To amend sections 7.10, 7.16, 9.482, 109.572, 109.5721, 111.15, 119.03, 122.121, 122.861, 124.32, 125.13, 125.182, 126.21, 126.25, 149.38, 153.56, 164.26, 173.27, 173.38, 191.01, 340.02, 340.021, 1321.535, 1321.55, 1322.03, 1322.031, 1322.04, 1322.041, 1322.051, 1322.06, 1509.071, 1533.10, 1533.11, 1533.12, 1711.50, 1711.53, 2151.417, 2151.421, 2152.19, 2701.09, 2945.402, 3123.89, 3313.90, 3313.91, 3314.08, 3317.02, 3317.0217, 3701.132, 3701.34, 3701.74, 3701.83, 3701.881, 3702.511, 3702.52, 3702.526, 3702.71, 3702.74, 3702.75, 3702.91, 3702.95, 3730.09, 3737.02, 4141.01, 4141.09, 4141.11, 4141.131, 4141.20, 4141.25, 4141.26, 4141.28, 4141.29, 4141.35, 4511.191, 4729.03, 4729.54, 4729.83, 4737.045, 4758.01, 4758.02, 4758.06, 4758.16, 4758.20, 4758.21, 4758.23, 4758.24, 4758.26, 4758.28, 4758.29, 4758.30, 4758.31, 4758.35, 4758.36, 4758.50, 4758.51, 4758.60, 4758.71, 4781.121, 4781.29, 4905.01, 4905.81, 4905.95, 4923.01, 4923.02, 4923.04, 4928.66, 5104.03, 5123.01, 5123.011, 5123.012, 5123.081, 5123.16, 5123.162, 5123.169, 5123.19, 5123.191, 5123.21, 5123.61, 5123.75, 5123.76, 5123.89, 5124.01, 5124.106, 5124.21, 5124.60, 5124.61, 5124.62, 5124.67, 5126.01, 5126.0219, 5126.041, 5126.046, 5126.051, 5126.08, 5126.21, 5126.25, 5126.42, 5126.43, 5126.45, 5139.05, 5139.34, 5139.36, 5139.41, 5164.34, 5164.342, 5513.01, and 5713.012; to enact sections 164.261, 3123.90, 3317.162, 3721.122, 4758.48, 4758.62, 4758.63, 4758.64, 4909.157, 5122.36, 5123.0420, 5139.12, and 5139.45; to repeal sections 3125.191, 3702.93, 5124.63, and 5124.64 of the Revised Code; to amend Sections 207.10, 209.30, 211.10, 221.10, 241.10, 257.10, 259.10, 263.10, 263.230, 263.240, 263.250, 263.270, 263.325, 275.10, 282.10, 282.30, 285.10, 285.20, 301.10, 327.10, 333.10, 333.80, 340.10, 359.10, 363.10, 365.10, 395.10, 403.10, 512.80, and 751.10 of Am. Sub. H.B. 59 of the 130th General Assembly; and to repeal Section 747.40 of Am. Sub. H.B. 59 of the 130th General Assembly to make operating and other appropriations and to provide authorization and conditions for the operation of state programs.

Section 101.01. That sections 7.10, 7.16, 9.482, 109.572, 109.5721, 111.15, 119.03, 122.121, 122.861, 124.32, 125.13, 125.182, 126.21, 126.25, 149.38, 153.56, 164.26, 173.27, 173.38, 191.01, 340.02, 340.021, 1321.535, 1321.55, 1322.03, 1322.031, 1322.04, 1322.041, 1322.051, 1322.06, 1509.071, 1533.10, 1533.11, 1533.12, 1711.50, 1711.53, 2151.417, 2151.421, 2152.19, 2701.09, 2945.402, 3123.89, 3313.90, 3313.91, 3314.08, 3317.02, 3317.0217, 3701.132, 3701.34, 3701.74, 3701.83, 3701.881, 3702.511, 3702.52, 3702.526, 3702.71, 3702.74, 3702.75, 3702.91, 3702.95, 3730.09, 3737.02, 4141.01, 4141.09, 4141.11, 4141.131, 4141.20, 4141.25, 4141.26, 4141.28, 4141.29, 4141.35, 4511.191, 4729.03, 4729.54, 4729.83, 4737.045, 4758.01, 4758.02, 4758.06, 4758.16, 4758.20, 4758.21, 4758.23, 4758.24, 4758.26, 4758.28, 4758.29, 4758.30, 4758.31, 4758.35, 4758.36, 4758.50, 4758.51, 4758.60, 4758.71, 4781.121, 4781.29, 4905.01, 4905.81, 4905.95, 4923.01, 4923.02, 4923.04, 4928.66, 5104.03, 5123.01, 5123.011, 5123.012, 5123.081, 5123.16, 5123.162, 5123.169, 5123.19, 5123.191, 5123.21, 5123.61, 5123.75, 5123.76, 5123.89, 5124.01, 5124.106, 5124.21, 5124.60, 5124.61, 5124.62, 5124.67, 5126.01, 5126.0219, 5126.041, 5126.046, 5126.051, 5126.08, 5126.21, 5126.25, 5126.42, 5126.43, 5126.45, 5139.05, 5139.34, 5139.36, 5139.41, 5164.34, 5164.342, 5513.01, and 5713.012 be amended; and sections 164.261, 3123.90, 3317.162, 3721.122, 4758.48, 4758.62, 4758.63, 4758.64, 4909.157, 5122.36, 5123.0420, 5139.12, and 5139.45 of the Revised Code be enacted to read as follows:

Sec. 7.10.  For the publication of advertisements, notices, and proclamations, except those relating to proposed amendments to the Ohio Constitution, required to be published by a public officer of the state, a benevolent or other public institution, a trustee, assignee, executor, or administrator, or by or in any court of record, except when the rate is otherwise fixed by law, publishers of newspapers may charge and receive for such advertisements, notices, and proclamations rates charged on annual contracts by them for a like amount of space to other advertisers who advertise in its general display advertising columns.

For the publication of advertisements, notices, or proclamations required to be published by a public officer of a county, municipal corporation, township, school, or other political subdivision, publishers of newspapers shall establish a government rate, which shall include free publication of advertisements, notices, or proclamations on the newspaper's internet web site, if the newspaper has one. The government rate shall not exceed the lowest classified advertising rate and lowest insert rate paid by other advertisers.

Legal advertising appearing in print, except that relating to proposed amendments to the Ohio Constitution, shall be set up in a compact form, without unnecessary spaces, blanks, or headlines, and printed in not smaller than six-point type. The type used must be of such proportions that the body of the capital letter M is no wider than it is high and all other letters and characters are in proportion.

Except as provided in section 2701.09 of the Revised Code, all legal advertisements or, notices, or proclamations shall be printed in a newspaper of general circulation and shall be posted by the newspaper publisher on the newspaper's internet web site, if the newspaper has one. Publishers of newspapers may not charge for posting advertisements, notices, and proclamations on the newspaper's internet web site, if the newspaper has one.

Sec. 7.16. (A) As used in this section:

(1) "State agency" means any organized body, office, agency, institution, or other entity established by the laws of the state for the exercise of any function of state government, including state institutions of higher education, as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.

(2) "Political subdivision" has the meaning defined in section 2744.01 of the Revised Code.

(B) If a section of the Revised Code or an administrative rule requires a state agency or a political subdivision to publish a notice or advertisement two or more times in a newspaper of general circulation and the section or administrative rule refers to this section, the first publication of the notice or advertisement shall be made in its entirety in a newspaper of general circulation and may be made in a preprinted insert in the newspaper, but the second publication otherwise required by that section or administrative rule may be made in abbreviated form in a newspaper of general circulation in the state or in the political subdivision, as designated in that section or administrative rule, and on the newspaper's internet web site, if the newspaper has one. The state agency or political subdivision may eliminate any further newspaper publications required by that section or administrative rule, provided that the second, abbreviated notice or advertisement meets all of the following requirements:

(1) It is published in the newspaper of general circulation in which the first publication of the notice or advertisement was made and is published on that newspaper's internet web site, if the newspaper has one.

(2) It is published on the state official public notice web site established under section 125.182 of the Revised Code. The publisher of the newspaper shall post the notice or advertisement on the official public notice web site at no additional cost.

(3) It includes a title, followed by a summary paragraph or statement that clearly describes the specific purpose of the notice or advertisement, and includes a statement that the notice or advertisement is posted in its entirety on the state official public notice web site. The notice or advertisement also may be posted on the state agency's or political subdivision's internet web site.

(4) It includes the internet addresses address of the state official public notice web site, and of the newspaper's and state agency's or political subdivision's internet web site if the notice or advertisement is posted on those web sites, and the name, address, telephone number, and electronic mail address of the state agency, political subdivision, or other party responsible for publication of the notice or advertisement.

(C) A notice or advertisement published under this section on an internet web site shall be published in its entirety in accordance with the section of the Revised Code or the administrative rule that requires the publication.

(D) If the state official public notice web site established under section 125.182 of the Revised Code is not operational, the state agency or political subdivision shall not publish a notice or advertisement under this section, but instead shall comply with the publication requirements of the section of the Revised Code or the administrative rule that refers to this section.

Sec. 9.482. (A) As used in this section, "political:

(1) "Political subdivision" has the meaning defined in section 2744.01 of the Revised Code.

(2) "State agency" means any organized body, office, agency, institution, or other entity established by the laws of the state for the exercise of any function of state government. The term includes a state institution of higher education as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.

(B)(1) When legally authorized by their respective legislative authorities to do so, a political subdivision may enter into an agreement with another political subdivision or a state agency whereby a the contracting political subdivision or state agency agrees to exercise any power, perform any function, or render any service for another the contracting recipient political subdivision that the contracting recipient political subdivision is otherwise legally authorized to exercise, perform, or render.

In (2) When legally authorized to do so, a state agency may enter into an agreement with a political subdivision whereby the contracting political subdivision agrees to exercise any power, perform any function, or render any service for the contracting recipient state agency that the contracting recipient state agency is otherwise legally authorized to exercise, perform, or render.

(C) In the absence in the agreement of provisions determining by what officer, office, department, agency, or other authority the powers and duties of a contracting political subdivision shall be exercised or performed, the legislative authority of the contracting political subdivision shall determine and assign the powers and duties.

An agreement shall not suspend the possession by a contracting recipient political subdivision or state agency of any power or function that is exercised or performed on its behalf by another the other contracting political subdivision or the contracting state agency under the agreement.

A political subdivision shall not enter into an agreement to levy any tax or to exercise, with regard to public moneys, any investment powers, perform any investment function, or render any investment service on behalf of a contracting subdivision. Nothing in this paragraph prohibits a political subdivision from entering into an agreement to collect, administer, or enforce any tax on behalf of another political subdivision or to limit the authority of political subdivisions to create and operate joint economic development zones or joint economic development districts as provided in sections 715.69 to 715.83 of the Revised Code.

(C)(D) No county elected officer may be required to exercise any power, perform any function, or render any service under an agreement entered into under this section without the written consent of the county elected officer. No county may enter into an agreement under this section for the exercise, performance, or rendering of any statutory powers, functions, or services of any county elected officer without the written consent of the county elected officer.

(D)(E) No power shall be exercised, no function shall be performed, and no service shall be rendered by a contracting political subdivision or state agency pursuant to an agreement entered into under this section within a political subdivision that is not a party to the agreement, without first obtaining the written consent of the political subdivision that is not a party to the agreement and within which the power is to be exercised, a function is to be performed, or a service is to be rendered.

(E)(F) Chapter 2744. of the Revised Code, insofar as it applies to the operation of a political subdivision, applies to the political subdivisions that are parties to an agreement and to their employees when they are rendering a service outside the boundaries of their employing political subdivision under the agreement. Employees acting outside the boundaries of their employing political subdivision while providing a service under an agreement may participate in any pension or indemnity fund established by the political subdivision to the same extent as while they are acting within the boundaries of the political subdivision, and are entitled to all the rights and benefits of Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code to the same extent as while they are performing a service within the boundaries of the political subdivision.

Sec. 109.572. (A)(1) Upon receipt of a request pursuant to section 121.08, 3301.32, 3301.541, or 3319.39 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:

(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of the Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the violation been committed prior to that date, or a violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a minor drug possession offense;

(b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(1)(a) of this section;

(c) If the request is made pursuant to section 3319.39 of the Revised Code for an applicant who is a teacher, any offense specified in section 3319.31 of the Revised Code.

(2) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 3712.09 or 3721.121 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check with respect to any person who has applied for employment in a position for which a criminal records check is required by those sections. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:

(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;

(b) An existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(2)(a) of this section.

(3) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 173.27, 173.38, 3701.881, 5164.34, 5164.341, 5164.342, 5123.081, or 5123.169 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check of the person for whom the request is made. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of, has or pleaded guilty to, or (except in the case of a request pursuant to section 5164.34, 5164.341, or 5164.342 of the Revised Code) has been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for any of the following, regardless of the date of the conviction, the date or of the entry of the guilty plea, or (except in the case of a request pursuant to section 5164.34, 5164.341, or 5164.342 of the Revised Code) the date the person was found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction:

(a) A violation of section 959.13, 959.131, 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.15, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2903.341, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2905.32, 2905.33, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.24, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2907.33, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.04, 2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.05, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 2913.40, 2913.41, 2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 2913.441, 2913.45, 2913.46, 2913.47, 2913.48, 2913.49, 2913.51, 2917.01, 2917.02, 2917.03, 2917.31, 2919.12, 2919.121, 2919.123, 2919.22, 2919.23, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.03, 2921.11, 2921.12, 2921.13, 2921.21, 2921.24, 2921.32, 2921.321, 2921.34, 2921.35, 2921.36, 2921.51, 2923.12, 2923.122, 2923.123, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2923.162, 2923.21, 2923.32, 2923.42, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.041, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2925.09, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.14, 2925.141, 2925.22, 2925.23, 2925.24, 2925.36, 2925.55, 2925.56, 2927.12, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;

(b) Felonious sexual penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;

(c) A violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996;

(d) A violation of section 2923.01, 2923.02, or 2923.03 of the Revised Code when the underlying offense that is the object of the conspiracy, attempt, or complicity is one of the offenses listed in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (c) of this section;

(e) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (d) of this section.

(4) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 2151.86 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:

(a) A violation of section 959.13, 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.15, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2913.49, 2917.01, 2917.02, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2927.12, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of the Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the violation been committed prior to that date, a violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a minor drug possession offense, two or more OVI or OVUAC violations committed within the three years immediately preceding the submission of the application or petition that is the basis of the request, or felonious sexual penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;

(b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(4)(a) of this section.

(5) Upon receipt of a request pursuant to section 5104.012 or 5104.013 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:

(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.041, 2913.05, 2913.06, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 2913.33, 2913.34, 2913.40, 2913.41, 2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 2913.441, 2913.45, 2913.46, 2913.47, 2913.48, 2913.49, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.11, 2921.13, 2923.01, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of the Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the violation been committed prior to that date, a violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a minor drug possession offense, a violation of section 2923.02 or 2923.03 of the Revised Code that relates to a crime specified in this division, or a second violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code within five years of the date of application for licensure or certification.

(b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses or violations described in division (A)(5)(a) of this section.

(6) Upon receipt of a request pursuant to section 5153.111 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:

(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of the Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the violation been committed prior to that date, or a violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a minor drug possession offense;

(b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(6)(a) of this section.

(7) On receipt of a request for a criminal records check from an individual pursuant to section 4749.03 or 4749.06 of the Revised Code, accompanied by a completed copy of the form prescribed in division (C)(1) of this section and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in a manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists indicating that the person who is the subject of the request has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a felony in this state or in any other state. If the individual indicates that a firearm will be carried in the course of business, the superintendent shall require information from the federal bureau of investigation as described in division (B)(2) of this section. Subject to division (F) of this section, the superintendent shall report the findings of the criminal records check and any information the federal bureau of investigation provides to the director of public safety.

(8) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 1321.37, 1321.53, 1321.531, 1322.03, 1322.031, or 4763.05 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check with respect to any person who has applied for a license, permit, or certification from the department of commerce or a division in the department. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following: a violation of section 2913.02, 2913.11, 2913.31, 2913.51, or 2925.03 of the Revised Code; any other criminal offense involving theft, receiving stolen property, embezzlement, forgery, fraud, passing bad checks, money laundering, or drug trafficking, or any criminal offense involving money or securities, as set forth in Chapters 2909., 2911., 2913., 2915., 2921., 2923., and 2925. of the Revised Code; or any existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to those offenses.

(9) On receipt of a request for a criminal records check from the treasurer of state under section 113.041 of the Revised Code or from an individual under section 4701.08, 4715.101, 4717.061, 4725.121, 4725.501, 4729.071, 4730.101, 4730.14, 4730.28, 4731.081, 4731.15, 4731.171, 4731.222, 4731.281, 4731.296, 4731.531, 4732.091, 4734.202, 4740.061, 4741.10, 4755.70, 4757.101, 4759.061, 4760.032, 4760.06, 4761.051, 4762.031, 4762.06, 4776.021, 4779.091, or 4783.04 of the Revised Code, accompanied by a completed form prescribed under division (C)(1) of this section and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any criminal offense in this state or any other state. Subject to division (F) of this section, the superintendent shall send the results of a check requested under section 113.041 of the Revised Code to the treasurer of state and shall send the results of a check requested under any of the other listed sections to the licensing board specified by the individual in the request.

(10) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 1121.23, 1155.03, 1163.05, 1315.141, 1733.47, or 1761.26 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any criminal offense under any existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States.

(11) On receipt of a request for a criminal records check from an appointing or licensing authority under section 3772.07 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed under division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner prescribed in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty or no contest to any offense under any existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is a disqualifying offense as defined in section 3772.07 of the Revised Code or substantially equivalent to such an offense.

(12) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 2151.33 or 2151.412 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check with respect to any person for whom a criminal records check is required by that section. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:

(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;

(b) An existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(12)(a) of this section.

(B) Subject to division (F) of this section, the superintendent shall conduct any criminal records check to be conducted under this section as follows:

(1) The superintendent shall review or cause to be reviewed any relevant information gathered and compiled by the bureau under division (A) of section 109.57 of the Revised Code that relates to the person who is the subject of the criminal records check, including, if the criminal records check was requested under section 113.041, 121.08, 173.27, 173.38, 1121.23, 1155.03, 1163.05, 1315.141, 1321.37, 1321.53, 1321.531, 1322.03, 1322.031, 1733.47, 1761.26, 2151.86, 3301.32, 3301.541, 3319.39, 3701.881, 3712.09, 3721.121, 3772.07, 4749.03, 4749.06, 4763.05, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5164.34, 5164.341, 5164.342, 5123.081, 5123.169, or 5153.111 of the Revised Code, any relevant information contained in records that have been sealed under section 2953.32 of the Revised Code;

(2) If the request received by the superintendent asks for information from the federal bureau of investigation, the superintendent shall request from the federal bureau of investigation any information it has with respect to the person who is the subject of the criminal records check, including fingerprint-based checks of national crime information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 671 if the request is made pursuant to section 2151.86, 5104.012, or 5104.013 of the Revised Code or if any other Revised Code section requires fingerprint-based checks of that nature, and shall review or cause to be reviewed any information the superintendent receives from that bureau. If a request under section 3319.39 of the Revised Code asks only for information from the federal bureau of investigation, the superintendent shall not conduct the review prescribed by division (B)(1) of this section.

(3) The superintendent or the superintendent's designee may request criminal history records from other states or the federal government pursuant to the national crime prevention and privacy compact set forth in section 109.571 of the Revised Code.

(4) The superintendent shall include in the results of the criminal records check a list or description of the offenses listed or described in division (A)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), (9), (10), (11), or (12) of this section, whichever division requires the superintendent to conduct the criminal records check. The superintendent shall exclude from the results any information the dissemination of which is prohibited by federal law.

(5) The superintendent shall send the results of the criminal records check to the person to whom it is to be sent not later than the following number of days after the date the superintendent receives the request for the criminal records check, the completed form prescribed under division (C)(1) of this section, and the set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section:

(a) If the superintendent is required by division (A) of this section (other than division (A)(3) of this section) to conduct the criminal records check, thirty;

(b) If the superintendent is required by division (A)(3) of this section to conduct the criminal records check, sixty.

(C)(1) The superintendent shall prescribe a form to obtain the information necessary to conduct a criminal records check from any person for whom a criminal records check is to be conducted under this section. The form that the superintendent prescribes pursuant to this division may be in a tangible format, in an electronic format, or in both tangible and electronic formats.

(2) The superintendent shall prescribe standard impression sheets to obtain the fingerprint impressions of any person for whom a criminal records check is to be conducted under this section. Any person for whom a records check is to be conducted under this section shall obtain the fingerprint impressions at a county sheriff's office, municipal police department, or any other entity with the ability to make fingerprint impressions on the standard impression sheets prescribed by the superintendent. The office, department, or entity may charge the person a reasonable fee for making the impressions. The standard impression sheets the superintendent prescribes pursuant to this division may be in a tangible format, in an electronic format, or in both tangible and electronic formats.

(3) Subject to division (D) of this section, the superintendent shall prescribe and charge a reasonable fee for providing a criminal records check under this section. The person requesting the criminal records check shall pay the fee prescribed pursuant to this division. In the case of a request under section 1121.23, 1155.03, 1163.05, 1315.141, 1733.47, 1761.26, 2151.33, 2151.412, or 5164.34 of the Revised Code, the fee shall be paid in the manner specified in that section.

(4) The superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation may prescribe methods of forwarding fingerprint impressions and information necessary to conduct a criminal records check, which methods shall include, but not be limited to, an electronic method.

(D) The results of a criminal records check conducted under this section, other than a criminal records check specified in division (A)(7) of this section, are valid for the person who is the subject of the criminal records check for a period of one year from the date upon which the superintendent completes the criminal records check. If during that period the superintendent receives another request for a criminal records check to be conducted under this section for that person, the superintendent shall provide the results from the previous criminal records check of the person at a lower fee than the fee prescribed for the initial criminal records check.

(E) When the superintendent receives a request for information from a registered private provider, the superintendent shall proceed as if the request was received from a school district board of education under section 3319.39 of the Revised Code. The superintendent shall apply division (A)(1)(c) of this section to any such request for an applicant who is a teacher.

(F)(1) All information regarding the results of a criminal records check conducted under this section that the superintendent reports or sends under division (A)(7) or (9) of this section to the director of public safety, the treasurer of state, or the person, board, or entity that made the request for the criminal records check shall relate to the conviction of the subject person, or the subject person's plea of guilty to, a criminal offense.

(2) Division (F)(1) of this section does not limit, restrict, or preclude the superintendent's release of information that relates to an adjudication of a child as a delinquent child, or that relates to a criminal conviction of a person under eighteen years of age if the person's case was transferred back to a juvenile court under division (B)(2) or (3) of section 2152.121 of the Revised Code and the juvenile court imposed a disposition or serious youthful offender disposition upon the person under either division, if either of the following applies with respect to the adjudication or conviction:

(a) The adjudication or conviction was for a violation of section 2903.01 or 2903.02 of the Revised Code.

(b) The adjudication or conviction was for a sexually oriented offense, as defined in section 2950.01 of the Revised Code, the juvenile court was required to classify the child a juvenile offender registrant for that offense under section 2152.82, 2152.83, or 2152.86 of the Revised Code, and that classification has not been removed.

(G) As used in this section:

(1) "Criminal records check" means any criminal records check conducted by the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation in accordance with division (B) of this section.

(2) "Minor drug possession offense" has the same meaning as in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.

(3) "OVI or OVUAC violation" means a violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or a violation of an existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to section 4511.19 of the Revised Code.

(4) "Registered private provider" means a nonpublic school or entity registered with the superintendent of public instruction under section 3310.41 of the Revised Code to participate in the autism scholarship program or section 3310.58 of the Revised Code to participate in the Jon Peterson special needs scholarship program.

Sec. 109.5721. (A) As used in this section:

(1) "Employment" includes volunteer service.

(2) "Licensure" means the authorization, evidenced by a license, certificate, registration, permit, or other authority that is issued or conferred by a public office, to engage in a profession, occupation, or occupational activity, to be a foster caregiver, or to have control of and operate certain specific equipment, machinery, or premises over which a public office has jurisdiction.

(3) "Participating public office" means a public office that requires a fingerprint background check as a condition of employment with, licensure by, or approval for adoption by the public office and that elects to receive notice under division (C) of this section in accordance with rules adopted by the attorney general.

(4) "Public office" has the same meaning as in section 117.01 of the Revised Code.

(5) "Participating private party" means any person or private entity that is allowed to request a criminal records check pursuant to divisions (A)(2) or (3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code.

(B) Within six months after August 15, 2007, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall establish and maintain a database of fingerprints of individuals on whom the bureau has conducted criminal records checks for the purpose of determining eligibility for employment with, licensure by, or approval for adoption by a public office or participating private party. The superintendent shall maintain the database separate and apart from other records maintained by the bureau. The database shall be known as the retained applicant fingerprint database.

(C) When the superintendent receives information that an individual whose name is in the retained applicant fingerprint database has been arrested for, convicted of, or pleaded guilty to any offense, the superintendent shall promptly notify any participating public office or participating private party that employs, licensed, or approved the individual of the arrest, conviction, or guilty plea. The public office or participating private party that receives the notification and its employees and officers shall use the information contained in the notification solely to determine the individual's eligibility for continued employment with the public office or participating private party, to retain licensure issued by the public office, or to be approved for adoption by the public office. The public office or participating private party and its employees and officers shall not disclose that information to any person for any other purpose.

(D) If an individual has submitted fingerprint impressions for employment with, licensure by, or approval for adoption by a participating public office or participating private party and seeks employment with, licensure by, or approval for adoption by another participating public office or participating private party, the other public office or participating private party shall reprint the individual. If an individual has been reprinted, the superintendent shall update that individual's information accordingly.

(E) The bureau of criminal identification and investigation and the participating public office or participating private party shall use information contained in the retained applicant fingerprint database and in the notice described in division (C) of this section for the purpose of employment with, licensure by, or approval for adoption by the participating public office or participating private party. This information is otherwise confidential and not a public record under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.

(F) The attorney general shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code governing the operation and maintenance of the database. The rules shall provide for, but not be limited to, both of the following:

(1) The expungement or sealing of records of individuals who are deceased or who are no longer employed, granted licensure, or approved for adoption by the public office or participating private party that required submission of the individual's fingerprints;

(2) The terms under which a public office or participating private party may elect to receive notification under division (C) of this section, including payment of any reasonable fee that may be charged for the purpose.

(G) No public office or employee of a public office shall be considered negligent in a civil action solely because the public office did not elect to be a participating public office.

(H)(1) No person shall knowingly use information contained in or received from the retained applicant fingerprint database for purposes not authorized by this section.

(2) No person shall knowingly use information contained in or received from the retained applicant fingerprint database with the intent to harass or intimidate another person.

(3) Whoever violates division (H)(1) or (H)(2) of this section is guilty of unlawful use of retained applicant fingerprint database records. A violation of division (H)(1) of this section is a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. A violation of division (H)(2) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree.

Sec. 111.15.  (A) As used in this section:

(1) "Rule" includes any rule, regulation, bylaw, or standard having a general and uniform operation adopted by an agency under the authority of the laws governing the agency; any appendix to a rule; and any internal management rule. "Rule" does not include any guideline adopted pursuant to section 3301.0714 of the Revised Code, any order respecting the duties of employees, any finding, any determination of a question of law or fact in a matter presented to an agency, or any rule promulgated pursuant to Chapter 119., section 4141.14, division (C)(1) or (2) of section 5117.02, or section 5703.14 of the Revised Code. "Rule" includes any amendment or rescission of a rule.

(2) "Agency" means any governmental entity of the state and includes, but is not limited to, any board, department, division, commission, bureau, society, council, institution, state college or university, community college district, technical college district, or state community college. "Agency" does not include the general assembly, the controlling board, the adjutant general's department, or any court.

(3) "Internal management rule" means any rule, regulation, bylaw, or standard governing the day-to-day staff procedures and operations within an agency.

(4) "Substantive revision" has the same meaning as in division (J) of section 119.01 of the Revised Code.

(B)(1) Any rule, other than a rule of an emergency nature, adopted by any agency pursuant to this section shall be effective on the tenth day after the day on which the rule in final form and in compliance with division (B)(3) of this section is filed as follows:

(a) The rule shall be filed in electronic form with both the secretary of state and the director of the legislative service commission;

(b) The rule shall be filed in electronic form with the joint committee on agency rule review. Division (B)(1)(b) of this section does not apply to any rule to which division (D) of this section does not apply.

An agency that adopts or amends a rule that is subject to division (D) of this section shall assign a review date to the rule that is not later than five years after its effective date. If no review date is assigned to a rule, or if a review date assigned to a rule exceeds the five-year maximum, the review date for the rule is five years after its effective date. A rule with a review date is subject to review under section 119.032 of the Revised Code. This paragraph does not apply to a rule of a state college or university, community college district, technical college district, or state community college.

If all filings are not completed on the same day, the rule shall be effective on the tenth day after the day on which the latest filing is completed. If an agency in adopting a rule designates an effective date that is later than the effective date provided for by division (B)(1) of this section, the rule if filed as required by such division shall become effective on the later date designated by the agency.

Any rule that is required to be filed under division (B)(1) of this section is also subject to division (D) of this section if not exempted by division (D)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), or (8) of this section.

If a rule incorporates a text or other material by reference, the agency shall comply with sections 121.71 to 121.76 of the Revised Code.

(2) A rule of an emergency nature necessary for the immediate preservation of the public peace, health, or safety shall state the reasons for the necessity. The emergency rule, in final form and in compliance with division (B)(3) of this section, shall be filed in electronic form with the secretary of state, the director of the legislative service commission, and the joint committee on agency rule review. The emergency rule is effective immediately upon completion of the latest filing, except that if the agency in adopting the emergency rule designates an effective date, or date and time of day, that is later than the effective date and time provided for by division (B)(2) of this section, the emergency rule if filed as required by such division shall become effective at the later date, or later date and time of day, designated by the agency.

An emergency rule becomes invalid at the end of the ninetieth one hundred twentieth day it is in effect. Prior to that date, the agency may file the emergency rule as a nonemergency rule in compliance with division (B)(1) of this section. The agency may not refile the emergency rule in compliance with division (B)(2) of this section so that, upon the emergency rule becoming invalid under such division, the emergency rule will continue in effect without interruption for another ninety-day one hundred twenty-day period.

(3) An agency shall file a rule under division (B)(1) or (2) of this section in compliance with the following standards and procedures:

(a) The rule shall be numbered in accordance with the numbering system devised by the director for the Ohio administrative code.

(b) The rule shall be prepared and submitted in compliance with the rules of the legislative service commission.

(c) The rule shall clearly state the date on which it is to be effective and the date on which it will expire, if known.

(d) Each rule that amends or rescinds another rule shall clearly refer to the rule that is amended or rescinded. Each amendment shall fully restate the rule as amended.

If the director of the legislative service commission or the director's designee gives an agency notice pursuant to section 103.05 of the Revised Code that a rule filed by the agency is not in compliance with the rules of the legislative service commission, the agency shall within thirty days after receipt of the notice conform the rule to the rules of the commission as directed in the notice.

(C) All rules filed pursuant to divisions (B)(1)(a) and (2) of this section shall be recorded by the secretary of state and the director under the title of the agency adopting the rule and shall be numbered according to the numbering system devised by the director. The secretary of state and the director shall preserve the rules in an accessible manner. Each such rule shall be a public record open to public inspection and may be transmitted to any law publishing company that wishes to reproduce it.

(D) At least sixty-five days before a board, commission, department, division, or bureau of the government of the state files a rule under division (B)(1) of this section, it shall file the full text of the proposed rule in electronic form with the joint committee on agency rule review, and the proposed rule is subject to legislative review and invalidation under division (I) of section 119.03 of the Revised Code. If a state board, commission, department, division, or bureau makes a substantive revision in a proposed rule after it is filed with the joint committee, the state board, commission, department, division, or bureau shall promptly file the full text of the proposed rule in its revised form in electronic form with the joint committee. The latest version of a proposed rule as filed with the joint committee supersedes each earlier version of the text of the same proposed rule. A state board, commission, department, division, or bureau shall also file the rule summary and fiscal analysis prepared under section 127.18 of the Revised Code in electronic form along with a proposed rule, and along with a proposed rule in revised form, that is filed under this division. If a proposed rule has an adverse impact on businesses, the state board, commission, department, division, or bureau also shall file the business impact analysis, any recommendations received from the common sense initiative office, and the associated memorandum of response, if any, in electronic form along with the proposed rule, or the proposed rule in revised form, that is filed under this division.

As used in this division, "commission" includes the public utilities commission when adopting rules under a federal or state statute.

This division does not apply to any of the following:

(1) A proposed rule of an emergency nature;

(2) A rule proposed under section 1121.05, 1121.06, 1155.18, 1163.22, 1349.33, 1707.201, 1733.412, 4123.29, 4123.34, 4123.341, 4123.342, 4123.40, 4123.411, 4123.44, or 4123.442 of the Revised Code;

(3) A rule proposed by an agency other than a board, commission, department, division, or bureau of the government of the state;

(4) A proposed internal management rule of a board, commission, department, division, or bureau of the government of the state;

(5) Any proposed rule that must be adopted verbatim by an agency pursuant to federal law or rule, to become effective within sixty days of adoption, in order to continue the operation of a federally reimbursed program in this state, so long as the proposed rule contains both of the following:

(a) A statement that it is proposed for the purpose of complying with a federal law or rule;

(b) A citation to the federal law or rule that requires verbatim compliance.

(6) An initial rule proposed by the director of health to impose safety standards and quality-of-care standards with respect to a health service specified in section 3702.11 of the Revised Code, or an initial rule proposed by the director to impose quality standards on a facility listed in division (A)(4) of section 3702.30 of the Revised Code, if section 3702.12 of the Revised Code requires that the rule be adopted under this section;

(7) A rule of the state lottery commission pertaining to instant game rules.

If a rule is exempt from legislative review under division (D)(5) of this section, and if the federal law or rule pursuant to which the rule was adopted expires, is repealed or rescinded, or otherwise terminates, the rule is thereafter subject to legislative review under division (D) of this section.

(E) Whenever a state board, commission, department, division, or bureau files a proposed rule or a proposed rule in revised form under division (D) of this section, it shall also file the full text of the same proposed rule or proposed rule in revised form in electronic form with the secretary of state and the director of the legislative service commission. A state board, commission, department, division, or bureau shall file the rule summary and fiscal analysis prepared under section 127.18 of the Revised Code in electronic form along with a proposed rule or proposed rule in revised form that is filed with the secretary of state or the director of the legislative service commission.

Sec. 119.03.  In the adoption, amendment, or rescission of any rule, an agency shall comply with the following procedure:

(A) Reasonable public notice shall be given in the register of Ohio at least thirty days prior to the date set for a hearing, in the form the agency determines. The agency shall file copies of the public notice under division (B) of this section. (The agency gives public notice in the register of Ohio when the public notice is published in the register under that division.)

The public notice shall include:

(1) A statement of the agency's intention to consider adopting, amending, or rescinding a rule;

(2) A synopsis of the proposed rule, amendment, or rule to be rescinded or a general statement of the subject matter to which the proposed rule, amendment, or rescission relates;

(3) A statement of the reason or purpose for adopting, amending, or rescinding the rule;

(4) The date, time, and place of a hearing on the proposed action, which shall be not earlier than the thirty-first nor later than the fortieth day after the proposed rule, amendment, or rescission is filed under division (B) of this section.

In addition to public notice given in the register of Ohio, the agency may give whatever other notice it reasonably considers necessary to ensure notice constructively is given to all persons who are subject to or affected by the proposed rule, amendment, or rescission.

The agency shall provide a copy of the public notice required under division (A) of this section to any person who requests it and pays a reasonable fee, not to exceed the cost of copying and mailing.

(B) The full text of the proposed rule, amendment, or rule to be rescinded, accompanied by the public notice required under division (A) of this section, shall be filed in electronic form with the secretary of state and with the director of the legislative service commission. (If in compliance with this division an agency files more than one proposed rule, amendment, or rescission at the same time, and has prepared a public notice under division (A) of this section that applies to more than one of the proposed rules, amendments, or rescissions, the agency shall file only one notice with the secretary of state and with the director for all of the proposed rules, amendments, or rescissions to which the notice applies.) The proposed rule, amendment, or rescission and public notice shall be filed as required by this division at least sixty-five days prior to the date on which the agency, in accordance with division (D) of this section, issues an order adopting the proposed rule, amendment, or rescission.

If the proposed rule, amendment, or rescission incorporates a text or other material by reference, the agency shall comply with sections 121.71 to 121.76 of the Revised Code.

The proposed rule, amendment, or rescission shall be available for at least thirty days prior to the date of the hearing at the office of the agency in printed or other legible form without charge to any person affected by the proposal. Failure to furnish such text to any person requesting it shall not invalidate any action of the agency in connection therewith.

If the agency files a substantive revision in the text of the proposed rule, amendment, or rescission under division (H) of this section, it shall also promptly file the full text of the proposed rule, amendment, or rescission in its revised form in electronic form with the secretary of state and with the director of the legislative service commission.

The agency shall file the rule summary and fiscal analysis prepared under section 127.18 of the Revised Code in electronic form along with a proposed rule, amendment, or rescission or proposed rule, amendment, or rescission in revised form that is filed with the secretary of state or the director of the legislative service commission.

The director of the legislative service commission shall publish in the register of Ohio the full text of the original and each revised version of a proposed rule, amendment, or rescission; the full text of a public notice; and the full text of a rule summary and fiscal analysis that is filed with the director under this division.

(C) On the date and at the time and place designated in the notice, the agency shall conduct a public hearing at which any person affected by the proposed action of the agency may appear and be heard in person, by the person's attorney, or both, may present the person's position, arguments, or contentions, orally or in writing, offer and examine witnesses, and present evidence tending to show that the proposed rule, amendment, or rescission, if adopted or effectuated, will be unreasonable or unlawful. An agency may permit persons affected by the proposed rule, amendment, or rescission to present their positions, arguments, or contentions in writing, not only at the hearing, but also for a reasonable period before, after, or both before and after the hearing. A person who presents a position or arguments or contentions in writing before or after the hearing is not required to appear at the hearing.

At the hearing, the testimony shall be recorded. Such record shall be made at the expense of the agency. The agency is required to transcribe a record that is not sight readable only if a person requests transcription of all or part of the record and agrees to reimburse the agency for the costs of the transcription. An agency may require the person to pay in advance all or part of the cost of the transcription.

In any hearing under this section the agency may administer oaths or affirmations.

(D) After complying with divisions (A), (B), (C), and (H) of this section, and when the time for legislative review and invalidation under division (I) of this section has expired, the agency may issue an order adopting the proposed rule or the proposed amendment or rescission of the rule, consistent with the synopsis or general statement included in the public notice. At that time the agency shall designate the effective date of the rule, amendment, or rescission, which shall not be earlier than the tenth day after the rule, amendment, or rescission has been filed in its final form as provided in section 119.04 of the Revised Code.

(E) Prior to the effective date of a rule, amendment, or rescission, the agency shall make a reasonable effort to inform those affected by the rule, amendment, or rescission and to have available for distribution to those requesting it the full text of the rule as adopted or as amended.

(F) If the governor, upon the request of an agency, determines that an emergency requires the immediate adoption, amendment, or rescission of a rule, the governor shall issue an order, the text of which shall be filed in electronic form with the agency, the secretary of state, the director of the legislative service commission, and the joint committee on agency rule review, that the procedure prescribed by this section with respect to the adoption, amendment, or rescission of a specified rule is suspended. The agency may then adopt immediately the emergency rule, amendment, or rescission and it becomes effective on the date the rule, amendment, or rescission, in final form and in compliance with division (A)(2) of section 119.04 of the Revised Code, is filed in electronic form with the secretary of state, the director of the legislative service commission, and the joint committee on agency rule review. If all filings are not completed on the same day, the emergency rule, amendment, or rescission shall be effective on the day on which the latest filing is completed. The director shall publish the full text of the emergency rule, amendment, or rescission in the register of Ohio.

The emergency rule, amendment, or rescission shall become invalid at the end of the ninetieth one hundred twentieth day it is in effect. Prior to that date the agency may adopt the emergency rule, amendment, or rescission as a nonemergency rule, amendment, or rescission by complying with the procedure prescribed by this section for the adoption, amendment, and rescission of nonemergency rules. The agency shall not use the procedure of this division to readopt the emergency rule, amendment, or rescission so that, upon the emergency rule, amendment, or rescission becoming invalid under this division, the emergency rule, amendment, or rescission will continue in effect without interruption for another ninety-day one hundred twenty-day period, except when division (I)(2)(a) of this section prevents the agency from adopting the emergency rule, amendment, or rescission as a nonemergency rule, amendment, or rescission within the ninety-day one hundred twenty-day period.

This division does not apply to the adoption of any emergency rule, amendment, or rescission by the tax commissioner under division (C)(2) of section 5117.02 of the Revised Code.

(G) Rules adopted by an authority within the department of job and family services for the administration or enforcement of Chapter 4141. of the Revised Code or of the department of taxation shall be effective without a hearing as provided by this section if the statutes pertaining to such agency specifically give a right of appeal to the board of tax appeals or to a higher authority within the agency or to a court, and also give the appellant a right to a hearing on such appeal. This division does not apply to the adoption of any rule, amendment, or rescission by the tax commissioner under division (C)(1) or (2) of section 5117.02 of the Revised Code, or deny the right to file an action for declaratory judgment as provided in Chapter 2721. of the Revised Code from the decision of the board of tax appeals or of the higher authority within such agency.

(H) When any agency files a proposed rule, amendment, or rescission under division (B) of this section, it shall also file in electronic form with the joint committee on agency rule review the full text of the proposed rule, amendment, or rule to be rescinded in the same form and the public notice required under division (A) of this section. (If in compliance with this division an agency files more than one proposed rule, amendment, or rescission at the same time, and has given a public notice under division (A) of this section that applies to more than one of the proposed rules, amendments, or rescissions, the agency shall file only one notice with the joint committee for all of the proposed rules, amendments, or rescissions to which the notice applies.) If the agency makes a substantive revision in a proposed rule, amendment, or rescission after it is filed with the joint committee, the agency shall promptly file the full text of the proposed rule, amendment, or rescission in its revised form in electronic form with the joint committee. The latest version of a proposed rule, amendment, or rescission as filed with the joint committee supersedes each earlier version of the text of the same proposed rule, amendment, or rescission. An agency shall file the rule summary and fiscal analysis prepared under section 127.18 of the Revised Code in electronic form along with a proposed rule, amendment, or rescission, and along with a proposed rule, amendment, or rescission in revised form, that is filed under this division. If a proposed rule, amendment, or rescission has an adverse impact on businesses, the agency also shall file the business impact analysis, any recommendations received from the common sense initiative office, and the agency's memorandum of response, if any, in electronic form along with the proposed rule, amendment, or rescission, or along with the proposed rule, amendment, or rescission in revised form, that is filed under this division.

This division does not apply to:

(1) An emergency rule, amendment, or rescission;

(2) Any proposed rule, amendment, or rescission that must be adopted verbatim by an agency pursuant to federal law or rule, to become effective within sixty days of adoption, in order to continue the operation of a federally reimbursed program in this state, so long as the proposed rule contains both of the following:

(a) A statement that it is proposed for the purpose of complying with a federal law or rule;

(b) A citation to the federal law or rule that requires verbatim compliance.

If a rule or amendment is exempt from legislative review under division (H)(2) of this section, and if the federal law or rule pursuant to which the rule or amendment was adopted expires, is repealed or rescinded, or otherwise terminates, the rule or amendment, or its rescission, is thereafter subject to legislative review under division (H) of this section.

(I)(1) The joint committee on agency rule review may recommend the adoption of a concurrent resolution invalidating a proposed rule, amendment, rescission, or part thereof if it finds any of the following:

(a) That the rule-making agency has exceeded the scope of its statutory authority in proposing the rule, amendment, or rescission;

(b) That the proposed rule, amendment, or rescission conflicts with another rule, amendment, or rescission adopted by the same or a different rule-making agency;

(c) That the proposed rule, amendment, or rescission conflicts with the legislative intent in enacting the statute under which the rule-making agency proposed the rule, amendment, or rescission;

(d) That the rule-making agency has failed to prepare a complete and accurate rule summary and fiscal analysis of the proposed rule, amendment, or rescission as required by section 127.18 of the Revised Code;

(e) That the proposed rule, amendment, or rescission incorporates a text or other material by reference and either the rule-making agency has failed to file the text or other material incorporated by reference as required by section 121.73 of the Revised Code or, in the case of a proposed rule or amendment, the incorporation by reference fails to meet the standards stated in section 121.72, 121.75, or 121.76 of the Revised Code;

(f) That the rule-making agency has failed to demonstrate through the business impact analysis, recommendations from the common sense initiative office, and the memorandum of response the agency has filed under division (H) of this section that the regulatory intent of the proposed rule, amendment, or rescission justifies its adverse impact on businesses in this state.

The joint committee shall not hold its public hearing on a proposed rule, amendment, or rescission earlier than the forty-first day after the original version of the proposed rule, amendment, or rescission was filed with the joint committee.

The house of representatives and senate may adopt a concurrent resolution invalidating a proposed rule, amendment, rescission, or part thereof. The concurrent resolution shall state which of the specific rules, amendments, rescissions, or parts thereof are invalidated. A concurrent resolution invalidating a proposed rule, amendment, or rescission shall be adopted not later than the sixty-fifth day after the original version of the text of the proposed rule, amendment, or rescission is filed with the joint committee, except that if more than thirty-five days after the original version is filed the rule-making agency either files a revised version of the text of the proposed rule, amendment, or rescission, or revises the rule summary and fiscal analysis in accordance with division (I)(4) of this section, a concurrent resolution invalidating the proposed rule, amendment, or rescission shall be adopted not later than the thirtieth day after the revised version of the proposed rule or rule summary and fiscal analysis is filed. If, after the joint committee on agency rule review recommends the adoption of a concurrent resolution invalidating a proposed rule, amendment, rescission, or part thereof, the house of representatives or senate does not, within the time remaining for adoption of the concurrent resolution, hold five floor sessions at which its journal records a roll call vote disclosing a sufficient number of members in attendance to pass a bill, the time within which that house may adopt the concurrent resolution is extended until it has held five such floor sessions.

Within five days after the adoption of a concurrent resolution invalidating a proposed rule, amendment, rescission, or part thereof, the clerk of the senate shall send the rule-making agency, the secretary of state, and the director of the legislative service commission in electronic form a certified text of the resolution together with a certification stating the date on which the resolution takes effect. The secretary of state and the director of the legislative service commission shall each note the invalidity of the proposed rule, amendment, rescission, or part thereof, and shall each remove the invalid proposed rule, amendment, rescission, or part thereof from the file of proposed rules. The rule-making agency shall not proceed to adopt in accordance with division (D) of this section, or to file in accordance with division (B)(1) of section 111.15 of the Revised Code, any version of a proposed rule, amendment, rescission, or part thereof that has been invalidated by concurrent resolution.

Unless the house of representatives and senate adopt a concurrent resolution invalidating a proposed rule, amendment, rescission, or part thereof within the time specified by this division, the rule-making agency may proceed to adopt in accordance with division (D) of this section, or to file in accordance with division (B)(1) of section 111.15 of the Revised Code, the latest version of the proposed rule, amendment, or rescission as filed with the joint committee. If by concurrent resolution certain of the rules, amendments, rescissions, or parts thereof are specifically invalidated, the rule-making agency may proceed to adopt, in accordance with division (D) of this section, or to file in accordance with division (B)(1) of section 111.15 of the Revised Code, the latest version of the proposed rules, amendments, rescissions, or parts thereof as filed with the joint committee that are not specifically invalidated. The rule-making agency may not revise or amend any proposed rule, amendment, rescission, or part thereof that has not been invalidated except as provided in this chapter or in section 111.15 of the Revised Code.

(2)(a) A proposed rule, amendment, or rescission that is filed with the joint committee under division (H) of this section or division (D) of section 111.15 of the Revised Code shall be carried over for legislative review to the next succeeding regular session of the general assembly if the original or any revised version of the proposed rule, amendment, or rescission is filed with the joint committee on or after the first day of December of any year.

(b) The latest version of any proposed rule, amendment, or rescission that is subject to division (I)(2)(a) of this section, as filed with the joint committee, is subject to legislative review and invalidation in the next succeeding regular session of the general assembly in the same manner as if it were the original version of a proposed rule, amendment, or rescission that had been filed with the joint committee for the first time on the first day of the session. A rule-making agency shall not adopt in accordance with division (D) of this section, or file in accordance with division (B)(1) of section 111.15 of the Revised Code, any version of a proposed rule, amendment, or rescission that is subject to division (I)(2)(a) of this section until the time for legislative review and invalidation, as contemplated by division (I)(2)(b) of this section, has expired.

(3) Invalidation of any version of a proposed rule, amendment, rescission, or part thereof by concurrent resolution shall prevent the rule-making agency from instituting or continuing proceedings to adopt any version of the same proposed rule, amendment, rescission, or part thereof for the duration of the general assembly that invalidated the proposed rule, amendment, rescission, or part thereof unless the same general assembly adopts a concurrent resolution permitting the rule-making agency to institute or continue such proceedings.

The failure of the general assembly to invalidate a proposed rule, amendment, rescission, or part thereof under this section shall not be construed as a ratification of the lawfulness or reasonableness of the proposed rule, amendment, rescission, or any part thereof or of the validity of the procedure by which the proposed rule, amendment, rescission, or any part thereof was proposed or adopted.

(4) In lieu of recommending a concurrent resolution to invalidate a proposed rule, amendment, rescission, or part thereof because the rule-making agency has failed to prepare a complete and accurate fiscal analysis, the joint committee on agency rule review may issue, on a one-time basis, for rules, amendments, rescissions, or parts thereof that have a fiscal effect on school districts, counties, townships, or municipal corporations, a finding that the rule summary and fiscal analysis is incomplete or inaccurate and order the rule-making agency to revise the rule summary and fiscal analysis and refile it with the proposed rule, amendment, rescission, or part thereof. If an emergency rule is filed as a nonemergency rule before the end of the ninetieth day of the emergency rule's effectiveness, and the joint committee issues a finding and orders the rule-making agency to refile under division (I)(4) of this section, the governor may also issue an order stating that the emergency rule shall remain in effect for an additional sixty days after the ninetieth one hundred twentieth day of the emergency rule's effectiveness. The governor's orders shall be filed in accordance with division (F) of this section. The joint committee shall send in electronic form to the rule-making agency, the secretary of state, and the director of the legislative service commission a certified text of the finding and order to revise the rule summary and fiscal analysis, which shall take immediate effect.

An order issued under division (I)(4) of this section shall prevent the rule-making agency from instituting or continuing proceedings to adopt any version of the proposed rule, amendment, rescission, or part thereof until the rule-making agency revises the rule summary and fiscal analysis and refiles it in electronic form with the joint committee along with the proposed rule, amendment, rescission, or part thereof. If the joint committee finds the rule summary and fiscal analysis to be complete and accurate, the joint committee shall issue a new order noting that the rule-making agency has revised and refiled a complete and accurate rule summary and fiscal analysis. The joint committee shall send in electronic form to the rule-making agency, the secretary of state, and the director of the legislative service commission a certified text of this new order. The secretary of state and the director of the legislative service commission shall each link this order to the proposed rule, amendment, rescission, or part thereof. The rule-making agency may then proceed to adopt in accordance with division (D) of this section, or to file in accordance with division (B)(1) of section 111.15 of the Revised Code, the proposed rule, amendment, rescission, or part thereof that was subject to the finding and order under division (I)(4) of this section. If the joint committee determines that the revised rule summary and fiscal analysis is still inaccurate or incomplete, the joint committee shall recommend the adoption of a concurrent resolution in accordance with division (I)(1) of this section.

Sec. 122.121.  (A) If a local organizing committee, endorsing municipality, or endorsing county enters into a joinder undertaking with a site selection organization, the local organizing committee, endorsing municipality, or endorsing county may apply to the director of development services, on a form and in the manner prescribed by the director, for a grant based on the projected incremental increase in the receipts from the tax imposed under section 5739.02 of the Revised Code within the market area designated under division (C) of this section, for the two-week period that ends at the end of the day after the date on which a game will be held, that is directly attributable, as determined by the director, to the preparation for and presentation of the game. The director shall determine the projected incremental increase in the tax imposed under section 5739.02 of the Revised Code by using a formula approved by the destination marketing association international for event impact or another formula of similar purpose approved by the director. The local organizing committee, endorsing municipality, or endorsing county is eligible to receive a grant under this section only if the projected incremental increase in receipts from the tax imposed under section 5739.02 of the Revised Code, as determined by the director, exceeds two hundred fifty thousand dollars. The amount of the grant shall be not less than fifty per cent of the projected incremental increase in receipts, as determined by the director, but shall not exceed five hundred thousand dollars. The director shall not issue grants with a total value of more than one million dollars in any fiscal year, and shall not issue any grant before July 1, 2013.

(B) If the director of development services approves an application for a local organizing committee, endorsing municipality, or endorsing county and that local organizing committee, endorsing municipality, or endorsing county enters into a joinder agreement with a site selection organization, the local organizing committee, endorsing municipality, or endorsing county shall file a copy of the joinder agreement with the director of development, who immediately shall notify the director of budget and management of the filing. Within thirty days after receiving the notice, the director of budget and management shall establish a schedule to disburse from the general revenue fund to such local organizing committee, endorsing municipality, or endorsing county payments that total the amount certified by the director of development under division (A) of this section, but in no event shall the total amount disbursed exceed five hundred thousand dollars, and no disbursement shall be made before July 1, 2013. The payments grant shall be used exclusively by the local organizing committee, endorsing municipality, or endorsing county to fulfill a portion of its obligations to a site selection organization under game support contracts, which obligations may include the payment of costs relating to the preparations necessary for the conduct of the game, including acquiring, renovating, or constructing facilities; to pay the costs of conducting the game; and to assist the local organizing committee, endorsing municipality, or endorsing county in providing assurances required by a site selection organization sponsoring one or more games.

(C) For the purposes of division (A) of this section, the director of development services, in consultation with the tax commissioner, shall designate the market area for a game. The market area shall consist of the combined statistical area, as defined by the United States office of management and budget, in which an endorsing municipality or endorsing county is located.

(D) A local organizing committee, endorsing municipality, or endorsing county shall provide information required by the director of development services and tax commissioner to enable the director and commissioner to fulfill their duties under this section, including annual audited statements of any financial records required by a site selection organization and data obtained by the local organizing committee, endorsing municipality, or endorsing county relating to attendance at a game and to the economic impact of the game. A local organizing committee, an endorsing municipality, or an endorsing county shall provide an annual audited financial statement if so required by the director and commissioner, not later than the end of the fourth month after the date the period covered by the financial statement ends.

(E) Within thirty days after the game, the local organizing committee, endorsing municipality, or endorsing county shall report to the director of development services about the economic impact of the game. The report shall be in the form and substance required by the director, including, but not limited to, a final income statement for the event showing total revenue and expenditures and revenue and expenditures in the market area for the game, and ticket sales for the game and any related activities for which admission was charged. The director of development shall determine, based on the reported information and the exercise of reasonable judgment, the incremental increase in receipts from the tax imposed under section 5739.02 of the Revised Code directly attributable to the game. If the actual incremental increase in such receipts is less than the projected incremental increase in receipts, the director may require the local organizing committee, endorsing municipality, or endorsing county to refund to the state all or a portion of the grant.

(F) No disbursement may be made under this section if the director of development services determines that it would be used for the purpose of soliciting the relocation of a professional sports franchise located in this state.

(G) This section may not be construed as creating or requiring a state guarantee of obligations imposed on an endorsing municipality or endorsing county under a game support contract or any other agreement relating to hosting one or more games in this state.

Sec. 122.861.  (A) As used in this section:

(1) "Certified engine configuration" means a new, rebuilt, or remanufactured engine configuration that satisfies divisions (A)(1)(a) and (b) and, if applicable, division (A)(1)(c) of this section:

(a) It has been certified by the administrator of the United States environmental protection agency or the California air resources board.

(b) It meets or is rebuilt or remanufactured to a more stringent set of engine emission standards than when originally manufactured, as determined pursuant to Subtitle G of Title VII of the Energy Policy Act of 2005, Pub. L. No. 109-58, 119 Stat. 838, et seq.

(c) In the case of a certified engine configuration involving the replacement of an existing engine, an engine configuration that replaced an engine that was removed from the vehicle and returned to the supplier for remanufacturing to a more stringent set of engine emissions standards or for scrappage.

(2) "Section 793" means section 793 of the Energy Policy Act of 2005, Pub. L. No. 109-58, 119 Stat. 841, et seq.

(3) "Verified technology" means a pollution control technology, including a retrofit technology, advanced truckstop electrification system, or auxiliary power unit, that has been verified by the administrator of the United States environmental protection agency or the California air resources board.

(B) For the purpose of reducing emissions from diesel engines, the director of environmental protection shall administer a diesel emissions reduction grant program and a diesel emissions reduction revolving loan clean diesel school bus program. The programs shall provide for the implementation in this state of section 793 and shall otherwise be administered in compliance with the requirements of section 793, and any regulations issued pursuant to that section.

The director shall apply to the administrator of the United States environmental protection agency for grant or loan funds available under section 793 to help fund the diesel emissions reduction grant program and the diesel emissions reduction revolving loan clean diesel school bus program.

(C) There is hereby created in the state treasury the diesel emissions reduction revolving loan fund consisting of money appropriated to it by the general assembly, any grants obtained from the federal government under section 793, and any other grants, gifts, or other contributions of money made to the credit of the fund. Money in the fund shall be used for the purpose of making loans for projects relating to certified engine configurations and verified technologies in a manner consistent with the requirements of section 793 and any regulations issued pursuant to that section. Interest earned from moneys in the fund shall be used to administer the diesel emissions reduction revolving loan program.

Sec. 124.32.  (A) A person holding an office or position in the classified service may be transferred to a similar position in another office, department, or institution having the same pay and similar duties, but no transfer shall be made as follows:

(1) From an office or position in one class to an office or position in another class;

(2) To an office or position for original entrance to which there is required by sections 124.01 to 124.64 of the Revised Code, or the rules adopted pursuant to those sections, an examination involving essential tests or qualifications or carrying a salary different from or higher than those required for original entrance to an office or position held by the person proposed to be transferred.

No person in the classified civil service of the state may be transferred without the consent of the director of administrative services.

(B) Any person holding an office or position in the classified service who has been separated from the service without delinquency or misconduct on the person's part may be reinstated within one year from the date of that separation to a vacancy in the same office or in a similar position in the same department, except that a person in the classified service of the state only may be reinstated with the consent of the director of administrative services. But, if that separation is due to injury or physical or psychiatric disability, the person shall be reinstated in the same office held or in a similar position to that held at the time of separation, within thirty sixty days after written application for reinstatement, if the person passes a physical or psychiatric examination made by a licensed physician, a physician assistant, a clinical nurse specialist, a certified nurse practitioner, or a certified nurse-midwife showing that the person has recovered from the injury or physical or psychiatric disability, if the application for reinstatement is filed within two years from the date of separation, and if the application is not filed after the date of service eligibility retirement. The physician, physician assistant, clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse practitioner, or certified nurse-midwife shall be designated by the appointing authority and shall complete any written documentation of the physical or psychiatric examination.

Sec. 125.13.  (A) As used in this section:

(1) "Emergency medical service organization" has the same meaning as in section 4765.01 of the Revised Code.

(2) "Private fire company" has the same meaning as in section 9.60 of the Revised Code.

(B) Except as otherwise provided in section 5139.03 of the Revised Code, whenever a state agency determines that it has excess or surplus supplies, it shall notify the director of administrative services. Upon request by the director and on forms provided by the director, the state agency shall furnish to the director a list of all those excess and surplus supplies and an appraisal of their value.

(C) The director of administrative services shall take immediate control of a state agency's excess and surplus supplies, except for the following excess and surplus supplies:

(1) Excess or surplus supplies that have a value below the minimum value that the director establishes for excess and surplus supplies under division (F) of this section;

(2) Excess or surplus supplies that the director has authorized an agency to donate to a public entity, including, but not limited to, public schools and surplus computers and computer equipment transferred to a public school under division (H) of this section;

(3) Excess or surplus supplies that an agency trades in as full or partial payment when purchasing a replacement item;

(4) Hazardous property.

(D) The director shall inventory excess and surplus supplies in the director's control and may have the supplies repaired.

(E) The director may do either of the following:

(1) Dispose of declared surplus or excess supplies in the director's control by sale, lease, donation, or transfer. If the director does so, the director shall dispose of those supplies in the following order of priority:

(a) To state agencies;

(b) To state-supported or state-assisted institutions of higher education;

(c) To tax-supported agencies, municipal corporations, or other political subdivisions of this state, private fire companies, or private, nonprofit emergency medical service organizations;

(d) To nonpublic elementary and secondary schools chartered by the state board of education under section 3301.16 of the Revised Code;

(e) To the general public by auction, sealed bid, sale, or negotiation.

(2) If the director has attempted to dispose of any declared surplus or excess motor vehicle that does not exceed four thousand five hundred dollars in value pursuant to divisions (E)(1)(a) to (c) of this section, donate the motor vehicle to a nonprofit organization exempt from federal income taxation pursuant to 26 U.S.C. 501(a) and (c)(3) for the purpose of meeting the transportation needs of participants in the Ohio works first program established under Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code and participants in the prevention, retention, and contingency program established under Chapter 5108. of the Revised Code. The director may not donate a motor vehicle furnished to the state highway patrol to a nonprofit organization pursuant to this division.

(F) The director may adopt rules governing the sale, lease, or transfer of surplus and excess supplies in the director's control by public auction, sealed bid, sale, or negotiation, except that no employee of the disposing agency shall be allowed to purchase, lease, or receive any such supplies. The director may dispose of declared surplus or excess supplies, including motor vehicles, in the director's control as the director determines proper if such supplies cannot be disposed of pursuant to division (E) of this section. The director shall by rule establish a minimum value for excess and surplus supplies and prescribe procedures for a state agency to follow in disposing of excess and surplus supplies in its control that have a value below the minimum value established by the director.

(G) No state-supported or state-assisted institution of higher education, tax-supported agency, municipal corporation, or other political subdivision of this state, private fire company, or private, nonprofit emergency medical service organization shall sell, lease, or transfer excess or surplus supplies acquired under this section to private entities or the general public at a price greater than the price it originally paid for those supplies.

(H) The director of administrative services may authorize any state agency to transfer surplus computers and computer equipment that are not needed by other state agencies directly to an accredited public school within the state. The computers and computer equipment may be repaired or refurbished prior to transfer. The state agency may charge a service fee to the public schools for the property not to exceed the direct cost of repairing or refurbishing it. The state agency shall deposit such funds into the account used for repair or refurbishment.

Sec. 125.182. (A) The office of information technology, by itself or by contract with another entity, shall establish, operate, and maintain a state the official public notice web site. In establishing, maintaining, and operating the state official public notice web site, the office of information technology or its contractor shall:

(A)(1) Use a domain name for the web site that will be easily recognizable and remembered by and understandable to users of the web site;

(B)(2) Maintain the web site on the internet so that it is fully accessible to and searchable by members of the public at all times, other than during maintenance or acts of God outside the office's or its contractor's control;

(C)(3) Not charge a fee to a person who that accesses, the web site to view notices or to perform searches, or otherwise uses of the web site, provided that the office or its contractor may charge a fee for enhanced search and customized content delivery features;

(D)(4) Not charge a fee to a state agency or political subdivision for publishing a notice on the web site;

(E)(5) Ensure that notices displayed on the web site conform to the requirements that would apply to the notices if they were being published in a newspaper, as directed in section 7.16 of the Revised Code or in the relevant provision of the statute or rule that requires the notice;

(F)(6) Ensure that notices continue to be displayed on the web site for not less than the length of time required by the relevant provision of the statute or rule that requires the notice;

(G) Devise and display on the web site a form that may be downloaded and used to request publication of a notice on the web site;

(H) Enable responsible parties to submit notices and requests for their publication;

(I)(7) Maintain an archive of notices that no longer are displayed on the web site;

(J)(8) Enable notices, both those currently displayed and those archived, to be accessed by key word, by party name, by case number, by county, and by other useful identifiers;

(K)(9) Maintain adequate systemic security and backup features, and develop and maintain a contingency plan for coping with and recovering from power outages, systemic failures, and other unforeseeable difficulties;

(L) Maintain the web site in such a manner that it will not infringe legally protected interests, so that vulnerability of the web site to interruption because of litigation or the threat of litigation is reduced; and

(M) Submit a status report to the secretary of state twice annually that demonstrates compliance with statutory requirements governing publication of notices.

The office of information technology shall bear the expense of maintaining the state public notice web site domain name (10) Provide access to the web site to the publisher of any Ohio newspaper or daily law journal that qualifies under the Revised Code to publish notices and advertisements, for the posting of notices and advertisements at no cost, or for a reasonable, uniform fee for the service; and

(11) Provide, if requested, a regularly scheduled feed or similar data transfer to the department of administrative services of notices and advertisements posted on the web site, provided that the office of information technology or its contractor shall not be required to provide the feed or transfer more often than once every business day.

(B) An error in a notice or advertisement posted on the official public notice web site, or a temporary web site outage or service interruption preventing the posting or display of a notice or advertisement on that web site, does not constitute a defect in making legal publication of the notice or advertisement, and publication requirements shall be considered met if the notice or advertisement published in the newspaper or daily law journal is correct.

(C) The publisher of a newspaper of general circulation or of a daily law journal that maintains a web site shall include on its web site a link to the official public notice web site.

Sec. 126.21.  (A) The director of budget and management shall do all of the following:

(1) Keep all necessary accounting records;

(2) Prescribe and maintain the accounting system of the state and establish appropriate accounting procedures and charts of accounts;

(3) Establish procedures for the use of written, electronic, optical, or other communications media for approving and reviewing payment vouchers;

(4) Reconcile, in the case of any variation between the amount of any appropriation and the aggregate amount of items of the appropriation, with the advice and assistance of the state agency affected by it and the legislative service commission, totals so as to correspond in the aggregate with the total appropriation. In the case of a conflict between the item and the total of which it is a part, the item shall be considered the intended appropriation.

(5) Evaluate on an ongoing basis and, if necessary, recommend improvements to the internal controls used in state agencies;

(6) Authorize the establishment of petty cash accounts. The director may withdraw approval for any petty cash account and require the officer in charge to return to the state treasury any unexpended balance shown by the officer's accounts to be on hand. Any officer who is issued a warrant for petty cash shall render a detailed account of the expenditures of the petty cash and shall report when requested the balance of petty cash on hand at any time.

(7) Process orders, invoices, vouchers, claims, and payrolls and prepare financial reports and statements;

(8) Perform extensions, reviews, and compliance checks prior to or after approving a payment as the director considers necessary;

(9) Issue the official comprehensive annual financial report of the state. The report shall cover all funds of the state reporting entity and shall include basic financial statements and required supplementary information prepared in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles and other information as the director provides. All state agencies, authorities, institutions, offices, retirement systems, and other component units of the state reporting entity as determined by the director shall furnish the director whatever financial statements and other information the director requests for the report, in the form, at the times, covering the periods, and with the attestation the director prescribes. The information for state institutions of higher education, as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, shall be submitted to the chancellor by the Ohio board of regents. The board shall establish a due date by which each such institution shall submit the information to the board, but no such date shall be later than one hundred twenty days after the end of the state fiscal year unless a later date is approved by the director.

(B) In addition to the director's duties under division (A) of this section, the director may establish and administer one or more state payment card programs that permit or require state agencies and political subdivisions to use a payment card to purchase equipment, materials, supplies, or services in accordance with guidelines issued by the director. The chief administrative officer of a state agency or political subdivision that uses a payment card for such purposes shall ensure that purchases made with the card are made in accordance with the guidelines issued by the director and do not exceed the unexpended, unencumbered, unobligated balance in the appropriation to be charged for the purchase. State agencies may participate in only those state payment card programs that the director establishes pursuant to this section.

(C) In addition to the director's duties under divisions (A) and (B) of this section, the director may enter into any contract or agreement necessary for and incidental to the performance of the director's duties or the duties of the office of budget and management.

(D) In addition to the director's duties under divisions (A), (B), and (C) of this section, the director may operate a shared services center within the office of budget and management for the purpose of consolidating common business functions and transactional processes. The services offered by the shared services center may be provided to any state agency or political subdivision. In consultation with the director of administrative services, the director may appoint and fix the compensation of employees of the office of budget and management whose primary duties include the consolidation of statewide financing common business functions and common transactional processes.

(E) The director may transfer cash between funds other than the general revenue fund in order to correct an erroneous payment or deposit regardless of the fiscal year during which the erroneous payment or deposit occurred.

(F) As used in divisions (B) and (D) of this section:

(1) "Political subdivision" has the same meaning as in section 2744.01 of the Revised Code.

(2) "State agency" has the same meaning as in section 9.482 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 126.25.  The accounting and budgeting services provided by the director of budget and management under section 126.21 of the Revised Code shall be supported by user charges. The director shall determine a rate that is sufficient to defray the expense of those services and the manner by which those charges shall be collected. All money collected from user the charges shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the accounting and budgeting fund, which is hereby created. Rebates or revenue shares received from any state payment card program established under division (B) of section 126.21 of the Revised Code and miscellaneous payments that reimburse expenses paid from the accounting and budgeting fund may be deposited into the accounting and budgeting fund and used to support accounting and budgeting the services provided by the director.

Sec. 149.38.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in section 307.847 of the Revised Code, there is hereby created in each county a county records commission, composed of a member of the board of county commissioners as chairperson, the prosecuting attorney, the auditor, the recorder, and the clerk of the court of common pleas. The commission shall appoint a secretary, who may or may not be a member of the commission and who shall serve at the pleasure of the commission. The commission may employ an archivist or records manager to serve under its direction. The commission shall meet at least once every six months and upon the call of the chairperson.

(B)(1) The functions of the county records commission shall be to provide rules for retention and disposal of records of the county, and to review applications for one-time disposal of obsolete records and schedules of records retention and disposition submitted by county offices. The commission may dispose of records pursuant to the procedure outlined in this section. The commission, at any time, may review any schedule it has previously approved and, for good cause shown, may revise that schedule, subject to division (D) of this section.

(2)(a) As used in division (B)(2) of this section, "paper case records" means written reports of child abuse or neglect, written records of investigations, or other written records required to be prepared under section 2151.421, 5101.13, 5153.166, or 5153.17 of the Revised Code.

(b) A county public children services agency may submit to the county records commission applications for one-time disposal, or schedules of records retention and disposition, of paper case records that have been entered into permanently maintained and retrievable fields in the state automated child welfare information system established under section 5101.13 of the Revised Code or entered into other permanently maintained and retrievable electronic files. The county records commission may dispose of the paper case records pursuant to the procedure outlined in this section.

(C)(1) When the county records commission has approved any county application for one-time disposal of obsolete records or any schedule of records retention and disposition, the commission shall send that application or schedule to the Ohio historical society for its review. The Ohio historical society shall review the application or schedule within a period of not more than sixty days after its receipt of it. During the sixty-day review period, the Ohio historical society may select for its custody from the application for one-time disposal of obsolete records any records it considers to be of continuing historical value, and shall denote upon any schedule of records retention and disposition any records for which the Ohio historical society will require a certificate of records disposal prior to their disposal.

(2) Upon completion of its review, the Ohio historical society shall forward the application for one-time disposal of obsolete records or the schedule of records retention and disposition to the auditor of state for the auditor's approval or disapproval. The auditor of state shall approve or disapprove the application or schedule within a period of not more than sixty days after receipt of it.

(3) Before public records are to be disposed of pursuant to an approved schedule of records retention and disposition, the county records commission shall inform the Ohio historical society of the disposal through the submission of a certificate of records disposal for only the records required by the schedule to be disposed of and shall give the society the opportunity for a period of fifteen business days to select for its custody those records, from the certificate submitted, that it considers to be of continuing historical value. Upon the expiration of the fifteen-business-day period, the county records commission also shall notify the public libraries, county historical society, state universities, and other public or quasi-public institutions, agencies, or corporations in the county that have provided the commission with their name and address for these notification purposes, that the commission has informed the Ohio historical society of the records disposal and that the notified entities, upon written agreement with the Ohio historical society pursuant to section 149.31 of the Revised Code, may select records of continuing historical value, including records that may be distributed to any of the notified entities under section 149.31 of the Revised Code. Any notified entity that notifies the county records commission of its intent to review and select records of continuing historical value from certificates of records disposal is responsible for the cost of any notice given and for the transportation of those records.

(D) The rules of the county records commission shall include a rule that requires any receipts, checks, vouchers, or other similar records pertaining to expenditures from the delinquent tax and assessment collection fund created in section 321.261 of the Revised Code, from the real estate assessment fund created in section 325.31 of the Revised Code, or from amounts allocated for the furtherance of justice to the county sheriff under section 325.071 of the Revised Code or to the prosecuting attorney under section 325.12 of the Revised Code to be retained for at least four years.

(E) No person shall knowingly violate the rule adopted under division (D) of this section. Whoever violates that rule is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree.

Sec. 153.56. (A) Any person to whom any money is due for labor or work performed or materials furnished in a public improvement as provided in section 153.54 of the Revised Code, at any time after performing the labor or work or furnishing the materials, but not later than ninety days after the completion of the contract by the principal contractor or design-build firm and the acceptance of the public improvement for which the bond was provided by the duly authorized board or officer, shall furnish the sureties on the bond, a statement of the amount due to the person.

(B) A suit shall not be brought against sureties on the bond until after sixty days after the furnishing of the statement described in division (A) of this section. If the indebtedness is not paid in full at the expiration of that sixty days, and if the person complies with division (C) of this section, the person may bring an action in the person's own name upon the bond, as provided in sections 2307.06 and 2307.07 of the Revised Code, that action to be commenced, notwithstanding section 2305.12 of the Revised Code, not later than one year from the date of acceptance of the public improvement for which the bond was provided.

(C) To exercise rights under this section, a subcontractor or materials supplier supplying labor or materials that cost more than thirty thousand dollars, who is not in direct privity of contract with the principal contractor or design-build firm for the public improvement, shall serve a notice of furnishing upon the principal contractor or design-build firm in the form provided in section 1311.261 of the Revised Code.

(D) A subcontractor or materials supplier who serves a notice of furnishing under division (C) of this section as required to exercise rights under this section has the right of recovery only as to amounts owed for labor and work performed and materials furnished during and after the twenty-one days immediately preceding service of the notice of furnishing.

(E) For purposes of this section:

(1) "Design-build firm" has the same meaning as in section 153.65 of the Revised Code.

(2) "Principal contractor" has the same meaning as in section 1311.25 of the Revised Code, and may include a "construction manager" and a "construction manager at risk" as defined in section 9.33 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 164.26. (A) The director of the Ohio public works commission shall establish policies related to the need for long-term ownership, or long-term control through a lease or the purchase of an easement, of real property that is the subject of an application for a grant under sections 164.20 to 164.27 of the Revised Code and establish requirements for documentation to be submitted by grant applicants that is necessary for the proper administration of this division. The policies shall provide for proper penalties, including liquidated damages and grant repayment, for entities that fail to comply with the long-term ownership or control requirements established under this division.

The director also shall adopt policies delineating what constitutes administrative costs for purposes of division (F) of section 164.27 of the Revised Code.

(B) The Ohio public works commission shall administer sections 164.20 to 164.27 of the Revised Code and shall exercise any authority and use any procedures granted or established under sections 164.02 and 164.05 of the Revised Code that are necessary for that purpose.

Sec. 164.261.  All of the following apply to any repayment of a grant awarded under sections 164.20 to 164.27 of the Revised Code:

(A) The Ohio public works commission shall deposit the grant repayment into the clean Ohio conservation fund created in section 164.27 of the Revised Code.

(B) The commission shall return the grant repayment to the natural resource assistance council that approved the grant application.

(C) The grant repayment shall be used for the same purpose as the grant was originally approved for, as provided in section 164.22 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 173.27.  (A) As used in this section:

(1) "Applicant" means a person who is under final consideration for employment hiring by a responsible party in a full-time, part-time, or temporary position that involves providing ombudsman services to residents and recipients. "Applicant" includes a person who is under final consideration for employment being hired as the state long-term care ombudsman or the head of a regional long-term care ombudsman program. "Applicant" does not include a person seeking to provide ombudsman services to residents and recipients as a volunteer without receiving or expecting to receive any form of remuneration other than reimbursement for actual expenses.

(2) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in section 109.572 of the Revised Code.

(3) "Disqualifying offense" means any of the offenses listed or described in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (e) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code.

(4) "Employee" means a person employed by a responsible party in a full-time, part-time, or temporary position that involves providing ombudsman services to residents and recipients. "Employee" includes the person employed as the state long-term care ombudsman and a person employed as the head of a regional long-term care ombudsman program. "Employee" does not include a person who provides ombudsman services to residents and recipients as a volunteer without receiving or expecting to receive any form of remuneration other than reimbursement for actual expenses.

(5) "Responsible party" means the following:

(a) In the case of an applicant who is under final consideration for employment being hired as the state long-term care ombudsman or the person employed as the state long-term care ombudsman, the director of aging;

(b) In the case of any other applicant who is under final consideration for employment with being hired by the state long-term care ombudsman program or any other employee of the state long-term care ombudsman program, the state long-term care ombudsman;

(c) In the case of an applicant who is under final consideration for employment with being hired by a regional long-term care ombudsman program (including as the head of the regional program) or an employee of a regional long-term care ombudsman program (including the head of a regional program), the regional long-term care ombudsman program.

(B) A responsible party may not employ hire an applicant or continue to employ retain an employee in a position that involves providing ombudsman services to residents and recipients if any of the following apply:

(1) A review of the databases listed in division (D) of this section reveals any of the following:

(a) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more of the databases listed in divisions (D)(1) to (5) of this section;

(b) That there is in the state nurse aide registry established under section 3721.32 of the Revised Code a statement detailing findings by the director of health that the applicant or employee neglected or abused a long-term care facility or residential care facility resident or misappropriated property of such a resident;

(c) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more of the databases, if any, specified in rules adopted under this section and the rules prohibit the responsible party from employing an applicant or continuing to employ an employee included in such a database in a position that involves providing ombudsman services to residents and recipients.

(2) After the applicant or employee is provided, pursuant to division (E)(2)(a) of this section, a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and the standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section, the applicant or employee fails to complete the form or provide the applicant's or employee's fingerprint impressions on the standard impression sheet.

(3) Unless the applicant or employee meets standards specified in rules adopted under this section, the applicant or employee is found by a criminal records check required by this section to have been convicted of, or pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense.

(C) A responsible party or a responsible party's designee shall inform each applicant of both of the following at the time of the applicant's initial application for employment in hiring into a position that involves providing ombudsman services to residents and recipients:

(1) That a review of the databases listed in division (D) of this section will be conducted to determine whether the responsible party is prohibited by division (B)(1) of this section from employing hiring the applicant in into the position;

(2) That, unless the database review reveals that the applicant may not be employed in hired into the position, a criminal records check of the applicant will be conducted and the applicant is required to provide a set of the applicant's fingerprint impressions as part of the criminal records check.

(D) As a condition of any applicant's being employed hired by a responsible party in a position that involves providing ombudsman services to residents and recipients, the responsible party or designee shall conduct a database review of the applicant in accordance with rules adopted under this section. If rules adopted under this section so require, the responsible party or designee shall conduct a database review of an employee in accordance with the rules as a condition of the responsible party continuing to employ retaining the employee in a position that involves providing ombudsman services to residents and recipients. A database review shall determine whether the applicant or employee is included in any of the following:

(1) The excluded parties list system that is maintained by the United States general services administration pursuant to subpart 9.4 of the federal acquisition regulation and available at the federal web site known as the system for award management;

(2) The list of excluded individuals and entities maintained by the office of inspector general in the United States department of health and human services pursuant to section 1128 of the "Social Security Act," 94 Stat. 2619 (1980), 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7, as amended, and section 1156 of the "Social Security Act," 96 Stat. 388 (1982), 42 U.S.C. 1320c-5, as amended;

(3) The registry of MR/DD employees established under section 5123.52 of the Revised Code;

(4) The internet-based sex offender and child-victim offender database established under division (A)(11) of section 2950.13 of the Revised Code;

(5) The internet-based database of inmates established under section 5120.66 of the Revised Code;

(6) The state nurse aide registry established under section 3721.32 of the Revised Code;

(7) Any other database, if any, specified in rules adopted under this section.

(E)(1) As a condition of any applicant's being employed by a responsible party in on hiring an applicant into a position that involves providing ombudsman services to residents and recipients, the responsible party or designee shall request that the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation conduct a criminal records check of the applicant. If rules adopted under this section so require, the responsible party or designee shall request that the superintendent conduct a criminal records check of an employee at times specified in the rules as a condition of the responsible party continuing to employ for retaining the employee in a position that involves providing ombudsman services to residents and recipients. However, the responsible party or designee is not required to request the criminal records check of the applicant or employee if the responsible party is prohibited by division (B)(1) of this section from employing hiring the applicant or continuing to employ retaining the employee in a position that involves providing ombudsman services to residents and recipients. If an applicant or employee for whom a criminal records check request is required by this section does not present proof of having been a resident of this state for the five-year period immediately prior to the date the criminal records check is requested or provide evidence that within that five-year period the superintendent has requested information about the applicant or employee from the federal bureau of investigation in a criminal records check, the responsible party or designee shall request that the superintendent obtain information from the federal bureau of investigation as part of the criminal records check. Even if an applicant or employee for whom a criminal records check request is required by this section presents proof of having been a resident of this state for the five-year period, the responsible party or designee may request that the superintendent include information from the federal bureau of investigation in the criminal records check.

(2) A responsible party or designee shall do all of the following:

(a) Provide to each applicant and employee for whom a criminal records check request is required by this section a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section;

(b) Obtain the completed form and standard impression sheet from the applicant or employee;

(c) Forward the completed form and standard impression sheet to the superintendent.

(3) A responsible party shall pay to the bureau of criminal identification and investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each criminal records check the responsible party or the responsible party's designee requests under this section. The responsible party may charge an applicant a fee not exceeding the amount the responsible party pays to the bureau under this section if the responsible party or designee notifies the applicant at the time of initial application for employment hiring into the position in question of the amount of the fee.

(F)(1) A responsible party may employ conditionally hire an applicant for whom a criminal records check is required by this section prior to obtaining the results of the criminal records check if both of the following apply:

(a) The responsible party is not prohibited by division (B)(1) of this section from employing hiring the applicant in a position that involves providing ombudsman services to residents and recipients;

(b) The responsible party or designee requests the criminal records check in accordance with division (E) of this section not later than five business days after the responsible party conditionally hires the applicant begins conditional employment.

(2) A responsible party shall terminate the employment of an applicant employed conditionally under division (F)(1) of this section remove a conditionally hired applicant from any job duties that require a criminal records check if the results of the criminal records check, other than the results of any request for information from the federal bureau of investigation, are not obtained within the period ending sixty days after the date the request for the criminal records check is made. Regardless

Regardless of when the results of the criminal records check are obtained, if the results indicate that the conditionally hired applicant has been convicted of, or pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense, the responsible party shall terminate the applicant's employment unless the applicant meets standards specified in rules adopted under this section that permit the responsible party to employ hire the applicant and the responsible party chooses to employ hire the applicant. Termination of employment under this division shall be considered just cause for discharge for purposes of division (D)(2) of section 4141.29 of the Revised Code if the applicant makes any attempt to deceive the responsible party or designee about the applicant's criminal record.

(G) The report of any criminal records check conducted pursuant to a request made under this section is not a public record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not be made available to any person other than the following:

(1) The applicant or employee who is the subject of the criminal records check or the applicant's or employee's representative;

(2) The responsible party or designee;

(3) In the case of a criminal records check conducted for an applicant who is under final consideration for employment with hiring by a regional long-term care ombudsman program (including as the head of the regional program) or for an employee of a regional long-term care ombudsman program (including the head of a regional program), the state long-term care ombudsman or a representative of the office of the state long-term care ombudsman program who is responsible for monitoring the regional program's compliance with this section;

(4) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual involved in a case dealing with any of the following:

(a) A denial of employment hiring of the applicant or of retention of the employee;

(b) Employment or unemployment benefits of the applicant or employee;

(c) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid program or a program the department of aging administers.

(H) In a tort or other civil action for damages that is brought as the result of an injury, death, or loss to person or property caused by an applicant who a responsible party hires, or an employee who a responsible party employs, in a position that involves providing ombudsman services to residents and recipients, all of the following shall apply:

(1) If the responsible party employed hired the applicant or retained the employee in good faith and reasonable reliance on the report of a criminal records check requested under this section, the responsible party shall not be found negligent solely because of its reliance on the report, even if the information in the report is determined later to have been incomplete or inaccurate.

(2) If the responsible party employed conditionally hired the applicant in good faith on a conditional basis pursuant to division (F) of this section, the responsible party shall not be found negligent solely because it employed conditionally hired the applicant prior to receiving the report of a criminal records check requested under this section.

(3) If the responsible party in good faith employed hired the applicant or retained the employee because the applicant or employee meets standards specified in rules adopted under this section, the responsible party shall not be found negligent solely because the applicant or employee has been convicted of, or pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense.

(I) The state long-term care ombudsman may not act as the director of aging's designee for the purpose of this section. The head of a regional long-term care ombudsman program may not act as the regional program's designee for the purpose of this section if the head is the employee for whom a database review or criminal records check is being conducted.

(J) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section.

(1) The rules may do the following:

(a) Require employees to undergo database reviews and criminal records checks under this section;

(b) If the rules require employees to undergo database reviews and criminal records checks under this section, exempt one or more classes of employees from the requirements;

(c) For the purpose of division (D)(7) of this section, specify other databases that are to be checked as part of a database review conducted under this section.

(2) The rules shall specify all of the following:

(a) The procedures for conducting database reviews under this section;

(b) If the rules require employees to undergo database reviews and criminal records checks under this section, the times at which the database reviews and criminal records checks are to be conducted;

(c) If the rules specify other databases to be checked as part of the database reviews, the circumstances under which a responsible party is prohibited from employing hiring an applicant or continuing to employ retaining an employee who is found by a database review to be included in one or more of those databases;

(d) Standards that an applicant or employee must meet for a responsible party to be permitted to employ hire the applicant or continue to employ retain the employee in a position that involves providing ombudsman services to residents and recipients if the applicant or employee is found by a criminal records check required by this section to have been convicted of, or pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense.

Sec. 173.38.  (A) As used in this section:

(1)(a) "Applicant" means a all of the following:

(i) A person who is under final consideration for employment with hiring by a responsible party in a full-time, part-time, or temporary direct-care position or is referred to a responsible party by an employment service for such a position. "Applicant";

(ii) A self-employed provider bidding on a contract or grant with an area agency on aging to provide community-based long-term care services;

(iii) A self-employed provider applying under section 173.391 of the Revised Code for certification to provide community-based long-term care services.

(b) "Applicant" does not include a person being considered for a direct-care position as a volunteer.

(2) "Area agency on aging" has the same meaning as in section 173.14 of the Revised Code.

(3) "Community-based long-term care services" means community-based long-term care services, as defined in section 173.14 of the Revised Code, that are provided under a program the department of aging administers.

(4) "Consumer" means an individual who receives community-based long-term care services.

(5) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in section 109.572 of the Revised Code.

(6)(a) "Direct-care position" means an employment position in which an employee has either or both of the following:

(i) In-person contact with one or more consumers;

(ii) Access to one or more consumers' personal property or records.

(b) "Direct-care position" does not include a person whose sole duties are transporting individuals under Chapter 306. of the Revised Code.

(7) "Disqualifying offense" means any of the offenses listed or described in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (e) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code.

(8)(a) "Employee" means a all of the following:

(i) A person employed by a responsible party in a full-time, part-time, or temporary direct-care position and a person who works in such a position due to being referred to a responsible party by an employment service. "Employee";

(ii) A self-employed provider who has a contract or grant with an area agency on aging to provide community-based long-term care services;

(iii) A self-employed provider certified under section 173.391 of the Revised Code to provide community-based long-term care services.

(b) "Employee" does not include a person who works in a direct-care position as a volunteer.

(9) "PASSPORT administrative agency" has the same meaning as in section 173.42 of the Revised Code.

(10) "Provider" has the same meaning as in section 173.39 of the Revised Code.

(11) "Responsible party" means the following:

(a) An area agency on aging in the case of either any of the following:

(i) A person who is an applicant because the agency is giving the person is under final consideration for employment with the agency in being hired into a full-time, part-time, or temporary direct-care position or is an employment service referred the person to the agency by an employment service for such a position;

(ii) A person who is an employee because the agency employs the person is employed by the agency in a full-time, part-time, or temporary direct-care position or works in such a position due to being an employment service referred the person to the agency by an employment service for employment in such a position;

(iii) A self-employed provider who is an applicant because the provider is bidding on a contract or grant with the agency to provide community-based long-term care services;

(iv) A self-employed provider who is an employee because the provider has a contract or grant with the agency to provide community-based long-term care services.

(b) A PASSPORT administrative agency in the case of either any of the following:

(i) A person who is an applicant because the agency is giving the person is under final consideration for employment with the agency in being hired into a full-time, part-time, or temporary direct-care position or is an employment service referred the person to the agency by an employment service for such a position;

(ii) A person who is an employee because the agency employs the person is employed by the agency in a full-time, part-time, or temporary direct-care position or works in such a position due to being an employment service referred the person to the agency by an employment service for employment in such a position;

(iii) A self-employed provider who is an applicant because the provider is applying under section 173.391 of the Revised Code for certification to provide community-based long-term care services and intends to provide the services in the area served by the agency;

(iv) A self-employed provider who is an employee because the provider is certified under section 173.391 of the Revised Code to provide community-based long-term care services and provides the services in the area served by the agency.

(c) A provider in the case of either of the following:

(i) A person who is an applicant because the provider is giving the person is under final consideration for employment with the provider in being hired into a full-time, part-time, or temporary direct-care position or is an employment service referred the person to the provider by an employment service for such a position;

(ii) A person who is an employee because the provider employs the person is employed by the provider in a full-time, part-time, or temporary direct-care position or works in such a position due to being an employment service referred the person to the provider by an employment service for employment in such a position.

(d) A subcontractor in the case of either of the following:

(i) A person who is an applicant because the subcontractor is giving the person is under final consideration for employment with the subcontractor in being hired into a full-time, part-time, or temporary direct-care position or is an employment service referred the person to the subcontractor by an employment service for such a position;

(ii) A person who is an employee because the subcontractor employs the person is employed by the subcontractor in a full-time, part-time, or temporary direct-care position or works in such a position due to being an employment service referred the person to the subcontractor by an employment service for employment in such a position.

(e) A consumer who, as the employer of record, directs a consumer-directed provider.

(12) "Self-employed" means the state of working for one's self with no employees. A consumer-directed provider is not self-employed because the consumer is the employer of record.

(13) "Subcontractor" has the meaning specified in rules adopted under this section.

(13)(14) "Volunteer" means a person who serves in a direct-care position without receiving or expecting to receive any form of remuneration other than reimbursement for actual expenses.

(14)(15) "Waiver agency" has the same meaning as in section 5164.342 of the Revised Code.

(B) This section does not apply to any individual who is subject to a database review or criminal records check under section 3701.881 of the Revised Code or to any individual who is subject to a criminal records check under section 3721.121 of the Revised Code. If a provider or subcontractor also is a waiver agency, the provider or subcontractor may provide for applicants and employees to undergo database reviews and criminal records checks in accordance with section 5164.342 of the Revised Code rather than this section.

(C) No responsible party shall employ hire an applicant or continue to employ retain an employee in a direct-care position if any of the following apply:

(1) A review of the databases listed in division (E) of this section reveals any of the following:

(a) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more of the databases listed in divisions (E)(1) to (5) of this section;

(b) That there is in the state nurse aide registry established under section 3721.32 of the Revised Code a statement detailing findings by the director of health that the applicant or employee neglected or abused a long-term care facility or residential care facility resident or misappropriated property of such a resident;

(c) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more of the databases, if any, specified in rules adopted under this section and the rules prohibit the responsible party from employing hiring an applicant or continuing to employ retaining an employee included in such a database in a direct-care position.

(2) After the applicant or employee is provided, pursuant to division (F)(2)(a) of this section, a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and the standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section, the applicant or employee fails to complete the form or provide the applicant's or employee's fingerprint impressions on the standard impression sheet.

(3) Unless the applicant or employee meets standards specified in rules adopted under this section, the applicant or employee is found by a criminal records check required by this section to have been convicted of, or pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense.

(D) Except as provided by division (G) of this section, the chief administrator of a responsible party shall inform each applicant of both of the following at the time of the applicant's initial application for employment hiring into a direct-care position or referral to the responsible party by an employment service for a direct-care position:

(1) That a review of the databases listed in division (E) of this section will be conducted to determine whether the responsible party is prohibited by division (C)(1) of this section from employing hiring the applicant in into the direct-care position;

(2) That, unless the database review reveals that the applicant may not be employed in hired into the direct-care position, a criminal records check of the applicant will be conducted and the applicant is required to provide a set of the applicant's fingerprint impressions as part of the criminal records check.

(E) As a condition of employing for hiring any applicant in into a direct-care position, the chief administrator of a responsible party shall conduct a database review of the applicant in accordance with rules adopted under this section. If rules adopted under this section so require, the chief administrator of a responsible party shall conduct a database review of an employee in accordance with the rules as a condition of continuing to employ retaining the employee in a direct-care position. However, a chief administrator is not required to conduct a database review of an applicant or employee if division (G) of this section applies. A database review shall determine whether the applicant or employee is included in any of the following:

(1) The excluded parties list system that is maintained by the United States general services administration pursuant to subpart 9.4 of the federal acquisition regulation and available at the federal web site known as the system for award management;

(2) The list of excluded individuals and entities maintained by the office of inspector general in the United States department of health and human services pursuant to the "Social Security Act," sections 1128 and 1156, 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7 and 1320c-5;

(3) The registry of MR/DD employees established under section 5123.52 of the Revised Code;

(4) The internet-based sex offender and child-victim offender database established under division (A)(11) of section 2950.13 of the Revised Code;

(5) The internet-based database of inmates established under section 5120.66 of the Revised Code;

(6) The state nurse aide registry established under section 3721.32 of the Revised Code;

(7) Any other database, if any, specified in rules adopted under this section.

(F)(1) As a condition of employing for hiring any applicant in into a direct-care position, the chief administrator of a responsible party shall request that the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation conduct a criminal records check of the applicant. If rules adopted under this section so require, the chief administrator of a responsible party shall request that the superintendent conduct a criminal records check of an employee at times specified in the rules as a condition of continuing to employ for retaining the employee in a direct-care position. However, the chief administrator is not required to request the criminal records check of the applicant or employee if division (G) of this section applies or the responsible party is prohibited by division (C)(1) of this section from employing hiring the applicant or continuing to employ retaining the employee in a direct-care position. If an applicant or employee for whom a criminal records check request is required by this section does not present proof of having been a resident of this state for the five-year period immediately prior to the date the criminal records check is requested or provide evidence that within that five-year period the superintendent has requested information about the applicant or employee from the federal bureau of investigation in a criminal records check, the chief administrator shall request that the superintendent obtain information from the federal bureau of investigation as part of the criminal records check. Even if an applicant or employee for whom a criminal records check request is required by this section presents proof of having been a resident of this state for the five-year period, the chief administrator may request that the superintendent include information from the federal bureau of investigation in the criminal records check.

(2) The chief administrator shall do all of the following:

(a) Provide to each applicant and employee for whom a criminal records check request is required by this section a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section;

(b) Obtain the completed form and standard impression sheet from the applicant or employee;

(c) Forward the completed form and standard impression sheet to the superintendent.

(3) A responsible party shall pay to the bureau of criminal identification and investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each criminal records check the responsible party requests under this section. A responsible party may charge an applicant a fee not exceeding the amount the responsible party pays to the bureau under this section if both of the following apply:

(a) The responsible party notifies the applicant at the time of initial application for employment hiring into the position in question of the amount of the fee and that, unless the fee is paid, the applicant will not be considered for employment the hiring.

(b) The medicaid program does not pay the responsible party for the fee it pays to the bureau under this section.

(G) Divisions (D) to (F) of this section do not apply with regard to an applicant or employee if the applicant or employee is referred to a responsible party by an employment service that supplies full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for direct-care positions and both of the following apply:

(1) The chief administrator of the responsible party receives from the employment service confirmation that a review of the databases listed in division (E) of this section was conducted of the applicant or employee.

(2) The chief administrator of the responsible party receives from the employment service, applicant, or employee a report of the results of a criminal records check of the applicant or employee that has been conducted by the superintendent within the one-year period immediately preceding the following:

(a) In the case of an applicant, the date of the applicant's referral by the employment service to the responsible party;

(b) In the case of an employee, the date by which the responsible party would otherwise have to request a criminal records check of the employee under division (F) of this section.

(H)(1) A responsible party may employ conditionally hire an applicant for whom a criminal records check request is required by this section prior to obtaining the results of the criminal records check if the responsible party is not prohibited by division (C)(1) of this section from employing hiring the applicant in a direct-care position and either of the following applies:

(a) The chief administrator of the responsible party requests the criminal records check in accordance with division (F) of this section not later than five business days after the responsible party conditionally hires the applicant begins conditional employment.

(b) The applicant is referred to the responsible party by an employment service, the employment service or the applicant provides the chief administrator of the responsible party a letter that is on the letterhead of the employment service, the letter is dated and signed by a supervisor or another designated official of the employment service, and the letter states all of the following:

(i) That the employment service has requested the superintendent to conduct a criminal records check regarding the applicant;

(ii) That the requested criminal records check is to include a determination of whether the applicant has been convicted of, or pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense;

(iii) That the employment service has not received the results of the criminal records check as of the date set forth on the letter;

(iv) That the employment service promptly will send a copy of the results of the criminal records check to the chief administrator of the responsible party when the employment service receives the results.

(2) If a responsible party employs an applicant conditionally hires an applicant pursuant to division (H)(1)(b) of this section, the employment service, on its receipt of the results of the criminal records check, promptly shall send a copy of the results to the chief administrator of the responsible party.

(3) A responsible party that employs conditionally hires an applicant conditionally pursuant to division (H)(1)(a) or (b) of this section shall terminate the applicant's employment remove the conditionally hired applicant from any job duties that require a criminal records check if the results of the criminal records check, other than the results of any request for information from the federal bureau of investigation, are not obtained within the period ending sixty days after the date the request for the criminal records check is made. Regardless

Regardless of when the results of the criminal records check are obtained, if the results indicate that the conditionally hired applicant has been convicted of, or pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense, the responsible party shall terminate the conditionally hired applicant's employment unless the applicant meets standards specified in rules adopted under this section that permit the responsible party to employ hire the applicant and the responsible party chooses to employ hire the applicant. Termination of employment under this division shall be considered just cause for discharge for purposes of division (D)(2) of section 4141.29 of the Revised Code if the applicant makes any attempt to deceive the responsible party about the applicant's criminal record.

(I) The report of any criminal records check conducted pursuant to a request made under this section is not a public record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not be made available to any person other than the following:

(1) The applicant or employee who is the subject of the criminal records check or the applicant's or employee's representative;

(2) The chief administrator of the responsible party requesting the criminal records check record or the administrator's representative;

(3) The administrator of any other facility, agency, or program that provides community-based long-term care services that is owned or operated by the same entity that owns or operates the responsible party that requested the criminal records check;

(4) The employment service that requested the criminal records check;

(5) The director of aging or a person authorized by the director to monitor a responsible party's compliance with this section;

(6) The medicaid director and the staff of the department of medicaid who are involved in the administration of the medicaid program if either of the following apply:

(a) In the case of a criminal records check requested by a provider or subcontractor, the provider or subcontractor also is a waiver agency;

(b) In the case of a criminal records check requested by an employment service, the employment service makes the request for an applicant or employee the employment service refers to a provider or subcontractor that also is a waiver agency.

(7) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual involved in a case dealing with any of the following:

(a) A denial of employment hiring of the applicant or of retention of the employee;

(b) Employment or unemployment benefits of the applicant or employee;

(c) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid program or a program the department of aging administers.

(J) In a tort or other civil action for damages that is brought as the result of an injury, death, or loss to person or property caused by an applicant who a responsible party hires, or an employee who a responsible party employs, in a direct-care position, all of the following shall apply:

(1) If the responsible party employed hired the applicant or retained the employee in good faith and reasonable reliance on the report of a criminal records check requested under this section, the responsible party shall not be found negligent solely because of its reliance on the report, even if the information in the report is determined later to have been incomplete or inaccurate.

(2) If the responsible party employed conditionally hired the applicant in good faith on a conditional basis pursuant to division (H) of this section, the responsible party shall not be found negligent solely because it employed conditionally hired the applicant prior to receiving the report of a criminal records check requested under this section.

(3) If the responsible party in good faith employed hired the applicant or retained the employee because the applicant or employee meets standards specified in rules adopted under this section, the responsible party shall not be found negligent solely because the applicant or employee has been convicted of, or pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense.

(K) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section.

(1) The rules may do the following:

(a) Require employees to undergo database reviews and criminal records checks under this section;

(b) If the rules require employees to undergo database reviews and criminal records checks under this section, exempt one or more classes of employees from the requirements;

(c) For the purpose of division (E)(7) of this section, specify other databases that are to be checked as part of a database review conducted under this section.

(2) The rules shall specify all of the following:

(a) The meaning of the term "subcontractor";

(b) The procedures for conducting database reviews under this section;

(c) If the rules require employees to undergo database reviews and criminal records checks under this section, the times at which the database reviews and criminal records checks are to be conducted;

(d) If the rules specify other databases to be checked as part of the database reviews, the circumstances under which a responsible party is prohibited from employing hiring an applicant or continuing to employ retaining an employee who is found by a database review to be included in one or more of those databases;

(e) Standards that an applicant or employee must meet for a responsible party to be permitted to employ hire the applicant or continue to employ retain the employee in a direct-care position if the applicant or employee is found by a criminal records check required by this section to have been convicted of, or pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense.

Sec. 191.01.  As used in this chapter:

(A) "Administrative safeguards," "availability," "confidentiality," "integrity," "physical safeguards," and "technical safeguards" have the same meanings as in 45 C.F.R. 164.304.

(B) "Business associate," "covered entity," "health plan," "individually identifiable health information," and "protected health information" have the same meanings as in 45 C.F.R. 160.103.

(C) "Executive director of the office of health transformation" or "executive director" means the executive director of the office of health transformation or the chief administrative officer of a successor governmental entity responsible for health system oversight in this state.

(D) "Government program providing public benefits" means any program administered by a state agency that has been identified, pursuant to section 191.02 of the Revised Code, by the executive director of the office of health transformation in consultation with the individuals specified in that section.

(E) "Office of health transformation" means the office of health transformation created by executive order 2011-02K.

(F) "Operating protocol" means a protocol adopted by the executive director of the office of health transformation or the executive director's designee under division (D) of section 191.06 of the Revised Code.

(G) "Participating agency" means a state agency that participates in a health transformation initiative as specified in the one or more operating protocols adopted for the initiative under division (D) of section 191.06 of the Revised Code.

(H) "Personally identifiable information" means information that meets both of the following criteria:

(1) It identifies an individual or there is a reasonable basis to believe that it may be used to identify an individual;

(2) It relates to an individual's eligibility for, application for, or receipt of public benefits from a government program providing public benefits.

(I) "State agency" means each of the following:

(1) The department of administrative services;

(2) The department of aging;

(3) The development services agency;

(4) The department of developmental disabilities;

(5) The department of education;

(6) The department of health;

(7) The department of insurance;

(8) The department of job and family services;

(9) The department of medicaid;

(10) The department of mental health and addiction services;

(11) The department of rehabilitation and correction;

(12) The department of taxation;

(13) The department of veterans services;

(14) The department of youth services;

(15) The opportunities for Ohioans with disabilities agency.

(J) "Unsecured" has the same meaning as in 16 C.F.R. 318.2.

Sec. 340.02.  (A) For each alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district, there shall be appointed a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services consisting of eighteen members or fourteen members. Should the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services elect to remain at eighteen members, as provided under section 340.02 of the Revised Code as it existed immediately prior to the date of this amendment, the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services and the board of county commissioners shall not be required to take any action. Should the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services elect a recommendation to become a fourteen-member board, that recommendation must be approved by the board of county commissioners of the county in which the alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health district is located in order for the transition to a fourteen-member board to occur. Not later than September 30, 2013, each board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services wishing to become a fourteen-member board shall notify the board of county commissioners of that recommendation. Failure of the board of county commissioners to take action within thirty days after receipt of the recommendation shall be deemed agreement by the board of county commissioners to transition to a fourteen-member board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services. Should the board of county commissioners reject the recommendation, the board of county commissioners shall adopt a resolution stating that rejection within thirty days after receipt of the recommendation. Upon adoption of the resolution, the board of county commissioners shall meet with the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services to discuss the matter. After the meeting, the board of county commissioners shall notify the department of mental health and addiction services of its election not later than January 1, 2014. In a joint-county district, a majority of the boards of county commissioners must not reject the recommendation of a joint-county board to become a fourteen-member board in order for the transition to a fourteen-member board to occur. Should the joint-county district have an even number of counties, and the boards of county commissioners of these counties tie in terms of whether or not to accept the recommendation of the alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services board, the recommendation of the alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service board to become a fourteen-member board shall prevail. The election shall be final. Failure to provide notice of its election to the department on or before January 1, 2014, shall constitute an election to continue to operate as an eighteen-member board, which election shall also be final. If an existing board provides timely notice of its election to transition to operate as a fourteen-member board, the number of board members may decline from eighteen to fourteen by attrition as current members' terms expire. However, the composition of the board must reflect the requirements set forth in this section for fourteen-member boards. For all boards, half of the members shall be interested in mental health services and half of the members shall be interested in alcohol, drug, or gambling addiction services. All members shall be residents of the service district. The membership shall, as nearly as possible, reflect the composition of the population of the service district as to race and sex.

(B) For boards operating as eighteen-member boards, the director of mental health and addiction services shall appoint eight members of the board and the board of county commissioners shall appoint ten members. For boards operating as fourteen-member boards, the director of mental health and addiction services shall appoint six members of the board and the board of county commissioners shall appoint eight members. In a joint-county district, the county commissioners of each participating county shall appoint members in as nearly as possible the same proportion as that county's population bears to the total population of the district, except that at least one member shall be appointed from each participating county.

(C) The director of mental health and addiction services shall ensure that at least one member of the board is a clinician with experience in the delivery of mental health services, at least one member of the board is a person who has received or is receiving mental health services paid for by public funds, at least one member of the board is a parent or other relative of such a person, at least one member of the board is a clinician with experience in the delivery of addiction services, at least one member of the board is a person who has received or is receiving addiction services paid for by public funds, and at least one member of the board is a parent or other relative of such a person. A single member who meets both qualifications may fulfill the requirement for a clinician with experience in the delivery of mental health services and a clinician with experience in the delivery of addiction services.

(D) No member or employee of a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services shall serve as a member of the board of any provider with which the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services has entered into a contract for the provision of services or facilities. No member of a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services shall be an employee of any provider with which the board has entered into a contract for the provision of services or facilities. No person shall be an employee of a board and such a provider unless the board and provider both agree in writing.

(E) No person shall serve as a member of the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services whose spouse, child, parent, brother, sister, grandchild, stepparent, stepchild, stepbrother, stepsister, father-in-law, mother-in-law, son-in-law, daughter-in-law, brother-in-law, or sister-in-law serves as a member of the board of any provider with which the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services has entered into a contract for the provision of services or facilities. No person shall serve as a member or employee of the board whose spouse, child, parent, brother, sister, stepparent, stepchild, stepbrother, stepsister, father-in-law, mother-in-law, son-in-law, daughter-in-law, brother-in-law, or sister-in-law serves as a county commissioner of a county or counties in the alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district.

(F) Each year each board member shall attend at least one inservice training session provided or approved by the department of mental health and addiction services.

(G) For boards operating as eighteen-member boards, each member shall be appointed for a term of four years, commencing the first day of July, except that one-third of initial appointments to a newly established board, and to the extent possible to expanded boards, shall be for terms of two years, one-third of initial appointments shall be for terms of three years, and one-third of initial appointments shall be for terms of four years. For boards operating as fourteen-member boards, each member shall be appointed for a term of four years, commencing the first day of July, except that four of the initial appointments to a newly established board, and to the extent possible to expanded boards, shall be for terms of two years, five initial appointments shall be for terms of three years, and five initial appointments shall be for terms of four years. No member shall serve more than two consecutive four-year terms under the same appointing authority. A member may serve for three consecutive terms under the same appointing authority only if one of the terms is for less than two years. A member who has served two consecutive four-year terms or three consecutive terms totaling less than ten years is eligible for reappointment by the same appointing authority one year following the end of the second or third term, respectively.

When a vacancy occurs, appointment for the expired or unexpired term shall be made in the same manner as an original appointment. The appointing authority shall be notified by certified mail of any vacancy and shall fill the vacancy within sixty days following that notice.

Any member of the board may be removed from office by the appointing authority for neglect of duty, misconduct, or malfeasance in office, and shall be removed by the appointing authority if the member is barred by this section from serving as a board member. The member shall be informed in writing of the charges and afforded an opportunity for a hearing. Upon the absence of a member within one year from either four board meetings or from two board meetings without prior notice, the board shall notify the appointing authority, which may vacate the appointment and appoint another person to complete the member's term.

Members of the board shall serve without compensation, but shall be reimbursed for actual and necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their official duties, as defined by rules of the department of mental health and addiction services.

Sec. 340.021.  (A) In an alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district where the board of county commissioners has established an alcohol and drug addiction services board, the community mental health board established under former section 340.02 of the Revised Code shall serve as the entity responsible for providing mental health services in the county. A community mental health board has all the powers, duties, and obligations of a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services with regard to mental health services. An alcohol and drug addiction services board has all the powers, duties, and obligations of a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services with regard to addiction services. Any provision of the Revised Code that refers to a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services with regard to mental health services also refers to a community mental health board and any provision that refers to a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services with regard to alcohol and drug addiction services also refers to an alcohol and drug addiction services board.

An alcohol and drug addiction services board shall consist of eighteen members or fourteen members, at the election of the board. Not later than January 1, 2014, each alcohol and drug addiction services board shall notify the department of mental health and addiction services of its election to operate as an eighteen-member board or to operate as a fourteen-member board. The election shall be final. Failure to provide notice of its election to the department on or before January 1, 2014, shall constitute an election to continue to operate as an eighteen-member board. If an existing board provides timely notice of its election to operate as a fourteen-member board, the number of board members may decline from eighteen to fourteen by attrition as current members' terms expire. However, the composition of the board must reflect the requirements set forth in this section and in applicable provisions of section 340.02 of the Revised Code for fourteen-member boards. For boards operating as eighteen-member boards, six members shall be appointed by the director of mental health and addiction services and twelve members shall be appointed by the board of county commissioners. The director of mental health and addiction services shall ensure that at least one member of the board is a person who has received or is receiving services for alcohol, drug, or gambling addiction paid for with public funds, at least one member is a parent or relative of such a person, and at least one member is a clinician with experience in the delivery of addiction services. The membership of the board shall, as nearly as possible, reflect the composition of the population of the service district as to race and sex. Members shall be residents of the service district and shall be interested in alcohol, drug, or gambling addiction services. Requirements for membership, including prohibitions against certain family and business relationships, and terms of office shall be the same as those for members of boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services.

A community mental health board shall consist of eighteen members or fourteen members, at the election of the board. Not later than January 1, 2014, each community mental health board shall notify the department of mental health and addiction services of its election to operate as an eighteen-member board or to operate as a fourteen-member board. The election shall be final. Failure to provide notice of its election to the department on or before January 1, 2014, shall constitute an election to continue to operate as an eighteen-member board. If an existing board provides timely notice of its election to operate as a fourteen-member board, the number of board members may decline from eighteen to fourteen by attrition as current members' terms expire. However, the composition of the board must reflect the requirements set forth in this section and in applicable provisions of section 340.02 of the Revised Code for fourteen-member boards. For boards operating as eighteen-member boards, six members shall be appointed by the director of mental health and addiction services and twelve members shall be appointed by the board of county commissioners. The director of mental health and addiction services shall ensure that at least one member of the board is a person who has received or is receiving mental health services paid for with public funds, at least one member is a parent or relative of such a person, and at least one member is a clinician with experience in the delivery of mental health services. The membership of the board as nearly as possible shall reflect the composition of the population of the service district as to race and sex. Members shall be residents of the service district and shall be interested in mental health services. Requirements for membership, including prohibitions against certain family and business relationships, and terms of office shall be the same as those for members of boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services.

(B)(1) If a board of county commissioners subject to division (A) of this section did not adopt a final resolution providing for a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services on or before July 1, 2007, the board of county commissioners may establish a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services on or after the effective date of this amendment September 23, 2008. To establish the board, the board of county commissioners shall adopt a resolution providing for the board's establishment. The composition of the board, the procedures for appointing members, and all other matters related to the board and its members are subject to section 340.02 of the Revised Code, with the following exceptions:

(a) For initial appointments to the board, the county's community mental health board and alcohol and drug addiction services board shall jointly recommend members of those boards for reappointment and shall submit the recommendations to the board of county commissioners and the director of mental health and addiction services.

(b) To the greatest extent possible, the appointing authorities shall appoint the initial members from among the members jointly recommended under division (B)(1)(a) of this section.

(2) If a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services is established pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section, the board has the same rights, privileges, immunities, powers, and duties that were possessed by the county's community mental health board and alcohol and drug addiction services board. When the board is established, all property and obligations of the community mental health board and alcohol and drug addiction services board shall be transferred to the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services.

Sec. 1321.535.  (A) Each applicant for a mortgage loan originator license shall submit to a written test that is developed and approved by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry and administered by a test provider approved by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry based upon reasonable standards.

(1)(A) The test shall adequately measure the applicant's knowledge and comprehension in appropriate subject matters, including ethics and federal and state law related to mortgage origination, fraud, consumer protection, the nontraditional mortgage marketplace, and fair lending issues.

(2)(B) An individual shall not be considered to have passed the test unless the individual achieves a test score of answers at least seventy-five per cent correct answers on all of the questions and at least seventy-five per cent correct answers on all questions relating to Ohio mortgage lending laws and the Ohio consumer sales practices act, Chapter 1345. of the Revised Code, as it applies to registrants and licensees correctly.

(3)(C) An individual may retake the test three consecutive times provided the period between taking the tests is at least thirty days.

(4)(D) After failing three consecutive tests, an individual shall be required to wait at least six months before taking the test again.

(5)(E) If a mortgage loan originator fails to maintain a valid license for a period of five years or longer, the individual shall be required to retake the test. For this purpose, any time during which the individual is a registered mortgage loan originator shall not be taken into account.

(B) Notwithstanding division (A) of this section, if the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry fails to have in place a testing process that meets the criteria set forth in that division, the superintendent shall require, until that process is in place, evidence that the mortgage loan originator applicant passed a written test acceptable to the superintendent.

Sec. 1321.55.  (A) Every registrant shall keep records pertaining to loans made under sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised Code. Such records shall be segregated from records pertaining to transactions that are not subject to these sections of the Revised Code. Every registrant shall preserve records pertaining to loans made under sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised Code for at least two years after making the final entry on such records. Accounting systems maintained in whole or in part by mechanical or electronic data processing methods that provide information equivalent to that otherwise required are acceptable for this purpose. At least once each eighteen-month cycle, the division of financial institutions shall make or cause to be made an examination of records pertaining to loans made under sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised Code, for the purpose of determining whether the registrant is complying with these sections and of verifying the registrant's annual report.

(B)(1) As required by the superintendent of financial institutions, each registrant shall file with the division each year a an annual report under oath or affirmation, on forms supplied by the division, concerning the business and operations for the preceding calendar year. Whenever a registrant operates two or more registered offices or whenever two or more affiliated registrants operate registered offices, then a composite report of the group of registered offices may be filed in lieu of individual reports. For purposes of compliance with this requirement, the superintendent may accept call reports or other reports of condition submitted to the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry in lieu of the annual report.

(2) The division superintendent shall publish annually an analysis of the information required under division divisions (B)(1) and (3) of this section, but the individual reports, whether filed with the superintendent or the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry, shall not be public records and shall not be open to public inspection.

(3) Each mortgage licensee shall submit to the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry call reports or other reports of condition, which shall be in such form and shall contain such information as the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry may require.

(C)(1) The following information is confidential:

(a) Examination information, and any information leading to or arising from an examination;

(b) Investigation information, and any information arising from or leading to an investigation.

(2) The information described in division (C)(1) of this section shall remain confidential for all purposes except when it is necessary for the superintendent to take official action regarding the affairs of a registrant or licensee, or in connection with criminal or civil proceedings to be initiated by a prosecuting attorney or the attorney general. This information may also be introduced into evidence or disclosed when and in the manner authorized by section 1181.25 of the Revised Code.

(D) All application information, except social security numbers, employer identification numbers, financial account numbers, the identity of the institution where financial accounts are maintained, personal financial information, fingerprint cards and the information contained on such cards, and criminal background information, is a public record as defined in section 149.43 of the Revised Code.

(E) This section does not prevent the division of financial institutions from releasing to or exchanging with other financial institution regulatory authorities information relating to registrants and licensees. For this purpose, a "financial institution regulatory authority" includes a regulator of a business activity in which a registrant or licensee is engaged, or has applied to engage in, to the extent that the regulator has jurisdiction over a registrant or licensee engaged in that business activity. A registrant or licensee is engaged in a business activity, and a regulator of that business activity has jurisdiction over the registrant or licensee, whether the registrant or licensee conducts the activity directly or a subsidiary or affiliate of the registrant or licensee conducts the activity.

(1) Any confidentiality or privilege arising under federal or state law with respect to any information or material provided to the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry shall continue to apply to the information or material after the information or material has been provided to the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry. The information and material so provided may be shared with all state and federal regulatory officials with mortgage industry oversight authority without the loss of confidentiality or privilege protections provided by federal law or the law of any state. Information or material described in division (E)(1) of this section to which confidentiality or privilege applies shall not be subject to any of the following:

(a) Disclosure under any federal or state law governing disclosure to the public of information held by an officer or an agency of the federal government or of the respective state;

(b) Subpoena or discovery, or admission into evidence, in any private civil action or administrative process, unless the person to whom such information or material pertains waives, in whole or in part and at the discretion of the person, any privilege held by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry with respect to that information or material.

(2) The superintendent, in order to promote more effective regulation and reduce regulatory burden through supervisory information sharing, may enter into sharing arrangements with other governmental agencies, the conference of state bank supervisors, and the American association of residential mortgage regulators.

(3) Any state law, including section 149.43 of the Revised Code, relating to the disclosure of confidential supervisory information or any information or material described in division (C)(1) or (E)(1) of this section that is inconsistent with this section shall be superseded by the requirements of this section.

(F) This section shall not apply with respect to information or material relating to the employment history of, and publicly adjudicated disciplinary and enforcement actions against, mortgage loan originators that is included in the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry for access by the public.

(G) This section does not prevent the division from releasing information relating to registrants and licensees to the attorney general, to the superintendent of real estate and professional licensing for purposes relating to the administration of Chapters 4735. and 4763. of the Revised Code, to the superintendent of insurance for purposes relating to the administration of Chapter 3953. of the Revised Code, to the commissioner of securities for purposes relating to the administration of Chapter 1707. of the Revised Code, or to local law enforcement agencies and local prosecutors. Information the division releases pursuant to this section remains confidential.

(H) The superintendent of financial institutions shall, by rule adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, establish a process by which mortgage loan originators may challenge information provided to the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry by the superintendent.

(I) No person, in connection with any examination or investigation conducted by the superintendent under sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised Code, shall knowingly do any of the following:

(1) Circumvent, interfere with, obstruct, or fail to cooperate, including making a false or misleading statement, failing to produce records, or intimidating or suborning any witness;

(2) Withhold, abstract, remove, mutilate, destroy, or secrete any books, records, computer records, or other information;

(3) Tamper with, alter, or manufacture any evidence.

Sec. 1322.03.  (A) An application for a certificate of registration as a mortgage broker shall be in writing, under oath, and in the form prescribed by the superintendent of financial institutions. The application shall be accompanied by a nonrefundable application fee of five hundred dollars for each location of an office to be maintained by the applicant in accordance with division (A) of section 1322.02 of the Revised Code and any additional fee required by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry. The application shall provide all of the following:

(1) The location or locations where the business is to be transacted and whether any location is a residence. If any location where the business is to be transacted is a residence, the superintendent may require that the application be accompanied by a copy of a zoning permit authorizing the use of the residence for commercial purposes, or by a written opinion or other document issued by the county or political subdivision where the residence is located certifying that the use of the residence to transact business as a mortgage broker is not prohibited by the county or political subdivision.

(2)(a) In the case of a sole proprietor, the name and address of the sole proprietor;

(b) In the case of a partnership, the name and address of each partner;

(c) In the case of a corporation, the name and address of each shareholder owning five per cent or more of the corporation;

(d) In the case of any other entity, the name and address of any person that owns five per cent or more of the entity that will transact business as a mortgage broker.

(3) Each applicant shall designate an employee or owner of the applicant as the applicant's operations manager. While acting as the operations manager, the employee or owner shall be licensed as a loan originator under sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the Revised Code and shall not be employed by any other mortgage broker.

(4) Evidence that the person designated on the application pursuant to division (A)(3) of this section possesses at least three years of experience in the residential mortgage and lending field, which experience may include employment with or as a mortgage broker or with a depository institution, mortgage lending institution, or other lending institution, or possesses at least three years of other experience related specifically to the business of residential mortgage loans that the superintendent determines meets the requirements of division (A)(4) of this section;

(5) Evidence that the person designated on the application pursuant to division (A)(3) of this section has successfully completed the pre-licensing instruction requirements set forth in section 1322.031 of the Revised Code;

(6) Evidence of compliance with the surety bond requirements of section 1322.05 of the Revised Code and with sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the Revised Code;

(7) In the case of a foreign business entity, evidence that it maintains a license or registration pursuant to Chapter 1703., 1705., 1775., 1776., 1777., 1782., or 1783. of the Revised Code to transact business in this state;

(8) Evidence that the applicant's operations manager has successfully completed the written test required under division (A) of by section 1322.051 of the Revised Code;

(9) Any further information that the superintendent requires.

(B) Upon the filing of the application and payment of the nonrefundable application fee and any fee required by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry, the superintendent of financial institutions shall investigate the applicant, and any individual whose identity is required to be disclosed in the application, as set forth in division (B) of this section.

(1)(a) Notwithstanding division (K) of section 121.08 of the Revised Code, the superintendent shall obtain a criminal history records check and, as part of that records check, request that criminal record information from the federal bureau of investigation be obtained. To fulfill this requirement, the superintendent shall do either of the following:

(i) Request the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation, or a vendor approved by the bureau, to conduct a criminal records check based on the applicant's fingerprints or, if the fingerprints are unreadable, based on the applicant's social security number, in accordance with division (A)(12) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code;

(ii) Authorize the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry to request a criminal history background check.

(b) Any fee required under division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code or by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry shall be paid by the applicant.

(2) The superintendent shall conduct a civil records check.

(3) If, in order to issue a certificate of registration to an applicant, additional investigation by the superintendent outside this state is necessary, the superintendent may require the applicant to advance sufficient funds to pay the actual expenses of the investigation, if it appears that these expenses will exceed five hundred dollars. The superintendent shall provide the applicant with an itemized statement of the actual expenses that the applicant is required to pay.

(C) The superintendent shall pay all funds advanced and application and renewal fees and penalties the superintendent receives pursuant to this section and section 1322.04 of the Revised Code to the treasurer of state to the credit of the consumer finance fund created in section 1321.21 of the Revised Code.

(D) If an application for a mortgage broker certificate of registration does not contain all of the information required under division (A) of this section, and if that information is not submitted to the superintendent or to the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry within ninety days after the superintendent or the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry requests the information in writing, including by electronic transmission or facsimile, the superintendent may consider the application withdrawn.

(E) A mortgage broker certificate of registration and the authority granted under that certificate is not transferable or assignable and cannot be franchised by contract or any other means.

(F) The registration requirements of this chapter apply to any person acting as a mortgage broker, and no person is exempt from the requirements of this chapter on the basis of prior work or employment as a mortgage broker.

(G) The superintendent may establish relationships or enter into contracts with the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry, or any entities designated by it, to collect and maintain records and process transaction fees or other fees related to mortgage broker certificates of registration or the persons associated with a mortgage broker.

Sec. 1322.031. (A) An application for a license as a loan originator shall be in writing, under oath, and in the form prescribed by the superintendent of financial institutions. The application shall be accompanied by a nonrefundable application fee of one hundred fifty dollars and any additional fee required by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry.

(B)(1) The application shall provide evidence, acceptable to the superintendent, that the applicant has successfully completed at least twenty-four hours of pre-licensing instruction consisting of all of the following:

(a) Twenty hours of instruction in a course or program of study reviewed and approved by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry;

(b) Four hours of instruction in a course or program of study reviewed and approved by the superintendent concerning state lending laws and the Ohio consumer sales practices act, Chapter 1345. of the Revised Code, as it applies to registrants and licensees.

(2) Notwithstanding division (B)(1) of this section, until the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry implements a review and approval program, the application shall provide evidence, as determined by the superintendent, that the applicant has successfully completed at least twenty-four hours of instruction in a course or program of study approved by the superintendent that consists of at least all of the following:

(a) Four hours of instruction concerning state and federal mortgage lending laws, which shall include no less than two hours on this chapter;

(b) Four hours of instruction concerning the Ohio consumer sales practices act, Chapter 1345. of the Revised Code, as it applies to registrants and licensees;

(c) Four hours of instruction concerning the loan application process;

(d) Two hours of instruction concerning the underwriting process;

(e) Two hours of instruction concerning the secondary market for mortgage loans;

(f) Four hours of instruction concerning the loan closing process;

(g) Two hours of instruction covering basic mortgage financing concepts and terms;

(h) Two hours of instruction concerning the ethical responsibilities of a registrant and a licensee, including with respect to confidentiality, consumer counseling, and the duties and standards of care created in section 1322.081 of the Revised Code.

(3) For purposes of division (B)(1)(a) of this section, the review and approval of a course or program of study includes the review and approval of the provider of the course or program of study.

(4) If an applicant held a valid loan originator license issued by this state at any time during the immediately preceding five-year period, the applicant shall not be required to complete any additional pre-licensing instruction. For this purpose, any time during which the individual is a registered loan originator shall not be taken into account.

(5) A person having successfully completed the pre-licensing education requirement reviewed and approved by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry for any state within the previous five years shall be granted credit toward completion of the pre-licensing education requirement of this state.

(C) In addition to the information required under division (B) of this section, the application shall provide both of the following:

(1) Evidence that the applicant passed a written test that meets the requirements described in division (B) of section 1322.051 of the Revised Code;

(2) Any further information that the superintendent requires.

(D) Upon the filing of the application and payment of the application fee and any fee required by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry, the superintendent of financial institutions shall investigate the applicant as set forth in division (D) of this section.

(1)(a) Notwithstanding division (K) of section 121.08 of the Revised Code, the superintendent shall obtain a criminal history records check and, as part of the records check, request that criminal record information from the federal bureau of investigation be obtained. To fulfill this requirement, the superintendent shall do either of the following:

(i) Request the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation, or a vendor approved by the bureau, to conduct a criminal records check based on the applicant's fingerprints or, if the fingerprints are unreadable, based on the applicant's social security number, in accordance with division (A)(12) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code;

(ii) Authorize the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry to request a criminal history background check.

(b) Any fee required under division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code or by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry shall be paid by the applicant.

(2) The superintendent shall conduct a civil records check.

(3) If, in order to issue a license to an applicant, additional investigation by the superintendent outside this state is necessary, the superintendent may require the applicant to advance sufficient funds to pay the actual expenses of the investigation, if it appears that these expenses will exceed one hundred fifty dollars. The superintendent shall provide the applicant with an itemized statement of the actual expenses that the applicant is required to pay.

(E)(1) In connection with applying for a loan originator license, the applicant shall furnish to the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry the following information concerning the applicant's identity:

(a) The applicant's fingerprints for submission to the federal bureau of investigation, and any other governmental agency or entity authorized to receive such information, for purposes of a state, national, and international criminal history background check;

(b) Personal history and experience in a form prescribed by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry, along with authorization for the superintendent and the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry to obtain the following:

(i) An independent credit report from a consumer reporting agency;

(ii) Information related to any administrative, civil, or criminal findings by any governmental jurisdiction.

(2) In order to effectuate the purposes of divisions (E)(1)(a) and (E)(1)(b)(ii) of this section, the superintendent may use the conference of state bank supervisors, or a wholly owned subsidiary, as a channeling agent for requesting information from and distributing information to the United States department of justice or any other governmental agency. The superintendent may also use the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry as a channeling agent for requesting information from and distributing information to any source related to matters subject to those divisions of this section.

(F) The superintendent shall pay all funds advanced and application and renewal fees and penalties the superintendent receives pursuant to this section and section 1322.041 of the Revised Code to the treasurer of state to the credit of the consumer finance fund created in section 1321.21 of the Revised Code.

(G) If an application for a loan originator license does not contain all of the information required under this section, and if that information is not submitted to the superintendent or to the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry within ninety days after the superintendent or the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry requests the information in writing, including by electronic transmission or facsimile, the superintendent may consider the application withdrawn.

(H)(1) The business of a loan originator shall principally be transacted at an office of the mortgage broker with whom the licensee is employed or associated, which office is registered in accordance with division (A) of section 1322.02 of the Revised Code. Each original loan originator license shall be deposited with and maintained by the mortgage broker at the mortgage broker's main office. A copy of the license shall be maintained and displayed at the office where the loan originator principally transacts business.

(2) If a loan originator's employment or association is terminated for any reason, the mortgage broker shall return the original loan originator license to the superintendent within five business days after the termination. The licensee may request the transfer of the license to another mortgage broker by submitting a transfer application, along with a fifteen dollar fee and any fee required by the national mortgage licensing system and registry, to the superintendent or may request the superintendent in writing to hold the license in escrow. Any licensee whose license is held in escrow shall cease activity as a loan originator. A licensee whose license is held in escrow shall be required to apply for renewal annually and to comply with the annual continuing education requirement.

(3) A mortgage broker may employ or be associated with a loan originator on a temporary basis pending the transfer of the loan originator's license to the mortgage broker, if the mortgage broker receives written confirmation from the superintendent that the loan originator is licensed under sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the Revised Code.

(4) Notwithstanding divisions (H)(1) to (3) of this section, if a licensee is employed by or associated with a person or entity listed in division (G)(2) of section 1322.01 of the Revised Code, all of the following apply:

(a) The licensee shall maintain and display the original loan originator license at the office where the licensee principally transacts business;

(b) If the loan originator's employment or association is terminated, the loan originator shall return the original loan originator license to the superintendent within five business days after termination. The licensee may request the transfer of the license to a mortgage broker or another person or entity listed in division (G)(2) of section 1322.01 of the Revised Code by submitting a transfer application, along with a fifteen-dollar fee and any fee required by the national mortgage licensing system and registry, to the superintendent or may request the superintendent in writing to hold the license in escrow. A licensee whose license is held in escrow shall cease activity as a loan originator. A licensee whose license is held in escrow shall be required to apply for renewal annually and to comply with the annual continuing education requirement.

(c) The licensee may seek to be employed or associated with a mortgage broker or person or entity listed in division (G)(2) of section 1322.01 of the Revised Code if the mortgage broker or person or entity receives written confirmation from the superintendent that the loan originator is licensed under sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the Revised Code.

(I) The superintendent may establish relationships or enter into contracts with the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry, or any entities designated by it, to collect and maintain records and process transaction fees or other fees related to loan originator licenses or the persons associated with a licensee.

(J) A loan originator license, or the authority granted under that license, is not assignable and cannot be franchised by contract or any other means.

Sec. 1322.04.  (A) Upon the conclusion of the investigation required under division (B) of section 1322.03 of the Revised Code, the superintendent of financial institutions shall issue a certificate of registration to the applicant if the superintendent finds that the following conditions are met:

(1) The application is accompanied by the application fee and any fee required by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry.

(a) If a check or other draft instrument is returned to the superintendent for insufficient funds, the superintendent shall notify the applicant by certified mail, return receipt requested, that the application will be withdrawn unless the applicant, within thirty days after receipt of the notice, submits the application fee and a one-hundred-dollar penalty to the superintendent. If the applicant does not submit the application fee and penalty within that time period, or if any check or other draft instrument used to pay the fee or penalty is returned to the superintendent for insufficient funds, the application shall be withdrawn.

(b) If a check or other draft instrument is returned to the superintendent for insufficient funds after the certificate of registration has been issued, the superintendent shall notify the registrant by certified mail, return receipt requested, that the certificate of registration issued in reliance on the check or other draft instrument will be canceled unless the registrant, within thirty days after receipt of the notice, submits the application fee and a one-hundred-dollar penalty to the superintendent. If the registrant does not submit the application fee and penalty within that time period, or if any check or other draft instrument used to pay the fee or penalty is returned to the superintendent for insufficient funds, the certificate of registration shall be canceled immediately without a hearing, and the registrant shall cease activity as a mortgage broker.

(2) If the application is for a location that is a residence, evidence that the use of the residence to transact business as a mortgage broker is not prohibited.

(3) The person designated on the application pursuant to division (A)(3) of section 1322.03 of the Revised Code meets the experience requirements provided in division (A)(4) of section 1322.03 of the Revised Code and the education requirements set forth in division (A)(5) of section 1322.03 of the Revised Code.

(4) The applicant maintains all necessary filings and approvals required by the secretary of state.

(5) The applicant complies with the surety bond requirements of section 1322.05 of the Revised Code.

(6) The applicant complies with sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the Revised Code and the rules adopted thereunder.

(7) Neither the applicant nor any person whose identity is required to be disclosed on an application for a mortgage broker certificate of registration has had a mortgage broker certificate of registration or loan originator license, or any comparable authority, revoked in any governmental jurisdiction or has pleaded guilty or nolo contendere to or been convicted of any of the following in a domestic, foreign, or military court:

(a) During the seven-year period immediately preceding the date of application for the certificate of registration, a misdemeanor involving theft or any felony;

(b) At any time prior to the date the application for the certificate of registration is approved, a felony involving an act of fraud, dishonesty, a breach of trust, theft, or money laundering.

(8) Based on the totality of the circumstances and information submitted in the application, the applicant has proven to the superintendent, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the applicant is of good business repute, appears qualified to act as a mortgage broker, has fully complied with sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the Revised Code and the rules adopted thereunder, and meets all of the conditions for issuing a mortgage broker certificate of registration.

(9) The applicant's operations manager successfully completed the examination required under division (A) of by section 1322.051 of the Revised Code.

(10) The applicant's financial responsibility, experience, character, and general fitness command the confidence of the public and warrant the belief that the business will be operated honestly and fairly in compliance with the purposes of sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the Revised Code and the rules adopted thereunder. The superintendent shall not use a credit score as the sole basis for registration denial.

(B) For purposes of determining whether an applicant that is a partnership, corporation, or other business entity or association has met the conditions set forth in divisions (A)(7), (A)(8), and (A)(10) of this section, the superintendent shall determine which partners, shareholders, or persons named in the application pursuant to division (A)(2) of section 1322.03 of the Revised Code must meet the conditions set forth in divisions (A)(7), (A)(8), and (A)(10) of this section. This determination shall be based on the extent and nature of the partner's, shareholder's, or person's ownership interest in the partnership, corporation, or other business entity or association that is the applicant and on whether the person is in a position to direct, control, or adversely influence the operations of the applicant.

(C) The certificate of registration issued pursuant to division (A) of this section may be renewed annually on or before the thirty-first day of December if the superintendent finds that all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The renewal application is accompanied by a nonrefundable renewal fee of five hundred dollars for each location of an office to be maintained by the applicant in accordance with division (A) of section 1322.02 of the Revised Code and any fee required by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry. If a check or other draft instrument is returned to the superintendent for insufficient funds, the superintendent shall notify the registrant by certified mail, return receipt requested, that the certificate of registration renewed in reliance on the check or other draft instrument will be canceled unless the registrant, within thirty days after receipt of the notice, submits the renewal fee and a one-hundred-dollar penalty to the superintendent. If the registrant does not submit the renewal fee and penalty within that time period, or if any check or other draft instrument used to pay the fee or penalty is returned to the superintendent for insufficient funds, the certificate of registration shall be canceled immediately without a hearing and the registrant shall cease activity as a mortgage broker.

(2) The operations manager designated under division (A)(3) of section 1322.03 of the Revised Code has completed, at least eight hours of continuing education as required under section 1322.052 of the Revised Code.

(3) The applicant meets the conditions set forth in divisions (A)(2) to (10) of this section.

(4) The applicant's mortgage broker certificate of registration is not subject to an order of suspension or an unpaid and past due fine imposed by the superintendent.

(D)(1) Subject to division (D)(2) of this section, if a renewal fee or additional fee required by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry is received by the superintendent after the thirty-first day of December, the mortgage broker certificate of registration shall not be considered renewed, and the applicant shall cease activity as a mortgage broker.

(2) Division (D)(1) of this section shall not apply if the applicant, no later than the thirty-first day of January, submits the renewal fee or additional fee and a one-hundred-dollar penalty to the superintendent.

(E) If the person designated as the operations manager pursuant to division (A)(3) of section 1322.03 of the Revised Code is no longer the operations manager, the registrant shall do all of the following:

(1) Within ninety days after the departure of the designated operations manager, designate another person as the operations manager;

(2) Within ten days after the designation described in division (E)(1) of this section, notify the superintendent in writing of the designation;

(3) Submit any additional information that the superintendent requires to establish that the newly designated operations manager complies with the requirements set forth in section 1322.03 of the Revised Code.

(F) The registrant shall cease operations if it is without an operations manager approved by the superintendent for more than one hundred eighty days unless otherwise authorized in writing by the superintendent due to exigent circumstances.

(G) Mortgage broker certificates of registration issued on or after May 1, 2010, annually expire on the thirty-first day of December.

Sec. 1322.041. (A) Upon the conclusion of the investigation required under division (D) of section 1322.031 of the Revised Code, the superintendent of financial institutions shall issue a loan originator license to the applicant if the superintendent finds that the following conditions are met:

(1) The application is accompanied by the application fee and any fee required by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry.

(a) If a check or other draft instrument is returned to the superintendent for insufficient funds, the superintendent shall notify the applicant by certified mail, return receipt requested, that the application will be withdrawn unless the applicant, within thirty days after receipt of the notice, submits the application fee and a one-hundred-dollar penalty to the superintendent. If the applicant does not submit the application fee and penalty within that time period, or if any check or other draft instrument used to pay the fee or penalty is returned to the superintendent for insufficient funds, the application shall be withdrawn.

(b) If a check or other draft instrument is returned to the superintendent for insufficient funds after the license has been issued, the superintendent shall notify the licensee by certified mail, return receipt requested, that the license issued in reliance on the check or other draft instrument will be canceled unless the licensee, within thirty days after receipt of the notice, submits the application fee and a one-hundred-dollar penalty to the superintendent. If the licensee does not submit the application fee and penalty within that time period, or if any check or other draft instrument used to pay the fee or penalty is returned to the superintendent for insufficient funds, the license shall be canceled immediately without a hearing, and the licensee shall cease activity as a loan originator.

(2) The applicant complies with sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the Revised Code and the rules adopted thereunder.

(3) The applicant has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty or nolo contendere to any of the following in a domestic, foreign, or military court:

(a) During the seven-year period immediately preceding the date of application for the license, a misdemeanor involving theft or any felony;

(b) At any time prior to the date the application for the license is approved, a felony involving an act of fraud, dishonesty, a breach of trust, theft, or money laundering.

(4) Based on the totality of the circumstances and information submitted in the application, the applicant has proven to the superintendent, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the applicant is of good business repute, appears qualified to act as a loan originator, has fully complied with sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the Revised Code and the rules adopted thereunder, and meets all of the conditions for issuing a loan originator license.

(5) The applicant successfully completed the written test required under division (B) of by section 1322.051 of the Revised Code and completed the prelicensing instruction set forth in division (B) of section 1322.031 of the Revised Code.

(6) The applicant's financial responsibility, character, and general fitness command the confidence of the public and warrant the belief that the business will be operated honestly and fairly in compliance with the purposes of sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the Revised Code. The superintendent shall not use a credit score as the sole basis for a license denial.

(7) The applicant is in compliance with the surety bond requirements of section 1322.05 of the Revised Code.

(8) The applicant has not had a loan originator license, or comparable authority, revoked in any governmental jurisdiction.

(B) The license issued under division (A) of this section may be renewed annually on or before the thirty-first day of December if the superintendent finds that all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The renewal application is accompanied by a nonrefundable renewal fee of one hundred fifty dollars and any fee required by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry. If a check or other draft instrument is returned to the superintendent for insufficient funds, the superintendent shall notify the licensee by certified mail, return receipt requested, that the license renewed in reliance on the check or other draft instrument will be canceled unless the licensee, within thirty days after receipt of the notice, submits the renewal fee and a one-hundred-dollar penalty to the superintendent. If the licensee does not submit the renewal fee and penalty within that time period, or if any check or other draft instrument used to pay the fee or penalty is returned to the superintendent for insufficient funds, the license shall be canceled immediately without a hearing, and the licensee shall cease activity as a loan originator.

(2) The applicant has completed at least eight hours of continuing education as required under section 1322.052 of the Revised Code.

(3) The applicant meets the conditions set forth in divisions (A)(2) to (8) of this section; provided, however, that an applicant who was issued a loan officer license prior to January 1, 2010, and has continuously maintained that license shall not be required to meet the condition described in division (B)(1)(b) of section 1322.031 of the Revised Code.

(4) The applicant's license is not subject to an order of suspension or an unpaid and past due fine imposed by the superintendent.

(C)(1) Subject to division (C)(2) of this section, if a license renewal application or renewal fee, including any fee required by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry, is received by the superintendent after the thirty-first day of December, the license shall not be considered renewed, and the applicant shall cease activity as a loan originator.

(2) Division (C)(1) of this section shall not apply if the applicant, no later than the thirty-first day of January, submits the renewal application and fees and a one-hundred-dollar penalty to the superintendent.

(D) Loan originator licenses issued on or after May 1, 2010, annually expire on the thirty-first day of December.

Sec. 1322.051.  (A) Each person designated under division (A)(3) of section 1322.03 of the Revised Code to act as operations manager for a mortgage broker business shall submit to a written test approved by the superintendent of financial institutions. An individual shall not be considered to have passed the written test unless the individual achieves a test score of at least seventy-five per cent correct answers to all questions.

(B) Each and each applicant for a loan originator license shall submit to a written test that is developed and approved by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry and administered by a test provider approved by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry based on reasonable standards.

(1)(A) The test shall adequately measure the designee's or applicant's knowledge and comprehension in appropriate subject areas, including ethics, federal and state law related to mortgage origination, fraud, consumer protection, and the nontraditional mortgage marketplace, and fair lending issues.

(2)(B) An individual shall not be considered to have passed the written test unless the individual achieves a test score of answers at least seventy-five per cent correct answers on all of the questions and at least seventy-five per cent correct answers on all questions relating to state mortgage lending laws and the Ohio consumer sales practices act, Chapter 1345. of the Revised Code, as it applies to registrants and licensees correctly.

(3)(C) An individual may retake the test three consecutive times provided the period between taking the tests is at least thirty days. If an individual fails three consecutive tests, the individual shall be required to wait at least six months before taking the test again.

(4)(D) If a loan originator fails to maintain a valid loan originator license for a period of five years or longer, the individual shall be required to retake the test.

For this purpose, any time during which the individual is a registered loan originator shall not be taken into account.

(C) Notwithstanding division (B) of this section, until the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry implements a testing process that meets the criteria set forth in that division, the superintendent shall require each applicant to pass a written test acceptable to the superintendent.

Sec. 1322.06.  (A) As often as the superintendent of financial institutions considers it necessary, the superintendent may examine the registrant's or licensee's records, including all records created or processed by a licensee, pertaining to business transacted pursuant to sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the Revised Code.

(B) A registrant or licensee shall maintain records pertaining to business transacted pursuant to sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the Revised Code, including copies of all mortgage loan origination disclosure statements prepared in accordance with section 1322.062 of the Revised Code, for four years. For purposes of this division, "registrant or licensee" includes any person whose certificate of registration or license is cancelled, surrendered, or revoked or who otherwise ceases to engage in business as a mortgage broker or loan originator.

No registrant or licensee shall fail to comply with this division.

(C) Each registrant and licensee shall submit to the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry call reports or other reports of condition, which reports shall be in such form and shall contain such information as the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry may require.

(D)(1) As required by the superintendent, each registrant shall file with the division of financial institutions an annual report under oath or affirmation, on forms supplied by the division, concerning the business and operations of the registrant for the preceding calendar year. If a registrant operates two or more registered offices, or two or more affiliated registrants operate registered offices, a composite report of the group of registered offices may be filed in lieu of individual reports. For purposes of compliance with this requirement, the superintendent may accept call reports or other reports of condition submitted to the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry in lieu of the annual report.

(2) The division superintendent shall publish annually an analysis of the information required under division (D)(1) of this section, but the individual reports, whether filed with the superintendent or the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry, shall not be public records and shall not be open to public inspection or otherwise be subject to section 149.43 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 1509.071.  (A) When the chief of the division of oil and gas resources management finds that an owner has failed to comply with a final nonappealable order issued or compliance agreement entered into under section 1509.04, the restoration requirements of section 1509.072, plugging requirements of section 1509.12, or permit provisions of section 1509.13 of the Revised Code, or rules and orders relating thereto, the chief shall make a finding of that fact and declare any surety bond filed to ensure compliance with those sections and rules forfeited in the amount set by rule of the chief. The chief thereupon shall certify the total forfeiture to the attorney general, who shall proceed to collect the amount of the forfeiture. In addition, the chief may require an owner, operator, producer, or other person who forfeited a surety bond to post a new surety bond in the amount of fifteen thousand dollars for a single well, thirty thousand dollars for two wells, or fifty thousand dollars for three or more wells.

In lieu of total forfeiture, the surety or owner, at the surety's or owner's option, may cause the well to be properly plugged and abandoned and the area properly restored or pay to the treasurer of state the cost of plugging and abandonment.

(B) All moneys collected because of forfeitures of bonds as provided in this section shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the oil and gas well fund created in section 1509.02 of the Revised Code.

The chief annually shall may spend not less than fourteen per cent of the revenue credited to the fund during the previous fiscal year for the following purposes:

(1) In accordance with division (D) of this section, to plug idle and orphaned wells or to restore the land surface properly as required in section 1509.072 of the Revised Code;

(2) In accordance with division (E) of this section, to correct conditions that the chief reasonably has determined are causing imminent health or safety risks at an idle and orphaned well or a well for which the owner cannot be contacted in order to initiate a corrective action within a reasonable period of time as determined by the chief;

(3) In accordance with rules adopted under division (I) of this section, to develop infrastructure as a solution to problems directly attributable to historic production operations.

Expenditures from the fund shall be made only for lawful purposes. In addition, expenditures from the fund shall not be made to purchase real property or to remove a dwelling in order to access a well.

(C)(1) Upon determining that the owner of a well has failed to properly plug and abandon it or to properly restore the land surface at the well site in compliance with the applicable requirements of this chapter and applicable rules adopted and orders issued under it or that a well is an abandoned well for which no funds are available to plug the well in accordance with this chapter, the chief shall do all of the following:

(a) Determine from the records in the office of the county recorder of the county in which the well is located the identity of the owner of the land on which the well is located, the identity of the owner of the oil or gas lease under which the well was drilled or the identity of each person owning an interest in the lease, and the identities of the persons having legal title to, or a lien upon, any of the equipment appurtenant to the well;

(b) Mail notice to the owner of the land on which the well is located informing the landowner that the well is to be plugged. If the owner of the oil or gas lease under which the well was drilled is different from the owner of the well or if any persons other than the owner of the well own interests in the lease, the chief also shall mail notice that the well is to be plugged to the owner of the lease or to each person owning an interest in the lease, as appropriate.

(c) Mail notice to each person having legal title to, or a lien upon, any equipment appurtenant to the well, informing the person that the well is to be plugged and offering the person the opportunity to plug the well and restore the land surface at the well site at the person's own expense in order to avoid forfeiture of the equipment to this state.

(2) If none of the persons described in division (C)(1)(c) of this section plugs the well within sixty days after the mailing of the notice required by that division, all equipment appurtenant to the well is hereby declared to be forfeited to this state without compensation and without the necessity for any action by the state for use to defray the cost of plugging and abandoning the well and restoring the land surface at the well site.

(D) Expenditures from the fund for the purpose of division (B)(1) of this section shall be made in accordance with either of the following:

(1) The expenditures may be made pursuant to contracts entered into by the chief with persons who agree to furnish all of the materials, equipment, work, and labor as specified and provided in such a contract for activities associated with the restoration or plugging of a well as determined by the chief. The activities may include excavation to uncover a well, geophysical methods to locate a buried well when clear evidence of leakage from the well exists, cleanout of wellbores to remove material from a failed plugging of a well, plugging operations, installation of vault and vent systems, including associated engineering certifications and permits, restoration of property, and repair of damage to property that is caused by such activities. Expenditures shall not be used for salaries, maintenance, equipment, or other administrative purposes, except for costs directly attributed to the plugging of an idle and orphaned well. Agents or employees of persons contracting with the chief for a restoration or plugging project may enter upon any land, public or private, on which the well is located for the purpose of performing the work. Prior to such entry, the chief shall give to the following persons written notice of the existence of a contract for a project to restore or plug a well, the names of the persons with whom the contract is made, and the date that the project will commence: the owner of the well, the owner of the land upon which the well is located, the owner or agents of adjoining land, and, if the well is located in the same township as or in a township adjacent to the excavations and workings of a mine and the owner or lessee of that mine has provided written notice identifying those townships to the chief at any time during the immediately preceding three years, the owner or lessee of the mine.

(2)(a) The owner of the land on which a well is located who has received notice under division (C)(1)(b) of this section may plug the well and be reimbursed by the division of oil and gas resources management for the reasonable cost of plugging the well. In order to plug the well, the landowner shall submit an application to the chief on a form prescribed by the chief and approved by the technical advisory council on oil and gas created in section 1509.38 of the Revised Code. The application, at a minimum, shall require the landowner to provide the same information as is required to be included in the application for a permit to plug and abandon under section 1509.13 of the Revised Code. The application shall be accompanied by a copy of a proposed contract to plug the well prepared by a contractor regularly engaged in the business of plugging oil and gas wells. The proposed contract shall require the contractor to furnish all of the materials, equipment, work, and labor necessary to plug the well properly and shall specify the price for doing the work, including a credit for the equipment appurtenant to the well that was forfeited to the state through the operation of division (C)(2) of this section. Expenditures under division (D)(2)(a) of this section shall be consistent with the expenditures for activities described in division (D)(1) of this section. The application also shall be accompanied by the permit fee required by section 1509.13 of the Revised Code unless the chief, in the chief's discretion, waives payment of the permit fee. The application constitutes an application for a permit to plug and abandon the well for the purposes of section 1509.13 of the Revised Code.

(b) Within thirty days after receiving an application and accompanying proposed contract under division (D)(2)(a) of this section, the chief shall determine whether the plugging would comply with the applicable requirements of this chapter and applicable rules adopted and orders issued under it and whether the cost of the plugging under the proposed contract is reasonable. If the chief determines that the proposed plugging would comply with those requirements and that the proposed cost of the plugging is reasonable, the chief shall notify the landowner of that determination and issue to the landowner a permit to plug and abandon the well under section 1509.13 of the Revised Code. Upon approval of the application and proposed contract, the chief shall transfer ownership of the equipment appurtenant to the well to the landowner. The chief may disapprove an application submitted under division (D)(2)(a) of this section if the chief determines that the proposed plugging would not comply with the applicable requirements of this chapter and applicable rules adopted and orders issued under it, that the cost of the plugging under the proposed contract is unreasonable, or that the proposed contract is not a bona fide, arm's length contract.

(c) After receiving the chief's notice of the approval of the application and permit to plug and abandon a well under division (D)(2)(b) of this section, the landowner shall enter into the proposed contract to plug the well.

(d) Upon determining that the plugging has been completed in compliance with the applicable requirements of this chapter and applicable rules adopted and orders issued under it, the chief shall reimburse the landowner for the cost of the plugging as set forth in the proposed contract approved by the chief. The reimbursement shall be paid from the oil and gas well fund. If the chief determines that the plugging was not completed in accordance with the applicable requirements, the chief shall not reimburse the landowner for the cost of the plugging, and the landowner or the contractor, as applicable, promptly shall transfer back to this state title to and possession of the equipment appurtenant to the well that previously was transferred to the landowner under division (D)(2)(b) of this section. If any such equipment was removed from the well during the plugging and sold, the landowner shall pay to the chief the proceeds from the sale of the equipment, and the chief promptly shall pay the moneys so received to the treasurer of state for deposit into the oil and gas well fund.

The chief may establish an annual limit on the number of wells that may be plugged under division (D)(2) of this section or an annual limit on the expenditures to be made under that division.

As used in division (D)(2) of this section, "plug" and "plugging" include the plugging of the well and the restoration of the land surface disturbed by the plugging.

(E) Expenditures from the oil and gas well fund for the purpose of division (B)(2) of this section may be made pursuant to contracts entered into by the chief with persons who agree to furnish all of the materials, equipment, work, and labor as specified and provided in such a contract. The competitive bidding requirements of Chapter 153. of the Revised Code do not apply if the chief reasonably determines that an emergency situation exists requiring immediate action for the correction of the applicable health or safety risk. A contract or purchase of materials for purposes of addressing the emergency situation is not subject to division (B) of section 127.16 of the Revised Code. The chief, designated representatives of the chief, and agents or employees of persons contracting with the chief under this division may enter upon any land, public or private, for the purpose of performing the work.

(F) Contracts entered into by the chief under this section are not subject to any of the following:

(1) Chapter 4115. of the Revised Code;

(2) Section 153.54 of the Revised Code, except that the contractor shall obtain and provide to the chief as a bid guaranty a surety bond or letter of credit in an amount equal to ten per cent of the amount of the contract;

(3) Section 4733.17 of the Revised Code.

(G) The owner of land on which a well is located who has received notice under division (C)(1)(b) of this section, in lieu of plugging the well in accordance with division (D)(2) of this section, may cause ownership of the well to be transferred to an owner who is lawfully doing business in this state and who has met the financial responsibility requirements established under section 1509.07 of the Revised Code, subject to the approval of the chief. The transfer of ownership also shall be subject to the landowner's filing the appropriate forms required under section 1509.31 of the Revised Code and providing to the chief sufficient information to demonstrate the landowner's or owner's right to produce a formation or formations. That information may include a deed, a lease, or other documentation of ownership or property rights.

The chief shall approve or disapprove the transfer of ownership of the well. If the chief approves the transfer, the owner is responsible for operating the well in accordance with this chapter and rules adopted under it, including, without limitation, all of the following:

(1) Filing an application with the chief under section 1509.06 of the Revised Code if the owner intends to drill deeper or produce a formation that is not listed in the records of the division for that well;

(2) Taking title to and possession of the equipment appurtenant to the well that has been identified by the chief as having been abandoned by the former owner;

(3) Complying with all applicable requirements that are necessary to drill deeper, plug the well, or plug back the well.

(H) The chief shall issue an order that requires the owner of a well to pay the actual documented costs of a corrective action that is described in division (B)(2) of this section concerning the well. The chief shall transmit the money so recovered to the treasurer of state who shall deposit the money in the state treasury to the credit of the oil and gas well fund.

(I) The chief shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code regarding the development of infrastructure as a solution to problems directly attributable to historic production operations. The rules shall establish criteria for determining the types of infrastructure for which revenues may be used under division (B)(3) of this section.

(J) The chief may engage in cooperative projects under this section with any agency of this state, another state, or the United States; any other governmental agencies; or any state university or college as defined in section 3345.27 of the Revised Code. A contract entered into for purposes of a cooperative project is not subject to division (B) of section 127.16 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 1533.10.  Except as provided in this section or division (A)(2) of section 1533.12 or section 1533.73 or 1533.731 of the Revised Code, no person shall hunt any wild bird or wild quadruped without a hunting license. Each day that any person hunts within the state without procuring such a license constitutes a separate offense. Except as otherwise provided in this section, every applicant for a hunting license who is a resident of the state and eighteen years of age or more shall procure a resident hunting license or an apprentice resident hunting license, the fee for which shall be eighteen dollars unless the rules adopted under division (B) of section 1533.12 of the Revised Code provide for issuance of a resident hunting license to the applicant free of charge. Except as provided in rules adopted under division (B)(2) of that section, each applicant who is a resident of this state and who at the time of application is sixty-six years of age or older shall procure a special senior hunting license, the fee for which shall be one-half of the regular hunting license fee. Every applicant who is under the age of eighteen years shall procure a special youth hunting license or an apprentice youth hunting license, the fee for which shall be one-half of the regular hunting license fee.

A resident of this state who owns lands in the state and the owner's children of any age and grandchildren under eighteen years of age may hunt on the lands without a hunting license. A resident of any other state who owns real property in this state, and the spouse and children living with the property owner, may hunt on that property without a license, provided that the state of residence of the real property owner allows residents of this state owning real property in that state, and the spouse and children living with the property owner, to hunt without a license. If the owner of land in this state is a limited liability company or a limited liability partnership that consists of three or fewer individual members or partners, as applicable, an individual member or partner who is a resident of this state and the member's or partner's children of any age and grandchildren under eighteen years of age may hunt on the land owned by the limited liability company or limited liability partnership without a hunting license. In addition, if the owner of land in this state is a trust that has a total of three or fewer trustees and beneficiaries, an individual who is a trustee or beneficiary and who is a resident of this state and the individual's children of any age and grandchildren under eighteen years of age may hunt on the land owned by the trust without a hunting license. The tenant and children of the tenant, residing on lands in the state, may hunt on them without a hunting license.

Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(1) of section 1533.12 of the Revised Code, every applicant for a hunting license who is a nonresident of the state and who is eighteen years of age or older shall procure a nonresident hunting license or an apprentice nonresident hunting license, the fee for which shall be one hundred twenty-four forty-nine dollars unless the applicant is a resident of a state that is a party to an agreement under section 1533.91 of the Revised Code, in which case the fee shall be eighteen dollars. Apprentice resident hunting licenses, apprentice youth hunting licenses, and apprentice nonresident hunting licenses are subject to the requirements established under section 1533.102 of the Revised Code and rules adopted pursuant to it.

The chief of the division of wildlife may issue a small game hunting license expiring three days from the effective date of the license to a nonresident of the state, the fee for which shall be thirty-nine dollars. No person shall take or possess deer, wild turkeys, fur-bearing animals, ducks, geese, brant, or any nongame animal while possessing only a small game hunting license. A small game hunting license or an apprentice nonresident hunting license does not authorize the taking or possessing of ducks, geese, or brant without having obtained, in addition to the small game hunting license or the apprentice nonresident hunting license, a wetlands habitat stamp as provided in section 1533.112 of the Revised Code. A small game hunting license or an apprentice nonresident hunting license does not authorize the taking or possessing of deer, wild turkeys, or fur-bearing animals. A nonresident of the state who wishes to take or possess deer, wild turkeys, or fur-bearing animals in this state shall procure, respectively, a deer or wild turkey permit as provided in section 1533.11 of the Revised Code or a fur taker permit as provided in section 1533.111 of the Revised Code in addition to a nonresident hunting license, an apprentice nonresident hunting license, a special youth hunting license, or an apprentice youth hunting license, as applicable, as provided in this section.

No person shall procure or attempt to procure a hunting license by fraud, deceit, misrepresentation, or any false statement.

This section does not authorize the taking and possessing of deer or wild turkeys without first having obtained, in addition to the hunting license required by this section, a deer or wild turkey permit as provided in section 1533.11 of the Revised Code or the taking and possessing of ducks, geese, or brant without first having obtained, in addition to the hunting license required by this section, a wetlands habitat stamp as provided in section 1533.112 of the Revised Code.

This section does not authorize the hunting or trapping of fur-bearing animals without first having obtained, in addition to a hunting license required by this section, a fur taker permit as provided in section 1533.111 of the Revised Code.

No hunting license shall be issued unless it is accompanied by a written explanation of the law in section 1533.17 of the Revised Code and the penalty for its violation, including a description of terms of imprisonment and fines that may be imposed.

No hunting license, other than an apprentice hunting license, shall be issued unless the applicant presents to the agent authorized to issue the license a previously held hunting license or evidence of having held such a license in content and manner approved by the chief, a certificate of completion issued upon completion of a hunter education and conservation course approved by the chief, or evidence of equivalent training in content and manner approved by the chief. A previously held apprentice hunting license does not satisfy the requirement concerning the presentation of a previously held hunting license or evidence of it.

No person shall issue a hunting license, except an apprentice hunting license, to any person who fails to present the evidence required by this section. No person shall purchase or obtain a hunting license, other than an apprentice hunting license, without presenting to the issuing agent the evidence required by this section. Issuance of a hunting license in violation of the requirements of this section is an offense by both the purchaser of the illegally obtained hunting license and the clerk or agent who issued the hunting license. Any hunting license issued in violation of this section is void.

The chief, with approval of the wildlife council, shall adopt rules prescribing a hunter education and conservation course for first-time hunting license buyers, other than buyers of apprentice hunting licenses, and for volunteer instructors. The course shall consist of subjects including, but not limited to, hunter safety and health, use of hunting implements, hunting tradition and ethics, the hunter and conservation, the law in section 1533.17 of the Revised Code along with the penalty for its violation, including a description of terms of imprisonment and fines that may be imposed, and other law relating to hunting. Authorized personnel of the division or volunteer instructors approved by the chief shall conduct such courses with such frequency and at such locations throughout the state as to reasonably meet the needs of license applicants. The chief shall issue a certificate of completion to each person who successfully completes the course and passes an examination prescribed by the chief.

Sec. 1533.11.  (A)(1) Except as provided in this section or section 1533.731 of the Revised Code, no person shall hunt deer on lands of another without first obtaining an annual deer permit. Except as provided in this section, no person shall hunt wild turkeys on lands of another without first obtaining an annual wild turkey permit. Each

(2) Each applicant for a deer or wild turkey permit shall pay an annual fee of twenty-three dollars for each the permit unless the rules adopted under division (B) of section 1533.12 of the Revised Code provide for issuance of a deer or wild turkey permit to the applicant free of charge. Except as provided in rules adopted under division (B)(2) of that section, each applicant who is a resident of this state and who at the time of application is sixty-six years of age or older shall procure a senior deer or wild turkey permit, the fee for which shall be one-half of the regular deer or wild turkey permit fee. Each applicant who is under the age of eighteen years shall procure a youth deer or wild turkey permit, the fee for which shall be one-half of the regular deer or wild turkey permit fee. Except

(3) Each applicant for a deer permit who is a resident of this state shall procure a resident deer permit, the fee for which is twenty-three dollars unless the rules adopted under division (B) of section 1533.12 of the Revised Code provide for issuance of a deer permit to the applicant free of charge. Each applicant for a deer permit who is a nonresident of this state shall procure a nonresident deer permit, the fee for which is ninety-nine dollars unless the rules adopted under that division provide for issuance of a deer permit to the applicant free of charge. Except as provided in rules adopted under division (B)(2) of section 1533.12 of the Revised Code, each applicant who is a resident of this state and who at the time of application is sixty-six years of age or older shall procure a senior resident deer permit, the fee for which is one-half of the regular resident deer permit fee. Each applicant who is under the age of eighteen years, regardless of residency, shall procure a youth deer permit, the fee for which is one-half of the regular resident deer permit fee.

(4) As used in this chapter, "deer permit" includes a resident deer permit and a nonresident deer permit unless the context indicates otherwise.

(5) Except as provided in division (A)(2) of section 1533.12 of the Revised Code, a deer or wild turkey permit shall run concurrently with the hunting license. The money received shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the wildlife fund, created in section 1531.17 of the Revised Code, exclusively for the use of the division of wildlife in the acquisition and development of land for deer or wild turkey management, for investigating deer or wild turkey problems, and for the stocking, management, and protection of deer or wild turkey. Every person, while hunting deer or wild turkey on lands of another, shall carry the person's deer or wild turkey permit and exhibit it to any enforcement officer so requesting. Failure to so carry and exhibit such a permit constitutes an offense under this section. The chief of the division of wildlife shall adopt any additional rules the chief considers necessary to carry out this section and section 1533.10 of the Revised Code.

An owner who is a resident of this state or an owner who is exempt from obtaining a hunting license under section 1533.10 of the Revised Code and the children of the owner of lands in this state may hunt deer or wild turkey thereon without a deer or wild turkey permit. If the owner of land in this state is a limited liability company or a limited liability partnership that consists of three or fewer individual members or partners, as applicable, an individual member or partner who is a resident of this state and the member's or partner's children of any age may hunt deer or wild turkey on the land owned by the limited liability company or limited liability partnership without a deer or wild turkey permit. In addition, if the owner of land in this state is a trust that has a total of three or fewer trustees and beneficiaries, an individual who is a trustee or beneficiary and who is a resident of this state and the individual's children of any age may hunt deer or wild turkey on the land owned by the trust without a deer or wild turkey permit. The tenant and children of the tenant may hunt deer or wild turkey on lands where they reside without a deer or wild turkey permit.

(B) A deer or wild turkey permit is not transferable. No person shall carry a deer or wild turkey permit issued in the name of another person.

(C) The wildlife refunds fund is hereby created in the state treasury. The fund shall consist of money received from application fees for deer permits that are not issued. Money in the fund shall be used to make refunds of such application fees.

(D) If the division establishes a system for the electronic submission of information regarding deer or wild turkey that are taken, the division shall allow the owner and the children of the owner of lands in this state to use the owner's name or address for purposes of submitting that information electronically via that system.

Sec. 1533.12.  (A)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(2) of this section, every person on active duty in the armed forces of the United States who is stationed in this state and who wishes to engage in an activity for which a license, permit, or stamp is required under this chapter first shall obtain the requisite license, permit, or stamp. Such a person is eligible to obtain a resident hunting or fishing license regardless of whether the person qualifies as a resident of this state. To obtain a resident hunting or fishing license, the person shall present a card or other evidence identifying the person as being on active duty in the armed forces of the United States and as being stationed in this state.

(2) Every person on active duty in the armed forces of the United States, while on leave or furlough, may take or catch fish of the kind lawfully permitted to be taken or caught within the state, may hunt any wild bird or wild quadruped lawfully permitted to be hunted within the state, and may trap fur-bearing animals lawfully permitted to be trapped within the state, without procuring a fishing license, a hunting license, a fur taker permit, or a wetlands habitat stamp required by this chapter, provided that the person shall carry on the person when fishing, hunting, or trapping, a card or other evidence identifying the person as being on active duty in the armed forces of the United States, and provided that the person is not otherwise violating any of the hunting, fishing, and trapping laws of this state.

In order to hunt deer or wild turkey, any such person shall obtain a resident deer or wild turkey permit, as applicable, under section 1533.11 of the Revised Code. Such a person is eligible to obtain a resident deer permit regardless of whether the person is a resident of this state. However, the person need not obtain a hunting license in order to obtain such a either permit.

(B) The chief of the division of wildlife shall provide by rule adopted under section 1531.10 of the Revised Code all of the following:

(1) Every resident of this state with a disability that has been determined by the veterans administration to be permanently and totally disabling, who receives a pension or compensation from the veterans administration, and who received an honorable discharge from the armed forces of the United States, and every veteran to whom the registrar of motor vehicles has issued a set of license plates under section 4503.41 of the Revised Code, shall be issued a fishing license, hunting license, fur taker permit, deer or wild turkey permit, or wetlands habitat stamp, or any combination of those licenses, permits, and stamp, free of charge on an annual, multi-year, or lifetime basis as determined appropriate by the chief when application is made to the chief in the manner prescribed by and on forms provided by the chief.

(2) Every resident of the state who was born on or before December 31, 1937, shall be issued an annual fishing license, hunting license, fur taker permit, deer or wild turkey permit, or wetlands habitat stamp, or any combination of those licenses, permits, and stamp, free of charge when application is made to the chief in the manner prescribed by and on forms provided by the chief.

(3) Every resident of state or county institutions, charitable institutions, and military homes in this state shall be issued an annual fishing license free of charge when application is made to the chief in the manner prescribed by and on forms provided by the chief.

(4) Any mobility impaired or blind person, as defined in section 955.011 of the Revised Code, who is a resident of this state and who is unable to engage in fishing without the assistance of another person shall be issued an annual fishing license free of charge when application is made to the chief in the manner prescribed by and on forms provided by the chief. The person who is assisting the mobility impaired or blind person may assist in taking or catching fish of the kind permitted to be taken or caught without procuring the license required under section 1533.32 of the Revised Code, provided that only one line is used by both persons.

(5) As used in division (B)(5) of this section, "prisoner of war" means any regularly appointed, enrolled, enlisted, or inducted member of the military forces of the United States who was captured, separated, and incarcerated by an enemy of the United States.

Any person who has been a prisoner of war, was honorably discharged from the military forces, and is a resident of this state shall be issued a fishing license, hunting license, fur taker permit, or wetlands habitat stamp, or any combination of those licenses, permits, and stamp, free of charge on an annual, multi-year, or lifetime basis as determined appropriate by the chief when application is made to the chief in the manner prescribed by and on forms provided by the chief.

(C) The chief shall adopt rules pursuant to section 1531.08 of the Revised Code designating not more than two days, which need not be consecutive, in each year as "free sport fishing days" on which any resident may exercise the privileges accorded the holder of a fishing license issued under section 1533.32 of the Revised Code without procuring such a license, provided that the person is not otherwise violating any of the fishing laws of this state.

Sec. 1711.50.  As used in sections 1711.50 to 1711.57 of the Revised Code:

(A) "Amusement ride" means any mechanical, aquatic, or inflatable device, or combination of those devices that carries or conveys passengers on, along, around, over, or through a fixed or restricted course or within a defined area for the purpose of providing amusement, pleasure, or excitement. "Amusement ride" includes carnival rides, bungee jumping facilities, and fair rides, but does not include passenger tramways as defined in section 4169.01 of the Revised Code or amusement rides operated solely at trade shows for a limited period of time. For purposes of this division (A) of this section, "trade show" means a place of exhibition not open to the general public where amusement ride manufacturers display, promote, operate, and sell amusement rides to prospective purchasers.

(B) "Temporary amusement ride" means an amusement ride that is relocated at least once per year with or without disassembly.

(C) "Permanent amusement ride" means an amusement ride that is erected to remain a lasting part of the premises.

(D) "Owner" means any person who owns or leases and controls or manages the operation of an amusement ride, and includes individuals, partnerships, corporations, both profit and nonprofit, and the state and any of its political subdivisions and their departments or agencies.

(E) "Operation" means the use or operation, or both, of an amusement ride with riders.

(F) "Rider" means any person who sits, stands, or is otherwise conveyed or carried as a passenger on an amusement ride, but does not include employees or agents of the owner of the amusement ride.

(G) "Amusement ride operator" means any person causing the amusement ride to go, stop, or perform its function.

(H) "Reassembly" means the installation, erection, or reconstruction of the main mechanical, safety, electrical, or electronic components of an amusement ride following transportation or storage and prior to operation. Replacement of mechanical, safety, electrical, or electronic components of an amusement ride for the purpose of repair or maintenance is not reassembly.

(I) "Repair" means to restore an amusement ride to a condition equal to or better than original design specifications.

(J) "Maintenance" means the preservation and upkeep of an amusement ride for the purpose of maintaining its designed operational capability.

(K) "Inspection" means a physical examination of an amusement ride by an inspector for the purpose of approving the application for a permit. "Inspection" includes a reinspection.

(L) "Accident" means an occurrence during the operation of an amusement ride which that results in death or injury requiring immediate hospital admission.

(M) "Serious injury" means an injury that does not require immediate hospital admission but does require medical treatment, other than first aid, by a physician.

(N) "First aid" means the one-time treatment or subsequent observation of scratches, cuts not requiring stitches, burns, splinters, and contusions or a diagnostic procedure, including examinations and x-rays, which that does not ordinarily require medical treatment even though provided by a physician or other licensed professional personnel.

(O) "Advisory council" means the advisory council on amusement ride safety created by section 1711.51 of the Revised Code.

(P) "Safe operation" means, except as provided in section 1711.57 of the Revised Code, the practical application of maintenance, inspection, and operational processes, as indicated by the manufacturer, owner, or advisory council, that secures a rider from threat of physical danger, harm, or loss.

(Q) "Private facility" means any facility that is accessible only to members of the facility and not accessible to the general public, even upon payment of a fee or charge, and that requires approval for membership by a membership committee representing the current members who have a policy requiring monetary payment to belong to the facility.

(R) "Bungee jumping" means a fall or jump from a height by an individual who is attached to an elastic cord that prevents the individual from hitting the ground, water, or other solid, semi-solid, liquid, or elastic surface.

(S) "Bungee jumping facility" means a device or structure utilized for bungee jumping.

(T) "Kiddie ride" means an amusement ride designed for use by children under thirteen years of age who are unaccompanied by another person. "Kiddie ride" includes a roller coaster that is not more than forty feet in elevation at any point on the ride.

Sec. 1711.53.  (A)(1) No person shall operate an amusement ride within the state without a permit issued by the director of agriculture under division (A)(2) of this section. The owner of an amusement ride, whether the ride is a temporary amusement ride or a permanent amusement ride, who desires to operate the amusement ride within the state shall, prior to the operation of the amusement ride and annually thereafter, submit to the department of agriculture an application for a permit, together with the appropriate permit and inspection fee, on a form to be furnished by the department. Prior to issuing any permit the department shall, within thirty days after the date on which it receives the application, inspect each amusement ride described in the application. The owner of an amusement ride shall have the amusement ride ready for inspection not later than two hours after the time that is requested by the person for the inspection.

(2) For each amusement ride found to comply with the rules adopted by the director under division (B) of this section and division (B) of section 1711.551 of the Revised Code, the director shall issue an annual permit, provided that evidence of liability insurance coverage for the amusement ride as required by section 1711.54 of the Revised Code is on file with the department.

(3) The director shall issue with each permit a decal indicating that the amusement ride has been issued the permit. The owner of the amusement ride shall affix the decal on the ride at a location where the decal is easily visible to the patrons of the ride. A copy of the permit shall be kept on file at the same address as the location of the amusement ride identified on the permit, and shall be made available for inspection, upon reasonable demand, by any person. An owner may operate an amusement ride prior to obtaining a permit, provided that the operation is for the purpose of testing the amusement ride or training amusement ride operators and other employees of the owner and the amusement ride is not open to the public.

(B) The director, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt rules providing for a schedule of fines, with no fine exceeding five thousand dollars, for violations of sections 1711.50 to 1711.57 of the Revised Code or any rules adopted under this division and for the classification of amusement rides and rules for the safe operation and inspection of all amusement rides as are necessary for amusement ride safety and for the protection of the general public. Rules adopted by the director for the safe operation and inspection of amusement rides shall be reasonable and based upon generally accepted engineering standards and practices. In adopting rules under this section, the director may adopt by reference, in whole or in part, the national fire code or the national electrical code (NEC) prepared by the national fire protection association, the standards of the American society for testing and materials (ASTM) or the American national standards institute (ANSI), or any other principles, tests, or standards of nationally recognized technical or scientific authorities. Insofar as is practicable and consistent with sections 1711.50 to 1711.57 of the Revised Code, rules adopted under this division shall be consistent with the rules of other states. The department shall cause sections 1711.50 to 1711.57 of the Revised Code and the rules adopted in accordance with this division and division (B) of section 1711.551 of the Revised Code to be published in pamphlet form and a copy to be furnished without charge to each owner of an amusement ride who holds a current permit or is an applicant therefor.

(C) With respect to an application for a permit for an amusement ride, an owner may apply to the director for a waiver or modification of any rule adopted under division (B) of this section if there are practical difficulties or unnecessary hardships for the amusement ride to comply with the rules. Any application shall set forth the reasons for the request. The director, with the approval of the advisory council on amusement ride safety, may waive or modify the application of a rule to any amusement ride if the public safety is secure. Any authorization by the director under this division shall be in writing and shall set forth the conditions under which the waiver or modification is authorized, and the department shall retain separate records of all proceedings under this division.

(D)(1) The director shall employ and provide for training of a chief inspector and additional inspectors and employees as may be necessary to administer and enforce sections 1711.50 to 1711.57 of the Revised Code. The director may appoint or contract with other persons to perform inspections of amusement rides, provided that the persons meet the qualifications for inspectors established by rules adopted under division (B) of this section and are not owners, or employees of owners, of any amusement ride subject to inspection under sections 1711.50 to 1711.57 of the Revised Code. No person shall inspect an amusement ride who, within six months prior to the date of inspection, was an employee of the owner of the ride.

(2) Before the director contracts with other persons to inspect amusement rides, the director shall seek the advice of the advisory council on amusement ride safety on whether to contract with those persons. The advice shall not be binding upon the director. After having received the advice of the council, the director may proceed to contract with inspectors in accordance with the procedures specified in division (E)(2) of section 1711.11 of the Revised Code.

(3) With the advice and consent of the advisory council on amusement ride safety, the director may employ a special consultant to conduct an independent investigation of an amusement ride accident. This consultant need not be in the civil service of the state, but shall have qualifications to conduct the investigation acceptable to the council.

(E)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (E)(1) of this section, the department shall charge the following amusement ride fees:

The go kart inspection fee is in addition to the inspection fee for the go kart track.

The fees for an expedited inspection, failure to cancel a scheduled inspection, and failure to have an amusement ride ready for inspection do not apply to go karts.

As used in division (E)(1) of this section, "expedited inspection" means an inspection of an amusement ride by the department not later than ten days after the owner of the amusement ride files an application for a permit under this section.

(2) All fees and fines collected by the department under sections 1711.50 to 1711.57 of the Revised Code shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the amusement ride inspection fund, which is hereby created, and shall be used only for the purpose of administering and enforcing sections 1711.11 and 1711.50 to 1711.57 of the Revised Code.

(3) The owner of an amusement ride shall be required to pay a reinspection fee only if the reinspection was conducted at the owner's request under division (F) of this section, if the reinspection is required by division (F) of this section because of an accident, or if the reinspection is required by division (F) of section 1711.55 of the Revised Code. If a reinspection is conducted at the request of the chief officer of a fair, festival, or event where the ride is operating, the reinspection fee shall be charged to the fair, festival, or event.

(4) The rules adopted under division (B) of this section shall define "kiddie rides," "roller coaster," "aerial lifts," "go karts," and "other rides" for purposes of determining the fees under division (E) of this section. The rules shall define "other rides" to include go kart tracks.

(F) A reinspection of an amusement ride shall take place if an accident occurs, if the owner of the ride or the chief officer of the fair, festival, or event where the ride is operating requests a reinspection, or if the reinspection is required by division (F) of section 1711.55 of the Revised Code.

(G) As a supplement to its annual inspection of a temporary amusement ride, the department may inspect the ride during each scheduled event, as listed in the schedule of events provided to the department by the owner pursuant to division (C) of section 1711.55 of the Revised Code, at which the ride is operated in this state. These supplemental inspections are in addition to any other inspection or reinspection of the ride as may be required under sections 1711.50 to 1711.57 of the Revised Code, and the owner of the temporary amusement ride is not required to pay an inspection or reinspection fee for this supplemental inspection. Nothing in this division shall be construed to prohibit the owner of a temporary amusement ride having a valid permit to operate in this state from operating the ride at a scheduled event before the department conducts a supplemental inspection.

(H) The department may annually conduct a midseason operational inspection of every amusement ride upon which it conducts an annual inspection pursuant to division (A) of this section. The midseason operational inspection is in addition to any other inspection or reinspection of the amusement ride as may be required pursuant to sections 1711.50 to 1711.57 of the Revised Code. The owner of an amusement ride shall submit to the department, at the time determined by the department, the midseason operational inspection fee specified in division (E) of this section. The director, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt rules specifying the time period during which the department will conduct midseason operational inspections.

Sec. 2151.417.  (A) Any court that issues a dispositional order pursuant to section 2151.353, 2151.414, or 2151.415 of the Revised Code may review at any time the child's placement or custody arrangement, the case plan prepared for the child pursuant to section 2151.412 of the Revised Code, the actions of the public children services agency or private child placing agency in implementing that case plan, the child's permanency plan if the child's permanency plan has been approved, and any other aspects of the child's placement or custody arrangement. In conducting the review, the court shall determine the appropriateness of any agency actions, the safety and appropriateness of continuing the child's placement or custody arrangement, and whether any changes should be made with respect to the child's permanency plan or placement or custody arrangement or with respect to the actions of the agency under the child's placement or custody arrangement. Based upon the evidence presented at a hearing held after notice to all parties and the guardian ad litem of the child, the court may require the agency, the parents, guardian, or custodian of the child, and the physical custodians of the child to take any reasonable action that the court determines is necessary and in the best interest of the child or to discontinue any action that it determines is not in the best interest of the child.

(B) If a court issues a dispositional order pursuant to section 2151.353, 2151.414, or 2151.415 of the Revised Code, the court has continuing jurisdiction over the child as set forth in division (E)(1) of section 2151.353 of the Revised Code. The court may amend a dispositional order in accordance with division (E)(2) of section 2151.353 of the Revised Code at any time upon its own motion or upon the motion of any interested party. The court shall comply with section 2151.42 of the Revised Code in amending any dispositional order pursuant to this division.

(C) Any court that issues a dispositional order pursuant to section 2151.353, 2151.414, or 2151.415 of the Revised Code shall hold a review hearing one year after the earlier of the date on which the complaint in the case was filed or the child was first placed into shelter care to review the case plan prepared pursuant to section 2151.412 of the Revised Code and the child's placement or custody arrangement, to approve or review the permanency plan for the child, and to make changes to the case plan and placement or custody arrangement consistent with the permanency plan. The court shall schedule the review hearing at the time that it holds the dispositional hearing pursuant to section 2151.35 of the Revised Code.

The court shall hold a similar review hearing no later than every twelve months after the initial review hearing until the child is adopted, returned to the parents, or the court otherwise terminates the child's placement or custody arrangement, except that the dispositional hearing held pursuant to section 2151.415 of the Revised Code shall take the place of the first review hearing to be held under this section. The court shall schedule each subsequent review hearing at the conclusion of the review hearing immediately preceding the review hearing to be scheduled.

(D) If, within fourteen days after a written summary of an administrative review is filed with the court pursuant to section 2151.416 of the Revised Code, the court does not approve the proposed change to the case plan filed pursuant to division (E) of section 2151.416 of the Revised Code or a party or the guardian ad litem requests a review hearing pursuant to division (E) of that section, the court shall hold a review hearing in the same manner that it holds review hearings pursuant to division (C) of this section, except that if a review hearing is required by this division and if a hearing is to be held pursuant to division (C) of this section or section 2151.415 of the Revised Code, the hearing held pursuant to division (C) of this section or section 2151.415 of the Revised Code shall take the place of the review hearing required by this division.

(E) If a court determines pursuant to section 2151.419 of the Revised Code that a public children services agency or private child placing agency is not required to make reasonable efforts to prevent the removal of a child from the child's home, eliminate the continued removal of a child from the child's home, and return the child to the child's home, and the court does not return the child to the child's home pursuant to division (A)(3) of section 2151.419 of the Revised Code, the court shall hold a review hearing to approve the permanency plan for the child and, if appropriate, to make changes to the child's case plan and the child's placement or custody arrangement consistent with the permanency plan. The court may hold the hearing immediately following the determination under section 2151.419 of the Revised Code and shall hold it no later than thirty days after making that determination.

(F) The court shall give notice of the review hearings held pursuant to this section to every interested party, including, but not limited to, the appropriate agency employees who are responsible for the child's care and planning, the child's parents, any person who had guardianship or legal custody of the child prior to the custody order, the child's guardian ad litem, and the child. The court shall summon every interested party to appear at the review hearing and give them an opportunity to testify and to present other evidence with respect to the child's custody arrangement, including, but not limited to, the following: the case plan for the child,; the permanency plan, if one exists; the actions taken by the child's custodian; the need for a change in the child's custodian or caseworker; and the need for any specific action to be taken with respect to the child. The court shall require any interested party to testify or present other evidence when necessary to a proper determination of the issues presented at the review hearing. In any review hearing that pertains to a permanency plan for a child who will not be returned to the parent, the court shall consider in-state and out-of-state placement options and the court shall determine whether the in-state or the out-of-state placement continues to be appropriate and in the best interests of the child. In any review hearing that pertains to a permanency plan for a child, the court or a citizens board appointed by the court pursuant to division (H) of this section shall consult with the child, in an age-appropriate manner, regarding the proposed permanency plan for the child.

(G) After the review hearing, the court shall take the following actions based upon the evidence presented:

(1) If an administrative review has been conducted, determine whether the conclusions of the review are supported by a preponderance of the evidence and approve or modify the case plan based upon that evidence;

(2) If the hearing was held under division (C) or (E) of this section, approve a permanency plan for the child that specifies whether and, if applicable, when the child will be safely returned home or placed for adoption, for legal custody, or in a planned permanent living arrangement. A permanency plan approved after a hearing under division (E) of this section shall not include any provision requiring the child to be returned to the child's home.

(3) If the child is in temporary custody, do all of the following:

(a) Determine whether the child can and should be returned home with or without an order for protective supervision;

(b) If the child can and should be returned home with or without an order for protective supervision, terminate the order for temporary custody;

(c) If the child cannot or should not be returned home with an order for protective supervision, determine whether the agency currently with custody of the child should retain custody or whether another public children services agency, private child placing agency, or an individual should be given custody of the child.

The court shall comply with section 2151.42 of the Revised Code in taking any action under this division.

(4) If the child is in permanent custody, determine what actions are required by the custodial agency and of any other organizations or persons in order to facilitate an adoption of the child and make any appropriate orders with respect to the custody arrangement or conditions of the child, including, but not limited to, a transfer of permanent custody to another public children services agency or private child placing agency;

(5) Journalize the terms of the updated case plan for the child.

(H) The court may appoint a referee or a citizens review board to conduct the review hearings that the court is required by this section to conduct, subject to the review and approval by the court of any determinations made by the referee or citizens review board. If the court appoints a citizens review board to conduct the review hearings, the board shall consist of one member representing the general public and four members who are trained or experienced in the care or placement of children and have training or experience in the fields of medicine, psychology, social work, education, or any related field. Of the initial appointments to the board, two shall be for a term of one year, two shall be for a term of two years, and one shall be for a term of three years, with all the terms ending one year after the date on which the appointment was made. Thereafter, all terms of the board members shall be for three years and shall end on the same day of the same month of the year as did the term that they succeed. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which the member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the remainder of the term.

(I) A copy of the court's determination following any review hearing held pursuant to this section shall be sent to the custodial agency, the guardian ad litem of the child who is the subject of the review hearing, and, if that child is not the subject of a permanent commitment hearing, the parents of the child.

(J) If the hearing held under this section takes the place of an administrative review that otherwise would have been held under section 2151.416 of the Revised Code, the court at the hearing held under this section shall do all of the following in addition to any other requirements of this section:

(1) Determine the continued necessity for and the safety and appropriateness of the child's placement;

(2) Determine the extent of compliance with the child's case plan;

(3) Determine the extent of progress that has been made toward alleviating or mitigating the causes necessitating the child's placement in foster care;

(4) Project a likely date by which the child may be safely returned home or placed for adoption or legal custody.

(K)(1) Whenever the court is required to approve a permanency plan under this section or section 2151.415 of the Revised Code, the public children services agency or private child placing agency that filed the complaint in the case, has custody of the child, or will be given custody of the child shall develop a permanency plan for the child. The agency must file the plan with the court prior to the hearing under this section or section 2151.415 of the Revised Code.

(2) The permanency plan developed by the agency must specify whether and, if applicable, when the child will be safely returned home or placed for adoption or legal custody. If the agency determines that there is a compelling reason why returning the child home or placing the child for adoption or legal custody is not in the best interest of the child, the plan shall provide that the child will be placed in a planned permanent living arrangement. A permanency plan developed as a result of a determination made under division (A)(2) of section 2151.419 of the Revised Code may not include any provision requiring the child to be returned home.

(3)(a) Whenever a court is required under this section or section 2151.415 or 2151.419 of the Revised Code to conduct a review hearing to approve a permanency plan, the court shall determine whether the agency required to develop the plan has made reasonable efforts to finalize it. If the court determines the agency has not made reasonable efforts to finalize the plan, the court shall issue an order finalizing a permanency plan requiring the agency to use reasonable efforts to do the following:

(i) Place the child in a timely manner into a permanent placement;

(ii) Complete whatever steps are necessary to finalize the permanent placement of the child.

(b) In making reasonable efforts as required in division (K)(3)(a) of this section, the agency shall consider the child's health and safety as the paramount concern.

Sec. 2151.421.  (A)(1)(a) No person described in division (A)(1)(b) of this section who is acting in an official or professional capacity and knows, or has reasonable cause to suspect based on facts that would cause a reasonable person in a similar position to suspect, that a child under eighteen years of age or a mentally retarded, developmentally disabled, or physically impaired child under twenty-one years of age has suffered or faces a threat of suffering any physical or mental wound, injury, disability, or condition of a nature that reasonably indicates abuse or neglect of the child shall fail to immediately report that knowledge or reasonable cause to suspect to the entity or persons specified in this division. Except as provided in section 5120.173 of the Revised Code, the person making the report shall make it to the public children services agency or a municipal or county peace officer in the county in which the child resides or in which the abuse or neglect is occurring or has occurred. In the circumstances described in section 5120.173 of the Revised Code, the person making the report shall make it to the entity specified in that section.

(b) Division (A)(1)(a) of this section applies to any person who is an attorney; physician, including a hospital intern or resident; dentist; podiatrist; practitioner of a limited branch of medicine as specified in section 4731.15 of the Revised Code; registered nurse; licensed practical nurse; visiting nurse; other health care professional; licensed psychologist; licensed school psychologist; independent marriage and family therapist or marriage and family therapist; speech pathologist or audiologist; coroner; administrator or employee of a child day-care center; administrator or employee of a residential camp or child day camp; administrator or employee of a certified child care agency or other public or private children services agency; school teacher; school employee; school authority; person engaged in social work or the practice of professional counseling; agent of a county humane society; person, other than a cleric, rendering spiritual treatment through prayer in accordance with the tenets of a well-recognized religion; employee of a county department of job and family services who is a professional and who works with children and families; superintendent or regional administrator employed by the department of youth services; superintendent, board member, or employee of a county board of developmental disabilities; investigative agent contracted with by a county board of developmental disabilities; employee of the department of developmental disabilities; employee of a facility or home that provides respite care in accordance with section 5123.171 of the Revised Code; employee of a home health agency; employee of an entity that provides homemaker services; a person performing the duties of an assessor pursuant to Chapter 3107. or 5103. of the Revised Code; or third party employed by a public children services agency to assist in providing child or family related services.

(2) Except as provided in division (A)(3) of this section, an attorney or a physician is not required to make a report pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section concerning any communication the attorney or physician receives from a client or patient in an attorney-client or physician-patient relationship, if, in accordance with division (A) or (B) of section 2317.02 of the Revised Code, the attorney or physician could not testify with respect to that communication in a civil or criminal proceeding.

(3) The client or patient in an attorney-client or physician-patient relationship described in division (A)(2) of this section is deemed to have waived any testimonial privilege under division (A) or (B) of section 2317.02 of the Revised Code with respect to any communication the attorney or physician receives from the client or patient in that attorney-client or physician-patient relationship, and the attorney or physician shall make a report pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section with respect to that communication, if all of the following apply:

(a) The client or patient, at the time of the communication, is either a child under eighteen years of age or a mentally retarded, developmentally disabled, or physically impaired person under twenty-one years of age.

(b) The attorney or physician knows, or has reasonable cause to suspect based on facts that would cause a reasonable person in similar position to suspect, as a result of the communication or any observations made during that communication, that the client or patient has suffered or faces a threat of suffering any physical or mental wound, injury, disability, or condition of a nature that reasonably indicates abuse or neglect of the client or patient.

(c) The abuse or neglect does not arise out of the client's or patient's attempt to have an abortion without the notification of her parents, guardian, or custodian in accordance with section 2151.85 of the Revised Code.

(4)(a) No cleric and no person, other than a volunteer, designated by any church, religious society, or faith acting as a leader, official, or delegate on behalf of the church, religious society, or faith who is acting in an official or professional capacity, who knows, or has reasonable cause to believe based on facts that would cause a reasonable person in a similar position to believe, that a child under eighteen years of age or a mentally retarded, developmentally disabled, or physically impaired child under twenty-one years of age has suffered or faces a threat of suffering any physical or mental wound, injury, disability, or condition of a nature that reasonably indicates abuse or neglect of the child, and who knows, or has reasonable cause to believe based on facts that would cause a reasonable person in a similar position to believe, that another cleric or another person, other than a volunteer, designated by a church, religious society, or faith acting as a leader, official, or delegate on behalf of the church, religious society, or faith caused, or poses the threat of causing, the wound, injury, disability, or condition that reasonably indicates abuse or neglect shall fail to immediately report that knowledge or reasonable cause to believe to the entity or persons specified in this division. Except as provided in section 5120.173 of the Revised Code, the person making the report shall make it to the public children services agency or a municipal or county peace officer in the county in which the child resides or in which the abuse or neglect is occurring or has occurred. In the circumstances described in section 5120.173 of the Revised Code, the person making the report shall make it to the entity specified in that section.

(b) Except as provided in division (A)(4)(c) of this section, a cleric is not required to make a report pursuant to division (A)(4)(a) of this section concerning any communication the cleric receives from a penitent in a cleric-penitent relationship, if, in accordance with division (C) of section 2317.02 of the Revised Code, the cleric could not testify with respect to that communication in a civil or criminal proceeding.

(c) The penitent in a cleric-penitent relationship described in division (A)(4)(b) of this section is deemed to have waived any testimonial privilege under division (C) of section 2317.02 of the Revised Code with respect to any communication the cleric receives from the penitent in that cleric-penitent relationship, and the cleric shall make a report pursuant to division (A)(4)(a) of this section with respect to that communication, if all of the following apply:

(i) The penitent, at the time of the communication, is either a child under eighteen years of age or a mentally retarded, developmentally disabled, or physically impaired person under twenty-one years of age.

(ii) The cleric knows, or has reasonable cause to believe based on facts that would cause a reasonable person in a similar position to believe, as a result of the communication or any observations made during that communication, the penitent has suffered or faces a threat of suffering any physical or mental wound, injury, disability, or condition of a nature that reasonably indicates abuse or neglect of the penitent.

(iii) The abuse or neglect does not arise out of the penitent's attempt to have an abortion performed upon a child under eighteen years of age or upon a mentally retarded, developmentally disabled, or physically impaired person under twenty-one years of age without the notification of her parents, guardian, or custodian in accordance with section 2151.85 of the Revised Code.

(d) Divisions (A)(4)(a) and (c) of this section do not apply in a cleric-penitent relationship when the disclosure of any communication the cleric receives from the penitent is in violation of the sacred trust.

(e) As used in divisions (A)(1) and (4) of this section, "cleric" and "sacred trust" have the same meanings as in section 2317.02 of the Revised Code.

(B) Anyone who knows, or has reasonable cause to suspect based on facts that would cause a reasonable person in similar circumstances to suspect, that a child under eighteen years of age or a mentally retarded, developmentally disabled, or physically impaired person under twenty-one years of age has suffered or faces a threat of suffering any physical or mental wound, injury, disability, or other condition of a nature that reasonably indicates abuse or neglect of the child may report or cause reports to be made of that knowledge or reasonable cause to suspect to the entity or persons specified in this division. Except as provided in section 5120.173 of the Revised Code, a person making a report or causing a report to be made under this division shall make it or cause it to be made to the public children services agency or to a municipal or county peace officer. In the circumstances described in section 5120.173 of the Revised Code, a person making a report or causing a report to be made under this division shall make it or cause it to be made to the entity specified in that section.

(C) Any report made pursuant to division (A) or (B) of this section shall be made forthwith either by telephone or in person and shall be followed by a written report, if requested by the receiving agency or officer. The written report shall contain:

(1) The names and addresses of the child and the child's parents or the person or persons having custody of the child, if known;

(2) The child's age and the nature and extent of the child's injuries, abuse, or neglect that is known or reasonably suspected or believed, as applicable, to have occurred or of the threat of injury, abuse, or neglect that is known or reasonably suspected or believed, as applicable, to exist, including any evidence of previous injuries, abuse, or neglect;

(3) Any other information that might be helpful in establishing the cause of the injury, abuse, or neglect that is known or reasonably suspected or believed, as applicable, to have occurred or of the threat of injury, abuse, or neglect that is known or reasonably suspected or believed, as applicable, to exist.

Any person, who is required by division (A) of this section to report child abuse or child neglect that is known or reasonably suspected or believed to have occurred, may take or cause to be taken color photographs of areas of trauma visible on a child and, if medically indicated, cause to be performed radiological examinations of the child.

(D) As used in this division, "children's advocacy center" and "sexual abuse of a child" have the same meanings as in section 2151.425 of the Revised Code.

(1) When a municipal or county peace officer receives a report concerning the possible abuse or neglect of a child or the possible threat of abuse or neglect of a child, upon receipt of the report, the municipal or county peace officer who receives the report shall refer the report to the appropriate public children services agency.

(2) When a public children services agency receives a report pursuant to this division or division (A) or (B) of this section, upon receipt of the report, the public children services agency shall do both of the following:

(a) Comply with section 2151.422 of the Revised Code;

(b) If the county served by the agency is also served by a children's advocacy center and the report alleges sexual abuse of a child or another type of abuse of a child that is specified in the memorandum of understanding that creates the center as being within the center's jurisdiction, comply regarding the report with the protocol and procedures for referrals and investigations, with the coordinating activities, and with the authority or responsibility for performing or providing functions, activities, and services stipulated in the interagency agreement entered into under section 2151.428 of the Revised Code relative to that center.

(E) No township, municipal, or county peace officer shall remove a child about whom a report is made pursuant to this section from the child's parents, stepparents, or guardian or any other persons having custody of the child without consultation with the public children services agency, unless, in the judgment of the officer, and, if the report was made by physician, the physician, immediate removal is considered essential to protect the child from further abuse or neglect. The agency that must be consulted shall be the agency conducting the investigation of the report as determined pursuant to section 2151.422 of the Revised Code.

(F)(1) Except as provided in section 2151.422 of the Revised Code or in an interagency agreement entered into under section 2151.428 of the Revised Code that applies to the particular report, the public children services agency shall investigate, within twenty-four hours, each report of child abuse or child neglect that is known or reasonably suspected or believed to have occurred and of a threat of child abuse or child neglect that is known or reasonably suspected or believed to exist that is referred to it under this section to determine the circumstances surrounding the injuries, abuse, or neglect or the threat of injury, abuse, or neglect, the cause of the injuries, abuse, neglect, or threat, and the person or persons responsible. The investigation shall be made in cooperation with the law enforcement agency and in accordance with the memorandum of understanding prepared under division (J) of this section. A representative of the public children services agency shall, at the time of initial contact with the person subject to the investigation, inform the person of the specific complaints or allegations made against the person. The information shall be given in a manner that is consistent with division (H)(1) of this section and protects the rights of the person making the report under this section.

A failure to make the investigation in accordance with the memorandum is not grounds for, and shall not result in, the dismissal of any charges or complaint arising from the report or the suppression of any evidence obtained as a result of the report and does not give, and shall not be construed as giving, any rights or any grounds for appeal or post-conviction relief to any person. The public children services agency shall report each case to the uniform statewide automated child welfare information system that the department of job and family services shall maintain in accordance with section 5101.13 of the Revised Code. The public children services agency shall submit a report of its investigation, in writing, to the law enforcement agency.

(2) The public children services agency shall make any recommendations to the county prosecuting attorney or city director of law that it considers necessary to protect any children that are brought to its attention.

(G)(1)(a) Except as provided in division (H)(3) of this section, anyone or any hospital, institution, school, health department, or agency participating in the making of reports under division (A) of this section, anyone or any hospital, institution, school, health department, or agency participating in good faith in the making of reports under division (B) of this section, and anyone participating in good faith in a judicial proceeding resulting from the reports, shall be immune from any civil or criminal liability for injury, death, or loss to person or property that otherwise might be incurred or imposed as a result of the making of the reports or the participation in the judicial proceeding.

(b) Notwithstanding section 4731.22 of the Revised Code, the physician-patient privilege shall not be a ground for excluding evidence regarding a child's injuries, abuse, or neglect, or the cause of the injuries, abuse, or neglect in any judicial proceeding resulting from a report submitted pursuant to this section.

(2) In any civil or criminal action or proceeding in which it is alleged and proved that participation in the making of a report under this section was not in good faith or participation in a judicial proceeding resulting from a report made under this section was not in good faith, the court shall award the prevailing party reasonable attorney's fees and costs and, if a civil action or proceeding is voluntarily dismissed, may award reasonable attorney's fees and costs to the party against whom the civil action or proceeding is brought.

(H)(1) Except as provided in divisions (H)(4) and (N) of this section, a report made under this section is confidential. The information provided in a report made pursuant to this section and the name of the person who made the report shall not be released for use, and shall not be used, as evidence in any civil action or proceeding brought against the person who made the report. Nothing in this division shall preclude the use of reports of other incidents of known or suspected abuse or neglect in a civil action or proceeding brought pursuant to division (M) of this section against a person who is alleged to have violated division (A)(1) of this section, provided that any information in a report that would identify the child who is the subject of the report or the maker of the report, if the maker of the report is not the defendant or an agent or employee of the defendant, has been redacted. In a criminal proceeding, the report is admissible in evidence in accordance with the Rules of Evidence and is subject to discovery in accordance with the Rules of Criminal Procedure.

(2) No person shall permit or encourage the unauthorized dissemination of the contents of any report made under this section.

(3) A person who knowingly makes or causes another person to make a false report under division (B) of this section that alleges that any person has committed an act or omission that resulted in a child being an abused child or a neglected child is guilty of a violation of section 2921.14 of the Revised Code.

(4) If a report is made pursuant to division (A) or (B) of this section and the child who is the subject of the report dies for any reason at any time after the report is made, but before the child attains eighteen years of age, the public children services agency or municipal or county peace officer to which the report was made or referred, on the request of the child fatality review board, shall submit a summary sheet of information providing a summary of the report to the review board of the county in which the deceased child resided at the time of death. On the request of the review board, the agency or peace officer may, at its discretion, make the report available to the review board. If the county served by the public children services agency is also served by a children's advocacy center and the report of alleged sexual abuse of a child or another type of abuse of a child is specified in the memorandum of understanding that creates the center as being within the center's jurisdiction, the agency or center shall perform the duties and functions specified in this division in accordance with the interagency agreement entered into under section 2151.428 of the Revised Code relative to that advocacy center.

(5) A public children services agency shall advise a person alleged to have inflicted abuse or neglect on a child who is the subject of a report made pursuant to this section, including a report alleging sexual abuse of a child or another type of abuse of a child referred to a children's advocacy center pursuant to an interagency agreement entered into under section 2151.428 of the Revised Code, in writing of the disposition of the investigation. The agency shall not provide to the person any information that identifies the person who made the report, statements of witnesses, or police or other investigative reports.

(I) Any report that is required by this section, other than a report that is made to the state highway patrol as described in section 5120.173 of the Revised Code, shall result in protective services and emergency supportive services being made available by the public children services agency on behalf of the children about whom the report is made, in an effort to prevent further neglect or abuse, to enhance their welfare, and, whenever possible, to preserve the family unit intact. The agency required to provide the services shall be the agency conducting the investigation of the report pursuant to section 2151.422 of the Revised Code.

(J)(1) Each public children services agency shall prepare a memorandum of understanding that is signed by all of the following:

(a) If there is only one juvenile judge in the county, the juvenile judge of the county or the juvenile judge's representative;

(b) If there is more than one juvenile judge in the county, a juvenile judge or the juvenile judges' representative selected by the juvenile judges or, if they are unable to do so for any reason, the juvenile judge who is senior in point of service or the senior juvenile judge's representative;

(c) The county peace officer;

(d) All chief municipal peace officers within the county;

(e) Other law enforcement officers handling child abuse and neglect cases in the county;

(f) The prosecuting attorney of the county;

(g) If the public children services agency is not the county department of job and family services, the county department of job and family services;

(h) The county humane society;

(i) If the public children services agency participated in the execution of a memorandum of understanding under section 2151.426 of the Revised Code establishing a children's advocacy center, each participating member of the children's advocacy center established by the memorandum.

(2) A memorandum of understanding shall set forth the normal operating procedure to be employed by all concerned officials in the execution of their respective responsibilities under this section and division (C) of section 2919.21, division (B)(1) of section 2919.22, division (B) of section 2919.23, and section 2919.24 of the Revised Code and shall have as two of its primary goals the elimination of all unnecessary interviews of children who are the subject of reports made pursuant to division (A) or (B) of this section and, when feasible, providing for only one interview of a child who is the subject of any report made pursuant to division (A) or (B) of this section. A failure to follow the procedure set forth in the memorandum by the concerned officials is not grounds for, and shall not result in, the dismissal of any charges or complaint arising from any reported case of abuse or neglect or the suppression of any evidence obtained as a result of any reported child abuse or child neglect and does not give, and shall not be construed as giving, any rights or any grounds for appeal or post-conviction relief to any person.

(3) A memorandum of understanding shall include all of the following:

(a) The roles and responsibilities for handling emergency and nonemergency cases of abuse and neglect;

(b) Standards and procedures to be used in handling and coordinating investigations of reported cases of child abuse and reported cases of child neglect, methods to be used in interviewing the child who is the subject of the report and who allegedly was abused or neglected, and standards and procedures addressing the categories of persons who may interview the child who is the subject of the report and who allegedly was abused or neglected.

(4) If a public children services agency participated in the execution of a memorandum of understanding under section 2151.426 of the Revised Code establishing a children's advocacy center, the agency shall incorporate the contents of that memorandum in the memorandum prepared pursuant to this section.

(5) The clerk of the court of common pleas in the county may sign the memorandum of understanding prepared under division (J)(1) of this section. If the clerk signs the memorandum of understanding, the clerk shall execute all relevant responsibilities as required of officials specified in the memorandum.

(K)(1) Except as provided in division (K)(4) of this section, a person who is required to make a report pursuant to division (A) of this section may make a reasonable number of requests of the public children services agency that receives or is referred the report, or of the children's advocacy center that is referred the report if the report is referred to a children's advocacy center pursuant to an interagency agreement entered into under section 2151.428 of the Revised Code, to be provided with the following information:

(a) Whether the agency or center has initiated an investigation of the report;

(b) Whether the agency or center is continuing to investigate the report;

(c) Whether the agency or center is otherwise involved with the child who is the subject of the report;

(d) The general status of the health and safety of the child who is the subject of the report;

(e) Whether the report has resulted in the filing of a complaint in juvenile court or of criminal charges in another court.

(2) A person may request the information specified in division (K)(1) of this section only if, at the time the report is made, the person's name, address, and telephone number are provided to the person who receives the report.

When a municipal or county peace officer or employee of a public children services agency receives a report pursuant to division (A) or (B) of this section the recipient of the report shall inform the person of the right to request the information described in division (K)(1) of this section. The recipient of the report shall include in the initial child abuse or child neglect report that the person making the report was so informed and, if provided at the time of the making of the report, shall include the person's name, address, and telephone number in the report.

Each request is subject to verification of the identity of the person making the report. If that person's identity is verified, the agency shall provide the person with the information described in division (K)(1) of this section a reasonable number of times, except that the agency shall not disclose any confidential information regarding the child who is the subject of the report other than the information described in those divisions.

(3) A request made pursuant to division (K)(1) of this section is not a substitute for any report required to be made pursuant to division (A) of this section.

(4) If an agency other than the agency that received or was referred the report is conducting the investigation of the report pursuant to section 2151.422 of the Revised Code, the agency conducting the investigation shall comply with the requirements of division (K) of this section.

(L) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. The department of job and family services may enter into a plan of cooperation with any other governmental entity to aid in ensuring that children are protected from abuse and neglect. The department shall make recommendations to the attorney general that the department determines are necessary to protect children from child abuse and child neglect.

(M) Whoever violates division (A) of this section is liable for compensatory and exemplary damages to the child who would have been the subject of the report that was not made. A person who brings a civil action or proceeding pursuant to this division against a person who is alleged to have violated division (A)(1) of this section may use in the action or proceeding reports of other incidents of known or suspected abuse or neglect, provided that any information in a report that would identify the child who is the subject of the report or the maker of the report, if the maker is not the defendant or an agent or employee of the defendant, has been redacted.

(N)(1) As used in this division:

(a) "Out-of-home care" includes a nonchartered nonpublic school if the alleged child abuse or child neglect, or alleged threat of child abuse or child neglect, described in a report received by a public children services agency allegedly occurred in or involved the nonchartered nonpublic school and the alleged perpetrator named in the report holds a certificate, permit, or license issued by the state board of education under section 3301.071 or Chapter 3319. of the Revised Code.

(b) "Administrator, director, or other chief administrative officer" means the superintendent of the school district if the out-of-home care entity subject to a report made pursuant to this section is a school operated by the district.

(2) No later than the end of the day following the day on which a public children services agency receives a report of alleged child abuse or child neglect, or a report of an alleged threat of child abuse or child neglect, that allegedly occurred in or involved an out-of-home care entity, the agency shall provide written notice of the allegations contained in and the person named as the alleged perpetrator in the report to the administrator, director, or other chief administrative officer of the out-of-home care entity that is the subject of the report unless the administrator, director, or other chief administrative officer is named as an alleged perpetrator in the report. If the administrator, director, or other chief administrative officer of an out-of-home care entity is named as an alleged perpetrator in a report of alleged child abuse or child neglect, or a report of an alleged threat of child abuse or child neglect, that allegedly occurred in or involved the out-of-home care entity, the agency shall provide the written notice to the owner or governing board of the out-of-home care entity that is the subject of the report. The agency shall not provide witness statements or police or other investigative reports.

(3) No later than three days after the day on which a public children services agency that conducted the investigation as determined pursuant to section 2151.422 of the Revised Code makes a disposition of an investigation involving a report of alleged child abuse or child neglect, or a report of an alleged threat of child abuse or child neglect, that allegedly occurred in or involved an out-of-home care entity, the agency shall send written notice of the disposition of the investigation to the administrator, director, or other chief administrative officer and the owner or governing board of the out-of-home care entity. The agency shall not provide witness statements or police or other investigative reports.

(O) As used in this section, "investigation" means the public children services agency's response to an accepted report of child abuse or neglect through either an alternative response or a traditional response.

Sec. 2152.19.  (A) If a child is adjudicated a delinquent child, the court may make any of the following orders of disposition, in addition to any other disposition authorized or required by this chapter:

(1) Any order that is authorized by section 2151.353 of the Revised Code for the care and protection of an abused, neglected, or dependent child;

(2) Commit the child to the temporary custody of any school, camp, institution, or other facility operated for the care of delinquent children by the county, by a district organized under section 2152.41 or 2151.65 of the Revised Code, or by a private agency or organization, within or without the state, that is authorized and qualified to provide the care, treatment, or placement required, including, but not limited to, a school, camp, or facility operated under section 2151.65 of the Revised Code;

(3) Place the child in a detention facility or district detention facility operated under section 2152.41 of the Revised Code, for up to ninety days;

(4) Place the child on community control under any sanctions, services, and conditions that the court prescribes. As a condition of community control in every case and in addition to any other condition that it imposes upon the child, the court shall require the child to abide by the law during the period of community control. As referred to in this division, community control includes, but is not limited to, the following sanctions and conditions:

(a) A period of basic probation supervision in which the child is required to maintain contact with a person appointed to supervise the child in accordance with sanctions imposed by the court;

(b) A period of intensive probation supervision in which the child is required to maintain frequent contact with a person appointed by the court to supervise the child while the child is seeking or maintaining employment and participating in training, education, and treatment programs as the order of disposition;

(c) A period of day reporting in which the child is required each day to report to and leave a center or another approved reporting location at specified times in order to participate in work, education or training, treatment, and other approved programs at the center or outside the center;

(d) A period of community service of up to five hundred hours for an act that would be a felony or a misdemeanor of the first degree if committed by an adult, up to two hundred hours for an act that would be a misdemeanor of the second, third, or fourth degree if committed by an adult, or up to thirty hours for an act that would be a minor misdemeanor if committed by an adult;

(e) A requirement that the child obtain a high school diploma, a certificate of high school equivalence, vocational training, or employment;

(f) A period of drug and alcohol use monitoring;

(g) A requirement of alcohol or drug assessment or counseling, or a period in an alcohol or drug treatment program with a level of security for the child as determined necessary by the court;

(h) A period in which the court orders the child to observe a curfew that may involve daytime or evening hours;

(i) A requirement that the child serve monitored time;

(j) A period of house arrest without electronic monitoring or continuous alcohol monitoring;

(k) A period of electronic monitoring or continuous alcohol monitoring without house arrest, or house arrest with electronic monitoring or continuous alcohol monitoring or both electronic monitoring and continuous alcohol monitoring, that does not exceed the maximum sentence of imprisonment that could be imposed upon an adult who commits the same act.

A period of house arrest with electronic monitoring or continuous alcohol monitoring or both electronic monitoring and continuous alcohol monitoring, imposed under this division shall not extend beyond the child's twenty-first birthday. If a court imposes a period of house arrest with electronic monitoring or continuous alcohol monitoring or both electronic monitoring and continuous alcohol monitoring, upon a child under this division, it shall require the child: to remain in the child's home or other specified premises for the entire period of house arrest with electronic monitoring or continuous alcohol monitoring or both except when the court permits the child to leave those premises to go to school or to other specified premises. Regarding electronic monitoring, the court also shall require the child to be monitored by a central system that can determine the child's location at designated times; to report periodically to a person designated by the court; and to enter into a written contract with the court agreeing to comply with all requirements imposed by the court, agreeing to pay any fee imposed by the court for the costs of the house arrest with electronic monitoring, and agreeing to waive the right to receive credit for any time served on house arrest with electronic monitoring toward the period of any other dispositional order imposed upon the child if the child violates any of the requirements of the dispositional order of house arrest with electronic monitoring. The court also may impose other reasonable requirements upon the child.

Unless ordered by the court, a child shall not receive credit for any time served on house arrest with electronic monitoring or continuous alcohol monitoring or both toward any other dispositional order imposed upon the child for the act for which was imposed the dispositional order of house arrest with electronic monitoring or continuous alcohol monitoring. As used in this division and division (A)(4)(l) of this section, "continuous alcohol monitoring" has the same meaning as in section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.

(l) A suspension of the driver's license, probationary driver's license, or temporary instruction permit issued to the child for a period of time prescribed by the court, or a suspension of the registration of all motor vehicles registered in the name of the child for a period of time prescribed by the court. A child whose license or permit is so suspended is ineligible for issuance of a license or permit during the period of suspension. At the end of the period of suspension, the child shall not be reissued a license or permit until the child has paid any applicable reinstatement fee and complied with all requirements governing license reinstatement.

(5) Commit the child to the custody of the court;

(6) Require the child to not be absent without legitimate excuse from the public school the child is supposed to attend for five or more consecutive days, seven or more school days in one school month, or twelve or more school days in a school year;

(7)(a) If a child is adjudicated a delinquent child for being a chronic truant or a habitual truant who previously has been adjudicated an unruly child for being a habitual truant, do either or both of the following:

(i) Require the child to participate in a truancy prevention mediation program;

(ii) Make any order of disposition as authorized by this section, except that the court shall not commit the child to a facility described in division (A)(2) or (3) of this section unless the court determines that the child violated a lawful court order made pursuant to division (C)(1)(e) of section 2151.354 of the Revised Code or division (A)(6) of this section.

(b) If a child is adjudicated a delinquent child for being a chronic truant or a habitual truant who previously has been adjudicated an unruly child for being a habitual truant and the court determines that the parent, guardian, or other person having care of the child has failed to cause the child's attendance at school in violation of section 3321.38 of the Revised Code, do either or both of the following:

(i) Require the parent, guardian, or other person having care of the child to participate in a truancy prevention mediation program;

(ii) Require the parent, guardian, or other person having care of the child to participate in any community service program, preferably a community service program that requires the involvement of the parent, guardian, or other person having care of the child in the school attended by the child.

(8) Make any further disposition that the court finds proper, except that the child shall not be placed in any of the following:

(a) A a state correctional institution, a county, multicounty, or municipal jail or workhouse, or another place in which an adult convicted of a crime, under arrest, or charged with a crime is held;

(b) A community corrections facility, if the child would be covered by the definition of public safety beds for purposes of sections 5139.41 to 5139.43 of the Revised Code if the court exercised its authority to commit the child to the legal custody of the department of youth services for institutionalization or institutionalization in a secure facility pursuant to this chapter.

(B) If a child is adjudicated a delinquent child, in addition to any order of disposition made under division (A) of this section, the court, in the following situations and for the specified periods of time, shall suspend the child's temporary instruction permit, restricted license, probationary driver's license, or nonresident operating privilege, or suspend the child's ability to obtain such a permit:

(1) If the child is adjudicated a delinquent child for violating section 2923.122 of the Revised Code, impose a class four suspension of the child's license, permit, or privilege from the range specified in division (A)(4) of section 4510.02 of the Revised Code or deny the child the issuance of a license or permit in accordance with division (F)(1) of section 2923.122 of the Revised Code.

(2) If the child is adjudicated a delinquent child for committing an act that if committed by an adult would be a drug abuse offense or for violating division (B) of section 2917.11 of the Revised Code, suspend the child's license, permit, or privilege for a period of time prescribed by the court. The court, in its discretion, may terminate the suspension if the child attends and satisfactorily completes a drug abuse or alcohol abuse education, intervention, or treatment program specified by the court. During the time the child is attending a program described in this division, the court shall retain the child's temporary instruction permit, probationary driver's license, or driver's license, and the court shall return the permit or license if it terminates the suspension as described in this division.

(C) The court may establish a victim-offender mediation program in which victims and their offenders meet to discuss the offense and suggest possible restitution. If the court obtains the assent of the victim of the delinquent act committed by the child, the court may require the child to participate in the program.

(D)(1) If a child is adjudicated a delinquent child for committing an act that would be a felony if committed by an adult and if the child caused, attempted to cause, threatened to cause, or created a risk of physical harm to the victim of the act, the court, prior to issuing an order of disposition under this section, shall order the preparation of a victim impact statement by the probation department of the county in which the victim of the act resides, by the court's own probation department, or by a victim assistance program that is operated by the state, a county, a municipal corporation, or another governmental entity. The court shall consider the victim impact statement in determining the order of disposition to issue for the child.

(2) Each victim impact statement shall identify the victim of the act for which the child was adjudicated a delinquent child, itemize any economic loss suffered by the victim as a result of the act, identify any physical injury suffered by the victim as a result of the act and the seriousness and permanence of the injury, identify any change in the victim's personal welfare or familial relationships as a result of the act and any psychological impact experienced by the victim or the victim's family as a result of the act, and contain any other information related to the impact of the act upon the victim that the court requires.

(3) A victim impact statement shall be kept confidential and is not a public record. However, the court may furnish copies of the statement to the department of youth services if the delinquent child is committed to the department or to both the adjudicated delinquent child or the adjudicated delinquent child's counsel and the prosecuting attorney. The copy of a victim impact statement furnished by the court to the department pursuant to this section shall be kept confidential and is not a public record. If an officer is preparing pursuant to section 2947.06 or 2951.03 of the Revised Code or Criminal Rule 32.2 a presentence investigation report pertaining to a person, the court shall make available to the officer, for use in preparing the report, a copy of any victim impact statement regarding that person. The copies of a victim impact statement that are made available to the adjudicated delinquent child or the adjudicated delinquent child's counsel and the prosecuting attorney pursuant to this division shall be returned to the court by the person to whom they were made available immediately following the imposition of an order of disposition for the child under this chapter.

The copy of a victim impact statement that is made available pursuant to this division to an officer preparing a criminal presentence investigation report shall be returned to the court by the officer immediately following its use in preparing the report.

(4) The department of youth services shall work with local probation departments and victim assistance programs to develop a standard victim impact statement.

(E) If a child is adjudicated a delinquent child for being a chronic truant or a habitual truant who previously has been adjudicated an unruly child for being a habitual truant and the court determines that the parent, guardian, or other person having care of the child has failed to cause the child's attendance at school in violation of section 3321.38 of the Revised Code, in addition to any order of disposition it makes under this section, the court shall warn the parent, guardian, or other person having care of the child that any subsequent adjudication of the child as an unruly or delinquent child for being a habitual or chronic truant may result in a criminal charge against the parent, guardian, or other person having care of the child for a violation of division (C) of section 2919.21 or section 2919.24 of the Revised Code.

(F)(1) During the period of a delinquent child's community control granted under this section, authorized probation officers who are engaged within the scope of their supervisory duties or responsibilities may search, with or without a warrant, the person of the delinquent child, the place of residence of the delinquent child, and a motor vehicle, another item of tangible or intangible personal property, or other real property in which the delinquent child has a right, title, or interest or for which the delinquent child has the express or implied permission of a person with a right, title, or interest to use, occupy, or possess if the probation officers have reasonable grounds to believe that the delinquent child is not abiding by the law or otherwise is not complying with the conditions of the delinquent child's community control. The court that places a delinquent child on community control under this section shall provide the delinquent child with a written notice that informs the delinquent child that authorized probation officers who are engaged within the scope of their supervisory duties or responsibilities may conduct those types of searches during the period of community control if they have reasonable grounds to believe that the delinquent child is not abiding by the law or otherwise is not complying with the conditions of the delinquent child's community control. The court also shall provide the written notice described in division (E)(2) of this section to each parent, guardian, or custodian of the delinquent child who is described in that division.

(2) The court that places a child on community control under this section shall provide the child's parent, guardian, or other custodian with a written notice that informs them that authorized probation officers may conduct searches pursuant to division (E)(1) of this section. The notice shall specifically state that a permissible search might extend to a motor vehicle, another item of tangible or intangible personal property, or a place of residence or other real property in which a notified parent, guardian, or custodian has a right, title, or interest and that the parent, guardian, or custodian expressly or impliedly permits the child to use, occupy, or possess.

(G) If a juvenile court commits a delinquent child to the custody of any person, organization, or entity pursuant to this section and if the delinquent act for which the child is so committed is a sexually oriented offense or is a child-victim oriented offense, the court in the order of disposition shall do one of the following:

(1) Require that the child be provided treatment as described in division (A)(2) of section 5139.13 of the Revised Code;

(2) Inform the person, organization, or entity that it is the preferred course of action in this state that the child be provided treatment as described in division (A)(2) of section 5139.13 of the Revised Code and encourage the person, organization, or entity to provide that treatment.

Sec. 2701.09.  In any county in which a daily law journal is printed, the judges of the courts of record, other than the court of appeals, shall jointly designate such daily law journal as the journal in which shall be published all calendars of the courts of record in such county, which calendars shall contain the numbers and titles of causes, and names of attorneys appearing therein, together with the motion dockets and such particulars and notices respecting causes, as may be specified by the judges, and each notice required to be published by any of such judges.

In all cases, proceedings, administrations of estates, assignments, and matters pending in any of the courts of record of such counties in which legal notices or advertisements are required to be published, such law journal shall, once a week and on the same day of the week, publish an abstract of each such legal notice or advertisement, but the jurisdiction over, or irregularity of, a proceeding, trial, or judgment shall not be affected by anything therein. The publisher of the daily law journal also shall post the legal notice or advertisement in its entirety on the daily law journal's web site, if the daily law journal has one, and on the official public notice web site established under section 125.182 of the Revised Code at no additional cost.

For the publication of such calendars, motion dockets, and notices, the fees for which are not fixed by law, the publisher of the paper journal shall receive a sum to be fixed by the judges for each case brought, to be paid in advance by the party filing the petition, transcripts for appeal, or lien, to be taxed in the costs and collected as other costs. For the publication of abstracts of legal advertising notices or advertisements, such publisher shall receive a sum to be fixed by the judges for each case, proceeding, or matter, in which such advertising is had, to be taxed and collected as a part of the costs thereof.

Sec. 2945.402.  (A) In approving a conditional release, the trial court may set any conditions on the release with respect to the treatment, evaluation, counseling, or control of the defendant or person that the court considers necessary to protect the public safety and the welfare of the defendant or person. The trial court may revoke a defendant's or person's conditional release and order reinstatement of the previous placement or reinstitutionalization at any time the conditions of the release have not been satisfied, provided that the revocation shall be in accordance with this section.

(B) A conditional release is a commitment. The hearings on continued commitment as described in section 2945.401 of the Revised Code apply to a defendant or person on conditional release.

(C) A person, agency, or facility that is assigned to monitor a defendant or person on conditional release immediately shall notify the trial court on learning that the defendant or person being monitored has violated the terms of the conditional release. Upon learning of any violation of the terms of the conditional release, the trial court may issue a temporary order of detention or, if necessary, an arrest warrant for the defendant or person. Within ten court days after the defendant's or person's detention or arrest, the trial court shall conduct a hearing to determine whether the conditional release should be modified or terminated. At the hearing, the defendant or person shall have the same rights as are described in division (C) of section 2945.40 of the Revised Code. The trial court may order a continuance of the ten-court-day period for no longer than ten days for good cause shown or for any period on motion of the defendant or person. If the trial court fails to conduct the hearing within the ten-court-day period and does not order a continuance in accordance with this division, the defendant or person shall be restored to the prior conditional release status.

(D) The trial court shall give all parties reasonable notice of a hearing conducted under this section. At the hearing, the prosecutor shall present the case demonstrating that the defendant or person violated the terms of the conditional release. If the court finds by a preponderance of the evidence that the defendant or person violated the terms of the conditional release, the court may continue, modify, or terminate the conditional release and shall enter its order accordingly.

(E)(1) If a court approves a conditional release, the court shall report the approval and information pertaining to the release to the local law enforcement agency. The local law enforcement agency shall enter the approval and information into the national crime information center supervised release file through the law enforcement automated data system. The information required by divisions (E)(1)(c) and (d) of this section shall be entered into the file's miscellaneous field. The information reported and entered shall include all of the following:

(a) The name of the court providing the information;

(b) The offense or offenses with which the defendant or person was charged;

(c) Whether the person was found not guilty by reason of insanity or incompetent to stand trial with no substantial probability of becoming competent even with a course of treatment;

(d) The reason for the conditional release;

(e) Any other information required for the entry of information into the national crime information center supervised release file.

(2) Information entered into the national crime information center supervised release file pursuant to this section shall remain in the file until the termination of the conditional release or commitment.

(3) If a defendant or person about whom information is entered into the national crime information center supervised release file pursuant to division (E)(1) of this section has contact with a law enforcement agency after the information is entered, the agency shall report the contact to the department of mental health and addiction services and, if the terms of the release require the defendant or person to receive mental health treatment, to the person, office, or agency providing the treatment.

(4) As used in division (E) of this section, "local law enforcement agency" means the police department of a municipal corporation in which the offense with which a releasee was charged allegedly occurred or, if the offense did not allegedly occur in a municipal corporation, the sheriff of the county in which the offense allegedly occurred.

Sec. 3123.89. (A) Subject to section 3770.071 of the Revised Code, a child support enforcement agency that determines that an obligor who is the recipient of a lottery prize award is subject to a final and enforceable determination of default made under sections 3123.01 to 3123.07 of the Revised Code shall issue an intercept directive to the director of the state lottery commission. A copy of this intercept directive shall be sent to the obligor.

(B) The intercept directive shall require the director or the director's designee to transmit an amount or amounts from the proceeds of the specified lottery prize award to the office of child support in the department of job and family services. The intercept directive also shall contain all of the following information:

(1) The name, address, and social security number or taxpayer identification number of the obligor;

(2) A statement that the obligor has been determined to be in default under a support order;

(3) The amount of the arrearage owed by the obligor as determined by the agency.

(C) After receipt of an intercept directive and in accordance with section 3770.071 of the Revised Code, the director or the director's designee shall deduct the amount or amounts specified from the proceeds of the lottery prize award referred to in the directive and transmit the amounts to the office of child support.

(D) The department of job and family services shall develop and implement a data match program with the state lottery commission or its lottery sales agents to identify obligors who are subject to a final and enforceable determination of default made under sections 3123.01 to 3123.07 of the Revised Code in accordance with section 3770.071 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 3123.90.  (A) As used in this section, "casino facility," "casino operator," and "management company" have the meanings defined in section 3772.01 of the Revised Code.

(B) The department of job and family services shall develop and implement a data match program with each casino facility's casino operator or management company to identify obligors who are subject to a final and enforceable determination of default made under sections 3123.01 to 3123.07 of the Revised Code.

(C) Upon the data match program's implementation, if a person's winnings at a casino facility are an amount for which reporting to the internal revenue service of the amount is required by section 6041 of the Internal Revenue Code, as amended, the casino operator or management company shall determine if the person entitled to the winnings is in default under a support order. If the casino operator or management company determines that the person is in default, the casino operator or management company shall withhold from the person's winnings an amount sufficient to satisfy any past due support owed by the obligor identified in the data match up to the amount of the winnings.

(D) Not later than seven days after withholding the amount, the casino operator or management company shall transmit any amount withheld to the department as payment on the support obligation.

(E) The Department may adopt rules under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as are necessary for implementation of this section.

Sec. 3313.90.  As used in this section, "formula ADM" has the same meaning as in section 3317.02 of the Revised Code. Notwithstanding division (D) of section 3311.19 and division (D) of section 3311.52 of the Revised Code, the provisions of this section that apply to a city school district do not apply to any joint vocational or cooperative education school district.

(A) Each city, local, and exempted village school district shall, by one of the following means, provide vocational career-technical education adequate to prepare a pupil enrolled therein for an occupation:

(1) Establishing and maintaining a vocational career-technical education program that meets standards adopted by the state board of education;

(2) Being a member of a joint vocational school district that meets standards adopted by the state board;

(3) Contracting for vocational career-technical education with a joint vocational school district or another school district that meets the standards adopted by the state board.

The standards of the state board of education shall include criteria for the participation by nonpublic students in vocational career-technical education programs without financial assessment, charge, or tuition to such student except such assessments, charges, or tuition paid by resident public school students in such programs. Such nonpublic school students shall be included in the formula ADM of the school district maintaining the vocational career-technical education program as part-time students in proportion to the time spent in the vocational career-technical education program.

By the thirtieth day of October of each year, the superintendent of public instruction shall determine and certify to the superintendent of each school district subject to this section either that the district is in compliance with the requirements of this section for the current school year or that the district is not in compliance. If the superintendent certifies that the district is not in compliance, he shall notify the board of education of the district of the actions necessary to bring the district into compliance with this section.

In meeting standards established by the state board of education, school districts, where practicable, shall provide vocational career-technical education programs in high schools. A minimum enrollment of fifteen hundred pupils in grades nine through twelve is established as a base for comprehensive vocational career-technical education course offerings. A school district may meet this requirement alone, through a cooperative arrangement pursuant to section 3313.92 of the Revised Code, through school district consolidation, by membership in a joint vocational school district, by contract with a school district, by contract with a school licensed by any state agency established by the Revised Code which school operates its courses offered for contracting with public schools under standards as to staffing and facilities comparable to those prescribed by the state board of education for public schools provided no instructor in such courses shall be required to be certificated by the state department of education, or in a combination of such ways. Exceptions to the minimum requirement of fifteen hundred pupils may be made by the state board of education based on sparsity of population or other factors indicating that comprehensive educational and vocational career-technical education programs as required by this section can be provided through an alternate plan.

(B) Approval of state funds for the construction and operation of vocational facilities in any city, local, or exempted village school district shall be contingent upon a comprehensive vocational program plan approved by the state board of education no later than July 1, 1970. The state board of education shall not approve a school district plan unless the plan proposed reasonably meets the vocational needs of other school districts in the general area of the school districts in the general area of the school district submitting the plan. The plan shall be submitted to the state board of education no later than April 1, 1970. Such plan shall contain:

(1) The organization for vocational education pursuant to the requirements of this section;

(2) Vocational programs to be offered in the respective comprehensive high schools, in specialized schools or skill centers, and in joint vocational schools;

(3) Remodeled, additional, and new vocational facilities required at the respective locations.

In approving the organization for vocational education the state board of education shall provide that no city, local, or exempted village school district is excluded in the statewide plan.

(C)(1) The lead district of a career-technical planning district offering a pre-apprenticeship program may enter into an agreement with a private entity to provide students with the opportunity to begin an apprenticeship program prior to graduating from high school.

(2) Students enrolled in an apprenticeship program pursuant to a lead district's agreement with a private entity under division (C)(1) of this section shall be included in the enrollment of the student's resident district as reported under section 3317.03 of the Revised Code and, where appropriate, in the student count reported under section 3317.03 of the Revised Code for the appropriate career-technical education categories for the portion of the day they attend the apprenticeship program.

Sec. 3313.91.  Notwithstanding division (D) of section 3311.19 and division (D) of section 3311.52 of the Revised Code, the provisions of this section and section 3313.911 of the Revised Code that apply to a city school district do not apply to any joint vocational or cooperative education school district unless otherwise specified.

The board of education of any city, local, exempted village, or joint vocational school district may contract with any public agency, board, or bureau, or with any private individual or firm for the purchase of any vocational career-technical education or vocational rehabilitation service for any resident of the district under the age of twenty-one years and may pay for such services with public funds. Any Except as provided in division (C) of section 3313.90 of the Revised Code, any such vocational career-technical education or vocational rehabilitation service shall meet the same requirements, including those for teachers, facilities, and equipment, as those required of the public schools and be approved by the state department of education.

The state board of education may assign city, local, or exempted village school districts to joint vocational districts and pursuant to state board rules, shall require such districts to enter into contractual agreements pursuant to section 3313.90 of the Revised Code so that special education students as well as others may receive suitable vocational services. Such rules shall prescribe a formula under which the district that contracts to receive the services agrees to pay an annual fee to the district providing the vocational career-technical education program. The amount of the fee shall be computed in accordance with a formula prescribed by state board rule, but the rule shall permit the superintendent of public instruction to prescribe a lower fee than the amount required to be paid by the formula in cases where he the superintendent determines either that the approved vocational career-technical course offerings of the district that is to pay the fee are of sufficient breadth to warrant a lower annual fee, or that the situation warrants a lower annual fee.

Sec. 3314.08.  (A) As used in this section:

(1)(a) "Category one career-technical education student" means a student who is receiving the career-technical education services described in division (A) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.

(b) "Category two career-technical student" means a student who is receiving the career-technical education services described in division (B) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.

(c) "Category three career-technical student" means a student who is receiving the career-technical education services described in division (C) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.

(d) "Category four career-technical student" means a student who is receiving the career-technical education services described in division (D) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.

(e) "Category five career-technical education student" means a student who is receiving the career-technical education services described in division (E) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.

(2)(a) "Category one limited English proficient student" means a limited English proficient student described in division (A) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code.

(b) "Category two limited English proficient student" means a limited English proficient student described in division (B) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code.

(c) "Category three limited English proficient student" means a limited English proficient student described in division (C) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code.

(3)(a) "Category one special education student" means a student who is receiving special education services for a disability specified in division (A) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.

(b) "Category two special education student" means a student who is receiving special education services for a disability specified in division (B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.

(c) "Category three special education student" means a student who is receiving special education services for a disability specified in division (C) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.

(d) "Category four special education student" means a student who is receiving special education services for a disability specified in division (D) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.

(e) "Category five special education student" means a student who is receiving special education services for a disability specified in division (E) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.

(f) "Category six special education student" means a student who is receiving special education services for a disability specified in division (F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.

(4) "Formula amount" has the same meaning as in section 3317.02 of the Revised Code.

(5) "IEP" has the same meaning as in section 3323.01 of the Revised Code.

(6) "Resident district" means the school district in which a student is entitled to attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code.

(7) "State education aid" has the same meaning as in section 5751.20 of the Revised Code.

(B) The state board of education shall adopt rules requiring both of the following:

(1) The board of education of each city, exempted village, and local school district to annually report the number of students entitled to attend school in the district who are enrolled in each grade kindergarten through twelve in a community school established under this chapter, and for each child, the community school in which the child is enrolled.

(2) The governing authority of each community school established under this chapter to annually report all of the following:

(a) The number of students enrolled in grades one through twelve and the full-time equivalent number of students enrolled in kindergarten in the school who are not receiving special education and related services pursuant to an IEP;

(b) The number of enrolled students in grades one through twelve and the full-time equivalent number of enrolled students in kindergarten, who are receiving special education and related services pursuant to an IEP;

(c) The number of students reported under division (B)(2)(b) of this section receiving special education and related services pursuant to an IEP for a disability described in each of divisions (A) to (F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;

(d) The full-time equivalent number of students reported under divisions (B)(2)(a) and (b) of this section who are enrolled in career-technical education programs or classes described in each of divisions (A) to (E) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code that are provided by the community school;

(e) Twenty per cent of the The number of students reported under divisions (B)(2)(a) and (b) of this section who are not reported under division (B)(2)(d) of this section but who are enrolled in career-technical education programs or classes described in each of divisions (A) to (E) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code at a joint vocational school district or another district in the career-technical planning district to which the school is assigned;

(f) The number of students reported under divisions (B)(2)(a) and (b) of this section who are category one to three limited English proficient students described in each of divisions (A) to (C) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code;

(g) The number of students reported under divisions (B)(2)(a) and (b) who are economically disadvantaged, as defined by the department. A student shall not be categorically excluded from the number reported under division (B)(2)(g) of this section based on anything other than family income.

(h) For each student, the city, exempted village, or local school district in which the student is entitled to attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code.

A school district board and a community school governing authority shall include in their respective reports under division (B) of this section any child admitted in accordance with division (A)(2) of section 3321.01 of the Revised Code.

A governing authority of a community school shall not include in its report under division (B)(2) of this section any student for whom tuition is charged under division (F) of this section.

(C)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) of this section, and subject to divisions (C)(3), (4), (5), (6), and (7) of this section, on a full-time equivalency basis, for each student enrolled in a community school established under this chapter, the department of education annually shall deduct from the state education aid of a student's resident district and, if necessary, from the payment made to the district under sections 321.24 and 323.156 of the Revised Code and pay to the community school the sum of the following:

(a) An opportunity grant in an amount equal to the formula amount;

(b) The per pupil amount of targeted assistance funds calculated under division (A) of section 3317.0217 of the Revised Code for the student's resident district, as determined by the department, X 0.25;

(c) Additional state aid for special education and related services provided under Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code as follows:

(i) If the student is a category one special education student, the amount specified in division (A) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;

(ii) If the student is a category two special education student, the amount specified in division (B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;

(iii) If the student is a category three special education student, the amount specified in division (C) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;

(iv) If the student is a category four special education student, the amount specified in division (D) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;

(v) If the student is a category five special education student, the amount specified in division (E) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;

(vi) If the student is a category six special education student, the amount specified in division (F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.

(d) If the student is in kindergarten through third grade, an additional amount of $211, in fiscal year 2014, and $290, in fiscal year 2015;

(e) If the student is economically disadvantaged, an additional amount equal to the following:

($269, in fiscal year 2014, or $272, in fiscal year 2015) X (the resident district's economically disadvantaged index)

(f) Limited English proficiency funds as follows:

(i) If the student is a category one limited English proficient student, the amount specified in division (A) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code;

(ii) If the student is a category two limited English proficient student, the amount specified in division (B) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code;

(iii) If the student is a category three limited English proficient student, the amount specified in division (C) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code.

(g) Career-technical If the student is reported under division (B)(2)(d) of this section, career-technical education funds as follows:

(i) If the student is a category one career-technical education student, the amount specified in division (A) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;

(ii) If the student is a category two career-technical education student, the amount specified in division (B) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;

(iii) If the student is a category three career-technical education student, the amount specified in division (C) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;

(iv) If the student is a category four career-technical education student, the amount specified in division (D) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;

(v) If the student is a category five career-technical education student, the amount specified in division (E) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.

Deduction and payment of funds under division (C)(1)(g) of this section is subject to approval by the lead district of a career-technical planning district or the department of education under section 3317.161 of the Revised Code.

(2) When deducting from the state education aid of a student's resident district for students enrolled in an internet- or computer-based community school and making payments to such school under this section, the department shall make the deductions and payments described in only divisions (C)(1)(a), (c), and (g) of this section.

No deductions or payments shall be made for a student enrolled in such school under division (C)(1)(b), (d), (e), or (f) of this section.

(3)(a) If a community school's costs for a fiscal year for a student receiving special education and related services pursuant to an IEP for a disability described in divisions (B) to (F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code exceed the threshold catastrophic cost for serving the student as specified in division (B) of section 3317.0214 of the Revised Code, the school may submit to the superintendent of public instruction documentation, as prescribed by the superintendent, of all its costs for that student. Upon submission of documentation for a student of the type and in the manner prescribed, the department shall pay to the community school an amount equal to the school's costs for the student in excess of the threshold catastrophic costs.

(b) The community school shall report under division (C)(3)(a) of this section, and the department shall pay for, only the costs of educational expenses and the related services provided to the student in accordance with the student's individualized education program. Any legal fees, court costs, or other costs associated with any cause of action relating to the student may not be included in the amount.

(4) In any fiscal year, a community school receiving funds under division (C)(1)(g) of this section shall spend those funds only for the purposes that the department designates as approved for career-technical education expenses. Career-technical educational education expenses approved by the department shall include only expenses connected to the delivery of career-technical programming to career-technical students. The department shall require the school to report data annually so that the department may monitor the school's compliance with the requirements regarding the manner in which funding received under division (C)(1)(g) of this section may be spent.

(5) All funds received under division (C)(1)(g) of this section shall be spent in the following manner:

(a) At least seventy-five per cent of the funds shall be spent on curriculum development, purchase, and implementation; instructional resources and supplies; industry-based program certification; student assessment, credentialing, and placement; curriculum specific equipment purchases and leases; career-technical student organization fees and expenses; home and agency linkages; work-based learning experiences; professional development; and other costs directly associated with career-technical education programs including development of new programs.

(b) Not more than twenty-five per cent of the funds shall be used for personnel expenditures.

(6) A community school shall spend the funds it receives under division (C)(1)(e) of this section in accordance with section 3317.25 of the Revised Code.

(7) If the sum of the payments computed under division divisions (C)(1) and (8)(a) of this section for the students entitled to attend school in a particular school district under sections 3313.64 and 3313.65 of the Revised Code exceeds the sum of that district's state education aid and its payment under sections 321.24 and 323.156 of the Revised Code, the department shall calculate and apply a proration factor to the payments to all community schools under that division for the students entitled to attend school in that district.

(8)(a) Subject to division (C)(7) of this section, the department annually shall pay to each community school, including each internet- or computer-based community school, an amount equal to the following:

(The number of students reported by the community school under division (B)(2)(e) of this section X the formula amount X .20)

(b) For each payment made to a community school under division (C)(8)(a) of this section, the department shall deduct from the state education aid of each city, local, and exempted village school district and, if necessary, from the payment made to the district under sections 321.24 and 323.156 of the Revised Code an amount equal to the following:

(The number of the district's students reported by the community school under division (B)(2)(e) of this section X the formula amount X .20)

(D) A board of education sponsoring a community school may utilize local funds to make enhancement grants to the school or may agree, either as part of the contract or separately, to provide any specific services to the community school at no cost to the school.

(E) A community school may not levy taxes or issue bonds secured by tax revenues.

(F) No community school shall charge tuition for the enrollment of any student who is a resident of this state. A community school may charge tuition for the enrollment of any student who is not a resident of this state.

(G)(1)(a) A community school may borrow money to pay any necessary and actual expenses of the school in anticipation of the receipt of any portion of the payments to be received by the school pursuant to division (C) of this section. The school may issue notes to evidence such borrowing. The proceeds of the notes shall be used only for the purposes for which the anticipated receipts may be lawfully expended by the school.

(b) A school may also borrow money for a term not to exceed fifteen years for the purpose of acquiring facilities.

(2) Except for any amount guaranteed under section 3318.50 of the Revised Code, the state is not liable for debt incurred by the governing authority of a community school.

(H) The department of education shall adjust the amounts subtracted and paid under division (C) of this section to reflect any enrollment of students in community schools for less than the equivalent of a full school year. The state board of education within ninety days after April 8, 2003, shall adopt in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code rules governing the payments to community schools under this section including initial payments in a school year and adjustments and reductions made in subsequent periodic payments to community schools and corresponding deductions from school district accounts as provided under division (C) of this section. For purposes of this section:

(1) A student shall be considered enrolled in the community school for any portion of the school year the student is participating at a college under Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code.

(2) A student shall be considered to be enrolled in a community school for the period of time beginning on the later of the date on which the school both has received documentation of the student's enrollment from a parent and the student has commenced participation in learning opportunities as defined in the contract with the sponsor, or thirty days prior to the date on which the student is entered into the education management information system established under section 3301.0714 of the Revised Code. For purposes of applying this division and divisions (H)(3) and (4) of this section to a community school student, "learning opportunities" shall be defined in the contract, which shall describe both classroom-based and non-classroom-based learning opportunities and shall be in compliance with criteria and documentation requirements for student participation which shall be established by the department. Any student's instruction time in non-classroom-based learning opportunities shall be certified by an employee of the community school. A student's enrollment shall be considered to cease on the date on which any of the following occur:

(a) The community school receives documentation from a parent terminating enrollment of the student.

(b) The community school is provided documentation of a student's enrollment in another public or private school.

(c) The community school ceases to offer learning opportunities to the student pursuant to the terms of the contract with the sponsor or the operation of any provision of this chapter.

Except as otherwise specified in this paragraph, beginning in the 2011-2012 school year, any student who completed the prior school year in an internet- or computer-based community school shall be considered to be enrolled in the same school in the subsequent school year until the student's enrollment has ceased as specified in division (H)(2) of this section. The department shall continue subtracting and paying amounts for the student under division (C) of this section without interruption at the start of the subsequent school year. However, if the student without a legitimate excuse fails to participate in the first one hundred five consecutive hours of learning opportunities offered to the student in that subsequent school year, the student shall be considered not to have re-enrolled in the school for that school year and the department shall recalculate the payments to the school for that school year to account for the fact that the student is not enrolled.

(3) The department shall determine each community school student's percentage of full-time equivalency based on the percentage of learning opportunities offered by the community school to that student, reported either as number of hours or number of days, is of the total learning opportunities offered by the community school to a student who attends for the school's entire school year. However, no internet- or computer-based community school shall be credited for any time a student spends participating in learning opportunities beyond ten hours within any period of twenty-four consecutive hours. Whether it reports hours or days of learning opportunities, each community school shall offer not less than nine hundred twenty hours of learning opportunities during the school year.

(4) With respect to the calculation of full-time equivalency under division (H)(3) of this section, the department shall waive the number of hours or days of learning opportunities not offered to a student because the community school was closed during the school year due to disease epidemic, hazardous weather conditions, law enforcement emergencies, inoperability of school buses or other equipment necessary to the school's operation, damage to a school building, or other temporary circumstances due to utility failure rendering the school building unfit for school use, so long as the school was actually open for instruction with students in attendance during that school year for not less than the minimum number of hours required by this chapter. The department shall treat the school as if it were open for instruction with students in attendance during the hours or days waived under this division.

(I) The department of education shall reduce the amounts paid under this section to reflect payments made to colleges under division (B) of section 3365.07 of the Revised Code or through alternative funding agreements entered into under rules adopted under section 3365.12 of the Revised Code.

(J)(1) No student shall be considered enrolled in any internet- or computer-based community school or, if applicable to the student, in any community school that is required to provide the student with a computer pursuant to division (C) of section 3314.22 of the Revised Code, unless both of the following conditions are satisfied:

(a) The student possesses or has been provided with all required hardware and software materials and all such materials are operational so that the student is capable of fully participating in the learning opportunities specified in the contract between the school and the school's sponsor as required by division (A)(23) of section 3314.03 of the Revised Code;

(b) The school is in compliance with division (A) of section 3314.22 of the Revised Code, relative to such student.

(2) In accordance with policies adopted jointly by the superintendent of public instruction and the auditor of state, the department shall reduce the amounts otherwise payable under division (C) of this section to any community school that includes in its program the provision of computer hardware and software materials to any student, if such hardware and software materials have not been delivered, installed, and activated for each such student in a timely manner or other educational materials or services have not been provided according to the contract between the individual community school and its sponsor.

The superintendent of public instruction and the auditor of state shall jointly establish a method for auditing any community school to which this division pertains to ensure compliance with this section.

The superintendent, auditor of state, and the governor shall jointly make recommendations to the general assembly for legislative changes that may be required to assure fiscal and academic accountability for such schools.

(K)(1) If the department determines that a review of a community school's enrollment is necessary, such review shall be completed and written notice of the findings shall be provided to the governing authority of the community school and its sponsor within ninety days of the end of the community school's fiscal year, unless extended for a period not to exceed thirty additional days for one of the following reasons:

(a) The department and the community school mutually agree to the extension.

(b) Delays in data submission caused by either a community school or its sponsor.

(2) If the review results in a finding that additional funding is owed to the school, such payment shall be made within thirty days of the written notice. If the review results in a finding that the community school owes moneys to the state, the following procedure shall apply:

(a) Within ten business days of the receipt of the notice of findings, the community school may appeal the department's determination to the state board of education or its designee.

(b) The board or its designee shall conduct an informal hearing on the matter within thirty days of receipt of such an appeal and shall issue a decision within fifteen days of the conclusion of the hearing.

(c) If the board has enlisted a designee to conduct the hearing, the designee shall certify its decision to the board. The board may accept the decision of the designee or may reject the decision of the designee and issue its own decision on the matter.

(d) Any decision made by the board under this division is final.

(3) If it is decided that the community school owes moneys to the state, the department shall deduct such amount from the school's future payments in accordance with guidelines issued by the superintendent of public instruction.

(L) The department shall not subtract from a school district's state aid account and shall not pay to a community school under division (C) of this section any amount for any of the following:

(1) Any student who has graduated from the twelfth grade of a public or nonpublic high school;

(2) Any student who is not a resident of the state;

(3) Any student who was enrolled in the community school during the previous school year when assessments were administered under section 3301.0711 of the Revised Code but did not take one or more of the assessments required by that section and was not excused pursuant to division (C)(1) or (3) of that section, unless the superintendent of public instruction grants the student a waiver from the requirement to take the assessment and a parent is not paying tuition for the student pursuant to section 3314.26 of the Revised Code. The superintendent may grant a waiver only for good cause in accordance with rules adopted by the state board of education.

(4) Any student who has attained the age of twenty-two years, except for veterans of the armed services whose attendance was interrupted before completing the recognized twelve-year course of the public schools by reason of induction or enlistment in the armed forces and who apply for enrollment in a community school not later than four years after termination of war or their honorable discharge. If, however, any such veteran elects to enroll in special courses organized for veterans for whom tuition is paid under federal law, or otherwise, the department shall not subtract from a school district's state aid account and shall not pay to a community school under division (C) of this section any amount for that veteran.

Sec. 3317.02.  As used in this chapter:

(A)(1) "Category one career-technical education ADM" means the enrollment of students during the school year on a full-time equivalency basis in career-technical education programs described in division (A) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code and certified under division (B)(11) or (D)(2)(h) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.

(2) "Category two career-technical education ADM" means the enrollment of students during the school year on a full-time equivalency basis in career-technical education programs described in division (B) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code and certified under division (B)(12) or (D)(2)(i) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.

(3) "Category three career-technical education ADM" means the enrollment of students during the school year on a full-time equivalency basis in career-technical education programs described in division (C) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code and certified under division (B)(13) or (D)(2)(j) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.

(4) "Category four career-technical education ADM" means the enrollment of students during the school year on a full-time equivalency basis in career-technical education programs described in division (D) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code and certified under division (B)(14) or (D)(2)(k) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.

(5) "Category five career-technical education ADM" means the enrollment of students during the school year on a full-time equivalency basis in career-technical education programs described in division (E) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code and certified under division (B)(15) or (D)(2)(l) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.

(B)(1) "Category one limited English proficient ADM" means the full-time equivalent number of limited English proficient students described in division (A) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code and certified under division (B)(16) or (D)(2)(m) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.

(2) "Category two limited English proficient ADM" means the full-time equivalent number of limited English proficient students described in division (B) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code and certified under division (B)(17) or (D)(2)(n) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.

(3) "Category three limited English proficient ADM" means the full-time equivalent number of limited English proficient students described in division (C) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code and certified under division (B)(18) or (D)(2)(o) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.

(C)(1) "Category one special education ADM" means the full-time equivalent number of children with disabilities receiving special education services for the disability specified in division (A) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code and certified under division (B)(5) or (D)(2)(b) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.

(2) "Category two special education ADM" means the full-time equivalent number of children with disabilities receiving special education services for those disabilities specified in division (B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code and certified under division (B)(6) or (D)(2)(c) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.

(3) "Category three special education ADM" means the full-time equivalent number of students receiving special education services for those disabilities specified in division (C) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code, and certified under division (B)(7) or (D)(2)(d) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.

(4) "Category four special education ADM" means the full-time equivalent number of students receiving special education services for those disabilities specified in division (D) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code and certified under division (B)(8) or (D)(2)(e) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.

(5) "Category five special education ADM" means the full-time equivalent number of students receiving special education services for the disabilities specified in division (E) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code and certified under division (B)(9) or (D)(2)(f) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.

(6) "Category six special education ADM" means the full-time equivalent number of students receiving special education services for the disabilities specified in division (F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code and certified under division (B)(10) or (D)(2)(g) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.

(D) "County DD board" means a county board of developmental disabilities.

(E) "Economically disadvantaged index for a school district" means the square of the quotient of that district's percentage of students in its total ADM who are identified as economically disadvantaged as defined by the department of education, divided by the statewide percentage of students identified as economically disadvantaged.

(F)(1) "Formula ADM" means, for a city, local, or exempted village school district, the enrollment reported under division (A) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, as verified by the superintendent of public instruction and adjusted if so ordered under division (K) of that section, and as further adjusted by counting the department of education, as follows:

(a) Count only twenty per cent of the number of joint vocational school district students counted under division (A)(3) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code;

(b) Add twenty per cent of the number of students who are entitled to attend school in the district under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code and are enrolled in another school district under a career-technical education compact.

(2) "Formula ADM" means, for a joint vocational school district, the final number verified by the superintendent of public instruction, based on the enrollment reported and certified under division (D) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, as adjusted, if so ordered, under division (K) of that section.

(G) "Formula amount" means $5,745, for fiscal year 2014, and $5,800, for fiscal year 2015.

(H) "FTE basis" means a count of students based on full-time equivalency, in accordance with rules adopted by the department of education pursuant to section 3317.03 of the Revised Code. In adopting its rules under this division, the department shall provide for counting any student in category one, two, three, four, five, or six special education ADM or in category one, two, three, four, or five career technical education ADM in the same proportion the student is counted in formula ADM.

(I) "Internet- or computer-based community school" has the same meaning as in section 3314.02 of the Revised Code.

(J) "Medically fragile child" means a child to whom all of the following apply:

(1) The child requires the services of a doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine at least once a week due to the instability of the child's medical condition.

(2) The child requires the services of a registered nurse on a daily basis.

(3) The child is at risk of institutionalization in a hospital, skilled nursing facility, or intermediate care facility for individuals with intellectual disabilities.

(K)(1) A child may be identified as having an "other health impairment-major" if the child's condition meets the definition of "other health impaired" established in rules previously adopted by the state board of education and if either of the following apply:

(a) The child is identified as having a medical condition that is among those listed by the superintendent of public instruction as conditions where a substantial majority of cases fall within the definition of "medically fragile child."

(b) The child is determined by the superintendent of public instruction to be a medically fragile child. A school district superintendent may petition the superintendent of public instruction for a determination that a child is a medically fragile child.

(2) A child may be identified as having an "other health impairment-minor" if the child's condition meets the definition of "other health impaired" established in rules previously adopted by the state board of education but the child's condition does not meet either of the conditions specified in division (K)(1)(a) or (b) of this section.

(L) "Preschool child with a disability" means a child with a disability, as defined in section 3323.01 of the Revised Code, who is at least age three but is not of compulsory school age, as defined in section 3321.01 of the Revised Code, and who is not currently enrolled in kindergarten.

(M) "Preschool scholarship ADM" means the number of preschool children with disabilities certified under division (B)(3)(h) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.

(N) "Related services" includes:

(1) Child study, special education supervisors and coordinators, speech and hearing services, adaptive physical development services, occupational or physical therapy, teacher assistants for children with disabilities whose disabilities are described in division (B) of section 3317.013 or division (B)(3) of this section, behavioral intervention, interpreter services, work study, nursing services, and specialized integrative services as those terms are defined by the department;

(2) Speech and language services provided to any student with a disability, including any student whose primary or only disability is a speech and language disability;

(3) Any related service not specifically covered by other state funds but specified in federal law, including but not limited to, audiology and school psychological services;

(4) Any service included in units funded under former division (O)(1) of section 3317.024 of the Revised Code;

(5) Any other related service needed by children with disabilities in accordance with their individualized education programs.

(O) "School district," unless otherwise specified, means city, local, and exempted village school districts.

(P) "State education aid" has the same meaning as in section 5751.20 of the Revised Code.

(Q) "State share index" means the state share index calculated for a district under section 3317.017 of the Revised Code.

(R) "Taxes charged and payable" means the taxes charged and payable against real and public utility property after making the reduction required by section 319.301 of the Revised Code, plus the taxes levied against tangible personal property.

(S) "Total ADM" means, for a city, local, or exempted village school district, the enrollment reported under division (A) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, as verified by the superintendent of public instruction and adjusted if so ordered under division (K) of that section.

(T) "Total special education ADM" means the sum of categories one through six special education ADM.

(U) "Total taxable value" means the sum of the amounts certified for a city, local, exempted village, or joint vocational school district under divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 3317.021 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 3317.0217. Payment of the amount calculated for a school district under this section shall be made under division (A) of section 3317.022 of the Revised Code.

(A) The department of education shall annually compute targeted assistance funds to school districts, as follows:

(1) Calculate the local wealth per pupil of each school district, which equals the following sum:

(a) One-half times the quotient of (i) the district's three-year average valuation divided by (ii) its formula ADM; plus

(b) One-half times the quotient of (i) the average of the total federal adjusted gross income of the school district's residents for the three years most recently reported under section 3317.021 of the Revised Code divided by (ii) its formula ADM.

(2) Rank all school districts in order of local wealth per pupil, from the district with the lowest local wealth per pupil to the district with the highest local wealth per pupil.

(3) Compute the statewide wealth per pupil, which equals the following sum:

(a) One-half times the quotient of (i) the sum of the three-year average valuations for all school districts divided by (ii) the sum of formula ADM counts for all schools school districts; plus

(b) One-half times the quotient of (i) the sum of the three-year average total federal adjusted gross incomes for all school districts divided by (ii) the sum of formula ADM counts for all school districts.

(4) Compute each district's wealth index by dividing the statewide wealth per pupil by the district's local wealth per pupil.

(5) Compute the per pupil targeted assistance for each eligible school district in accordance with the following formula:

Where:

(a) An "eligible school district" means a school district with a local wealth per pupil less than that of the school district with the 490th lowest local wealth per pupil.

(b) "Threshold local wealth per pupil" means the local wealth per pupil of the school district with the 490th lowest local wealth per pupil.

(c) "Target millage" means 0.006.

If the result of the calculation for a school district under division (A)(5) of this section is less than zero, the district's targeted assistance shall be zero.

(6) Calculate the aggregate amount to be paid as targeted assistance funds to each school district under division (A) of section 3317.022 of the Revised Code by multiplying the per pupil targeted assistance computed under division (A)(5) of this section by the district's net formula ADM.

As used in this division, a district's "net formula ADM" means its formula ADM minus the number of community school students certified under division (B)(3)(d) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code X 0.75, the number of internet- and computer-based community school students certified under division (B)(3)(e) of that section, the number of science, technology, engineering, and mathematics school students certified under division (B)(3)(j) of that section X 0.75, and the number of scholarship students certified under divisions (B)(3)(f), (g), and (l) of that section.

(B) The department shall annually compute supplemental targeted assistance funds to school districts, as follows:

(1) Compute each district's agricultural percentage as the quotient of (a) the three-year average tax valuation of real property in the district that is classified as agricultural property divided by (b) the three-year average tax valuation of all of the real property in the district. For purposes of this computation, a district's "three-year average tax valuation" means the average of a district's tax valuation for fiscal years 2012, 2013, and 2014.

(2) Determine each district's agricultural targeted percentage as follows:

(a) If a district's agricultural percentage is greater than or equal to 0.10, then the district's agricultural targeted percentage shall be equal to 0.40.

(b) If a district's agricultural percentage is less than 0.10, then the district's agricultural targeted percentage shall be equal to 4 X the district's agricultural percentage.

(3) Calculate the aggregate amount to be paid as supplemental targeted assistance funds to each school district under division (A) of section 3317.022 of the Revised Code by multiplying the district's agricultural targeted percentage by the amount calculated for the district under division (A)(6) of this section.

Sec. 3317.162.  (A)(1) If the lead district of a career-technical planning district enters into an agreement with a private entity under division (C) of section 3313.90 of the Revised Code, the lead district may apply to the department of education for additional funds to assist with paying for the cost of the apprenticeship program provided by the private entity.

(2) A lead district shall be eligible to apply for these additional funds if its agreement with the private entity specifies both of the following:

(a) A process for students to receive at least one year of credit toward completion of the private entity's apprenticeship program;

(b) The amount that the district will pay the private entity for each student that participates in the private entity's apprenticeship program.

(B) Upon submission of an application for the funds and a copy of the contract with the provisions specified in division (A)(2) of this section, the lead district shall be eligible to receive, and the department shall pay to the lead district, an additional payment for each full-time equivalent student participating in the private entity's program. The payment shall be equal to the lesser of the following:

(1) The amount specified in the contract;

(2) The appropriate career-technical education amount specified in section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 3701.132.  The department of health is hereby designated as the state agency to administer As used in this section, "WIC program" means the "special supplemental nutrition program for women, infants, and children" established under the "Child Nutrition Act of 1966," 80 Stat. 885, 42 U.S.C. 1786, as amended. The

The department of health is hereby designated as the state agency to administer the WIC program. The director of health may adopt rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as necessary for administering the WIC program. The rules may include civil money penalties for violations of the rules.

In determining eligibility for services provided under the WIC program, the department may use the application form established under section 5111.013 5163.40 of the Revised Code for the healthy start program. The department may require applicants to furnish their social security numbers.

If the department determines that a vendor has committed an act with respect to the WIC program that federal statutes or regulations or state statutes or rules prohibit, the department shall take action against the vendor in the manner required by 7 C.F.R. part 246, including imposition of a civil money penalty in accordance with 7 C.F.R. 246.12, or rules adopted under this section.

Sec. 3701.34. (A) The Ohio public health advisory board shall review and make recommendations to the director of health on all of the following:

(1) Developing and adopting proposed rules under Chapters 3701 and 3717 of the Administrative Code;

(2) Prescribing proposed fees for services provided by the office of vital statistics and the bureau of environmental health;

(3) Any proposed policy changes that pertain to entities serving or seeking to serve as vendors under the WIC program, as defined in section 3701.132 of the Revised Code, that are not addressed pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section.

(4) Issues to improve public health and increase awareness of public health issues at the state level, local level, or both;

(4)(5) Any other public health issues that the director requests the board to consider.

(B) In making recommendations to the director under For purposes of division (A)(1) of this section, all of the following apply:

(1) Prior to filing a proposed rule with the joint committee on agency rule review, the department of health shall provide each board member with a copy of the proposed rule, copies of public comments received by the department during the public comment period, and written evidence of stakeholder involvement.

(2) Prior to board meetings, copies of proposed rules shall be provided to members. On request of a member, the department shall ensure that appropriate department employees attend board meetings to answer questions concerning proposed rules.

(3)(a) Not later than sixty days after receiving a copy of a proposed rule, the board shall recommend approval or disapproval of the rule and submit its recommendation by board action to the director. In making its recommendation, the board may consider public comments provided to the department or the board.

(b) If the board fails to make a recommendation within sixty days of receiving a copy of the proposed rule, the director may file the proposed rule.

(4) Except as provided in division (B)(3)(b) of this section, the director shall consider the board's recommendation before filing a proposed rule. On request of the board, the director shall meet with the board to discuss the board's recommendation.

(5) If the director disagrees with the board's recommendation, the director shall inform the board in writing of the director's decision and the reason for the decision prior to the next quarterly meeting. The director or the director's designee may meet with the board at the next quarterly meeting to answer questions regarding why the director disagreed with the board's recommendation.

(C)(6) To the extent the board believes that a proposed rule does not comply with requirements established by the joint committee on agency rule review or the common sense initiative office, nothing in this section prohibits the board, in carrying out its duties under division (A)(1) of this section, from contacting the joint committee on agency rule review or the common sense initiative office.

(D) In making recommendations under (C) For purposes of division (A)(2) of this section for prescribing proposed fees for services provided by the bureau of environmental health, the board and the department shall develop a cost methodology, subject to approval by the director, regarding proposed fees for services provided by the department's bureau of environmental health.

(D) For purposes of division (A)(3) of this section, a proposed WIC program policy change shall be treated as if it were a proposed rule subject to division (A)(1) of this section and the board and other entities involved in reviewing and making recommendations regarding the change may follow all or part of the procedures described in division (B) of this section.

(E) This section does not apply to the following:

(1) A proposed rule that is to be refiled with the joint committee on agency rule review solely because of technical or other nonsubstantive revisions;

(2) The emergency adoption, amendment, or rescission of a rule under division (F) of section 119.03 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 3701.74.  (A) As used in this section and section 3701.741 of the Revised Code:

(1) "Ambulatory care facility" means a facility that provides medical, diagnostic, or surgical treatment to patients who do not require hospitalization, including a dialysis center, ambulatory surgical facility, cardiac catheterization facility, diagnostic imaging center, extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy center, home health agency, inpatient hospice, birthing center, radiation therapy center, emergency facility, and an urgent care center. "Ambulatory care facility" does not include the private office of a physician or dentist, whether the office is for an individual or group practice.

(2) "Chiropractor" means an individual licensed under Chapter 4734. of the Revised Code to practice chiropractic.

(3) "Emergency facility" means a hospital emergency department or any other facility that provides emergency medical services.

(4) "Health care practitioner" means all of the following:

(a) A dentist or dental hygienist licensed under Chapter 4715. of the Revised Code;

(b) A registered or licensed practical nurse licensed under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code;

(c) An optometrist licensed under Chapter 4725. of the Revised Code;

(d) A dispensing optician, spectacle dispensing optician, contact lens dispensing optician, or spectacle-contact lens dispensing optician licensed under Chapter 4725. of the Revised Code;

(e) A pharmacist licensed under Chapter 4729. of the Revised Code;

(f) A physician;

(g) A physician assistant authorized under Chapter 4730. of the Revised Code to practice as a physician assistant;

(h) A practitioner of a limited branch of medicine issued a certificate under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code;

(i) A psychologist licensed under Chapter 4732. of the Revised Code;

(j) A chiropractor;

(k) A hearing aid dealer or fitter licensed under Chapter 4747. of the Revised Code;

(l) A speech-language pathologist or audiologist licensed under Chapter 4753. of the Revised Code;

(m) An occupational therapist or occupational therapy assistant licensed under Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code;

(n) A physical therapist or physical therapy assistant licensed under Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code;

(o) A professional clinical counselor, professional counselor, social worker, or independent social worker licensed, or a social work assistant registered, under Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code;

(p) A dietitian licensed under Chapter 4759. of the Revised Code;

(q) A respiratory care professional licensed under Chapter 4761. of the Revised Code;

(r) An emergency medical technician-basic, emergency medical technician-intermediate, or emergency medical technician-paramedic certified under Chapter 4765. of the Revised Code.

(5) "Health care provider" means a hospital, ambulatory care facility, long-term care facility, pharmacy, emergency facility, or health care practitioner.

(6) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of the Revised Code.

(7) "Long-term care facility" means a nursing home, residential care facility, or home for the aging, as those terms are defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code; a residential facility licensed under section 5119.34 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen unrelated adults; a nursing facility, as defined in section 5165.01 of the Revised Code; a skilled nursing facility, as defined in section 5165.01 of the Revised Code; and an intermediate care facility for individuals with intellectual disabilities, as defined in section 5124.01 of the Revised Code.

(8) "Medical record" means data in any form that pertains to a patient's medical history, diagnosis, prognosis, or medical condition and that is generated and maintained by a health care provider in the process of the patient's health care treatment.

(9) "Medical records company" means a person who stores, locates, or copies medical records for a health care provider, or is compensated for doing so by a health care provider, and charges a fee for providing medical records to a patient or patient's representative.

(10) "Patient" means either of the following:

(a) An individual who received health care treatment from a health care provider;

(b) A guardian, as defined in section 1337.11 of the Revised Code, of an individual described in division (A)(10)(a) of this section.

(11) "Patient's personal representative" means a minor patient's parent or other person acting in loco parentis, a court-appointed guardian, or a person with durable power of attorney for health care for a patient, the executor or administrator of the patient's estate, or the person responsible for the patient's estate if it is not to be probated. "Patient's personal representative" does not include an insurer authorized under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code to do the business of sickness and accident insurance in this state, a health insuring corporation holding a certificate of authority under Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code, or any other person not named in this division.

(12) "Pharmacy" has the same meaning as in section 4729.01 of the Revised Code.

(13) "Physician" means a person authorized under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery, or podiatric medicine and surgery.

(14) "Authorized person" means a person to whom a patient has given written authorization to act on the patient's behalf regarding the patient's medical record.

(B) A patient, a patient's personal representative, or an authorized person who wishes to examine or obtain a copy of part or all of a medical record shall submit to the health care provider a written request signed by the patient, personal representative, or authorized person dated not more than one year before the date on which it is submitted. The request shall indicate whether the copy is to be sent to the requestor, physician or chiropractor, or held for the requestor at the office of the health care provider. Within a reasonable time after receiving a request that meets the requirements of this division and includes sufficient information to identify the record requested, a health care provider that has the patient's medical records shall permit the patient to examine the record during regular business hours without charge or, on request, shall provide a copy of the record in accordance with section 3701.741 of the Revised Code, except that if a physician or chiropractor who has treated the patient determines for clearly stated treatment reasons that disclosure of the requested record is likely to have an adverse effect on the patient, the health care provider shall provide the record to a physician or chiropractor designated by the patient. The health care provider shall take reasonable steps to establish the identity of the person making the request to examine or obtain a copy of the patient's record.

(C) If a health care provider fails to furnish a medical record as required by division (B) of this section, the patient, personal representative, or authorized person who requested the record may bring a civil action to enforce the patient's right of access to the record.

(D)(1) This section does not apply to medical records whose release is covered by section 173.20 or 3721.13 of the Revised Code, by Chapter 1347., 5119., or 5122. of the Revised Code, by 42 C.F.R. part 2, "Confidentiality of Alcohol and Drug Abuse Patient Records," or by 42 C.F.R. 483.10.

(2) Nothing in this section is intended to supersede the confidentiality provisions of sections 2305.24, 2305.25, 2305.251, and 2305.252 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 3701.83.  (A) There is hereby created in the state treasury the general operations fund. Moneys in the fund shall be used for the purposes specified in sections 3701.04, 3701.344, 3702.20, 3710.15, 3711.16, 3717.45, 3718.06, 3721.02, 3721.022, 3729.07, 3733.43, 3748.04, 3748.05, 3748.07, 3748.12, 3748.13, 3749.04, 3749.07, 4747.04, and 4769.09 of the Revised Code.

(B) The alcohol testing program fund is hereby created in the state treasury. The director of health shall use the fund to administer and enforce the alcohol testing and permit program authorized by section 3701.143 of the Revised Code.

The fund shall receive transfers from the liquor control fund created under section 4301.12 of the Revised Code. All investment earnings of the alcohol testing program fund shall be credited to the fund.

Sec. 3701.881.  (A) As used in this section:

(1) "Applicant" means a person who is under final consideration for employment with hiring by a home health agency in a full-time, part-time, or temporary position that involves providing direct care to an individual or is referred to a home health agency by an employment service for such a position.

(2) "Community-based long-term care provider" means a provider as defined in section 173.39 of the Revised Code.

(3) "Community-based long-term care subcontractor" means a subcontractor as defined in section 173.38 of the Revised Code.

(4) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in section 109.572 of the Revised Code.

(5) "Direct care" means any of the following:

(a) Any service identified in divisions (A)(8)(a) to (f) of this section that is provided in a patient's place of residence used as the patient's home;

(b) Any activity that requires the person performing the activity to be routinely alone with a patient or to routinely have access to a patient's personal property or financial documents regarding a patient;

(c) For each home health agency individually, any other routine service or activity that the chief administrator of the home health agency designates as direct care.

(6) "Disqualifying offense" means any of the offenses listed or described in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (e) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code.

(7) "Employee" means a person employed by a home health agency in a full-time, part-time, or temporary position that involves providing direct care to an individual and a person who works in such a position due to being referred to a home health agency by an employment service.

(8) "Home health agency" means a person or government entity, other than a nursing home, residential care facility, hospice care program, or pediatric respite care program, that has the primary function of providing any of the following services to a patient at a place of residence used as the patient's home:

(a) Skilled nursing care;

(b) Physical therapy;

(c) Speech-language pathology;

(d) Occupational therapy;

(e) Medical social services;

(f) Home health aide services.

(9) "Home health aide services" means any of the following services provided by an employee of a home health agency:

(a) Hands-on bathing or assistance with a tub bath or shower;

(b) Assistance with dressing, ambulation, and toileting;

(c) Catheter care but not insertion;

(d) Meal preparation and feeding.

(10) "Hospice care program" and "pediatric respite care program" have the same meanings as in section 3712.01 of the Revised Code.

(11) "Medical social services" means services provided by a social worker under the direction of a patient's attending physician.

(12) "Minor drug possession offense" has the same meaning as in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.

(13) "Nursing home," "residential care facility," and "skilled nursing care" have the same meanings as in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.

(14) "Occupational therapy" has the same meaning as in section 4755.04 of the Revised Code.

(15) "Physical therapy" has the same meaning as in section 4755.40 of the Revised Code.

(16) "Social worker" means a person licensed under Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code to practice as a social worker or independent social worker.

(17) "Speech-language pathology" has the same meaning as in section 4753.01 of the Revised Code.

(18) "Waiver agency" has the same meaning as in section 5164.342 of the Revised Code.

(B) No home health agency shall employ hire an applicant or continue to employ retain an employee in a position that involves providing direct care to an individual if any of the following apply:

(1) A review of the databases listed in division (D) of this section reveals any of the following:

(a) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more of the databases listed in divisions (D)(1) to (5) of this section;

(b) That there is in the state nurse aide registry established under section 3721.32 of the Revised Code a statement detailing findings by the director of health that the applicant or employee neglected or abused a long-term care facility or residential care facility resident or misappropriated property of such a resident;

(c) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more of the databases, if any, specified in rules adopted under this section and the rules prohibit the home health agency from employing hiring an applicant or continuing to employ retaining an employee included in such a database in a position that involves providing direct care to an individual.

(2) After the applicant or employee is provided, pursuant to division (E)(2)(a) of this section, a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and the standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section, the applicant or employee fails to complete the form or provide the applicant's or employee's fingerprint impressions on the standard impression sheet.

(3) Except as provided in rules adopted under this section, the applicant or employee is found by a criminal records check required by this section to have been convicted of, or pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense.

(C) Except as provided by division (F) of this section, the chief administrator of a home health agency shall inform each applicant of both of the following at the time of the applicant's initial application for employment hiring into a position that involves providing direct care to an individual or referral to the home health agency by an employment service for a position that involves providing direct care to an individual:

(1) That a review of the databases listed in division (D) of this section will be conducted to determine whether the home health agency is prohibited by division (B)(1) of this section from employing hiring the applicant in into the position;

(2) That, unless the database review reveals that the applicant may not be employed in hired into the position, a criminal records check of the applicant will be conducted and the applicant is required to provide a set of the applicant's fingerprint impressions as part of the criminal records check.

(D) As a condition of employing for hiring any applicant in into a position that involves providing direct care to an individual, the chief administrator of a home health agency shall conduct a database review of the applicant in accordance with rules adopted under this section. If rules adopted under this section so require, the chief administrator of a home health agency shall conduct a database review of an employee in accordance with the rules as a condition of continuing to employ retaining the employee in a position that involves providing direct care to an individual. However, the chief administrator is not required to conduct a database review of an applicant or employee if division (F) of this section applies. A database review shall determine whether the applicant or employee is included in any of the following:

(1) The excluded parties list system that is maintained by the United States general services administration pursuant to subpart 9.4 of the federal acquisition regulation and available at the federal web site known as the system for award management;

(2) The list of excluded individuals and entities maintained by the office of inspector general in the United States department of health and human services pursuant to the "Social Security Act," sections 1128 and 1156, 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7 and 1320c-5;

(3) The registry of MR/DD employees established under section 5123.52 of the Revised Code;

(4) The internet-based sex offender and child-victim offender database established under division (A)(11) of section 2950.13 of the Revised Code;

(5) The internet-based database of inmates established under section 5120.66 of the Revised Code;

(6) The state nurse aide registry established under section 3721.32 of the Revised Code;

(7) Any other database, if any, specified in rules adopted under this section.

(E)(1) As a condition of employing for hiring any applicant in into a position that involves providing direct care to an individual, the chief administrator of a home health agency shall request the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation to conduct a criminal records check of the applicant. If rules adopted under this section so require, the chief administrator of a home health agency shall request the superintendent to conduct a criminal records check of an employee at times specified in the rules as a condition of continuing to employ for retaining the employee in a position that involves providing direct care to an individual. However, the chief administrator is not required to request the criminal records check of the applicant or the employee if division (F) of this section applies or the home health agency is prohibited by division (B)(1) of this section from employing hiring the applicant or continuing to employ retaining the employee in a position that involves providing direct care to an individual. If an applicant or employee for whom a criminal records check request is required by this section does not present proof of having been a resident of this state for the five-year period immediately prior to the date upon which the criminal records check is requested or does not provide evidence that within that five-year period the superintendent has requested information about the applicant from the federal bureau of investigation in a criminal records check, the chief administrator shall request that the superintendent obtain information from the federal bureau of investigation as a part of the criminal records check. Even if an applicant or employee for whom a criminal records check request is required by this section presents proof that the applicant or employee has been a resident of this state for that five-year period, the chief administrator may request that the superintendent include information from the federal bureau of investigation in the criminal records check.

(2) The chief administrator shall do all of the following:

(a) Provide to each applicant and employee for whom a criminal records check request is required by this section a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section;

(b) Obtain the completed form and standard impression sheet from each applicant and employee;

(c) Forward the completed form and standard impression sheet to the superintendent at the time the chief administrator requests the criminal records check.

(3) A home health agency shall pay to the bureau of criminal identification and investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each criminal records check the agency requests under this section. A home health agency may charge an applicant a fee not exceeding the amount the agency pays to the bureau under this section if both of the following apply:

(a) The home health agency notifies the applicant at the time of initial application for employment hiring into the position in question of the amount of the fee and that, unless the fee is paid, the applicant will not be considered for employment the hiring.

(b) The medicaid program does not reimburse the home health agency for the fee it pays to the bureau under this section.

(F) Divisions (C) to (E) of this section do not apply with regard to an applicant or employee if the applicant or employee is referred to a home health agency by an employment service that supplies full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for positions that involve providing direct care to an individual and both of the following apply:

(1) The chief administrator of the home health agency receives from the employment service confirmation that a review of the databases listed in division (D) of this section was conducted with regard to the applicant or employee.

(2) The chief administrator of the home health agency receives from the employment service, applicant, or employee a report of the results of a criminal records check of the applicant or employee that has been conducted by the superintendent within the one-year period immediately preceding the following:

(a) In the case of an applicant, the date of the applicant's referral by the employment service to the home health agency;

(b) In the case of an employee, the date by which the home health agency would otherwise have to request a criminal records check of the employee under division (E) of this section.

(G)(1) A home health agency may employ conditionally hire an applicant for whom a criminal records check request is required by this section before obtaining the results of the criminal records check if the agency is not prohibited by division (B) of this section from employing hiring the applicant in a position that involves providing direct care to an individual and either of the following applies:

(a) The chief administrator of the home health agency requests the criminal records check in accordance with division (E) of this section not later than five business days after the home health agency conditionally hires the applicant begins conditional employment.

(b) The applicant is referred to the home health agency by an employment service, the employment service or the applicant provides the chief administrator of the agency a letter that is on the letterhead of the employment service, the letter is dated and signed by a supervisor or another designated official of the employment service, and the letter states all of the following:

(i) That the employment service has requested the superintendent to conduct a criminal records check regarding the applicant;

(ii) That the requested criminal records check is to include a determination of whether the applicant has been convicted of, or pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense;

(iii) That the employment service has not received the results of the criminal records check as of the date set forth on the letter;

(iv) That the employment service promptly will send a copy of the results of the criminal records check to the chief administrator of the home health agency when the employment service receives the results.

(2) If a home health agency employs an applicant conditionally hires an applicant pursuant to division (G)(1)(b) of this section, the employment service, on its receipt of the results of the criminal records check, promptly shall send a copy of the results to the chief administrator of the agency.

(3) A home health agency that employs conditionally hires an applicant conditionally pursuant to division (G)(1)(a) or (b) of this section shall terminate the applicant's employment remove the conditionally hired applicant from any job duties that require a criminal records check if the results of the criminal records check, other than the results of any request for information from the federal bureau of investigation, are not obtained within the period ending sixty days after the date the request for the criminal records check is made. Regardless

Regardless of when the results of the criminal records check are obtained, if the results indicate that the conditionally hired applicant has been convicted of, or pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense, the home health agency shall terminate the conditionally hired applicant's employment unless circumstances specified in rules adopted under this section that permit the agency to employ hire the applicant exist and the agency chooses to employ hire the applicant. Termination of employment under this division shall be considered just cause for discharge for purposes of division (D)(2) of section 4141.29 of the Revised Code if the applicant makes any attempt to deceive the home health agency about the applicant's criminal record.

(H) The report of any criminal records check conducted by the bureau of criminal identification and investigation in accordance with section 109.572 of the Revised Code and pursuant to a request made under this section is not a public record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not be made available to any person other than the following:

(1) The applicant or employee who is the subject of the criminal records check or the applicant's or employee's representative;

(2) The home health agency requesting the criminal records check record or its representative;

(3) The administrator of any other facility, agency, or program that provides direct care to individuals that is owned or operated by the same entity that owns or operates the home health agency that requested the criminal records check;

(4) The employment service that requested the criminal records check;

(5) The director of health and the staff of the department of health who monitor a home health agency's compliance with this section;

(6) The director of aging or the director's designee if either of the following apply:

(a) In the case of a criminal records check requested by a home health agency, the home health agency also is a community-based long-term care provider or community-based long-term care subcontractor;

(b) In the case of a criminal records check requested by an employment service, the employment service makes the request for an applicant or employee the employment service refers to a home health agency that also is a community-based long-term care provider or community-based long-term care subcontractor.

(7) The medicaid director and the staff of the department of medicaid who are involved in the administration of the medicaid program if either of the following apply:

(a) In the case of a criminal records check requested by a home health agency, the home health agency also is a waiver agency;

(b) In the case of a criminal records check requested by an employment service, the employment service makes the request for an applicant or employee the employment service refers to a home health agency that also is a waiver agency.

(8) Any court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual involved in a case dealing with any of the following:

(a) A denial of employment hiring of the applicant or of retention of the employee;

(b) Employment or unemployment benefits of the applicant or employee;

(c) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid program.

(I) In a tort or other civil action for damages that is brought as the result of an injury, death, or loss to person or property caused by an applicant who a home health agency hires, or an employee who a home health agency employs, in a position that involves providing direct care to an individual, all of the following shall apply:

(1) If the home health agency employed hired the applicant or retained the employee in good faith and reasonable reliance on the report of a criminal records check requested under this section, the agency shall not be found negligent solely because of its reliance on the report, even if the information in the report is determined later to have been incomplete or inaccurate.

(2) If the home health agency employed conditionally hired the applicant in good faith on a conditional basis pursuant to division (G) of this section, the agency shall not be found negligent solely because it employed conditionally hired the applicant prior to receiving the report of a criminal records check requested under this section.

(3) If the home health agency in good faith employed hired the applicant or retained the employee according to the personal character standards established in rules adopted under this section, the agency shall not be found negligent solely because the applicant or employee had been convicted of, or pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense.

(J) The director of health shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section.

(1) The rules may do the following:

(a) Require employees to undergo database reviews and criminal records checks under this section;

(b) If the rules require employees to undergo database reviews and criminal records checks under this section, exempt one or more classes of employees from the requirements;

(c) For the purpose of division (D)(7) of this section, specify other databases that are to be checked as part of a database review conducted under this section.

(2) The rules shall specify all of the following:

(a) The procedures for conducting database reviews under this section;

(b) If the rules require employees to undergo database reviews and criminal records checks under this section, the times at which the database reviews and criminal records checks are to be conducted;

(c) If the rules specify other databases to be checked as part of the database reviews, the circumstances under which a home health agency is prohibited from employing hiring an applicant or continuing to employ retaining an employee who is found by a database review to be included in one or more of those databases;

(d) Circumstances under which a home health agency may employ hire an applicant or retain an employee who is found by a criminal records check required by this section to have been convicted of, or pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense but meets personal character standards.

Sec. 3702.511. (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this section, the following activities are reviewable under sections 3702.51 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code:

(1) Establishment, development, or construction of a new long-term care facility;

(2) Replacement of an existing long-term care facility;

(3) Renovation of or addition to a long-term care facility that involves a capital expenditure of two million dollars or more, not including expenditures for equipment, staffing, or operational costs;

(4) Either of the following changes in long-term care bed capacity:

(a) An increase in long-term care bed capacity;

(b)(5) A relocation of long-term care beds from one physical facility or site to another, excluding relocation of beds within a long-term care facility or among buildings of a long-term care facility at the same site.

(5) Any change in the bed capacity or site, or any other failure to conduct a reviewable activity in substantial accordance with the approved application for which a certificate of need concerning long-term care beds was granted, if the change is made within five years after the implementation of the reviewable activity for which the certificate was granted;

(6) Expenditure of more than one hundred ten per cent of the maximum expenditure specified in a certificate of need concerning long-term care beds.

(B) The following activities are not subject to review under sections 3702.51 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code:

(1) Acquisition of computer hardware or software;

(2) Acquisition of a telephone system;

(3) Construction or acquisition of parking facilities;

(4) Correction of cited deficiencies that constitute an imminent threat to public health or safety and are in violation of federal, state, or local fire, building, or safety statutes, ordinances, rules, or regulations;

(5) Acquisition of an existing long-term care facility that does not involve a change in the number of the beds;

(6) Mergers, consolidations, or other corporate reorganizations of long-term care facilities that do not involve a change in the number of beds;

(7) Construction, repair, or renovation of bathroom facilities;

(8) Construction of laundry facilities, waste disposal facilities, dietary department projects, heating and air conditioning projects, administrative offices, and portions of medical office buildings used exclusively for physician services;

(9) Removal of asbestos from a health care facility.

Only that portion of a project that is described in this division is not reviewable.

Sec. 3702.52.  The director of health shall administer a state certificate of need program in accordance with sections 3702.51 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code and rules adopted under those sections.

(A) The director shall issue rulings on whether a particular proposed project is a reviewable activity. The director shall issue a ruling not later than forty-five days after receiving a request for a ruling accompanied by the information needed to make the ruling. If the director does not issue a ruling in that time, the project shall be considered to have been ruled not a reviewable activity.

(B)(1) Each application for a certificate of need shall be submitted to the director on forms and in the manner prescribed by the director. Each application shall include a plan for obligating the capital expenditures or implementing the proposed project on a timely basis in accordance with section 3702.524 of the Revised Code. Each application shall also include all other information required by rules adopted under division (B) of section 3702.57 of the Revised Code.

(2) Each application shall be accompanied by the application fee established in rules adopted under division (G) of section 3702.57 of the Revised Code. Application fees received by the director under this division shall be deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the certificate of need fund, which is hereby created. The director shall use the fund only to pay the costs of administering sections 3702.11 to 3702.20, 3702.30, and 3702.51 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code and rules adopted under those sections. An application fee is nonrefundable unless the director determines that the application cannot be accepted.

(3) The director shall review applications for certificates of need. As part of a review, the director shall determine whether an application is complete. The director shall not consider an application to be complete unless the application meets all criteria for a complete application specified in rules adopted under section 3702.57 of the Revised Code. The director shall mail to the applicant a written notice that the application is complete, or a written request for additional information, not later than thirty days after receiving an application or a response to an earlier request for information. Except as provided in section 3702.522 of the Revised Code, the director shall not make more than two requests for additional information. The director's determination that an application is not complete is final and not subject to appeal.

(4) Except as necessary to comply with a subpoena issued under division (F) of this section, after a notice of completeness has been received, no person shall make revisions to information that was submitted to the director before the director mailed the notice of completeness or knowingly discuss in person or by telephone the merits of the application with the director. A person may supplement an application after a notice of completeness has been received by submitting clarifying information to the director.

(C) All of the following apply to the process of granting or denying a certificate of need:

(1) If the project proposed in a certificate of need application meets all of the applicable certificate of need criteria for approval under sections 3702.51 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code and the rules adopted under those sections, the director shall grant a certificate of need for all or part of the project that is the subject of the application by the applicable deadline specified in division (C)(4) of this section or any extension of it under division (C)(5) of this section.

(2) The director's grant of a certificate of need does not affect, and sets no precedent for, the director's decision to grant or deny other applications for similar reviewable activities.

(3) Any affected person may submit written comments regarding an application. The director shall consider all written comments received by the thirtieth forty-fifth day after mailing the notice of completeness or, in the case of applications under comparative review, by the thirtieth day after the application is submitted to the director mails the last notice of completeness.

(4) Except as provided in division (C)(5) of this section, the director shall grant or deny certificate of need applications not later than sixty days after mailing the notice of completeness.

(5) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(6) of this section, the director or the applicant may extend the deadline prescribed in division (C)(4) of this section once, for no longer than thirty days, by written notice before the end of the deadline prescribed by division (C)(4) of this section. An extension by the director under division (C)(5) of this section shall apply to all applications that are in comparative review.

(6) No applicant in a comparative review may extend the deadline specified in division (C)(4) of this section.

(7) If the director does not grant or deny the certificate by the applicable deadline specified in division (C)(4) of this section or any extension of it under division (C)(5) of this section, the certificate shall be considered to have been granted.

(8) In granting a certificate of need, the director shall specify as the maximum capital expenditure the certificate holder may obligate under the certificate a figure equal to one hundred ten per cent of the approved project cost.

(9) In granting a certificate of need, the director may grant the certificate with conditions that must be met by the holder of the certificate.

(D) When a certificate of need is granted for a project under which beds are to be relocated, upon completion of the project for which the certificate of need was granted a number of beds equal to the number of beds relocated shall cease to be operated in the long-term care facility from which they are relocated, except that the beds may continue to be operated for not more than fifteen days to allow relocation of residents to the facility to which the beds have been relocated. Notwithstanding section 3721.03 of the Revised Code, if the relocated beds are in a home licensed under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, the facility's license is automatically reduced by the number of beds relocated effective fifteen days after the beds are relocated. If the beds are in a facility that is certified as a skilled nursing facility or nursing facility under Title XVIII or XIX of the "Social Security Act," the certification for the beds shall be surrendered. If the beds are registered under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as skilled nursing beds or long-term care beds, the director shall remove the beds from registration not later than fifteen days after the beds are relocated.

(E) The director shall monitor the activities of persons granted certificates of need during During the period beginning with the granting of the a certificate of need and ending five years after implementation of the reviewable activity for which the certificate was granted, the director shall monitor the activities of the person granted the certificate to determine whether the reviewable activity is conducted in substantial accordance with the certificate. No reviewable activity shall be determined to be not in substantial accordance with the certificate of need due to a decrease in bed capacity.

(F) When reviewing applications for certificates of need, considering appeals under section 3702.60 of the Revised Code, or monitoring activities of persons granted certificates of need, the director may issue and enforce, in the manner provided in section 119.09 of the Revised Code, subpoenas and subpoenas duces tecum to compel a person to testify and produce documents relevant to review of the application, consideration of the appeal, or monitoring of the activities. In addition, the director or the director's designee may visit the sites where the activities are or will be conducted.

(G) The director may withdraw certificates of need.

(H) All long-term care facilities shall submit to the director, upon request, any information prescribed by rules adopted under division (H) of section 3702.57 of the Revised Code that is necessary to conduct reviews of certificate of need applications and to develop criteria for reviews.

(I) Any decision to grant or deny a certificate of need shall consider the special needs and circumstances resulting from moral and ethical values and the free exercise of religious rights of long-term care facilities administered by religious organizations, and the special needs and circumstances of inner city and rural communities.

Sec. 3702.526. (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this section, the director of health shall accept an application for a replacement certificate of need for an activity described in division (A)(5) of section 3702.511 of the Revised Code to replace an approved certificate of need for that activity if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The applicant requests the replacement certificate of need so that the reviewable activity for which the approved certificate of need was granted can be implemented in a manner that is not in substantial accordance with the approved certificate of need.

(2) The applicant is the same as the applicant for the approved certificate of need or an affiliated or related person as described in division (B) of section 3702.523 of the Revised Code.

(2)(3) The source of any long-term care beds to be relocated is the same as in the approved certificate of need.

(3)(4) The application for the approved certificate of need was not subject to comparative review under section 3702.593 of the Revised Code.

(B) The director shall not accept an application for a replacement certificate that proposes to increase the number of long-term care beds to be relocated specified in the application for the approved certificate of need.

(C) For the purpose of determining whether long-term care beds are from an existing long-term care facility, the director shall consider the date of filing of the application for a replacement certificate to be the same as the date of filing of the original application for the approved certificate of need.

(D) Any long-term care beds that were approved proposed to be relocated in the approved certificate of need remain approved eligible to be recategorized as a different category of long-term care beds in the application for a replacement certificate.

(E) The applicant shall submit with the application for a replacement certificate a nonrefundable fee equal to the application fee for the approved certificate of need.

(F) The director shall review, approve, or deny the application for the replacement certificate in the same manner as the application for the approved certificate of need.

(G) Upon approval of the application for a replacement certificate, the original certificate of need is automatically voided.

Sec. 3702.71.  As used in sections 3702.71 to 3702.81 of the Revised Code:

(A) "Full-time practice" means working a minimum of forty hours per week for a minimum of forty-five weeks each service year.

(B) "Part-time practice" means working a minimum of twenty and a maximum of thirty-nine hours per week for a minimum of forty-five weeks per service year.

(C) "Primary care physician" means an individual who is authorized under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery and is board certified or board eligible in a primary care specialty.

(B)(D) "Primary care service" means professional comprehensive personal health services, which may include health education and disease prevention, treatment of uncomplicated health problems, diagnosis of chronic health problems, overall management of health care services for an individual or a family, and the services of a psychiatrist. "Primary care service" also includes providing the initial contact for health care services and, making referrals for secondary and tertiary care and for continuity of health care services, and teaching activities to the extent specified in a contract entered into pursuant to section 3702.74 of the Revised Code.

(C)(E) "Primary care specialty" means general internal medicine, pediatrics, adolescent medicine, obstetrics and gynecology, psychiatry, child and adolescent psychiatry, geriatric psychiatry, combined internal medicine and pediatrics, geriatrics, or family practice.

Sec. 3702.74.  (A) A primary care physician who has signed a letter of intent under section 3702.73 of the Revised Code and the director of health may enter into a contract for the physician's participation in the physician loan repayment program. The physician's employer or other funding source may also be a party to the contract.

(B) The contract shall include all of the following obligations:

(1) The primary care physician agrees to provide primary care services in the health resource shortage area identified in the letter of intent for at least two years the number of hours and duration specified in the contract;

(2) When providing primary care services in the health resource shortage area, the primary care physician agrees to do all of the following:

(a) Provide primary care services for a minimum of forty hours per week, of which at least twenty-one hours will be spent providing patient care in an outpatient or ambulatory setting approved by the department of health;

(b) Provide primary care services without regard to a patient's ability to pay;

(c) Meet the requirements for a medicaid provider agreement and enter into the agreement with the department of medicaid to provide primary care services to medicaid recipients.

(3) The department of health agrees, as provided in section 3702.75 of the Revised Code, to repay, so long as the primary care physician performs the service obligation agreed to under division (B)(1) of this section, all or part of the principal and interest of a government or other educational loan taken by the primary care physician for expenses described in section 3702.75 of the Revised Code;

(4) The primary care physician agrees to pay the department of health an amount established by rules adopted under section 3702.79 of the Revised Code if the physician fails to complete the service obligation agreed to under division (B)(1) of this section.

(C) The contract may include any other terms agreed upon by the parties shall include the following terms as agreed upon by the parties:

(1) The primary care physician's required length of service in the health resource shortage area, which must be at least two years;

(2) The number of weekly hours the primary care physician will be engaged in full-time practice or part-time practice in the health resource shortage area;

(3) The maximum amount that the department will repay on behalf of the primary care physician;

(4) The extent to which the primary care physician's teaching activities in the health resource shortage area will be counted toward the physician's full-time practice or part-time practice hours under the contract.

Sec. 3702.75.  There is hereby created the physician loan repayment program. Under the program, the department of health, by means of a contract provision under division (B)(3) of section 3702.74 of the Revised Code, may agree to repay all or part of the principal and interest of a government or other educational loan taken by a primary care physician for the following expenses, so long as the expenses were incurred while the physician was enrolled in, for up to a maximum of four years, a medical school or osteopathic medical school in the United States that was, during the time enrolled, accredited by the liaison committee on medical education or the American osteopathic association, or a medical school or osteopathic medical school located outside the United States that was, during the time enrolled, acknowledged by the world health organization and verified by a member state of that organization as operating within the state's jurisdiction:

(A) Tuition;

(B) Other educational expenses, such as fees, books, and laboratory expenses, for specific purposes and in amounts determined to be reasonable by the director of health;

(C) Room and board, in an amount determined reasonable by the director of health.

In the first and second years, no repayment shall exceed twenty-five thousand dollars in each year. In the third and fourth years, no repayment shall exceed thirty-five thousand dollars in each year. If, however, a repayment results in an increase in the primary care physician's federal, state, or local income tax liability, at the physician's request, the department may reimburse the physician for the increased tax liability, regardless of the amount of the repayment made to the physician in that year.

Not later than the thirty-first day of January each year, the department shall mail to each physician to whom or on whose behalf repayment is made under this section a statement showing the amount repaid by the department pursuant to the contract in the preceding year. The statement shall be sent by ordinary mail with address correction and forwarding requested in the manner prescribed by the United States postal service.

Sec. 3702.91.  (A) As used in this section, "full-time practice" and "part-time practice" have the same meanings as in section 3702.71 of the Revised Code.

(B) An individual who has signed a letter of intent under section 3702.90 of the Revised Code may enter into a contract with the director of health for participation in the dentist loan repayment program. The dentist's employer or other funding source may also be a party to the contract.

(B)(C) The contract shall include all of the following obligations:

(1) The individual agrees to provide dental services in the dental health resource shortage area identified in the letter of intent for at least two years the number of hours and duration specified in the contract.

(2) When providing dental services in the dental health resource shortage area, the individual agrees to do all of the following:

(a) Provide dental services for a minimum of forty hours per week in a service site approved by the department of health;

(b) Provide dental services without regard to a patient's ability to pay;

(c) Meet the requirements for a medicaid provider agreement and enter into the agreement with the department of medicaid to provide dental services to medicaid recipients.

(3) The department of health agrees, as provided in section 3702.85 of the Revised Code, to repay, so long as the individual performs the service obligation agreed to under division (B)(C)(1) of this section, all or part of the principal and interest of a government or other educational loan taken by the individual for expenses described in section 3702.85 of the Revised Code.

(4) The individual agrees to pay the department of health an amount established by rules adopted under section 3702.86 of the Revised Code, if the individual fails to complete the service obligation agreed to under division (B)(C)(1) of this section.

(C)(D) The contract may shall include any other the following terms as agreed upon by the parties:

(1) The individual's required length of service in the dental health resource shortage area, which must be at least two years;

(2) The number of weekly hours the individual will be engaged in full-time practice or part-time practice;

(3) The maximum amount that the department will repay on behalf of the individual;

(4) The extent to which the individual's teaching activities in the dental health resource shortage area will be counted toward the individual's full-time practice or part-time practice hours under the contract.

(D) Not later than the thirty-first day of January of each year, the department of health shall mail to each individual to whom or on whose behalf repayment is made under the dentist loan repayment program a statement showing the amount of principal and interest repaid by the department pursuant to the contract in the preceding year. The statement shall be sent by ordinary mail with address correction and forwarding requested in the manner prescribed by the United States postal service.

Sec. 3702.95.  The director of health may accept gifts of money from any source for the implementation and administration of sections 3702.85 to 3702.93 3702.92 of the Revised Code.

The director shall pay all gifts accepted under this section into the state treasury, to the credit of the dental health resource shortage area fund, which is hereby created, and all damages collected under division (B)(C)(4) of section 3702.91 of the Revised Code, into the state treasury, to the credit of the dentist loan repayment fund, which is hereby created.

The director shall use the dental health resource shortage area and dentist loan repayment funds for the implementation and administration of sections 3702.85 to 3702.95 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 3721.122.  Before an individual is admitted as a resident to a home, the home's administrator shall search for the individual's name in the internet-based sex offender and child-victim offender database established under division (A)(11) of section 2950.13 of the Revised Code. If the search results identify the individual as a sex offender and the individual is admitted as a resident to the home, the administrator shall provide for the home to do all of the following:

(A) Develop a plan of care to protect the other residents' rights to a safe environment and to be free from abuse;

(B) Notify all of the home's other residents and their sponsors that a sex offender has been admitted as a resident to the home and include in the notice a description of the plan of care developed under division (A) of this section;

(C) Direct the individual in updating the individual's address under section 2950.05 of the Revised Code and, if the individual is unable to do so without assistance, provide the assistance the individual needs to update the individual's address under that section.

Sec. 3730.09.  (A) Each operator of a business that offers tattooing or body piercing services shall do all of the following:

(1) Maintain procedures for ensuring that the individuals who perform tattooing or body piercing procedures are adequately trained to perform the procedures properly;

(2) With respect to tattooing services, maintain written records that include the color, manufacturer, and lot number of each pigment used for each tattoo performed;

(3) Comply with the safety and sanitation requirements for preventing transmission of infectious diseases, as established in rules adopted under section 3730.10 of the Revised Code;

(4) Require the individuals who perform tattooing and body piercing procedures to disinfect and sterilize Ensure that all invasive equipment or parts of equipment used in performing the tattooing and body piercing procedures are disinfected and sterilized by using methods that meet the disinfection and sterilization requirements established in rules adopted under section 3730.10 of the Revised Code;

(5) Ensure that weekly tests of the business's heat sterilization devices are performed to determine whether the devices are functioning properly. In having the devices tested, the operator of the business shall use a biological monitoring system that indicates whether the devices are killing microorganisms. If a test indicates that a device is not functioning properly, the operator shall take immediate remedial action to ensure that heat sterilization is being accomplished. The operator shall maintain documentation that the weekly tests are being performed. To comply with the documentation requirement, the documents must consist of a log that indicates the date on which each test is performed and the name of the person who performed the test or, if a test was conducted by an independent testing entity, a copy of the entity's testing report. The operator shall maintain records of each test performed for at least two years.

(B) Each operator of a business that offers ear piercing services performed with an ear piercing gun shall require the individuals who perform the ear piercing services to disinfect and sterilize the ear piercing gun by using chemical solutions that meet the disinfection and sterilization requirements established in rules adopted under section 3730.10 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 3737.02.  (A) The fire marshal may collect fees to cover the costs of performing inspections and other duties that the fire marshal is authorized or required by law to perform. Except as provided in division (B) of this section, all fees collected by the fire marshal shall be deposited to the credit of the fire marshal's fund.

(B)(1) All of the following shall be credited to the underground storage tank administration fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury:

(1)(a) Fees collected under sections 3737.88 and 3737.881 of the Revised Code for operation of the underground storage tank and underground storage tank installer certification programs;

(2)(b) Moneys recovered under section 3737.89 of the Revised Code for the state's costs of undertaking corrective or enforcement actions under that section or section 3737.882 of the Revised Code;

(3)(c) Fines and penalties collected under section 3737.882 of the Revised Code;

(4) Amounts repaid for underground storage tank revolving loans under section 3737.883 and other moneys, including corrective action enforcement case settlements or bankruptcy case awards or settlements, received by the fire marshal under sections 3737.88 to 3737.89 of the Revised Code.

(C)(2) All interest earned on moneys credited to the underground storage tank administration fund shall be credited to the fund. Moneys credited to the underground storage tank administration fund shall be used by the fire marshal for implementation and enforcement of underground storage tank, corrective action, and installer certification programs under sections 3737.88 to 3737.89 of the Revised Code. Only moneys described in divisions (B)(3) and (4) of this section may be used by the fire marshal to make underground storage tank revolving loans under section 3737.883 of the Revised Code, and no other moneys may be used to make those loans.

(D)(C) There is hereby created in the state treasury the underground storage tank revolving loan fund. The fund shall consist of amounts repaid for underground storage tank revolving loans under section 3737.883 of the Revised Code and moneys described in division (B)(1)(c) of this section that are allocated to the fund in accordance with division (D)(1) of this section. Moneys in the fund shall be used by the fire marshal to make underground storage tank revolving loans under section 3737.883 of the Revised Code.

(D)(1) If the director of commerce determines that the cash balance in the underground storage tank administration fund is in excess of the amount needed for implementation and enforcement of the underground storage tank, corrective action, and installer certification programs under sections 3737.88 to 3737.89 of the Revised Code, the director may certify the excess amount to the director of budget and management. Upon certification, the director of budget and management may transfer from the underground storage tank administration fund to the underground storage tank revolving loan fund any amount up to, but not exceeding, the amount certified by the director of commerce, provided the amount transferred consists only of moneys described in division (B)(1)(c) of this section.

(2) If the director of commerce determines that the cash balance in the underground storage tank administration fund is insufficient to implement and enforce the underground storage tank, corrective action, and installer certification programs under sections 3737.88 to 3737.89 of the Revised Code, the director may certify the amount needed to the director of budget and management. Upon certification, the director of budget and management may transfer from the underground storage tank revolving loan fund to the underground storage tank administration fund any amount up to, but not exceeding, the amount certified by the director of commerce.

(E) The fire marshal shall take all actions necessary to obtain any federal funding available to carry out the fire marshal's responsibilities under sections 3737.88 to 3737.89 of the Revised Code and federal laws regarding the cleaning up of releases of petroleum, as "release" is defined in section 3737.87 of the Revised Code, including, without limitation, any federal funds that are available to reimburse the state for the costs of undertaking corrective actions for such releases of petroleum. The state may, when appropriate, return to the United States any federal funds recovered under sections 3737.882 and 3737.89 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 4141.01.  As used in this chapter, unless the context otherwise requires:

(A)(1) "Employer" means the state, its instrumentalities, its political subdivisions and their instrumentalities, Indian tribes, and any individual or type of organization including any partnership, limited liability company, association, trust, estate, joint-stock company, insurance company, or corporation, whether domestic or foreign, or the receiver, trustee in bankruptcy, trustee, or the successor thereof, or the legal representative of a deceased person who subsequent to December 31, 1971, or in the case of political subdivisions or their instrumentalities, subsequent to December 31, 1973:

(a) Had in employment at least one individual, or in the case of a nonprofit organization, subsequent to December 31, 1973, had not less than four individuals in employment for some portion of a day in each of twenty different calendar weeks, in either the current or the preceding calendar year whether or not the same individual was in employment in each such day; or

(b) Except for a nonprofit organization, had paid for service in employment wages of fifteen hundred dollars or more in any calendar quarter in either the current or preceding calendar year; or

(c) Had paid, subsequent to December 31, 1977, for employment in domestic service in a local college club, or local chapter of a college fraternity or sorority, cash remuneration of one thousand dollars or more in any calendar quarter in the current calendar year or the preceding calendar year, or had paid subsequent to December 31, 1977, for employment in domestic service in a private home cash remuneration of one thousand dollars in any calendar quarter in the current calendar year or the preceding calendar year:

(i) For the purposes of divisions (A)(1)(a) and (b) of this section, there shall not be taken into account any wages paid to, or employment of, an individual performing domestic service as described in this division.

(ii) An employer under this division shall not be an employer with respect to wages paid for any services other than domestic service unless the employer is also found to be an employer under division (A)(1)(a), (b), or (d) of this section.

(d) As a farm operator or a crew leader subsequent to December 31, 1977, had in employment individuals in agricultural labor; and

(i) During any calendar quarter in the current calendar year or the preceding calendar year, paid cash remuneration of twenty thousand dollars or more for the agricultural labor; or

(ii) Had at least ten individuals in employment in agricultural labor, not including agricultural workers who are aliens admitted to the United States to perform agricultural labor pursuant to sections 1184(c) and 1101(a)(15)(H) of the "Immigration and Nationality Act," 66 Stat. 163, 189, 8 U.S.C.A. 1101(a)(15)(H)(ii)(a), 1184(c), for some portion of a day in each of the twenty different calendar weeks, in either the current or preceding calendar year whether or not the same individual was in employment in each day; or

(e) Is not otherwise an employer as defined under division (A)(1)(a) or (b) of this section; and

(i) For which, within either the current or preceding calendar year, service, except for domestic service in a private home not covered under division (A)(1)(c) of this section, is or was performed with respect to which such employer is liable for any federal tax against which credit may be taken for contributions required to be paid into a state unemployment fund;

(ii) Which, as a condition for approval of this chapter for full tax credit against the tax imposed by the "Federal Unemployment Tax Act," 84 Stat. 713, 26 U.S.C.A. 3301 to 3311, is required, pursuant to such act to be an employer under this chapter; or

(iii) Who became an employer by election under division (A)(4) or (5) of this section and for the duration of such election; or

(f) In the case of the state, its instrumentalities, its political subdivisions, and their instrumentalities, and Indian tribes, had in employment, as defined in divisions (B)(2)(a) and (B)(2)(l) of this section, at least one individual;

(g) For the purposes of division (A)(1)(a) of this section, if any week includes both the thirty-first day of December and the first day of January, the days of that week before the first day of January shall be considered one calendar week and the days beginning the first day of January another week.

(2) Each individual employed to perform or to assist in performing the work of any agent or employee of an employer is employed by such employer for all the purposes of this chapter, whether such individual was hired or paid directly by such employer or by such agent or employee, provided the employer had actual or constructive knowledge of the work. All individuals performing services for an employer of any person in this state who maintains two or more establishments within this state are employed by a single employer for the purposes of this chapter.

(3) An employer subject to this chapter within any calendar year is subject to this chapter during the whole of such year and during the next succeeding calendar year.

(4) An employer not otherwise subject to this chapter who files with the director of job and family services a written election to become an employer subject to this chapter for not less than two calendar years shall, with the written approval of such election by the director, become an employer subject to this chapter to the same extent as all other employers as of the date stated in such approval, and shall cease to be subject to this chapter as of the first day of January of any calendar year subsequent to such two calendar years only if at least thirty days prior to such first day of January the employer has filed with the director a written notice to that effect.

(5) Any employer for whom services that do not constitute employment are performed may file with the director a written election that all such services performed by individuals in the employer's employ in one or more distinct establishments or places of business shall be deemed to constitute employment for all the purposes of this chapter, for not less than two calendar years. Upon written approval of the election by the director, such services shall be deemed to constitute employment subject to this chapter from and after the date stated in such approval. Such services shall cease to be employment subject to this chapter as of the first day of January of any calendar year subsequent to such two calendar years only if at least thirty days prior to such first day of January such employer has filed with the director a written notice to that effect.

(B)(1) "Employment" means service performed by an individual for remuneration under any contract of hire, written or oral, express or implied, including service performed in interstate commerce and service performed by an officer of a corporation, without regard to whether such service is executive, managerial, or manual in nature, and without regard to whether such officer is a stockholder or a member of the board of directors of the corporation, unless it is shown to the satisfaction of the director that such individual has been and will continue to be free from direction or control over the performance of such service, both under a contract of service and in fact. The director shall adopt rules to define "direction or control."

(2) "Employment" includes:

(a) Service performed after December 31, 1977, by an individual in the employ of the state or any of its instrumentalities, or any political subdivision thereof or any of its instrumentalities or any instrumentality of more than one of the foregoing or any instrumentality of any of the foregoing and one or more other states or political subdivisions and without regard to divisions (A)(1)(a) and (b) of this section, provided that such service is excluded from employment as defined in the "Federal Unemployment Tax Act," 53 Stat. 183, 26 U.S.C.A. 3301, 3306(c)(7) and is not excluded under division (B)(3) of this section; or the services of employees covered by voluntary election, as provided under divisions (A)(4) and (5) of this section;

(b) Service performed after December 31, 1971, by an individual in the employ of a religious, charitable, educational, or other organization which is excluded from the term "employment" as defined in the "Federal Unemployment Tax Act," 84 Stat. 713, 26 U.S.C.A. 3301 to 3311, solely by reason of section 26 U.S.C.A. 3306(c)(8) of that act and is not excluded under division (B)(3) of this section;

(c) Domestic service performed after December 31, 1977, for an employer, as provided in division (A)(1)(c) of this section;

(d) Agricultural labor performed after December 31, 1977, for a farm operator or a crew leader, as provided in division (A)(1)(d) of this section;

(e) Service not covered under division (B)(1) of this section which is performed after December 31, 1971:

(i) As an agent-driver or commission-driver engaged in distributing meat products, vegetable products, fruit products, bakery products, beverages other than milk, laundry, or dry-cleaning services, for the individual's employer or principal;

(ii) As a traveling or city salesperson, other than as an agent-driver or commission-driver, engaged on a full-time basis in the solicitation on behalf of and in the transmission to the salesperson's employer or principal except for sideline sales activities on behalf of some other person of orders from wholesalers, retailers, contractors, or operators of hotels, restaurants, or other similar establishments for merchandise for resale, or supplies for use in their business operations, provided that for the purposes of division (B)(2)(e)(ii) of this section, the services shall be deemed employment if the contract of service contemplates that substantially all of the services are to be performed personally by the individual and that the individual does not have a substantial investment in facilities used in connection with the performance of the services other than in facilities for transportation, and the services are not in the nature of a single transaction that is not a part of a continuing relationship with the person for whom the services are performed.

(f) An individual's entire service performed within or both within and without the state if:

(i) The service is localized in this state.

(ii) The service is not localized in any state, but some of the service is performed in this state and either the base of operations, or if there is no base of operations then the place from which such service is directed or controlled, is in this state or the base of operations or place from which such service is directed or controlled is not in any state in which some part of the service is performed but the individual's residence is in this state.

(g) Service not covered under division (B)(2)(f)(ii) of this section and performed entirely without this state, with respect to no part of which contributions are required and paid under an unemployment compensation law of any other state, the Virgin Islands, Canada, or of the United States, if the individual performing such service is a resident of this state and the director approves the election of the employer for whom such services are performed; or, if the individual is not a resident of this state but the place from which the service is directed or controlled is in this state, the entire services of such individual shall be deemed to be employment subject to this chapter, provided service is deemed to be localized within this state if the service is performed entirely within this state or if the service is performed both within and without this state but the service performed without this state is incidental to the individual's service within the state, for example, is temporary or transitory in nature or consists of isolated transactions;

(h) Service of an individual who is a citizen of the United States, performed outside the United States except in Canada after December 31, 1971, or the Virgin Islands, after December 31, 1971, and before the first day of January of the year following that in which the United States secretary of labor approves the Virgin Islands law for the first time, in the employ of an American employer, other than service which is "employment" under divisions (B)(2)(f) and (g) of this section or similar provisions of another state's law, if:

(i) The employer's principal place of business in the United States is located in this state;

(ii) The employer has no place of business in the United States, but the employer is an individual who is a resident of this state; or the employer is a corporation which is organized under the laws of this state, or the employer is a partnership or a trust and the number of partners or trustees who are residents of this state is greater than the number who are residents of any other state; or

(iii) None of the criteria of divisions (B)(2)(f)(i) and (ii) of this section is met but the employer has elected coverage in this state or the employer having failed to elect coverage in any state, the individual has filed a claim for benefits, based on such service, under this chapter.

(i) For the purposes of division (B)(2)(h) of this section, the term "American employer" means an employer who is an individual who is a resident of the United States; or a partnership, if two-thirds or more of the partners are residents of the United States; or a trust, if all of the trustees are residents of the United States; or a corporation organized under the laws of the United States or of any state, provided the term "United States" includes the states, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, and the Virgin Islands.

(j) Notwithstanding any other provisions of divisions (B)(1) and (2) of this section, service, except for domestic service in a private home not covered under division (A)(1)(c) of this section, with respect to which a tax is required to be paid under any federal law imposing a tax against which credit may be taken for contributions required to be paid into a state unemployment fund, or service, except for domestic service in a private home not covered under division (A)(1)(c) of this section, which, as a condition for full tax credit against the tax imposed by the "Federal Unemployment Tax Act," 84 Stat. 713, 26 U.S.C.A. 3301 to 3311, is required to be covered under this chapter.

(k) Construction services performed by any individual under a construction contract, as defined in section 4141.39 of the Revised Code, if the director determines that the employer for whom services are performed has the right to direct or control the performance of the services and that the individuals who perform the services receive remuneration for the services performed. The director shall presume that the employer for whom services are performed has the right to direct or control the performance of the services if ten or more of the following criteria apply:

(i) The employer directs or controls the manner or method by which instructions are given to the individual performing services;

(ii) The employer requires particular training for the individual performing services;

(iii) Services performed by the individual are integrated into the regular functioning of the employer;

(iv) The employer requires that services be provided by a particular individual;

(v) The employer hires, supervises, or pays the wages of the individual performing services;

(vi) A continuing relationship between the employer and the individual performing services exists which contemplates continuing or recurring work, even if not full-time work;

(vii) The employer requires the individual to perform services during established hours;

(viii) The employer requires that the individual performing services be devoted on a full-time basis to the business of the employer;

(ix) The employer requires the individual to perform services on the employer's premises;

(x) The employer requires the individual performing services to follow the order of work established by the employer;

(xi) The employer requires the individual performing services to make oral or written reports of progress;

(xii) The employer makes payment to the individual for services on a regular basis, such as hourly, weekly, or monthly;

(xiii) The employer pays expenses for the individual performing services;

(xiv) The employer furnishes the tools and materials for use by the individual to perform services;

(xv) The individual performing services has not invested in the facilities used to perform services;

(xvi) The individual performing services does not realize a profit or suffer a loss as a result of the performance of the services;

(xvii) The individual performing services is not performing services for more than two employers simultaneously;

(xviii) The individual performing services does not make the services available to the general public;

(xix) The employer has a right to discharge the individual performing services;

(xx) The individual performing services has the right to end the individual's relationship with the employer without incurring liability pursuant to an employment contract or agreement.

(l) Service performed by an individual in the employ of an Indian tribe as defined by section 4(e) of the "Indian Self-Determination and Education Assistance Act," 88 Stat. 2204 (1975), 25 U.S.C.A. 450b(e), including any subdivision, subsidiary, or business enterprise wholly owned by an Indian tribe provided that the service is excluded from employment as defined in the "Federal Unemployment Tax Act," 53 Stat. 183 (1939), 26 U.S.C.A. 3301 and 3306(c)(7) and is not excluded under division (B)(3) of this section.

(3) "Employment" does not include the following services if they are found not subject to the "Federal Unemployment Tax Act," 84 Stat. 713 (1970), 26 U.S.C.A. 3301 to 3311, and if the services are not required to be included under division (B)(2)(j) of this section:

(a) Service performed after December 31, 1977, in agricultural labor, except as provided in division (A)(1)(d) of this section;

(b) Domestic service performed after December 31, 1977, in a private home, local college club, or local chapter of a college fraternity or sorority except as provided in division (A)(1)(c) of this section;

(c) Service performed after December 31, 1977, for this state or a political subdivision as described in division (B)(2)(a) of this section when performed:

(i) As a publicly elected official;

(ii) As a member of a legislative body, or a member of the judiciary;

(iii) As a military member of the Ohio national guard;

(iv) As an employee, not in the classified service as defined in section 124.11 of the Revised Code, serving on a temporary basis in case of fire, storm, snow, earthquake, flood, or similar emergency;

(v) In a position which, under or pursuant to law, is designated as a major nontenured policymaking or advisory position, not in the classified service of the state, or a policymaking or advisory position the performance of the duties of which ordinarily does not require more than eight hours per week.

(d) In the employ of any governmental unit or instrumentality of the United States;

(e) Service performed after December 31, 1971:

(i) Service in the employ of an educational institution or institution of higher education, including those operated by the state or a political subdivision, if such service is performed by a student who is enrolled and is regularly attending classes at the educational institution or institution of higher education; or

(ii) By an individual who is enrolled at a nonprofit or public educational institution which normally maintains a regular faculty and curriculum and normally has a regularly organized body of students in attendance at the place where its educational activities are carried on as a student in a full-time program, taken for credit at the institution, which combines academic instruction with work experience, if the service is an integral part of the program, and the institution has so certified to the employer, provided that this subdivision shall not apply to service performed in a program established for or on behalf of an employer or group of employers.

(f) Service performed by an individual in the employ of the individual's son, daughter, or spouse and service performed by a child under the age of eighteen in the employ of the child's father or mother;

(g) Service performed for one or more principals by an individual who is compensated on a commission basis, who in the performance of the work is master of the individual's own time and efforts, and whose remuneration is wholly dependent on the amount of effort the individual chooses to expend, and which service is not subject to the "Federal Unemployment Tax Act," 53 Stat. 183 (1939), 26 U.S.C.A. 3301 to 3311. Service performed after December 31, 1971:

(i) By an individual for an employer as an insurance agent or as an insurance solicitor, if all this service is performed for remuneration solely by way of commission;

(ii) As a home worker performing work, according to specifications furnished by the employer for whom the services are performed, on materials or goods furnished by such employer which are required to be returned to the employer or to a person designated for that purpose.

(h) Service performed after December 31, 1971:

(i) In the employ of a church or convention or association of churches, or in an organization which is operated primarily for religious purposes and which is operated, supervised, controlled, or principally supported by a church or convention or association of churches;

(ii) By a duly ordained, commissioned, or licensed minister of a church in the exercise of the individual's ministry or by a member of a religious order in the exercise of duties required by such order; or

(iii) In a facility conducted for the purpose of carrying out a program of rehabilitation for individuals whose earning capacity is impaired by age or physical or mental deficiency or injury, or providing remunerative work for individuals who because of their impaired physical or mental capacity cannot be readily absorbed in the competitive labor market, by an individual receiving such rehabilitation or remunerative work.

(i) Service performed after June 30, 1939, with respect to which unemployment compensation is payable under the "Railroad Unemployment Insurance Act," 52 Stat. 1094 (1938), 45 U.S.C. 351;

(j) Service performed by an individual in the employ of any organization exempt from income tax under section 501 of the "Internal Revenue Code of 1954," if the remuneration for such service does not exceed fifty dollars in any calendar quarter, or if such service is in connection with the collection of dues or premiums for a fraternal beneficial society, order, or association and is performed away from the home office or is ritualistic service in connection with any such society, order, or association;

(k) Casual labor not in the course of an employer's trade or business; incidental service performed by an officer, appraiser, or member of a finance committee of a bank, building and loan association, savings and loan association, or savings association when the remuneration for such incidental service exclusive of the amount paid or allotted for directors' fees does not exceed sixty dollars per calendar quarter is casual labor;

(l) Service performed in the employ of a voluntary employees' beneficial association providing for the payment of life, sickness, accident, or other benefits to the members of such association or their dependents or their designated beneficiaries, if admission to a membership in such association is limited to individuals who are officers or employees of a municipal or public corporation, of a political subdivision of the state, or of the United States and no part of the net earnings of such association inures, other than through such payments, to the benefit of any private shareholder or individual;

(m) Service performed by an individual in the employ of a foreign government, including service as a consular or other officer or employee or of a nondiplomatic representative;

(n) Service performed in the employ of an instrumentality wholly owned by a foreign government if the service is of a character similar to that performed in foreign countries by employees of the United States or of an instrumentality thereof and if the director finds that the secretary of state of the United States has certified to the secretary of the treasury of the United States that the foreign government, with respect to whose instrumentality exemption is claimed, grants an equivalent exemption with respect to similar service performed in the foreign country by employees of the United States and of instrumentalities thereof;

(o) Service with respect to which unemployment compensation is payable under an unemployment compensation system established by an act of congress;

(p) Service performed as a student nurse in the employ of a hospital or a nurses' training school by an individual who is enrolled and is regularly attending classes in a nurses' training school chartered or approved pursuant to state law, and service performed as an intern in the employ of a hospital by an individual who has completed a four years' course in a medical school chartered or approved pursuant to state law;

(q) Service performed by an individual under the age of eighteen in the delivery or distribution of newspapers or shopping news, not including delivery or distribution to any point for subsequent delivery or distribution;

(r) Service performed in the employ of the United States or an instrumentality of the United States immune under the Constitution of the United States from the contributions imposed by this chapter, except that to the extent that congress permits states to require any instrumentalities of the United States to make payments into an unemployment fund under a state unemployment compensation act, this chapter shall be applicable to such instrumentalities and to services performed for such instrumentalities in the same manner, to the same extent, and on the same terms as to all other employers, individuals, and services, provided that if this state is not certified for any year by the proper agency of the United States under section 3304 of the "Internal Revenue Code of 1954," the payments required of such instrumentalities with respect to such year shall be refunded by the director from the fund in the same manner and within the same period as is provided in division (E) of section 4141.09 of the Revised Code with respect to contributions erroneously collected;

(s) Service performed by an individual as a member of a band or orchestra, provided such service does not represent the principal occupation of such individual, and which service is not subject to or required to be covered for full tax credit against the tax imposed by the "Federal Unemployment Tax Act," 53 Stat. 183 (1939), 26 U.S.C.A. 3301 to 3311.

(t) Service performed in the employ of a day camp whose camping season does not exceed twelve weeks in any calendar year, and which service is not subject to the "Federal Unemployment Tax Act," 53 Stat. 183 (1939), 26 U.S.C.A. 3301 to 3311. Service performed after December 31, 1971:

(i) In the employ of a hospital, if the service is performed by a patient of the hospital, as defined in division (W) of this section;

(ii) For a prison or other correctional institution by an inmate of the prison or correctional institution;

(iii) Service performed after December 31, 1977, by an inmate of a custodial institution operated by the state, a political subdivision, or a nonprofit organization.

(u) Service that is performed by a nonresident alien individual for the period the individual temporarily is present in the United States as a nonimmigrant under division (F), (J), (M), or (Q) of section 101(a)(15) of the "Immigration and Nationality Act," 66 Stat. 163, 8 U.S.C.A. 1101, as amended, that is excluded under section 3306(c)(19) of the "Federal Unemployment Tax Act," 53 Stat. 183 (1939), 26 U.S.C.A. 3301 to 3311.

(v) Notwithstanding any other provisions of division (B)(3) of this section, services that are excluded under divisions (B)(3)(g), (j), (k), and (l) of this section shall not be excluded from employment when performed for a nonprofit organization, as defined in division (X) of this section, or for this state or its instrumentalities, or for a political subdivision or its instrumentalities or for Indian tribes;

(w) Service that is performed by an individual working as an election official or election worker if the amount of remuneration received by the individual during the calendar year for services as an election official or election worker is less than one thousand dollars;

(x) Service performed for an elementary or secondary school that is operated primarily for religious purposes, that is described in subsection 501(c)(3) and exempt from federal income taxation under subsection 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code, 26 U.S.C.A. 501;

(y) Service performed by a person committed to a penal institution.

(z) Service performed for an Indian tribe as described in division (B)(2)(l) of this section when performed in any of the following manners:

(i) As a publicly elected official;

(ii) As a member of an Indian tribal council;

(iii) As a member of a legislative or judiciary body;

(iv) In a position which, pursuant to Indian tribal law, is designated as a major nontenured policymaking or advisory position, or a policymaking or advisory position where the performance of the duties ordinarily does not require more than eight hours of time per week;

(v) As an employee serving on a temporary basis in the case of a fire, storm, snow, earthquake, flood, or similar emergency.

(aa) Service performed after December 31, 1971, for a nonprofit organization, this state or its instrumentalities, a political subdivision or its instrumentalities, or an Indian tribe as part of an unemployment work-relief or work-training program assisted or financed in whole or in part by any federal agency or an agency of a state or political subdivision, thereof, by an individual receiving the work-relief or work-training.

(bb) Participation in a learn to earn program as defined in section 4141.293 of the Revised Code.

(4) If the services performed during one half or more of any pay period by an employee for the person employing that employee constitute employment, all the services of such employee for such period shall be deemed to be employment; but if the services performed during more than one half of any such pay period by an employee for the person employing that employee do not constitute employment, then none of the services of such employee for such period shall be deemed to be employment. As used in division (B)(4) of this section, "pay period" means a period, of not more than thirty-one consecutive days, for which payment of remuneration is ordinarily made to the employee by the person employing that employee. Division (B)(4) of this section does not apply to services performed in a pay period by an employee for the person employing that employee, if any of such service is excepted by division (B)(3)(o) of this section.

(C) "Benefits" means money payments payable to an individual who has established benefit rights, as provided in this chapter, for loss of remuneration due to the individual's unemployment.

(D) "Benefit rights" means the weekly benefit amount and the maximum benefit amount that may become payable to an individual within the individual's benefit year as determined by the director.

(E) "Claim for benefits" means a claim for waiting period or benefits for a designated week.

(F) "Additional claim" means the first claim for benefits filed following any separation from employment during a benefit year; "continued claim" means any claim other than the first claim for benefits and other than an additional claim.

(G)(1) "Wages" means remuneration paid to an employee by each of the employee's employers with respect to employment; except that wages shall not include that part of remuneration paid during any calendar year to an individual by an employer or such employer's predecessor in interest in the same business or enterprise, which in any calendar year is in excess of eight thousand two hundred fifty dollars on and after January 1, 1992; eight thousand five hundred dollars on and after January 1, 1993; eight thousand seven hundred fifty dollars on and after January 1, 1994; and nine thousand dollars on and after January 1, 1995. Remuneration in excess of such amounts shall be deemed wages subject to contribution to the same extent that such remuneration is defined as wages under the "Federal Unemployment Tax Act," 84 Stat. 714 (1970), 26 U.S.C.A. 3301 to 3311, as amended. The remuneration paid an employee by an employer with respect to employment in another state, upon which contributions were required and paid by such employer under the unemployment compensation act of such other state, shall be included as a part of remuneration in computing the amount specified in this division.

(2) Notwithstanding division (G)(1) of this section, if, as of the computation date for any calendar year, the director determines that the level of the unemployment compensation fund is sixty per cent or more below the minimum safe level as defined in section 4141.25 of the Revised Code, then, effective the first day of January of the following calendar year, wages subject to this chapter shall not include that part of remuneration paid during any calendar year to an individual by an employer or such employer's predecessor in interest in the same business or enterprise which is in excess of nine thousand dollars. The increase in the dollar amount of wages subject to this chapter under this division shall remain in effect from the date of the director's determination pursuant to division (G)(2) of this section and thereafter notwithstanding the fact that the level in the fund may subsequently become less than sixty per cent below the minimum safe level.

(H)(1) "Remuneration" means all compensation for personal services, including commissions and bonuses and the cash value of all compensation in any medium other than cash, except that in the case of agricultural or domestic service, "remuneration" includes only cash remuneration. Gratuities customarily received by an individual in the course of the individual's employment from persons other than the individual's employer and which are accounted for by such individual to the individual's employer are taxable wages.

The reasonable cash value of compensation paid in any medium other than cash shall be estimated and determined in accordance with rules prescribed by the director, provided that "remuneration" does not include:

(a) Payments as provided in divisions (b)(2) to (b)(16)(20) of section 3306 of the "Federal Unemployment Tax Act," 84 Stat. 713, 26 U.S.C.A. 3301 to 3311, as amended;

(b) The payment by an employer, without deduction from the remuneration of the individual in the employer's employ, of the tax imposed upon an individual in the employer's employ under section 3101 of the "Internal Revenue Code of 1954," with respect to services performed after October 1, 1941.

(2) "Cash remuneration" means all remuneration paid in cash, including commissions and bonuses, but not including the cash value of all compensation in any medium other than cash.

(I) "Interested party" means the director and any party to whom notice of a determination of an application for benefit rights or a claim for benefits is required to be given under section 4141.28 of the Revised Code.

(J) "Annual payroll" means the total amount of wages subject to contributions during a twelve-month period ending with the last day of the second calendar quarter of any calendar year.

(K) "Average annual payroll" means the average of the last three annual payrolls of an employer, provided that if, as of any computation date, the employer has had less than three annual payrolls in such three-year period, such average shall be based on the annual payrolls which the employer has had as of such date.

(L)(1) "Contributions" means the money payments to the state unemployment compensation fund required of employers by section 4141.25 of the Revised Code and of the state and any of its political subdivisions electing to pay contributions under section 4141.242 of the Revised Code. Employers paying contributions shall be described as "contributory employers."

(2) "Payments in lieu of contributions" means the money payments to the state unemployment compensation fund required of reimbursing employers under sections 4141.241 and 4141.242 of the Revised Code.

(M) An individual is "totally unemployed" in any week during which the individual performs no services and with respect to such week no remuneration is payable to the individual.

(N) An individual is "partially unemployed" in any week if, due to involuntary loss of work, the total remuneration payable to the individual for such week is less than the individual's weekly benefit amount.

(O) "Week" means the calendar week ending at midnight Saturday unless an equivalent week of seven consecutive calendar days is prescribed by the director.

(1) "Qualifying week" means any calendar week in an individual's base period with respect to which the individual earns or is paid remuneration in employment subject to this chapter. A calendar week with respect to which an individual earns remuneration but for which payment was not made within the base period, when necessary to qualify for benefit rights, may be considered to be a qualifying week. The number of qualifying weeks which may be established in a calendar quarter shall not exceed the number of calendar weeks in the quarter.

(2) "Average weekly wage" means the amount obtained by dividing an individual's total remuneration for all qualifying weeks during the base period by the number of such qualifying weeks, provided that if the computation results in an amount that is not a multiple of one dollar, such amount shall be rounded to the next lower multiple of one dollar.

(P) "Weekly benefit amount" means the amount of benefits an individual would be entitled to receive for one week of total unemployment.

(Q)(1) "Base period" means the first four of the last five completed calendar quarters immediately preceding the first day of an individual's benefit year, except as provided in division (Q)(2) of this section.

(2) If an individual does not have sufficient qualifying weeks and wages in the base period to qualify for benefit rights, the individual's base period shall be the four most recently completed calendar quarters preceding the first day of the individual's benefit year. Such base period shall be known as the "alternate base period." If information as to weeks and wages for the most recent quarter of the alternate base period is not available to the director from the regular quarterly reports of wage information, which are systematically accessible, the director may, consistent with the provisions of section 4141.28 of the Revised Code, base the determination of eligibility for benefits on the affidavit of the claimant with respect to weeks and wages for that calendar quarter. The claimant shall furnish payroll documentation, where available, in support of the affidavit. The determination based upon the alternate base period as it relates to the claimant's benefit rights, shall be amended when the quarterly report of wage information from the employer is timely received and that information causes a change in the determination. As provided in division (B) of section 4141.28 of the Revised Code, any benefits paid and charged to an employer's account, based upon a claimant's affidavit, shall be adjusted effective as of the beginning of the claimant's benefit year. No calendar quarter in a base period or alternate base period shall be used to establish a subsequent benefit year.

(3) The "base period" of a combined wage claim, as described in division (H) of section 4141.43 of the Revised Code, shall be the base period prescribed by the law of the state in which the claim is allowed.

(4) For purposes of determining the weeks that comprise a completed calendar quarter under this division, only those weeks ending at midnight Saturday within the calendar quarter shall be utilized.

(R)(1) "Benefit year" with respect to an individual means the fifty-two week period beginning with the first day of that week with respect to which the individual first files a valid application for determination of benefit rights, and thereafter the fifty-two week period beginning with the first day of that week with respect to which the individual next files a valid application for determination of benefit rights after the termination of the individual's last preceding benefit year, except that the application shall not be considered valid unless the individual has had employment in six weeks that is subject to this chapter or the unemployment compensation act of another state, or the United States, and has, since the beginning of the individual's previous benefit year, in the employment earned three times the average weekly wage determined for the previous benefit year. The "benefit year" of a combined wage claim, as described in division (H) of section 4141.43 of the Revised Code, shall be the benefit year prescribed by the law of the state in which the claim is allowed. Any application for determination of benefit rights made in accordance with section 4141.28 of the Revised Code is valid if the individual filing such application is unemployed, has been employed by an employer or employers subject to this chapter in at least twenty qualifying weeks within the individual's base period, and has earned or been paid remuneration at an average weekly wage of not less than twenty-seven and one-half per cent of the statewide average weekly wage for such weeks. For purposes of determining whether an individual has had sufficient employment since the beginning of the individual's previous benefit year to file a valid application, "employment" means the performance of services for which remuneration is payable.

(2) Effective for benefit years beginning on and after December 26, 2004, any application for determination of benefit rights made in accordance with section 4141.28 of the Revised Code is valid if the individual satisfies the criteria described in division (R)(1) of this section, and if the reason for the individual's separation from employment is not disqualifying pursuant to division (D)(2) of section 4141.29 or section 4141.291 of the Revised Code. A disqualification imposed pursuant to division (D)(2) of section 4141.29 or section 4141.291 of the Revised Code must be removed as provided in those sections as a requirement of establishing a valid application for benefit years beginning on and after December 26, 2004.

(3) The statewide average weekly wage shall be calculated by the director once a year based on the twelve-month period ending the thirtieth day of June, as set forth in division (B)(3) of section 4141.30 of the Revised Code, rounded down to the nearest dollar. Increases or decreases in the amount of remuneration required to have been earned or paid in order for individuals to have filed valid applications shall become effective on Sunday of the calendar week in which the first day of January occurs that follows the twelve-month period ending the thirtieth day of June upon which the calculation of the statewide average weekly wage was based.

(4) As used in this division, an individual is "unemployed" if, with respect to the calendar week in which such application is filed, the individual is "partially unemployed" or "totally unemployed" as defined in this section or if, prior to filing the application, the individual was separated from the individual's most recent work for any reason which terminated the individual's employee-employer relationship, or was laid off indefinitely or for a definite period of seven or more days.

(S) "Calendar quarter" means the period of three consecutive calendar months ending on the thirty-first day of March, the thirtieth day of June, the thirtieth day of September, and the thirty-first day of December, or the equivalent thereof as the director prescribes by rule.

(T) "Computation date" means the first day of the third calendar quarter of any calendar year.

(U) "Contribution period" means the calendar year beginning on the first day of January of any year.

(V) "Agricultural labor," for the purpose of this division, means any service performed prior to January 1, 1972, which was agricultural labor as defined in this division prior to that date, and service performed after December 31, 1971:

(1) On a farm, in the employ of any person, in connection with cultivating the soil, or in connection with raising or harvesting any agricultural or horticultural commodity, including the raising, shearing, feeding, caring for, training, and management of livestock, bees, poultry, and fur-bearing animals and wildlife;

(2) In the employ of the owner or tenant or other operator of a farm in connection with the operation, management, conservation, improvement, or maintenance of such farm and its tools and equipment, or in salvaging timber or clearing land of brush and other debris left by hurricane, if the major part of such service is performed on a farm;

(3) In connection with the production or harvesting of any commodity defined as an agricultural commodity in section 15 (g) of the "Agricultural Marketing Act," 46 Stat. 1550 (1931), 12 U.S.C. 1141j, as amended, or in connection with the ginning of cotton, or in connection with the operation or maintenance of ditches, canals, reservoirs, or waterways, not owned or operated for profit, used exclusively for supplying and storing water for farming purposes;

(4) In the employ of the operator of a farm in handling, planting, drying, packing, packaging, processing, freezing, grading, storing, or delivering to storage or to market or to a carrier for transportation to market, in its unmanufactured state, any agricultural or horticultural commodity, but only if the operator produced more than one half of the commodity with respect to which such service is performed;

(5) In the employ of a group of operators of farms, or a cooperative organization of which the operators are members, in the performance of service described in division (V)(4) of this section, but only if the operators produced more than one-half of the commodity with respect to which the service is performed;

(6) Divisions (V)(4) and (5) of this section shall not be deemed to be applicable with respect to service performed:

(a) In connection with commercial canning or commercial freezing or in connection with any agricultural or horticultural commodity after its delivery to a terminal market for distribution for consumption; or

(b) On a farm operated for profit if the service is not in the course of the employer's trade or business.

As used in division (V) of this section, "farm" includes stock, dairy, poultry, fruit, fur-bearing animal, and truck farms, plantations, ranches, nurseries, ranges, greenhouses, or other similar structures used primarily for the raising of agricultural or horticultural commodities and orchards.

(W) "Hospital" means an institution which has been registered or licensed by the Ohio department of health as a hospital.

(X) "Nonprofit organization" means an organization, or group of organizations, described in section 501(c)(3) of the "Internal Revenue Code of 1954," and exempt from income tax under section 501(a) of that code.

(Y) "Institution of higher education" means a public or nonprofit educational institution, including an educational institution operated by an Indian tribe, which:

(1) Admits as regular students only individuals having a certificate of graduation from a high school, or the recognized equivalent;

(2) Is legally authorized in this state or by the Indian tribe to provide a program of education beyond high school; and

(3) Provides an educational program for which it awards a bachelor's or higher degree, or provides a program which is acceptable for full credit toward such a degree, a program of post-graduate or post-doctoral studies, or a program of training to prepare students for gainful employment in a recognized occupation.

For the purposes of this division, all colleges and universities in this state are institutions of higher education.

(Z) For the purposes of this chapter, "states" includes the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, and the Virgin Islands.

(AA) "Alien" means, for the purposes of division (A)(1)(d) of this section, an individual who is an alien admitted to the United States to perform service in agricultural labor pursuant to sections 214 (c) and 101 (a)(15)(H) of the "Immigration and Nationality Act," 66 Stat. 163, 8 U.S.C.A. 1101.

(BB)(1) "Crew leader" means an individual who furnishes individuals to perform agricultural labor for any other employer or farm operator, and:

(a) Pays, either on the individual's own behalf or on behalf of the other employer or farm operator, the individuals so furnished by the individual for the service in agricultural labor performed by them;

(b) Has not entered into a written agreement with the other employer or farm operator under which the agricultural worker is designated as in the employ of the other employer or farm operator.

(2) For the purposes of this chapter, any individual who is a member of a crew furnished by a crew leader to perform service in agricultural labor for any other employer or farm operator shall be treated as an employee of the crew leader if:

(a) The crew leader holds a valid certificate of registration under the "Farm Labor Contractor Registration Act of 1963," 90 Stat. 2668, 7 U.S.C. 2041; or

(b) Substantially all the members of the crew operate or maintain tractors, mechanized harvesting or crop-dusting equipment, or any other mechanized equipment, which is provided by the crew leader; and

(c) If the individual is not in the employment of the other employer or farm operator within the meaning of division (B)(1) of this section.

(3) For the purposes of this division, any individual who is furnished by a crew leader to perform service in agricultural labor for any other employer or farm operator and who is not treated as in the employment of the crew leader under division (BB)(2) of this section shall be treated as the employee of the other employer or farm operator and not of the crew leader. The other employer or farm operator shall be treated as having paid cash remuneration to the individual in an amount equal to the amount of cash remuneration paid to the individual by the crew leader, either on the crew leader's own behalf or on behalf of the other employer or farm operator, for the service in agricultural labor performed for the other employer or farm operator.

(CC) "Educational institution" means an institution other than an institution of higher education as defined in division (Y) of this section, including an educational institution operated by an Indian tribe, which:

(1) Offers participants, trainees, or students an organized course of study or training designed to transfer to them knowledge, skills, information, doctrines, attitudes, or abilities from, by, or under the guidance of an instructor or teacher; and

(2) Is approved, chartered, or issued a permit to operate as a school by the state board of education, other government agency, or Indian tribe that is authorized within the state to approve, charter, or issue a permit for the operation of a school.

For the purposes of this division, the courses of study or training which the institution offers may be academic, technical, trade, or preparation for gainful employment in a recognized occupation.

(DD) "Cost savings day" means any unpaid day off from work in which employees continue to accrue employee benefits which have a determinable value including, but not limited to, vacation, pension contribution, sick time, and life and health insurance.

Sec. 4141.09.  (A) There is hereby created an unemployment compensation fund to be administered by the state without liability on the part of the state beyond the amounts paid into the fund and earned by the fund. The unemployment compensation fund shall consist of all contributions, payments in lieu of contributions described in sections 4141.241 and 4141.242 of the Revised Code, reimbursements of the federal share of extended benefits described in section 4141.301 of the Revised Code, collected under sections 4141.01 to 4141.56 of the Revised Code, and the amount required under division (A)(4) of section 4141.35 of the Revised Code, together with all interest earned upon any moneys deposited with the secretary of the treasury of the United States to the credit of the account of this state in the unemployment trust fund established and maintained pursuant to section 904 of the "Social Security Act," any property or securities acquired through the use of moneys belonging to the fund, and all earnings of such property or securities. The unemployment compensation fund shall be used to pay benefits, shared work compensation as defined in section 4141.50 of the Revised Code, and refunds as provided by such sections and for no other purpose.

(B) The treasurer of state shall be the custodian of the unemployment compensation fund and shall administer such fund in accordance with the directions of the director of job and family services. All disbursements therefrom shall be paid by the treasurer of state on warrants drawn by the director. Such warrants may bear the facsimile signature of the director printed thereon and that of a deputy or other employee of the director charged with the duty of keeping the account of the unemployment compensation fund and with the preparation of warrants for the payment of benefits to the persons entitled thereto. Moneys in the clearing and benefit accounts shall not be commingled with other state funds, except as provided in division (C) of this section, but shall be maintained in separate accounts on the books of the depositary bank. Such money shall be secured by the depositary bank to the same extent and in the same manner as required by sections 135.01 to 135.21 of the Revised Code; and collateral pledged for this purpose shall be kept separate and distinct from any collateral pledged to secure other funds of this state. All sums recovered for losses sustained by the unemployment compensation fund shall be deposited therein. The treasurer of state shall be liable on the treasurer's official bond for the faithful performance of the treasurer's duties in connection with the unemployment compensation fund, such liability to exist in addition to any liability upon any separate bond.

(C) The treasurer of state shall maintain within the unemployment compensation fund three separate accounts which shall be a clearing account, a trust fund account, and a benefit account. All moneys payable to the unemployment compensation fund, upon receipt by the director, shall be forwarded to the treasurer of state, who shall immediately deposit them in the clearing account. Refunds of contributions, or payments in lieu of contributions, payable pursuant to division (E) of this section may be paid from the clearing account upon warrants signed by a deputy or other employee of the director charged with the duty of keeping the record of the clearing account and with the preparation of warrants for the payment of refunds to persons entitled thereto. After clearance thereof, all moneys in the clearing account shall be deposited with the secretary of the treasury of the United States to the credit of the account of this state in the unemployment trust fund established and maintained pursuant to section 904 of the "Social Security Act," in accordance with requirements of the "Federal Unemployment Tax Act," 53 Stat. 183 (1939), 26 U.S.C.A. 3301, 3304(a)(3), any law in this state relating to the deposit, administration, release, or disbursement of moneys in the possession or custody of this state to the contrary notwithstanding. The benefit account shall consist of all moneys requisitioned from this state's account in the unemployment trust fund. Federal funds may be deposited, at the director's discretion, into the benefit account. Any funds deposited into the benefit account shall be disbursed solely for payment of benefits under a federal program administered by this state and for no other purpose. Moneys in the clearing and benefit accounts may be deposited by the treasurer of state, under the direction of the director, in any bank or public depositary in which general funds of the state may be deposited, but no public deposit insurance charge or premium shall be paid out of the fund.

(D) Moneys shall be requisitioned from this state's account in the unemployment trust fund solely for the payment of benefits and in accordance with regulations prescribed by the director. The director shall requisition from the unemployment trust fund such amounts, not exceeding the amount standing to this state's account therein, as are deemed necessary for the payment of benefits for a reasonable future period. Upon receipt thereof, the treasurer of state shall deposit such moneys in the benefit account. Expenditures of such money in the benefit account and refunds from the clearing account shall not require specific appropriations or other formal release by state officers of money in their custody. Any balance of moneys requisitioned from the unemployment trust fund which remains unclaimed or unpaid in the benefit account after the expiration of the period for which such sums were requisitioned shall either be deducted from estimates for and may be utilized for the payment of benefits during succeeding periods, or, in the discretion of the director, shall be redeposited with the secretary of the treasury of the United States to the credit of this state's account in the unemployment trust fund, as provided in division (C) of this section. Unclaimed or unpaid federal funds redeposited with the secretary of the treasury of the United States shall be credited to the appropriate federal account.

(E) No claim for an adjustment or a refund on contribution, payment in lieu of contributions, interest, or forfeiture alleged to have been erroneously or illegally assessed or collected, or alleged to have been collected without authority, and no claim for an adjustment or a refund of any sum alleged to have been excessive or in any manner wrongfully collected shall be allowed unless an application, in writing, therefor is made within four years from the date on which such payment was made. If the director determines that such contribution, payment in lieu of contributions, interest, or forfeiture, or any portion thereof, was erroneously collected, the director shall allow such employer to make an adjustment thereof without interest in connection with subsequent contribution payments, or payments in lieu of contributions, by the employer, or the director may refund said amount, without interest, from the clearing account of the unemployment compensation fund, except as provided in division (B) of section 4141.11 of the Revised Code. For like cause and within the same period, adjustment or refund may be so made on the director's own initiative. An overpayment of contribution, payment in lieu of contributions, interest, or forfeiture for which an employer has not made application for refund prior to the date of sale of the employer's business shall accrue to the employer's successor in interest.

An application for an adjustment or a refund, or any portion thereof, that is rejected is binding upon the employer unless, within thirty days after the mailing of a written notice of rejection to the employer's last known address, or, in the absence of mailing of such notice, within thirty days after the delivery of such notice, the employer files an application for a review and redetermination setting forth the reasons therefor. The director shall promptly examine the application for review and redetermination, and if a review is granted, the employer shall be promptly notified thereof, and shall be granted an opportunity for a prompt hearing.

(F) If the director finds that contributions have been paid to the director in error, and that such contributions should have been paid to a department of another state or of the United States charged with the administration of an unemployment compensation law, the director may upon request by such department or upon the director's own initiative transfer to such department the amount of such contributions, less any benefits paid to claimants whose wages were the basis for such contributions. The director may request and receive from such department any contributions or adjusted contributions paid in error to such department which should have been paid to the director.

(G) In accordance with section 303(c)(3) of the Social Security Act, and section 3304(a)(17) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954 for continuing certification of Ohio unemployment compensation laws for administrative grants and for tax credits, any interest required to be paid on advances under Title XII of the Social Security Act shall be paid in a timely manner and shall not be paid, directly or indirectly, by an equivalent reduction in the Ohio unemployment taxes or otherwise, by the state from amounts in the unemployment compensation fund.

(H) The treasurer of state, under the direction of the director and in accordance with the "Cash Management Improvement Act of 1990," 104 Stat. 1061, 31 U.S.C.A. 335, 6503, shall deposit amounts of interest earned by the state on funds in the benefit account established pursuant to division (C) of this section into the department of job and family services banking fees fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury for the purpose of paying related banking costs incurred by the state for the period for which the interest is calculated, except that if the deposited interest exceeds the banking costs incurred by the state for the period for which the interest is calculated, the treasurer of state shall deposit the excess interest into the unemployment trust fund.

(I) The treasurer of state, under the direction of the director, shall deposit federal funds received by the director for training and administration and for payment of benefits, job search, relocation, transportation, and subsistence allowances pursuant to the "Trade Act of 1974," 88 Stat. 1978, 19 U.S.C.A. 2101, as amended; the "North American Free Trade Agreement Implementation Act," 107 Stat. 2057 (1993), 19 U.S.C.A. 3301, as amended; and the "Trade Act of 2002," 116 Stat. 993, 19 U.S.C.A. 3801, as amended, into the Trade Act training and administration account, which is hereby created for the purpose of making payments specified under those acts. The treasurer of state, under the direction of the director, may transfer funds from the Trade Act training and administration account to the benefit account for the purpose of making any payments directly to claimants for benefits, job search, relocation, transportation, and subsistence allowances, as specified by those acts.

Sec. 4141.11.  There is hereby created in the state treasury the unemployment compensation special administrative fund. The fund shall consist of all interest collected on delinquent contributions pursuant to this chapter, all fines and forfeitures collected under this chapter, all money received from the sale of real property under section 4141.131 of the Revised Code, the amount required under division (A)(4) of section 4141.35 of the Revised Code, and all court costs and interest paid or collected in connection with the repayment of fraudulently obtained benefits pursuant to section 4141.35 of the Revised Code. All interest earned on the money in the fund shall be retained in the fund and shall not be credited or transferred to any other fund or account, except as provided in division (B) of this section. All moneys which are deposited or paid into this fund may be used by:

(A) The director of job and family services whenever it appears that such use is necessary for:

(1) The proper administration of this chapter and no federal funds are available for the specific purpose for which the expenditure is to be made, provided the moneys are not substituted for appropriations from federal funds, which in the absence of such moneys would be available;

(2) The proper administration of this chapter for which purpose appropriations from federal funds have been requested and approved but not received, provided the fund would be reimbursed upon receipt of the federal appropriation;

(3) To the extent possible, the repayment to the unemployment compensation administration fund of moneys found by the proper agency of the United States to have been lost or expended for purposes other than, or an amount in excess of, those found necessary by the proper agency of the United States for the administration of this chapter.

(B) The director or the director's deputy whenever it appears that such use is necessary for the payment of refunds or adjustments of interest, fines, forfeitures, or court costs erroneously collected and paid into this fund pursuant to this chapter.

(C) The director, to pay state disaster unemployment benefits pursuant to section 4141.292 of the Revised Code.

(D) The director, to pay any costs attributable to the director that are associated with the sale of real property under section 4141.131 of the Revised Code.

Whenever the balance in the unemployment compensation special administrative fund is considered to be excessive by the director, the director shall request the director of budget and management to transfer to the unemployment compensation fund the amount considered to be excessive. Any balance in the unemployment compensation special administrative fund shall not lapse at any time, but shall be continuously available to the director of job and family services for expenditures consistent with this chapter.

Sec. 4141.131.  (A) The director of job and family services may enter into contracts for the sale of real property no longer needed by the director for the operations of the director under this title. Any costs attributable to the director that are associated with the sale of real property under this section shall be paid out of the unemployment compensation special administrative fund established pursuant to section 4141.11 of the Revised Code. The director shall submit a report summarizing the use of that fund for the purpose of this section at least annually to the unemployment compensation advisory council as prescribed by the council.

(B)(1) Earnest moneys from the sale of real property pursuant to division (A) of this section shall be deposited into the department of job and family services building consolidation fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury. The balance of the purchase price shall be deposited into the department of job and family services building enhancement fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury. The building enhancement fund shall retain its own interest. Upon completion of the sale and the request of the director, the treasurer of state shall transfer the earnest moneys in the building consolidation fund into the building enhancement fund. The director shall use the interest earned on the moneys in the building enhancement fund only in accordance with division (C) of this section.

(2) The director shall deposit sufficient moneys from the sale of real property pursuant to division (A) of this section into the unemployment compensation special administrative fund to reimburse the fund for all costs associated with the sale of that real property.

(C) The director shall use the moneys in the building enhancement fund from the sale of real property pursuant to division (A) of this section, less the costs of the sale as specified in division (B)(2) of this section, in accordance with the provisions and requirements of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 626 (1935), 52 U.S.C. 502(a) and 1103(c)(2), and the instructions of the United States department of labor, to improve buildings owned by or under the control of the director. If the director determines that there are no buildings for which money in the building enhancement fund may be used, the money shall be returned to the United States department of labor.

(D) The auditor of state, with the assistance of the attorney general, shall prepare a deed to the real property being sold upon notice from the director that a contract for the sale of that property has been executed in accordance with this section. The deed shall state the consideration and any conditions placed upon the sale. The deed shall be executed by the governor in the name of the state, countersigned by the secretary of state, sealed with the great seal of the state, presented in the office of the auditor of state for recording, and delivered to the buyer upon payment of the balance of the purchase price.

The buyer shall present the deed for recording in the county recorder's office of the county in which the real property is located.

Sec. 4141.20.  (A) Every employer, including those not otherwise subject to this chapter, shall furnish the director of job and family services upon request all information required by the director to carry out the requirements of this chapter. Every employer receiving from the director any blank with direction to fill it out shall cause it to be properly filled out, in the manner prescribed by the director, so as to answer fully and correctly all questions therein propounded, and shall furnish all the information therein sought, or, if unable to do so, that employer shall give the director in writing good and sufficient reason for such failure.

The director may require that such information be verified under oath and returned to the director within the period fixed by the director or by law. The director or any person employed by the director for that purpose may examine under oath any such employer, or the officer, agent, or employee of that employer, for the purpose of ascertaining any information that the employer is required by this chapter to furnish to the director. Any employer who fails to furnish information as is required by the director under authority of this section shall forfeit five hundred dollars to be collected in a civil action brought against the employer in the name of the state.

(B) Effective with the calendar quarter beginning April 1, 1987, every contributory employer shall file a quarterly contribution report and a quarterly report of wages. The quarterly reports shall be filed no later than the last day of the first month following the close of the calendar quarter for which the quarterly reports are being filed. The employer shall enter on the quarterly contribution report the total and taxable remuneration paid to all employees during the quarter. The employer shall enter on the quarterly report of wages the name and social security number of each individual employed during the calendar quarter, the total remuneration paid the individual, the number of weeks during the quarter for which the individual was paid remuneration, and any other information as required by section 1137 of the "Social Security Act."

Effective until the calendar quarter beginning January 1, 1993, in case of failure to file the quarterly contribution report or the report of wages containing all the required contribution and wage information within the time prescribed by this section, there shall be assessed a forfeiture amounting to ten per cent of the contributions due; provided such forfeiture shall not be less than twenty-five nor more than two hundred fifty dollars. The director may waive the forfeiture only with respect to the report of wages, and the waiver may be approved only if the employer shows good cause for failure to file the required information.

Effective with the calendar quarter beginning January 1, 1993, in case of failure to file the quarterly contribution report containing all the required information within the time prescribed by this section, there shall be assessed a forfeiture amounting to twenty-five one-hundredths of one per cent of the total remuneration paid by the employer, provided such forfeiture shall not be less than thirty nor more than five hundred dollars per quarterly contribution report. The director may waive the forfeiture only if the employer provides to the director a written statement showing good cause for failure to file the required quarterly contribution report.

Effective with the calendar quarter beginning January 1, 1993, in case of failure to file the quarterly report of wages containing all the required information within the time prescribed by this section, there shall be assessed a forfeiture amounting to twenty-five one-hundredths of one per cent of the total remuneration paid by the employer, provided such forfeiture shall be not less than thirty nor more than five hundred dollars per quarterly report of wages. The director may waive the forfeiture only if the employer provides to the director a written statement showing good cause for failure to file the required quarterly report of wages.

(C) Effective with the calendar quarter beginning April 1, 1987, every employer liable for payments in lieu of contributions shall file a quarterly payroll report and a quarterly report of wages. The employer shall file the quarterly reports no later than the last day of the first month following the close of the calendar quarter for which the quarterly reports are being filed. The employer shall enter on the quarterly payroll report the total remuneration paid to all employees during the quarter and the total wages that would have been taxable had the employer been subject to contributions. The employer shall enter on the quarterly report of wages the name and social security number of each individual employed during the calendar quarter, the total remuneration paid the individual, the number of weeks during the quarter for which the individual was paid remuneration, and any other information as required by section 1137 of the "Social Security Act."

Effective until the calendar quarter beginning January 1, 1993, in case of failure to file the quarterly payroll report or the report of wages containing all of the required payroll or wage information within the time prescribed by this section, the employer shall be assessed a forfeiture of twenty-five dollars per report. The director may waive the forfeiture only with respect to the report of wages, and such waiver may be approved only if the employer shows good cause for failure to file the required information.

Effective with the calendar quarter beginning January 1, 1993, in case of failure to file the quarterly payroll report containing all the required wage information within the time prescribed by this section, the employer shall be assessed a forfeiture amounting to twenty-five one-hundredths of one per cent of the total remuneration paid by the employer, provided such forfeiture shall not be less than thirty nor more than five hundred dollars per quarterly payroll report. The director may waive the forfeiture only if the employer provides to the director a written statement showing good cause for failure to file the required quarterly payroll report.

Effective with the calendar quarter beginning January 1, 1993, in case of failure to file the quarterly report of wages containing all the required information within the time prescribed by this section, there shall be assessed a forfeiture amounting to twenty-five one-hundredths of one per cent of the total remuneration paid by the employer, provided such forfeiture shall be not less than thirty nor more than five hundred dollars per quarterly report of wages. The director may waive the forfeiture only if the employer provides to the director a written statement showing good cause for failure to file the required quarterly report of wages.

(D) Effective with the calendar quarter beginning January 1, 2002, every Every contributory employer shall file a quarterly contribution and wage report. The quarterly report shall be filed not later than the last day of the first month following the close of the calendar quarter for which the quarterly report is being filed. The employer shall enter on the quarterly report the total and taxable remuneration paid to all employees during the quarter, the name and social security number of each individual employed during the calendar quarter, the total remuneration paid the individual, the number of weeks during the quarter for which the individual was paid remuneration, and any other information as required by section 1137 of the "Social Security Act."

Effective with the calendar quarter beginning January 1, 2002, in In case of failure to properly file the quarterly contribution and wage report containing all the required contribution and wage information within the time prescribed by this section, the director shall assess a forfeiture amounting to twenty-five one-hundredths of one per cent of the total remuneration reported by the employer, provided such forfeiture shall not be less than fifty nor more than one thousand dollars.

(E) Effective with the calendar quarter beginning January 1, 2002, every (C) Every employer liable for payments in lieu of contributions shall file a quarterly payroll and wage report. The quarterly report shall be filed not later than the last day of the first month following the close of the calendar quarter for which the quarterly report is being filed. The employer shall enter on the quarterly report the total remuneration paid to all employees during the quarter, the total wages that would have been taxable had the employer been subject to contributions, the name and social security number of each individual employed during the calendar quarter, the total remuneration paid the individual, the number of weeks during the quarter for which the individual was paid remuneration, and any other information as required by section 1137 of the "Social Security Act."

Effective with the calendar quarter beginning January 1, 2002, in In case of failure to properly file the quarterly payroll and wage report containing all the required payroll and wage information within the time prescribed by this section, the director shall assess a forfeiture amounting to twenty-five one-hundredths of one per cent of the total remuneration reported by the employer, provided such forfeiture shall not be less than fifty nor more than one thousand dollars.

(F)(D) The director may waive a forfeiture assessed under division (D)(B) or (E)(C) of this section if the employer provides to the director, within four years after the date the forfeiture was assessed, a written statement showing good cause for failure to properly file the required information.

(G)(E) The director shall furnish the form or forms on which quarterly reports required under this section are to be submitted, or the employer may use other methods of reporting, including electronic information transmission methods, as approved by the director.

(H)(F) All forfeitures required by this section shall be paid into the unemployment compensation special administrative fund as provided in section 4141.11 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 4141.25.  (A) The director of job and family services shall determine as of each computation date the contribution rate of each contributing employer subject to this chapter for the next succeeding contribution period. The director shall determine a standard rate of contribution or an experience rate for each contributing employer. Once a rate of contribution has been established under this section for a contribution period, except as provided in division (D) of section 4141.26 of the Revised Code, that rate shall remain effective throughout such contribution period. The rate of contribution shall be determined in accordance with the following requirements:

(1) An employer whose experience does not meet the terms of division (A)(2) of this section shall be assigned a standard rate of contribution. Effective for contribution periods beginning on and after January 1, 1998, an employer's standard rate of contribution shall be a rate of two and seven-tenths per cent, except that the rate for employers engaged in the construction industry shall be the average contribution rate computed for the construction industry or a rate of two and seven-tenths per cent, whichever is greater. The standard rate set forth in this division shall be applicable to a nonprofit organization whose election to make payments in lieu of contributions is voluntarily terminated or canceled by the director under section 4141.241 of the Revised Code, and thereafter pays contributions as required by this section. If such nonprofit organization had been a contributory employer prior to its election to make payments in lieu of contributions, then any prior balance in the contributory account shall become part of the reactivated account.

As used in division (A) of this section, "the average contribution rate computed for the construction industry" means the most recent annual average rate attributable to the construction industry as prescribed by the director.

(2) A contributing employer subject to this chapter shall qualify for an experience rate only if there have been four consecutive quarters, ending on the thirtieth day of June immediately prior to the computation date, throughout which the employer's account was chargeable with benefits. Upon meeting the qualifying requirements provided in division (A)(2) of this section, the director shall calculate the total credits to each employer's account consisting of the contributions other than mutualized contributions including all contributions paid prior to the computation date for all past periods plus:

(a) The contributions owing on the computation date that are paid within thirty days after the computation date, and credited to the employer's account;

(b) All voluntary contributions paid by an employer pursuant to division (B) of section 4141.24 of the Revised Code.

(3) The director also shall determine the benefits which are chargeable to each employer's account and which were paid prior to the computation date with respect to weeks of unemployment ending prior to the computation date. The director then shall determine the positive or negative balance of each employer's account by calculating the excess of such contributions and interest over the benefits chargeable, or the excess of such benefits over such contributions and interest. Any resulting negative balance then shall be subject to adjustment as provided in division (A)(2) of section 4141.24 of the Revised Code after which the positive or negative balance shall be expressed in terms of a percentage of the employer's average annual payroll. If the total standing to the credit of an employer's account exceeds the total charges, as provided in this division, the employer has a positive balance and if such charges exceed such credits the employer has a negative balance. Each employer's contribution rate shall then be determined in accordance with the following schedule:

(d) The contribution rates shall be as specified in divisions (a), (b), and (c) of the contribution rate schedule except that notwithstanding the amendments made to division (a) of the contribution rate schedule in this section, if, as of the computation date: for 1991, the negative balance is 5.0% or more, the contribution rate shall be 5.7%; for 1992, if the negative balance is 11.0% or more, the contribution rate shall be 6.0%; and for 1993, if the negative balance is 17.0% or more, the contribution rate shall be 6.3%. Thereafter, the contribution rates shall be as specified in the contribution rate schedule.

(B)(1) The director shall establish and maintain a separate account to be known as the "mutualized account." As of each computation date there shall be charged to this account:

(a) As provided in division (A)(2) of section 4141.24 of the Revised Code, an amount equal to the sum of that portion of the negative balances of employer accounts which exceeds the applicable limitations as such balances are computed under division (A) of this section as of such date;

(b) An amount equal to the sum of the negative balances remaining in employer accounts which have been closed during the year immediately preceding such computation date pursuant to division (E) of section 4141.24 of the Revised Code;

(c) An amount equal to the sum of all benefits improperly paid preceding such computation date which are not recovered but which are not charged to an employer's account, or which after being charged, are credited back to an employer's account;

(d) An amount equal to the sum of any other benefits paid preceding such computation date which, under this chapter, are not chargeable to an employer's account;

(e) An amount equal to the sum of any refunds made during the year immediately preceding such computation date of erroneously collected mutualized contributions required by this division which were previously credited to this account;

(f) An amount equal to the sum of any repayments made to the federal government during the year immediately preceding such computation date of amounts which may have been advanced by it to the unemployment compensation fund under section 1201 of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 648 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301;

(g) Any amounts appropriated by the general assembly out of funds paid by the federal government, under section 903 of the "Social Security Act," to the account of this state in the federal unemployment trust fund.

(2) As of every computation date there shall be credited to the mutualized account provided for in this division:

(a) The proceeds of the mutualized contributions as provided in this division;

(b) Any positive balances remaining in employer accounts which are closed as provided in division (E) of section 4141.24 of the Revised Code;

(c) Any benefits improperly paid which are recovered but which cannot be credited to an employer's account;

(d) All amounts which may be paid by the federal government under section 903 of the "Social Security Act" to the account of this state in the federal unemployment trust fund;

(e) Amounts advanced by the federal government to the account of this state in the federal unemployment trust fund under section 1201 of the "Social Security Act" to the extent such advances have been repaid to or recovered by the federal government;

(f) Interest credited to the Ohio unemployment trust fund as deposited with the secretary of the treasury of the United States;

(g) Amounts deposited into the unemployment compensation fund for penalties collected pursuant to division (A)(4) of section 4141.35 of the Revised Code.

(3) Annually, as of the computation date, the director shall determine the total credits and charges made to the mutualized account during the preceding twelve months and the overall condition of the account. The director shall issue an annual statement containing this information and such other information as the director deems pertinent, including a report that the sum of the balances in the mutualized account, employers' accounts, and any subsidiary accounts equal the balance in the state's unemployment trust fund maintained under section 904 of the "Social Security Act."

(4) As used in this division:

(a) "Fund as of the computation date" means as of any computation date, the aggregate amount of the unemployment compensation fund, including all contributions owing on the computation date that are paid within thirty days thereafter, all payments in lieu of contributions that are paid within sixty days after the computation date, all reimbursements of the federal share of extended benefits described in section 4141.301 of the Revised Code that are owing on the computation date, and all interest earned by the fund and received on or before the computation date from the federal government.

(b) "Minimum safe level" means an amount equal to two standard deviations above the average of the adjusted annual average unemployment compensation benefit payment from 1970 to the most recent calendar year prior to the computation date, as determined by the director pursuant to division (B)(4)(b) of this section. To determine the adjusted annual payment of unemployment compensation benefits, the director first shall multiply the number of weeks compensated during each calendar year beginning with 1970 by the most recent annual average weekly unemployment compensation benefit payment and then compute the average and standard deviation of the resultant products.

(c) "Annual average weekly unemployment compensation benefit payment" means the amount resulting from dividing the unemployment compensation benefits paid from the benefit account maintained within the unemployment compensation fund pursuant to section 4141.09 of the Revised Code, by the number of weeks compensated during the same time period.

(5) If, as of any computation date, the charges to the mutualized account during the entire period subsequent to the computation date, July 1, 1966, made in accordance with division (B)(1) of this section, exceed the credits to such account including mutualized contributions during such period, made in accordance with division (B)(2) of this section, the amount of such excess charges shall be recovered during the next contribution period. To recover such amount, the director shall compute the percentage ratio of such excess charges to the average annual payroll of all employers eligible for an experience rate under division (A) of this section. The percentage so determined shall be computed to the nearest tenth of one per cent and shall be an additional contribution rate to be applied to the wages paid by each employer whose rate is computed under the provisions of division (A) of this section in the contribution period next following such computation date, but such percentage shall not exceed five-tenths of one per cent; however, when there are any excess charges in the mutualized account, as computed in this division, then the mutualized contribution rate shall not be less than one-tenth of one per cent.

(6) If the fund as of the computation date is above or below minimum safe level, the contribution rates provided for in each classification in division (A)(3) of this section for the next contribution period shall be adjusted as follows:

(a) If the fund is thirty per cent or more above minimum safe level, the contribution rates provided in division (A)(3) of this section shall be decreased two-tenths of one per cent.

(b) If the fund is more than fifteen per cent but less than thirty per cent above minimum safe level, the contribution rates provided in division (A)(3) of this section shall be decreased one-tenth of one per cent.

(c) If the fund is more than fifteen per cent but less than thirty per cent below minimum safe level, the contribution rates of all employers shall be increased twenty-five one-thousandths of one per cent plus a per cent increase calculated and rounded pursuant to division (B)(6)(g) of this section.

(d) If the fund is more than thirty per cent but less than forty-five per cent below minimum safe level, the contribution rates of all employers shall be increased seventy-five one-thousandths of one per cent plus a per cent increase calculated and rounded pursuant to division (B)(6)(g) of this section.

(e) If the fund is more than forty-five per cent but less than sixty per cent below minimum safe level, the contribution rates of all employers shall be increased one-eighth of one per cent plus a per cent increase calculated and rounded pursuant to division (B)(6)(g) of this section.

(f) If the fund is sixty per cent or more below minimum safe level, the contribution rates of all employers shall be increased two-tenths of one per cent plus a per cent increase calculated and rounded pursuant to division (B)(6)(g) of this section.

(g) The additional per cent increase in contribution rates required by divisions (B)(6)(c), (d), (e), and (f) of this section that is payable by each individual employer shall be calculated in the following manner. The flat rate increase required by a particular division shall be multiplied by three and the product divided by the average experienced-rated contribution rate for all employers as determined by the director for the most recent calendar year. The resulting quotient shall be multiplied by an individual employer's contribution rate determined pursuant to division (A)(3) of this section. The resulting product shall be rounded to the nearest tenth of one per cent, added to the flat rate increase required by division (B)(6)(c), (d), (e), or (f) of this section, as appropriate, and the total shall be rounded to the nearest tenth of one per cent. As used in division (B)(6)(g) of this section, the "average experienced-rated contribution rate" means the most recent annual average contribution rate reported by the director contained in report RS 203.2 less the mutualized and minimum safe level contribution rates included in such rate.

(h) If any of the increased contribution rates of division (B)(6)(c), (d), (e), or (f) of this section are imposed, the rate shall remain in effect for the calendar year in which it is imposed and for each calendar year thereafter until the director determines as of the computation date for calendar year 1991 and as of the computation date for any calendar year thereafter pursuant to this section, that the level of the unemployment compensation fund equals or exceeds the minimum safe level as defined in division (B)(4)(b) of this section. Nothing in division (B)(6)(h) of this section shall be construed as restricting the imposition of the increased contribution rates provided in divisions (B)(6)(c), (d), (e), and (f) of this section if the fund falls below the percentage of the minimum safe level as specified in those divisions.

(7) The additional contributions required by division (B)(5) of this section shall be credited to the mutualized account. The additional contributions required by division (B)(6) of this section shall be credited fifty per cent to individual employer accounts and fifty per cent to the mutualized account.

(C) If an employer makes a payment of contributions which is less than the full amount required by this section and sections 4141.23, 4141.24, 4141.241, 4141.242, 4141.25, 4141.26, and 4141.27 of the Revised Code, such partial payment shall be applied first against the mutualized contributions required under this chapter. Any remaining partial payment shall be credited to the employer's individual account.

(D) Whenever there are any increases in contributions resulting from an increase in wages subject to contributions as defined in division (G) of section 4141.01 of the Revised Code, or from an increase in the mutualized rate of contributions provided in division (B) of this section, or from a revision of the contribution rate schedule provided in division (A) of this section, except for that portion of the increase attributable to a change in the positive or negative balance in an employer's account, which increases become effective after a contract for the construction of real property, as defined in section 5701.02 of the Revised Code, has been entered into, the contractee upon written notice by a prime contractor shall reimburse the contractor for all increased contributions paid by the prime contractor or by subcontractors upon wages for services performed under the contract. Upon reimbursement by the contractee to the prime contractor, the prime contractor shall reimburse each subcontractor for the increased contributions.

(E) Effective only for the contribution period beginning on January 1, 1996, and ending on December 31, 1996, mutualized contributions collected or received by the director pursuant to division (B)(5) of this section and amounts credited to the mutualized account pursuant to division (B)(7) of this section shall be deposited into or credited to the unemployment compensation benefit reserve fund that is created under division (F) of this section, except that amounts collected, received, or credited in excess of two hundred million dollars shall be deposited into or credited to the unemployment trust fund established pursuant to section 4141.09 of the Revised Code.

(F) The state unemployment compensation benefit reserve fund is hereby created as a trust fund in the custody of the treasurer of state and shall not be part of the state treasury. The fund shall consist of all moneys collected or received as mutualized contributions pursuant to division (B)(5) of this section and amounts credited to the mutualized account pursuant to division (B)(7) of this section as provided by division (E) of this section. All moneys in the fund shall be used solely to pay unemployment compensation benefits in the event that funds are no longer available for that purpose from the unemployment trust fund established pursuant to section 4141.09 of the Revised Code.

(G) The balance in the unemployment compensation benefit reserve fund remaining at the end of the contribution period beginning January 1, 2000, and any mutualized contribution amounts for the contribution period beginning on January 1, 1996, that may be received after December 31, 2000, shall be deposited into the unemployment trust fund established pursuant to section 4141.09 of the Revised Code. Income earned on moneys in the state unemployment compensation benefit reserve fund shall be available for use by the director only for the purposes described in division (I) of this section, and shall not be used for any other purpose.

(H) The unemployment compensation benefit reserve fund balance shall be added to the unemployment trust fund balance in determining the minimum safe level tax to be imposed pursuant to division (B) of this section and shall be included in the mutualized account balance for the purpose of determining the mutualized contribution rate pursuant to division (B)(5) of this section.

(I) All income earned on moneys in the unemployment compensation benefit reserve fund from the investment of the fund by the treasurer of state shall accrue to the department of job and family services automation administration fund, which is hereby established in the state treasury. Moneys within the automation administration fund shall be used to meet the costs related to automation of the department and the administrative costs related to collecting and accounting for unemployment compensation benefit reserve fund revenue. Any funds remaining in the automation administration fund upon completion of the department's automation projects that are funded by that fund shall be deposited into the unemployment trust fund established pursuant to section 4141.09 of the Revised Code.

(J) The director shall prepare and submit monthly reports to the unemployment compensation advisory commission with respect to the status of efforts to collect and account for unemployment compensation benefit reserve fund revenue and the costs related to collecting and accounting for that revenue. The director shall obtain approval from the unemployment compensation advisory commission for expenditure of funds from the department of job and family services automation administration fund. Funds may be approved for expenditure for purposes set forth in division (I) of this section only to the extent that federal or other funds are not available.

Sec. 4141.26.  (A) As soon as practicable after the first day of September but not later than the first day of December of each year, the director of job and family services shall notify each employer of the employer's contribution rate as determined for the next ensuing contribution period pursuant to section 4141.25 of the Revised Code provided the employer has furnished the director, by the first day of September following the computation date, with the wage information for all past periods necessary for the computation of the contribution rate.

(B)(1) If an employer has not timely furnished the necessary wage information as required by division (A) of this section, the employer's contribution rate for such contribution period shall not be computed as provided in section 4141.25 of the Revised Code, but instead the employer shall be assigned a contribution rate equal to one hundred twenty-five per cent of the maximum rate provided in that section, with the following exceptions:

(1)(a) If the employer files the necessary wage information by the thirty-first day of December of the year immediately preceding the contribution period for which the rate is to be effective, the employer's rate shall be computed as provided in division (A) of section 4141.25 of the Revised Code.

(2)(b) The director shall revise the contribution rate of an employer who has not timely furnished the necessary wage information as required by division (A) of this section, who has been assigned a contribution rate pursuant to division (B) of this section, and who does not meet the requirements of division (B)(1)(a) of this section, if the employer furnishes the necessary wage information to the director within eighteen months following the thirty-first day of December of the year immediately preceding the contribution period for which the rate is to be effective. The revised rate under division (B)(2)(1)(b) of this section shall be equal to one hundred twenty per cent of the contribution rate that would have resulted if the employer had timely furnished the necessary wage information under division (A) of this section.

(c) The director may waive the maximum contribution rate assigned pursuant to division (B) of this section if the failure to timely furnish the wage information as required by division (A) of this section was a result of circumstances beyond the control of the employer or the employer's agent.

(2) The director shall deny an employer's request for a revision of the employer's rate as provided in division (B)(2)(1)(b) of this section if the director finds that the employer's failure to timely file the necessary wage information was due to an attempt to evade payment.

(3) The director shall round the contribution rates the director determines under division (B) of this section to the nearest tenth of one per cent.

(4) The director shall adopt rules to prescribe requirements and procedures for requesting a waiver of the maximum contribution rate under division (B)(1)(c) of this section.

(C) If, as a result of the computation pursuant to division (B) of this section, the employer's account shows a negative balance in excess of the applicable limitations, in that computation, the excess above applicable limitations shall not be transferred from the account as provided in division (A)(2) of section 4141.24 of the Revised Code.

(D) The rate determined pursuant to this section and section 4141.25 of the Revised Code shall become binding upon the employer unless:

(1) The employer makes a voluntary contribution as provided in division (B) of section 4141.24 of the Revised Code, whereupon the director shall issue the employer a revised contribution rate notice if the contribution changes the employer's rate; or

(2) Within thirty days after the mailing of notice of the employer's rate or a revision of it to the employer's last known address or, in the absence of mailing of such notice, within thirty days after the delivery of such notice, the employer files an application with the director for reconsideration of the director's determination of such rate setting forth reasons for such request. The director shall promptly examine the application for reconsideration and shall notify the employer of the director's reconsidered decision, which shall become final unless, within thirty days after the mailing of such notice by certified mail, return receipt requested, the employer files an application for review of such decision with the unemployment compensation review commission. The commission shall promptly examine the application for review of the director's decision and shall grant such employer an opportunity for a fair hearing. The proceeding at the hearing before the commission shall be recorded in the means and manner prescribed by the commission. For the purposes of this division, the review is considered timely filed when it has been received as provided in division (D)(1) of section 4141.281 of the Revised Code.

The employer and the director shall be promptly notified of the commission's decision, which shall become final unless, within thirty days after the mailing of notice of it to the employer's last known address by certified mail, return receipt requested, or, in the absence of mailing, within thirty days after delivery of such notice, an appeal is taken by the employer or the director to the court of common pleas of Franklin county. Such appeal shall be taken by the employer or the director by filing a notice of appeal with the clerk of such court and with the commission. Such notice of appeal shall set forth the decision appealed and the errors in it complained of. Proof of the filing of such notice with the commission shall be filed with the clerk of such court.

The commission, upon written demand filed by the appellant and within thirty days after the filing of such demand, shall file with the clerk a certified transcript of the record of the proceedings before the commission pertaining to the determination or order complained of, and the appeal shall be heard upon such record certified to the commission. In such appeal, no additional evidence shall be received by the court, but the court may order additional evidence to be taken before the commission, and the commission, after hearing such additional evidence, shall certify such additional evidence to the court or it may modify its determination and file such modified determination, together with the transcript of the additional record, with the court. After an appeal has been filed in the court, the commission, by petition, may be made a party to such appeal. Such appeal shall be given precedence over other civil cases. The court may affirm the determination or order complained of in the appeal if it finds, upon consideration of the entire record, that the determination or order is supported by reliable, probative, and substantial evidence and is in accordance with law. In the absence of such a finding, it may reverse, vacate, or modify the determination or order or make such other ruling as is supported by reliable, probative, and substantial evidence and is in accordance with law. The judgment of the court shall be final and conclusive unless reversed, vacated, or modified on appeal. An appeal may be taken from the decision of the court of common pleas of Franklin county.

(E) The appeal provisions of division (D) of this section apply to all other determinations and orders of the director affecting the liability of an employer to pay contributions or the amount of such contributions, determinations respecting application for refunds of contributions, determinations respecting applications for classification of employment as seasonal under section 4141.33 of the Revised Code, and exceptions to charges of benefits to an employer's account as provided in division (D) of section 4141.24 of the Revised Code.

(F) The validity of any general order or rule of the director adopted pursuant to this chapter or of any final order or action of the unemployment compensation review commission respecting any such general order or rule may be determined by the court of common pleas of Franklin county, and such general order, rule, or action may be sustained or set aside by the court on an appeal to it which may be taken by any person affected by the order, rule, or action in the manner provided by law. Such appeal to the court of common pleas of Franklin county shall be filed within thirty days after the date such general order, rule, or action was publicly released by the director or the commission. Either party to such action may appeal from the court of common pleas of Franklin county as in ordinary civil cases.

(G) Notwithstanding any determination made in pursuance of sections 4141.23 to 4141.26 of the Revised Code, no individual who files a claim for benefits shall be denied the right to a fair hearing as provided in section 4141.281 of the Revised Code, or the right to have a claim determined on the merits of it.

(H)(1) Notwithstanding division (D) of this section, if the director finds that an omission or error in the director's records or employer reporting caused the director to issue an erroneous determination or order affecting contribution rates, the liability of an employer to pay contributions or the amount of such contributions, determinations respecting applications for refunds of contributions, determinations respecting applications for classification of seasonal status under section 4141.33 of the Revised Code, or exceptions to charges of benefits to an employer's account as provided in division (D) of section 4141.24 of the Revised Code, the director may issue a corrected determination or order correcting the erroneous determination or order, except as provided in division (H)(2) of this section.

(2) The director may not issue a corrected determination or order correcting an erroneous determination or order if both of the following apply:

(a) The erroneous determination or order was caused solely by an omission or error of the director;

(b) A correction of the erroneous determination or order would adversely affect the employer or any of the employers that were parties in interest to the erroneous determination or order.

A corrected determination or order issued under this division takes precedence over and renders void the erroneous determination or order and is appealable as provided in division (D) of this section.

Sec. 4141.28. 

(A) FILINGS

Applications for determination of benefit rights and claims for benefits shall be filed with the director of job and family services. Such applications and claims also may be filed with an employee of another state or federal agency charged with the duty of accepting applications and claims for unemployment benefits or with an employee of the unemployment insurance commission of Canada.

Effective July 1, 2015, an individual shall file an application for determination of benefit rights and a claim for benefits by electronic means in a manner prescribed by the director, except that no individual shall be required to file such an application or claim by electronic means if one or more of the following circumstances apply:

(1) The individual is legally prohibited from using a computer;

(2) The individual has a physical or visual impairment that makes the individual unable to use a computer;

(3) The individual has limited ability to read or write effectively in a language in which the electronic application or claim is available;

(4) A disaster or emergency declared by the governor prevents compliance with the electronic filing requirement.

When an unemployed individual files an application for determination of benefit rights, the director shall furnish the individual with an explanation of the individual's appeal rights. The explanation shall describe clearly the different levels of appeal and explain where and when each appeal must be filed.

(B) APPLICATION FOR DETERMINATION OF BENEFIT RIGHTS

In filing an application, an individual shall furnish the director with the name and address of the individual's most recent separating employer and the individual's statement of the reason for separation from the employer. The director shall promptly notify the individual's most recent separating employer of the filing and request the reason for the individual's unemployment, unless that notice is not necessary under conditions the director establishes by rule. The director may request from the individual or any employer information necessary for the determination of the individual's right to benefits. The employer shall provide the information requested within ten working days after the request is sent. If necessary to ensure prompt determination and payment of benefits, the director shall base the determination on the information that is available.

An individual filing an application for determination of benefit rights shall disclose, at the time of filing, whether or not the individual owes child support obligations.

(C) MASS LAYOFFS

An employer who lays off or separates within any seven-day period fifty or more individuals because of lack of work shall furnish notice to the director of the dates of layoff or separation and the approximate number of individuals being laid off or separated. The notice shall be furnished at least three working days prior to the date of the first day of such layoff or separation. In addition, at the time of the layoff or separation the employer shall furnish to the individual and to the director information necessary to determine the individual's eligibility for unemployment compensation.

(D) DETERMINATION OF BENEFIT RIGHTS

The director shall promptly examine any application for determination of benefit rights. On the basis of the information available to the director under this chapter, the director shall determine whether or not the application is valid, and if valid, the date on which the benefit year shall commence and the weekly benefit amount. The director shall promptly notify the applicant, employers in the applicant's base period, and any other interested parties of the determination and the reasons for it. In addition, the determination issued to the claimant shall include the total amount of benefits payable. The determination issued to each chargeable base period employer shall include the total amount of benefits that may be charged to the employer's account.

(E) CLAIM FOR BENEFITS

The director shall examine the first claim and any additional claim for benefits. On the basis of the information available, the director shall determine whether the claimant's most recent separation and, to the extent necessary, prior separations from work, allow the claimant to qualify for benefits. Written notice of the determination granting or denying benefits shall be sent to the claimant, the most recent separating employer, and any other employer involved in the determination, except that written notice is not required to be sent to the claimant if the reason for separation is lack of work and the claim is allowed.

If the director identifies an eligibility issue, the director shall send notice to the claimant of the issue identified and specify the week or weeks involved. The claimant has a minimum of five business days after the notice is sent to respond to the information included in the notice, and after the time allowed as determined by the director, the director shall make a determination. The claimant's response may include a request for a fact-finding interview when the eligibility issue is raised by an informant or source other than the claimant, or when the eligibility issue, if determined adversely, disqualifies the claimant for the duration of the claimant's period of unemployment.

When the determination of a continued claim for benefits results in a disallowed claim, the director shall notify the claimant of the disallowance and the reasons for it.

(F) ELIGIBILITY NOTICE

Any base period or subsequent employer of a claimant who has knowledge of specific facts affecting the claimant's right to receive benefits for any week may notify the director in writing of those facts. The director shall prescribe a form for such eligibility notice, but failure to use the form shall not preclude the director's examination of any notice.

To be considered valid, an eligibility notice must: contain in writing, a statement that identifies either a source who has firsthand knowledge of the information or an informant who can identify the source; provide specific and detailed information that may potentially disqualify the claimant; provide the name and address of the source or the informant; and appear to the director to be reliable and credible.

An eligibility notice is timely filed if received or postmarked prior to or within forty-five calendar days after the end of the week with respect to which a claim for benefits is filed by the claimant. An employer who timely files a valid eligibility notice shall be an interested party to the claim for benefits which is the subject of the notice.

The director shall consider the information contained in the eligibility notice, together with other available information. After giving the claimant notice and an opportunity to respond, the director shall make a determination and inform the notifying employer, the claimant, and other interested parties of the determination.

(G) CORRECTED DETERMINATION

If the director finds within the fifty-two calendar weeks beginning with the Sunday of the week during which an application for benefit rights was filed or within the benefit year that a determination made by the director was erroneous due to an error in an employer's report or any typographical or clerical error in the director's determination, or as shown by correct remuneration information received by the director, the director shall issue a corrected determination to all interested parties. The corrected determination shall take precedence over and void the prior determination of the director. The director shall not issue a corrected determination when the commission or a court has jurisdiction with respect to that determination.

(H) EFFECT OF COMMISSION DECISIONS

In making determinations, the director shall follow decisions of the unemployment compensation review commission which have become final with respect to claimants similarly situated.

(I) PROMPT PAYMENTS

If benefits are allowed by the director, a hearing officer, the commission, or a court, the director shall pay benefits promptly, notwithstanding any further appeal, provided that if benefits are denied on appeal, of which the parties have notice and an opportunity to be heard, the director shall withhold payment of benefits pending a decision on any further appeal.

Sec. 4141.29.  Each eligible individual shall receive benefits as compensation for loss of remuneration due to involuntary total or partial unemployment in the amounts and subject to the conditions stipulated in this chapter.

(A) No individual is entitled to a waiting period or benefits for any week unless the individual:

(1) Has filed a valid application for determination of benefit rights in accordance with section 4141.28 of the Revised Code;

(2) Has made a claim for benefits in accordance with section 4141.28 of the Revised Code;

(3)(a) Has registered for work and thereafter continues to report to an employment office or other registration place maintained or designated by the director of job and family services. Registration shall be made in accordance with the time limits, frequency, and manner prescribed by the director.

(b) For purposes of division (A)(3) of this section, an individual has "registered" upon doing any of the following:

(i) Filing an application for benefit rights;

(ii) Making a weekly claim for benefits;

(iii) Reopening an existing claim following a period of employment or nonreporting.

(c) After an applicant is registered, that registration continues for a period of three calendar weeks, including the week during which the applicant registered. However, an individual is not registered for purposes of division (A)(3) of this section during any period in which the individual fails to report, as instructed by the director, or fails to reopen an existing claim following a period of employment.

(d) The director may, for good cause, extend the period of registration.

(e) For purposes of this section, "report" means contact by phone, access electronically, or be present for an in-person appointment, as designated by the director.

(4)(a)(i) Is able to work and available for suitable work and, except as provided in division (A)(4)(a)(ii) or (iii) of this section, is actively seeking suitable work either in a locality in which the individual has earned wages subject to this chapter during the individual's base period, or if the individual leaves that locality, then in a locality where suitable work normally is performed.

(ii) The director may waive the requirement that a claimant be actively seeking work when the director finds that the individual has been laid off and the employer who laid the individual off has notified the director within ten days after the layoff, that work is expected to be available for the individual within a specified number of days not to exceed forty-five calendar days following the last day the individual worked. In the event the individual is not recalled within the specified period, this waiver shall cease to be operative with respect to that layoff.

(iii) The director may waive the requirement that a claimant be actively seeking work if the director determines that the individual has been laid off and the employer who laid the individual off has notified the director in accordance with division (C) of section 4141.28 of the Revised Code that the employer has closed the employer's entire plant or part of the employer's plant for a purpose other than inventory or vacation that will cause unemployment for a definite period not exceeding twenty-six weeks beginning on the date the employer notifies the director, for the period of the specific shutdown, if all of the following apply:

(I) The employer and the individuals affected by the layoff who are claiming benefits under this chapter jointly request the exemption.

(II) The employer provides that the affected individuals shall return to work for the employer within twenty-six weeks after the date the employer notifies the director.

(III) The director determines that the waiver of the active search for work requirement will promote productivity and economic stability within the state.

(iv) Division (A)(4)(a)(iii) of this section does not exempt an individual from meeting the other requirements specified in division (A)(4)(a)(i) of this section to be able to work and otherwise fully be available for work. An exemption granted under division (A)(4)(a)(iii) of this section may be granted only with respect to a specific plant closing.

(b)(i) The individual shall be instructed as to the efforts that the individual must make in the search for suitable work, including that, within six months after the effective date of this amendment October 11, 2013, the individual shall register with OhioMeansJobs, except in any of the following circumstances:

(I) The individual is an individual described in division (A)(4)(b)(iii) of this section;

(II) Where the active search for work requirement has been waived under division (A)(4)(a) of this section;

(III) Where the active search for work requirement is considered to be met under division (A)(4)(c), (d), or (e) of this section.

(ii) An individual who is registered with OhioMeansJobs shall receive a weekly listing of available jobs based on information provided by the individual at the time of registration. For each week that the individual claims benefits, the individual shall keep a record of the individual's work search efforts and shall produce that record in the manner and means prescribed by the director.

(iii) No individual shall be required to register with OhioMeansJobs if the individual is legally prohibited from using a computer, has a physical or visual impairment that makes the individual unable to use a computer, or has a limited ability to read, write, speak, or understand a language in which OhioMeansJobs is available.

(iv) As used in division (A)(4)(b) of this section:

(I) "OhioMeansJobs" means the electronic job placement system operated by the state.

(II) "Registration" includes the creation, electronic posting, and maintenance of an active, searchable resume.

(c) An individual who is attending a training course approved by the director meets the requirement of this division, if attendance was recommended by the director and the individual is regularly attending the course and is making satisfactory progress. An individual also meets the requirements of this division if the individual is participating and advancing in a training program, as defined in division (P) of section 5709.61 of the Revised Code, and if an enterprise, defined in division (B) of section 5709.61 of the Revised Code, is paying all or part of the cost of the individual's participation in the training program with the intention of hiring the individual for employment as a new employee, as defined in division (L) of section 5709.61 of the Revised Code, for at least ninety days after the individual's completion of the training program.

(d) An individual who becomes unemployed while attending a regularly established school and whose base period qualifying weeks were earned in whole or in part while attending that school, meets the availability and active search for work requirements of division (A)(4)(a) of this section if the individual regularly attends the school during weeks with respect to which the individual claims unemployment benefits and makes self available on any shift of hours for suitable employment with the individual's most recent employer or any other employer in the individual's base period, or for any other suitable employment to which the individual is directed, under this chapter.

(e) An individual who is a member in good standing with a labor organization that refers individuals to jobs meets the active search for work requirement specified in division (A)(4)(a) of this section if the individual provides documentation that the individual is eligible for a referral or placement upon request and in a manner prescribed by the director.

(f) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this section, no otherwise eligible individual shall be denied benefits for any week because the individual is in training approved under section 236(a)(1) of the "Trade Act of 1974," 88 Stat. 1978, 19 U.S.C.A. 2296, nor shall that individual be denied benefits by reason of leaving work to enter such training, provided the work left is not suitable employment, or because of the application to any week in training of provisions in this chapter, or any applicable federal unemployment compensation law, relating to availability for work, active search for work, or refusal to accept work.

For the purposes of division (A)(4)(f) of this section, "suitable employment" means with respect to an individual, work of a substantially equal or higher skill level than the individual's past adversely affected employment, as defined for the purposes of the "Trade Act of 1974," 88 Stat. 1978, 19 U.S.C.A. 2101, and wages for such work at not less than eighty per cent of the individual's average weekly wage as determined for the purposes of that federal act.

(5) Is unable to obtain suitable work. An individual who is provided temporary work assignments by the individual's employer under agreed terms and conditions of employment, and who is required pursuant to those terms and conditions to inquire with the individual's employer for available work assignments upon the conclusion of each work assignment, is not considered unable to obtain suitable employment if suitable work assignments are available with the employer but the individual fails to contact the employer to inquire about work assignments.

(6) Participates in reemployment services, such as job search assistance services, if the individual has been determined to be likely to exhaust benefits under this chapter, including compensation payable pursuant to 5 U.S.C.A. Chapter 85, other than extended compensation, and needs reemployment services pursuant to the profiling system established by the director under division (K) of this section, unless the director determines that:

(a) The individual has completed such services; or

(b) There is justifiable cause for the claimant's failure to participate in such services.

Ineligibility for failure to participate in reemployment services as described in division (A)(6) of this section shall be for the week or weeks in which the claimant was scheduled and failed to participate without justifiable cause.

(7) Participates in the reemployment and eligibility assessment program, or other reemployment services, as required by the director. As used in division (A)(7) of this section, "reemployment services" includes job search assistance activities, skills assessments, and the provision of labor market statistics or analysis.

(a) For purposes of division (A)(7) of this section, participation is required unless the director determines that either of the following circumstances applies to the individual:

(i) The individual has completed similar services.

(ii) Justifiable cause exists for the failure of the individual to participate in those services.

(b) Within six months after the effective date of this amendment October 11, 2013, notwithstanding any earlier contact an individual may have had with a local one-stop county office, including as described in section 6301.08 of the Revised Code, beginning with the eighth week after the week during which an individual first files a valid application for determination of benefit rights in the individual's benefit year, the individual shall report to a local one-stop county office for reemployment services in the manner prescribed by the director.

(c) An individual whose active search for work requirement has been waived under division (A)(4)(a) of this section or is considered to be satisfied under division (A)(4)(c), (d), or (e) of this section is exempt from the requirements of division (A)(7) of this section.

(B) An individual suffering total or partial unemployment is eligible for benefits for unemployment occurring subsequent to a waiting period of one week and no benefits shall be payable during this required waiting period. Not more than one week of waiting period shall be required of any individual in any benefit year in order to establish the individual's eligibility for total or partial unemployment benefits.

(C) The waiting period for total or partial unemployment shall commence on the first day of the first week with respect to which the individual first files a claim for benefits at an employment office or other place of registration maintained or designated by the director or on the first day of the first week with respect to which the individual has otherwise filed a claim for benefits in accordance with the rules of the department of job and family services, provided such claim is allowed by the director.

(D) Notwithstanding division (A) of this section, no individual may serve a waiting period or be paid benefits under the following conditions:

(1) For any week with respect to which the director finds that:

(a) The individual's unemployment was due to a labor dispute other than a lockout at any factory, establishment, or other premises located in this or any other state and owned or operated by the employer by which the individual is or was last employed; and for so long as the individual's unemployment is due to such labor dispute. No individual shall be disqualified under this provision if either of the following applies:

(i) The individual's employment was with such employer at any factory, establishment, or premises located in this state, owned or operated by such employer, other than the factory, establishment, or premises at which the labor dispute exists, if it is shown that the individual is not financing, participating in, or directly interested in such labor dispute;

(ii) The individual's employment was with an employer not involved in the labor dispute but whose place of business was located within the same premises as the employer engaged in the dispute, unless the individual's employer is a wholly owned subsidiary of the employer engaged in the dispute, or unless the individual actively participates in or voluntarily stops work because of such dispute. If it is established that the claimant was laid off for an indefinite period and not recalled to work prior to the dispute, or was separated by the employer prior to the dispute for reasons other than the labor dispute, or that the individual obtained a bona fide job with another employer while the dispute was still in progress, such labor dispute shall not render the employee ineligible for benefits.

(b) The individual has been given a disciplinary layoff for misconduct in connection with the individual's work.

(2) For the duration of the individual's unemployment if the director finds that:

(a) The individual quit work without just cause or has been discharged for just cause in connection with the individual's work, provided division (D)(2) of this section does not apply to the separation of a person under any of the following circumstances:

(i) Separation from employment for the purpose of entering the armed forces of the United States if the individual is inducted into the armed forces within one of the following periods:

(I) Thirty days after separation;

(II) One hundred eighty days after separation if the individual's date of induction is delayed solely at the discretion of the armed forces.

(ii) Separation from employment pursuant to a labor-management contract or agreement, or pursuant to an established employer plan, program, or policy, which permits the employee, because of lack of work, to accept a separation from employment;

(iii) The individual has left employment to accept a recall from a prior employer or, except as provided in division (D)(2)(a)(iv) of this section, to accept other employment as provided under section 4141.291 of the Revised Code, or left or was separated from employment that was concurrent employment at the time of the most recent separation or within six weeks prior to the most recent separation where the remuneration, hours, or other conditions of such concurrent employment were substantially less favorable than the individual's most recent employment and where such employment, if offered as new work, would be considered not suitable under the provisions of divisions (E) and (F) of this section. Any benefits that would otherwise be chargeable to the account of the employer from whom an individual has left employment or was separated from employment that was concurrent employment under conditions described in division (D)(2)(a)(iii) of this section, shall instead be charged to the mutualized account created by division (B) of section 4141.25 of the Revised Code, except that any benefits chargeable to the account of a reimbursing employer under division (D)(2)(a)(iii) of this section shall be charged to the account of the reimbursing employer and not to the mutualized account, except as provided in division (D)(2) of section 4141.24 of the Revised Code.

(iv) When an individual has been issued a definite layoff date by the individual's employer and before the layoff date, the individual quits to accept other employment, the provisions of division (D)(2)(a)(iii) of this section apply and no disqualification shall be imposed under division (D) of this section. However, if the individual fails to meet the employment and earnings requirements of division (A)(2) of section 4141.291 of the Revised Code, then the individual, pursuant to division (A)(5) of this section, shall be ineligible for benefits for any week of unemployment that occurs prior to the layoff date.

(b) The individual has refused without good cause to accept an offer of suitable work when made by an employer either in person or to the individual's last known address, or has refused or failed to investigate a referral to suitable work when directed to do so by a local employment office of this state or another state, provided that this division shall not cause a disqualification for a waiting week or benefits under the following circumstances:

(i) When work is offered by the individual's employer and the individual is not required to accept the offer pursuant to the terms of the labor-management contract or agreement; or

(ii) When the individual is attending a training course pursuant to division (A)(4) of this section except, in the event of a refusal to accept an offer of suitable work or a refusal or failure to investigate a referral, benefits thereafter paid to such individual shall not be charged to the account of any employer and, except as provided in division (B)(1)(b) of section 4141.241 of the Revised Code, shall be charged to the mutualized account as provided in division (B) of section 4141.25 of the Revised Code.

(c) Such individual quit work to marry or because of marital, parental, filial, or other domestic obligations.

(d) The individual became unemployed by reason of commitment to any correctional institution.

(e) The individual became unemployed because of dishonesty in connection with the individual's most recent or any base period work. Remuneration earned in such work shall be excluded from the individual's total base period remuneration and qualifying weeks that otherwise would be credited to the individual for such work in the individual's base period shall not be credited for the purpose of determining the total benefits to which the individual is eligible and the weekly benefit amount to be paid under section 4141.30 of the Revised Code. Such excluded remuneration and noncredited qualifying weeks shall be excluded from the calculation of the maximum amount to be charged, under division (D) of section 4141.24 and section 4141.33 of the Revised Code, against the accounts of the individual's base period employers. In addition, no benefits shall thereafter be paid to the individual based upon such excluded remuneration or noncredited qualifying weeks.

For purposes of division (D)(2)(e) of this section, "dishonesty" means the commission of substantive theft, fraud, or deceitful acts.

(E) No individual otherwise qualified to receive benefits shall lose the right to benefits by reason of a refusal to accept new work if:

(1) As a condition of being so employed the individual would be required to join a company union, or to resign from or refrain from joining any bona fide labor organization, or would be denied the right to retain membership in and observe the lawful rules of any such organization.

(2) The position offered is vacant due directly to a strike, lockout, or other labor dispute.

(3) The work is at an unreasonable distance from the individual's residence, having regard to the character of the work the individual has been accustomed to do, and travel to the place of work involves expenses substantially greater than that required for the individual's former work, unless the expense is provided for.

(4) The remuneration, hours, or other conditions of the work offered are substantially less favorable to the individual than those prevailing for similar work in the locality.

(F) Subject to the special exceptions contained in division (A)(4)(f) of this section and section 4141.301 of the Revised Code, in determining whether any work is suitable for a claimant in the administration of this chapter, the director, in addition to the determination required under division (E) of this section, shall consider the degree of risk to the claimant's health, safety, and morals, the individual's physical fitness for the work, the individual's prior training and experience, the length of the individual's unemployment, the distance of the available work from the individual's residence, and the individual's prospects for obtaining local work.

(G) The "duration of unemployment" as used in this section means the full period of unemployment next ensuing after a separation from any base period or subsequent work and until an individual has become reemployed in employment subject to this chapter, or the unemployment compensation act of another state, or of the United States, and until such individual has worked six weeks and for those weeks has earned or been paid remuneration equal to six times an average weekly wage of not less than: eighty-five dollars and ten cents per week beginning on June 26, 1990; and beginning on and after January 1, 1992, twenty-seven and one-half per cent of the statewide average weekly wage as computed each first day of January under division (B)(3) of section 4141.30 of the Revised Code, rounded down to the nearest dollar, except for purposes of division (D)(2)(c) of this section, such term means the full period of unemployment next ensuing after a separation from such work and until such individual has become reemployed subject to the terms set forth above, and has earned wages equal to one-half of the individual's average weekly wage or sixty dollars, whichever is less.

(H) If a claimant is disqualified under division (D)(2)(a), (c), or (d) of this section or found to be qualified under the exceptions provided in division (D)(2)(a)(i), (iii), or (iv) of this section or division (A)(2) of section 4141.291 of the Revised Code, then benefits that may become payable to such claimant, which are chargeable to the account of the employer from whom the individual was separated under such conditions, shall be charged to the mutualized account provided in section 4141.25 of the Revised Code, provided that no charge shall be made to the mutualized account for benefits chargeable to a reimbursing employer, except as provided in division (D)(2) of section 4141.24 of the Revised Code. In the case of a reimbursing employer, the director shall refund or credit to the account of the reimbursing employer any over-paid benefits that are recovered under division (B) of section 4141.35 of the Revised Code. Amounts chargeable to other states, the United States, or Canada that are subject to agreements and arrangements that are established pursuant to section 4141.43 of the Revised Code shall be credited or reimbursed according to the agreements and arrangements to which the chargeable amounts are subject.

(I)(1) Benefits based on service in employment as provided in divisions (B)(2)(a) and (b) of section 4141.01 of the Revised Code shall be payable in the same amount, on the same terms, and subject to the same conditions as benefits payable on the basis of other service subject to this chapter; except that after December 31, 1977:

(a) Benefits based on service in an instructional, research, or principal administrative capacity in an institution of higher education, as defined in division (Y) of section 4141.01 of the Revised Code; or for an educational institution as defined in division (CC) of section 4141.01 of the Revised Code, shall not be paid to any individual for any week of unemployment that begins during the period between two successive academic years or terms, or during a similar period between two regular but not successive terms or during a period of paid sabbatical leave provided for in the individual's contract, if the individual performs such services in the first of those academic years or terms and has a contract or a reasonable assurance that the individual will perform services in any such capacity for any such institution in the second of those academic years or terms.

(b) Benefits based on service for an educational institution or an institution of higher education in other than an instructional, research, or principal administrative capacity, shall not be paid to any individual for any week of unemployment which begins during the period between two successive academic years or terms of the employing educational institution or institution of higher education, provided the individual performed those services for the educational institution or institution of higher education during the first such academic year or term and, there is a reasonable assurance that such individual will perform those services for any educational institution or institution of higher education in the second of such academic years or terms.

If compensation is denied to any individual for any week under division (I)(1)(b) of this section and the individual was not offered an opportunity to perform those services for an institution of higher education or for an educational institution for the second of such academic years or terms, the individual is entitled to a retroactive payment of compensation for each week for which the individual timely filed a claim for compensation and for which compensation was denied solely by reason of division (I)(1)(b) of this section. An application for retroactive benefits shall be timely filed if received by the director or the director's deputy within or prior to the end of the fourth full calendar week after the end of the period for which benefits were denied because of reasonable assurance of employment. The provision for the payment of retroactive benefits under division (I)(1)(b) of this section is applicable to weeks of unemployment beginning on and after November 18, 1983. The provisions under division (I)(1)(b) of this section shall be retroactive to September 5, 1982, only if, as a condition for full tax credit against the tax imposed by the "Federal Unemployment Tax Act," 53 Stat. 183 (1939), 26 U.S.C.A. 3301 to 3311, the United States secretary of labor determines that retroactivity is required by federal law.

(c) With respect to weeks of unemployment beginning after December 31, 1977, benefits shall be denied to any individual for any week which commences during an established and customary vacation period or holiday recess, if the individual performs any services described in divisions (I)(1)(a) and (b) of this section in the period immediately before the vacation period or holiday recess, and there is a reasonable assurance that the individual will perform any such services in the period immediately following the vacation period or holiday recess.

(d) With respect to any services described in division (I)(1)(a), (b), or (c) of this section, benefits payable on the basis of services in any such capacity shall be denied as specified in division (I)(1)(a), (b), or (c) of this section to any individual who performs such services in an educational institution or institution of higher education while in the employ of an educational service agency. For this purpose, the term "educational service agency" means a governmental agency or governmental entity that is established and operated exclusively for the purpose of providing services to one or more educational institutions or one or more institutions of higher education.

(e) Any individual employed by a county board of developmental disabilities shall be notified by the thirtieth day of April each year if the individual is not to be reemployed the following academic year.

(f) Any individual employed by a school district, other than a municipal school district as defined in section 3311.71 of the Revised Code, shall be notified by the first day of June each year if the individual is not to be reemployed the following academic year.

(2) No disqualification will be imposed, between academic years or terms or during a vacation period or holiday recess under this division, unless the director or the director's deputy has received a statement in writing from the educational institution or institution of higher education that the claimant has a contract for, or a reasonable assurance of, reemployment for the ensuing academic year or term.

(3) If an individual has employment with an educational institution or an institution of higher education and employment with a noneducational employer, during the base period of the individual's benefit year, then the individual may become eligible for benefits during the between-term, or vacation or holiday recess, disqualification period, based on employment performed for the noneducational employer, provided that the employment is sufficient to qualify the individual for benefit rights separately from the benefit rights based on school employment. The weekly benefit amount and maximum benefits payable during a disqualification period shall be computed based solely on the nonschool employment.

(J) Benefits shall not be paid on the basis of employment performed by an alien, unless the alien had been lawfully admitted to the United States for permanent residence at the time the services were performed, was lawfully present for purposes of performing the services, or was otherwise permanently residing in the United States under color of law at the time the services were performed, under section 212(d)(5) of the "Immigration and Nationality Act," 66 Stat. 163, 8 U.S.C.A. 1101:

(1) Any data or information required of individuals applying for benefits to determine whether benefits are not payable to them because of their alien status shall be uniformly required from all applicants for benefits.

(2) In the case of an individual whose application for benefits would otherwise be approved, no determination that benefits to the individual are not payable because of the individual's alien status shall be made except upon a preponderance of the evidence that the individual had not, in fact, been lawfully admitted to the United States.

(K) The director shall establish and utilize a system of profiling all new claimants under this chapter that:

(1) Identifies which claimants will be likely to exhaust regular compensation and will need job search assistance services to make a successful transition to new employment;

(2) Refers claimants identified pursuant to division (K)(1) of this section to reemployment services, such as job search assistance services, available under any state or federal law;

(3) Collects follow-up information relating to the services received by such claimants and the employment outcomes for such claimant's subsequent to receiving such services and utilizes such information in making identifications pursuant to division (K)(1) of this section; and

(4) Meets such other requirements as the United States secretary of labor determines are appropriate.

(L) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(6) of this section, ineligibility pursuant to division (A) of this section shall begin on the first day of the week in which the claimant becomes ineligible for benefits and shall end on the last day of the week preceding the week in which the claimant satisfies the eligibility requirements.

(M) The director may adopt rules that the director considers necessary for the administration of division (A) of this section.

Sec. 4141.35.  (A) If the director of job and family services finds that any fraudulent misrepresentation has been made by an applicant for or a recipient of benefits with the object of obtaining benefits to which the applicant or recipient was not entitled, and in addition to any other penalty or forfeiture under this chapter, then the director:

(1) Shall within four years after the end of the benefit year in which the fraudulent misrepresentation was made reject or cancel such person's entire weekly claim for benefits that was fraudulently claimed, or the person's entire benefit rights if the misrepresentation was in connection with the filing of the claimant's application for determination of benefit rights;

(2) Shall by order declare that, for each application for benefit rights and for each weekly claim canceled, such person shall be ineligible for two otherwise valid weekly claims for benefits, claimed within six years subsequent to the discovery of such misrepresentation;

(3) By order shall require that the total amount of benefits rejected or canceled under division (A)(1) of this section be repaid to the director before such person may become eligible for further benefits, and shall withhold such unpaid sums from future benefit payments accruing and otherwise payable to such claimant. Effective with orders issued on or after January 1, 1993, if such benefits are not repaid within thirty days after the director's order becomes final, interest on the amount remaining unpaid shall be charged to the person at a rate and calculated in the same manner as provided under section 4141.23 of the Revised Code. When a person ordered to repay benefits has repaid all overpaid benefits according to a plan approved by the director, the director may cancel the amount of interest that accrued during the period of the repayment plan. The director may take action in any court of competent jurisdiction to collect benefits and interest as provided in sections 4141.23 and 4141.27 of the Revised Code, in regard to the collection of unpaid contributions, using the final repayment order as the basis for such action. Except as otherwise provided in this division, no administrative or legal proceedings for the collection of such benefits or interest due, or for the collection of a penalty under division (A)(4) of this section, shall be initiated after the expiration of six years from the date on which the director's order requiring repayment became final and the amount of any benefits, penalty, or interest not recovered at that time, and any liens thereon, shall be canceled as uncollectible. The time limit for instituting proceedings shall be extended by the period of any stay to the collection or by any other time period to which the parties mutually agree.

(4) Shall, for findings made on or after October 21, 2013, by order assess a mandatory penalty on such a person in an amount equal to twenty-five per cent of the total amount of benefits rejected or canceled under division (A)(1) of this section. The first sixty per cent of each penalty collected under division (A)(4) of this section shall be deposited into the unemployment compensation fund created under section 4141.09 of the Revised Code, and the and shall be credited to the mutualized account, as provided in division (B)(2)(g) of section 4141.25 of the Revised Code. The remainder of each penalty collected shall be deposited into the unemployment compensation special administrative fund created under section 4141.11 of the Revised Code.

(5) May take action to collect benefits fraudulently obtained under the unemployment compensation law of any other state or the United States or Canada. Such action may be initiated in the courts of this state in the same manner as provided for unpaid contributions in section 4141.41 of the Revised Code.

(6) May take action to collect benefits that have been fraudulently obtained from the director, interest pursuant to division (A)(3) of this section, and court costs, through attachment proceedings under Chapter 2715. of the Revised Code and garnishment proceedings under Chapter 2716. of the Revised Code.

(B) If the director finds that an applicant for benefits has been credited with a waiting period or paid benefits to which the applicant was not entitled for reasons other than fraudulent misrepresentation, the director shall:

(1)(a) Within six months after the determination under which the claimant was credited with that waiting period or paid benefits becomes final pursuant to section 4141.28 of the Revised Code, or within three years after the end of the benefit year in which such benefits were claimed, whichever is later, by order cancel such waiting period and require that such benefits be repaid to the director or be withheld from any benefits to which such applicant is or may become entitled before any additional benefits are paid, provided that the repayment or withholding shall not be required where the overpayment is the result of the director's correcting a prior decision due to a typographical or clerical error in the director's prior decision, or an error in an employer's report under division (G) of section 4141.28 of the Revised Code.

(b) The limitation specified in division (B)(1)(a) of this section shall not apply to cases involving the retroactive payment of remuneration covering periods for which benefits were previously paid to the claimant. However, in such cases, the director's order requiring repayment shall not be issued unless the director is notified of such retroactive payment within six months from the date the retroactive payment was made to the claimant.

(2) The director may, by reciprocal agreement with the United States secretary of labor or another state, recover overpayment amounts from unemployment benefits otherwise payable to an individual under Chapter 4141. of the Revised Code. Any overpayments made to the individual that have not previously been recovered under an unemployment benefit program of the United States may be recovered in accordance with section 303(g) of the "Social Security Act" and sections 3304(a)(4) and 3306(f) of the "Federal Unemployment Tax Act," 53 Stat. 183 (1939), 26 U.S.C.A. 3301 to 3311.

(3) If the amounts required to be repaid under division (B) of this section are not recovered within three years from the date the director's order requiring payment became final, initiate no further action to collect such benefits and the amount of any benefits not recovered at that time shall be canceled as uncollectible, provided that the time limit for collection shall be extended by the period of any stay to the collection or by any other time period to which the parties mutually agree.

(C) The appeal provisions of sections 4141.281 and 4141.282 of the Revised Code shall apply to all orders and determinations issued under this section, except that an individual's right of appeal under division (B)(2) of this section shall be limited to this state's authority to recover overpayment of benefits.

(D) If an individual makes a full repayment or a repayment that is less than the full amount required by this section, the director shall apply the repayment to the mutualized account under division (B) of section 4141.25 of the Revised Code, except that the director shall credit the repayment to the accounts of the individual's base period employers that previously have not been credited for the amount of improperly paid benefits charged against their accounts based on the proportion of benefits charged against the accounts as determined pursuant to division (D) of section 4141.24 of the Revised Code.

The director shall deposit any repayment collected under this section that the director determines to be payment of interest or court costs into the unemployment compensation special administrative fund established pursuant to section 4141.11 of the Revised Code.

This division does not apply to federal any of the following:

(1) Federal tax refund offsets under 31 C.F.R. 285.8;

(2) Unclaimed fund recoveries under section 131.024 of the Revised Code;

(3) Lottery award offsets under section 3770.073 of the Revised Code;

(4) State tax refund offsets under section 5747.12 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 4511.191.  (A)(1) As used in this section:

(a) "Physical control" has the same meaning as in section 4511.194 of the Revised Code.

(b) "Alcohol monitoring device" means any device that provides for continuous alcohol monitoring, any ignition interlock device, any immobilizing or disabling device other than an ignition interlock device that is constantly available to monitor the concentration of alcohol in a person's system, or any other device that provides for the automatic testing and periodic reporting of alcohol consumption by a person and that a court orders a person to use as a sanction imposed as a result of the person's conviction of or plea of guilty to an offense.

(2) Any person who operates a vehicle, streetcar, or trackless trolley upon a highway or any public or private property used by the public for vehicular travel or parking within this state or who is in physical control of a vehicle, streetcar, or trackless trolley shall be deemed to have given consent to a chemical test or tests of the person's whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, or urine to determine the alcohol, drug of abuse, controlled substance, metabolite of a controlled substance, or combination content of the person's whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, or urine if arrested for a violation of division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code, section 4511.194 of the Revised Code or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, or a municipal OVI ordinance.

(3) The chemical test or tests under division (A)(2) of this section shall be administered at the request of a law enforcement officer having reasonable grounds to believe the person was operating or in physical control of a vehicle, streetcar, or trackless trolley in violation of a division, section, or ordinance identified in division (A)(2) of this section. The law enforcement agency by which the officer is employed shall designate which of the tests shall be administered.

(4) Any person who is dead or unconscious, or who otherwise is in a condition rendering the person incapable of refusal, shall be deemed to have consented as provided in division (A)(2) of this section, and the test or tests may be administered, subject to sections 313.12 to 313.16 of the Revised Code.

(5)(a) If a law enforcement officer arrests a person for a violation of division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code, section 4511.194 of the Revised Code or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, or a municipal OVI ordinance and if the person if convicted would be required to be sentenced under division (G)(1)(c), (d), or (e) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code, the law enforcement officer shall request the person to submit, and the person shall submit, to a chemical test or tests of the person's whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, or urine for the purpose of determining the alcohol, drug of abuse, controlled substance, metabolite of a controlled substance, or combination content of the person's whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, or urine. A law enforcement officer who makes a request pursuant to this division that a person submit to a chemical test or tests is not required to advise the person of the consequences of submitting to, or refusing to submit to, the test or tests and is not required to give the person the form described in division (B) of section 4511.192 of the Revised Code, but the officer shall advise the person at the time of the arrest that if the person refuses to take a chemical test the officer may employ whatever reasonable means are necessary to ensure that the person submits to a chemical test of the person's whole blood or blood serum or plasma. The officer shall also advise the person at the time of the arrest that the person may have an independent chemical test taken at the person's own expense. Divisions (A)(3) and (4) of this section apply to the administration of a chemical test or tests pursuant to this division.

(b) If a person refuses to submit to a chemical test upon a request made pursuant to division (A)(5)(a) of this section, the law enforcement officer who made the request may employ whatever reasonable means are necessary to ensure that the person submits to a chemical test of the person's whole blood or blood serum or plasma. A law enforcement officer who acts pursuant to this division to ensure that a person submits to a chemical test of the person's whole blood or blood serum or plasma is immune from criminal and civil liability based upon a claim for assault and battery or any other claim for the acts, unless the officer so acted with malicious purpose, in bad faith, or in a wanton or reckless manner.

(B)(1) Upon receipt of the sworn report of a law enforcement officer who arrested a person for a violation of division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code, section 4511.194 of the Revised Code or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, or a municipal OVI ordinance that was completed and sent to the registrar of motor vehicles and a court pursuant to section 4511.192 of the Revised Code in regard to a person who refused to take the designated chemical test, the registrar shall enter into the registrar's records the fact that the person's driver's or commercial driver's license or permit or nonresident operating privilege was suspended by the arresting officer under this division and that section and the period of the suspension, as determined under this section. The suspension shall be subject to appeal as provided in section 4511.197 of the Revised Code. The suspension shall be for whichever of the following periods applies:

(a) Except when division (B)(1)(b), (c), or (d) of this section applies and specifies a different class or length of suspension, the suspension shall be a class C suspension for the period of time specified in division (B)(3) of section 4510.02 of the Revised Code.

(b) If the arrested person, within six years of the date on which the person refused the request to consent to the chemical test, had refused one previous request to consent to a chemical test or had been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one violation of division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or one other equivalent offense, the suspension shall be a class B suspension imposed for the period of time specified in division (B)(2) of section 4510.02 of the Revised Code.

(c) If the arrested person, within six years of the date on which the person refused the request to consent to the chemical test, had refused two previous requests to consent to a chemical test, had been convicted of or pleaded guilty to two violations of division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or other equivalent offenses, or had refused one previous request to consent to a chemical test and also had been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one violation of division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or other equivalent offenses, which violation or offense arose from an incident other than the incident that led to the refusal, the suspension shall be a class A suspension imposed for the period of time specified in division (B)(1) of section 4510.02 of the Revised Code.

(d) If the arrested person, within six years of the date on which the person refused the request to consent to the chemical test, had refused three or more previous requests to consent to a chemical test, had been convicted of or pleaded guilty to three or more violations of division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or other equivalent offenses, or had refused a number of previous requests to consent to a chemical test and also had been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a number of violations of division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or other equivalent offenses that cumulatively total three or more such refusals, convictions, and guilty pleas, the suspension shall be for five years.

(2) The registrar shall terminate a suspension of the driver's or commercial driver's license or permit of a resident or of the operating privilege of a nonresident, or a denial of a driver's or commercial driver's license or permit, imposed pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section upon receipt of notice that the person has entered a plea of guilty to, or that the person has been convicted after entering a plea of no contest to, operating a vehicle in violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or in violation of a municipal OVI ordinance, if the offense for which the conviction is had or the plea is entered arose from the same incident that led to the suspension or denial.

The registrar shall credit against any judicial suspension of a person's driver's or commercial driver's license or permit or nonresident operating privilege imposed pursuant to section 4511.19 of the Revised Code, or pursuant to section 4510.07 of the Revised Code for a violation of a municipal OVI ordinance, any time during which the person serves a related suspension imposed pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section.

(C)(1) Upon receipt of the sworn report of the law enforcement officer who arrested a person for a violation of division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or a municipal OVI ordinance that was completed and sent to the registrar and a court pursuant to section 4511.192 of the Revised Code in regard to a person whose test results indicate that the person's whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, or urine contained at least the concentration of alcohol specified in division (A)(1)(b), (c), (d), or (e) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or at least the concentration of a listed controlled substance or a listed metabolite of a controlled substance specified in division (A)(1)(j) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code, the registrar shall enter into the registrar's records the fact that the person's driver's or commercial driver's license or permit or nonresident operating privilege was suspended by the arresting officer under this division and section 4511.192 of the Revised Code and the period of the suspension, as determined under divisions (C)(1)(a) to (d) of this section. The suspension shall be subject to appeal as provided in section 4511.197 of the Revised Code. The suspension described in this division does not apply to, and shall not be imposed upon, a person arrested for a violation of section 4511.194 of the Revised Code or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance who submits to a designated chemical test. The suspension shall be for whichever of the following periods applies:

(a) Except when division (C)(1)(b), (c), or (d) of this section applies and specifies a different period, the suspension shall be a class E suspension imposed for the period of time specified in division (B)(5) of section 4510.02 of the Revised Code.

(b) The suspension shall be a class C suspension for the period of time specified in division (B)(3) of section 4510.02 of the Revised Code if the person has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to, within six years of the date the test was conducted, one violation of division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or one other equivalent offense.

(c) If, within six years of the date the test was conducted, the person has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to two violations of a statute or ordinance described in division (C)(1)(b) of this section, the suspension shall be a class B suspension imposed for the period of time specified in division (B)(2) of section 4510.02 of the Revised Code.

(d) If, within six years of the date the test was conducted, the person has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to more than two violations of a statute or ordinance described in division (C)(1)(b) of this section, the suspension shall be a class A suspension imposed for the period of time specified in division (B)(1) of section 4510.02 of the Revised Code.

(2) The registrar shall terminate a suspension of the driver's or commercial driver's license or permit of a resident or of the operating privilege of a nonresident, or a denial of a driver's or commercial driver's license or permit, imposed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section upon receipt of notice that the person has entered a plea of guilty to, or that the person has been convicted after entering a plea of no contest to, operating a vehicle in violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or in violation of a municipal OVI ordinance, if the offense for which the conviction is had or the plea is entered arose from the same incident that led to the suspension or denial.

The registrar shall credit against any judicial suspension of a person's driver's or commercial driver's license or permit or nonresident operating privilege imposed pursuant to section 4511.19 of the Revised Code, or pursuant to section 4510.07 of the Revised Code for a violation of a municipal OVI ordinance, any time during which the person serves a related suspension imposed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section.

(D)(1) A suspension of a person's driver's or commercial driver's license or permit or nonresident operating privilege under this section for the time described in division (B) or (C) of this section is effective immediately from the time at which the arresting officer serves the notice of suspension upon the arrested person. Any subsequent finding that the person is not guilty of the charge that resulted in the person being requested to take the chemical test or tests under division (A) of this section does not affect the suspension.

(2) If a person is arrested for operating a vehicle, streetcar, or trackless trolley in violation of division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or a municipal OVI ordinance, or for being in physical control of a vehicle, streetcar, or trackless trolley in violation of section 4511.194 of the Revised Code or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, regardless of whether the person's driver's or commercial driver's license or permit or nonresident operating privilege is or is not suspended under division (B) or (C) of this section or Chapter 4510. of the Revised Code, the person's initial appearance on the charge resulting from the arrest shall be held within five days of the person's arrest or the issuance of the citation to the person, subject to any continuance granted by the court pursuant to section 4511.197 of the Revised Code regarding the issues specified in that division.

(E) When it finally has been determined under the procedures of this section and sections 4511.192 to 4511.197 of the Revised Code that a nonresident's privilege to operate a vehicle within this state has been suspended, the registrar shall give information in writing of the action taken to the motor vehicle administrator of the state of the person's residence and of any state in which the person has a license.

(F) At the end of a suspension period under this section, under section 4511.194, section 4511.196, or division (G) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code, or under section 4510.07 of the Revised Code for a violation of a municipal OVI ordinance and upon the request of the person whose driver's or commercial driver's license or permit was suspended and who is not otherwise subject to suspension, cancellation, or disqualification, the registrar shall return the driver's or commercial driver's license or permit to the person upon the occurrence of all of the conditions specified in divisions (F)(1) and (2) of this section:

(1) A showing that the person has proof of financial responsibility, a policy of liability insurance in effect that meets the minimum standards set forth in section 4509.51 of the Revised Code, or proof, to the satisfaction of the registrar, that the person is able to respond in damages in an amount at least equal to the minimum amounts specified in section 4509.51 of the Revised Code.

(2) Subject to the limitation contained in division (F)(3) of this section, payment by the person to the registrar or an eligible deputy registrar of a license reinstatement fee of four hundred seventy-five dollars, which fee. The registrar or deputy registrar shall be deposited deposit the fee in the state treasury and to be credited as follows:

(a) One hundred twelve dollars and fifty cents shall be credited to the statewide treatment and prevention fund created by section 4301.30 of the Revised Code. Money credited to the fund under this section shall be used for purposes identified under section 5119.22 of the Revised Code.

(b) Seventy-five dollars shall be credited to the reparations fund created by section 2743.191 of the Revised Code.

(c) Thirty-seven dollars and fifty cents shall be credited to the indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, which is hereby established in the state treasury. Except as otherwise provided in division (F)(2)(c) of this section, moneys in the fund shall be distributed by the The department of mental health and addiction services shall distribute the moneys in that fund to the county indigent drivers alcohol treatment funds, the county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment funds, and the municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment funds that are required to be established by counties and municipal corporations pursuant to division (H) of this section, and shall to be used only to pay the cost of an alcohol and drug addiction treatment program attended by an offender or juvenile traffic offender who is ordered to attend an alcohol and drug addiction treatment program by a county, juvenile, or municipal court judge and who is determined by the county, juvenile, or municipal court judge not to have the means to pay for the person's attendance at the program or to pay the costs specified in division (H)(4) of this section in accordance with that division. In addition, a county, juvenile, or municipal court judge may use moneys in the county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, or municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund to pay for the cost of the continued use of an alcohol monitoring device as described in divisions (H)(3) and (4) of this section as provided in division (H)(3) of this section. Moneys in the fund that are not distributed to a county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, a county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, or a municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund under division (H) of this section because the director of mental health and addiction services does not have the information necessary to identify the county or municipal corporation where the offender or juvenile offender was arrested may be transferred by the director of budget and management to the statewide treatment and prevention fund created by section 4301.30 of the Revised Code, upon certification of the amount by the director of mental health and addiction services.

(d) Seventy-five dollars shall be credited to the opportunities for Ohioans with disabilities agency established by section 3304.15 of the Revised Code, to the services for rehabilitation fund, which is hereby established. The fund shall be used to match available federal matching funds where appropriate, and for any other purpose or program of the agency to rehabilitate persons with disabilities to help them become employed and independent.

(e) Seventy-five dollars shall be deposited into the state treasury and credited to the drug abuse resistance education programs fund, which is hereby established, to be used by the attorney general for the purposes specified in division (F)(4) of this section.

(f) Thirty dollars shall be credited to the state bureau of motor vehicles fund created by section 4501.25 of the Revised Code.

(g) Twenty dollars shall be credited to the trauma and emergency medical services fund created by section 4513.263 of the Revised Code.

(h) Fifty dollars shall be credited to the indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund, which is hereby established in the state treasury. Moneys in the fund shall be distributed by the department of public safety to the county indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring funds, the county juvenile indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring funds, and the municipal indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring funds that are required to be established by counties and municipal corporations pursuant to this section, and shall be used only to pay the cost of an immobilizing or disabling device, including a certified ignition interlock device, or an alcohol monitoring device used by an offender or juvenile offender who is ordered to use the device by a county, juvenile, or municipal court judge and who is determined by the county, juvenile, or municipal court judge not to have the means to pay for the person's use of the device.

(3) If a person's driver's or commercial driver's license or permit is suspended under this section, under section 4511.196 or division (G) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code, under section 4510.07 of the Revised Code for a violation of a municipal OVI ordinance or under any combination of the suspensions described in division (F)(3) of this section, and if the suspensions arise from a single incident or a single set of facts and circumstances, the person is liable for payment of, and shall be required to pay to the registrar or an eligible deputy registrar, only one reinstatement fee of four hundred seventy-five dollars. The reinstatement fee shall be distributed by the bureau in accordance with division (F)(2) of this section.

(4) The attorney general shall use amounts in the drug abuse resistance education programs fund to award grants to law enforcement agencies to establish and implement drug abuse resistance education programs in public schools. Grants awarded to a law enforcement agency under this section shall be used by the agency to pay for not more than fifty per cent of the amount of the salaries of law enforcement officers who conduct drug abuse resistance education programs in public schools. The attorney general shall not use more than six per cent of the amounts the attorney general's office receives under division (F)(2)(e) of this section to pay the costs it incurs in administering the grant program established by division (F)(2)(e) of this section and in providing training and materials relating to drug abuse resistance education programs.

The attorney general shall report to the governor and the general assembly each fiscal year on the progress made in establishing and implementing drug abuse resistance education programs. These reports shall include an evaluation of the effectiveness of these programs.

(5) In addition to the reinstatement fee under this section, if the person pays the reinstatement fee to a deputy registrar, the deputy registrar shall collect a service fee of ten dollars to compensate the deputy registrar for services performed under this section. The deputy registrar shall retain eight dollars of the service fee and shall transmit the reinstatement fee, plus two dollars of the service fee, to the registrar in the manner the registrar shall determine.

(G) Suspension of a commercial driver's license under division (B) or (C) of this section shall be concurrent with any period of disqualification under section 3123.611 or 4506.16 of the Revised Code or any period of suspension under section 3123.58 of the Revised Code. No person who is disqualified for life from holding a commercial driver's license under section 4506.16 of the Revised Code shall be issued a driver's license under Chapter 4507. of the Revised Code during the period for which the commercial driver's license was suspended under division (B) or (C) of this section. No person whose commercial driver's license is suspended under division (B) or (C) of this section shall be issued a driver's license under Chapter 4507. of the Revised Code during the period of the suspension.

(H)(1) Each county shall establish an indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, each county shall establish and a juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, and each. Each municipal corporation in which there is a municipal court shall establish an indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund. All revenue that the general assembly appropriates to the indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund for transfer to a county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, a county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, or a municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, all portions of fees that are paid under division (F) of this section and that are credited under that division to the indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund in the state treasury for a county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, a county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, or a municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, all portions of additional costs imposed under section 2949.094 of the Revised Code that are specified for deposit into a county, county juvenile, or municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund by that section, and all portions of fines that are specified for deposit into a county or municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund by section 4511.193 of the Revised Code shall be deposited into that county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, or municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund. The portions of the fees paid under division (F) of this section that are to be so deposited shall be determined in accordance with division (H)(2) of this section. Additionally, all portions of fines that are paid for a violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or of any prohibition contained in Chapter 4510. of the Revised Code, and that are required under section 4511.19 or any provision of Chapter 4510. of the Revised Code to be deposited into a county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund or municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund shall be deposited into the appropriate fund in accordance with the applicable division of the section or provision.

The treasurer of state or other appropriate official, as applicable, shall transfer the following into each county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, or municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, as applicable:

(a) All revenue the general assembly appropriates to the indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund for transfer into such a fund;

(b) All portions of fees paid under division (F) of this section that, in accordance with division (H)(2) of this section, are credited to the indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund for deposit into such a fund;

(c) All portions of additional costs imposed under section 2949.094 of the Revised Code that are required to be deposited into such a fund;

(d) All portions of fines that are required to be deposited into such a fund under section 4511.193 of the Revised Code;

(e) All portions of fines paid under section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or Chapter 4510. of the Revised Code that are required to be paid into such a fund.

(2) That portion of the license reinstatement fee that is paid under division (F) of this section and that is credited under that division to the indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund shall be deposited into a county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, a county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, or a municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund as follows:

(a) Regarding a suspension imposed under this section, that portion of the fee shall be deposited as follows:

(i) If the fee is paid by a person who was charged in a county court with the violation that resulted in the suspension or in the imposition of the court costs, the portion shall be deposited into the county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund under the control of that court;

(ii) If the fee is paid by a person who was charged in a juvenile court with the violation that resulted in the suspension or in the imposition of the court costs, the portion shall be deposited into the county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund established in the county served by the court;

(iii) If the fee is paid by a person who was charged in a municipal court with the violation that resulted in the suspension or in the imposition of the court costs, the portion shall be deposited into the municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund under the control of that court.

(b) Regarding a suspension imposed under section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or under section 4510.07 of the Revised Code for a violation of a municipal OVI ordinance, that portion of the fee shall be deposited as follows:

(i) If the fee is paid by a person whose license or permit was suspended by a county court, the portion shall be deposited into the county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund under the control of that court;

(ii) If the fee is paid by a person whose license or permit was suspended by a municipal court, the portion shall be deposited into the municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund under the control of that court.

(3) Expenditures (a) As used in division (H)(3) of this section, "indigent person" means a person who is convicted of, or found to be a juvenile traffic offender by reason of, a violation of division (A) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or a substantially similar municipal ordinance, who is ordered by the court to attend an alcohol and drug addiction treatment program, and who is determined by the court under division (H)(5) of this section to be unable to pay the cost of the assessment or the cost of attendance at the treatment program.

(b) A county, juvenile, or municipal court judge, by order, may make expenditures from a county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, a county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, or a municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund shall be made only upon the order of a county, juvenile, or municipal court judge and only for payment of the cost of an assessment or the cost of the attendance at an alcohol and drug addiction treatment program of a with respect to an indigent person who is convicted of, or found to be a juvenile traffic offender by reason of, a violation of division (A) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or a substantially similar municipal ordinance, who is ordered by the court to attend the alcohol and drug addiction treatment program, and who is determined by the court to be unable to pay the cost of the assessment or the cost of attendance at the treatment program or for payment of the costs specified in division (H)(4) of this section in accordance with that division. The for any of the following:

(i) To pay the cost of an assessment that is conducted by an appropriately licensed clinician at either a driver intervention program that is certified under section 5119.38 of the Revised Code or at a community addiction services provider that is certified under section 5119.36 of the Revised Code;

(ii) To pay the cost of alcohol addiction services, drug addiction services, or integrated alcohol and drug addiction services at a community addiction services provider that is certified under section 5119.36 of the Revised Code;

(iii) To pay the cost of transportation to attend an assessment as provided under division (H)(3)(b)(i) of this section or addiction services as provided under division (H)(3)(b)(ii) of this section.

The alcohol and drug addiction services board or the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services established pursuant to section 340.02 or 340.021 of the Revised Code and serving the alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district in which the court is located shall administer the indigent drivers alcohol treatment program of the court. When a court orders an offender or juvenile traffic offender to obtain an assessment or attend an alcohol and drug addiction treatment program, the board shall determine which program is suitable to meet the needs of the offender or juvenile traffic offender, and when a suitable program is located and space is available at the program, the offender or juvenile traffic offender shall attend the program designated by the board. A reasonable amount not to exceed five per cent of the amounts credited to and deposited into the county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, the county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, or the municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund serving every court whose program is administered by that board shall be paid to the board to cover the costs it incurs in administering those indigent drivers alcohol treatment programs.

In addition, upon (c) Upon exhaustion of moneys in the indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund for the use of an alcohol monitoring device, a county, juvenile, or municipal court judge may use moneys in the county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, or municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund in either of the following manners:

(a)(i) If the source of the moneys was an appropriation of the general assembly, a portion of a fee that was paid under division (F) of this section, a portion of a fine that was specified for deposit into the fund by section 4511.193 of the Revised Code, or a portion of a fine that was paid for a violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or of a provision contained in Chapter 4510. of the Revised Code that was required to be deposited into the fund, to pay for the continued use of an alcohol monitoring device by an offender or juvenile traffic offender, in conjunction with a treatment program approved by the department of mental health and addiction services, when such use is determined clinically necessary by the treatment program and when the court determines that the offender or juvenile traffic offender is unable to pay all or part of the daily monitoring or cost of the device;

(b)(ii) If the source of the moneys was a portion of an additional court cost imposed under section 2949.094 of the Revised Code, to pay for the continued use of an alcohol monitoring device by an offender or juvenile traffic offender when the court determines that the offender or juvenile traffic offender is unable to pay all or part of the daily monitoring or cost of the device. The moneys may be used for a device as described in this division if the use of the device is in conjunction with a treatment program approved by the department of mental health and addiction services, when the use of the device is determined clinically necessary by the treatment program, but the use of a device is not required to be in conjunction with a treatment program approved by the department in order for the moneys to be used for the device as described in this division.

(4) If a county, juvenile, or municipal court determines, in consultation with the alcohol and drug addiction services board or the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services established pursuant to section 340.02 or 340.021 of the Revised Code and serving the alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health district in which the court is located, that the funds in the county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, the county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, or the municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund under the control of the court are more than sufficient to satisfy the purpose for which the fund was established, as specified in divisions (H)(1) to (3) of this section, the court may declare a surplus in the fund. If the court declares a surplus in the fund, the court may expend take any of the following actions with regard to the amount of the surplus in the fund for:

(a) Alcohol Expend any of the surplus amount for alcohol and drug abuse assessment and treatment, and for the cost of transportation related to assessment and treatment, of persons who are charged in the court with committing a criminal offense or with being a delinquent child or juvenile traffic offender and in relation to whom both of the following apply:

(i) The court determines that substance abuse was a contributing factor leading to the criminal or delinquent activity or the juvenile traffic offense with which the person is charged.

(ii) The court determines that the person is unable to pay the cost of the alcohol and drug abuse assessment and treatment for which the surplus money will be used.

(b) All Expend any of the surplus amount to pay all or part of the cost of purchasing alcohol monitoring devices to be used in conjunction with division (H)(3)(c) of this section, upon exhaustion of moneys in the indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund for the use of an alcohol monitoring device.

(c) Transfer to another court in the same county any of the surplus amount to be utilized in a manner consistent with division (H)(3) of this section. If surplus funds are transferred to another court, the court that transfers the funds shall notify the alcohol and drug addiction services board or the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services that serves the alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district in which that court is located.

(d) Transfer to the alcohol and drug addiction services board or the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services that serves the alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district in which the court is located any of the surplus amount to be utilized in a manner consistent with division (H)(3) of this section or for board contracted recovery support services.

(5) For the purpose of determining as described in division (F)(2)(c) of this section whether In order to determine if an offender does not have the means to pay for the offender's attendance at an alcohol and drug addiction treatment program for purposes of division (H)(3) of this section or whether if an alleged offender or delinquent child is unable to pay the costs specified in division (H)(4) of this section, the court shall use the indigent client eligibility guidelines and the standards of indigency established by the state public defender to make the determination.

(6) The court shall identify and refer any community addiction services provider that is not certified under section 5119.36 of the Revised Code and that is interested in receiving amounts from the surplus in the fund declared under division (H)(4) of this section to the department of mental health and addiction services in order for the services provider to become a certified community addiction services provider. The department shall keep a record of applicant referrals received pursuant to this division and shall submit a report on the referrals each year to the general assembly. If a services provider interested in becoming certified makes an application to become certified pursuant to section 5119.36 of the Revised Code, the services provider is eligible to receive surplus funds as long as the application is pending with the department. The department of mental health and addiction services must offer technical assistance to the applicant. If the interested services provider withdraws the certification application, the department must notify the court, and the court shall not provide the interested services provider with any further surplus funds.

(7)(a) Each alcohol and drug addiction services board and board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services established pursuant to section 340.02 or 340.021 of the Revised Code shall submit to the department of mental health and addiction services an annual report for each indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund in that board's area.

(b) The report, which shall be submitted not later than sixty days after the end of the state fiscal year, shall provide the total payment that was made from the fund, including the number of indigent consumers that received treatment services and the number of indigent consumers that received an alcohol monitoring device. The report shall identify the treatment program and expenditure for an alcohol monitoring device for which that payment was made. The report shall include the fiscal year balance of each indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund located in that board's area. In the event that a surplus is declared in the fund pursuant to division (H)(4) of this section, the report also shall provide the total payment that was made from the surplus moneys and identify the treatment program and expenditure for an alcohol monitoring device authorized purpose for which that payment was made.

(c) If a board is unable to obtain adequate information to develop the report to submit to the department for a particular indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, the board shall submit a report detailing the effort made in obtaining the information.

(I)(1) Each county shall establish an indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund and a juvenile indigent drivers interlock and alcohol treatment fund, and each. Each municipal corporation in which there is a municipal court shall establish an indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund. All revenue that the general assembly appropriates to the indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund for transfer to a county indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund, a county juvenile indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund, or a municipal indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund, all portions of license reinstatement fees that are paid under division (F)(2) of this section and that are credited under that division to the indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund in the state treasury, and all portions of fines that are paid under division (G) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code and that are credited by division (G)(5)(e) of that section to the indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund in the state treasury shall be deposited in the appropriate fund in accordance with division (I)(2) of this section.

The treasurer of state shall transfer the following into each county indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund, county juvenile indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund, or municipal indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund, as applicable:

(a) All revenue the general assembly appropriates to the indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund for transfer into such a fund;

(b) All portions of license reinstatement fees paid under division (F)(2) of this section that, in accordance with division (I)(2) of this section, are credited to the indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund for deposit into a such fund;

(c) All portions of fines that are paid under division (G) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code and are credited by division (G)(5)(e) of that section to the indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund for deposit into such a fund in accordance with division (I)(2) of this section.

(2) That portion of the license reinstatement fee that is paid under division (F) of this section and that portion of the fine paid under division (G) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code and that is credited under either division to the indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund shall be deposited into a county indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund, a county juvenile indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund, or a municipal indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund as follows:

(a) If the fee or fine is paid by a person who was charged in a county court with the violation that resulted in the suspension or fine, the portion shall be deposited into the county indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund under the control of that court.

(b) If the fee or fine is paid by a person who was charged in a juvenile court with the violation that resulted in the suspension or fine, the portion shall be deposited into the county juvenile indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund established in the county served by the court.

(c) If the fee or fine is paid by a person who was charged in a municipal court with the violation that resulted in the suspension, the portion shall be deposited into the municipal indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund under the control of that court.

(3) If a county, juvenile, or municipal court determines that the funds in the county indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund, the county juvenile indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund, or the municipal indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund under the control of that court are more than sufficient to satisfy the purpose for which the fund was established as specified in division (F)(2)(h) of this section, the court may declare a surplus in the fund. The court then may order the transfer of a specified amount into the county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, the county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, or the municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund under the control of that court to be utilized in accordance with division (H) of this section.

Sec. 4729.03.  The state board of pharmacy shall organize by electing a president and a vice-president who are members of the board. The president shall preside over the meetings of the board, but shall not vote upon matters determined by the board, except in the event of a tie vote, in which case the president shall vote. The board shall also employ an executive director who is a licensed pharmacist in good standing in the practice of pharmacy in this state. The person employed shall not be a member of the board. Each of the officers elected shall serve for a term of one year. The members of the board shall receive an amount fixed pursuant to division (J) of section 124.15 of the Revised Code for each day employed in the discharge of their official duties and their necessary expenses while engaged therein.

Sec. 4729.54.  (A) As used in this section and section 4729.541 of the Revised Code:

(1) "Category I" means single-dose injections of intravenous fluids, including saline, Ringer's lactate, five per cent dextrose and distilled water, and other intravenous fluids or parenteral solutions included in this category by rule of the state board of pharmacy, that have a volume of one hundred milliliters or more and that contain no added substances, or single-dose injections of epinephrine to be administered pursuant to sections 4765.38 and 4765.39 of the Revised Code.

(2) "Category II" means any dangerous drug that is not included in category I or III.

(3) "Category III" means any controlled substance that is contained in schedule I, II, III, IV, or V.

(4) "Emergency medical service organization" has the same meaning as in section 4765.01 of the Revised Code.

(5) "Person" includes an emergency medical service organization.

(6) "Schedule I, schedule II, schedule III, schedule IV, and schedule V" mean controlled substance schedules I, II, III, IV, and V, respectively, as established pursuant to section 3719.41 of the Revised Code and as amended.

(B)(1) A person who desires to be licensed as a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs shall file with the executive director of the state board of pharmacy a verified application. After it is filed, the application may not be withdrawn without approval of the board.

(2) An application shall contain all the following that apply in the applicant's case:

(a) Information that the board requires relative to the qualifications of a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs set forth in section 4729.55 of the Revised Code;

(b) A statement that the person wishes to be licensed as a category I, category II, category III, limited category I, limited category II, or limited category III terminal distributor of dangerous drugs;

(c) If the person wishes to be licensed as a limited category I, limited category II, or limited category III terminal distributor of dangerous drugs, a notarized list of the dangerous drugs that the person wishes to possess, have custody or control of, and distribute, which list shall also specify the purpose for which those drugs will be used and their source;

(d) If the person is an emergency medical service organization, the information that is specified in division (C)(1) of this section;

(e) Except for an emergency medical service organization, the identity of the one establishment or place at which the person intends to engage in the sale or other distribution of dangerous drugs at retail, and maintain possession, custody, or control of dangerous drugs for purposes other than the person's own use or consumption;

(f) If the application pertains to a pain management clinic, information that demonstrates, to the satisfaction of the board, compliance with division (A) of section 4729.552 of the Revised Code.

(C)(1) An emergency medical service organization that wishes to be licensed as a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs shall list in its application for licensure the following additional information:

(a) The units under its control that the organization determines will possess dangerous drugs for the purpose of administering emergency medical services in accordance with Chapter 4765. of the Revised Code;

(b) With respect to each such unit, whether the dangerous drugs that the organization determines the unit will possess are in category I, II, or III.

(2) An emergency medical service organization that is licensed as a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs shall file a new application for such licensure if there is any change in the number, or location of, any of its units or any change in the category of the dangerous drugs that any unit will possess.

(3) A unit listed in an application for licensure pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section may obtain the dangerous drugs it is authorized to possess from its emergency medical service organization or, on a replacement basis, from a hospital pharmacy. If units will obtain dangerous drugs from a hospital pharmacy, the organization shall file, and maintain in current form, the following items with the pharmacist who is responsible for the hospital's terminal distributor of dangerous drugs license:

(a) A copy of its standing orders or protocol;

(b) A list of the personnel employed or used by the organization to provide emergency medical services in accordance with Chapter 4765. of the Revised Code, who are authorized to possess the drugs, which list also shall indicate the personnel who are authorized to administer the drugs.

(D) Each emergency medical service organization that applies for a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs license shall submit with its application the following:

(1) A notarized copy of its standing orders or protocol, which orders or protocol shall be signed by a physician and specify the dangerous drugs that its units may carry, expressed in standard dose units;

(2) A list of the personnel employed or used by the organization to provide emergency medical services in accordance with Chapter 4765. of the Revised Code.

An emergency medical service organization that is licensed as a terminal distributor shall notify the board immediately of any changes in its standing orders or protocol.

(E) There shall be six categories of terminal distributor of dangerous drugs licenses, which categories shall be as follows:

(1) Category I license. A person who obtains this license may possess, have custody or control of, and distribute only the dangerous drugs described in category I.

(2) Limited category I license. A person who obtains this license may possess, have custody or control of, and distribute only the dangerous drugs described in category I that were listed in the application for licensure.

(3) Category II license. A person who obtains this license may possess, have custody or control of, and distribute only the dangerous drugs described in category I and category II.

(4) Limited category II license. A person who obtains this license may possess, have custody or control of, and distribute only the dangerous drugs described in category I or category II that were listed in the application for licensure.

(5) Category III license, which may include a pain management clinic classification issued under section 4729.552 of the Revised Code. A person who obtains this license may possess, have custody or control of, and distribute the dangerous drugs described in category I, category II, and category III. If the license includes a pain management clinic classification, the person may operate a pain management clinic.

(6) Limited category III license. A person who obtains this license may possess, have custody or control of, and distribute only the dangerous drugs described in category I, category II, or category III that were listed in the application for licensure.

(F) Except for an application made on behalf of an animal shelter, if an applicant for licensure as a limited category I, II, or III terminal distributor of dangerous drugs intends to administer dangerous drugs to a person or animal, the applicant shall submit, with the application, a notarized copy of its protocol or standing orders, which protocol or orders shall be signed by a licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs, specify the dangerous drugs to be administered, and list personnel who are authorized to administer the dangerous drugs in accordance with federal law or the law of this state. An application made on behalf of an animal shelter shall include a notarized list of the dangerous drugs to be administered to animals and the personnel who are authorized to administer the drugs to animals in accordance with section 4729.532 of the Revised Code. After obtaining a terminal distributor license, a licensee shall notify the board immediately of any changes in its protocol or standing orders, or in such personnel.

(G)(1) Except as provided in division (G)(2) of this section, each applicant for licensure as a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs shall submit, with the application, a license fee determined as follows:

(a) For a category I or limited category I license, forty-five dollars;

(b) For a category II or limited category II license, one hundred twelve dollars and fifty cents;

(c) For a category III license, including a license with a pain management clinic classification issued under section 4729.552 of the Revised Code, or a limited category III license, one hundred fifty dollars.

(2) For a professional association, corporation, partnership, or limited liability company organized for the purpose of practicing veterinary medicine, the fee shall be forty dollars.

(3) Fees assessed under divisions (G)(1) and (2) of this section shall not be returned if the applicant fails to qualify for registration.

(H)(1) The board shall issue a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs license to each person who submits an application for such licensure in accordance with this section, pays the required license fee, is determined by the board to meet the requirements set forth in section 4729.55 of the Revised Code, and satisfies any other applicable requirements of this section.

(2) The license of a person other than an emergency medical service organization shall describe the one establishment or place at which the licensee may engage in the sale or other distribution of dangerous drugs at retail and maintain possession, custody, or control of dangerous drugs for purposes other than the licensee's own use or consumption. The one establishment or place shall be that which is described in the application for licensure.

No such license shall authorize or permit the terminal distributor of dangerous drugs named in it to engage in the sale or other distribution of dangerous drugs at retail or to maintain possession, custody, or control of dangerous drugs for any purpose other than the distributor's own use or consumption, at any establishment or place other than that described in the license, except that an agent or employee of an animal shelter may possess and use dangerous drugs in the course of business as provided in division (D) of section 4729.532 of the Revised Code.

(3) The license of an emergency medical service organization shall cover and describe all the units of the organization listed in its application for licensure.

(4) The license of every terminal distributor of dangerous drugs shall indicate, on its face, the category of licensure. If the license is a limited category I, II, or III license, it shall specify, and shall authorize the licensee to possess, have custody or control of, and distribute only, the dangerous drugs that were listed in the application for licensure.

(I) All licenses issued pursuant to this section shall be effective for a period of twelve months from the first day of January April of each year. A license shall be renewed by the board for a like period, annually, according to the provisions of this section, and the standard renewal procedure of Chapter 4745. of the Revised Code. A person who desires to renew a license shall submit an application for renewal and pay the required fee on or before the thirty-first day of December March each year. The fee required for the renewal of a license shall be the same as the fee paid for the license being renewed, and shall accompany the application for renewal.

A license that has not been renewed during December March in any year and by the first day of February May of the following same year may be reinstated only upon payment of the required renewal fee and a penalty fee of fifty-five dollars.

(J)(1) No emergency medical service organization that is licensed as a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs shall fail to comply with division (C)(2) or (3) of this section.

(2) No emergency medical service organization that is licensed as a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs shall fail to comply with division (D) of this section.

(3) No licensed terminal distributor of dangerous drugs shall possess, have custody or control of, or distribute dangerous drugs that the terminal distributor is not entitled to possess, have custody or control of, or distribute by virtue of its category of licensure.

(4) No licensee that is required by division (F) of this section to notify the board of changes in its protocol or standing orders, or in personnel, shall fail to comply with that division.

Sec. 4729.83. (A) If the state board of pharmacy establishes and maintains a drug database pursuant to section 4729.75 of the Revised Code, the board shall not impose any charge on a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs, pharmacist, or prescriber for the establishment or maintenance of the database. The board shall not charge any fees for the transmission of data to the database or for the receipt of information from the database, except that the board may charge a fee in accordance with rules adopted under section 4729.84 of the Revised Code to an individual who requests the individual's own database information under section 4729.80 of the Revised Code.

(B) The board may accept grants, gifts, or donations for purposes of the drug database. Any money received shall be deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the drug database fund, which is hereby created. Money in the fund shall be used solely for purposes of the drug database.

Sec. 4737.045.  (A) To register as a scrap metal dealer or a bulk merchandise container dealer with the director of public safety as required by division (B) of section 4737.04 of the Revised Code, a person shall do all of the following:

(1) Provide the name and street address of the dealer's place of business;

(2) Provide the name of the primary owner of the business, and of the manager of the business, if the manager is not the primary owner;

(3) Provide the electronic mail address of the business;

(4) Provide confirmation that the dealer has the capabilities to electronically connect with the department of public safety for the purpose of sending and receiving information;

(5) Provide any other information required by the director in rules the director adopts pursuant to sections 4737.01 to 4737.045 of the Revised Code;

(6) Pay an initial registration fee of two hundred dollars.

(B) A person engaging in the business of a scrap metal dealer or a bulk merchandise container dealer in this state on or before the effective date of this section September 28, 2012, shall register with the director not later than January 1, 2013. With respect to a person who commences engaging in the business of a scrap metal dealer or a bulk merchandise container dealer after the effective date of this section September 28, 2012, the person shall register with the director pursuant to this section prior to commencing business as a scrap metal dealer or a bulk merchandise container dealer.

(C) A registration issued to a scrap metal dealer or a bulk merchandise container dealer pursuant to this section is valid for a period of one year. A dealer shall renew the registration in accordance with the rules adopted by the director and pay a renewal fee of one hundred fifty dollars to cover the costs of operating and maintaining the registry created pursuant to division (E) of this section.

(D) A scrap metal dealer or a bulk merchandise container dealer registered under this section shall prominently display a copy of the annual registration certificate received from the director pursuant to division (E)(2) of this section.

(E) The director shall do all of the following:

(1) Develop and implement, by January 1, 2014, and maintain as a registry a secure database for use by law enforcement agencies that is capable of all of the following:

(a) Receiving and securely storing all of the information required by division (A) of this section and the daily transaction data that scrap metal dealers and bulk merchandise dealers are required to send pursuant to division (E)(1) of section 4737.04 of the Revised Code;

(b) Providing secure search capabilities to law enforcement agencies for enforcement purposes;

(c) Creating a link and retransmission capability for receipt of routine scrap theft alerts published by the institute of scrap recycling industries for transmission to dealers and law enforcement agencies in the state;

(d) Making the electronic lists prepared pursuant to division (F)(2) of section 4737.04 of the Revised Code available through an electronic searchable format for individual law enforcement agencies and for dealers in the state;

(e) Providing, without charge, interlink programming enabling the transfer of information to dealers.

(2) Issue, reissue, or deny registration to dealers;

(3) Adopt rules to enforce sections 4737.01 to 4737.045 of the Revised Code, rules establishing procedures to renew a registration issued under this section, rules for the format and maintenance for the records required under division (A) of section 4737.012 of the Revised Code or division (C) of section 4737.04 of the Revised Code, and rules regarding the delivery of the report required by division (E)(1) of section 4737.04 of the Revised Code to the registry, which shall be used exclusively by law enforcement agencies.

(F) A scrap metal dealer or bulk merchandise container dealer may search, modify, or update only the dealer's own business data contained within the registry established in division (E) of this section.

(G) All fees received by the director pursuant to this section and division (F) of section 4737.99 of the Revised Code shall be used to develop and maintain the registry required under this section. The fees shall be deposited into the security, investigations, and policing infrastructure protection fund which is hereby created in section 4501.11 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 4758.01. As used in this chapter:

(A) "Accredited educational institution" means an educational institution accredited by an accrediting agency accepted by the Ohio board of regents.

(B)(1) "Alcohol and other drug clinical counseling principles, methods, or procedures" means an approach to chemical dependency counseling that emphasizes the chemical dependency counselor's role in systematically assisting clients through all of the following:

(a) Analyzing background and current information;

(b) Exploring possible solutions;

(c) Developing and providing a treatment plan;

(d) In the case of an independent chemical dependency counselor-clinical supervisor, independent chemical dependency counselor, or chemical dependency counselor III only, diagnosing chemical dependency conditions.

(2) "Alcohol and other drug clinical counseling principles, methods, or procedures" includes counseling, assessing, consulting, and referral as they relate to chemical dependency conditions.

(C) "Alcohol and other drug prevention services" means a planned process of strategies and activities designed to preclude the onset of the use of alcohol and other drugs, reduce problematic use of alcohol and other drugs, or both.

(D) "Chemical dependency conditions" means those conditions relating to the abuse of or dependency on alcohol or other drugs that are classified in accepted nosologies, including the diagnostic and statistical manual of mental disorders and the international classification of diseases, and in editions of those nosologies published after December 23, 2002.

(E) "Chemical dependency counseling" means rendering or offering to render to individuals, groups, or the public a counseling service involving the application of alcohol and other drug clinical counseling principles, methods, or procedures to assist individuals who are abusing or dependent on alcohol or other drugs.

(F) "Pathological and problem gambling" means a persistent and recurring maladaptive gambling behavior that is classified in accepted nosologies, including the diagnostic and statistical manual of mental disorders and the international classification of diseases, and in editions of those nosologies published after the effective date of this section.

(G) Unless the context provides otherwise, "scope of practice" means the services, methods, and techniques in which and the areas for which a person who holds a license or, certificate, or endorsement under this chapter is trained and qualified.

(G)(H) "Substance abuse professional" has the same meaning as in 49 C.F.R. 40.3.

(H)(I) "U.S. department of transportation drug and alcohol testing program" means a transportation workplace drug and alcohol testing program governed by 49 C.F.R. part 40.

Sec. 4758.02. (A) Except as provided in section 4758.03 of the Revised Code, no person shall do any of the following:

(1) Engage in or represent to the public that the person engages in chemical dependency counseling for a fee, salary, or other consideration unless the person holds a valid independent chemical dependency counselor-clinical supervisor license, independent chemical dependency counselor license, chemical dependency counselor III license, chemical dependency counselor II license, or chemical dependency counselor assistant certificate issued under this chapter;

(2) Use the title "licensed independent chemical dependency counselor-clinical supervisor," "LICDC-CS," "licensed independent chemical dependency counselor," "LICDC," "licensed chemical dependency counselor III," "LCDC III," "licensed chemical dependency counselor II," "LCDC II," "chemical dependency counselor assistant," "CDCA," or any other title or description incorporating the word "chemical dependency counselor" or any other initials used to identify persons acting in those capacities unless currently authorized under this chapter to act in the capacity indicated by the title or initials;

(3) Represent to the public that the person holds a pathological and problem gambling endorsement unless the person holds a valid pathological and problem gambling endorsement issued under this chapter;

(4) Represent to the public that the person is a registered applicant unless the person holds a valid registered applicant certificate issued under this chapter;

(4)(5) Use the title "certified prevention specialist II," "CPS II," "certified prevention specialist I," "CPS I," "certified prevention specialist assistant," "CPSA," "registered applicant," "RA," or any other title, description, or initials used to identify persons acting in those capacities unless currently authorized under this chapter to act in the capacity indicated by the title or initials.

(B) No person shall engage in or represent to the public that the person engages in chemical dependency counseling as a chemical dependency counselor I.

Sec. 4758.06. No individual who holds or has held a license or, certificate, or endorsement issued under this chapter shall disclose any information regarding the identity, diagnosis, or treatment of any of the individual's clients or consumers except for the purposes and under the circumstances expressly authorized by 42 U.S.C.A. 290dd-2, regulations promulgated pursuant to that federal law, other federal law enacted after the effective date of this section December 23, 2002, to replace 42 U.S.C.A. 290dd-2, or regulations promulgated under the replacement federal law. The prohibition of this section applies whether or not the information is recorded.

Sec. 4758.16. The chemical dependency professionals board shall not discriminate against any licensee, certificate holder, endorsement holder, or applicant for a license or, certificate, or endorsement under this chapter because of the individual's race, color, religion, gender, national origin, disability as defined in section 4112.01 of the Revised Code, or age. The board shall afford a hearing to any individual who files with the board a statement alleging discrimination based on any of those reasons.

Sec. 4758.20. (A) The chemical dependency professionals board shall adopt rules to establish, specify, or provide for all of the following:

(1) Fees for the purposes authorized by section 4758.21 of the Revised Code;

(2) If the board, pursuant to section 4758.221 of the Revised Code, elects to administer examinations for individuals seeking to act as substance abuse professionals in a U.S. department of transportation drug and alcohol testing program, the board's administration of the examinations;

(3) For the purpose of section 4758.23 of the Revised Code, codes of ethical practice and professional conduct for individuals who hold a license or, certificate, or endorsement issued under this chapter;

(4) For the purpose of section 4758.24 of the Revised Code, all of the following:

(a) Good moral character requirements for an individual who seeks or holds a license or, certificate, or endorsement issued under this chapter;

(b) The documents that an individual seeking such a license or, certificate, or endorsement must submit to the board;

(c) Requirements to obtain the license or, certificate, or endorsement that are in addition to the requirements established under sections 4758.39, 4758.40, 4758.41, 4758.42, 4758.43, 4758.44, 4758.45, 4758.46, and 4758.47, and 4758.48 of the Revised Code. The additional requirements may include preceptorships.

(d) The period of time that an individual whose registered applicant certificate has expired must wait before applying for a new registered applicant certificate.

(5) For the purpose of section 4758.28 of the Revised Code, requirements for approval of continuing education courses of study for individuals who hold a license or, certificate, or endorsement issued under this chapter;

(6) For the purpose of section 4758.30 of the Revised Code, the intervention for and treatment of an individual holding a license or, certificate, or endorsement issued under this chapter whose abilities to practice are impaired due to abuse of or dependency on alcohol or other drugs or other physical or mental condition;

(7) Requirements governing reinstatement of a suspended or revoked license or, certificate, or endorsement under division (B) of section 4758.30 of the Revised Code, including requirements for determining the amount of time an individual must wait to apply for reinstatement;

(8) For the purpose of section 4758.31 of the Revised Code, methods of ensuring that all records the board holds pertaining to an investigation remain confidential during the investigation;

(9) Criteria for employees of the board to follow when performing their duties under division (B) of section 4758.35 of the Revised Code;

(10) For the purpose of division (A)(1) of section 4758.39 and division (A)(1) of section 4758.40 of the Revised Code, course requirements for a degree in a behavioral science or nursing that shall, at a minimum, include at least forty semester hours in all of the following courses:

(a) Theories of counseling and psychotherapy;

(b) Counseling procedures;

(c) Group process and techniques;

(d) Relationship therapy;

(e) Research methods and statistics;

(f) Fundamentals of assessment and diagnosis, including measurement and appraisal;

(g) Psychopathology;

(h) Human development;

(i) Cultural competence in counseling;

(j) Ethics.

(11) For the purpose of division (A)(3) of section 4758.39, division (A)(3) of section 4758.40, division (A)(3) of section 4758.41, and division (A)(3) of section 4758.42 of the Revised Code, training requirements for chemical dependency that shall, at a minimum, include qualifications for the individuals who provide the training and instruction in all of the following courses:

(a) Theories of addiction;

(b) Counseling procedures and strategies with addicted populations;

(c) Group process and techniques working with addicted populations;

(d) Assessment and diagnosis of addiction;

(e) Relationship counseling with addicted populations;

(f) Pharmacology;

(g) Prevention strategies;

(h) Treatment planning;

(i) Legal and ethical issues.

(12) For the purpose of division (B)(2)(b) of section 4758.40 and division (B)(2) of section 4758.41 of the Revised Code, requirements for the forty clock hours of training on the version of the diagnostic and statistical manual of mental disorders that is current at the time of the training, including the number of the clock hours that must be on substance-related disorders, the number of the clock hours that must be on chemical dependency conditions, and the number of the clock hours that must be on awareness of other mental and emotional disorders;

(13) For the purpose of division (A)(1) of section 4758.41 of the Revised Code, course requirements for a degree in a behavioral science or nursing;

(14) For the purpose of division (A) of section 4758.43 of the Revised Code, training requirements for chemical dependency counseling that shall, at a minimum, include qualifications for the individuals who provide the training and instruction in one or more of the courses listed in division (A)(10) of this section as selected by the individual seeking the chemical dependency counselor assistant certificate;

(15) For the purpose of division (A)(2) of section 4758.44 of the Revised Code, the field of study in which an individual must obtain at least a bachelor's degree;

(16) For the purpose of division (A)(3) of section 4758.44, division (A)(3) of section 4758.45, and division (D) of section 4758.46 of the Revised Code, requirements for prevention-related education;

(17) For the purpose of division (A)(4) of section 4758.44 of the Revised Code, the number of hours of administrative or supervisory education that an individual must have;

(18) For the purpose of division (A)(2) of section 4758.45 of the Revised Code, the field of study in which an individual must obtain at least an associate's degree;

(19) Standards for the one hundred hours of compensated work or supervised internship in pathological and problem gambling direct clinical experience required by division (B)(2) of section 4758.48 of the Revised Code;

(20) For the purpose of section 4758.51 of the Revised Code, continuing education requirements for individuals who hold a license or, certificate, or endorsement issued under this chapter;

(20)(21) For the purpose of section 4758.51 of the Revised Code, the number of hours of continuing education that an individual must complete to have an expired license or, certificate, or endorsement restored under section 4758.26 of the Revised Code;

(21)(22) For the purpose of divisions (A) and (B) of section 4758.52 of the Revised Code, training requirements for chemical dependency counseling;

(22)(23) The duties, which may differ, of all of the following:

(a) An independent chemical dependency counselor-clinical supervisor licensed under this chapter who supervises a chemical dependency counselor III under section 4758.56 of the Revised Code;

(b) An independent chemical dependency counselor-clinical supervisor, independent chemical dependency counselor, or chemical dependency counselor III licensed under this chapter who supervises a chemical dependency counselor assistant under section 4758.59 of the Revised Code;

(c) A prevention specialist II or prevention specialist I certified under this chapter or independent chemical dependency counselor-clinical supervisor, independent chemical dependency counselor, or chemical dependency counselor III licensed under this chapter who supervises a prevention specialist assistant or registered applicant under section 4758.61 of the Revised Code.

(23)(24) The duties of an independent chemical dependency counselor licensed under this chapter who holds the pathological and problem gambling endorsement who supervises a chemical dependency counselor III with the pathological and problem gambling endorsement under section 4758.62 of the Revised Code.

(25) Anything else necessary to administer this chapter.

(B) All rules adopted under this section shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and any applicable federal laws and regulations.

(C) When it adopts rules under this section, the board may consider standards established by any national association or other organization representing the interests of those involved in chemical dependency counseling or alcohol and other drug prevention services.

Sec. 4758.21. (A) In accordance with rules adopted under section 4758.20 of the Revised Code and subject to division (B) of this section, the chemical dependency professionals board shall establish, and may from time to time adjust, fees to be charged for the following:

(1) Admitting an individual to an examination administered pursuant to section 4758.22 of the Revised Code;

(2) Issuing an initial independent chemical dependency counselor-clinical supervisor license, independent chemical dependency counselor license, chemical dependency counselor III license, chemical dependency counselor II license, chemical dependency counselor assistant certificate, prevention specialist II certificate, prevention specialist I certificate, prevention specialist assistant certificate, or registered applicant certificate;

(3) Issuing an initial pathological and problem gambling endorsement;

(4) Renewing an independent chemical dependency counselor-clinical supervisor license, independent chemical dependency counselor license, chemical dependency counselor III license, chemical dependency counselor II license, chemical dependency counselor assistant certificate, prevention specialist II certificate, prevention specialist I certificate, or prevention specialist assistant certificate;

(4)(5) Renewing a pathological and problem gambling endorsement;

(6) Approving continuing education courses under section 4758.28 of the Revised Code;

(5)(7) Doing anything else the board determines necessary to administer this chapter.

(B) The fees established under division (A) of this section are nonrefundable. They shall be in amounts sufficient to cover the necessary expenses of the board in administering this chapter and rules adopted under it. The fees for a license or, certificate, or endorsement and the renewal of a license or, certificate, or endorsement may differ for the various types of licenses and, certificates, or endorsements, but shall not exceed one hundred seventy-five dollars each, unless the board determines that amounts in excess of one hundred seventy-five dollars are needed to cover its necessary expenses in administering this chapter and rules adopted under it and the amounts in excess of one hundred seventy-five dollars are approved by the controlling board.

(C) All vouchers of the board shall be approved by the chairperson or executive director of the board, or both, as authorized by the board.

Sec. 4758.23. (A) In rules adopted under section 4758.20 of the Revised Code, the chemical dependency professionals board shall establish codes of ethical practice and professional conduct for the following:

(1) Individuals who hold a valid independent chemical dependency counselor-clinical supervisor license, independent chemical dependency counselor license, chemical dependency counselor III license, chemical dependency counselor II license, or chemical dependency counselor assistant certificate issued under this chapter;

(2) Individuals who hold a valid prevention specialist II certificate, prevention specialist I certificate, prevention specialist assistant certificate, or registered applicant certificate issued under this chapter;

(3) Individuals who hold a valid pathological and problem gambling endorsement.

(B) The codes for individuals identified under division (A)(1) of this section shall define unprofessional conduct, which shall include engaging in a dual relationship with a client, former client, consumer, or former consumer; committing an act of sexual abuse, misconduct, or exploitation of a client, former client, consumer, or former consumer; and, except as permitted by law, violating client or consumer confidentiality.

(C) The codes for individuals identified under division (A)(1) of this section may be based on any codes of ethical practice and professional conduct developed by national associations or other organizations representing the interests of those involved in chemical dependency counseling. The codes for individuals identified under division (A)(2) of this section may be based on any codes of ethical practice and professional conduct developed by national associations or other organizations representing the interests of those involved in alcohol and other drug prevention services. The board may establish standards in the codes that are more stringent than those established by the national associations or other organizations.

Sec. 4758.24. (A) The chemical dependency professionals board shall issue a license or, certificate, or endorsement under this chapter to an individual who meets all of the following requirements:

(1) Is of good moral character as determined in accordance with rules adopted under section 4758.20 of the Revised Code;

(2) Except as provided in section 4758.241 of the Revised Code, submits a properly completed application and all other documentation specified in rules adopted under section 4758.20 of the Revised Code;

(3) Except as provided in section 4758.241 of the Revised Code, pays the fee established under section 4758.21 of the Revised Code for the license or, certificate, or endorsement that the individual seeks;

(4) Meets the requirements to obtain the license or, certificate, or endorsement that the individual seeks as specified in section 4758.39, 4758.40, 4758.41, 4758.42, 4758.43, 4758.44, 4758.45, 4758.46, or 4758.47, or 4758.48 of the Revised Code;

(5) Meets any additional requirements specified in rules adopted under section 4758.20 of the Revised Code to obtain the license or, certificate, or endorsement that the individual seeks.

(B) The board shall not do either of the following:

(1) Issue a certificate to practice as a chemical dependency counselor I;

(2) Issue a new registered applicant certificate to an individual whose previous registered applicant certificate has been expired for less than the period of time specified in rules adopted under section 4758.20 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 4758.26. (A) Subject to section 4758.30 of the Revised Code, a license or, certificate, or endorsement issued under this chapter expires the following period of time after it is issued:

(1) In the case of an initial chemical dependency counselor assistant certificate, thirteen months;

(2) In the case of any other license or, certificate, or endorsement, two years.

(B) Subject to section 4758.30 of the Revised Code and except as provided in section 4758.27 of the Revised Code, the chemical dependency professionals board shall renew a license or, certificate, or endorsement issued under this chapter in accordance with the standard renewal procedure established under Chapter 4745. of the Revised Code if the individual seeking the renewal pays the renewal fee established under section 4758.21 of the Revised Code and does the following:

(1) In the case of an individual seeking renewal of an initial chemical dependency counselor assistant certificate, satisfies the additional training requirement established under section 4758.52 of the Revised Code;

(2) In the case of any other individual, satisfies the continuing education requirements established under section 4758.51 of the Revised Code.

(C) Subject to section 4758.30 of the Revised Code and except as provided in section 4758.27 of the Revised Code, a license or, certificate, or endorsement issued under this chapter that has expired may be restored if the individual seeking the restoration, not later than two years after the license or, certificate, or endorsement expires, applies for restoration of the license or, certificate, or endorsement. The board shall issue a restored license or, certificate, or endorsement to the individual if the individual pays the renewal fee established under section 4758.21 of the Revised Code and does the following:

(1) In the case of an individual whose initial chemical dependency counselor assistant certificate expired, satisfies the additional training requirement established under section 4758.52 of the Revised Code;

(2) In the case of any other individual, satisfies the continuing education requirements established under section 4758.51 of the Revised Code for restoring the license or, certificate, or endorsement.

The board shall not require an individual to take an examination as a condition of having an expired license or, certificate, or endorsement restored under this section.

Sec. 4758.28. The chemical dependency professionals board shall approve, in accordance with rules adopted under section 4758.20 of the Revised Code and subject to payment of the fee established under section 4758.21 of the Revised Code, continuing education courses of study for individuals who hold a license or, certificate, or endorsement issued under this chapter.

Sec. 4758.29.  On receipt of a notice pursuant to section 3123.43 of the Revised Code, the chemical dependency professionals board shall comply with sections 3123.41 to 3123.50 of the Revised Code and any applicable rules adopted under section 3123.63 of the Revised Code with respect to a license or, certificate, or endorsement issued pursuant to this chapter.

Sec. 4758.30. (A) The chemical dependency professionals board, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, may refuse to issue a license or, certificate, or endorsement applied for under this chapter; refuse to renew or restore a license or, certificate, or endorsement issued under this chapter; suspend, revoke, or otherwise restrict a license or, certificate, or endorsement issued under this chapter; or reprimand an individual holding a license or, certificate, or endorsement issued under this chapter. These actions may be taken by the board regarding the applicant for a license or, certificate, or endorsement or the individual holding a license or, certificate, or endorsement for one or more of the following reasons:

(1) Violation of any provision of this chapter or rules adopted under it;

(2) Knowingly making a false statement on an application for a license or, certificate, or endorsement or for renewal, restoration, or reinstatement of a license or, certificate, or endorsement;

(3) Acceptance of a commission or rebate for referring an individual to a person who holds a license or certificate issued by, or who is registered with, an entity of state government, including persons practicing chemical dependency counseling, alcohol and other drug prevention services, pathological and problem gambling counseling, or fields related to chemical dependency counseling, pathological and problem gambling counseling, or alcohol and other drug prevention services;

(4) Conviction in this or any other state of any crime that is a felony in this state;

(5) Conviction in this or any other state of a misdemeanor committed in the course of practice as an independent chemical dependency counselor-clinical supervisor, independent chemical dependency counselor, chemical dependency counselor III, chemical dependency counselor II, chemical dependency counselor assistant, prevention specialist II, pathological and problem gambling endorsee, prevention specialist I, prevention specialist assistant, or registered applicant;

(6) Inability to practice as an independent chemical dependency counselor-clinical supervisor, independent chemical dependency counselor, chemical dependency counselor III, chemical dependency counselor II, chemical dependency counselor assistant, pathological and problem gambling endorsee, prevention specialist II, prevention specialist I, prevention specialist assistant, or registered applicant due to abuse of or dependency on alcohol or other drugs or other physical or mental condition;

(7) Practicing outside the individual's scope of practice;

(8) Practicing without complying with the supervision requirements specified under section 4758.56, 4758.59, or 4758.61, or 4758.62 of the Revised Code;

(9) Violation of the code of ethical practice and professional conduct for chemical dependency counseling or, alcohol and other drug prevention, or pathological and problem gambling counseling services adopted by the board pursuant to section 4758.23 of the Revised Code;

(10) Revocation of a license or, certificate, or endorsement or voluntary surrender of a license or, certificate, or endorsement in another state or jurisdiction for an offense that would be a violation of this chapter.

(B) An individual whose license or, certificate, or endorsement has been suspended or revoked under this section may apply to the board for reinstatement after an amount of time the board shall determine in accordance with rules adopted under section 4758.20 of the Revised Code. The board may accept or refuse an application for reinstatement. The board may require an examination for reinstatement of a license or, certificate, or endorsement that has been suspended or revoked.

Sec. 4758.31. The chemical dependency professionals board shall investigate alleged violations of this chapter or the rules adopted under it and alleged irregularities in the delivery of chemical dependency counseling services, pathological and problem gambling counseling services, or alcohol and other drug prevention services by individuals who hold a license or, certificate, or endorsement issued under this chapter. As part of an investigation, the board may issue subpoenas, examine witnesses, and administer oaths.

The board may receive any information necessary to conduct an investigation under this section that has been obtained in accordance with federal laws and regulations. If the board is investigating the provision of chemical dependency counseling services or pathological and problem gambling counseling services to a couple or group, it is not necessary for both members of the couple or all members of the group to consent to the release of information relevant to the investigation.

The board shall ensure, in accordance with rules adopted under section 4758.20 of the Revised Code, that all records it holds pertaining to an investigation remain confidential during the investigation. After the investigation, the records are public records except as otherwise provided by federal or state law.

Sec. 4758.35. (A) An individual seeking a license or, certificate, or endorsement issued under this chapter shall file with the chemical dependency professionals board a written application on a form prescribed by the board. Each form shall state that a false statement made on the form is the crime of falsification under section 2921.13 of the Revised Code.

(B) The board shall require an individual or individuals employed by the board under section 4758.15 of the Revised Code to do both of the following in accordance with criteria established by rules adopted under section 4758.20 of the Revised Code:

(1) Receive and review all applications submitted to the board;

(2) Submit to the board all applications the individual or individuals recommend the board review based on the criteria established in the rules.

(C) The board shall review all applications submitted to the board pursuant to division (B)(2) of this section.

Sec. 4758.36. As part of the review process under division (C) of section 4758.35 of the Revised Code of an application submitted by an applicant who has obtained the applicant's education, experience in chemical dependency counseling, pathological and problem gambling, or alcohol and other drug prevention services, or education and experience outside the United States, the chemical dependency professionals board shall determine whether the applicant's command of the English language and education or experience meet the standards required by this chapter and rules adopted under it.

Sec. 4758.48.  An individual is not eligible for a pathological and problem gambling endorsement unless the individual meets the requirements of divisions (A) and (B) of this section.

(A) The individual is one or more of the following:

(1) An independent chemical dependency counselor, chemical dependency counselor III, or chemical dependency counselor II licensed under this chapter;

(2) Authorized to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code;

(3) A psychologist licensed under Chapter 4732. of the Revised Code;

(4) A registered nurse licensed under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code; or

(5) A professional clinical counselor, professional counselor, independent social worker, social worker, independent marriage and family therapist, or marriage and family therapist licensed under Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code.

An individual who is a registered nurse or a professional clinical counselor, professional counselor, independent social worker, social worker, independent marriage and family therapist, or marriage and family therapist is ineligible for the endorsement unless the endorsement is consistent with the individual's scope of practice.

(B) Except as otherwise provided in this division, the individual has completed both of the following:

(1) A minimum of thirty hours of training in pathological and problem gambling that meets the requirements prescribed in rules adopted under section 4758.20 of the Revised Code; and

(2) A minimum of one hundred hours of compensated work or supervised internship in pathological and problem gambling direct clinical experience.

An independent chemical dependency counselor, chemical dependency counselor III, or chemical dependency counselor II licensed under this chapter may be issued an initial pathological and problem gambling endorsement without having complied with division (B)(2) of this section, but the independent chemical dependency counselor, chemical dependency counselor III, or chemical dependency counselor II shall comply with division (B)(2) of this section before expiration of the initial endorsement. An independent chemical dependency counselor, chemical dependency counselor III, or chemical dependency counselor II who fails to comply with this paragraph is not entitled to renewal of the initial endorsement.

Sec. 4758.50. An individual who holds a license or, certificate, or endorsement issued under this chapter shall post the license or, certificate, or endorsement in a prominent place at the individual's place of employment.

Sec. 4758.51. (A) Except as provided in division (C) of this section and in accordance with rules adopted under section 4758.20 of the Revised Code, each individual who holds a license or, certificate, or endorsement issued under this chapter, other than an initial chemical dependency counselor assistant certificate, shall complete during the period that the license or, certificate, or endorsement is in effect not less than the following number of clock hours of continuing education as a condition of receiving a renewed license or, certificate, or endorsement:

(1) In the case of an individual holding a prevention specialist assistant certificate, twenty;

(2) In the case of an individual holding a pathological and problem gambling endorsement, six;

(3) In the case of any other individual, forty.

(B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, an individual whose license or, certificate, or endorsement issued under this chapter, other than an initial chemical dependency counselor assistant certificate, has expired shall complete the number of hours of continuing education specified in rules adopted under section 4758.20 of the Revised Code as a condition of receiving a restored license or, certificate, or endorsement.

(C) The chemical dependency professionals board may waive the continuing education requirements established under this section for individuals who are unable to fulfill them because of military service, illness, residence outside the United States, or any other reason the board considers acceptable.

Sec. 4758.60. An individual who holds a valid prevention specialist II certificate or prevention specialist I certificate issued under this chapter may engage in the practice of alcohol and other drug prevention services as specified in rules adopted under section 4758.20 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 4758.62.  An individual who holds an independent chemical dependency counselor license and a pathological and problem gambling treatment endorsement may do all of the following:

(A) Diagnose and treat pathological and problem gambling conditions;

(B) Perform treatment planning, assessment, crisis intervention, individual and group counseling, case management, and educational services insofar as those functions relate to pathological and problem gambling;

(C) Supervise pathological and problem gambling treatment counseling; and

(D) Refer individuals with nonpathological and nonproblem gambling conditions to appropriate sources of help.

Sec. 4758.63.  An individual who holds a chemical dependency counselor III license and a pathological and problem gambling endorsement may do all of the following:

(A) Treat pathological and problem gambling conditions;

(B) Diagnose pathological and problem gambling conditions under supervision;

(C) Perform treatment planning, assessment, crisis intervention, individual and group counseling, case management, and educational services insofar as those functions relate to pathological and problem gambling;

(D) Supervise pathological and problem gambling treatment counseling under supervision; and

(E) Refer individuals having nonpathological and nonproblem gambling conditions to appropriate sources of help.

The supervision required by divisions (B) and (D) of this section shall be provided by an independent chemical dependency counselor licensed under this chapter; an individual authorized to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code; a psychologist licensed under Chapter 4732. of the Revised Code; a registered nurse licensed under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code; or a professional clinical counselor, independent social worker, or independent marriage and family therapist licensed under Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code. A registered nurse or a professional clinical counselor, independent social worker, or independent marriage and family therapist is not qualified to provide supervision unless the individual holds a pathological and problem gambling endorsement.

An individual holding a chemical dependency counselor III license shall not practice as an individual practitioner.

Sec. 4758.64.  An individual who holds a chemical dependency counselor II license and a pathological and problem gambling endorsement may do all of the following:

(A) Treat pathological and problem gambling conditions;

(B) Perform treatment planning, assessment, crisis intervention, individual and group counseling, case management, and educational services insofar as those functions relate to pathological and problem gambling; and

(C) Refer individuals having nonpathological and nonproblem gambling conditions to appropriate sources of help.

An individual holding a chemical dependency II license shall not practice as an individual practitioner.

Sec. 4758.71. Nothing in this chapter or the rules adopted under it authorizes an individual who holds a license or, certificate, or endorsement issued under this chapter to admit a patient to a hospital or requires a hospital to allow any such individual to admit a patient.

Sec. 4781.121. (A) The manufactured homes commission, pursuant to section 4781.04 of the Revised Code, may investigate any person who allegedly has committed a violation. If, after an investigation the commission determines that reasonable evidence exists that a person has committed a violation, within seven days after that determination, the commission shall send a written notice to that person in the same manner as prescribed in section 119.07 of the Revised Code for licensees, except that the notice shall specify that a hearing will be held and specify the date, time, and place of the hearing.

(B) The commission shall hold a hearing regarding the alleged violation in the same manner prescribed for an adjudication hearing under section 119.09 of the Revised Code. If the commission, after the hearing, determines that a violation has occurred, the commission, upon an affirmative vote of five of its members, may impose a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars per violation per day. The commission's determination is an order that the person may appeal in accordance with section 119.12 of the Revised Code.

(C) If the person who allegedly committed a violation fails to appear for a hearing, the commission may request the court of common pleas of the county where the alleged violation occurred to compel the person to appear before the commission for a hearing.

(D) If the commission assesses a person a civil penalty for a violation and the person fails to pay that civil penalty within the time period prescribed by the commission pursuant to section 131.02 of the Revised Code, the commission shall forward to the attorney general the name of the person and the amount of the civil penalty for the purpose of collecting that civil penalty. In addition to the civil penalty assessed pursuant to this section, the person also shall pay any fee assessed by the attorney general for collection of the civil penalty.

(E) The authority provided to the commission pursuant to this section, and any fine imposed under this section, shall be in addition to, and not in lieu of, all penalties and other remedies provided in this chapter. Any fines collected pursuant to this section shall be used solely to administer and enforce this chapter and rules adopted under it. Any fees collected pursuant to this section shall be transmitted to the treasurer of state and shall be credited to the manufactured homes commission regulatory fund created in section 4781.54 of the Revised Code and the rules adopted thereunder. The fees shall be used only for the purpose of administering and enforcing sections 4781.26 to 4781.35 of the Revised Code and the rules adopted thereunder.

(F) As used in this section, "violation" means a violation of section 4781.11, 4781.16, or 4781.27, or any rule adopted pursuant to section 4781.04, of the Revised Code this chapter.

Sec. 4781.29.  The manufactured homes commission may refuse to grant, may suspend, or may revoke any license granted to any person for failure to comply with sections 4781.26 to 4781.35 of the Revised Code this chapter or with any rule adopted under section 4781.26 of the Revised Code it.

Sec. 4905.01.  As used in this chapter:

(A) "Railroad" has the same meaning as in section 4907.02 of the Revised Code.

(B) "Motor carrier" has the same meaning as in section 4923.01 of the Revised Code.

(C) "Motor vehicle" and "public highway" have the same meanings as in section 4921.01 of the Revised Code.

(D) "Ohio coal research and development costs" means all reasonable costs associated with a facility or project undertaken by a public utility for which a recommendation to allow the recovery of costs associated therewith has been made under division (B)(7) of section 1551.33 of the Revised Code, including, but not limited to, capital costs, such as costs of debt and equity; construction and operation costs; termination and retirement costs; costs of feasibility and marketing studies associated with the project; and the acquisition and delivery costs of Ohio coal used in the project, less any expenditures of grant moneys.

(E) "Intermodal equipment provider" has the same meaning as in 49 C.F.R. 390.5.

Sec. 4905.81.  The public utilities commission shall:

(A) Supervise and regulate each motor carrier;

(B) Regulate the safety of operation of each motor carrier and intermodal equipment provider;

(C) Adopt reasonable safety rules applicable to the highway transportation of persons or property in interstate and intrastate commerce by motor carriers;

(D) Adopt safety rules applicable to the transportation and offering for transportation of hazardous materials in interstate and intrastate commerce by motor carriers. The rules shall not be incompatible with the requirements of the United States department of transportation.

(E) Require the filing of reports and other data by motor carriers;

(F) Adopt reasonable rules for the administration and enforcement of this chapter and Chapters 4901., 4903., 4907., 4909., 4921., and 4923. of the Revised Code applying to each motor carrier in this state;

(G) Supervise and regulate motor carriers in all other matters affecting the relationship between those carriers and the public to the exclusion of all local authorities, except as provided in this section. The commission, in the exercise of the jurisdiction conferred upon it by this chapter and Chapters 4901., 4903., 4907., 4909., 4921., and 4923. of the Revised Code, may adopt rules affecting motor carriers, notwithstanding the provisions of any ordinance, resolution, license, or permit enacted, adopted, or granted by any township, municipal corporation, municipal corporation and county, or county. In case of conflict between any such ordinance, resolution, license, or permit, the order or rule of the commission shall prevail. Local subdivisions may adopt reasonable local police rules within their respective boundaries not inconsistent with those chapters and rules adopted under them.

The commission has jurisdiction to receive, hear, and determine as a question of fact, upon complaint of any party or upon its own motion, and upon not less than fifteen days' notice of the time and place of the hearing and the matter to be heard, whether any corporation, company, association, joint-stock association, person, firm, or copartnership, or their lessees, legal or personal representatives, trustees, or receivers or trustees appointed by any court, is engaged as a motor carrier. The finding of the commission on such a question is a final order that may be reviewed as provided in section 4923.15 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 4905.95.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in division (C) of this section:

(1) The public utilities commission, regarding any proceeding under this section, shall provide reasonable notice and the opportunity for a hearing in accordance with rules adopted under section 4901.13 of the Revised Code.

(2) Sections 4903.02 to 4903.082, 4903.09 to 4903.16, and 4903.20 to 4903.23 of the Revised Code apply to all proceedings and orders of the commission under this section and to all operators subject to those proceedings and orders.

(B) If, pursuant to a proceeding it specially initiates or to any other proceeding and after the hearing provided for under division (A) of this section, the commission finds that:

(1) An operator has violated or failed to comply with, or is violating or failing to comply with, sections 4905.90 to 4905.96 of the Revised Code or the pipe-line safety code, the commission by order:

(a) Shall require the operator to comply and to undertake corrective action necessary to protect the public safety;

(b) May assess upon the operator forfeitures of not more than one two hundred thousand dollars for each day of each violation or noncompliance, except that the aggregate of such forfeitures shall not exceed one two million dollars for any related series of violations or noncompliances. In determining the amount of any such forfeiture, the commission shall consider all of the following:

(i) The gravity of the violation or noncompliance;

(ii) The operator's history of prior violations or noncompliances;

(iii) The operator's good faith efforts to comply and undertake corrective action;

(iv) The operator's ability to pay the forfeiture;

(v) The effect of the forfeiture on the operator's ability to continue as an operator;

(vi) Such other matters as justice may require.

All forfeitures collected under this division or section 4905.96 of the Revised Code shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the general revenue fund.

(c) May direct the attorney general to seek the remedies provided in section 4905.96 of the Revised Code.

(2) An intrastate pipe-line transportation facility is hazardous to life or property, the commission by order:

(a) Shall require the operator of the facility to take corrective action to remove the hazard. Such corrective action may include suspended or restricted use of the facility, physical inspection, testing, repair, replacement, or other action.

(b) May direct the attorney general to seek the remedies provided in section 4905.96 of the Revised Code.

(C) If, pursuant to a proceeding it specially initiates or to any other proceeding, the commission finds that an emergency exists due to a condition on an intrastate pipe-line transportation facility posing a clear and immediate danger to life or health or threatening a significant loss of property and requiring immediate corrective action to protect the public safety, the commission may issue, without notice or prior hearing, an order reciting its finding and may direct the attorney general to seek the remedies provided in section 4905.96 of the Revised Code. The order shall remain in effect for not more than forty days after the date of its issuance. The order shall provide for a hearing as soon as possible, but not later than thirty days after the date of its issuance. After the hearing the commission shall continue, revoke, or modify the order and may make findings under and seek appropriate remedies as provided in division (B) of this section.

Sec. 4909.157. (A) As used in this section, "manufactured gas plant" means a plant that was operational prior to 1970 and that produced, for sale to customers, manufactured gas from one of the following processes:

(1) Coal gas;

(2) Carburetted water gas;

(3) Oil gas.

(B) The public utilities commission may authorize a natural gas company or gas company to recover environmental remediation costs to which the following apply:

(1) The costs are prudently incurred before January 1, 2025.

(2) The costs are also related to real property to which all of the following apply:

(a) The property was owned by the company or a predecessor in interest before July 1, 2014.

(b) The property was formerly the site of a manufactured gas plant.

(c) At the time recovery is authorized, the property is or was used for the provision of public utility service.

(3) At least one of the following applies:

(a) The costs were incurred under the voluntary action program as described in Chapter 3746. of the Revised Code.

(b) The costs were ordered by an environmental agency with jurisdiction or a court with jurisdiction.

(c) The costs were the subject of a previously authorized regulatory asset.

(C) Recovery under this section may be provided for through the establishment of a mechanism by the commission. Any such mechanism shall set forth the specific terms of the recovery. The mechanism shall include an application and an evidentiary hearing in which the applicant shall bear the burden of proof.

(D) In determining whether to authorize recovery under this section, and in determining any amount of recovery, the commission may consider, in its prudency review, any or all of the following:

(1) The potential liability of third parties for the environmental remediation costs, and whether and to what extent those parties should share in payment of those costs;

(2) To the extent that it can be ascertained, whether and to what extent the contamination associated with the environmental remediation costs occurred prior to the date that the company was first subject to the regulatory authority of the commission under Chapter 4905. of the Revised Code;

(3) Whether the remediation obligation initially arose during a time when the company was subject to the regulatory authority of the commission under Chapter 4905. of the Revised Code.

(E) If the commission authorizes recovery under this section, the company, upon the sale of the property described in division (B)(2) of this section, shall return to the company's customers the difference between the sale price of the property, minus any reasonable expenses related to the sale, and the fair market value of the property prior to remediation.

(F) Divisions (A)(1) and (4) of section 4909.15 of the Revised Code do not preclude the recovery of environmental remediation costs as described in this section.

Sec. 4923.01.  As used in this chapter:

(A) "Ambulance," "interstate commerce," "intrastate commerce," "motor vehicle," "public highway," "ridesharing arrangement," and "school bus" have the same meanings as in section 4921.01 of the Revised Code.

(B) "For-hire motor carrier" means a person engaged in the business of transporting persons or property by motor vehicle for compensation, except when engaged in any of the following in intrastate commerce:

(1) The transportation of persons in taxicabs in the usual taxicab service;

(2) The transportation of pupils in school busses operating to or from school sessions or school events;

(3) The transportation of farm supplies to the farm or farm products from farm to market or to food fabricating plants;

(4) The distribution of newspapers;

(5) The transportation of crude petroleum incidental to gathering from wells and delivery to destination by pipe line;

(6) The transportation of injured, ill, or deceased persons by hearse or ambulance;

(7) The transportation of compost (a combination of manure and sand or shredded bark mulch) or shredded bark mulch;

(8) The transportation of persons in a ridesharing arrangement when any fee charged each person so transported is in such amount as to recover only the person's share of the costs of operating the motor vehicle for such purpose;

(9) The operation of motor vehicles for contractors on public road work.

"For-hire motor carrier" includes the carrier's agents, officers, and representatives, as well as employees responsible for hiring, supervising, training, assigning, or dispatching drivers and employees concerned with the installation, inspection, and maintenance of motor-vehicle equipment and accessories.

Divisions (B)(1) to (9) of this section shall not be construed to relieve a person from compliance with rules adopted under division (A)(2) of section 4923.04 of the Revised Code, division (E) of section 4923.06 of the Revised Code, division (B) of section 4923.07 of the Revised Code, and section 4923.11 of the Revised Code, or from compliance with rules regarding commercial driver's licenses adopted under division (A)(1) of section 4923.04 of the Revised Code.

(C) "Interchange" and "intermodal equipment" have the same meanings as in 49 C.F.R. 390.5.

(D) "Motor carrier" means both a for-hire motor carrier and a private motor carrier.

(D)(E) "Private motor carrier" means a person who is not a for-hire motor carrier but is engaged in the business of transporting persons or property by motor vehicle, except as provided in section 4923.02 of the Revised Code. "Private motor carrier" includes the carrier's agents, officers, and representatives, as well as employees responsible for hiring, supervising, training, assigning, or dispatching drivers and employees concerned with the installation, inspection, and maintenance of motor-vehicle equipment and accessories.

Sec. 4923.02.  (A) As used in this chapter, "private motor carrier" does not include a person when engaged in any of the following in intrastate commerce:

(1) The transportation of persons in taxicabs in the usual taxicab service;

(2) The transportation of pupils in school busses operating to or from school sessions or school events;

(3) The transportation of farm supplies to the farm or farm products from farm to market or to food fabricating plants;

(4) The distribution of newspapers;

(5) The transportation of crude petroleum incidental to gathering from wells and delivery to destination by pipe line;

(6) The transportation of injured, ill, or deceased persons by hearse or ambulance;

(7) The transportation of compost (a combination of manure and sand or shredded bark mulch) or shredded bark mulch;

(8) The transportation of persons in a ridesharing arrangement when any fee charged each person so transported is in such amount as to recover only the person's share of the costs of operating the motor vehicle for such purpose;

(9) The operation of motor vehicles for contractors on public road work.

(B) The public utilities commission may grant a motor carrier operating in intrastate commerce a temporary exemption from some or all of the provisions of this chapter and the rules adopted under it, when either of the following applies:

(1) The governor of this state has declared an emergency.

(2) The chairperson of the commission or the chairperson's designee has declared a transportation-specific emergency.

(C) The commission may adopt rules not incompatible with the requirements of the United States department of transportation to provide exemptions to motor carriers operating in intrastate commerce not otherwise identified in divisions (A) and (B) of this section.

(D) Divisions (A) to (C) of this section shall not be construed to relieve a person from compliance with either of the following:

(1) Rules adopted under division (A)(2) of section 4923.04 of the Revised Code, division (E) of section 4923.06 of the Revised Code, division (B) of section 4923.07 of the Revised Code, and section 4923.11 of the Revised Code;

(2) Rules regarding commercial driver's licenses adopted under division (A)(1) of section 4923.04 of the Revised Code;

(3) Rules adopted under section 4921.15 of the Revised Code regarding uniform registration and permitting of carriers of hazardous materials and other applicable provisions of that section and division (H) of section 4921.19 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 4923.04.  (A)(1) The public utilities commission shall adopt rules applicable to the transportation following:

(1) Transportation of persons or property by motor carriers operating in interstate and intrastate commerce.;

(2) The commission shall adopt rules applicable to the highway Highway transportation and offering for transportation of hazardous materials by motor carriers, and persons engaging in the highway transportation and offering for transportation of hazardous materials, operating in interstate or intrastate commerce;

(3) Use and interchange of intermodal equipment.

(B) The rules adopted under division (A) of this section shall not be incompatible with the requirements of the United States department of transportation.

(C) To achieve the purposes of this chapter and to assist the commission in the performance of any of its powers or duties, the commission, either through the public utilities commissioners or employees authorized by it, may do either or both of the following:

(1) Apply for, and any judge of a court of record of competent jurisdiction may issue, an appropriate search warrant;

(2) Examine under oath, at the offices of the commission, any officer, agent, or employee of any person subject to this chapter. The commission, by subpoena, also may compel the attendance of a witness for the purpose of the examination and, by subpoena duces tecum, may compel the production of all books, contracts, records, and documents that relate to the transportation and offering for transportation of hazardous materials compliance with this chapter and the rules adopted thereunder.

Sec. 4928.66. (A)(1)(a) Beginning in 2009, an electric distribution utility shall implement energy efficiency programs that achieve energy savings equivalent to at least three-tenths of one per cent of the total, annual average, and normalized kilowatt-hour sales of the electric distribution utility during the preceding three calendar years to customers in this state. An energy efficiency program may include a combined heat and power system placed into service or retrofitted on or after the effective date of the amendment of this section by S.B. 315 of the 129th general assembly, September 10, 2012, or a waste energy recovery system placed into service or retrofitted on or after the same date September 10, 2012, except that a waste energy recovery system described in division (A)(38)(b) of section 4928.01 of the Revised Code may be included only if it was placed into service between January 1, 2002, and December 31, 2004. For a waste energy recovery or combined heat and power system, the savings shall be as estimated by the public utilities commission. The savings requirement, using such a three-year average, shall increase to an additional five-tenths of one per cent in 2010, seven-tenths of one per cent in 2011, eight-tenths of one per cent in 2012, nine-tenths of one per cent in 2013, one per cent from 2014 to 2018, and two per cent each year thereafter, achieving a cumulative, annual energy savings in excess of twenty-two per cent by the end of 2025. For purposes of a waste energy recovery or combined heat and power system, an electric distribution utility shall not apply more than the total annual percentage of the electric distribution utility's industrial-customer load, relative to the electric distribution utility's total load, to the annual energy savings requirement.

(b) Beginning in 2009, an electric distribution utility shall implement peak demand reduction programs designed to achieve a one per cent reduction in peak demand in 2009 and an additional seventy-five hundredths of one per cent reduction each year through 2018. In 2018, the standing committees in the house of representatives and the senate primarily dealing with energy issues shall make recommendations to the general assembly regarding future peak demand reduction targets.

(2) For the purposes of divisions (A)(1)(a) and (b) of this section:

(a) The baseline for energy savings under division (A)(1)(a) of this section shall be the average of the total kilowatt hours the electric distribution utility sold in the preceding three calendar years, and the baseline for a peak demand reduction under division (A)(1)(b) of this section shall be the average peak demand on the utility in the preceding three calendar years, except that the commission may reduce either baseline to adjust for new economic growth in the utility's certified territory.

(b) The commission may amend the benchmarks set forth in division (A)(1)(a) or (b) of this section if, after application by the electric distribution utility, the commission determines that the amendment is necessary because the utility cannot reasonably achieve the benchmarks due to regulatory, economic, or technological reasons beyond its reasonable control.

(c) Compliance with divisions (A)(1)(a) and (b) of this section shall be measured by including the effects of all demand-response programs for mercantile customers of the subject electric distribution utility, all waste energy recovery systems and all combined heat and power systems, and all such mercantile customer-sited energy efficiency, including waste energy recovery and combined heat and power, and peak demand reduction programs, adjusted upward by the appropriate loss factors. Any mechanism designed to recover the cost of energy efficiency, including waste energy recovery and combined heat and power, and peak demand reduction programs under divisions (A)(1)(a) and (b) of this section may exempt mercantile customers that commit their demand-response or other customer-sited capabilities, whether existing or new, for integration into the electric distribution utility's demand-response, energy efficiency, including waste energy recovery and combined heat and power, or peak demand reduction programs, if the commission determines that that exemption reasonably encourages such customers to commit those capabilities to those programs. If a mercantile customer makes such existing or new demand-response, energy efficiency, including waste energy recovery and combined heat and power, or peak demand reduction capability available to an electric distribution utility pursuant to division (A)(2)(c) of this section, the electric utility's baseline under division (A)(2)(a) of this section shall be adjusted to exclude the effects of all such demand-response, energy efficiency, including waste energy recovery and combined heat and power, or peak demand reduction programs that may have existed during the period used to establish the baseline. The baseline also shall be normalized for changes in numbers of customers, sales, weather, peak demand, and other appropriate factors so that the compliance measurement is not unduly influenced by factors outside the control of the electric distribution utility.

(d) Programs implemented by a utility may include demand-response programs, smart grid investment programs, provided that such programs are demonstrated to be cost-beneficial, customer-sited programs, including waste energy recovery and combined heat and power systems, and transmission and distribution infrastructure improvements that reduce line losses. Division (A)(2)(c) of this section shall be applied to include facilitating efforts by a mercantile customer or group of those customers to offer customer-sited demand-response, energy efficiency, including waste energy recovery and combined heat and power, or peak demand reduction capabilities to the electric distribution utility as part of a reasonable arrangement submitted to the commission pursuant to section 4905.31 of the Revised Code.

(e) No programs or improvements described in division (A)(2)(d) of this section shall conflict with any statewide building code adopted by the board of building standards.

(B) In accordance with rules it shall adopt, the public utilities commission shall produce and docket at the commission an annual report containing the results of its verification of the annual levels of energy efficiency and of peak demand reductions achieved by each electric distribution utility pursuant to division (A) of this section. A copy of the report shall be provided to the consumers' counsel.

(C) If the commission determines, after notice and opportunity for hearing and based upon its report under division (B) of this section, that an electric distribution utility has failed to comply with an energy efficiency or peak demand reduction requirement of division (A) of this section, the commission shall assess a forfeiture on the utility as provided under sections 4905.55 to 4905.60 and 4905.64 of the Revised Code, either in the amount, per day per undercompliance or noncompliance, relative to the period of the report, equal to that prescribed for noncompliances under section 4905.54 of the Revised Code, or in an amount equal to the then existing market value of one renewable energy credit per megawatt hour of undercompliance or noncompliance. Revenue from any forfeiture assessed under this division shall be deposited to the credit of the advanced energy fund created under section 4928.61 of the Revised Code.

(D) The commission may establish rules regarding the content of an application by an electric distribution utility for commission approval of a revenue decoupling mechanism under this division. Such an application shall not be considered an application to increase rates and may be included as part of a proposal to establish, continue, or expand energy efficiency or conservation programs. The commission by order may approve an application under this division if it determines both that the revenue decoupling mechanism provides for the recovery of revenue that otherwise may be forgone by the utility as a result of or in connection with the implementation by the electric distribution utility of any energy efficiency or energy conservation programs and reasonably aligns the interests of the utility and of its customers in favor of those programs.

(E) The commission additionally shall adopt rules that require an electric distribution utility to provide a customer upon request with two years' consumption data in an accessible form.

Sec. 5104.03.  (A) Any person, firm, organization, institution, or agency seeking to establish a child day-care center, type A family day-care home, or licensed type B family day-care home shall apply for a license to the director of job and family services on such form as the director prescribes. The director shall provide at no charge to each applicant for licensure a copy of the child care license requirements in this chapter and a copy of the rules adopted pursuant to this chapter. The copies may be provided in paper or electronic form.

Fees shall be set by the director pursuant to sections 5104.015, 5104.017, and 5104.018 of the Revised Code and shall be paid at the time of application for a license to operate a center, type A home, or type B home. Fees collected under this section shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the general revenue fund.

(B)(1) Upon filing of the application for a license, the director shall investigate and inspect the center, type A home, or type B home to determine the license capacity for each age category of children of the center, type A home, or type B home and to determine whether the center, type A home, or type B home complies with this chapter and rules adopted pursuant to this chapter. When, after investigation and inspection, the director is satisfied that this chapter and rules adopted pursuant to it are complied with, subject to division (H) of this section, a license shall be issued as soon as practicable in such form and manner as prescribed by the director. The license shall be designated as provisional and shall be valid for twelve months from the date of issuance unless revoked.

(2) The director may contract with a government entity or a private nonprofit entity for the entity to inspect and license type B family day-care homes pursuant to this section. If the director contracts with a government entity or private nonprofit entity for that purpose, the entity may contract with another government entity or private nonprofit entity for the other entity to inspect type B homes pursuant to this section. The department director, government entity, or private nonprofit entity shall conduct the an inspection prior to the issuance of a license for the a type B home and, as part of that inspection, ensure that the type B home is safe and sanitary.

(C)(1) On receipt of an application for licensure as a type B family day-care home to provide publicly funded child care, the department director shall search the uniform statewide automated child welfare information system for information concerning any abuse or neglect report made pursuant to section 2151.421 of the Revised Code of which the applicant, any other adult residing in the applicant's home, or a person designated by the applicant to be an emergency or substitute caregiver for the applicant is the subject.

(2) The department director shall consider any information it discovers discovered pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section or that is provided by a public children services agency pursuant to section 5153.175 of the Revised Code. If the department director determines that the information, when viewed within the totality of the circumstances, reasonably leads to the conclusion that the applicant may directly or indirectly endanger the health, safety, or welfare of children, the department director shall deny the application for licensure or revoke the license of a type B family day-care home.

(D) The director shall investigate and inspect the center, type A home, or type B home at least once during operation under a license designated as provisional. If after the investigation and inspection the director determines that the requirements of this chapter and rules adopted pursuant to this chapter are met, subject to division (H) of this section, the director shall issue a new license to the center or home.

(E) Each license shall state the name of the licensee, the name of the administrator, the address of the center, type A home, or licensed type B home, and the license capacity for each age category of children. The license shall include thereon, in accordance with sections 5104.015, 5104.017, and 5104.018 of the Revised Code, the toll-free telephone number to be used by persons suspecting that the center, type A home, or licensed type B home has violated a provision of this chapter or rules adopted pursuant to this chapter. A license is valid only for the licensee, administrator, address, and license capacity for each age category of children designated on the license. The license capacity specified on the license is the maximum number of children in each age category that may be cared for in the center, type A home, or licensed type B home at one time.

The center or type A home licensee shall notify the director when the administrator of the center or home changes. The director shall amend the current license to reflect a change in an administrator, if the administrator meets the requirements of this chapter and rules adopted pursuant to this chapter, or a change in license capacity for any age category of children as determined by the director of job and family services.

(F) If the director revokes the license of a center, a type A home, or a type B home, the director shall not issue another license to the owner of the center, type A home, or type B home until five years have elapsed from the date the license is revoked.

If the director denies an application for a license, the director shall not accept another application from the applicant until five years have elapsed from the date the application is denied.

(G) If during the application for licensure process the director determines that the license of the owner has been revoked, the investigation of the center, type A home, or type B home shall cease. This action does not constitute denial of the application and may not be appealed under division (H) of this section.

(H) All actions of the director with respect to licensing centers, type A homes, or type B homes, refusal to license, and revocation of a license shall be in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. Any applicant who is denied a license or any owner whose license is revoked may appeal in accordance with section 119.12 of the Revised Code.

(I) In no case shall the director issue a license under this section for a center, type A home, or type B home if the director, based on documentation provided by the appropriate county department of job and family services, determines that the applicant had been certified as a type B family day-care home when such certifications were issued by county departments prior to January 1, 2014, that the county department revoked that certification within the immediately preceding five years, that the revocation was based on the applicant's refusal or inability to comply with the criteria for certification, and that the refusal or inability resulted in a risk to the health or safety of children.

(J)(1) Except as provided in division (J)(2) of this section, an administrator of a type B family day-care home that receives a license pursuant to this section to provide publicly funded child care is an independent contractor and is not an employee of the department of job and family services.

(2) For purposes of Chapter 4141. of the Revised Code, determinations concerning the employment of an administrator of a type B family day-care home that receives a license pursuant to this section shall be determined under Chapter 4141. of the Revised Code.

Sec. 5122.36. If the legal residence of a person suffering from mental illness is in another county of the state, the necessary expense of the person's return is a proper charge against the county of legal residence. If an adjudication and order of hospitalization by the probate court of the county of temporary residence are required, the regular probate court fees and expenses incident to the order of hospitalization under this chapter and any other expense incurred on the person's behalf shall be charged to and paid by the county of the person's legal residence upon the approval and certification of the probate judge of that county. The ordering court shall send to the probate court of the person's county of legal residence a certified transcript of all proceedings had in the ordering court. The receiving court shall enter and record the transcript. The certified transcript is prima facie evidence of the residence of the person. When the residence of the person cannot be established as represented by the ordering court, the matter of residence shall be referred to the department of mental health and addiction services for investigation and determination.

Sec. 5123.01.  As used in this chapter:

(A) "Chief medical officer" means the licensed physician appointed by the managing officer of an institution for the mentally retarded with the approval of the director of developmental disabilities to provide medical treatment for residents of the institution.

(B) "Chief program director" means a person with special training and experience in the diagnosis and management of the mentally retarded, certified according to division (C) of this section in at least one of the designated fields, and appointed by the managing officer of an institution for the mentally retarded with the approval of the director to provide habilitation and care for residents of the institution.

(C) "Comprehensive evaluation" means a study, including a sequence of observations and examinations, of a person leading to conclusions and recommendations formulated jointly, with dissenting opinions if any, by a group of persons with special training and experience in the diagnosis and management of persons with mental retardation or a developmental disability, which group shall include individuals who are professionally qualified in the fields of medicine, psychology, and social work, together with such other specialists as the individual case may require.

(D) "Education" means the process of formal training and instruction to facilitate the intellectual and emotional development of residents.

(E) "Habilitation" means the process by which the staff of the institution assists the resident in acquiring and maintaining those life skills that enable the resident to cope more effectively with the demands of the resident's own person and of the resident's environment and in raising the level of the resident's physical, mental, social, and vocational efficiency. Habilitation includes but is not limited to programs of formal, structured education and training.

(F) "Health officer" means any public health physician, public health nurse, or other person authorized or designated by a city or general health district.

(G) "Home and community-based services" means medicaid-funded home and community-based services specified in division (A)(1) of section 5166.20 of the Revised Code provided under the medicaid waiver components the department of developmental disabilities administers pursuant to section 5166.21 of the Revised Code. Except as provided in section 5123.0412 of the Revised Code, home and community-based services provided under the medicaid waiver component known as the transitions developmental disabilities waiver are to be considered to be home and community-based services for the purposes of this chapter, and Chapters 5124. and 5126. of the Revised Code, only to the extent, if any, provided by the contract required by section 5166.21 of the Revised Code regarding the waiver.

(H) "ICF/IID" has the same meaning as in section 5124.01 of the Revised Code.

(I) "Indigent person" means a person who is unable, without substantial financial hardship, to provide for the payment of an attorney and for other necessary expenses of legal representation, including expert testimony.

(J) "Institution" means a public or private facility, or a part of a public or private facility, that is licensed by the appropriate state department and is equipped to provide residential habilitation, care, and treatment for the mentally retarded.

(K) "Licensed physician" means a person who holds a valid certificate issued under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code authorizing the person to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery, or a medical officer of the government of the United States while in the performance of the officer's official duties.

(L) "Managing officer" means a person who is appointed by the director of developmental disabilities to be in executive control of an institution for the mentally retarded under the jurisdiction of the department.

(M) "Medicaid case management services" means case management services provided to an individual with mental retardation or other developmental disability that the state medicaid plan requires.

(N) "Mentally retarded person" means a person having significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning existing concurrently with deficiencies in adaptive behavior, manifested during the developmental period.

(O) "Mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization by court order" means a person eighteen years of age or older who is at least moderately mentally retarded and in relation to whom, because of the person's retardation, either of the following conditions exist:

(1) The person represents a very substantial risk of physical impairment or injury to self as manifested by evidence that the person is unable to provide for and is not providing for the person's most basic physical needs and that provision for those needs is not available in the community;

(2) The person needs and is susceptible to significant habilitation in an institution.

(P) "A person who is at least moderately mentally retarded" means a person who is found, following a comprehensive evaluation, to be impaired in adaptive behavior to a moderate degree and to be functioning at the moderate level of intellectual functioning in accordance with standard measurements as recorded in the most current revision of the manual of terminology and classification in mental retardation published by the American association on mental retardation.

(Q) As used in this division, "substantial functional limitation," "developmental delay," and "established risk" have has the meanings meaning established pursuant to section 5123.011 of the Revised Code.

"Developmental disability" means a severe, chronic disability that is characterized by all of the following:

(1) It is attributable to a mental or physical impairment or a combination of mental and physical impairments, other than a mental or physical impairment solely caused by mental illness as defined in division (A) of section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.

(2) It is manifested before age twenty-two.

(3) It is likely to continue indefinitely.

(4) It results in one of the following:

(a) In the case of a person under three years of age, at least one developmental delay or an established risk a diagnosed physical or mental condition that has a high probability of resulting in a developmental delay;

(b) In the case of a person at least three years of age but under six years of age, at least two developmental delays or an established risk;

(c) In the case of a person six years of age or older, a substantial functional limitation in at least three of the following areas of major life activity, as appropriate for the person's age: self-care, receptive and expressive language, learning, mobility, self-direction, capacity for independent living, and, if the person is at least sixteen years of age, capacity for economic self-sufficiency.

(5) It causes the person to need a combination and sequence of special, interdisciplinary, or other type of care, treatment, or provision of services for an extended period of time that is individually planned and coordinated for the person.

(R) "Developmentally disabled person" means a person with a developmental disability.

(S) "State institution" means an institution that is tax-supported and under the jurisdiction of the department.

(T) "Residence" and "legal residence" have the same meaning as "legal settlement," which is acquired by residing in Ohio for a period of one year without receiving general assistance prior to July 17, 1995, under former Chapter 5113. of the Revised Code, financial assistance under Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code, or assistance from a private agency that maintains records of assistance given. A person having a legal settlement in the state shall be considered as having legal settlement in the assistance area in which the person resides. No adult person coming into this state and having a spouse or minor children residing in another state shall obtain a legal settlement in this state as long as the spouse or minor children are receiving public assistance, care, or support at the expense of the other state or its subdivisions. For the purpose of determining the legal settlement of a person who is living in a public or private institution or in a home subject to licensing by the department of job and family services, the department of mental health and addiction services, or the department of developmental disabilities, the residence of the person shall be considered as though the person were residing in the county in which the person was living prior to the person's entrance into the institution or home. Settlement once acquired shall continue until a person has been continuously absent from Ohio for a period of one year or has acquired a legal residence in another state. A woman who marries a man with legal settlement in any county immediately acquires the settlement of her husband. The legal settlement of a minor is that of the parents, surviving parent, sole parent, parent who is designated the residential parent and legal custodian by a court, other adult having permanent custody awarded by a court, or guardian of the person of the minor, provided that:

(1) A minor female who marries shall be considered to have the legal settlement of her husband and, in the case of death of her husband or divorce, she shall not thereby lose her legal settlement obtained by the marriage.

(2) A minor male who marries, establishes a home, and who has resided in this state for one year without receiving general assistance prior to July 17, 1995, under former Chapter 5113. of the Revised Code, financial assistance under Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code, or assistance from a private agency that maintains records of assistance given shall be considered to have obtained a legal settlement in this state.

(3) The legal settlement of a child under eighteen years of age who is in the care or custody of a public or private child caring agency shall not change if the legal settlement of the parent changes until after the child has been in the home of the parent for a period of one year.

No person, adult or minor, may establish a legal settlement in this state for the purpose of gaining admission to any state institution.

(U)(1) "Resident" means, subject to division (U)(2) of this section, a person who is admitted either voluntarily or involuntarily to an institution or other facility pursuant to section 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code subsequent to a finding of not guilty by reason of insanity or incompetence to stand trial or under this chapter who is under observation or receiving habilitation and care in an institution.

(2) "Resident" does not include a person admitted to an institution or other facility under section 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code to the extent that the reference in this chapter to resident, or the context in which the reference occurs, is in conflict with any provision of sections 2945.37 to 2945.402 of the Revised Code.

(V) "Respondent" means the person whose detention, commitment, or continued commitment is being sought in any proceeding under this chapter.

(W) "Working day" and "court day" mean Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, and Friday, except when such day is a legal holiday.

(X) "Prosecutor" means the prosecuting attorney, village solicitor, city director of law, or similar chief legal officer who prosecuted a criminal case in which a person was found not guilty by reason of insanity, who would have had the authority to prosecute a criminal case against a person if the person had not been found incompetent to stand trial, or who prosecuted a case in which a person was found guilty.

(Y) "Court" means the probate division of the court of common pleas.

(Z) "Supported living" and "residential services" have the same meanings as in section 5126.01 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 5123.011. The director of developmental disabilities shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that establish definitions of "substantial functional limitation," to do both of the following:

(A) Define "developmental delay," "established risk," "biological risk," and "environmental risk.";

(B) For the purpose of division (Q)(4)(c) of section 5123.01 and division (F)(4)(c) of section 5126.01 of the Revised Code, specify how to determine whether a person six years of age or older has a substantial functional limitation in a major life activity as appropriate for the person's age.

Sec. 5123.012.  (A) As used in this section:

(1) "Biological risk" and "environmental risk" have the meanings established pursuant to section 5123.011 of the Revised Code.

(2) "Preschool, "preschool child with a disability" has the same meaning as in section 3323.01 of the Revised Code.

(B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, the department of developmental disabilities shall make eligibility determinations in accordance with the definition of "developmental disability" in section 5123.01 of the Revised Code. The department may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing eligibility for programs and services for either of the following:

(1) Individuals under age six who have a biological risk or environmental risk of a developmental delay;

(2) Any any preschool child with a disability eligible for services under section 3323.02 of the Revised Code whose disability is not attributable solely to mental illness as defined in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.

(C)(1) The department shall make determinations of eligibility for protective services in accordance with sections 5123.55 to 5123.59 of the Revised Code.

(2) Determinations of whether a mentally retarded person is subject to institutionalization by court order shall be made in accordance with sections 5123.71 to 5123.76 of the Revised Code and shall be based on the definition of "mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization by court order" in section 5123.01 of the Revised Code.

(3) All persons who were eligible for services and enrolled in programs offered by the department of developmental disabilities pursuant to this chapter on July 1, 1991, shall continue to be eligible for those services and to be enrolled in those programs as long as they are in need of services.

Sec. 5123.0420.  As used in this section, "evidence-based intervention" means a prevention or treatment service that has been demonstrated through scientific evaluation to produce a positive outcome.

The department of developmental disabilities shall establish a voluntary training and certification program for individuals who provide evidence-based interventions to individuals with an autism spectrum disorder. The department shall administer the program or contract with a person or other government entity to administer the program. The program shall not conflict with or duplicate any other certification or licensure process administered by the state.

The director of developmental disabilities may adopt rules as necessary to implement this section. If the director adopts rules, the rules shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.

Sec. 5123.081.  (A) As used in this section:

(1)(a) "Applicant" means any of the following:

(i) A person who is under final consideration for appointment to or employment with hiring by the department of developmental disabilities or a county board of developmental disabilities;

(ii) A person who is being transferred to the department or a county board;

(iii) An employee who is being recalled to or reemployed by the department or a county board after a layoff;

(iv) A person under final consideration for a direct services position with a provider or subcontractor.

(b) Neither of the following is an applicant:

(i) A person who is employed by a responsible entity in a position for which a criminal records check is required by this section and either is being considered for a different position with the responsible entity or is returning after a leave of absence or seasonal break in employment, unless the responsible entity has reason to believe that the person has committed a disqualifying offense;

(ii) A person who is to provide only respite care under a family support services program established under section 5126.11 of the Revised Code if a family member of the individual with mental retardation or a developmental disability who is to receive the respite care selects the person.

(2) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in section 109.572 of the Revised Code.

(3) "Direct services position" means an employment position in which the employee has the opportunity to be alone with or exercises supervision or control over one or more individuals with mental retardation or a developmental disability.

(4) "Disqualifying offense" means any of the offenses listed or described in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (e) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code.

(5)(a) "Employee" means either of the following:

(i) A person appointed to or employed by the department of developmental disabilities or a county board of developmental disabilities;

(ii) A person employed in a direct services position by a provider or subcontractor.

(b) "Employee" does not mean a person who provides only respite care under a family support services program established under section 5126.11 of the Revised Code if a family member of the individual with mental retardation or a developmental disability who receives the respite care selected the person.

(6) "Minor drug possession offense" has the same meaning as in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.

(7) "Provider" means a person that provides specialized services to individuals with mental retardation or a developmental disability and employs one or more persons in direct services positions.

(8) "Responsible entity" means the following:

(a) The department of developmental disabilities in the case of either of the following:

(i) A person who is an applicant because the department is giving the person is under final consideration for appointment to or employment with being hired by the department, the person is being transferred to the department, or the person is being recalled to or reemployed by the department after a layoff;

(ii) A person who is an employee because the person is appointed to or employed by the department.

(b) A county board of developmental disabilities in the case of either of the following:

(i) A person who is an applicant because the county board is giving the person is under final consideration for appointment to or employment with being hired by the county board, the person is being transferred to the county board, or the person is being recalled to or reemployed by the county board after a layoff;

(ii) A person who is an employee because the person is appointed to or employed by the county board.

(c) A provider in the case of either of the following:

(i) A person who is an applicant because the provider is giving the person is under final consideration for being hired into a direct services position with the provider;

(ii) A person who is an employee because the provider employs the person is employed in a direct services position by the provider.

(d) A subcontractor in the case of either of the following:

(i) A person who is an applicant because the subcontractor is giving the person is under final consideration for being hired into a direct services position with the subcontractor;

(ii) A person who is an employee because the subcontractor employs the person is employed in a direct services position by the subcontractor.

(9) "Specialized services" means any program or service designed and operated to serve primarily individuals with mental retardation or a developmental disability, including a program or service provided by an entity licensed or certified by the department of developmental disabilities. If there is a question as to whether a provider or subcontractor is providing specialized services, the provider or subcontractor may request that the director of developmental disabilities make a determination. The director's determination is final.

(10) "Subcontractor" means a person to which both of the following apply:

(a) The person has either of the following:

(i) A subcontract with a provider to provide specialized services included in the contract between the provider and the department of developmental disabilities or a county board of developmental disabilities;

(ii) A subcontract with another subcontractor to provide specialized services included in a subcontract between the other subcontractor and a provider or other subcontractor.

(b) The person employs one or more persons in direct services positions.

(B) A responsible entity shall not employ hire an applicant or continue to employ retain an employee if either of the following applies:

(1) The applicant or employee fails to comply with division (D)(3) of this section.

(2) Except as provided in rules adopted under this section, the applicant or employee is found by a criminal records check required by this section to have been convicted of, or pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense.

(C) Before employing hiring an applicant in into a position for which a criminal records check is required by this section, a responsible entity shall require the applicant to submit a statement with the applicant's signature attesting that the applicant has not been convicted of, or pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense. The responsible entity also shall require the applicant to sign an agreement under which the applicant agrees to notify the responsible entity within fourteen calendar days if, after being hired and while employed by the responsible entity, the applicant is formally charged with, is convicted of, or pleads guilty to, or is found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense. The agreement shall provide that the applicant's failure to provide the notification may result in termination of the applicant's employment.

(D)(1) As a condition of employing for hiring any applicant in into a position for which a criminal records check is required by this section, a responsible entity shall request the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation to conduct a criminal records check of the applicant. If rules adopted under this section require an employee to undergo a criminal records check, a responsible entity shall request the superintendent to conduct a criminal records check of the employee at times specified in the rules as a condition of the responsible entity's continuing to employ retaining the employee in a position for which a criminal records check is required by this section. If an applicant or employee does not present proof that the applicant or employee has been a resident of this state for the five-year period immediately prior to the date upon which the criminal records check is requested, the responsible entity shall request that the superintendent obtain information from the federal bureau of investigation as a part of the criminal records check. If the applicant or employee presents proof that the applicant or employee has been a resident of this state for that five-year period, the responsible entity may request that the superintendent include information from the federal bureau of investigation in the criminal records check. For purposes of this division, an applicant or employee may provide proof of residency in this state by presenting, with a notarized statement asserting that the applicant or employee has been a resident of this state for that five-year period, a valid driver's license, notification of registration as an elector, a copy of an officially filed federal or state tax form identifying the applicant's or employee's permanent residence, or any other document the responsible entity considers acceptable.

(2) A responsible entity shall do all of the following:

(a) Provide to each applicant and employee for whom a criminal records check is required by this section a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a standard impression sheet to obtain fingerprint impressions prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code;

(b) Obtain the completed form and standard impression sheet from the applicant or employee;

(c) Forward the completed form and standard impression sheet to the superintendent at the time the criminal records check is requested.

(3) Any applicant or employee who receives pursuant to this division a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a copy of the standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section and who is requested to complete the form and provide a set of the applicant's or employee's fingerprint impressions shall complete the form or provide all the information necessary to complete the form and shall provide the standard impression sheet with the impressions of the applicant's or employee's fingerprints.

(4) A responsible entity shall pay to the bureau of criminal identification and investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each criminal records check requested and conducted pursuant to this section.

(E) A responsible entity may request any other state or federal agency to supply the responsible entity with a written report regarding the criminal record of an applicant or employee. If an employee holds an occupational or professional license or other credentials, the responsible entity may request that the state or federal agency that regulates the employee's occupation or profession supply the responsible entity with a written report of any information pertaining to the employee's criminal record that the agency obtains in the course of conducting an investigation or in the process of renewing the employee's license or other credentials. The responsible entity may consider the reports when determining whether to employ the applicant or to continue to employ the employee.

(F) As a condition of employing hiring an applicant in into a position for which a criminal records check is required by this section and that involves transporting individuals with mental retardation or developmental disabilities or operating a responsible entity's vehicles for any purpose, the responsible entity shall obtain the applicant's driving record from the bureau of motor vehicles. If rules adopted under this section require a responsible entity to obtain an employee's driving record, the responsible entity shall obtain the employee's driving record from the bureau at times specified in the rules as a condition of continuing to employ the employee. The responsible entity may consider the applicant's or employee's driving record when determining whether to employ the applicant or to continue to employ the employee.

(G) A responsible entity may employ an applicant conditionally hire an applicant pending receipt of a report regarding the applicant requested under this section. The responsible entity shall terminate the applicant's employment remove the conditionally hired applicant from any job duties that require a report under this section if it is determined from a report that the applicant failed to inform the responsible entity that the applicant had been convicted of, or pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense.

(H) A responsible entity may charge an applicant a fee for costs the responsible entity incurs in obtaining a report regarding the applicant under this section if the responsible entity notifies the applicant of the amount of the fee at the time of the applicant's initial application for employment hiring into the position in question and that, unless the fee is paid, the responsible entity will not consider the applicant for employment the hiring. The fee shall not exceed the amount of the fee, if any, the responsible entity pays for the report.

(I)(1) Any report obtained pursuant to this section is not a public record for purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not be made available to any person, other than the following:

(a) The applicant or employee who is the subject of the report or the applicant's or employee's representative;

(b) The responsible entity that requested the report or its representative;

(c) The department if a county board, provider, or subcontractor is the responsible entity that requested the report and the department requests the responsible entity to provide a copy of the report to the department;

(d) A county board if a provider or subcontractor is the responsible entity that requested the report and the county board requests the responsible entity to provide a copy of the report to the county board;

(e) Any court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual involved in a case dealing with any of the following:

(i) The denial of employment to hiring of the applicant or of retention of the employee;

(ii) The denial, suspension, or revocation of a certificate under section 5123.166 or 5123.45 of the Revised Code;

(iii) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid program or a program the department administers.

(2) An applicant or employee for whom the responsible entity has obtained reports under this section may submit a written request to the responsible entity to have copies of the reports sent to any state agency, entity of local government, or private entity. The applicant or employee shall specify in the request the agencies or entities to which the copies are to be sent. On receiving the request, the responsible entity shall send copies of the reports to the agencies or entities specified.

(3) A responsible entity may request that a state agency, entity of local government, or private entity send copies to the responsible entity of any report regarding a records check or criminal records check that the agency or entity possesses, if the responsible entity obtains the written consent of the individual who is the subject of the report.

(4) A responsible entity shall provide each applicant and employee with a copy of any report obtained about the applicant or employee under this section.

(J) The director of developmental disabilities shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section.

(1) The rules may do the following:

(a) Require employees to undergo criminal records checks under this section;

(b) Require responsible entities to obtain the driving records of employees under this section;

(c) If the rules require employees to undergo criminal records checks, require responsible entities to obtain the driving records of employees, or both, exempt one or more classes of employees from the requirements.

(2) The rules shall do both of the following:

(a) If the rules require employees to undergo criminal records checks, require responsible entities to obtain the driving records of employees, or both, specify the times at which the criminal records checks are to be conducted and the driving records are to be obtained;

(b) Specify circumstances under which a responsible entity may employ hire an applicant or retain an employee who is found by a criminal records check required by this section to have been convicted of, or pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense but meets standards in regard to rehabilitation set by the director.

Sec. 5123.16.  (A) As used in sections 5123.16 to 5123.1610 of the Revised Code:

(1) "Applicant" means any of the following:

(a) The chief executive officer of a business that applies under section 5123.161 of the Revised Code for a certificate to provide supported living;

(b) The chief executive officer of a business that seeks renewal of the business's supported living certificate under section 5123.164 of the Revised Code;

(c) An individual who applies under section 5123.161 of the Revised Code for a certificate to provide supported living as an independent provider;

(d) An independent provider who seeks renewal of the independent provider's supported living certificate under section 5123.164 of the Revised Code.

(2)(a) "Business" means either of the following:

(i) An an association, corporation, nonprofit organization, partnership, trust, or other group of persons;

(ii) An individual who employs, directly or through contract, one or more other individuals to provide supported living.

(b). "Business" does not mean an independent provider.

(3) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in section 109.572 of the Revised Code.

(4) "Disqualifying offense" means any of the offenses listed or described in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (e) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code.

(5) "Independent provider" means a provider who provides supported living on a self-employed basis and does not employ, directly or through contract, another individual person to provide the supported living.

(6) "Provider" means a person or government entity certified by the director of developmental disabilities to provide supported living. For the purpose of division (A)(8) of this section, "provider" includes a person or government entity that seeks or previously held a certificate to provide supported living.

(7) "Minor drug possession offense" has the same meaning as in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.

(8) "Related party" means any of the following:

(a) In the case of a provider who is an individual, any of the following:

(i) The spouse of the provider;

(ii) A parent or stepparent of the provider or provider's spouse;

(iii) A child of the provider or provider's spouse;

(iv) A sibling, half sibling, or stepsibling of the provider or provider's spouse;

(v) A grandparent of the provider or provider's spouse;

(vi) A grandchild of the provider or provider's spouse;

(vii) An employee or employer of the provider or provider's spouse.

(b) In the case of a provider that is a person other than an individual, any of the following:

(i) An employee of the person Any person or government entity that directly or indirectly controls the provider's day-to-day operations (including as a general manager, business manager, financial manager, administrator, or director), regardless of whether the person or government entity exercises the control pursuant to a contract or other arrangement and regardless of whether the person or government entity is required to file an Internal Revenue Code form W-2 for the provider;

(ii) An officer of the provider, including the chief executive officer, president, vice-president, secretary, and treasurer;

(iii) A member of the provider's board of directors or trustees;

(iv) A person owning a financial interest of five per cent or more in the provider, including a direct, indirect, security, or mortgage financial interest;

(v) A corporation that has a subsidiary relationship with the provider;

(vi) A person or government entity that has control over the provider's day-to-day operation;

(vii) The spouse, parent, stepparent, child, sibling, half sibling, stepsibling, grandparent, or grandchild of any of the persons specified in divisions (A)(8)(b)(i) to (iv) of this section;

(vi) A person over which the provider has control of the day-to-day operation;

(vii) A corporation that has a subsidiary relationship with the provider.

(c) In the case of a provider that is a government entity, any of the following:

(i) An employee of the provider Any person or government entity that directly or indirectly controls the provider's day-to-day operations (including as a general manager, financial manager, administrator, or director), regardless of whether the person or government entity exercises the control pursuant to a contract or other arrangement;

(ii) An officer of the provider;

(iii) A member of the provider's governing board;

(iv) A government entity that has control over the provider's day-to-day operation;

(v) A person or government entity over which the provider has control of the day-to-day operation.

(B) No person or government entity may provide supported living without a valid supported living certificate issued by the director of developmental disabilities.

(C) A county board of developmental disabilities may provide supported living only to the extent permitted by rules adopted under section 5123.1610 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 5123.162.  (A) The director of developmental disabilities may conduct surveys of persons and government entities that seek a supported living certificate to determine whether the persons and government entities meet the certification standards. The director may also conduct surveys of providers to determine whether the providers continue to meet the certification standards. The director shall conduct the surveys in accordance with rules adopted under section 5123.1610 of the Revised Code.

(B) Following each survey of a provider, the director shall issue a report listing the date of the survey and any citations issued as a result of the survey. Except when the director initiates a proceeding to revoke a provider's certification, the director shall do all of the following:

(1) Specify a date by which the provider may appeal any of the citations;

(2) Specify a timetable within which the provider must submit a plan of correction describing how the problems specified in the citations will be corrected;

(3) When appropriate, specify a timetable within which the provider must correct the problems specified in the citations.

(C) If the director initiates a proceeding to revoke a provider's certification, the director shall include the report required by division (B) of this section with the notice of the proposed revocation the director sends the provider. In this circumstance, the provider may not appeal the citations or submit a plan of correction.

(D) After a plan of correction is submitted, the director shall approve or disapprove the plan. If the plan of correction is approved, a copy of the approved plan shall be provided, not later than five business days after it is approved, to any person or government entity that requests it and made available on the internet web site maintained by the department of developmental disabilities. If the plan of correction is not approved and the director initiates a proceeding to revoke the provider's certification, a copy of the survey report shall be provided to any person or government entity that requests it and made available on the internet web site maintained by the department.

The (E) In addition to survey reports described in this section, all other records of associated with surveys conducted under this section are public records for the purpose of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall be made available on the request of any person or government entity.

Sec. 5123.169.  (A) The director of developmental disabilities shall not issue a supported living certificate to an applicant or renew an applicant's supported living certificate if either of the following applies:

(1) The applicant fails to comply with division (C)(2) of this section;

(2) Except as provided in rules adopted under section 5123.1610 of the Revised Code, the applicant is found by a criminal records check required by this section to have been convicted of, or pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense.

(B) Before issuing a supported living certificate to an applicant or renewing an applicant's supported living certificate, the director shall require the applicant to submit a statement with the applicant's signature attesting that the applicant has not been convicted of, or pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense. The director also shall require the applicant to sign an agreement under which the applicant agrees to notify the director within fourteen calendar days if, while holding a supported living certificate, the applicant is formally charged with, is convicted of, or pleads guilty to, or is found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense. The agreement shall provide that the applicant's failure to provide the notification may result in action being taken by the director against the applicant under section 5123.166 of the Revised Code.

(C)(1) As a condition of receiving a supported living certificate or having a supported living certificate renewed, an applicant shall request the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation to conduct a criminal records check of the applicant. If an applicant does not present proof to the director that the applicant has been a resident of this state for the five-year period immediately prior to the date that the applicant applies for issuance or renewal of the supported living certificate, the director shall require the applicant to request that the superintendent obtain information from the federal bureau of investigation as a part of the criminal records check. If the applicant presents proof to the director that the applicant has been a resident of this state for that five-year period, the director may require the applicant to request that the superintendent include information from the federal bureau of investigation in the criminal records check. For purposes of this division, an applicant may provide proof of residency in this state by presenting, with a notarized statement asserting that the applicant has been a resident of this state for that five-year period, a valid driver's license, notification of registration as an elector, a copy of an officially filed federal or state tax form identifying the applicant's permanent residence, or any other document the director considers acceptable.

(2) Each applicant shall do all of the following:

(a) Obtain a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code;

(b) Complete the form and provide the applicant's fingerprint impressions on the standard impression sheet;

(c) Forward the completed form and standard impression sheet to the superintendent at the time the criminal records check is requested;

(d) Instruct the superintendent to submit the completed report of the criminal records check directly to the director;

(e) Pay to the bureau of criminal identification and investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each criminal records check of the applicant requested and conducted pursuant to this section.

(D) The director may request any other state or federal agency to supply the director with a written report regarding the criminal record of an applicant. The director may consider the reports when determining whether to issue a supported living certificate to the applicant or to renew an applicant's supported living certificate.

(E) An applicant who seeks to be an independent provider or is an independent provider seeking renewal of the applicant's supported living certificate shall obtain the applicant's driving record from the bureau of motor vehicles and provide a copy of the record to the director if the supported living that the applicant will provide involves transporting individuals with mental retardation or developmental disabilities. The director may consider the applicant's driving record when determining whether to issue the applicant a supported living certificate or to renew the applicant's supported living certificate.

(F)(1) A report obtained pursuant to this section is not a public record for purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not be made available to any person, other than the following:

(a) The applicant who is the subject of the report or the applicant's representative;

(b) The director or the director's representative;

(c) Any court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual involved in a case dealing with any of the following:

(i) The denial of a supported living certificate or refusal to renew a supported living certificate;

(ii) The denial, suspension, or revocation of a certificate under section 5123.45 of the Revised Code;

(iii) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid program.

(2) An applicant for whom the director has obtained reports under this section may submit a written request to the director to have copies of the reports sent to any person or state or local government entity. The applicant shall specify in the request the person or entities to which the copies are to be sent. On receiving the request, the director shall send copies of the reports to the persons or entities specified.

(3) The director may request that a person or state or local government entity send copies to the director of any report regarding a records check or criminal records check that the person or entity possesses, if the director obtains the written consent of the individual who is the subject of the report.

(4) The director shall provide each applicant with a copy of any report obtained about the applicant under this section.

Sec. 5123.19.  (A) As used in sections 5123.19 to 5123.20 of the Revised Code:

(1) "Independent living arrangement" means an arrangement in which a mentally retarded or developmentally disabled person resides in an individualized setting chosen by the person or the person's guardian, which is not dedicated principally to the provision of residential services for mentally retarded or developmentally disabled persons, and for which no financial support is received for rendering such service from any governmental agency by a provider of residential services.

(2) "Licensee" means the person or government agency that has applied for a license to operate a residential facility and to which the license was issued under this section.

(3) "Political subdivision" means a municipal corporation, county, or township.

(4) "Related party" has the same meaning as in section 5123.16 of the Revised Code except that "provider" as used in the definition of "related party" means a person or government entity that held or applied for a license to operate a residential facility, rather than a person or government entity certified to provide supported living.

(5)(a) Except as provided in division (A)(5)(b) of this section, "residential facility" means a home or facility, including an ICF/IID, in which an individual with mental retardation or a developmental disability resides.

(b) "Residential facility" does not mean any of the following:

(i) The home of a relative or legal guardian in which an individual with mental retardation or a developmental disability resides;

(ii) A respite care home certified under section 5126.05 of the Revised Code;

(iii) A county home or district home operated pursuant to Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code;

(iv) A dwelling in which the only residents with mental retardation or developmental disabilities are in independent living arrangements or are being provided supported living.

(B) Every person or government agency desiring to operate a residential facility shall apply for licensure of the facility to the director of developmental disabilities unless the residential facility is subject to section 3721.02, 5103.03, 5119.33, or division (A)(9)(b) of section 5119.34 of the Revised Code.

(C) Subject to section 5123.196 of the Revised Code, the director of developmental disabilities shall license the operation of residential facilities. An initial license shall be issued for a period that does not exceed one year, unless the director denies the license under division (D) of this section. A license shall be renewed for a period that does not exceed three years, unless the director refuses to renew the license under division (D) of this section. The director, when issuing or renewing a license, shall specify the period for which the license is being issued or renewed. A license remains valid for the length of the licensing period specified by the director, unless the license is terminated, revoked, or voluntarily surrendered.

(D) If it is determined that an applicant or licensee is not in compliance with a provision of this chapter that applies to residential facilities or the rules adopted under such a provision, the director may deny issuance of a license, refuse to renew a license, terminate a license, revoke a license, issue an order for the suspension of admissions to a facility, issue an order for the placement of a monitor at a facility, issue an order for the immediate removal of residents, or take any other action the director considers necessary consistent with the director's authority under this chapter regarding residential facilities. In the director's selection and administration of the sanction to be imposed, all of the following apply:

(1) The director may deny, refuse to renew, or revoke a license, if the director determines that the applicant or licensee has demonstrated a pattern of serious noncompliance or that a violation creates a substantial risk to the health and safety of residents of a residential facility.

(2) The director may terminate a license if more than twelve consecutive months have elapsed since the residential facility was last occupied by a resident or a notice required by division (K) of this section is not given.

(3) The director may issue an order for the suspension of admissions to a facility for any violation that may result in sanctions under division (D)(1) of this section and for any other violation specified in rules adopted under division (H)(2) of this section. If the suspension of admissions is imposed for a violation that may result in sanctions under division (D)(1) of this section, the director may impose the suspension before providing an opportunity for an adjudication under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. The director shall lift an order for the suspension of admissions when the director determines that the violation that formed the basis for the order has been corrected.

(4) The director may order the placement of a monitor at a residential facility for any violation specified in rules adopted under division (H)(2) of this section. The director shall lift the order when the director determines that the violation that formed the basis for the order has been corrected.

(5) If the director determines that two or more residential facilities owned or operated by the same person or government entity are not being operated in compliance with a provision of this chapter that applies to residential facilities or the rules adopted under such a provision, and the director's findings are based on the same or a substantially similar action, practice, circumstance, or incident that creates a substantial risk to the health and safety of the residents, the director shall conduct a survey as soon as practicable at each residential facility owned or operated by that person or government entity. The director may take any action authorized by this section with respect to any facility found to be operating in violation of a provision of this chapter that applies to residential facilities or the rules adopted under such a provision.

(6) When the director initiates license revocation proceedings, no opportunity for submitting a plan of correction shall be given. The director shall notify the licensee by letter of the initiation of the proceedings. The letter shall list the deficiencies of the residential facility and inform the licensee that no plan of correction will be accepted. The director shall also send a copy of the letter to the county board of developmental disabilities. The county board shall send a copy of the letter to each of the following:

(a) Each resident who receives services from the licensee;

(b) The guardian of each resident who receives services from the licensee if the resident has a guardian;

(c) The parent or guardian of each resident who receives services from the licensee if the resident is a minor.

(7) Pursuant to rules which shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the director may order the immediate removal of residents from a residential facility whenever conditions at the facility present an immediate danger of physical or psychological harm to the residents.

(8) In determining whether a residential facility is being operated in compliance with a provision of this chapter that applies to residential facilities or the rules adopted under such a provision, or whether conditions at a residential facility present an immediate danger of physical or psychological harm to the residents, the director may rely on information obtained by a county board of developmental disabilities or other governmental agencies.

(9) In proceedings initiated to deny, refuse to renew, or revoke licenses, the director may deny, refuse to renew, or revoke a license regardless of whether some or all of the deficiencies that prompted the proceedings have been corrected at the time of the hearing.

(E) The director shall establish a program under which public notification may be made when the director has initiated license revocation proceedings or has issued an order for the suspension of admissions, placement of a monitor, or removal of residents. The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this division. The rules shall establish the procedures by which the public notification will be made and specify the circumstances for which the notification must be made. The rules shall require that public notification be made if the director has taken action against the facility in the eighteen-month period immediately preceding the director's latest action against the facility and the latest action is being taken for the same or a substantially similar violation of a provision of this chapter that applies to residential facilities or the rules adopted under such a provision. The rules shall specify a method for removing or amending the public notification if the director's action is found to have been unjustified or the violation at the residential facility has been corrected.

(F)(1) Except as provided in division (F)(2) of this section, appeals from proceedings initiated to impose a sanction under division (D) of this section shall be conducted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.

(2) Appeals from proceedings initiated to order the suspension of admissions to a facility shall be conducted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, unless the order was issued before providing an opportunity for an adjudication, in which case all of the following apply:

(a) The licensee may request a hearing not later than ten days after receiving the notice specified in section 119.07 of the Revised Code.

(b) If a timely request for a hearing that includes the licensee's current address is made, the hearing shall commence not later than thirty days after the department receives the request.

(c) After commencing, the hearing shall continue uninterrupted, except for Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays, unless other interruptions are agreed to by the licensee and the director.

(d) If the hearing is conducted by a hearing examiner, the hearing examiner shall file a report and recommendations not later than ten days after the last of the following:

(i) The close of the hearing;

(ii) If a transcript of the proceedings is ordered, the hearing examiner receives the transcript;

(iii) If post-hearing briefs are timely filed, the hearing examiner receives the briefs.

(e) A copy of the written report and recommendation of the hearing examiner shall be sent, by certified mail, to the licensee and the licensee's attorney, if applicable, not later than five days after the report is filed.

(f) Not later than five days after the hearing examiner files the report and recommendations, the licensee may file objections to the report and recommendations.

(g) Not later than fifteen days after the hearing examiner files the report and recommendations, the director shall issue an order approving, modifying, or disapproving the report and recommendations.

(h) Notwithstanding the pendency of the hearing, the director shall lift the order for the suspension of admissions when the director determines that the violation that formed the basis for the order has been corrected.

(G) Neither a person or government agency whose application for a license to operate a residential facility is denied nor a related party of the person or government agency may apply for a license to operate a residential facility before the date that is one year after the date of the denial. Neither a licensee whose residential facility license is revoked nor a related party of the licensee may apply for a residential facility license before the date that is five years after the date of the revocation.

(H) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the director shall adopt and may amend and rescind rules for licensing and regulating the operation of residential facilities. The rules for residential facilities that are ICFs/IID may differ from those for other residential facilities. The rules shall establish and specify the following:

(1) Procedures and criteria for issuing and renewing licenses, including procedures and criteria for determining the length of the licensing period that the director must specify for each license when it is issued or renewed;

(2) Procedures and criteria for denying, refusing to renew, terminating, and revoking licenses and for ordering the suspension of admissions to a facility, placement of a monitor at a facility, and the immediate removal of residents from a facility;

(3) Fees for issuing and renewing licenses, which shall be deposited into the program fee fund created under section 5123.033 of the Revised Code;

(4) Procedures for surveying residential facilities;

(5) Requirements for the training of residential facility personnel;

(6) Classifications for the various types of residential facilities;

(7) Certification procedures for licensees and management contractors that the director determines are necessary to ensure that they have the skills and qualifications to properly operate or manage residential facilities;

(8) The maximum number of persons who may be served in a particular type of residential facility;

(9) Uniform procedures for admission of persons to and transfers and discharges of persons from residential facilities;

(10) Other standards for the operation of residential facilities and the services provided at residential facilities;

(11) Procedures for waiving any provision of any rule adopted under this section.

(I)(1) Before issuing a license, the director of the department or the director's designee shall conduct a survey of the residential facility for which application is made. The director or the director's designee shall conduct a survey of each licensed residential facility at least once during the period the license is valid and may conduct additional inspections as needed. A survey includes but is not limited to an on-site examination and evaluation of the residential facility, its personnel, and the services provided there.

(2) In conducting surveys, the director or the director's designee shall be given access to the residential facility; all records, accounts, and any other documents related to the operation of the facility; the licensee; the residents of the facility; and all persons acting on behalf of, under the control of, or in connection with the licensee. The licensee and all persons on behalf of, under the control of, or in connection with the licensee shall cooperate with the director or the director's designee in conducting the survey.

(3) Following each survey, unless the director initiates a license revocation proceeding, the director or the director's designee shall provide the licensee with a report listing the date of the survey and any deficiencies, specifying citations issued as a result of the survey. Except when the director initiates a proceeding to revoke a license, the director shall do all of the following:

(a) Specify a date by which the licensee may appeal any of the citations;

(b) Specify a timetable within which the licensee shall must submit a plan of correction describing how the deficiencies problems specified in the citations will be corrected, and, when;

(c) When appropriate, specifying specify a timetable within which the licensee must correct the deficiencies problems specified in the citations. After

(4) If the director initiates a proceeding to revoke a license, the director shall include the report required by division (I)(3) of this section with the notice of the proposed revocation the director sends the licensee. In this circumstance, the licensee may not appeal the citations or submit a plan of correction.

(5) After a plan of correction is submitted, the director or the director's designee shall approve or disapprove the plan. A If the plan of correction is approved, a copy of the report and any approved plan of correction shall be provided, not later than five business days after it is approved, to any person or government entity who requests it and made available on the internet web site maintained by the department of developmental disabilities. If the plan of correction is not approved and the director initiates a proceeding to revoke the license, a copy of the survey report shall be provided to any person or government entity that requests it and made available on the internet web site maintained by the department.

(6) The director shall initiate disciplinary action against any department employee who notifies or causes the notification to any unauthorized person of an unannounced survey of a residential facility by an authorized representative of the department.

(J) In addition to any other information which may be required of applicants for a license pursuant to this section, the director shall require each applicant to provide a copy of an approved plan for a proposed residential facility pursuant to section 5123.042 of the Revised Code. This division does not apply to renewal of a license or to an applicant for an initial or modified license who meets the requirements of section 5123.197 of the Revised Code.

(K) A licensee shall notify the owner of the building in which the licensee's residential facility is located of any significant change in the identity of the licensee or management contractor before the effective date of the change if the licensee is not the owner of the building.

Pursuant to rules which shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the director may require notification to the department of any significant change in the ownership of a residential facility or in the identity of the licensee or management contractor. If the director determines that a significant change of ownership is proposed, the director shall consider the proposed change to be an application for development by a new operator pursuant to section 5123.042 of the Revised Code and shall advise the applicant within sixty days of the notification that the current license shall continue in effect or a new license will be required pursuant to this section. If the director requires a new license, the director shall permit the facility to continue to operate under the current license until the new license is issued, unless the current license is revoked, refused to be renewed, or terminated in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.

(L) A county board of developmental disabilities and any interested person may file complaints alleging violations of statute or department rule relating to residential facilities with the department. All complaints shall be in writing and shall state the facts constituting the basis of the allegation. The department shall not reveal the source of any complaint unless the complainant agrees in writing to waive the right to confidentiality or until so ordered by a court of competent jurisdiction.

The department shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing procedures for the receipt, referral, investigation, and disposition of complaints filed with the department under this division.

(M) The department shall establish procedures for the notification of interested parties of the transfer or interim care of residents from residential facilities that are closing or are losing their license.

(N) Before issuing a license under this section to a residential facility that will accommodate at any time more than one mentally retarded or developmentally disabled individual, the director shall, by first class mail, notify the following:

(1) If the facility will be located in a municipal corporation, the clerk of the legislative authority of the municipal corporation;

(2) If the facility will be located in unincorporated territory, the clerk of the appropriate board of county commissioners and the fiscal officer of the appropriate board of township trustees.

The director shall not issue the license for ten days after mailing the notice, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays, in order to give the notified local officials time in which to comment on the proposed issuance.

Any legislative authority of a municipal corporation, board of county commissioners, or board of township trustees that receives notice under this division of the proposed issuance of a license for a residential facility may comment on it in writing to the director within ten days after the director mailed the notice, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays. If the director receives written comments from any notified officials within the specified time, the director shall make written findings concerning the comments and the director's decision on the issuance of the license. If the director does not receive written comments from any notified local officials within the specified time, the director shall continue the process for issuance of the license.

(O) Any person may operate a licensed residential facility that provides room and board, personal care, habilitation services, and supervision in a family setting for at least six but not more than eight persons with mental retardation or a developmental disability as a permitted use in any residential district or zone, including any single-family residential district or zone, of any political subdivision. These residential facilities may be required to comply with area, height, yard, and architectural compatibility requirements that are uniformly imposed upon all single-family residences within the district or zone.

(P) Any person may operate a licensed residential facility that provides room and board, personal care, habilitation services, and supervision in a family setting for at least nine but not more than sixteen persons with mental retardation or a developmental disability as a permitted use in any multiple-family residential district or zone of any political subdivision, except that a political subdivision that has enacted a zoning ordinance or resolution establishing planned unit development districts may exclude these residential facilities from those districts, and a political subdivision that has enacted a zoning ordinance or resolution may regulate these residential facilities in multiple-family residential districts or zones as a conditionally permitted use or special exception, in either case, under reasonable and specific standards and conditions set out in the zoning ordinance or resolution to:

(1) Require the architectural design and site layout of the residential facility and the location, nature, and height of any walls, screens, and fences to be compatible with adjoining land uses and the residential character of the neighborhood;

(2) Require compliance with yard, parking, and sign regulation;

(3) Limit excessive concentration of these residential facilities.

(Q) This section does not prohibit a political subdivision from applying to residential facilities nondiscriminatory regulations requiring compliance with health, fire, and safety regulations and building standards and regulations.

(R) Divisions (O) and (P) of this section are not applicable to municipal corporations that had in effect on June 15, 1977, an ordinance specifically permitting in residential zones licensed residential facilities by means of permitted uses, conditional uses, or special exception, so long as such ordinance remains in effect without any substantive modification.

(S)(1) The director may issue an interim license to operate a residential facility to an applicant for a license under this section if either of the following is the case:

(a) The director determines that an emergency exists requiring immediate placement of persons in a residential facility, that insufficient licensed beds are available, and that the residential facility is likely to receive a permanent license under this section within thirty days after issuance of the interim license.

(b) The director determines that the issuance of an interim license is necessary to meet a temporary need for a residential facility.

(2) To be eligible to receive an interim license, an applicant must meet the same criteria that must be met to receive a permanent license under this section, except for any differing procedures and time frames that may apply to issuance of a permanent license.

(3) An interim license shall be valid for thirty days and may be renewed by the director for a period not to exceed one hundred fifty days.

(4) The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as the director considers necessary to administer the issuance of interim licenses.

(T) Notwithstanding rules adopted pursuant to this section establishing the maximum number of persons who may be served in a particular type of residential facility, a residential facility shall be permitted to serve the same number of persons being served by the facility on the effective date of the rules or the number of persons for which the facility is authorized pursuant to a current application for a certificate of need with a letter of support from the department of developmental disabilities and which is in the review process prior to April 4, 1986.

(U) The director or the director's designee may enter at any time, for purposes of investigation, any home, facility, or other structure that has been reported to the director or that the director has reasonable cause to believe is being operated as a residential facility without a license issued under this section.

The director may petition the court of common pleas of the county in which an unlicensed residential facility is located for an order enjoining the person or governmental agency operating the facility from continuing to operate without a license. The court may grant the injunction on a showing that the person or governmental agency named in the petition is operating a residential facility without a license. The court may grant the injunction, regardless of whether the residential facility meets the requirements for receiving a license under this section.

Sec. 5123.191.  (A) The court of common pleas or a judge thereof in the judge's county, or the probate court, may appoint a receiver to take possession of and operate a residential facility licensed by the department of developmental disabilities, in causes pending in such courts respectively, when conditions existing at the facility present a substantial risk of physical or mental harm to residents and no other remedies at law are adequate to protect the health, safety, and welfare of the residents. Conditions at the facility that may present such risk of harm include, but are not limited to, instances when any of the following occur:

(1) The residential facility is in violation of state or federal law or regulations.

(2) The facility has had its license revoked or procedures for revocation have been initiated, or the facility is closing or intends to cease operations.

(3) Arrangements for relocating residents need to be made.

(4) Insolvency of the operator, licensee, or landowner threatens the operation of the facility.

(5) The facility or operator has demonstrated a pattern and practice of repeated violations of state or federal laws or regulations.

(B) A court in which a petition is filed pursuant to this section shall notify the person holding the license for the facility and the department of developmental disabilities of the filing. The court shall order the department to notify the facility owner, facility operator, county board of developmental disabilities, facility residents, and residents' parents and guardians of the filing of the petition.

The court shall provide a hearing on the petition within five court days of the time it was filed, except that the court may appoint a receiver prior to that time if it determines that the circumstances necessitate such action. Following a hearing on the petition, and upon a determination that the appointment of a receiver is warranted, the court shall appoint a receiver and notify the department of developmental disabilities and appropriate persons of this action.

(C) A residential facility for which a receiver has been named is deemed to be in compliance with section 5123.19 and Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code for the duration of the receivership.

(D) When the operating revenue of a residential facility in receivership is insufficient to meet its operating expenses, including the cost of bringing the facility into compliance with state or federal laws or regulations, the court may order the state to provide necessary funding, except as provided in division (K) of this section. The state shall provide such funding, subject to the approval of the controlling board. The court may also order the appropriate authorities to expedite all inspections necessary for the issuance of licenses or the certification of a facility, and order a facility to be closed if it determines that reasonable efforts cannot bring the facility into substantial compliance with the law.

(E) In establishing a receivership, the court shall set forth the powers and duties of the receiver. The court may generally authorize the receiver to do all that is prudent and necessary to safely and efficiently operate the residential facility within the requirements of state and federal law, but shall require the receiver to obtain court approval prior to making any single expenditure of more than five thousand dollars to correct deficiencies in the structure or furnishings of a facility. The court shall closely review the conduct of the receiver it has appointed and shall require regular and detailed reports. The receivership shall be reviewed at least every sixty days.

(F) A receivership established pursuant to this section shall be terminated, following notification of the appropriate parties and a hearing, if the court determines either of the following:

(1) The residential facility has been closed and the former residents have been relocated to an appropriate facility.

(2) Circumstances no longer exist at the facility that present a substantial risk of physical or mental harm to residents, and there is no deficiency in the facility that is likely to create a future risk of harm.

Notwithstanding division (F)(2) of this section, the court shall not terminate a receivership for a residential facility that has previously operated under another receivership unless the responsibility for the operation of the facility is transferred to an operator approved by the court and the department of developmental disabilities.

(G) The department of developmental disabilities may, upon its own initiative or at the request of an owner, operator, or resident of a residential facility, or at the request of a resident's guardian or relative or a county board of developmental disabilities, petition the court to appoint a receiver to take possession of and operate a residential facility. When the department has been requested to file a petition by any of the parties listed above, it shall, within forty-eight hours of such request, either file such a petition or notify the requesting party of its decision not to file. If the department refuses to file, the requesting party may file a petition with the court requesting the appointment of a receiver to take possession of and operate a residential facility.

Petitions filed pursuant to this division shall include the following:

(1) A description of the specific conditions existing at the facility which present a substantial risk of physical or mental harm to residents;

(2) A statement of the absence of other adequate remedies at law;

(3) The number of individuals residing at the facility;

(4) A statement that the facts have been brought to the attention of the owner or licensee and that conditions have not been remedied within a reasonable period of time or that the conditions, though remedied periodically, habitually exist at the facility as a pattern or practice;

(5) The name and address of the person holding the license for the facility and the address of the department of developmental disabilities.

The court may award to an operator appropriate costs and expenses, including reasonable attorney's fees, if it determines that a petitioner has initiated a proceeding in bad faith or merely for the purpose of harassing or embarrassing the operator.

(H) Except for the department of developmental disabilities or a county board of developmental disabilities, no party or person interested in an action shall be appointed a receiver pursuant to this section.

To assist the court in identifying persons qualified to be named as receivers, the director of developmental disabilities or the director's designee shall maintain a list of the names of such persons. The director shall, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, establish standards for evaluating persons desiring to be included on such a list.

(I) Before a receiver enters upon the duties of that person, the receiver must be sworn to perform the duties of receiver faithfully, and, with surety approved by the court, judge, or clerk, execute a bond to such person, and in such sum as the court or judge directs, to the effect that such receiver will faithfully discharge the duties of receiver in the action, and obey the orders of the court therein.

(J) Under the control of the appointing court, a receiver may bring and defend actions in the receiver's own name as receiver and take and keep possession of property.

The court shall authorize the receiver to do the following:

(1) Collect payment for all goods and services provided to the residents or others during the period of the receivership at the same rate as was charged by the licensee at the time the petition for receivership was filed, unless a different rate is set by the court;

(2) Honor all leases, mortgages, and secured transactions governing all buildings, goods, and fixtures of which the receiver has taken possession and continues to use, subject to the following conditions:

(a) In the case of a rental agreement, only to the extent of payments that are for the use of the property during the period of the receivership;

(b) In the case of a purchase agreement only to the extent of payments that come due during the period of the receivership.

(3) If transfer of residents is necessary, provide for the orderly transfer of residents by doing the following:

(a) Cooperating with all appropriate state and local agencies in carrying out the transfer of residents to alternative community placements;

(b) Providing for the transportation of residents' belongings and records;

(c) Helping to locate alternative placements and develop discharge plans;

(d) Preparing residents for the trauma of discharge;

(e) Permitting residents or guardians to participate in transfer or discharge planning except when an emergency exists and immediate transfer is necessary.

(4) Make periodic reports on the status of the residential program to the appropriate state agency, county board of developmental disabilities, parents, guardians, and residents;

(5) Compromise demands or claims;

(6) Generally do such acts respecting the residential facility as the court authorizes.

(K) Neither the receiver nor the department of developmental disabilities is liable for debts incurred by the owner or operator of a residential facility for which a receiver has been appointed.

(L) The department of developmental disabilities may contract for the operation of a residential facility in receivership. The department shall establish the conditions of a contract. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, contracts that are necessary to carry out the powers and duties of the receiver need not be competitively bid.

(M) The department of developmental disabilities, the department of job and family services, and the department of health shall provide technical assistance to any receiver appointed pursuant to this section.

Sec. 5123.21.  The director of developmental disabilities or the director's designee may transfer or authorize the transfer of an involuntary resident or a consenting voluntary resident from one public institution to another or to an institution other than a public institution or other facility, if the director determines that it would be consistent with the habilitation needs of the resident to do so.

Before an involuntary resident may be transferred to a more restrictive setting, the managing officer of the institution shall file a motion with the court requesting the court to amend its order of placement issued under section 5123.76 of the Revised Code. At the resident's request, the court shall hold a hearing on the motion at which the resident has the same rights as at a full hearing under section 5123.76 of the Revised Code.

Whenever a resident is transferred, the director shall give written notice of the transfer to the resident's legal guardian, parents, spouse, and counsel, or, if none is known, to the resident's nearest known relative or friend. If the resident is a minor, the department director before making such a transfer shall make a minute of the order for the transfer and the reason for it upon its record and shall send a certified copy at least seven days prior to the transfer to the person shown by its record to have had the care or custody of the minor immediately prior to the minor's commitment. Whenever a consenting voluntary resident is transferred, the notification shall be given only at the resident's request. The managing officer shall advise a voluntary resident who is being transferred that the patient may decide if such a notification shall be given. In all such transfers, due consideration shall be given to the relationship of the resident to the resident's family, legal guardian, or friends, so as to maintain relationships and encourage visits beneficial to the resident.

Sec. 5123.61.  (A) As used in this section:

(1) "Law enforcement agency" means the state highway patrol, the police department of a municipal corporation, or a county sheriff.

(2) "Abuse" has the same meaning as in section 5123.50 of the Revised Code, except that it includes a misappropriation, as defined in that section.

(3) "Neglect" has the same meaning as in section 5123.50 of the Revised Code.

(B) The department of developmental disabilities shall establish a registry office for the purpose of maintaining reports of abuse, neglect, and other major unusual incidents made to the department under this section and reports received from county boards of developmental disabilities under section 5126.31 of the Revised Code. The department shall establish committees to review reports of abuse, neglect, and other major unusual incidents.

(C)(1) Any person listed in division (C)(2) of this section, having reason to believe that a person with mental retardation or a developmental disability has suffered or faces a substantial risk of suffering any wound, injury, disability, or condition of such a nature as to reasonably indicate abuse or neglect of that person, shall immediately report or cause reports to be made of such information to the entity specified in this division. Except as provided in section 5120.173 of the Revised Code or as otherwise provided in this division, the person making the report shall make it to a law enforcement agency or to the county board of developmental disabilities. If the report concerns a resident of a facility operated by the department of developmental disabilities the report shall be made either to a law enforcement agency or to the department. If the report concerns any act or omission of an employee of a county board of developmental disabilities, the report immediately shall be made to the department and to the county board.

(2) All of the following persons are required to make a report under division (C)(1) of this section:

(a) Any physician, including a hospital intern or resident, any dentist, podiatrist, chiropractor, practitioner of a limited branch of medicine as specified in section 4731.15 of the Revised Code, hospital administrator or employee of a hospital, nurse licensed under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code, employee of an ambulatory health facility as defined in section 5101.61 of the Revised Code, employee of a home health agency, employee of a residential facility licensed under section 5119.34 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, supervision, and person care services for three to sixteen unrelated adults, or employee of a community mental health facility;

(b) Any school teacher or school authority, social worker, psychologist, attorney, peace officer, coroner, or residents' rights advocate as defined in section 3721.10 of the Revised Code;

(c) A superintendent, board member, or employee of a county board of developmental disabilities; an administrator, board member, or employee of a residential facility licensed under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code; an administrator, board member, or employee of any other public or private provider of services to a person with mental retardation or a developmental disability, or any MR/DD employee, as defined in section 5123.50 of the Revised Code;

(d) A member of a citizen's advisory council established at an institution or branch institution of the department of developmental disabilities under section 5123.092 of the Revised Code;

(e) A member of the clergy who is employed in a position that includes providing specialized services to an individual with mental retardation or another developmental disability, while acting in an official or professional capacity in that position, or a person who is employed in a position that includes providing specialized services to an individual with mental retardation or another developmental disability and who, while acting in an official or professional capacity, renders spiritual treatment through prayer in accordance with the tenets of an organized religion.

(3)(a) The reporting requirements of this division do not apply to employees of the Ohio protection and advocacy system.

(b) An attorney or physician is not required to make a report pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section concerning any communication the attorney or physician receives from a client or patient in an attorney-client or physician-patient relationship, if, in accordance with division (A) or (B) of section 2317.02 of the Revised Code, the attorney or physician could not testify with respect to that communication in a civil or criminal proceeding, except that the client or patient is deemed to have waived any testimonial privilege under division (A) or (B) of section 2317.02 of the Revised Code with respect to that communication and the attorney or physician shall make a report pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, if both of the following apply:

(i) The client or patient, at the time of the communication, is a person with mental retardation or a developmental disability.

(ii) The attorney or physician knows or suspects, as a result of the communication or any observations made during that communication, that the client or patient has suffered or faces a substantial risk of suffering any wound, injury, disability, or condition of a nature that reasonably indicates abuse or neglect of the client or patient.

(4) Any person who fails to make a report required under division (C) of this section and who is an MR/DD employee, as defined in section 5123.50 of the Revised Code, shall be eligible to be included in the registry regarding misappropriation, abuse, neglect, or other specified misconduct by MR/DD employees established under section 5123.52 of the Revised Code.

(D) The reports required under division (C) of this section shall be made forthwith by telephone or in person and shall be followed by a written report. The reports shall contain the following:

(1) The names and addresses of the person with mental retardation or a developmental disability and the person's custodian, if known;

(2) The age of the person with mental retardation or a developmental disability;

(3) Any other information that would assist in the investigation of the report.

(E) When a physician performing services as a member of the staff of a hospital or similar institution has reason to believe that a person with mental retardation or a developmental disability has suffered injury, abuse, or physical neglect, the physician shall notify the person in charge of the institution or that person's designated delegate, who shall make the necessary reports.

(F) Any person having reasonable cause to believe that a person with mental retardation or a developmental disability has suffered or faces a substantial risk of suffering abuse or neglect may report or cause a report to be made of that belief to the entity specified in this division. Except as provided in section 5120.173 of the Revised Code or as otherwise provided in this division, the person making the report shall make it to a law enforcement agency or the county board of developmental disabilities. If the person is a resident of a facility operated by the department of developmental disabilities, the report shall be made to a law enforcement agency or to the department. If the report concerns any act or omission of an employee of a county board of developmental disabilities, the report immediately shall be made to the department and to the county board.

(G)(1) Upon the receipt of a report concerning the possible abuse or neglect of a person with mental retardation or a developmental disability, the law enforcement agency shall inform the county board of developmental disabilities or, if the person is a resident of a facility operated by the department of developmental disabilities, the director of the department or the director's designee.

(2) On receipt of a report under this section that includes an allegation of action or inaction that may constitute a crime under federal law or the law of this state, the department of developmental disabilities shall notify the law enforcement agency.

(3) When a county board of developmental disabilities receives a report under this section that includes an allegation of action or inaction that may constitute a crime under federal law or the law of this state, the superintendent of the board or an individual the superintendent designates under division (H) of this section shall notify the law enforcement agency. The superintendent or individual shall notify the department of developmental disabilities when it receives any report under this section.

(4) When a county board of developmental disabilities receives a report under this section and believes that the degree of risk to the person is such that the report is an emergency, the superintendent of the board or an employee of the board the superintendent designates shall attempt a face-to-face contact with the person with mental retardation or a developmental disability who allegedly is the victim within one hour of the board's receipt of the report.

(H) The superintendent of the board may designate an individual to be responsible for notifying the law enforcement agency and the department when the county board receives a report under this section.

(I) An adult with mental retardation or a developmental disability about whom a report is made may be removed from the adult's place of residence only by law enforcement officers who consider that the adult's immediate removal is essential to protect the adult from further injury or abuse or in accordance with the order of a court made pursuant to section 5126.33 of the Revised Code.

(J) A law enforcement agency shall investigate each report of abuse or neglect it receives under this section. In addition, the department, in cooperation with law enforcement officials, shall investigate each report regarding a resident of a facility operated by the department to determine the circumstances surrounding the injury, the cause of the injury, and the person responsible. The investigation shall be in accordance with the memorandum of understanding prepared under section 5126.058 of the Revised Code. The department shall determine, with the registry office which shall be maintained by the department, whether prior reports have been made concerning an adult with mental retardation or a developmental disability or other principals in the case. If the department finds that the report involves action or inaction that may constitute a crime under federal law or the law of this state, it shall submit a report of its investigation, in writing, to the law enforcement agency. If the person with mental retardation or a developmental disability is an adult, with the consent of the adult, the department shall provide such protective services as are necessary to protect the adult. The law enforcement agency shall make a written report of its findings to the department.

If the person is an adult and is not a resident of a facility operated by the department, the county board of developmental disabilities shall review the report of abuse or neglect in accordance with sections 5126.30 to 5126.33 of the Revised Code and the law enforcement agency shall make the written report of its findings to the county board.

(K) Any person or any hospital, institution, school, health department, or agency participating in the making of reports pursuant to this section, any person participating as a witness in an administrative or judicial proceeding resulting from the reports, or any person or governmental entity that discharges responsibilities under sections 5126.31 to 5126.33 of the Revised Code shall be immune from any civil or criminal liability that might otherwise be incurred or imposed as a result of such actions except liability for perjury, unless the person or governmental entity has acted in bad faith or with malicious purpose.

(L) No employer or any person with the authority to do so shall discharge, demote, transfer, prepare a negative work performance evaluation, reduce pay or benefits, terminate work privileges, or take any other action detrimental to an employee or retaliate against an employee as a result of the employee's having made a report under this section. This division does not preclude an employer or person with authority from taking action with regard to an employee who has made a report under this section if there is another reasonable basis for the action.

(M) Reports made under this section are not public records as defined in section 149.43 of the Revised Code. Information contained in the reports on request shall be made available to the person who is the subject of the report, to the person's legal counsel, and to agencies authorized to receive information in the report by the department or by a county board of developmental disabilities.

(N) Notwithstanding section 4731.22 of the Revised Code, the physician-patient privilege shall not be a ground for excluding evidence regarding the injuries or physical neglect of a person with mental retardation or a developmental disability or the cause thereof in any judicial proceeding resulting from a report submitted pursuant to this section.

Sec. 5123.75.  A respondent who is involuntarily placed in an institution or other place as designated in section 5123.77 of the Revised Code or with respect to whom proceedings have been instituted under section 5123.71 of the Revised Code shall, on request of the respondent, the respondent's guardian, or the respondent's counsel, or upon the court's own motion, be afforded a hearing to determine whether there is probable cause to believe that the respondent is a mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization by court order.

(A) The probable cause hearing shall be conducted within two court days from the day on which the request is made. Failure to conduct the probable cause hearing within this time shall effect an immediate discharge of the respondent. If the proceedings are not reinstituted within thirty days, records of the proceedings shall be expunged.

(B) The respondent shall be informed that the respondent may retain counsel and have independent expert evaluation and, if the respondent is an indigent person, be represented by court appointed counsel and have independent expert evaluation at court expense.

(C) The probable cause hearing shall be conducted in a manner consistent with the procedures set forth in division (A) of section 5123.76 of the Revised Code, except divisions (A)(10) and (14) of that section, and the designee of the director of developmental disabilities under section 5123.72 of the Revised Code shall present evidence for the state.

(D) If the court does not find probable cause to believe that the respondent is a mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization by court order, it shall order immediate release of the respondent and dismiss and expunge all record of the proceedings under this chapter.

(E) On motion of the respondent or the respondent's counsel and for good cause shown, the court may order a continuance of the hearing.

(F) If the court finds probable cause to believe that the respondent is a mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization by court order, the court may issue an interim order of placement and, where proceedings under section 5123.71 of the Revised Code have been instituted, shall order a full hearing as provided in section 5123.76 of the Revised Code to be held on the question of whether the respondent is a mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization by court order. Unless specifically waived by the respondent or the respondent's counsel, the court shall schedule said hearing to be held as soon as possible within ten days from the probable cause hearing. A waiver of such full hearing at this point shall not preclude the respondent from asserting the respondent's right to such hearing under section 5123.76 of the Revised Code at any time prior to the mandatory hearing provided in division (H) of section 5123.76 of the Revised Code. In any case, if the respondent has waived the right to the full hearing, a mandatory hearing shall be held under division (H) of section 5123.76 of the Revised Code between the ninetieth and the one hundredth day after the original involuntary detention of the person unless the respondent has been discharged.

(G) Whenever possible, the probable cause hearing shall be held before the respondent is taken into custody.

Sec. 5123.76.  (A) The full hearing shall be conducted in a manner consistent with the procedures outlined in this chapter and with due process of law. The hearing shall be held by a judge of the probate division or, upon transfer by the judge of the probate division, by another judge of the court of common pleas, or a referee designated by the judge of the probate division. Any referee designated by the judge of the probate division must be an attorney.

(1) The following shall be made available to counsel for the respondent:

(a) All relevant documents, information, and evidence in the custody or control of the state or prosecutor;

(b) All relevant documents, information, and evidence in the custody or control of the institution, facility, or program in which the respondent currently is held or in which the respondent has been held pursuant to these proceedings;

(c) With the consent of the respondent, all relevant documents, information, and evidence in the custody or control of any institution or person other than the state.

(2) The respondent has the right to be represented by counsel of the respondent's choice and has the right to attend the hearing except if unusual circumstances of compelling medical necessity exist that render the respondent unable to attend and the respondent has not expressed a desire to attend.

(3) If the respondent is not represented by counsel and the court determines that the conditions specified in division (A)(2) of this section justify the respondent's absence and the right to counsel has not been validly waived, the court shall appoint counsel forthwith to represent the respondent at the hearing, reserving the right to tax costs of appointed counsel to the respondent unless it is shown that the respondent is indigent. If the court appoints counsel, or if the court determines that the evidence relevant to the respondent's absence does not justify the absence, the court shall continue the case.

(4) The respondent shall be informed of the right to retain counsel, to have independent expert evaluation, and, if an indigent person, to be represented by court appointed counsel and have expert independent evaluation at court expense.

(5) The hearing may be closed to the public unless counsel for the respondent requests that the hearing be open to the public.

(6) Unless objected to by the respondent, the respondent's counsel, or the designee of the director of developmental disabilities under section 5123.72 of the Revised Code, the court, for good cause shown, may admit persons having a legitimate interest in the proceedings.

(7) The affiant under section 5123.71 of the Revised Code shall be subject to subpoena by either party.

(8) The court shall examine the sufficiency of all documents filed and shall inform the respondent, if present, and the respondent's counsel of the nature of the content of the documents and the reason for which the respondent is being held or for which the respondent's placement is being sought.

(9) The court shall receive only relevant, competent, and material evidence.

(10) The In accordance with section 5123.72 of the Revised Code, the designee of the director shall present the evidence for the state. In proceedings under this chapter, the attorney general shall present the comprehensive evaluation, assessment, diagnosis, prognosis, record of habilitation and care, if any, and less restrictive habilitation plans, if any. The attorney general does not have a similar presentation responsibility in connection with a person who has been found not guilty by reason of insanity and who is the subject of a hearing under section 2945.40 of the Revised Code to determine whether the person is a mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization by court order.

(11) The respondent has the right to testify and the respondent or the respondent's counsel has the right to subpoena witnesses and documents and to present and cross-examine witnesses.

(12) The respondent shall not be compelled to testify and shall be so advised by the court.

(13) On motion of the respondent or the respondent's counsel for good cause shown, or upon the court's own motion, the court may order a continuance of the hearing.

(14) To an extent not inconsistent with this chapter, the Rules of Civil Procedure shall be applicable.

(B) Unless, upon completion of the hearing, the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that the respondent named in the affidavit is a mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization by court order, it shall order the respondent's discharge forthwith.

(C) If, upon completion of the hearing, the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that the respondent is a mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization by court order, the court may order the respondent's discharge or order the respondent, for a period not to exceed ninety days, to any of the following:

(1) A public institution, provided that commitment of the respondent to the institution will not cause the institution to exceed its licensed capacity determined in accordance with section 5123.19 of the Revised Code and provided that such a placement is indicated by the comprehensive evaluation report filed pursuant to section 5123.71 of the Revised Code;

(2) A private institution;

(3) A county mental retardation program;

(4) Receive private habilitation and care;

(5) Any other suitable facility, program, or the care of any person consistent with the comprehensive evaluation, assessment, diagnosis, prognosis, and habilitation needs of the respondent.

(D) Any order made pursuant to division (C)(2), (4), or (5) of this section shall be conditional upon the receipt by the court of consent by the facility, program, or person to accept the respondent.

(E) In determining the place to which, or the person with whom, the respondent is to be committed, the court shall consider the comprehensive evaluation, assessment, diagnosis, and projected habilitation plan for the respondent, and shall order the implementation of the least restrictive alternative available and consistent with habilitation goals.

(F) If, at any time it is determined by the director of the facility or program to which, or the person to whom, the respondent is committed that the respondent could be equally well habilitated in a less restrictive environment that is available, the following shall occur:

(1) The respondent shall be released by the director of the facility or program or by the person forthwith and referred to the court together with a report of the findings and recommendations of the facility, program, or person.

(2) The director of the facility or program or the person shall notify the respondent's counsel and the designee of the director of developmental disabilities.

(3) The court shall dismiss the case or order placement in the less restrictive environment.

(G)(1) Except as provided in divisions (G)(2) and (3) of this section, any person who has been committed under this section may apply at any time during the ninety-day period for voluntary admission to an institution under section 5123.69 of the Revised Code. Upon admission of a voluntary resident, the managing officer immediately shall notify the court, the respondent's counsel, and the designee of the director in writing of that fact by mail or otherwise, and, upon receipt of the notice, the court shall dismiss the case.

(2) A person who is found incompetent to stand trial or not guilty by reason of insanity and who is committed pursuant to section 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code shall not be voluntarily admitted to an institution pursuant to division (G)(1) of this section until after the termination of the commitment, as described in division (J) of section 2945.401 of the Revised Code.

(H) If, at the end of any commitment period, the respondent has not already been discharged or has not requested voluntary admission status, the director of the facility or program, or the person to whose care the respondent has been committed, shall discharge the respondent forthwith, unless at least ten days before the expiration of that period the designee of the director of developmental disabilities or the prosecutor files an application with the court requesting continued commitment.

(1) An application for continued commitment shall include a written report containing a current comprehensive evaluation and assessment, a diagnosis, a prognosis, an account of progress and past habilitation, and a description of alternative habilitation settings and plans, including a habilitation setting that is the least restrictive setting consistent with the need for habilitation. A copy of the application shall be provided to respondent's counsel. The requirements for notice under section 5123.73 of the Revised Code and the provisions of divisions (A) to (E) of this section apply to all hearings on such applications.

(2) A hearing on the first application for continued commitment shall be held at the expiration of the first ninety-day period. The hearing shall be mandatory and may not be waived.

(3) Subsequent periods of commitment not to exceed one hundred eighty days each may be ordered by the court if the designee of the director of developmental disabilities files an application for continued commitment, after a hearing is held on the application or without a hearing if no hearing is requested and no hearing required under division (H)(4) of this section is waived. Upon the application of a person involuntarily committed under this section, supported by an affidavit of a licensed physician alleging that the person is no longer a mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization by court order, the court for good cause shown may hold a full hearing on the person's continued commitment prior to the expiration of any subsequent period of commitment set by the court.

(4) A mandatory hearing shall be held at least every two years after the initial commitment.

(5) If the court, after a hearing upon a request to continue commitment, finds that the respondent is a mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization by court order, the court may make an order pursuant to divisions (C), (D), and (E) of this section.

(I) Notwithstanding the provisions of division (H) of this section, no person who is found to be a mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization by court order pursuant to division (O)(2) of section 5123.01 of the Revised Code shall be held under involuntary commitment for more than five years.

(J) The managing officer admitting a person pursuant to a judicial proceeding, within ten working days of the admission, shall make a report of the admission to the department.

Sec. 5123.89.  (A) As used in this section:

(1) "Family" means a parent, brother, sister, spouse, son, daughter, grandparent, aunt, uncle, or cousin.

(2) "Payment" means activities undertaken by a service provider or government entity to obtain or provide reimbursement for services provided to a person.

(3) "Treatment" means the provision of services to a person, including the coordination or management of services provided to the person.

(B) All certificates, applications, records, and reports made for the purpose of this chapter, other than court journal entries or court docket entries, which directly or indirectly identify a resident or former resident of an institution for the mentally retarded or person whose institutionalization has been sought under this chapter shall be kept confidential and shall not be disclosed by any person except in the following situations:

(1) It is the judgment of the court for judicial records, and the managing officer for institution records, that disclosure is in the best interest of the person identified, and that person or that person's guardian or, if that person is a minor, that person's parent or guardian consents.

(2) Disclosure is provided for in other sections of this chapter.

(3) It is the judgment of the managing officer for institution records that disclosure to a mental health facility is in the best interest of the person identified.

(4) Disclosure is of a record deposited with the Ohio historical society pursuant to division (C) of section 5123.31 of the Revised Code and the disclosure is made to the closest living relative of the person identified, on the relative's request.

(B)(5) Disclosure is needed for the treatment of a person who is a resident or former resident of an institution for the mentally retarded or a person whose institutionalization has been sought under this chapter or is needed for the payment of services provided to the person.

(C) The department of developmental disabilities shall adopt rules with respect to the systematic and periodic destruction of residents' records.

(C)(1) As used in this division, "family" means a parent, brother, sister, spouse, son, daughter, grandparent, aunt, uncle, or cousin.

(2)(D) Upon the death of a resident or former resident of an institution for the mentally retarded or a person whose institutionalization was sought under this chapter, the managing officer of an institution shall provide access to the certificates, applications, records, and reports made for the purposes of this chapter to the resident's, former resident's, or person's guardian if the guardian makes a written request. If a deceased resident, former resident, or person whose institutionalization was sought under this chapter did not have a guardian at the time of death, the managing officer shall provide access to the certificates, applications, records, and reports made for purposes of this chapter to a member of the person's family, upon that family member's written request.

(D)(E) No person shall reveal the contents of a record of a resident except as authorized by this chapter.

Sec. 5124.01.  As used in this chapter:

(A) "Affiliated operator" means an operator affiliated with either of the following:

(1) The exiting operator for whom the affiliated operator is to assume liability for the entire amount of the exiting operator's debt under the medicaid program or the portion of the debt that represents the franchise permit fee the exiting operator owes;

(2) The entering operator involved in the change of operator with the exiting operator specified in division (A)(1) of this section.

(B) "Allowable costs" means an ICF/IID's costs that the department of developmental disabilities determines are reasonable. Fines paid under section 5124.99 of the Revised Code are not allowable costs.

(C) "Capital costs" means an ICF/IID's costs of ownership and costs of nonextensive renovation.

(D) "Case-mix score" means the measure determined under section 5124.192 of the Revised Code of the relative direct-care resources needed to provide care and habilitation to an ICF/IID resident.

(E) "Change of operator" means an entering operator becoming the operator of an ICF/IID in the place of the exiting operator.

(1) Actions that constitute a change of operator include the following:

(a) A change in an exiting operator's form of legal organization, including the formation of a partnership or corporation from a sole proprietorship;

(b) A transfer of all the exiting operator's ownership interest in the operation of the ICF/IID to the entering operator, regardless of whether ownership of any or all of the real property or personal property associated with the ICF/IID is also transferred;

(c) A lease of the ICF/IID to the entering operator or the exiting operator's termination of the exiting operator's lease;

(d) If the exiting operator is a partnership, dissolution of the partnership;

(e) If the exiting operator is a partnership, a change in composition of the partnership unless both of the following apply:

(i) The change in composition does not cause the partnership's dissolution under state law.

(ii) The partners agree that the change in composition does not constitute a change in operator.

(f) If the operator is a corporation, dissolution of the corporation, a merger of the corporation into another corporation that is the survivor of the merger, or a consolidation of one or more other corporations to form a new corporation.

(2) The following, alone, do not constitute a change of operator:

(a) A contract for an entity to manage an ICF/IID as the operator's agent, subject to the operator's approval of daily operating and management decisions;

(b) A change of ownership, lease, or termination of a lease of real property or personal property associated with an ICF/IID if an entering operator does not become the operator in place of an exiting operator;

(c) If the operator is a corporation, a change of one or more members of the corporation's governing body or transfer of ownership of one or more shares of the corporation's stock, if the same corporation continues to be the operator.

(F) "Cost center" means the following:

(1) Capital costs;

(2) Direct care costs;

(3) Indirect care costs;

(4) Other protected costs.

(G) "Costs of nonextensive renovations" means the actual expense incurred by an ICF/IID for depreciation or amortization and interest on renovations that are not extensive renovations.

(H)(1) "Costs of ownership" means the actual expenses incurred by an ICF/IID for all of the following:

(a) Subject to division (H)(2) of this section, depreciation and interest on any capital assets that cost five hundred dollars or more per item, including the following:

(i) Buildings;

(ii) Building improvements that are not approved as nonextensive renovations under section 5124.17 of the Revised Code;

(iii) Equipment;

(iv) Extensive renovations;

(v) Transportation equipment.

(b) Amortization and interest on land improvements and leasehold improvements;

(c) Amortization of financing costs;

(d) Except as provided in division (Z) of this section, lease and rent of land, building, and equipment.

(2) The costs of capital assets of less than five hundred dollars per item may be considered costs of ownership in accordance with an ICF/IID provider's practice.

(I)(1) "Date of licensure" means the following:

(a) In the case of an ICF/IID that was originally licensed as a nursing home under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, the date that it was originally so licensed, regardless that it was subsequently licensed as a residential facility under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code;

(b) In the case of an ICF/IID that was originally licensed as a residential facility under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code, the date it was originally so licensed;

(c) In the case of an ICF/IID that was not required by law to be licensed as a nursing home or residential facility when it was originally operated as a residential facility, the date it first was operated as a residential facility, regardless of the date the ICF/IID was first licensed as a nursing home or residential facility.

(2) If, after an ICF/IID's original date of licensure, more residential facility beds are added to the ICF/IID or all or part of the ICF/IID undergoes an extensive renovation, the ICF/IID has a different date of licensure for the additional beds or extensively renovated portion of the ICF/IID. This does not apply, however, to additional beds when both of the following apply:

(a) The additional beds are located in a part of the ICF/IID that was constructed at the same time as the continuing beds already located in that part of the ICF/IID;.

(b) The part of the ICF/IID in which the additional beds are located was constructed as part of the ICF/IID at a time when the ICF/IID was not required by law to be licensed as a nursing home or residential facility.

(3) The definition of "date of licensure" in this section applies in determinations of ICFs/IID's medicaid payment rates but does not apply in determinations of ICFs/IID's franchise permit fees under sections 5168.60 to 5168.71 of the Revised Code.

(J) "Desk-reviewed" means that an ICF/IID's costs as reported on a cost report filed under section 5124.10 or 5124.101 of the Revised Code have been subjected to a desk review under section 5124.108 of the Revised Code and preliminarily determined to be allowable costs.

(K) "Developmental center" means a residential facility that is maintained and operated by the department of developmental disabilities.

(L) "Direct care costs" means all of the following costs incurred by an ICF/IID:

(1) Costs for registered nurses, licensed practical nurses, and nurse aides employed by the ICF/IID;

(2) Costs for direct care staff, administrative nursing staff, medical directors, respiratory therapists, physical therapists, physical therapy assistants, occupational therapists, occupational therapy assistants, speech therapists, audiologists, habilitation staff (including habilitation supervisors), qualified intellectual disability professionals, program directors, social services staff, activities staff, off-site day programming, psychologists, psychology assistants, social workers, counselors, and other persons holding degrees qualifying them to provide therapy;

(3) Costs of purchased nursing services;

(4) Costs of training and staff development, employee benefits, payroll taxes, and workers' compensation premiums or costs for self-insurance claims and related costs as specified in rules adopted under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code, for personnel listed in divisions (L)(1), (2), and (3) of this section;

(5) Costs of quality assurance;

(6) Costs of consulting and management fees related to direct care;

(7) Allocated direct care home office costs;

(8) Costs of other direct-care resources that are specified as direct care costs in rules adopted under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code.

(M) "Downsized ICF/IID" means an ICF/IID that permanently reduced its medicaid-certified capacity pursuant to a plan approved by the department of developmental disabilities under section 5123.042 of the Revised Code.

(N) "Effective date of a change of operator" means the day the entering operator becomes the operator of the ICF/IID.

(O) "Effective date of a facility closure" means the last day that the last of the residents of the ICF/IID resides in the ICF/IID.

(P) "Effective date of an involuntary termination" means the date the department of medicaid terminates the operator's provider agreement for the ICF/IID or the last day that such a provider agreement is in effect when the department cancels or refuses to revalidate it.

(Q) "Effective date of a voluntary termination" means the day the ICF/IID ceases to accept medicaid recipients.

(R) "Entering operator" means the person or government entity that will become the operator of an ICF/IID when a change of operator occurs or following an involuntary termination.

(S) "Exiting operator" means any of the following:

(1) An operator that will cease to be the operator of an ICF/IID on the effective date of a change of operator;

(2) An operator that will cease to be the operator of an ICF/IID on the effective date of a facility closure;

(3) An operator of an ICF/IID that is undergoing or has undergone a voluntary termination;

(4) An operator of an ICF/IID that is undergoing or has undergone an involuntary termination.

(T)(1) "Extensive renovation" means the following:

(a) An ICF/IID's betterment, improvement, or restoration to which both of the following apply:

(i) It was started before July 1, 1993;.

(ii) It meets the definition of "extensive renovation" established in rules that were adopted by the director of job and family services and in effect on December 22, 1992.

(b) An ICF/IID's betterment, improvement, or restoration to which all of the following apply:

(i) It was started on or after July 1, 1993;.

(ii) Except as provided in division (T)(2) of this section, it costs more than sixty-five per cent and not more than eighty-five per cent of the cost of constructing a new bed;.

(iii) It extends the useful life of the assets for at least ten years.

(2) The department of developmental disabilities may treat a renovation that costs more than eighty-five per cent of the cost of constructing new beds as an extensive renovation if the department determines that the renovation is more prudent than construction of new beds.

(3) For the purpose of division (T)(1)(b)(ii) of this section, the cost of constructing a new bed shall be considered to be forty thousand dollars, adjusted for the estimated rate of inflation from January 1, 1993, to the end of the calendar year during which the extensive renovation is completed, using the consumer price index for shelter costs for all urban consumers for the north central region, as published by the United States bureau of labor statistics.

(U)(1) Subject to divisions (U)(2) and (3) of this section, "facility closure" means either of the following:

(a) Discontinuance of the use of the building, or part of the building, that houses the facility as an ICF/IID that results in the relocation of all of the facility's residents;

(b) Conversion of the building, or part of the building, that houses an ICF/IID to a different use with any necessary license or other approval needed for that use being obtained and one or more of the facility's residents remaining in the facility to receive services under the new use.

(2) A facility closure occurs regardless of any of the following:

(a) The operator completely or partially replacing the ICF/IID by constructing a new ICF/IID or transferring the ICF/IID's license to another ICF/IID;

(b) The ICF/IID's residents relocating to another of the operator's ICFs/IID;

(c) Any action the department of health takes regarding the ICF/IID's medicaid certification that may result in the transfer of part of the ICF/IID's survey findings to another of the operator's ICFs/IID;

(d) Any action the department of developmental disabilities takes regarding the ICF/IID's license under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code.

(3) A facility closure does not occur if all of the ICF/IID's residents are relocated due to an emergency evacuation and one or more of the residents return to a medicaid-certified bed in the ICF/IID not later than thirty days after the evacuation occurs.

(V) "Fiscal year" means the fiscal year of this state, as specified in section 9.34 of the Revised Code.

(W) "Franchise permit fee" means the fee imposed by sections 5168.60 to 5168.71 of the Revised Code.

(X) "Home and community-based services" has the same meaning as in section 5123.01 of the Revised Code.

(Y) "ICF/IID services" has the same meaning as in 42 C.F.R. 440.150.

(Z)(1) "Indirect care costs" means all reasonable costs incurred by an ICF/IID other than capital costs, direct care costs, and other protected costs. "Indirect care costs" includes costs of habilitation supplies, pharmacy consultants, medical and habilitation records, program supplies, incontinence supplies, food, enterals, dietary supplies and personnel, laundry, housekeeping, security, administration, liability insurance, bookkeeping, purchasing department, human resources, communications, travel, dues, license fees, subscriptions, home office costs not otherwise allocated, legal services, accounting services, minor equipment, maintenance and repair expenses, help-wanted advertising, informational advertising, start-up costs, organizational expenses, other interest, property insurance, employee training and staff development, employee benefits, payroll taxes, and workers' compensation premiums or costs for self-insurance claims and related costs, as specified in rules adopted under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code, for personnel listed in this division. Notwithstanding division (H) of this section, "indirect care costs" also means the cost of equipment, including vehicles, acquired by operating lease executed before December 1, 1992, if the costs are reported as administrative and general costs on the ICF/IID's cost report for the cost reporting period ending December 31, 1992.

(2) For the purpose of division (Z)(1) of this section, an operating lease shall be construed in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles.

(AA) "Inpatient days" means both of the following:

(1) All days during which a resident, regardless of payment source, occupies a bed in an ICF/IID that is included in the ICF/IID's medicaid-certified capacity;

(2) All days for which payment is made under section 5124.34 of the Revised Code.

(BB) "Intermediate care facility for individuals with intellectual disabilities" and "ICF/IID" mean an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded as defined in the "Social Security Act," section 1905(d), 42 U.S.C. 1396d(d).

(CC) "Involuntary termination" means the department of medicaid's termination of, cancellation of, or refusal to revalidate the operator's provider agreement for the ICF/IID when such action is not taken at the operator's request.

(DD) "Maintenance and repair expenses" means, except as provided in division (TT)(2)(b) of this section, expenditures that are necessary and proper to maintain an asset in a normally efficient working condition and that do not extend the useful life of the asset two years or more. "Maintenance and repair expenses" includes the costs of ordinary repairs such as painting and wallpapering.

(EE) "Medicaid-certified capacity" means the number of an ICF/IID's beds that are certified for participation in medicaid as ICF/IID beds.

(FF) "Medicaid days" means both of the following:

(1) All days during which a resident who is a medicaid recipient eligible for ICF/IID services occupies a bed in an ICF/IID that is included in the ICF/IID's medicaid-certified capacity;

(2) All days for which payment is made under section 5124.34 of the Revised Code.

(GG)(1) "New ICF/IID" means an ICF/IID for which the provider obtains an initial provider agreement following the director of health's medicaid certification of the ICF/IID, including such an ICF/IID that replaces one or more ICFs/IID for which a provider previously held a provider agreement.

(2) "New ICF/IID" does not mean either of the following:

(a) An ICF/IID for which the entering operator seeks a provider agreement pursuant to section 5124.511 or 5124.512 or (pursuant to section 5124.515) section 5124.07 of the Revised Code;

(b) A downsized ICF/IID or partially converted ICF/IID.

(HH) "Nursing home" has the same meaning as in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.

(II) "Operator" means the person or government entity responsible for the daily operating and management decisions for an ICF/IID.

(JJ) "Other protected costs" means costs incurred by an ICF/IID for medical supplies; real estate, franchise, and property taxes; natural gas, fuel oil, water, electricity, sewage, and refuse and hazardous medical waste collection; allocated other protected home office costs; and any additional costs defined as other protected costs in rules adopted under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code.

(KK)(1) "Owner" means any person or government entity that has at least five per cent ownership or interest, either directly, indirectly, or in any combination, in any of the following regarding an ICF/IID:

(a) The land on which the ICF/IID is located;

(b) The structure in which the ICF/IID is located;

(c) Any mortgage, contract for deed, or other obligation secured in whole or in part by the land or structure on or in which the ICF/IID is located;

(d) Any lease or sublease of the land or structure on or in which the ICF/IID is located.

(2) "Owner" does not mean a holder of a debenture or bond related to an ICF/IID and purchased at public issue or a regulated lender that has made a loan related to the ICF/IID unless the holder or lender operates the ICF/IID directly or through a subsidiary.

(LL) "Partially converted ICF/IID" means an ICF/IID that converted some, but not all, of its beds to providing home and community-based services under the individual options waiver pursuant to section 5124.60 or 5124.61 of the Revised Code.

(MM)(1) Except as provided in divisions (MM)(2) and (3) of this section, "per diem" means an ICF/IID's desk-reviewed, actual, allowable costs in a given cost center in a cost reporting period, divided by the facility's inpatient days for that cost reporting period.

(2) When determining capital costs for the purpose of section 5124.17 of the Revised Code, "per diem" means an ICF/IID's actual, allowable capital costs in a cost-reporting cost reporting period divided by the greater of the facility's inpatient days for that period or the number of inpatient days the ICF/IID would have had during that period if its occupancy rate had been ninety-five per cent.