-technical student" means a student who is receiving the career-technical education services described in division (B) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.

(c) "Category three career-technical student" means a student who is receiving the career-technical education services described in division (C) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.

(d) "Category four career-technical student" means a student who is receiving the career-technical education services described in division (D) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.

(e) "Category five career-technical education student" means a student who is receiving the career-technical education services described in division (E) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.

(2)(a) "Category one limited English proficient student" means a limited English proficient student described in division (A) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code.

(b) "Category two limited English proficient student" means a limited English proficient student described in division (B) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code.

(c) "Category three limited English proficient student" means a limited English proficient student described in division (C) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code.

(3)(a) "Category one special education student" means a student who is receiving special education services for a disability specified in division (A) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.

(b) "Category two special education student" means a student who is receiving special education services for a disability specified in division (B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.

(c) "Category three special education student" means a student who is receiving special education services for a disability specified in division (C) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.