Am. Sub. H. B. No. 483 As Enrolled

SECTION 101.01. That sections 7.10, 7.16, 9.37, 9.482, 9.90, 9.91, 103.41, 103.63, 109.572, 109.5721, 118.27, 121.084, 122.12, 122.121, 122.861, 124.05, 124.32, 125.13, 125.18, 125.182, 126.21, 126.25, 133.06, 133.07, 149.311, 149.38, 153.56, 156.03, 163.15, 163.53, 163.54, 163.55, 164.26, 173.38, 173.391, 173.392, 173.47, 175.04, 175.05, 175.06, 191.01, 306.04, 307.982, 340.01, 340.02, 340.021, 340.03, 340.08, 340.09, 340.15, 341.12, 757.03, 757.04, 757.05, 757.06, 757.07, 757.08, 935.03, 935.12, 955.01, 955.05, 955.06, 1321.535, 1321.55, 1322.03, 1322.031, 1322.04, 1322.041, 1322.051, 1322.06, 1322.063, 1345.06, 1711.50, 1711.53, 1724.10, 1901.08, 2101.026, 2151.417, 2151.421, 2152.19, 2305.09, 2710.06, 2743.191, 2907.28, 2915.08, 2925.61, 2945.402, 3123.89, 3301.03, 3303.41, 3307.01, 3313.372, 3313.617, 3314.08, 3317.01, 3317.02, 3317.0217, 3318.36, 3358.03, 3517.20, 3701.132, 3701.34, 3701.74, 3701.83, 3702.511, 3702.52, 3702.526, 3702.59, 3702.71, 3702.74, 3702.75, 3702.91, 3702.95, 3721.02, 3730.09, 3735.31, 3737.02, 3745.71, 3772.02, 4121.02, 4141.01, 4141.06, 4141.09, 4141.11, 4141.131, 4141.20, 4141.25, 4141.29, 4141.35, 4301.07, 4303.021, 4503.44, 4511.191, 4715.14, 4715.30, 4715.302, 4717.10, 4723.28, 4723.486, 4723.487, 4725.092, 4725.16, 4725.19, 4729.12, 4729.51, 4729.54, 4729.541, 4729.65, 4729.80, 4729.83, 4729.86, 4730.25, 4730.48, 4730.53, 4731.055, 4731.15, 4731.155, 4731.22, 4731.24, 4731.241, 4731.281, 4737.045, 4758.01, 4758.02, 4758.06, 4758.16, 4758.20, 4758.21, 4758.23, 4758.24, 4758.26, 4758.28, 4758.29, 4758.30, 4758.31, 4758.35, 4758.36, 4758.50, 4758.51, 4758.55, 4758.561, 4758.59, 4758.60, 4758.61, 4758.71, 4781.04, 4901.05, 4905.911, 4906.20, 4906.201, 4923.02, 5104.03, 5104.34, 5104.341, 5104.38, 5119.21, 5119.22, 5119.25, 5123.01, 5123.011, 5123.012, 5123.16, 5123.162, 5123.19, 5123.191, 5123.21, 5123.61, 5123.75, 5123.76, 5123.89, 5124.01, 5124.101, 5124.106, 5124.15, 5124.151, 5124.17, 5124.19, 5124.21, 5124.28, 5124.38, 5124.60, 5124.61, 5124.62, 5124.67, 5126.01, 5126.02, 5126.022, 5126.0219, 5126.041, 5126.046, 5126.051, 5126.08, 5126.21, 5126.25, 5126.42, 5126.43, 5126.45, 5139.05, 5139.34, 5139.36, 5139.41, 5153.21, 5153.42, 5164.34, 5165.10, 5165.106, 5165.15, 5165.23, 5165.25, 5165.65, 5165.68, 5513.01, 5531.10, 5533.051, 5703.052, 5703.21, 5705.10, 5709.12, 5709.17, 5709.40, 5713.012, 5727.111, 5739.05, 5739.09, 5747.02, 5747.025, and 5747.71 be amended; Section 323.280 of Am. Sub. H.B. 59 of the 130th General Assembly be amended and codified as section 5165.157 of the Revised Code; and sections 5.077, 9.54, 9.911, 164.261, 173.381, 175.053, 193.01, 193.03, 193.05, 193.07, 193.09, 306.14, 307.678, 307.6910, 307.863, 340.033, 340.034, 340.20, 341.121, 2929.201, 3123.90, 3302.15, 3313.351, 3313.902, 3314.38, 3317.036, 3317.23, 3317.231, 3317.24, 3326.29, 3345.56, 3345.86, 3721.122, 4121.443, 4715.15, 4723.433, 4729.861, 4730.093, 4731.77, 4741.49, 4758.48, 4758.62, 4758.63, 4758.64, 5101.061, 5101.90, 5101.91, 5101.92, 5103.05, 5103.051, 5119.362, 5119.363, 5119.364, 5119.365, 5122.36, 5123.0420, 5139.12, 5139.45, and 5155.28 of the Revised Code be enacted to read as follows:

Sec. 5.077. The museum located on the grounds of the Ohio state reformatory, operated by the Mansfield reformatory preservation society, is the official state penal museum.

Sec. 7.10. For the publication of advertisements, notices, and proclamations, except those relating to proposed amendments to the Ohio Constitution, required to be published by a public officer of the state, a benevolent or other public institution, a trustee, assignee, executor, or administrator, or by or in any court of record, except when the rate is otherwise fixed by law, publishers of newspapers may charge and receive for such advertisements, notices, and proclamations rates charged on annual contracts by them for a like amount of space to other advertisers who advertise in its general display advertising columns.

For the publication of advertisements, notices, or proclamations required to be published by a public officer of a county, municipal corporation, township, school, or other political subdivision, publishers of newspapers shall establish a government rate~~, which shall include free publication of advertisements, notices, or proclamations on the newspaper's internet web site, if the newspaper has one~~. The government rate shall not exceed the lowest classified advertising rate and lowest insert rate paid by other advertisers.

Legal advertising appearing in print, except that relating to proposed amendments to the Ohio Constitution, shall be set up in a compact form, without unnecessary spaces, blanks, or headlines, and printed in not smaller than six-point type. The type used must be of such proportions that the body of the capital letter M is no wider than it is high and all other letters and characters are in proportion.

Except as provided in section 2701.09 of the Revised Code, all legal advertisements or, notices, and proclamations shall be printed in a newspaper of general circulation and shall be posted by the publisher of the newspaper on the newspaper's internet web site, if the newspaper has one. A publisher of a newspaper shall not charge for posting legal advertisements, notices, and proclamations that are required by law to be published in a newspaper of general circulation on the newspaper's internet web site.

(1) "State agency" means any organized body, office, agency, institution, or other entity established by the laws of the state for the exercise of any function of state government, including state institutions of higher education, as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.

(2) "Political subdivision" has the meaning defined in section 2744.01 of the Revised Code.

(B) If a section of the Revised Code or an administrative rule requires a state agency or a political subdivision to publish a notice or advertisement two or more times in a newspaper of general circulation and the section or administrative rule refers to this section, the first publication of the notice or advertisement shall be made in its entirety in a newspaper of general circulation and may be made in a preprinted insert in the newspaper, but the second publication otherwise required by that section or administrative rule may be made in abbreviated form in a newspaper of general circulation in the state or in the political subdivision, as designated in that section or administrative rule, and on the newspaper's internet web site, if the newspaper has one. The state agency or political subdivision may eliminate any further newspaper publications required by that section or administrative rule, provided that the second, abbreviated notice or advertisement meets all of the following requirements:

(1) It is published in the newspaper of general circulation in which the first publication of the notice or advertisement was made ~~and is published on that newspaper's internet web site, if the newspaper has one~~.

(2) It is ~~published~~ posted by the publisher of the newspaper on the ~~state~~ official public notice web site established under section 125.182 of the Revised Code. The publisher shall post the required notice or advertisement on the web site at no additional cost.

(3) It includes a title, followed by a summary paragraph or statement that clearly describes the specific purpose of the notice or advertisement, and includes a statement that the notice or advertisement is posted in its entirety on the ~~state~~ official public notice web site. The notice or advertisement also may be posted on the state agency's or political subdivision's internet web site.

(4) It includes the internet ~~addresses~~ address of the ~~state~~ official public notice web site~~, and of the newspaper's and state agency's or political subdivision's internet web site if the notice or advertisement is posted on those web sites,~~ and the name, address, telephone number, and electronic mail address of the state agency, political subdivision, or other party responsible for publication of the notice or advertisement.

(C) A notice or advertisement published under this section on an internet web site shall be published in its entirety in accordance with the section of the Revised Code or the administrative rule that requires the publication.

(D) If the ~~state~~ official public notice web site established under section 125.182 of the Revised Code is not operational, the state agency or political subdivision shall not publish a notice or advertisement under this section, but instead shall comply with the publication requirements of the section of the Revised Code or the administrative rule that refers to this section.

Sec. 9.37. (A) As used in this section, "public official" means any elected or appointed officer, employee, or agent of the state, any state institution of higher education, any political subdivision, board, commission, bureau, or other public body established by law. "State institution of higher education" means any state university or college as defined in division (A)(1) of section 3345.12 of the Revised Code, community college, state community college, university branch, or technical college.

(B) Except as provided in divisions (F) and (G) of this section, any public official may make by direct deposit of funds by electronic transfer, if the payee provides a written authorization designating a financial institution and an account number to which the payment is to be credited, any payment such public official is permitted or required by law in the performance of official duties to make by issuing a check or warrant.

(C) Such public official may contract with a financial institution for the services necessary to make direct deposits and draw lump-sum checks or warrants payable to that institution in the amount of the payments to be transferred.

(D) Before making any direct deposit as authorized under this section, the public official shall ascertain that the account from which the payment is to be made contains sufficient funds to cover the amount of the payment.

(E) If the issuance of checks and warrants by a public official requires authorization by a governing board, commission, bureau, or other public body having jurisdiction over the public official, the public official may only make direct deposits and contracts under this section pursuant to a resolution of authorization duly adopted by such governing board, commission, bureau, or other public body.

(F) Pursuant to sections 307.55, 319.16, and 321.15 of the Revised Code, a county auditor may issue, and a county treasurer may redeem, electronic warrants authorizing direct deposit for payment of county obligations in accordance with rules adopted by the director of budget and management pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.

(G) The legislative authority of a municipal corporation, for ~~employees~~ public officials of the municipal corporation, a county auditor, for county ~~employees~~ public officials, or a board of township trustees, for township ~~employees~~ public officials, may adopt a direct deposit payroll policy under which all ~~employees~~ public officials of the municipal corporation, all county ~~employees~~ public officials, or all township ~~employees~~ public officials, as the case may be, provide a written authorization designating a financial institution and an account number to which payment of the ~~employee's~~ public official's compensation shall be credited under the municipal corporation's, county's, or township's direct deposit payroll policy. The direct deposit payroll policy adopted by the legislative authority of a municipal corporation, a county auditor, or a board of township trustees may exempt from the direct deposit requirement those municipal, county, or township ~~employees~~ public officials who cannot provide an account number, or for other reasons specified in the policy. The written authorization is not a public record under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.

(1) "Political subdivision" has the meaning defined in section 2744.01 of the Revised Code.

(2) "State agency" means any organized body, office, agency, institution, or other entity established by the laws of the state for the exercise of any function of state government. The term includes a state institution of higher education as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.

(B)(1) When legally authorized ~~by their respective legislative authorities~~ to do so, a political subdivision may enter into an agreement with another political subdivision or a state agency whereby a the contracting political subdivision or state agency agrees to exercise any power, perform any function, or render any service for ~~another~~ the contracting recipient political subdivision that the contracting recipient political subdivision is otherwise legally authorized to exercise, perform, or render.

In (2) When legally authorized to do so, a state agency may enter into an agreement with a political subdivision whereby the contracting political subdivision agrees to exercise any power, perform any function, or render any service for the contracting recipient state agency that the contracting recipient state agency is otherwise legally authorized to exercise, perform, or render.

(C) In the absence in the agreement of provisions determining by what officer, office, department, agency, or other authority the powers and duties of a contracting political subdivision shall be exercised or performed, the legislative authority of the contracting political subdivision shall determine and assign the powers and duties.

An agreement shall not suspend the possession by a contracting recipient political subdivision or state agency of any power or function that is exercised or performed on its behalf by ~~another~~ the other contracting political subdivision or the contracting state agency under the agreement.

A political subdivision shall not enter into an agreement to levy any tax or to exercise, with regard to public moneys, any investment powers, perform any investment function, or render any investment service on behalf of a contracting subdivision. Nothing in this paragraph prohibits a political subdivision from entering into an agreement to collect, administer, or enforce any tax on behalf of another political subdivision or to limit the authority of political subdivisions to create and operate joint economic development zones or joint economic development districts as provided in sections 715.69 to 715.83 of the Revised Code.

~~(C)~~(D) No county elected officer may be required to exercise any power, perform any function, or render any service under an agreement entered into under this section without the written consent of the county elected officer. No county may enter into an agreement under this section for the exercise, performance, or rendering of any statutory powers, functions, or services of any county elected officer without the written consent of the county elected officer.

~~(D)~~(E) No power shall be exercised, no function shall be performed, and no service shall be rendered by a contracting political subdivision or state agency pursuant to an agreement entered into under this section within a political subdivision that is not a party to the agreement, without first obtaining the written consent of the political subdivision that is not a party to the agreement and within which the power is to be exercised, a function is to be performed, or a service is to be rendered.

~~(E)~~(F) Chapter 2744. of the Revised Code, insofar as it applies to the operation of a political subdivision, applies to the political subdivisions that are parties to an agreement and to their employees when they are rendering a service outside the boundaries of their employing political subdivision under the agreement. Employees acting outside the boundaries of their employing political subdivision while providing a service under an agreement may participate in any pension or indemnity fund established by the political subdivision to the same extent as while they are acting within the boundaries of the political subdivision, and are entitled to all the rights and benefits of Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code to the same extent as while they are performing a service within the boundaries of the political subdivision.

Sec. 9.54. Whoever erects or replaces a sign containing the international symbol of access shall use forms of the word "accessible" rather than forms of the words "handicapped" or "disabled" whenever words are included on the sign.

Sec. 9.90. (A) The board of trustees or other governing body of a state institution of higher education, as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, board of education of a school district, or governing board of an educational service center may, in addition to all other powers provided in the Revised Code:

(1) Contract for, purchase, or otherwise procure from an insurer or insurers licensed to do business by the state of Ohio for or on behalf of such of its employees as it may determine, life insurance, or sickness, accident, annuity, endowment, health, medical, hospital, dental, or surgical coverage and benefits, or any combination thereof, by means of insurance plans or other types of coverage, family, group or otherwise, and may pay from funds under its control and available for such purpose all or any portion of the cost, premium, or charge for such insurance, coverage, or benefits. However, the governing board, in addition to or as an alternative to the authority otherwise granted by division (A)(1) of this section, may elect to procure coverage for health care services, for or on behalf of such of its employees as it may determine, by means of policies, contracts, certificates, or agreements issued by at least two health insuring corporations holding a certificate of authority under Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code and may pay from funds under the governing board's control and available for such purpose all or any portion of the cost of such coverage.

(2) Make payments to a custodial account for investment in regulated investment company stock ~~for the purpose of providing retirement benefits as described in section 403(b)(7) of the~~ that is treated as an annuity under Internal Revenue Code ~~of 1954, as amended. Such stock shall be purchased only from persons authorized to sell such stock in this state~~ section 403(b).

Any income of an employee deferred under divisions (A)(1) and (2) of this section in a deferred compensation program eligible for favorable tax treatment under the Internal Revenue Code ~~of 1954, as amended,~~ shall continue to be included as regular compensation for the purpose of computing the contributions to and benefits from the retirement system of such employee. Any sum so deferred shall not be included in the computation of any federal and state income taxes withheld on behalf of any such employee.

(B) All or any portion of the cost, premium, or charge therefor may be paid in such other manner or combination of manners as the board or governing body may determine, including direct payment by the employee in cases under division (A)(1) of this section, and, if authorized in writing by the employee in cases under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section, by the board or governing body with moneys made available by deduction from or reduction in salary or wages or by the foregoing of a salary or wage increase. Nothing in section 3917.01 or section 3917.06 of the Revised Code shall prohibit the issuance or purchase of group life insurance authorized by this section by reason of payment of premiums therefor by the board or governing body from its funds, and such group life insurance may be so issued and purchased if otherwise consistent with the provisions of sections 3917.01 to 3917.07 of the Revised Code.

(C) The board of education of any school district may exercise any of the powers granted to the governing boards of public institutions of higher education under divisions (A) and (B) of this section. All health care benefits provided to persons employed by the public schools of this state shall be through health care plans that contain best practices established by the department of administrative services pursuant to section 9.901 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 9.91. If ~~the governing board of a public institution of higher education or~~ the board of education of a school district procures a tax-sheltered annuity for an employee, pursuant to section 9.90 of the Revised Code, that meets the requirements of ~~section 403(b) of the~~ Internal Revenue Code ~~of 1954, 26 U.S.C.A.~~ section 403(b), the employee has the right to designate the licensed agent, broker, or company through whom the board shall arrange for the placement or purchase of the tax-sheltered annuity. In any case in which the employee has designated such an agent, broker, or company, the board shall comply with the designation, provided that the board may impose either or both of the following as conditions to complying with any such designations:

(A) The designee must execute a reasonable agreement protecting the institution or district from any liability attendant to procuring the annuity;

(B) The designee must be designated by a number of employees equal to at least one per cent of the board's full-time employees or at least five employees, whichever is greater, except that the board may not require that the agent, broker, or company be designated by more than fifty employees.

Sec. 9.911. (A) An annuity contract or custodial account procured for an employee of a public institution of higher education pursuant to section 9.90 of the Revised Code shall comply with both of the following:

(1) The annuity contract or custodial account must meet the requirements of Internal Revenue Code section 403(b).

(2) The institution, in its sole and absolute discretion, shall arrange for the procurement of the annuity contract or custodial account by doing one of the following:

(a) Selecting a minimum of four providers of annuity contracts or custodial accounts through a selection process determined by the institution in its sole and absolute discretion, except that if fewer than four providers are available the institution shall select the number of providers available.

(b) Subject to division (D) of this section, allowing each eligible employee to designate a licensed agent, broker, or company as a provider.

(B) Division (A)(2)(a) of this section does not require a public institution of higher education to select a provider if either of the following is the case:

(1) The provider is not willing to provide an annuity contract or custodial account at that public institution.

(2) The provider is not willing to agree to the terms and conditions of the agreement described in division (E) of this section.

(C) Designation as a provider under section 9.90 of the Revised Code prior to the effective date of this section does not give a licensed agent, broker, or company a right to be selected as a provider under this section, but subject to division (D) of this section, such a licensed agent, broker, or company shall remain a provider until another provider is selected under division (A)(2) of this section.

(D) If an employee designates a provider under division (A)(2)(b) of this section, the employing institution shall comply with the designation but may require either or both of the following:

(1) That the provider enter into an agreement with the institution that does either or both of the following:

(a) Prohibits the provider from transferring funds to a third party without the express consent of the institution or its authorized representative;

(b) Includes such other terms and conditions as are established by the institution in its sole discretion.

(2) That the provider be designated by a number of employees equal to at least one per cent of the institution's eligible employees or at least five employees, whichever is greater, except that the institution may not require that the provider be designated by more than fifty employees.

(E) An institution may require a provider selected under division (A)(2)(a) of this section to enter into an agreement with the institution that does either or both of the following:

(1) Prohibits the provider from transferring funds to a third party without the express consent of the institution or its authorized representative;

(2) Includes such other terms and conditions as are established by the institution in its sole discretion.

(1) "JMOC" means the joint medicaid oversight committee created under this section.

(c) Each state agency and political subdivision with which the department of medicaid contracts under section 5162.35 of the Revised Code to have the state agency or political subdivision administer one or more components of the medicaid program, or one or more aspects of a component, under the department's supervision;

(d) Each agency of a political subdivision that is responsible for administering one or more components of the medicaid program, or one or more aspects of a component, under the supervision of the department or a state agency or political subdivision described in division (A)(2)(c) of this section.

(B) There is hereby created the joint medicaid oversight committee. JMOC shall consist of the following members:

(1) Five members of the senate appointed by the president of the senate, three of whom are members of the majority party and two of whom are members of the minority party;

(2) Five members of the house of representatives appointed by the speaker of the house of representatives, three of whom are members of the majority party and two of whom are members of the minority party.

(C) The term of each JMOC member shall begin on the day of appointment to JMOC and end on the last day that the member serves in the house (in the case of a member appointed by the speaker) or senate (in the case of a member appointed by the president) during the general assembly for which the member is appointed to JMOC. The president and speaker shall make the initial appointments not later than fifteen days after ~~the effective date of this section~~ March 20, 2014. However, if this section takes effect before January 1, 2014, the president and speaker shall make the initial appointments during the period beginning January 1, 2014, and ending January 15, 2014. The president and speaker shall make subsequent appointments not later than fifteen days after the commencement of the first regular session of each general assembly. JMOC members may be reappointed. A vacancy on JMOC shall be filled in the same manner as the original appointment.

(D) In odd-numbered years, the speaker shall designate one of the majority members from the house as the JMOC chairperson and the president shall designate one of the minority members from the senate as the JMOC ranking minority member. In even-numbered years, the president shall designate one of the majority members from the senate as the JMOC chairperson and the speaker shall designate one of the minority members from the house as the JMOC ranking minority member.

(E) In appointing members from the minority, and in designating ranking minority members, the president and speaker shall consult with the minority leader of their respective houses.

(F) JMOC shall meet at the call of the JMOC chairperson. The chairperson shall call JMOC to meet not less often than once each calendar month, unless the chairperson and ranking minority member agree that the chairperson should not call JMOC to meet for a particular month.

(G) Notwithstanding section 101.26 of the Revised Code, the members, when engaged in their duties as members of JMOC on days when there is not a voting session of the member's house of the general assembly, shall be paid at the per diem rate of one hundred fifty dollars, and their necessary traveling expenses, which shall be paid from the funds appropriated for the payment of expenses of legislative committees.

(H) JMOC may employ professional, technical, and clerical employees as are necessary for JMOC to be able successfully and efficiently to perform its duties. All such employees are in the unclassified service and serve at JMOC's pleasure. JMOC may contract for the services of persons who are qualified by education and experience to advise, consult with, or otherwise assist JMOC in the performance of its duties.

~~(H)~~(I) The JMOC chairperson, when authorized by JMOC and the president and speaker, may issue subpoenas and subpoenas duces tecum in aid of JMOC's performance of its duties. A subpoena may require a witness in any part of the state to appear before JMOC at a time and place designated in the subpoena to testify. A subpoena duces tecum may require witnesses or other persons in any part of the state to produce books, papers, records, and other tangible evidence before JMOC at a time and place designated in the subpoena duces tecum. A subpoena or subpoena duces tecum shall be issued, served, and returned, and has consequences, as specified in sections 101.41 to 101.45 of the Revised Code.

~~(I)~~(J) The JMOC chairperson may administer oaths to witnesses appearing before JMOC.

Sec. 103.63. There is established an Ohio constitutional modernization commission consisting of thirty-two members. Twelve members shall be appointed from the general assembly as follows: three by the president of the senate, three by the minority leader of the senate, three by the speaker of the house of representatives, and three by the minority leader of the house of representatives. ~~Not later than~~ On or before the tenth day of January ~~1, 2012, and~~ every ~~two years thereafter~~ even-numbered year, the twelve general assembly members shall meet, organize, and elect two co-chairpersons, who shall be from different political parties. Beginning in 2014, the twelve general assembly members shall elect one co-chairperson from each house of the general assembly. The members shall then, by majority vote, appoint twenty commission members, not from the general assembly. All appointments shall end on the first day of January of every even-numbered year, or as soon thereafter as successors are appointed, and the commission shall then be re-created in the manner provided above. Members may be reappointed. Vacancies on the commission shall be filled in the manner provided for original appointments.

The members of the commission shall serve without compensation, but each member shall be reimbursed for actual and necessary expenses incurred while engaging in the performance of the member's official duties. Membership on the commission does not constitute holding another public office. The joint legislative ethics committee is the appropriate ethics commission as described in division (F) of section 102.01 of the Revised Code for matters relating to the public members appointed to the Ohio constitutional modernization commission.

Sec. 109.572. (A)(1) Upon receipt of a request pursuant to section 121.08, 3301.32, 3301.541, or 3319.39 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:

(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of the Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the violation been committed prior to that date, or a violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a minor drug possession offense;

(b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(1)(a) of this section;

(c) If the request is made pursuant to section 3319.39 of the Revised Code for an applicant who is a teacher, any offense specified in section 3319.31 of the Revised Code.

(2) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 3712.09 or 3721.121 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check with respect to any person who has applied for employment in a position for which a criminal records check is required by those sections. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:

(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;

(b) An existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(2)(a) of this section.

(3) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 173.27, 173.38, 173.381, 3701.881, 5164.34, 5164.341, 5164.342, 5123.081, or 5123.169 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check of the person for whom the request is made. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of, has pleaded guilty to, or (except in the case of a request pursuant to section 5164.34, 5164.341, or 5164.342 of the Revised Code) has been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for any of the following, regardless of the date of the conviction, the date of entry of the guilty plea, or (except in the case of a request pursuant to section 5164.34, 5164.341, or 5164.342 of the Revised Code) the date the person was found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction:

(a) A violation of section 959.13, 959.131, 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.15, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2903.341, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2905.32, 2905.33, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.24, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2907.33, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.04, 2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.05, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 2913.40, 2913.41, 2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 2913.441, 2913.45, 2913.46, 2913.47, 2913.48, 2913.49, 2913.51, 2917.01, 2917.02, 2917.03, 2917.31, 2919.12, 2919.121, 2919.123, 2919.22, 2919.23, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.03, 2921.11, 2921.12, 2921.13, 2921.21, 2921.24, 2921.32, 2921.321, 2921.34, 2921.35, 2921.36, 2921.51, 2923.12, 2923.122, 2923.123, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2923.162, 2923.21, 2923.32, 2923.42, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.041, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2925.09, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.14, 2925.141, 2925.22, 2925.23, 2925.24, 2925.36, 2925.55, 2925.56, 2927.12, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;

(b) Felonious sexual penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;

(d) A violation of section 2923.01, 2923.02, or 2923.03 of the Revised Code when the underlying offense that is the object of the conspiracy, attempt, or complicity is one of the offenses listed in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (c) of this section;

(e) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (d) of this section.

(4) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 2151.86 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:

(a) A violation of section 959.13, 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.15, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2913.49, 2917.01, 2917.02, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2927.12, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of the Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the violation been committed prior to that date, a violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a minor drug possession offense, two or more OVI or OVUAC violations committed within the three years immediately preceding the submission of the application or petition that is the basis of the request, or felonious sexual penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;

(b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(4)(a) of this section.

(5) Upon receipt of a request pursuant to section 5104.012 or 5104.013 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:

(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.041, 2913.05, 2913.06, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 2913.33, 2913.34, 2913.40, 2913.41, 2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 2913.441, 2913.45, 2913.46, 2913.47, 2913.48, 2913.49, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.11, 2921.13, 2923.01, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of the Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the violation been committed prior to that date, a violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a minor drug possession offense, a violation of section 2923.02 or 2923.03 of the Revised Code that relates to a crime specified in this division, or a second violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code within five years of the date of application for licensure or certification.

(b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses or violations described in division (A)(5)(a) of this section.

(6) Upon receipt of a request pursuant to section 5153.111 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:

(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of the Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the violation been committed prior to that date, or a violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a minor drug possession offense;

(b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(6)(a) of this section.

(7) On receipt of a request for a criminal records check from an individual pursuant to section 4749.03 or 4749.06 of the Revised Code, accompanied by a completed copy of the form prescribed in division (C)(1) of this section and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in a manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists indicating that the person who is the subject of the request has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a felony in this state or in any other state. If the individual indicates that a firearm will be carried in the course of business, the superintendent shall require information from the federal bureau of investigation as described in division (B)(2) of this section. Subject to division (F) of this section, the superintendent shall report the findings of the criminal records check and any information the federal bureau of investigation provides to the director of public safety.

(8) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 1321.37, 1321.53, 1321.531, 1322.03, 1322.031, or 4763.05 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check with respect to any person who has applied for a license, permit, or certification from the department of commerce or a division in the department. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following: a violation of section 2913.02, 2913.11, 2913.31, 2913.51, or 2925.03 of the Revised Code; any other criminal offense involving theft, receiving stolen property, embezzlement, forgery, fraud, passing bad checks, money laundering, or drug trafficking, or any criminal offense involving money or securities, as set forth in Chapters 2909., 2911., 2913., 2915., 2921., 2923., and 2925. of the Revised Code; or any existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to those offenses.

(9) On receipt of a request for a criminal records check from the treasurer of state under section 113.041 of the Revised Code or from an individual under section 4701.08, 4715.101, 4717.061, 4725.121, 4725.501, 4729.071, 4730.101, 4730.14, 4730.28, 4731.081, 4731.15, 4731.171, 4731.222, 4731.281, 4731.296, 4731.531, 4732.091, 4734.202, 4740.061, 4741.10, 4755.70, 4757.101, 4759.061, 4760.032, 4760.06, 4761.051, 4762.031, 4762.06, 4776.021, 4779.091, or 4783.04 of the Revised Code, accompanied by a completed form prescribed under division (C)(1) of this section and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any criminal offense in this state or any other state. Subject to division (F) of this section, the superintendent shall send the results of a check requested under section 113.041 of the Revised Code to the treasurer of state and shall send the results of a check requested under any of the other listed sections to the licensing board specified by the individual in the request.

(10) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 1121.23, 1155.03, 1163.05, 1315.141, 1733.47, or 1761.26 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any criminal offense under any existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States.

(11) On receipt of a request for a criminal records check from an appointing or licensing authority under section 3772.07 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed under division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner prescribed in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty or no contest to any offense under any existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is a disqualifying offense as defined in section 3772.07 of the Revised Code or substantially equivalent to such an offense.

(12) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 2151.33 or 2151.412 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check with respect to any person for whom a criminal records check is required by that section. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:

(b) An existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(12)(a) of this section.

(B) Subject to division (F) of this section, the superintendent shall conduct any criminal records check to be conducted under this section as follows:

(1) The superintendent shall review or cause to be reviewed any relevant information gathered and compiled by the bureau under division (A) of section 109.57 of the Revised Code that relates to the person who is the subject of the criminal records check, including, if the criminal records check was requested under section 113.041, 121.08, 173.27, 173.38, 173.381, 1121.23, 1155.03, 1163.05, 1315.141, 1321.37, 1321.53, 1321.531, 1322.03, 1322.031, 1733.47, 1761.26, 2151.86, 3301.32, 3301.541, 3319.39, 3701.881, 3712.09, 3721.121, 3772.07, 4749.03, 4749.06, 4763.05, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5164.34, 5164.341, 5164.342, 5123.081, 5123.169, or 5153.111 of the Revised Code, any relevant information contained in records that have been sealed under section 2953.32 of the Revised Code;

(2) If the request received by the superintendent asks for information from the federal bureau of investigation, the superintendent shall request from the federal bureau of investigation any information it has with respect to the person who is the subject of the criminal records check, including fingerprint-based checks of national crime information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 671 if the request is made pursuant to section 2151.86, 5104.012, or 5104.013 of the Revised Code or if any other Revised Code section requires fingerprint-based checks of that nature, and shall review or cause to be reviewed any information the superintendent receives from that bureau. If a request under section 3319.39 of the Revised Code asks only for information from the federal bureau of investigation, the superintendent shall not conduct the review prescribed by division (B)(1) of this section.

(3) The superintendent or the superintendent's designee may request criminal history records from other states or the federal government pursuant to the national crime prevention and privacy compact set forth in section 109.571 of the Revised Code.

(4) The superintendent shall include in the results of the criminal records check a list or description of the offenses listed or described in division (A)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), (9), (10), (11), or (12) of this section, whichever division requires the superintendent to conduct the criminal records check. The superintendent shall exclude from the results any information the dissemination of which is prohibited by federal law.

(5) The superintendent shall send the results of the criminal records check to the person to whom it is to be sent not later than the following number of days after the date the superintendent receives the request for the criminal records check, the completed form prescribed under division (C)(1) of this section, and the set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section:

(a) If the superintendent is required by division (A) of this section (other than division (A)(3) of this section) to conduct the criminal records check, thirty;

(b) If the superintendent is required by division (A)(3) of this section to conduct the criminal records check, sixty.

(C)(1) The superintendent shall prescribe a form to obtain the information necessary to conduct a criminal records check from any person for whom a criminal records check is to be conducted under this section. The form that the superintendent prescribes pursuant to this division may be in a tangible format, in an electronic format, or in both tangible and electronic formats.

(2) The superintendent shall prescribe standard impression sheets to obtain the fingerprint impressions of any person for whom a criminal records check is to be conducted under this section. Any person for whom a records check is to be conducted under this section shall obtain the fingerprint impressions at a county sheriff's office, municipal police department, or any other entity with the ability to make fingerprint impressions on the standard impression sheets prescribed by the superintendent. The office, department, or entity may charge the person a reasonable fee for making the impressions. The standard impression sheets the superintendent prescribes pursuant to this division may be in a tangible format, in an electronic format, or in both tangible and electronic formats.

(3) Subject to division (D) of this section, the superintendent shall prescribe and charge a reasonable fee for providing a criminal records check under this section. The person requesting the criminal records check shall pay the fee prescribed pursuant to this division. In the case of a request under section 1121.23, 1155.03, 1163.05, 1315.141, 1733.47, 1761.26, 2151.33, 2151.412, or 5164.34 of the Revised Code, the fee shall be paid in the manner specified in that section.

(4) The superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation may prescribe methods of forwarding fingerprint impressions and information necessary to conduct a criminal records check, which methods shall include, but not be limited to, an electronic method.

(D) The results of a criminal records check conducted under this section, other than a criminal records check specified in division (A)(7) of this section, are valid for the person who is the subject of the criminal records check for a period of one year from the date upon which the superintendent completes the criminal records check. If during that period the superintendent receives another request for a criminal records check to be conducted under this section for that person, the superintendent shall provide the results from the previous criminal records check of the person at a lower fee than the fee prescribed for the initial criminal records check.

(E) When the superintendent receives a request for information from a registered private provider, the superintendent shall proceed as if the request was received from a school district board of education under section 3319.39 of the Revised Code. The superintendent shall apply division (A)(1)(c) of this section to any such request for an applicant who is a teacher.

(F)(1) All information regarding the results of a criminal records check conducted under this section that the superintendent reports or sends under division (A)(7) or (9) of this section to the director of public safety, the treasurer of state, or the person, board, or entity that made the request for the criminal records check shall relate to the conviction of the subject person, or the subject person's plea of guilty to, a criminal offense.

(2) Division (F)(1) of this section does not limit, restrict, or preclude the superintendent's release of information that relates to an adjudication of a child as a delinquent child, or that relates to a criminal conviction of a person under eighteen years of age if the person's case was transferred back to a juvenile court under division (B)(2) or (3) of section 2152.121 of the Revised Code and the juvenile court imposed a disposition or serious youthful offender disposition upon the person under either division, if either of the following applies with respect to the adjudication or conviction:

(a) The adjudication or conviction was for a violation of section 2903.01 or 2903.02 of the Revised Code.

(b) The adjudication or conviction was for a sexually oriented offense, as defined in section 2950.01 of the Revised Code, the juvenile court was required to classify the child a juvenile offender registrant for that offense under section 2152.82, 2152.83, or 2152.86 of the Revised Code, and that classification has not been removed.

(1) "Criminal records check" means any criminal records check conducted by the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation in accordance with division (B) of this section.

(2) "Minor drug possession offense" has the same meaning as in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.

(3) "OVI or OVUAC violation" means a violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or a violation of an existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to section 4511.19 of the Revised Code.

(4) "Registered private provider" means a nonpublic school or entity registered with the superintendent of public instruction under section 3310.41 of the Revised Code to participate in the autism scholarship program or section 3310.58 of the Revised Code to participate in the Jon Peterson special needs scholarship program.

(2) "Licensure" means the authorization, evidenced by a license, certificate, registration, permit, or other authority that is issued or conferred by a public office, to engage in a profession, occupation, or occupational activity, to be a foster caregiver, or to have control of and operate certain specific equipment, machinery, or premises over which a public office has jurisdiction.

(3) "Participating public office" means a public office that requires a fingerprint background check as a condition of employment with, licensure by, or approval for adoption by the public office and that elects to receive notice under division (C) of this section in accordance with rules adopted by the attorney general.

(4) "Public office" has the same meaning as in section 117.01 of the Revised Code.

(5) "Participating private party" means any person or private entity that is allowed to request a criminal records check pursuant to divisions (A)(2) or (3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code.

(B) Within six months after August 15, 2007, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall establish and maintain a database of fingerprints of individuals on whom the bureau has conducted criminal records checks for the purpose of determining eligibility for employment with, licensure by, or approval for adoption by a public office or participating private party. The superintendent shall maintain the database separate and apart from other records maintained by the bureau. The database shall be known as the retained applicant fingerprint database.

(C) When the superintendent receives information that an individual whose name is in the retained applicant fingerprint database has been arrested for, convicted of, or pleaded guilty to any offense, the superintendent shall promptly notify any participating public office or participating private party that employs, licensed, or approved the individual of the arrest, conviction, or guilty plea. The public office or participating private party that receives the notification and its employees and officers shall use the information contained in the notification solely to determine the individual's eligibility for continued employment with the public office or participating private party, to retain licensure issued by the public office, or to be approved for adoption by the public office. The public office or participating private party and its employees and officers shall not disclose that information to any person for any other purpose.

(D) If an individual has submitted fingerprint impressions for employment with, licensure by, or approval for adoption by a participating public office or participating private party and seeks employment with, licensure by, or approval for adoption by another participating public office or participating private party, the other public office or participating private party shall reprint the individual. If an individual has been reprinted, the superintendent shall update that individual's information accordingly.

(E) The bureau of criminal identification and investigation and the participating public office or participating private party shall use information contained in the retained applicant fingerprint database and in the notice described in division (C) of this section for the purpose of employment with, licensure by, or approval for adoption by the participating public office or participating private party. This information is otherwise confidential and not a public record under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.

(F) The attorney general shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code governing the operation and maintenance of the database. The rules shall provide for, but not be limited to, both of the following:

(1) The expungement or sealing of records of individuals who are deceased or who are no longer employed, granted licensure, or approved for adoption by the public office or participating private party that required submission of the individual's fingerprints;

(2) The terms under which a public office or participating private party may elect to receive notification under division (C) of this section, including payment of any reasonable fee that may be charged for the purpose.

(G) No public office or employee of a public office shall be considered negligent in a civil action solely because the public office did not elect to be a participating public office.

(H)(1) No person shall knowingly use information contained in or received from the retained applicant fingerprint database for purposes not authorized by this section.

(2) No person shall knowingly use information contained in or received from the retained applicant fingerprint database with the intent to harass or intimidate another person.

(3) Whoever violates division (H)(1) or (H)(2) of this section is guilty of unlawful use of retained applicant fingerprint database records. A violation of division (H)(1) of this section is a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. A violation of division (H)(2) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree.

Sec. 118.27. (A) A financial planning and supervision commission with respect to a municipal corporation, county, or township, and its functions under this chapter, shall continue in existence until such time as a determination is made pursuant to division (B) of this section ~~that~~ of one of the following:

(1) In the case of a village, the village has dissolved under section 118.31, 703.20, or 703.201 of the Revised Code.

(2) In the case of a township, the township has dissolved under section 118.31 of the Revised Code.

(3) In the case of a municipal corporation, county, or township, the municipal corporation, county, or township has done all of the following:

~~(1)~~(a) Planned, and is in the process of good faith implementation of, an effective financial accounting and reporting system in accordance with section 118.10 of the Revised Code, and it is reasonably expected that such implementation will be completed within two years;

~~(2)~~(b) Corrected and eliminated or has planned and is in the process of good faith implementation of correcting and eliminating all of the fiscal emergency conditions determined pursuant to section 118.04 of the Revised Code, and no new fiscal emergency conditions have occurred. The auditor of state shall monitor the progress of the municipal corporation, county, or township in its plan of good faith implementation of correcting and eliminating all the fiscal emergency conditions. This monitoring is to secure full implementation at the earliest time feasible but within two years from such termination. If after a two-year period, the municipal corporation, county, or township has failed to secure full implementation, the auditor of state may redeclare the municipal corporation, county, or township to be in a fiscal emergency.

~~(3)~~(c) Met the objectives of the financial plan described in section 118.06 of the Revised Code;

~~(4)~~(d) The municipal corporation, county, or township prepares a financial forecast for a five-year period in accordance with the standards issued by the auditor of state. An opinion must be rendered by the auditor of state that the financial forecast is considered to be nonadverse.

(B) The determination that ~~all of such~~ the conditions for the termination of the existence of the commission and its functions exist may be made either by the auditor of state or by the commission and shall be certified to the commission, the auditor of state, the governor, and the budget commission, whereupon such commission and its functions under this chapter shall terminate. Such determination shall be made by the auditor of state upon the filing with the auditor of state of a written request for such determination by the municipal corporation, county, or township, the governor, or the commission, or may be made by the auditor of state upon the auditor of state's own initiative.

(C) The commission shall prepare and submit with such certification a final report of its activities, in such form as is appropriate for the purpose of providing a record of its activities and assisting other commissions created under this chapter in the conduct of their functions. All of the books and records of the commission shall be delivered to the auditor of state for retention and safekeeping.

(D) Upon receipt of the certification provided for in division (B) of this section, the director shall follow the procedures set forth in section 126.29 of the Revised Code.

(E) If, at the time of termination of the commission, an effective financial accounting and reporting system has not been fully implemented, the auditor of state shall monitor the progress of implementation and shall exercise authority under Chapter 117. and section 118.10 of the Revised Code to secure full implementation at the earliest time feasible but within two years from such termination.

Sec. 121.084. (A) All moneys collected under sections 3783.05, 3791.07, 4104.07, 4104.18, 4104.44, 4105.17, 4105.20, 4169.03, ~~4171.04,~~ and 5104.051 of the Revised Code, and any other moneys collected by the division of industrial compliance shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the industrial compliance operating fund, which is hereby created. The department of commerce shall use the moneys in the fund for paying the operating expenses of the division and the administrative assessment described in division (B) of this section.

(B) The director of commerce, with the approval of the director of budget and management, shall prescribe procedures for assessing the industrial compliance operating fund a proportionate share of the administrative costs of the department of commerce. The assessment shall be made in accordance with those procedures and be paid from the industrial compliance operating fund to the division of administration fund created in section 121.08 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 122.12. As used in this section and in section 122.121 of the Revised Code:

(A) "Endorsing county" means a county that contains a site selected by a site selection organization for one or more games.

(B) "Endorsing municipality" means a municipal corporation that contains a site selected by a site selection organization for one or more games.

(C) "Game support contract" means a joinder undertaking, joinder agreement, or similar contract executed by an endorsing municipality or endorsing county and a site selection organization.

(D)(1) "Game" means a national or international competition of football, auto racing, rugby, cricket, horse racing, mixed martial arts, boxing, or any sport that is governed by an international federation and included in at least one of the following:

(E) "Joinder agreement" means an agreement entered into by a local organizing committee, endorsing municipality, or endorsing county, or more than one endorsing municipality or county acting collectively and a site selection organization setting out representations and assurances by each endorsing municipality or endorsing county in connection with the selection of a site in this state for the location of a game.

(F) "Joinder undertaking" means an agreement entered into by a local organizing committee, endorsing municipality, or endorsing county, or more than one endorsing municipality or county acting collectively and a site selection organization that each endorsing municipality or endorsing county will execute a joinder agreement in the event that the site selection organization selects a site in this state for a game.

(G) "Local organizing committee" means a nonprofit corporation or its successor in interest that:

(1) Has been authorized by an endorsing municipality, endorsing county, or more than one endorsing municipality or county acting collectively to pursue an application and bid on the applicant's behalf to a site selection organization for selection as the site of one or more games; or

(2) With the authorization of an endorsing municipality, endorsing county, or more than one endorsing municipality or county acting collectively, has executed an agreement with a site selection organization regarding a bid to host one or more games.

(H) "Site selection organization" means the national or international governing body of a sport that is recognized as such by the endorsing municipality, endorsing county, or local organizing committee.

Sec. 122.121. (A) If a local organizing committee, endorsing municipality, or endorsing county enters into a joinder undertaking with a site selection organization, the local organizing committee, endorsing municipality, or endorsing county may apply to the director of development services, on a form and in the manner prescribed by the director, for a grant based on the projected incremental increase in the receipts from the tax imposed under section 5739.02 of the Revised Code within the market area designated under division (C) of this section, for the two-week period that ends at the end of the day after the date on which a game will be held, that is directly attributable, as determined by the director, to the preparation for and presentation of the game. The director shall determine the projected incremental increase in the tax imposed under section 5739.02 of the Revised Code by using a formula approved by the destination marketing association international for event impact or another formula of similar purpose approved by the director. The local organizing committee, endorsing municipality, or endorsing county is eligible to receive a grant under this section only if the projected incremental increase in receipts from the tax imposed under section 5739.02 of the Revised Code, as determined by the director, exceeds two hundred fifty thousand dollars. The amount of the grant shall be not less than fifty per cent of the projected incremental increase in receipts, as determined by the director, but shall not exceed five hundred thousand dollars. The director shall not issue grants with a total value of more than one million dollars in any fiscal year, and shall not issue any grant before July 1, 2013.

(B) If the director of development services approves an application for a local organizing committee, endorsing municipality, or endorsing county and that local organizing committee, endorsing municipality, or endorsing county enters into a joinder agreement with a site selection organization, the local organizing committee, endorsing municipality, or endorsing county shall file a copy of the joinder agreement with the director of development, who immediately shall notify the director of budget and management of the filing. Within thirty days after receiving the notice, the director of budget and management shall establish a schedule to disburse from the general revenue fund to such local organizing committee, endorsing municipality, or endorsing county payments that total the amount certified by the director of development under division (A) of this section, but in no event shall the total amount disbursed exceed five hundred thousand dollars, and no disbursement shall be made before July 1, 2013. The ~~payments~~ grant shall be used exclusively by the local organizing committee, endorsing municipality, or endorsing county to fulfill a portion of its obligations to a site selection organization under game support contracts, which obligations may include the payment of costs relating to the preparations necessary for the conduct of the game, including acquiring, renovating, or constructing facilities; to pay the costs of conducting the game; and to assist the local organizing committee, endorsing municipality, or endorsing county in providing assurances required by a site selection organization sponsoring one or more games.

(C) For the purposes of division (A) of this section, the director of development services, in consultation with the tax commissioner, shall designate the market area for a game. The market area shall consist of the combined statistical area, as defined by the United States office of management and budget, in which an endorsing municipality or endorsing county is located.

(D) A local organizing committee, endorsing municipality, or endorsing county shall provide information required by the director of development services and tax commissioner to enable the director and commissioner to fulfill their duties under this section, including annual audited statements of any financial records required by a site selection organization and data obtained by the local organizing committee, endorsing municipality, or endorsing county relating to attendance at a game and to the economic impact of the game. A local organizing committee, an endorsing municipality, or an endorsing county shall provide an annual audited financial statement if so required by the director and commissioner, not later than the end of the fourth month after the date the period covered by the financial statement ends.

(E) Within thirty days after the game, the local organizing committee, endorsing municipality, or endorsing county shall report to the director of development services about the economic impact of the game. The report shall be in the form and substance required by the director, including, but not limited to, a final income statement for the event showing total revenue and expenditures and revenue and expenditures in the market area for the game, and ticket sales for the game and any related activities for which admission was charged. The director ~~of development~~ shall determine, based on the reported information and the exercise of reasonable judgment, the incremental increase in receipts from the tax imposed under section 5739.02 of the Revised Code directly attributable to the game. If the actual incremental increase in such receipts is less than the projected incremental increase in receipts, the director may require the local organizing committee, endorsing municipality, or endorsing county to refund to the state all or a portion of the grant.

(F) No disbursement may be made under this section if the director of development services determines that it would be used for the purpose of soliciting the relocation of a professional sports franchise located in this state.

(G) This section may not be construed as creating or requiring a state guarantee of obligations imposed on an endorsing municipality or endorsing county under a game support contract or any other agreement relating to hosting one or more games in this state.

(1) "Certified engine configuration" means a new, rebuilt, or remanufactured engine configuration that satisfies divisions (A)(1)(a) and (b) and, if applicable, division (A)(1)(c) of this section:

(a) It has been certified by the administrator of the United States environmental protection agency or the California air resources board.

(b) It meets or is rebuilt or remanufactured to a more stringent set of engine emission standards than when originally manufactured, as determined pursuant to Subtitle G of Title VII of the Energy Policy Act of 2005, Pub. L. No. 109-58, 119 Stat. 838, et seq.

(c) In the case of a certified engine configuration involving the replacement of an existing engine, an engine configuration that replaced an engine that was removed from the vehicle and returned to the supplier for remanufacturing to a more stringent set of engine emissions standards or for scrappage.

(2) "Section 793" means section 793 of the Energy Policy Act of 2005, Pub. L. No. 109-58, 119 Stat. 841, et seq.

(3) "Verified technology" means a pollution control technology, including a retrofit technology, advanced truckstop electrification system, or auxiliary power unit, that has been verified by the administrator of the United States environmental protection agency or the California air resources board.

(B) For the purpose of reducing emissions from diesel engines, the director of environmental protection shall administer a diesel emissions reduction grant program and a ~~diesel emissions reduction revolving loan~~ clean diesel school bus program. The programs shall provide for the implementation in this state of section 793 and shall otherwise be administered in compliance with the requirements of section 793, and any regulations issued pursuant to that section.

The director shall apply to the administrator of the United States environmental protection agency for grant or loan funds available under section 793 to help fund the diesel emissions reduction grant program and the ~~diesel emissions reduction revolving loan~~ clean diesel school bus program.

(C) There is hereby created in the state treasury the diesel emissions reduction revolving loan fund consisting of money appropriated to it by the general assembly, any grants obtained from the federal government under section 793, and any other grants, gifts, or other contributions of money made to the credit of the fund. Money in the fund shall be used for the purpose of making loans for projects relating to certified engine configurations and verified technologies in a manner consistent with the requirements of section 793 and any regulations issued pursuant to that section. Interest earned from moneys in the fund shall be used to administer the diesel emissions reduction revolving loan program.

Sec. 124.05. The state personnel board of review shall be composed of three members, not more than two of whom shall be affiliated with the same political party, to be appointed by the governor with the advice and consent of the senate. Terms of office shall be for six years, commencing on the ninth day of February and ending on the eighth day of February, except that upon expiration of the term ending February 11, 1975, the new term which succeeds it shall commence on February 12, 1975 and end on February 8, 1981; and upon expiration of the term ending February 12, 1979, the new term which succeeds it shall commence on February 13, 1979 and end on February 8, 1985. Each member shall hold office from the date of ~~his~~ appointment until the end of the term for which he the member was appointed.

A vacancy in the office of a member of the board shall be filled pursuant to section 3.03 of the Revised Code. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy prior to the expiration of the term for which ~~his~~ the member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the remainder of such term. Any member shall continue in office subsequent to the expiration date of ~~his~~ the member's term until ~~his~~ a successor takes office, or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, whichever occurs first.

Each member of the board, before entering upon the duties of ~~his~~ office, shall take and subscribe an oath of office and give bond as provided in section 121.11 of the Revised Code.

Any member of the board may be removed from office for any of the causes and in the manner provided in section 3.04 of the Revised Code.

No member of the board shall hold any other office of trust or profit under the government of the United States, the state, or any political subdivision thereof.

Each member of the board shall devote whatever time is necessary to the duties of this office and shall hold no other office ~~or position~~ of ~~public~~ trust or profit. Each member of the board shall receive a salary fixed pursuant to section 124.14 of the Revised Code, payable in the same manner as the salaries of other state officers, and shall be reimbursed for ~~his~~ actual expenses incurred in the performance of ~~his~~ official duties.

The governor, at the time of making the original appointment of the members of the board and at the time of making the appointment of any member for a full term thereafter, shall designate one of the members as ~~chairman~~ chairperson. A quorum of the board is a majority of its members and no action of the board is valid without the concurrence of at least a majority of its members.

(A) A federal or state elective office or an elected office of a political subdivision of the state;

(B) A position on a board or commission of the state that is appointed by the governor;

(D) An office of the government of the United States that is appointed by the president of the United States.

Sec. 124.32. (A) A person holding an office or position in the classified service may be transferred to a similar position in another office, department, or institution having the same pay and similar duties, but no transfer shall be made as follows:

(1) From an office or position in one class to an office or position in another class;

(2) To an office or position for original entrance to which there is required by sections 124.01 to 124.64 of the Revised Code, or the rules adopted pursuant to those sections, an examination involving essential tests or qualifications or carrying a salary different from or higher than those required for original entrance to an office or position held by the person proposed to be transferred.

No person in the classified civil service of the state may be transferred without the consent of the director of administrative services.

(B) Any person holding an office or position in the classified service who has been separated from the service without delinquency or misconduct on the person's part may be reinstated within one year from the date of that separation to a vacancy in the same office or in a similar position in the same department, except that a person in the classified service of the state only may be reinstated with the consent of the director of administrative services. But, if that separation is due to injury or physical or psychiatric disability, the person shall be reinstated in the same office held or in a similar position to that held at the time of separation, within ~~thirty~~ sixty days after written application for reinstatement, if the person passes a physical or psychiatric examination made by a licensed physician, a physician assistant, a clinical nurse specialist, a certified nurse practitioner, or a certified nurse-midwife showing that the person has recovered from the injury or physical or psychiatric disability, if the application for reinstatement is filed within two years from the date of separation, and if the application is not filed after the date of service eligibility retirement. The physician, physician assistant, clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse practitioner, or certified nurse-midwife shall be designated by the appointing authority and shall complete any written documentation of the physical or psychiatric examination.

(1) "Emergency medical service organization" has the same meaning as in section 4765.01 of the Revised Code.

(2) "Private fire company" has the same meaning as in section 9.60 of the Revised Code.

(B) Except as otherwise provided in section 5139.03 of the Revised Code, whenever a state agency determines that it has excess or surplus supplies, it shall notify the director of administrative services. Upon request by the director and on forms provided by the director, the state agency shall furnish to the director a list of all those excess and surplus supplies and an appraisal of their value.

(C) The director of administrative services shall take immediate control of a state agency's excess and surplus supplies, except for the following excess and surplus supplies:

(1) Excess or surplus supplies that have a value below the minimum value that the director establishes for excess and surplus supplies under division (F) of this section;

(2) Excess or surplus supplies that the director has authorized an agency to donate to a public entity, including, but not limited to, public schools and surplus computers and computer equipment transferred to a public school under division (H) of this section;

(3) Excess or surplus supplies that an agency trades in as full or partial payment when purchasing a replacement item;

(D) The director shall inventory excess and surplus supplies in the director's control and may have the supplies repaired.

(1) Dispose of declared surplus or excess supplies in the director's control by sale, lease, donation, or transfer. If the director does so, the director shall dispose of those supplies in the following order of priority:

(c) To tax-supported agencies, municipal corporations, or other political subdivisions of this state, private fire companies, or private, nonprofit emergency medical service organizations;

(d) To nonpublic elementary and secondary schools chartered by the state board of education under section 3301.16 of the Revised Code;

(2) If the director has attempted to dispose of any declared surplus or excess motor vehicle that does not exceed four thousand five hundred dollars in value pursuant to divisions (E)(1)(a) to (c) of this section, donate the motor vehicle to a nonprofit organization exempt from federal income taxation pursuant to 26 U.S.C. 501(a) and (c)(3) for the purpose of meeting the transportation needs of participants in the Ohio works first program established under Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code and participants in the prevention, retention, and contingency program established under Chapter 5108. of the Revised Code. The director may not donate a motor vehicle furnished to the state highway patrol to a nonprofit organization pursuant to this division.

(F) The director may adopt rules governing the sale, lease, or transfer of surplus and excess supplies in the director's control by public auction, sealed bid, sale, or negotiation, except that no employee of the disposing agency shall be allowed to purchase, lease, or receive any such supplies. The director may dispose of declared surplus or excess supplies, including motor vehicles, in the director's control as the director determines proper if such supplies cannot be disposed of pursuant to division (E) of this section. The director shall by rule establish a minimum value for excess and surplus supplies and prescribe procedures for a state agency to follow in disposing of excess and surplus supplies in its control that have a value below the minimum value established by the director.

(G) No state-supported or state-assisted institution of higher education, tax-supported agency, municipal corporation, or other political subdivision of this state, private fire company, or private, nonprofit emergency medical service organization shall sell, lease, or transfer excess or surplus supplies acquired under this section to private entities or the general public at a price greater than the price it originally paid for those supplies.

(H) The director of administrative services may authorize any state agency to transfer surplus computers and computer equipment that are not needed by other state agencies directly to an accredited public school within the state. The computers and computer equipment may be repaired or refurbished prior to transfer. The state agency may charge a service fee to the public schools for the property not to exceed the direct cost of repairing or refurbishing it. The state agency shall deposit such funds into the account used for repair or refurbishment.

Sec. 125.18. (A) There is hereby established the office of information technology within the department of administrative services. The office shall be under the supervision of a state chief information officer to be appointed by the director of administrative services and subject to removal at the pleasure of the director. The chief information officer is an assistant director of administrative services.

(B) Under the direction of the director of administrative services, the state chief information officer shall lead, oversee, and direct state agency activities related to information technology development and use. In that regard, the state chief information officer shall do all of the following:

(1) Coordinate and superintend statewide efforts to promote common use and development of technology by state agencies. The office of information technology shall establish policies and standards that govern and direct state agency participation in statewide programs and initiatives.

(2) Establish policies and standards for the acquisition and use of common information technology by state agencies, including, but not limited to, hardware, software, technology services, and security, and the extension of the service life of information technology systems, with which state agencies shall comply;

(3) Establish criteria and review processes to identify state agency information technology projects or purchases that require alignment or oversight. As appropriate, the department of administrative services shall provide the governor and the director of budget and management with notice and advice regarding the appropriate allocation of resources for those projects. The state chief information officer may require state agencies to provide, and may prescribe the form and manner by which they must provide, information to fulfill the state chief information officer's alignment and oversight role;

(4) Establish policies and procedures for the security of personal information that is maintained and destroyed by state agencies;

(5) Employ a chief information security officer who is responsible for the implementation of the policies and procedures described in division (B)(4) of this section and for coordinating the implementation of those policies and procedures in all of the state agencies;

(6) Employ a chief privacy officer who is responsible for advising state agencies when establishing policies and procedures for the security of personal information and developing education and training programs regarding the state's security procedures;

(7) Establish policies on the purchasing, use, and reimbursement for use of handheld computing and telecommunications devices by state agency employees;

(8) Establish policies for the reduction of printing and the use of electronic records by state agencies;

(9) Establish policies for the reduction of energy consumption by state agencies;

(10) Compute the amount of revenue attributable to the amortization of all equipment purchases and capitalized systems from information technology service delivery and major information technology purchases operating appropriation items and major computer purchases capital appropriation items that is recovered as part of the information technology services rates the department of administrative services charges and deposits into the information technology fund created in section 125.15 of the Revised Code;

(11) Regularly review and make recommendations regarding improving the infrastructure of the state's cybersecurity operations with existing resources and through partnerships between government, business, and institutions of higher education;

(12) Assist, as needed, with general state efforts to grow the cybersecurity industry in this state.

(C)(1) The chief information security officer shall assist each state agency with the development of an information technology security strategic plan and review that plan, and each state agency shall submit that plan to the state chief information officer. The chief information security officer may require that each state agency update its information technology security strategic plan annually as determined by the state chief information officer.

(2) Prior to the implementation of any information technology data system, a state agency shall prepare or have prepared a privacy impact statement for that system.

(D) When a state agency requests a purchase of information technology supplies or services under Chapter 125. of the Revised Code, the state chief information officer may review and reject the requested purchase for noncompliance with information technology direction, plans, policies, standards, or project-alignment criteria.

(E) The office of information technology may operate technology services for state agencies in accordance with this chapter.

(F) With the approval of the director of administrative services, the office of information technology may establish cooperative agreements with federal and local government agencies and state agencies that are not under the authority of the governor for the provision of technology services and the development of technology projects.

(G) The office of information technology may operate a program to make information technology purchases. The director of administrative services may recover the cost of operating the program from all participating government entities by issuing intrastate transfer voucher billings for the procured technology or through any pass-through billing method agreed to by the director of administrative services, the director of budget and management, and the participating government entities that will receive the procured technology.

If the director of administrative services chooses to recover the program costs through intrastate transfer voucher billings, the participating government entities shall process the intrastate transfer vouchers to pay for the cost. Amounts received under this section for the information technology purchase program shall be deposited to the credit of the information technology governance fund created in section 125.15 of the Revised Code.

(H) Upon request from the director of administrative services, the director of budget and management may transfer cash from the information technology fund created in section 125.15 of the Revised Code to the major information technology purchases fund in an amount not to exceed the amount computed under division (B)(10) of this section. The major information technology purchases fund is hereby created in the state treasury.

(1) "Personal information" has the same meaning as in section 149.45 of the Revised Code.

(2) "State agency" means every organized body, office, or agency established by the laws of the state for the exercise of any function of state government, other than any state-supported institution of higher education, the office of the auditor of state, treasurer of state, secretary of state, or attorney general, the adjutant general's department, the bureau of workers' compensation, the industrial commission, the public employees retirement system, the Ohio police and fire pension fund, the state teachers retirement system, the school employees retirement system, the state highway patrol retirement system, the general assembly or any legislative agency, the capitol square review advisory board, or the courts or any judicial agency.

Sec. 125.182. ~~The office of information technology, by itself or by contract with another entity,~~ (A) An Ohio trade association that represents the majority of newspapers of general circulation as defined in section 7.12 of the Revised Code shall ~~establish,~~ operate, and maintain ~~a state~~ the official public notice web site. ~~In establishing, maintaining, and operating the state public notice web site, the office of information technology~~

Not later than one hundred eighty days after the effective date of this section, in all cases in which a notice or advertisement is required by a section of the Revised Code or an administrative rule to be published in a newspaper of general circulation, or in a daily law journal as required by section 2701.09 of the Revised Code, the notice or advertisement also shall be posted on the official public notice web site by the publisher of the newspaper or journal.

~~(A)~~(1) Use a domain name for the web site that will be easily recognizable and remembered by and understandable to users of the web site;

~~(B)~~(2) Maintain the web site on the internet so that it is fully accessible to and searchable by members of the public at all times, other than during maintenance or acts of God outside the operator's control;

~~(C)~~(3) Not charge a fee to a person ~~who~~ that accesses, the web site to view notices or advertisements or to perform searches~~, or otherwise uses~~ of the web site, provided that the operator may charge a fee for enhanced search and customized content delivery features;

~~(D)~~(4) Not charge a fee to a state agency or political subdivision for publishing a notice or advertisement on the web site;

~~(E)~~(5) Ensure that notices and advertisements displayed on the web site conform to the requirements that would apply to the notices and advertisements if they were being published in a newspaper, as directed in section 7.16 of the Revised Code or in the relevant provision of the statute or rule that requires the notice;

~~(F)~~(6) Ensure that notices and advertisements continue to be displayed on the web site for not less than the length of time required by the relevant provision of the statute or rule that requires the notice or advertisement;

~~(G) Devise and display on the web site a form that may be downloaded and used to request publication of a notice on the web site;~~

~~(H) Enable responsible parties to submit notices and requests for their publication;~~

~~(I)~~(7) Maintain an archive of notices and advertisements that no longer are displayed on the web site;

~~(J)~~(8) Enable notices and advertisements, both those currently displayed and those archived, to be accessed by key word, by party name, by case number, by county, and by other useful identifiers;

~~(K)~~(9) Maintain adequate systemic security and backup features, and develop and maintain a contingency plan for coping with and recovering from power outages, systemic failures, and other unforeseeable difficulties;

(L) Maintain the web site in such a manner that it will not infringe legally protected interests, so that vulnerability of the web site to interruption because of litigation or the threat of litigation is reduced; and

~~(M) Submit a status report to the secretary of state twice annually that demonstrates compliance with statutory requirements governing publication of notices.~~

~~The office of information technology shall bear the expense of maintaining the state public notice web site domain name~~ (10) Provide access to the web site to the publisher of any Ohio newspaper or daily law journal that qualifies under the Revised Code to publish notices and advertisements, for the posting of notices and advertisements at no cost, or for a reasonable, uniform fee for the service; and

(11) Provide, if requested, a regularly scheduled feed or similar data transfer to the department of administrative services of notices and advertisements posted on the web site, provided that the operator of the web site shall not be required to provide the feed or transfer more often than once every business day.

(B) An error in a notice or advertisement posted on the official public notice web site, or a temporary web site outage or service interruption preventing the posting or display of a notice or advertisement on that web site, does not constitute a defect in making legal publication of the notice or advertisement, and publication requirements shall be considered met if the notice or advertisement published in the newspaper or daily law journal is correct.

(C) The official public notice web site shall not contain any political publications or political advertising described in division (A)(1)(a), (b), or (c) of section 3517.20 of the Revised Code.

(D) The publisher of a newspaper of general circulation or of a daily law journal that maintains a web site shall include on its web site a link to the official public notice web site.

Sec. 126.21. (A) The director of budget and management shall do all of the following:

(2) Prescribe and maintain the accounting system of the state and establish appropriate accounting procedures and charts of accounts;

(3) Establish procedures for the use of written, electronic, optical, or other communications media for approving and reviewing payment vouchers;

(4) Reconcile, in the case of any variation between the amount of any appropriation and the aggregate amount of items of the appropriation, with the advice and assistance of the state agency affected by it and the legislative service commission, totals so as to correspond in the aggregate with the total appropriation. In the case of a conflict between the item and the total of which it is a part, the item shall be considered the intended appropriation.

(5) Evaluate on an ongoing basis and, if necessary, recommend improvements to the internal controls used in state agencies;

(6) Authorize the establishment of petty cash accounts. The director may withdraw approval for any petty cash account and require the officer in charge to return to the state treasury any unexpended balance shown by the officer's accounts to be on hand. Any officer who is issued a warrant for petty cash shall render a detailed account of the expenditures of the petty cash and shall report when requested the balance of petty cash on hand at any time.

(7) Process orders, invoices, vouchers, claims, and payrolls and prepare financial reports and statements;

(8) Perform extensions, reviews, and compliance checks prior to or after approving a payment as the director considers necessary;

(9) Issue the official comprehensive annual financial report of the state. The report shall cover all funds of the state reporting entity and shall include basic financial statements and required supplementary information prepared in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles and other information as the director provides. All state agencies, authorities, institutions, offices, retirement systems, and other component units of the state reporting entity as determined by the director shall furnish the director whatever financial statements and other information the director requests for the report, in the form, at the times, covering the periods, and with the attestation the director prescribes. The information for state institutions of higher education, as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, shall be submitted to the chancellor by the Ohio board of regents. The board shall establish a due date by which each such institution shall submit the information to the board, but no such date shall be later than one hundred twenty days after the end of the state fiscal year unless a later date is approved by the director.

(B) In addition to the director's duties under division (A) of this section, the director may establish and administer one or more ~~state~~ payment card programs that permit ~~or require~~ state agencies and political subdivisions to use a payment card to purchase equipment, materials, supplies, or services in accordance with guidelines issued by the director. The chief administrative officer of a state agency or political subdivision that uses a payment card for such purposes shall ensure that purchases made with the card are made in accordance with the guidelines issued by the director ~~and do not exceed the unexpended, unencumbered, unobligated balance in the appropriation to be charged for the purchase~~. State agencies may participate in only those ~~state~~ payment card programs that the director establishes pursuant to this section.

(C) In addition to the director's duties under divisions (A) and (B) of this section, the director may enter into any contract or agreement necessary for and incidental to the performance of the director's duties or the duties of the office of budget and management.

(D) In addition to the director's duties under divisions (A), (B), and (C) of this section, the director may operate a shared services center within the office of budget and management for the purpose of consolidating common business functions and transactional processes. The services offered by the shared services center may be provided to any state agency or political subdivision. In consultation with the director of administrative services, the director may appoint and fix the compensation of employees of the office ~~of budget and management~~ whose primary duties include the consolidation of ~~statewide financing~~ common business functions and ~~common~~ transactional processes.

(E) The director may transfer cash between funds other than the general revenue fund in order to correct an erroneous payment or deposit regardless of the fiscal year during which the erroneous payment or deposit occurred.

(1) "Political subdivision" has the same meaning as in section 2744.01 of the Revised Code.

(2) "State agency" has the same meaning as in section 9.482 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 126.25. The ~~accounting and budgeting~~ services provided by the director of budget and management under section 126.21 of the Revised Code shall be supported by ~~user~~ charges. The director shall determine a rate that is sufficient to defray the expense of those services and the manner by which those charges shall be collected. All money collected from ~~user~~ the charges shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the accounting and budgeting fund, which is hereby created. Rebates or revenue shares received from any ~~state~~ payment card program established under division (B) of section 126.21 of the Revised Code and miscellaneous payments that reimburse expenses paid from the accounting and budgeting fund may be deposited into the accounting and budgeting fund and used to support ~~accounting and budgeting~~ the services provided by the director.

Sec. 133.06. (A) A school district shall not incur, without a vote of the electors, net indebtedness that exceeds an amount equal to one-tenth of one per cent of its tax valuation, except as provided in divisions (G) and (H) of this section and in division ~~(C)~~(D) of section 3313.372 of the Revised Code, or as prescribed in section 3318.052 or 3318.44 of the Revised Code, or as provided in division (J) of this section.

(B) Except as provided in divisions (E), (F), and (I) of this section, a school district shall not incur net indebtedness that exceeds an amount equal to nine per cent of its tax valuation.

(C) A school district shall not submit to a vote of the electors the question of the issuance of securities in an amount that will make the district's net indebtedness after the issuance of the securities exceed an amount equal to four per cent of its tax valuation, unless the superintendent of public instruction, acting under policies adopted by the state board of education, and the tax commissioner, acting under written policies of the commissioner, consent to the submission. A request for the consents shall be made at least one hundred twenty days prior to the election at which the question is to be submitted.

The superintendent of public instruction shall certify to the district the superintendent's and the tax commissioner's decisions within thirty days after receipt of the request for consents.

If the electors do not approve the issuance of securities at the election for which the superintendent of public instruction and tax commissioner consented to the submission of the question, the school district may submit the same question to the electors on the date that the next special election may be held under section 3501.01 of the Revised Code without submitting a new request for consent. If the school district seeks to submit the same question at any other subsequent election, the district shall first submit a new request for consent in accordance with this division.

(D) In calculating the net indebtedness of a school district, none of the following shall be considered:

(1) Securities issued to acquire school buses and other equipment used in transporting pupils or issued pursuant to division (D) of section 133.10 of the Revised Code;

(2) Securities issued under division (F) of this section, under section 133.301 of the Revised Code, and, to the extent in excess of the limitation stated in division (B) of this section, under division (E) of this section;

(3) Indebtedness resulting from the dissolution of a joint vocational school district under section 3311.217 of the Revised Code, evidenced by outstanding securities of that joint vocational school district;

(4) Loans, evidenced by any securities, received under sections 3313.483, 3317.0210, and 3317.0211 of the Revised Code;

(6) Debt incurred pursuant to division (B)(5) of section 3313.37 of the Revised Code to acquire computers and related hardware;

(E) A school district may become a special needs district as to certain securities as provided in division (E) of this section.

(1) A board of education, by resolution, may declare its school district to be a special needs district by determining both of the following:

(a) The student population is not being adequately serviced by the existing permanent improvements of the district.

(b) The district cannot obtain sufficient funds by the issuance of securities within the limitation of division (B) of this section to provide additional or improved needed permanent improvements in time to meet the needs.

(2) The board of education shall certify a copy of that resolution to the superintendent of public instruction with a statistical report showing all of the following:

(3) The superintendent of public instruction shall certify the district as an approved special needs district if the superintendent finds both of the following:

(a) The district does not have available sufficient additional funds from state or federal sources to meet the projected needs.

(b) The projection of the potential average growth of tax valuation during the next five years, according to the information certified to the superintendent and any other information the superintendent obtains, indicates a likelihood of potential average growth of tax valuation of the district during the next five years of an average of not less than one and one-half per cent per year. The findings and certification of the superintendent shall be conclusive.

(4) An approved special needs district may incur net indebtedness by the issuance of securities in accordance with the provisions of this chapter in an amount that does not exceed an amount equal to the greater of the following:

(a) Twelve per cent of the sum of its tax valuation plus an amount that is the product of multiplying that tax valuation by the percentage by which the tax valuation has increased over the tax valuation on the first day of the sixtieth month preceding the month in which its board determines to submit to the electors the question of issuing the proposed securities;

(b) Twelve per cent of the sum of its tax valuation plus an amount that is the product of multiplying that tax valuation by the percentage, determined by the superintendent of public instruction, by which that tax valuation is projected to increase during the next ten years.

(F) A school district may issue securities for emergency purposes, in a principal amount that does not exceed an amount equal to three per cent of its tax valuation, as provided in this division.

(1) A board of education, by resolution, may declare an emergency if it determines both of the following:

(a) School buildings or other necessary school facilities in the district have been wholly or partially destroyed, or condemned by a constituted public authority, or that such buildings or facilities are partially constructed, or so constructed or planned as to require additions and improvements to them before the buildings or facilities are usable for their intended purpose, or that corrections to permanent improvements are necessary to remove or prevent health or safety hazards.

(b) Existing fiscal and net indebtedness limitations make adequate replacement, additions, or improvements impossible.

(2) Upon the declaration of an emergency, the board of education may, by resolution, submit to the electors of the district pursuant to section 133.18 of the Revised Code the question of issuing securities for the purpose of paying the cost, in excess of any insurance or condemnation proceeds received by the district, of permanent improvements to respond to the emergency need.

(3) The procedures for the election shall be as provided in section 133.18 of the Revised Code, except that:

(a) The form of the ballot shall describe the emergency existing, refer to this division as the authority under which the emergency is declared, and state that the amount of the proposed securities exceeds the limitations prescribed by division (B) of this section;

(b) The resolution required by division (B) of section 133.18 of the Revised Code shall be certified to the county auditor and the board of elections at least one hundred days prior to the election;

(c) The county auditor shall advise and, not later than ninety-five days before the election, confirm that advice by certification to, the board of education of the information required by division (C) of section 133.18 of the Revised Code;

(d) The board of education shall then certify its resolution and the information required by division (D) of section 133.18 of the Revised Code to the board of elections not less than ninety days prior to the election.

(4) Notwithstanding division (B) of section 133.21 of the Revised Code, the first principal payment of securities issued under this division may be set at any date not later than sixty months after the earliest possible principal payment otherwise provided for in that division.

(G)(1) The board of education may contract with an architect, professional engineer, or other person experienced in the design and implementation of energy conservation measures for an analysis and recommendations pertaining to installations, modifications of installations, or remodeling that would significantly reduce energy consumption in buildings owned by the district. The report shall include estimates of all costs of such installations, modifications, or remodeling, including costs of design, engineering, installation, maintenance, repairs, and debt service, forgone residual value of materials or equipment replaced by the energy conservation measure, as defined by the Ohio school facilities commission, a baseline analysis of actual energy consumption data for the preceding three years with the utility baseline based on only the actual energy consumption data for the preceding twelve months, and estimates of the amounts by which energy consumption and resultant operational and maintenance costs, as defined by the commission, would be reduced.

If the board finds after receiving the report that the amount of money the district would spend on such installations, modifications, or remodeling is not likely to exceed the amount of money it would save in energy and resultant operational and maintenance costs over the ensuing fifteen years, the board may submit to the commission a copy of its findings and a request for approval to incur indebtedness to finance the making or modification of installations or the remodeling of buildings for the purpose of significantly reducing energy consumption.

The school facilities commission, in consultation with the auditor of state, may deny a request under this division by the board of education any school district is in a state of fiscal watch pursuant to division (A) of section 3316.03 of the Revised Code, if it determines that the expenditure of funds is not in the best interest of the school district.

No district board of education of a school district that is in a state of fiscal emergency pursuant to division (B) of section 3316.03 of the Revised Code shall submit a request without submitting evidence that the installations, modifications, or remodeling have been approved by the district's financial planning and supervision commission established under section 3316.05 of the Revised Code.

No board of education of a school district that, for three or more consecutive years, has been declared to be in a state of academic emergency under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code, as that section existed prior to March 22, 2013, and has failed to meet adequate yearly progress, or has met any condition set forth in division (A)(2), (3), or (4) of section 3302.10 of the Revised Code shall submit a request without first receiving approval to incur indebtedness from the district's academic distress commission established under that section, for so long as such commission continues to be required for the district.

(2) The school facilities commission shall approve the board's request provided that the following conditions are satisfied:

(c) The installations, modifications, or remodeling are consistent with any project to construct or acquire classroom facilities, or to reconstruct or make additions to existing classroom facilities under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 or sections 3318.40 to 3318.45 of the Revised Code.

Upon receipt of the commission's approval, the district may issue securities without a vote of the electors in a principal amount not to exceed nine-tenths of one per cent of its tax valuation for the purpose of making such installations, modifications, or remodeling, but the total net indebtedness of the district without a vote of the electors incurred under this and all other sections of the Revised Code, except section 3318.052 of the Revised Code, shall not exceed one per cent of the district's tax valuation.

(3) So long as any securities issued under this division remain outstanding, the board of education shall monitor the energy consumption and resultant operational and maintenance costs of buildings in which installations or modifications have been made or remodeling has been done pursuant to this division and shall maintain and annually update a report documenting the reductions in energy consumption and resultant operational and maintenance cost savings attributable to such installations, modifications, or remodeling. The report shall be certified by an architect or engineer independent of any person that provided goods or services to the board in connection with the energy conservation measures that are the subject of the report. The resultant operational and maintenance cost savings shall be certified by the school district treasurer. The report shall be submitted annually to the commission.

(H) With the consent of the superintendent of public instruction, a school district may incur without a vote of the electors net indebtedness that exceeds the amounts stated in divisions (A) and (G) of this section for the purpose of paying costs of permanent improvements, if and to the extent that both of the following conditions are satisfied:

(1) The fiscal officer of the school district estimates that receipts of the school district from payments made under or pursuant to agreements entered into pursuant to section 725.02, 1728.10, 3735.671, 5709.081, 5709.082, 5709.40, 5709.41, 5709.62, 5709.63, 5709.632, 5709.73, 5709.78, or 5709.82 of the Revised Code, or distributions under division (C) of section 5709.43 of the Revised Code, or any combination thereof, are, after accounting for any appropriate coverage requirements, sufficient in time and amount, and are committed by the proceedings, to pay the debt charges on the securities issued to evidence that indebtedness and payable from those receipts, and the taxing authority of the district confirms the fiscal officer's estimate, which confirmation is approved by the superintendent of public instruction;

(2) The fiscal officer of the school district certifies, and the taxing authority of the district confirms, that the district, at the time of the certification and confirmation, reasonably expects to have sufficient revenue available for the purpose of operating such permanent improvements for their intended purpose upon acquisition or completion thereof, and the superintendent of public instruction approves the taxing authority's confirmation.

The maximum maturity of securities issued under division (H) of this section shall be the lesser of twenty years or the maximum maturity calculated under section 133.20 of the Revised Code.

(I) A school district may incur net indebtedness by the issuance of securities in accordance with the provisions of this chapter in excess of the limit specified in division (B) or (C) of this section when necessary to raise the school district portion of the basic project cost and any additional funds necessary to participate in a project under Chapter 3318. of the Revised Code, including the cost of items designated by the Ohio school facilities commission as required locally funded initiatives, the cost of other locally funded initiatives in an amount that does not exceed fifty per cent of the district's portion of the basic project cost, and the cost for site acquisition. The school facilities commission shall notify the superintendent of public instruction whenever a school district will exceed either limit pursuant to this division.

(J) A school district whose portion of the basic project cost of its classroom facilities project under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code is greater than or equal to one hundred million dollars may incur without a vote of the electors net indebtedness in an amount up to two per cent of its tax valuation through the issuance of general obligation securities in order to generate all or part of the amount of its portion of the basic project cost if the controlling board has approved the school facilities commission's conditional approval of the project under section 3318.04 of the Revised Code. The school district board and the Ohio school facilities commission shall include the dedication of the proceeds of such securities in the agreement entered into under section 3318.08 of the Revised Code. No state moneys shall be released for a project to which this section applies until the proceeds of any bonds issued under this section that are dedicated for the payment of the school district portion of the project are first deposited into the school district's project construction fund.

Sec. 133.07. (A) A county shall not incur, without a vote of the electors, either of the following:

(1) Net indebtedness for all purposes that exceeds an amount equal to one per cent of its tax valuation;

(2) Net indebtedness for the purpose of paying the county's share of the cost of the construction, improvement, maintenance, or repair of state highways that exceeds an amount equal to one-half of one per cent of its tax valuation.

(B) A county shall not incur total net indebtedness that exceeds an amount equal to one of the following limitations that applies to the county:

(1) A county with a valuation not exceeding one hundred million dollars, three per cent of that tax valuation;

(2) A county with a tax valuation exceeding one hundred million dollars but not exceeding three hundred million dollars, three million dollars plus one and one-half per cent of that tax valuation in excess of one hundred million dollars;

(3) A county with a tax valuation exceeding three hundred million dollars, six million dollars plus two and one-half per cent of that tax valuation in excess of three hundred million dollars.

(2) Self-supporting securities issued for any purposes, including, but not limited to, any of the following general purposes:

(b) Sanitary sewerage systems or facilities, or surface and storm water drainage and sewerage systems or facilities, or a combination of those systems or facilities;

(c) County or joint county scrap tire collection, storage, monocell, monofill, or recovery facilities, or any combination of those facilities;

(d) Off-street parking lots, facilities, or buildings, or on-street parking facilities, or any combination of off-street and on-street parking facilities;

(e) Facilities for the care or treatment of the sick or infirm, and for housing the persons providing that care or treatment and their families;

(f) Recreational, sports, convention, auditorium, museum, trade show, and other public attraction facilities;

(g) Facilities for natural resources exploration, development, recovery, use, and sale;

(h) Correctional and detention facilities and related rehabilitation facilities.

(3) Securities issued for the purpose of purchasing, constructing, improving, or extending water or sanitary or surface and storm water sewerage systems or facilities, or a combination of those systems or facilities, to the extent that an agreement entered into with another subdivision requires the other subdivision to pay to the county amounts equivalent to debt charges on the securities;

(4) Voted general obligation securities issued for the purpose of permanent improvements for sanitary sewerage or water systems or facilities to the extent that the total principal amount of voted securities outstanding for the purpose does not exceed an amount equal to two per cent of the county's tax valuation;

(5) Securities issued for permanent improvements to house agencies, departments, boards, or commissions of the county or of any municipal corporation located, in whole or in part, in the county, to the extent that the revenues, other than revenues from unvoted county property taxes, derived from leases or other agreements between the county and those agencies, departments, boards, commissions, or municipal corporations relating to the use of the permanent improvements are sufficient to cover the cost of all operating expenses of the permanent improvements paid by the county and debt charges on the securities;

(7) Securities issued for the purpose of acquiring or constructing roads, highways, bridges, or viaducts, for the purpose of acquiring or making other highway permanent improvements, or for the purpose of procuring and maintaining computer systems for the office of the clerk of any county-operated municipal court, for the office of the clerk of the court of common pleas, or for the office of the clerk of the probate, juvenile, or domestic relations division of the court of common pleas to the extent that the legislation authorizing the issuance of the securities includes a covenant to appropriate from moneys distributed to the county pursuant to division (B) of section 2101.162, 2151.541, 2153.081, 2301.031, or 2303.201 or Chapter 4501., 4503., 4504., or 5735. of the Revised Code a sufficient amount to cover debt charges on and financing costs relating to the securities as they become due;

(8) Securities issued for the purpose of acquiring, constructing, improving, and equipping a county, multicounty, or multicounty-municipal jail, workhouse, juvenile detention facility, or correctional facility;

(9) Securities issued for the acquisition, construction, equipping, or repair of any permanent improvement or any class or group of permanent improvements enumerated in a resolution adopted pursuant to division (D) of section 5739.026 of the Revised Code to the extent that the legislation authorizing the issuance of the securities includes a covenant to appropriate from moneys received from the taxes authorized under section 5739.023 and division (A)(5) of section 5739.026 of the Revised Code an amount sufficient to pay debt charges on the securities and those moneys shall be pledged for that purpose;

(10) Securities issued for county or joint county solid waste or hazardous waste collection, transfer, or disposal facilities, or resource recovery and solid or hazardous waste recycling facilities, or any combination of those facilities;

(11) Securities issued for the acquisition, construction, and equipping of a port authority educational and cultural facility under section 307.671 of the Revised Code;

(12) Securities issued for the acquisition, construction, equipping, and improving of a municipal educational and cultural facility under division (B)(1) of section 307.672 of the Revised Code;

(13) Securities issued for energy conservation measures under section 307.041 of the Revised Code;

(14) Securities issued for the acquisition, construction, equipping, improving, or repair of a sports facility, including obligations issued to pay costs of a sports facility under section 307.673 of the Revised Code;

(15) Securities issued under section 755.17 of the Revised Code if the legislation authorizing issuance of the securities includes a covenant to appropriate from revenue received from a tax authorized under division (A)(5) of section 5739.026 and section 5741.023 of the Revised Code an amount sufficient to pay debt charges on the securities, and the board of county commissioners pledges that revenue for that purpose, pursuant to section 755.171 of the Revised Code;

(16) Sales tax supported bonds issued pursuant to section 133.081 of the Revised Code for the purpose of acquiring, constructing, improving, or equipping any permanent improvement to the extent that the legislation authorizing the issuance of the sales tax supported bonds pledges county sales taxes to the payment of debt charges on the sales tax supported bonds and contains a covenant to appropriate from county sales taxes a sufficient amount to cover debt charges or the financing costs related to the sales tax supported bonds as they become due;

(17) Bonds or notes issued under section 133.60 of the Revised Code if the legislation authorizing issuance of the bonds or notes includes a covenant to appropriate from revenue received from a tax authorized under division (A)(9) of section 5739.026 and section 5741.023 of the Revised Code an amount sufficient to pay the debt charges on the bonds or notes, and the board of county commissioners pledges that revenue for that purpose;

(18) Securities issued under section 3707.55 of the Revised Code for the acquisition of real property by a general health district;

(19) Securities issued under division (A)(3) of section 3313.37 of the Revised Code for the acquisition of real and personal property by an educational service center;

(20) Securities issued for the purpose of paying the costs of acquiring, constructing, reconstructing, renovating, rehabilitating, expanding, adding to, equipping, furnishing, or otherwise improving an arena, convention center, or a combination of an arena and convention center under section 307.695 of the Revised Code;

(21) Securities issued for the purpose of paying project costs under section 307.678 of the Revised Code.

(D) In calculating the net indebtedness of a county, no obligation incurred under division (F) of section 339.06 of the Revised Code shall be considered.

(1) "Historic building" means a building, including its structural components, that is located in this state and that is either individually listed on the national register of historic places under 16 U.S.C. 470a, located in a registered historic district, and certified by the state historic preservation officer as being of historic significance to the district, or is individually listed as an historic landmark designated by a local government certified under 16 U.S.C. 470a(c).

(2) "Qualified rehabilitation expenditures" means expenditures paid or incurred during the rehabilitation period, and before and after that period as determined under 26 U.S.C. 47, by an owner or qualified lessee of an historic building to rehabilitate the building. "Qualified rehabilitation expenditures" includes architectural or engineering fees paid or incurred in connection with the rehabilitation, and expenses incurred in the preparation of nomination forms for listing on the national register of historic places. "Qualified rehabilitation expenditures" does not include any of the following:

(b) Expenditures attributable to work done to facilities related to the building, such as parking lots, sidewalks, and landscaping;

(3) "Owner" of an historic building means a person holding the fee simple interest in the building. "Owner" does not include the state or a state agency, or any political subdivision as defined in section 9.23 of the Revised Code.

(4) "Qualified lessee" means a person subject to a lease agreement for an historic building and eligible for the federal rehabilitation tax credit under 26 U.S.C. 47. "Qualified lessee" does not include the state or a state agency or political subdivision as defined in section 9.23 of the Revised Code.

(5) "Certificate owner" means the owner or qualified lessee of an historic building to which a rehabilitation tax credit certificate was issued under this section.

(6) "Registered historic district" means an historic district listed in the national register of historic places under 16 U.S.C. 470a, an historic district designated by a local government certified under 16 U.S.C. 470a(c), or a local historic district certified under 36 C.F.R. 67.8 and 67.9.

(7) "Rehabilitation" means the process of repairing or altering an historic building or buildings, making possible an efficient use while preserving those portions and features of the building and its site and environment that are significant to its historic, architectural, and cultural values.

(a) If the rehabilitation initially was not planned to be completed in stages, a period chosen by the owner or qualified lessee not to exceed twenty-four months during which rehabilitation occurs;

(b) If the rehabilitation initially was planned to be completed in stages, a period chosen by the owner or qualified lessee not to exceed sixty months during which rehabilitation occurs. Each stage shall be reviewed as a phase of a rehabilitation as determined under 26 C.F.R. 1.48-12 or a successor to that section.

(9) "State historic preservation officer" or "officer" means the state historic preservation officer appointed by the governor under 16 U.S.C. 470a.

(10) "Catalytic project" means the rehabilitation of an historic building, the rehabilitation of which will foster economic development within two thousand five hundred feet of the historic building.

(B) The owner or qualified lessee of an historic building may apply to the director of development services for a rehabilitation tax credit certificate for qualified rehabilitation expenditures paid or incurred by such owner or qualified lessee after April 4, 2007, for rehabilitation of an historic building. If the owner of an historic building enters a pass-through agreement with a qualified lessee for the purposes of the federal rehabilitation tax credit under 26 U.S.C. 47, the qualified rehabilitation expenditures paid or incurred by the owner after April 4, 2007, may be attributed to the qualified lessee.

The form and manner of filing such applications shall be prescribed by rule of the director. Each application shall state the amount of qualified rehabilitation expenditures the applicant estimates will be paid or incurred. The director may require applicants to furnish documentation of such estimates.

The director, after consultation with the tax commissioner and in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt rules that establish all of the following:

(1) Forms and procedures by which applicants may apply for rehabilitation tax credit certificates;

(2) Criteria for reviewing, evaluating, and approving applications for certificates within the limitations under division (D) of this section, criteria for assuring that the certificates issued encompass a mixture of high and low qualified rehabilitation expenditures, and criteria for issuing certificates under division (C)(3)(b) of this section;

(6) Procedures and criteria for conducting cost-benefit analyses of historic buildings that are the subjects of applications filed under this section. The purpose of a cost-benefit analysis shall be to determine whether rehabilitation of the historic building will result in a net revenue gain in state and local taxes once the building is used.

(C) The director of development services shall review the applications with the assistance of the state historic preservation officer and determine whether all of the following criteria are met:

(1) That the building that is the subject of the application is an historic building and the applicant is the owner or qualified lessee of the building;

(2) That the rehabilitation will satisfy standards prescribed by the United States secretary of the interior under 16 U.S.C. 470, et seq., as amended, and 36 C.F.R. 67.7 or a successor to that section;

(3) That receiving a rehabilitation tax credit certificate under this section is a major factor in:

An applicant shall demonstrate to the satisfaction of the state historic preservation officer and director of development services that the rehabilitation will satisfy the standards described in division (C)(2) of this section before the applicant begins the physical rehabilitation of the historic building.

(D)(1) If the director of development services determines that an application meets the criteria in divisions (C)(1), (2), and (3) of this section, the director shall conduct a cost-benefit analysis for the historic building that is the subject of the application to determine whether rehabilitation of the historic building will result in a net revenue gain in state and local taxes once the building is used. The director shall consider the results of the cost-benefit analysis in determining whether to approve the application. The director shall also consider the potential economic impact and the regional distributive balance of the credits throughout the state. The director may approve an application only after completion of the cost-benefit analysis.

(2) A rehabilitation tax credit certificate shall not be issued for an amount greater than the estimated amount furnished by the applicant on the application for such certificate and approved by the director. The director shall not approve more than a total of sixty million dollars of rehabilitation tax credits per fiscal year but the director may reallocate unused tax credits from a prior fiscal year for new applicants and such reallocated credits shall not apply toward the dollar limit of this division.

(3) For rehabilitations with a rehabilitation period not exceeding twenty-four months as provided in division (A)~~(7)~~(8)(a) of this section, a rehabilitation tax credit certificate shall not be issued before the rehabilitation of the historic building is completed.

(4) For rehabilitations with a rehabilitation period not exceeding sixty months as provided in division (A)~~(7)~~(8)(b) of this section, a rehabilitation tax credit certificate shall not be issued before a stage of rehabilitation is completed. After all stages of rehabilitation are completed, if the director cannot determine that the criteria in division (C) of this section are satisfied for all stages of rehabilitations, the director shall certify this finding to the tax commissioner, and any rehabilitation tax credits received by the applicant shall be repaid by the applicant and may be collected by assessment as unpaid tax by the commissioner.

(5) The director of development services shall require the applicant to provide a third-party cost certification by a certified public accountant of the actual costs attributed to the rehabilitation of the historic building when qualified rehabilitation expenditures exceed two hundred thousand dollars.

If an applicant whose application is approved for receipt of a rehabilitation tax credit certificate fails to provide to the director sufficient evidence of reviewable progress, including a viable financial plan, copies of final construction drawings, and evidence that the applicant has obtained all historic approvals within twelve months after the date the applicant received notification of approval, and if the applicant fails to provide evidence to the director that the applicant has secured and closed on financing for the rehabilitation within eighteen months after receiving notification of approval, the director may rescind the approval of the application. The director shall notify the applicant if the approval has been rescinded. Credits that would have been available to an applicant whose approval was rescinded shall be available for other qualified applicants. Nothing in this division prohibits an applicant whose approval has been rescinded from submitting a new application for a rehabilitation tax credit certificate.

(6) The director of development services may approve the application of, and issue a rehabilitation tax credit certificate to, the owner of a catalytic project, provided the application otherwise meets the criteria described in divisions (C) and (D) of this section. The director may not issue more than one rehabilitation tax credit certificate under division (D)(6) of this section during each state fiscal biennium. The director shall consider the following criteria in determining whether to issue a certificate under division (D)(6) of this section:

(b) The effect issuance of the certificate would have on the availability of credits for other applicants that qualify for a credit certificate within the credit dollar limit described in division (D)(2) of this section;

(7)(a) The owner or qualified lessee of a historic building may apply for a rehabilitation tax credit certificate under both divisions (B) and (D)(6) of this section. In such a case, the director of development services shall consider each application at the time the application is submitted.

(b) The director of development services shall not issue more than one certificate under this section with respect to the same qualified rehabilitation expenditures.

(E) Issuance of a certificate represents a finding by the director of development services of the matters described in divisions (C)(1), (2), and (3) of this section only; issuance of a certificate does not represent a verification or certification by the director of the amount of qualified rehabilitation expenditures for which a tax credit may be claimed under section 5725.151, 5725.34, 5726.52, 5729.17, 5733.47, or 5747.76 of the Revised Code. The amount of qualified rehabilitation expenditures for which a tax credit may be claimed is subject to inspection and examination by the tax commissioner or employees of the commissioner under section 5703.19 of the Revised Code and any other applicable law. Upon the issuance of a certificate, the director shall certify to the tax commissioner, in the form and manner requested by the tax commissioner, the name of the applicant, the amount of qualified rehabilitation expenditures shown on the certificate, and any other information required by the rules adopted under this section.

(F)(1) On or before the first day of April each year, the director of development services and tax commissioner jointly shall submit to the president of the senate and the speaker of the house of representatives a report on the tax credit program established under this section and sections 5725.151, 5725.34, 5726.52, 5729.17, 5733.47, and 5747.76 of the Revised Code. The report shall present an overview of the program and shall include information on the number of rehabilitation tax credit certificates issued under this section during the preceding fiscal year, an update on the status of each historic building for which an application was approved under this section, the dollar amount of the tax credits granted under sections 5725.151, 5725.34, 5726.52, 5729.17, 5733.47, and 5747.76 of the Revised Code, and any other information the director and commissioner consider relevant to the topics addressed in the report.

(2) On or before December 1, 2015, the director of development services and tax commissioner jointly shall submit to the president of the senate and the speaker of the house of representatives a comprehensive report that includes the information required by division (F)(1) of this section and a detailed analysis of the effectiveness of issuing tax credits for rehabilitating historic buildings. The report shall be prepared with the assistance of an economic research organization jointly chosen by the director and commissioner.

(G) There is hereby created in the state treasury the historic rehabilitation tax credit operating fund. The director of development services is authorized to charge reasonable application and other fees in connection with the administration of tax credits authorized by this section and sections 5725.151, 5725.34, 5726.52, 5729.17, ~~5733.44~~ 5733.47, and 5747.76 of the Revised Code. Any such fees collected shall be credited to the fund and used to pay reasonable costs incurred by the department of development services in administering this section and sections 5725.151, 5725.34, 5726.52, 5729.17, ~~5733.44~~ 5733.47, and 5747.76 of the Revised Code.

The Ohio historic preservation office is authorized to charge reasonable fees in connection with its review and approval of applications under this section. Any such fees collected shall be credited to the fund and used to pay administrative costs incurred by the Ohio historic preservation office pursuant to this section.

(H) Notwithstanding sections 5725.151, 5725.34, 5726.52, 5729.17, 5733.47, and 5747.76 of the Revised Code, the certificate owner of a tax credit certificate issued under division (D)(6) of this section may claim a tax credit equal to twenty-five per cent of the dollar amount indicated on the certificate for a total credit of not more than twenty-five million dollars. The credit claimed by such a certificate owner for any calendar year, tax year, or taxable year under section 5725.151, 5725.34, 5726.52, 5729.17, 5733.47, or 5747.76 of the Revised Code shall not exceed five million dollars. If the certificate owner is eligible for more than five million dollars in total credits, the certificate owner may carry forward the balance of the credit in excess of the amount claimed for that year for not more than five ensuing calendar years, tax years, or taxable years. If the credit claimed in any calendar year, tax year, or taxable year exceeds the tax otherwise due, the excess shall be refunded to the taxpayer.

Sec. 149.38. (A) Except as otherwise provided in section 307.847 of the Revised Code, there is hereby created in each county a county records commission, composed of a member of the board of county commissioners as chairperson, the prosecuting attorney, the auditor, the recorder, and the clerk of the court of common pleas. The commission shall appoint a secretary, who may or may not be a member of the commission and who shall serve at the pleasure of the commission. The commission may employ an archivist or records manager to serve under its direction. The commission shall meet at least once every six months and upon the call of the chairperson.

(B)(1) The functions of the county records commission shall be to provide rules for retention and disposal of records of the county, and to review applications for one-time disposal of obsolete records and schedules of records retention and disposition submitted by county offices. The commission may dispose of records pursuant to the procedure outlined in this section. The commission, at any time, may review any schedule it has previously approved and, for good cause shown, may revise that schedule, subject to division (D) of this section.

(2)(a) As used in division (B)(2) of this section, "paper case records" means written reports of child abuse or neglect, written records of investigations, or other written records required to be prepared under section 2151.421, 5101.13, 5153.166, or 5153.17 of the Revised Code.

(b) A county public children services agency may submit to the county records commission applications for one-time disposal, or schedules of records retention and disposition, of paper case records that have been entered into permanently maintained and retrievable fields in the state automated child welfare information system established under section 5101.13 of the Revised Code or entered into other permanently maintained and retrievable electronic files. The county records commission may dispose of the paper case records pursuant to the procedure outlined in this section.

(C)(1) When the county records commission has approved any county application for one-time disposal of obsolete records or any schedule of records retention and disposition, the commission shall send that application or schedule to the Ohio historical society for its review. The Ohio historical society shall review the application or schedule within a period of not more than sixty days after its receipt of it. During the sixty-day review period, the Ohio historical society may select for its custody from the application for one-time disposal of obsolete records any records it considers to be of continuing historical value, and shall denote upon any schedule of records retention and disposition any records for which the Ohio historical society will require a certificate of records disposal prior to their disposal.

(2) Upon completion of its review, the Ohio historical society shall forward the application for one-time disposal of obsolete records or the schedule of records retention and disposition to the auditor of state for the auditor's approval or disapproval. The auditor of state shall approve or disapprove the application or schedule within a period of not more than sixty days after receipt of it.

(3) Before public records are to be disposed of pursuant to an approved schedule of records retention and disposition, the county records commission shall inform the Ohio historical society of the disposal through the submission of a certificate of records disposal for only the records required by the schedule to be disposed of and shall give the society the opportunity for a period of fifteen business days to select for its custody those records, from the certificate submitted, that it considers to be of continuing historical value. Upon the expiration of the fifteen-business-day period, the county records commission also shall notify the public libraries, county historical society, state universities, and other public or quasi-public institutions, agencies, or corporations in the county that have provided the commission with their name and address for these notification purposes, that the commission has informed the Ohio historical society of the records disposal and that the notified entities, upon written agreement with the Ohio historical society pursuant to section 149.31 of the Revised Code, may select records of continuing historical value, including records that may be distributed to any of the notified entities under section 149.31 of the Revised Code. Any notified entity that notifies the county records commission of its intent to review and select records of continuing historical value from certificates of records disposal is responsible for the cost of any notice given and for the transportation of those records.

(D) The rules of the county records commission shall include a rule that requires any receipts, checks, vouchers, or other similar records pertaining to expenditures from the delinquent tax and assessment collection fund created in section 321.261 of the Revised Code, from the real estate assessment fund created in section 325.31 of the Revised Code, or from amounts allocated for the furtherance of justice to the county sheriff under section 325.071 of the Revised Code or to the prosecuting attorney under section 325.12 of the Revised Code to be retained for at least four years.

(E) No person shall knowingly violate the rule adopted under division (D) of this section. Whoever violates that rule is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree.

Sec. 153.56. (A) Any person to whom any money is due for labor or work performed or materials furnished in a public improvement as provided in section 153.54 of the Revised Code, at any time after performing the labor or work or furnishing the materials, but not later than ninety days after the completion of the contract by the principal contractor or design-build firm and the acceptance of the public improvement for which the bond was provided by the duly authorized board or officer, shall furnish the sureties on the bond, a statement of the amount due to the person.

(B) A suit shall not be brought against sureties on the bond until after sixty days after the furnishing of the statement described in division (A) of this section. If the indebtedness is not paid in full at the expiration of that sixty days, and if the person complies with division (C) of this section, the person may bring an action in the person's own name upon the bond, as provided in sections 2307.06 and 2307.07 of the Revised Code, that action to be commenced, notwithstanding section 2305.12 of the Revised Code, not later than one year from the date of acceptance of the public improvement for which the bond was provided.

(C) To exercise rights under this section, a subcontractor or materials supplier supplying labor or materials that cost more than thirty thousand dollars, who is not in direct privity of contract with the principal contractor or design-build firm for the public improvement, shall serve a notice of furnishing upon the principal contractor or design-build firm in the form provided in section 1311.261 of the Revised Code.

(D) A subcontractor or materials supplier who serves a notice of furnishing under division (C) of this section as required to exercise rights under this section has the right of recovery only as to amounts owed for labor and work performed and materials furnished during and after the twenty-one days immediately preceding service of the notice of furnishing.

(1) "Design-build firm" has the same meaning as in section 153.65 of the Revised Code.

(2) "Principal contractor" has the same meaning as in section 1311.25 of the Revised Code, and may include a ~~"construction manager" and a~~ "construction manager at risk" as defined in section 9.33 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 156.03. (A) If the executive director of the Ohio facilities construction commission wishes to enter into an installment payment contract pursuant to section 156.04 of the Revised Code or any other contract to implement one or more energy or water saving measures, the executive director may proceed under Chapter 153. of the Revised Code, or, alternatively, the executive director may request the controlling board to exempt the contract from Chapter 153. of the Revised Code.

A surety bond furnished pursuant to section 153.54 of the Revised Code shall not secure obligations related to energy or water savings as referenced in division (D) of this section.

If the controlling board by a majority vote approves an exemption, that chapter shall not apply to the contract and instead the executive director shall request proposals from at least three parties for the implementation of the energy or water saving measures. Prior to providing any interested party a copy of any such request, the executive director shall advertise, in a newspaper of general circulation in the county where the contract is to be performed, and may advertise by electronic means pursuant to rules adopted by the executive director, the executive director's intent to request proposals for the implementation of the energy or water saving measures. The notice shall invite interested parties to submit proposals for consideration and shall be published at least thirty days prior to the date for accepting proposals.

(B) Upon receiving the proposals, the executive director shall analyze them and, after considering the cost estimates of each proposal and the availability of funds to pay for each with current appropriations or by financing the cost of each through an installment payment contract under section 156.04 of the Revised Code, may select one or more proposals or reject all proposals. In selecting proposals, the executive director shall select the one or more proposals most likely to result in the greatest energy, water, or wastewater savings, operating costs savings, and avoided capital costs created.

(C) No contract shall be awarded to implement energy or water saving measures under this section, unless the executive director finds that both of the following circumstances exists:

(1) Not less than one-fifteenth of the costs of the contract shall be paid within two years from the date of purchase;

(2) In the case of a contract for a cogeneration system described in division (B)(8) of section 156.01 of the Revised Code, the remaining balance of the cost of the contract shall be paid within twenty years from the date of purchase, and, in the case of all other contracts, fifteen years.

(D) If the executive director determines that a surety bond is necessary to secure energy or water savings guaranteed in the contract, the energy services company shall provide a surety bond that satisfies all of the following requirements:

(1) The penal sum of the surety bond for the first guarantee year shall equal the amount of savings included in the annual guaranteed savings amount that is measured and calculated in accordance with the measurement and verification plan included in the contract, but may not include savings that are not measured or that are stipulated in the contract. The annual guaranteed savings amount shall include only the savings guaranteed in the contract for the one-year term that begins on the first day of the first savings guarantee year and may not include amounts from subsequent years.

(2) The surety bond shall have a term of not more than one year unless renewed. At the option of the executive director, the surety bond may be renewed for one or two additional terms, each term not to exceed one year. The surety bond may not be renewed or extended so that it is in effect for more than three consecutive years.

In the event of a renewal, the penal sum of the surety bond for each renewed year shall be revised so that the penal sum equals the annual guaranteed savings amount for such renewal year that is measured and calculated in accordance with the measurement and verification plan included in the contract, but may not include savings that are not measured or that are stipulated in the contract. Regardless of the number of renewals of the bond, the aggregate liability under each renewed bond may not exceed the penal sum stated in the renewal certificate for the applicable renewal year.

(3) The surety bond for the first year shall be issued within thirty days of the commencement of the first savings guarantee year under the contract.

In the event of renewal, the surety shall deliver to the executive director a renewal certificate reflecting the revised penal sum within thirty days of the executive director's request. The executive director shall deliver the request for renewal not less than thirty days prior to the expiration date of the surety bond then in existence.

Sec. 163.15. (A) As soon as the agency pays to the party entitled thereto or deposits with the court the amount of the award and the costs assessed against the agency, it may take possession; provided, that this shall not be construed to limit the right of a public agency to enter and take possession, as provided in section 163.06 of the Revised Code. When the agency is entitled to possession the court shall enter an order to such effect upon the record and, if necessary, process shall be issued to place the agency in possession. Whenever a final journal entry in an appropriation proceeding, granting to this state a fee title or any lesser estate or interest in real property is filed and journalized by the clerk of courts, the clerk of courts shall forthwith transmit to the county auditor a certified copy of said final journal entry who shall transfer the property on the auditor's books and transmit said entry with proper endorsement to the county recorder for recording. The costs of filing such final journal entry with the county auditor and the county recorder shall be taxed as costs in the appropriation proceedings the same as other costs are taxed under section 163.16 of the Revised Code.

(B)(1) Whenever the appropriation of real property requires the owner, a commercial tenant, or a residential tenant identified by the owner in a notice filed with the court to move or relocate, the agency shall make a payment to that person, upon proper application as approved by the agency, for all of the following:

(a) Actual reasonable expenses in moving the person and the person's family, business, farm operation, or other personal property;

(b) Actual direct losses of tangible personal property as a result of moving or discontinuing a business or farm operation, but not to exceed an amount equal to the reasonable expenses that would have been required to relocate such property, as determined by the agency;

(c) Actual reasonable expenses in searching for a replacement business or farm, but not to exceed two thousand five hundred dollars;

(d) Actual and reasonable expenses necessary to reestablish a farm, nonprofit organization, or small business at its new site, but not to exceed ~~ten~~ twenty-five thousand dollars.

(2) If the agency does not approve a payment for which the owner applied under division (B)(1) of this section, the trier of fact, upon presentation of proof, shall determine whether to award a payment for the expenses described in division (B)(1) of this section and the amount of any award. The owner shall have the burden of proof with respect to those expenses.

(3)(a) In addition to any payments an owner of a business may receive under division (B)(1) of this section, an owner of a business who is required by an appropriation of real property to relocate the business may recover damages for the owner's actual economic loss resulting from the appropriation, as proven by the owner by a preponderance of the evidence. Compensation for actual economic loss under this division shall not include any attorney's fees and shall not duplicate any amount awarded as compensation under this chapter.

(b) The amount of compensation awarded under division (B)(3)(a) of this section shall not exceed twelve months net profit of the business on an annualized basis. Except as otherwise provided in division (B)(3)(c) of this section, if the agency is appropriating property in time of war or other public exigency imperatively requiring its immediate seizure, for the purpose of making or repairing roads that shall be open to the public without charge, for the purpose of implementing rail service under Chapter 4981. of the Revised Code, or under section 307.08, 504.19, 6101.181, 6115.221, 6117.39, or 6119.11 of the Revised Code as the result of a public exigency, or the agency is a municipal corporation that is appropriating property as a result of a public exigency, the period for which the net profit of the business is calculated shall be twelve months minus the time period from the date the agency gives the notice required by section 163.04 of the Revised Code to the date the agency deposits the value of the property with the court pursuant to section 163.06 of the Revised Code or pays that amount to the owner, but in no event shall the compensation time period be less than fifteen days. If the period on which the loss is calculated is reduced to fifteen days and the relocation is unusually complex, the owner may request the agency to increase that period by up to fifteen additional days. If the agency fails to pay the compensation as provided under division (B)(3)(a) of this section or denies the request, the owner may seek an award of such compensation pursuant to this section.

(c) In case of an act of God or other public exigency that requires an immediate taking of property to protect public health or safety or in case of a voluntary conveyance, the amount of compensation awarded under division (B)(3)(a) of this section shall not exceed fifteen days net profit of the business on an annualized basis. The owner may request the agency to increase that period by up to fifteen additional days. If the agency fails to pay the compensation as provided under division (B)(3)(a) of this section or denies the request, the owner may seek an award of such compensation pursuant to this section.

Sec. 163.53. (A) Whenever the acquisition of real property for a program or project undertaken by a displacing agency will result in the displacement of any person, the head of the agency shall make a payment to any displaced person, upon proper application as approved by such agency head, for all of the following:

(1) Actual reasonable expenses in moving the person, the person's family, business, farm operation, or other personal property;

(2) Actual direct losses of tangible personal property as a result of moving or discontinuing a business or farm operation, but not to exceed an amount equal to the reasonable expenses that would have been required to relocate such property, as determined by the head of the displacing agency;

(3) Actual reasonable expenses in searching for a replacement business or farm, but not to exceed two thousand five hundred dollars;

(4) Actual and reasonable expenses necessary to reestablish a displaced farm, nonprofit organization, or small business at its new site, but not to exceed ~~ten~~ twenty-five thousand dollars.

(B) Any displaced person eligible for payments under division (A) of this section who is displaced from a dwelling and who elects to accept the payments authorized by this division in lieu of the payments authorized by division (A) of this section may receive an expense and dislocation allowance, determined according to a schedule established by the head of the displacing agency.

(C) Any displaced person eligible for payments under division (A) of this section who is displaced from the person's place of business or from the person's farm operation may qualify for the payment authorized by this division in lieu of the payment authorized by division (A) of this section. The payment authorized by this division shall consist of a fixed payment in an amount to be determined according to criteria established by the head of the lead agency, except that such payment shall be not less than one thousand dollars nor more than ~~twenty~~ forty thousand dollars. A person whose sole business at the displacement dwelling is the rental of such property to others does not qualify for a payment under this division.

(D)(1) Except as provided in section 5501.51 of the Revised Code, if a program or project undertaken by a displacing agency results in the relocation of a utility facility, and the purpose of the program or project was not to relocate or reconstruct any utility facility; and if the owner of the utility facility which is being relocated under such program or project has entered into a franchise or similar agreement with the state or local government on whose property, easement, or right-of-way such facility is located with respect to the use of such property, easement, or right-of-way; and if the relocation of such facility results in such owner incurring an extraordinary cost in connection with such relocation; then the displacing agency may, in accordance with such rules as the head of the lead agency may adopt, provide to such owner a relocation payment which may not exceed the amount of such extraordinary cost, less any increase in the value of the new utility facility above the value of the old utility facility, and less any salvage value derived from the old utility facility.

(a) "Extraordinary cost in connection with a relocation" means any cost incurred by the owner of a utility facility in connection with relocation of such facility that is determined by the head of the displacing agency, under such rules as the head of the lead agency shall adopt, to be a nonroutine relocation expense, to be a cost that owner ordinarily does not include in its annual budget as an expense of operation, and to meet such other requirements as the lead agency may prescribe in such rules.

(b) "Utility facility" means any electric, gas, water, steam power, or materials transmission or distribution system; any transportation system; any communications system, including cable television; and any fixture, equipment, or other property associated with the operation, maintenance, or repair of any such system; which is located on property owned by a state or local government or over which a state or local government has an easement or right-of-way. A utility facility may be publicly, privately, or cooperatively owned.

Sec. 163.54. (A) In addition to payments otherwise authorized by sections 163.51 to 163.62 of the Revised Code, the head of the displacing agency shall make an additional payment not to exceed ~~twenty-two~~ thirty-one thousand ~~five hundred~~ dollars to any displaced person who is displaced from a dwelling actually owned and occupied by ~~him~~ the displaced person for not less than ~~one hundred eighty~~ ninety days prior to the initiation of negotiations for the acquisition of the property. Such additional payment shall include the following elements:

(1) The amount, if any, which when added to the acquisition cost of the dwelling acquired by the displacing agency, equals the reasonable cost of a comparable replacement dwelling.

(2) The amount, if any, which will compensate the displaced person for any increased interest costs and other debt service costs which the person is required to pay for financing the acquisition of a comparable replacement dwelling. This amount shall be paid only if the dwelling acquired by the displacing agency was encumbered by a bona fide mortgage which was a valid lien on the dwelling for not less than ~~one hundred eighty~~ ninety days prior to the initiation of negotiations for the acquisition of the dwelling.

(3) Reasonable expenses incurred by the displaced person for evidence of title, recording fees, and other closing costs incident to the purchase of the replacement dwelling, but not including prepaid expenses.

(4) A rental assistance payment for a displaced person who is eligible for a replacement housing payment under this section but who elects to rent a replacement dwelling. The amount of the rental assistance payment shall be based on a determination of market rent for the acquired dwelling compared to a comparable rental dwelling available on the market in the general area of the acquired dwelling. The difference, if any, shall be computed in accordance with division (A) of section 163.55 of the Revised Code, except the limit of seven thousand two hundred dollars shall not apply. Under no circumstances shall the rental assistance payment exceed the amount that the displaced person could have received under division (A)(1) of this section. A displaced person who is eligible to receive a replacement housing payment under this section is not eligible for a down payment assistance payment described in division (B) of section 163.55 of the Revised Code.

(B) The additional payment authorized by this section shall be made only to a displaced person who purchases and occupies a replacement dwelling which is decent, safe, and sanitary not later than the end of the one-year period beginning on the date on which he the displaced person receives from the displacing agency final payment of all costs of the acquired dwelling, or on the date on which the displacing agency's obligation under division (B)(3) of section 163.56 of the Revised Code is met, whichever is later, except that the displacing agency may extend the period for good cause. If the period is extended, the payment under this section shall be based on the costs of relocating the person to a comparable replacement dwelling within one year after the displaced person receives from the displacing agency final payment of all costs of the acquired dwelling.

Sec. 163.55. (A) In addition to amounts otherwise authorized by sections 163.51 to 163.62 of the Revised Code, the head of a displacing agency shall make a payment to or for any displaced person displaced from any dwelling not eligible to receive a payment under section 163.54 of the Revised Code which dwelling was actually and lawfully occupied by such displaced person for not less than ninety days prior to the initiation of negotiations for acquisition of such dwelling, or in any case in which displacement is not a direct result of acquisition, not less than ninety days prior to such other event as the head of the lead agency shall prescribe. The payment shall consist of the amount necessary to enable the displaced person to lease or rent for a period not to exceed forty-two months, a comparable replacement dwelling, but not to exceed ~~five~~ seven thousand two hundred ~~fifty~~ dollars. At the discretion of the head of the displacing agency, a payment under this division may be made in periodic installments. Computation of a payment under this division to a low-income displaced person shall take into account the person's income.

(B) Any person eligible for a payment under division (A) of this section may elect to apply the payment to a down payment on, and other incidental expenses pursuant to, the purchase of a decent, safe, and sanitary replacement dwelling. The person may, under criteria established by the head of the displacing agency, be eligible under this division for the maximum payment allowed under division (A) of this section, except that, in the case of a displaced home owner who has owned and occupied the displacement dwelling for at least ninety days but not more than one hundred eighty days immediately prior to the initiation of negotiations for the acquisition of such dwelling, the payment shall not exceed the payment the person would otherwise have received under section 163.54 of the Revised Code had the person owned and occupied the displacement dwelling one hundred eighty days immediately prior to the initiation of the negotiations.

Sec. 164.26. (A) The director of the Ohio public works commission shall establish policies related to the need for long-term ownership, or long-term control through a lease or the purchase of an easement, of real property that is the subject of an application for a grant under sections 164.20 to 164.27 of the Revised Code and establish requirements for documentation to be submitted by grant applicants that is necessary for the proper administration of this division. The policies shall provide for proper ~~penalties, including~~ liquidated damages and grant repayment, for entities that fail to comply with the long-term ownership or control requirements established under this division.

The director also shall adopt policies delineating what constitutes administrative costs for purposes of division (F) of section 164.27 of the Revised Code.

(B) The Ohio public works commission shall administer sections 164.20 to 164.27 of the Revised Code and shall exercise any authority and use any procedures granted or established under sections 164.02 and 164.05 of the Revised Code that are necessary for that purpose.

Sec. 164.261. All of the following apply to any repayment of a grant awarded under sections 164.20 to 164.27 of the Revised Code:

(A) The Ohio public works commission shall deposit the grant repayment into the clean Ohio conservation fund created in section 164.27 of the Revised Code.

(B) The commission shall return the grant repayment to the natural resource assistance council that approved the grant application.

(C) The grant repayment shall be used for the same purpose as the grant was originally approved for, as provided in section 164.22 of the Revised Code.

(1) "Applicant" means a person who is under final consideration for employment with a responsible party in a full-time, part-time, or temporary direct-care position or is referred to a responsible party by an employment service for such a position. "Applicant" does not include a person being considered for a direct-care position as a volunteer.

(2) "Area agency on aging" has the same meaning as in section 173.14 of the Revised Code.

(3) "Chief administrator of a responsible party" includes a consumer when the consumer is a responsible party.

(4) "Community-based long-term care services" means community-based long-term care services, as defined in section 173.14 of the Revised Code, that are provided under a program the department of aging administers.

~~(4)~~(5) "Consumer" means an individual who receives community-based long-term care services.

~~(5)~~(6) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in section 109.572 of the Revised Code.

~~(6)~~(7)(a) "Direct-care position" means an employment position in which an employee has either or both of the following:

(b) "Direct-care position" does not include a person whose sole duties are transporting individuals under Chapter 306. of the Revised Code.

~~(7)~~(8) "Disqualifying offense" means any of the offenses listed or described in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (e) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code.

~~(8)~~(9) "Employee" means a person employed by a responsible party in a full-time, part-time, or temporary direct-care position and a person who works in such a position due to being referred to a responsible party by an employment service. "Employee" does not include a person who works in a direct-care position as a volunteer.

~~(9)~~(10) "PASSPORT administrative agency" has the same meaning as in section 173.42 of the Revised Code.

~~(10)~~(11) "Provider" has the same meaning as in section 173.39 of the Revised Code.

(i) A person who is an applicant because the person is under final consideration for employment with the agency in a full-time, part-time, or temporary direct-care position or is referred to the agency by an employment service for such a position;

(ii) A person who is an employee because the person is employed by the agency in a full-time, part-time, or temporary direct-care position or works in such a position due to being referred to the agency by an employment service.

(i) A person who is an applicant because the person is under final consideration for employment with the provider in a full-time, part-time, or temporary direct-care position or is referred to the provider by an employment service for such a position;

(ii) A person who is an employee because the person is employed by the provider in a full-time, part-time, or temporary direct-care position or works in such a position due to being referred to the provider by an employment service.

(i) A person who is an applicant because the person is under final consideration for employment with the subcontractor in a full-time, part-time, or temporary direct-care position or is referred to the subcontractor by an employment service for such a position;

(ii) A person who is an employee because the person is employed by the subcontractor in a full-time, part-time, or temporary direct-care position or works in such a position due to being referred to the subcontractor by an employment service.

(i) A person who is an applicant because the person is under final consideration for employment with the consumer in a full-time, part-time, or temporary direct-care position for which the consumer, as the employer of record, is to direct the person in the provision of community-based long-term care services the person is to provide the consumer or is referred to the consumer by an employment service for such a position;

(ii) A person who is an employee because the person is employed by the consumer in a full-time, part-time, or temporary direct-care position for which the consumer, as the employer of record, directs the person in the provision of community-based long-term care services the person provides to the consumer or who works in such a position due to being referred to the consumer by an employment service.

(13) "Subcontractor" has the meaning specified in rules adopted under this section.

~~(13)~~(14) "Volunteer" means a person who serves in a direct-care position without receiving or expecting to receive any form of remuneration other than reimbursement for actual expenses.

~~(14)~~(15) "Waiver agency" has the same meaning as in section 5164.342 of the Revised Code.

(B) This section does not apply to any individual who is subject to a database review or criminal records check under section 173.381 or 3701.881 of the Revised Code or to any individual who is subject to a criminal records check under section 3721.121 of the Revised Code. If a provider or subcontractor also is a waiver agency, the provider or subcontractor may provide for applicants and employees to undergo database reviews and criminal records checks in accordance with section 5164.342 of the Revised Code rather than this section.

(C) No responsible party shall employ an applicant or continue to employ an employee in a direct-care position if any of the following apply:

(1) A review of the databases listed in division (E) of this section reveals any of the following:

(a) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more of the databases listed in divisions (E)(1) to (5) of this section;

(b) That there is in the state nurse aide registry established under section 3721.32 of the Revised Code a statement detailing findings by the director of health that the applicant or employee neglected or abused a long-term care facility or residential care facility resident or misappropriated property of such a resident;

(c) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more of the databases, if any, specified in rules adopted under this section and the rules prohibit the responsible party from employing an applicant or continuing to employ an employee included in such a database in a direct-care position.

(2) After the applicant or employee is provided, pursuant to division (F)(2)(a) of this section, a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and the standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section, the applicant or employee fails to complete the form or provide the applicant's or employee's fingerprint impressions on the standard impression sheet.

(3) Unless the applicant or employee meets standards specified in rules adopted under this section, the applicant or employee is found by a criminal records check required by this section to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense.

(D) Except as provided by division (G) of this section, the chief administrator of a responsible party shall inform each applicant of both of the following at the time of the applicant's initial application for employment or referral to the responsible party by an employment service for a direct-care position:

(1) That a review of the databases listed in division (E) of this section will be conducted to determine whether the responsible party is prohibited by division (C)(1) of this section from employing the applicant in the direct-care position;

(2) That, unless the database review reveals that the applicant may not be employed in the direct-care position, a criminal records check of the applicant will be conducted and the applicant is required to provide a set of the applicant's fingerprint impressions as part of the criminal records check.

(E) As a condition of employing any applicant in a direct-care position, the chief administrator of a responsible party shall conduct a database review of the applicant in accordance with rules adopted under this section. If rules adopted under this section so require, the chief administrator of a responsible party shall conduct a database review of an employee in accordance with the rules as a condition of continuing to employ the employee in a direct-care position. However, a chief administrator is not required to conduct a database review of an applicant or employee if division (G) of this section applies. A database review shall determine whether the applicant or employee is included in any of the following:

(1) The excluded parties list system that is maintained by the United States general services administration pursuant to subpart 9.4 of the federal acquisition regulation and available at the federal web site known as the system for award management;

(2) The list of excluded individuals and entities maintained by the office of inspector general in the United States department of health and human services pursuant to the "Social Security Act," sections 1128 and 1156, 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7 and 1320c-5;

(3) The registry of MR/DD employees established under section 5123.52 of the Revised Code;

(4) The internet-based sex offender and child-victim offender database established under division (A)(11) of section 2950.13 of the Revised Code;

(5) The internet-based database of inmates established under section 5120.66 of the Revised Code;

(6) The state nurse aide registry established under section 3721.32 of the Revised Code;

(F)(1) As a condition of employing any applicant in a direct-care position, the chief administrator of a responsible party shall request that the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation conduct a criminal records check of the applicant. If rules adopted under this section so require, the chief administrator of a responsible party shall request that the superintendent conduct a criminal records check of an employee at times specified in the rules as a condition of continuing to employ the employee in a direct-care position. However, the chief administrator is not required to request the criminal records check of the applicant or employee if division (G) of this section applies or the responsible party is prohibited by division (C)(1) of this section from employing the applicant or continuing to employ the employee in a direct-care position. If an applicant or employee for whom a criminal records check request is required by this section does not present proof of having been a resident of this state for the five-year period immediately prior to the date the criminal records check is requested or provide evidence that within that five-year period the superintendent has requested information about the applicant or employee from the federal bureau of investigation in a criminal records check, the chief administrator shall request that the superintendent obtain information from the federal bureau of investigation as part of the criminal records check. Even if an applicant or employee for whom a criminal records check request is required by this section presents proof of having been a resident of this state for the five-year period, the chief administrator may request that the superintendent include information from the federal bureau of investigation in the criminal records check.

(a) Provide to each applicant and employee for whom a criminal records check request is required by this section a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section;

(b) Obtain the completed form and standard impression sheet from the applicant or employee;

(3) A responsible party shall pay to the bureau of criminal identification and investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each criminal records check the responsible party requests under this section. A responsible party may charge an applicant a fee not exceeding the amount the responsible party pays to the bureau under this section if both of the following apply:

(a) The responsible party notifies the applicant at the time of initial application for employment of the amount of the fee and that, unless the fee is paid, the applicant will not be considered for employment.

(b) The medicaid program does not pay the responsible party for the fee it pays to the bureau under this section.

(G) Divisions (D) to (F) of this section do not apply with regard to an applicant or employee if the applicant or employee is referred to a responsible party by an employment service that supplies full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for direct-care positions and both of the following apply:

(1) The chief administrator of the responsible party receives from the employment service confirmation that a review of the databases listed in division (E) of this section was conducted of the applicant or employee.

(2) The chief administrator of the responsible party receives from the employment service, applicant, or employee a report of the results of a criminal records check of the applicant or employee that has been conducted by the superintendent within the one-year period immediately preceding the following:

(a) In the case of an applicant, the date of the applicant's referral by the employment service to the responsible party;

(b) In the case of an employee, the date by which the responsible party would otherwise have to request a criminal records check of the employee under division (F) of this section.

(H)(1) A responsible party may employ conditionally an applicant for whom a criminal records check request is required by this section prior to obtaining the results of the criminal records check if the responsible party is not prohibited by division (C)(1) of this section from employing the applicant in a direct-care position and either of the following applies:

(a) The chief administrator of the responsible party requests the criminal records check in accordance with division (F) of this section not later than five business days after the applicant begins conditional employment.

(b) The applicant is referred to the responsible party by an employment service, the employment service or the applicant provides the chief administrator of the responsible party a letter that is on the letterhead of the employment service, the letter is dated and signed by a supervisor or another designated official of the employment service, and the letter states all of the following:

(i) That the employment service has requested the superintendent to conduct a criminal records check regarding the applicant;

(ii) That the requested criminal records check is to include a determination of whether the applicant has been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense;

(iii) That the employment service has not received the results of the criminal records check as of the date set forth on the letter;

(iv) That the employment service promptly will send a copy of the results of the criminal records check to the chief administrator of the responsible party when the employment service receives the results.

(2) If a responsible party employs an applicant conditionally pursuant to division (H)(1)(b) of this section, the employment service, on its receipt of the results of the criminal records check, promptly shall send a copy of the results to the chief administrator of the responsible party.

(3) A responsible party that employs an applicant conditionally pursuant to division (H)(1)(a) or (b) of this section shall terminate the applicant's employment if the results of the criminal records check, other than the results of any request for information from the federal bureau of investigation, are not obtained within the period ending sixty days after the date the request for the criminal records check is made. Regardless of when the results of the criminal records check are obtained, if the results indicate that the applicant has been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense, the responsible party shall terminate the applicant's employment unless the applicant meets standards specified in rules adopted under this section that permit the responsible party to employ the applicant and the responsible party chooses to employ the applicant. Termination of employment under this division shall be considered just cause for discharge for purposes of division (D)(2) of section 4141.29 of the Revised Code if the applicant makes any attempt to deceive the responsible party about the applicant's criminal record.

(I) The report of any criminal records check conducted pursuant to a request made under this section is not a public record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not be made available to any person other than the following:

(1) The applicant or employee who is the subject of the criminal records check or the applicant's or employee's representative;

(2) The chief administrator of the responsible party requesting the criminal records check or the administrator's representative;

(3) The administrator of any other facility, agency, or program that provides community-based long-term care services that is owned or operated by the same entity that owns or operates the responsible party that requested the criminal records check;

(5) The director of aging or a person authorized by the director to monitor a responsible party's compliance with this section;

(6) The medicaid director and the staff of the department of medicaid who are involved in the administration of the medicaid program if ~~either~~ any of the following apply:

(a) In the case of a criminal records check requested by a provider or subcontractor, the provider or subcontractor also is a waiver agency;

(b) In the case of a criminal records check requested by an employment service, the employment service makes the request for an applicant or employee the employment service refers to a provider or subcontractor that also is a waiver agency;

(7) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual involved in a case dealing with any of the following:

(J) In a tort or other civil action for damages that is brought as the result of an injury, death, or loss to person or property caused by an applicant or employee who a responsible party employs in a direct-care position, all of the following shall apply:

(1) If the responsible party employed the applicant or employee in good faith and reasonable reliance on the report of a criminal records check requested under this section, the responsible party shall not be found negligent solely because of its reliance on the report, even if the information in the report is determined later to have been incomplete or inaccurate.

(2) If the responsible party employed the applicant in good faith on a conditional basis pursuant to division (H) of this section, the responsible party shall not be found negligent solely because it employed the applicant prior to receiving the report of a criminal records check requested under this section.

(3) If the responsible party in good faith employed the applicant or employee because the applicant or employee meets standards specified in rules adopted under this section, the responsible party shall not be found negligent solely because the applicant or employee has been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense.

(K) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section.

(a) Require employees to undergo database reviews and criminal records checks under this section;

(b) If the rules require employees to undergo database reviews and criminal records checks under this section, exempt one or more classes of employees from the requirements;

(c) For the purpose of division (E)(7) of this section, specify other databases that are to be checked as part of a database review conducted under this section.

(c) If the rules require employees to undergo database reviews and criminal records checks under this section, the times at which the database reviews and criminal records checks are to be conducted;

(d) If the rules specify other databases to be checked as part of the database reviews, the circumstances under which a responsible party is prohibited from employing an applicant or continuing to employ an employee who is found by a database review to be included in one or more of those databases;

(e) Standards that an applicant or employee must meet for a responsible party to be permitted to employ the applicant or continue to employ the employee in a direct-care position if the applicant or employee is found by a criminal records check required by this section to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense.

(1) "Community-based long-term care services" means community-based long-term care services, as defined in section 173.14 of the Revised Code, that are provided under a program the department of aging administers.

(2) "Community-based long-term care services certificate" means a certificate issued under section 173.391 of the Revised Code.

(3) "Community-based long-term care services contract or grant" means a contract or grant awarded under section 173.392 of the Revised Code.

(4) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in section 109.572 of the Revised Code.

(5) "Disqualifying offense" means any of the offenses listed or described in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (e) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code.

(7) "Self-employed provider" means a provider who works for the provider's self and has no employees.

(B) This section does not apply to any individual who is subject to a database review or criminal records check under section 3701.881 of the Revised Code.

(C)(1) The department of aging or its designee shall take the following actions when the circumstances specified in division (C)(2) of this section apply:

(a) Refuse to issue a community-based long-term care services certificate to a self-employed provider;

(b) Revoke a self-employed provider's community-based long-term care services certificate;

(d) Terminate a self-employed provider's community-based long-term care services contract or grant awarded on or after the effective date of this section.

(2) The following are the circumstances that require the department of aging or its designee to take action under division (C)(1) of this section:

(a) A review of the databases listed in division (E) of this section reveals any of the following:

(i) That the self-employed provider is included in one or more of the databases listed in divisions (E)(1) to (5) of this section;

(ii) That there is in the state nurse aide registry established under section 3721.32 of the Revised Code a statement detailing findings by the director of health that the self-employed provider neglected or abused a long-term care facility or residential care facility resident or misappropriated property of such a resident;

(iii) That the self-employed provider is included in one or more of the databases, if any, specified in rules adopted under this section and the rules require the department or its designee to take action under division (C)(1) of this section if a self-employed provider is included in such a database.

(b) After the self-employed provider is provided, pursuant to division (F)(2)(a) of this section, a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and the standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section, the self-employed provider fails to complete the form or provide the self-employed provider's fingerprint impressions on the standard impression sheet.

(c) Unless the self-employed provider meets standards specified in rules adopted under this section, the self-employed provider is found by a criminal records check required by this section to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense.

(D) The department of aging or its designee shall inform each self-employed provider of both of the following at the time of the self-employed provider's initial application for a community-based long-term care services certificate or initial bid for a community-based long-term care services contract or grant:

(1) That a review of the databases listed in division (E) of this section will be conducted to determine whether the department or its designee is required by division (C) of this section to refuse to issue or award a community-based long-term care services certificate or community-based long-term care services contract or grant to the self-employed provider;

(2) That, unless the database review reveals that the department or its designee is required to refuse to issue or award a community-based long-term care services certificate or community-based long-term care services contract or grant to the self-employed provider, a criminal records check of the self-employed provider will be conducted and the self-employed provider is required to provide a set of the self-employed provider's fingerprint impressions as part of the criminal records check.

(E) As a condition of issuing or awarding a community-based long-term care services certificate or community-based long-term care services contract or grant to a self-employed provider, the department of aging or its designee shall conduct a database review of the self-employed provider in accordance with rules adopted under this section. If rules adopted under this section so require, the department or its designee shall conduct a database review of a self-employed provider in accordance with the rules as a condition of not revoking or terminating the self-employed provider's community-based long-term care services certificate or community-based long-term care services contract or grant. A database review shall determine whether the self-employed provider is included in any of the following:

(3) The registry of MR/DD employees established under section 5123.52 of the Revised Code;

(4) The internet-based sex offender and child-victim offender database established under division (A)(11) of section 2950.13 of the Revised Code;

(5) The internet-based database of inmates established under section 5120.66 of the Revised Code;

(6) The state nurse aide registry established under section 3721.32 of the Revised Code;

(F)(1) As a condition of issuing or awarding a community-based long-term care services certificate or community-based long-term care services contract or grant to a self-employed provider, the department of aging or its designee shall request that the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation conduct a criminal records check of the self-employed provider. If rules adopted under this section so require, the department or its designee shall request that the superintendent conduct a criminal records check of a self-employed provider at times specified in the rules as a condition of not revoking or terminating the self-employed provider's community-based long-term care services certificate or community-based long-term care services contract or grant. However, the department or its designee is not required to request the criminal records check of the self-employed provider if the department or its designee, because of circumstances specified in division (C)(2)(a) of this section, is required to refuse to issue or award a community-based long-term care services certificate or community-based long-term care services contract or grant to the self-employed provider or to revoke or terminate the self-employed provider's certificate or contract or grant.

If a self-employed provider for whom a criminal records check request is required by this section does not present proof of having been a resident of this state for the five-year period immediately prior to the date the criminal records check is requested or provide evidence that within that five-year period the superintendent has requested information about the self-employed provider from the federal bureau of investigation in a criminal records check, the department or its designee shall request that the superintendent obtain information from the federal bureau of investigation as part of the criminal records check. Even if a self-employed provider for whom a criminal records check request is required by this section presents proof of having been a resident of this state for the five-year period, the department or its designee may request that the superintendent include information from the federal bureau of investigation in the criminal records check.

(a) Provide to each self-employed provider for whom a criminal records check request is required by this section a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section;

(b) Obtain the completed form and standard impression sheet from the self-employed provider;

(3) The department or its designee shall pay to the bureau of criminal identification and investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each criminal records check of a self-employed provider the department or its designee requests under this section. The department or its designee may charge the self-employed provider a fee that does not exceed the amount the department or its designee pays to the bureau.

(G) The report of any criminal records check of a self-employed provider conducted pursuant to a request made under this section is not a public record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not be made available to any person other than the following:

(2) The department of aging, the department's designee, or a representative of the department or its designee;

(3) The medicaid director and the staff of the department of medicaid who are involved in the administration of the medicaid program if the self-employed provider is to provide, or provides, community-based long-term care services under a component of the medicaid program that the department of aging administers;

(4) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual involved in a case dealing with any of the following:

(a) A refusal to issue or award a community-based long-term services certificate or community-based long-term care services contract or grant to the self-employed provider;

(b) A revocation or termination of the self-employed provider's community-based long-term care services certificate or community-based long-term care services contract or grant;

(H) In a tort or other civil action for damages that is brought as the result of an injury, death, or loss to person or property caused by a self-employed provider, both of the following shall apply:

(1) If the department of aging or its designee, in good faith and reasonable reliance on the report of a criminal records check requested under this section, issued or awarded a community-based long-term care services certificate or community-based long-term care services contract or grant to the self-employed provider or did not revoke or terminate the self-employed provider's certificate or contract or grant, the department and its designee shall not be found negligent solely because of its reliance on the report, even if the information in the report is determined later to have been incomplete or inaccurate.

(2) If the department or its designee in good faith issued or awarded a community-based long-term care services certificate or community-based long-term care services contract or grant to the self-employed provider or did not revoke or terminate the self-employed provider's certificate or contract or grant because the self-employed provider meets standards specified in rules adopted under this section, the department and its designee shall not be found negligent solely because the self-employed provider has been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense.

(I) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section.

(a) Require self-employed providers who have been issued or awarded community-based long-term care services certificates or community-based long-term care services contracts or grants to undergo database reviews and criminal records checks under this section;

(b) If the rules require self-employed providers who have been issued or awarded community-based long-term care services certificates or community-based long-term care services contracts or grants to undergo database reviews and criminal records checks under this section, exempt one or more classes of such self-employed providers from the requirements;

(c) For the purpose of division (E)(7) of this section, specify other databases that are to be checked as part of a database review conducted under this section.

(b) If the rules require self-employed providers who have been issued or awarded community-based long-term care services certificates or community-based long-term care services contracts or grants to undergo database reviews and criminal records checks under this section, the times at which the database reviews and criminal records checks are to be conducted;

(c) If the rules specify other databases to be checked as part of the database reviews, the circumstances under which the department of aging or its designee is required to refuse to issue or award a community-based long-term care services certificate or community-based long-term care services contract or grant to a self-employed provider or to revoke or terminate a self-employed provider's certificate or contract or grant when the self-employed provider is found by a database review to be included in one or more of those databases;

(d) Standards that a self-employed provider must meet for the department or its designee to be permitted to issue or award a community-based long-term care services certificate or community-based long-term care services contract or grant to the self-employed provider or not to revoke or terminate the self-employed provider's certificate or contract or grant if the self-employed provider is found by a criminal records check required by this section to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense.

Sec. 173.391. (A) ~~The~~ Subject to section 173.381 of the Revised Code, the department of aging or its designee shall do all of the following in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code:

(1) Certify a provider to provide community-based long-term care services under a program the department administers if the provider satisfies the requirements for certification established by rules adopted under division (B) of this section and pays the fee, if any, established by rules adopted under division (G) of this section;

(2) When required to do so by rules adopted under division (B) of this section, take one or more of the following disciplinary actions against a provider certified under division (A)(1) of this section:

(b) Require the submission of a plan of correction or evidence of compliance with requirements identified by the department;

(e) Impose a fiscal sanction such as a civil monetary penalty or an order that unearned funds be repaid;

(3) Except as provided in division (E) of this section, hold hearings when there is a dispute between the department or its designee and a provider concerning actions the department or its designee takes regarding a decision not to certify the provider under division (A)(1) of this section or a disciplinary action under divisions (A)(2)(e) to (h) of this section.

(B) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing certification requirements and standards for determining which type of disciplinary action to take under division (A)(2) of this section in individual situations. The rules shall establish procedures for all of the following:

(1) Ensuring that providers comply with ~~section~~ sections 173.38 and 173.381 of the Revised Code;

(2) Evaluating the services provided by the providers to ensure that the services are provided in a quality manner advantageous to the individual receiving the services;

(3) ~~Determining~~ In a manner consistent with section 173.381 of the Revised Code, determining when to take disciplinary action under division (A)(2) of this section and which disciplinary action to take;

(4) Determining what constitutes another sanction for purposes of division (A)(2)(h) of this section.

(C) The procedures established in rules adopted under division (B)(2) of this section shall require that all of the following be considered as part of an evaluation described in division (B)(2) of this section:

(2) The provider's ability to comply with standards for the community-based long-term care services that the provider provides under a program the department administers;

(D) The rules adopted under division (B)(3) of this section shall specify that the reasons disciplinary action may be taken under division (A)(2) of this section include good cause, including misfeasance, malfeasance, nonfeasance, confirmed abuse or neglect, financial irresponsibility, or other conduct the director determines is injurious, or poses a threat, to the health or safety of individuals being served.

(E) Subject to division (F) of this section, the department is not required to hold hearings under division (A)(3) of this section if any of the following conditions apply:

(1) Rules adopted by the director of aging pursuant to this chapter require the provider to be a party to a provider agreement; hold a license, certificate, or permit; or maintain a certification, any of which is required or issued by a state or federal government entity other than the department of aging, and either of the following is the case:

(a) The provider agreement has not been entered into or the license, certificate, permit, or certification has not been obtained or maintained.

(b) The provider agreement, license, certificate, permit, or certification has been denied, revoked, not renewed, or suspended or has been otherwise restricted.

(2) The provider's certification under this section has been denied, suspended, or revoked for any of the following reasons:

(a) A government entity of this state, other than the department of aging, has terminated or refused to renew any of the following held by, or has denied any of the following sought by, a provider: a provider agreement, license, certificate, permit, or certification. Division (E)(2)(a) of this section applies regardless of whether the provider has entered into a provider agreement in, or holds a license, certificate, permit, or certification issued by, another state.

(b) The provider or a principal owner or manager of the provider who provides direct care has entered a guilty plea for, or has been convicted of, an offense materially related to the medicaid program.

(c) ~~The provider or a~~ A principal owner or manager of the provider who provides direct care has entered a guilty plea for, been convicted of, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for an offense listed or described in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (e) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code, but only if the provider, principal owner, or manager does not meet standards specified by the director in rules adopted under section 173.38 of the Revised Code.

(d) The department or its designee is required by section 173.381 of the Revised Code to deny or revoke the provider's certification.

(e) The United States department of health and human services has taken adverse action against the provider and that action impacts the provider's participation in the medicaid program.

~~(e)~~(f) The provider has failed to enter into or renew a provider agreement with the PASSPORT administrative agency, as that term is defined in section 173.42 of the Revised Code, that administers programs on behalf of the department of aging in the region of the state in which the provider is certified to provide services.

~~(f)~~(g) The provider has not billed or otherwise submitted a claim to the department for payment under the medicaid program in at least two years.

~~(g)~~(h) The provider denied or failed to provide the department or its designee access to the provider's facilities during the provider's normal business hours for purposes of conducting an audit or structural compliance review.

~~(i)~~(j) The provider has voluntarily relinquished its certification for any reason.

(3) The provider's provider agreement with the department of medicaid has been suspended under division (C) of section 5164.37 of the Revised Code.

(4) The provider's provider agreement with the department of medicaid is denied or revoked because the provider or its owner, officer, authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee has been convicted of an offense that caused the provider agreement to be suspended under section 5164.37 of the Revised Code.

(F) If the department does not hold hearings when any condition described in division (E) of this section applies, the department may send a notice to the provider describing a decision not to certify the provider under division (A)(1) of this section or the disciplinary action the department proposes to take under division (A)(2)(e) to (h) of this section. The notice shall be sent to the provider's address that is on record with the department and may be sent by regular mail.

(G) The director of aging may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing a fee to be charged by the department of aging or its designee for certification issued under this section.

All fees collected by the department or its designee under this section shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the provider certification fund, which is hereby created. Money credited to the fund shall be used to pay for community-based long-term care services, administrative costs associated with provider certification under this section, and administrative costs related to the publication of the Ohio long-term care consumer guide.

Sec. 173.392. (A) The department of aging may pay a provider for providing community-based long-term care services under a program the department administers, even though the provider is not certified under section 173.391 of the Revised Code, if all of the following are the case:

(1) The provider has a contract with the department of aging or the department's designee to provide the services in accordance with the contract or has received a grant from the department or its designee to provide the services in accordance with a grant agreement;

(2) The contract or grant agreement includes detailed conditions of participation for the provider and service standards that the provider is required to satisfy;

(4) The contract or grant is not for medicaid-funded services, other than services provided under the PACE program administered by the department of aging under section 173.50 of the Revised Code.

(B)(1) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code governing both of the following:

~~(1)~~(a) Contracts and grant agreements between the department of aging or its designee and providers;

~~(2)~~(b) The department's payment for community-based long-term care services under this section.

(2) The rules adopted under this section shall be consistent with section 173.381 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 173.47. (A) For purposes of publishing the Ohio long-term care consumer guide, the department of aging shall conduct or provide for the conduct of an annual customer satisfaction survey of each long-term care facility. The results of the surveys may include information obtained from long-term care facility residents, their families, or both. A survey that is to include information obtained from nursing facility residents shall include the questions specified in divisions (C)(7)(a) and (b) ~~and (18) and (D)(7)(a) and (b)~~ of section 5165.25 of the Revised Code. A survey that is to include information obtained from the families of nursing facility residents shall include the questions specified in divisions (C)(8)(a) and (b) ~~and (19) and (D)(8)(a) and (b)~~ of section 5165.25 of the Revised Code.

(B) Each long-term care facility shall cooperate in the conduct of its annual customer satisfaction survey.

Sec. 175.04. (A) The governor shall appoint a chairperson from among the members. The agency members shall elect a member as vice-chairperson. The agency members may appoint other officers, who need not be members of the agency, as the agency deems necessary.

(B) Six members of the agency constitute a quorum and the affirmative vote of six members is necessary for any action the agency takes. No vacancy in agency membership impairs the right of a quorum to exercise all of the agency's rights and perform all the agency's duties. Agency meetings may be held at any place within the state. Meetings shall comply with section 121.22 of the Revised Code.

(C) The agency shall maintain accounting records in accordance with generally accepted accounting principals and other required accounting standards.

(D) The agency shall develop policies and guidelines for the administration of its programs and annually shall conduct at least one public hearing to obtain input from any interested party regarding the administration of its programs. The hearing shall be held at a time and place as the agency determines and when a quorum of the agency is present.

(E) The agency shall appoint committees and subcommittees comprised of members of the agency to handle matters it deems appropriate.

(1) The agency shall adopt an annual plan to address this state's housing needs. The agency shall appoint an annual plan committee to develop the plan and present it to the agency for consideration.

(2) The annual plan committee shall select an advisory board from a list of interested individuals the executive director provides or on its own recommendation. The advisory board shall provide input on the plan at committee meetings prior to the annual public hearing. At the public hearing, the committee shall discuss advisory board comments. The advisory board may include, but is not limited to, persons who represent state agencies, local governments, public corporations, nonprofit organizations, community development corporations, housing advocacy organizations for low- and moderate-income persons, realtors, syndicators, investors, lending institutions as recommended by a statewide banking organization, and other entities participating in the agency's programs.

Each agency program that allows for loans to be made to finance housing for owner occupancy that benefits other than low- and moderate-income households, or for loans to be made to individuals under bonds issued pursuant to division (B) of section 175.08 of the Revised Code, shall be presented to the advisory board and included in the annual plan as approved by the agency before the program's implementation.

(F) The agency shall prepare an annual financial report describing its activities during the reporting year and submit that report in accordance with division (H) of this section and to the governor, the speaker of the house of representatives, and the president of the senate within three months after the end of the reporting year. The report shall include the agency's audited financial statements, prepared in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles and appropriate accounting standards.

(G) The agency shall prepare an annual report of its programs describing how the programs have met this state's housing needs. The agency shall submit the report in accordance with division (H) of this section and to the governor, the speaker of the house of representatives, and the president of the senate within three months after the end of the reporting year.

(H)(1) The agency shall submit, within a time frame agreed to by the agency and the chairs, the annual financial report described in division (F) of this section and the annual report of programs described in division (G) of this section to the chairs of the committees dealing with housing issues in the house of representatives and the senate.

(2) Within forty-five days of issuance of the annual financial report, the agency's executive director shall request to appear in person before the committees described in division (H)(1) of this section to testify in regard to the financial report and the report of programs. The testimony shall include each of the following:

(a) An overview of the annual plan adopted pursuant to division (E)(1) of this section;

(b) An evaluation of whether the objectives in the annual plan were met through a comparison of the annual plan with the annual financial report and report of programs;

(c) A complete listing by award and amount of all business and contractual relationships in excess of one hundred thousand dollars between the agency and other entities and organizations that participated in agency programs during the fiscal year reported by the agency's annual financial report and report of programs;

(d) A complete listing by award and amount of the low-income housing tax credit syndication and direct investor entities for projects that received tax credit reservations and IRS Form 8609 during the fiscal year.

Sec. 175.05. (A) The Ohio housing finance agency shall do all of the following related to the agency's operation:

(2) Employ and fix the compensation of an the executive director who serves at the pleasure of the agency to administer the agency's programs and activities. The executive director may employ and fix the compensation of employees in the unclassified civil service as necessary to carry out this chapter and may employ other personnel who are governed by collective bargaining law and classified under that law. The executive director shall ~~file financial disclosure statements~~ carry out all duties as described in section ~~102.02~~ 175.053 of the Revised Code.

(3) Establish an operating budget for the agency and administer funds appropriated for the agency's use;

(4) Notwithstanding any other provision of the Revised Code, hold all moneys, funds, properties, and assets the agency acquires or that are directly or indirectly within the agency's control, including proceeds from the sale of bonds, revenues, and otherwise, in trust for the purpose of exercising its powers and carrying out its duties pursuant to this chapter. Notwithstanding any other provision of the Revised Code other than section 175.051 of the Revised Code, at no time shall the agency's moneys, funds, properties, or assets be considered public moneys, public funds, public properties, or public assets or subject to Chapters 131. and 135. of the Revised Code.

(B) The Ohio housing finance agency may do any of the following related to the agency's operation:

(1) Except as otherwise provided in section 174.04 of the Revised Code, determine income limits for low- and moderate-income persons and establish periodic reviews of income limits. In determining income limits, the agency shall take into consideration the amount of income available for housing, family size, the cost and condition of available housing, ability to pay the amounts the private market charges for decent, safe, and sanitary housing without federal subsidy or state assistance, and the income eligibility standards of federal programs. Income limits may vary from area to area within the state.

(2) Provide technical information, advice, and assistance related to obtaining federal and state aid to assist in the planning, construction, rehabilitation, refinancing, and operation of housing;

(3) Provide information, assistance, or instruction concerning agency programs, eligibility requirements, application procedures, and other related matters;

(4) Procure or require the procurement of insurance and pay the premium against loss in connection with the agency's operations, to include the repayment of a loan, in amounts and from insurers, including the federal government, as the agency determines;

(5) Contract with, retain, or designate financial consultants, accountants, and other consultants and independent contractors, other than attorneys, whom the agency determines are necessary or appropriate;

(6) Charge, alter, and collect interest and other charges for program services including, but not limited to, the allocation of loan funds, the purchase of mortgage loans, and the provision of services that include processing, inspecting, and monitoring of housing units financed and the financial records for those units;

(7) Conduct or authorize studies and analyses of housing needs and conditions to the extent that those activities are not carried out by other agencies in a manner that is satisfactory for the agency's needs;

(8)(a) Acquire by gift, purchase, foreclosure, investment, or other means, and hold, assign, pledge, lease, transfer, or otherwise dispose of real and personal property or any interest in that property in the exercise of its powers and the performance of its duties;

(b) Any instrument by which real property is acquired pursuant to this section shall identify the state agency that has the use and benefit of the real property as specified in section 5301.012 of the Revised Code.

(9)(a) Borrow money, receive gifts, grants, loans, or other assistance from any federal, state, local, or other government source, including the housing development fund and the housing trust fund, and enter into contracts in connection with those sources of assistance;

(b) Receive assistance or contributions from any nongovernment source to include money, property, labor, or things of value, to be held, used, and applied only for the purposes for which the grants and contributions are made and within the purposes of this chapter.

(10) Sue and be sued in its own name with respect to its contracts, obligations, and covenants, or the enforcement of this chapter. Any actions against the agency shall be brought in a court of competent jurisdiction located in Franklin county, Ohio.

(11) Enter into any contract, commitment, or agreement and execute any instrument necessary or incidental to the performance of duties and the execution of powers;

(13)(a) Contract with any private or government entity to administer programs for which the agency receives sufficient revenues for its services or the agency supports with uncommitted agency resources that pay the agency's operating costs;

(b) Administer state and federal programs for which the governor designates the agency to act as administrator. The agency may charge administrative fees to the state, the federal government, or a program recipient.

(14) Notwithstanding any other provision of the Revised Code, establish, maintain, administer, and close funds and accounts as convenient or appropriate to the agency's operations;

(15) Establish a policy to permit the investment of agency funds in securities and obligations;

(16) Establish rules and procedures that the agency determines are appropriate to appeal the agency's actions and decisions;

(17) Serve housing needs in instances that the agency determines necessary as a public purpose;

(18) Provide coverage for its employees under Chapters 145., 4123., and 4141. of the Revised Code;

(20) Do anything necessary or appropriate to exercise the powers of this chapter and carry out the purposes of this chapter and Section 14, Article VIII and Section 16, Article VIII, Ohio Constitution.

(C) The attorney general shall serve as the legal representative for the Ohio housing finance agency and may appoint special counsel for that purpose in accordance with section 109.07 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 175.053. The executive director employed by the agency pursuant to division (A)(2) of section 175.05 of the Revised Code shall do all of the following:

(A) File financial disclosure statements as described in section 102.02 of the Revised Code;

(B) Ensure policies and procedures are developed and maintained for the operation and administration of the agency's programs and activities that encourage competition and minimize concentration. Policies and procedures shall address all applicable requirements described in the Revised Code and federal regulations.

(C) Provide an update, during the testimony described in division (H)(2) of section 175.04 of the Revised Code, on any audits performed during the fiscal year.

Sec. 175.06. (A) The Ohio housing finance agency shall do all of the following related to carrying out its programs:

(1) Upon the governor's designation, serve as the housing credit agency for the state and perform all responsibilities of a housing credit agency pursuant to Section 42 of the Internal Revenue Code and similar applicable laws;

(2) Require that housing that benefits from the agency's assistance be available without discrimination in accordance with Chapter 4112. of the Revised Code and applicable provisions of federal law;

(4) Efficiently award funding to maximize affordable housing production using cost-effective strategies;

(5) Encourage national equity investment in low-income housing tax credit projects;

(6) Utilize resources to provide competitive homebuyer programs to serve low- and moderate-income persons.

(B) The Ohio housing finance agency may do any of the following related to carrying out its programs:

(1) Issue bonds, provide security for assets, make deposits, purchase or make loans, provide economic incentives for the development of housing, and provide financial assistance for emergency housing;

(2) Serve as a public housing agency and contract with the United States department of housing and urban development to administer the department's rent subsidy program, housing subsidy program, and monitoring programs for low- and moderate-income persons. The agency shall ensure that any contract into which it enters provides for sufficient compensation to the agency for its services.

(3) Develop and administer programs under which the agency uses moneys from the housing trust fund as allocated by the department of development to extend financial assistance pursuant to sections 174.01 to 174.07 of the Revised Code;

(5) Guarantee and commit to guarantee the repayment of financing that a lending institution extends for housing, guaranteeing that debt with any of the agency's reserve funds not raised by taxation and not otherwise obligated for debt service, including the housing development fund established pursuant to section 175.11 of the Revised Code and any fund created under division (B)(14) of section 175.05 of the Revised Code;

(6) Make, commit to make, and participate in making financial assistance, including federally insured mortgage loans, available to finance the construction and rehabilitation of housing or to refinance existing housing;

(7) Invest in, purchase, and take from lenders the assignment of notes or other evidence of debt including federally insured mortgage loans, or participate with lenders in notes and loans for homeownership, development, or refinancing of housing;

(8) Sell at public or private sale any mortgage or mortgage backed securities the agency holds;

(9) Issue bonds to carry out the agency's purposes as set forth in this chapter;

(10) Extend or otherwise make available housing assistance on terms the agency determines.

(C) The Ohio housing finance agency may issue bonds and extend financial assistance from any fund the agency administers for the prompt replacement, repair, or refinancing of damaged housing if both of the following apply:

(1) The governor declares that a state of emergency exists with respect to a county, region, or political subdivision of this state, or declares that a county, region, or political subdivision has experienced a disaster as defined in section 5502.21 of the Revised Code.

(2) The agency determines that the emergency or disaster has substantially damaged or destroyed housing in the area of the emergency or disaster.

(D) The agency shall establish guidelines for extending financial assistance for emergency housing. The guidelines shall include eligibility criteria for assistance and the terms and conditions under which the agency may extend financial assistance.

(A) "Administrative safeguards," "availability," "confidentiality," "integrity," "physical safeguards," and "technical safeguards" have the same meanings as in 45 C.F.R. 164.304.

(B) "Business associate," "covered entity," "health plan," "individually identifiable health information," and "protected health information" have the same meanings as in 45 C.F.R. 160.103.

(C) "Executive director of the office of health transformation" or "executive director" means the executive director of the office of health transformation or the chief administrative officer of a successor governmental entity responsible for health system oversight in this state.

(D) "Government program providing public benefits" means any program administered by a state agency that has been identified, pursuant to section 191.02 of the Revised Code, by the executive director of the office of health transformation in consultation with the individuals specified in that section.

(E) "Office of health transformation" means the office of health transformation created by executive order 2011-02K.

(F) "Operating protocol" means a protocol adopted by the executive director of the office of health transformation or the executive director's designee under division (D) of section 191.06 of the Revised Code.

(G) "Participating agency" means a state agency that participates in a health transformation initiative as specified in the one or more operating protocols adopted for the initiative under division (D) of section 191.06 of the Revised Code.

(H) "Personally identifiable information" means information that meets both of the following criteria:

(1) It identifies an individual or there is a reasonable basis to believe that it may be used to identify an individual;

(2) It relates to an individual's eligibility for, application for, or receipt of public benefits from a government program providing public benefits.

Sec. 193.01. The general assembly finds that the presence and stability of federal-military installations and the associated private industry and higher education collaborations that occur within the state preserves existing jobs, creates new jobs and employment opportunities, improves the economic welfare of the people of the state, and materially contributes to regional economic stability in the area of their locations. Therefore, it is declared to be the public policy of the state to assist in and facilitate public or private partnerships that would aid in the retention and growth in the active federal and military missions and agencies located in the state.

Sec. 193.03. (A) There is hereby created the federal-military jobs commission to develop and maintain an ongoing strategy for retention and growth of federal-military agencies and missions and associated private sector jobs in the state.

(B) The commission shall consist of the following members, none of whom may be an elected official of the state:

(C)(1) Initial appointments to the commission shall be made not later than October 1, 2014. Members shall serve one-year terms.

(2) Members may be reappointed to the commission. Vacancies on the commission shall be filled in the same manner as the original appointments.

(3) Members serve at the pleasure of, and may be removed for just cause by, the member's appointing authority.

(4) Qualifications for an individual's appointment to the commission may include, but are not limited to, any of the following service or employment experience:

(b) Civilian service in an executive leadership position in a federal-military agency;

(e) Experience in commercialization and privatization of research and technology.

(D) The first person appointed by the president of the senate shall schedule the first meeting of the commission. At the first meeting, the commission shall select a chairperson from among its members. After the first meeting, the commission shall meet at least once during each quarter at the call of the chairperson or upon the request of a majority of the commission's members. A majority of the commission constitutes a quorum, and no action shall be taken without the concurrence of a majority of the members.

(E) The adjutant general shall provide administrative assistance to the commission, including office space and facilities for the commission.

(F) The commission shall administer any money that may be appropriated to it by the general assembly.

(G) Commission members shall serve without compensation, but shall be reimbursed for actual and necessary expenses incurred in the performance of commission duties.

(H) The attorney general shall serve as the legal representative for the commission and may appoint special counsel as necessary for that purpose in accordance with section 109.07 of the Revised Code.

(I) The commission may employ professional, technical, and clerical employees as are necessary for the commission to be able to successfully and efficiently perform its duties. All such employees are in the unclassified service and serve at the commission's pleasure. The commission may contract for the services of persons who are qualified by education and experience to advise, consult with, or otherwise assist the commission in the performance of its duties.

Sec. 193.05. (A) The federal-military jobs commission shall be responsible for the furtherance and implementation of federal-military installation jobs and any programs under this chapter. The federal-military jobs commission shall do the following:

(1) Develop and recommend strategies that support and foster collaboration among local and regional entities to identify appropriate opportunities for the protection of existing federal-military facilities and the placement of additional federal-military facilities in the state;

(2) For facilities located in the state, maintain a current listing of all facilities of the federal government, including military, national security, and national aeronautics and space administration facilities, Ohio national guard facilities, and related state and federal facilities, including their master plans;

(3) Make recommendations, as appropriate, to prepare the state to effectively compete in future and ongoing federal budget reduction processes;

(4) For the purpose of formulating strategies to secure the long-term viability, retention, and growth of military missions and facilities in the state, direct and review studies by experts that have utilized past base realignment and closure criteria and scoring to conduct a thorough and detailed analysis of the military value of the state's military installations, ranges, and airspace;

(5) Review the scoring criteria from any previous federal defense base closure and realignment commission's processes to determine the following:

(a) The strengths and weaknesses of the state relative to competing installations and facilities, which shall include an analysis of military value 1-4 attributes, metrics and criteria such as airspace attributes, encroachment, air traffic control restrictions, area cost factors, and area weather;

(b) The opportunities for increasing the military value of federal-military operations in the state that still exist after a previous federal defense base closure and realignment commission process.

(6) Provide an ongoing examination of federal agency construction, including construction for the military, for homeland security, and for the national aeronautics and space administration, and related operations budget requests relative to the infrastructure plans of federal-military agencies and facilities;

(7) Access and review long-range military construction plans, associated costs, and timelines as made available by federal government agencies;

(8) Recommend a public-private partnership for services specified by the commission that include, but are not limited to, energy services, internet connectivity, snow removal, fire service, waste management, library services, day care center services, security services, and services opportunities to lower the cost of operations at federal-military installations in the state;

(9) Examine the roles and responsibilities of general aviation at airports located in the state and develop and recommend local and federal programs to assist the state's installations and facilities related to municipal airport agreements and the federal airport improvement program;

(10) Review and develop joint base and infrastructure plans for improving proximity to training areas, consolidating training centers, and determining alternatives that may exist in current federal military construction programs for shared services and shared savings opportunities;

(11) Evaluate plans for federal agencies and local communities that address excess capacity of buildings, developed land, and land available for development;

(12) Evaluate enhanced use lease opportunities made available to federal-military entities in Ohio;

(13) Recommend to the general assembly future programs that may enhance the state's ability to compete for the retention and creation of job opportunities related to federal-military facilities and infrastructure in the state;

(14) In consultation with other state agencies, develop programs that utilize federal and higher education research initiatives to commercialize and privatize products to private sector companies in the state;

(15) Develop programs that create a statewide response to the federal initiatives that make contracts available to small businesses and veteran-owned Ohio businesses;

(16) Develop programs and initiatives to promote career awareness and readiness for, and job placement with, federal-military jobs and other private sector employer jobs in the state.

(B) The commission shall adopt internal rules and policies to implement any of the provisions of this chapter applicable to the commission.

(C) Except as otherwise prescribed in this chapter, all expenses incurred by the commission in carrying out the commission's powers and in exercising the commission's duties under this chapter, shall be payable solely from, as appropriate, moneys in the federal-military jobs fund. This chapter does not authorize the commission to incur bonded indebtedness of the state or any political subdivision thereof, or to obligate or pledge moneys raised by taxation for the payment of any guarantees made pursuant to this chapter.

(D) Government agencies of the state shall cooperate with and provide assistance to the commission and the controlling board in the exercise of their respective functions under this chapter.

Sec. 193.07. There is hereby created in the state treasury the federal-military jobs fund. The fund shall consist of moneys appropriated to it by the general assembly.

Sec. 193.09. Not later than the first day of April in 2015, the federal-military jobs commission shall submit a report to the governor, the president and minority leader of the senate, and the speaker and minority leader of the house of representatives that outlines the commission's activities for the preceding year, including findings and evaluations under divisions (A)(1) to (6) of section 193.05 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 306.04. (A) Except as otherwise provided in division (B) of this section, employees of a county transit board or a board of county commissioners operating a transit system are employees of the county. If the system is operated by the board of county commissioners, the board shall appoint an executive director, who shall be in the unclassified service.

(B) Any county transit board that established its own civil service organization and procedure prior to October 25, 1995, shall continue to operate under that organization. Appointments and promotions in that system shall be made, as far as practicable, by competitive examination.

A board that established its own civil service organization prior to October 25, 1995, shall establish by rule the seniority provisions relating to street railway and motor bus employees in effect at the time of the acquisition of the transit system by the county. The vacation, holiday, and sick leave privileges shall not be regulated by other provisions of law relating to public employees of the state or county, except that the transit board, its officers and employees, shall be subject to the public employees retirement system of the state and the transit board shall assume any pension obligations which have been assumed by any publicly owned transit system which the county may acquire.

(1) Acquire in its name by gift, grant, purchase, or condemnation and hold and operate real estate and interests therein and personal property suitable for its purposes;

(2) In its name purchase, acquire, construct, enlarge, improve, equip, repair, maintain, sell, exchange, lease as lessee or lessor, receive a right of use of, and manage, control, and operate, in or out of the county, a county transit system consisting of all real estate and interests therein, personal property, and a combination thereof, for or related to the movement of persons including but not limited to street railway, tramline, subways, rapid transits, monorails, and passenger bus systems but excluding therefrom trucks, the movement of property by truck, and facilities designed for use in the movement of property by truck for hire;

(3) Issue, with the approval of the county commissioners when the issuance is made by the transit board, revenue bonds of the county as provided in division (B) of section 306.09 of the Revised Code, to secure funds to accomplish its purposes. The principal of and interest on such bonds, together with all other payments required to be made by the trust agreement or indenture securing such bonds, shall be paid solely from revenues or other income accruing to the board from facilities of the county transit system designated in said agreement or indenture.

(4) Enter into contracts in the exercise of the rights, powers, and duties conferred upon it, and execute all instruments necessary in the conduct of its business;

(5) Fix, alter, and charge rates and other charges for the use of its real estate and interests therein, personal property, and combinations thereof;

(6) Employ such financial consultants, accountants, appraisers, consulting engineers, architects, construction experts, attorneys-at-law, managers and other supervisory personnel, and other officers, employees, and agents as it determines necessary to conduct its business, and fix their compensation and duties;

(7) Pledge, hypothecate, or otherwise encumber its revenues and other income as security for its obligations and enter into trust agreements or indentures for the benefit of revenue bondholders;

(8) Borrow money or accept or contract to accept advances, loans, gifts, grants, devises, or bequests from and enter into contracts or agreements with any federal, state, or other governmental or private source and hold and apply advances, loans, gifts, grants, devises, or bequests according to the terms thereof including provisions which are required by such federal, state, or other governmental or private source to protect the interest of employees affected by such advances, loans, gifts, grants, devises, or bequests. Such advances, loans, gifts, grants, or devises may be subject to any reasonable reservation and any gift, grant, or devise or real estate may be in fee simple or any lesser estate. Any advances or loans received from any federal, state, or other governmental or private source may be repaid in accordance with the terms of such advance or loan. A loan accepted by a county transit board shall not, in any way, obligate the general fund of a county or a board of county commissioners.

(9) Conduct investigations and surveys into the needs of the public within or without the county for transportation services to provide for the movement of persons within, into, or from the area serviced or to be serviced by the county transit system;

(10) Enter into lawful arrangements with the appropriate federal or state department or agency, county, township, municipal corporation, or other political subdivision or public agency for the planning and installation of any public facilities which are determined necessary in the conduct of its business;

(11) Purchase fire, extended coverage, and liability insurance for the real estate and interests therein, personal property and any combination thereof, used by or in connection with the county transit system and insurance covering the board and the county transit system and its officers and employees for liability for damage or injury to persons or property;

(12) Procure and pay all or any part of the cost of group hospitalization, surgical, major medical, or sickness and accident insurance, or a combination thereof, for the officers and employees of the county transit system and their immediate dependents, issued by an insurance company, duly authorized to do business in this state;

(13) Sell, lease, release, or otherwise dispose of real estate or interests therein or personal property owned by it and grant such easements across its real estate and interests therein as will not interfere with its use by the county transit system;

(14) Establish rules for the use and operation of the county transit system including the real estate or interests therein, personal property or a combination of the foregoing used by or in connection with such system;

(15) Exercise the power of eminent domain to appropriate any real estate or interests therein, personal property, franchises, or any combination thereof, within or without the county, necessary or proper in the exercise of its powers provided in sections 306.01 to 306.13 of the Revised Code, as provided in sections 163.01 to 163.22 of the Revised Code, and subject to divisions (15)(a), (b), and (c) of this section, provided that a county transit board or a board of county commissioners operating a transit system shall not proceed to so appropriate real property outside its territorial boundaries, until it has served at the office of the county commissioners of the county in which it is proposed to appropriate real property, a notice describing the real property to be taken and the purpose for which it is proposed to be taken, and such county commissioners have entered on their journal within thirty days after such service a resolution approving such appropriation;.

(a) Nothing contained in this division authorizes a county transit board or a board of county commissioners to appropriate any land, rights, rights-of-way, franchises, or easements belonging to the state or to a municipal corporation without the consent of the state or of the municipal corporation, and no county transit board or board of county commissioners shall exercise the right of eminent domain to acquire any certificate of public convenience and necessity, or any part thereof, issued to a for-hire motor carrier by the public utilities commission of Ohio or by the federal motor carrier safety administration of the United States, or to take or disturb other real estate or interests therein, personal property, or any combination thereof belonging to any municipal corporation without the consent of the legislative authority of such municipal corporation, or take or disturb real estate or interests therein, personal property, or any combination thereof belonging to any other political subdivision, public corporation, public utility, or common carrier, which is necessary and convenient in the operation of such political subdivision, public corporation, public utility, or common carrier unless provision is made for the restoration, relocation, or duplication of that taken or upon the election of such political subdivision, public corporation, public utility, or common carrier for the payment of compensation, if any, at the sole cost of the county transit system.

(b) If any restoration or duplication proposed to be made under this division involves a relocation, the new location shall have at least comparable utilitarian value and effectiveness, and such relocation shall not impair the ability of the public utility or common carrier to compete in its original area of operation.

(c) If such restoration or duplication proposed to be made under this division involves a relocation, the county transit board or board of county commissioners shall acquire no interest or right in or to the appropriated property or facility until the relocated property or facility is available for use and until marketable title thereto has been transferred to the political subdivision, public corporation, public utility, or common carrier. Nothing in this division shall require any board of county commissioners or county transit board operating a county transit system to so restore, relocate, or duplicate, if all of the real estate and interests therein, personal property, and any combination of the foregoing which is owned by a public utility or common carrier and used by it or in connection with the movement of persons, is acquired by exercise of the power of eminent domain.

(16) When real property is acquired that is located outside the county and is removed from the tax duplicate, the county transit board or board of county commissioners operating a transit system shall pay annually to the county treasurer of the county in which that property is located, commencing with the first tax year in which that property is removed from the tax duplicate, an amount of money in lieu of taxes equal to the smaller of the following:

(a) The last annual installment of taxes due from the acquired property before removal from the tax duplicate;

(b) An amount equal to the difference between the combined revenue from real estate taxes of all the taxing districts in which the property is located in the tax year immediately prior to the removal of the acquired property from the tax duplicate, and either:

(i) The total revenue which would be produced by the tax rate of each such taxing district in the tax year immediately prior to the removal of the acquired property from the tax duplicate, applied to the real estate tax duplicate of each of such taxing districts in each tax year subsequent to the year of removal; or

(ii) The combined revenue from real estate taxes of all such taxing districts in each tax year subsequent to the year of removal, whichever is the greater.

The county transit board or board of county commissioners may be exempted from such payment by agreement of the affected taxing district or districts in the county in which the property is located.

The county auditor of the county in which that property is located shall apportion each such annual payment to each taxing district as if the annual payment had been levied and collected as a tax.

(17) Sue or be sued, plead or be impleaded, and be held liable in any court of proper jurisdiction for damages received by reason of negligence, in the same manner and to the same extent as if the county transit system were privately operated, provided, that no funds of a county other than those of the county transit board or, if the transit system is operated by the board of county commissioners, other than those in the account for the county transit system created under division (C) of section 306.01 of the Revised Code, shall be available for the satisfaction of judgments rendered against that system;

(18) Annually prepare and make available for public inspection a report in condensed form showing the financial results of the operation of the county transit system. For systems operated by a county transit board, copies of this report shall be furnished to the county commissioners as well as a monthly summary statement of revenues and expenses for the preceding month sufficient to show the exact financial condition of the county transit system as of the last day of the preceding month.

(19) With the approval of the county commissioners when the action is taken by the transit board, and without competitive bidding, sell, lease, or grant the right of use of all or a portion of the county transit system to any other political subdivision, taxing district, or other public body or agency having the power to operate a transit system;

~~(20) Enter into and supervise franchise agreements for the operation of a county transit system;~~

~~(21) Accept the assignment of and then supervise an existing franchise agreement for the operation of a county transit system~~.

(a) "Applicant" means any person who responds to a request for proposals and submits an application for a franchise to operate a public transit system or portion of a public transit system;

(b) "Application for certification" means the documents that are required to be filed by a franchisee to initiate the proceedings required for certification;

(c) "Application for a franchise" means the documents that are required to be filed in response to a request for proposals and that initiate the proceedings required for the award of a franchise;

(d) "Certification" means the order issued by a board of county commissioners, after submission of an application for certification, that approves the operation of a public transit system, or a portion of a public transit system, by a franchisee, subject to terms and conditions imposed by the board.

(e) "Franchise" means the document and all accompanying rights approved by the board of county commissioners that provides the franchisee with the exclusive right to establish a public transit system and, subject to certification, the right to operate a public transit system. A franchise may include the right of a franchisee to provide transportation services for a county department of job and family services.

(f) "Franchisee" means the individual, corporation, or other entity awarded a franchise.

(2) A board of county commissioners, on behalf of a county transit board, may award a franchise to an applicant subject to such terms and conditions as the board of county commissioners considers appropriate and consistent with applicable laws. Subsequent to awarding the franchise, the board of county commissioners may issue a certification and, until such issuance, the franchisee has no right to operate a public transit system or part of such a system. The board of county commissioners shall not delete, alter, or amend the terms and conditions of the certification after its issuance. The board shall include in the certification performance targets related to the operation of a public transit system by the franchisee, including cost savings to the county, gains in efficiency, the safety and security of the traveling public and franchise employees, service to the traveling public, return on any investments made by the county, and any other performance targets as determined by the board. All terms and conditions of the order of certification are terms and conditions of the franchise. Unless expressly exempted or granted a waiver in the certification, the franchisee shall comply with all applicable rules, regulations, orders, and ordinances.

(3) The award of a franchise by a board of county commissioners to an applicant is the sole license and authority for the franchisee to establish a public transit system and, subject to certification, operate a public transit system.

(4) A board of county commissioners shall award a franchise for a period of not less than ten years, as provided in the franchise.

(5) A franchise shall not prohibit the franchisee from implementing new or improved services during the term of the franchise.

(6) A franchisee shall coordinate its services, as specified in the franchise, with public transit providers to make effective transportation services available to the public and provide access to and from the public transit system.

(7) A board of county commissioners shall provide terms and conditions in a franchise to ensure that the franchisee will continue operation of the public transit system for the duration of the term of the franchise or, if the franchise is revoked, suspended, or abandoned, that financial and other necessary resources are available to continue the operation of the system until another franchisee is selected or until the board of county commissioners determines to cease the transit operations governed by the franchise. The franchise shall specifically provide that the board shall have the right to terminate the franchise if the board determines that the franchisee has materially breached the franchise in any manner. The franchisee may appeal such a termination to the board, and, if the board upholds the termination, to the proper court of common pleas.

Sec. 306.14. (A) If a board of county commissioners awards a franchise to a franchisee on behalf of a county transit board, the county transit board shall submit an annual written report to the board of county commissioners not later than a date designated by the board of county commissioners and in a form prescribed by that board. The board of county commissioners shall make the report available on the general web site of the county. The county transit board shall include in the report a description in detail of the effects the franchise agreement had during the prior year on all of the following as they relate to the operation of a public transit system by the franchisee in that county:

(6) Any other aspects the board of county commissioners determines should be included in the report.

(B) A franchisee that is awarded a franchise by a board of county commissioners on behalf of a county transit board shall submit an annual written report to the board of county commissioners or county transit board not later than a date designated by the board of county commissioners and in a form prescribed by that board. The board of county commissioners also shall direct the franchisee to submit the report to the board of county commissioners, the county transit board, or both. The board of county commissioners shall establish the issues to be addressed in the report with respect to the public transit system that the franchisee operated during the prior year. The board of county commissioners shall make the report available on the general web site of the county.

(C) A board of county commissioners that awards a franchise to a franchisee on behalf of a county transit board shall conduct an annual review of the performance of the franchisee. The board of county commissioners shall include in the review a determination of the number of performance targets the franchisee met during the prior year and an evaluation of the franchisee's compliance with the other terms and conditions of the franchise, including any breaches of the franchise by the franchisee. The board shall issue a written report, and shall make the report available on the general web site of the county.

(1) "Stadium" means an open-air structure designed and developed to provide a venue for public entertainment, cultural activities and recreation, or any combination thereof, including concerts, athletic and sporting events, and other events and exhibitions, together with concession, locker room, parking, restroom, and storage facilities, walkways, and other auxiliary facilities, whether included within or separate from the structure, and all real and personal property and interests therein related to the use of the structure for those purposes.

(2) "Bureau" means a nonprofit corporation that is organized under the laws of this state that is, or has among its functions acting as, a convention and visitors' bureau, and that currently receives revenue from existing lodging taxes.

(4) "Cooperative agreement" means an agreement entered into pursuant to division (B) of this section.

(5) "Corporation" means a nonprofit corporation that is organized under the laws of this state and has corporate authority under its organizational instruments to acquire, construct, reconstruct, equip, finance, furnish, otherwise improve, own, lease, or operate a stadium.

(6) "Debt charges" has the same meaning as in section 133.01 of the Revised Code, except that "obligations" shall be substituted for "securities" wherever "securities" appears in that section.

(7) "Eligible county" means a county having a population of at least three hundred seventy-five thousand, but not more than four hundred thousand, according to the most recent federal decennial census.

(8) "Existing lodging taxes" means taxes levied by a board of county commissioners of an eligible county under division (A) of section 5739.09 of the Revised Code.

(9) "Financing costs" means all costs and expenses relating to the authorization, including any required election, issuance, sale, delivery, authentication, deposit, custody, clearing, registration, transfer, exchange, fractionalization, replacement, payment, and servicing, of obligations, including, without limitation, costs and expenses for or relating to publication and printing, postage, delivery, preliminary and final official statements, offering circulars, and informational statements, travel and transportation, underwriters, placement agents, investment bankers, paying agents, registrars, authenticating agents, remarketing agents, custodians, clearing agencies or corporations, securities depositories, financial advisory services, certifications, audits, federal or state regulatory agencies, accounting and computation services, legal services and obtaining approving legal opinions and other legal opinions, credit ratings, redemption premiums, and credit enhancement facilities. Financing costs may be paid from any money available for the purpose, including, unless otherwise provided in the proceedings, from the proceeds of the obligations to which they relate and, as to future financing costs, from the same sources from which debt charges on the obligations are paid and as though debt charges.

(10) "Host municipal corporation" means a municipal corporation, having a population of at least seventy thousand but not more than eighty thousand according to the most recent federal decennial census, within the boundaries of which a stadium is located.

(11) "Host school district" means the school district within the boundaries of which a stadium is located.

(12) "Issuer" means any issuer, as defined in section 133.01 of the Revised Code, and any corporation.

(13) "Obligations" means obligations that are issued or incurred by an issuer pursuant to Chapter 133. or 4582. of the Revised Code, or otherwise, for the purpose of funding or paying, or reimbursing persons for the funding or payment of, project costs, and that evidence the issuer's obligation to repay borrowed money, including interest thereon, or to pay other money obligations of the issuer at any future time, including, without limitation, bonds, notes, anticipatory securities as defined in section 133.01 of the Revised Code, certificates of indebtedness, commercial paper, or installment sale, lease, lease-purchase, or similar agreements.

(14) "Port authority" means a port authority created under Chapter 4582. of the Revised Code.

(15) "Project" means acquiring, constructing, reconstructing, rehabilitating, remodeling, renovating, enlarging, equipping, furnishing, or otherwise improving a stadium or any component or element thereof.

(16) "Project cost" means the cost of acquiring, constructing, reconstructing, rehabilitating, remodeling, renovating, enlarging, equipping, financing, refinancing, furnishing, or otherwise improving a project, including, without limitation, financing costs; the cost of architectural, engineering, and other professional services, designs, plans, specifications, surveys, and estimates of costs; financing or refinancing obligations issued by, or reimbursing money advanced by, any cooperating party or any other person, where the proceeds of the obligations or money advanced was used to pay any other cost described in this division; inspections and testing; any indemnity or surety bond or premium related to insurance pertaining to development of the project; all related direct and indirect administrative costs; fees and expenses of trustees, escrow agents, depositories, and paying agents for any obligations; interest on obligations during the planning, design, and development of a project and for up to eighteen months thereafter; funding of reserves for the payment of debt charges on any obligations; and all other expenses necessary or incident to planning, or determining the feasibility or practicability of, a project, including, without limitation, advocating the enactment of legislation to facilitate the development and financing of a project.

(B) On or before December 31, 2015, the board of county commissioners of an eligible county, a host municipal corporation, the board of education of a host school district, a port authority, a bureau, and a corporation, or any combination thereof, may enter into a cooperative agreement under which:

(1) The board of county commissioners and the bureau agree to make available to a cooperating party or any other person proceeds of an existing lodging tax, not to exceed five hundred thousand dollars each year, to pay project costs or debt charges on obligations issued by a cooperating party to fund, finance, or refinance the payment of project costs;

(2) The cooperating parties agree, subject to any conditions or limitations provided in the cooperative agreement, to each of the following:

(a) The conveyance, grant, or transfer to a cooperating party or any other person of ownership of, property interests in, and rights to use a stadium, either as the stadium exists at the time of the agreement or as it may be improved by a project;

(b) The respective responsibilities of each cooperating party for the management, operation, maintenance, repair, and replacement of a stadium, including any project undertaken with respect to the stadium, which may include authorization for a cooperating party to contract with any other person for any such purpose;

(c) The respective responsibilities of each cooperating party for the development and financing of a project, including, without limitation, the cooperating party or parties that shall be responsible for contracting for the development of a project and administering contracts into which the party or parties enter into for that purpose;

(d) The respective responsibilities of each cooperating party to provide money, whether by issuing obligations or otherwise, for the funding, payment, financing, or refinancing, or reimbursement to a cooperating party or other person for the funding, payment, financing, or refinancing, of project costs;

(e) The respective responsibilities of each cooperating party, or any other person, to provide money or other security for the payment of debt charges on obligations.

(C) Any conveyance, grant, or transfer of ownership of, property interests in, or rights to use a stadium, and any contract for the development, management, operation, maintenance, repair, or replacement of a stadium, including any project undertaken with respect to an existing stadium, that is contemplated by a cooperative agreement may be made or entered into by a cooperating party, in such manner and upon such terms as the cooperating parties may agree, without any requirement of bidding and without regard to ownership of the stadium, notwithstanding any other provision of law that may otherwise apply. A project constitutes a "port authority facility" within the meaning of division (D) of section 4582.01 and division (E) of section 4582.21 of the Revised Code and shall be considered a permanent improvement for one purpose under Chapter 133. of the Revised Code.

(D) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, and after deducting the real and actual costs of administering an existing lodging tax and any portion of such tax required to be returned to any municipal corporation or township as provided in division (A)(1) of section 5739.09 of the Revised Code, the board of county commissioners of an eligible county and a bureau may agree to make available, and a cooperating party or other person may use, proceeds of an existing lodging tax for the funding or payment of project costs, including, without limitation, the payment of debt charges on obligations. Either the board or the bureau, or both, may pledge proceeds of an existing lodging tax to the payment of debt charges on obligations. The total amount of existing lodging tax proceeds made available for such use or so pledged each year shall not exceed five hundred thousand dollars. The lien of any such pledge shall be effective against all persons when it is made, without the requirement for the filing of any notice, and any proceeds of an existing lodging tax so pledged and required to be used to pay debt charges on obligations shall be paid by the county or bureau at the times, in the amounts, and to such payee, including, without limitation, a corporate trustee or paying agent, required for such obligations. The board of county commissioners may amend any previously adopted resolution providing for the levy of an existing lodging tax to permit the use of the proceeds of the existing lodging tax as provided in this division.

(E) A board of county commissioners shall not repeal, rescind, or reduce the levy of an existing lodging tax to the extent its proceeds are pledged to the payment of debt charges on obligations, and any such lodging tax shall not be subject to repeal, rescission, or reduction by initiative, referendum, or subsequent enactment of legislation by the general assembly, so long as there remain outstanding any obligations as to which the payment of debt charges is secured by a pledge of the existing lodging tax.

(F) A pledge of the proceeds of an existing lodging tax under division (D) of this section shall not constitute indebtedness of the eligible county for the purposes of Chapter 133. of the Revised Code.

(G) The authority provided by this section is supplemental to, and is not intended to limit in any way, any legal authority that a cooperating party may have under any other provision of law.

Sec. 307.6910. (A) A new nonprofit corporation shall be organized under the laws of this state for the purpose of operating a veterans memorial and museum to be located within the city of Columbus at the site described in division (B) of this section.

(B) The site of the veterans memorial and museum, shall be constructed on the following parcel of real property owned in fee simple by the board of county commissioners of Franklin county:

That property located at 300 West Broad Street, Columbus, Ohio, generally lying north of Broad Street, south of the right-of-way line of Norfolk and Southern Railway, west of the Scioto River and its floodwall, and east of the east line of Belle Street if the same extended north of Broad Street to the railroad right-of-way.

(C) The bylaws of the new nonprofit corporation shall provide for the board of directors to consist of fifteen members. The appointments to the board of directors shall be made in accordance with the articles of incorporation and bylaws of the nonprofit corporation. All appointments to the board of directors shall satisfy any qualifications set forth in the nonprofit corporation's bylaws. A majority of the members of the board of directors appointed by each appointing entity shall be veterans of the armed forces of the United States. The appointments shall be made as follows:

(1) The board of county commissioners of Franklin county shall appoint five members.

(2) The articles of incorporation shall provide for the remaining appointments, not to exceed ten, the majority of whom shall be veterans of the armed forces of the United States.

(D) All meetings and records of the new nonprofit corporation shall be conducted and maintained in accordance with the sunshine laws of this state, including, but not limited to, sections 121.22 and 149.43 of the Revised Code.

(E) The board of county commissioners of Franklin county may lease the site described in division (B) of this section together with any adjacent property, without engaging in competitive bidding, to an Ohio nonprofit corporation for the construction, development, and operation of the veterans memorial and museum. A board of county commissioners may appropriate funds to either the nonprofit corporation established as provided in this section or the nonprofit corporation with which the county has leased the property for permanent improvements and operating expenses of the veterans memorial and museum.

Sec. 307.863. (A) Notwithstanding section 307.86 of the Revised Code, a board of county commissioners that awards a franchise to a franchisee on behalf of a county transit board pursuant to section 306.04 of the Revised Code to operate a public transit system shall award the franchise through competitive bidding as prescribed in this section. The board shall solicit bids that are not sealed, and shall ensure that all bids the board receives are open for public inspection. The board shall consider all bids that are timely received.

(B) The fact that a bid proposes to be the most beneficial to the county monetarily in and of itself does not confer best bid status on that bid.

(2) The bidder's ownership of, or access to, transportation facilities or transportation equipment such as vehicles, automated transit systems, or any other applicable equipment;

(4) If the bidder has experience in operating public transit systems, the record of the bidder in relation to all aspects of operating a public transit system, including cost savings to a political subdivision, gains in efficiency, the safety and security of the traveling public and employees, service to the traveling public, return on any investments made by a political subdivision, and any other aspects the board includes for consideration.

Sec. 307.982. (A) To the extent permitted by federal law, including subpart F of 5 C.F.R. part 900, and subject to any limitations established by the Revised Code, including division (B) of this section, a board of county commissioners may enter into a written contract with a private or government entity, including a public or private college or university, for the entity to perform a family services duty or workforce development activity on behalf of a county family services agency or workforce development agency. The entity with which a board contracts is not required to be located in the county the board serves.

A family services duty or workforce development activity includes transportation services provided by a county transit board. A board of county commissioners may delegate to a county transit board the authority to solicit bids and award and execute contracts for such transportation services on behalf of the board of county commissioners.

(B) A board of county commissioners may not enter into a contract under division (A) of this section regarding a family services duty of a public children services agency if a county children services board appointed under section 5153.03 of the Revised Code serves as the public children services agency for the county. The county children services board may enter into contracts regarding its duties in accordance with division (C)(2) of section 5153.16 of the Revised Code.

(1) "Addiction," "addiction services," "alcohol and drug addiction services," "community addiction services provider," "community mental health services provider," "drug addiction," "gambling addiction services," "mental health services," and "mental illness" have the same meanings as in section 5119.01 of the Revised Code.

(2) "Medication-assisted treatment" means alcohol and drug addiction services that are accompanied by medication approved by the United States food and drug administration for the treatment of drug addiction, prevention of relapse of drug addiction, or both.

(3) "Recovery housing" means housing for individuals recovering from drug addiction that provides an alcohol and drug-free living environment, peer support, assistance with obtaining drug addiction services, and other drug addiction recovery assistance.

(B) An alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district shall be established in any county or combination of counties having a population of at least fifty thousand to provide addiction services and mental health services. With the approval of the director of mental health and addiction services, any county or combination of counties having a population of less than fifty thousand may establish such a district. Districts comprising more than one county shall be known as joint-county districts.

The board of county commissioners of any county participating in a joint-county district may submit a resolution requesting withdrawal from the district together with a comprehensive plan or plans that are in compliance with rules adopted by the director of mental health and addiction services under section 5119.22 of the Revised Code, and that provide for the equitable adjustment and division of all services, assets, property, debts, and obligations, if any, of the joint-county district to the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services, to the boards of county commissioners of each county in the district, and to the ~~directors~~ director. No county participating in a joint-county service district may withdraw from the district without the consent of the director of mental health and addiction services nor earlier than one year after the submission of such resolution unless all of the participating counties agree to an earlier withdrawal. Any county withdrawing from a joint-county district shall continue to have levied against its tax list and duplicate any tax levied by the district during the period in which the county was a member of the district until such time as the levy expires or is renewed or replaced.

Sec. 340.02. (A) For each alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district, there shall be appointed a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services consisting of eighteen members or fourteen members. Should the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services elect to remain at eighteen members, as provided under section 340.02 of the Revised Code as it existed immediately prior to the date of this amendment, the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services and the board of county commissioners shall not be required to take any action. Should the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services elect a recommendation to become a fourteen-member board, that recommendation must be approved by the board of county commissioners of the county in which the alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health district is located in order for the transition to a fourteen-member board to occur. Not later than September 30, 2013, each board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services wishing to become a fourteen-member board shall notify the board of county commissioners of that recommendation. Failure of the board of county commissioners to take action within thirty days after receipt of the recommendation shall be deemed agreement by the board of county commissioners to transition to a fourteen-member board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services. Should the board of county commissioners reject the recommendation, the board of county commissioners shall adopt a resolution stating that rejection within thirty days after receipt of the recommendation. Upon adoption of the resolution, the board of county commissioners shall meet with the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services to discuss the matter. After the meeting, the board of county commissioners shall notify the department of mental health and addiction services of its election not later than January 1, 2014. In a joint-county district, a majority of the boards of county commissioners must not reject the recommendation of a joint-county board to become a fourteen-member board in order for the transition to a fourteen-member board to occur. Should the joint-county district have an even number of counties, and the boards of county commissioners of these counties tie in terms of whether or not to accept the recommendation of the alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services board, the recommendation of the alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service board to become a fourteen-member board shall prevail. The election shall be final. Failure to provide notice of its election to the department on or before January 1, 2014, shall constitute an election to continue to operate as an eighteen-member board, which election shall also be final. If an existing board provides timely notice of its election to transition to operate as a fourteen-member board, the number of board members may decline from eighteen to fourteen by attrition as current members' terms expire. However, the composition of the board must reflect the requirements set forth in this section for fourteen-member boards. For all boards, half of the members shall be interested in mental health services and half of the members shall be interested in alcohol, drug, or gambling addiction services. All members shall be residents of the service district. The membership shall, as nearly as possible, reflect the composition of the population of the service district as to race and sex.

(B) For boards operating as eighteen-member boards, the director of mental health and addiction services shall appoint eight members of the board and the board of county commissioners shall appoint ten members. For boards operating as fourteen-member boards, the director of mental health and addiction services shall appoint six members of the board and the board of county commissioners shall appoint eight members. In a joint-county district, the county commissioners of each participating county shall appoint members in as nearly as possible the same proportion as that county's population bears to the total population of the district, except that at least one member shall be appointed from each participating county.

(C) The director of mental health and addiction services shall ensure that at least one member of the board is a clinician with experience in the delivery of mental health services, at least one member of the board is a person who has received or is receiving mental health services ~~paid for by public funds~~, at least one member of the board is a parent or other relative of such a person, at least one member of the board is a clinician with experience in the delivery of addiction services, at least one member of the board is a person who has received or is receiving addiction services ~~paid for by public funds~~, and at least one member of the board is a parent or other relative of such a person. A single member who meets both qualifications may fulfill the requirement for a clinician with experience in the delivery of mental health services and a clinician with experience in the delivery of addiction services.

(D) No member or employee of a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services shall serve as a member of the board of any provider with which the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services has entered into a contract for the provision of services or facilities. No member of a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services shall be an employee of any provider with which the board has entered into a contract for the provision of services or facilities. No person shall be an employee of a board and such a provider unless the board and provider both agree in writing.

(E) No person shall serve as a member of the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services whose spouse, child, parent, brother, sister, grandchild, stepparent, stepchild, stepbrother, stepsister, father-in-law, mother-in-law, son-in-law, daughter-in-law, brother-in-law, or sister-in-law serves as a member of the board of any provider with which the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services has entered into a contract for the provision of services or facilities. No person shall serve as a member or employee of the board whose spouse, child, parent, brother, sister, stepparent, stepchild, stepbrother, stepsister, father-in-law, mother-in-law, son-in-law, daughter-in-law, brother-in-law, or sister-in-law serves as a county commissioner of a county or counties in the alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district.

(F) Each year each board member shall attend at least one inservice training session provided or approved by the department of mental health and addiction services.

(G) For boards operating as eighteen-member boards, each member shall be appointed for a term of four years, commencing the first day of July, except that one-third of initial appointments to a newly established board, and to the extent possible to expanded boards, shall be for terms of two years, one-third of initial appointments shall be for terms of three years, and one-third of initial appointments shall be for terms of four years. For boards operating as fourteen-member boards, each member shall be appointed for a term of four years, commencing the first day of July, except that four of the initial appointments to a newly established board, and to the extent possible to expanded boards, shall be for terms of two years, five initial appointments shall be for terms of three years, and five initial appointments shall be for terms of four years. No member shall serve more than two consecutive four-year terms under the same appointing authority. A member may serve for three consecutive terms under the same appointing authority only if one of the terms is for less than two years. A member who has served two consecutive four-year terms or three consecutive terms totaling less than ten years is eligible for reappointment by the same appointing authority one year following the end of the second or third term, respectively.

When a vacancy occurs, appointment for the expired or unexpired term shall be made in the same manner as an original appointment. The appointing authority shall be notified by certified mail of any vacancy and shall fill the vacancy within sixty days following that notice.

Any member of the board may be removed from office by the appointing authority for neglect of duty, misconduct, or malfeasance in office, and shall be removed by the appointing authority if the member is barred by this section from serving as a board member. The member shall be informed in writing of the charges and afforded an opportunity for a hearing. Upon the absence of a member within one year from either four board meetings or from two board meetings without prior notice, the board shall notify the appointing authority, which may vacate the appointment and appoint another person to complete the member's term.

Members of the board shall serve without compensation, but shall be reimbursed for actual and necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their official duties, as defined by rules of the department of mental health and addiction services.

Sec. 340.021. (A) In an alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district where the board of county commissioners has established an alcohol and drug addiction services board, the community mental health board established under former section 340.02 of the Revised Code shall serve as the entity responsible for providing mental health services in the county. A community mental health board has all the powers, duties, and obligations of a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services with regard to mental health services. An alcohol and drug addiction services board has all the powers, duties, and obligations of a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services with regard to addiction services. Any provision of the Revised Code that refers to a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services with regard to mental health services also refers to a community mental health board and any provision that refers to a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services with regard to alcohol and drug addiction services also refers to an alcohol and drug addiction services board.

An alcohol and drug addiction services board shall consist of eighteen members or fourteen members, at the election of the board. Not later than January 1, 2014, each alcohol and drug addiction services board shall notify the department of mental health and addiction services of its election to operate as an eighteen-member board or to operate as a fourteen-member board. The election shall be final. Failure to provide notice of its election to the department on or before January 1, 2014, shall constitute an election to continue to operate as an eighteen-member board. If an existing board provides timely notice of its election to operate as a fourteen-member board, the number of board members may decline from eighteen to fourteen by attrition as current members' terms expire. However, the composition of the board must reflect the requirements set forth in this section and in applicable provisions of section 340.02 of the Revised Code for fourteen-member boards. For boards operating as eighteen-member boards, six members shall be appointed by the director of mental health and addiction services and twelve members shall be appointed by the board of county commissioners. The director of mental health and addiction services shall ensure that at least one member of the board is a person who has received or is receiving services for alcohol, drug, or gambling addiction ~~paid for with public funds~~, at least one member is a parent or relative of such a person, and at least one member is a clinician with experience in the delivery of addiction services. The membership of the board shall, as nearly as possible, reflect the composition of the population of the service district as to race and sex. Members shall be residents of the service district and shall be interested in alcohol, drug, or gambling addiction services. Requirements for membership, including prohibitions against certain family and business relationships, and terms of office shall be the same as those for members of boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services.

A community mental health board shall consist of eighteen members or fourteen members, at the election of the board. Not later than January 1, 2014, each community mental health board shall notify the department of mental health and addiction services of its election to operate as an eighteen-member board or to operate as a fourteen-member board. The election shall be final. Failure to provide notice of its election to the department on or before January 1, 2014, shall constitute an election to continue to operate as an eighteen-member board. If an existing board provides timely notice of its election to operate as a fourteen-member board, the number of board members may decline from eighteen to fourteen by attrition as current members' terms expire. However, the composition of the board must reflect the requirements set forth in this section and in applicable provisions of section 340.02 of the Revised Code for fourteen-member boards. For boards operating as eighteen-member boards, six members shall be appointed by the director of mental health and addiction services and twelve members shall be appointed by the board of county commissioners. The director of mental health and addiction services shall ensure that at least one member of the board is a person who has received or is receiving mental health services ~~paid for with public funds~~, at least one member is a parent or relative of such a person, and at least one member is a clinician with experience in the delivery of mental health services. The membership of the board as nearly as possible shall reflect the composition of the population of the service district as to race and sex. Members shall be residents of the service district and shall be interested in mental health services. Requirements for membership, including prohibitions against certain family and business relationships, and terms of office shall be the same as those for members of boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services.

(B)(1) If a board of county commissioners subject to division (A) of this section did not adopt a final resolution providing for a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services on or before July 1, 2007, the board of county commissioners may establish a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services on or after ~~the effective date of this amendment~~ September 23, 2008. To establish the board, the board of county commissioners shall adopt a resolution providing for the board's establishment. The composition of the board, the procedures for appointing members, and all other matters related to the board and its members are subject to section 340.02 of the Revised Code, with the following exceptions:

(a) For initial appointments to the board, the county's community mental health board and alcohol and drug addiction services board shall jointly recommend members of those boards for reappointment and shall submit the recommendations to the board of county commissioners and the director of mental health and addiction services.

(b) To the greatest extent possible, the appointing authorities shall appoint the initial members from among the members jointly recommended under division (B)(1)(a) of this section.

(2) If a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services is established pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section, the board has the same rights, privileges, immunities, powers, and duties that were possessed by the county's community mental health board and alcohol and drug addiction services board. When the board is established, all property and obligations of the community mental health board and alcohol and drug addiction services board shall be transferred to the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services.

Sec. 340.03. (A) Subject to rules issued by the director of mental health and addiction services after consultation with relevant constituencies as required by division (A)(10) of section 5119.21 of the Revised Code, the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services shall:

(1) Serve as the community addiction and mental health services planning agency for the county or counties under its jurisdiction, and in so doing it shall:

(a) Evaluate the need for facilities and community addiction and mental health services;

(b) In cooperation with other local and regional planning and funding bodies and with relevant ethnic organizations, assess the community addiction and mental health needs, evaluate strengths and challenges, and set priorities for community addiction and mental health services, including treatment and prevention. When the board sets priorities for the operation of addiction services, the board shall consult with the county commissioners of the counties in the board's service district regarding the services described in section 340.15 of the Revised Code and shall give priority to those services, except that those services shall not have a priority over services provided to pregnant women under programs developed in relation to the mandate established in section 5119.17 of the Revised Code;

(c) In accordance with guidelines issued by the director of mental health and addiction services after consultation with board representatives, annually develop and submit to the department of mental health and addiction services a community addiction and mental health services plan listing community addiction and mental health services needs, including the needs of all residents of the district currently receiving inpatient services in state-operated hospitals, the needs of other populations as required by state or federal law or programs, the needs of all children subject to a determination made pursuant to section 121.38 of the Revised Code, and priorities for facilities and community addiction and mental health services during the period for which the plan will be in effect.

In alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service districts that have separate alcohol and drug addiction services and community mental health boards, the alcohol and drug addiction services board shall submit a community addiction services plan and the community mental health board shall submit a community mental health services plan. Each board shall consult with its counterpart in developing its plan and address the interaction between the local addiction services and mental health services systems and populations with regard to needs and priorities in developing its plan.

The department shall approve or disapprove the plan, in whole or in part, according to the criteria developed pursuant to section 5119.22 of the Revised Code. Eligibility for state and federal funding shall be contingent upon an approved plan or relevant part of a plan.

If a board determines that it is necessary to amend a plan that has been approved under this division, the board shall submit a proposed amendment to the director. The director may approve or disapprove all or part of the amendment. The director shall inform the board of the reasons for disapproval of all or part of an amendment and of the criteria that must be met before the amendment may be approved. The director shall provide the board an opportunity to present its case on behalf of the amendment. The director shall give the board a reasonable time in which to meet the criteria, and shall offer the board technical assistance to help it meet the criteria.

(d) Promote, arrange, and implement working agreements with social agencies, both public and private, and with judicial agencies.

(2) Investigate, or request another agency to investigate, any complaint alleging abuse or neglect of any person receiving services from a community addiction or mental health services provider certified under section 5119.36 of the Revised Code or alleging abuse or neglect of a resident receiving addiction services or with mental illness or severe mental disability residing in a residential facility licensed under section 5119.34 of the Revised Code. If the investigation substantiates the charge of abuse or neglect, the board shall take whatever action it determines is necessary to correct the situation, including notification of the appropriate authorities. Upon request, the board shall provide information about such investigations to the department.

(3) For the purpose of section 5119.36 of the Revised Code, cooperate with the director of mental health and addiction services in visiting and evaluating whether the services of a community addiction or mental health services provider satisfy the certification standards established by rules adopted under that section;

(4) In accordance with criteria established under division (E) of section 5119.22 of the Revised Code, conduct program audits that review and evaluate the quality, effectiveness, and efficiency of services provided through its community addiction and mental health contracted services and submit its findings and recommendations to the department of mental health and addiction services;

(5) In accordance with section 5119.34 of the Revised Code, review an application for a residential facility license and provide to the department of mental health and addiction services any information about the applicant or facility that the board would like the department to consider in reviewing the application;

(6) Audit, in accordance with rules adopted by the auditor of state pursuant to section 117.20 of the Revised Code, at least annually all programs and services provided under contract with the board. In so doing, the board may contract for or employ the services of private auditors. A copy of the fiscal audit report shall be provided to the director of mental health and addiction services, the auditor of state, and the county auditor of each county in the board's district.

(7) Recruit and promote local financial support for addiction and mental health services from private and public sources;

(8)(a) Enter into contracts with public and private facilities for the operation of facility services and enter into contracts with public and private community addiction and mental health service providers for the provision of community addiction and mental health services. The board may not contract with a residential facility subject to section 5119.34 of the Revised Code unless the facility is licensed by the director of mental health and addiction services and may not contract with a community addiction or mental health services provider to provide community addiction or mental health services unless the services are certified by the director of mental health and addiction services under section 5119.36 of the Revised Code. Section 307.86 of the Revised Code does not apply to contracts entered into under this division. In contracting with a community addiction or mental health services provider, a board shall consider the cost effectiveness of services provided by that provider and the quality and continuity of care, and may review cost elements, including salary costs, of the services to be provided. A utilization review process may be established as part of the contract for services entered into between a board and a community addiction or mental health services provider. The board may establish this process in a way that is most effective and efficient in meeting local needs.

If either the board or a facility or community addiction or mental health services provider with which the board contracts under this division proposes not to renew the contract or proposes substantial changes in contract terms, the other party shall be given written notice at least one hundred twenty days before the expiration date of the contract. During the first sixty days of this one hundred twenty-day period, both parties shall attempt to resolve any dispute through good faith collaboration and negotiation in order to continue to provide services to persons in need. If the dispute has not been resolved sixty days before the expiration date of the contract, either party may notify the department of mental health and addiction services of the unresolved dispute. The director may require both parties to submit the dispute to a third party with the cost to be shared by the board and the facility or provider. The third party shall issue to the board, the facility or provider, and the department recommendations on how the dispute may be resolved twenty days prior to the expiration date of the contract, unless both parties agree to a time extension. The director shall adopt rules establishing the procedures of this dispute resolution process.

(b) With the prior approval of the director of mental health and addiction services, a board may operate a facility or provide a community addiction or mental health service as follows, if there is no other qualified private or public facility or community addiction or mental health services provider that is immediately available and willing to operate such a facility or provide the service:

(i) In an emergency situation, any board may operate a facility or provide a community addiction or mental health service in order to provide essential services for the duration of the emergency;

(ii) In a service district with a population of at least one hundred thousand but less than five hundred thousand, a board may operate a facility or provide a community addiction or mental health service for no longer than one year;

(iii) In a service district with a population of less than one hundred thousand, a board may operate a facility or provide a community addiction or mental health service for no longer than one year, except that such a board may operate a facility or provide a community addiction or mental health service for more than one year with the prior approval of the director and the prior approval of the board of county commissioners, or of a majority of the boards of county commissioners if the district is a joint-county district.

The director shall not give a board approval to operate a facility or provide a community addiction or mental health service under division (A)(8)(b)(ii) or (iii) of this section unless the director determines that it is not feasible to have the department operate the facility or provide the service.

The director shall not give a board approval to operate a facility or provide a community addiction or mental health service under division (A)(8)(b)(iii) of this section unless the director determines that the board will provide greater administrative efficiency and more or better services than would be available if the board contracted with a private or public facility or community addiction or mental health services provider.

The director shall not give a board approval to operate a facility previously operated by a person or other government entity unless the board has established to the director's satisfaction that the person or other government entity cannot effectively operate the facility or that the person or other government entity has requested the board to take over operation of the facility. The director shall not give a board approval to provide a community addiction or mental health service previously provided by a community addiction or mental health services provider unless the board has established to the director's satisfaction that the provider cannot effectively provide the service or that the provider has requested the board take over providing the service.

The director shall review and evaluate a board's operation of a facility and provision of community addiction or mental health service under division (A)(8)(b) of this section.

Nothing in division (A)(8)(b) of this section authorizes a board to administer or direct the daily operation of any facility or community addiction or mental health services provider, but a facility or provider may contract with a board to receive administrative services or staff direction from the board under the direction of the governing body of the facility or provider.

(9) Approve fee schedules and related charges or adopt a unit cost schedule or other methods of payment for contract services provided by community addiction or mental health services providers in accordance with guidelines issued by the department as necessary to comply with state and federal laws pertaining to financial assistance;

(10) Submit to the director and the county commissioners of the county or counties served by the board, and make available to the public, an annual report of the services under the jurisdiction of the board, including a fiscal accounting;

(11) Establish, to the extent resources are available, a continuum of care~~, which~~ that provides for prevention, treatment, support, and rehabilitation services and opportunities. The essential elements of the continuum of care shall include~~, but are not limited to,~~ the following components ~~in accordance with section 5119.21 of the Revised Code~~:

(a) To locate persons in need of addiction or mental health services to inform them of available services and benefits;

(b) Assistance for persons receiving services to obtain services necessary to meet basic human needs for food, clothing, shelter, medical care, personal safety, and income;

(c) Addiction and mental health services, including~~, but not limited to, outpatient, residential, partial~~ all of the following:

(ix) In accordance with section 340.033 of the Revised Code, an array of treatment and support services for all levels of opioid and co-occurring drug addiction.

(e) Assistance for persons receiving services to obtain vocational services and opportunities for jobs;

(f) The provision of services designed to develop social, community, and personal living skills;

(g) Access to a wide range of housing and the provision of residential treatment and support;

(h) Support, assistance, consultation, and education for families, friends, persons receiving addiction or mental health services, and others;

(i) Recognition and encouragement of families, friends, neighborhood networks, especially networks that include racial and ethnic minorities, churches, community organizations, and community employment as natural supports for persons receiving addiction or mental health services;

(j) Grievance procedures and protection of the rights of persons receiving addiction or mental health services;

(k) Community psychiatric supportive treatment services, which includes continual individualized assistance and advocacy to ensure that needed services are offered and procured;

(l) Any additional component the department, pursuant to section 5119.21 of the Revised Code, determines is necessary to establish the continuum of care.

(12) Establish a method for evaluating referrals for involuntary commitment and affidavits filed pursuant to section 5122.11 of the Revised Code in order to assist the probate division of the court of common pleas in determining whether there is probable cause that a respondent is subject to involuntary hospitalization and what alternative treatment is available and appropriate, if any;

(13) Designate the treatment services, provider, facility, or other placement for each person involuntarily committed to the board pursuant to Chapter 5122. of the Revised Code. The board shall provide the least restrictive and most appropriate alternative that is available for any person involuntarily committed to it and shall assure that the listed services submitted and approved in accordance with division (B) of section 340.08 of the Revised Code are available to severely mentally disabled persons residing within its service district. The board shall establish the procedure for authorizing payment for services, which may include prior authorization in appropriate circumstances. The board may provide for services directly to a severely mentally disabled person when life or safety is endangered and when no community mental health services provider is available to provide the service.

(14) Ensure that apartments or rooms built, subsidized, renovated, rented, owned, or leased by the board or a community addiction or mental health services provider have been approved as meeting minimum fire safety standards and that persons residing in the rooms or apartments are receiving appropriate and necessary services, including culturally relevant services, from a community addiction or mental health services provider. This division does not apply to residential facilities licensed pursuant to section 5119.34 of the Revised Code.

(15) Establish a mechanism for obtaining advice and involvement of persons receiving publicly funded addiction or mental health services on matters pertaining to addiction and mental health services in the alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district;

(16) Perform the duties required by rules adopted under section 5119.22 of the Revised Code regarding referrals by the board or mental health services providers under contract with the board of individuals with mental illness or severe mental disability to residential facilities as defined in division (A)(9)(b)(iii) of section 5119.34 of the Revised Code and effective arrangements for ongoing mental health services for the individuals. The board is accountable in the manner specified in the rules for ensuring that the ongoing mental health services are effectively arranged for the individuals.

(B) The board shall establish such rules, operating procedures, standards, and bylaws, and perform such other duties as may be necessary or proper to carry out the purposes of this chapter.

(C) A board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services may receive by gift, grant, devise, or bequest any moneys, lands, or property for the benefit of the purposes for which the board is established, and may hold and apply it according to the terms of the gift, grant, or bequest. All money received, including accrued interest, by gift, grant, or bequest shall be deposited in the treasury of the county, the treasurer of which is custodian of the alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services funds to the credit of the board and shall be available for use by the board for purposes stated by the donor or grantor.

(D) No board member or employee of a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services shall be liable for injury or damages caused by any action or inaction taken within the scope of the board member's official duties or the employee's employment, whether or not such action or inaction is expressly authorized by this section or any other section of the Revised Code, unless such action or inaction constitutes willful or wanton misconduct. Chapter 2744. of the Revised Code applies to any action or inaction by a board member or employee of a board taken within the scope of the board member's official duties or employee's employment. For the purposes of this division, the conduct of a board member or employee shall not be considered willful or wanton misconduct if the board member or employee acted in good faith and in a manner that the board member or employee reasonably believed was in or was not opposed to the best interests of the board and, with respect to any criminal action or proceeding, had no reasonable cause to believe the conduct was unlawful.

(E) The meetings held by any committee established by a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services shall be considered to be meetings of a public body subject to section 121.22 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 340.033. The array of treatment and support services for all levels of opioid and co-occurring drug addiction required by division (A)(11)(c)(ix) of section 340.03 of the Revised Code to be included in a continuum of care established under that section shall include at least ambulatory and sub-acute detoxification, non-intensive and intensive outpatient services, medication-assisted treatment, peer mentoring, residential treatment services, recovery housing pursuant to section 340.034 of the Revised Code, and twelve-step approaches. The treatment and support services shall be made available in the service district of each board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services, except that sub-acute detoxification and residential treatment services may be made available through a contract with one or more providers of sub-acute detoxification or residential treatment services located in other service districts. The treatment and support services shall be made available in a manner that ensures that service recipients are able to access the services they need for opioid and co-occurring drug addiction in an integrated manner and without delay when changing or obtaining additional treatment or support services for such addiction. An individual seeking a treatment or support service for opioid and co-occurring drug addiction included in a continuum of care shall not be denied the service on the basis that the service previously failed.

Sec. 340.034. All of the following apply to the recovery housing required by section 340.033 of the Revised Code to be included in the array of treatment and support services for all levels of opioid and co-occurring drug addiction that are part of the continuum of care established by each board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services pursuant to division (A)(11) of section 340.03 of the Revised Code:

(A) The recovery housing shall not be owned or operated by a residential facility as defined in section 5119.34 of the Revised Code and instead shall be owned and operated by the following:

(1) Except as provided in division (A)(2) of this section, a community addiction services provider or other local nongovernmental organization (including a peer-run recovery organization), as appropriate to the needs of the board's service district;

(a) The board owns and operates the recovery housing on the effective date of this section.

(b) The board determines that there is an emergency need for the board to assume the ownership and operation of the recovery housing such as when an existing owner and operator of the recovery housing goes out of business, and the board considers the assumption of ownership and operation of the recovery housing to be its last resort.

(3) Policies and procedures, including house rules, for its residents to which the residents must agree to adhere.

(C) Family members of the recovery housing's residents may reside in the recovery housing to the extent the recovery housing's protocols permit.

(D) The recovery housing shall not limit a resident's duration of stay to an arbitrary or fixed amount of time. Instead, each resident's duration of stay shall be determined by the resident's needs, progress, and willingness to abide by the recovery housing's protocols, in collaboration with the recovery housing's owner, and, if appropriate, in consultation and integration with a community addiction services provider.

(E) The recovery housing may permit its residents to receive medication-assisted treatment at the recovery housing.

(F) The recovery housing may not provide community addiction services but may assist a resident in obtaining community addiction services that are certified by the department of mental health and addiction services under section 5119.36 of the Revised Code. The community addiction services may be provided at the recovery housing or elsewhere.

Sec. 340.08. In accordance with rules or guidelines issued by the director of mental health and addiction services, each board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services shall do all of the following:

(A) Submit to the department of mental health and addiction services a report of receipts and expenditures for all federal, state, and local moneys the board expects to receive;.

(1) The report shall identify funds the board has available for the array of treatment and support services for all levels of opioid and co-occurring drug addiction required by division (A)(11)(c)(ix) of section 340.03 of the Revised Code to be included in the continuum of care established under that section.

(2) The report shall identify funds the board and public children services agencies in the board's service district have available to fund jointly the services described in section 340.15 of the Revised Code.

~~(2)~~(3) The board's proposed budget for expenditures of state and federal funds distributed to the board by the department shall be deemed an application for funds, and the department shall approve or disapprove the budget for these expenditures. The department shall disapprove the board's proposed budget if the proposed budget would not make available in the board's service district the essential elements of the continuum of care required by division (A)(11) of section 340.03 of the Revised Code. The department shall inform the board of the reasons for disapproval of the budget for the expenditure of state and federal funds and of the criteria that must be met before the budget may be approved. The director shall provide the board an opportunity to present its case on behalf of the submitted budget. The director shall give the board a reasonable time in which to meet the criteria and shall offer the board technical assistance to help it meet the criteria.

If a board determines that it is necessary to amend a budget that has been approved under this section, the board shall submit a proposed amendment to the director. The director may approve or disapprove all or part of the amendment. The director shall inform the board of the reasons for disapproval of all or part of the amendment and of the criteria that must be met before the amendment may be approved. The director shall provide the board an opportunity to present its case on behalf of the amendment. The director shall give the board a reasonable time in which to meet the criteria and shall offer the board technical assistance to help it meet the criteria.

~~(3)~~(4) The director of mental health and addiction services~~, in whole or in part, may~~ shall withhold funds otherwise to be allocated to a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services under Chapter 5119. of the Revised Code if the board's use of state and federal funds fails to comply with the approved budget, as it may be amended with the approval of the department.

(B) Submit to the department a statement identifying the services ~~described in section 340.09 of the Revised Code~~ the board intends to make available. The board shall include ~~crisis intervention services for individuals in emergency situations~~ the services required by division (A)(11) of section 340.03 of the Revised Code to be included in the continuum of care and the services required ~~pursuant to~~ by section 340.15 of the Revised Code~~, and the~~. The board shall explain the manner in which the board intends to make such services available. The list of services shall be compatible with the budget submitted pursuant to division (A) of this section. The department shall approve or disapprove the proposed listing of services to be made available. The department shall inform the board of the reasons for disapproval of the listing of proposed services and of the criteria that must be met before listing of proposed services may be approved. The director shall provide the board an opportunity to present its case on behalf of the submitted listing of proposed services. The director shall give the board a reasonable time in which to meet the criteria and shall offer the board technical assistance to help it meet the criteria.

(C) Enter into a continuity of care agreement with the state institution operated by the department of mental health and addiction services and designated as the institution serving the district encompassing the board's service district. The continuity of care agreement shall outline the department's and the board's responsibilities to plan for and coordinate with each other to address the needs of board residents who are patients in the institution, with an emphasis on managing appropriate hospital bed day use and discharge planning. The continuity of care agreement shall not require the board to provide services other than those on the list of services submitted by the board and approved by the department pursuant to division (B) of this section.

(D) In conjunction with the department of mental health and addiction services, operate a coordinated system for tracking and monitoring persons found not guilty by reason of insanity and committed pursuant to section 2945.40 of the Revised Code who have been granted a conditional release and persons found incompetent to stand trial and committed pursuant to section 2945.39 of the Revised Code who have been granted a conditional release. The system shall do all of the following:

(3) Provide a mechanism to allow prompt rehospitalization, reinstitutionalization, or detention when a violation of the conditional release or decompensation occurs.

(E) Submit to the department a report summarizing complaints and grievances received by the board concerning the rights of persons seeking or receiving services, investigations of complaints and grievances, and outcomes of the investigations.

(F) Provide to the department information to be submitted to the community addiction and mental health information system or systems established by the department under Chapter 5119. of the Revised Code.

(G) Annually, and upon any change in membership, submit to the department a list of all current members of the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services, including the appointing authority for each member, and the member's specific qualification for appointment pursuant to section 340.02 or 340.021 of the Revised Code, if applicable.

(H) Submit to the department other information as is reasonably required for purposes of the department's operations, service evaluation, reporting activities, research, system administration, and oversight.

Sec. 340.09. (A) ~~The~~ Using funds the general assembly appropriates for these purposes, the department of mental health and addiction services shall provide assistance to ~~any~~ each county for ~~the~~ all of the following:

(1) The operation of ~~boards~~ the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services, serving the county;

(2) The provision of services approved by the department within the continuum of care~~, the~~ established pursuant to division (A)(11) of section 340.03 of the Revised Code;

(4) The partnership in, or support for, approved continuum of care-related activities ~~from funds appropriated for that purpose by the general assembly~~.

Sec. 340.15. (A) A public children services agency that identifies a child by a risk assessment conducted pursuant to section 5153.16 of the Revised Code as being at imminent risk of being abused or neglected because of an addiction of a parent, guardian, or custodian of the child to a drug of abuse or alcohol shall refer the child's addicted parent, guardian, or custodian and, if the agency determines that the child needs alcohol or other drug addiction services, the child to a community addiction services provider certified by the department of mental health and addiction services under section 5119.36 of the Revised Code. A public children services agency that is sent a court order issued pursuant to division (B) of section 2151.3514 of the Revised Code shall refer the addicted parent or other caregiver of the child identified in the court order to a community addiction services provider certified by the department of mental health and addiction services under section 5119.36 of the Revised Code. On receipt of a referral under this division and to the extent funding identified under division (A)~~(1)~~(2) of section 340.08 of the Revised Code is available, the provider shall provide the following services to the addicted parent, guardian, custodian, or caregiver and child in need of addiction services:

(1) If it is determined pursuant to an initial screening to be needed, assessment and appropriate treatment;

(2) Documentation of progress in accordance with a treatment plan developed for the addicted parent, guardian, custodian, caregiver, or child;

(3) If the referral is based on a court order issued pursuant to division (B) of section 2151.3514 of the Revised Code and the order requires the specified parent or other caregiver of the child to submit to alcohol or other drug testing during, after, or both during and after, treatment, testing in accordance with the court order.

(B) The services described in division (A) of this section shall have a priority as provided in the addiction and mental health services plan and budget established pursuant to sections 340.03 and 340.08 of the Revised Code. Once a referral has been received pursuant to this section, the public children services agency and the addiction services provider shall, in accordance with 42 C.F.R. Part 2, share with each other any information concerning the persons and services described in that division that the agency and provider determine are necessary to share. If the referral is based on a court order issued pursuant to division (B) of section 2151.3514 of the Revised Code, the results and recommendations of the addiction services provider also shall be provided and used as described in division (D) of that section. Information obtained or maintained by the agency or provider pursuant to this section that could enable the identification of any person described in division (A) of this section is not a public record subject to inspection or copying under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 340.20. (A) In accordance with the rules adopted under section 5119.363 of the Revised Code, each board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services monthly shall do all of the following:

(1) Compile on an aggregate basis the information the board receives that month from community addiction services providers under section 5119.362 of the Revised Code;

(2) Determine the number of applications for treatment and support services included, pursuant to section 340.033 of the Revised Code, in the array of treatment and support services for all levels of opioid and co-occurring drug addiction that the board received in the immediately preceding month and that the board denied that month, each type of service so denied, and the reasons for the denials;

(3) Subject to division (B) of this section, report all of the following to the department of mental health and addiction services:

(a) The information that the board compiles under division (A)(1) of this section that month;

(b) The information that the board determines under division (A)(2) of this section that month;

(B) Each board shall report the information required by division (A)(3) of this section as follows:

(2) In a manner that maintains the confidentiality of all individuals for whom information is included in the report;

(3) In a manner that presents the information about the individuals whose information is included in the report by their counties of residence.

Sec. 341.12. (A) In a county not having a sufficient jail or staff, subject to division (B) of this section, the sheriff shall convey any person charged with the commission of an offense, sentenced to imprisonment in the county jail, or in custody upon civil process to a jail in any county the sheriff considers most convenient and secure. As used in this paragraph, any county includes a contiguous county in an adjoining state.

The sheriff may call such aid as is necessary in guarding, transporting, or returning such person. Whoever neglects or refuses to render such aid, when so called upon, shall forfeit and pay the sum of ten dollars, to be recovered by an action in the name and for the use of the county.

Such sheriff and ~~his~~ the sheriff's assistants shall receive such compensation for their services as the county auditor of the county from which such person was removed considers reasonable. The compensation shall be paid from the county treasury on the warrant of the auditor.

The receiving sheriff shall not, pursuant to this section, convey the person received to any county other than the one from which the person was removed.

(B)(1) If Lawrence county does not have sufficient jail space in the county or staff based upon the minimum standards for jails in Ohio promulgated pursuant to section 5120.10 of the Revised Code, instead of conveying a person in a category described in division (A) of this section to a jail in any county pursuant to that division, the Lawrence county sheriff may convey the person to the Ohio river valley facility in accordance with section 341.121 of the Revised Code.

(2) If a county other than Lawrence county does not have sufficient jail space or staff based upon the minimum standards for jails in Ohio promulgated pursuant to section 5120.10 of the Revised Code and has entered into an agreement to jail persons with the Lawrence county sheriff, instead of conveying a person in a category described in division (A) of this section to a jail in any county pursuant to that division, the sheriff of the other county may convey the person to the Ohio river valley facility in accordance with section 341.121 of the Revised Code.

(3) As used in divisions (B)(1) and (2) of this section, "Ohio river valley facility" has the same meaning as in section 341.121 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 341.121. (A) As used in this section, "Ohio river valley facility" means the former Ohio river valley juvenile correctional facility in Franklin Furnace, Scioto county, that formerly was operated by the department of youth services.

(B) The board of county commissioners of Lawrence county and the director of administrative services may enter into an agreement pursuant to which the sheriff of Lawrence county may use a specified portion of the Ohio river valley facility as a jail for Lawrence county. The agreement shall not provide for transfer of ownership of any portion of the Ohio river valley facility to Lawrence county. If the board and the department enter into an agreement of this nature, on and after the effective date of the agreement, all of the following apply:

(1) The sheriff of Lawrence county may use the specified portion of the Ohio river valley facility for the confinement of persons charged with a violation of a law or municipal ordinance, sentenced or ordered to confinement for such a violation in a jail, or in custody upon civil process, if the violation occurred or the person was taken into custody under the civil process within Lawrence county or within another county that has entered into an agreement with the sheriff pursuant to division (B)(2) of section 341.12 of the Revised Code for the confinement of such persons;

(2) Any use of the specified portion of the Ohio river valley facility for the confinement of a juvenile who is alleged to be or is adjudicated a delinquent child or juvenile traffic offender shall be in accordance with Chapter 2152. of the Revised Code;

(3) If the sheriff of Lawrence county uses the specified portion of the Ohio river valley facility for one or more of the purposes listed in division (B)(1) of this section and division (B)(2) of section 341.12 of the Revised Code, all of the following apply during that use of that portion of the facility and during the period covered by the agreement entered into pursuant to division (B) of this section:

(a) The sheriff has charge of the specified portion of the facility pursuant to that agreement and all persons confined in it, and shall keep those persons safely, attend to that portion of the facility, and regulate that portion of the facility according to the minimum standards for jails in Ohio promulgated pursuant to section 5120.10 of the Revised Code;

(b) The sheriff has all responsibilities and duties regarding the operation and management of the specified portion of the facility, including, but not limited to, safe and secure operation of and staffing for the jail facility, food services, medical services, and other programs, services, and treatment of persons confined in it, and conveyance to and from that portion of the facility of persons who are to be or who have been confined in it, in the same manner as if that facility was a Lawrence county jail;

(c) The sheriff may enter into one or more shared service agreements with any other entity leasing buildings at the Ohio river valley facility regarding any of the responsibilities and duties described in division (B)(3)(b) of this section or regarding any other service related to the operation of the facility;

(d) All provisions of Chapter 341. of the Revised Code, except for sections 341.13 to 341.18 of the Revised Code, apply with respect to the specified portion of the Ohio river valley facility and to the sheriff in the same manner as if that portion of the facility was a Lawrence county jail, and sections 341.13 to 341.18 of the Revised Code apply with respect to that portion of the facility and the sheriff if that portion of the facility is used for confinement of persons from a county other than Lawrence county pursuant to an agreement as described in division (B)(2) of section 341.12 of the Revised Code;

(e) Lawrence county has all responsibility for the costs of operation of the specified portion of the facility, and for all potential liability related to the use or operation of that portion of the facility and damages to it, in the same manner as if that facility was a Lawrence county jail;

(f) The sheriff has all responsibility for investigating crimes and quelling disturbances that occur in the specified portion of the facility, and for assisting in the prosecution of such crimes, and the prosecuting attorney of Lawrence county and prosecutors of municipal corporations located in Lawrence county have responsibility for prosecution of such crimes, in the same manner as if that facility was a Lawrence county jail;

(g) The sheriff's use of the specified portion of the facility shall be in accordance with the terms of the agreement, to the extent that the terms are not in conflict with divisions (B)(1), (2), and (3) of this section.

(5) If the sheriff of Lawrence county uses the specified portion of the Ohio river valley facility for one or more of the purposes listed in division (B)(1) of this section and division (B)(2) of section 341.12 of the Revised Code and subsequently ceases to use the specified portion of the facility for those purposes, the sheriff shall vacate the facility and control of the specified portion of the facility immediately shall revert to the state.

Sec. 757.03. As used in sections 757.03 to 757.08 of the Revised Code, "area arts council" means an arts council or other organization the purpose of which is to foster and encourage the development of the arts, including but not limited to, literature, theater, music, the dance, painting, sculpture, photography, architecture, and motion pictures.

In any city or county in which there is a symphony association, area arts council, art museum, or other similar organization, which is incorporated under sections 1702.01 to 1702.58 of the Revised Code, without purpose of profit to any private member or individual, but organized for the purpose of the cultivation and performance of instrumental music, the promotion of the arts, or to maintain a symphony orchestra, the board of education of any school district in such city or the educational service center governing board serving such county, or both, may pay the symphony association, council, art museum, or other organization annually, in quarterly installments, in the case of a school district board of education, a sum of not to exceed one half of one cent on each one hundred dollars of the taxable property of the district and, in the case of an educational service center governing board, a sum of not to exceed one half of one cent on each one hundred dollars of the taxable property of the territory of the service center, as valued on the tax duplicate for the next year before the date of the payment. In order to qualify for such payments, the symphony association, arts council, art museum, or other organization shall, by proper resolution of its board of trustees or other governing body, accept all applicable provisions of sections 757.03 to 757.08 of the Revised Code, and file a certified copy of the resolution with the board of education of such district or with the governing board of such educational service center prior to the date of any payment. The first of such payments may be made in the year after the filing of such certified copy.

Sec. 757.04. No symphony association, area arts council, art museum, or other similar organization may receive any of the payments provided for in section 757.03 of the Revised Code until the symphony association, council, art museum, or organization, by a proper resolution adopted by its board of trustees or other governing body, has tendered to the appropriate board of education or the educational service center governing board the following:

(A) The right to nominate as trustees or as members of any other governing body of the symphony association, council, art museum, or organization three members consisting of the following:

(1) One member of the board of education or the educational service center governing board;

(2) Either the superintendent of schools of the school district or an educational service center, or an assistant superintendent of schools of the district or an educational service center;

(3) One member of the music department of the schools maintained by the board of education, to be selected by the superintendent, all three of whom so nominated shall thereupon be elected as trustees or as members of any other governing body.

(B) The right to nominate for membership on the executive committee of the symphony association, council, art museum, or organization one of the three trustees of the symphony association, council, art museum, or organization, representing the board of education or the educational service center governing board as the trustees pursuant to division (A) of this section, who shall thereupon be elected a member of the executive committee;

(C) The right to require the orchestra maintained by the symphony association or any performing groups maintained by the council, art museum, or organization to provide such feasible performances for the public schools or for local school districts within the educational service center system maintained or supervised by the educational service center governing board, as in the joint judgment of the board of trustees of the symphony association, council, art museum, or organization, the superintendent, and the board of education of the school district or the educational service center governing board, will serve the largest interest of the school children of the school district or the area served by the educational service center.

A copy of the resolution, certified by the president and secretary of the symphony association, council, art museum, or organization, shall be filed in the office of the board of education or in the office of the educational service center governing board as a condition precedent to the receipt by the association, council, art museum, or organization of any payments.

Sec. 757.05. In any city or county in which there is a symphony association, an area arts council, an art museum, or other similar organization which is incorporated, organized, and operated in the manner and for the purposes stated in section 757.03 of the Revised Code, such city or county, or both, may pay the symphony association, council, art museum, or organization annually, in quarterly installments, in the case of a city, a sum not to exceed one half of one cent on each one hundred dollars of taxable property of the city as ~~value~~ valued on the tax duplicate of the city or, in the case of a county, a sum not to exceed one half of one cent on each one hundred dollars of the taxable property of the county for the year next before the date of each payment. In order to qualify for such payments, the symphony association, council, art museum, or organization shall, by a proper resolution of its board of trustees or other governing body, accept all applicable provisions of sections 757.03 to 757.08 of the Revised Code and file a certified copy of the resolution with the controller of the city or the board of county commissioners prior to the date of any payment. The first of such payments may be made in the year after the filing of such certified copy.

Sec. 757.06. No symphony association, area arts council, art museum, or other similar organization may receive any of the payments provided for in section 757.05 of the Revised Code until the symphony association, council, art museum, or organization, by a proper resolution adopted by its board of trustees or other governing body, has tendered to the mayor, or to the legislative authority of the city if there is no mayor, or to the board of county commissioners, the following:

(A) The right to nominate as trustees or as members of any other governing body of the symphony association, council, art museum, or organization, three members to be appointed by the mayor, or by the legislative authority of the city if there is no mayor, or by the board of county commissioners, one of which nominees may, in the discretion of such mayor or legislative authority, or board of county commissioners, be the mayor, or a member of the legislative authority, or the board of county commissioners, all three of whom so nominated shall thereupon be elected as trustees or as members of any other governing body;

(B) The right to nominate for membership on the executive committee of the symphony association, council, art museum, or organization, one of the three trustees of the symphony association, council, art museum, or organization, representing the city or county as the trustees pursuant to division (A) of this section, which nominee may, in the discretion of the mayor or the legislative authority of the city if there is no mayor, or the board of county commissioners, be the mayor, or a member of the legislative authority, or the board of county commissioners, which nominee shall thereupon be elected a member of the executive committee;

(C) The right to require the orchestra maintained by the symphony association or any performing groups maintained by the council or organization to provide such feasible popular performances at low cost, as in the joint judgment of the board of trustees of the symphony association, council, art museum, or organization, and the mayor or the legislative authority of the city if there is no mayor, or the board of county commissioners, will serve the largest interests of the citizens of the city or county.

A copy of the resolution, certified by the president and secretary of the symphony association, council, art museum, or organization, shall be filed in the office of the city controller of the city or the board of county commissioners of the county, as a condition precedent to the receipt by the association ~~or society~~, council, art museum, or similar organization of any payments.

Sec. 757.07. After any symphony association, area arts council, art museum, or other similar organization has once filed with the board of education, the city controller, or the board of county commissioners the resolutions provided for in sections 757.03 to 757.06 of the Revised Code, it need not renew the same from year to year, but each original resolution continues in force for the purposes named until, by like resolution, likewise certified and filed, any original resolution is revoked or rescinded.

Sec. 757.08. So long as any symphony association, area arts council, art museum, or other similar organization does all the things it agreed to do as considerations for the benefits to be received by it under sections 757.03 to 757.08 of the Revised Code, or is able, willing, and ready to perform the same, the appropriate board of education and the educational service center governing board and the city and county may continue to make the several payments as provided in such sections.

Sec. 935.03. (A) Division (A) of section 935.02 of the Revised Code does not apply to any of the following:

(b) The person has been issued a license by the United States department of agriculture under the federal animal welfare act.

(c) The director of agriculture has determined that the person is in the process of becoming an accredited member of the association of zoos and aquariums or the zoological association of America.

(d) The director has informed the person that the person is exempt from division (A) of section 935.02 of the Revised Code.

(b) The director has determined that the organization is in the process of being accredited or verified by the global federation of animal sanctuaries as a wildlife sanctuary.

(c) The director has informed the organization that it is exempt from division (A) of section 935.02 of the Revised Code.

(3) A person whose possession of a dangerous wild animal is authorized by an unexpired permit issued under this chapter.

(B) Except for the purposes of divisions (A) and (B) of section 935.04 of the Revised Code, this chapter does not apply to any of the following:

(1) A facility that is an accredited member of the association of zoos and aquariums or the zoological association of America and that is licensed by the United States department of agriculture under the federal animal welfare act;

(3) A research facility that is accredited by the association for the assessment and accreditation of laboratory animal care international;

(5) A wildlife rehabilitation facility that is issued a permit by the chief of the division of wildlife in rules adopted under section 1531.08 of the Revised Code and that rehabilitates dangerous wild animals or restricted snakes that are native to the state for the purpose of reintroduction into the wild;

(6) A veterinarian that is providing temporary veterinary care to a dangerous wild animal or restricted snake;

(8) An individual who does not reside in this state, is traveling through this state with a dangerous wild animal or restricted snake, and does all of the following:

(b) Confines the animal or snake in a cage that is not accessible to the public;

(d) Is in the state not more than forty-eight hours unless the animal or snake is receiving veterinary care.

(9) An educational institution that displays a single dangerous wild animal as a sports mascot and that meets all of the following criteria:

(a) An official of the educational institution has submitted an affidavit attesting that the institution will care for the animal as long as the animal lives and in a facility that is an accredited member of the association of zoos and aquariums or the zoological association of America.

(b) The educational institution maintains a liability insurance policy with an insurer authorized or approved to write such insurance in this state that covers claims for injury or damage to persons or property caused by a dangerous wild animal. The amount of the insurance coverage shall be not less than one million dollars.

(c) During display and transport, the educational institution confines the dangerous wild animal in a cage that does not permit physical contact between the animal and the public.

(d) The educational institution began displaying a dangerous wild animal as a mascot prior to ~~the effective date of this section~~ September 5, 2012.

(10) Any person who has been issued a permit under section 1533.08 of the Revised Code, provided that the permit lists each specimen of wild animal that is a dangerous wild animal or restricted snake in the person's possession;

(11) Any person authorized to possess a dangerous wild animal or restricted snake under section 1531.25 of the Revised Code or rules adopted under it;

(12) A mobility impaired person as defined in section 955.011 of the Revised Code who possesses a dangerous wild animal specified in division (C)(20)(h) of section 935.01 of the Revised Code that has been trained by a nonprofit agency or is in such training to assist the mobility impaired person;

(13) A deaf or hearing-impaired person who possesses a dangerous wild animal specified in division (C)(20)(h) of section 935.01 of the Revised Code that has been trained by a nonprofit agency or is in such training to assist the deaf or hearing-impaired person;

(14) A person who is blind as defined in section 955.011 of the Revised Code and possesses a dangerous wild animal specified in division (C)(20)(h) of section 935.01 of the Revised Code that has been trained by a nonprofit agency or is in such training to assist the blind person.

Sec. 935.12. (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this section, a person that has been issued a permit under this chapter for a dangerous wild animal or animals shall comply with the requirements regarding the care and housing of dangerous wild animals established in rules.

(B) A person that has been issued a wildlife shelter, wildlife propagation permit, or rescue facility permit under this chapter for a dangerous wild animal or animals specified in division (C)(20) of section 935.01 of the Revised Code shall comply with both of the following:

(1) The requirements regarding the care of those animals established in regulations adopted under the federal animal welfare act;

(2) The requirements regarding the housing of those animals established in rules.

(C) A person that has been issued a restricted snake possession or restricted snake propagation permit under this chapter shall comply with ~~the requirements regarding the care and housing of those snakes established in standards adopted by the zoological association of America and in effect on September 5, 2012~~ all of the following regarding the housing of those snakes:

(1) An enclosure shall be provided with an environment or devices that allow for temperature regulation necessary to ensure the well-being of the snakes. The environment or devices shall be noninjurious and may include hot rocks, artificial lights, natural sunlight, and heat strips.

(2) An enclosure shall be provided with noninjurious substrate such as newspaper, processed wood shavings, rocks, sand, indoor-outdoor carpet, or other equivalent material. The substrate shall be disposed of or sanitized at intervals sufficient to ensure the health of the snakes.

(3) An enclosure shall be constructed in a manner that offers enough space and complexity to allow free movement and access to varying thermal gradients as follows:

(a) If a snake is a restricted snake specified in division (L)(2), (3), or (4) of section 935.01 of the Revised Code and lives in a primarily terrestrial habitat, all of the following apply:

(i) The perimeter of the enclosure shall be not less than the length of the snake.

(iii) For each additional snake permanently housed in an enclosure, the perimeter of the enclosure shall be increased by ten per cent of the perimeter of an enclosure that permanently houses only one snake.

(b) If a snake is a restricted snake specified in division (L)(2), (3), or (4) of section 935.01 of the Revised Code and lives in a primarily arboreal habitat, all of the following apply:

(i) The perimeter of the enclosure shall not be less than the length of the snake.

(c) If the snake is a restricted snake specified in division (L)(1) of section 935.01 of the Revised Code, all of the following apply:

(i) The length of the enclosure shall not be less than forty per cent of the length of the snake.

(iv) For each additional snake permanently housed in an enclosure, the length of the enclosure shall be increased by ten per cent of the length of an enclosure that permanently houses only one snake.

(4) An enclosure shall be constructed of material that securely and effectively contains the snakes. The material used to construct the enclosure may include plastic, tempered or laminated glass, wood, or other equivalent material. The enclosure shall have surfaces that are nonporous and that can be thoroughly and repeatedly cleaned and disinfected.

(5) The door or lid of an enclosure shall have a secure latch or lock attached to the exterior of the enclosure that when latched or locked prevents a snake from leaving the enclosure.

Sec. 955.01. (A)(1) Except as otherwise provided in this section or in sections 955.011, 955.012, and 955.16 of the Revised Code, every person who owns, keeps, or harbors a dog more than three months of age shall file, on or after the first day of the applicable December, but before the thirty-first day of the applicable January, in the office of the county auditor of the county in which the dog is kept or harbored, an application for registration for a period of one year or three years or an application for a permanent registration. The board of county commissioners, by resolution, may extend the period for filing the application. The application shall state the age, sex, color, character of hair, whether short or long, and breed, if known, of the dog and the name and address of the owner of the dog. A registration fee of two dollars for each year of registration for a one-year or three-year registration or twenty dollars for a permanent registration for each dog shall accompany the application. However, the fee may exceed that amount if a greater fee has been established under division (A)(2) of this section or under section 955.14 of the Revised Code.

(2) A board of county commissioners may establish a registration fee higher than the one provided for in division (A)(1) of this section for dogs more than nine months of age that have not been spayed or neutered, except that the higher registration fee permitted by this division shall not apply if a person registering a dog furnishes with the application either a certificate from a licensed veterinarian verifying that the dog should not be spayed or neutered because of its age or medical condition or because the dog is used or intended for use for show or breeding purposes or a certificate from the owner of the dog declaring that the owner holds a valid hunting license issued by the division of wildlife of the department of natural resources and that the dog is used or intended for use for hunting purposes. If the board establishes such a fee, the application for registration shall state whether the dog is spayed or neutered, and whether a licensed veterinarian has certified that the dog should not be spayed or neutered or the owner has stated that the dog is used or intended to be used for hunting purposes. The board may require a person who is registering a spayed or neutered dog to furnish with the application a certificate from a licensed veterinarian verifying that the dog is spayed or neutered. No person shall furnish a certificate under this division that the person knows to be false.

(B) If the application for registration is not filed and the registration fee paid, on or before the thirty-first day of the applicable January of each year or, if the board of county commissioners by resolution has extended the date to a date later than the thirty-first day of January, the date established by the board, the auditor shall assess a penalty in an amount equal to the registration fee for one year upon the owner, keeper, or harborer, which shall be paid with the registration fee.

(C) An animal shelter that keeps or harbors a dog more than three months of age is exempt from paying any fees imposed under division (A) or (B) of this section if it is a nonprofit organization that is exempt from federal income taxation under subsection 501(a) and described in subsection 501(c)(3) of the "Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 1.

Sec. 955.05. After the thirty-first day of January of any year, except as otherwise provided in section 955.012 or 955.16 of the Revised Code, every person, immediately upon becoming the owner, keeper, or harborer of any dog more than three months of age or brought from outside the state during any year, shall file like applications, with fees, as required by section 955.01 of the Revised Code, for registration for ~~the current year~~ a period of one year or three years or an application for permanent registration. If the application is not filed and the fee paid, within thirty days after the dog is acquired, becomes three months of age, or is brought from outside the state, the auditor shall assess a penalty in an amount equal to the registration fee for one year upon the owner, keeper, or harborer, which shall be paid with the registration fee. Thereafter, the owner, keeper, or harborer shall register the dog ~~for a period of one year or three years or register the dog permanently~~ as provided in section 955.01 of the Revised Code, as applicable.

Every person becoming the owner of a kennel of dogs after the thirty-first day of January of any year shall file like applications, with fees, as required by section 955.04 of the Revised Code, for the registration of such kennel for the current calendar year. If such application is not filed and the fee paid within thirty days after the person becomes the owner of such kennel, the auditor shall assess a penalty in an amount equal to the registration fee upon the owner of such kennel.

Sec. 955.06. (A) The owner, keeper, or harborer of a dog becoming three months of age after the first day of July in a calendar year and the owner, keeper, or harborer of a dog purchased outside the state after the first day of July in a calendar year shall register the dog for one year. The registration fee for any such dog shall be one-half of the original fee. Thereafter, the owner, keeper, or harborer shall register the dog for a period of one year or three years or register the dog permanently as provided in section 955.01 of the Revised Code in accordance with division (B), (C), or (D) of this section within ninety days of the dog's becoming three months of age or within ninety days of the date of the purchase of the dog, as applicable.

(B) The owner, keeper, or harborer of a dog to which division (A) of this section applies may register the dog for the remainder of the current year. The fee for such a registration shall be one-half of the original fee for a one-year registration. Thereafter, the owner, keeper, or harborer shall register the dog for a period of one year, three years, or permanently as provided in section 955.01 of the Revised Code.

(C) The owner, keeper, or harborer of a dog to which division (A) of this section applies may register the dog for a period consisting of the remainder of the current year and two additional years. The fee for such a registration shall be eighty-three per cent of the original fee for a three-year registration. Thereafter, the owner, keeper, or harborer shall register the dog for a period of one year, three years, or permanently as provided in section 955.01 of the Revised Code.

(D) The owner, keeper, or harborer of a dog to which division (A) of this section applies may register the dog permanently. The fee for such a registration shall be the same as the original fee for a permanent registration.

Sec. 1321.535. ~~(A)~~ Each applicant for a mortgage loan originator license shall submit to a written test that is developed and approved by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry and administered by a test provider approved by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry based upon reasonable standards.

~~(1)~~(A) The test shall adequately measure the applicant's knowledge and comprehension in appropriate subject matters, including ethics and federal and state law related to mortgage origination, fraud, consumer protection, the nontraditional mortgage marketplace, and fair lending issues.

~~(2)~~(B) An individual shall not be considered to have passed the test unless the individual ~~achieves a test score of~~ answers at least seventy-five per cent ~~correct answers on all~~ of the questions and at least seventy-five per cent correct answers on all questions relating to Ohio mortgage lending laws and the Ohio consumer sales practices act, Chapter 1345. of the Revised Code, as it applies to registrants and licensees correctly.

~~(3)~~(C) An individual may retake the test three consecutive times provided the period between taking the tests is at least thirty days.

~~(4)~~(D) After failing three consecutive tests, an individual shall be required to wait at least six months before taking the test again.

~~(5)~~(E) If a mortgage loan originator fails to maintain a valid license for a period of five years or longer, the individual shall be required to retake the test. For this purpose, any time during which the individual is a registered mortgage loan originator shall not be taken into account.

(B) Notwithstanding division (A) of this section, if the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry fails to have in place a testing process that meets the criteria set forth in that division, the superintendent shall require, until that process is in place, evidence that the mortgage loan originator applicant passed a written test acceptable to the superintendent.

Sec. 1321.55. (A) Every registrant shall keep records pertaining to loans made under sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised Code. Such records shall be segregated from records pertaining to transactions that are not subject to these sections of the Revised Code. Every registrant shall preserve records pertaining to loans made under sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised Code for at least two years after making the final entry on such records. Accounting systems maintained in whole or in part by mechanical or electronic data processing methods that provide information equivalent to that otherwise required are acceptable for this purpose. At least once each eighteen-month cycle, the division of financial institutions shall make or cause to be made an examination of records pertaining to loans made under sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised Code, for the purpose of determining whether the registrant is complying with these sections and of verifying the registrant's annual report.

(B)(1) As required by the superintendent of financial institutions, each registrant shall file with the division each year a an annual report under oath or affirmation, on forms supplied by the division, concerning the business and operations for the preceding calendar year. Whenever a registrant operates two or more registered offices or whenever two or more affiliated registrants operate registered offices, then a composite report of the group of registered offices may be filed in lieu of individual reports. For purposes of compliance with this requirement, the superintendent may accept call reports or other reports of condition submitted to the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry in lieu of the annual report.

(2) The ~~division~~ superintendent shall publish annually an analysis of the information required under ~~division~~ divisions (B)(1) and (3) of this section, but the individual reports, whether filed with the superintendent or the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry, shall not be public records and shall not be open to public inspection.

(3) Each mortgage licensee shall submit to the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry call reports or other reports of condition, which shall be in such form and shall contain such information as the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry may require.

(a) Examination information, and any information leading to or arising from an examination;

(b) Investigation information, and any information arising from or leading to an investigation.

(2) The information described in division (C)(1) of this section shall remain confidential for all purposes except when it is necessary for the superintendent to take official action regarding the affairs of a registrant or licensee, or in connection with criminal or civil proceedings to be initiated by a prosecuting attorney or the attorney general. This information may also be introduced into evidence or disclosed when and in the manner authorized by section 1181.25 of the Revised Code.

(D) All application information, except social security numbers, employer identification numbers, financial account numbers, the identity of the institution where financial accounts are maintained, personal financial information, fingerprint cards and the information contained on such cards, and criminal background information, is a public record as defined in section 149.43 of the Revised Code.

(E) This section does not prevent the division of financial institutions from releasing to or exchanging with other financial institution regulatory authorities information relating to registrants and licensees. For this purpose, a "financial institution regulatory authority" includes a regulator of a business activity in which a registrant or licensee is engaged, or has applied to engage in, to the extent that the regulator has jurisdiction over a registrant or licensee engaged in that business activity. A registrant or licensee is engaged in a business activity, and a regulator of that business activity has jurisdiction over the registrant or licensee, whether the registrant or licensee conducts the activity directly or a subsidiary or affiliate of the registrant or licensee conducts the activity.

(1) Any confidentiality or privilege arising under federal or state law with respect to any information or material provided to the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry shall continue to apply to the information or material after the information or material has been provided to the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry. The information and material so provided may be shared with all state and federal regulatory officials with mortgage industry oversight authority without the loss of confidentiality or privilege protections provided by federal law or the law of any state. Information or material described in division (E)(1) of this section to which confidentiality or privilege applies shall not be subject to any of the following:

(a) Disclosure under any federal or state law governing disclosure to the public of information held by an officer or an agency of the federal government or of the respective state;

(b) Subpoena or discovery, or admission into evidence, in any private civil action or administrative process, unless the person to whom such information or material pertains waives, in whole or in part and at the discretion of the person, any privilege held by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry with respect to that information or material.

(2) The superintendent, in order to promote more effective regulation and reduce regulatory burden through supervisory information sharing, may enter into sharing arrangements with other governmental agencies, the conference of state bank supervisors, and the American association of residential mortgage regulators.

(3) Any state law, including section 149.43 of the Revised Code, relating to the disclosure of confidential supervisory information or any information or material described in division (C)(1) or (E)(1) of this section that is inconsistent with this section shall be superseded by the requirements of this section.

(F) This section shall not apply with respect to information or material relating to the employment history of, and publicly adjudicated disciplinary and enforcement actions against, mortgage loan originators that is included in the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry for access by the public.

(G) This section does not prevent the division from releasing information relating to registrants and licensees to the attorney general, to the superintendent of real estate and professional licensing for purposes relating to the administration of Chapters 4735. and 4763. of the Revised Code, to the superintendent of insurance for purposes relating to the administration of Chapter 3953. of the Revised Code, to the commissioner of securities for purposes relating to the administration of Chapter 1707. of the Revised Code, or to local law enforcement agencies and local prosecutors. Information the division releases pursuant to this section remains confidential.

(H) The superintendent of financial institutions shall, by rule adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, establish a process by which mortgage loan originators may challenge information provided to the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry by the superintendent.

(I) No person, in connection with any examination or investigation conducted by the superintendent under sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised Code, shall knowingly do any of the following:

(1) Circumvent, interfere with, obstruct, or fail to cooperate, including making a false or misleading statement, failing to produce records, or intimidating or suborning any witness;

(2) Withhold, abstract, remove, mutilate, destroy, or secrete any books, records, computer records, or other information;

Sec. 1322.03. (A) An application for a certificate of registration as a mortgage broker shall be in writing, under oath, and in the form prescribed by the superintendent of financial institutions. The application shall be accompanied by a nonrefundable application fee of five hundred dollars for each location of an office to be maintained by the applicant in accordance with division (A) of section 1322.02 of the Revised Code and any additional fee required by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry. The application shall provide all of the following:

(1) The location or locations where the business is to be transacted and whether any location is a residence. If any location where the business is to be transacted is a residence, the superintendent may require that the application be accompanied by a copy of a zoning permit authorizing the use of the residence for commercial purposes, or by a written opinion or other document issued by the county or political subdivision where the residence is located certifying that the use of the residence to transact business as a mortgage broker is not prohibited by the county or political subdivision.

(2)(a) In the case of a sole proprietor, the name and address of the sole proprietor;

(c) In the case of a corporation, the name and address of each shareholder owning five per cent or more of the corporation;

(d) In the case of any other entity, the name and address of any person that owns five per cent or more of the entity that will transact business as a mortgage broker.

(3) Each applicant shall designate an employee or owner of the applicant as the applicant's operations manager. While acting as the operations manager, the employee or owner shall be licensed as a loan originator under sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the Revised Code and shall not be employed by any other mortgage broker.

(4) Evidence that the person designated on the application pursuant to division (A)(3) of this section possesses at least three years of experience in the residential mortgage and lending field, which experience may include employment with or as a mortgage broker or with a depository institution, mortgage lending institution, or other lending institution, or possesses at least three years of other experience related specifically to the business of residential mortgage loans that the superintendent determines meets the requirements of division (A)(4) of this section;

(5) Evidence that the person designated on the application pursuant to division (A)(3) of this section has successfully completed the pre-licensing instruction requirements set forth in section 1322.031 of the Revised Code;

(6) Evidence of compliance with the surety bond requirements of section 1322.05 of the Revised Code and with sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the Revised Code;

(7) In the case of a foreign business entity, evidence that it maintains a license or registration pursuant to Chapter 1703., 1705., 1775., 1776., 1777., 1782., or 1783. of the Revised Code to transact business in this state;

(8) Evidence that the applicant's operations manager has successfully completed the written test required ~~under division (A) of~~ by section 1322.051 of the Revised Code;

(B) Upon the filing of the application and payment of the nonrefundable application fee and any fee required by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry, the superintendent of financial institutions shall investigate the applicant, and any individual whose identity is required to be disclosed in the application, as set forth in division (B) of this section.

(1)(a) Notwithstanding division (K) of section 121.08 of the Revised Code, the superintendent shall obtain a criminal history records check and, as part of that records check, request that criminal record information from the federal bureau of investigation be obtained. To fulfill this requirement, the superintendent shall do either of the following:

(i) Request the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation, or a vendor approved by the bureau, to conduct a criminal records check based on the applicant's fingerprints or, if the fingerprints are unreadable, based on the applicant's social security number, in accordance with division (A)(12) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code;

(ii) Authorize the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry to request a criminal history background check.

(b) Any fee required under division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code or by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry shall be paid by the applicant.

(3) If, in order to issue a certificate of registration to an applicant, additional investigation by the superintendent outside this state is necessary, the superintendent may require the applicant to advance sufficient funds to pay the actual expenses of the investigation, if it appears that these expenses will exceed five hundred dollars. The superintendent shall provide the applicant with an itemized statement of the actual expenses that the applicant is required to pay.

(C) The superintendent shall pay all funds advanced and application and renewal fees and penalties the superintendent receives pursuant to this section and section 1322.04 of the Revised Code to the treasurer of state to the credit of the consumer finance fund created in section 1321.21 of the Revised Code.

(D) If an application for a mortgage broker certificate of registration does not contain all of the information required under division (A) of this section, and if that information is not submitted to the superintendent or to the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry within ninety days after the superintendent or the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry requests the information in writing, including by electronic transmission or facsimile, the superintendent may consider the application withdrawn.

(E) A mortgage broker certificate of registration and the authority granted under that certificate is not transferable or assignable and cannot be franchised by contract or any other means.

(F) The registration requirements of this chapter apply to any person acting as a mortgage broker, and no person is exempt from the requirements of this chapter on the basis of prior work or employment as a mortgage broker.

(G) The superintendent may establish relationships or enter into contracts with the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry, or any entities designated by it, to collect and maintain records and process transaction fees or other fees related to mortgage broker certificates of registration or the persons associated with a mortgage broker.

Sec. 1322.031. (A) An application for a license as a loan originator shall be in writing, under oath, and in the form prescribed by the superintendent of financial institutions. The application shall be accompanied by a nonrefundable application fee of one hundred fifty dollars and any additional fee required by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry.

(B)(1) The application shall provide evidence, acceptable to the superintendent, that the applicant has successfully completed at least twenty-four hours of pre-licensing instruction consisting of all of the following:

(a) Twenty hours of instruction in a course or program of study reviewed and approved by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry;

(b) Four hours of instruction in a course or program of study reviewed and approved by the superintendent concerning state lending laws and the Ohio consumer sales practices act, Chapter 1345. of the Revised Code, as it applies to registrants and licensees.

(2) Notwithstanding division (B)(1) of this section, until the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry implements a review and approval program, the application shall provide evidence, as determined by the superintendent, that the applicant has successfully completed at least twenty-four hours of instruction in a course or program of study approved by the superintendent that consists of at least all of the following:

(a) Four hours of instruction concerning state and federal mortgage lending laws, which shall include no less than two hours on this chapter;

(b) Four hours of instruction concerning the Ohio consumer sales practices act, Chapter 1345. of the Revised Code, as it applies to registrants and licensees;

(e) Two hours of instruction concerning the secondary market for mortgage loans;

(g) Two hours of instruction covering basic mortgage financing concepts and terms;

(h) Two hours of instruction concerning the ethical responsibilities of a registrant and a licensee, including with respect to confidentiality, consumer counseling, and the duties and standards of care created in section 1322.081 of the Revised Code.

(3) For purposes of division (B)(1)(a) of this section, the review and approval of a course or program of study includes the review and approval of the provider of the course or program of study.

(4) If an applicant held a valid loan originator license issued by this state at any time during the immediately preceding five-year period, the applicant shall not be required to complete any additional pre-licensing instruction. For this purpose, any time during which the individual is a registered loan originator shall not be taken into account.

(5) A person having successfully completed the pre-licensing education requirement reviewed and approved by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry for any state within the previous five years shall be granted credit toward completion of the pre-licensing education requirement of this state.

(C) In addition to the information required under division (B) of this section, the application shall provide both of the following:

(1) Evidence that the applicant passed a written test that meets the requirements described in ~~division (B) of~~ section 1322.051 of the Revised Code;

(D) Upon the filing of the application and payment of the application fee and any fee required by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry, the superintendent of financial institutions shall investigate the applicant as set forth in division (D) of this section.

(1)(a) Notwithstanding division (K) of section 121.08 of the Revised Code, the superintendent shall obtain a criminal history records check and, as part of the records check, request that criminal record information from the federal bureau of investigation be obtained. To fulfill this requirement, the superintendent shall do either of the following:

(ii) Authorize the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry to request a criminal history background check.

(b) Any fee required under division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code or by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry shall be paid by the applicant.

(3) If, in order to issue a license to an applicant, additional investigation by the superintendent outside this state is necessary, the superintendent may require the applicant to advance sufficient funds to pay the actual expenses of the investigation, if it appears that these expenses will exceed one hundred fifty dollars. The superintendent shall provide the applicant with an itemized statement of the actual expenses that the applicant is required to pay.

(E)(1) In connection with applying for a loan originator license, the applicant shall furnish to the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry the following information concerning the applicant's identity:

(a) The applicant's fingerprints for submission to the federal bureau of investigation, and any other governmental agency or entity authorized to receive such information, for purposes of a state, national, and international criminal history background check;

(b) Personal history and experience in a form prescribed by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry, along with authorization for the superintendent and the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry to obtain the following:

(ii) Information related to any administrative, civil, or criminal findings by any governmental jurisdiction.

(2) In order to effectuate the purposes of divisions (E)(1)(a) and (E)(1)(b)(ii) of this section, the superintendent may use the conference of state bank supervisors, or a wholly owned subsidiary, as a channeling agent for requesting information from and distributing information to the United States department of justice or any other governmental agency. The superintendent may also use the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry as a channeling agent for requesting information from and distributing information to any source related to matters subject to those divisions of this section.

(F) The superintendent shall pay all funds advanced and application and renewal fees and penalties the superintendent receives pursuant to this section and section 1322.041 of the Revised Code to the treasurer of state to the credit of the consumer finance fund created in section 1321.21 of the Revised Code.

(G) If an application for a loan originator license does not contain all of the information required under this section, and if that information is not submitted to the superintendent or to the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry within ninety days after the superintendent or the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry requests the information in writing, including by electronic transmission or facsimile, the superintendent may consider the application withdrawn.

(H)(1) The business of a loan originator shall principally be transacted at an office of the mortgage broker with whom the licensee is employed or associated, which office is registered in accordance with division (A) of section 1322.02 of the Revised Code. Each original loan originator license shall be deposited with and maintained by the mortgage broker at the mortgage broker's main office. A copy of the license shall be maintained and displayed at the office where the loan originator principally transacts business.

(2) If a loan originator's employment or association is terminated for any reason, the mortgage broker shall return the original loan originator license to the superintendent within five business days after the termination. The licensee may request the transfer of the license to another mortgage broker by submitting a transfer application, along with a fifteen dollar fee and any fee required by the national mortgage licensing system and registry, to the superintendent or may request the superintendent in writing to hold the license in escrow. Any licensee whose license is held in escrow shall cease activity as a loan originator. A licensee whose license is held in escrow shall be required to apply for renewal annually and to comply with the annual continuing education requirement.

(3) A mortgage broker may employ or be associated with a loan originator on a temporary basis pending the transfer of the loan originator's license to the mortgage broker, if the mortgage broker receives written confirmation from the superintendent that the loan originator is licensed under sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the Revised Code.

(4) Notwithstanding divisions (H)(1) to (3) of this section, if a licensee is employed by or associated with a person or entity listed in division (G)(2) of section 1322.01 of the Revised Code, all of the following apply:

(a) The licensee shall maintain and display the original loan originator license at the office where the licensee principally transacts business;

(b) If the loan originator's employment or association is terminated, the loan originator shall return the original loan originator license to the superintendent within five business days after termination. The licensee may request the transfer of the license to a mortgage broker or another person or entity listed in division (G)(2) of section 1322.01 of the Revised Code by submitting a transfer application, along with a fifteen-dollar fee and any fee required by the national mortgage licensing system and registry, to the superintendent or may request the superintendent in writing to hold the license in escrow. A licensee whose license is held in escrow shall cease activity as a loan originator. A licensee whose license is held in escrow shall be required to apply for renewal annually and to comply with the annual continuing education requirement.

(c) The licensee may seek to be employed or associated with a mortgage broker or person or entity listed in division (G)(2) of section 1322.01 of the Revised Code if the mortgage broker or person or entity receives written confirmation from the superintendent that the loan originator is licensed under sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the Revised Code.

(I) The superintendent may establish relationships or enter into contracts with the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry, or any entities designated by it, to collect and maintain records and process transaction fees or other fees related to loan originator licenses or the persons associated with a licensee.

(J) A loan originator license, or the authority granted under that license, is not assignable and cannot be franchised by contract or any other means.

Sec. 1322.04. (A) Upon the conclusion of the investigation required under division (B) of section 1322.03 of the Revised Code, the superintendent of financial institutions shall issue a certificate of registration to the applicant if the superintendent finds that the following conditions are met:

(1) The application is accompanied by the application fee and any fee required by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry.

(a) If a check or other draft instrument is returned to the superintendent for insufficient funds, the superintendent shall notify the applicant by certified mail, return receipt requested, that the application will be withdrawn unless the applicant, within thirty days after receipt of the notice, submits the application fee and a one-hundred-dollar penalty to the superintendent. If the applicant does not submit the application fee and penalty within that time period, or if any check or other draft instrument used to pay the fee or penalty is returned to the superintendent for insufficient funds, the application shall be withdrawn.

(b) If a check or other draft instrument is returned to the superintendent for insufficient funds after the certificate of registration has been issued, the superintendent shall notify the registrant by certified mail, return receipt requested, that the certificate of registration issued in reliance on the check or other draft instrument will be canceled unless the registrant, within thirty days after receipt of the notice, submits the application fee and a one-hundred-dollar penalty to the superintendent. If the registrant does not submit the application fee and penalty within that time period, or if any check or other draft instrument used to pay the fee or penalty is returned to the superintendent for insufficient funds, the certificate of registration shall be canceled immediately without a hearing, and the registrant shall cease activity as a mortgage broker.

(2) If the application is for a location that is a residence, evidence that the use of the residence to transact business as a mortgage broker is not prohibited.

(3) The person designated on the application pursuant to division (A)(3) of section 1322.03 of the Revised Code meets the experience requirements provided in division (A)(4) of section 1322.03 of the Revised Code and the education requirements set forth in division (A)(5) of section 1322.03 of the Revised Code.

(4) The applicant maintains all necessary filings and approvals required by the secretary of state.

(5) The applicant complies with the surety bond requirements of section 1322.05 of the Revised Code.

(6) The applicant complies with sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the Revised Code and the rules adopted thereunder.

(7) Neither the applicant nor any person whose identity is required to be disclosed on an application for a mortgage broker certificate of registration has had a mortgage broker certificate of registration or loan originator license, or any comparable authority, revoked in any governmental jurisdiction or has pleaded guilty or nolo contendere to or been convicted of any of the following in a domestic, foreign, or military court:

(a) During the seven-year period immediately preceding the date of application for the certificate of registration, a misdemeanor involving theft or any felony;

(b) At any time prior to the date the application for the certificate of registration is approved, a felony involving an act of fraud, dishonesty, a breach of trust, theft, or money laundering.

(8) Based on the totality of the circumstances and information submitted in the application, the applicant has proven to the superintendent, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the applicant is of good business repute, appears qualified to act as a mortgage broker, has fully complied with sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the Revised Code and the rules adopted thereunder, and meets all of the conditions for issuing a mortgage broker certificate of registration.

(9) The applicant's operations manager successfully completed the examination required ~~under division (A) of~~ by section 1322.051 of the Revised Code.

(10) The applicant's financial responsibility, experience, character, and general fitness command the confidence of the public and warrant the belief that the business will be operated honestly and fairly in compliance with the purposes of sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the Revised Code and the rules adopted thereunder. The superintendent shall not use a credit score as the sole basis for registration denial.

(B) For purposes of determining whether an applicant that is a partnership, corporation, or other business entity or association has met the conditions set forth in divisions (A)(7), (A)(8), and (A)(10) of this section, the superintendent shall determine which partners, shareholders, or persons named in the application pursuant to division (A)(2) of section 1322.03 of the Revised Code must meet the conditions set forth in divisions (A)(7), (A)(8), and (A)(10) of this section. This determination shall be based on the extent and nature of the partner's, shareholder's, or person's ownership interest in the partnership, corporation, or other business entity or association that is the applicant and on whether the person is in a position to direct, control, or adversely influence the operations of the applicant.

(C) The certificate of registration issued pursuant to division (A) of this section may be renewed annually on or before the thirty-first day of December if the superintendent finds that all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The renewal application is accompanied by a nonrefundable renewal fee of five hundred dollars for each location of an office to be maintained by the applicant in accordance with division (A) of section 1322.02 of the Revised Code and any fee required by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry. If a check or other draft instrument is returned to the superintendent for insufficient funds, the superintendent shall notify the registrant by certified mail, return receipt requested, that the certificate of registration renewed in reliance on the check or other draft instrument will be canceled unless the registrant, within thirty days after receipt of the notice, submits the renewal fee and a one-hundred-dollar penalty to the superintendent. If the registrant does not submit the renewal fee and penalty within that time period, or if any check or other draft instrument used to pay the fee or penalty is returned to the superintendent for insufficient funds, the certificate of registration shall be canceled immediately without a hearing and the registrant shall cease activity as a mortgage broker.

(2) The operations manager designated under division (A)(3) of section 1322.03 of the Revised Code has completed, at least eight hours of continuing education as required under section 1322.052 of the Revised Code.

(3) The applicant meets the conditions set forth in divisions (A)(2) to (10) of this section.

(4) The applicant's mortgage broker certificate of registration is not subject to an order of suspension or an unpaid and past due fine imposed by the superintendent.

(D)(1) Subject to division (D)(2) of this section, if a renewal fee or additional fee required by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry is received by the superintendent after the thirty-first day of December, the mortgage broker certificate of registration shall not be considered renewed, and the applicant shall cease activity as a mortgage broker.

(2) Division (D)(1) of this section shall not apply if the applicant, no later than the thirty-first day of January, submits the renewal fee or additional fee and a one-hundred-dollar penalty to the superintendent.

(E) If the person designated as the operations manager pursuant to division (A)(3) of section 1322.03 of the Revised Code is no longer the operations manager, the registrant shall do all of the following:

(1) Within ninety days after the departure of the designated operations manager, designate another person as the operations manager;

(2) Within ten days after the designation described in division (E)(1) of this section, notify the superintendent in writing of the designation;

(3) Submit any additional information that the superintendent requires to establish that the newly designated operations manager complies with the requirements set forth in section 1322.03 of the Revised Code.

(F) The registrant shall cease operations if it is without an operations manager approved by the superintendent for more than one hundred eighty days unless otherwise authorized in writing by the superintendent due to exigent circumstances.

(G) Mortgage broker certificates of registration issued on or after May 1, 2010, annually expire on the thirty-first day of December.

Sec. 1322.041. (A) Upon the conclusion of the investigation required under division (D) of section 1322.031 of the Revised Code, the superintendent of financial institutions shall issue a loan originator license to the applicant if the superintendent finds that the following conditions are met:

(1) The application is accompanied by the application fee and any fee required by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry.

(b) If a check or other draft instrument is returned to the superintendent for insufficient funds after the license has been issued, the superintendent shall notify the licensee by certified mail, return receipt requested, that the license issued in reliance on the check or other draft instrument will be canceled unless the licensee, within thirty days after receipt of the notice, submits the application fee and a one-hundred-dollar penalty to the superintendent. If the licensee does not submit the application fee and penalty within that time period, or if any check or other draft instrument used to pay the fee or penalty is returned to the superintendent for insufficient funds, the license shall be canceled immediately without a hearing, and the licensee shall cease activity as a loan originator.

(2) The applicant complies with sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the Revised Code and the rules adopted thereunder.

(3) The applicant has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty or nolo contendere to any of the following in a domestic, foreign, or military court:

(a) During the seven-year period immediately preceding the date of application for the license, a misdemeanor involving theft or any felony;

(b) At any time prior to the date the application for the license is approved, a felony involving an act of fraud, dishonesty, a breach of trust, theft, or money laundering.

(4) Based on the totality of the circumstances and information submitted in the application, the applicant has proven to the superintendent, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the applicant is of good business repute, appears qualified to act as a loan originator, has fully complied with sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the Revised Code and the rules adopted thereunder, and meets all of the conditions for issuing a loan originator license.

(5) The applicant successfully completed the written test required ~~under division (B) of~~ by section 1322.051 of the Revised Code and completed the prelicensing instruction set forth in division (B) of section 1322.031 of the Revised Code.

(6) The applicant's financial responsibility, character, and general fitness command the confidence of the public and warrant the belief that the business will be operated honestly and fairly in compliance with the purposes of sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the Revised Code. The superintendent shall not use a credit score as the sole basis for a license denial.

(7) The applicant is in compliance with the surety bond requirements of section 1322.05 of the Revised Code.

(8) The applicant has not had a loan originator license, or comparable authority, revoked in any governmental jurisdiction.

(B) The license issued under division (A) of this section may be renewed annually on or before the thirty-first day of December if the superintendent finds that all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The renewal application is accompanied by a nonrefundable renewal fee of one hundred fifty dollars and any fee required by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry. If a check or other draft instrument is returned to the superintendent for insufficient funds, the superintendent shall notify the licensee by certified mail, return receipt requested, that the license renewed in reliance on the check or other draft instrument will be canceled unless the licensee, within thirty days after receipt of the notice, submits the renewal fee and a one-hundred-dollar penalty to the superintendent. If the licensee does not submit the renewal fee and penalty within that time period, or if any check or other draft instrument used to pay the fee or penalty is returned to the superintendent for insufficient funds, the license shall be canceled immediately without a hearing, and the licensee shall cease activity as a loan originator.

(2) The applicant has completed at least eight hours of continuing education as required under section 1322.052 of the Revised Code.

(3) The applicant meets the conditions set forth in divisions (A)(2) to (8) of this section; provided, however, that an applicant who was issued a loan officer license prior to January 1, 2010, and has continuously maintained that license shall not be required to meet the condition described in division (B)(1)(b) of section 1322.031 of the Revised Code.

(4) The applicant's license is not subject to an order of suspension or an unpaid and past due fine imposed by the superintendent.

(C)(1) Subject to division (C)(2) of this section, if a license renewal application or renewal fee, including any fee required by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry, is received by the superintendent after the thirty-first day of December, the license shall not be considered renewed, and the applicant shall cease activity as a loan originator.

(2) Division (C)(1) of this section shall not apply if the applicant, no later than the thirty-first day of January, submits the renewal application and fees and a one-hundred-dollar penalty to the superintendent.

(D) Loan originator licenses issued on or after May 1, 2010, annually expire on the thirty-first day of December.

Sec. 1322.051. ~~(A)~~ Each person designated under division (A)(3) of section 1322.03 of the Revised Code to act as operations manager for a mortgage broker business shall submit to a written test approved by the superintendent of financial institutions. An individual shall not be considered to have passed the written test unless the individual achieves a test score of at least seventy-five per cent correct answers to all questions.

~~(B) Each~~ and each applicant for a loan originator license shall submit to a written test that is developed and approved by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry and administered by a test provider approved by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry based on reasonable standards.

~~(1)~~(A) The test shall adequately measure the designee's or applicant's knowledge and comprehension in appropriate subject areas, including ethics, federal and state law related to mortgage origination, fraud, consumer protection, and the nontraditional mortgage marketplace, and fair lending issues.

~~(2)~~(B) An individual shall not be considered to have passed the written test unless the individual ~~achieves a test score of~~ answers at least seventy-five per cent ~~correct answers on all~~ of the questions and at least seventy-five per cent correct answers on all questions relating to state mortgage lending laws and the Ohio consumer sales practices act, Chapter 1345. of the Revised Code, as it applies to registrants and licensees correctly.

~~(3)~~(C) An individual may retake the test three consecutive times provided the period between taking the tests is at least thirty days. If an individual fails three consecutive tests, the individual shall be required to wait at least six months before taking the test again.

~~(4)~~(D) If a loan originator fails to maintain a valid loan originator license for a period of five years or longer, the individual shall be required to retake the test.

For this purpose, any time during which the individual is a registered loan originator shall not be taken into account.

(C) Notwithstanding division (B) of this section, until the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry implements a testing process that meets the criteria set forth in that division, the superintendent shall require each applicant to pass a written test acceptable to the superintendent.

Sec. 1322.06. (A) As often as the superintendent of financial institutions considers it necessary, the superintendent may examine the registrant's or licensee's records, including all records created or processed by a licensee, pertaining to business transacted pursuant to sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the Revised Code.

(B) A registrant or licensee shall maintain records pertaining to business transacted pursuant to sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the Revised Code, including copies of all mortgage loan origination disclosure statements prepared in accordance with section 1322.062 of the Revised Code, for four years. For purposes of this division, "registrant or licensee" includes any person whose certificate of registration or license is cancelled, surrendered, or revoked or who otherwise ceases to engage in business as a mortgage broker or loan originator.

(C) Each registrant and licensee shall submit to the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry call reports or other reports of condition, which reports shall be in such form and shall contain such information as the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry may require.

(D)(1) As required by the superintendent, each registrant shall file with the division of financial institutions an annual report under oath or affirmation, on forms supplied by the division, concerning the business and operations of the registrant for the preceding calendar year. If a registrant operates two or more registered offices, or two or more affiliated registrants operate registered offices, a composite report of the group of registered offices may be filed in lieu of individual reports. For purposes of compliance with this requirement, the superintendent may accept call reports or other reports of condition submitted to the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry in lieu of the annual report.

(2) The ~~division~~ superintendent shall publish annually an analysis of the information required under division (D)(1) of this section, but the individual reports, whether filed with the superintendent or the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry, shall not be public records and shall not be open to public inspection or otherwise be subject to section 149.43 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 1322.063. (A) In addition to the disclosures required under section 1322.062 of the Revised Code, a registrant or licensee shall, not ~~earlier~~ later than three business days ~~nor later than twenty-four hours~~ before a loan is closed, deliver to the ~~buyer~~ borrower a written disclosure that includes the following:

(2) A description of what is covered by the regular monthly payment, including principal, interest, taxes, and insurance, as applicable.

(B) A registrant or licensee shall disclose the information in division (A) of this section by delivering either the model form located on the web site of the division of financial institutions or the appropriate federal form that discloses substantially similar information as published in Appendix H of 12 C.F.R. Part 1026, as amended.

Sec. 1345.06. (A) If, by ~~his~~ the attorney general's own inquiries or as a result of complaints, the attorney general has reasonable cause to believe that a person has engaged or is engaging in an act or practice that violates Chapter 1345. of the Revised Code, he may investigate.

(B) For this purpose, the attorney general may administer oaths, subpoena witnesses, adduce evidence, and require the production of relevant matter.

If matter that the attorney general requires to be produced is located outside the state, he the attorney general may designate representatives, including officials of the state in which the matter is located, to inspect the matter on ~~his~~ the attorney general's behalf, and he the attorney general may respond to similar requests from officials of other states. The person subpoenaed may make the matter available to the attorney general at a convenient location within the state or pay the reasonable and necessary expenses for the attorney general or ~~his~~ the attorney general's representative to examine the matter at the place where it is located, provided that expenses shall not be charged to a party not subsequently found to have engaged in an act or practice violative of Chapter 1345. of the Revised Code.

(C) Within twenty days after a subpoena has been served, a person subpoenaed under this section may file a motion to extend the return day, or to modify or quash the subpoena, stating good cause, ~~may be filed~~ in the court of common pleas of Franklin county or ~~the~~ any other county in ~~which the person served resides or has his principal place of business~~ this state.

(D) A person subpoenaed under this section shall comply with the terms of the subpoena, unless the parties agree to modify the terms of the subpoena or unless the court has modified or quashed the subpoena, extended the return day of the subpoena, or issued any other order with respect to the subpoena prior to its return day.

If a person fails without lawful excuse to obey a subpoena or to produce relevant matter, the attorney general may apply to the court of common pleas of ~~the~~ Franklin county or any other county in ~~which the person subpoenaed resides or has his principal place of business~~ this state for an order compelling compliance.

(E) The attorney general may request that an individual who refuses to testify or to produce relevant matter on the ground that the testimony or matter may incriminate ~~him~~ the individual be ordered by the court to provide the testimony or matter. With the exception of a prosecution for perjury and an action for damages under section 1345.07 or 1345.09 of the Revised Code, an individual who complies with a court order to provide testimony or matter, after asserting a privilege against self-incrimination to which he the individual is entitled by law, shall not be subjected to a criminal proceeding or to a civil penalty or forfeiture on the basis of the testimony or matter required to be disclosed or testimony or matter discovered through that testimony or matter.

(1) During an investigation under this section, afford, in a manner considered appropriate to ~~him~~ to the attorney general, a supplier an opportunity to cease and desist from any suspected violation. He The attorney general may suspend ~~his~~ such an investigation during the time period that he the attorney general permits the supplier to cease and desist; however, the suspension of the investigation or the affording of an opportunity to cease and desist shall not prejudice or prohibit any further investigation by the attorney general under this section.

(2) Terminate an investigation under this section upon acceptance of a written assurance of voluntary compliance from a supplier who is suspected of a violation of this chapter.

Acceptance of an assurance may be conditioned upon an undertaking to reimburse or to take other appropriate corrective action with respect to identifiable consumers damaged by an alleged violation of this chapter. An assurance of compliance given by a supplier is not evidence of violation of this chapter. The attorney general may, at any time, reopen an investigation terminated by the acceptance of an assurance of voluntary compliance, if he the attorney general believes that further proceedings are in the public interest. Evidence of a violation of an assurance of voluntary compliance is prima-facie evidence of an act or practice in violation of this chapter, if presented after the violation in an action brought under this chapter. An assurance of voluntary compliance may be filed with the court and if approved by the court, entered as a consent judgment.

(G) The procedures available to the attorney general under this section are cumulative and concurrent, and the exercise of one procedure by the attorney general does not preclude or require the exercise of any other procedure.

(A) "Amusement ride" means any mechanical, aquatic, or inflatable device, or combination of those devices that carries or conveys passengers on, along, around, over, or through a fixed or restricted course or within a defined area for the purpose of providing amusement, pleasure, or excitement. "Amusement ride" includes carnival rides, bungee jumping facilities, and fair rides, but does not include passenger tramways as defined in section 4169.01 of the Revised Code or amusement rides operated solely at trade shows for a limited period of time. For purposes of this division ~~(A) of this section~~, "trade show" means a place of exhibition not open to the general public where amusement ride manufacturers display, promote, operate, and sell amusement rides to prospective purchasers.

(B) "Temporary amusement ride" means an amusement ride that is relocated at least once per year with or without disassembly.

(D) "Owner" means any person who owns or leases and controls or manages the operation of an amusement ride, and includes individuals, partnerships, corporations, both profit and nonprofit, and the state and any of its political subdivisions and their departments or agencies.

(E) "Operation" means the use or operation, or both, of an amusement ride with riders.

(F) "Rider" means any person who sits, stands, or is otherwise conveyed or carried as a passenger on an amusement ride, but does not include employees or agents of the owner of the amusement ride.

(G) "Amusement ride operator" means any person causing the amusement ride to go, stop, or perform its function.

(H) "Reassembly" means the installation, erection, or reconstruction of the main mechanical, safety, electrical, or electronic components of an amusement ride following transportation or storage and prior to operation. Replacement of mechanical, safety, electrical, or electronic components of an amusement ride for the purpose of repair or maintenance is not reassembly.

(I) "Repair" means to restore an amusement ride to a condition equal to or better than original design specifications.

(J) "Maintenance" means the preservation and upkeep of an amusement ride for the purpose of maintaining its designed operational capability.

(K) "Inspection" means a physical examination of an amusement ride by an inspector for the purpose of approving the application for a permit. "Inspection" includes a reinspection.

(L) "Accident" means an occurrence during the operation of an amusement ride ~~which~~ that results in death or injury requiring immediate hospital admission.

(M) "Serious injury" means an injury that does not require immediate hospital admission but does require medical treatment, other than first aid, by a physician.

(N) "First aid" means the one-time treatment or subsequent observation of scratches, cuts not requiring stitches, burns, splinters, and contusions or a diagnostic procedure, including examinations and x-rays, ~~which~~ that does not ordinarily require medical treatment even though provided by a physician or other licensed professional personnel.

(O) "Advisory council" means the advisory council on amusement ride safety created by section 1711.51 of the Revised Code.

(P) "Safe operation" means, except as provided in section 1711.57 of the Revised Code, the practical application of maintenance, inspection, and operational processes, as indicated by the manufacturer, owner, or advisory council, that secures a rider from threat of physical danger, harm, or loss.

(Q) "Private facility" means any facility that is accessible only to members of the facility and not accessible to the general public, even upon payment of a fee or charge, and that requires approval for membership by a membership committee representing the current members who have a policy requiring monetary payment to belong to the facility.

(R) "Bungee jumping" means a fall or jump from a height by an individual who is attached to an elastic cord that prevents the individual from hitting the ground, water, or other solid, semi-solid, liquid, or elastic surface.

(S) "Bungee jumping facility" means a device or structure utilized for bungee jumping.

(T) "Kiddie ride" means an amusement ride designed for use by children under thirteen years of age who are unaccompanied by another person. "Kiddie ride" includes a roller coaster that is not more than forty feet in elevation at any point on the ride.

Sec. 1711.53. (A)(1) No person shall operate an amusement ride within the state without a permit issued by the director of agriculture under division (A)(2) of this section. The owner of an amusement ride, whether the ride is a temporary amusement ride or a permanent amusement ride, who desires to operate the amusement ride within the state shall, prior to the operation of the amusement ride and annually thereafter, submit to the department of agriculture an application for a permit, together with the appropriate permit and inspection fee, on a form to be furnished by the department. Prior to issuing any permit the department shall, within thirty days after the date on which it receives the application, inspect each amusement ride described in the application. The owner of an amusement ride shall have the amusement ride ready for inspection not later than two hours after the time that is requested by the person for the inspection.

(2) For each amusement ride found to comply with the rules adopted by the director under division (B) of this section and division (B) of section 1711.551 of the Revised Code, the director shall issue an annual permit, provided that evidence of liability insurance coverage for the amusement ride as required by section 1711.54 of the Revised Code is on file with the department.

(3) The director shall issue with each permit a decal indicating that the amusement ride has been issued the permit. The owner of the amusement ride shall affix the decal on the ride at a location where the decal is easily visible to the patrons of the ride. A copy of the permit shall be kept on file at the same address as the location of the amusement ride identified on the permit, and shall be made available for inspection, upon reasonable demand, by any person. An owner may operate an amusement ride prior to obtaining a permit, provided that the operation is for the purpose of testing the amusement ride or training amusement ride operators and other employees of the owner and the amusement ride is not open to the public.

(B) The director, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt rules providing for a schedule of fines, with no fine exceeding five thousand dollars, for violations of sections 1711.50 to 1711.57 of the Revised Code or any rules adopted under this division and for the classification of amusement rides and rules for the safe operation and inspection of all amusement rides as are necessary for amusement ride safety and for the protection of the general public. Rules adopted by the director for the safe operation and inspection of amusement rides shall be reasonable and based upon generally accepted engineering standards and practices. In adopting rules under this section, the director may adopt by reference, in whole or in part, the national fire code or the national electrical code (NEC) prepared by the national fire protection association, the standards of the American society for testing and materials (ASTM) or the American national standards institute (ANSI), or any other principles, tests, or standards of nationally recognized technical or scientific authorities. Insofar as is practicable and consistent with sections 1711.50 to 1711.57 of the Revised Code, rules adopted under this division shall be consistent with the rules of other states. The department shall cause sections 1711.50 to 1711.57 of the Revised Code and the rules adopted in accordance with this division and division (B) of section 1711.551 of the Revised Code to be published in pamphlet form and a copy to be furnished without charge to each owner of an amusement ride who holds a current permit or is an applicant therefor.

(C) With respect to an application for a permit for an amusement ride, an owner may apply to the director for a waiver or modification of any rule adopted under division (B) of this section if there are practical difficulties or unnecessary hardships for the amusement ride to comply with the rules. Any application shall set forth the reasons for the request. The director, with the approval of the advisory council on amusement ride safety, may waive or modify the application of a rule to any amusement ride if the public safety is secure. Any authorization by the director under this division shall be in writing and shall set forth the conditions under which the waiver or modification is authorized, and the department shall retain separate records of all proceedings under this division.

(D)(1) The director shall employ and provide for training of a chief inspector and additional inspectors and employees as may be necessary to administer and enforce sections 1711.50 to 1711.57 of the Revised Code. The director may appoint or contract with other persons to perform inspections of amusement rides, provided that the persons meet the qualifications for inspectors established by rules adopted under division (B) of this section and are not owners, or employees of owners, of any amusement ride subject to inspection under sections 1711.50 to 1711.57 of the Revised Code. No person shall inspect an amusement ride who, within six months prior to the date of inspection, was an employee of the owner of the ride.

(2) Before the director contracts with other persons to inspect amusement rides, the director shall seek the advice of the advisory council on amusement ride safety on whether to contract with those persons. The advice shall not be binding upon the director. After having received the advice of the council, the director may proceed to contract with inspectors in accordance with the procedures specified in division (E)(2) of section 1711.11 of the Revised Code.

(3) With the advice and consent of the advisory council on amusement ride safety, the director may employ a special consultant to conduct an independent investigation of an amusement ride accident. This consultant need not be in the civil service of the state, but shall have qualifications to conduct the investigation acceptable to the council.

(E)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (E)(1) of this section, the department shall charge the following amusement ride fees:

Permit		$	150
Annual inspection and reinspection per ride:
	Kiddie rides	$	100
	Roller coaster	$	~~950~~ 1,200
	Aerial lifts or bungee jumping facilities	$	450
	Go karts, per kart	$	5
	Inflatable rides, kiddie and adult	$	105
	Other rides	$	160
Midseason operational inspection per ride		$	25
Expedited inspection per ride		$	100
Failure to cancel scheduled inspection per ride		$	100
Failure to have amusement ride ready for inspection
per ride		$	100

The go kart inspection fee is in addition to the inspection fee for the go kart track.

The fees for an expedited inspection, failure to cancel a scheduled inspection, and failure to have an amusement ride ready for inspection do not apply to go karts.

As used in division (E)(1) of this section, "expedited inspection" means an inspection of an amusement ride by the department not later than ten days after the owner of the amusement ride files an application for a permit under this section.

(2) All fees and fines collected by the department under sections 1711.50 to 1711.57 of the Revised Code shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the amusement ride inspection fund, which is hereby created, and shall be used only for the purpose of administering and enforcing sections 1711.11 and 1711.50 to 1711.57 of the Revised Code.

(3) The owner of an amusement ride shall be required to pay a reinspection fee only if the reinspection was conducted at the owner's request under division (F) of this section, if the reinspection is required by division (F) of this section because of an accident, or if the reinspection is required by division (F) of section 1711.55 of the Revised Code. If a reinspection is conducted at the request of the chief officer of a fair, festival, or event where the ride is operating, the reinspection fee shall be charged to the fair, festival, or event.

(4) The rules adopted under division (B) of this section shall define ~~"kiddie rides,"~~ "roller coaster," "aerial lifts," "go karts," and "other rides" for purposes of determining the fees under division (E) of this section. The rules shall define "other rides" to include go kart tracks.

(F) A reinspection of an amusement ride shall take place if an accident occurs, if the owner of the ride or the chief officer of the fair, festival, or event where the ride is operating requests a reinspection, or if the reinspection is required by division (F) of section 1711.55 of the Revised Code.

(G) As a supplement to its annual inspection of a temporary amusement ride, the department may inspect the ride during each scheduled event, as listed in the schedule of events provided to the department by the owner pursuant to division (C) of section 1711.55 of the Revised Code, at which the ride is operated in this state. These supplemental inspections are in addition to any other inspection or reinspection of the ride as may be required under sections 1711.50 to 1711.57 of the Revised Code, and the owner of the temporary amusement ride is not required to pay an inspection or reinspection fee for this supplemental inspection. Nothing in this division shall be construed to prohibit the owner of a temporary amusement ride having a valid permit to operate in this state from operating the ride at a scheduled event before the department conducts a supplemental inspection.

(H) The department may annually conduct a midseason operational inspection of every amusement ride upon which it conducts an annual inspection pursuant to division (A) of this section. The midseason operational inspection is in addition to any other inspection or reinspection of the amusement ride as may be required pursuant to sections 1711.50 to 1711.57 of the Revised Code. The owner of an amusement ride shall submit to the department, at the time determined by the department, the midseason operational inspection fee specified in division (E) of this section. The director, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt rules specifying the time period during which the department will conduct midseason operational inspections.

(1) By a county, one or more townships, one or more municipal corporations, two or more adjoining counties, or any combination of the foregoing as the agency of each such political subdivision for the industrial, commercial, distribution, and research development in such political subdivision when the legislative authority of such political subdivision has determined that the policy of the political subdivision is to promote the health, safety, morals, and general welfare of its inhabitants through the designation of a community improvement corporation as such agency;

(2) Solely by a county as the agency for the reclamation, rehabilitation, and reutilization of vacant, abandoned, tax-foreclosed, or other real property in the county;

(3) By any political subdivision as the agency for the reclamation, rehabilitation, and reutilization of vacant, abandoned, tax-foreclosed, or other real property within the political subdivision if the subdivision enters into an agreement with the community improvement corporation that is the agency of a county, under division (A)(2) of this section, designating the corporation as the agency of the political subdivision.

(B) Designations under this section shall be made by the legislative authority of the political subdivision by resolution or ordinance. Any political subdivision which has designated a community improvement corporation as such agency under this section may enter into an agreement with it to provide any one or more of the following:

(1) That the community improvement corporation shall prepare a plan for the political subdivision of industrial, commercial, distribution, and research development, or of reclamation, rehabilitation, and reutilization of vacant, abandoned, tax-foreclosed, or other real property, and such plan shall provide therein the extent to which the community improvement corporation shall participate as the agency of the political subdivision in carrying out such plan. Such plan shall be confirmed by the legislative authority of the political subdivision. A community improvement corporation may insure mortgage payments required by a first mortgage on any industrial, economic, commercial, or civic property for which funds have been loaned by any person, corporation, bank, or financial or lending institution upon such terms and conditions as the community improvement corporation may prescribe. A community improvement corporation may incur debt, mortgage its property acquired under this section or otherwise, and issue its obligations, for the purpose of acquiring, constructing, improving, and equipping buildings, structures, and other properties, and acquiring sites therefor, for lease or sale by the community improvement corporation in order to carry out its participation in such plan. Except as provided for in division (C) of section 307.78 of the Revised Code, any such debt shall be solely that of the corporation and shall not be secured by the pledge of any moneys received or to be received from any political subdivision. All revenue bonds issued under sections 1724.02 and 1724.10 of the Revised Code are lawful investments of banks, savings and loan associations, deposit guarantee associations, trust companies, trustees, fiduciaries, trustees or other officers having charge of sinking or bond retirement funds of municipal corporations and other subdivisions of the state, and of domestic insurance companies notwithstanding sections 3907.14 and 3925.08 of the Revised Code. Not less than two-fifths of the governing board of any economic development corporation designated as the agency of one or more political subdivisions shall be composed of mayors, members of municipal legislative authorities, members of boards of township trustees, members of boards of county commissioners, or any other appointed or elected officers of such political subdivisions, provided that at least one officer from each political subdivision shall be a member of the governing board. Membership on the governing board of a community improvement corporation does not constitute the holding of a public office or employment within the meaning of sections 731.02 and 731.12 of the Revised Code or any other section of the Revised Code. The board of directors of a county land reutilization corporation shall be composed of the members set forth in section 1724.03 of the Revised Code. Membership on such governing boards shall not constitute an interest, either direct or indirect, in a contract or expenditure of money by any municipal corporation, township, county, or other political subdivision. No member of such governing boards shall be disqualified from holding any public office or employment, nor shall such member forfeit any such office or employment, by reason of membership on the governing board of a community improvement corporation notwithstanding any law to the contrary.

Actions taken under this section shall be in accordance with any applicable planning or zoning regulations.

Any agreement entered into under this section may be amended or supplemented from time to time by the parties thereto.

An economic development corporation designated as the agency of a political subdivision under this section shall promote and encourage the establishment and growth in such subdivision of industrial, commercial, distribution, and research facilities. A county land reutilization corporation designated as the agency of a political subdivision in an agreement between a political subdivision and a corporation shall promote the reclamation, rehabilitation, and reutilization of vacant, abandoned, tax-foreclosed, or other real property in the subdivision.

(2) Authorization for the community improvement corporation to sell or to lease any ~~lands~~ real property or interests in ~~lands~~ real property owned by the political subdivision determined from time to time by the legislative authority thereof not to be required by such political subdivision for its purposes, for uses determined by the legislative authority as those that will promote the welfare of the people of the political subdivision, stabilize the economy, provide employment, assist in the development of industrial, commercial, distribution, and research activities to the benefit of the people of the political subdivision, will provide additional opportunities for their gainful employment, or will promote the reclamation, rehabilitation, and reutilization of vacant, abandoned, tax-foreclosed, or other real property within the subdivision. The legislative authority shall specify the consideration for such sale or lease and any other terms thereof. Any determinations made by the legislative authority under this division shall be conclusive. The community improvement corporation acting through its officers and on behalf and as agent of the political subdivision shall execute the necessary instruments, including deeds conveying the title of the political subdivision or leases, to accomplish such sale or lease. Such conveyance or lease shall be made without advertising and receipt of bids. A copy of such agreement shall be recorded in the office of the county recorder of any county in which ~~lands~~ real property or interests in ~~lands~~ real property to be sold or leased are situated prior to the recording of a deed or lease executed pursuant to such agreement. The county recorder shall not charge a county land reutilization corporation a fee as otherwise provided in section 317.32 of the Revised Code for the recording, indexing, or making of a certified copy or for the filing of any instrument by a county land reutilization corporation consistent with its public purposes.

(3) That the political subdivision executing the agreement will convey to the community improvement corporation ~~lands~~ real property and interests in ~~lands~~ real property owned by the political subdivision and determined by the legislative authority thereof not to be required by the political subdivision for its purposes and that such conveyance of such ~~land~~ real property or interests in ~~land~~ real property will promote the welfare of the people of the political subdivision, stabilize the economy, provide employment, assist in the development of industrial, commercial, distribution, and research activities to the benefit of the people of the political subdivision, provide additional opportunities for their gainful employment or will promote the reclamation, rehabilitation, and reutilization of vacant, abandoned, tax-foreclosed, or other real property in the subdivision, for the consideration and upon the terms established in the agreement, and further that as the agency for development or land reutilization the community improvement corporation may acquire from others additional ~~lands~~ real property or interests in ~~lands~~ real property, and any ~~lands~~ real property or interests in ~~land~~ real property so conveyed by it for uses that will promote the welfare of the people of the political subdivision, stabilize the economy, provide employment, assist in the development of industrial, commercial, distribution, and research activities required for the people of the political subdivision and for their gainful employment or will promote the reclamation, rehabilitation, and reutilization of vacant, abandoned, tax-foreclosed, or other real property in the subdivision. Any conveyance or lease by the political subdivision to the community improvement corporation shall be made without advertising and receipt of bids. If any ~~lands~~ real property or interests in ~~land~~ real property conveyed by a political subdivision under this division are sold by the community improvement corporation at a price in excess of the consideration received by the political subdivision from the community improvement corporation, such excess shall be paid to such political subdivision after deducting, to the extent and in the manner provided in the agreement, the costs of such acquisition and sale, taxes, assessments, costs of maintenance, costs of improvements to the ~~land~~ real property by the community improvement corporation, service fees, and any debt service charges of the corporation attributable to such ~~land~~ real property or interests.

Sec. 1901.08. The number of, and the time for election of, judges of the following municipal courts and the beginning of their terms shall be as follows:

In the Akron municipal court, two full-time judges shall be elected in 1951, two full-time judges shall be elected in 1953, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1967, and one full-time judge shall be elected in 1975.

In the Athens county municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1967.

In the Auglaize county municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1975.

In the Avon Lake municipal court, one ~~part-time~~ full-time judge shall be elected in ~~1957~~ 2017. On and after the effective date of this amendment, the part-time judge of the Avon Lake municipal court who was elected in 2011 shall serve as a full-time judge of the court until the end of that judge's term on December 31, 2017.

In the Barberton municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1969, and one full-time judge shall be elected in 1971.

In the Bedford municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1975, and one full-time judge shall be elected in 1979.

In the Bellefontaine municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1993.

In the Bowling Green municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1983.

In the Brown county municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 2005. Beginning February 9, 2003, the part-time judge of the Brown county county court that existed prior to that date whose term commenced on January 2, 2001, shall serve as the full-time judge of the Brown county municipal court until December 31, 2005.

In the Canton municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1951, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1969, and two full-time judges shall be elected in 1977.

In the Carroll county municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 2009. Beginning January 1, 2007, the judge elected in 2006 to the part-time judgeship of the Carroll county county court that existed prior to that date shall serve as the full-time judge of the Carroll county municipal court until December 31, 2009.

In the Champaign county municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 2001.

In the Chillicothe municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1951, and one full-time judge shall be elected in 1977.

In the Circleville municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1953.

In the Clark county municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1989, and two full-time judges shall be elected in 1991. The full-time judges of the Springfield municipal court who were elected in 1983 and 1985 shall serve as the judges of the Clark county municipal court from January 1, 1988, until the end of their respective terms.

In the Clermont county municipal court, two full-time judges shall be elected in 1991, and one full-time judge shall be elected in 1999.

In the Cleveland municipal court, six full-time judges shall be elected in 1975, three full-time judges shall be elected in 1953, and four full-time judges shall be elected in 1955.

In the Cleveland Heights municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1957.

In the Clinton county municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1997. The full-time judge of the Wilmington municipal court who was elected in 1991 shall serve as the judge of the Clinton county municipal court from July 1, 1992, until the end of that judge's term on December 31, 1997.

In the Columbiana county municipal court, two full-time judges shall be elected in 2001.

In the Crawford county municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1977.

In the Cuyahoga Falls municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1953, and one full-time judge shall be elected in 1967. Effective December 31, 2008, the Cuyahoga Falls municipal court shall cease to exist; however, the judges of the Cuyahoga Falls municipal court who were elected pursuant to this section in 2003 and 2007 for terms beginning on January 1, 2004, and January 1, 2008, respectively, shall serve as full-time judges of the Stow municipal court until December 31, 2009, and December 31, 2013, respectively.

In the Darke county municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 2005. Beginning January 1, 2005, the part-time judge of the Darke county county court that existed prior to that date whose term began on January 1, 2001, shall serve as the full-time judge of the Darke county municipal court until December 31, 2005.

In the Dayton municipal court, three full-time judges shall be elected in 1987, their terms to commence on successive days beginning on the first day of January next after their election, and two full-time judges shall be elected in 1955, their terms to commence on successive days beginning on the second day of January next after their election.

In the Delaware municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1953, and one full-time judge shall be elected in 2007.

In the East Cleveland municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1957.

In the East Liverpool municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1953.

In the Elyria municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1955, and one full-time judge shall be elected in 1973.

In the Erie county municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 2007.

In the Fairfield county municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 2003, and one full-time judge shall be elected in 2005.

In the Findlay municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1955, and one full-time judge shall be elected in 1993.

In the Franklin county municipal court, two full-time judges shall be elected in 1969, three full-time judges shall be elected in 1971, seven full-time judges shall be elected in 1967, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1975, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1991, and one full-time judge shall be elected in 1997.

In the Gallipolis municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1981.

In the Garfield Heights municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1951, and one full-time judge shall be elected in 1981.

In the Hamilton county municipal court, five full-time judges shall be elected in 1967, five full-time judges shall be elected in 1971, two full-time judges shall be elected in 1981, and two full-time judges shall be elected in 1983. All terms of judges of the Hamilton county municipal court shall commence on the first day of January next after their election, except that the terms of the additional judges to be elected in 1981 shall commence on January 2, 1982, and January 3, 1982, and that the terms of the additional judges to be elected in 1983 shall commence on January 4, 1984, and January 5, 1984.

In the Hardin county municipal court, one part-time judge shall be elected in 1989.

In the Hillsboro municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 2011. On and after December 30, 2008, the part-time judge of the Hillsboro municipal court who was elected in 2005 shall serve as a full-time judge of the court until the end of that judge's term on December 31, 2011.

In the Hocking county municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1977.

In the Holmes county municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 2007. Beginning January 1, 2007, the part-time judge of the Holmes county county court that existed prior to that date whose term commenced on January 1, 2007, shall serve as the full-time judge of the Holmes county municipal court until December 31, 2007.

In the Jackson county municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 2001. On and after March 31, 1997, the part-time judge of the Jackson county municipal court who was elected in 1995 shall serve as a full-time judge of the court until the end of that judge's term on December 31, 2001.

In the Kettering municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1971, and one full-time judge shall be elected in 1975.

In the Lancaster municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1951, and one full-time judge shall be elected in 1979. Beginning January 2, 2000, the full-time judges of the Lancaster municipal court who were elected in 1997 and 1999 shall serve as judges of the Fairfield county municipal court until the end of those judges' terms.

In the Lawrence county municipal court, one part-time judge shall be elected in 1981.

In the Licking county municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1951, and one full-time judge shall be elected in 1971.

In the Lima municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1951, and one full-time judge shall be elected in 1967.

In the Lorain municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1953, and one full-time judge shall be elected in 1973.

In the Madison county municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1981.

In the Mansfield municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1951, and one full-time judge shall be elected in 1969.

In the Marysville municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 2011. On and after January 18, 2007, the part-time judge of the Marysville municipal court who was elected in 2005 shall serve as a full-time judge of the court until the end of that judge's term on December 31, 2011.

In the Massillon municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1953, and one full-time judge shall be elected in 1971.

In the Miami county municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1975, and one full-time judge shall be elected in 1979.

In the Miamisburg municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1951.

In the Middletown municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1953.

One judge shall be elected in 2011 to a part-time judgeship for a term to begin on January 1, 2012. If any one of the other judgeships of the court becomes vacant and is abolished after July 1, 2010, this judgeship shall become a full-time judgeship on that date. If only one other judgeship of the court becomes vacant and is abolished as of December 31, 2021, this judgeship shall be abolished as of that date. Beginning July 1, 2010, the part-time judge of the Montgomery county county court that existed before that date whose term commenced on January 1, 2005, shall serve as a part-time judge of the Montgomery county municipal court until December 31, 2011.

One judge shall be elected in 2011 to a full-time judgeship for a term to begin on January 2, 2012, and this judgeship shall be abolished on January 1, 2016. Beginning July 1, 2010, the part-time judge of the Montgomery county county court that existed before that date whose term commenced on January 2, 2005, shall serve as a full-time judge of the Montgomery county municipal court until January 1, 2012.

One judge shall be elected in 2013 to a full-time judgeship for a term to begin on January 2, 2014. Beginning July 1, 2010, the part-time judge of the Montgomery county county court that existed before that date whose term commenced on January 2, 2007, shall serve as a full-time judge of the Montgomery county municipal court until January 1, 2014.

One judge shall be elected in 2013 to a judgeship for a term to begin on January 1, 2014. If no other judgeship of the court becomes vacant and is abolished by January 1, 2014, this judgeship shall be a part-time judgeship. When one or more of the other judgeships of the court becomes vacant and is abolished after July 1, 2010, this judgeship shall become a full-time judgeship. Beginning July 1, 2010, the part-time judge of the Montgomery county county court that existed before that date whose term commenced on January 1, 2007, shall serve as this judge of the Montgomery county municipal court until December 31, 2013.

If any one of the judgeships of the court becomes vacant before December 31, 2021, that judgeship is abolished on the date that it becomes vacant, and the other judges of the court shall be or serve as full-time judges. The abolishment of judgeships for the Montgomery county municipal court shall cease when the court has two full-time judgeships.

In the Morrow county municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 2005. Beginning January 1, 2003, the part-time judge of the Morrow county county court that existed prior to that date shall serve as the full-time judge of the Morrow county municipal court until December 31, 2005.

In the Mount Vernon municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1951.

In the New Philadelphia municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1975.

In the Newton Falls municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1963.

In the Ottawa county municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1995, and the full-time judge of the Port Clinton municipal court who is elected in 1989 shall serve as the judge of the Ottawa county municipal court from February 4, 1994, until the end of that judge's term.

In the Painesville municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1951.

In the Parma municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1951, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1967, and one full-time judge shall be elected in 1971.

In the Perrysburg municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1977.

In the Portage county municipal court, two full-time judges shall be elected in 1979, and one full-time judge shall be elected in 1971.

In the Port Clinton municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1953. The full-time judge of the Port Clinton municipal court who is elected in 1989 shall serve as the judge of the Ottawa county municipal court from February 4, 1994, until the end of that judge's term.

In the Portsmouth municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1951, and one full-time judge shall be elected in 1985.

In the Putnam county municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 2011. Beginning January 1, 2011, the part-time judge of the Putnam county county court that existed prior to that date whose term commenced on January 1, 2007, shall serve as the full-time judge of the Putnam county municipal court until December 31, 2011.

In the Rocky River municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1957, and one full-time judge shall be elected in 1971.

In the Sandusky county municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 2013. Beginning on January 1, 2013, the two part-time judges of the Sandusky county county court that existed prior to that date shall serve as part-time judges of the Sandusky county municipal court until December 31, 2013. If either judgeship becomes vacant before January 1, 2014, that judgeship is abolished on the date it becomes vacant, and the person who holds the other judgeship shall serve as the full-time judge of the Sandusky county municipal court until December 31, 2013.

In the Shaker Heights municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1957.

In the South Euclid municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1999. The part-time judge elected in 1993, whose term commenced on January 1, 1994, shall serve until December 31, 1999, and the office of that judge is abolished on January 1, 2000.

In the Springfield municipal court, two full-time judges shall be elected in 1985, and one full-time judge shall be elected in 1983, all of whom shall serve as the judges of the Springfield municipal court through December 31, 1987, and as the judges of the Clark county municipal court from January 1, 1988, until the end of their respective terms.

In the Steubenville municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1953.

In the Stow municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 2009, and one full-time judge shall be elected in 2013. Beginning January 1, 2009, the judge of the Cuyahoga Falls municipal court that existed prior to that date whose term commenced on January 1, 2008, shall serve as a full-time judge of the Stow municipal court until December 31, 2013. Beginning January 1, 2009, the judge of the Cuyahoga Falls municipal court that existed prior to that date whose term commenced on January 1, 2004, shall serve as a full-time judge of the Stow municipal court until December 31, 2009.

In the Tiffin-Fostoria municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 2013.

In the Toledo municipal court, two full-time judges shall be elected in 1971, four full-time judges shall be elected in 1975, and one full-time judge shall be elected in 1973.

In the Upper Sandusky municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 2011. The part-time judge elected in 2005, whose term commenced on January 1, 2006, shall serve as a full-time judge on and after January 1, 2008, until the expiration of that judge's term on December 31, 2011, and the office of that judge is abolished on January 1, 2012.

In the Warren municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1951, and one full-time judge shall be elected in 1971.

In the Washington Court House municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1999. The part-time judge elected in 1993, whose term commenced on January 1, 1994, shall serve until December 31, 1999, and the office of that judge is abolished on January 1, 2000.

In the Wayne county municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1975, and one full-time judge shall be elected in 1979.

In the Willoughby municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1951.

In the Wilmington municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1991, who shall serve as the judge of the Wilmington municipal court through June 30, 1992, and as the judge of the Clinton county municipal court from July 1, 1992, until the end of that judge's term on December 31, 1997.

In the Youngstown municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1951, and one full-time judge shall be elected in 2013.

In the Zanesville municipal court, one full-time judge shall be elected in 1953.

Sec. 2101.026. (A) The probate court of Franklin county may accept funds or other program assistance from individuals, corporations, agencies, or organizations, including, but not limited to, the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services of Franklin county or the Franklin county board of developmental disabilities. Any funds received by the probate court of Franklin county under this division shall be paid into the treasury of Franklin county and credited to a fund to be known as the Franklin county probate court mental health fund.

(B) The moneys in the Franklin county probate court mental health fund shall be used for services to help ensure the treatment of any person who is under the care of the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services of Franklin county or, the Franklin county board of developmental disabilities, or any other guardianships. These services include, but are not limited to, involuntary commitment proceedings and the establishment and management of adult guardianships, including all associated expenses, for wards who are under the care of the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services of Franklin county or, the Franklin county board of developmental disabilities, or any other guardianships.

(C) If the judge of the probate court of Franklin county determines that some of the moneys in the Franklin county probate court mental health fund are needed for the efficient operation of that court, the moneys may be used for the acquisition of equipment, the hiring and training of staff, community services programs, volunteer guardianship training services, the employment of magistrates, and other related services.

(D) The moneys in the Franklin county probate court mental health fund that may be used in part for the establishment and management of adult guardianships under division (B) of this section may be utilized to establish a Franklin county guardianship service.

(E)(1) A Franklin county guardianship service under division (D) of this section is established by creating a Franklin county guardianship service board comprised of three members. The judge of the probate court of Franklin county shall appoint one member. The board of directors of the Franklin county board of developmental disabilities shall appoint one member. The board of directors of the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services of Franklin county shall appoint one member. The term of appointment of each member is four years.

(2) The Franklin county guardianship service board may appoint a director of the board. The board shall determine the compensation of the director based on the availability of funds contained in the Franklin county probate court mental health fund.

(3) The members and the director, if any, of the Franklin county guardianship service board may receive appointments from the probate court of Franklin county to serve as guardians of both the person and estate of wards. The director may hire employees subject to available funds in the Franklin county probate court mental health fund.

(4) If a new director replaces a previously appointed director of the Franklin county guardianship service board, the new director shall replace the former director serving as a guardian under division (E)(3) of this section without the need of a successor guardianship hearing conducted by the probate court of Franklin county so long as the wards are the same wards for both the former director and the new director.

(5) The Franklin county guardianship service board that is created under division (E)(1) of this section shall promulgate all rules and regulations necessary for the efficient operation of the board and the Franklin county guardianship service.

Sec. 2151.417. (A) Any court that issues a dispositional order pursuant to section 2151.353, 2151.414, or 2151.415 of the Revised Code may review at any time the child's placement or custody arrangement, the case plan prepared for the child pursuant to section 2151.412 of the Revised Code, the actions of the public children services agency or private child placing agency in implementing that case plan, the child's permanency plan if the child's permanency plan has been approved, and any other aspects of the child's placement or custody arrangement. In conducting the review, the court shall determine the appropriateness of any agency actions, the safety and appropriateness of continuing the child's placement or custody arrangement, and whether any changes should be made with respect to the child's permanency plan or placement or custody arrangement or with respect to the actions of the agency under the child's placement or custody arrangement. Based upon the evidence presented at a hearing held after notice to all parties and the guardian ad litem of the child, the court may require the agency, the parents, guardian, or custodian of the child, and the physical custodians of the child to take any reasonable action that the court determines is necessary and in the best interest of the child or to discontinue any action that it determines is not in the best interest of the child.

(B) If a court issues a dispositional order pursuant to section 2151.353, 2151.414, or 2151.415 of the Revised Code, the court has continuing jurisdiction over the child as set forth in division (E)(1) of section 2151.353 of the Revised Code. The court may amend a dispositional order in accordance with division (E)(2) of section 2151.353 of the Revised Code at any time upon its own motion or upon the motion of any interested party. The court shall comply with section 2151.42 of the Revised Code in amending any dispositional order pursuant to this division.

(C) Any court that issues a dispositional order pursuant to section 2151.353, 2151.414, or 2151.415 of the Revised Code shall hold a review hearing one year after the earlier of the date on which the complaint in the case was filed or the child was first placed into shelter care to review the case plan prepared pursuant to section 2151.412 of the Revised Code and the child's placement or custody arrangement, to approve or review the permanency plan for the child, and to make changes to the case plan and placement or custody arrangement consistent with the permanency plan. The court shall schedule the review hearing at the time that it holds the dispositional hearing pursuant to section 2151.35 of the Revised Code.

The court shall hold a similar review hearing no later than every twelve months after the initial review hearing until the child is adopted, returned to the parents, or the court otherwise terminates the child's placement or custody arrangement, except that the dispositional hearing held pursuant to section 2151.415 of the Revised Code shall take the place of the first review hearing to be held under this section. The court shall schedule each subsequent review hearing at the conclusion of the review hearing immediately preceding the review hearing to be scheduled.

(D) If, within fourteen days after a written summary of an administrative review is filed with the court pursuant to section 2151.416 of the Revised Code, the court does not approve the proposed change to the case plan filed pursuant to division (E) of section 2151.416 of the Revised Code or a party or the guardian ad litem requests a review hearing pursuant to division (E) of that section, the court shall hold a review hearing in the same manner that it holds review hearings pursuant to division (C) of this section, except that if a review hearing is required by this division and if a hearing is to be held pursuant to division (C) of this section or section 2151.415 of the Revised Code, the hearing held pursuant to division (C) of this section or section 2151.415 of the Revised Code shall take the place of the review hearing required by this division.

(E) If a court determines pursuant to section 2151.419 of the Revised Code that a public children services agency or private child placing agency is not required to make reasonable efforts to prevent the removal of a child from the child's home, eliminate the continued removal of a child from the child's home, and return the child to the child's home, and the court does not return the child to the child's home pursuant to division (A)(3) of section 2151.419 of the Revised Code, the court shall hold a review hearing to approve the permanency plan for the child and, if appropriate, to make changes to the child's case plan and the child's placement or custody arrangement consistent with the permanency plan. The court may hold the hearing immediately following the determination under section 2151.419 of the Revised Code and shall hold it no later than thirty days after making that determination.

(F) The court shall give notice of the review hearings held pursuant to this section to every interested party, including, but not limited to, the appropriate agency employees who are responsible for the child's care and planning, the child's parents, any person who had guardianship or legal custody of the child prior to the custody order, the child's guardian ad litem, and the child. The court shall summon every interested party to appear at the review hearing and give them an opportunity to testify and to present other evidence with respect to the child's custody arrangement, including, but not limited to, the following: the case plan for the child,; the permanency plan, if one exists; the actions taken by the child's custodian; the need for a change in the child's custodian or caseworker; and the need for any specific action to be taken with respect to the child. The court shall require any interested party to testify or present other evidence when necessary to a proper determination of the issues presented at the review hearing. In any review hearing that pertains to a permanency plan for a child who will not be returned to the parent, the court shall consider in-state and out-of-state placement options and the court shall determine whether the in-state or the out-of-state placement continues to be appropriate and in the best interests of the child. In any review hearing that pertains to a permanency plan for a child, the court or a citizens board appointed by the court pursuant to division (H) of this section shall consult with the child, in an age-appropriate manner, regarding the proposed permanency plan for the child.

(G) After the review hearing, the court shall take the following actions based upon the evidence presented:

(1) If an administrative review has been conducted, determine whether the conclusions of the review are supported by a preponderance of the evidence and approve or modify the case plan based upon that evidence;

(2) If the hearing was held under division (C) or (E) of this section, approve a permanency plan for the child that specifies whether and, if applicable, when the child will be safely returned home or placed for adoption, for legal custody, or in a planned permanent living arrangement. A permanency plan approved after a hearing under division (E) of this section shall not include any provision requiring the child to be returned to the child's home.

(a) Determine whether the child can and should be returned home with or without an order for protective supervision;

(b) If the child can and should be returned home with or without an order for protective supervision, terminate the order for temporary custody;

(c) If the child cannot or should not be returned home with an order for protective supervision, determine whether the agency currently with custody of the child should retain custody or whether another public children services agency, private child placing agency, or an individual should be given custody of the child.

The court shall comply with section 2151.42 of the Revised Code in taking any action under this division.

(4) If the child is in permanent custody, determine what actions are required by the custodial agency and of any other organizations or persons in order to facilitate an adoption of the child and make any appropriate orders with respect to the custody arrangement or conditions of the child, including, but not limited to, a transfer of permanent custody to another public children services agency or private child placing agency;

(H) The court may appoint a referee or a citizens review board to conduct the review hearings that the court is required by this section to conduct, subject to the review and approval by the court of any determinations made by the referee or citizens review board. If the court appoints a citizens review board to conduct the review hearings, the board shall consist of one member representing the general public and four members who are trained or experienced in the care or placement of children and have training or experience in the fields of medicine, psychology, social work, education, or any related field. Of the initial appointments to the board, two shall be for a term of one year, two shall be for a term of two years, and one shall be for a term of three years, with all the terms ending one year after the date on which the appointment was made. Thereafter, all terms of the board members shall be for three years and shall end on the same day of the same month of the year as did the term that they succeed. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which the member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the remainder of the term.

(I) A copy of the court's determination following any review hearing held pursuant to this section shall be sent to the custodial agency, the guardian ad litem of the child who is the subject of the review hearing, and, if that child is not the subject of a permanent commitment hearing, the parents of the child.

(J) If the hearing held under this section takes the place of an administrative review that otherwise would have been held under section 2151.416 of the Revised Code, the court at the hearing held under this section shall do all of the following in addition to any other requirements of this section:

(1) Determine the continued necessity for and the safety and appropriateness of the child's placement;

(3) Determine the extent of progress that has been made toward alleviating or mitigating the causes necessitating the child's placement in foster care;

(4) Project a likely date by which the child may be safely returned home or placed for adoption or legal custody.

(K)(1) Whenever the court is required to approve a permanency plan under this section or section 2151.415 of the Revised Code, the public children services agency or private child placing agency that filed the complaint in the case, has custody of the child, or will be given custody of the child shall develop a permanency plan for the child. The agency must file the plan with the court prior to the hearing under this section or section 2151.415 of the Revised Code.

(2) The permanency plan developed by the agency must specify whether and, if applicable, when the child will be safely returned home or placed for adoption or legal custody. If the agency determines that there is a compelling reason why returning the child home or placing the child for adoption or legal custody is not in the best interest of the child, the plan shall provide that the child will be placed in a planned permanent living arrangement. A permanency plan developed as a result of a determination made under division (A)(2) of section 2151.419 of the Revised Code may not include any provision requiring the child to be returned home.

(3)(a) Whenever a court is required under this section or section 2151.415 or 2151.419 of the Revised Code to conduct a review hearing to approve a permanency plan, the court shall determine whether the agency required to develop the plan has made reasonable efforts to finalize it. If the court determines the agency has not made reasonable efforts to finalize the plan, the court shall issue an order finalizing a permanency plan requiring the agency to use reasonable efforts to do the following:

(ii) Complete whatever steps are necessary to finalize the permanent placement of the child.

(b) In making reasonable efforts as required in division (K)(3)(a) of this section, the agency shall consider the child's health and safety as the paramount concern.

Sec. 2151.421. (A)(1)(a) No person described in division (A)(1)(b) of this section who is acting in an official or professional capacity and knows, or has reasonable cause to suspect based on facts that would cause a reasonable person in a similar position to suspect, that a child under eighteen years of age or a mentally retarded, developmentally disabled, or physically impaired child under twenty-one years of age has suffered or faces a threat of suffering any physical or mental wound, injury, disability, or condition of a nature that reasonably indicates abuse or neglect of the child shall fail to immediately report that knowledge or reasonable cause to suspect to the entity or persons specified in this division. Except as provided in section 5120.173 of the Revised Code, the person making the report shall make it to the public children services agency or a municipal or county peace officer in the county in which the child resides or in which the abuse or neglect is occurring or has occurred. In the circumstances described in section 5120.173 of the Revised Code, the person making the report shall make it to the entity specified in that section.

(b) Division (A)(1)(a) of this section applies to any person who is an attorney; physician, including a hospital intern or resident; dentist; podiatrist; practitioner of a limited branch of medicine as specified in section 4731.15 of the Revised Code; registered nurse; licensed practical nurse; visiting nurse; other health care professional; licensed psychologist; licensed school psychologist; independent marriage and family therapist or marriage and family therapist; speech pathologist or audiologist; coroner; administrator or employee of a child day-care center; administrator or employee of a residential camp or child day camp; administrator or employee of a certified child care agency or other public or private children services agency; school teacher; school employee; school authority; person engaged in social work or the practice of professional counseling; agent of a county humane society; person, other than a cleric, rendering spiritual treatment through prayer in accordance with the tenets of a well-recognized religion; employee of a county department of job and family services who is a professional and who works with children and families; superintendent or regional administrator employed by the department of youth services; superintendent, board member, or employee of a county board of developmental disabilities; investigative agent contracted with by a county board of developmental disabilities; employee of the department of developmental disabilities; employee of a facility or home that provides respite care in accordance with section 5123.171 of the Revised Code; employee of a home health agency; employee of an entity that provides homemaker services; a person performing the duties of an assessor pursuant to Chapter 3107. or 5103. of the Revised Code; or third party employed by a public children services agency to assist in providing child or family related services.

(2) Except as provided in division (A)(3) of this section, an attorney or a physician is not required to make a report pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section concerning any communication the attorney or physician receives from a client or patient in an attorney-client or physician-patient relationship, if, in accordance with division (A) or (B) of section 2317.02 of the Revised Code, the attorney or physician could not testify with respect to that communication in a civil or criminal proceeding.

(3) The client or patient in an attorney-client or physician-patient relationship described in division (A)(2) of this section is deemed to have waived any testimonial privilege under division (A) or (B) of section 2317.02 of the Revised Code with respect to any communication the attorney or physician receives from the client or patient in that attorney-client or physician-patient relationship, and the attorney or physician shall make a report pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section with respect to that communication, if all of the following apply:

(a) The client or patient, at the time of the communication, is either a child under eighteen years of age or a mentally retarded, developmentally disabled, or physically impaired person under twenty-one years of age.

(b) The attorney or physician knows, or has reasonable cause to suspect based on facts that would cause a reasonable person in similar position to suspect, as a result of the communication or any observations made during that communication, that the client or patient has suffered or faces a threat of suffering any physical or mental wound, injury, disability, or condition of a nature that reasonably indicates abuse or neglect of the client or patient.

(c) The abuse or neglect does not arise out of the client's or patient's attempt to have an abortion without the notification of her parents, guardian, or custodian in accordance with section 2151.85 of the Revised Code.

(4)(a) No cleric and no person, other than a volunteer, designated by any church, religious society, or faith acting as a leader, official, or delegate on behalf of the church, religious society, or faith who is acting in an official or professional capacity, who knows, or has reasonable cause to believe based on facts that would cause a reasonable person in a similar position to believe, that a child under eighteen years of age or a mentally retarded, developmentally disabled, or physically impaired child under twenty-one years of age has suffered or faces a threat of suffering any physical or mental wound, injury, disability, or condition of a nature that reasonably indicates abuse or neglect of the child, and who knows, or has reasonable cause to believe based on facts that would cause a reasonable person in a similar position to believe, that another cleric or another person, other than a volunteer, designated by a church, religious society, or faith acting as a leader, official, or delegate on behalf of the church, religious society, or faith caused, or poses the threat of causing, the wound, injury, disability, or condition that reasonably indicates abuse or neglect shall fail to immediately report that knowledge or reasonable cause to believe to the entity or persons specified in this division. Except as provided in section 5120.173 of the Revised Code, the person making the report shall make it to the public children services agency or a municipal or county peace officer in the county in which the child resides or in which the abuse or neglect is occurring or has occurred. In the circumstances described in section 5120.173 of the Revised Code, the person making the report shall make it to the entity specified in that section.

(b) Except as provided in division (A)(4)(c) of this section, a cleric is not required to make a report pursuant to division (A)(4)(a) of this section concerning any communication the cleric receives from a penitent in a cleric-penitent relationship, if, in accordance with division (C) of section 2317.02 of the Revised Code, the cleric could not testify with respect to that communication in a civil or criminal proceeding.

(c) The penitent in a cleric-penitent relationship described in division (A)(4)(b) of this section is deemed to have waived any testimonial privilege under division (C) of section 2317.02 of the Revised Code with respect to any communication the cleric receives from the penitent in that cleric-penitent relationship, and the cleric shall make a report pursuant to division (A)(4)(a) of this section with respect to that communication, if all of the following apply:

(i) The penitent, at the time of the communication, is either a child under eighteen years of age or a mentally retarded, developmentally disabled, or physically impaired person under twenty-one years of age.

(ii) The cleric knows, or has reasonable cause to believe based on facts that would cause a reasonable person in a similar position to believe, as a result of the communication or any observations made during that communication, the penitent has suffered or faces a threat of suffering any physical or mental wound, injury, disability, or condition of a nature that reasonably indicates abuse or neglect of the penitent.

(iii) The abuse or neglect does not arise out of the penitent's attempt to have an abortion performed upon a child under eighteen years of age or upon a mentally retarded, developmentally disabled, or physically impaired person under twenty-one years of age without the notification of her parents, guardian, or custodian in accordance with section 2151.85 of the Revised Code.

(d) Divisions (A)(4)(a) and (c) of this section do not apply in a cleric-penitent relationship when the disclosure of any communication the cleric receives from the penitent is in violation of the sacred trust.

(e) As used in divisions (A)(1) and (4) of this section, "cleric" and "sacred trust" have the same meanings as in section 2317.02 of the Revised Code.

(B) Anyone who knows, or has reasonable cause to suspect based on facts that would cause a reasonable person in similar circumstances to suspect, that a child under eighteen years of age or a mentally retarded, developmentally disabled, or physically impaired person under twenty-one years of age has suffered or faces a threat of suffering any physical or mental wound, injury, disability, or other condition of a nature that reasonably indicates abuse or neglect of the child may report or cause reports to be made of that knowledge or reasonable cause to suspect to the entity or persons specified in this division. Except as provided in section 5120.173 of the Revised Code, a person making a report or causing a report to be made under this division shall make it or cause it to be made to the public children services agency or to a municipal or county peace officer. In the circumstances described in section 5120.173 of the Revised Code, a person making a report or causing a report to be made under this division shall make it or cause it to be made to the entity specified in that section.

(C) Any report made pursuant to division (A) or (B) of this section shall be made forthwith either by telephone or in person and shall be followed by a written report, if requested by the receiving agency or officer. The written report shall contain:

(1) The names and addresses of the child and the child's parents or the person or persons having custody of the child, if known;

(2) The child's age and the nature and extent of the child's injuries, abuse, or neglect that is known or reasonably suspected or believed, as applicable, to have occurred or of the threat of injury, abuse, or neglect that is known or reasonably suspected or believed, as applicable, to exist, including any evidence of previous injuries, abuse, or neglect;

(3) Any other information that might be helpful in establishing the cause of the injury, abuse, or neglect that is known or reasonably suspected or believed, as applicable, to have occurred or of the threat of injury, abuse, or neglect that is known or reasonably suspected or believed, as applicable, to exist.

Any person, who is required by division (A) of this section to report child abuse or child neglect that is known or reasonably suspected or believed to have occurred, may take or cause to be taken color photographs of areas of trauma visible on a child and, if medically indicated, cause to be performed radiological examinations of the child.

(D) As used in this division, "children's advocacy center" and "sexual abuse of a child" have the same meanings as in section 2151.425 of the Revised Code.

(1) When a municipal or county peace officer receives a report concerning the possible abuse or neglect of a child or the possible threat of abuse or neglect of a child, upon receipt of the report, the municipal or county peace officer who receives the report shall refer the report to the appropriate public children services agency.

(2) When a public children services agency receives a report pursuant to this division or division (A) or (B) of this section, upon receipt of the report, the public children services agency shall do both of the following:

(b) If the county served by the agency is also served by a children's advocacy center and the report alleges sexual abuse of a child or another type of abuse of a child that is specified in the memorandum of understanding that creates the center as being within the center's jurisdiction, comply regarding the report with the protocol and procedures for referrals and investigations, with the coordinating activities, and with the authority or responsibility for performing or providing functions, activities, and services stipulated in the interagency agreement entered into under section 2151.428 of the Revised Code relative to that center.

(E) No township, municipal, or county peace officer shall remove a child about whom a report is made pursuant to this section from the child's parents, stepparents, or guardian or any other persons having custody of the child without consultation with the public children services agency, unless, in the judgment of the officer, and, if the report was made by physician, the physician, immediate removal is considered essential to protect the child from further abuse or neglect. The agency that must be consulted shall be the agency conducting the investigation of the report as determined pursuant to section 2151.422 of the Revised Code.

(F)(1) Except as provided in section 2151.422 of the Revised Code or in an interagency agreement entered into under section 2151.428 of the Revised Code that applies to the particular report, the public children services agency shall investigate, within twenty-four hours, each report of child abuse or child neglect that is known or reasonably suspected or believed to have occurred and of a threat of child abuse or child neglect that is known or reasonably suspected or believed to exist that is referred to it under this section to determine the circumstances surrounding the injuries, abuse, or neglect or the threat of injury, abuse, or neglect, the cause of the injuries, abuse, neglect, or threat, and the person or persons responsible. The investigation shall be made in cooperation with the law enforcement agency and in accordance with the memorandum of understanding prepared under division (J) of this section. A representative of the public children services agency shall, at the time of initial contact with the person subject to the investigation, inform the person of the specific complaints or allegations made against the person. The information shall be given in a manner that is consistent with division (H)(1) of this section and protects the rights of the person making the report under this section.

A failure to make the investigation in accordance with the memorandum is not grounds for, and shall not result in, the dismissal of any charges or complaint arising from the report or the suppression of any evidence obtained as a result of the report and does not give, and shall not be construed as giving, any rights or any grounds for appeal or post-conviction relief to any person. The public children services agency shall report each case to the uniform statewide automated child welfare information system that the department of job and family services shall maintain in accordance with section 5101.13 of the Revised Code. The public children services agency shall submit a report of its investigation, in writing, to the law enforcement agency.

(2) The public children services agency shall make any recommendations to the county prosecuting attorney or city director of law that it considers necessary to protect any children that are brought to its attention.

(G)(1)(a) Except as provided in division (H)(3) of this section, anyone or any hospital, institution, school, health department, or agency participating in the making of reports under division (A) of this section, anyone or any hospital, institution, school, health department, or agency participating in good faith in the making of reports under division (B) of this section, and anyone participating in good faith in a judicial proceeding resulting from the reports, shall be immune from any civil or criminal liability for injury, death, or loss to person or property that otherwise might be incurred or imposed as a result of the making of the reports or the participation in the judicial proceeding.

(b) Notwithstanding section 4731.22 of the Revised Code, the physician-patient privilege shall not be a ground for excluding evidence regarding a child's injuries, abuse, or neglect, or the cause of the injuries, abuse, or neglect in any judicial proceeding resulting from a report submitted pursuant to this section.

(2) In any civil or criminal action or proceeding in which it is alleged and proved that participation in the making of a report under this section was not in good faith or participation in a judicial proceeding resulting from a report made under this section was not in good faith, the court shall award the prevailing party reasonable attorney's fees and costs and, if a civil action or proceeding is voluntarily dismissed, may award reasonable attorney's fees and costs to the party against whom the civil action or proceeding is brought.

(H)(1) Except as provided in divisions (H)(4) and (N) of this section, a report made under this section is confidential. The information provided in a report made pursuant to this section and the name of the person who made the report shall not be released for use, and shall not be used, as evidence in any civil action or proceeding brought against the person who made the report. Nothing in this division shall preclude the use of reports of other incidents of known or suspected abuse or neglect in a civil action or proceeding brought pursuant to division (M) of this section against a person who is alleged to have violated division (A)(1) of this section, provided that any information in a report that would identify the child who is the subject of the report or the maker of the report, if the maker of the report is not the defendant or an agent or employee of the defendant, has been redacted. In a criminal proceeding, the report is admissible in evidence in accordance with the Rules of Evidence and is subject to discovery in accordance with the Rules of Criminal Procedure.

(2) No person shall permit or encourage the unauthorized dissemination of the contents of any report made under this section.

(3) A person who knowingly makes or causes another person to make a false report under division (B) of this section that alleges that any person has committed an act or omission that resulted in a child being an abused child or a neglected child is guilty of a violation of section 2921.14 of the Revised Code.

(4) If a report is made pursuant to division (A) or (B) of this section and the child who is the subject of the report dies for any reason at any time after the report is made, but before the child attains eighteen years of age, the public children services agency or municipal or county peace officer to which the report was made or referred, on the request of the child fatality review board, shall submit a summary sheet of information providing a summary of the report to the review board of the county in which the deceased child resided at the time of death. On the request of the review board, the agency or peace officer may, at its discretion, make the report available to the review board. If the county served by the public children services agency is also served by a children's advocacy center and the report of alleged sexual abuse of a child or another type of abuse of a child is specified in the memorandum of understanding that creates the center as being within the center's jurisdiction, the agency or center shall perform the duties and functions specified in this division in accordance with the interagency agreement entered into under section 2151.428 of the Revised Code relative to that advocacy center.

(5) A public children services agency shall advise a person alleged to have inflicted abuse or neglect on a child who is the subject of a report made pursuant to this section, including a report alleging sexual abuse of a child or another type of abuse of a child referred to a children's advocacy center pursuant to an interagency agreement entered into under section 2151.428 of the Revised Code, in writing of the disposition of the investigation. The agency shall not provide to the person any information that identifies the person who made the report, statements of witnesses, or police or other investigative reports.

(I) Any report that is required by this section, other than a report that is made to the state highway patrol as described in section 5120.173 of the Revised Code, shall result in protective services and emergency supportive services being made available by the public children services agency on behalf of the children about whom the report is made, in an effort to prevent further neglect or abuse, to enhance their welfare, and, whenever possible, to preserve the family unit intact. The agency required to provide the services shall be the agency conducting the investigation of the report pursuant to section 2151.422 of the Revised Code.

(J)(1) Each public children services agency shall prepare a memorandum of understanding that is signed by all of the following:

(a) If there is only one juvenile judge in the county, the juvenile judge of the county or the juvenile judge's representative;

(b) If there is more than one juvenile judge in the county, a juvenile judge or the juvenile judges' representative selected by the juvenile judges or, if they are unable to do so for any reason, the juvenile judge who is senior in point of service or the senior juvenile judge's representative;

(e) Other law enforcement officers handling child abuse and neglect cases in the county;

(g) If the public children services agency is not the county department of job and family services, the county department of job and family services;

(i) If the public children services agency participated in the execution of a memorandum of understanding under section 2151.426 of the Revised Code establishing a children's advocacy center, each participating member of the children's advocacy center established by the memorandum.

(2) A memorandum of understanding shall set forth the normal operating procedure to be employed by all concerned officials in the execution of their respective responsibilities under this section and division (C) of section 2919.21, division (B)(1) of section 2919.22, division (B) of section 2919.23, and section 2919.24 of the Revised Code and shall have as two of its primary goals the elimination of all unnecessary interviews of children who are the subject of reports made pursuant to division (A) or (B) of this section and, when feasible, providing for only one interview of a child who is the subject of any report made pursuant to division (A) or (B) of this section. A failure to follow the procedure set forth in the memorandum by the concerned officials is not grounds for, and shall not result in, the dismissal of any charges or complaint arising from any reported case of abuse or neglect or the suppression of any evidence obtained as a result of any reported child abuse or child neglect and does not give, and shall not be construed as giving, any rights or any grounds for appeal or post-conviction relief to any person.

(a) The roles and responsibilities for handling emergency and nonemergency cases of abuse and neglect;

(b) Standards and procedures to be used in handling and coordinating investigations of reported cases of child abuse and reported cases of child neglect, methods to be used in interviewing the child who is the subject of the report and who allegedly was abused or neglected, and standards and procedures addressing the categories of persons who may interview the child who is the subject of the report and who allegedly was abused or neglected.

(4) If a public children services agency participated in the execution of a memorandum of understanding under section 2151.426 of the Revised Code establishing a children's advocacy center, the agency shall incorporate the contents of that memorandum in the memorandum prepared pursuant to this section.

(5) The clerk of the court of common pleas in the county may sign the memorandum of understanding prepared under division (J)(1) of this section. If the clerk signs the memorandum of understanding, the clerk shall execute all relevant responsibilities as required of officials specified in the memorandum.

(K)(1) Except as provided in division (K)(4) of this section, a person who is required to make a report pursuant to division (A) of this section may make a reasonable number of requests of the public children services agency that receives or is referred the report, or of the children's advocacy center that is referred the report if the report is referred to a children's advocacy center pursuant to an interagency agreement entered into under section 2151.428 of the Revised Code, to be provided with the following information:

(d) The general status of the health and safety of the child who is the subject of the report;

(e) Whether the report has resulted in the filing of a complaint in juvenile court or of criminal charges in another court.

(2) A person may request the information specified in division (K)(1) of this section only if, at the time the report is made, the person's name, address, and telephone number are provided to the person who receives the report.

When a municipal or county peace officer or employee of a public children services agency receives a report pursuant to division (A) or (B) of this section the recipient of the report shall inform the person of the right to request the information described in division (K)(1) of this section. The recipient of the report shall include in the initial child abuse or child neglect report that the person making the report was so informed and, if provided at the time of the making of the report, shall include the person's name, address, and telephone number in the report.

Each request is subject to verification of the identity of the person making the report. If that person's identity is verified, the agency shall provide the person with the information described in division (K)(1) of this section a reasonable number of times, except that the agency shall not disclose any confidential information regarding the child who is the subject of the report other than the information described in those divisions.

(3) A request made pursuant to division (K)(1) of this section is not a substitute for any report required to be made pursuant to division (A) of this section.

(4) If an agency other than the agency that received or was referred the report is conducting the investigation of the report pursuant to section 2151.422 of the Revised Code, the agency conducting the investigation shall comply with the requirements of division (K) of this section.

(L) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. The department of job and family services may enter into a plan of cooperation with any other governmental entity to aid in ensuring that children are protected from abuse and neglect. The department shall make recommendations to the attorney general that the department determines are necessary to protect children from child abuse and child neglect.

(M) Whoever violates division (A) of this section is liable for compensatory and exemplary damages to the child who would have been the subject of the report that was not made. A person who brings a civil action or proceeding pursuant to this division against a person who is alleged to have violated division (A)(1) of this section may use in the action or proceeding reports of other incidents of known or suspected abuse or neglect, provided that any information in a report that would identify the child who is the subject of the report or the maker of the report, if the maker is not the defendant or an agent or employee of the defendant, has been redacted.

(a) "Out-of-home care" includes a nonchartered nonpublic school if the alleged child abuse or child neglect, or alleged threat of child abuse or child neglect, described in a report received by a public children services agency allegedly occurred in or involved the nonchartered nonpublic school and the alleged perpetrator named in the report holds a certificate, permit, or license issued by the state board of education under section 3301.071 or Chapter 3319. of the Revised Code.

(b) "Administrator, director, or other chief administrative officer" means the superintendent of the school district if the out-of-home care entity subject to a report made pursuant to this section is a school operated by the district.

(2) No later than the end of the day following the day on which a public children services agency receives a report of alleged child abuse or child neglect, or a report of an alleged threat of child abuse or child neglect, that allegedly occurred in or involved an out-of-home care entity, the agency shall provide written notice of the allegations contained in and the person named as the alleged perpetrator in the report to the administrator, director, or other chief administrative officer of the out-of-home care entity that is the subject of the report unless the administrator, director, or other chief administrative officer is named as an alleged perpetrator in the report. If the administrator, director, or other chief administrative officer of an out-of-home care entity is named as an alleged perpetrator in a report of alleged child abuse or child neglect, or a report of an alleged threat of child abuse or child neglect, that allegedly occurred in or involved the out-of-home care entity, the agency shall provide the written notice to the owner or governing board of the out-of-home care entity that is the subject of the report. The agency shall not provide witness statements or police or other investigative reports.

(3) No later than three days after the day on which a public children services agency that conducted the investigation as determined pursuant to section 2151.422 of the Revised Code makes a disposition of an investigation involving a report of alleged child abuse or child neglect, or a report of an alleged threat of child abuse or child neglect, that allegedly occurred in or involved an out-of-home care entity, the agency shall send written notice of the disposition of the investigation to the administrator, director, or other chief administrative officer and the owner or governing board of the out-of-home care entity. The agency shall not provide witness statements or police or other investigative reports.

(O) As used in this section, "investigation" means the public children services agency's response to an accepted report of child abuse or neglect through either an alternative response or a traditional response.

Sec. 2152.19. (A) If a child is adjudicated a delinquent child, the court may make any of the following orders of disposition, in addition to any other disposition authorized or required by this chapter:

(1) Any order that is authorized by section 2151.353 of the Revised Code for the care and protection of an abused, neglected, or dependent child;

(2) Commit the child to the temporary custody of any school, camp, institution, or other facility operated for the care of delinquent children by the county, by a district organized under section 2152.41 or 2151.65 of the Revised Code, or by a private agency or organization, within or without the state, that is authorized and qualified to provide the care, treatment, or placement required, including, but not limited to, a school, camp, or facility operated under section 2151.65 of the Revised Code;

(3) Place the child in a detention facility or district detention facility operated under section 2152.41 of the Revised Code, for up to ninety days;

(4) Place the child on community control under any sanctions, services, and conditions that the court prescribes. As a condition of community control in every case and in addition to any other condition that it imposes upon the child, the court shall require the child to abide by the law during the period of community control. As referred to in this division, community control includes, but is not limited to, the following sanctions and conditions:

(a) A period of basic probation supervision in which the child is required to maintain contact with a person appointed to supervise the child in accordance with sanctions imposed by the court;

(b) A period of intensive probation supervision in which the child is required to maintain frequent contact with a person appointed by the court to supervise the child while the child is seeking or maintaining employment and participating in training, education, and treatment programs as the order of disposition;

(c) A period of day reporting in which the child is required each day to report to and leave a center or another approved reporting location at specified times in order to participate in work, education or training, treatment, and other approved programs at the center or outside the center;

(d) A period of community service of up to five hundred hours for an act that would be a felony or a misdemeanor of the first degree if committed by an adult, up to two hundred hours for an act that would be a misdemeanor of the second, third, or fourth degree if committed by an adult, or up to thirty hours for an act that would be a minor misdemeanor if committed by an adult;

(e) A requirement that the child obtain a high school diploma, a certificate of high school equivalence, vocational training, or employment;

(g) A requirement of alcohol or drug assessment or counseling, or a period in an alcohol or drug treatment program with a level of security for the child as determined necessary by the court;

(h) A period in which the court orders the child to observe a curfew that may involve daytime or evening hours;

(j) A period of house arrest without electronic monitoring or continuous alcohol monitoring;

(k) A period of electronic monitoring or continuous alcohol monitoring without house arrest, or house arrest with electronic monitoring or continuous alcohol monitoring or both electronic monitoring and continuous alcohol monitoring, that does not exceed the maximum sentence of imprisonment that could be imposed upon an adult who commits the same act.

A period of house arrest with electronic monitoring or continuous alcohol monitoring or both electronic monitoring and continuous alcohol monitoring, imposed under this division shall not extend beyond the child's twenty-first birthday. If a court imposes a period of house arrest with electronic monitoring or continuous alcohol monitoring or both electronic monitoring and continuous alcohol monitoring, upon a child under this division, it shall require the child: to remain in the child's home or other specified premises for the entire period of house arrest with electronic monitoring or continuous alcohol monitoring or both except when the court permits the child to leave those premises to go to school or to other specified premises. Regarding electronic monitoring, the court also shall require the child to be monitored by a central system that can determine the child's location at designated times; to report periodically to a person designated by the court; and to enter into a written contract with the court agreeing to comply with all requirements imposed by the court, agreeing to pay any fee imposed by the court for the costs of the house arrest with electronic monitoring, and agreeing to waive the right to receive credit for any time served on house arrest with electronic monitoring toward the period of any other dispositional order imposed upon the child if the child violates any of the requirements of the dispositional order of house arrest with electronic monitoring. The court also may impose other reasonable requirements upon the child.

Unless ordered by the court, a child shall not receive credit for any time served on house arrest with electronic monitoring or continuous alcohol monitoring or both toward any other dispositional order imposed upon the child for the act for which was imposed the dispositional order of house arrest with electronic monitoring or continuous alcohol monitoring. As used in this division and division (A)(4)(l) of this section, "continuous alcohol monitoring" has the same meaning as in section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.

(l) A suspension of the driver's license, probationary driver's license, or temporary instruction permit issued to the child for a period of time prescribed by the court, or a suspension of the registration of all motor vehicles registered in the name of the child for a period of time prescribed by the court. A child whose license or permit is so suspended is ineligible for issuance of a license or permit during the period of suspension. At the end of the period of suspension, the child shall not be reissued a license or permit until the child has paid any applicable reinstatement fee and complied with all requirements governing license reinstatement.

(6) Require the child to not be absent without legitimate excuse from the public school the child is supposed to attend for five or more consecutive days, seven or more school days in one school month, or twelve or more school days in a school year;

(7)(a) If a child is adjudicated a delinquent child for being a chronic truant or a habitual truant who previously has been adjudicated an unruly child for being a habitual truant, do either or both of the following:

(ii) Make any order of disposition as authorized by this section, except that the court shall not commit the child to a facility described in division (A)(2) or (3) of this section unless the court determines that the child violated a lawful court order made pursuant to division (C)(1)(e) of section 2151.354 of the Revised Code or division (A)(6) of this section.

(b) If a child is adjudicated a delinquent child for being a chronic truant or a habitual truant who previously has been adjudicated an unruly child for being a habitual truant and the court determines that the parent, guardian, or other person having care of the child has failed to cause the child's attendance at school in violation of section 3321.38 of the Revised Code, do either or both of the following:

(i) Require the parent, guardian, or other person having care of the child to participate in a truancy prevention mediation program;

(ii) Require the parent, guardian, or other person having care of the child to participate in any community service program, preferably a community service program that requires the involvement of the parent, guardian, or other person having care of the child in the school attended by the child.

(8) Make any further disposition that the court finds proper, except that the child shall not be placed in ~~any of the following:~~

~~(a) A~~ a state correctional institution, a county, multicounty, or municipal jail or workhouse, or another place in which an adult convicted of a crime, under arrest, or charged with a crime is held;

(b) A community corrections facility, if the child would be covered by the definition of public safety beds for purposes of sections 5139.41 to 5139.43 of the Revised Code if the court exercised its authority to commit the child to the legal custody of the department of youth services for institutionalization or institutionalization in a secure facility pursuant to this chapter.

(B) If a child is adjudicated a delinquent child, in addition to any order of disposition made under division (A) of this section, the court, in the following situations and for the specified periods of time, shall suspend the child's temporary instruction permit, restricted license, probationary driver's license, or nonresident operating privilege, or suspend the child's ability to obtain such a permit:

(1) If the child is adjudicated a delinquent child for violating section 2923.122 of the Revised Code, impose a class four suspension of the child's license, permit, or privilege from the range specified in division (A)(4) of section 4510.02 of the Revised Code or deny the child the issuance of a license or permit in accordance with division (F)(1) of section 2923.122 of the Revised Code.

(2) If the child is adjudicated a delinquent child for committing an act that if committed by an adult would be a drug abuse offense or for violating division (B) of section 2917.11 of the Revised Code, suspend the child's license, permit, or privilege for a period of time prescribed by the court. The court, in its discretion, may terminate the suspension if the child attends and satisfactorily completes a drug abuse or alcohol abuse education, intervention, or treatment program specified by the court. During the time the child is attending a program described in this division, the court shall retain the child's temporary instruction permit, probationary driver's license, or driver's license, and the court shall return the permit or license if it terminates the suspension as described in this division.

(C) The court may establish a victim-offender mediation program in which victims and their offenders meet to discuss the offense and suggest possible restitution. If the court obtains the assent of the victim of the delinquent act committed by the child, the court may require the child to participate in the program.

(D)(1) If a child is adjudicated a delinquent child for committing an act that would be a felony if committed by an adult and if the child caused, attempted to cause, threatened to cause, or created a risk of physical harm to the victim of the act, the court, prior to issuing an order of disposition under this section, shall order the preparation of a victim impact statement by the probation department of the county in which the victim of the act resides, by the court's own probation department, or by a victim assistance program that is operated by the state, a county, a municipal corporation, or another governmental entity. The court shall consider the victim impact statement in determining the order of disposition to issue for the child.

(2) Each victim impact statement shall identify the victim of the act for which the child was adjudicated a delinquent child, itemize any economic loss suffered by the victim as a result of the act, identify any physical injury suffered by the victim as a result of the act and the seriousness and permanence of the injury, identify any change in the victim's personal welfare or familial relationships as a result of the act and any psychological impact experienced by the victim or the victim's family as a result of the act, and contain any other information related to the impact of the act upon the victim that the court requires.

(3) A victim impact statement shall be kept confidential and is not a public record. However, the court may furnish copies of the statement to the department of youth services if the delinquent child is committed to the department or to both the adjudicated delinquent child or the adjudicated delinquent child's counsel and the prosecuting attorney. The copy of a victim impact statement furnished by the court to the department pursuant to this section shall be kept confidential and is not a public record. If an officer is preparing pursuant to section 2947.06 or 2951.03 of the Revised Code or Criminal Rule 32.2 a presentence investigation report pertaining to a person, the court shall make available to the officer, for use in preparing the report, a copy of any victim impact statement regarding that person. The copies of a victim impact statement that are made available to the adjudicated delinquent child or the adjudicated delinquent child's counsel and the prosecuting attorney pursuant to this division shall be returned to the court by the person to whom they were made available immediately following the imposition of an order of disposition for the child under this chapter.

The copy of a victim impact statement that is made available pursuant to this division to an officer preparing a criminal presentence investigation report shall be returned to the court by the officer immediately following its use in preparing the report.

(4) The department of youth services shall work with local probation departments and victim assistance programs to develop a standard victim impact statement.

(E) If a child is adjudicated a delinquent child for being a chronic truant or a habitual truant who previously has been adjudicated an unruly child for being a habitual truant and the court determines that the parent, guardian, or other person having care of the child has failed to cause the child's attendance at school in violation of section 3321.38 of the Revised Code, in addition to any order of disposition it makes under this section, the court shall warn the parent, guardian, or other person having care of the child that any subsequent adjudication of the child as an unruly or delinquent child for being a habitual or chronic truant may result in a criminal charge against the parent, guardian, or other person having care of the child for a violation of division (C) of section 2919.21 or section 2919.24 of the Revised Code.

(F)(1) During the period of a delinquent child's community control granted under this section, authorized probation officers who are engaged within the scope of their supervisory duties or responsibilities may search, with or without a warrant, the person of the delinquent child, the place of residence of the delinquent child, and a motor vehicle, another item of tangible or intangible personal property, or other real property in which the delinquent child has a right, title, or interest or for which the delinquent child has the express or implied permission of a person with a right, title, or interest to use, occupy, or possess if the probation officers have reasonable grounds to believe that the delinquent child is not abiding by the law or otherwise is not complying with the conditions of the delinquent child's community control. The court that places a delinquent child on community control under this section shall provide the delinquent child with a written notice that informs the delinquent child that authorized probation officers who are engaged within the scope of their supervisory duties or responsibilities may conduct those types of searches during the period of community control if they have reasonable grounds to believe that the delinquent child is not abiding by the law or otherwise is not complying with the conditions of the delinquent child's community control. The court also shall provide the written notice described in division (E)(2) of this section to each parent, guardian, or custodian of the delinquent child who is described in that division.

(2) The court that places a child on community control under this section shall provide the child's parent, guardian, or other custodian with a written notice that informs them that authorized probation officers may conduct searches pursuant to division (E)(1) of this section. The notice shall specifically state that a permissible search might extend to a motor vehicle, another item of tangible or intangible personal property, or a place of residence or other real property in which a notified parent, guardian, or custodian has a right, title, or interest and that the parent, guardian, or custodian expressly or impliedly permits the child to use, occupy, or possess.

(G) If a juvenile court commits a delinquent child to the custody of any person, organization, or entity pursuant to this section and if the delinquent act for which the child is so committed is a sexually oriented offense or is a child-victim oriented offense, the court in the order of disposition shall do one of the following:

(1) Require that the child be provided treatment as described in division (A)(2) of section 5139.13 of the Revised Code;

(2) Inform the person, organization, or entity that it is the preferred course of action in this state that the child be provided treatment as described in division (A)(2) of section 5139.13 of the Revised Code and encourage the person, organization, or entity to provide that treatment.

Sec. 2305.09. Except as provided for in division (C) of this section, an action for any of the following causes shall be brought within four years after the cause thereof accrued:

(C) For relief on the ground of fraud, except when the cause of action is a violation of section 2913.49 of the Revised Code, in which case the action shall be brought within five years after the cause thereof accrued;

(D) For an injury to the rights of the plaintiff not arising on contract nor enumerated in sections 1304.35, 2305.10 to 2305.12, and 2305.14 of the Revised Code;

(E) For relief on the grounds of a physical or regulatory taking of real property.

If the action is for trespassing under ground or injury to mines, or for the wrongful taking of personal property, the causes thereof shall not accrue until the wrongdoer is discovered; nor, if it is for fraud, until the fraud is discovered.

An action for professional negligence against a registered surveyor shall be commenced within four years after the completion of the engagement on which the cause of action is based.

Sec. 2710.06. (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this section and section 3109.052 of the Revised Code, a mediator shall not make a report, assessment, evaluation, recommendation, finding, or other communication regarding a mediation to a court, department, agency, or officer of this state or its political subdivisions that may make a ruling on the dispute that is the subject of the mediation.

(1) Whether the mediation occurred or has terminated, whether a settlement was reached, and attendance;

(2) A mediation communication as permitted by section ~~2710.07~~ 2710.05 of the Revised Code;

(3) A mediation communication evidencing abuse, neglect, abandonment, or exploitation of an individual to a public agency responsible for protecting individuals against abuse, neglect, abandonment, or exploitation.

(C) A communication made in violation of division (A) of this section shall not be considered by a court, administrative agency, or arbitrator.

Sec. 2743.191. (A)(1) There is hereby created in the state treasury the reparations fund, which shall be used only for the following purposes:

(a) The payment of awards of reparations that are granted by the attorney general;

(b) The compensation of any personnel needed by the attorney general to administer sections 2743.51 to 2743.72 of the Revised Code;

(d) Other administrative costs of hearing and determining claims for an award of reparations by the attorney general;

(e) The costs of administering sections 2907.28 and 2969.01 to 2969.06 of the Revised Code;

(f) The costs of investigation and decision-making as certified by the attorney general;

(g) The provision of state financial assistance to victim assistance programs in accordance with sections 109.91 and 109.92 of the Revised Code;

(h) The costs of paying the expenses of sex offense-related examinations ~~and~~, antibiotics, and HIV post-exposure prophylaxis pursuant to section 2907.28 of the Revised Code;

(i) The cost of printing and distributing the pamphlet prepared by the attorney general pursuant to section 109.42 of the Revised Code;

(j) Subject to division (D) of section 2743.71 of the Revised Code, the costs associated with the printing and providing of information cards or other printed materials to law enforcement agencies and prosecuting authorities and with publicizing the availability of awards of reparations pursuant to section 2743.71 of the Revised Code;

(k) The payment of costs of administering a DNA specimen collection procedure pursuant to sections 2152.74 and 2901.07 of the Revised Code, of performing DNA analysis of those DNA specimens, and of entering the resulting DNA records regarding those analyses into the DNA database pursuant to section 109.573 of the Revised Code;

(l) The payment of actual costs associated with initiatives by the attorney general for the apprehension, prosecution, and accountability of offenders, and the enhancing of services to crime victims. The amount of payments made pursuant to division (A)(1)(l) of this section during any given fiscal year shall not exceed five per cent of the balance of the reparations fund at the close of the immediately previous fiscal year;

(m) The costs of administering the adult parole authority's supervision pursuant to division (E) of section 2971.05 of the Revised Code of sexually violent predators who are sentenced to a prison term pursuant to division (A)(3) of section 2971.03 of the Revised Code and of offenders who are sentenced to a prison term pursuant to division (B)(1)(a), (b), or (c), (B)(2)(a), (b), or (c), or (B)(3)(a), (b), (c), or (d) of that section;

(n) Subject to the limit set forth in those sections, the costs of the installation and monitoring of an electronic monitoring device used in the monitoring of a respondent pursuant to an electronic monitoring order issued by a court under division (E)(1)(b) of section 2151.34 or division (E)(1)(b) of section 2903.214 of the Revised Code if the court determines that the respondent is indigent or used in the monitoring of an offender pursuant to an electronic monitoring order issued under division (B)(5) of section 2919.27 of the Revised Code if the court determines that the offender is indigent.

(2) All costs paid pursuant to section 2743.70 of the Revised Code, the portions of license reinstatement fees mandated by division (F)(2)(b) of section 4511.191 of the Revised Code to be credited to the fund, the portions of the proceeds of the sale of a forfeited vehicle specified in division (C)(2) of section 4503.234 of the Revised Code, payments collected by the department of rehabilitation and correction from prisoners who voluntarily participate in an approved work and training program pursuant to division (C)(8)(b)(ii) of section 5145.16 of the Revised Code, and all moneys collected by the state pursuant to its right of subrogation provided in section 2743.72 of the Revised Code shall be deposited in the fund.

(B) In making an award of reparations, the attorney general shall render the award against the state. The award shall be accomplished only through the following procedure, and the following procedure may be enforced by writ of mandamus directed to the appropriate official:

(1) The attorney general shall provide for payment of the claimant or providers in the amount of the award only if the amount of the award is fifty dollars or more.

(2) The expense shall be charged against all available unencumbered moneys in the fund.

(3) If sufficient unencumbered moneys do not exist in the fund, the attorney general shall make application for payment of the award out of the emergency purposes account or any other appropriation for emergencies or contingencies, and payment out of this account or other appropriation shall be authorized if there are sufficient moneys greater than the sum total of then pending emergency purposes account requests or requests for releases from the other appropriations.

(4) If sufficient moneys do not exist in the account or any other appropriation for emergencies or contingencies to pay the award, the attorney general shall request the general assembly to make an appropriation sufficient to pay the award, and no payment shall be made until the appropriation has been made. The attorney general shall make this appropriation request during the current biennium and during each succeeding biennium until a sufficient appropriation is made. If, prior to the time that an appropriation is made by the general assembly pursuant to this division, the fund has sufficient unencumbered funds to pay the award or part of the award, the available funds shall be used to pay the award or part of the award, and the appropriation request shall be amended to request only sufficient funds to pay that part of the award that is unpaid.

(C) The attorney general shall not make payment on a decision or order granting an award until all appeals have been determined and all rights to appeal exhausted, except as otherwise provided in this section. If any party to a claim for an award of reparations appeals from only a portion of an award, and a remaining portion provides for the payment of money by the state, that part of the award calling for the payment of money by the state and not a subject of the appeal shall be processed for payment as described in this section.

(D) The attorney general shall prepare itemized bills for the costs of printing and distributing the pamphlet the attorney general prepares pursuant to section 109.42 of the Revised Code. The itemized bills shall set forth the name and address of the persons owed the amounts set forth in them.

(E) As used in this section, "DNA analysis" and "DNA specimen" have the same meanings as in section 109.573 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 2907.28. (A) Any cost incurred by a hospital or emergency medical facility in conducting a medical examination of a victim of an offense under any provision of sections 2907.02 to 2907.06 of the Revised Code for the purpose of gathering physical evidence for a possible prosecution, including the cost of any antibiotics administered as part of the examination and the cost of HIV post-exposure prophylaxis provided as part of the examination, shall be paid out of the reparations fund established pursuant to section 2743.191 of the Revised Code, subject to the following conditions:

(1) The hospital or emergency facility shall follow a protocol for conducting such medical examinations that is identified by the attorney general in rule adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.

(2) The hospital or emergency facility shall submit requests for payment to the attorney general on a monthly basis, through a procedure determined by the attorney general and on forms approved by the attorney general. The requests shall identify the number of sexual assault examinations performed and the number of sexual assault examinations in which HIV post-exposure prophylaxis was provided and shall verify that all required protocols were met for each examination form submitted for payment in the request.

(3) The attorney general shall review all requests for payment that are submitted under division (A)(2) of this section and shall submit for payment as described in division (A)(5) of this section all requests that meet the requirements of this section.

(4)(a) The hospital or emergency facility shall accept a flat fee payment for conducting each examination in the amount determined by the attorney general pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as payment in full for any cost incurred in conducting a medical examination and test of a victim of an offense under any provision of sections 2907.02 to 2907.06 of the Revised Code for the purpose of gathering physical evidence for a possible prosecution of a person, other than the cost of providing HIV post-exposure prophylaxis. The attorney general shall determine a flat fee payment amount to be paid under this division that is reasonable.

(b) The hospital or emergency facility shall accept a flat fee payment for providing HIV post-exposure prophylaxis in the amount determined by the attorney general pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as payment in full for any cost incurred in providing HIV post-exposure prophylaxis while conducting a medical examination and test of a victim of an offense under any provision of sections 2907.02 to 2907.06 of the Revised Code for the purpose of gathering physical evidence for a possible prosecution of a person. The attorney general shall determine a reasonable flat fee payment amount to be paid under this division.

(5) In approving a payment under this section, the attorney general shall order the payment against the state. The payment shall be accomplished only through the following procedure, and the procedure may be enforced through a mandamus action and a writ of mandamus directed to the appropriate official:

(a) The attorney general shall provide for payment in the amount set forth in the order.

(b) The expense of the payment of the amount described in this section shall be charged against all available unencumbered moneys in the reparations fund.

(B) No costs incurred by a hospital or emergency facility in conducting a medical examination and test of any victim of an offense under any provision of sections 2907.02 to 2907.06 of the Revised Code for the purpose of gathering physical evidence for a possible prosecution of a person shall be billed or charged directly or indirectly to the victim or the victim's insurer.

(C) Any cost incurred by a hospital or emergency medical facility in conducting a medical examination and test of any person who is charged with a violation of division (B) of section 2903.11 or of section 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.24, 2907.241, or 2907.25 of the Revised Code or with a violation of a municipal ordinance that is substantially equivalent to that division or any of those sections, pursuant to division (B) of section 2907.27 of the Revised Code, shall be charged to and paid by the accused who undergoes the examination and test, unless the court determines that the accused is unable to pay, in which case the cost shall be charged to and paid by the municipal corporation in which the offense allegedly was committed, or charged to and paid by the county if the offense allegedly was committed within an unincorporated area. If separate counts of an alleged offense or alleged separate offenses under section 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.24, 2907.241, or 2907.25 of the Revised Code or under a municipal ordinance that is substantially equivalent to any of those sections took place in more than one municipal corporation or more than one unincorporated area, or both, the local governments shall share the cost of the examination and test. If a hospital or other emergency medical facility has submitted charges for the cost of a medical examination and test to an accused and has been unable to collect payment for the charges after making good faith attempts to collect for a period of six months or more, the cost shall be charged to and paid by the appropriate municipal corporation or county as specified in division (C) of this section.

(1) "AIDS" and "HIV" have the same meanings as in section 3701.24 of the Revised Code.

(2) "HIV post-exposure prophylaxis" means the administration of medicines to prevent AIDS or HIV infection following exposure to HIV.

Sec. 2915.08. (A)(1) Annually before the first day of January, a charitable organization that desires to conduct bingo, instant bingo at a bingo session, or instant bingo other than at a bingo session shall make out, upon a form to be furnished by the attorney general for that purpose, an application for a license to conduct bingo, instant bingo at a bingo session, or instant bingo other than at a bingo session and deliver that application to the attorney general together with a license fee as follows:

(a) Except as otherwise provided in this division, for a license for the conduct of bingo, two hundred dollars;

(b) For a license for the conduct of instant bingo at a bingo session or instant bingo other than at a bingo session for a charitable organization that previously has not been licensed under this chapter to conduct instant bingo at a bingo session or instant bingo other than at a bingo session, a license fee of five hundred dollars, and for any other charitable organization, a license fee that is based upon the gross profits received by the charitable organization from the operation of instant bingo at a bingo session or instant bingo other than at a bingo session, during the one-year period ending on the thirty-first day of October of the year immediately preceding the year for which the license is sought, and that is one of the following:

(ii) One thousand two hundred fifty dollars plus one-fourth per cent of the gross profit, if the total is more than fifty thousand dollars but less than two hundred fifty thousand one dollars;

(iii) Two thousand two hundred fifty dollars plus one-half per cent of the gross profit, if the total is more than two hundred fifty thousand dollars but less than five hundred thousand one dollars;

(iv) Three thousand five hundred dollars plus one per cent of the gross profit, if the total is more than five hundred thousand dollars but less than one million one dollars;

(v) Five thousand dollars plus one per cent of the gross profit, if the total is one million one dollars or more;

(d) For a license to conduct bingo for a charitable organization that prior to July 1, 2003, has not been licensed under this chapter to conduct bingo, instant bingo at a bingo session, or instant bingo other than at a bingo session, a license fee established by rule by the attorney general in accordance with division (H) of this section.

(2) The application shall be in the form prescribed by the attorney general, shall be signed and sworn to by the applicant, and shall contain all of the following:

(b) A statement that the applicant is a charitable organization and that it has been in continuous existence as a charitable organization in this state for two years immediately preceding the making of the application;

(c) The location at which the organization will conduct bingo, which location shall be within the county in which the principal place of business of the applicant is located, the days of the week and the times on each of those days when bingo will be conducted, whether the organization owns, leases, or subleases the premises, and a copy of the rental agreement if it leases or subleases the premises;

(d) A statement of the applicant's previous history, record, and association that is sufficient to establish that the applicant is a charitable organization, and a copy of a determination letter that is issued by the Internal Revenue Service and states that the organization is tax exempt under subsection 501(a) and described in subsection 501(c)(3), 501(c)(4), 501(c)(7), 501(c)(8), 501(c)(10), or 501(c)(19) of the Internal Revenue Code;

(e) A statement as to whether the applicant has ever had any previous application refused, whether it previously has had a license revoked or suspended, and the reason stated by the attorney general for the refusal, revocation, or suspension;

(f) A statement of the charitable purposes for which the net profit derived from bingo, other than instant bingo, will be used, and a statement of how the net profit derived from instant bingo will be distributed in accordance with section 2915.101 of the Revised Code;

(g) Other necessary and reasonable information that the attorney general may require by rule adopted pursuant to section 111.15 of the Revised Code;

(h) If the applicant is a charitable trust as defined in section 109.23 of the Revised Code, a statement as to whether it has registered with the attorney general pursuant to section 109.26 of the Revised Code or filed annual reports pursuant to section 109.31 of the Revised Code, and, if it is not required to do either, the exemption in section 109.26 or 109.31 of the Revised Code that applies to it;

(i) If the applicant is a charitable organization as defined in section 1716.01 of the Revised Code, a statement as to whether it has filed with the attorney general a registration statement pursuant to section 1716.02 of the Revised Code and a financial report pursuant to section 1716.04 of the Revised Code, and, if it is not required to do both, the exemption in section 1716.03 of the Revised Code that applies to it;

(j) In the case of an applicant seeking to qualify as a youth athletic park organization, a statement issued by a board or body vested with authority under Chapter 755. of the Revised Code for the supervision and maintenance of recreation facilities in the territory in which the organization is located, certifying that the playing fields owned by the organization were used for at least one hundred days during the year in which the statement is issued, and were open for use to all residents of that territory, regardless of race, color, creed, religion, sex, or national origin, for athletic activities by youth athletic organizations that do not discriminate on the basis of race, color, creed, religion, sex, or national origin, and that the fields were not used for any profit-making activity at any time during the year. That type of board or body is authorized to issue the statement upon request and shall issue the statement if it finds that the applicant's playing fields were so used.

(3) The attorney general, within thirty days after receiving a timely filed application from a charitable organization that has been issued a license under this section that has not expired and has not been revoked or suspended, shall send a temporary permit to the applicant specifying the date on which the application was filed with the attorney general and stating that, pursuant to section 119.06 of the Revised Code, the applicant may continue to conduct bingo until a new license is granted or, if the application is rejected, until fifteen days after notice of the rejection is mailed to the applicant. The temporary permit does not affect the validity of the applicant's application and does not grant any rights to the applicant except those rights specifically granted in section 119.06 of the Revised Code. The issuance of a temporary permit by the attorney general pursuant to this division does not prohibit the attorney general from rejecting the applicant's application because of acts that the applicant committed, or actions that the applicant failed to take, before or after the issuance of the temporary permit.

(4) Within thirty days after receiving an initial license application from a charitable organization to conduct bingo, instant bingo at a bingo session, or instant bingo other than at a bingo session, the attorney general shall conduct a preliminary review of the application and notify the applicant regarding any deficiencies. Once an application is deemed complete, or beginning on the thirtieth day after the application is filed, if the attorney general failed to notify the applicant of any deficiencies, the attorney general shall have an additional sixty days to conduct an investigation and either grant or deny the application based on findings established and communicated in accordance with divisions (B) and (E) of this section. As an option to granting or denying an initial license application, the attorney general may grant a temporary license and request additional time to conduct the investigation if the attorney general has cause to believe that additional time is necessary to complete the investigation and has notified the applicant in writing about the specific concerns raised during the investigation.

(B)(1) The attorney general shall adopt rules to enforce sections 2915.01, 2915.02, and 2915.07 to 2915.13 of the Revised Code to ensure that bingo or instant bingo is conducted in accordance with those sections and to maintain proper control over the conduct of bingo or instant bingo. The rules, except rules adopted pursuant to divisions (A)(2)(g) and (G) of this section, shall be adopted pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. The attorney general shall license charitable organizations to conduct bingo, instant bingo at a bingo session, or instant bingo other than at a bingo session in conformance with this chapter and with the licensing provisions of Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.

(2) The attorney general may refuse to grant a license to any organization, or revoke or suspend the license of any organization, that does any of the following or to which any of the following applies:

(a) Fails or has failed at any time to meet any requirement of section 109.26, 109.31, or 1716.02, or sections 2915.07 to 2915.11 of the Revised Code, or violates or has violated any provision of sections 2915.02 or 2915.07 to 2915.13 of the Revised Code or any rule adopted by the attorney general pursuant to this section;

(b) Makes or has made an incorrect or false statement that is material to the granting of the license in an application filed pursuant to division (A) of this section;

(c) Submits or has submitted any incorrect or false information relating to an application if the information is material to the granting of the license;

(d) Maintains or has maintained any incorrect or false information that is material to the granting of the license in the records required to be kept pursuant to divisions (A) and (C) of section 2915.10 of the Revised Code, if applicable;

(e) The attorney general has good cause to believe that the organization will not conduct bingo, instant bingo at a bingo session, or instant bingo other than at a bingo session in accordance with sections 2915.07 to 2915.13 of the Revised Code or with any rule adopted by the attorney general pursuant to this section.

(3) For the purposes of division (B) of this section, any action of an officer, trustee, agent, representative, or bingo game operator of an organization is an action of the organization.

(C) The attorney general may grant licenses to charitable organizations that are branches, lodges, or chapters of national charitable organizations.

(D) The attorney general shall send notice in writing to the prosecuting attorney and sheriff of the county in which the organization will conduct bingo, instant bingo at a bingo session, or instant bingo other than at a bingo session, as stated in its application for a license or amended license, and to any other law enforcement agency in that county that so requests, of all of the following:

(E) A license issued by the attorney general shall set forth the information contained on the application of the charitable organization that the attorney general determines is relevant, including, but not limited to, the location at which the organization will conduct bingo, instant bingo at a bingo session, or instant bingo other than at a bingo session and the days of the week and the times on each of those days when bingo will be conducted. If the attorney general refuses to grant or revokes or suspends a license, the attorney general shall notify the applicant in writing and specifically identify the reason for the refusal, revocation, or suspension in narrative form and, if applicable, by identifying the section of the Revised Code violated. The failure of the attorney general to give the written notice of the reasons for the refusal, revocation, or suspension or a mistake in the written notice does not affect the validity of the attorney general's refusal to grant, or the revocation or suspension of, a license. If the attorney general fails to give the written notice or if there is a mistake in the written notice, the applicant may bring an action to compel the attorney general to comply with this division or to correct the mistake, but the attorney general's order refusing to grant, or revoking or suspending, a license shall not be enjoined during the pendency of the action.

(F) A charitable organization that has been issued a license pursuant to division (B) of this section but that cannot conduct bingo or instant bingo at the location, or on the day of the week or at the time, specified on the license due to circumstances that make it impractical to do so, or that desires to conduct instant bingo other than at a bingo session at additional locations not identified on the license, may apply in writing, together with an application fee of two hundred fifty dollars, to the attorney general, at least thirty days prior to a change in or addition of a location, day of the week, or time, and request an amended license. ~~The~~ As applicable, the application shall describe the causes making it impractical for the organization to conduct bingo or instant bingo in conformity with its license and shall indicate the location, days of the week, and times on each of those days when it desires to conduct bingo or instant bingo and, as applicable, shall indicate the additional locations at which it desires to conduct instant bingo other than at a bingo session. Except as otherwise provided in this division, the attorney general shall issue the amended license in accordance with division (E) of this section, and the organization shall surrender its original license to the attorney general. The attorney general may refuse to grant an amended license according to the terms of division (B) of this section.

(G) The attorney general, by rule adopted pursuant to section 111.15 of the Revised Code, shall establish a schedule of reduced license fees for charitable organizations that desire to conduct bingo or instant bingo during fewer than twenty-six weeks in any calendar year.

(H) The attorney general, by rule adopted pursuant to section 111.15 of the Revised Code, shall establish license fees for the conduct of bingo, instant bingo at a bingo session, or instant bingo other than at a bingo session for charitable organizations that prior to July 1, 2003, have not been licensed to conduct bingo, instant bingo at a bingo session, or instant bingo other than at a bingo session under this chapter.

(I) The attorney general may enter into a written contract with any other state agency to delegate to that state agency the powers prescribed to the attorney general under Chapter 2915. of the Revised Code.

(J) The attorney general, by rule adopted pursuant to section 111.15 of the Revised Code, may adopt rules to determine the requirements for a charitable organization that is exempt from federal income taxation under subsection 501(a) and described in subsection 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code to be in good standing in the state.

(1) "Administer naloxone" means to give naloxone to a person by either of the following routes:

(a) Using a device manufactured for the intranasal administration of liquid drugs;

(2) "Law enforcement agency" means a government entity that employs peace officers to perform law enforcement duties.

(a) A physician who is authorized under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery, or podiatric medicine and surgery;

(b) A physician assistant who holds a certificate to prescribe issued under Chapter 4730. of the Revised Code;

(c) A clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner who holds a certificate to prescribe issued under section 4723.48 of the Revised Code.

(4) "Peace officer" has the same meaning as in section 2921.51 of the Revised Code.

(B) A family member, friend, or other individual who is in a position to assist an individual who is apparently experiencing or at risk of experiencing an opioid-related overdose, is not subject to criminal prosecution for a violation of section 4731.41 of the Revised Code or criminal prosecution under this chapter if the individual, acting in good faith, does all of the following:

(1) Obtains naloxone from a licensed health professional or a prescription for naloxone from a licensed health professional;

(2) Administers that naloxone to an individual who is apparently experiencing an opioid-related overdose;

(3) Attempts to summon emergency services either immediately before or immediately after administering the naloxone.

(C) Division (B) of this section does not apply to a peace officer or to an emergency medical technician-basic, emergency medical technician-intermediate, or emergency medical technician-paramedic, as defined in section 4765.01 of the Revised Code.

(D) A peace officer employed by a law enforcement agency ~~licensed under Chapter 4729. of the Revised Code as a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs~~ is not subject to administrative action, criminal prosecution for a violation of section 4731.41 of the Revised Code, or criminal prosecution under this chapter if the peace officer, acting in good faith, obtains naloxone from the peace officer's law enforcement agency and administers the naloxone to an individual who is apparently experiencing an opioid-related overdose.

Sec. 2929.201. Notwithstanding the time limitation for filing a motion under former section 2947.061 of the Revised Code, an offender whose offense was committed before July 1, 1996, and who otherwise satisfies the eligibility criteria for shock probation under that section as it existed immediately prior to July 1, 1996, may apply to the offender's sentencing court for shock probation under that section on or after the effective date of this section. Not more than one motion may be filed by an offender under this section. Division (C) of former section 2947.061 of the Revised Code does not apply to a motion filed under this section.

Sec. 2945.402. (A) In approving a conditional release, the trial court may set any conditions on the release with respect to the treatment, evaluation, counseling, or control of the defendant or person that the court considers necessary to protect the public safety and the welfare of the defendant or person. The trial court may revoke a defendant's or person's conditional release and order reinstatement of the previous placement or reinstitutionalization at any time the conditions of the release have not been satisfied, provided that the revocation shall be in accordance with this section.

(B) A conditional release is a commitment. The hearings on continued commitment as described in section 2945.401 of the Revised Code apply to a defendant or person on conditional release.

(C) A person, agency, or facility that is assigned to monitor a defendant or person on conditional release immediately shall notify the trial court on learning that the defendant or person being monitored has violated the terms of the conditional release. Upon learning of any violation of the terms of the conditional release, the trial court may issue a temporary order of detention or, if necessary, an arrest warrant for the defendant or person. Within ten court days after the defendant's or person's detention or arrest, the trial court shall conduct a hearing to determine whether the conditional release should be modified or terminated. At the hearing, the defendant or person shall have the same rights as are described in division (C) of section 2945.40 of the Revised Code. The trial court may order a continuance of the ten-court-day period for no longer than ten days for good cause shown or for any period on motion of the defendant or person. If the trial court fails to conduct the hearing within the ten-court-day period and does not order a continuance in accordance with this division, the defendant or person shall be restored to the prior conditional release status.

(D) The trial court shall give all parties reasonable notice of a hearing conducted under this section. At the hearing, the prosecutor shall present the case demonstrating that the defendant or person violated the terms of the conditional release. If the court finds by a preponderance of the evidence that the defendant or person violated the terms of the conditional release, the court may continue, modify, or terminate the conditional release and shall enter its order accordingly.

(E)(1) If a court approves a conditional release, the court shall report the approval and information pertaining to the release to the local law enforcement agency. The local law enforcement agency shall enter the approval and information into the national crime information center supervised release file through the law enforcement automated data system. The information required by divisions (E)(1)(c) and (d) of this section shall be entered into the file's miscellaneous field. The information reported and entered shall include all of the following:

(c) Whether the person was found not guilty by reason of insanity or incompetent to stand trial with no substantial probability of becoming competent even with a course of treatment;

(e) Any other information required for the entry of information into the national crime information center supervised release file.

(2) Information entered into the national crime information center supervised release file pursuant to this section shall remain in the file until the termination of the conditional release or commitment.

(3) If a defendant or person about whom information is entered into the national crime information center supervised release file pursuant to division (E)(1) of this section has contact with a law enforcement agency after the information is entered, the agency shall report the contact to the department of mental health and addiction services and, if the terms of the release require the defendant or person to receive mental health treatment, to the person, office, or agency providing the treatment.

(4) As used in division (E) of this section, "local law enforcement agency" means the police department of a municipal corporation in which the offense with which a releasee was charged allegedly occurred or, if the offense did not allegedly occur in a municipal corporation, the sheriff of the county in which the offense allegedly occurred.

Sec. 3123.89. (A) Subject to section 3770.071 of the Revised Code, a child support enforcement agency that determines that an obligor who is the recipient of a lottery prize award is subject to a final and enforceable determination of default made under sections 3123.01 to 3123.07 of the Revised Code shall issue an intercept directive to the director of the state lottery commission. A copy of this intercept directive shall be sent to the obligor.

(B) The intercept directive shall require the director or the director's designee to transmit an amount or amounts from the proceeds of the specified lottery prize award to the office of child support in the department of job and family services. The intercept directive also shall contain all of the following information:

(1) The name, address, and social security number or taxpayer identification number of the obligor;

(2) A statement that the obligor has been determined to be in default under a support order;

(3) The amount of the arrearage owed by the obligor as determined by the agency.

(C) After receipt of an intercept directive and in accordance with section 3770.071 of the Revised Code, the director or the director's designee shall deduct the amount or amounts specified from the proceeds of the lottery prize award referred to in the directive and transmit the amounts to the office of child support.

(D) The department of job and family services shall develop and implement a real time data match program with the state lottery commission and its lottery sales agents and lottery agents to identify obligors who are subject to a final and enforceable determination of default made under sections 3123.01 to 3123.07 of the Revised Code in accordance with section 3770.071 of the Revised Code.

(E) Upon the data match program's implementation, the department, in consultation with the commission, shall promulgate rules to facilitate withholding, in appropriate circumstances, by the commission or its lottery sales agents or lottery agents of an amount sufficient to satisfy any past due support owed by an obligor from a lottery prize award owed to the obligor up to the amount of the award. The rules shall describe an expedited method for withholding, and the time frame for transmission of the amount withheld to the department.

Sec. 3123.90. (A) As used in this section, "casino facility," "casino operator," and "management company" have the meanings defined in section 3772.01 of the Revised Code.

(B) The department of job and family services shall develop and implement a real time data match program with each casino facility's casino operator or management company to identify obligors who are subject to a final and enforceable determination of default made under sections 3123.01 to 3123.07 of the Revised Code.

(C) Upon the data match program's implementation, if a person's winnings at a casino facility are an amount for which reporting to the internal revenue service of the amount is required by section 6041 of the Internal Revenue Code, as amended, the casino operator or management company shall refer to the data match program to determine if the person entitled to the winnings is in default under a support order. If the data match program indicates that the person is in default, the casino operator or management company shall withhold from the person's winnings an amount sufficient to satisfy any past due support owed by the obligor identified in the data match up to the amount of the winnings.

(D) Not later than seven days after withholding the amount, the casino operator or management company shall transmit any amount withheld to the department as payment on the support obligation.

(E) The department, in consultation with the Ohio casino control commission, may adopt rules under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as are necessary for implementation of this section.

Sec. 3301.03. Each elected voting member of the state board of education shall be a qualified elector residing in the territory composing the district from which the member is elected, and shall be nominated and elected to office as provided by Title XXXV of the Revised Code. Each appointed voting member of the board shall be a qualified elector residing in the state. At least four of the appointed voting members shall represent rural school districts in the state, as evidenced by the member's current place of residence and at least one of the following:

(A) The member's children attend, or at one time attended, school in a rural district;

(B) The member's past or present occupation is associated with rural areas of the state;

(C) The member possesses other credentials or experience demonstrating knowledge and familiarity with rural school districts.

No elected or appointed voting member of the board shall, during the member's term of office, hold any other ~~public position~~ office of trust or profit or be an employee or officer of any public or private elementary or secondary school. Before entering on the duties of office, each elected and appointed voting member shall subscribe to the official oath of office.

Each voting member of the state board of education shall be paid a salary fixed pursuant to division (J) of section 124.15 of the Revised Code, together with the member's actual and necessary expenses incurred while engaged in the performance of the member's official duties or in the conduct of authorized board business, and while en route to and from the member's home for such purposes.

(1) A federal or state elective office or an elected office of a political subdivision of the state;

(2) A position on a board or commission of the state that is appointed by the governor;

(3) An office set forth in section 121.03, 121.04, or 121.05 of the Revised Code;

(4) An office of the government of the United States that is appointed by the president of the United States.

Sec. 3302.15. (A) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in Chapter 3301. or 3302. of the Revised Code, the board of education of a school district may submit to the superintendent of public instruction a request for a waiver for up to five school years from administering the state achievement assessments required under sections 3301.0710 and 3301.0712 of the Revised Code and related requirements specified under division (C)(2) of this section. A district that obtains a waiver under this section shall use the alternative assessment system, as proposed by the district or school and as approved by the state superintendent, in place of the assessments required under sections 3301.0710 and 3301.0712 of the Revised Code.

(B) To be eligible to submit a request for a waiver under this section, a school district shall be a member of the Ohio innovation lab network.

(a) A timeline to develop and implement an alternative assessment system for the school district;

(b) An overview of the proposed educational programs or strategies to be offered by the school district;

(c) An overview of the proposed alternative assessment system, including links to state-accepted and nationally accepted metrics, assessments, and evaluations;

(d) An overview of planning details that have been implemented or proposed and any documented support from educational networks, established educational consultants, state institutions of higher education as defined under section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, and employers or workforce development partners;

(e) An overview of the capacity to implement the alternative assessments, conduct the evaluation of teachers with alternative assessments, and the reporting of student achievement data with alternative assessments for the purpose of the report card ratings prescribed under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code, all of which shall include any prior success in implementing innovative educational programs or strategies, teaching practices, or assessment practices;

(f) An acknowledgement by the school district of federal funding that may be impacted by obtaining a waiver.

(2) The request for a waiver shall indicate the extent to which exemptions from state or federal requirements regarding the administration of the assessments required under sections 3301.0710 and 3301.0712 of the Revised Code are sought. Such items from which a school district may be exempt are as follows:

(a) The required administration of state assessments under sections 3301.0710 and 3301.0712 of the Revised Code;

(b) The evaluation of teachers and administrators under sections 3311.80, 3311.84, division (D) of 3319.02, and 3319.111 of the Revised Code;

(c) The reporting of student achievement data for the purpose of the report card ratings prescribed under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code.

(D) Each request for a waiver shall include the signature of all of the following:

(3) The presiding officer of the labor organization representing the district's teachers, if any;

(4) If the district's teachers are not represented by a labor organization, the principal and a majority of the administrators and teachers of the district.

(E) Not later than thirty days after receiving a request for a waiver, the state superintendent shall approve or deny the waiver or may request additional information from the district. The state superintendent shall not grant waivers to more than ten school districts. A waiver granted to a school district shall be contingent on an ongoing review and evaluation by the state superintendent of the program for which the waiver was granted.

(F)(1) For the purpose of this section, the department of education shall seek a waiver from the testing requirements prescribed under the "No Child Left Behind Act of 2001," if necessary to implement this section.

(2) The department shall create a mechanism for the comparison of the alternative assessments prescribed under division (C) of this section and the assessments required under sections 3301.0710 and 3301.0712 of the Revised Code as it relates to the evaluation of teachers and student achievement data for the purpose of state report card ratings.

Sec. 3303.41. (A) There is hereby created the governor's council on people with disabilities. The council shall consist of twenty-one members of which the majority shall be people with disabilities as defined in this section, appointed by the governor for a term of three years except that for initial appointments, seven members shall be appointed for a term of one year, seven members shall be appointed for a term of two years, and seven members shall be appointed for a term of three years. Members may succeed themselves not more than one time. A member shall continue in office subsequent to the expiration of the member's term until the member's successor takes office. The governor shall ~~annually~~ appoint a chairperson ~~who may~~ to serve a two-year term. The chairperson shall not succeed himself or herself ~~not more than one time~~ as chairperson. The chairperson shall continue in office subsequent to the expiration of the chairperson's term until the chairperson's successor takes office. Members of the council shall serve without compensation, but shall be paid the actual and necessary expenses they incur in the performance of their duties.

(B) The council shall meet at least six times annually at such times and places as may be designated by the chairperson.

(C) The ~~governor's council on people with disabilities shall be assigned to~~ executive director of the opportunities for Ohioans with disabilities agency ~~for administrative purposes. The executive director of the opportunities for Ohioans with disabilities agency~~ shall ~~assign one~~ provide the council with both of the following:

(1) One professional staff person ~~to the council~~ to serve as executive secretary ~~and other personnel as determined advisable~~ of the council;

(2) Any meeting space, office furniture, and equipment that are necessary for the council to fulfill its duties.

~~(A)~~(1) To cooperate with the president's committee on employment of the handicapped;

~~(B)~~(2) To cooperate with all employers both public and private in locating or developing employment opportunities for people with disabilities;

~~(C)~~(3) To encourage and assist in the creation of committees at the community level;

~~(D)~~(4) To assist local, state, and federal agencies to coordinate their activities for the purpose of securing maximum utilization of funds and efforts that benefit people with disabilities;

~~(E)~~(5) To encourage cooperation among public and private employers, unions, and rehabilitation agencies, bureaus, and organizations both public and private with a specific goal to facilitate employment of people with disabilities;

~~(F)~~(6) To serve in an advisory capacity to the governor's office directly and as needed to the general assembly on issues relating to the needs, problems, and other concerns of people with disabilities;

~~(G)~~(7) To conduct educational programs to acquaint the public with the abilities and accomplishments of people with disabilities;

~~(H)~~(8) To promote the elimination of architectural barriers to make buildings used by the public accessible and useable by persons with physical limitations;

~~(I)~~(9) To make such rules as it determines advisable for the conduct of its own business.

(E) The council shall annually report to the governor on council activities and on the state of the people of this state with disabilities. This report may include any recommendations believed necessary or desirable to carry out the purposes of this section.

(F) As used in this section, "person with a disability" means any individual who has a disability or condition that, regardless of its physical or mental origin, imposes a functional limitation.

(G) It shall be lawful for any public employee or officer to serve as a member of the council.

(A) "Employer" means the board of education, school district, governing authority of any community school established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, a science, technology, engineering, and mathematics school established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised Code, college, university, institution, or other agency within the state by which a teacher is employed and paid.

~~(1)~~(a) Any person paid from public funds and employed in the public schools of the state under any type of contract described in section 3311.77 or 3319.08 of the Revised Code in a position for which the person is required to have a license issued pursuant to sections 3319.22 to 3319.31 of the Revised Code;

~~(2)~~(b) Any person employed as a teacher by a community school or a science, technology, engineering, and mathematics school pursuant to Chapter 3314. or 3326. of the Revised Code;

~~(3)~~(c) Any person having a license issued pursuant to sections 3319.22 to 3319.31 of the Revised Code and employed in a public school in this state in an educational position, as determined by the state board of education, under programs provided for by federal acts or regulations and financed in whole or in part from federal funds, but for which no licensure requirements for the position can be made under the provisions of such federal acts or regulations;

(4) Any person having a license issued pursuant to sections 3319.22 to 3319.31 of the Revised Code and performing services that are funded under section 3317.06 of the Revised Code and provided to students attending nonpublic schools, without regard to whether the services are performed in a public school and whether the person is employed under a contract with a third party;

~~(5)~~(d) Any other teacher or faculty member employed in any school, college, university, institution, or other agency wholly controlled and managed, and supported in whole or in part, by the state or any political subdivision thereof, including Central state university, Cleveland state university, and the university of Toledo;

~~(6)~~(e) The educational employees of the department of education, as determined by the state superintendent of public instruction.

In all cases of doubt, the state teachers retirement board shall determine whether any person is a teacher, and its decision shall be final.

(a) Any eligible employee of a public institution of higher education, as defined in section 3305.01 of the Revised Code, who elects to participate in an alternative retirement plan established under Chapter 3305. of the Revised Code;

(b) Any person having a license issued pursuant to sections 3319.22 to 3319.31 of the Revised Code and performing services that are funded under section 3317.06 of the Revised Code and provided to students attending nonpublic schools, without regard to whether the services are performed in a public school and whether the person is employed under a contract with a third party.

(C) "Member" means any person included in the membership of the state teachers retirement system, which shall consist of all teachers and contributors as defined in divisions (B) and (D) of this section and all disability benefit recipients, as defined in section 3307.50 of the Revised Code. However, for purposes of this chapter, the following persons shall not be considered members:

(1) A student, intern, or resident who is not a member while employed part-time by a school, college, or university at which the student, intern, or resident is regularly attending classes;

(3) An other system retirant, as defined in section 3307.35 of the Revised Code, or a superannuate;

(4) An individual employed in a program established pursuant to the "Job Training Partnership Act," 96 Stat. 1322 (1982), 29 U.S.C.A. 1501;

(5) The surviving spouse of a member or retirant if the surviving spouse's only connection to the retirement system is an account in an STRS defined contribution plan.

(D) "Contributor" means any person who has an account in the teachers' savings fund or defined contribution fund, except that "contributor" does not mean a member or retirant's surviving spouse with an account in an STRS defined contribution plan.

(E) "Beneficiary" means any person eligible to receive, or in receipt of, a retirement allowance or other benefit provided by this chapter.

(F) "Year" means the year beginning the first day of July and ending with the thirtieth day of June next following, except that for the purpose of determining final average salary under the plan described in sections 3307.50 to 3307.79 of the Revised Code, "year" may mean the contract year.

(G) "Local district pension system" means any school teachers pension fund created in any school district of the state in accordance with the laws of the state prior to September 1, 1920.

(H) "Employer contribution" means the amount paid by an employer, as determined by the employer rate, including the normal and deficiency rates, contributions, and funds wherever used in this chapter.

(I) "Five years of service credit" means employment covered under this chapter and employment covered under a former retirement plan operated, recognized, or endorsed by a college, institute, university, or political subdivision of this state prior to coverage under this chapter.

(J) "Actuary" means an actuarial professional contracted with or employed by the state teachers retirement board, who shall be either of the following:

(2) A firm, partnership, or corporation of which at least one person is a member of the American academy of actuaries.

(1) Exercises any discretionary authority or control with respect to the management of the system, or with respect to the management or disposition of its assets;

(2) Renders investment advice for a fee, direct or indirect, with respect to money or property of the system;

(3) Has any discretionary authority or responsibility in the administration of the system.

(L)(1) Except as provided in this division, "compensation" means all salary, wages, and other earnings paid to a teacher by reason of the teacher's employment, including compensation paid pursuant to a supplemental contract. The salary, wages, and other earnings shall be determined prior to determination of the amount required to be contributed to the teachers' savings fund or defined contribution fund under section 3307.26 of the Revised Code and without regard to whether any of the salary, wages, or other earnings are treated as deferred income for federal income tax purposes.

(a) Payments for accrued but unused sick leave or personal leave, including payments made under a plan established pursuant to section 124.39 of the Revised Code or any other plan established by the employer;

(b) Payments made for accrued but unused vacation leave, including payments made pursuant to section 124.13 of the Revised Code or a plan established by the employer;

(c) Payments made for vacation pay covering concurrent periods for which other salary, compensation, or benefits under this chapter or Chapter 145. or 3309. of the Revised Code are paid;

(d) Amounts paid by the employer to provide life insurance, sickness, accident, endowment, health, medical, hospital, dental, or surgical coverage, or other insurance for the teacher or the teacher's family, or amounts paid by the employer to the teacher in lieu of providing the insurance;

(e) Incidental benefits, including lodging, food, laundry, parking, or services furnished by the employer, use of the employer's property or equipment, and reimbursement for job-related expenses authorized by the employer, including moving and travel expenses and expenses related to professional development;

(f) Payments made by the employer in exchange for a member's waiver of a right to receive any payment, amount, or benefit described in division (L)(2) of this section;

(h) Any amount paid by the employer as a retroactive increase in salary, wages, or other earnings, unless the increase is one of the following:

(i) A retroactive increase paid to a member employed by a school district board of education in a position that requires a license designated for teaching and not designated for being an administrator issued under section 3319.22 of the Revised Code that is paid in accordance with uniform criteria applicable to all members employed by the board in positions requiring the licenses;

(ii) A retroactive increase paid to a member employed by a school district board of education in a position that requires a license designated for being an administrator issued under section 3319.22 of the Revised Code that is paid in accordance with uniform criteria applicable to all members employed by the board in positions requiring the licenses;

(iii) A retroactive increase paid to a member employed by a school district board of education as a superintendent that is also paid as described in division (L)(2)(h)(i) of this section;

(iv) A retroactive increase paid to a member employed by an employer other than a school district board of education in accordance with uniform criteria applicable to all members employed by the employer.

(i) Payments made to or on behalf of a teacher that are in excess of the annual compensation that may be taken into account by the retirement system under division (a)(17) of section 401 of the "Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 401(a)(17), as amended. For a teacher who first establishes membership before July 1, 1996, the annual compensation that may be taken into account by the retirement system shall be determined under division (d)(3) of section 13212 of the "Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1993," Pub. L. No. 103-66, 107 Stat. 472.

(j) Payments made under division (B), (C), or (E) of section 5923.05 of the Revised Code, Section 4 of Substitute Senate Bill No. 3 of the 119th general assembly, Section 3 of Amended Substitute Senate Bill No. 164 of the 124th general assembly, or Amended Substitute House Bill No. 405 of the 124th general assembly;

(k) Anything of value received by the teacher that is based on or attributable to retirement or an agreement to retire;

(l) Any amount paid by the employer as a retroactive payment of earnings, damages, or back pay pursuant to a court order, court-adopted settlement agreement, or other settlement agreement, unless the retirement system receives both of the following:

(i) Teacher and employer contributions under sections 3307.26 and 3307.28 of the Revised Code, plus interest compounded annually at a rate determined by the board, for each year or portion of a year for which amounts are paid under the order or agreement;

(ii) Teacher and employer contributions under sections 3307.26 and 3307.28 of the Revised Code, plus interest compounded annually at a rate determined by the board, for each year or portion of a year not subject to division (L)(2)(l)(i) of this section for which the board determines the teacher was improperly paid, regardless of the teacher's ability to recover on such amounts improperly paid.

(a) Whether particular forms of earnings are included in any of the categories enumerated in this division;

(b) Whether any form of earnings not enumerated in this division is to be included in compensation.

(1) A former teacher receiving from the system a retirement allowance under section 3307.58 or 3307.59 of the Revised Code;

(2) A former teacher receiving a benefit from the system under a plan established under section 3307.81 of the Revised Code, except that "superannuate" does not include a former teacher who is receiving a benefit based on disability under a plan established under section 3307.81 of the Revised Code.

For purposes of sections 3307.35 and 3307.353 of the Revised Code, "superannuate" also means a former teacher receiving from the system a combined service retirement benefit paid in accordance with section 3307.57 of the Revised Code, regardless of which retirement system is paying the benefit.

(N) "STRS defined benefit plan" means the plan described in sections 3307.50 to 3307.79 of the Revised Code.

(O) "STRS defined contribution plan" means the plans established under section 3307.81 of the Revised Code and includes the STRS combined plan under that section.

Sec. 3313.351. The attorney general may educate school districts about contracting with any entity that provides students with account-based access to a web site or an online service, including electronic mail.

Sec. 3313.372. (A) As used in this section, "energy conservation measure" means an installation or modification of an installation in, or remodeling of, a building, to reduce energy consumption. It includes:

(2) Storm windows and doors, multiglazed windows and doors, heat absorbing or heat reflective glazed and coated window and door systems, additional glazing, reductions in glass area, and other window and door system modifications that reduce energy consumption;

(4) Heating, ventilating, or air conditioning system modifications or replacements;

(6) Replacement or modification of lighting fixtures to increase the energy efficiency of the system without increasing the overall illumination of a facility, unless such increase in illumination is necessary to conform to the applicable state or local building code for the proposed lighting system;

(8) Cogeneration systems that produce steam or forms of energy such as heat, as well as electricity, for use primarily within a building or complex of buildings;

(9) Any other modification, installation, or remodeling approved by the Ohio school facilities commission as an energy conservation measure.

(B) A board of education of a city, exempted village, local, or joint vocational school district may enter into an installment payment contract for the purchase and installation of energy conservation measures. The provisions of such installment payment contracts dealing with interest charges and financing terms shall not be subject to the competitive bidding requirements of section 3313.46 of the Revised Code, and shall be on the following terms:

(1) Not less than one-fifteenth of the costs thereof shall be paid within two years from the date of purchase.

(2) The remaining balance of the costs thereof shall be paid within fifteen years from the date of purchase.

The provisions of any installment payment contract entered into pursuant to this section shall provide that all payments, except payments for repairs and obligations on termination of the contract prior to its expiration, be stated as a percentage of calculated energy, water, or waste water cost savings, avoided operating costs, and avoided capital costs attributable to the one or more measures over a defined period of time. Those payments shall be made only to the extent that the savings described in this division actually occur. The ~~contractor~~ energy services company shall warrant and guarantee that the energy conservation measures shall realize guaranteed savings and shall be responsible to pay an amount equal to any savings shortfall.

An installment payment contract entered into by a board of education under this section shall require the board to contract in accordance with division (A) of section 3313.46 of the Revised Code for the installation, modification, or remodeling of energy conservation measures unless division (A) of section 3313.46 of the Revised Code does not apply pursuant to division (B)(3) of that section.

(C) If a board of education determines that a surety bond is necessary to secure energy, water, or waste water cost savings guaranteed in a contract entered into by the board of education under this section, the energy services company shall provide a surety bond that satisfies all of the following requirements:

(1) The penal sum of the surety bond for the first guarantee year shall equal the amount of savings included in the annual guaranteed savings amount that is measured and calculated in accordance with the measurement and verification plan included in the contract, but may not include guaranteed savings that are not measured or that are stipulated in the contract. The annual guaranteed savings amount shall include only the savings guaranteed in the contract for the one-year term that begins on the first day of the first savings guarantee year and may not include amounts from subsequent years.

(2) The surety bond shall have a term of not more than one year unless renewed. At the option of the board of education, the surety bond may be renewed for one or two additional terms, each term not to exceed one year. The surety bond may not be renewed or extended so that it is in effect for more than three consecutive years.

In the event of a renewal, the penal sum of the surety bond for each renewed year shall be revised so that the penal sum equals the annual guaranteed savings amount for such renewal year that is measured and calculated in accordance with the measurement and verification plan included in the contract, but may not include guaranteed savings that are not measured or that are stipulated in the contract. Regardless of the number of renewals of the bond, the aggregate liability under each renewed bond may not exceed the penal sum stated in the renewal certificate for the applicable renewal year.

(3) The surety bond for the first year shall be issued within thirty days of the commencement of the first savings guarantee year under the contract.

In the event of renewal, the surety shall deliver to the board of education a renewal certificate reflecting the revised penal sum within thirty days of the board of education's request. The board of education shall deliver the request for renewal not less than thirty days prior to the expiration date of the surety bond then in existence. A surety bond furnished pursuant to section 153.54 of the Revised Code shall not secure obligations related to energy, water, or waste water cost savings as referenced in division (C) of this section.

(D) The board may issue the notes of the school district signed by the president and the treasurer of the board and specifying the terms of the purchase and securing the deferred payments provided in this section, payable at the times provided and bearing interest at a rate not exceeding the rate determined as provided in section 9.95 of the Revised Code. The notes may contain an option for prepayment and shall not be subject to Chapter 133. of the Revised Code. In the resolution authorizing the notes, the board may provide, without the vote of the electors of the district, for annually levying and collecting taxes in amounts sufficient to pay the interest on and retire the notes, except that the total net indebtedness of the district without a vote of the electors incurred under this and all other sections of the Revised Code, except section 3318.052 of the Revised Code, shall not exceed one per cent of the district's tax valuation. Revenues derived from local taxes or otherwise, for the purpose of conserving energy or for defraying the current operating expenses of the district, may be applied to the payment of interest and the retirement of such notes. The notes may be sold at private sale or given to the ~~contractor~~ energy services company under the installment payment contract authorized by division (B) of this section.

~~(D)~~(E) Debt incurred under this section shall not be included in the calculation of the net indebtedness of a school district under section 133.06 of the Revised Code.

~~(E)~~(F) No school district board shall enter into an installment payment contract under division (B) of this section unless it first obtains a report of the costs of the energy conservation measures and the savings thereof as described under division (G) of section 133.06 of the Revised Code as a requirement for issuing energy securities, makes a finding that the amount spent on such measures is not likely to exceed the amount of money it would save in energy costs and resultant operational and maintenance costs as described in that division, except that that finding shall cover the ensuing fifteen years, and the Ohio school facilities commission determines that the district board's findings are reasonable and approves the contract as described in that division.

The district board shall monitor the savings and maintain a report of those savings, which shall be submitted to the commission in the same manner as required by division (G) of section 133.06 of the Revised Code in the case of energy securities.

Sec. 3313.617. (A) A person who meets all of the following criteria shall be permitted to take the tests of general educational development:

(3) The person has not received a high school diploma or honors diploma awarded under section 3313.61, 3313.611, 3313.612, or 3325.08 of the Revised Code.

(B) When a person who is at least sixteen years of age but less than ~~nineteen~~ eighteen years of age applies to the department of education to take the tests of general educational development, the person shall submit with the application written approval from the superintendent of the school district in which the person was last enrolled, or the superintendent's designee, except that if the person was last enrolled in a community school established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code or a science, technology, engineering, and mathematics school established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised Code, the approval shall be from the principal of the school, or the principal's designee. The department may require the person also to submit written approval from the person's parent or guardian or a court official~~, if the person is younger than eighteen years of age~~.

~~(B)~~(C) For the purpose of calculating graduation rates for the school district and building report cards under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code, the department shall count any person for whom approval is obtained from the ~~superintendent or principal, or a designee,~~ person's parent or guardian or a court official under division ~~(A)~~(B) of this section as a dropout from the district or school in which the person was last enrolled prior to obtaining the approval.

(1) "Approved industry credential or certificate" means a credential or certificate that is approved by the chancellor of the Ohio board of regents.

(d) An Ohio technical center recognized by the chancellor that provides post-secondary workforce education.

(3) "Eligible student" means an individual who is at least twenty-two years of age and has not received a high school diploma or a certificate of high school equivalence, as defined in section 4109.06 of the Revised Code.

(B) The adult career opportunity pilot program is hereby established to permit an eligible institution to obtain approval from the state board of education and the chancellor to develop and offer a program of study that allows an eligible student to obtain a high school diploma. A program shall be eligible for this approval if it satisfies all of the following requirements:

(1) The program allows an eligible student to complete the requirements for obtaining a high school diploma while completing requirements for an approved industry credential or certificate.

(3) The program includes opportunities for students to receive a competency-based education.

(C) The superintendent of public instruction, in consultation with the chancellor, shall adopt rules for the implementation of the adult career opportunity pilot program, including the requirements for applying for program approval.

(1)(a) "Category one career-technical education student" means a student who is receiving the career-technical education services described in division (A) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.

(b) "Category two career-technical student" means a student who is receiving the career-technical education services described in division (B) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.

(c) "Category three career-technical student" means a student who is receiving the career-technical education services described in division (C) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.

(d) "Category four career-technical student" means a student who is receiving the career-technical education services described in division (D) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.

(e) "Category five career-technical education student" means a student who is receiving the career-technical education services described in division (E) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.

(2)(a) "Category one limited English proficient student" means a limited English proficient student described in division (A) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code.

(b) "Category two limited English proficient student" means a limited English proficient student described in division (B) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code.

(c) "Category three limited English proficient student" means a limited English proficient student described in division (C) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code.

(3)(a) "Category one special education student" means a student who is receiving special education services for a disability specified in division (A) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.

(b) "Category two special education student" means a student who is receiving special education services for a disability specified in division (B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.

(c) "Category three special education student" means a student who is receiving special education services for a disability specified in division (C) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.

(d) "Category four special education student" means a student who is receiving special education services for a disability specified in division (D) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.

(e) "Category five special education student" means a student who is receiving special education services for a disability specified in division (E) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.

(f) "Category six special education student" means a student who is receiving special education services for a disability specified in division (F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.

(4) "Formula amount" has the same meaning as in section 3317.02 of the Revised Code.

(6) "Resident district" means the school district in which a student is entitled to attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code.

(7) "State education aid" has the same meaning as in section 5751.20 of the Revised Code.

(B) The state board of education shall adopt rules requiring both of the following:

(1) The board of education of each city, exempted village, and local school district to annually report the number of students entitled to attend school in the district who are enrolled in each grade kindergarten through twelve in a community school established under this chapter, and for each child, the community school in which the child is enrolled.

(2) The governing authority of each community school established under this chapter to annually report all of the following:

(a) The number of students enrolled in grades one through twelve and the full-time equivalent number of students enrolled in kindergarten in the school who are not receiving special education and related services pursuant to an IEP;

(b) The number of enrolled students in grades one through twelve and the full-time equivalent number of enrolled students in kindergarten, who are receiving special education and related services pursuant to an IEP;

(c) The number of students reported under division (B)(2)(b) of this section receiving special education and related services pursuant to an IEP for a disability described in each of divisions (A) to (F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;

(d) The full-time equivalent number of students reported under divisions (B)(2)(a) and (b) of this section who are enrolled in career-technical education programs or classes described in each of divisions (A) to (E) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code that are provided by the community school;

(e) ~~Twenty per cent of the~~ The number of students reported under divisions (B)(2)(a) and (b) of this section who are not reported under division (B)(2)(d) of this section but who are enrolled in career-technical education programs or classes described in each of divisions (A) to (E) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code at a joint vocational school district or another district in the career-technical planning district to which the school is assigned;

(f) The number of students reported under divisions (B)(2)(a) and (b) of this section who are category one to three limited English proficient students described in each of divisions (A) to (C) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code;

(g) The number of students reported under divisions (B)(2)(a) and (b) who are economically disadvantaged, as defined by the department. A student shall not be categorically excluded from the number reported under division (B)(2)(g) of this section based on anything other than family income.

(h) For each student, the city, exempted village, or local school district in which the student is entitled to attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code.

A school district board and a community school governing authority shall include in their respective reports under division (B) of this section any child admitted in accordance with division (A)(2) of section 3321.01 of the Revised Code.

A governing authority of a community school shall not include in its report under division (B)(2) of this section any student for whom tuition is charged under division (F) of this section.

(C)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) of this section, and subject to divisions (C)(3), (4), (5), (6), and (7) of this section, on a full-time equivalency basis, for each student enrolled in a community school established under this chapter, the department of education annually shall deduct from the state education aid of a student's resident district and, if necessary, from the payment made to the district under sections 321.24 and 323.156 of the Revised Code and pay to the community school the sum of the following:

(b) The per pupil amount of targeted assistance funds calculated under division (A) of section 3317.0217 of the Revised Code for the student's resident district, as determined by the department, X 0.25;

(c) Additional state aid for special education and related services provided under Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code as follows:

(i) If the student is a category one special education student, the amount specified in division (A) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;

(ii) If the student is a category two special education student, the amount specified in division (B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;

(iii) If the student is a category three special education student, the amount specified in division (C) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;

(iv) If the student is a category four special education student, the amount specified in division (D) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;

(v) If the student is a category five special education student, the amount specified in division (E) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;

(vi) If the student is a category six special education student, the amount specified in division (F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.

(d) If the student is in kindergarten through third grade, an additional amount of $211, in fiscal year 2014, and $290, in fiscal year 2015;

(e) If the student is economically disadvantaged, an additional amount equal to the following:

($269, in fiscal year 2014, or $272, in fiscal year 2015) X (the resident district's economically disadvantaged index)

(i) If the student is a category one limited English proficient student, the amount specified in division (A) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code;

(ii) If the student is a category two limited English proficient student, the amount specified in division (B) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code;

(iii) If the student is a category three limited English proficient student, the amount specified in division (C) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code.

(g) ~~Career-technical~~ If the student is reported under division (B)(2)(d) of this section, career-technical education funds as follows:

(i) If the student is a category one career-technical education student, the amount specified in division (A) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;

(ii) If the student is a category two career-technical education student, the amount specified in division (B) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;

(iii) If the student is a category three career-technical education student, the amount specified in division (C) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;

(iv) If the student is a category four career-technical education student, the amount specified in division (D) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;

(v) If the student is a category five career-technical education student, the amount specified in division (E) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.

Deduction and payment of funds under division (C)(1)(g) of this section is subject to approval by the lead district of a career-technical planning district or the department of education under section 3317.161 of the Revised Code.

(2) When deducting from the state education aid of a student's resident district for students enrolled in an internet- or computer-based community school and making payments to such school under this section, the department shall make the deductions and payments described in only divisions (C)(1)(a), (c), and (g) of this section.

No deductions or payments shall be made for a student enrolled in such school under division (C)(1)(b), (d), (e), or (f) of this section.

(3)(a) If a community school's costs for a fiscal year for a student receiving special education and related services pursuant to an IEP for a disability described in divisions (B) to (F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code exceed the threshold catastrophic cost for serving the student as specified in division (B) of section 3317.0214 of the Revised Code, the school may submit to the superintendent of public instruction documentation, as prescribed by the superintendent, of all its costs for that student. Upon submission of documentation for a student of the type and in the manner prescribed, the department shall pay to the community school an amount equal to the school's costs for the student in excess of the threshold catastrophic costs.

(b) The community school shall report under division (C)(3)(a) of this section, and the department shall pay for, only the costs of educational expenses and the related services provided to the student in accordance with the student's individualized education program. Any legal fees, court costs, or other costs associated with any cause of action relating to the student may not be included in the amount.

(4) In any fiscal year, a community school receiving funds under division (C)(1)(g) of this section shall spend those funds only for the purposes that the department designates as approved for career-technical education expenses. Career-technical ~~educational~~ education expenses approved by the department shall include only expenses connected to the delivery of career-technical programming to career-technical students. The department shall require the school to report data annually so that the department may monitor the school's compliance with the requirements regarding the manner in which funding received under division (C)(1)(g) of this section may be spent.

(5) All funds received under division (C)(1)(g) of this section shall be spent in the following manner:

(a) At least seventy-five per cent of the funds shall be spent on curriculum development, purchase, and implementation; instructional resources and supplies; industry-based program certification; student assessment, credentialing, and placement; curriculum specific equipment purchases and leases; career-technical student organization fees and expenses; home and agency linkages; work-based learning experiences; professional development; and other costs directly associated with career-technical education programs including development of new programs.

(b) Not more than twenty-five per cent of the funds shall be used for personnel expenditures.

(6) A community school shall spend the funds it receives under division (C)(1)(e) of this section in accordance with section 3317.25 of the Revised Code.

(7) If the sum of the payments computed under ~~division~~ divisions (C)(1) and (8)(a) of this section for the students entitled to attend school in a particular school district under sections 3313.64 and 3313.65 of the Revised Code exceeds the sum of that district's state education aid and its payment under sections 321.24 and 323.156 of the Revised Code, the department shall calculate and apply a proration factor to the payments to all community schools under that division for the students entitled to attend school in that district.

(8)(a) Subject to division (C)(7) of this section, the department annually shall pay to each community school, including each internet- or computer-based community school, an amount equal to the following:

(The number of students reported by the community school under division (B)(2)(e) of this section X the formula amount X .20)

(b) For each payment made to a community school under division (C)(8)(a) of this section, the department shall deduct from the state education aid of each city, local, and exempted village school district and, if necessary, from the payment made to the district under sections 321.24 and 323.156 of the Revised Code an amount equal to the following:

(The number of the district's students reported by the community school under division (B)(2)(e) of this section X the formula amount X .20)

(D) A board of education sponsoring a community school may utilize local funds to make enhancement grants to the school or may agree, either as part of the contract or separately, to provide any specific services to the community school at no cost to the school.

(E) A community school may not levy taxes or issue bonds secured by tax revenues.

(F) No community school shall charge tuition for the enrollment of any student who is a resident of this state. A community school may charge tuition for the enrollment of any student who is not a resident of this state.

(G)(1)(a) A community school may borrow money to pay any necessary and actual expenses of the school in anticipation of the receipt of any portion of the payments to be received by the school pursuant to division (C) of this section. The school may issue notes to evidence such borrowing. The proceeds of the notes shall be used only for the purposes for which the anticipated receipts may be lawfully expended by the school.

(b) A school may also borrow money for a term not to exceed fifteen years for the purpose of acquiring facilities.

(2) Except for any amount guaranteed under section 3318.50 of the Revised Code, the state is not liable for debt incurred by the governing authority of a community school.

(H) The department of education shall adjust the amounts subtracted and paid under division (C) of this section to reflect any enrollment of students in community schools for less than the equivalent of a full school year. The state board of education within ninety days after April 8, 2003, shall adopt in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code rules governing the payments to community schools under this section including initial payments in a school year and adjustments and reductions made in subsequent periodic payments to community schools and corresponding deductions from school district accounts as provided under division (C) of this section. For purposes of this section:

(1) A student shall be considered enrolled in the community school for any portion of the school year the student is participating at a college under Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code.

(2) A student shall be considered to be enrolled in a community school for the period of time beginning on the later of the date on which the school both has received documentation of the student's enrollment from a parent and the student has commenced participation in learning opportunities as defined in the contract with the sponsor, or thirty days prior to the date on which the student is entered into the education management information system established under section 3301.0714 of the Revised Code. For purposes of applying this division and divisions (H)(3) and (4) of this section to a community school student, "learning opportunities" shall be defined in the contract, which shall describe both classroom-based and non-classroom-based learning opportunities and shall be in compliance with criteria and documentation requirements for student participation which shall be established by the department. Any student's instruction time in non-classroom-based learning opportunities shall be certified by an employee of the community school. A student's enrollment shall be considered to cease on the date on which any of the following occur:

(a) The community school receives documentation from a parent terminating enrollment of the student.

(b) The community school is provided documentation of a student's enrollment in another public or private school.

(c) The community school ceases to offer learning opportunities to the student pursuant to the terms of the contract with the sponsor or the operation of any provision of this chapter.

Except as otherwise specified in this paragraph, beginning in the 2011-2012 school year, any student who completed the prior school year in an internet- or computer-based community school shall be considered to be enrolled in the same school in the subsequent school year until the student's enrollment has ceased as specified in division (H)(2) of this section. The department shall continue subtracting and paying amounts for the student under division (C) of this section without interruption at the start of the subsequent school year. However, if the student without a legitimate excuse fails to participate in the first one hundred five consecutive hours of learning opportunities offered to the student in that subsequent school year, the student shall be considered not to have re-enrolled in the school for that school year and the department shall recalculate the payments to the school for that school year to account for the fact that the student is not enrolled.

(3) The department shall determine each community school student's percentage of full-time equivalency based on the percentage of learning opportunities offered by the community school to that student, reported either as number of hours or number of days, is of the total learning opportunities offered by the community school to a student who attends for the school's entire school year. However, no internet- or computer-based community school shall be credited for any time a student spends participating in learning opportunities beyond ten hours within any period of twenty-four consecutive hours. Whether it reports hours or days of learning opportunities, each community school shall offer not less than nine hundred twenty hours of learning opportunities during the school year.

(4) With respect to the calculation of full-time equivalency under division (H)(3) of this section, the department shall waive the number of hours or days of learning opportunities not offered to a student because the community school was closed during the school year due to disease epidemic, hazardous weather conditions, law enforcement emergencies, inoperability of school buses or other equipment necessary to the school's operation, damage to a school building, or other temporary circumstances due to utility failure rendering the school building unfit for school use, so long as the school was actually open for instruction with students in attendance during that school year for not less than the minimum number of hours required by this chapter. The department shall treat the school as if it were open for instruction with students in attendance during the hours or days waived under this division.

(I) The department of education shall reduce the amounts paid under this section to reflect payments made to colleges under division (B) of section 3365.07 of the Revised Code or through alternative funding agreements entered into under rules adopted under section 3365.12 of the Revised Code.

(J)(1) No student shall be considered enrolled in any internet- or computer-based community school or, if applicable to the student, in any community school that is required to provide the student with a computer pursuant to division (C) of section 3314.22 of the Revised Code, unless both of the following conditions are satisfied:

(a) The student possesses or has been provided with all required hardware and software materials and all such materials are operational so that the student is capable of fully participating in the learning opportunities specified in the contract between the school and the school's sponsor as required by division (A)(23) of section 3314.03 of the Revised Code;

(b) The school is in compliance with division (A) of section 3314.22 of the Revised Code, relative to such student.

(2) In accordance with policies adopted jointly by the superintendent of public instruction and the auditor of state, the department shall reduce the amounts otherwise payable under division (C) of this section to any community school that includes in its program the provision of computer hardware and software materials to any student, if such hardware and software materials have not been delivered, installed, and activated for each such student in a timely manner or other educational materials or services have not been provided according to the contract between the individual community school and its sponsor.

The superintendent of public instruction and the auditor of state shall jointly establish a method for auditing any community school to which this division pertains to ensure compliance with this section.

The superintendent, auditor of state, and the governor shall jointly make recommendations to the general assembly for legislative changes that may be required to assure fiscal and academic accountability for such schools.

(K)(1) If the department determines that a review of a community school's enrollment is necessary, such review shall be completed and written notice of the findings shall be provided to the governing authority of the community school and its sponsor within ninety days of the end of the community school's fiscal year, unless extended for a period not to exceed thirty additional days for one of the following reasons:

(b) Delays in data submission caused by either a community school or its sponsor.

(2) If the review results in a finding that additional funding is owed to the school, such payment shall be made within thirty days of the written notice. If the review results in a finding that the community school owes moneys to the state, the following procedure shall apply:

(a) Within ten business days of the receipt of the notice of findings, the community school may appeal the department's determination to the state board of education or its designee.

(b) The board or its designee shall conduct an informal hearing on the matter within thirty days of receipt of such an appeal and shall issue a decision within fifteen days of the conclusion of the hearing.

(c) If the board has enlisted a designee to conduct the hearing, the designee shall certify its decision to the board. The board may accept the decision of the designee or may reject the decision of the designee and issue its own decision on the matter.

(3) If it is decided that the community school owes moneys to the state, the department shall deduct such amount from the school's future payments in accordance with guidelines issued by the superintendent of public instruction.

(L) The department shall not subtract from a school district's state aid account and shall not pay to a community school under division (C) of this section any amount for any of the following:

(1) Any student who has graduated from the twelfth grade of a public or nonpublic high school;

(3) Any student who was enrolled in the community school during the previous school year when assessments were administered under section 3301.0711 of the Revised Code but did not take one or more of the assessments required by that section and was not excused pursuant to division (C)(1) or (3) of that section, unless the superintendent of public instruction grants the student a waiver from the requirement to take the assessment and a parent is not paying tuition for the student pursuant to section 3314.26 of the Revised Code. The superintendent may grant a waiver only for good cause in accordance with rules adopted by the state board of education.

(4) Any student who has attained the age of twenty-two years, except for veterans of the armed services whose attendance was interrupted before completing the recognized twelve-year course of the public schools by reason of induction or enlistment in the armed forces and who apply for enrollment in a community school not later than four years after termination of war or their honorable discharge. If, however, any such veteran elects to enroll in special courses organized for veterans for whom tuition is paid under federal law, or otherwise, the department shall not subtract from a school district's state aid account and shall not pay to a community school under division (C) of this section any amount for that veteran.

Sec. 3314.38. (A) An individual who is at least twenty-two years of age and who is an eligible individual as defined in section 3317.23 of the Revised Code may enroll for up to two cumulative school years in a dropout prevention and recovery program operated by a community school that is designed to allow enrollees to earn a high school diploma. An individual enrolled under this division may elect to satisfy the requirements to earn a high school diploma by successfully completing a competency-based instructional program that complies with the standards adopted by the state board of education under section 3317.231 of the Revised Code. The community school shall report that individual's enrollment on a full-time equivalency basis to the department of education. This report shall be in addition to the report required under division (B) of section 3314.08 of the Revised Code. An individual enrolled under this division shall not be assigned to classes or settings with students who are younger than eighteen years of age.

(B)(1) For each community school that enrolls individuals under division (A) of this section, the department of education annually shall certify the enrollment and attendance, on a full-time equivalency basis, of each individual reported by the school under that division.

(2) For each individual enrolled in a community school under division (A) of this section, the department annually shall pay to the community school an amount equal to the following:

$5,000 X the individual's enrollment on a full-time equivalency basis as certified under division (B)(1) of this section X the portion of the school year in which the individual is enrolled in the school expressed as a percentage

(C) A community school that enrolls individuals under division (A) of this section shall be subject to the program administration standards adopted by the state board under section 3317.231 of the Revised Code, as applicable.

Sec. 3317.01. As used in this section, "school district," unless otherwise specified, means any city, local, exempted village, joint vocational, or cooperative education school district and any educational service center.

This chapter shall be administered by the state board of education. The superintendent of public instruction shall calculate the amounts payable to each school district and shall certify the amounts payable to each eligible district to the treasurer of the district as provided by this chapter. As soon as possible after such amounts are calculated, the superintendent shall certify to the treasurer of each school district the district's adjusted charge-off increase, as defined in section 5705.211 of the Revised Code. Certification of moneys pursuant to this section shall include the amounts payable to each school building, at a frequency determined by the superintendent, for each subgroup of students, as defined in section 3317.40 of the Revised Code, receiving services, provided for by state funding, from the district or school. No moneys shall be distributed pursuant to this chapter without the approval of the controlling board.

The state board of education shall, in accordance with appropriations made by the general assembly, meet the financial obligations of this chapter.

Moneys distributed to school districts pursuant to this chapter shall be calculated based on the annual enrollment calculated from the three reports required under ~~section~~ sections 3317.03 and 3317.036 of the Revised Code and paid on a fiscal year basis, beginning with the first day of July and extending through the thirtieth day of June. The moneys appropriated for each fiscal year shall be distributed periodically to each school district unless otherwise provided for. The state board, in June of each year, shall submit to the controlling board the state board's year-end distributions pursuant to this chapter.

Except as otherwise provided, payments under this chapter shall be made only to those school districts in which:

(A) The school district, except for any educational service center and any joint vocational or cooperative education school district, levies for current operating expenses at least twenty mills. Levies for joint vocational or cooperative education school districts or county school financing districts, limited to or to the extent apportioned to current expenses, shall be included in this qualification requirement. School district income tax levies under Chapter 5748. of the Revised Code, limited to or to the extent apportioned to current operating expenses, shall be included in this qualification requirement to the extent determined by the tax commissioner under division (D) of section 3317.021 of the Revised Code.

(B) The school year next preceding the fiscal year for which such payments are authorized meets the requirement of section 3313.48 of the Revised Code, with regard to the minimum number of hours school must be open for instruction with pupils in attendance, for individualized parent-teacher conference and reporting periods, and for professional meetings of teachers.

A school district shall not be considered to have failed to comply with this division because schools were open for instruction but either twelfth grade students were excused from attendance for up to the equivalent of three school days or only a portion of the kindergarten students were in attendance for up to the equivalent of three school days in order to allow for the gradual orientation to school of such students.

A board of education or governing board of an educational service center which has not conformed with other law and the rules pursuant thereto, shall not participate in the distribution of funds authorized by this chapter, except for good and sufficient reason established to the satisfaction of the state board of education and the state controlling board.

All funds allocated to school districts under this chapter, except those specifically allocated for other purposes, shall be used to pay current operating expenses only.

(A)(1) "Category one career-technical education ADM" means the enrollment of students during the school year on a full-time equivalency basis in career-technical education programs described in division (A) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code and certified under division (B)(11) or (D)(2)(h) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.

(2) "Category two career-technical education ADM" means the enrollment of students during the school year on a full-time equivalency basis in career-technical education programs described in division (B) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code and certified under division (B)(12) or (D)(2)(i) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.

(3) "Category three career-technical education ADM" means the enrollment of students during the school year on a full-time equivalency basis in career-technical education programs described in division (C) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code and certified under division (B)(13) or (D)(2)(j) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.

(4) "Category four career-technical education ADM" means the enrollment of students during the school year on a full-time equivalency basis in career-technical education programs described in division (D) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code and certified under division (B)(14) or (D)(2)(k) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.

(5) "Category five career-technical education ADM" means the enrollment of students during the school year on a full-time equivalency basis in career-technical education programs described in division (E) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code and certified under division (B)(15) or (D)(2)(l) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.

(B)(1) "Category one limited English proficient ADM" means the full-time equivalent number of limited English proficient students described in division (A) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code and certified under division (B)(16) or (D)(2)(m) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.

(2) "Category two limited English proficient ADM" means the full-time equivalent number of limited English proficient students described in division (B) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code and certified under division (B)(17) or (D)(2)(n) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.

(3) "Category three limited English proficient ADM" means the full-time equivalent number of limited English proficient students described in division (C) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code and certified under division (B)(18) or (D)(2)(o) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.

(C)(1) "Category one special education ADM" means the full-time equivalent number of children with disabilities receiving special education services for the disability specified in division (A) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code and certified under division (B)(5) or (D)(2)(b) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.

(2) "Category two special education ADM" means the full-time equivalent number of children with disabilities receiving special education services for those disabilities specified in division (B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code and certified under division (B)(6) or (D)(2)(c) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.

(3) "Category three special education ADM" means the full-time equivalent number of students receiving special education services for those disabilities specified in division (C) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code, and certified under division (B)(7) or (D)(2)(d) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.

(4) "Category four special education ADM" means the full-time equivalent number of students receiving special education services for those disabilities specified in division (D) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code and certified under division (B)(8) or (D)(2)(e) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.

(5) "Category five special education ADM" means the full-time equivalent number of students receiving special education services for the disabilities specified in division (E) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code and certified under division (B)(9) or (D)(2)(f) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.

(6) "Category six special education ADM" means the full-time equivalent number of students receiving special education services for the disabilities specified in division (F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code and certified under division (B)(10) or (D)(2)(g) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.

(E) "Economically disadvantaged index for a school district" means the square of the quotient of that district's percentage of students in its total ADM who are identified as economically disadvantaged as defined by the department of education, divided by the statewide percentage of students identified as economically disadvantaged.

(F)(1) "Formula ADM" means, for a city, local, or exempted village school district, the enrollment reported under division (A) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, as verified by the superintendent of public instruction and adjusted if so ordered under division (K) of that section, and as further adjusted by ~~counting~~ the department of education, as follows:

(a) Count only twenty per cent of the number of joint vocational school district students counted under division (A)(3) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code;

(b) Add twenty per cent of the number of students who are entitled to attend school in the district under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code and are enrolled in another school district under a career-technical education compact.

(2) "Formula ADM" means, for a joint vocational school district, the final number verified by the superintendent of public instruction, based on the enrollment reported and certified under division (D) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, as adjusted, if so ordered, under division (K) of that section.

(G) "Formula amount" means $5,745, for fiscal year 2014, and $5,800, for fiscal year 2015.

(H) "FTE basis" means a count of students based on full-time equivalency, in accordance with rules adopted by the department of education pursuant to section 3317.03 of the Revised Code. In adopting its rules under this division, the department shall provide for counting any student in category one, two, three, four, five, or six special education ADM or in category one, two, three, four, or five career technical education ADM in the same proportion the student is counted in formula ADM.

(I) "Internet- or computer-based community school" has the same meaning as in section 3314.02 of the Revised Code.

(1) The child requires the services of a doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine at least once a week due to the instability of the child's medical condition.

(3) The child is at risk of institutionalization in a hospital, skilled nursing facility, or intermediate care facility for individuals with intellectual disabilities.

(K)(1) A child may be identified as having an "other health impairment-major" if the child's condition meets the definition of "other health impaired" established in rules previously adopted by the state board of education and if either of the following apply:

(a) The child is identified as having a medical condition that is among those listed by the superintendent of public instruction as conditions where a substantial majority of cases fall within the definition of "medically fragile child."

(b) The child is determined by the superintendent of public instruction to be a medically fragile child. A school district superintendent may petition the superintendent of public instruction for a determination that a child is a medically fragile child.

(2) A child may be identified as having an "other health impairment-minor" if the child's condition meets the definition of "other health impaired" established in rules previously adopted by the state board of education but the child's condition does not meet either of the conditions specified in division (K)(1)(a) or (b) of this section.

(L) "Preschool child with a disability" means a child with a disability, as defined in section 3323.01 of the Revised Code, who is at least age three but is not of compulsory school age, as defined in section 3321.01 of the Revised Code, and who is not currently enrolled in kindergarten.

(M) "Preschool scholarship ADM" means the number of preschool children with disabilities certified under division (B)(3)(h) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.

(1) Child study, special education supervisors and coordinators, speech and hearing services, adaptive physical development services, occupational or physical therapy, teacher assistants for children with disabilities whose disabilities are described in division (B) of section 3317.013 or division (B)(3) of this section, behavioral intervention, interpreter services, work study, nursing services, and specialized integrative services as those terms are defined by the department;

(2) Speech and language services provided to any student with a disability, including any student whose primary or only disability is a speech and language disability;

(3) Any related service not specifically covered by other state funds but specified in federal law, including but not limited to, audiology and school psychological services;

(4) Any service included in units funded under former division (O)(1) of section 3317.024 of the Revised Code;

(5) Any other related service needed by children with disabilities in accordance with their individualized education programs.

(O) "School district," unless otherwise specified, means city, local, and exempted village school districts.

(P) "State education aid" has the same meaning as in section 5751.20 of the Revised Code.

(Q) "State share index" means the state share index calculated for a district under section 3317.017 of the Revised Code.

(R) "Taxes charged and payable" means the taxes charged and payable against real and public utility property after making the reduction required by section 319.301 of the Revised Code, plus the taxes levied against tangible personal property.

(S) "Total ADM" means, for a city, local, or exempted village school district, the enrollment reported under division (A) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, as verified by the superintendent of public instruction and adjusted if so ordered under division (K) of that section.

(T) "Total special education ADM" means the sum of categories one through six special education ADM.

(U) "Total taxable value" means the sum of the amounts certified for a city, local, exempted village, or joint vocational school district under divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 3317.021 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 3317.0217. Payment of the amount calculated for a school district under this section shall be made under division (A) of section 3317.022 of the Revised Code.

(A) The department of education shall annually compute targeted assistance funds to school districts, as follows:

(1) Calculate the local wealth per pupil of each school district, which equals the following sum:

(a) One-half times the quotient of (i) the district's three-year average valuation divided by (ii) its formula ADM; plus

(b) One-half times the quotient of (i) the average of the total federal adjusted gross income of the school district's residents for the three years most recently reported under section 3317.021 of the Revised Code divided by (ii) its formula ADM.

(2) Rank all school districts in order of local wealth per pupil, from the district with the lowest local wealth per pupil to the district with the highest local wealth per pupil.

(a) One-half times the quotient of (i) the sum of the three-year average valuations for all school districts divided by (ii) the sum of formula ADM counts for all ~~schools~~ school districts; plus

(b) One-half times the quotient of (i) the sum of the three-year average total federal adjusted gross incomes for all school districts divided by (ii) the sum of formula ADM counts for all school districts.

(4) Compute each district's wealth index by dividing the statewide wealth per pupil by the district's local wealth per pupil.

(5) Compute the per pupil targeted assistance for each eligible school district in accordance with the following formula:

(a) An "eligible school district" means a school district with a local wealth per pupil less than that of the school district with the 490th lowest local wealth per pupil.

(b) "Threshold local wealth per pupil" means the local wealth per pupil of the school district with the 490th lowest local wealth per pupil.

If the result of the calculation for a school district under division (A)(5) of this section is less than zero, the district's targeted assistance shall be zero.

(6) Calculate the aggregate amount to be paid as targeted assistance funds to each school district under division (A) of section 3317.022 of the Revised Code by multiplying the per pupil targeted assistance computed under division (A)(5) of this section by the district's net formula ADM.

As used in this division, a district's "net formula ADM" means its formula ADM minus the number of community school students certified under division (B)(3)(d) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code X 0.75, the number of internet- and computer-based community school students certified under division (B)(3)(e) of that section, the number of science, technology, engineering, and mathematics school students certified under division (B)(3)(j) of that section X 0.75, and the number of scholarship students certified under divisions (B)(3)(f), (g), and (l) of that section.

(B) The department shall annually compute supplemental targeted assistance funds to school districts, as follows:

(1) Compute each district's agricultural percentage as the quotient of (a) the three-year average tax valuation of real property in the district that is classified as agricultural property divided by (b) the three-year average tax valuation of all of the real property in the district. For purposes of this computation, a district's "three-year average tax valuation" means the average of a district's tax valuation for fiscal years 2012, 2013, and 2014.

(a) If a district's agricultural percentage is greater than or equal to 0.10, then the district's agricultural targeted percentage shall be equal to 0.40.

(b) If a district's agricultural percentage is less than 0.10, then the district's agricultural targeted percentage shall be equal to 4 X the district's agricultural percentage.

(3) Calculate the aggregate amount to be paid as supplemental targeted assistance funds to each school district under division (A) of section 3317.022 of the Revised Code by multiplying the district's agricultural targeted percentage by the amount calculated for the district under division (A)(6) of this section.

Sec. 3317.036. (A) The superintendent of each city, local, and exempted village school district shall report to the state board of education as of the last day of October, March, and June of each year the enrollment under section 3317.23 of the Revised Code, on a full-time equivalency basis, of individuals who are at least twenty-two years of age. This report shall be in addition to the district's report of the enrollment of students entitled to attend school in the district under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code that is required under section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.

(B) The superintendent of each joint vocational school district shall report and certify to the superintendent of public instruction as of the last day of October, March, and June of each year the enrollment of individuals receiving services from the district on a full-time equivalency basis under section 3317.24 of the Revised Code. This report shall be in addition to the district's report of the enrollment of students that is required under section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 3317.23. (A) For purposes of this section, an "eligible individual" is an individual who satisfies both of the following criteria:

(2) The individual has not been awarded a high school diploma or a certificate of high school equivalence as defined in section 4109.06 of the Revised Code.

(B) An eligible individual may enroll in a city, local, or exempted village school district that operates a dropout prevention and recovery program for up to two cumulative school years for the purpose of earning a high school diploma. An individual enrolled under this division may elect to satisfy the requirements to earn a high school diploma by successfully completing a competency-based instructional program that complies with the standards adopted by the state board of education under section 3317.231 of the Revised Code. The district shall report that individual's enrollment on a full-time equivalency basis under division (A) of section 3317.036 of the Revised Code and shall not report that individual's enrollment under section 3317.03 of the Revised Code. An individual enrolled under this division shall not be assigned to classes or settings with students who are younger than eighteen years of age.

(C)(1) For each district that enrolls individuals under division (B) of this section, the department of education annually shall certify the enrollment and attendance, on a full-time equivalency basis, of each individual reported by the district under division (A) of section 3317.036 of the Revised Code.

(2) For each individual enrolled in a district under division (B) of this section, the department annually shall pay to the district an amount equal to the following:

$5,000 X the individual's enrollment on a full-time equivalency basis as certified under division (C)(1) of this section X the portion of the school year in which the individual is enrolled in the district expressed as a percentage

(D) A district that enrolls individuals under division (B) of this section shall be subject to the program administration standards adopted by the state board under section 3317.231 of the Revised Code, as applicable.

Sec. 3317.231. Not later than December 31, 2014, the state board of education shall adopt rules regarding the administration of programs that enroll individuals who are at least twenty-two years of age under sections 3314.38, 3317.23, 3317.24, and 3345.86 of the Revised Code, including data collection, the reporting and certification of enrollment in the programs, the measurement of the academic performance of individuals enrolled in the programs, and the standards for competency-based instructional programs.

Sec. 3317.24. (A) For purposes of this section, an "eligible individual" has the same meaning as in section 3317.23 of the Revised Code.

(B) An eligible individual may enroll in a joint vocational school district that operates an adult education program for up to two cumulative school years for the purpose of completing the requirements to earn a high school diploma. An individual enrolled under this division may elect to satisfy these requirements by successfully completing a competency-based instructional program that complies with the standards adopted by the state board of education under section 3317.231 of the Revised Code. The district shall report an individual's enrollment under this division on a full-time equivalency basis under division (B) of section 3317.036 of the Revised Code and shall not report that individual's enrollment under section 3317.03 of the Revised Code. An individual enrolled under this division shall not be assigned to classes or settings with students who are younger than eighteen years of age.

(C)(1) For each joint vocational school district that enrolls individuals under division (B) of this section, the department of education annually shall certify the enrollment and attendance, on a full-time equivalency basis, of each individual reported by the district under division (B) of section 3317.036 of the Revised Code.

(2) For each individual enrolled in a joint vocational school district under division (B) of this section, the department annually shall pay to the district an amount equal to the following:

(D) If an individual enrolled in a joint vocational school district under division (B) of this section completes the requirements to earn a high school diploma, the joint vocational school district shall certify the completion of those requirements to the city, local, or exempted village school district in which the individual resides. Upon receiving certification under this division, the city, local, or exempted village school district in which the individual resides shall issue a high school diploma to the individual.

(E) A joint vocational school district that enrolls individuals under division (B) of this section shall be subject to the program administration standards adopted by the state board under section 3317.231 of the Revised Code, as applicable.

(a) "Ohio school facilities commission," "classroom facilities," "school district," "school district board," "net bonded indebtedness," "required percentage of the basic project costs," "basic project cost," "valuation," and "percentile" have the same meanings as in section 3318.01 of the Revised Code.

(b) "Required level of indebtedness" means five per cent of the school district's valuation for the year preceding the year in which the commission and school district enter into an agreement under division (B) of this section, plus [two one-hundredths of one per cent multiplied by (the percentile in which the district ranks minus one)].

(c) "Local resources" means any moneys generated in any manner permitted for a school district board to raise the school district portion of a project undertaken with assistance under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code.

(d) "Tangible personal property phase-out impacted district" means a school district for which the taxable value of its tangible personal property certified under division (A)(2) of section 3317.021 of the Revised Code for tax year 2005, excluding the taxable value of public utility personal property, made up eighteen per cent or more of its total taxable value for tax year 2005 as certified under that section.

(2) For purposes of determining the required level of indebtedness, the required percentage of the basic project costs under division (C)(1) of this section, and priority for assistance under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code, the percentile ranking of a school district with which the commission has entered into an agreement under this section between the first day of July and the thirty-first day of August in each fiscal year is the percentile ranking calculated for that district for the immediately preceding fiscal year, and the percentile ranking of a school district with which the commission has entered into such agreement between the first day of September and the thirtieth day of June in each fiscal year is the percentile ranking calculated for that district for the current fiscal year. However, in the case of a tangible personal property phase-out impacted district, the district's priority for assistance under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code and its portion of the basic project cost under those sections shall be determined in the manner prescribed, respectively, in divisions (B)(3)(b) and (E)(1)(b) of this section.

(B)(1) There is hereby established the school building assistance expedited local partnership program. Under the program, the Ohio school facilities commission may enter into an agreement with the board of any school district under which the board may proceed with the new construction or major repairs of a part of the district's classroom facilities needs, as determined under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code, through the expenditure of local resources prior to the school district's eligibility for state assistance under those sections, and may apply that expenditure toward meeting the school district's portion of the basic project cost of the total of the district's classroom facilities needs, as recalculated under division (E) of this section, when the district becomes eligible for state assistance under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 or section 3318.364 of the Revised Code. Any school district that is reasonably expected to receive assistance under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code within two fiscal years from the date the school district adopts its resolution under division (B) of this section shall not be eligible to participate in the program established under this section.

(2) To participate in the program, a school district board shall first adopt a resolution certifying to the commission the board's intent to participate in the program.

The resolution shall specify the approximate date that the board intends to seek elector approval of any bond or tax measures or to apply other local resources to use to pay the cost of classroom facilities to be constructed under this section. The resolution may specify the application of local resources or elector-approved bond or tax measures after the resolution is adopted by the board, and in such case the board may proceed with a discrete portion of its project under this section as soon as the commission and the controlling board have approved the basic project cost of the district's classroom facilities needs as specified in division (D) of this section. The board shall submit its resolution to the commission not later than ten days after the date the resolution is adopted by the board.

The commission shall not consider any resolution that is submitted pursuant to division (B)(2) of this section, as amended by this amendment, sooner than September 14, 2000.

(3) For purposes of determining when a district that enters into an agreement under this section becomes eligible for assistance under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code or priority for assistance under section 3318.364 of the Revised Code, the commission shall use one of the following as applicable:

(a) Except for a tangible personal property phase-out impacted district, the district's percentile ranking determined at the time the district entered into the agreement under this section, as prescribed by division (A)(2) of this section;

(b) For a tangible personal property phase-out impacted district, the lesser of (i) the district's percentile ranking determined at the time the district entered into the agreement under this section, as prescribed by division (A)(2) of this section, or (ii) the district's current percentile ranking under section 3318.011 of the Revised Code.

(4) Any project under this section shall comply with section 3318.03 of the Revised Code and with any specifications for plans and materials for classroom facilities adopted by the commission under section 3318.04 of the Revised Code.

(5) If a school district that enters into an agreement under this section has not begun a project applying local resources as provided for under that agreement at the time the district is notified by the commission that it is eligible to receive state assistance under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code, all assessment and agreement documents entered into under this section are void.

(6) Only construction of or repairs to classroom facilities that have been approved by the commission and have been therefore included as part of a district's basic project cost qualify for application of local resources under this section.

(C) Based on the results of on-site visits and assessment, the commission shall determine the basic project cost of the school district's classroom facilities needs. The commission shall determine the school district's portion of such basic project cost, which shall be the greater of:

(1) The required percentage of the basic project costs, determined based on the school district's percentile ranking;

(2) An amount necessary to raise the school district's net bonded indebtedness, as of the fiscal year the commission and the school district enter into the agreement under division (B) of this section, to within five thousand dollars of the required level of indebtedness.

(D)(1) When the commission determines the basic project cost of the classroom facilities needs of a school district and the school district's portion of that basic project cost under division (C) of this section, the project shall be conditionally approved. Such conditional approval shall be submitted to the controlling board for approval thereof. The controlling board shall forthwith approve or reject the commission's determination, conditional approval, and the amount of the state's portion of the basic project cost; however, no state funds shall be encumbered under this section. Upon approval by the controlling board, the school district board may identify a discrete part of its classroom facilities needs, which shall include only new construction of or additions or major repairs to a particular building, to address with local resources. Upon identifying a part of the school district's basic project cost to address with local resources, the school district board may allocate any available school district moneys to pay the cost of that identified part, including the proceeds of an issuance of bonds if approved by the electors of the school district.

All local resources utilized under this division shall first be deposited in the project construction account required under section 3318.08 of the Revised Code.

(2) Unless the school district board exercises its option under division (D)(3) of this section, for a school district to qualify for participation in the program authorized under this section, one of the following conditions shall be satisfied:

(a) The electors of the school district by a majority vote shall approve the levy of taxes outside the ten-mill limitation for a period of twenty-three years at the rate of not less than one-half mill for each dollar of valuation to be used to pay the cost of maintaining the classroom facilities included in the basic project cost as determined by the commission. The form of the ballot to be used to submit the question whether to approve the tax required under this division to the electors of the school district shall be the form for an additional levy of taxes prescribed in section 3318.361 of the Revised Code, which may be combined in a single ballot question with the questions prescribed under section 5705.218 of the Revised Code.

(b) As authorized under division (C) of section 3318.05 of the Revised Code, the school district board shall earmark from the proceeds of a permanent improvement tax levied under section 5705.21 of the Revised Code, an amount equivalent to the additional tax otherwise required under division (D)(2)(a) of this section for the maintenance of the classroom facilities included in the basic project cost as determined by the commission.

(c) As authorized under section 3318.051 of the Revised Code, the school district board shall, if approved by the commission, annually transfer into the maintenance fund required under section 3318.05 of the Revised Code the amount prescribed in section 3318.051 of the Revised Code in lieu of the tax otherwise required under division (D)(2)(a) of this section for the maintenance of the classroom facilities included in the basic project cost as determined by the commission.

(d) If the school district board has rescinded the agreement to make transfers under section 3318.051 of the Revised Code, as provided under division (F) of that section, the electors of the school district, in accordance with section 3318.063 of the Revised Code, first shall approve the levy of taxes outside the ten-mill limitation for the period specified in that section at a rate of not less than one-half mill for each dollar of valuation.

(e) The school district board shall apply the proceeds of a tax to leverage bonds as authorized under section 3318.052 of the Revised Code or dedicate a local donated contribution in the manner described in division (B) of section 3318.084 of the Revised Code in an amount equivalent to the additional tax otherwise required under division (D)(2)(a) of this section for the maintenance of the classroom facilities included in the basic project cost as determined by the commission.

(3) A school district board may opt to delay taking any of the actions described in division (D)(2) of this section until the school district becomes eligible for state assistance under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code. In order to exercise this option, the board shall certify to the commission a resolution indicating the board's intent to do so prior to entering into an agreement under division (B) of this section.

(4) If pursuant to division (D)(3) of this section a district board opts to delay levying an additional tax until the district becomes eligible for state assistance, it shall submit the question of levying that tax to the district electors as follows:

(a) In accordance with section 3318.06 of the Revised Code if it will also be necessary pursuant to division (E) of this section to submit a proposal for approval of a bond issue;

(b) In accordance with section 3318.361 of the Revised Code if it is not necessary to also submit a proposal for approval of a bond issue pursuant to division (E) of this section.

(5) No state assistance under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code shall be released until a school district board that adopts and certifies a resolution under division (D) of this section also demonstrates to the satisfaction of the commission compliance with the provisions of division (D)(2) of this section.

Any amount required for maintenance under division (D)(2) of this section shall be deposited into a separate fund as specified in division (B) of section 3318.05 of the Revised Code.

(E)(1) If the school district becomes eligible for state assistance under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code based on its percentile ranking under division (B)(3) of this section or is offered assistance under section 3318.364 of the Revised Code, the commission shall conduct a new assessment of the school district's classroom facilities needs and shall recalculate the basic project cost based on this new assessment. The basic project cost recalculated under this division shall include the amount of expenditures made by the school district board under division (D)(1) of this section. The commission shall then recalculate the school district's portion of the new basic project cost, which shall be one of the following as applicable:

(a) Except for a tangible personal property phase-out impacted district, the percentage of the original basic project cost assigned to the school district as its portion under division (C) of this section;

(b) For a tangible personal property phase-out impacted district, the lesser of (i) the percentage of the original basic project cost assigned to the school district as its portion under division (C) of this section, or (ii) the percentage of the new basic project cost determined under section 3318.032 of the Revised Code using the district's current percentile ranking under section 3318.011 of the Revised Code. ~~The~~

The commission shall deduct the expenditure of school district moneys made under division (D)(1) of this section from the school district's portion of the basic project cost as recalculated under this division. If the amount of school district resources applied by the school district board to the school district's portion of the basic project cost under this section is less than the total amount of such portion as recalculated under this division, the school district board by a majority vote of all of its members shall, if it desires to seek state assistance under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code, adopt a resolution as specified in section 3318.06 of the Revised Code to submit to the electors of the school district the question of approval of a bond issue in order to pay any additional amount of school district portion required for state assistance. Any tax levy approved under division (D) of this section satisfies the requirements to levy the additional tax under section 3318.06 of the Revised Code.

(2) If the amount of school district resources applied by the school district board to the school district's portion of the basic project cost under this section is more than the total amount of such portion as recalculated under ~~this~~ division (E)(1) of this section, within one year after the school district's portion is so recalculated ~~under division (E)(1) of this section~~ the commission may grant to the school district the difference between the two calculated portions, but at no time shall the commission expend any state funds on a project in an amount greater than the state's portion of the basic project cost as recalculated under ~~this~~ division (E)(1) of this section.

Any reimbursement under this division shall be only for local resources the school district has applied toward construction cost expenditures for the classroom facilities approved by the commission, which shall not include any financing costs associated with that construction.

The school district board shall use any moneys reimbursed to the district under this division to pay off any debt service the district owes for classroom facilities constructed under its project under this section before such moneys are applied to any other purpose. However, the district board first may deposit moneys reimbursed under this division into the district's general fund or a permanent improvement fund to replace local resources the district withdrew from those funds, as long as, and to the extent that, those local resources were used by the district for constructing classroom facilities included in the district's basic project cost.

(3) A tangible personal property phase-out impacted district shall receive credit under division (E) of this section for the expenditure of local resources pursuant to any prior agreement authorized by this section, notwithstanding any recalculation of its average taxable value.

Sec. 3326.29. A STEM school established under this chapter may submit to the superintendent of public administration a request for a waiver from administering the state achievement assessments required under sections 3301.0710 and 3301.0712 of the Revised Code and related requirements specified under division (C)(2) of section 3302.15 of the Revised Code in the manner prescribed by that section as if it were a school district. A STEM school that obtains a waiver under section 3302.15 of the Revised Code shall comply with all provisions of that section as if it were a school district. A STEM school is presumptively eligible to request such a waiver.

Sec. 3345.56. Notwithstanding any provision of the Revised Code to the contrary, a student attending a state university as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code is not an employee of the state university based upon the student's participation in an athletic program offered by the state university.

Sec. 3345.86. (A) As used in this section, an "eligible institution" means a community college established under Chapter 3354. of the Revised Code, a university branch established under Chapter 3355. of the Revised Code, a technical college established under Chapter 3357. of the Revised Code, or a state community college established under Chapter 3358. of the Revised Code.

(B) An individual who is at least twenty-two years of age and who is an eligible individual as defined in section 3317.23 of the Revised Code may enroll in an eligible institution for up to two cumulative school years for the purpose of completing the requirements to earn a high school diploma. An individual enrolled under this division may elect to satisfy these requirements by successfully completing a competency-based instructional program that complies with the standards adopted by the state board of education under section 3317.231 of the Revised Code.

The eligible institution in which the individual enrolls shall report that individual's enrollment on a full-time equivalency basis to the department of education.

(C)(1) For each eligible institution that enrolls individuals under division (B) of this section, the department annually shall certify the enrollment and attendance, on a full-time equivalency basis, of each individual reported by the institution under that division.

(2) For each individual enrolled in an eligible institution under division (B) of this section, the department annually shall pay to the institution an amount equal to the following:

(D) If an individual enrolled in an eligible institution under division (B) of this section completes the requirements to earn a high school diploma, the institution shall certify the completion of those requirements to the city, local, or exempted village school district in which the individual resides. Upon receiving certification under this division, the city, local, or exempted village school district in which the individual resides shall issue a high school diploma to the individual.

(E) An eligible institution that enrolls individuals under division (B) of this section shall be subject to the program administration standards adopted by the state board under section 3317.231 of the Revised Code, as applicable.

Sec. 3358.03. The government of a state community college district is vested in a board of nine trustees who shall be appointed by the governor~~, from within the district,~~ with the advice and consent of the senate. Within ninety days after a state community college district is created pursuant to section 3358.02 of the Revised Code, the governor shall make initial appointments to the board. Of these appointments three shall be for terms ending two years after the date upon which the district was created, three shall be for terms ending four years after that date, and three shall be for terms ending six years after that date. Thereafter, the successive terms of trustees shall be for six years, each term ending on the same day of the same month of the year as did the term which it ~~suceeds~~ succeeds. Each trustee shall hold office from the date of ~~his~~ appointment until the end of the term for which he the trustee was appointed. Any trustee appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which ~~his~~ the trustee's predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the remainder of such term. Any trustee shall continue in office subsequent to the expiration date of ~~his~~ the trustee's term until ~~his~~ the trustee's successor takes office, or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, whichever occurs first. Where a state community ~~collge~~ college district succeeds to the operations of a state general and technical college, or a technical college district, the initial board of trustees of the district shall be composed of the members of the board of trustees of the state general and technical college, or a technical college district, to serve for the balance of their existing terms, and such additional number appointed by the governor, with the advice and consent of the senate, as will total nine members; and the terms of such members appointed by the governor originally and to all succeeding terms shall be such that, in combination with the original remaining terms of the members from the technical college district, the eventual result will be that three terms will expire every second year. Appointees shall be qualified electors ~~residing in the state community college district~~ of the state. The trustees shall receive no compensation for their services, but may be paid for their reasonably necessary expenses while engaged in the discharge of their official duties. A majority of the board constitutes a quorum.

~~(a)~~(1) "Political publication for or against a candidate" means a notice, placard, advertisement, sample ballot, brochure, flyer, direct mailer, or other form of general publication that is designed to promote the nomination, election, or defeat of a candidate.

~~(b)~~(2) "Political publication for or against an issue" means a notice, placard, advertisement, sample ballot, brochure, flyer, direct mailer, or other form of general publication that is designed to promote the adoption or defeat of a ballot issue or question or to influence the voters in an election.

~~(c)~~(3) "Public political advertising" means newspapers, magazines, outdoor advertising facilities, direct mailings, or other similar types of general public political advertising, or flyers, handbills, or other nonperiodical printed matter.

~~(d)~~(4) "Statewide candidate" has the same meaning as in section 3517.102 of the Revised Code.

~~(e)~~(5) "Legislative candidate" means a candidate for the office of member of the general assembly.

~~(f)~~(6) "Local candidate" means a candidate for an elective office of a political subdivision of this state.

~~(g)~~(7) "Legislative campaign fund" has the same meaning as in section 3517.01 of the Revised Code.

~~(h)~~(8) "Limited political action committee" means a political action committee of fewer than ten members.

~~(i)~~(9) "Limited political contributing entity" means a political contributing entity of fewer than ten members.

~~(j)~~(10) "Designated amount" means one hundred dollars in the case of a local candidate or a local ballot issue, two hundred fifty dollars in the case of a legislative candidate, or five hundred dollars in the case of a statewide candidate or a statewide ballot issue.

~~(k)~~(11) "To issue" includes to print, post, distribute, reproduce for distribution, or cause to be issued, printed, posted, distributed, or reproduced for distribution.

~~(l)~~(12) "Telephone bank" means more than five hundred telephone calls of an identical or substantially similar nature within any thirty-day period, whether those telephone calls are made by individual callers or by recording.

~~(2)(a) No political party or other~~ (B)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (B)(2) of this section, no entity~~, except a political action committee, a political contributing entity, a candidate, a legislative campaign fund, or a campaign committee,~~ shall issue a form of political publication for or against a candidate, or shall make an expenditure for the purpose of financing political communications in support of or opposition to a candidate through public political advertising, do any of the following unless the name ~~and residence or business address~~ of the ~~candidate or the chairperson, treasurer, or secretary of the legislative campaign fund, political party, or other~~ entity ~~that issues or otherwise is responsible for that political publication or that makes an expenditure for that political communication~~ appears in a conspicuous place on ~~that political publication~~ or is contained or included within ~~that political communication~~ the publication, communication, or telephone call:

(a) Issue a form of political publication in support of or opposition to a candidate or a ballot issue or question;

(b) Make an expenditure for the purpose of financing political communications in support of or opposition to a candidate or a ballot issue or question through public political advertising;

(c) Utter or cause to be uttered, over the broadcasting facilities of any radio or television station within this state, any communication in support of or opposition to a candidate or a ballot issue or question or any communication that is designed to influence the voters in an election;

(d) Conduct a telephone bank for the purpose of supporting or opposing a candidate or a ballot issue or question or for the purpose of influencing the voters in an election.

(b) No candidate, legislative campaign fund, or campaign committee shall issue a form of political publication for or against a candidate, or shall make an expenditure for the purpose of financing political communications in support of or opposition to a candidate through public political advertising, unless the name of the entity appears in a conspicuous place on that political publication or is contained within that political communication.

~~(3) No~~ (2) A limited political action committee or limited political contributing entity ~~shall~~ may do ~~either~~ any of the following ~~unless the~~ without including its name and residence or business address of the chairperson, treasurer, or secretary of the limited political action committee or limited political contributing entity involved appears in a conspicuous place in the ~~political publication for or against a candidate described in division (A)(3)(a) of this section or is contained within the political~~ publication or communication ~~described in division (A)(3)(b) of this section~~:

(a) Issue a form of political publication ~~for or against~~ in support of or opposition to a candidate or a ballot issue or question that ~~costs~~ does not cost in excess of the designated amount or that is not issued in cooperation, consultation, or concert with, or at the request or suggestion of, a candidate, a campaign committee, a legislative campaign fund, a political party, a political action committee with ten or more members, a political contributing entity with ten or more members, or a limited political action committee or limited political contributing entity that spends in excess of the designated amount on a related or the same or similar political publication ~~for or against~~ in support of or opposition to a candidate or a ballot issue or question;

(b) Make an expenditure that is not in excess of the designated amount in support of or opposition to a candidate or a ballot issue or question or make an expenditure that is not made in cooperation, consultation, or concert with, or at the request or suggestion of, a candidate, a campaign committee, a legislative campaign fund, a political party, a political action committee with ten or more members, a political contributing entity with ten or more members, or a limited political action committee or limited political contributing entity that spends in excess of the designated amount in support of or opposition to the same candidate or a ballot issue or question, for the purpose of financing political communications in support of or opposition to that candidate or a ballot issue or question through public political advertising.

(4) No political action committee with ten or more members and no political contributing entity with ten or more members shall issue a form of political publication for or against a candidate, or shall make an expenditure for the purpose of financing political communications in support of or opposition to a candidate through public political advertising, unless the name and residence or business address of the chairperson, treasurer, or secretary of the political action committee or political contributing entity that issues or otherwise is responsible for that political publication or that makes an expenditure for that political communication through public political advertising appears in a conspicuous place in that political publication or is contained within that political communication.

(5)(a) No corporation, labor organization, political party, or other entity, except a political action committee, a legislative campaign fund, or a campaign committee, shall issue a form of political publication for or against an issue, or shall make an expenditure for the purpose of financing political communications in support of or opposition to a ballot issue or question through public political advertising, unless the name and residence or business address of the chairperson, treasurer, or secretary of the corporation, labor organization, political party, or other entity that issues or otherwise is responsible for that political publication or that makes an expenditure for that political communication through public political advertising appears in a conspicuous place in that political publication or is contained within that political communication.

(b) No campaign committee or legislative campaign fund shall issue a form of political publication for or against an issue, or shall make an expenditure for the purpose of financing political communications in support of or opposition to a ballot issue or question through public political advertising, unless the name of the campaign committee or legislative campaign fund appears in a conspicuous place in that political publication or is contained within that political communication.

(6) No limited political action committee shall do either of the following unless the name and residence or business address of the chairperson, treasurer, or secretary of the limited political action committee involved appears in a conspicuous place in the political publication for or against a ballot issue described in division (A)(6)(a) of this section or is contained within the political communication described in division (A)(6)(b) of this section:

(a) Issue a form of political publication for or against a ballot issue that costs in excess of the designated amount or that is issued in cooperation, consultation, or concert with, or at the request or suggestion of, a candidate, a campaign committee, a legislative campaign fund, a political party, a political action committee with ten or more members, or a limited political action committee that spends in excess of the designated amount for a related or the same or similar political publication for or against an issue;

(b) Make an expenditure in excess of the designated amount in support of or opposition to a ballot issue or make an expenditure in cooperation, consultation, or concert with, or at the request or suggestion of, a candidate, a campaign committee, a legislative campaign fund, a political party, a political action committee with ten or more members, or a limited political action committee that spends in excess of the designated amount in support of or opposition to the same ballot issue, for the purpose of financing political communications in support of or opposition to that ballot issue through public political advertising.

(7) No political action committee with ten or more members shall issue a form of political publication for or against an issue, or shall make an expenditure for the purpose of financing political communications in support of or opposition to a ballot issue or question through public political advertising, unless the name and residence or business address of the chairperson, treasurer, or secretary of the political action committee that issues or otherwise is responsible for that political publication or that makes an expenditure for that political communication appears in a conspicuous place in that political publication or is contained within that political communication.

~~(8) The disclaimer "paid political advertisement" is not sufficient to meet the requirements of this section.~~

(9) If the political publication described in division (A) of this section is issued by the regularly constituted central or executive committee of a political party that is organized as provided in this chapter, it shall be sufficiently identified if it bears the name of the committee and its chairperson or treasurer.

~~(10)~~(C) If more than one piece of printed matter or printed political communications are mailed as a single packet, the requirements of division ~~(A)~~(B) of this section are met if one of the pieces of printed matter or printed political communications in the packet contains the name ~~and residence or business address of the chairperson, treasurer, or secretary~~ of the organization or entity that issues or is responsible for the printed matter or other printed political communications, except that if a campaign committee or legislative campaign fund mails more than one piece of printed matter or printed political communications as a single packet, the requirements of division (A) of this section are met if one of the pieces of printed matter or printed political communications in the packet contains the name of the campaign committee or legislative campaign fund.

~~(11)~~(D) This section does not apply to the transmittal of personal correspondence that is not reproduced by machine for general distribution.

~~(12)~~(E) The secretary of state, by rule, may exempt from the requirements of this section, printed matter and certain other kinds of printed communications such as campaign buttons, balloons, pencils, or similar items, the size or nature of which makes it unreasonable to add an identification or disclaimer.

~~(13)~~(F) The disclaimer or identification described in division ~~(A)~~(B) of this section, when paid for by a candidate, legislative campaign fund, or campaign committee, shall be identified by the words "paid for by" followed by the name of the entity. The identification or disclaimer may use reasonable abbreviations for common terms such as "committee".

(B)(1) No candidate, campaign committee, legislative campaign fund, political party, political action committee, limited political action committee, political contributing entity, limited political contributing entity, or other entity shall utter or cause to be uttered, over the broadcasting facilities of any radio or television station within this state, any communication that is designed to promote the nomination, election, or defeat of a candidate, or the adoption or defeat of an issue or to influence the voters in an election, unless the speaker identifies the speaker with the speaker's name and residence address or unless the communication identifies the chairperson, treasurer, or secretary of the organization responsible for the communication with the name and residence or business address of that officer, except that communications by radio need not broadcast the residence or business address of the officer. However, a radio station, for a period of at least six months, shall keep the residence or business address on file and divulge it to any person upon request.

The disclaimer "paid political advertisement" is not sufficient to meet the requirements of this section.

(G)(1) No person operating a broadcast station or an organ of printed media shall broadcast or print a paid political communication that does not contain the identification required by this section.

(2) Division (B)(1)(c) of this section does not apply to any communications made on behalf of a radio or television station or network by any employee of such radio or television station or network while acting in the course of the employee's employment.

~~(3)~~(H) No candidate or entity ~~described in division (B)(1) of this section~~ shall use or cause to be used a false, fictitious, or fraudulent name or address in the making or issuing of a publication or communication included within the provisions of this section.

(C) No candidate, campaign committee, legislative campaign fund, political party, political action committee, limited political action committee, political contributing entity, limited political contributing entity, or other person or entity shall conduct a telephone bank for the purpose of promoting the nomination, election, or defeat of a candidate or the adoption or defeat of an issue or to influence the voters in an election, unless the call includes a disclaimer that identifies the name of the candidate, campaign committee, legislative campaign fund, political party, political action committee, limited political action committee, political contributing entity, limited political contributing entity, or other person or entity paying for the telephone bank.

~~(D)~~(I) Before a prosecution may commence under this section, a complaint shall be filed with the Ohio elections commission under section 3517.153 of the Revised Code. After the complaint is filed, the commission shall proceed in accordance with sections 3517.154 to 3517.157 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 3701.132. ~~The department of health is hereby designated as the state agency to administer~~ As used in this section, "WIC program" means the "special supplemental nutrition program for women, infants, and children" established under the "Child Nutrition Act of 1966," 80 Stat. 885, 42 U.S.C. 1786, as amended. ~~The~~

The department of health is hereby designated as the state agency to administer the WIC program. The director of health may adopt rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as necessary for administering the WIC program. The rules may include civil money penalties for violations of the rules.

In determining eligibility for services provided under the WIC program, the department may use the application form established under section ~~5111.013~~ 5163.40 of the Revised Code for the healthy start program. The department may require applicants to furnish their social security numbers.

If the department determines that a vendor has committed an act with respect to the WIC program that federal statutes or regulations or state statutes or rules prohibit, the department shall take action against the vendor in the manner required by 7 C.F.R. part 246, including imposition of a civil money penalty in accordance with 7 C.F.R. 246.12, or rules adopted under this section.

Sec. 3701.34. (A) The Ohio public health advisory board shall review and make recommendations to the director of health on all of the following:

(1) Developing and adopting proposed rules under Chapters 3701 and 3717 of the Administrative Code;

(2) Prescribing proposed fees for services provided by the office of vital statistics and the bureau of environmental health;

(3) Any proposed policy changes that pertain to entities serving or seeking to serve as vendors under the WIC program, as defined in section 3701.132 of the Revised Code, that are not addressed pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section.

(4) Issues to improve public health and increase awareness of public health issues at the state level, local level, or both;

~~(4)~~(5) Any other public health issues that the director requests the board to consider.

(B) ~~In making recommendations to the director under~~ For purposes of division (A)(1) of this section, all of the following apply:

(1) Prior to filing a proposed rule with the joint committee on agency rule review, the department of health shall provide each board member with a copy of the proposed rule, copies of public comments received by the department during the public comment period, and written evidence of stakeholder involvement.

(2) Prior to board meetings, copies of proposed rules shall be provided to members. On request of a member, the department shall ensure that appropriate department employees attend board meetings to answer questions concerning proposed rules.

(3)(a) Not later than sixty days after receiving a copy of a proposed rule, the board shall recommend approval or disapproval of the rule and submit its recommendation by board action to the director. In making its recommendation, the board may consider public comments provided to the department or the board.

(b) If the board fails to make a recommendation within sixty days of receiving a copy of the proposed rule, the director may file the proposed rule.

(4) Except as provided in division (B)(3)(b) of this section, the director shall consider the board's recommendation before filing a proposed rule. On request of the board, the director shall meet with the board to discuss the board's recommendation.

(5) If the director disagrees with the board's recommendation, the director shall inform the board in writing of the director's decision and the reason for the decision prior to the next quarterly meeting. The director or the director's designee may meet with the board at the next quarterly meeting to answer questions regarding why the director disagreed with the board's recommendation.

~~(C)~~(6) To the extent the board believes that a proposed rule does not comply with requirements established by the joint committee on agency rule review or the common sense initiative office, nothing in this section prohibits the board, in carrying out its duties under division (A)(1) of this section, from contacting the joint committee on agency rule review or the common sense initiative office.

~~(D) In making recommendations under~~ (C) For purposes of division (A)(2) of this section ~~for prescribing proposed fees for services provided by the bureau of environmental health~~, the board and the department shall develop a cost methodology, subject to approval by the director, regarding proposed fees for services provided by the department's bureau of environmental health.

(D) For purposes of division (A)(3) of this section, a proposed WIC program policy change shall be treated as if it were a proposed rule subject to division (A)(1) of this section and the board and other entities involved in reviewing and making recommendations regarding the change may follow all or part of the procedures described in division (B) of this section.

(1) A proposed rule that is to be refiled with the joint committee on agency rule review solely because of technical or other nonsubstantive revisions;

(2) The emergency adoption, amendment, or rescission of a rule under division (F) of section 119.03 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 3701.74. (A) As used in this section and section 3701.741 of the Revised Code:

(1) "Ambulatory care facility" means a facility that provides medical, diagnostic, or surgical treatment to patients who do not require hospitalization, including a dialysis center, ambulatory surgical facility, cardiac catheterization facility, diagnostic imaging center, extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy center, home health agency, inpatient hospice, birthing center, radiation therapy center, emergency facility, and an urgent care center. "Ambulatory care facility" does not include the private office of a physician or dentist, whether the office is for an individual or group practice.

(2) "Chiropractor" means an individual licensed under Chapter 4734. of the Revised Code to practice chiropractic.

(3) "Emergency facility" means a hospital emergency department or any other facility that provides emergency medical services.

(a) A dentist or dental hygienist licensed under Chapter 4715. of the Revised Code;

(b) A registered or licensed practical nurse licensed under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code;

(d) A dispensing optician, spectacle dispensing optician, contact lens dispensing optician, or spectacle-contact lens dispensing optician licensed under Chapter 4725. of the Revised Code;

(g) A physician assistant authorized under Chapter 4730. of the Revised Code to practice as a physician assistant;

(h) A practitioner of a limited branch of medicine issued a certificate under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code;

(k) A hearing aid dealer or fitter licensed under Chapter 4747. of the Revised Code;

(l) A speech-language pathologist or audiologist licensed under Chapter 4753. of the Revised Code;

(m) An occupational therapist or occupational therapy assistant licensed under Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code;

(n) A physical therapist or physical therapy assistant licensed under Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code;

(o) A professional clinical counselor, professional counselor, social worker, or independent social worker licensed, or a social work assistant registered, under Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code;

(q) A respiratory care professional licensed under Chapter 4761. of the Revised Code;

(r) An emergency medical technician-basic, emergency medical technician-intermediate, or emergency medical technician-paramedic certified under Chapter 4765. of the Revised Code.

(5) "Health care provider" means a hospital, ambulatory care facility, long-term care facility, pharmacy, emergency facility, or health care practitioner.

(7) "Long-term care facility" means a nursing home, residential care facility, or home for the aging, as those terms are defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code; a residential facility licensed under section 5119.34 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen unrelated adults; a nursing facility, as defined in section 5165.01 of the Revised Code; a skilled nursing facility, as defined in section 5165.01 of the Revised Code; and an intermediate care facility for individuals with intellectual disabilities, as defined in section 5124.01 of the Revised Code.

(8) "Medical record" means data in any form that pertains to a patient's medical history, diagnosis, prognosis, or medical condition and that is generated and maintained by a health care provider in the process of the patient's health care treatment.

(9) "Medical records company" means a person who stores, locates, or copies medical records for a health care provider, or is compensated for doing so by a health care provider, and charges a fee for providing medical records to a patient or patient's representative.

(a) An individual who received health care treatment from a health care provider;

(b) A guardian, as defined in section 1337.11 of the Revised Code, of an individual described in division (A)(10)(a) of this section.

(11) "Patient's personal representative" means a minor patient's parent or other person acting in loco parentis, a court-appointed guardian, or a person with durable power of attorney for health care for a patient, the executor or administrator of the patient's estate, or the person responsible for the patient's estate if it is not to be probated. "Patient's personal representative" does not include an insurer authorized under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code to do the business of sickness and accident insurance in this state, a health insuring corporation holding a certificate of authority under Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code, or any other person not named in this division.

(13) "Physician" means a person authorized under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery, or podiatric medicine and surgery.

(14) "Authorized person" means a person to whom a patient has given written authorization to act on the patient's behalf regarding the patient's medical record.

(B) A patient, a patient's personal representative, or an authorized person who wishes to examine or obtain a copy of part or all of a medical record shall submit to the health care provider a written request signed by the patient, personal representative, or authorized person dated not more than one year before the date on which it is submitted. The request shall indicate whether the copy is to be sent to the requestor, physician or chiropractor, or held for the requestor at the office of the health care provider. Within a reasonable time after receiving a request that meets the requirements of this division and includes sufficient information to identify the record requested, a health care provider that has the patient's medical records shall permit the patient to examine the record during regular business hours without charge or, on request, shall provide a copy of the record in accordance with section 3701.741 of the Revised Code, except that if a physician or chiropractor who has treated the patient determines for clearly stated treatment reasons that disclosure of the requested record is likely to have an adverse effect on the patient, the health care provider shall provide the record to a physician or chiropractor designated by the patient. The health care provider shall take reasonable steps to establish the identity of the person making the request to examine or obtain a copy of the patient's record.

(C) If a health care provider fails to furnish a medical record as required by division (B) of this section, the patient, personal representative, or authorized person who requested the record may bring a civil action to enforce the patient's right of access to the record.

(D)(1) This section does not apply to medical records whose release is covered by section 173.20 or 3721.13 of the Revised Code, by Chapter 1347., 5119., or 5122. of the Revised Code, by 42 C.F.R. part 2, "Confidentiality of Alcohol and Drug Abuse Patient Records," or by 42 C.F.R. 483.10.

(2) Nothing in this section is intended to supersede the confidentiality provisions of sections 2305.24, 2305.25, 2305.251, and 2305.252 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 3701.83. ~~(A)~~ There is hereby created in the state treasury the general operations fund. Moneys in the fund shall be used for the purposes specified in sections 3701.04, 3701.344, 3702.20, 3710.15, 3711.16, 3717.45, 3718.06, 3721.02, 3721.022, 3729.07, 3733.43, 3748.04, 3748.05, 3748.07, 3748.12, 3748.13, 3749.04, 3749.07, 4747.04, and 4769.09 of the Revised Code.

(B) The alcohol testing program fund is hereby created in the state treasury. The director of health shall use the fund to administer and enforce the alcohol testing and permit program authorized by section 3701.143 of the Revised Code.

The fund shall receive transfers from the liquor control fund created under section 4301.12 of the Revised Code. All investment earnings of the alcohol testing program fund shall be credited to the fund.

Sec. 3702.511. (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this section, the following activities are reviewable under sections 3702.51 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code:

(1) Establishment, development, or construction of a new long-term care facility;

(3) Renovation of or addition to a long-term care facility that involves a capital expenditure of two million dollars or more, not including expenditures for equipment, staffing, or operational costs;

~~(b)~~(5) A relocation of long-term care beds from one physical facility or site to another, excluding relocation of beds within a long-term care facility or among buildings of a long-term care facility at the same site.

(5) Any change in the bed capacity or site, or any other failure to conduct a reviewable activity in substantial accordance with the approved application for which a certificate of need concerning long-term care beds was granted, if the change is made within five years after the implementation of the reviewable activity for which the certificate was granted;

(6) Expenditure of more than one hundred ten per cent of the maximum expenditure specified in a certificate of need concerning long-term care beds.

(B) The following activities are not subject to review under sections 3702.51 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code:

(4) Correction of cited deficiencies that constitute an imminent threat to public health or safety and are in violation of federal, state, or local fire, building, or safety statutes, ordinances, rules, or regulations;

(5) Acquisition of an existing long-term care facility that does not involve a change in the number of the beds;

(6) Mergers, consolidations, or other corporate reorganizations of long-term care facilities that do not involve a change in the number of beds;

(8) Construction of laundry facilities, waste disposal facilities, dietary department projects, heating and air conditioning projects, administrative offices, and portions of medical office buildings used exclusively for physician services;

Only that portion of a project that is described in this division is not reviewable.

Sec. 3702.52. The director of health shall administer a state certificate of need program in accordance with sections 3702.51 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code and rules adopted under those sections.

(A) The director shall issue rulings on whether a particular proposed project is a reviewable activity. The director shall issue a ruling not later than forty-five days after receiving a request for a ruling accompanied by the information needed to make the ruling. If the director does not issue a ruling in that time, the project shall be considered to have been ruled not a reviewable activity.

(B)(1) Each application for a certificate of need shall be submitted to the director on forms and in the manner prescribed by the director. Each application shall include a plan for obligating the capital expenditures or implementing the proposed project on a timely basis in accordance with section 3702.524 of the Revised Code. Each application shall also include all other information required by rules adopted under division (B) of section 3702.57 of the Revised Code.

(2) Each application shall be accompanied by the application fee established in rules adopted under division (G) of section 3702.57 of the Revised Code. Application fees received by the director under this division shall be deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the certificate of need fund, which is hereby created. The director shall use the fund only to pay the costs of administering sections 3702.11 to 3702.20, 3702.30, and 3702.51 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code and rules adopted under those sections. An application fee is nonrefundable unless the director determines that the application cannot be accepted.

(3) The director shall review applications for certificates of need. As part of a review, the director shall determine whether an application is complete. The director shall not consider an application to be complete unless the application meets all criteria for a complete application specified in rules adopted under section 3702.57 of the Revised Code. The director shall mail to the applicant a written notice that the application is complete, or a written request for additional information, not later than thirty days after receiving an application or a response to an earlier request for information. Except as provided in section 3702.522 of the Revised Code, the director shall not make more than two requests for additional information. The director's determination that an application is not complete is final and not subject to appeal.

(4) Except as necessary to comply with a subpoena issued under division (F) of this section, after a notice of completeness has been received, no person shall make revisions to information that was submitted to the director before the director mailed the notice of completeness or knowingly discuss in person or by telephone the merits of the application with the director. A person may supplement an application after a notice of completeness has been received by submitting clarifying information to the director.

(1) If the project proposed in a certificate of need application meets all of the applicable certificate of need criteria for approval under sections 3702.51 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code and the rules adopted under those sections, the director shall grant a certificate of need for all or part of the project that is the subject of the application by the applicable deadline specified in division (C)(4) of this section or any extension of it under division (C)(5) of this section.

(2) The director's grant of a certificate of need does not affect, and sets no precedent for, the director's decision to grant or deny other applications for similar reviewable activities.

(3) Any affected person may submit written comments regarding an application. The director shall consider all written comments received by the ~~thirtieth~~ forty-fifth day after ~~mailing the notice of completeness or, in the case of applications under comparative review, by the thirtieth day after~~ the application is submitted to the director ~~mails the last notice of completeness~~.

(4) Except as provided in division (C)(5) of this section, the director shall grant or deny certificate of need applications not later than sixty days after mailing the notice of completeness.

(5) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(6) of this section, the director or the applicant may extend the deadline prescribed in division (C)(4) of this section once, for no longer than thirty days, by written notice before the end of the deadline prescribed by division (C)(4) of this section. An extension by the director under division (C)(5) of this section shall apply to all applications that are in comparative review.

(6) No applicant in a comparative review may extend the deadline specified in division (C)(4) of this section.

(7) If the director does not grant or deny the certificate by the applicable deadline specified in division (C)(4) of this section or any extension of it under division (C)(5) of this section, the certificate shall be considered to have been granted.

(8) In granting a certificate of need, the director shall specify as the maximum capital expenditure the certificate holder may obligate under the certificate a figure equal to one hundred ten per cent of the approved project cost.

(9) In granting a certificate of need, the director may grant the certificate with conditions that must be met by the holder of the certificate.

(D) When a certificate of need is granted for a project under which beds are to be relocated, upon completion of the project for which the certificate of need was granted a number of beds equal to the number of beds relocated shall cease to be operated in the long-term care facility from which they are relocated, except that the beds may continue to be operated for not more than fifteen days to allow relocation of residents to the facility to which the beds have been relocated. Notwithstanding section 3721.03 of the Revised Code, if the relocated beds are in a home licensed under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, the facility's license is automatically reduced by the number of beds relocated effective fifteen days after the beds are relocated. If the beds are in a facility that is certified as a skilled nursing facility or nursing facility under Title XVIII or XIX of the "Social Security Act," the certification for the beds shall be surrendered. If the beds are registered under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as skilled nursing beds or long-term care beds, the director shall remove the beds from registration not later than fifteen days after the beds are relocated.

(E) ~~The director shall monitor the activities of persons granted certificates of need during~~ During the period beginning with the granting of ~~the~~ a certificate of need and ending five years after implementation of the reviewable activity for which the certificate was granted, the director shall monitor the activities of the person granted the certificate to determine whether the reviewable activity is conducted in substantial accordance with the certificate. A reviewable activity shall not be determined to be not in substantial accordance with the certificate of need solely because of a decrease in bed capacity.

(F) When reviewing applications for certificates of need, considering appeals under section 3702.60 of the Revised Code, or monitoring activities of persons granted certificates of need, the director may issue and enforce, in the manner provided in section 119.09 of the Revised Code, subpoenas and subpoenas duces tecum to compel a person to testify and produce documents relevant to review of the application, consideration of the appeal, or monitoring of the activities. In addition, the director or the director's designee may visit the sites where the activities are or will be conducted.

(H) All long-term care facilities shall submit to the director, upon request, any information prescribed by rules adopted under division (H) of section 3702.57 of the Revised Code that is necessary to conduct reviews of certificate of need applications and to develop criteria for reviews.

(I) Any decision to grant or deny a certificate of need shall consider the special needs and circumstances resulting from moral and ethical values and the free exercise of religious rights of long-term care facilities administered by religious organizations, and the special needs and circumstances of inner city and rural communities.

Sec. 3702.526. (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this section, the director of health shall accept an application for a replacement certificate of need for an activity described in division (A)~~(5)~~ of section 3702.511 of the Revised Code to replace an approved certificate of need ~~for that activity~~ if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The applicant requests the replacement certificate of need so that the reviewable activity for which the approved certificate of need was granted can be implemented in a manner that is not in substantial accordance with the approved certificate of need.

(2) The applicant is the same as the applicant for the approved certificate of need or an affiliated or related person as described in division (B) of section 3702.523 of the Revised Code.

~~(2)~~(3) The source of any long-term care beds to be relocated is the same as in the approved certificate of need.

~~(3)~~(4) The application for the approved certificate of need was not subject to comparative review under section 3702.593 of the Revised Code.

(B) The director shall not accept an application for a replacement certificate that proposes to increase the number of long-term care beds to be relocated specified in the application for the approved certificate of need.

(C) For the purpose of determining whether long-term care beds are from an existing long-term care facility, the director shall consider the date of filing of the application for a replacement certificate to be the same as the date of filing of the original application for the approved certificate of need.

(D) Any long-term care beds that were ~~approved~~ proposed to be relocated in the approved certificate of need remain ~~approved~~ eligible to be recategorized as a different category of long-term care beds in the application for a replacement certificate.

(E) The applicant shall submit with the application for a replacement certificate a nonrefundable fee equal to the application fee for the approved certificate of need.

(F) The director shall review and approve or deny the application for the replacement certificate in the same manner as the application for the approved certificate of need.

(G) Upon approval of the application for a replacement certificate, the original certificate of need is automatically voided.

Sec. 3702.59. (A) The director of health shall accept for review certificate of need applications as provided in sections 3702.592, 3702.593, and 3702.594 of the Revised Code.

(B)(1) The director shall not approve an application for a certificate of need for the addition of long-term care beds to an existing long-term care facility or for the development of a new long-term care facility if any of the following apply:

(a) The existing long-term care facility in which the beds are being placed has one or more waivers for life safety code deficiencies, one or more state fire code violations, or one or more state building code violations, and the project identified in the application does not propose to correct all life safety code deficiencies for which a waiver has been granted, all state fire code violations, and all state building code violations at the existing long-term care facility in which the beds are being placed;

(b) During the sixty-month period preceding the filing of the application, a notice of proposed license revocation was issued under section 3721.03 of the Revised Code for the existing long-term care facility in which the beds are being placed or a nursing home owned or operated by the applicant or a principal participant.

(c) During the period that precedes the filing of the application and is encompassed by the three most recent standard surveys of the existing long-term care facility in which the beds are being placed, any of the following occurred:

(i) The facility was cited on three or more separate occasions for final, nonappealable actual harm but not immediate jeopardy deficiencies.

(ii) The facility was cited on two or more separate occasions for final, nonappealable immediate jeopardy deficiencies.

(iii) The facility was cited on two separate occasions for final, nonappealable actual harm but not immediate jeopardy deficiencies and on one occasion for a final, nonappealable immediate jeopardy deficiency.

(d) More than two nursing homes owned or operated in this state by the applicant or a principal participant or, if the applicant or a principal participant owns or operates more than twenty nursing homes in this state, more than ten per cent of those nursing homes, were each cited during the period that precedes the filing of the application for the certificate of need and is encompassed by the three most recent standard surveys of the nursing homes that were so cited in any of the following manners:

(i) On three or more separate occasions for final, nonappealable actual harm but not immediate jeopardy deficiencies;

(ii) On two or more separate occasions for final, nonappealable immediate jeopardy deficiencies;

(iii) On two separate occasions for final, nonappealable actual harm but not immediate jeopardy deficiencies and on one occasion for a final, nonappealable immediate jeopardy deficiency.

(2) In applying divisions (B)(1)(a) to (d) of this section, the director shall not consider deficiencies or violations cited before the applicant or a principal participant acquired or began to own or operate the long-term care facility at which the deficiencies or violations were cited. The director may disregard deficiencies and violations cited after the long-term care facility was acquired or began to be operated by the applicant or a principal participant if the deficiencies or violations were attributable to circumstances that arose under the previous owner or operator and the applicant or principal participant has implemented measures to alleviate the circumstances. In the case of an application proposing development of a new long-term care facility by relocation of beds, the director shall not consider deficiencies or violations that were solely attributable to the physical plant of the existing long-term care facility from which the beds are being relocated.

(C) The director also shall accept for review any application for the conversion of infirmary beds to long-term care beds if the infirmary meets all of the following conditions:

(2) Provides care exclusively to members of religious orders who take vows of celibacy and live by virtue of their vows within the orders as if related;

(3) Was providing care exclusively to members of such a religious order on January 1, 1994.

(D) Notwithstanding division (C)(2) of this section, a facility that has been granted a certificate of need under division (C) of this section may provide care to any of the following family members of the individuals described in division (C)(2) of this section: mothers, fathers, brothers, sisters, brothers-in-law, sisters-in-law, or children. Such a facility may also provide care to any individual who has been designated an associate member by the religious order that operates the facility.

The long-term care beds in a facility that have been granted a certificate of need under division (C) of this section may not be relocated pursuant to sections 3702.592 to 3702.594 of the Revised Code.

(A) "Full-time practice" means working a minimum of forty hours per week for a minimum of forty-five weeks each service year.

(B) "Part-time practice" means working a minimum of twenty and a maximum of thirty-nine hours per week for a minimum of forty-five weeks per service year.

(C) "Primary care physician" means an individual who is authorized under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery and is board certified or board eligible in a primary care specialty.

~~(B)~~(D) "Primary care service" means professional comprehensive personal health services, which may include health education and disease prevention, treatment of uncomplicated health problems, diagnosis of chronic health problems, overall management of health care services for an individual or a family, and the services of a psychiatrist. "Primary care service" also includes providing the initial contact for health care services ~~and~~, making referrals for secondary and tertiary care and for continuity of health care services, and teaching activities to the extent specified in a contract entered into pursuant to section 3702.74 of the Revised Code.

~~(C)~~(E) "Primary care specialty" means general internal medicine, pediatrics, adolescent medicine, obstetrics and gynecology, psychiatry, child and adolescent psychiatry, geriatric psychiatry, combined internal medicine and pediatrics, geriatrics, or family practice.

(F) "Teaching activities" means providing clinical education to students and residents regarding the primary care physician's normal course of practice and expertise at the service site specified in the contract described in section 3702.74 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 3702.74. (A) A primary care physician who has signed a letter of intent under section 3702.73 of the Revised Code and the director of health may enter into a contract for the physician's participation in the physician loan repayment program. The physician's employer or other funding source may also be a party to the contract.

(1) The primary care physician agrees to provide primary care services in the health resource shortage area identified in the letter of intent for ~~at least two years~~ the number of hours and duration specified in the contract;

(2) When providing primary care services in the health resource shortage area, the primary care physician agrees to do all of the following:

(a) Provide primary care services ~~for a minimum of forty hours per week, of which at least twenty-one hours will be spent providing patient care~~ in an outpatient or ambulatory setting approved by the department of health;

(c) Meet the requirements for a medicaid provider agreement and enter into the agreement with the department of medicaid to provide primary care services to medicaid recipients.

(3) The department of health agrees, as provided in section 3702.75 of the Revised Code, to repay, so long as the primary care physician performs the service obligation agreed to under division (B)(1) of this section, all or part of the principal and interest of a government or other educational loan taken by the primary care physician for expenses described in section 3702.75 of the Revised Code;

(4) The primary care physician agrees to pay the department of health an amount established by rules adopted under section 3702.79 of the Revised Code if the physician fails to complete the service obligation agreed to under division (B)(1) of this section.

(C) The contract ~~may include any other terms agreed upon by the parties~~ shall include the following terms as agreed upon by the parties:

(1) The primary care physician's required length of service in the health resource shortage area, which must be at least two years;

(2) The number of weekly hours the primary care physician will be engaged in full-time practice or part-time practice in the health resource shortage area;

(3) The maximum amount that the department will repay on behalf of the primary care physician;

(4) The extent to which the primary care physician's teaching activities will be counted toward the physician's full-time practice or part-time practice hours under the contract.

(D) If the amount specified in division (C)(3) of this section includes funds from the bureau of clinician recruitment and service in the United States department of health and human services, the amount of state funds repaid on the individual's behalf shall be the same as the amount of those funds.

Sec. 3702.75. There is hereby created the physician loan repayment program. Under the program, the department of health, by means of a contract provision under division (B)(3) of section 3702.74 of the Revised Code, may agree to repay all or part of the principal and interest of a government or other educational loan taken by a primary care physician for the following expenses, so long as the expenses were incurred while the physician was enrolled in, for up to a maximum of four years, a medical school or osteopathic medical school in the United States that was, during the time enrolled, accredited by the liaison committee on medical education or the American osteopathic association, or a medical school or osteopathic medical school located outside the United States that was, during the time enrolled, acknowledged by the world health organization and verified by a member state of that organization as operating within the state's jurisdiction:

(B) Other educational expenses, such as fees, books, and laboratory expenses, for specific purposes and in amounts determined to be reasonable by the director of health;

In the first and second years, no repayment shall exceed twenty-five thousand dollars in each year. In the third and fourth years, no repayment shall exceed thirty-five thousand dollars in each year. If, however, a repayment results in an increase in the primary care physician's federal, state, or local income tax liability, at the physician's request, the department may reimburse the physician for the increased tax liability, regardless of the amount of the repayment made to the physician in that year.

Not later than the thirty-first day of January each year, the department shall mail to each physician to whom or on whose behalf repayment is made under this section a statement showing the amount repaid by the department pursuant to the contract in the preceding year. The statement shall be sent by ordinary mail with address correction and forwarding requested in the manner prescribed by the United States postal service.

(1) "Full-time practice" and "part-time practice" have the same meanings as in section 3702.71 of the Revised Code;

(2) "Teaching activities" means supervising dental students and dental residents at the service site specified in the letter of intent described in section 3702.90 of the Revised Code.

(B) An individual who has signed a letter of intent ~~under section 3702.90 of the Revised Code~~ may enter into a contract with the director of health for participation in the dentist loan repayment program. The dentist's employer or other funding source may also be a party to the contract.

(1) The individual agrees to provide dental services in the dental health resource shortage area identified in the letter of intent for ~~at least two years~~ the number of hours and duration specified in the contract.

(2) When providing dental services in the dental health resource shortage area, the individual agrees to do all of the following:

(a) Provide dental services ~~for a minimum of forty hours per week~~ in a service site approved by the department of health;

(c) Meet the requirements for a medicaid provider agreement and enter into the agreement with the department of medicaid to provide dental services to medicaid recipients.

(3) The department of health agrees, as provided in section 3702.85 of the Revised Code, to repay, so long as the individual performs the service obligation agreed to under division ~~(B)~~(C)(1) of this section, all or part of the principal and interest of a government or other educational loan taken by the individual for expenses described in section 3702.85 of the Revised Code.

(4) The individual agrees to pay the department of health an amount established by rules adopted under section 3702.86 of the Revised Code, if the individual fails to complete the service obligation agreed to under division ~~(B)~~(C)(1) of this section.

~~(C)~~(D) The contract ~~may~~ shall include ~~any other~~ the following terms as agreed upon by the parties:

(1) The individual's required length of service in the dental health resource shortage area, which must be at least two years;

(2) The number of weekly hours the individual will be engaged in full-time practice or part-time practice;

(3) The maximum amount that the department will repay on behalf of the individual;

(4) The extent to which the individual's teaching activities will be counted toward the individual's full-time practice or part-time practice hours under the contract.

(D) Not later than the thirty-first day of January of each year, the department of health shall mail to each individual to whom or on whose behalf repayment is made under the dentist loan repayment program a statement showing the amount of principal and interest repaid by the department pursuant to the contract in the preceding year. The statement shall be sent by ordinary mail with address correction and forwarding requested in the manner prescribed by the United States postal service.

(E) If the amount specified in division (D)(3) of this section includes funds from the bureau of clinician recruitment and service in the United States department of health and human services, the amount of state funds repaid on the individual's behalf shall be the same as the amount of those funds.

Sec. 3702.95. The director of health may accept gifts of money from any source for the implementation and administration of sections 3702.85 to ~~3702.93~~ 3702.92 of the Revised Code.

The director shall pay all gifts accepted under this section into the state treasury, to the credit of the dental health resource shortage area fund, which is hereby created, and all damages collected under division ~~(B)~~(C)(4) of section 3702.91 of the Revised Code, into the state treasury, to the credit of the dentist loan repayment fund, which is hereby created.

The director shall use the dental health resource shortage area and dentist loan repayment funds for the implementation and administration of sections 3702.85 to 3702.95 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 3721.02. (A) As used in this section, "residential facility" means a residential facility licensed under section 5119.34 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen unrelated adults.

(B)(1) The director of health shall license homes and establish procedures to be followed in inspecting and licensing homes. The director may inspect a home at any time. Each home shall be inspected by the director at least once prior to the issuance of a license and at least once every fifteen months thereafter. The state fire marshal or a township, municipal, or other legally constituted fire department approved by the marshal shall also inspect a home prior to issuance of a license, at least once every fifteen months thereafter, and at any other time requested by the director. A home does not have to be inspected prior to issuance of a license by the director, state fire marshal, or a fire department if ownership of the home is assigned or transferred to a different person and the home was licensed under this chapter immediately prior to the assignment or transfer. The director may enter at any time, for the purposes of investigation, any institution, residence, facility, or other structure that has been reported to the director or that the director has reasonable cause to believe is operating as a nursing home, residential care facility, or home for the aging without a valid license required by section 3721.05 of the Revised Code or, in the case of a county home or district home, is operating despite the revocation of its residential care facility license. The director may delegate the director's authority and duties under this chapter to any division, bureau, agency, or official of the department of health.

(2)(a) If, prior to issuance of a license, a home submits a request for an expedited licensing inspection and the request is submitted in a manner and form approved by the director, the director shall commence an inspection of the home not later than ten business days after receiving the request.

(b) On request, submitted in a manner and form approved by the director, the director may review plans for a building that is to be used as a home for compliance with applicable state and local building and safety codes.

(c) The director may charge a fee for an expedited licensing inspection or a plan review that is adequate to cover the expense of expediting the inspection or reviewing the plans. The fee shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the general operations fund created in section 3701.83 of the Revised Code and used solely for expediting inspections and reviewing plans.

(C) A single facility may be licensed both as a nursing home pursuant to this chapter and as a residential facility pursuant to section 5119.34 of the Revised Code if the director determines that the part or unit to be licensed as a nursing home can be maintained separate and discrete from the part or unit to be licensed as a residential facility.

(D) In determining the number of residents in a home for the purpose of licensing, the director shall consider all the individuals for whom the home provides accommodations as one group unless one of the following is the case:

(1) The home is a home for the aging, in which case all the individuals in the part or unit licensed as a nursing home shall be considered as one group, and all the individuals in the part or unit licensed as a rest home shall be considered as another group.

(2) The home is both a nursing home and a residential facility. In that case, all the individuals in the part or unit licensed as a nursing home shall be considered as one group, and all the individuals in the part or unit licensed as an adult care facility shall be considered as another group.

(3) The home maintains, in addition to a nursing home or residential care facility, a separate and discrete part or unit that provides accommodations to individuals who do not require or receive skilled nursing care and do not receive personal care services from the home, in which case the individuals in the separate and discrete part or unit shall not be considered in determining the number of residents in the home if the separate and discrete part or unit is in compliance with the Ohio basic building code established by the board of building standards under Chapters 3781. and 3791. of the Revised Code and the home permits the director, on request, to inspect the separate and discrete part or unit and speak with the individuals residing there, if they consent, to determine whether the separate and discrete part or unit meets the requirements of this division.

(E)(1) The director of health shall charge the following application fee and annual renewal licensing and inspection fee for each fifty persons or part thereof of a home's licensed capacity:

(2) All fees collected by the director for the issuance or renewal of licenses shall be deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the general operations fund created in section 3701.83 of the Revised Code for use only in administering and enforcing this chapter and rules adopted under it.

(F)(1) Except as otherwise provided in this section, the results of an inspection or investigation of a home that is conducted under this section, including any statement of deficiencies and all findings and deficiencies cited in the statement on the basis of the inspection or investigation, shall be used solely to determine the home's compliance with this chapter or another chapter of the Revised Code in any action or proceeding other than an action commenced under division (I) of section 3721.17 of the Revised Code. Those results of an inspection or investigation, that statement of deficiencies, and the findings and deficiencies cited in that statement shall not be used in any court or in any action or proceeding that is pending in any court and are not admissible in evidence in any action or proceeding unless that action or proceeding is an appeal of an action by the department of health under this chapter or is an action by any department or agency of the state to enforce this chapter or another chapter of the Revised Code.

(2) Nothing in division ~~(E)~~(F)(1) of this section prohibits the results of an inspection or investigation conducted under this section from being used in a criminal investigation or prosecution.

Sec. 3721.122. Before an individual is admitted as a resident to a home, the home's administrator shall search for the individual's name in the internet-based sex offender and child-victim offender database established under division (A)(11) of section 2950.13 of the Revised Code. If the search results identify the individual as a sex offender and the individual is admitted as a resident to the home, the administrator shall provide for the home to do all of the following:

(A) Develop a plan of care to protect the other residents' rights to a safe environment and to be free from abuse;

(B) Notify all of the home's other residents and their sponsors that a sex offender has been admitted as a resident to the home and include in the notice a description of the plan of care developed under division (A) of this section;

(C) Direct the individual in updating the individual's address under section 2950.05 of the Revised Code and, if the individual is unable to do so without assistance, provide the assistance the individual needs to update the individual's address under that section.

Sec. 3730.09. (A) Each operator of a business that offers tattooing or body piercing services shall do all of the following:

(1) Maintain procedures for ensuring that the individuals who perform tattooing or body piercing procedures are adequately trained to perform the procedures properly;

(2) With respect to tattooing services, maintain written records that include the color, manufacturer, and lot number of each pigment used for each tattoo performed;

(3) Comply with the safety and sanitation requirements for preventing transmission of infectious diseases, as established in rules adopted under section 3730.10 of the Revised Code;

(4) ~~Require the individuals who perform tattooing and body piercing procedures to disinfect and sterilize~~ Ensure that all invasive equipment or parts of equipment used in performing ~~the~~ tattooing and body piercing procedures are disinfected and sterilized by using methods that meet the disinfection and sterilization requirements established in rules adopted under section 3730.10 of the Revised Code;

(5) Ensure that weekly tests of the business's heat sterilization devices are performed to determine whether the devices are functioning properly. In having the devices tested, the operator of the business shall use a biological monitoring system that indicates whether the devices are killing microorganisms. If a test indicates that a device is not functioning properly, the operator shall take immediate remedial action to ensure that heat sterilization is being accomplished. The operator shall maintain documentation that the weekly tests are being performed. To comply with the documentation requirement, the documents must consist of a log that indicates the date on which each test is performed and the name of the person who performed the test or, if a test was conducted by an independent testing entity, a copy of the entity's testing report. The operator shall maintain records of each test performed for at least two years.

(B) Each operator of a business that offers ear piercing services performed with an ear piercing gun shall require the individuals who perform the ear piercing services to disinfect and sterilize the ear piercing gun by using chemical solutions that meet the disinfection and sterilization requirements established in rules adopted under section 3730.10 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 3735.31. A metropolitan housing authority created under sections 3735.27 to 3735.50 of the Revised Code, constitutes a body corporate and politic. Nothing in this chapter shall limit the authority of a metropolitan housing authority, or a nonprofit corporation formed by a metropolitan housing authority to carry out its functions, to compete for and perform federal housing contracts or grants within or outside this state. To clear, plan, and rebuild slum areas within the district in which the authority is created, to provide safe and sanitary housing accommodations to families of low income within that district, or to accomplish any combination of the foregoing purposes, the authority may do any of the following:

(A) Sue and be sued; have a seal; have corporate succession; receive grants from state, federal, or other governments, or from private sources; conduct investigations into housing and living conditions; enter any buildings or property in order to conduct its investigations; conduct examinations, subpoena, and require the attendance of witnesses and the production of books and papers; issue commissions for the examination of witnesses who are out of the state or unable to attend before the authority or excused from attendance; and in connection with these powers, any member of the authority may administer oaths, take affidavits, and issue subpoenas;

(B) Determine what areas constitute slum areas, and prepare plans for housing projects in those areas; purchase, lease, sell, exchange, transfer, assign, or mortgage any property, real or personal, or any interest in that property, or acquire the same by gift, bequest, or eminent domain; own, hold, clear, and improve property; provide and set aside housing projects, or dwelling units comprising portions of housing projects, designed especially for the use of families, the head of which or the spouse of which is sixty-five years of age or older; engage in, or contract for, the construction, reconstruction, alteration, or repair, or both, of any housing project or part of any housing project; include in any contract let in connection with a project, stipulations requiring that the contractor and any subcontractors comply with requirements as to minimum wages and maximum hours of labor, and comply with any conditions that the federal government has attached to its financial aid of the project; lease or operate, or both, any project, and establish or revise schedules of rents for any projects or part of any project; arrange with the county or municipal corporations, or both, for the planning and replanning of streets, alleys, and other public places or facilities in connection with any area or project; borrow money upon its notes, debentures, or other evidences of indebtedness, and secure the same by mortgages upon property held or to be held by it, or by pledge of its revenues, or in any other manner; invest any funds held in reserves or sinking funds or not required for immediate disbursements; execute contracts and all other instruments necessary or convenient to the exercise of the powers granted in this section; make, amend, and repeal bylaws and rules to carry into effect its powers and purposes;

(C) Borrow money or accept grants or other financial assistance from the federal government for or in aid of any housing project within its territorial limits; take over or lease or manage any housing project or undertaking constructed or owned by the federal government; comply with any conditions and enter into any mortgages, trust indentures, leases, or agreements that are necessary, convenient, or desirable;

(D) Subject to section 3735.311 of the Revised Code, employ a police force to protect the lives and property of the residents of housing projects within the district, to preserve the peace in the housing projects, and to enforce the laws, ordinances, and regulations of this state and its political subdivisions in the housing projects and, when authorized by law, outside the limits of the housing projects.

(E) Enter into an agreement with a county, municipal corporation, or township in whose jurisdiction the metropolitan housing authority is located that permits metropolitan housing authority police officers employed under division (D) of this section to exercise full arrest powers as provided in section 2935.03 of the Revised Code, perform any police function, exercise any police power, or render any police service within specified areas of the county, municipal corporation, or township for the purpose of preserving the peace and enforcing all laws of the state, ordinances of the municipal corporation, or regulations of the township.

Sec. 3737.02. (A) The fire marshal may collect fees to cover the costs of performing inspections and other duties that the fire marshal is authorized or required by law to perform. Except as provided in division (B) of this section, all fees collected by the fire marshal shall be deposited to the credit of the fire marshal's fund.

(B)(1) All of the following shall be credited to the underground storage tank administration fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury:

~~(1)~~(a) Fees collected under sections 3737.88 and 3737.881 of the Revised Code for operation of the underground storage tank and underground storage tank installer certification programs;

~~(2)~~(b) Moneys recovered under section 3737.89 of the Revised Code for the state's costs of undertaking corrective or enforcement actions under that section or section 3737.882 of the Revised Code;

~~(3)~~(c) Fines and penalties collected under section 3737.882 of the Revised Code;

~~(4) Amounts repaid for underground storage tank revolving loans under section 3737.883~~ and other moneys, including corrective action enforcement case settlements or bankruptcy case awards or settlements, received by the fire marshal under sections 3737.88 to 3737.89 of the Revised Code.

~~(C)~~(2) All interest earned on moneys credited to the underground storage tank administration fund shall be credited to the fund. Moneys credited to the underground storage tank administration fund shall be used by the fire marshal for implementation and enforcement of underground storage tank, corrective action, and installer certification programs under sections 3737.88 to 3737.89 of the Revised Code. Only moneys described in divisions (B)(3) and (4) of this section may be used by the fire marshal to make underground storage tank revolving loans under section 3737.883 of the Revised Code, and no other moneys may be used to make those loans.

~~(D)~~(C) There is hereby created in the state treasury the underground storage tank revolving loan fund. The fund shall consist of amounts repaid for underground storage tank revolving loans under section 3737.883 of the Revised Code and moneys described in division (B)(1)(c) of this section that are allocated to the fund in accordance with division (D)(1) of this section. Moneys in the fund shall be used by the fire marshal to make underground storage tank revolving loans under section 3737.883 of the Revised Code.

(D)(1) If the director of commerce determines that the cash balance in the underground storage tank administration fund is in excess of the amount needed for implementation and enforcement of the underground storage tank, corrective action, and installer certification programs under sections 3737.88 to 3737.89 of the Revised Code, the director may certify the excess amount to the director of budget and management. Upon certification, the director of budget and management may transfer from the underground storage tank administration fund to the underground storage tank revolving loan fund any amount up to, but not exceeding, the amount certified by the director of commerce, provided the amount transferred consists only of moneys described in division (B)(1)(c) of this section.

(2) If the director of commerce determines that the cash balance in the underground storage tank administration fund is insufficient to implement and enforce the underground storage tank, corrective action, and installer certification programs under sections 3737.88 to 3737.89 of the Revised Code, the director may certify the amount needed to the director of budget and management. Upon certification, the director of budget and management may transfer from the underground storage tank revolving loan fund to the underground storage tank administration fund any amount up to, but not exceeding, the amount certified by the director of commerce.

(E) The fire marshal shall take all actions necessary to obtain any federal funding available to carry out the fire marshal's responsibilities under sections 3737.88 to 3737.89 of the Revised Code and federal laws regarding the cleaning up of releases of petroleum, as "release" is defined in section 3737.87 of the Revised Code, including, without limitation, any federal funds that are available to reimburse the state for the costs of undertaking corrective actions for such releases of petroleum. The state may, when appropriate, return to the United States any federal funds recovered under sections 3737.882 and 3737.89 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 3745.71. (A) Except as otherwise provided in division (C) of this section, the owner or operator of a facility or property who conducts an environmental audit of one or more activities at the facility or property has a privilege with respect to both of the following:

(2) The contents of communications between the owner or operator and employees or contractors of the owner or operator, or among employees or contractors of the owner or operator, that are necessary to the audit and are made in good faith as part of the audit after the employee or contractor is notified that the communication is part of the audit.

(B) Except as otherwise provided in or ordered pursuant to this section, information that is privileged under this section is not admissible as evidence or subject to discovery in any civil or administrative proceeding and a person who possesses such information as a result of conducting or participating in an environmental audit shall not be compelled to testify in any civil or administrative proceeding concerning the privileged portions of the environmental audit.

(C) The privilege provided in this section does not apply to criminal investigations or proceedings. Where an audit report is obtained, reviewed, or used in a criminal proceeding, the privilege provided in this section applicable to civil or administrative proceedings is not waived or eliminated. Furthermore, the privilege provided in this section does not apply to particular information under any of the following circumstances:

(1) The privilege is not asserted with respect to that information by the owner or operator to whom the privilege belongs.

(2) The owner or operator to whom the privilege belongs voluntarily testifies, or has provided written authorization to an employee, contractor, or agent to testify on behalf of the owner or operator, as to that information.

(3) A court of record in a civil proceeding or the tribunal or presiding officer in an administrative proceeding finds, pursuant to this section, that the privilege does not apply to that information.

(4) The information is required by law to be collected, developed, maintained, reported, disclosed publicly, or otherwise made available to a government agency.

(5) The information is obtained from a source other than an environmental audit report, including, without limitation, observation, sampling, monitoring, a communication, a record, or a report that is not part of the audit on which the audit report is based.

(6) The information is collected, developed, made, or maintained in bad faith or for a fraudulent purpose.

(7) The owner or operator to whom the privilege belongs waives the privilege, in whole or in part, explicitly or by engaging in conduct that manifests a clear intent that the information not be privileged. If an owner or operator introduces part of an environmental audit report into evidence in a civil or administrative proceeding to prove that the owner or operator did not violate, or is no longer violating, any environmental laws, the privilege provided by this section is waived with respect to all information in the audit report that is relevant to that issue.

(8)(a) The information shows evidence of noncompliance with environmental laws and the owner or operator fails to do any of the following:

(i) Promptly initiate reasonable efforts to achieve compliance upon discovery of the noncompliance through an environmental audit;

(b) "Reasonable diligence" includes, without limitation, compliance with section 3745.72 of the Revised Code.

(9) The information contains evidence that a government agency federally authorized, approved, or delegated to enforce environmental laws has reasonable cause to believe is necessary to prevent imminent and substantial endangerment or harm to human health or the environment.

(a) The information contains evidence regarding an alleged violation of environmental laws and a government agency charged with enforcing any of those laws has a substantial need for the information to protect public health or safety or to prevent substantial harm to property or the environment.

(b) The government agency is unable to obtain the substantial equivalent of the information by other means without unreasonable delay or expense.

(11) The information consists of personal knowledge of an individual who did not obtain that information as part of an environmental audit.

(12) The information is not clearly identified as part of an environmental audit report. For purposes of this section, clear identification of information as part of an environmental audit report includes, without limitation, either of the following:

(a) The information is contained in a document and the front cover, the first page, or a comparable part of the document is prominently labeled with "environmental audit report: privileged information" or substantially comparable language.

(b) The information is contained in an electronic record and the record is programmed to display or print prominently "environmental audit report: privileged information" or substantially comparable language before the privileged information is displayed or printed.

(13) The information existed prior to the initiation of the environmental audit under division (A) of section 3745.70 of the Revised Code.

(D) If the privilege provided in this section belongs to an owner or operator who is not an individual, the privilege may be asserted or waived, in whole or in part, on behalf of the owner or operator only by an officer, manager, partner, or other comparable person who has a fiduciary relationship with the owner or operator and is authorized generally to act on behalf of the owner or operator or is a person who is authorized specifically to assert or waive the privilege.

(E) A person asserting the privilege provided in this section has the burden of proving the applicability of the privilege by a preponderance of the evidence. If a person seeking disclosure of information with respect to which a privilege is asserted under this section shows evidence of noncompliance with environmental laws pursuant to division (C)(8) of this section, the person asserting the privilege also has the burden of proving by a preponderance of the evidence that reasonable efforts to achieve compliance with those laws were initiated promptly and that compliance was pursued with reasonable diligence and achieved within a reasonable time.

(F) When determining whether the privilege provided by this section applies to particular information, a court of record that is not acting pursuant to division (G) of this section, or the tribunal or presiding officer in an administrative proceeding, shall conduct an in camera review of the information in a manner consistent with applicable rules of procedure.

(G)(1) The prosecuting attorney of a county or the attorney general, having probable cause to believe, based on information obtained from a source other than an environmental audit report, that a violation has been committed under environmental laws for which a civil or administrative action may be initiated, may obtain information with respect to which a privilege is asserted under this section pursuant to a search warrant, subpoena, or discovery under the Rules of Civil Procedure. The prosecuting attorney or the attorney general immediately shall place the information under seal and shall not review or disclose its contents.

(2) Not later than sixty days after receiving an environmental audit report under division (G)(1) of this section, the prosecuting attorney or the attorney general may file with the court of common pleas of a county in which there is proper venue to bring a civil or administrative action pertaining to the alleged violation a petition requesting an in camera hearing to determine if the information described in division (G)(1) of this section is subject to disclosure under this section. Failure to file such a petition shall cause the information to be released to the owner or operator to whom it belongs.

(3) Upon the filing of a petition under division (G)(2) of this section, the court shall issue an order scheduling an in camera hearing, not later than forty-five days after the filing of the petition, to determine if any or all of the information described in division (G)(1) of this section is subject to disclosure under this section. The order shall allow the prosecuting attorney or the attorney general to remove the seal from the report in order to review it and shall place appropriate limitations on distribution and review of the report to protect against unnecessary disclosure.

(4) The prosecuting attorney or the attorney general may consult with government agencies regarding the contents of the report to prepare for the in camera hearing. Information described in division (G)(1) of this section that is used by the prosecuting attorney or the attorney general to prepare for the in camera hearing shall not be used by the prosecuting attorney, the attorney general, an employee or agent of either of them, or an agency described in division (G)(4) of this section in any investigation or proceeding against the respondent, and otherwise shall be kept confidential, unless the information is subject to disclosure under this section.

(5) The parties may stipulate that information contained in an environmental audit report is or is not subject to disclosure under this section.

(6) If the court determines that information described in division (G)(1) of this section is subject to disclosure under this section, the court shall compel disclosure under this section of only the information that is relevant to the proceeding described in division (G)(1) of this section.

(H) Nothing in this section affects the nature, scope, or application of any privilege of confidentiality or nondisclosure recognized under another section of the Revised Code or the common law of this state, including, without limitation, the work product doctrine and attorney-client privilege.

(I) The privilege provided by this section applies only to information and communications that are part of environmental audits initiated after March 13, 1997, ~~and completed before January 1, 2014,~~ in accordance with the time frames specified in division (A) of section 3745.70 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 3772.02. (A) There is hereby created the Ohio casino control commission described in Section 6(C)(1) of Article XV, Ohio Constitution.

(B) The commission shall consist of seven members appointed within one month of ~~the effective date of this section~~ September 10, 2010, by the governor with the advice and consent of the senate. The governor shall forward all appointments to the senate within twenty-four hours.

(1) Each commission member is eligible for reappointment at the discretion of the governor. No commission member shall be appointed for more than three terms in total.

(3) At least one commission member shall be experienced in law enforcement and criminal investigation.

(4) At least one commission member shall be a certified public accountant experienced in accounting and auditing.

(5) At least one commission member shall be an attorney admitted to the practice of law in Ohio.

(6) At least one commission member shall be a resident of a county where one of the casino facilities is located.

(8) No commission member shall have any affiliation with an Ohio casino operator or facility.

(C) Commission members shall serve four-year terms, except that when the governor makes initial appointments to the commission under this chapter, the governor shall appoint three members to serve four-year terms with not more than two such members from the same political party, two members to serve three-year terms with such members not being from the same political party, and two members to serve two-year terms with such members not being from the same political party.

(D) Each commission member shall hold office from the date of appointment until the end of the term for which the member was appointed. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring before the expiration of the term for which the member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the remainder of the unexpired term. Any member shall continue in office after the expiration date of the member's term until the member's successor takes office, or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, whichever occurs first. A vacancy in the commission membership shall be filled in the same manner as the original appointment.

(E) The governor shall select one member to serve as chairperson and the commission members shall select one member from a different party than the chairperson to serve as vice-chairperson. The governor may remove and replace the chairperson at any time. No such member shall serve as chairperson for more than six successive years. The vice-chairperson shall assume the duties of the chairperson in the absence of the chairperson. The chairperson and vice-chairperson shall perform but shall not be limited to additional duties as are prescribed by commission rule.

(F) A commission member is not required to devote the member's full time to membership on the commission. Each member of the commission shall receive compensation of ~~sixty~~ thirty thousand dollars per year, payable in monthly installments ~~for the first four years of the commission's existence~~. Each member shall receive the member's actual and necessary expenses incurred in the discharge of the member's official duties.

(G) The governor shall not appoint an individual to the commission, and an individual shall not serve on the commission, if the individual has been convicted of or pleaded guilty or no contest to a disqualifying offense as defined in section 3772.07 of the Revised Code. Members coming under indictment or bill of information of a disqualifying offense shall resign from the commission immediately upon indictment.

(H) At least five commission members shall be present for the commission to meet. The concurrence of four members is necessary for the commission to take any action. All members shall vote on the adoption of rules, and the approval of, and the suspension or revocation of, the licenses of casino operators or management companies, unless a member has a written leave of absence filed with and approved by the chairperson.

(I) A commission member may be removed or suspended from office in accordance with section 3.04 of the Revised Code.

(J) Each commission member, before entering upon the discharge of the member's official duties, shall make an oath to uphold the Ohio Constitution and laws of the state of Ohio and shall give a bond, payable by the commission, to the treasurer of state, in the sum of ten thousand dollars with sufficient sureties to be approved by the treasurer of state, which bond shall be filed with the secretary of state.

(K) The commission shall hold one regular meeting each month and shall convene other meetings at the request of the chairperson or a majority of the members. A member who fails to attend at least three-fifths of the regular and special meetings of the commission during any two-year period forfeits membership on the commission. All meetings of the commission shall be open meetings under section 121.22 of the Revised Code except as otherwise allowed by law.

Sec. 4121.02. (A) There is hereby created the industrial commission. The commission shall consist of three members appointed by the governor, with the advice and consent of the senate. One member shall be an individual who, on account of the individual's previous vocation, employment, or affiliations, can be classed as a representative of employers; one shall be an individual who, on account of the individual's previous vocation, employment, or affiliations, can be classed as a representative of employees; and one shall be an individual who, on account of the individual's previous vocation, employment, or affiliations, can be classed as a representative of the public. Each member shall have six or more years of recognized expertise in the field of workers' compensation, and at least one member shall be an attorney registered to practice law in this state. No more than two members of the industrial commission shall belong to or be affiliated with the same political party.

(B) Within thirty days after the industrial commission nominating council submits its list to the governor under division (D) of this section, the governor shall make initial appointments to the commission. Of the initial appointments, the member who is a representative of employees shall serve a term ending on June 30, 1995; the member who is a representative of employers shall serve a term ending on June 30, 1997; and the member who is a representative of the public shall serve a term ending on June 30, 1999. Thereafter, terms of office are for six years, beginning on the first day of July and ending on the thirtieth day of June.

(C) Each member shall hold office from the date of the member's confirmation by the senate, as provided in division (E) of this section, until the end of the term for which the member was appointed, except that if a member has not been appointed by the end of the term, the member shall remain in office until the member's successor takes office, or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, whichever occurs first. However, if a member is appointed to fill a full term subsequent to an initial appointment, the term of office is as provided in division (B) of this section. The governor shall not appoint any person to more than two full six-year terms of office on the commission. This restriction does not prevent the governor from appointing a person to fill a vacancy caused by death, resignation, or removal of a commission member, or from appointing that person twice to full terms on the commission, or from appointing a person previously appointed to fill less than a full term twice to full terms on the commission. Except for the public member's tenure as chairperson of the self-insuring employer's evaluation board, a member of the commission shall hold no other ~~public~~ office ~~or position~~ of trust or profit, engage in any other occupation or business, or serve on any committee of any political party and shall devote full time to the member's duties as a member of the commission.

(D) In making appointments to the commission, the governor shall select the members from the list of the names submitted by the industrial commission nominating council pursuant to this division. Within thirty days after ~~the effective date of this section~~ October 20, 1993, the nominating council shall submit to the governor for the initial appointments a list containing three separate names for the employer, employee, and public members to be filled. Within seven days of the submission of the initial list, the governor shall either appoint individuals from the list or request the nominating council to submit another list of three names for each member the governor has not appointed from the original list, which list the nominating council shall submit to the governor within seven days of the governor's request. The governor then shall appoint, within seven days of the submission of the second list, individuals from either list to fill each position for which the governor has not made an appointment from the original list. Thereafter, within sixty days of a vacancy occurring as a result of the expiration of a term and within thirty days after other vacancies occurring on the commission, the nominating council shall submit an initial list containing three names for each vacancy. Within seven days of the submission of the initial list, the governor shall either appoint individuals from the list or request the nominating council to submit another list of three names for each member the governor has not appointed from the original list, which list the nominating council shall submit to the governor within fourteen days of the governor's request. The governor then shall appoint, within seven days of the submission of the second list, one of the individuals from either list to fill the vacancy for which the governor has not made an appointment from the original list. In order for a name of an individual to be submitted to the governor under this division, the nominating council shall approve the individual by an affirmative vote of not less than two-thirds of its members.

(E) The governor shall notify the senate of the names of the individuals for whom the governor is making the initial appointments to the commission within thirty days after the submission of the names to the governor by the industrial commission nominating council under division (D) of this section. For appointments subsequent to the initial appointments under this division, if the appointment is to fill a member's term which is to expire, the governor shall notify the senate of the name of the individual to be appointed to fill that position by no later than the first day of June of the year that the term is to expire. For subsequent appointments to fill a vacancy on the commission occurring as a result of the death, resignation, or removal of the commission member, the governor shall notify the senate of the name of the individual to be appointed to fill the remainder of that term within thirty days after the submission of the names to the governor by the nominating council under division (D) of this section. For all appointments, the senate shall refer the matter to an appropriate standing committee for consideration of the appointments, and the committee shall hold a public hearing to consider the appointments. After conclusion of the public hearing, the standing committee shall make its recommendations to the senate. The senate shall not confirm any appointee if the individual does not meet the qualifications of division (A) of this section or if the individual has not been approved by the industrial commission nominating council as provided in division (D) of this section. If the full senate fails to take a final vote on an appointment within thirty days after the governor submits the names to the senate under this division, the individual's appointment is deemed confirmed by the senate and the individual shall take the office of commission member subject to removal as provided in division (F) of this section.

(F) The governor may remove or suspend a member of the commission pursuant to section 3.04 of the Revised Code. The governor shall notify the senate of any decision to remove or suspend a commission member. The senate shall refer the matter to an appropriate standing committee for consideration and the committee shall hold a public hearing to consider the matter. At the hearing, the governor or the governor's authorized representative may present evidence and give testimony in support of the decision. The commission member or the member's authorized representatives may appear and present evidence and testimony. After conclusion of the public hearing, the committee shall make its recommendation to the senate.

Upon receipt of a recommendation from the standing committee, the senate shall vote on the issue of whether to advise and consent to the removal or suspension of the member. The senate shall vote on the matter within sixty legislative days from the date the governor communicates the decision to remove or suspend the member.

(G) The governor shall determine the compensation of the members of the commission, based upon such facts as the governor considers appropriate, provided that the salary of each member shall be no less than seventy-five thousand dollars per year. In addition, each commission member shall receive an annual salary increase based upon the average salary increases of other state department directors for that year, not to exceed five per cent per year.

(H) Before entering upon the duties of office, each member shall take and subscribe to the constitutional oath of office and swear and affirm that the member holds no position under any committee of a political party, which oath or affirmation the member shall file in the office of the governor. Each member shall give a bond in the sum of fifty thousand dollars, which bond shall be approved by the governor and filed with the treasurer of state. All employees or deputies of the commission who receive or disburse state funds shall give a bond to the state in the amounts and surety approved by the industrial commission.

(1) A federal or state elective office or an elected office of a political subdivision of the state;

(2) A position on a board or commission of the state that is appointed by the governor;

(3) An office set forth in section 121.03, 121.04, or 121.05 of the Revised Code;

(4) An office of the government of the United States that is appointed by the president of the United States.

Sec. 4121.443. Each contract the administrator of workers' compensation enters into with a managed care organization under division (B)(4) of section 4121.44 of the Revised Code shall require the managed care organization to enter into a data security agreement with the state board of pharmacy governing the managed care organization's use of the board's drug database established and maintained under section 4729.75 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 4141.01. As used in this chapter, unless the context otherwise requires:

(A)(1) "Employer" means the state, its instrumentalities, its political subdivisions and their instrumentalities, Indian tribes, and any individual or type of organization including any partnership, limited liability company, association, trust, estate, joint-stock company, insurance company, or corporation, whether domestic or foreign, or the receiver, trustee in bankruptcy, trustee, or the successor thereof, or the legal representative of a deceased person who subsequent to December 31, 1971, or in the case of political subdivisions or their instrumentalities, subsequent to December 31, 1973:

(a) Had in employment at least one individual, or in the case of a nonprofit organization, subsequent to December 31, 1973, had not less than four individuals in employment for some portion of a day in each of twenty different calendar weeks, in either the current or the preceding calendar year whether or not the same individual was in employment in each such day; or

(b) Except for a nonprofit organization, had paid for service in employment wages of fifteen hundred dollars or more in any calendar quarter in either the current or preceding calendar year; or

(c) Had paid, subsequent to December 31, 1977, for employment in domestic service in a local college club, or local chapter of a college fraternity or sorority, cash remuneration of one thousand dollars or more in any calendar quarter in the current calendar year or the preceding calendar year, or had paid subsequent to December 31, 1977, for employment in domestic service in a private home cash remuneration of one thousand dollars in any calendar quarter in the current calendar year or the preceding calendar year:

(i) For the purposes of divisions (A)(1)(a) and (b) of this section, there shall not be taken into account any wages paid to, or employment of, an individual performing domestic service as described in this division.

(ii) An employer under this division shall not be an employer with respect to wages paid for any services other than domestic service unless the employer is also found to be an employer under division (A)(1)(a), (b), or (d) of this section.

(d) As a farm operator or a crew leader subsequent to December 31, 1977, had in employment individuals in agricultural labor; and

(i) During any calendar quarter in the current calendar year or the preceding calendar year, paid cash remuneration of twenty thousand dollars or more for the agricultural labor; or

(ii) Had at least ten individuals in employment in agricultural labor, not including agricultural workers who are aliens admitted to the United States to perform agricultural labor pursuant to sections 1184(c) and 1101(a)(15)(H) of the "Immigration and Nationality Act," 66 Stat. 163, 189, 8 U.S.C.A. 1101(a)(15)(H)(ii)(a), 1184(c), for some portion of a day in each of the twenty different calendar weeks, in either the current or preceding calendar year whether or not the same individual was in employment in each day; or

(e) Is not otherwise an employer as defined under division (A)(1)(a) or (b) of this section; and

(i) For which, within either the current or preceding calendar year, service, except for domestic service in a private home not covered under division (A)(1)(c) of this section, is or was performed with respect to which such employer is liable for any federal tax against which credit may be taken for contributions required to be paid into a state unemployment fund;

(ii) Which, as a condition for approval of this chapter for full tax credit against the tax imposed by the "Federal Unemployment Tax Act," 84 Stat. 713, 26 U.S.C.A. 3301 to 3311, is required, pursuant to such act to be an employer under this chapter; or

(iii) Who became an employer by election under division (A)(4) or (5) of this section and for the duration of such election; or

(f) In the case of the state, its instrumentalities, its political subdivisions, and their instrumentalities, and Indian tribes, had in employment, as defined in divisions (B)(2)(a) and (B)(2)(l) of this section, at least one individual;

(g) For the purposes of division (A)(1)(a) of this section, if any week includes both the thirty-first day of December and the first day of January, the days of that week before the first day of January shall be considered one calendar week and the days beginning the first day of January another week.

(2) Each individual employed to perform or to assist in performing the work of any agent or employee of an employer is employed by such employer for all the purposes of this chapter, whether such individual was hired or paid directly by such employer or by such agent or employee, provided the employer had actual or constructive knowledge of the work. All individuals performing services for an employer of any person in this state who maintains two or more establishments within this state are employed by a single employer for the purposes of this chapter.

(3) An employer subject to this chapter within any calendar year is subject to this chapter during the whole of such year and during the next succeeding calendar year.

(4) An employer not otherwise subject to this chapter who files with the director of job and family services a written election to become an employer subject to this chapter for not less than two calendar years shall, with the written approval of such election by the director, become an employer subject to this chapter to the same extent as all other employers as of the date stated in such approval, and shall cease to be subject to this chapter as of the first day of January of any calendar year subsequent to such two calendar years only if at least thirty days prior to such first day of January the employer has filed with the director a written notice to that effect.

(5) Any employer for whom services that do not constitute employment are performed may file with the director a written election that all such services performed by individuals in the employer's employ in one or more distinct establishments or places of business shall be deemed to constitute employment for all the purposes of this chapter, for not less than two calendar years. Upon written approval of the election by the director, such services shall be deemed to constitute employment subject to this chapter from and after the date stated in such approval. Such services shall cease to be employment subject to this chapter as of the first day of January of any calendar year subsequent to such two calendar years only if at least thirty days prior to such first day of January such employer has filed with the director a written notice to that effect.

(B)(1) "Employment" means service performed by an individual for remuneration under any contract of hire, written or oral, express or implied, including service performed in interstate commerce and service performed by an officer of a corporation, without regard to whether such service is executive, managerial, or manual in nature, and without regard to whether such officer is a stockholder or a member of the board of directors of the corporation, unless it is shown to the satisfaction of the director that such individual has been and will continue to be free from direction or control over the performance of such service, both under a contract of service and in fact. The director shall adopt rules to define "direction or control."

(a) Service performed after December 31, 1977, by an individual in the employ of the state or any of its instrumentalities, or any political subdivision thereof or any of its instrumentalities or any instrumentality of more than one of the foregoing or any instrumentality of any of the foregoing and one or more other states or political subdivisions and without regard to divisions (A)(1)(a) and (b) of this section, provided that such service is excluded from employment as defined in the "Federal Unemployment Tax Act," 53 Stat. 183, 26 U.S.C.A. 3301, 3306(c)(7) and is not excluded under division (B)(3) of this section; or the services of employees covered by voluntary election, as provided under divisions (A)(4) and (5) of this section;

(b) Service performed after December 31, 1971, by an individual in the employ of a religious, charitable, educational, or other organization which is excluded from the term "employment" as defined in the "Federal Unemployment Tax Act," 84 Stat. 713, 26 U.S.C.A. 3301 to 3311, solely by reason of section 26 U.S.C.A. 3306(c)(8) of that act and is not excluded under division (B)(3) of this section;

(c) Domestic service performed after December 31, 1977, for an employer, as provided in division (A)(1)(c) of this section;

(d) Agricultural labor performed after December 31, 1977, for a farm operator or a crew leader, as provided in division (A)(1)(d) of this section;

(e) Service not covered under division (B)(1) of this section which is performed after December 31, 1971:

(i) As an agent-driver or commission-driver engaged in distributing meat products, vegetable products, fruit products, bakery products, beverages other than milk, laundry, or dry-cleaning services, for the individual's employer or principal;

(ii) As a traveling or city salesperson, other than as an agent-driver or commission-driver, engaged on a full-time basis in the solicitation on behalf of and in the transmission to the salesperson's employer or principal except for sideline sales activities on behalf of some other person of orders from wholesalers, retailers, contractors, or operators of hotels, restaurants, or other similar establishments for merchandise for resale, or supplies for use in their business operations, provided that for the purposes of division (B)(2)(e)(ii) of this section, the services shall be deemed employment if the contract of service contemplates that substantially all of the services are to be performed personally by the individual and that the individual does not have a substantial investment in facilities used in connection with the performance of the services other than in facilities for transportation, and the services are not in the nature of a single transaction that is not a part of a continuing relationship with the person for whom the services are performed.

(f) An individual's entire service performed within or both within and without the state if:

(ii) The service is not localized in any state, but some of the service is performed in this state and either the base of operations, or if there is no base of operations then the place from which such service is directed or controlled, is in this state or the base of operations or place from which such service is directed or controlled is not in any state in which some part of the service is performed but the individual's residence is in this state.

(g) Service not covered under division (B)(2)(f)(ii) of this section and performed entirely without this state, with respect to no part of which contributions are required and paid under an unemployment compensation law of any other state, the Virgin Islands, Canada, or of the United States, if the individual performing such service is a resident of this state and the director approves the election of the employer for whom such services are performed; or, if the individual is not a resident of this state but the place from which the service is directed or controlled is in this state, the entire services of such individual shall be deemed to be employment subject to this chapter, provided service is deemed to be localized within this state if the service is performed entirely within this state or if the service is performed both within and without this state but the service performed without this state is incidental to the individual's service within the state, for example, is temporary or transitory in nature or consists of isolated transactions;

(h) Service of an individual who is a citizen of the United States, performed outside the United States except in Canada after December 31, 1971, or the Virgin Islands, after December 31, 1971, and before the first day of January of the year following that in which the United States secretary of labor approves the Virgin Islands law for the first time, in the employ of an American employer, other than service which is "employment" under divisions (B)(2)(f) and (g) of this section or similar provisions of another state's law, if:

(i) The employer's principal place of business in the United States is located in this state;

(ii) The employer has no place of business in the United States, but the employer is an individual who is a resident of this state; or the employer is a corporation which is organized under the laws of this state, or the employer is a partnership or a trust and the number of partners or trustees who are residents of this state is greater than the number who are residents of any other state; or

(iii) None of the criteria of divisions (B)(2)(f)(i) and (ii) of this section is met but the employer has elected coverage in this state or the employer having failed to elect coverage in any state, the individual has filed a claim for benefits, based on such service, under this chapter.

(i) For the purposes of division (B)(2)(h) of this section, the term "American employer" means an employer who is an individual who is a resident of the United States; or a partnership, if two-thirds or more of the partners are residents of the United States; or a trust, if all of the trustees are residents of the United States; or a corporation organized under the laws of the United States or of any state, provided the term "United States" includes the states, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, and the Virgin Islands.

(j) Notwithstanding any other provisions of divisions (B)(1) and (2) of this section, service, except for domestic service in a private home not covered under division (A)(1)(c) of this section, with respect to which a tax is required to be paid under any federal law imposing a tax against which credit may be taken for contributions required to be paid into a state unemployment fund, or service, except for domestic service in a private home not covered under division (A)(1)(c) of this section, which, as a condition for full tax credit against the tax imposed by the "Federal Unemployment Tax Act," 84 Stat. 713, 26 U.S.C.A. 3301 to 3311, is required to be covered under this chapter.

(k) Construction services performed by any individual under a construction contract, as defined in section 4141.39 of the Revised Code, if the director determines that the employer for whom services are performed has the right to direct or control the performance of the services and that the individuals who perform the services receive remuneration for the services performed. The director shall presume that the employer for whom services are performed has the right to direct or control the performance of the services if ten or more of the following criteria apply:

(i) The employer directs or controls the manner or method by which instructions are given to the individual performing services;

(ii) The employer requires particular training for the individual performing services;

(iii) Services performed by the individual are integrated into the regular functioning of the employer;

(iv) The employer requires that services be provided by a particular individual;

(v) The employer hires, supervises, or pays the wages of the individual performing services;

(vi) A continuing relationship between the employer and the individual performing services exists which contemplates continuing or recurring work, even if not full-time work;

(vii) The employer requires the individual to perform services during established hours;

(viii) The employer requires that the individual performing services be devoted on a full-time basis to the business of the employer;

(ix) The employer requires the individual to perform services on the employer's premises;

(x) The employer requires the individual performing services to follow the order of work established by the employer;

(xi) The employer requires the individual performing services to make oral or written reports of progress;

(xii) The employer makes payment to the individual for services on a regular basis, such as hourly, weekly, or monthly;

(xiv) The employer furnishes the tools and materials for use by the individual to perform services;

(xv) The individual performing services has not invested in the facilities used to perform services;

(xvi) The individual performing services does not realize a profit or suffer a loss as a result of the performance of the services;

(xvii) The individual performing services is not performing services for more than two employers simultaneously;

(xviii) The individual performing services does not make the services available to the general public;

(xx) The individual performing services has the right to end the individual's relationship with the employer without incurring liability pursuant to an employment contract or agreement.

(l) Service performed by an individual in the employ of an Indian tribe as defined by section 4(e) of the "Indian Self-Determination and Education Assistance Act," 88 Stat. 2204 (1975), 25 U.S.C.A. 450b(e), including any subdivision, subsidiary, or business enterprise wholly owned by an Indian tribe provided that the service is excluded from employment as defined in the "Federal Unemployment Tax Act," 53 Stat. 183 (1939), 26 U.S.C.A. 3301 and 3306(c)(7) and is not excluded under division (B)(3) of this section.

(3) "Employment" does not include the following services if they are found not subject to the "Federal Unemployment Tax Act," 84 Stat. 713 (1970), 26 U.S.C.A. 3301 to 3311, and if the services are not required to be included under division (B)(2)(j) of this section:

(a) Service performed after December 31, 1977, in agricultural labor, except as provided in division (A)(1)(d) of this section;

(b) Domestic service performed after December 31, 1977, in a private home, local college club, or local chapter of a college fraternity or sorority except as provided in division (A)(1)(c) of this section;

(c) Service performed after December 31, 1977, for this state or a political subdivision as described in division (B)(2)(a) of this section when performed:

(iv) As an employee, not in the classified service as defined in section 124.11 of the Revised Code, serving on a temporary basis in case of fire, storm, snow, earthquake, flood, or similar emergency;

(v) In a position which, under or pursuant to law, is designated as a major nontenured policymaking or advisory position, not in the classified service of the state, or a policymaking or advisory position the performance of the duties of which ordinarily does not require more than eight hours per week.

(d) In the employ of any governmental unit or instrumentality of the United States;

(i) Service in the employ of an educational institution or institution of higher education, including those operated by the state or a political subdivision, if such service is performed by a student who is enrolled and is regularly attending classes at the educational institution or institution of higher education; or

(ii) By an individual who is enrolled at a nonprofit or public educational institution which normally maintains a regular faculty and curriculum and normally has a regularly organized body of students in attendance at the place where its educational activities are carried on as a student in a full-time program, taken for credit at the institution, which combines academic instruction with work experience, if the service is an integral part of the program, and the institution has so certified to the employer, provided that this subdivision shall not apply to service performed in a program established for or on behalf of an employer or group of employers.

(f) Service performed by an individual in the employ of the individual's son, daughter, or spouse and service performed by a child under the age of eighteen in the employ of the child's father or mother;

(g) Service performed for one or more principals by an individual who is compensated on a commission basis, who in the performance of the work is master of the individual's own time and efforts, and whose remuneration is wholly dependent on the amount of effort the individual chooses to expend, and which service is not subject to the "Federal Unemployment Tax Act," 53 Stat. 183 (1939), 26 U.S.C.A. 3301 to 3311. Service performed after December 31, 1971:

(i) By an individual for an employer as an insurance agent or as an insurance solicitor, if all this service is performed for remuneration solely by way of commission;

(ii) As a home worker performing work, according to specifications furnished by the employer for whom the services are performed, on materials or goods furnished by such employer which are required to be returned to the employer or to a person designated for that purpose.

(i) In the employ of a church or convention or association of churches, or in an organization which is operated primarily for religious purposes and which is operated, supervised, controlled, or principally supported by a church or convention or association of churches;

(ii) By a duly ordained, commissioned, or licensed minister of a church in the exercise of the individual's ministry or by a member of a religious order in the exercise of duties required by such order; or

(iii) In a facility conducted for the purpose of carrying out a program of rehabilitation for individuals whose earning capacity is impaired by age or physical or mental deficiency or injury, or providing remunerative work for individuals who because of their impaired physical or mental capacity cannot be readily absorbed in the competitive labor market, by an individual receiving such rehabilitation or remunerative work.

(i) Service performed after June 30, 1939, with respect to which unemployment compensation is payable under the "Railroad Unemployment Insurance Act," 52 Stat. 1094 (1938), 45 U.S.C. 351;

(j) Service performed by an individual in the employ of any organization exempt from income tax under section 501 of the "Internal Revenue Code of 1954," if the remuneration for such service does not exceed fifty dollars in any calendar quarter, or if such service is in connection with the collection of dues or premiums for a fraternal beneficial society, order, or association and is performed away from the home office or is ritualistic service in connection with any such society, order, or association;

(k) Casual labor not in the course of an employer's trade or business; incidental service performed by an officer, appraiser, or member of a finance committee of a bank, building and loan association, savings and loan association, or savings association when the remuneration for such incidental service exclusive of the amount paid or allotted for directors' fees does not exceed sixty dollars per calendar quarter is casual labor;

(l) Service performed in the employ of a voluntary employees' beneficial association providing for the payment of life, sickness, accident, or other benefits to the members of such association or their dependents or their designated beneficiaries, if admission to a membership in such association is limited to individuals who are officers or employees of a municipal or public corporation, of a political subdivision of the state, or of the United States and no part of the net earnings of such association inures, other than through such payments, to the benefit of any private shareholder or individual;

(m) Service performed by an individual in the employ of a foreign government, including service as a consular or other officer or employee or of a nondiplomatic representative;

(n) Service performed in the employ of an instrumentality wholly owned by a foreign government if the service is of a character similar to that performed in foreign countries by employees of the United States or of an instrumentality thereof and if the director finds that the secretary of state of the United States has certified to the secretary of the treasury of the United States that the foreign government, with respect to whose instrumentality exemption is claimed, grants an equivalent exemption with respect to similar service performed in the foreign country by employees of the United States and of instrumentalities thereof;

(o) Service with respect to which unemployment compensation is payable under an unemployment compensation system established by an act of congress;

(p) Service performed as a student nurse in the employ of a hospital or a nurses' training school by an individual who is enrolled and is regularly attending classes in a nurses' training school chartered or approved pursuant to state law, and service performed as an intern in the employ of a hospital by an individual who has completed a four years' course in a medical school chartered or approved pursuant to state law;

(q) Service performed by an individual under the age of eighteen in the delivery or distribution of newspapers or shopping news, not including delivery or distribution to any point for subsequent delivery or distribution;

(r) Service performed in the employ of the United States or an instrumentality of the United States immune under the Constitution of the United States from the contributions imposed by this chapter, except that to the extent that congress permits states to require any instrumentalities of the United States to make payments into an unemployment fund under a state unemployment compensation act, this chapter shall be applicable to such instrumentalities and to services performed for such instrumentalities in the same manner, to the same extent, and on the same terms as to all other employers, individuals, and services, provided that if this state is not certified for any year by the proper agency of the United States under section 3304 of the "Internal Revenue Code of 1954," the payments required of such instrumentalities with respect to such year shall be refunded by the director from the fund in the same manner and within the same period as is provided in division (E) of section 4141.09 of the Revised Code with respect to contributions erroneously collected;

(s) Service performed by an individual as a member of a band or orchestra, provided such service does not represent the principal occupation of such individual, and which service is not subject to or required to be covered for full tax credit against the tax imposed by the "Federal Unemployment Tax Act," 53 Stat. 183 (1939), 26 U.S.C.A. 3301 to 3311.

(t) Service performed in the employ of a day camp whose camping season does not exceed twelve weeks in any calendar year, and which service is not subject to the "Federal Unemployment Tax Act," 53 Stat. 183 (1939), 26 U.S.C.A. 3301 to 3311. Service performed after December 31, 1971:

(i) In the employ of a hospital, if the service is performed by a patient of the hospital, as defined in division (W) of this section;

(ii) For a prison or other correctional institution by an inmate of the prison or correctional institution;

(iii) Service performed after December 31, 1977, by an inmate of a custodial institution operated by the state, a political subdivision, or a nonprofit organization.

(u) Service that is performed by a nonresident alien individual for the period the individual temporarily is present in the United States as a nonimmigrant under division (F), (J), (M), or (Q) of section 101(a)(15) of the "Immigration and Nationality Act," 66 Stat. 163, 8 U.S.C.A. 1101, as amended, that is excluded under section 3306(c)(19) of the "Federal Unemployment Tax Act," 53 Stat. 183 (1939), 26 U.S.C.A. 3301 to 3311.

(v) Notwithstanding any other provisions of division (B)(3) of this section, services that are excluded under divisions (B)(3)(g), (j), (k), and (l) of this section shall not be excluded from employment when performed for a nonprofit organization, as defined in division (X) of this section, or for this state or its instrumentalities, or for a political subdivision or its instrumentalities or for Indian tribes;

(w) Service that is performed by an individual working as an election official or election worker if the amount of remuneration received by the individual during the calendar year for services as an election official or election worker is less than one thousand dollars;

(x) Service performed for an elementary or secondary school that is operated primarily for religious purposes, that is described in subsection 501(c)(3) and exempt from federal income taxation under subsection 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code, 26 U.S.C.A. 501;

(z) Service performed for an Indian tribe as described in division (B)(2)(l) of this section when performed in any of the following manners:

(iv) In a position which, pursuant to Indian tribal law, is designated as a major nontenured policymaking or advisory position, or a policymaking or advisory position where the performance of the duties ordinarily does not require more than eight hours of time per week;

(v) As an employee serving on a temporary basis in the case of a fire, storm, snow, earthquake, flood, or similar emergency.

(aa) Service performed after December 31, 1971, for a nonprofit organization, this state or its instrumentalities, a political subdivision or its instrumentalities, or an Indian tribe as part of an unemployment work-relief or work-training program assisted or financed in whole or in part by any federal agency or an agency of a state or political subdivision, thereof, by an individual receiving the work-relief or work-training.

(bb) Participation in a learn to earn program as defined in section 4141.293 of the Revised Code.

(4) If the services performed during one half or more of any pay period by an employee for the person employing that employee constitute employment, all the services of such employee for such period shall be deemed to be employment; but if the services performed during more than one half of any such pay period by an employee for the person employing that employee do not constitute employment, then none of the services of such employee for such period shall be deemed to be employment. As used in division (B)(4) of this section, "pay period" means a period, of not more than thirty-one consecutive days, for which payment of remuneration is ordinarily made to the employee by the person employing that employee. Division (B)(4) of this section does not apply to services performed in a pay period by an employee for the person employing that employee, if any of such service is excepted by division (B)(3)(o) of this section.

(C) "Benefits" means money payments payable to an individual who has established benefit rights, as provided in this chapter, for loss of remuneration due to the individual's unemployment.

(D) "Benefit rights" means the weekly benefit amount and the maximum benefit amount that may become payable to an individual within the individual's benefit year as determined by the director.

(E) "Claim for benefits" means a claim for waiting period or benefits for a designated week.

(F) "Additional claim" means the first claim for benefits filed following any separation from employment during a benefit year; "continued claim" means any claim other than the first claim for benefits and other than an additional claim.

(G)(1) "Wages" means remuneration paid to an employee by each of the employee's employers with respect to employment; except that wages shall not include that part of remuneration paid during any calendar year to an individual by an employer or such employer's predecessor in interest in the same business or enterprise, which in any calendar year is in excess of eight thousand two hundred fifty dollars on and after January 1, 1992; eight thousand five hundred dollars on and after January 1, 1993; eight thousand seven hundred fifty dollars on and after January 1, 1994; and nine thousand dollars on and after January 1, 1995. Remuneration in excess of such amounts shall be deemed wages subject to contribution to the same extent that such remuneration is defined as wages under the "Federal Unemployment Tax Act," 84 Stat. 714 (1970), 26 U.S.C.A. 3301 to 3311, as amended. The remuneration paid an employee by an employer with respect to employment in another state, upon which contributions were required and paid by such employer under the unemployment compensation act of such other state, shall be included as a part of remuneration in computing the amount specified in this division.

(2) Notwithstanding division (G)(1) of this section, if, as of the computation date for any calendar year, the director determines that the level of the unemployment compensation fund is sixty per cent or more below the minimum safe level as defined in section 4141.25 of the Revised Code, then, effective the first day of January of the following calendar year, wages subject to this chapter shall not include that part of remuneration paid during any calendar year to an individual by an employer or such employer's predecessor in interest in the same business or enterprise which is in excess of nine thousand dollars. The increase in the dollar amount of wages subject to this chapter under this division shall remain in effect from the date of the director's determination pursuant to division (G)(2) of this section and thereafter notwithstanding the fact that the level in the fund may subsequently become less than sixty per cent below the minimum safe level.

(H)(1) "Remuneration" means all compensation for personal services, including commissions and bonuses and the cash value of all compensation in any medium other than cash, except that in the case of agricultural or domestic service, "remuneration" includes only cash remuneration. Gratuities customarily received by an individual in the course of the individual's employment from persons other than the individual's employer and which are accounted for by such individual to the individual's employer are taxable wages.

The reasonable cash value of compensation paid in any medium other than cash shall be estimated and determined in accordance with rules prescribed by the director, provided that "remuneration" does not include:

(a) Payments as provided in divisions (b)(2) to (b)~~(16)~~(20) of section 3306 of the "Federal Unemployment Tax Act," 84 Stat. 713, 26 U.S.C.A. 3301 to 3311, as amended;

(b) The payment by an employer, without deduction from the remuneration of the individual in the employer's employ, of the tax imposed upon an individual in the employer's employ under section 3101 of the "Internal Revenue Code of 1954," with respect to services performed after October 1, 1941.

(2) "Cash remuneration" means all remuneration paid in cash, including commissions and bonuses, but not including the cash value of all compensation in any medium other than cash.

(I) "Interested party" means the director and any party to whom notice of a determination of an application for benefit rights or a claim for benefits is required to be given under section 4141.28 of the Revised Code.

(J) "Annual payroll" means the total amount of wages subject to contributions during a twelve-month period ending with the last day of the second calendar quarter of any calendar year.

(K) "Average annual payroll" means the average of the last three annual payrolls of an employer, provided that if, as of any computation date, the employer has had less than three annual payrolls in such three-year period, such average shall be based on the annual payrolls which the employer has had as of such date.

(L)(1) "Contributions" means the money payments to the state unemployment compensation fund required of employers by section 4141.25 of the Revised Code and of the state and any of its political subdivisions electing to pay contributions under section 4141.242 of the Revised Code. Employers paying contributions shall be described as "contributory employers."

(2) "Payments in lieu of contributions" means the money payments to the state unemployment compensation fund required of reimbursing employers under sections 4141.241 and 4141.242 of the Revised Code.

(M) An individual is "totally unemployed" in any week during which the individual performs no services and with respect to such week no remuneration is payable to the individual.

(N) An individual is "partially unemployed" in any week if, due to involuntary loss of work, the total remuneration payable to the individual for such week is less than the individual's weekly benefit amount.

(O) "Week" means the calendar week ending at midnight Saturday unless an equivalent week of seven consecutive calendar days is prescribed by the director.

(1) "Qualifying week" means any calendar week in an individual's base period with respect to which the individual earns or is paid remuneration in employment subject to this chapter. A calendar week with respect to which an individual earns remuneration but for which payment was not made within the base period, when necessary to qualify for benefit rights, may be considered to be a qualifying week. The number of qualifying weeks which may be established in a calendar quarter shall not exceed the number of calendar weeks in the quarter.

(2) "Average weekly wage" means the amount obtained by dividing an individual's total remuneration for all qualifying weeks during the base period by the number of such qualifying weeks, provided that if the computation results in an amount that is not a multiple of one dollar, such amount shall be rounded to the next lower multiple of one dollar.

(P) "Weekly benefit amount" means the amount of benefits an individual would be entitled to receive for one week of total unemployment.

(Q)(1) "Base period" means the first four of the last five completed calendar quarters immediately preceding the first day of an individual's benefit year, except as provided in division (Q)(2) of this section.

(2) If an individual does not have sufficient qualifying weeks and wages in the base period to qualify for benefit rights, the individual's base period shall be the four most recently completed calendar quarters preceding the first day of the individual's benefit year. Such base period shall be known as the "alternate base period." If information as to weeks and wages for the most recent quarter of the alternate base period is not available to the director from the regular quarterly reports of wage information, which are systematically accessible, the director may, consistent with the provisions of section 4141.28 of the Revised Code, base the determination of eligibility for benefits on the affidavit of the claimant with respect to weeks and wages for that calendar quarter. The claimant shall furnish payroll documentation, where available, in support of the affidavit. The determination based upon the alternate base period as it relates to the claimant's benefit rights, shall be amended when the quarterly report of wage information from the employer is timely received and that information causes a change in the determination. As provided in division (B) of section 4141.28 of the Revised Code, any benefits paid and charged to an employer's account, based upon a claimant's affidavit, shall be adjusted effective as of the beginning of the claimant's benefit year. No calendar quarter in a base period or alternate base period shall be used to establish a subsequent benefit year.

(3) The "base period" of a combined wage claim, as described in division (H) of section 4141.43 of the Revised Code, shall be the base period prescribed by the law of the state in which the claim is allowed.

(4) For purposes of determining the weeks that comprise a completed calendar quarter under this division, only those weeks ending at midnight Saturday within the calendar quarter shall be utilized.

(R)(1) "Benefit year" with respect to an individual means the fifty-two week period beginning with the first day of that week with respect to which the individual first files a valid application for determination of benefit rights, and thereafter the fifty-two week period beginning with the first day of that week with respect to which the individual next files a valid application for determination of benefit rights after the termination of the individual's last preceding benefit year, except that the application shall not be considered valid unless the individual has had employment in six weeks that is subject to this chapter or the unemployment compensation act of another state, or the United States, and has, since the beginning of the individual's previous benefit year, in the employment earned three times the average weekly wage determined for the previous benefit year. The "benefit year" of a combined wage claim, as described in division (H) of section 4141.43 of the Revised Code, shall be the benefit year prescribed by the law of the state in which the claim is allowed. Any application for determination of benefit rights made in accordance with section 4141.28 of the Revised Code is valid if the individual filing such application is unemployed, has been employed by an employer or employers subject to this chapter in at least twenty qualifying weeks within the individual's base period, and has earned or been paid remuneration at an average weekly wage of not less than twenty-seven and one-half per cent of the statewide average weekly wage for such weeks. For purposes of determining whether an individual has had sufficient employment since the beginning of the individual's previous benefit year to file a valid application, "employment" means the performance of services for which remuneration is payable.

(2) Effective for benefit years beginning on and after December 26, 2004, any application for determination of benefit rights made in accordance with section 4141.28 of the Revised Code is valid if the individual satisfies the criteria described in division (R)(1) of this section, and if the reason for the individual's separation from employment is not disqualifying pursuant to division (D)(2) of section 4141.29 or section 4141.291 of the Revised Code. A disqualification imposed pursuant to division (D)(2) of section 4141.29 or section 4141.291 of the Revised Code must be removed as provided in those sections as a requirement of establishing a valid application for benefit years beginning on and after December 26, 2004.

(3) The statewide average weekly wage shall be calculated by the director once a year based on the twelve-month period ending the thirtieth day of June, as set forth in division (B)(3) of section 4141.30 of the Revised Code, rounded down to the nearest dollar. Increases or decreases in the amount of remuneration required to have been earned or paid in order for individuals to have filed valid applications shall become effective on Sunday of the calendar week in which the first day of January occurs that follows the twelve-month period ending the thirtieth day of June upon which the calculation of the statewide average weekly wage was based.

(4) As used in this division, an individual is "unemployed" if, with respect to the calendar week in which such application is filed, the individual is "partially unemployed" or "totally unemployed" as defined in this section or if, prior to filing the application, the individual was separated from the individual's most recent work for any reason which terminated the individual's employee-employer relationship, or was laid off indefinitely or for a definite period of seven or more days.

(S) "Calendar quarter" means the period of three consecutive calendar months ending on the thirty-first day of March, the thirtieth day of June, the thirtieth day of September, and the thirty-first day of December, or the equivalent thereof as the director prescribes by rule.

(T) "Computation date" means the first day of the third calendar quarter of any calendar year.

(U) "Contribution period" means the calendar year beginning on the first day of January of any year.

(V) "Agricultural labor," for the purpose of this division, means any service performed prior to January 1, 1972, which was agricultural labor as defined in this division prior to that date, and service performed after December 31, 1971:

(1) On a farm, in the employ of any person, in connection with cultivating the soil, or in connection with raising or harvesting any agricultural or horticultural commodity, including the raising, shearing, feeding, caring for, training, and management of livestock, bees, poultry, and fur-bearing animals and wildlife;

(2) In the employ of the owner or tenant or other operator of a farm in connection with the operation, management, conservation, improvement, or maintenance of such farm and its tools and equipment, or in salvaging timber or clearing land of brush and other debris left by hurricane, if the major part of such service is performed on a farm;

(3) In connection with the production or harvesting of any commodity defined as an agricultural commodity in section 15 (g) of the "Agricultural Marketing Act," 46 Stat. 1550 (1931), 12 U.S.C. 1141j, as amended, or in connection with the ginning of cotton, or in connection with the operation or maintenance of ditches, canals, reservoirs, or waterways, not owned or operated for profit, used exclusively for supplying and storing water for farming purposes;

(4) In the employ of the operator of a farm in handling, planting, drying, packing, packaging, processing, freezing, grading, storing, or delivering to storage or to market or to a carrier for transportation to market, in its unmanufactured state, any agricultural or horticultural commodity, but only if the operator produced more than one half of the commodity with respect to which such service is performed;

(5) In the employ of a group of operators of farms, or a cooperative organization of which the operators are members, in the performance of service described in division (V)(4) of this section, but only if the operators produced more than one-half of the commodity with respect to which the service is performed;

(6) Divisions (V)(4) and (5) of this section shall not be deemed to be applicable with respect to service performed:

(a) In connection with commercial canning or commercial freezing or in connection with any agricultural or horticultural commodity after its delivery to a terminal market for distribution for consumption; or

(b) On a farm operated for profit if the service is not in the course of the employer's trade or business.

As used in division (V) of this section, "farm" includes stock, dairy, poultry, fruit, fur-bearing animal, and truck farms, plantations, ranches, nurseries, ranges, greenhouses, or other similar structures used primarily for the raising of agricultural or horticultural commodities and orchards.

(W) "Hospital" means an institution which has been registered or licensed by the Ohio department of health as a hospital.

(X) "Nonprofit organization" means an organization, or group of organizations, described in section 501(c)(3) of the "Internal Revenue Code of 1954," and exempt from income tax under section 501(a) of that code.

(Y) "Institution of higher education" means a public or nonprofit educational institution, including an educational institution operated by an Indian tribe, which:

(1) Admits as regular students only individuals having a certificate of graduation from a high school, or the recognized equivalent;

(2) Is legally authorized in this state or by the Indian tribe to provide a program of education beyond high school; and

(3) Provides an educational program for which it awards a bachelor's or higher degree, or provides a program which is acceptable for full credit toward such a degree, a program of post-graduate or post-doctoral studies, or a program of training to prepare students for gainful employment in a recognized occupation.

For the purposes of this division, all colleges and universities in this state are institutions of higher education.

(Z) For the purposes of this chapter, "states" includes the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, and the Virgin Islands.

(AA) "Alien" means, for the purposes of division (A)(1)(d) of this section, an individual who is an alien admitted to the United States to perform service in agricultural labor pursuant to sections 214 (c) and 101 (a)(15)(H) of the "Immigration and Nationality Act," 66 Stat. 163, 8 U.S.C.A. 1101.

(BB)(1) "Crew leader" means an individual who furnishes individuals to perform agricultural labor for any other employer or farm operator, and:

(a) Pays, either on the individual's own behalf or on behalf of the other employer or farm operator, the individuals so furnished by the individual for the service in agricultural labor performed by them;

(b) Has not entered into a written agreement with the other employer or farm operator under which the agricultural worker is designated as in the employ of the other employer or farm operator.

(2) For the purposes of this chapter, any individual who is a member of a crew furnished by a crew leader to perform service in agricultural labor for any other employer or farm operator shall be treated as an employee of the crew leader if:

(a) The crew leader holds a valid certificate of registration under the "Farm Labor Contractor Registration Act of 1963," 90 Stat. 2668, 7 U.S.C. 2041; or

(b) Substantially all the members of the crew operate or maintain tractors, mechanized harvesting or crop-dusting equipment, or any other mechanized equipment, which is provided by the crew leader; and

(c) If the individual is not in the employment of the other employer or farm operator within the meaning of division (B)(1) of this section.

(3) For the purposes of this division, any individual who is furnished by a crew leader to perform service in agricultural labor for any other employer or farm operator and who is not treated as in the employment of the crew leader under division (BB)(2) of this section shall be treated as the employee of the other employer or farm operator and not of the crew leader. The other employer or farm operator shall be treated as having paid cash remuneration to the individual in an amount equal to the amount of cash remuneration paid to the individual by the crew leader, either on the crew leader's own behalf or on behalf of the other employer or farm operator, for the service in agricultural labor performed for the other employer or farm operator.

(CC) "Educational institution" means an institution other than an institution of higher education as defined in division (Y) of this section, including an educational institution operated by an Indian tribe, which:

(1) Offers participants, trainees, or students an organized course of study or training designed to transfer to them knowledge, skills, information, doctrines, attitudes, or abilities from, by, or under the guidance of an instructor or teacher; and

(2) Is approved, chartered, or issued a permit to operate as a school by the state board of education, other government agency, or Indian tribe that is authorized within the state to approve, charter, or issue a permit for the operation of a school.

For the purposes of this division, the courses of study or training which the institution offers may be academic, technical, trade, or preparation for gainful employment in a recognized occupation.

(DD) "Cost savings day" means any unpaid day off from work in which employees continue to accrue employee benefits which have a determinable value including, but not limited to, vacation, pension contribution, sick time, and life and health insurance.

Sec. 4141.06. There is hereby created an unemployment compensation review commission consisting of three full-time members appointed by the governor, with the advice and consent of the senate. Terms of office shall be staggered and shall be for six years, commencing on the twenty-eighth day of February and ending on the twenty-seventh day of February. Each member shall hold office from the date of appointment until the end of the term for which the member was appointed. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which the member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the remainder of such term. Any member shall continue in office subsequent to the expiration date of the member's term until the member's successor takes office, or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, whichever occurs first. The chairperson of the commission and each member shall be paid a salary fixed pursuant to section 124.14 of the Revised Code. The governor, at any time, may remove any member for inefficiency, neglect of duty, malfeasance, misfeasance, or nonfeasance in office.

Not more than one of the appointees to the commission shall be a person who, on account of the appointee's previous vocation, employment, or affiliations, can be classed as a representative of employers, and not more than one of the appointees shall be a person who, on account of the appointee's previous vocation, employment, or affiliations, can be classed as a representative of employees. Not more than two of the members of the commission shall belong to the same political party. No member of the commission shall hold any ~~position~~ office of trust or profit or engage in any occupation or business interfering or inconsistent with the member's duties as a member and no member shall serve on any committee of any political party. The commission shall elect a chairperson and a vice-chairperson. The vice-chairperson shall exercise the powers of the chairperson in the chairperson's absence.

No commission member shall participate in the disposition of any appeal in which the member has an interest in the controversy. Challenges to the interest of any commission member may be made by any interested party defined in division (I) of section 4141.01 of the Revised Code and shall be in writing. All challenges shall be decided by the chairperson of the advisory council, who, if the challenge is found to be well taken, shall advise the governor, who shall appoint a member of the advisory council representing the same affiliations to act and receive the same compensation for serving in place of such member.

The commission may appoint a secretary to hold office at its pleasure. The secretary shall have such powers and shall perform such duties as the commission prescribes and shall keep a record of the proceedings of the commission and of its determinations. The secretary shall receive a salary fixed pursuant to section 124.14 of the Revised Code. Notwithstanding division (A)(8) of section 124.11 of the Revised Code, each member of the commission may appoint a private secretary who shall be in the classified service of the state and hold office at the pleasure of such member.

Two members of the commission constitute a quorum and no action of the commission is valid unless it has the concurrence of at least two members. A vacancy on the commission does not impair the right of a quorum to exercise all the rights and perform all the duties of the commission.

The commission and its hearing officers shall hear appeals arising from determinations of the director of job and family services involving claims for compensation and other unemployment compensation issues. The commission shall adopt, amend, or rescind rules of procedure, and undertake such investigations, and take such action required for the hearing and disposition of appeals as it deems necessary and consistent with this chapter. The rules adopted by the commission shall be effective to the extent that the rules are consistent with this chapter.

The commission, subject to Chapter 124. of the Revised Code, and with the approval of the governor, shall appoint such hearing officers as are necessary. The hearing officers shall be classified by the department of administrative services. Any promotions or increases in compensation of the hearing officers may be recommended by the commission subject to classifications which are made by the department of administrative services. The members of the commission and hearing officers may conduct hearings for unemployment compensation appeals coming before the commission. The members and hearing officers may exercise all powers provided by section 4141.17 of the Revised Code.

The commission, subject to Chapter 124. of the Revised Code, may employ such support personnel as are needed to carry out the duties of the commission. The salaries of such employees are fixed pursuant to section 124.14 of the Revised Code. The commission shall further provide itself and its employees with such offices, equipment, and supplies as are necessary, using those already provided for the department of job and family services wherever possible.

The commission shall have access to only the records of the department of job and family services that are necessary for the administration of this chapter and needed in the performance of its official duties. The commission shall have the right to request of the director necessary information from any work unit of the department having that