Am. Sub. H. B. No. 51 As Enrolled

SECTION 101.01. That sections 9.33, 126.06, 126.503, 127.14, 153.01, 153.65, 164.05, 307.05, 307.051, 307.055, 505.37, 505.375, 505.44, 505.72, 718.01, 2913.01, 2913.02, 2913.51, 2937.221, 3354.13, 3355.10, 3357.12, 3705.242, 3791.12, 3791.13, 3791.99, 4501.01, 4501.03, 4501.04, 4501.041, 4501.042, 4501.043, 4501.06, 4503.03, 4503.04, 4503.042, 4503.07, 4503.103, 4503.11, 4503.19, 4503.191, 4503.22, 4503.42, 4503.45, 4503.49, 4504.19, 4504.21, 4505.11, 4506.08, 4506.09, 4507.011, 4507.05, 4507.23, 4511.01, 4511.13, 4511.21, 4511.61, 4513.263, 4513.34, 4513.53, 4513.66, 4517.021, 4561.01, 4561.06, 4561.07, 4561.08, 4561.09, 4561.12, 4561.21, 4582.06, 4737.04, 4737.99, 4743.05, 4765.02, 4765.03, 4765.04, 4765.05, 4765.06, 4765.07, 4765.08, 4765.09, 4765.10, 4765.101, 4765.102, 4765.11, 4765.111, 4765.112, 4765.113, 4765.114, 4765.115, 4765.116, 4765.12, 4765.15, 4765.16, 4765.17, 4765.18, 4765.22, 4765.23, 4765.28, 4765.29, 4765.30, 4765.31, 4765.32, 4765.33, 4765.37, 4765.38, 4765.39, 4765.40, 4765.42, 4765.48, 4765.49, 4765.55, 4765.56, 4766.01, 4766.03, 4766.04, 4766.05, 4766.07, 4766.08, 4766.09, 4766.10, 4766.11, 4766.12, 4766.13, 4766.15, 4766.22, 5501.03, 5501.17, 5501.31, 5501.51 5501.73, 5501.77, 5502.01, 5503.01, 5503.03, 5503.04, 5503.31, 5503.32, 5513.01, 5517.02, 5525.01, 5525.16, 5526.01, 5533.121, 5533.31, 5537.01, 5537.02, 5537.03, 5537.04, 5537.05, 5537.051, 5537.06, 5537.07, 5537.08, 5537.09, 5537.11, 5537.12, 5537.13, 5537.14, 5537.15, 5537.16, 5537.17, 5537.19, 5537.20, 5537.21, 5537.22, 5537.24, 5537.25, 5537.26, 5537.27, 5537.28, 5537.30, 5577.05, 5728.01, 5735.05, 5735.23, 5739.02, 5747.01, 5751.01, 5751.02, 5751.051, and 5751.20 be amended, and sections 4501.031, 4503.192, 4503.83, 4582.171, 4765.59, 5517.021, 5537.18, 5553.051, and 5577.044 of the Revised Code be enacted to read as follows:

(A) "Construction manager" means a person with substantial discretion and authority to plan, coordinate, manage, and direct all phases of a project for the construction, demolition, alteration, repair, or reconstruction of any public building, structure, or other improvement, but does not mean the person who provides the professional design services or who actually performs the construction, demolition, alteration, repair, or reconstruction work on the project.

(B)(1) "Construction manager at risk" means a person with substantial discretion and authority to plan, coordinate, manage, direct, and construct all phases of a project for the construction, demolition, alteration, repair, or reconstruction of any public building, structure, or other improvement and who provides the public authority a guaranteed maximum price as determined in section 9.334 of the Revised Code.

(a) "Construct" includes performing, or subcontracting for performing, construction, demolition, alteration, repair, or reconstruction.

(b) "Manage" includes approving bidders and awarding subcontracts for furnishing materials regarding, or for performing, construction, demolition, alteration, repair, or reconstruction.

(C) "Construction management contract" means a contract between a public authority and another person obligating the person to provide construction management services.

(D) "Construction management services" or "management services" means the range of services that either a construction manager or a construction manager at risk may provide.

(1) Competence to perform the required management services as indicated by the technical training, education, and experience of the construction manager's or construction manager at risk's personnel, especially the technical training, education, and experience of the construction manager's or construction manager at risk's employees who would be assigned to perform the services;

(2) Ability in terms of workload and the availability of qualified personnel, equipment, and facilities to perform the required management services competently and expeditiously;

(3) Past performance as reflected by the evaluations of previous clients with respect to factors such as control of costs, quality of work, and meeting of deadlines;

(4) Financial responsibility as evidenced by the capability to provide a letter of credit pursuant to Chapter 1305. of the Revised Code, a surety bond, certified check, or cashier's check in an amount equal to the value of the construction management contract, or by other means acceptable to the public authority;

(F)(1) "Public authority" means the state, any state institution of higher education as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, any county, township, municipal corporation, school district, or other political subdivision, or any public agency, authority, board, commission, instrumentality, or special purpose district of the state or of a political subdivision.

(2) "Public authority" does not include ~~the Ohio turnpike commission~~ the director of transportation when exercising the director's authority to prepare plans for, acquire rights-of-way for, construct, or maintain roads, highways, or bridges.

(G) "Open book pricing method" means a method in which a construction manager at risk provides the public authority, at the public authority's request, all books, records, documents, and other data in its possession pertaining to the bidding, pricing, or performance of a construction management contract awarded to the construction manager at risk.

Sec. 126.06. The total operating fund consists of all funds in the state treasury except the auto registration distribution fund, local motor vehicle license tax fund, development bond retirement fund, facilities establishment fund, gasoline excise tax fund, higher education improvement fund, highway improvement bond retirement fund, highway obligations bond retirement fund, highway capital improvement fund, improvements bond retirement fund, mental health facilities improvement fund, parks and recreation improvement fund, public improvements bond retirement fund, school district income tax fund, state agency facilities improvement fund, state and local government highway distribution fund, state highway safety fund, Vietnam conflict compensation fund, any other fund determined by the director of budget and management to be a bond fund or bond retirement fund, and such portion of the highway operating fund as is determined by the director of budget and management and the director of transportation to be restricted by Section 5a of Article XII, Ohio Constitution.

When determining the availability of money in the total operating fund to pay claims chargeable to a fund contained within the total operating fund, the director of budget and management shall use the same procedures and criteria the director employs in determining the availability of money in a fund contained within the total operating fund. The director may establish limits on the negative cash balance of the general revenue fund within the total operating fund, but in no case shall the negative cash balance of the general revenue fund exceed ten per cent of the total revenue of the general revenue fund in the preceding fiscal year.

Sec. 126.503. All state agencies shall control ~~nonessential~~ travel expenses by doing all of the following:

(A) Complying with any travel directives issued by the director of budget and management;

(B) Using, when possible, the online travel authorization and expense reimbursement process;

(C) Conducting meetings, whenever possible and in compliance with section 121.22 of the Revised Code, using conference calls, teleconferences, webinars, or other technology tools;

(E) Following restrictions set by the department of administrative services regarding mileage reimbursement pursuant to section 125.832 of the Revised Code.

In addition to the methods of travel expense control listed above, a state agency may use a state-contracted rental vehicle provider for employee vehicle travel exceeding one hundred miles.

The director of budget and management shall not reimburse any state agency employee for unauthorized travel expenses.

Sec. 127.14. The controlling board may, at the request of any state agency or the director of budget and management, authorize, with respect to the provisions of any appropriation act:

(A) Transfers of all or part of an appropriation within but not between state agencies, except such transfers as the director of budget and management is authorized by law to make, provided that no transfer shall be made by the director for the purpose of effecting new or changed levels of program service not authorized by the general assembly;

(B) Transfers of all or part of an appropriation from one fiscal year to another;

(C) Transfers of all or part of an appropriation within or between state agencies made necessary by administrative reorganization or by the abolition of an agency or part of an agency;

(D) Transfers of all or part of cash balances in excess of needs from any fund of the state to the general revenue fund or to such other fund of the state to which the money would have been credited in the absence of the fund from which the transfers are authorized to be made, except that the controlling board may not authorize such transfers from the accrued leave liability fund, auto registration distribution fund, local motor vehicle license tax fund, budget stabilization fund, development bond retirement fund, facilities establishment fund, gasoline excise tax fund, general revenue fund, higher education improvement fund, highway improvement bond retirement fund, highway obligations bond retirement fund, highway capital improvement fund, highway operating fund, horse racing tax fund, improvements bond retirement fund, public library fund, liquor control fund, local government fund, local transportation improvement program fund, mental health facilities improvement fund, Ohio fairs fund, parks and recreation improvement fund, public improvements bond retirement fund, school district income tax fund, state agency facilities improvement fund, state and local government highway distribution fund, state highway safety fund, state lottery fund, undivided liquor permit fund, Vietnam conflict compensation bond retirement fund, volunteer fire fighters' dependents fund, waterways safety fund, wildlife fund, workers' compensation fund, or any fund not specified in this division that the director of budget and management determines to be a bond fund or bond retirement fund;

(E) Transfers of all or part of those appropriations included in the emergency purposes account of the controlling board;

(F) Temporary transfers of all or part of an appropriation or other moneys into and between existing funds, or new funds, as may be established by law when needed for capital outlays for which notes or bonds will be issued;

(G) Transfer or release of all or part of an appropriation to a state agency requiring controlling board approval of such transfer or release as provided by law;

(H) Temporary transfer of funds included in the emergency purposes appropriation of the controlling board. Such temporary transfers may be made subject to conditions specified by the controlling board at the time temporary transfers are authorized. No transfers shall be made under this division for the purpose of effecting new or changed levels of program service not authorized by the general assembly.

As used in this section, "request" means an application by a state agency or the director of budget and management seeking some action by the controlling board.

When authorizing the transfer of all or part of an appropriation under this section, the controlling board may authorize the transfer to an existing appropriation item and the creation of and transfer to a new appropriation item.

Whenever there is a transfer of all or part of funds included in the emergency purposes appropriation by the controlling board, pursuant to division (E) of this section, the state agency or the director of budget and management receiving such transfer shall keep a detailed record of the use of the transferred funds. At the earliest scheduled meeting of the controlling board following the accomplishment of the purposes specified in the request originally seeking the transfer, or following the total expenditure of the transferred funds for the specified purposes, the state agency or the director of budget and management shall submit a report on the expenditure of such funds to the board. The portion of any appropriation so transferred which is not required to accomplish the purposes designated in the original request to the controlling board shall be returned to the proper appropriation of the controlling board at this time.

Notwithstanding any provisions of law providing for the deposit of revenues received by a state agency to the credit of a particular fund in the state treasury, whenever there is a temporary transfer of funds included in the emergency purposes appropriation of the controlling board pursuant to division (H) of this section, revenues received by any state agency receiving such a temporary transfer of funds shall, as directed by the controlling board, be transferred back to the emergency purposes appropriation.

The board may delegate to the director of budget and management authority to approve transfers among items of appropriation under division (A) of this section.

Sec. 153.01. (A) Whenever any building or structure for the use of the state or any institution supported in whole or in part by the state or in or upon the public works of the state that is administered by the Ohio facilities construction commission or by any other state officer or state agency authorized by law to administer a project, including an educational institution listed in section 3345.50 of the Revised Code, is to be erected or constructed, whenever additions, alterations, or structural or other improvements are to be made, or whenever heating, cooling, or ventilating plants or other equipment is to be installed or material supplied therefor, the estimated cost of which amounts to two hundred thousand dollars or more, or the amount determined pursuant to section 153.53 of the Revised Code or more, each officer, board, or other authority upon which devolves the duty of constructing, erecting, altering, or installing the same, referred to in sections 153.01 to 153.60 of the Revised Code as the public authority, shall cause to be made, by an architect or engineer whose contract of employment shall be prepared and approved by the attorney general, the following:

(1) Full and accurate plans, suitable for the use of mechanics and other builders in the construction, improvement, addition, alteration, or installation;

(2) Details to scale and full-sized, so drawn and represented as to be easily understood;

(3) Definite and complete specifications of the work to be performed, together with directions that will enable a competent mechanic or other builder to carry them out and afford bidders all needful information;

(4) A full and accurate estimate of each item of expense and the aggregate cost of those items of expense;

(6) Further data as may be required by the Ohio facilities construction commission.

(B)(1) Division (A) of this section shall not be required with respect to a construction management contract entered into with a construction manager at risk as described in section 9.334 of the Revised Code or a design-build contract entered into with a design-build firm as described in section 153.693 of the Revised Code.

(2) Nothing in this chapter shall interfere with the power of the director of transportation to prepare plans for, acquire rights-of-way for, construct, or maintain roads, highways, or bridges, or to let contracts for those purposes.

(A)(1) "Public authority" means the state, a state institution of higher education as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, a county, township, municipal corporation, school district, or other political subdivision, or any public agency, authority, board, commission, instrumentality, or special purpose district of the state or of a political subdivision.

(B) "Professional design firm" means any person legally engaged in rendering professional design services.

(C) "Professional design services" means services within the scope of practice of an architect or landscape architect registered under Chapter 4703. of the Revised Code or a professional engineer or surveyor registered under Chapter 4733. of the Revised Code.

(1)(a) For a professional design firm, competence to perform the required professional design services as indicated by the technical training, education, and experience of the firm's personnel, especially the technical training, education, and experience of the employees within the firm who would be assigned to perform the services;

(b) For a design-build firm, competence to perform the required design-build services as indicated by the technical training, education, and experience of the design-build firm's personnel and key consultants, especially the technical training, education, and experience of the employees and consultants of the design-build firm who would be assigned to perform the services, including the proposed architect or engineer of record.

(2) Ability of the firm in terms of its workload and the availability of qualified personnel, equipment, and facilities to perform the required professional design services or design-build services competently and expeditiously;

(3) Past performance of the firm as reflected by the evaluations of previous clients with respect to such factors as control of costs, quality of work, and meeting of deadlines;

(5) With respect to a design-build firm, compliance with sections 4703.182, 4703.332, and 4733.16 of the Revised Code, including the use of a licensed design professional for all design services.

(E) "Design-build contract" means a contract between a public authority and another person that obligates the person to provide design-build services.

(F) "Design-build firm" means a person capable of providing design-build services.

(G) "Design-build services" means services that form an integrated delivery system for which a person is responsible to a public authority for both the design and construction, demolition, alteration, repair, or reconstruction of a public improvement.

(H) "Architect or engineer of record" means the architect or engineer that serves as the final signatory on the plans and specifications for the design-build project.

(I) "Criteria architect or engineer" means the architect or engineer retained by a public authority to prepare conceptual plans and specifications, to assist the public authority in connection with the establishment of the design criteria for a design-build project, and, if requested by the public authority, to serve as the representative of the public authority and provide, during the design-build project, other design and construction administration services on behalf of the public authority, including but not limited to, confirming that the design prepared by the design-build firm reflects the original design intent established in the design criteria package.

(J) "Open book pricing method" means a method in which a design-build firm provides the public authority, at the public authority's request, all books, records, documents, contracts, subcontracts, purchase orders, and other data in its possession pertaining to the bidding, pricing, or performance of a contract for design-build services awarded to the design-build firm.

Sec. 164.05. (A) The director of the Ohio public works commission shall do all of the following:

(1) Approve requests for financial assistance from district public works integrating committees and enter into agreements with one or more local subdivisions to provide loans, grants, and local debt support and credit enhancements for a capital improvement project if the director determines that:

(b) The financial assistance for the project has been properly approved and requested by the district committee of the district which includes the recipient of the loan or grant;

(c) The amount of the financial assistance, when added to all other financial assistance provided during the fiscal year for projects within the district, does not exceed that district's allocation of money from the state capital improvements fund for that fiscal year;

(d) The district committee has provided such documentation and other evidence as the director may require that the district committee has satisfied the requirements of section 164.06 or 164.14 of the Revised Code;

(e) The portion of a district's annual allocation which the director approves in the form of loans and local debt support and credit enhancements for eligible projects is consistent with divisions (E) and (F) of this section.

(2) Authorize payments to local subdivisions or their contractors for costs incurred for capital improvement projects which have been approved pursuant to this chapter. All requests for payments shall be submitted to the director on forms and in accordance with procedures specified in rules adopted by the director pursuant to division (A)(4) of this section.

(3) Retain the services of or employ financial consultants, engineers, accountants, attorneys, and such other employees as the director determines are necessary to carry out the director's duties under this chapter and fix the compensation for their services;. From among these employees, the director shall appoint a deputy with the necessary qualifications to act as the director when the director is absent or temporarily unable to carry out the duties of office.

(4) Adopt rules establishing the procedures for making applications, reviewing, approving, and rejecting projects for which assistance is authorized under this chapter, and any other rules needed to implement the provisions of this chapter. Such rules shall be adopted under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.

(5) Provide information and other assistance to local subdivisions and district public works integrating committees in developing their requests for financial assistance for capital improvements under this chapter and encourage cooperation and coordination of requests and the development of multisubdivision and multidistrict projects in order to maximize the benefits that may be derived by districts from each year's allocation;

(6) Require local subdivisions, to the extent practicable, to use Ohio products, materials, services, and labor in connection with any capital improvement project financed in whole or in part under this chapter;

(7) Notify the director of budget and management of all approved projects, and supply all information necessary to track approved projects through the state accounting system;

(8) Appoint the administrator of the Ohio small government capital improvements commission;

(9) Do all other acts, enter into contracts, and execute all instruments necessary or appropriate to carry out this chapter;

(10) Develop a standardized methodology for evaluating capital improvement needs which will be used by local subdivisions in preparing the plans required by division (C) of section 164.06 of the Revised Code. The director shall develop this methodology not later than July 1, 1991.

(11) Establish a program to provide local subdivisions with technical assistance in preparing project applications. The program shall be designed to assist local subdivisions that lack the financial or technical resources to prepare project applications on their own.

(B) When the director of the Ohio public works commission decides to conditionally approve or disapprove projects, the director's decisions and the reasons for which they are made shall be made in writing. These written decisions shall be conclusive for the purposes of the validity and enforceability of such determinations.

(C) Fees, charges, rates of interest, times of payment of interest and principal, and other terms, conditions, and provisions of and security for financial assistance provided pursuant to the provisions of this chapter shall be such as the director determines to be appropriate. If any payments required by a loan agreement entered into pursuant to this chapter are not paid, the funds which would otherwise be apportioned to the local subdivision from the county undivided local government fund, pursuant to sections 5747.51 to 5747.53 of the Revised Code, may, at the direction of the director of the Ohio public works commission, be reduced by the amount payable. The county treasurer shall, at the direction of the director, pay the amount of such reductions to the state capital improvements revolving loan fund. The director may renegotiate a loan repayment schedule with a local subdivision whose payments from the county undivided local government fund could be reduced pursuant to this division, but such a renegotiation may occur only one time with respect to any particular loan agreement.

(D) Grants approved for the repair and replacement of existing infrastructure pursuant to this chapter shall not exceed ninety per cent of the estimated total cost of the capital improvement project. Grants approved for new or expanded infrastructure shall not exceed fifty per cent of the estimated cost of the new or expansion elements of the capital improvement project. A local subdivision share of the estimated cost of a capital improvement may consist of any of the following:

(1) The reasonable value, as determined by the director or the administrator, of labor, materials, and equipment that will be contributed by the local subdivision in performing the capital improvement project;

(2) Moneys received by the local subdivision in any form from an authority, commission, or agency of the United States for use in performing the capital improvement project;

(4) Engineering costs incurred by the local subdivision in performing engineering activities related to the project.

A local subdivision share of the cost of a capital improvement shall not include any amounts awarded to it from the local transportation improvement program fund created in section 164.14 of the Revised Code.

(E) The following portion of a district public works integrating committee's annual allocation share pursuant to section 164.08 of the Revised Code may be awarded to subdivisions only in the form of interest-free, low-interest, market rate of interest, or blended-rate loans:

(F) The following portion of a district public works integrating committee's annual allocation pursuant to section 164.08 of the Revised Code shall be awarded to subdivisions in the form of local debt supported and credit enhancements:

(G) For the period commencing on March 29, 1988, and ending on June 30, 1993, for the period commencing July 1, 1993, and ending June 30, 1999, and for each five-year period thereafter, the total amount of financial assistance awarded under sections 164.01 to 164.08 of the Revised Code for capital improvement projects located wholly or partially within a county shall be equal to at least thirty per cent of the amount of what the county would have been allocated from the obligations authorized to be sold under this chapter during each period, if such amounts had been allocable to each county on a per capita basis.

(H) The amount of the annual allocations made pursuant to divisions (B)(1) and (5) of section 164.08 of the Revised Code which can be used for new or expanded infrastructure is limited as follows:

(I) The following portion of a district public works integrating committee's annual allocation share pursuant to section 164.08 of the Revised Code shall be awarded to subdivisions in the form of interest-free, low-interest, market rate of interest, or blended-rate loans, or local debt support and credit enhancements:

(J) No project shall be approved under this section unless the project is designed to have a useful life of at least seven years. In addition, the average useful life of all projects for which grants or loans are awarded in each district during a program year shall not be less than twenty years.

Sec. 307.05. As used in this section, "emergency medical service organization" has the same meaning as in section 4765.01 of the Revised Code.

A board of county commissioners may operate an ambulance service organization or emergency medical service organization, or, in counties with a population of forty thousand or less, may operate a nonemergency patient transport service organization, or may enter into a contract with one or more counties, townships, municipal corporations, nonprofit corporations, joint emergency medical services districts, fire and ambulance districts, or private ambulance owners, regardless of whether such counties, townships, municipal corporations, nonprofit corporations, joint emergency medical services districts, fire and ambulance districts, or private ambulance owners are located within or without the state, in order to furnish or obtain the services of ambulance service organizations, to furnish or obtain additional services from ambulance service organizations in times of emergency, to furnish or obtain the services of emergency medical service organizations, or, in counties with a population of forty thousand or less, to furnish or obtain services of nonemergency patient transport service organizations, or may enter into a contract with any such entity to furnish or obtain the interchange of services from ambulance or emergency medical service organizations, or, within counties with a population of forty thousand or less, to furnish or obtain the interchange of services from nonemergency patient transport service organizations, within the territories of the contracting subdivisions. Except in the case of a contract with a joint emergency medical services district to obtain the services of emergency medical service organizations, such contracts shall not be entered into with a public agency or nonprofit corporation that receives more than half of its operating funds from governmental entities with the intention of directly competing with the operation of other ambulance service organizations, nonemergency patient transport service organizations, or emergency medical service organizations in the county unless the public agency or nonprofit corporation is awarded the contract after submitting the lowest and best bid to the board of county commissioners. Any county wishing to commence operation of a nonemergency patient transport service organization or wishing to enter into a contract for the first time to furnish or obtain services from a nonemergency patient transport service organization on or after March 1, 1993, including a county in which a private provider has been providing the service, shall demonstrate the need for public funding for the service to, and obtain approval from, the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services or its immediate successor board prior to operating or funding the organization.

When such an organization is operated by the board, the organization may be administered by the board, by the county sheriff, or by another county officer or employee designated by the board. All rules, including the determining of reasonable rates, necessary for the establishment, operation, and maintenance of such an organization shall be adopted by the board.

A contract for services of an ambulance service, nonemergency patient transport service, or emergency medical service organization shall include the terms, conditions, and stipulations as agreed to by the parties to the contract. It may provide for a fixed annual charge to be paid at the times agreed upon and stipulated in the contract, or for compensation based upon a stipulated price for each run, call, or emergency or the number of persons or pieces of apparatus employed, or the elapsed time of service required in such run, call, or emergency, or any combination thereof.

Sec. 307.051. As used in this section, "emergency medical service organization" has the same meaning as in section 4766.01 of the Revised Code.

A board of county commissioners, by adoption of an appropriate resolution, may choose to have the ~~Ohio~~ state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation ~~board~~ services license any emergency medical service organization it operates. If a board adopts such a resolution, Chapter 4766. of the Revised Code, except for sections 4766.06 and 4766.99 of the Revised Code, applies to the county emergency medical service organization. All rules adopted under the applicable sections of that chapter also apply to the organization. A board, by adoption of an appropriate resolution, may remove its emergency medical service organization from the jurisdiction of the ~~Ohio~~ state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation ~~board~~ services.

Sec. 307.055. (A) Subject to the terms and conditions of the joint resolution creating it, each joint emergency medical services district may furnish ambulance services and emergency medical services by one of the following methods:

(1) By operating an emergency medical service organization as defined in section 4765.01 of the Revised Code;

(2) By contracting for the operation of one or more facilities pursuant to division (C) or (D) of this section;

(3) By providing necessary services and equipment to the district either directly or under a contract entered into pursuant to division (B) of this section;

(4) By providing service through any combination of methods described in divisions (A)(1) to (3) of this section.

(B) In order to obtain ambulance service, to obtain additional ambulance service in times of emergency, or to obtain emergency medical services, a joint emergency medical services district may enter into a contract, for a period not to exceed three years, with one or more counties, townships, municipal corporations, joint fire districts, other governmental units that provide ambulance service or emergency medical services, nonprofit corporations, or private ambulance owners, regardless of whether the entities contracted with are located within or outside this state, upon such terms as are agreed to, to furnish or receive ambulance services or the interchange of ambulance services or emergency medical services within the several territories of the contracting subdivisions, if the contract is first authorized by all boards of trustees and legislative authorities in the territories to be served.

Such a contract may provide for a fixed annual charge to be paid at the times agreed upon and stipulated in the contract; or for compensation based on a stipulated price for each run, call, or emergency or based on the elapsed time of service required for each run, call, or emergency, or based on any combination of these.

Expenditures of a district for ambulance service or emergency medical service, whether pursuant to contract or otherwise, are lawful expenditures, regardless of whether the district or the party with which it contracts charges an additional fee to users of the service.

(C) The board of trustees may enter into a contract with any person, municipal corporation, township, or other political subdivision, and any political subdivision may contract with the board, for the operation and maintenance of emergency medical services facilities regardless of whether the facilities used are owned or leased by the district, by another political subdivision, or by the contractor.

(D) The district may purchase, lease, and maintain all materials, buildings, land, and equipment, including vehicles, the board considers necessary for the district.

When the board finds, by resolution, that the district has personal property that is not needed for public use, or is obsolete or unfit for the use for which it was acquired, the board may dispose of the property in the same manner as provided in section 307.12 of the Revised Code.

(E) Except in the case of a contract with a board of county commissioners for the provision of services of an emergency medical service organization, any contract entered into by a joint emergency medical services district shall conform to the same bidding requirements that apply to county contracts under sections 307.86 to 307.92 of the Revised Code.

(F) A county participating in a joint district may contribute any of its rights or interests in real or personal property, including money, and may contribute services to the district. Any such contributions shall be made by a written agreement between the contributing county and the district, specifying the contribution as well as the rights of the participating counties in the contributed property. Written agreements shall also be prepared specifying the rights of participating counties in property acquired by the district other than by contribution of a participating county. Written agreements required by this division may be amended only by written agreement of all parties to the original agreement.

(G) A district's board of trustees, by adoption of an appropriate resolution, may choose to have the ~~Ohio~~ state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation ~~board~~ services license any emergency medical service organization the district operates. If a board adopts such a resolution, Chapter 4766. of the Revised Code, except for sections 4766.06 and 4766.99 of the Revised Code, applies to the district emergency medical service organization. All rules adopted under the applicable sections of that chapter also apply to the organization. A board, by adoption of an appropriate resolution, may remove the district emergency medical service organization from the jurisdiction of the ~~Ohio~~ state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation ~~board~~ services.

Sec. 505.37. (A) The board of township trustees may establish all necessary rules to guard against the occurrence of fires and to protect the property and lives of the citizens against damage and accidents, and may, with the approval of the specifications by the prosecuting attorney or, if the township has adopted limited home rule government under Chapter 504. of the Revised Code, with the approval of the specifications by the township's law director, purchase, lease, lease with an option to purchase, or otherwise provide any fire apparatus, mechanical resuscitators, or other equipment, appliances, materials, fire hydrants, and water supply for fire-fighting purposes that seems advisable to the board. The board shall provide for the care and maintenance of fire equipment, and, for these purposes, may purchase, lease, lease with an option to purchase, or construct and maintain necessary buildings, and it may establish and maintain lines of fire-alarm communications within the limits of the township. The board may employ one or more persons to maintain and operate fire-fighting equipment, or it may enter into an agreement with a volunteer fire company for the use and operation of fire-fighting equipment. The board may compensate the members of a volunteer fire company on any basis and in any amount that it considers equitable.

When the estimated cost to purchase fire apparatus, mechanical resuscitators, other equipment, appliances, materials, fire hydrants, buildings, or fire-alarm communications equipment or services exceeds fifty thousand dollars, the contract shall be let by competitive bidding. When competitive bidding is required, the board shall advertise once a week for not less than two consecutive weeks in a newspaper of general circulation within the township. The board may also cause notice to be inserted in trade papers or other publications designated by it or to be distributed by electronic means, including posting the notice on the board's internet web site. If the board posts the notice on its web site, it may eliminate the second notice otherwise required to be published in a newspaper of general circulation within the township, provided that the first notice published in such newspaper meets all of the following requirements:

(2) It includes a statement that the notice is posted on the board's internet web site.

(4) It includes instructions describing how the notice may be accessed on the board's internet web site.

The advertisement shall include the time, date, and place where the clerk of the township, or the clerk's designee, will read bids publicly. The time, date, and place of bid openings may be extended to a later date by the board of township trustees, provided that written or oral notice of the change shall be given to all persons who have received or requested specifications not later than ninety-six hours prior to the original time and date fixed for the opening. The board may reject all the bids or accept the lowest and best bid, provided that the successful bidder meets the requirements of section 153.54 of the Revised Code when the contract is for the construction, demolition, alteration, repair, or reconstruction of an improvement.

(B) The boards of township trustees of any two or more townships, or the legislative authorities of any two or more political subdivisions, or any combination of these, may, through joint action, unite in the joint purchase, lease, lease with an option to purchase, maintenance, use, and operation of fire-fighting equipment, or for any other purpose designated in sections 505.37 to 505.42 of the Revised Code, and may prorate the expense of the joint action on any terms that are mutually agreed upon.

(C) The board of township trustees of any township may, by resolution, whenever it is expedient and necessary to guard against the occurrence of fires or to protect the property and lives of the citizens against damages resulting from their occurrence, create a fire district of any portions of the township that it considers necessary. The board may purchase, lease, lease with an option to purchase, or otherwise provide any fire apparatus, appliances, materials, fire hydrants, and water supply for fire-fighting purposes, or may contract for the fire protection for the fire district as provided in section 9.60 of the Revised Code. The fire district so created shall be given a separate name by which it shall be known.

Additional unincorporated territory of the township may be added to a fire district upon the board's adoption of a resolution authorizing the addition. A municipal corporation that is within or adjoining the township may be added to a fire district upon the board's adoption of a resolution authorizing the addition and the municipal legislative authority's adoption of a resolution or ordinance requesting the addition of the municipal corporation to the fire district.

If the township fire district imposes a tax, additional unincorporated territory of the township or a municipal corporation that is within or adjoining the township shall become part of the fire district only after all of the following have occurred:

(1) Adoption by the board of township trustees of a resolution approving the expansion of the territorial limits of the district and, if the resolution proposes to add a municipal corporation, adoption by the municipal legislative authority of a resolution or ordinance requesting the addition of the municipal corporation to the district;

(2) Adoption by the board of township trustees of a resolution recommending the extension of the tax to the additional territory;

(3) Approval of the tax by the electors of the territory proposed for addition to the district.

Each resolution of the board adopted under division (C)(2) of this section shall state the name of the fire district, a description of the territory to be added, and the rate and termination date of the tax, which shall be the rate and termination date of the tax currently in effect in the fire district.

The board of trustees shall certify each resolution adopted under division (C)(2) of this section to the board of elections in accordance with section 5705.19 of the Revised Code. The election required under division (C)(3) of this section shall be held, canvassed, and certified in the manner provided for the submission of tax levies under section 5705.25 of the Revised Code, except that the question appearing on the ballot shall read:

"Shall the territory within ........................ (description of the proposed territory to be added) be added to ........................ (name) fire district, and a property tax at a rate of taxation not exceeding ...... (here insert tax rate) be in effect for .......... (here insert the number of years the tax is to be in effect or "a continuing period of time," as applicable)?"

If the question is approved by at least a majority of the electors voting on it, the joinder shall be effective as of the first day of July of the year following approval, and on that date, the township fire district tax shall be extended to the taxable property within the territory that has been added. If the territory that has been added is a municipal corporation and if it had adopted a tax levy for fire purposes, the levy is terminated on the effective date of the joinder.

Any municipal corporation may withdraw from a township fire district created under division (C) of this section by the adoption by the municipal legislative authority of a resolution or ordinance ordering withdrawal. On the first day of July of the year following the adoption of the resolution or ordinance of withdrawal, the municipal corporation withdrawing ceases to be a part of the district, and the power of the fire district to levy a tax upon taxable property in the withdrawing municipal corporation terminates, except that the fire district shall continue to levy and collect taxes for the payment of indebtedness within the territory of the fire district as it was composed at the time the indebtedness was incurred.

Upon the withdrawal of any municipal corporation from a township fire district created under division (C) of this section, the county auditor shall ascertain, apportion, and order a division of the funds on hand, moneys and taxes in the process of collection except for taxes levied for the payment of indebtedness, credits, and real and personal property, either in money or in kind, on the basis of the valuation of the respective tax duplicates of the withdrawing municipal corporation and the remaining territory of the fire district.

A board of township trustees may remove unincorporated territory of the township from the fire district upon the adoption of a resolution authorizing the removal. On the first day of July of the year following the adoption of the resolution, the unincorporated township territory described in the resolution ceases to be a part of the district, and the power of the fire district to levy a tax upon taxable property in that territory terminates, except that the fire district shall continue to levy and collect taxes for the payment of indebtedness within the territory of the fire district as it was composed at the time the indebtedness was incurred.

(D) The board of township trustees of any township, the board of fire district trustees of a fire district created under section 505.371 of the Revised Code, or the legislative authority of any municipal corporation may purchase, lease, or lease with an option to purchase the necessary fire-fighting equipment, buildings, and sites for the township, fire district, or municipal corporation and issue securities for that purpose with maximum maturities as provided in section 133.20 of the Revised Code. The board of township trustees, board of fire district trustees, or legislative authority may also construct any buildings necessary to house fire-fighting equipment and issue securities for that purpose with maximum maturities as provided in section 133.20 of the Revised Code.

The board of township trustees, board of fire district trustees, or legislative authority may issue the securities of the township, fire district, or municipal corporation, signed by the board or designated officer of the municipal corporation and attested by the signature of the township fiscal officer, fire district clerk, or municipal clerk, covering any deferred payments and payable at the times provided, which securities shall bear interest not to exceed the rate determined as provided in section 9.95 of the Revised Code, and shall not be subject to Chapter 133. of the Revised Code. The legislation authorizing the issuance of the securities shall provide for levying and collecting annually by taxation, amounts sufficient to pay the interest on and principal of the securities. The securities shall be offered for sale on the open market or given to the vendor or contractor if no sale is made.

Section 505.40 of the Revised Code does not apply to any securities issued, or any lease with an option to purchase entered into, in accordance with this division.

(E) A board of township trustees of any township or a board of fire district trustees of a fire district created under section 505.371 of the Revised Code may purchase a policy or policies of liability insurance for the officers, employees, and appointees of the fire department, fire district, or joint fire district governed by the board that includes personal injury liability coverage as to the civil liability of those officers, employees, and appointees for false arrest, detention, or imprisonment, malicious prosecution, libel, slander, defamation or other violation of the right of privacy, wrongful entry or eviction, or other invasion of the right of private occupancy, arising out of the performance of their duties.

When a board of township trustees cannot, by deed of gift or by purchase and upon terms it considers reasonable, procure land for a township fire station that is needed in order to respond in reasonable time to a fire or medical emergency, the board may appropriate land for that purpose under sections 163.01 to 163.22 of the Revised Code. If it is necessary to acquire additional adjacent land for enlarging or improving the fire station, the board may purchase, appropriate, or accept a deed of gift for the land for these purposes.

(F) As used in this division, "emergency medical service organization" has the same meaning as in section 4766.01 of the Revised Code.

A board of township trustees, by adoption of an appropriate resolution, may choose to have the ~~Ohio~~ state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation ~~board~~ services license any emergency medical service organization it operates. If the board adopts such a resolution, Chapter 4766. of the Revised Code, except for sections 4766.06 and 4766.99 of the Revised Code, applies to the organization. All rules adopted under the applicable sections of that chapter also apply to the organization. A board of township trustees, by adoption of an appropriate resolution, may remove its emergency medical service organization from the jurisdiction of the ~~Ohio~~ state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation ~~board~~ services.

Sec. 505.375. (A)(1)(a) The boards of township trustees of one or more townships and the legislative authorities of one or more municipal corporations, or the legislative authorities of two or more municipal corporations, or the boards of township trustees of two or more townships, may negotiate an agreement to form a fire and ambulance district for the delivery of both fire and ambulance services. The agreement shall be ratified by the adoption of a joint resolution by a majority of the members of each board of township trustees involved and a majority of the members of the legislative authority of each municipal corporation involved. The joint resolution shall specify a date on which the fire and ambulance district shall come into being.

(b) If a joint fire district created under section 505.371 of the Revised Code or a joint ambulance district created under section 505.71 of the Revised Code is dissolved to facilitate the creation of a fire and ambulance district under division (A)(1)(a) of this section, the townships and municipal corporations forming the fire and ambulance district may transfer to the fire and ambulance district any of the funds on hand, moneys and taxes in the process of collection, credits, and real and personal property apportioned to them under division (D) of section 505.371 of the Revised Code or section 505.71 of the Revised Code, as applicable, for use by the fire and ambulance district in accordance with this section.

(2)(a) The board of trustees of a joint ambulance district created under section 505.71 of the Revised Code and the board of fire district trustees of a joint fire district created under section 505.371 of the Revised Code may negotiate to combine their two joint districts into a single fire and ambulance district for the delivery of both fire and ambulance services, if the geographic area covered by the combining joint districts is exactly the same. Both boards shall adopt a joint resolution ratifying the agreement and setting a date on which the fire and ambulance district shall come into being.

(b) On that date, the joint fire district and the joint ambulance district shall cease to exist, and the power of each to levy a tax upon taxable property shall terminate, except that any levy of a tax for the payment of indebtedness within the territory of the joint fire or joint ambulance district as it was composed at the time the indebtedness was incurred shall continue to be collected by the successor fire and ambulance district if the indebtedness remains unpaid. All funds and other property of the joint districts shall become the property of the fire and ambulance district, unless otherwise provided in the negotiated agreement. The agreement shall provide for the settlement of all debts and obligations of the joint districts.

(B)(1) The governing body of a fire and ambulance district created under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section shall be a board of trustees of at least three but no more than nine members, appointed as provided in the agreement creating the district. Members of the board may be compensated at a rate not to exceed thirty dollars per meeting for not more than fifteen meetings per year, and may be reimbursed for all necessary expenses incurred, as provided in the agreement creating the district.

(2) The board shall employ a clerk and other employees as it considers best, including a fire chief or fire prevention officers, and shall fix their compensation. Neither this section nor any other section of the Revised Code requires, or shall be construed to require, that the fire chief of a fire and ambulance district be a resident of the district.

Before entering upon the duties of office, the clerk shall execute a bond, in the amount and with surety to be approved by the board, payable to the state, conditioned for the faithful performance of all of the clerk's official duties. The clerk shall deposit the bond with the presiding officer of the board, who shall file a copy of it, certified by the presiding officer, with the county auditor of the county containing the most territory in the district.

The board also shall provide for the appointment of a fiscal officer for the district and may enter into agreements with volunteer fire companies for the use and operation of fire-fighting equipment. Volunteer firefighters acting under such an agreement are subject to the requirements for volunteer firefighters set forth in division (A) of section 505.38 of the Revised Code.

(3) Employees of the district shall not be removed from office except as provided by sections 733.35 to 733.39 of the Revised Code, except that, to initiate removal proceedings, the board shall designate a private citizen or, if the employee is employed as a firefighter, the board may designate the fire chief, to investigate, conduct the proceedings, and prepare the necessary charges in conformity with those sections, and except that the board shall perform the functions and duties specified for the municipal legislative authority under those sections. The board may pay reasonable compensation to any private citizen hired for services rendered in the matter.

(4) No person shall be appointed as a permanent full-time paid member of the district whose duties include fire fighting, or be appointed as a volunteer firefighter, unless that person has received a certificate issued under former section 3303.07 or section 4765.55 of the Revised Code evidencing satisfactory completion of a firefighter training program. The board may send its officers and firefighters to schools of instruction designed to promote the efficiency of firefighters and, if authorized in advance, may pay their necessary expenses from the funds used for the maintenance and operation of the district.

The board may choose, by adoption of an appropriate resolution, to have the ~~Ohio~~ state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation ~~board~~ services license any emergency medical service organization it operates. If the board adopts such a resolution, Chapter 4766. of the Revised Code, except for sections 4766.06 and 4766.99 of the Revised Code, applies to the organization. All rules adopted under the applicable sections of that chapter also apply to the organization. The board may remove, by resolution, its emergency medical service organization from the jurisdiction of the ~~Ohio~~ state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation ~~board~~ services.

(C) The board of trustees of a fire and ambulance district created under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section may exercise the following powers:

(1) Purchase or otherwise provide any fire apparatus, mechanical resuscitators, or other fire or ambulance equipment, appliances, or materials; fire hydrants; and water supply for firefighting purposes that seems advisable to the board;

(2) Provide for the care and maintenance of equipment and, for that purpose, purchase, lease, lease with an option to purchase, or construct and maintain necessary buildings;

(3) Establish and maintain lines of fire-alarm communications within the limits of the district;

(4) Appropriate land for a fire station or medical emergency unit needed in order to respond in reasonable time to a fire or medical emergency, in accordance with Chapter 163. of the Revised Code;

(5) Purchase, appropriate, or accept a deed or gift of land to enlarge or improve a fire station or medical emergency unit;

(6) Purchase, lease, lease with an option to purchase, maintain, and use all materials, equipment, vehicles, buildings, and land necessary to perform its duties;

(7) Contract for a period not to exceed three years with one or more townships, municipal corporations, counties, joint fire districts, joint ambulance districts, governmental agencies, nonprofit corporations, or private ambulance owners located either within or outside the state, to furnish or receive ambulance services or emergency medical services within the several territories of the contracting parties, if the contract is first authorized by all boards of trustees and legislative authorities concerned;

(8) Establish reasonable charges for the use of ambulance or emergency medical services under the same conditions under which a board of fire district trustees may establish those charges under section 505.371 of the Revised Code;

(9) Establish all necessary rules to guard against the occurrence of fires and to protect property and lives against damage and accidents;

(10) Adopt a standard code pertaining to fire, fire hazards, and fire prevention prepared and promulgated by the state or by a public or private organization that publishes a model or standard code;

(11) Provide for charges for false alarms at commercial establishments in the same manner as joint fire districts are authorized to do under section 505.391 of the Revised Code;

(12) Issue bonds and other evidences of indebtedness, subject to Chapter 133. of the Revised Code, but only after approval by a vote of the electors of the district as provided by section 133.18 of the Revised Code;

(13) To provide the services and equipment it considers necessary, levy a sufficient tax, subject to Chapter 5705. of the Revised Code, on all the taxable property in the district.

(D) Any municipal corporation or township may join an existing fire and ambulance district, whether created under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section, by its legislative authority's adoption of a resolution requesting the membership and upon approval of the board of trustees of the district. Any municipal corporation or township may withdraw from a district, whether created under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section, by its legislative authority's adoption of a resolution ordering withdrawal. Upon its withdrawal, the municipal corporation or township ceases to be a part of the district, and the district's power to levy a tax on taxable property in the withdrawing township or municipal corporation terminates, except that the district shall continue to levy and collect taxes for the payment of indebtedness within the territory of the district as it was composed at the time the indebtedness was incurred.

Upon the withdrawal of any township or municipal corporation from a district, the county auditor of the county containing the most territory in the district shall ascertain, apportion, and order a division of the funds on hand, including funds in the ambulance and emergency medical services fund, moneys and taxes in the process of collection, except for taxes levied for the payment of indebtedness, credits, and real and personal property on the basis of the valuation of the respective tax duplicates of the withdrawing municipal corporation or township and the remaining territory of the district.

(1) "Governmental agency" includes all departments, boards, offices, commissions, agencies, colleges, universities, institutions, and other instrumentalities of this or another state.

(2) "Emergency medical service organization" has the same meaning as in section 4766.01 of the Revised Code.

(A) "Emergency medical service organization" has the same meaning as in section 4765.01 of the Revised Code.

(B) "State agency" means all departments, boards, offices, commissions, agencies, colleges, universities, institutions, and other instrumentalities of this or another state.

In order to obtain the services of ambulance service organizations, to obtain additional services from ambulance service organizations in times of emergency, to obtain the services of emergency medical service organizations, or, if the township is located in a county with a population of forty thousand or less, to obtain the services of nonemergency patient transport service organizations, a township may enter into a contract with one or more state agencies, townships, municipal corporations, counties, nonprofit corporations, joint emergency medical services districts, fire and ambulance districts, or private ambulance owners, regardless of whether such state agencies, townships, municipal corporations, counties, nonprofit corporations, joint emergency medical services districts, fire and ambulance districts, or private ambulance owners are located within or outside the state, upon such terms as are agreed to by them, to furnish or receive services from ambulance or emergency medical service organizations or, if the township is located in a county with a population of forty thousand or less, to furnish or receive services from nonemergency patient transport service organizations, or may enter into a contract for the interchange of services from ambulance or emergency medical service organizations or, if the township is located in a county with a population of forty thousand or less, the interchange of services from nonemergency patient transport service organizations, within the several territories of the contracting parties, if the contract is first authorized by the respective boards of township trustees, the other legislative bodies, or the officer or body authorized to contract on behalf of the state agency. Such contracts shall not be entered into with a state agency or nonprofit corporation that receives more than half of its operating funds from governmental entities with the intention of directly competing with the operation of other ambulance, emergency medical, or nonemergency patient transport service organizations in the township unless the state agency or nonprofit corporation is awarded the contract after submitting the lowest and best bid to the board of township trustees.

The contract may provide for compensation upon such terms as the parties may agree.

Any township wishing to commence providing or wishing to enter into a contract for the first time to furnish or obtain services from nonemergency patient transport service organizations on or after March 1, 1993, including a township in which a private provider has been providing the service, shall demonstrate the need for public funding for the service to, and obtain approval from, the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services or its immediate successor board prior to the establishment of a township-operated or township-funded service.

Sec. 505.72. (A) The board of trustees of a joint ambulance district shall provide for the employment of such employees as it considers best, and shall fix their compensation. Such employees shall continue in office until removed as provided by sections 733.35 to 733.39 of the Revised Code. To initiate removal proceedings, and for such purpose, the board shall designate a private citizen to investigate the conduct and prepare the necessary charges in conformity with sections 733.35 to 733.39 of the Revised Code. The board may pay reasonable compensation to such person for the person's services.

In case of the removal of an employee of the district, an appeal may be had from the decision of the board to the court of common pleas of the county in which such district, or part of it, is situated, to determine the sufficiency of the cause of removal. Such appeal from the findings of the board shall be taken within ten days.

(B) As used in this division, "emergency medical service organization" has the same meaning as in section 4765.01 of the Revised Code.

(1) In order to obtain the services of ambulance service organizations, to obtain additional services from ambulance service organizations in times of emergency, or to obtain the services of emergency medical service organizations, a district may enter into a contract, for a period not to exceed three years, with one or more townships, municipal corporations, joint fire districts, nonprofit corporations, any other governmental unit that provides ambulance services or emergency medical services, or with private ambulance owners, regardless of whether such townships, municipal corporations, joint fire districts, nonprofit corporations, governmental unit, or private ambulance owners are located within or without this state, upon such terms as are agreed to, to furnish or receive services from ambulance or emergency medical service organizations or the interchange of services from ambulance or emergency medical service organizations within the several territories of the contracting subdivisions, if such contract is first authorized by all boards of trustees and legislative authorities concerned.

The contract may provide for a fixed annual charge to be paid at the times agreed upon and stipulated in the contract, or for compensation based upon a stipulated price for each run, call, or emergency, or the elapsed time of service required in such run, call, or emergency, or any combination thereof.

(2) Expenditures of a district for the services of ambulance service organizations or emergency medical service organizations, whether pursuant to contract or otherwise, are lawful expenditures, regardless of whether the district or the party with which it contracts charges additional fees to users of the services.

(3) A district's board of trustees, by adoption of an appropriate resolution, may choose to have the ~~Ohio~~ state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation ~~board~~ services license any emergency medical service organization the district operates. If a board adopts such a resolution, Chapter 4766. of the Revised Code, except for sections 4766.06 and 4766.99 of the Revised Code, applies to the district emergency medical service organization. All rules adopted under the applicable sections of that chapter also apply to the organization. A board, by adoption of an appropriate resolution, may remove the district emergency medical service organization from the jurisdiction of the ~~Ohio~~ state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation ~~board~~ services.

(C) Ambulance services or emergency medical services rendered for a joint ambulance district under this section and section 505.71 of the Revised Code shall be deemed services of the district. These sections do not authorize suits against a district or any township or municipal corporation providing or receiving, or contracting to provide or receive, such services under these sections for damages for injury or loss to persons or property or for wrongful death caused by persons providing such services.

(1) "Adjusted federal taxable income" means a C corporation's federal taxable income before net operating losses and special deductions as determined under the Internal Revenue Code, adjusted as follows:

(a) Deduct intangible income to the extent included in federal taxable income. The deduction shall be allowed regardless of whether the intangible income relates to assets used in a trade or business or assets held for the production of income.

(b) Add an amount equal to five per cent of intangible income deducted under division (A)(1)(a) of this section, but excluding that portion of intangible income directly related to the sale, exchange, or other disposition of property described in section 1221 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(c) Add any losses allowed as a deduction in the computation of federal taxable income if the losses directly relate to the sale, exchange, or other disposition of an asset described in section 1221 or 1231 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(d)(i) Except as provided in division (A)(1)(d)(ii) of this section, deduct income and gain included in federal taxable income to the extent the income and gain directly relate to the sale, exchange, or other disposition of an asset described in section 1221 or 1231 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(ii) Division (A)(1)(d)(i) of this section does not apply to the extent the income or gain is income or gain described in section 1245 or 1250 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(e) Add taxes on or measured by net income allowed as a deduction in the computation of federal taxable income;

(f) In the case of a real estate investment trust and regulated investment company, add all amounts with respect to dividends to, distributions to, or amounts set aside for or credited to the benefit of investors and allowed as a deduction in the computation of federal taxable income;

(g) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded in computing federal taxable income, any income ~~derived from providing public services under a contract through a project owned by the state, as described in section 126.604 of the Revised Code or~~ derived from a transfer agreement or from the enterprise transferred under that agreement under section 4313.02 of the Revised Code.

If the taxpayer is not a C corporation and is not an individual, the taxpayer shall compute adjusted federal taxable income as if the taxpayer were a C corporation, except guaranteed payments and other similar amounts paid or accrued to a partner, former partner, member, or former member shall not be allowed as a deductible expense; amounts paid or accrued to a qualified self-employed retirement plan with respect to an owner or owner-employee of the taxpayer, amounts paid or accrued to or for health insurance for an owner or owner-employee, and amounts paid or accrued to or for life insurance for an owner or owner-employee shall not be allowed as a deduction.

Nothing in division (A)(1) of this section shall be construed as allowing the taxpayer to add or deduct any amount more than once or shall be construed as allowing any taxpayer to deduct any amount paid to or accrued for purposes of federal self-employment tax.

Nothing in this chapter shall be construed as limiting or removing the ability of any municipal corporation to administer, audit, and enforce the provisions of its municipal income tax.

(2) "Internal Revenue Code" means the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 1, as amended.

(3) "Schedule C" means internal revenue service schedule C filed by a taxpayer pursuant to the Internal Revenue Code.

(4) "Form 2106" means internal revenue service form 2106 filed by a taxpayer pursuant to the Internal Revenue Code.

(5) "Intangible income" means income of any of the following types: income yield, interest, capital gains, dividends, or other income arising from the ownership, sale, exchange, or other disposition of intangible property including, but not limited to, investments, deposits, money, or credits as those terms are defined in Chapter 5701. of the Revised Code, and patents, copyrights, trademarks, tradenames, investments in real estate investment trusts, investments in regulated investment companies, and appreciation on deferred compensation. "Intangible income" does not include prizes, awards, or other income associated with any lottery winnings or other similar games of chance.

(6) "S corporation" means a corporation that has made an election under subchapter S of Chapter 1 of Subtitle A of the Internal Revenue Code for its taxable year.

(7) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2004, "net profit" for a taxpayer other than an individual means adjusted federal taxable income and "net profit" for a taxpayer who is an individual means the individual's profit required to be reported on schedule C, schedule E, or schedule F, other than any amount allowed as a deduction under division (E)(2) or (3) of this section or amounts described in division (H) of this section.

(8) "Taxpayer" means a person subject to a tax on income levied by a municipal corporation. Except as provided in division (L) of this section, "taxpayer" does not include any person that is a disregarded entity or a qualifying subchapter S subsidiary for federal income tax purposes, but "taxpayer" includes any other person who owns the disregarded entity or qualifying subchapter S subsidiary.

(9) "Taxable year" means the corresponding tax reporting period as prescribed for the taxpayer under the Internal Revenue Code.

(10) "Tax administrator" means the individual charged with direct responsibility for administration of a tax on income levied by a municipal corporation and includes:

(a) The central collection agency and the regional income tax agency and their successors in interest, and other entities organized to perform functions similar to those performed by the central collection agency and the regional income tax agency;

(b) A municipal corporation acting as the agent of another municipal corporation; and

(c) Persons retained by a municipal corporation to administer a tax levied by the municipal corporation, but only if the municipal corporation does not compensate the person in whole or in part on a contingency basis.

(11) "Person" includes individuals, firms, companies, business trusts, estates, trusts, partnerships, limited liability companies, associations, corporations, governmental entities, and any other entity.

(12) "Schedule E" means internal revenue service schedule E filed by a taxpayer pursuant to the Internal Revenue Code.

(13) "Schedule F" means internal revenue service schedule F filed by a taxpayer pursuant to the Internal Revenue Code.

(C) No municipal corporation shall levy a tax on income at a rate in excess of one per cent without having obtained the approval of the excess by a majority of the electors of the municipality voting on the question at a general, primary, or special election. The legislative authority of the municipal corporation shall file with the board of elections at least ninety days before the day of the election a copy of the ordinance together with a resolution specifying the date the election is to be held and directing the board of elections to conduct the election. The ballot shall be in the following form: "Shall the Ordinance providing for a ... per cent levy on income for (Brief description of the purpose of the proposed levy) be passed?

In the event of an affirmative vote, the proceeds of the levy may be used only for the specified purpose.

(D)(1) Except as otherwise provided in this section, no municipal corporation shall exempt from a tax on income compensation for personal services of individuals over eighteen years of age or the net profit from a business or profession.

(2)(a) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2004, no municipal corporation shall tax the net profit from a business or profession using any base other than the taxpayer's adjusted federal taxable income.

(b) Division (D)(2)(a) of this section does not apply to any taxpayer required to file a return under section 5745.03 of the Revised Code or to the net profit from a sole proprietorship.

(E)(1) The legislative authority of a municipal corporation may, by ordinance or resolution, exempt from withholding and from a tax on income the following:

(a) Compensation arising from the sale, exchange, or other disposition of a stock option, the exercise of a stock option, or the sale, exchange, or other disposition of stock purchased under a stock option; or

(b) Compensation attributable to a nonqualified deferred compensation plan or program described in section 3121(v)(2)(C) of the Internal Revenue Code.

(2) The legislative authority of a municipal corporation may adopt an ordinance or resolution that allows a taxpayer who is an individual to deduct, in computing the taxpayer's municipal income tax liability, an amount equal to the aggregate amount the taxpayer paid in cash during the taxable year to a health savings account of the taxpayer, to the extent the taxpayer is entitled to deduct that amount on internal revenue service form 1040.

(3) The legislative authority of a municipal corporation may adopt an ordinance or resolution that allows a taxpayer who has a net profit from a business or profession that is operated as a sole proprietorship to deduct from that net profit the amount that the taxpayer paid during the taxable year for medical care insurance premiums for the taxpayer, the taxpayer's spouse, and dependents as defined in section 5747.01 of the Revised Code. The deduction shall be allowed to the same extent the taxpayer is entitled to deduct the premiums on internal revenue service form 1040. The deduction allowed under this division shall be net of any related premium refunds, related premium reimbursements, or related insurance premium dividends received by the taxpayer during the taxable year.

(F) If an individual's taxable income includes income against which the taxpayer has taken a deduction for federal income tax purposes as reportable on the taxpayer's form 2106, and against which a like deduction has not been allowed by the municipal corporation, the municipal corporation shall deduct from the taxpayer's taxable income an amount equal to the deduction shown on such form allowable against such income, to the extent not otherwise so allowed as a deduction by the municipal corporation.

(G)(1) In the case of a taxpayer who has a net profit from a business or profession that is operated as a sole proprietorship, no municipal corporation may tax or use as the base for determining the amount of the net profit that shall be considered as having a taxable situs in the municipal corporation, an amount other than the net profit required to be reported by the taxpayer on schedule C or F from such sole proprietorship for the taxable year.

(2) In the case of a taxpayer who has a net profit from rental activity required to be reported on schedule E, no municipal corporation may tax or use as the base for determining the amount of the net profit that shall be considered as having a taxable situs in the municipal corporation, an amount other than the net profit from rental activities required to be reported by the taxpayer on schedule E for the taxable year.

(1) The military pay or allowances of members of the armed forces of the United States and of members of their reserve components, including the Ohio national guard;

(2) The income of religious, fraternal, charitable, scientific, literary, or educational institutions to the extent that such income is derived from tax-exempt real estate, tax-exempt tangible or intangible property, or tax-exempt activities;

(3) Except as otherwise provided in division (I) of this section, intangible income;

(4) Compensation paid under section 3501.28 or 3501.36 of the Revised Code to a person serving as a precinct election official, to the extent that such compensation does not exceed one thousand dollars annually. Such compensation in excess of one thousand dollars may be subjected to taxation by a municipal corporation. A municipal corporation shall not require the payer of such compensation to withhold any tax from that compensation.

(5) Compensation paid to an employee of a transit authority, regional transit authority, or regional transit commission created under Chapter 306. of the Revised Code for operating a transit bus or other motor vehicle for the authority or commission in or through the municipal corporation, unless the bus or vehicle is operated on a regularly scheduled route, the operator is subject to such a tax by reason of residence or domicile in the municipal corporation, or the headquarters of the authority or commission is located within the municipal corporation;

(6) The income of a public utility, when that public utility is subject to the tax levied under section 5727.24 or 5727.30 of the Revised Code, except a municipal corporation may tax the following, subject to Chapter 5745. of the Revised Code:

(a) Beginning January 1, 2002, the income of an electric company or combined company;

As used in division (H)(6) of this section, "combined company," "electric company," and "telephone company" have the same meanings as in section 5727.01 of the Revised Code.

(7) On and after January 1, 2003, items excluded from federal gross income pursuant to section 107 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(8) On and after January 1, 2001, compensation paid to a nonresident individual to the extent prohibited under section 718.011 of the Revised Code;

(9)(a) Except as provided in ~~division~~ divisions (H)(9)(b) and (c) of this section, an S corporation shareholder's distributive share of net profits of the S corporation, other than any part of the distributive share of net profits that represents wages as defined in section 3121(a) of the Internal Revenue Code or net earnings from self-employment as defined in section 1402(a) of the Internal Revenue Code.

(b) If, pursuant to division (H) of former section 718.01 of the Revised Code as it existed before March 11, 2004, a majority of the electors of a municipal corporation voted in favor of the question at an election held on November 4, 2003, the municipal corporation may continue after 2002 to tax an S corporation shareholder's distributive share of net profits of an S corporation.

(c) If, on December 6, 2002, a municipal corporation was imposing, assessing, and collecting a tax on an S corporation shareholder's distributive share of net profits of the S corporation to the extent the distributive share would be allocated or apportioned to this state under divisions (B)(1) and (2) of section 5733.05 of the Revised Code if the S corporation were a corporation subject to taxes imposed under Chapter 5733. of the Revised Code, the municipal corporation may continue to impose the tax on such distributive shares to the extent such shares would be so allocated or apportioned to this state only until December 31, 2004, unless a majority of the electors of the municipal corporation voting on the question of continuing to tax such shares after that date vote in favor of that question at an election held November 2, 2004. If a majority of those electors vote in favor of the question, the municipal corporation may continue after December 31, 2004, to impose the tax on such distributive shares only to the extent such shares would be so allocated or apportioned to this state.

(d) For the purposes of division (D) of section 718.14 of the Revised Code, a municipal corporation shall be deemed to have elected to tax S corporation shareholders' distributive shares of net profits of the S corporation in the hands of the shareholders if a majority of the electors of a municipal corporation vote in favor of a question at an election held under division (H)(9)(b) or (c) of this section. The municipal corporation shall specify by ordinance or rule that the tax applies to the distributive share of a shareholder of an S corporation in the hands of the shareholder of the S corporation.

(10) Employee compensation that is not "qualifying wages" as defined in section 718.03 of the Revised Code;

(11) Beginning August 1, 2007, compensation paid to a person employed within the boundaries of a United States air force base under the jurisdiction of the United States air force that is used for the housing of members of the United States air force and is a center for air force operations, unless the person is subject to taxation because of residence or domicile. If the compensation is subject to taxation because of residence or domicile, municipal income tax shall be payable only to the municipal corporation of residence or domicile.

(12) Compensation paid to a person for personal services performed for a political subdivision on property owned by the political subdivision, regardless of whether the compensation is received by an employee of the subdivision or another person performing services for the subdivision under a contract with the subdivision, if the property on which services are performed is annexed to a municipal corporation pursuant to section 709.023 of the Revised Code on or after ~~the effective date of the amendment of this section~~ March 27, 2013, unless the person is subject to such taxation because of residence or domicile. If the compensation is subject to taxation because of residence or domicile, municipal income tax shall be payable only to the municipal corporation of residence or domicile.

(I) Any municipal corporation that taxes any type of intangible income on March 29, 1988, pursuant to Section 3 of Amended Substitute Senate Bill No. 238 of the 116th general assembly, may continue to tax that type of income after 1988 if a majority of the electors of the municipal corporation voting on the question of whether to permit the taxation of that type of intangible income after 1988 vote in favor thereof at an election held on November 8, 1988.

(J) Nothing in this section or section 718.02 of the Revised Code shall authorize the levy of any tax on income that a municipal corporation is not authorized to levy under existing laws or shall require a municipal corporation to allow a deduction from taxable income for losses incurred from a sole proprietorship or partnership.

(K)(1) Nothing in this chapter prohibits a municipal corporation from allowing, by resolution or ordinance, a net operating loss carryforward.

(2) Nothing in this chapter requires a municipal corporation to allow a net operating loss carryforward.

(L)(1) A single member limited liability company that is a disregarded entity for federal tax purposes may elect to be a separate taxpayer from its single member in all Ohio municipal corporations in which it either filed as a separate taxpayer or did not file for its taxable year ending in 2003, if all of the following conditions are met:

(a) The limited liability company's single member is also a limited liability company;

(b) The limited liability company and its single member were formed and doing business in one or more Ohio municipal corporations for at least five years before January 1, 2004;

(c) Not later than December 31, 2004, the limited liability company and its single member each make an election to be treated as a separate taxpayer under division (L) of this section;

(d) The limited liability company was not formed for the purpose of evading or reducing Ohio municipal corporation income tax liability of the limited liability company or its single member;

(e) The Ohio municipal corporation that is the primary place of business of the sole member of the limited liability company consents to the election.

(2) For purposes of division (L)(1)(e) of this section, a municipal corporation is the primary place of business of a limited liability company if, for the limited liability company's taxable year ending in 2003, its income tax liability is greater in that municipal corporation than in any other municipal corporation in Ohio, and that tax liability to that municipal corporation for its taxable year ending in 2003 is at least four hundred thousand dollars.

Sec. 2913.01. As used in this chapter, unless the context requires that a term be given a different meaning:

(A) "Deception" means knowingly deceiving another or causing another to be deceived by any false or misleading representation, by withholding information, by preventing another from acquiring information, or by any other conduct, act, or omission that creates, confirms, or perpetuates a false impression in another, including a false impression as to law, value, state of mind, or other objective or subjective fact.

(B) "Defraud" means to knowingly obtain, by deception, some benefit for oneself or another, or to knowingly cause, by deception, some detriment to another.

(1) Withhold property of another permanently, or for a period that appropriates a substantial portion of its value or use, or with purpose to restore it only upon payment of a reward or other consideration;

(2) Dispose of property so as to make it unlikely that the owner will recover it;

(3) Accept, use, or appropriate money, property, or services, with purpose not to give proper consideration in return for the money, property, or services, and without reasonable justification or excuse for not giving proper consideration.

(D) "Owner" means, unless the context requires a different meaning, any person, other than the actor, who is the owner of, who has possession or control of, or who has any license or interest in property or services, even though the ownership, possession, control, license, or interest is unlawful.

(E) "Services" include labor, personal services, professional services, rental services, public utility services including wireless service as defined in division (F)(1) of section 5507.01 of the Revised Code, common carrier services, and food, drink, transportation, entertainment, and cable television services and, for purposes of section 2913.04 of the Revised Code, include cable services as defined in that section.

(F) "Writing" means any computer software, document, letter, memorandum, note, paper, plate, data, film, or other thing having in or upon it any written, typewritten, or printed matter, and any token, stamp, seal, credit card, badge, trademark, label, or other symbol of value, right, privilege, license, or identification.

(G) "Forge" means to fabricate or create, in whole or in part and by any means, any spurious writing, or to make, execute, alter, complete, reproduce, or otherwise purport to authenticate any writing, when the writing in fact is not authenticated by that conduct.

(H) "Utter" means to issue, publish, transfer, use, put or send into circulation, deliver, or display.

(I) "Coin machine" means any mechanical or electronic device designed to do both of the following:

(2) In return for the insertion or deposit of a coin, bill, or token, automatically dispense property, provide a service, or grant a license.

(J) "Slug" means an object that, by virtue of its size, shape, composition, or other quality, is capable of being inserted or deposited in a coin machine as an improper substitute for a genuine coin, bill, or token made for that purpose.

(1) A violation of section 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2911.31, 2911.32, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.041, 2913.05, 2913.06, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 2913.33, 2913.34, 2913.40, 2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 2913.45, 2913.47, 2913.48, former section 2913.47 or 2913.48, or section 2913.51, 2915.05, or 2921.41~~, or division (B)(2) of section 4737.04~~ of the Revised Code;

(2) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this or any other state, or of the United States, substantially equivalent to any section listed in division (K)(1) of this section or a violation of section 2913.41, 2913.81, or 2915.06 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996;

(3) An offense under an existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this or any other state, or of the United States, involving robbery, burglary, breaking and entering, theft, embezzlement, wrongful conversion, forgery, counterfeiting, deceit, or fraud;

(4) A conspiracy or attempt to commit, or complicity in committing, any offense under division (K)(1), (2), or (3) of this section.

(L) "Computer services" includes, but is not limited to, the use of a computer system, computer network, computer program, data that is prepared for computer use, or data that is contained within a computer system or computer network.

(M) "Computer" means an electronic device that performs logical, arithmetic, and memory functions by the manipulation of electronic or magnetic impulses. "Computer" includes, but is not limited to, all input, output, processing, storage, computer program, or communication facilities that are connected, or related, in a computer system or network to an electronic device of that nature.

(N) "Computer system" means a computer and related devices, whether connected or unconnected, including, but not limited to, data input, output, and storage devices, data communications links, and computer programs and data that make the system capable of performing specified special purpose data processing tasks.

(O) "Computer network" means a set of related and remotely connected computers and communication facilities that includes more than one computer system that has the capability to transmit among the connected computers and communication facilities through the use of computer facilities.

(P) "Computer program" means an ordered set of data representing coded instructions or statements that, when executed by a computer, cause the computer to process data.

(Q) "Computer software" means computer programs, procedures, and other documentation associated with the operation of a computer system.

(R) "Data" means a representation of information, knowledge, facts, concepts, or instructions that are being or have been prepared in a formalized manner and that are intended for use in a computer, computer system, or computer network. For purposes of section 2913.47 of the Revised Code, "data" has the additional meaning set forth in division (A) of that section.

(S) "Cable television service" means any services provided by or through the facilities of any cable television system or other similar closed circuit coaxial cable communications system, or any microwave or similar transmission service used in connection with any cable television system or other similar closed circuit coaxial cable communications system.

(T) "Gain access" means to approach, instruct, communicate with, store data in, retrieve data from, or otherwise make use of any resources of a computer, computer system, or computer network, or any cable service or cable system both as defined in section 2913.04 of the Revised Code.

(U) "Credit card" includes, but is not limited to, a card, code, device, or other means of access to a customer's account for the purpose of obtaining money, property, labor, or services on credit, or for initiating an electronic fund transfer at a point-of-sale terminal, an automated teller machine, or a cash dispensing machine. It also includes a county procurement card issued under section 301.29 of the Revised Code.

(V) "Electronic fund transfer" has the same meaning as in 92 Stat. 3728, 15 U.S.C.A. 1693a, as amended.

(W) "Rented property" means personal property in which the right of possession and use of the property is for a short and possibly indeterminate term in return for consideration; the rentee generally controls the duration of possession of the property, within any applicable minimum or maximum term; and the amount of consideration generally is determined by the duration of possession of the property.

(X) "Telecommunication" means the origination, emission, dissemination, transmission, or reception of data, images, signals, sounds, or other intelligence or equivalence of intelligence of any nature over any communications system by any method, including, but not limited to, a fiber optic, electronic, magnetic, optical, digital, or analog method.

(Y) "Telecommunications device" means any instrument, equipment, machine, or other device that facilitates telecommunication, including, but not limited to, a computer, computer network, computer chip, computer circuit, scanner, telephone, cellular telephone, pager, personal communications device, transponder, receiver, radio, modem, or device that enables the use of a modem.

(Z) "Telecommunications service" means the providing, allowing, facilitating, or generating of any form of telecommunication through the use of a telecommunications device over a telecommunications system.

(AA) "Counterfeit telecommunications device" means a telecommunications device that, alone or with another telecommunications device, has been altered, constructed, manufactured, or programmed to acquire, intercept, receive, or otherwise facilitate the use of a telecommunications service or information service without the authority or consent of the provider of the telecommunications service or information service. "Counterfeit telecommunications device" includes, but is not limited to, a clone telephone, clone microchip, tumbler telephone, or tumbler microchip; a wireless scanning device capable of acquiring, intercepting, receiving, or otherwise facilitating the use of telecommunications service or information service without immediate detection; or a device, equipment, hardware, or software designed for, or capable of, altering or changing the electronic serial number in a wireless telephone.

(BB)(1) "Information service" means, subject to division (BB)(2) of this section, the offering of a capability for generating, acquiring, storing, transforming, processing, retrieving, utilizing, or making available information via telecommunications, including, but not limited to, electronic publishing.

(2) "Information service" does not include any use of a capability of a type described in division (BB)(1) of this section for the management, control, or operation of a telecommunications system or the management of a telecommunications service.

(DD) "Disabled adult" means a person who is eighteen years of age or older and has some impairment of body or mind that makes the person unable to work at any substantially remunerative employment that the person otherwise would be able to perform and that will, with reasonable probability, continue for a period of at least twelve months without any present indication of recovery from the impairment, or who is eighteen years of age or older and has been certified as permanently and totally disabled by an agency of this state or the United States that has the function of so classifying persons.

(EE) "Firearm" and "dangerous ordnance" have the same meanings as in section 2923.11 of the Revised Code.

(FF) "Motor vehicle" has the same meaning as in section 4501.01 of the Revised Code.

(GG) "Dangerous drug" has the same meaning as in section 4729.01 of the Revised Code.

(HH) "Drug abuse offense" has the same meaning as in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.

(a) Gaining access or attempting to gain access to all or part of a computer, computer system, or a computer network without express or implied authorization with the intent to defraud or with intent to commit a crime;

(b) Misusing computer or network services including, but not limited to, mail transfer programs, file transfer programs, proxy servers, and web servers by performing functions not authorized by the owner of the computer, computer system, or computer network or other person authorized to give consent. As used in this division, "misuse of computer and network services" includes, but is not limited to, the unauthorized use of any of the following:

(i) Mail transfer programs to send mail to persons other than the authorized users of that computer or computer network;

(ii) File transfer program proxy services or proxy servers to access other computers, computer systems, or computer networks;

(c)(i) Subject to division (II)(1)(c)(ii) of this section, using a group of computer programs commonly known as "port scanners" or "probes" to intentionally access any computer, computer system, or computer network without the permission of the owner of the computer, computer system, or computer network or other person authorized to give consent. The group of computer programs referred to in this division includes, but is not limited to, those computer programs that use a computer network to access a computer, computer system, or another computer network to determine any of the following: the presence or types of computers or computer systems on a network; the computer network's facilities and capabilities; the availability of computer or network services; the presence or versions of computer software including, but not limited to, operating systems, computer services, or computer contaminants; the presence of a known computer software deficiency that can be used to gain unauthorized access to a computer, computer system, or computer network; or any other information about a computer, computer system, or computer network not necessary for the normal and lawful operation of the computer initiating the access.

(ii) The group of computer programs referred to in division (II)(1)(c)(i) of this section does not include standard computer software used for the normal operation, administration, management, and test of a computer, computer system, or computer network including, but not limited to, domain name services, mail transfer services, and other operating system services, computer programs commonly called "ping," "tcpdump," and "traceroute" and other network monitoring and management computer software, and computer programs commonly known as "nslookup" and "whois" and other systems administration computer software.

(d) The intentional use of a computer, computer system, or a computer network in a manner that exceeds any right or permission granted by the owner of the computer, computer system, or computer network or other person authorized to give consent.

(2) "Computer hacking" does not include the introduction of a computer contaminant, as defined in section 2909.01 of the Revised Code, into a computer, computer system, computer program, or computer network.

(JJ) "Police dog or horse" has the same meaning as in section 2921.321 of the Revised Code.

(KK) "Anhydrous ammonia" is a compound formed by the combination of two gaseous elements, nitrogen and hydrogen, in the manner described in this division. Anhydrous ammonia is one part nitrogen to three parts hydrogen (NH3). Anhydrous ammonia by weight is fourteen parts nitrogen to three parts hydrogen, which is approximately eighty-two per cent nitrogen to eighteen per cent hydrogen.

(LL) "Assistance dog" has the same meaning as in section 955.011 of the Revised Code.

(MM) "Federally licensed firearms dealer" has the same meaning as in section 5502.63 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 2913.02. (A) No person, with purpose to deprive the owner of property or services, shall knowingly obtain or exert control over either the property or services in any of the following ways:

(2) Beyond the scope of the express or implied consent of the owner or person authorized to give consent;

(2) Except as otherwise provided in this division or division (B)(3), (4), (5), (6), (7), or (8), or (9) of this section, a violation of this section is petty theft, a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the value of the property or services stolen is one thousand dollars or more and is less than seven thousand five hundred dollars or if the property stolen is any of the property listed in section 2913.71 of the Revised Code, a violation of this section is theft, a felony of the fifth degree. If the value of the property or services stolen is seven thousand five hundred dollars or more and is less than one hundred fifty thousand dollars, a violation of this section is grand theft, a felony of the fourth degree. If the value of the property or services stolen is one hundred fifty thousand dollars or more and is less than seven hundred fifty thousand dollars, a violation of this section is aggravated theft, a felony of the third degree. If the value of the property or services is seven hundred fifty thousand dollars or more and is less than one million five hundred thousand dollars, a violation of this section is aggravated theft, a felony of the second degree. If the value of the property or services stolen is one million five hundred thousand dollars or more, a violation of this section is aggravated theft of one million five hundred thousand dollars or more, a felony of the first degree.

(3) Except as otherwise provided in division (B)(4), (5), (6), (7), or (8), or (9) of this section, if the victim of the offense is an elderly person or disabled adult, a violation of this section is theft from an elderly person or disabled adult, and division (B)(3) of this section applies. Except as otherwise provided in this division, theft from an elderly person or disabled adult is a felony of the fifth degree. If the value of the property or services stolen is one thousand dollars or more and is less than seven thousand five hundred dollars, theft from an elderly person or disabled adult is a felony of the fourth degree. If the value of the property or services stolen is seven thousand five hundred dollars or more and is less than thirty-seven thousand five hundred dollars, theft from an elderly person or disabled adult is a felony of the third degree. If the value of the property or services stolen is thirty-seven thousand five hundred dollars or more and is less than one hundred fifty thousand dollars, theft from an elderly person or disabled adult is a felony of the second degree. If the value of the property or services stolen is one hundred fifty thousand dollars or more, theft from an elderly person or disabled adult is a felony of the first degree.

(4) If the property stolen is a firearm or dangerous ordnance, a violation of this section is grand theft. Except as otherwise provided in this division, grand theft when the property stolen is a firearm or dangerous ordnance is a felony of the third degree, and there is a presumption in favor of the court imposing a prison term for the offense. If the firearm or dangerous ordnance was stolen from a federally licensed firearms dealer, grand theft when the property stolen is a firearm or dangerous ordnance is a felony of the first degree. The offender shall serve a prison term imposed for grand theft when the property stolen is a firearm or dangerous ordnance consecutively to any other prison term or mandatory prison term previously or subsequently imposed upon the offender.

(5) If the property stolen is a motor vehicle, a violation of this section is grand theft of a motor vehicle, a felony of the fourth degree.

(6) If the property stolen is any dangerous drug, a violation of this section is theft of drugs, a felony of the fourth degree, or, if the offender previously has been convicted of a felony drug abuse offense, a felony of the third degree.

(7) If the property stolen is a police dog or horse or an assistance dog and the offender knows or should know that the property stolen is a police dog or horse or an assistance dog, a violation of this section is theft of a police dog or horse or an assistance dog, a felony of the third degree.

(8) If the property stolen is anhydrous ammonia, a violation of this section is theft of anhydrous ammonia, a felony of the third degree.

(9) Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this section with respect to property with a value of seven thousand five hundred dollars or more and division (B)(3) of this section with respect to property with a value of one thousand dollars or more, if the property stolen is a special purpose article as defined in section 4737.04 of the Revised Code or is a bulk merchandise container as defined in section 4737.012 of the Revised Code, a violation of this section is theft of a special purpose article or articles or theft of a bulk merchandise container or containers, a felony of the fifth degree.

(10) In addition to the penalties described in division (B)(2) of this section, if the offender committed the violation by causing a motor vehicle to leave the premises of an establishment at which gasoline is offered for retail sale without the offender making full payment for gasoline that was dispensed into the fuel tank of the motor vehicle or into another container, the court may do one of the following:

(a) Unless division (B)~~(9)~~(10)(b) of this section applies, suspend for not more than six months the offender's driver's license, probationary driver's license, commercial driver's license, temporary instruction permit, or nonresident operating privilege;

(b) If the offender's driver's license, probationary driver's license, commercial driver's license, temporary instruction permit, or nonresident operating privilege has previously been suspended pursuant to division (B)~~(9)~~(10)(a) of this section, impose a class seven suspension of the offender's license, permit, or privilege from the range specified in division (A)(7) of section 4510.02 of the Revised Code, provided that the suspension shall be for at least six months.

(c) The court, in lieu of suspending the offender's driver's or commercial driver's license, probationary driver's license, temporary instruction permit, or nonresident operating privilege pursuant to division (B)~~(9)~~(10)(a) or (b) of this section, instead may require the offender to perform community service for a number of hours determined by the court.

~~(10)~~(11) In addition to the penalties described in division (B)(2) of this section, if the offender committed the violation by stealing rented property or rental services, the court may order that the offender make restitution pursuant to section 2929.18 or 2929.28 of the Revised Code. Restitution may include, but is not limited to, the cost of repairing or replacing the stolen property, or the cost of repairing the stolen property and any loss of revenue resulting from deprivation of the property due to theft of rental services that is less than or equal to the actual value of the property at the time it was rented. Evidence of intent to commit theft of rented property or rental services shall be determined pursuant to the provisions of section 2913.72 of the Revised Code.

(C) The sentencing court that suspends an offender's license, permit, or nonresident operating privilege under division (B)~~(9)~~(10) of this section may grant the offender limited driving privileges during the period of the suspension in accordance with Chapter 4510. of the Revised Code.

Sec. 2913.51. (A) No person shall receive, retain, or dispose of property of another knowing or having reasonable cause to believe that the property has been obtained through commission of a theft offense.

(B) It is not a defense to a charge of receiving stolen property in violation of this section that the property was obtained by means other than through the commission of a theft offense if the property was explicitly represented to the accused person as being obtained through the commission of a theft offense.

(C) Whoever violates this section is guilty of receiving stolen property. Except as otherwise provided in this division or division (D) of this section, receiving stolen property is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the value of the property involved is one thousand dollars or more and is less than seven thousand five hundred dollars, if the property involved is any of the property listed in section 2913.71 of the Revised Code, receiving stolen property is a felony of the fifth degree. If the property involved is a motor vehicle, as defined in section 4501.01 of the Revised Code, if the property involved is a dangerous drug, as defined in section 4729.01 of the Revised Code, if the value of the property involved is seven thousand five hundred dollars or more and is less than one hundred fifty thousand dollars, or if the property involved is a firearm or dangerous ordnance, as defined in section 2923.11 of the Revised Code, receiving stolen property is a felony of the fourth degree. If the value of the property involved is one hundred fifty thousand dollars or more, receiving stolen property is a felony of the third degree.

(D) Except as provided in division (C) of this section with respect to property involved in a violation of this section with a value of seven thousand five hundred dollars or more, if the property involved in violation of this section is a special purchase article as defined in section 4737.04 of the Revised Code or a bulk merchandise container as defined in section 4737.012 of the Revised Code, a violation of this section is receiving a stolen special purchase article or articles or receiving a stolen bulk merchandise container or containers, a felony of the fifth degree.

Sec. 2937.221. (A) A person arrested without warrant for any violation listed in division (B) of this section, and having a current valid Ohio driver's or commercial driver's license, if the person has been notified of the possible consequences of the person's actions as required by division (C) of this section, may post bond by depositing the license with the arresting officer if the officer and person so choose, or with the local court having jurisdiction if the court and person so choose. The license may be used as bond only during the period for which it is valid.

When an arresting officer accepts the driver's or commercial driver's license as bond, the officer shall note the date, time, and place of the court appearance on "the violator's notice to appear," and the notice shall serve as a valid Ohio driver's or commercial driver's license until the date and time appearing thereon. The arresting officer immediately shall forward the license to the appropriate court.

When a local court accepts the license as bond or continues the case to another date and time, it shall provide the person with a card in a form approved by the registrar of motor vehicles setting forth the license number, name, address, the date and time of the court appearance, and a statement that the license is being held as bond. The card shall serve as a valid license until the date and time contained in the card.

The court may accept other bond at any time and return the license to the person. The court shall return the license to the person when judgment is satisfied, including, but not limited to, compliance with any court orders, unless a suspension or cancellation is part of the penalty imposed.

Neither "the violator's notice to appear" nor a court- granted card shall continue driving privileges beyond the expiration date of the license.

If the person arrested fails to appear in court at the date and time set by the court or fails to satisfy the judgment of the court, including, but not limited to, compliance with all court orders within the time allowed by the court, the court may declare the forfeiture of the person's license. Thirty days after the declaration of the forfeiture, the court shall forward the person's license to the registrar. The court also shall enter information relative to the forfeiture on a form approved and furnished by the registrar and send the form to the registrar. The registrar shall suspend the person's license and send written notification of the suspension to the person at the person's last known address. No valid driver's or commercial driver's license shall be granted to the person until the court having jurisdiction orders that the forfeiture be terminated. The court shall inform the registrar of the termination of the forfeiture by entering information relative to the termination on a form approved and furnished by the registrar and sending the form to the registrar. Upon the termination, the person shall pay to the bureau of motor vehicles a reinstatement fee of fifteen dollars to cover the costs of the bureau in administering this section. The registrar shall deposit the fees so paid into the state bureau of motor vehicles fund created by section 4501.25 of the Revised Code.

In addition, upon receipt from the court of the copy of the declaration of forfeiture, neither the registrar nor any deputy registrar shall accept any application for the registration or transfer of registration of any motor vehicle owned by or leased in the name of the person named in the declaration of forfeiture until the court having jurisdiction over the offense that led to the suspension issues an order terminating the forfeiture. However, for a motor vehicle leased in the name of a person named in a declaration of forfeiture, the registrar shall not implement the preceding sentence until the registrar adopts procedures for that implementation under section 4503.39 of the Revised Code. Upon receipt by the registrar of such an order, the registrar also shall take the measures necessary to permit the person to register a motor vehicle the person owns or leases or to transfer the registration of a motor vehicle the person owns or leases if the person later makes a proper application and otherwise is eligible to be issued or to transfer a motor vehicle registration.

(1) Any of the provisions of Chapter 4511. or 4513. of the Revised Code, except sections 4511.19, 4511.20, 4511.251, and 4513.36 of the Revised Code;

(2) Any municipal ordinance substantially similar to a section included in division (B)(1) of this section;

(3) Any bylaw, rule, or regulation of the Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission substantially similar to a section included in division (B)(1) of this section.

Division (A) of this section does not apply to those persons issued a citation for the commission of a minor misdemeanor under section 2935.26 of the Revised Code.

(C) No license shall be accepted as bond by an arresting officer or by a court under this section until the officer or court has notified the person that, if the person deposits the license with the officer or court and either does not appear on the date and at the time set by the officer or the court, if the court sets a time, or does not satisfy any judgment rendered, including, but not limited to, compliance with all court orders, the license will be suspended, and the person will not be eligible for reissuance of the license or issuance of a new license, or the issuance of a certificate of registration for a motor vehicle owned or leased by the person until the person appears and complies with any order issued by the court. The person also is subject to any criminal penalties that may apply to the person.

(D) The registrar shall not restore the person's driving or vehicle registration privileges until the person pays the reinstatement fee as provided in this section.

Sec. 3354.13. The ownership of a community college created and established pursuant to provisions of sections 3354.02 and 3354.04 of the Revised Code, including all right, title, and interest in and to all property, both real and personal, pertaining thereto, shall be vested in the board of trustees of the community college district in which such college is situated, except as may be provided in a contract entered into under the authority of division (A) of section 3354.09 of the Revised Code. The board may acquire by appropriation any land, rights, rights of way, franchises, easements, or other property necessary or proper for the construction or the efficient operation of any facility of the community college district, pursuant to the procedure provided in section 5537.06 of the Revised Code, with respect to the Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission, and insofar as such procedure is applicable.

Any instrument by which real property is acquired pursuant to this section shall identify the agency of the state that has the use and benefit of the real property as specified in section 5301.012 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 3355.10. The ownership of the university branch campus, created and established pursuant to sections 3355.01 to 3355.14 of the Revised Code, including all right, title, and interest in and to all property, both real and personal, pertaining thereto, shall be vested in the managing authority of the university branch district. The board may acquire by appropriation any land, rights, rights of way, franchises, easements, or other property necessary or proper for the construction or the efficient operation of any facility of the university branch district, pursuant to section 5537.06 of the Revised Code, with respect to the Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission, and insofar as such procedure is applicable.

University branch district bonds, issued pursuant to section 3355.08 of the Revised Code, are lawful investments of banks, savings banks, trust companies, trustees, boards of trustees of sinking funds of municipal corporations, school districts, counties, the administrator of workers' compensation, the state teachers retirement system, the public employees retirement system, and the school employees retirement system, and also are acceptable as security for the deposit of public moneys.

Sec. 3357.12. The ownership of a technical college, created and established pursuant to section 3357.07 of the Revised Code, including all right, title, and interest in and to all property, both real and personal, pertaining thereto, shall be vested in the board of trustees of the technical college district in which such college is situated. The board may acquire by appropriation any land, rights, rights-of-way, franchises, easements, or other property necessary or proper for the construction or the efficient operation of any facility of the technical college district, pursuant to the procedure provided in section 5537.06 of the Revised Code, with respect to the Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission, and insofar as such procedure is applicable.

Sec. 3705.242. (A)(1) The director of health, a person authorized by the director, a local commissioner of health, or a local registrar of vital statistics shall charge and collect a fee of one dollar and fifty cents for each certified copy of a birth record, each certification of birth, and each copy of a death record. The fee is in addition to the fee imposed by section 3705.24 or any other section of the Revised Code. A local commissioner of health or local registrar of vital statistics may retain an amount of each additional fee collected, not to exceed three per cent of the amount of the additional fee, to be used for costs directly related to the collection of the fee and the forwarding of the fee to the department of health.

The additional fees collected by the director of health or a person authorized by the director and the additional fees collected but not retained by a local commissioner of health or a local registrar of vital statistics shall be forwarded to the department of health not later than thirty days following the end of each quarter. Not later than two days after the fees are forwarded to the department each quarter, the department shall pay the collected fees to the treasurer of state in accordance with rules adopted by the treasurer of state under section 113.08 of the Revised Code.

(2) On the filing of a divorce decree under section 3105.10 or a decree of dissolution under section 3105.65 of the Revised Code, a court of common pleas shall charge and collect a fee of five dollars and fifty cents. The fee is in addition to any other court costs or fees. The county clerk of courts may retain an amount of each additional fee collected, not to exceed three per cent of the amount of the additional fee, to be used for costs directly related to the collection of the fee and the forwarding of the fee to the treasurer of state. The additional fees collected, but not retained, under division (A)(2) of this section shall be forwarded to the treasurer of state not later than twenty days following the end of each month.

(B) The treasurer of state shall deposit the fees paid or forwarded under this section in the state treasury to the credit of the family violence prevention fund, which is hereby created. A person or government entity that fails to pay or forward the fees in ~~a timely~~ the manner~~, as determined by the treasurer of state~~ described in this section, shall send to the ~~treasurer of state, in addition to the fees,~~ department of public safety a penalty equal to ten per cent of the fees. The department of public safety shall forward all collected late fees to the treasurer of state for deposit into the family violence prevention fund in accordance with rules adopted by the treasurer of state under section 113.08 of the Revised Code.

The treasurer of state shall invest the moneys in the fund. All earnings resulting from investment of the fund shall be credited to the fund, except that actual administration costs incurred by the treasurer of state in administering the fund may be deducted from the earnings resulting from investments. The amount that may be deducted shall not exceed three per cent of the total amount of fees credited to the fund in each fiscal year. The balance of the investment earnings shall be credited to the fund.

(C) The director of public safety shall use money credited to the fund to provide grants to family violence shelters in Ohio and to operate the division of criminal justice services.

Sec. 3791.12. (A) As used in this section and section 3791.13 of the Revised Code:

(1) "Service station" means any facility designed and constructed primarily for use in the retail sale of gasoline, other petroleum products, and related accessories; except that "service station" does not include any such facility that has been converted for use for another bona fide business purpose, on and after the date of commencement of such other use.

(2) "Abandoned service station" means any service station that has not been used for the retail sale of gasoline, other petroleum products, and related accessories for a continuous period of six months, whenever failure to reasonably secure station buildings from ready access by unauthorized persons and to reasonably maintain the station's premises has resulted in conditions that endanger the public health, welfare, safety, or morals; provided, that such conditions include, but are not limited to, the presence of defective or deteriorated electrical wiring, heating apparatus, and gas connections, or of unprotected gasoline storage tanks, piping, and valves, or any combination of the foregoing; and provided further that the casual and intermittent use of a service station for the retail sale of any item described in division (A)(1) of this section during such six-month period shall not be held to prevent the station from being determined an abandoned service station if it meets the other qualifications of this division.

(B) The executive authority of each municipal corporation and the board of county commissioners of each county shall designate a suitable person to make inspections, within their respective territorial jurisdictions, of any service stations that are, or appear to be, no longer in use for the purposes described in division (A)(1) of this section ~~3791.11 of the Revised Code~~, or for any other bona fide business purpose. Inspections of service stations under this section shall be made at the order of the executive authority or board, or upon the complaint of any person claiming to be adversely affected by the condition of a service station. Any inspector designated under this section shall have the right to enter upon and inspect any service station that is, or appears to be, no longer in use as described in this section. No inspector, while in the lawful pursuit of official duties for such purpose, shall be subject to arrest for trespass while so engaged or for such cause thereafter.

~~(B)~~(C) Whenever an inspector, upon inspecting a service station as provided in this section, has reasonable cause to believe that it qualifies as an abandoned service station, the inspector shall prepare a written report of the condition of the station's buildings and premises. The report shall be filed immediately with the executive authority or board. Upon receipt of the report, the executive authority or board shall fix a place and time, not less than thirty days nor more than sixty days after receipt of the report, for a hearing to determine whether the service station is an abandoned service station. The executive authority or board shall send written notice of the place and date of the hearing, together with a copy of the inspector's report and information that the service station may be ordered repaired or removed if determined to be abandoned, to all persons listed in the ~~bond filed under division (C) of section 3791.11 of the Revised Code~~ records of the county recorder as an owner of the affected property, and to all persons listed in the records of the county recorder or county clerk of courts as holding a lien on the affected property. Such notice shall be sent by certified mail to the address shown on such records.

~~(C)~~(D) In hearing the matter and deciding the issue, the executive authority or board shall consider the testimony of any persons appearing pursuant to the notice or their authorized representatives, the testimony of any witnesses appearing on behalf of such persons, the inspector's report or testimony, or both, and any other evidence pertinent to the matter. If the executive authority or board thereupon determines that the service station is an abandoned service station in such condition as to constitute a danger to the public health, welfare, safety, or morals, it shall order the satisfactory repair, or removal, of the service station and its appurtenances, and restoration of the property, within such period of time, not less than thirty days, as the executive authority or board thereupon determines reasonable. Notice of the findings and order shall be sent to all persons required to be notified by division ~~(B)~~(C) of this section in the same manner as provided in that division.

~~(D)~~(E) If an abandoned service station is not satisfactorily repaired or removed within the period of time provided in an order made under division ~~(C)~~(D) of this section, the municipal corporation or county may enter the land and complete the repair, if repair was ordered, or remove the service station and its appurtenances, if removal was ordered, and restore the property.

~~(E)~~(F) Any person aggrieved by an order of an executive authority or board made under division ~~(C)~~(D) of this section, may appeal as provided in Chapter 2506. of the Revised Code within thirty days of the mailing of notice of the order.

~~(F)~~(G) In the event that no persons notified as provided in division ~~(B)~~(C) of this section, or their authorized representatives, appear at the hearing, respond to an order of the executive authority or board, or appeal within thirty days of the mailing of notice of the order as provided in division ~~(E)~~(F) of this section, the municipal corporation or county may proceed as provided in division ~~(D)~~(E) of this section.

Sec. 3791.13. (A) When a municipal corporation or county enters and repairs or removes an abandoned service station and its appurtenances and restores the property as provided in division ~~(D)~~(E) or ~~(F)~~(G) of section 3791.12 of the Revised Code, it may bring an action ~~on the bond filed pursuant to division (C) of section 3791.11 of the Revised Code~~ to recover the costs of repair or removal and restoration, plus the costs of the suit. ~~If the costs of repair or removal and restoration exceed the amount collected on the bond, the~~ The owner of the property and any lessee, other than a person leasing and operating the service station pursuant to a contract with a supplier of gasoline and other petroleum products, shall be jointly and severally liable for the ~~deficiency~~ costs.

(B) Sections ~~3791.11,~~ 3791.12, 3791.13 and 3791.99 of the Revised Code shall be an alternative remedy for the removal of abandoned service stations and shall not invalidate municipal ordinances regulating the use, requiring maintenance or repair, or providing for the removal of service stations.

Sec. 3791.99. (A) Whoever violates ~~division (B) of section 3791.11 or~~ division (D) of section 3791.21 of the Revised Code is guilty of a minor misdemeanor, and each day the violation continues constitutes a separate offense.

(B) Whoever violates this chapter or any rule adopted or order issued pursuant to it that relates to the construction, alteration, or repair of any building, and the violation is not detrimental to the health, safety, or welfare of any person, shall be fined not more than one hundred dollars.

(C) Whoever violates this chapter or any rule adopted or order issued pursuant to it that relates to the construction, alteration, or repair of any building, and the violation is detrimental to the health, safety, or welfare of any person, is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.

Sec. 4501.01. As used in this chapter and Chapters 4503., 4505., 4507., 4509., 4510., 4511., 4513., 4515., and 4517. of the Revised Code, and in the penal laws, except as otherwise provided:

(A) "Vehicles" means everything on wheels or runners, including motorized bicycles, but does not mean electric personal assistive mobility devices, vehicles that are operated exclusively on rails or tracks or from overhead electric trolley wires, and vehicles that belong to any police department, municipal fire department, or volunteer fire department, or that are used by such a department in the discharge of its functions.

(B) "Motor vehicle" means any vehicle, including mobile homes and recreational vehicles, that is propelled or drawn by power other than muscular power or power collected from overhead electric trolley wires. "Motor vehicle" does not include utility vehicles as defined in division (VV) of this section, motorized bicycles, road rollers, traction engines, power shovels, power cranes, and other equipment used in construction work and not designed for or employed in general highway transportation, well-drilling machinery, ditch-digging machinery, farm machinery, and trailers that are designed and used exclusively to transport a boat between a place of storage and a marina, or in and around a marina, when drawn or towed on a public road or highway for a distance of no more than ten miles and at a speed of twenty-five miles per hour or less.

(C) "Agricultural tractor" and "traction engine" mean any self-propelling vehicle that is designed or used for drawing other vehicles or wheeled machinery, but has no provisions for carrying loads independently of such other vehicles, and that is used principally for agricultural purposes.

(D) "Commercial tractor," except as defined in division (C) of this section, means any motor vehicle that has motive power and either is designed or used for drawing other motor vehicles, or is designed or used for drawing another motor vehicle while carrying a portion of the other motor vehicle or its load, or both.

(E) "Passenger car" means any motor vehicle that is designed and used for carrying not more than nine persons and includes any motor vehicle that is designed and used for carrying not more than fifteen persons in a ridesharing arrangement.

(F) "Collector's vehicle" means any motor vehicle or agricultural tractor or traction engine that is of special interest, that has a fair market value of one hundred dollars or more, whether operable or not, and that is owned, operated, collected, preserved, restored, maintained, or used essentially as a collector's item, leisure pursuit, or investment, but not as the owner's principal means of transportation. "Licensed collector's vehicle" means a collector's vehicle, other than an agricultural tractor or traction engine, that displays current, valid license tags issued under section 4503.45 of the Revised Code, or a similar type of motor vehicle that displays current, valid license tags issued under substantially equivalent provisions in the laws of other states.

(G) "Historical motor vehicle" means any motor vehicle that is over twenty-five years old and is owned solely as a collector's item and for participation in club activities, exhibitions, tours, parades, and similar uses, but that in no event is used for general transportation.

(H) "Noncommercial motor vehicle" means any motor vehicle, including a farm truck as defined in section 4503.04 of the Revised Code, that is designed by the manufacturer to carry a load of no more than one ton and is used exclusively for purposes other than engaging in business for profit.

(I) "Bus" means any motor vehicle that has motor power and is designed and used for carrying more than nine passengers, except any motor vehicle that is designed and used for carrying not more than fifteen passengers in a ridesharing arrangement.

(J) "Commercial car" or "truck" means any motor vehicle that has motor power and is designed and used for carrying merchandise or freight, or that is used as a commercial tractor.

(K) "Bicycle" means every device, other than a ~~tricycle~~ device that is designed solely for use as a play vehicle by a child, that is propelled solely by human power upon which ~~any~~ a person may ride, and that has two ~~tandem~~ or more wheels, ~~or one wheel in front and two wheels in the rear, or two wheels in the front and one wheel in the rear,~~ any of which is more than fourteen inches in diameter.

(L) "Motorized bicycle" means any vehicle that either has two tandem wheels or one wheel in the front and two wheels in the rear, that is capable of being pedaled, and that is equipped with a helper motor of not more than fifty cubic centimeters piston displacement that produces no more than one brake horsepower and is capable of propelling the vehicle at a speed of no greater than twenty miles per hour on a level surface.

(M) "Trailer" means any vehicle without motive power that is designed or used for carrying property or persons wholly on its own structure and for being drawn by a motor vehicle, and includes any such vehicle that is formed by or operated as a combination of a semitrailer and a vehicle of the dolly type such as that commonly known as a trailer dolly, a vehicle used to transport agricultural produce or agricultural production materials between a local place of storage or supply and the farm when drawn or towed on a public road or highway at a speed greater than twenty-five miles per hour, and a vehicle that is designed and used exclusively to transport a boat between a place of storage and a marina, or in and around a marina, when drawn or towed on a public road or highway for a distance of more than ten miles or at a speed of more than twenty-five miles per hour. "Trailer" does not include a manufactured home or travel trailer.

(N) "Noncommercial trailer" means any trailer, except a travel trailer or trailer that is used to transport a boat as described in division (B) of this section, but, where applicable, includes a vehicle that is used to transport a boat as described in division (M) of this section, that has a gross weight of no more than ten thousand pounds, and that is used exclusively for purposes other than engaging in business for a profit, such as the transportation of personal items for personal or recreational purposes.

(O) "Mobile home" means a building unit or assembly of closed construction that is fabricated in an off-site facility, is more than thirty-five body feet in length or, when erected on site, is three hundred twenty or more square feet, is built on a permanent chassis, is transportable in one or more sections, and does not qualify as a manufactured home as defined in division (C)(4) of section 3781.06 of the Revised Code or as an industrialized unit as defined in division (C)(3) of section 3781.06 of the Revised Code.

(P) "Semitrailer" means any vehicle of the trailer type that does not have motive power and is so designed or used with another and separate motor vehicle that in operation a part of its own weight or that of its load, or both, rests upon and is carried by the other vehicle furnishing the motive power for propelling itself and the vehicle referred to in this division, and includes, for the purpose only of registration and taxation under those chapters, any vehicle of the dolly type, such as a trailer dolly, that is designed or used for the conversion of a semitrailer into a trailer.

(Q) "Recreational vehicle" means a vehicular portable structure that meets all of the following conditions:

(4) It is not used for the purpose of commerce as defined in 49 C.F.R. 383.5, as amended.

(5) It is not regulated by the public utilities commission pursuant to Chapter 4905., 4921., or 4923. of the Revised Code.

(a) "Travel trailer" means a nonself-propelled recreational vehicle that does not exceed an overall length of thirty-five feet, exclusive of bumper and tongue or coupling, and contains less than three hundred twenty square feet of space when erected on site. "Travel trailer" includes a tent-type fold-out camping trailer as defined in section 4517.01 of the Revised Code.

(b) "Motor home" means a self-propelled recreational vehicle that has no fifth wheel and is constructed with permanently installed facilities for cold storage, cooking and consuming of food, and for sleeping.

(c) "Truck camper" means a nonself-propelled recreational vehicle that does not have wheels for road use and is designed to be placed upon and attached to a motor vehicle. "Truck camper" does not include truck covers that consist of walls and a roof, but do not have floors and facilities enabling them to be used as a dwelling.

(d) "Fifth wheel trailer" means a vehicle that is of such size and weight as to be movable without a special highway permit, that has a gross trailer area of four hundred square feet or less, that is constructed with a raised forward section that allows a bi-level floor plan, and that is designed to be towed by a vehicle equipped with a fifth-wheel hitch ordinarily installed in the bed of a truck.

(e) "Park trailer" means a vehicle that is commonly known as a park model recreational vehicle, meets the American national standard institute standard A119.5 (1988) for park trailers, is built on a single chassis, has a gross trailer area of four hundred square feet or less when set up, is designed for seasonal or temporary living quarters, and may be connected to utilities necessary for the operation of installed features and appliances.

(R) "Pneumatic tires" means tires of rubber and fabric or tires of similar material, that are inflated with air.

(S) "Solid tires" means tires of rubber or similar elastic material that are not dependent upon confined air for support of the load.

(T) "Solid tire vehicle" means any vehicle that is equipped with two or more solid tires.

(U) "Farm machinery" means all machines and tools that are used in the production, harvesting, and care of farm products, and includes trailers that are used to transport agricultural produce or agricultural production materials between a local place of storage or supply and the farm, agricultural tractors, threshing machinery, hay-baling machinery, corn shellers, hammermills, and machinery used in the production of horticultural, agricultural, and vegetable products.

(V) "Owner" includes any person or firm, other than a manufacturer or dealer, that has title to a motor vehicle, except that, in sections 4505.01 to 4505.19 of the Revised Code, "owner" includes in addition manufacturers and dealers.

(W) "Manufacturer" and "dealer" include all persons and firms that are regularly engaged in the business of manufacturing, selling, displaying, offering for sale, or dealing in motor vehicles, at an established place of business that is used exclusively for the purpose of manufacturing, selling, displaying, offering for sale, or dealing in motor vehicles. A place of business that is used for manufacturing, selling, displaying, offering for sale, or dealing in motor vehicles shall be deemed to be used exclusively for those purposes even though snowmobiles or all-purpose vehicles are sold or displayed for sale thereat, even though farm machinery is sold or displayed for sale thereat, or even though repair, accessory, gasoline and oil, storage, parts, service, or paint departments are maintained thereat, or, in any county having a population of less than seventy-five thousand at the last federal census, even though a department in a place of business is used to dismantle, salvage, or rebuild motor vehicles by means of used parts, if such departments are operated for the purpose of furthering and assisting in the business of manufacturing, selling, displaying, offering for sale, or dealing in motor vehicles. Places of business or departments in a place of business used to dismantle, salvage, or rebuild motor vehicles by means of using used parts are not considered as being maintained for the purpose of assisting or furthering the manufacturing, selling, displaying, and offering for sale or dealing in motor vehicles.

(X) "Operator" includes any person who drives or operates a motor vehicle upon the public highways.

(Y) "Chauffeur" means any operator who operates a motor vehicle, other than a taxicab, as an employee for hire; or any operator whether or not the owner of a motor vehicle, other than a taxicab, who operates such vehicle for transporting, for gain, compensation, or profit, either persons or property owned by another. Any operator of a motor vehicle who is voluntarily involved in a ridesharing arrangement is not considered an employee for hire or operating such vehicle for gain, compensation, or profit.

(Z) "State" includes the territories and federal districts of the United States, and the provinces of Canada.

(AA) "Public roads and highways" for vehicles includes all public thoroughfares, bridges, and culverts.

(BB) "Manufacturer's number" means the manufacturer's original serial number that is affixed to or imprinted upon the chassis or other part of the motor vehicle.

(CC) "Motor number" means the manufacturer's original number that is affixed to or imprinted upon the engine or motor of the vehicle.

(DD) "Distributor" means any person who is authorized by a motor vehicle manufacturer to distribute new motor vehicles to licensed motor vehicle dealers at an established place of business that is used exclusively for the purpose of distributing new motor vehicles to licensed motor vehicle dealers, except when the distributor also is a new motor vehicle dealer, in which case the distributor may distribute at the location of the distributor's licensed dealership.

(EE) "Ridesharing arrangement" means the transportation of persons in a motor vehicle where the transportation is incidental to another purpose of a volunteer driver and includes ridesharing arrangements known as carpools, vanpools, and buspools.

(FF) "Apportionable vehicle" means any vehicle that is used or intended for use in two or more international registration plan member jurisdictions that allocate or proportionally register vehicles, that is used for the transportation of persons for hire or designed, used, or maintained primarily for the transportation of property, and that meets any of the following qualifications:

(1) Is a power unit having a gross vehicle weight in excess of twenty-six thousand pounds;

(2) Is a power unit having three or more axles, regardless of the gross vehicle weight;

(3) Is a combination vehicle with a gross vehicle weight in excess of twenty-six thousand pounds.

"Apportionable vehicle" does not include recreational vehicles, vehicles displaying restricted plates, city pick-up and delivery vehicles, buses used for the transportation of chartered parties, or vehicles owned and operated by the United States, this state, or any political subdivisions thereof.

(GG) "Chartered party" means a group of persons who contract as a group to acquire the exclusive use of a passenger-carrying motor vehicle at a fixed charge for the vehicle in accordance with the carrier's tariff, lawfully on file with the United States department of transportation, for the purpose of group travel to a specified destination or for a particular itinerary, either agreed upon in advance or modified by the chartered group after having left the place of origin.

(HH) "International registration plan" means a reciprocal agreement of member jurisdictions that is endorsed by the American association of motor vehicle administrators, and that promotes and encourages the fullest possible use of the highway system by authorizing apportioned registration of fleets of vehicles and recognizing registration of vehicles apportioned in member jurisdictions.

(II) "Restricted plate" means a license plate that has a restriction of time, geographic area, mileage, or commodity, and includes license plates issued to farm trucks under division (J) of section 4503.04 of the Revised Code.

(JJ) "Gross vehicle weight," with regard to any commercial car, trailer, semitrailer, or bus that is taxed at the rates established under section 4503.042 or 4503.65 of the Revised Code, means the unladen weight of the vehicle fully equipped plus the maximum weight of the load to be carried on the vehicle.

(KK) "Combined gross vehicle weight" with regard to any combination of a commercial car, trailer, and semitrailer, that is taxed at the rates established under section 4503.042 or 4503.65 of the Revised Code, means the total unladen weight of the combination of vehicles fully equipped plus the maximum weight of the load to be carried on that combination of vehicles.

(LL) "Chauffeured limousine" means a motor vehicle that is designed to carry nine or fewer passengers and is operated for hire on an hourly basis pursuant to a prearranged contract for the transportation of passengers on public roads and highways along a route under the control of the person hiring the vehicle and not over a defined and regular route. "Prearranged contract" means an agreement, made in advance of boarding, to provide transportation from a specific location in a chauffeured limousine at a fixed rate per hour or trip. "Chauffeured limousine" does not include any vehicle that is used exclusively in the business of funeral directing.

(MM) "Manufactured home" has the same meaning as in division (C)(4) of section 3781.06 of the Revised Code.

(NN) "Acquired situs," with respect to a manufactured home or a mobile home, means to become located in this state by the placement of the home on real property, but does not include the placement of a manufactured home or a mobile home in the inventory of a new motor vehicle dealer or the inventory of a manufacturer, remanufacturer, or distributor of manufactured or mobile homes.

(OO) "Electronic" includes electrical, digital, magnetic, optical, electromagnetic, or any other form of technology that entails capabilities similar to these technologies.

(PP) "Electronic record" means a record generated, communicated, received, or stored by electronic means for use in an information system or for transmission from one information system to another.

(QQ) "Electronic signature" means a signature in electronic form attached to or logically associated with an electronic record.

(RR) "Financial transaction device" has the same meaning as in division (A) of section 113.40 of the Revised Code.

(SS) "Electronic motor vehicle dealer" means a motor vehicle dealer licensed under Chapter 4517. of the Revised Code whom the registrar of motor vehicles determines meets the criteria designated in section 4503.035 of the Revised Code for electronic motor vehicle dealers and designates as an electronic motor vehicle dealer under that section.

(TT) "Electric personal assistive mobility device" means a self-balancing two non-tandem wheeled device that is designed to transport only one person, has an electric propulsion system of an average of seven hundred fifty watts, and when ridden on a paved level surface by an operator who weighs one hundred seventy pounds has a maximum speed of less than twenty miles per hour.

(UU) "Limited driving privileges" means the privilege to operate a motor vehicle that a court grants under section 4510.021 of the Revised Code to a person whose driver's or commercial driver's license or permit or nonresident operating privilege has been suspended.

(VV) "Utility vehicle" means a self-propelled vehicle designed with a bed, principally for the purpose of transporting material or cargo in connection with construction, agricultural, forestry, grounds maintenance, lawn and garden, materials handling, or similar activities. "Utility vehicle" includes a vehicle with a maximum attainable speed of twenty miles per hour or less that is used exclusively within the boundaries of state parks by state park employees or volunteers for the operation or maintenance of state park facilities.

Sec. 4501.03. The registrar of motor vehicles shall open an account with each county and district of registration in the state, and may assign each county and district of registration in the state a unique code for identification purposes. Except as provided in section 4501.044 or division (A)(1) of section 4501.045 of the Revised Code, the registrar shall pay all moneys the registrar receives under sections 4503.02, and 4503.12~~, and 4504.09~~ of the Revised Code into the state treasury to the credit of the auto registration distribution fund, which is hereby created, for distribution in the manner provided for in this section and ~~sections~~ section 4501.04~~, 4501.041, 4501.042, and 4501.043~~ of the Revised Code. All other moneys received by the registrar shall be deposited in the state bureau of motor vehicles fund established in section 4501.25 of the Revised Code for the purposes enumerated in that section, unless otherwise provided by law.

All moneys credited to the auto registration distribution fund shall be distributed to the counties and districts of registration, ~~except for funds received by the registrar under section 4504.09 of the Revised Code,~~ after receipt of certifications from the commissioners of the sinking fund certifying, as required by sections 5528.15 and 5528.35 of the Revised Code, that there are sufficient moneys to the credit of the highway improvement bond retirement fund created by section 5528.12 of the Revised Code to meet in full all payments of interest, principal, and charges for the retirement of bonds and other obligations issued pursuant to Section 2g of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, and sections 5528.10 and 5528.11 of the Revised Code due and payable during the current calendar year, and that there are sufficient moneys to the credit of the highway obligations bond retirement fund created by section 5528.32 of the Revised Code to meet in full all payments of interest, principal, and charges for the retirement of highway obligations issued pursuant to Section 2i of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, and sections 5528.30 and 5528.31 of the Revised Code due and payable during the current calendar year, in the manner provided in section 4501.04 of the Revised Code.

The treasurer of state may invest any portion of the moneys credited to the auto registration distribution fund, in the same manner and subject to all the laws with respect to the investment of state funds by the treasurer of state, and all investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund.

Once each month the registrar shall prepare vouchers in favor of the county auditor of each county for the amount of the tax collection pursuant to sections 4503.02 and 4503.12 of the Revised Code apportioned to the county and to the districts of registration located wholly or in part in the county auditor's county. The county auditor shall distribute the proceeds of the tax collections due the county and the districts of registration in the manner provided in section 4501.04 of the Revised Code.

Once each month the registrar also shall prepare vouchers in favor of the county auditor of each county levying a county motor vehicle license tax pursuant to section 4504.02, 4504.15, or 4504.16 of the Revised Code and of each county in which is located one or more townships levying a township motor vehicle license tax pursuant to section 4504.18 of the Revised Code for the amount of the tax due the county or townships in the county.

All moneys received by the registrar under sections 4503.02, and 4503.12~~, and 4504.09~~ of the Revised Code shall be distributed to counties, townships, and municipal corporations within thirty days of the expiration of the registration year, except that a sum equal to five per cent of the total amount received under sections 4503.02 and 4503.12 of the Revised Code may be reserved to make final adjustments in accordance with the formula for distribution set forth in section 4501.04 of the Revised Code. If amounts set aside to make the adjustments are inadequate, necessary adjustments shall be made immediately out of funds available for distribution for the following two registration years.

Sec. 4501.031. All moneys received under section 4504.09 of the Revised Code shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the local motor vehicle license tax fund, which is hereby created, for distribution in the manner provided for in this chapter. The treasurer of state may invest any portion of the moneys credited to the fund in the same manner and subject to all the laws governing the investment of state funds by the treasurer of state. All investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund.

The registrar of motor vehicles shall open an account with each county and district of registration in the state, and may assign each county and district a code for identification purposes. The code for a county or district may be the same as the code assigned to the county or district by the registrar under section 4501.03 of the Revised Code.

Once each month the registrar shall prepare vouchers in favor of the county auditor of each county levying a county motor vehicle license tax pursuant to section 4504.02, 4504.15, or 4504.16 of the Revised Code and of each county in which is located one or more townships levying a township motor vehicle license tax pursuant to section 4504.18 of the Revised Code for the amount of the tax due the county or townships in the county.

All moneys received by the registrar under section 4504.09 of the Revised Code shall be distributed to counties, townships, and municipal corporations within thirty days of the expiration of the registration year. Necessary adjustments shall be made immediately out of funds available for distribution for the following two registration years.

Sec. 4501.04. All moneys paid into the auto registration distribution fund under section 4501.03 of the Revised Code, except ~~moneys received under section 4504.09 of the Revised Code and~~ moneys received under section 4503.02 of the Revised Code in accordance with section 4501.13 of the Revised Code, and except moneys paid for costs of audits under section 4501.03 of the Revised Code, after receipt by the treasurer of state of certifications from the commissioners of the sinking fund certifying, as required by sections 5528.15 and 5528.35 of the Revised Code, that there are sufficient moneys to the credit of the highway improvement bond retirement fund created by section 5528.12 of the Revised Code to meet in full all payments of interest, principal, and charges for the retirement of bonds and other obligations issued pursuant to Section 2g of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, and sections 5528.10 and 5528.11 of the Revised Code, due and payable during the current calendar year, and that there are sufficient moneys to the credit of the highway obligations bond retirement fund created by section 5528.32 of the Revised Code to meet in full all payments of interest, principal, and charges for the retirement of highway obligations issued pursuant to Section 2i of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, and sections 5528.30 and 5528.31 of the Revised Code due and payable during the current calendar year, shall be distributed as follows:

(A) Thirty-four per cent of all such moneys are for the use of the municipal corporation or county which constitutes the district of registration. The portion of such money due to the municipal corporation shall be paid into its treasury forthwith upon receipt by the county auditor, and shall be used to plan, construct, reconstruct, repave, widen, maintain, repair, clear, and clean public highways, roads, and streets; to maintain and repair bridges and viaducts; to purchase, erect, and maintain street and traffic signs and markers; to purchase, erect, and maintain traffic lights and signals; to pay the principal, interest, and charges on bonds and other obligations issued pursuant to Chapter 133. of the Revised Code or incurred pursuant to section 5531.09 of the Revised Code for the purpose of acquiring or constructing roads, highways, bridges, or viaducts, or acquiring or making other highway improvements for which the municipal corporation may issue bonds; and to supplement revenue already available for such purposes.

The county portion of such funds shall be retained in the county treasury and shall be used for the planning, maintenance, repair, construction, and repaving of public streets, and maintaining and repairing bridges and viaducts; the payment of principal, interest, and charges on bonds and other obligations issued pursuant to Chapter 133. of the Revised Code or incurred pursuant to section 5531.09 of the Revised Code for the purpose of acquiring or constructing roads, highways, bridges, or viaducts or acquiring or making other highway improvements for which the board of county commissioners may issue bonds under such chapter; and for no other purpose.

(B) Five per cent of all such moneys, together with interest earned by the treasurer of state as provided in section 4501.03 of the Revised Code, shall constitute a fund for the use of the several counties for the purposes specified in division (C) of this section. The moneys shall be divided equally among all the counties in the state and shall be paid out by the registrar of motor vehicles in equal proportions to the county auditor of each county within the state.

(C) Forty-seven per cent of all such moneys shall be for the use of the county in which the owner resides or in which the place is located at which the established business or branch business in connection with which the motor vehicle registered is used, for the planning, construction, reconstruction, improvement, maintenance, and repair of roads and highways; maintaining and repairing bridges and viaducts; and the payment of principal, interest, and charges on bonds and other obligations issued pursuant to Chapter 133. of the Revised Code or incurred pursuant to section 5531.09 of the Revised Code for the purpose of acquiring or constructing roads, highways, bridges, or viaducts or acquiring or making other highway improvements for which the board of county commissioners may issue bonds under such chapter.

(D) Nine per cent of all such moneys shall be for the use of the several counties for the purposes specified in division (C) of this section and shall be distributed to the several counties in the ratio which the total number of miles of county roads under the jurisdiction of each board of county commissioners in each county bears to the total number of miles of county roads in the state, as determined by the director of transportation. Before such distribution is made each board of county commissioners shall certify in writing to the director the actual number of miles under its statutory jurisdiction which are used by and maintained for the public.

(E) Five per cent of all such moneys shall be for the use of the several townships and shall be distributed to the several townships in the ratio which the total number of miles of township roads under the jurisdiction of each board of township trustees in each township bears to the total number of miles of township roads in the state, as determined by the director of transportation. Before such distribution is made each board of township trustees shall certify in writing to the director the actual number of miles under its statutory jurisdiction which are used by and maintained for the public.

Sec. 4501.041. Except as provided in section 4501.042 of the Revised Code, all moneys received under section 4504.09 of the Revised Code with respect to counties levying county motor vehicle license taxes pursuant to section 4504.02, 4504.15, or 4504.16 of the Revised Code and paid into the state treasury under section ~~4501.03~~ 4501.031 of the Revised Code shall be distributed to the respective counties levying such taxes for allocation and distribution as provided in section 4504.05 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 4501.042. All moneys received under section 4504.09 of the Revised Code from municipal motor vehicle license taxes levied pursuant to section 4504.06, 4504.17, 4504.171, or 4504.172 of the Revised Code, and any part of the moneys received from county motor vehicle license taxes levied pursuant to section 4504.15 of the Revised Code which is to be distributed to municipal corporations, shall be paid ~~directly~~ into the state treasury to the credit of the local motor vehicle license tax fund created under section 4501.031 of the Revised Code and shall be distributed to the treasuries of the municipal corporations levying or entitled to such tax moneys.

Sec. 4501.043. All moneys received under section 4504.09 of the Revised Code with respect to townships levying township license taxes pursuant to section 4504.18 of the Revised Code and paid into the state treasury under section ~~4501.03~~ 4501.031 of the Revised Code shall be distributed to the respective townships levying such taxes for allocation and distribution as provided in section 4504.19 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 4501.06. The taxes, fees, and fines levied, charged, or referred to in division (O) of section 4503.04, division (E) of section 4503.042, division (B) of section 4503.07, division (C)(1) of section 4503.10, division (D) of section 4503.182, division (A) of section 4503.19, division (D)(2) of section 4507.24, division (A) of section 4508.06, and sections 4503.40, 4503.42, 4505.11, 4505.111, 4506.08, ~~4506.09,~~ 4507.23, 4508.05, 4513.53, and 5502.12 of the Revised Code, and the taxes charged in section 4503.65 that are distributed in accordance with division (A)(2) of section 4501.044 of the Revised Code unless otherwise designated by law, shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the state highway safety fund, which is hereby created~~, and~~. Money credited to the fund shall, after receipt of certifications from the commissioners of the sinking fund certifying that there are sufficient moneys to the credit of the highway obligations bond retirement fund created by section 5528.32 of the Revised Code to meet in full all payments of interest, principal, and charges for the retirement of highway obligations issued pursuant to Section 2i of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, and sections 5528.30 and 5528.31 of the Revised Code due and payable during the current calendar year, be used for the purpose of enforcing and paying the expenses of administering the law relative to the registration and operation of motor vehicles on the public roads or highways. Amounts credited to the fund may also be used to pay the expenses of administering and enforcing the laws under which such fees were collected. All investment earnings of the state highway safety fund shall be credited to the fund.

Sec. 4503.03. (A)(1)(a) The registrar of motor vehicles may designate the county auditor in each county a deputy registrar. If the population of a county is forty thousand or less according to the last federal census and if the county auditor is designated by the registrar as a deputy registrar, no other person need be designated in the county to act as a deputy registrar.

(b) The registrar may designate a clerk of a court of common pleas as a deputy registrar if the population of the county is forty thousand or less according to the last federal census. In a county with a population greater than forty thousand but not more than fifty thousand according to the last federal census, the clerk of a court of common pleas is eligible to act as a deputy registrar and may participate in the competitive selection process for the award of a deputy registrar contract by applying in the same manner as any other person. All fees collected and retained by a clerk for conducting deputy registrar services shall be paid into the county treasury to the credit of the certificate of title administration fund created under section 325.33 of the Revised Code.

(c) In all other instances, the registrar shall contract with one or more other persons in each county to act as deputy registrars. ~~Notwithstanding~~ As part of the selection process in awarding a deputy registrar contract, the registrar shall consider the customer service performance record of any person previously awarded a deputy registrar contract.

Notwithstanding the county population restrictions in division (A)(1)(b) of this section, if no person applies to act under contract as a deputy registrar in a county and the county auditor is not designated as a deputy registrar, the registrar may ask the clerk of a court of common pleas to serve as the deputy registrar for that county.

(2) Deputy registrars shall accept applications for the annual license tax for any vehicle not taxed under section 4503.63 of the Revised Code and shall assign distinctive numbers in the same manner as the registrar. Such deputies shall be located in such locations in the county as the registrar sees fit. There shall be at least one deputy registrar in each county.

Deputy registrar contracts are subject to the provisions of division (B) of section 125.081 of the Revised Code.

(B) The registrar shall not contract with any person to act as a deputy registrar if the person or, where applicable, the person's spouse or a member of the person's immediate family has made, within the current calendar year or any one of the previous three calendar years, one or more contributions totaling in excess of one hundred dollars to any person or entity included in division (A)(2) of section 4503.033 of the Revised Code. As used in this division, "immediate family" has the same meaning as in division (D) of section 102.01 of the Revised Code, and "entity" includes any political party and any "continuing association" as defined in division (B)(4) of section 3517.01 of the Revised Code or "political action committee" as defined in division (B)(8) of that section that is primarily associated with that political party. For purposes of this division, contributions to any continuing association or any political action committee that is primarily associated with a political party shall be aggregated with contributions to that political party.

The contribution limitations contained in this division do not apply to any county auditor or clerk of a court of common pleas. A county auditor or clerk of a court of common pleas is not required to file the disclosure statement or pay the filing fee required under section 4503.033 of the Revised Code. The limitations of this division also do not apply to a deputy registrar who, subsequent to being awarded a deputy registrar contract, is elected to an office of a political subdivision.

The registrar shall not contract with either of the following to act as a deputy registrar:

(1) Any elected public official other than a county auditor or, as authorized by division (A)(1)(b) of this section, a clerk of a court of common pleas, acting in an official capacity, except that, the registrar shall continue and may renew a contract with any deputy registrar who, subsequent to being awarded a deputy registrar contract, is elected to an office of a political subdivision;

(2) Any person holding a current, valid contract to conduct motor vehicle inspections under section 3704.14 of the Revised Code.

As used in division (B) of this section, "political subdivision" has the same meaning as in section 3501.01 of the Revised Code.

(C)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) of this section, deputy registrars are independent contractors and neither they nor their employees are employees of this state, except that nothing in this section shall affect the status of county auditors or clerks of courts of common pleas as public officials, nor the status of their employees as employees of any of the counties of this state, which are political subdivisions of this state. Each deputy registrar shall be responsible for the payment of all unemployment compensation premiums, all workers' compensation premiums, social security contributions, and any and all taxes for which the deputy registrar is legally responsible. Each deputy registrar shall comply with all applicable federal, state, and local laws requiring the withholding of income taxes or other taxes from the compensation of the deputy registrar's employees. Each deputy registrar shall maintain during the entire term of the deputy registrar's contract a policy of business liability insurance satisfactory to the registrar and shall hold the department of public safety, the director of public safety, the bureau of motor vehicles, and the registrar harmless upon any and all claims for damages arising out of the operation of the deputy registrar agency.

(2) For purposes of Chapter 4141. of the Revised Code, determinations concerning the employment of deputy registrars and their employees shall be made under Chapter 4141. of the Revised Code.

(D)(1) With the approval of the director, the registrar shall adopt rules governing the terms of the contract between the registrar and each deputy registrar and specifications for the services to be performed. The rules shall include specifications relating to the amount of bond to be given as provided in this section; the size and location of the deputy's office; and the leasing of equipment necessary to conduct the vision screenings required under section 4507.12 of the Revised Code and training in the use of the equipment. The specifications shall permit and encourage every deputy registrar to inform the public of the location of the deputy registrar's office and hours of operation by means of public service announcements and allow any deputy registrar to advertise in regard to the operation of the deputy registrar's office. The rules also shall include specifications for the hours the deputy's office is to be open to the public and shall require as a minimum that one deputy's office in each county be open to the public for at least four hours each weekend, provided that if only one deputy's office is located within the boundary of the county seat, that office is the office that shall be open for the four-hour period each weekend~~, and that every deputy's office in each county shall be open to the public until six-thirty p.m. on at least one weeknight each week~~. The rules also shall include specifications providing that every deputy in each county, upon request, provide any person with information about the location and office hours of all deputy registrars in the county and that every deputy prominently display within the deputy's office, the toll-free telephone number of the bureau. The rules shall not prohibit the award of a deputy registrar contract to a nonprofit corporation formed under the laws of this state. The rules shall prohibit any deputy registrar from operating more than one such office at any time, except that the rules may permit a nonprofit corporation formed for the purposes of providing automobile-related services to its members or the public and that provides such services from more than one location in this state to operate a deputy registrar office at any such location, provided that the nonprofit corporation operates no more than one deputy registrar office in any one county. The rules may include such other specifications as the registrar and director consider necessary to provide a high level of service.

The rules shall establish procedures for a deputy registrar who requests such authority to collect reinstatement fees under sections 4507.1612, 4507.45, 4509.101, 4509.81, 4510.10, 4510.22, 4510.72, and 4511.191 of the Revised Code and to transmit the reinstatement fees and two dollars of the service fee collected under those sections. The registrar shall ensure that, not later than January 1, 2012, at least one deputy registrar in each county has the necessary equipment and is able to accept reinstatement fees. The registrar shall deposit the service fees received from a deputy registrar under those sections into the state bureau of motor vehicles fund created in section 4501.25 of the Revised Code and shall use the money for deputy registrar equipment necessary in connection with accepting reinstatement fees.

(2) As a daily adjustment, the bureau of motor vehicles shall credit to a deputy registrar three dollars and fifty cents for each damaged license plate or validation sticker the deputy registrar replaces as a service to a member of the public.

(3)(a) With the prior approval of the registrar, each deputy registrar may conduct at the location of the deputy registrar's office any business that is consistent with the functions of a deputy registrar and that is not specifically mandated or authorized by this or another chapter of the Revised Code or by implementing rules of the registrar.

(b) In accordance with guidelines the director of public safety shall establish, a deputy registrar may operate or contract for the operation of a vending machine at a deputy registrar location if products of the vending machine are consistent with the functions of a deputy registrar.

(c) A deputy registrar may enter into an agreement with the Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission pursuant to division (A)(11) of section 5537.04 of the Revised Code for the purpose of allowing the general public to acquire from the deputy registrar the electronic toll collection devices that are used under the multi-jurisdiction electronic toll collection agreement between the Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission and any other entities or agencies that participate in such an agreement. The approval of the registrar is not necessary if a deputy registrar engages in this activity.

(4) As used in this section and in section 4507.01 of the Revised Code, "nonprofit corporation" has the same meaning as in section 1702.01 of the Revised Code.

(E) Unless otherwise terminated and except for interim contracts of less than one year, contracts with deputy registrars shall be for a term of at least two years, but no more than three years, and all contracts effective on or after July 1, 1996, shall be for a term of more than two years, but not more than three years. All contracts with deputy registrars shall expire on the last Saturday of June in the year of their expiration. The auditor of state may examine the accounts, reports, systems, and other data of each deputy registrar at least every two years. The registrar, with the approval of the director, shall immediately remove a deputy who violates any provision of the Revised Code related to the duties as a deputy, any rule adopted by the registrar, or a term of the deputy's contract with the registrar. The registrar also may remove a deputy who, in the opinion of the registrar, has engaged in any conduct that is either unbecoming to one representing this state or is inconsistent with the efficient operation of the deputy's office.

If the registrar, with the approval of the director, determines that there is good cause to believe that a deputy registrar or a person proposing for a deputy registrar contract has engaged in any conduct that would require the denial or termination of the deputy registrar contract, the registrar may require the production of books, records, and papers as the registrar determines are necessary, and may take the depositions of witnesses residing within or outside the state in the same manner as is prescribed by law for the taking of depositions in civil actions in the court of common pleas, and for that purpose the registrar may issue a subpoena for any witness or a subpoena duces tecum to compel the production of any books, records, or papers, directed to the sheriff of the county where the witness resides or is found. Such a subpoena shall be served and returned in the same manner as a subpoena in a criminal case is served and returned. The fees of the sheriff shall be the same as that allowed in the court of common pleas in criminal cases. Witnesses shall be paid the fees and mileage provided for under section 119.094 of the Revised Code. The fees and mileage shall be paid from the fund in the state treasury for the use of the agency in the same manner as other expenses of the agency are paid.

In any case of disobedience or neglect of any subpoena served on any person or the refusal of any witness to testify to any matter regarding which the witness lawfully may be interrogated, the court of common pleas of any county where the disobedience, neglect, or refusal occurs or any judge of that court, on application by the registrar, shall compel obedience by attachment proceedings for contempt, as in the case of disobedience of the requirements of a subpoena issued from that court, or a refusal to testify in that court.

Nothing in this division shall be construed to require a hearing of any nature prior to the termination of any deputy registrar contract by the registrar, with the approval of the director, for cause.

(F) Except as provided in section 2743.03 of the Revised Code, no court, other than the court of common pleas of Franklin county, has jurisdiction of any action against the department of public safety, the director, the bureau, or the registrar to restrain the exercise of any power or authority, or to entertain any action for declaratory judgment, in the selection and appointment of, or contracting with, deputy registrars. Neither the department, the director, the bureau, nor the registrar is liable in any action at law for damages sustained by any person because of any acts of the department, the director, the bureau, or the registrar, or of any employee of the department or bureau, in the performance of official duties in the selection and appointment of, and contracting with, deputy registrars.

(G) The registrar shall assign to each deputy registrar a series of numbers sufficient to supply the demand at all times in the area the deputy registrar serves, and the registrar shall keep a record in the registrar's office of the numbers within the series assigned. Each deputy shall be required to give bond in the amount of at least twenty-five thousand dollars, or in such higher amount as the registrar determines necessary, based on a uniform schedule of bond amounts established by the registrar and determined by the volume of registrations handled by the deputy. The form of the bond shall be prescribed by the registrar. The bonds required of deputy registrars, in the discretion of the registrar, may be individual or schedule bonds or may be included in any blanket bond coverage carried by the department.

(H) Each deputy registrar shall keep a file of each application received by the deputy and shall register that motor vehicle with the name and address of its owner.

(I) Upon request, a deputy registrar shall make the physical inspection of a motor vehicle and issue the physical inspection certificate required in section 4505.061 of the Revised Code.

(J) Each deputy registrar shall file a report ~~semi-annually~~ semiannually with the registrar of motor vehicles listing the number of applicants for licenses the deputy has served, the number of voter registration applications the deputy has completed and transmitted to the board of elections, and the number of voter registration applications declined.

Sec. 4503.04. Except as provided in sections 4503.042 and 4503.65 of the Revised Code for the registration of commercial cars, trailers, semitrailers, and certain buses, the rates of the taxes imposed by section 4503.02 of the Revised Code shall be as follows:

(D) For each noncommercial motor vehicle designed by the manufacturer to carry a load of no more than three-quarters of one ton and for each motor home, thirty-five dollars; for each noncommercial motor vehicle designed by the manufacturer to carry a load of more than three-quarters of one ton, but not more than one ton, seventy dollars;

(1) Eighty-five cents for each one hundred pounds or part thereof for the first two thousand pounds or part thereof of weight of vehicle fully equipped;

(2) One dollar and forty cents for each one hundred pounds or part thereof in excess of two thousand pounds up to and including ten thousand pounds.

(1) Vehicle equipped, owned, and used by a charitable or nonprofit corporation exclusively for the purpose of administering chest x-rays or receiving blood donations;

(2) Van used principally for the transportation of handicapped persons that has been modified by being equipped with adaptive equipment to facilitate the movement of such persons into and out of the van;

(3) Bus used principally for the transportation of handicapped persons or persons sixty-five years of age or older.

(G) Notwithstanding its weight, twenty dollars for any bus used principally for the transportation of persons in a ridesharing arrangement.

"Transit bus" means either a motor vehicle having a seating capacity of more than seven persons which is operated and used by any person in the rendition of a public mass transportation service primarily in a municipal corporation or municipal corporations and provided at least seventy-five per cent of the annual mileage of such service and use is within such municipal corporation or municipal corporations or a motor vehicle having a seating capacity of more than seven persons which is operated solely for the transportation of persons associated with a charitable or nonprofit corporation, but does not mean any motor vehicle having a seating capacity of more than seven persons when such vehicle is used in a ridesharing capacity or any bus described by division (F)(3) of this section.

The application for registration of such transit bus shall be accompanied by an affidavit prescribed by the registrar of motor vehicles and signed by the person or an agent of the firm or corporation operating such bus stating that the bus has a seating capacity of more than seven persons, and that it is either to be operated and used in the rendition of a public mass transportation service and that at least seventy-five per cent of the annual mileage of such operation and use shall be within one or more municipal corporations or that it is to be operated solely for the transportation of persons associated with a charitable or nonprofit corporation.

The form of the license plate, and the manner of its attachment to the vehicle, shall be prescribed by the registrar of motor vehicles.

(I) The minimum tax for any vehicle having motor power other than a farm truck, a motorized bicycle, or motorcycle is ten dollars and eighty cents, and for each noncommercial trailer, five dollars.

(J)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (J) of this section, for each farm truck, except a noncommercial motor vehicle, that is owned, controlled, or operated by one or more farmers exclusively in farm use as defined in this section, and not for commercial purposes, and provided that at least seventy-five per cent of such farm use is by or for the one or more owners, controllers, or operators of the farm in the operation of which a farm truck is used, the license tax is five dollars plus:

(a) Fifty cents per one hundred pounds or part thereof for the first three thousand pounds;

(b) Seventy cents per one hundred pounds or part thereof in excess of three thousand pounds up to and including four thousand pounds;

(c) Ninety cents per one hundred pounds or part thereof in excess of four thousand pounds up to and including six thousand pounds;

(d) Two dollars for each one hundred pounds or part thereof in excess of six thousand pounds up to and including ten thousand pounds;

(e) Two dollars and twenty-five cents for each one hundred pounds or part thereof in excess of ten thousand pounds;

(2) The owner of a farm truck may register the truck for a period of one-half year by paying one-half the registration tax imposed on the truck under this chapter and one-half the amount of any tax imposed on the truck under Chapter 4504. of the Revised Code.

(3) A farm bus may be registered for a period of ~~ninety~~ two hundred ten days from the date of issue of the license plates for the bus, for a fee of ten dollars, provided such license plates shall not be issued for more than ~~any two ninety-day periods~~ one such period in any calendar year. Such use does not include the operation of trucks by commercial processors of agricultural products.

(4) License plates for farm trucks and for farm buses shall have some distinguishing marks, letters, colors, or other characteristics to be determined by the director of public safety.

(5) Every person registering a farm truck or bus under this section shall furnish an affidavit certifying that the truck or bus licensed to that person is to be so used as to meet the requirements necessary for the farm truck or farm bus classification.

Any farmer may use a truck owned by the farmer for commercial purposes by paying the difference between the commercial truck registration fee and the farm truck registration fee for the remaining part of the registration period for which the truck is registered. Such remainder shall be calculated from the beginning of the semiannual period in which application for such commercial license is made.

Taxes at the rates provided in this section are in lieu of all taxes on or with respect to the ownership of such motor vehicles, except as provided in section 4503.042 and section 4503.06 of the Revised Code.

(K) Other than trucks registered under the international registration plan in another jurisdiction and for which this state has received an apportioned registration fee, the license tax for each truck which is owned, controlled, or operated by a nonresident, and licensed in another state, and which is used exclusively for the transportation of nonprocessed agricultural products intrastate, from the place of production to the place of processing, is twenty-four dollars.

"Truck," as used in this division, means any pickup truck, straight truck, semitrailer, or trailer other than a travel trailer. Nonprocessed agricultural products, as used in this division, does not include livestock or grain.

A license issued under this division shall be issued for a period of one hundred thirty days in the same manner in which all other licenses are issued under this section, provided that no truck shall be so licensed for more than one one-hundred-thirty-day period during any calendar year.

The license issued pursuant to this division shall consist of a windshield decal to be designed by the director of public safety.

Every person registering a truck under this division shall furnish an affidavit certifying that the truck licensed to the person is to be used exclusively for the purposes specified in this division.

(L) Every person registering a motor vehicle as a noncommercial motor vehicle as defined in section 4501.01 of the Revised Code, or registering a trailer as a noncommercial trailer as defined in that section, shall furnish an affidavit certifying that the motor vehicle or trailer so licensed to the person is to be so used as to meet the requirements necessary for the noncommercial vehicle classification.

(M) Every person registering a van or bus as provided in divisions (F)(2) and (3) of this section shall furnish a notarized statement certifying that the van or bus licensed to the person is to be used for the purposes specified in those divisions. The form of the license plate issued for such motor vehicles shall be prescribed by the registrar.

(N) Every person registering as a passenger car a motor vehicle designed and used for carrying more than nine but not more than fifteen passengers, and every person registering a bus as provided in division (G) of this section, shall furnish an affidavit certifying that the vehicle so licensed to the person is to be used in a ridesharing arrangement and that the person will have in effect whenever the vehicle is used in a ridesharing arrangement a policy of liability insurance with respect to the motor vehicle in amounts and coverages no less than those required by section 4509.79 of the Revised Code. The form of the license plate issued for such a motor vehicle shall be prescribed by the registrar.

(O)(1) Commencing on October 1, 2009, if an application for registration renewal is not applied for prior to the expiration date of the registration or within ~~seven~~ thirty days after that date, the registrar or deputy registrar shall collect a fee of ~~twenty~~ ten dollars for the issuance of the vehicle registration. For any motor vehicle that is used on a seasonal basis, whether used for general transportation or not, and that has not been used on the public roads or highways since the expiration of the registration, the registrar or deputy registrar shall waive the fee established under this division if the application is accompanied by supporting evidence of seasonal use as the registrar may require. The registrar or deputy registrar may waive the fee for other good cause shown if the application is accompanied by supporting evidence as the registrar may require. The fee shall be in addition to all other fees established by this section. A deputy registrar shall retain fifty cents of the fee and shall transmit the remaining amount to the registrar at the time and in the manner provided by section 4503.10 of the Revised Code. The registrar shall deposit all moneys received under this division into the state highway safety fund established in section 4501.06 of the Revised Code.

(2) Division (O)(1) of this section does not apply to a farm truck or farm bus registered under division (J) of this section.

(1) "Van" means any motor vehicle having a single rear axle and an enclosed body without a second seat.

(2) "Handicapped person" means any person who has lost the use of one or both legs, or one or both arms, or is blind, deaf, or so severely disabled as to be unable to move about without the aid of crutches or a wheelchair.

(3) "Farm truck" means a truck used in the transportation from the farm of products of the farm, including livestock and its products, poultry and its products, floricultural and horticultural products, and in the transportation to the farm of supplies for the farm, including tile, fence, and every other thing or commodity used in agricultural, floricultural, horticultural, livestock, and poultry production and livestock, poultry, and other animals and things used for breeding, feeding, or other purposes connected with the operation of the farm.

(4) "Farm bus" means a bus used only for the transportation of agricultural employees and used only in the transportation of such employees as are necessary in the operation of the farm.

(5) "Farm supplies" includes fuel used exclusively in the operation of a farm, including one or more homes located on and used in the operation of one or more farms, and furniture and other things used in and around such homes.

Sec. 4503.042. The registrar of motor vehicles shall adopt rules establishing the date, subsequent to this state's entry into membership in the international registration plan, when the rates established by this section become operative.

(A) The rates of the taxes imposed by section 4503.02 of the Revised Code are as follows for commercial cars having a gross vehicle weight or combined gross vehicle weight of:

(2) More than two thousand but not more than six thousand pounds, seventy dollars;

(3) More than six thousand but not more than ten thousand pounds, eighty-five dollars;

(4) More than ten thousand but not more than fourteen thousand pounds, one hundred five dollars;

(5) More than fourteen thousand but not more than eighteen thousand pounds, one hundred twenty-five dollars;

(6) More than eighteen thousand but not more than twenty-two thousand pounds, one hundred fifty dollars;

(7) More than twenty-two thousand but not more than twenty-six thousand pounds, one hundred seventy-five dollars;

(8) More than twenty-six thousand but not more than thirty thousand pounds, three hundred fifty-five dollars;

(9) More than thirty thousand but not more than thirty-four thousand pounds, four hundred twenty dollars;

(10) More than thirty-four thousand but not more than thirty-eight thousand pounds, four hundred eighty dollars;

(11) More than thirty-eight thousand but not more than forty-two thousand pounds, five hundred forty dollars;

(12) More than forty-two thousand but not more than forty-six thousand pounds, six hundred dollars;

(13) More than forty-six thousand but not more than fifty thousand pounds, six hundred sixty dollars;

(14) More than fifty thousand but not more than fifty-four thousand pounds, seven hundred twenty-five dollars;

(15) More than fifty-four thousand but not more than fifty-eight thousand pounds, seven hundred eighty-five dollars;

(16) More than fifty-eight thousand but not more than sixty-two thousand pounds, eight hundred fifty-five dollars;

(17) More than sixty-two thousand but not more than sixty-six thousand pounds, nine hundred twenty-five dollars;

(18) More than sixty-six thousand but not more than seventy thousand pounds, nine hundred ninety-five dollars;

(19) More than seventy thousand but not more than seventy-four thousand pounds, one thousand eighty dollars;

(20) More than seventy-four thousand but not more than seventy-eight thousand pounds, one thousand two hundred dollars;

(21) More than seventy-eight thousand pounds, one thousand three hundred forty dollars.

(B) The rates of the taxes imposed by section 4503.02 of the Revised Code are as follows for buses having a gross vehicle weight or combined gross vehicle weight of:

(2) More than two thousand but not more than six thousand pounds, forty dollars;

(3) More than six thousand but not more than ten thousand pounds, one hundred dollars;

(4) More than ten thousand but not more than fourteen thousand pounds, one hundred eighty dollars;

(5) More than fourteen thousand but not more than eighteen thousand pounds, two hundred sixty dollars;

(6) More than eighteen thousand but not more than twenty-two thousand pounds, three hundred forty dollars;

(7) More than twenty-two thousand but not more than twenty-six thousand pounds, four hundred twenty dollars;

(8) More than twenty-six thousand but not more than thirty thousand pounds, five hundred dollars;

(9) More than thirty thousand but not more than thirty-four thousand pounds, five hundred eighty dollars;

(10) More than thirty-four thousand but not more than thirty-eight thousand pounds, six hundred sixty dollars;

(11) More than thirty-eight thousand but not more than forty-two thousand pounds, seven hundred forty dollars;

(12) More than forty-two thousand but not more than forty-six thousand pounds, eight hundred twenty dollars;

(13) More than forty-six thousand but not more than fifty thousand pounds, nine hundred forty dollars;

(14) More than fifty thousand but not more than fifty-four thousand pounds, one thousand dollars;

(15) More than fifty-four thousand but not more than fifty-eight thousand pounds, one thousand ninety dollars;

(16) More than fifty-eight thousand but not more than sixty-two thousand pounds, one thousand one hundred eighty dollars;

(17) More than sixty-two thousand but not more than sixty-six thousand pounds, one thousand two hundred seventy dollars;

(18) More than sixty-six thousand but not more than seventy thousand pounds, one thousand three hundred sixty dollars;

(19) More than seventy thousand but not more than seventy-four thousand pounds, one thousand four hundred fifty dollars;

(20) More than seventy-four thousand but not more than seventy-eight thousand pounds, one thousand five hundred forty dollars;

(21) More than seventy-eight thousand pounds, one thousand six hundred thirty dollars.

(C) In addition to the license taxes imposed at the rates specified in divisions (A) and (B) of this section, an administrative fee of three dollars and fifty cents, plus an appropriate amount to cover the cost of postage, shall be collected by the registrar for each international registration plan license processed by the registrar.

(D) The rate of the tax for each trailer and semitrailer is twenty-five dollars.

(E) Commencing on October 1, 2009, if an application for registration renewal is not applied for prior to the expiration date of the registration or within ~~seven~~ thirty days after that date, the registrar or deputy registrar shall collect a fee of ~~twenty~~ ten dollars for the issuance of the vehicle registration, but may waive the fee for good cause shown if the application is accompanied by supporting evidence as the registrar may require. The fee shall be in addition to all other fees established by this section. A deputy registrar shall retain fifty cents of the fee and shall transmit the remaining amount to the registrar at the time and in the manner provided by section 4503.10 of the Revised Code. The registrar shall deposit all moneys received under this division into the state highway safety fund established in section 4501.06 of the Revised Code.

(F) The rates established by this section shall not apply to any of the following:

(1) Vehicles equipped, owned, and used by a charitable or nonprofit corporation exclusively for the purpose of administering chest x-rays or receiving blood donations;

(2) Vans used principally for the transportation of handicapped persons that have been modified by being equipped with adaptive equipment to facilitate the movement of such persons into and out of the vans;

(3) Buses used principally for the transportation of handicapped persons or persons sixty-five years of age or older;

(4) Buses used principally for the transportation of persons in a ridesharing arrangement;

Sec. 4503.07. (A) In lieu of the schedule of rates for commercial cars fixed in section 4503.04 of the Revised Code, the fee shall be ten dollars for each church bus used exclusively to transport members of a church congregation to and from church services or church functions or to transport children and their authorized supervisors to and from any camping function sponsored by a nonprofit, tax-exempt, charitable or philanthropic organization. A church within the meaning of this section is an organized religious group, duly constituted with officers and a board of trustees, regularly holding religious services, and presided over or administered to by a properly accredited ecclesiastical officer, whose name and standing is published in the official publication of the officer's religious group.

(B) Commencing on October 1, 2009, if an application for registration renewal is not applied for prior to the expiration date of the registration or within ~~seven~~ thirty days after that date, the registrar or deputy registrar shall collect a fee of ~~twenty~~ ten dollars for the issuance of the vehicle registration, but may waive the fee for good cause shown if the application is accompanied by supporting evidence as the registrar may require. The fee shall be in addition to all other fees established by this section. A deputy registrar shall retain fifty cents of the fee and shall transmit the remaining amount to the registrar at the time and in the manner provided by section 4503.10 of the Revised Code. The registrar shall deposit all moneys received under this division into the state highway safety fund established in section 4501.06 of the Revised Code.

(1) An affidavit, prescribed by the registrar of motor vehicles and signed by either the senior pastor, minister, priest, or rabbi of the church making application or by the head of the governing body of the church making application, stating that the bus is to be used exclusively to transport members of a church congregation to and from church services or church functions or to transport children and their authorized supervisors to and from any camping function sponsored by a nonprofit, tax-exempt, charitable, or philanthropic organization;

(2) A certificate from the state highway patrol stating that the bus involved is safe for operation in accordance with such standards as are prescribed by the state highway patrol if the bus meets either of the following:

(a) It originally was designed by the manufacturer to transport sixteen or more passengers, including the driver;

(D) The form of the license plate and the manner of its attachment to the vehicle shall be prescribed by the registrar.

Sec. 4503.103. (A)(1)~~(a)(i)~~ The registrar of motor vehicles may adopt rules to permit any person or lessee, other than a person receiving an apportioned license plate under the international registration plan, who owns or leases one or more motor vehicles to file a written application for registration for no more than five succeeding registration years. The rules adopted by the registrar may designate the classes of motor vehicles that are eligible for such registration. At the time of application, all annual taxes and fees shall be paid for each year for which the person is registering.

~~(ii)~~(2)(a) Not later than ~~October 1, 2009~~ December 31, 2013, the registrar shall adopt rules to permit any person or lessee who owns or leases a trailer or semitrailer that is subject to the tax rates prescribed in section 4503.042 of the Revised Code for such trailers or semitrailers to file a written application for registration for ~~not more than five~~ any number of succeeding registration years, including a permanent registration. At the time of application, all annual taxes and fees shall be paid for each year for which the person is registering, provided that the annual taxes due, regardless of the number of years for which the person is registering, shall not exceed two hundred dollars. A person who registers a vehicle under division (A)~~(1)(a)(ii)~~(2) of this section shall pay for each year of registration the additional fee established under division (C)(1) of section 4503.10 of the Revised Code, provided that the additional fee due, regardless of the number of years for which the person is registering, shall not exceed eighty-eight dollars. The person also shall pay one single deputy registrar service fee in the amount specified in division (D) of section 4503.10 of the Revised Code or one single bureau of motor vehicles service fee in the amount specified in division (G) of that section, as applicable, regardless of the number of years for which the person is registering.

(b) In addition, each person registering a trailer or semitrailer under division (A)(2)(a) of this section shall pay any applicable local motor vehicle license tax levied under Chapter 4504. of Revised Code for each year for which the person is registering, provided that not more than eight times any such annual local taxes shall be due upon registration.

(c) The period of registration for a trailer or semitrailer registered under division (A)(2)(a) of this section is exclusive to the trailer or semitrailer for which that certificate of registration is issued and is not transferable to any other trailer or semitrailer.

~~(b)(i)~~(3) Except as provided in division (A)~~(1)(b)(ii)~~(4) of this section, the registrar shall adopt rules to permit any person who owns a motor vehicle to file an application for registration for ~~the next two~~ not more than five succeeding registration years. At the time of application, the person shall pay the annual taxes and fees for each registration year, calculated in accordance with division (C) of section 4503.11 of the Revised Code. A person who is registering a vehicle under division (A)~~(1)(b)~~(3) of this section shall pay for each year of registration the additional fee established under division (C)(1) of section 4503.10 of the Revised Code. The person shall also pay ~~one and one-half times the amount of~~ the deputy registrar service fee ~~specified in division (D) of section 4503.10 of the Revised Code~~ or the bureau of motor vehicles service fee ~~specified in division (G) of that section~~, as ~~applicable~~ follows:

(a) For a two-year registration, the service fee is five dollars and twenty-five cents.

~~(ii)~~(4) Division (A)~~(1)(b)(i)~~(3) of this section does not apply to a person receiving an apportioned license plate under the international registration plan, or the owner of a commercial car used solely in intrastate commerce, or the owner of a bus as defined in section 4513.50 of the Revised Code.

~~(2)~~(B) No person applying for a multi-year registration under division (A)~~(1)~~ of this section is entitled to a refund of any taxes or fees paid.

~~(3)~~(C) The registrar shall not issue to any applicant who has been issued a final, nonappealable order under division ~~(B)~~(D) of this section a multi-year registration or renewal thereof under this division or rules adopted under it for any motor vehicle that is required to be inspected under section 3704.14 of the Revised Code the district of registration of which, as determined under section 4503.10 of the Revised Code, is or is located in the county named in the order.

~~(B)~~(D) Upon receipt from the director of environmental protection of a notice issued under rules adopted under section 3704.14 of the Revised Code indicating that an owner of a motor vehicle that is required to be inspected under that section who obtained a multi-year registration for the vehicle under division (A) of this section or rules adopted under that division has not obtained a required inspection certificate for the vehicle, the registrar in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code shall issue an order to the owner impounding the certificate of registration and identification license plates for the vehicle. The order also shall prohibit the owner from obtaining or renewing a multi-year registration for any vehicle that is required to be inspected under that section, the district of registration of which is or is located in the same county as the county named in the order during the number of years after expiration of the current multi-year registration that equals the number of years for which the current multi-year registration was issued.

An order issued under this division shall require the owner to surrender to the registrar the certificate of registration and license plates for the vehicle named in the order within five days after its issuance. If the owner fails to do so within that time, the registrar shall certify that fact to the county sheriff or local police officials who shall recover the certificate of registration and license plates for the vehicle.

~~(C)~~(E) Upon the occurrence of either of the following circumstances, the registrar in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code shall issue to the owner a modified order rescinding the provisions of the order issued under division ~~(B)~~(D) of this section impounding the certificate of registration and license plates for the vehicle named in that original order:

(1) Receipt from the director of environmental protection of a subsequent notice under rules adopted under section 3704.14 of the Revised Code that the owner has obtained the inspection certificate for the vehicle as required under those rules;

(2) Presentation to the registrar by the owner of the required inspection certificate for the vehicle.

~~(D)~~(F) The owner of a motor vehicle for which the certificate of registration and license plates have been impounded pursuant to an order issued under division ~~(B)~~(D) of this section, upon issuance of a modified order under division ~~(C)~~(E) of this section, may apply to the registrar for their return. A fee of two dollars and fifty cents shall be charged for the return of the certificate of registration and license plates for each vehicle named in the application.

Sec. 4503.11. (A) Except as provided by sections 4503.103, 4503.173, 4503.41, 4503.43, and 4503.46 of the Revised Code, no person who is the owner or chauffeur of a motor vehicle operated or driven upon the public roads or highways shall fail to file annually the application for registration or to pay the tax therefor.

(B) Except as provided by sections 4503.12 and 4503.16 of the Revised Code, the taxes payable on all applications made under sections 4503.10 and 4503.102 of the Revised Code shall be the sum of the tax due under division (B)(1)(a) or (b) of this section plus the tax due under division (B)(2)(a) or (b) of this section:

(1)(a) If the application is made before the second month of the current registration period to which the motor vehicle is assigned as provided in section 4503.101 of the Revised Code, the tax due is the full amount of the tax provided in section 4503.04 of the Revised Code;

(b) If the application is made during or after the second month of the current registration period to which the motor vehicle is assigned as provided in section 4503.101 of the Revised Code, and prior to the beginning of the next such registration period, the amount of the tax provided in section 4503.04 of the Revised Code shall be reduced by one-twelfth of the amount of such tax, rounded upward to the nearest cent, multiplied by the number of full months that have elapsed in the current registration period. The resulting amount shall be rounded upward to the next highest dollar and shall be the amount of tax due.

(2)(a) If the application is made before the sixth month of the current registration period to which the motor vehicle is assigned as provided in section 4503.101 of the Revised Code, the amount of tax due is the full amount of local motor vehicle license taxes levied under Chapter 4504. of the Revised Code;

(b) If the application is made during or after the sixth month of the current registration period to which the motor vehicle is assigned as provided in section 4503.101 of the Revised Code and prior to the beginning of the next such registration period, the amount of tax due is one-half of the amount of local motor vehicle license taxes levied under Chapter 4504. of the Revised Code.

(C) The taxes payable on all applications made under division (A)~~(1)(b)~~(3) of section 4503.103 of the Revised Code shall be the sum of the tax due under division (B)(1)(a) or (b) of this section plus the tax due under division (B)(2)(a) or (b) of this section for the first year plus the full amount of the tax provided in section 4503.04 of the Revised Code and the full amount of local motor vehicle license taxes levied under Chapter 4504. of the Revised Code for ~~the second~~ each succeeding year.

(D) Whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.

Sec. 4503.19. (A) Upon the filing of an application for registration and the payment of the tax for registration, the registrar of motor vehicles or a deputy registrar shall determine whether the owner previously has been issued license plates for the motor vehicle described in the application. If no license plates previously have been issued to the owner for that motor vehicle, the registrar or deputy registrar shall assign to the motor vehicle a distinctive number and issue and deliver to the owner in the manner that the registrar may select a certificate of registration, in the form that the registrar shall prescribe, and, except as otherwise provided in this section, two license plates, duplicates of each other, and a validation sticker, or a validation sticker alone, to be attached to the number plates as provided in section 4503.191 of the Revised Code. The registrar or deputy registrar also shall charge the owner any fees required under division (C) of section 4503.10 of the Revised Code. Trailers, manufactured homes, mobile homes, semitrailers, the manufacturer thereof, the dealer, or in transit companies therein, shall be issued one license plate only and one validation sticker, or a validation sticker alone, and the license plate and validation sticker shall be displayed only on the rear of such vehicles. A commercial tractor that does not receive an apportioned license plate under the international registration plan shall be issued two license plates and one validation sticker, and the validation sticker shall be displayed on the front of the commercial tractor. An apportioned vehicle receiving an apportioned license plate under the international registration plan shall be issued one license plate only and one validation sticker, or a validation sticker alone; the license plate shall be displayed only on the front of a semitractor and on the rear of all other vehicles. School buses shall not be issued license plates but shall bear identifying numbers in the manner prescribed by section 4511.764 of the Revised Code. The certificate of registration and license plates and validation stickers, or validation stickers alone, shall be issued and delivered to the owner in person or by mail. Chauffeured limousines shall be issued license plates, a validation sticker, and a livery sticker as provided in section 4503.24 of the Revised Code. In the event of the loss, mutilation, or destruction of any certificate of registration, or of any license plates or validation stickers, or if the owner chooses to replace license plates previously issued for a motor vehicle, or if the registration certificate and license plates have been impounded as provided by division (B)(1) of section 4507.02 and section 4507.16 of the Revised Code, the owner of a motor vehicle, or manufacturer or dealer, may obtain from the registrar, or from a deputy registrar if authorized by the registrar, a duplicate thereof or new license plates bearing a different number, if the registrar considers it advisable, upon filing an application prescribed by the registrar, and upon paying a fee of one dollar for such certificate of registration, which one dollar fee shall be deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the state bureau of motor vehicles fund created in section 4501.25 of the Revised Code. Commencing with each request made on or after October 1, 2009, or in conjunction with replacement license plates issued for renewal registrations expiring on or after October 1, 2009, a fee of seven dollars and fifty cents for each set of two license plates or six dollars and fifty cents for each single license plate or validation sticker shall be charged and collected, of which the registrar shall deposit five dollars and fifty cents of each seven dollar and fifty cent fee or each six dollar and fifty cent fee into the state treasury to the credit of the state highway safety fund created in section 4501.06 of the Revised Code and the remaining portion of each such fee into the state treasury to the credit of the state bureau of motor vehicles fund created in section 4501.25 of the Revised Code. In addition, each applicant for a replacement certificate of registration, license plate, or validation sticker shall pay the fees provided in divisions (C) and (D) of section 4503.10 of the Revised Code and any applicable fee under section 4503.192 of the Revised Code.

Additionally, the registrar and each deputy registrar who either issues license plates and a validation sticker for use on any vehicle other than a commercial tractor, semitrailer, or apportioned vehicle, or who issues a validation sticker alone for use on such a vehicle and the owner has changed the owner's county of residence since the owner last was issued county identification stickers, also shall issue and deliver to the owner either one or two county identification stickers, as appropriate, which shall be attached to the license plates in a manner prescribed by the director of public safety. The county identification stickers shall identify prominently by name or number the county in which the owner of the vehicle resides at the time of registration.

(B) A certificate of registration issued under this section shall have a portion that contains all the information contained in the main portion of the certificate except for the address of the person to whom the certificate is issued. Except as provided in this division, whenever a reference is made in the Revised Code to a motor vehicle certificate of registration that is issued under this section, the reference shall be deemed to refer to either the main portion of the certificate or the portion containing all information in the main portion except the address of the person to whom the certificate is issued. If a reference is made in the Revised Code to the seizure or surrender of a motor vehicle certificate of registration that is issued under this section, the reference shall be deemed to refer to both the main portion of the certificate and the portion containing all information in the main portion except the address of the person to whom the certificate is issued.

Sec. 4503.191. (A)(1) The identification license plate shall be issued for a multi-year period as determined by the director of public safety, and shall be accompanied by a validation sticker, to be attached to the license plate. Except as provided in division (A)(2) of this section, the validation sticker shall indicate the expiration of the registration period to which the motor vehicle for which the license plate is issued is assigned, in accordance with rules adopted by the registrar of motor vehicles. During each succeeding year of the multi-year period following the issuance of the plate and validation sticker, upon the filing of an application for registration and the payment of the tax therefor, a validation sticker alone shall be issued. The validation stickers required under this section shall be of different colors or shades each year, the new colors or shades to be selected by the director.

(2)(a) Not later than October 1, 2009, the director shall develop a universal validation sticker that may be issued to any owner of two hundred fifty or more passenger vehicles, so that a sticker issued to the owner may be placed on any passenger vehicle in that owner's fleet. The director may establish and charge an additional fee of not more than one dollar per registration to compensate for necessary costs of the universal validation sticker program. The additional fee shall be credited to the state bureau of motor vehicles fund created in section 4501.25 of the Revised Code.

(b) A validation sticker issued for an all-purpose vehicle that is registered under Chapter 4519. of the Revised Code or for a trailer or semitrailer that is permanently registered under division (A)~~(1)(a)(ii)~~(2) of section 4503.103 of the Revised Code or is registered for ~~a period of not more than five~~ any number of succeeding registration years may indicate the expiration of the registration period, if any, by any manner determined by the registrar by rule.

(B) Identification license plates shall be produced by Ohio penal industries. Validation stickers and county identification stickers shall be produced by Ohio penal industries unless the registrar adopts rules that permit the registrar or deputy registrars to print or otherwise produce them in house.

Sec. 4503.192. (A)(1) Except as provided in division (B) of this section, any person who is replacing vehicle license plates, upon request and payment of a fee of ten dollars, may retain the distinctive combination of letters and numerals on license plates previously issued to that person.

A person who is replacing license plates specifically created by law for which the registrar collects a contribution or additional fee, may retain the distinctive combination of letters and numerals on license plates previously issued to that person upon request and payment of a fee of ten dollars, but the person also shall be required to pay the contribution or additional fee required under the Revised Code section authorizing issuance of the license plate.

(2) The registrar of motor vehicles shall charge and collect the ten-dollar fee under this section only when a new set of license plates are issued. The fee is in addition to the license tax established by this chapter and, where applicable, Chapter 4504. of the Revised Code. A deputy registrar who receives an application under this section shall retain one dollar of the ten-dollar fee and shall transmit the remaining nine dollars to the registrar in a manner determined by the registrar. The registrar shall deposit the fees received under this section into the state treasury to the credit of the state bureau of motor vehicles fund created under section 4501.25 of the Revised Code and shall be used by the bureau of motor vehicles to pay the expenses of producing license plates and validation stickers, including the cost of materials, manufacturing, and administrative costs for required replacement of license plates.

(1) A person who is replacing license plates originally obtained under section 4503.40 or 4503.42 of the Revised Code. Such a person shall pay the additional fee required under the applicable section to retain the distinctive license plates previously issued.

(2) A person who is replacing a single, duplicate license plate due to the loss, mutilation, or destruction of a license plate.

Sec. 4503.22. The identification license plate shall consist of a placard upon the face of which shall appear the distinctive number assigned to the motor vehicle as provided in section 4503.19 of the Revised Code, in Arabic numerals or letters, or both. The dimensions of the numerals or letters and of each stroke shall be determined by the director of public safety. The license placard also shall contain the name of this state and the slogan "BIRTHPLACE OF AVIATION." The placard ~~shall~~ may be made of steel, aluminum, plastic, or any other suitable material, and the background shall be treated with a reflective material that shall provide effective and dependable reflective brightness during the service period required of the placard. Specifications for the reflective and other materials and the design of the placard, the county identification stickers as provided by section 4503.19 of the Revised Code, and validation stickers as provided by section 4503.191 of the Revised Code, shall be adopted by the director as rules under sections 119.01 to 119.13 of the Revised Code. The identification license plate of motorized bicycles and of motor vehicles of the type commonly called "motorcycles" shall consist of a single placard, the size of which shall be prescribed by the director. The identification plate of a vehicle registered in accordance with the international registration plan shall contain the word "apportioned." The director may prescribe the type of placard, or means of fastening the placard, or both; the placard or means of fastening may be so designed and constructed as to render difficult the removal of the placard after it has been fastened to a motor vehicle.

Sec. 4503.42. For each registration renewal with an expiration date before October 1, 2009, and for each initial application for registration received before that date the registrar of motor vehicles shall be allowed a fee not to exceed thirty-five dollars, and for each registration renewal with an expiration date on or after October 1, 2009, and for each initial application for registration received on or after that date the registrar shall be allowed a fee of fifty dollars, which shall be in addition to the regular license fee for tags as prescribed under section 4503.04 of the Revised Code and any tax levied under ~~section 4504.02 or 4504.06~~ Chapter 4504. of the Revised Code, for each application received by the registrar for special reserved license plate numbers containing more than three letters or numerals, and the issuing of such licenses and validation stickers in the several series as the registrar may designate. Five dollars of the fee shall be for the purpose of compensating the bureau of motor vehicles for additional services required in the issuing of such licenses and validation stickers, and the remaining portion of the fee shall be deposited by the registrar into the state treasury to the credit of the state highway safety fund created by section 4501.06 of the Revised Code.

This section does not apply to the issuance of reserved license plates as authorized by sections 4503.14, 4503.15, and 4503.40 of the Revised Code. The types of motor vehicles for which license plate numbers containing more than three letters or numerals may be issued in accordance with this section shall include at least buses, passenger cars, and noncommercial motor vehicles.

Sec. 4503.45. An owner of a collector's vehicle, upon complying with the motor vehicle laws relating to registration and licensing of motor vehicles, and upon payment of the regular license fee as prescribed under section 4503.04 of the Revised Code and any tax levied under ~~section 4504.02 or 4504.06~~ Chapter 4504. of the Revised Code, and the payment of an additional fee of five dollars, which shall be for the purpose of compensating the bureau of motor vehicles for additional services required in the issuing of such licenses, shall be issued validation stickers and license plates, or validation stickers alone when required by section 4503.191 of the Revised Code, upon which, in addition to the letters and numbers ordinarily inscribed thereon, shall be inscribed the words "collector's vehicle."

Sec. 4503.49. (A) As used in this section, "ambulance," "ambulette," "emergency medical service organization," "nonemergency medical service organization," and "nontransport vehicle" have the same meanings as in section 4766.01 of the Revised Code.

(B) Each private emergency medical service organization and each private nonemergency medical service organization shall apply to the registrar of motor vehicles for the registration of any ambulance, ambulette, or nontransport vehicle it owns or leases. The application shall be accompanied by a copy of the certificate of licensure issued to the organization by the ~~Ohio~~ state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation ~~board~~ services and the following fees:

(1) The regular license tax as prescribed under section 4503.04 of the Revised Code;

(3) An additional fee of seven dollars and fifty cents. The additional fee shall be for the purpose of compensating the bureau of motor vehicles for additional services required to be performed under this section and shall be transmitted by the registrar to the treasurer of state for deposit in the state bureau of motor vehicles fund created by section 4501.25 of the Revised Code.

(C) On receipt of a complete application, the registrar shall issue to the applicant the appropriate certificate of registration for the vehicle and do one of the following:

(1) Issue a set of license plates with a validation sticker and a set of stickers to be attached to the plates as an identification of the vehicle's classification as an ambulance, ambulette, or nontransport vehicle;

(2) Issue a validation sticker alone when so required by section 4503.191 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 4503.83. (A) Commencing January 1, 2014, the owner or lessee of a fleet of apportioned vehicles may apply to the registrar of motor vehicles for the registration of any apportioned vehicle, commercial trailer, or other vehicle of a class approved by the registrar and issuance of company logo license plates. The initial application shall be for not less than fifty eligible vehicles. The applicant shall provide the registrar the artwork for the company logo plate in a format designated by the registrar. The registrar shall approve the artwork or return the artwork for modification in accordance with any design requirements reasonably imposed by the registrar.

Upon approval of the artwork and receipt of the completed application and compliance with divisions (B) and (C) of this section, the registrar shall issue to the applicant the appropriate vehicle registration and the appropriate number of company logo license plates with a validation sticker or a validation sticker alone when required by section 4503.191 of the Revised Code, except that no validation sticker shall be issued under this section for a motor vehicle for which the registration tax is specified in section 4503.042 of the Revised Code.

In addition to the letters and numbers ordinarily inscribed on license plates, company logo license plates shall be inscribed with words and markings requested by the applicant and approved by the registrar.

(B) A company logo license plate and a validation sticker or, when applicable, a validation sticker alone shall be issued upon payment of the regular license tax prescribed in section 4503.042 of the Revised Code, any applicable fees prescribed in section 4503.10 of the Revised Code, any applicable motor vehicle tax levied under Chapter 4504. of the Revised Code, a bureau of motor vehicles fee of six dollars when a company logo license plate actually is issued, and compliance with all other applicable laws relating to the registration of motor vehicles. If a company logo plate is issued to replace an existing license plate for the same vehicle, the replacement license plate fees prescribed in division (A) of section 4503.19 of the Revised Code shall not apply.

(C) The registrar shall deposit the bureau of motor vehicles fee specified in division (B) of this section, the purpose of which is to compensate the bureau for the additional services required in issuing company logo license plates, in the state bureau of motor vehicles fund created in section 4501.25 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 4504.19. Upon receipt by ~~him~~ the county auditor of moneys pursuant to section 4501.043 of the Revised Code, the county auditor shall pay into the treasury of each township in the county levying a township motor vehicle license tax the portion of such money due the township as shown by the certificate of the registrar of motor vehicles prepared pursuant to section ~~4501.03~~ 4501.031 of the Revised Code. The money shall be used by the township only for the purposes described in section 4504.18 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 4504.21. (A) For the purpose of paying the costs and expenses of enforcing and administering the tax provided for in this section; for planning, constructing, reconstructing, improving, maintaining, and repairing roads, bridges, and culverts; for purchasing, erecting, and maintaining traffic signs, markers, lights, and signals; for paying debt service charges on obligations issued for those purposes; and to supplement revenue already available for those purposes, a transportation improvement district created in accordance with section 5540.02 of the Revised Code may levy an annual license tax upon the operation of motor vehicles on the public roads and highways in the territory of the district. The tax shall be levied in increments of five dollars and shall not exceed twenty dollars per motor vehicle on all motor vehicles the owners of which reside in the district and shall be in addition to all other taxes levied under this chapter, subject to reduction in the manner provided in division (B)(2) of section 4503.11 of the Revised Code. The tax may be levied in all or part of the territory of the district.

(B) The board of trustees of a transportation improvement district proposing to levy a motor vehicle license tax under this section shall put the question of the tax to the electors of the district or of that part of the district in which the tax would be levied. The election shall be held on the date of a primary or general election held not less than ninety days after the board of trustees certifies to the county board of elections its resolution proposing the tax. The resolution shall specify the rate of the tax. The board of elections shall submit the question of the tax to the electors at the primary or general election. The secretary of state shall prescribe the form of the ballot for the election. If approved by a majority of the electors voting on the question of the tax, the board of trustees shall levy the tax as provided in the resolution.

(C) A transportation improvement district license tax levied under this section shall continue in effect until repealed, or until the dissolution of the transportation improvement district that levied it.

(D) Money received by the registrar of motor vehicles pursuant to ~~sections 4501.03 and~~ section 4504.09 of the Revised Code that consists of the taxes levied under this section shall be deposited in the ~~auto registration distribution~~ local motor vehicle license tax fund created by section ~~4501.03~~ 4501.031 of the Revised Code and distributed to the transportation improvement district levying such tax. The registrar may assign to the transportation improvement district a unique code to facilitate the distribution of such money, which may be the same unique code assigned to a county under section 4501.03 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 4505.11. This section shall also apply to all-purpose vehicles and off-highway motorcycles as defined in section 4519.01 of the Revised Code.

(A) Each owner of a motor vehicle and each person mentioned as owner in the last certificate of title, when the motor vehicle is dismantled, destroyed, or changed in such manner that it loses its character as a motor vehicle, or changed in such manner that it is not the motor vehicle described in the certificate of title, shall surrender the certificate of title to that motor vehicle to a clerk of a court of common pleas, and the clerk, with the consent of any holders of any liens noted on the certificate of title, then shall enter a cancellation upon the clerk's records and shall notify the registrar of motor vehicles of the cancellation.

Upon the cancellation of a certificate of title in the manner prescribed by this section, any clerk and the registrar of motor vehicles may cancel and destroy all certificates and all memorandum certificates in that chain of title.

(B)(1) If an Ohio certificate of title or salvage certificate of title to a motor vehicle is assigned to a salvage dealer, the dealer is not required to obtain an Ohio certificate of title or a salvage certificate of title to the motor vehicle in the dealer's own name if the dealer dismantles or destroys the motor vehicle, indicates the number of the dealer's motor vehicle salvage dealer's license on it, marks "FOR DESTRUCTION" across the face of the certificate of title or salvage certificate of title, and surrenders the certificate of title or salvage certificate of title to a clerk of a court of common pleas as provided in division (A) of this section. If the salvage dealer retains the motor vehicle for resale, the dealer shall make application for a salvage certificate of title to the motor vehicle in the dealer's own name as provided in division (C)(1) of this section.

(2) At the time any salvage motor vehicle is sold at auction or through a pool, the salvage motor vehicle auction or salvage motor vehicle pool shall give a copy of the salvage certificate of title or a copy of the certificate of title marked "FOR DESTRUCTION" to the purchaser.

(C)(1) When an insurance company declares it economically impractical to repair such a motor vehicle and has paid an agreed price for the purchase of the motor vehicle to any insured or claimant owner, the insurance company shall proceed as follows:

(a) If an insurance company receives the certificate of title and the motor vehicle, within thirty business days, the insurance company shall deliver the certificate of title to a clerk of a court of common pleas and shall make application for a salvage certificate of title.

(b) If an insurance company obtains possession of the motor vehicle but is unable to obtain the properly endorsed certificate of title for the motor vehicle, within thirty business days following the vehicle's owner or lienholder's acceptance of the insurance company's payment for the vehicle, the insurance company may apply to the clerk of a court of common pleas for a salvage certificate of title without delivering the certificate of title for the motor vehicle. The application shall be accompanied by evidence that the insurance company has paid a total loss claim on the vehicle, a copy of the written request for the certificate of title on the insurance company's letterhead, and the original certified mail, return receipt notice, addressed to the last known owner of the vehicle and any known lienholder, to obtain the certificate of title.

(c) Upon receipt of a properly completed application for a salvage certificate of title as described in division (C)(1)(a) or (b) or (C)(2) of this section, the clerk shall issue the salvage certificate of title on a form, prescribed by the registrar, that shall be easily distinguishable from the original certificate of title and shall bear the same information as the original certificate of title except that it may bear a different number than that of the original certificate of title. Except as provided in division (C)(3) of this section, the salvage certificate of title shall be assigned by the insurance company to a salvage dealer or any other person for use as evidence of ownership upon the sale or other disposition of the motor vehicle, and the salvage certificate of title shall be transferrable to any other person. The clerk shall charge a fee of four dollars for the cost of processing each salvage certificate of title.

(2) If an insurance company requests that a salvage motor vehicle auction take possession of a motor vehicle that is the subject of an insurance claim, and subsequently the insurance company denies coverage with respect to the motor vehicle or does not otherwise take ownership of the motor vehicle, the salvage motor vehicle auction may proceed as follows. After the salvage motor vehicle auction has possession of the motor vehicle for forty-five days, it may apply to the clerk of a court of common pleas for a salvage certificate of title without delivering the certificate of title for the motor vehicle. The application shall be accompanied by a copy of the written request that the vehicle be removed from the facility on the salvage motor vehicle auction's letterhead, and the original certified mail, return receipt notice, addressed to the last known owner of the vehicle and any known lienholder, requesting that the vehicle be removed from the facility of the salvage motor vehicle auction. Upon receipt of a properly completed application, the clerk shall follow the process as described in division (C)(1)(c) of this section. The salvage certificate of title so issued shall be free and clear of all liens.

(3) If an insurance company considers a motor vehicle as described in division (C)(1)(a) or (b) of this section to be impossible to restore for highway operation, the insurance company may assign the certificate of title to the motor vehicle to a salvage dealer or scrap metal processing facility and send the assigned certificate of title to the clerk of the court of common pleas of any county. The insurance company shall mark the face of the certificate of title "FOR DESTRUCTION" and shall deliver a photocopy of the certificate of title to the salvage dealer or scrap metal processing facility for its records.

(4) If an insurance company declares it economically impractical to repair a motor vehicle, agrees to pay to the insured or claimant owner an amount in settlement of a claim against a policy of motor vehicle insurance covering the motor vehicle, and agrees to permit the insured or claimant owner to retain possession of the motor vehicle, the insurance company shall not pay the insured or claimant owner any amount in settlement of the insurance claim until the owner obtains a salvage certificate of title to the vehicle and furnishes a copy of the salvage certificate of title to the insurance company.

(D) When a self-insured organization, rental or leasing company, or secured creditor becomes the owner of a motor vehicle that is burned, damaged, or dismantled and is determined to be economically impractical to repair, the self-insured organization, rental or leasing company, or secured creditor shall do one of the following:

(1) Mark the face of the certificate of title to the motor vehicle "FOR DESTRUCTION" and surrender the certificate of title to a clerk of a court of common pleas for cancellation as described in division (A) of this section. The self-insured organization, rental or leasing company, or secured creditor then shall deliver the motor vehicle, together with a photocopy of the certificate of title, to a salvage dealer or scrap metal processing facility and shall cause the motor vehicle to be dismantled, flattened, crushed, or destroyed.

(2) Obtain a salvage certificate of title to the motor vehicle in the name of the self-insured organization, rental or leasing company, or secured creditor, as provided in division (C)(1) of this section, and then sell or otherwise dispose of the motor vehicle. If the motor vehicle is sold, the self-insured organization, rental or leasing company, or secured creditor shall obtain a salvage certificate of title to the motor vehicle in the name of the purchaser from a clerk of a court of common pleas.

(E) If a motor vehicle titled with a salvage certificate of title is restored for operation upon the highways, application shall be made to a clerk of a court of common pleas for a certificate of title. Upon inspection by the state highway patrol, which shall include establishing proof of ownership and an inspection of the motor number and vehicle identification number of the motor vehicle and of documentation or receipts for the materials used in restoration by the owner of the motor vehicle being inspected, which documentation or receipts shall be presented at the time of inspection, the clerk, upon surrender of the salvage certificate of title, shall issue a certificate of title for a fee prescribed by the registrar. The certificate of title shall be in the same form as the original certificate of title and shall bear the words "REBUILT SALVAGE" in black boldface letters on its face. Every subsequent certificate of title, memorandum certificate of title, or duplicate certificate of title issued for the motor vehicle also shall bear the words "REBUILT SALVAGE" in black boldface letters on its face. The exact location on the face of the certificate of title of the words "REBUILT SALVAGE" shall be determined by the registrar, who shall develop an automated procedure within the automated title processing system to comply with this division. The clerk shall use reasonable care in performing the duties imposed on the clerk by this division in issuing a certificate of title pursuant to this division, but the clerk is not liable for any of the clerk's errors or omissions or those of the clerk's deputies, or the automated title processing system in the performance of those duties. A fee of fifty dollars shall be assessed by the state highway patrol for each inspection made pursuant to this division and shall be deposited into the state highway safety fund established by section 4501.06 of the Revised Code.

(F) No person shall operate upon the highways in this state a motor vehicle, title to which is evidenced by a salvage certificate of title, except to deliver the motor vehicle pursuant to an appointment for an inspection under this section.

(G) No motor vehicle the certificate of title to which has been marked "FOR DESTRUCTION" and surrendered to a clerk of a court of common pleas shall be used for anything except parts and scrap metal.

(H)(1) Except as otherwise provided in this division, an owner of a manufactured or mobile home that will be taxed as real property pursuant to division (B) of section 4503.06 of the Revised Code shall surrender the certificate of title to the auditor of the county containing the taxing district in which the home is located. An owner whose home qualifies for real property taxation under divisions (B)(1)(a) and (b) of section 4503.06 of the Revised Code shall surrender the certificate within fifteen days after the home meets the conditions specified in those divisions. The auditor shall deliver the certificate of title to the clerk of the court of common pleas who issued it.

(2) If the certificate of title for a manufactured or mobile home that is to be taxed as real property is held by a lienholder, the lienholder shall surrender the certificate of title to the auditor of the county containing the taxing district in which the home is located, and the auditor shall deliver the certificate of title to the clerk of the court of common pleas who issued it. The lienholder shall surrender the certificate within thirty days after both of the following have occurred:

(a) The homeowner has provided written notice to the lienholder requesting that the certificate of title be surrendered to the auditor of the county containing the taxing district in which the home is located.

(b) The homeowner has either paid the lienholder the remaining balance owed to the lienholder, or, with the lienholder's consent, executed and delivered to the lienholder a mortgage on the home and land on which the home is sited in the amount of the remaining balance owed to the lienholder.

(3) Upon the delivery of a certificate of title by the county auditor to the clerk, the clerk shall inactivate it and maintain it in the automated title processing system for a period of thirty years.

(4) Upon application by the owner of a manufactured or mobile home that is taxed as real property pursuant to division (B) of section 4503.06 of the Revised Code and that no longer satisfies divisions (B)(1)(a) and (b) or divisions (B)(2)(a) and (b) of that section, the clerk shall reactivate the record of the certificate of title that was inactivated under division (H)(3) of this section and shall issue a new certificate of title, but only if the application contains or has attached to it all of the following:

(a) An endorsement of the county treasurer that all real property taxes charged against the home under Title LVII of the Revised Code and division (B) of section 4503.06 of the Revised Code for all preceding tax years have been paid;

(b) An endorsement of the county auditor that the home will be removed from the real property tax list;

(c) Proof that there are no outstanding mortgages or other liens on the home or, if there are such mortgages or other liens, that the mortgagee or lienholder has consented to the reactivation of the certificate of title.

(I)(1) Whoever violates division (F) of this section shall be fined not more than two thousand dollars, imprisoned not more than one year, or both.

(2) Whoever violates division (G) of this section shall be fined not more than one thousand dollars, imprisoned not more than six months, or both.

Sec. 4506.08. (A)(1) Each application for a commercial driver's license temporary instruction permit shall be accompanied by a fee of ten dollars. Each application for a commercial driver's license, restricted commercial driver's license, renewal of such a license, or waiver for farm-related service industries shall be accompanied by a fee of twenty-five dollars, except that an application for a commercial driver's license or restricted commercial driver's license received pursuant to division (A)(3) of section 4506.14 of the Revised Code shall be accompanied by a fee of eighteen dollars and seventy-five cents if the license will expire on the licensee's birthday three years after the date of issuance, a fee of twelve dollars and fifty cents if the license will expire on the licensee's birthday two years after the date of issuance, and a fee of six dollars and twenty-five cents if the license will expire on the licensee's birthday one year after the date of issuance. Each application for a duplicate commercial driver's license shall be accompanied by a fee of ten dollars.

(2) In addition, the registrar of motor vehicles or deputy registrar may collect and retain an additional fee of no more than three dollars and fifty cents for each application for a commercial driver's license temporary instruction permit, commercial driver's license, renewal of a commercial driver's license, or duplicate commercial driver's license received by the registrar or deputy.

(B) In addition to the fees imposed under division (A) of this section, the registrar of motor vehicles or deputy registrar shall collect a fee of twelve dollars for each application for a commercial driver's license temporary instruction permit, commercial driver's license, or duplicate commercial driver's license and for each application for renewal of a commercial driver's license. The additional fee is for the purpose of defraying the department of public safety's costs associated with the administration and enforcement of the motor vehicle and traffic laws of Ohio.

(C) Each deputy registrar shall transmit the fees collected under divisions (A)(1) and (B) of this section in the time and manner prescribed by the registrar. The registrar shall deposit all moneys ~~received~~ collected under division ~~(C)~~(A)(1) of this section into the state ~~highway safety~~ bureau of motor vehicles fund established in section ~~4501.06~~ 4501.25 of the Revised Code. The registrar shall deposit all moneys collected under division (B) of this section into the state highway safety fund established in section 4501.06 of the Revised Code.

(D) Information regarding the driving record of any person holding a commercial driver's license issued by this state shall be furnished by the registrar, upon request and payment of a fee of five dollars, to the employer or prospective employer of such a person and to any insurer.

Of each five-dollar fee the registrar collects under this division, the registrar shall pay two dollars into the state treasury to the credit of the state bureau of motor vehicles fund established in section 4501.25 of the Revised Code, sixty cents into the state treasury to the credit of the trauma and emergency medical services fund established in section 4513.263 of the Revised Code, sixty cents into the state treasury to the credit of the homeland security fund established in section 5502.03 of the Revised Code, thirty cents into the state treasury to the credit of the investigations fund established in section 5502.131 of the Revised Code, one dollar and twenty-five cents into the state treasury to the credit of the emergency management agency service and reimbursement fund established in section 5502.39 of the Revised Code, and twenty-five cents into the state treasury to the credit of the justice program services fund established in section 5502.67 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 4506.09. (A) The registrar of motor vehicles, subject to approval by the director of public safety, shall adopt rules conforming with applicable standards adopted by the federal motor carrier safety administration as regulations under Pub. L. No. 103-272, 108 Stat. 1014 to 1029 (1994), 49 U.S.C.A. 31301 to 31317. The rules shall establish requirements for the qualification and testing of persons applying for a commercial driver's license, which shall be in addition to other requirements established by this chapter. Except as provided in division (B) of this section, the highway patrol or any other employee of the department of public safety the registrar authorizes shall supervise and conduct the testing of persons applying for a commercial driver's license.

(B) The director may adopt rules, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and applicable requirements of the federal motor carrier safety administration, authorizing the skills test specified in this section to be administered by any person, by an agency of this or another state, or by an agency, department, or instrumentality of local government. Each party authorized under this division to administer the skills test may charge a maximum divisible fee of eighty-five dollars for each skills test given as part of a commercial driver's license examination. The fee shall consist of not more than twenty dollars for the pre-trip inspection portion of the test, not more than twenty dollars for the off-road maneuvering portion of the test, and not more than forty-five dollars for the on-road portion of the test. Each such party may require an appointment fee in the same manner provided in division (F)(2) of this section, except that the maximum amount such a party may require as an appointment fee is eighty-five dollars. The skills test administered by another party under this division shall be the same as otherwise would be administered by this state. The other party shall enter into an agreement with the director that, without limitation, does all of the following:

(1) Allows the director or the director's representative and the federal motor carrier safety administration or its representative to conduct random examinations, inspections, and audits of the other party without prior notice;

(2) Requires the director or the director's representative to conduct on-site inspections of the other party at least annually;

(3) Requires that all examiners of the other party meet the same qualification and training standards as examiners of the department of public safety, to the extent necessary to conduct skills tests in the manner required by 49 C.F.R. 383.110 through 383.135;

(4) Requires either that state employees take, at least annually and as though the employees were test applicants, the tests actually administered by the other party, that the director test a sample of drivers who were examined by the other party to compare the test results, or that state employees accompany a test applicant during an actual test;

(5) Reserves to this state the right to take prompt and appropriate remedial action against testers of the other party if the other party fails to comply with standards of this state or federal standards for the testing program or with any other terms of the contract.

(C) The director shall enter into an agreement with the department of education authorizing the skills test specified in this section to be administered by the department at any location operated by the department for purposes of training and testing school bus drivers, provided that the agreement between the director and the department complies with the requirements of division (B) of this section. Skills tests administered by the department shall be limited to persons applying for a commercial driver's license with a school bus endorsement.

(D) The director shall adopt rules, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, authorizing waiver of the skills test specified in this section for any applicant for a commercial driver's license who meets all of the following requirements:

(1) Certifies that, during the two-year period immediately preceding application for a commercial driver's license, all of the following apply:

(c) The applicant has not had any convictions for any type of motor vehicle for the offenses for which disqualification is prescribed in section 4506.16 of the Revised Code.

(d) The applicant has not had any violation of a state or local law relating to motor vehicle traffic control other than a parking violation arising in connection with any traffic accident and has no record of an accident in which the applicant was at fault.

(e) The applicant has previously taken and passed a skills test given by a state with a classified licensing and testing system in which the test was behind-the-wheel in a representative vehicle for the applicant's commercial driver's license classification.

(2) Certifies and also provides evidence that the applicant is regularly employed in a job requiring operation of a commercial motor vehicle and that one of the following applies:

(a) The applicant has previously taken and passed a skills test given by a state with a classified licensing and testing system in which the test was behind-the-wheel in a representative vehicle for the applicant's commercial driver's license classification.

(b) The applicant has regularly operated, for at least two years immediately preceding application for a commercial driver's license, a vehicle representative of the commercial motor vehicle the applicant operates or expects to operate.

(E) The director shall adopt rules, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, authorizing waiver of the skills test specified in this section for any applicant for a commercial driver's license who meets all of the following requirements:

(1) At the time of applying, is a member or uniformed employee of the armed forces of the United States or their reserve components, including the Ohio national guard, or separated from such service or employment within the preceding ninety days;

(2) Certifies that, during the two-year period immediately preceding application for a commercial driver's license, all of the following apply:

(a) The applicant has not had more than one license, excluding any military license.

(c) The applicant has not had any convictions for any type of motor vehicle for the offenses for which disqualification is prescribed in section 4506.16 of the Revised Code.

(d) The applicant has not had more than one conviction for any type of motor vehicle for a serious traffic violation.

(e) The applicant has not had any violation of a state or local law relating to motor vehicle traffic control other than a parking violation arising in connection with any traffic accident and has no record of an accident in which the applicant was at fault.

(3) In accordance with rules adopted by the director, certifies and also provides evidence of all of the following:

(a) That the applicant is regularly employed or was regularly employed within the preceding ninety days in a military position requiring operation of a commercial motor vehicle;

(b) That the applicant was exempt from the requirements of this chapter under division (B)(6) of section 4506.03 of the Revised Code;

(c) That, for at least two years immediately preceding the date of application or at least two years immediately preceding the date the applicant separated from military service or employment, the applicant regularly operated a vehicle representative of the commercial motor vehicle type that the applicant operates or expects to operate.

(F)(1) The department of public safety may charge and collect a divisible fee of fifty dollars for each skills test given as part of a commercial driver's license examination. The fee shall consist of ten dollars for the pre-trip inspection portion of the test, ten dollars for the off-road maneuvering portion of the test, and thirty dollars for the on-road portion of the test.

(2) The director may require an applicant for a commercial driver's license who schedules an appointment with the highway patrol or other authorized employee of the department of public safety to take all portions of the skills test, to pay an appointment fee of fifty dollars at the time of scheduling the appointment. If the applicant appears at the time and location specified for the appointment and takes all portions of the skills test during that appointment, the appointment fee shall serve as the skills test fee. If the applicant schedules an appointment to take all portions of the skills test and fails to appear at the time and location specified for the appointment, no portion of the appointment fee shall be refunded. If the applicant schedules an appointment to take all portions of the skills test and appears at the time and location specified for the appointment, but declines or is unable to take all portions of the skills test, no portion of the appointment fee shall be refunded. If the applicant cancels a scheduled appointment forty-eight hours or more prior to the time of the appointment time, the applicant shall not forfeit the appointment fee.

An applicant for a commercial driver's license who schedules an appointment to take one or more, but not all, portions of the skills test shall be required to pay an appointment fee equal to the costs of each test scheduled, as prescribed in division (F)(1) of this section, when scheduling such an appointment. If the applicant appears at the time and location specified for the appointment and takes all the portions of the skills test during that appointment that the applicant was scheduled to take, the appointment fee shall serve as the skills test fee. If the applicant schedules an appointment to take one or more, but not all, portions of the skills test and fails to appear at the time and location specified for the appointment, no portion of the appointment fee shall be refunded. If the applicant schedules an appointment to take one or more, but not all, portions of the skills test and appears at the time and location specified for the appointment, but declines or is unable to take all portions of the skills test that the applicant was scheduled to take, no portion of the appointment fee shall be refunded. If the applicant cancels a scheduled appointment forty-eight hours or more prior to the time of the appointment time, the applicant shall not forfeit the appointment fee.

(3) The department of public safety shall deposit all fees it collects under division (F) of this section in the state ~~highway safety~~ bureau of motor vehicles fund established in section 4501.25 of the Revised Code.

(G) As used in this section, "skills test" means a test of an applicant's ability to drive the type of commercial motor vehicle for which the applicant seeks a commercial driver's license by having the applicant drive such a motor vehicle while under the supervision of an authorized state driver's license examiner or tester.

Sec. 4507.011. (A) Each deputy registrar assigned to a driver's license examining station by the registrar of motor vehicles as provided in section 4507.01 of the Revised Code shall remit to the director of public safety a rental fee equal to the percentage of space occupied by the deputy registrar in the driver's license examining station multiplied by the rental fee paid for the entire driver's license examining station plus a pro rata share of all utility costs. All such moneys received by the director shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the ~~registrar rental~~ state bureau of motor vehicles fund~~, which is hereby~~ created in section 4501.25 of the Revised Code. The moneys in the fund shall be used by the department of public safety only to pay the rent and expenses of the driver's license examining stations. All investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund.

(B) Each deputy registrar assigned to a bureau of motor vehicles' location shall reimburse the registrar a monthly building rental fee, including applicable utility charges. All such moneys received by the registrar shall be deposited into the state bureau of motor vehicles fund ~~created in section 4501.25 of the Revised Code~~.

Sec. 4507.05. (A) The registrar of motor vehicles, or a deputy registrar, upon receiving an application for a temporary instruction permit and a temporary instruction permit identification card for a driver's license from any person who is at least fifteen years six months of age, may issue such a permit and identification card entitling the applicant to drive a motor vehicle, other than a commercial motor vehicle, upon the highways under the following conditions:

(1) If the permit is issued to a person who is at least fifteen years six months of age, but less than sixteen years of age:

(a) The permit and identification card are in the holder's immediate possession;

(b) The holder is accompanied by an eligible adult who actually occupies the seat beside the permit holder and does not have a prohibited concentration of alcohol in the whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, or urine as provided in division (A) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code;

(c) The total number of occupants of the vehicle does not exceed the total number of occupant restraining devices originally installed in the motor vehicle by its manufacturer, and each occupant of the vehicle is wearing all of the available elements of a properly adjusted occupant restraining device.

(a) The permit and identification card are in the holder's immediate possession;

(b) The holder is accompanied by a licensed operator who is at least twenty-one years of age, is actually occupying a seat beside the driver, and does not have a prohibited concentration of alcohol in the whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, or urine as provided in division (A) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code;

(B) The registrar or a deputy registrar, upon receiving from any person an application for a temporary instruction permit and temporary instruction permit identification card to operate a motorcycle or motorized bicycle, may issue such a permit and identification card entitling the applicant, while having the permit and identification card in the applicant's immediate possession, to drive a motorcycle under the restrictions prescribed in section 4511.53 of the Revised Code, or to drive a motorized bicycle under restrictions determined by the registrar. A temporary instruction permit and temporary instruction permit identification card to operate a motorized bicycle may be issued to a person fourteen or fifteen years old.

(C) Any permit and identification card issued under this section shall be issued in the same manner as a driver's license, upon a form to be furnished by the registrar. A temporary instruction permit to drive a motor vehicle other than a commercial motor vehicle shall be valid for a period of one year.

(D) Any person having in the person's possession a valid and current driver's license or motorcycle operator's license or endorsement issued to the person by another jurisdiction recognized by this state is exempt from obtaining a temporary instruction permit for a driver's license~~, but shall submit~~ and from submitting to the examination for a temporary instruction permit and the regular examination in for obtaining a driver's license or motorcycle operator's endorsement in this state if the person does all of the following:

(1) Submits to and passes vision screening as provided in section 4507.12 of the Revised Code;

(2) Surrenders to the registrar or deputy registrar the person's driver's license issued by the other jurisdiction; and

(3) Complies with all other applicable requirements for issuance by this state of a driver's license, driver's license with a motorcycle operator's endorsement, or restricted license to operate a motorcycle.

If the person does not comply with all the requirements of this division, the person shall submit to the regular examination for obtaining a driver's license or motorcycle operator's endorsement in this state in order to obtain such a license or endorsement.

(E) The registrar may adopt rules governing the use of temporary instruction permits and temporary instruction permit identification cards.

(F)(1) No holder of a permit issued under division (A) of this section shall operate a motor vehicle upon a highway or any public or private property used by the public for purposes of vehicular travel or parking in violation of the conditions established under division (A) of this section.

(2) Except as provided in division (F)(2) of this section, no holder of a permit that is issued under division (A) of this section and that is issued on or after July 1, 1998, and who has not attained the age of eighteen years, shall operate a motor vehicle upon a highway or any public or private property used by the public for purposes of vehicular travel or parking between the hours of midnight and six a.m.

The holder of a permit issued under division (A) of this section on or after July 1, 1998, who has not attained the age of eighteen years, may operate a motor vehicle upon a highway or any public or private property used by the public for purposes of vehicular travel or parking between the hours of midnight and six a.m. if, at the time of such operation, the holder is accompanied by the holder's parent, guardian, or custodian, and the parent, guardian, or custodian holds a current valid driver's or commercial driver's license issued by this state, is actually occupying a seat beside the permit holder, and does not have a prohibited concentration of alcohol in the whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, or urine as provided in division (A) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code.

(G)(1) Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, no law enforcement officer shall cause the operator of a motor vehicle being operated on any street or highway to stop the motor vehicle for the sole purpose of determining whether each occupant of the motor vehicle is wearing all of the available elements of a properly adjusted occupant restraining device as required by division (A) of this section, or for the sole purpose of issuing a ticket, citation, or summons if the requirement in that division has been or is being violated, or for causing the arrest of or commencing a prosecution of a person for a violation of that requirement.

(2) Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, no law enforcement officer shall cause the operator of a motor vehicle being operated on any street or highway to stop the motor vehicle for the sole purpose of determining whether a violation of division (F)(2) of this section has been or is being committed or for the sole purpose of issuing a ticket, citation, or summons for such a violation or for causing the arrest of or commencing a prosecution of a person for such violation.

(a) An instructor of a driver training course approved by the department of public safety;

(b) Any of the following persons who holds a current valid driver's or commercial driver's license issued by this state:

(ii) A person twenty-one years of age or older who acts in loco parentis of the permit holder.

(2) "Occupant restraining device" has the same meaning as in section 4513.263 of the Revised Code.

(I) Whoever violates division (F)(1) or (2) of this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.

Sec. 4507.23. (A) Except as provided in division (I) of this section, each application for a temporary instruction permit and examination shall be accompanied by a fee of five dollars.

(B) Except as provided in division (I) of this section, each application for a driver's license made by a person who previously held such a license and whose license has expired not more than two years prior to the date of application, and who is required under this chapter to give an actual demonstration of the person's ability to drive, shall be accompanied by a fee of three dollars in addition to any other fees.

(C)(1) Except as provided in divisions (E) and (I) of this section, each application for a driver's license, or motorcycle operator's endorsement, or renewal of a driver's license shall be accompanied by a fee of six dollars.

(2) Except as provided in division (I) of this section, each application for a duplicate driver's license shall be accompanied by a fee of seven dollars and fifty cents. The duplicate driver's licenses issued under this section shall be distributed by the deputy registrar in accordance with rules adopted by the registrar of motor vehicles.

(D) Except as provided in division (I) of this section, each application for a motorized bicycle license or duplicate thereof shall be accompanied by a fee of two dollars and fifty cents.

(E) Except as provided in division (I) of this section, each application for a driver's license or renewal of a driver's license that will be issued to a person who is less than twenty-one years of age shall be accompanied by whichever of the following fees is applicable:

(1) If the person is sixteen years of age or older, but less than seventeen years of age, a fee of seven dollars and twenty-five cents;

(2) If the person is seventeen years of age or older, but less than eighteen years of age, a fee of six dollars;

(3) If the person is eighteen years of age or older, but less than nineteen years of age, a fee of four dollars and seventy-five cents;

(4) If the person is nineteen years of age or older, but less than twenty years of age, a fee of three dollars and fifty cents;

(5) If the person is twenty years of age or older, but less than twenty-one years of age, a fee of two dollars and twenty-five cents.

(F) Neither the registrar nor any deputy registrar shall charge a fee in excess of one dollar and fifty cents for laminating a driver's license, motorized bicycle license, or temporary instruction permit identification cards as required by sections 4507.13 and 4511.521 of the Revised Code. A deputy registrar laminating a driver's license, motorized bicycle license, or temporary instruction permit identification cards shall retain the entire amount of the fee charged for lamination, less the actual cost to the registrar of the laminating materials used for that lamination, as specified in the contract executed by the bureau for the laminating materials and laminating equipment. The deputy registrar shall forward the amount of the cost of the laminating materials to the registrar for deposit as provided in this section.

(G) Except as provided in division (I) of this section, each transaction described in divisions (A), (B), (C), (D), and (E) of this section shall be accompanied by an additional fee of twelve dollars. The additional fee is for the purpose of defraying the department of public safety's costs associated with the administration and enforcement of the motor vehicle and traffic laws of Ohio.

(H) At the time and in the manner provided by section 4503.10 of the Revised Code, the deputy registrar shall transmit the fees collected under divisions (A), (B), (C), (D), and (E), those portions of the fees specified in and collected under division (F), and the additional fee under division (G) of this section to the registrar. The registrar shall pay two dollars and fifty cents of each fee collected under divisions (A), (B), (C)(1) and (2), (D), and (E)(1) to (4) of this section, and the entire fee collected under division (E)(5) of this section, into the state ~~highway safety~~ bureau of motor vehicles fund established in section ~~4501.06~~ 4501.25 of the Revised Code, and such fees shall be used for the sole purpose of supporting driver licensing activities. The registrar also shall pay five dollars of each fee collected under division (C)(2) of this section and the entire fee collected under division (G) of this section into the state highway safety fund created in section 4501.06 of the Revised Code. The remaining fees collected by the registrar under this section shall be paid into the state bureau of motor vehicles fund established in section 4501.25 of the Revised Code.

(I) A disabled veteran who has a service-connected disability rated at one hundred per cent by the veterans' administration may apply to the registrar or a deputy registrar for the issuance to that veteran, without the payment of any fee prescribed in this section, of any of the following items:

(5) Lamination of a driver's license, motorized bicycle license, or temporary instruction permit identification card as provided in division (F) of this section.

An application made under division (I) of this section shall be accompanied by such documentary evidence of disability as the registrar may require by rule.

Sec. 4511.01. As used in this chapter and in Chapter 4513. of the Revised Code:

(A) "Vehicle" means every device, including a motorized bicycle, in, upon, or by which any person or property may be transported or drawn upon a highway, except that "vehicle" does not include any motorized wheelchair, any electric personal assistive mobility device, any device that is moved by power collected from overhead electric trolley wires or that is used exclusively upon stationary rails or tracks, or any device, other than a bicycle, that is moved by human power.

(B) "Motor vehicle" means every vehicle propelled or drawn by power other than muscular power or power collected from overhead electric trolley wires, except motorized bicycles, road rollers, traction engines, power shovels, power cranes, and other equipment used in construction work and not designed for or employed in general highway transportation, hole-digging machinery, well-drilling machinery, ditch-digging machinery, farm machinery, and trailers designed and used exclusively to transport a boat between a place of storage and a marina, or in and around a marina, when drawn or towed on a street or highway for a distance of no more than ten miles and at a speed of twenty-five miles per hour or less.

(C) "Motorcycle" means every motor vehicle, other than a tractor, having a seat or saddle for the use of the operator and designed to travel on not more than three wheels in contact with the ground, including, but not limited to, motor vehicles known as "motor-driven cycle," "motor scooter," or "motorcycle" without regard to weight or brake horsepower.

(D) "Emergency vehicle" means emergency vehicles of municipal, township, or county departments or public utility corporations when identified as such as required by law, the director of public safety, or local authorities, and motor vehicles when commandeered by a police officer.

(1) Ambulances, including private ambulance companies under contract to a municipal corporation, township, or county, and private ambulances and nontransport vehicles bearing license plates issued under section 4503.49 of the Revised Code;

(2) Motor vehicles used by public law enforcement officers or other persons sworn to enforce the criminal and traffic laws of the state;

(3) Any motor vehicle when properly identified as required by the director of public safety, when used in response to fire emergency calls or to provide emergency medical service to ill or injured persons, and when operated by a duly qualified person who is a member of a volunteer rescue service or a volunteer fire department, and who is on duty pursuant to the rules or directives of that service. The state fire marshal shall be designated by the director of public safety as the certifying agency for all public safety vehicles described in division (E)(3) of this section.

(4) Vehicles used by fire departments, including motor vehicles when used by volunteer fire fighters responding to emergency calls in the fire department service when identified as required by the director of public safety.

Any vehicle used to transport or provide emergency medical service to an ill or injured person, when certified as a public safety vehicle, shall be considered a public safety vehicle when transporting an ill or injured person to a hospital regardless of whether such vehicle has already passed a hospital.

(5) Vehicles used by the motor carrier enforcement unit for the enforcement of orders and rules of the public utilities commission as specified in section 5503.34 of the Revised Code.

(F) "School bus" means every bus designed for carrying more than nine passengers that is owned by a public, private, or governmental agency or institution of learning and operated for the transportation of children to or from a school session or a school function, or owned by a private person and operated for compensation for the transportation of children to or from a school session or a school function, provided "school bus" does not include a bus operated by a municipally owned transportation system, a mass transit company operating exclusively within the territorial limits of a municipal corporation, or within such limits and the territorial limits of municipal corporations immediately contiguous to such municipal corporation, nor a common passenger carrier certified by the public utilities commission unless such bus is devoted exclusively to the transportation of children to and from a school session or a school function, and "school bus" does not include a van or bus used by a licensed child day-care center or type A family day-care home to transport children from the child day-care center or type A family day-care home to a school if the van or bus does not have more than fifteen children in the van or bus at any time.

(G) "Bicycle" means every device, other than a ~~tricycle~~ device that is designed solely for use as a play vehicle by a child, that is propelled solely by human power upon which ~~any~~ a person may ride ~~having~~, and that has two ~~tandem~~ or more wheels, ~~or one wheel in the front and two wheels in the rear, or two wheels in the front and one wheel in the rear,~~ any of which is more than fourteen inches in diameter.

(H) "Motorized bicycle" means any vehicle having either two tandem wheels or one wheel in the front and two wheels in the rear, that is capable of being pedaled and is equipped with a helper motor of not more than fifty cubic centimeters piston displacement that produces no more than one brake horsepower and is capable of propelling the vehicle at a speed of no greater than twenty miles per hour on a level surface.

(I) "Commercial tractor" means every motor vehicle having motive power designed or used for drawing other vehicles and not so constructed as to carry any load thereon, or designed or used for drawing other vehicles while carrying a portion of such other vehicles, or load thereon, or both.

(J) "Agricultural tractor" means every self-propelling vehicle designed or used for drawing other vehicles or wheeled machinery but having no provision for carrying loads independently of such other vehicles, and used principally for agricultural purposes.

(K) "Truck" means every motor vehicle, except trailers and semitrailers, designed and used to carry property.

(L) "Bus" means every motor vehicle designed for carrying more than nine passengers and used for the transportation of persons other than in a ridesharing arrangement, and every motor vehicle, automobile for hire, or funeral car, other than a taxicab or motor vehicle used in a ridesharing arrangement, designed and used for the transportation of persons for compensation.

(M) "Trailer" means every vehicle designed or used for carrying persons or property wholly on its own structure and for being drawn by a motor vehicle, including any such vehicle when formed by or operated as a combination of a "semitrailer" and a vehicle of the dolly type, such as that commonly known as a "trailer dolly," a vehicle used to transport agricultural produce or agricultural production materials between a local place of storage or supply and the farm when drawn or towed on a street or highway at a speed greater than twenty-five miles per hour, and a vehicle designed and used exclusively to transport a boat between a place of storage and a marina, or in and around a marina, when drawn or towed on a street or highway for a distance of more than ten miles or at a speed of more than twenty-five miles per hour.

(N) "Semitrailer" means every vehicle designed or used for carrying persons or property with another and separate motor vehicle so that in operation a part of its own weight or that of its load, or both, rests upon and is carried by another vehicle.

(O) "Pole trailer" means every trailer or semitrailer attached to the towing vehicle by means of a reach, pole, or by being boomed or otherwise secured to the towing vehicle, and ordinarily used for transporting long or irregular shaped loads such as poles, pipes, or structural members capable, generally, of sustaining themselves as beams between the supporting connections.

(P) "Railroad" means a carrier of persons or property operating upon rails placed principally on a private right-of-way.

(Q) "Railroad train" means a steam engine or an electric or other motor, with or without cars coupled thereto, operated by a railroad.

(R) "Streetcar" means a car, other than a railroad train, for transporting persons or property, operated upon rails principally within a street or highway.

(S) "Trackless trolley" means every car that collects its power from overhead electric trolley wires and that is not operated upon rails or tracks.

(T) "Explosives" means any chemical compound or mechanical mixture that is intended for the purpose of producing an explosion that contains any oxidizing and combustible units or other ingredients in such proportions, quantities, or packing that an ignition by fire, by friction, by concussion, by percussion, or by a detonator of any part of the compound or mixture may cause such a sudden generation of highly heated gases that the resultant gaseous pressures are capable of producing destructive effects on contiguous objects, or of destroying life or limb. Manufactured articles shall not be held to be explosives when the individual units contain explosives in such limited quantities, of such nature, or in such packing, that it is impossible to procure a simultaneous or a destructive explosion of such units, to the injury of life, limb, or property by fire, by friction, by concussion, by percussion, or by a detonator, such as fixed ammunition for small arms, firecrackers, or safety fuse matches.

(U) "Flammable liquid" means any liquid that has a flash point of seventy degrees fahrenheit, or less, as determined by a tagliabue or equivalent closed cup test device.

(V) "Gross weight" means the weight of a vehicle plus the weight of any load thereon.

(W) "Person" means every natural person, firm, co-partnership, association, or corporation.

(Y) "Driver or operator" means every person who drives or is in actual physical control of a vehicle, trackless trolley, or streetcar.

(Z) "Police officer" means every officer authorized to direct or regulate traffic, or to make arrests for violations of traffic regulations.

(AA) "Local authorities" means every county, municipal, and other local board or body having authority to adopt police regulations under the constitution and laws of this state.

(BB) "Street" or "highway" means the entire width between the boundary lines of every way open to the use of the public as a thoroughfare for purposes of vehicular travel.

(CC) "Controlled-access highway" means every street or highway in respect to which owners or occupants of abutting lands and other persons have no legal right of access to or from the same except at such points only and in such manner as may be determined by the public authority having jurisdiction over such street or highway.

(DD) "Private road or driveway" means every way or place in private ownership used for vehicular travel by the owner and those having express or implied permission from the owner but not by other persons.

(EE) "Roadway" means that portion of a highway improved, designed, or ordinarily used for vehicular travel, except the berm or shoulder. If a highway includes two or more separate roadways the term "roadway" means any such roadway separately but not all such roadways collectively.

(FF) "Sidewalk" means that portion of a street between the curb lines, or the lateral lines of a roadway, and the adjacent property lines, intended for the use of pedestrians.

(GG) "Laned highway" means a highway the roadway of which is divided into two or more clearly marked lanes for vehicular traffic.

(HH) "Through highway" means every street or highway as provided in section 4511.65 of the Revised Code.

(II) "State highway" means a highway under the jurisdiction of the department of transportation, outside the limits of municipal corporations, provided that the authority conferred upon the director of transportation in section 5511.01 of the Revised Code to erect state highway route markers and signs directing traffic shall not be modified by sections 4511.01 to 4511.79 and 4511.99 of the Revised Code.

(JJ) "State route" means every highway that is designated with an official state route number and so marked.

(1) The area embraced within the prolongation or connection of the lateral curb lines, or, if none, the lateral boundary lines of the roadways of two highways that join one another at, or approximately at, right angles, or the area within which vehicles traveling upon different highways that join at any other angle might come into conflict. The junction of an alley or driveway with a roadway or highway does not constitute an intersection unless the roadway or highway at the junction is controlled by a traffic control device.

(2) If a highway includes two roadways that are thirty feet or more apart, then every crossing of each roadway of such divided highway by an intersecting highway constitutes a separate intersection. If both intersecting highways include two roadways thirty feet or more apart, then every crossing of any two roadways of such highways constitutes a separate intersection.

(3) At a location controlled by a traffic control signal, regardless of the distance between the separate intersections as described in division (KK)(2) of this section:

(a) If a stop line, yield line, or crosswalk has not been designated on the roadway within the median between the separate intersections, the two intersections and the roadway and median constitute one intersection.

(b) Where a stop line, yield line, or crosswalk line is designated on the roadway on the intersection approach, the area within the crosswalk and any area beyond the designated stop line or yield line constitute part of the intersection.

(c) Where a crosswalk is designated on a roadway on the departure from the intersection, the intersection includes the area that extends to the far side of the crosswalk.

(1) That part of a roadway at intersections ordinarily included within the real or projected prolongation of property lines and curb lines or, in the absence of curbs, the edges of the traversable roadway;

(2) Any portion of a roadway at an intersection or elsewhere, distinctly indicated for pedestrian crossing by lines or other markings on the surface;

(3) Notwithstanding divisions (LL)(1) and (2) of this section, there shall not be a crosswalk where local authorities have placed signs indicating no crossing.

(MM) "Safety zone" means the area or space officially set apart within a roadway for the exclusive use of pedestrians and protected or marked or indicated by adequate signs as to be plainly visible at all times.

(NN) "Business district" means the territory fronting upon a street or highway, including the street or highway, between successive intersections within municipal corporations where fifty per cent or more of the frontage between such successive intersections is occupied by buildings in use for business, or within or outside municipal corporations where fifty per cent or more of the frontage for a distance of three hundred feet or more is occupied by buildings in use for business, and the character of such territory is indicated by official traffic control devices.

(OO) "Residence district" means the territory, not comprising a business district, fronting on a street or highway, including the street or highway, where, for a distance of three hundred feet or more, the frontage is improved with residences or residences and buildings in use for business.

(PP) "Urban district" means the territory contiguous to and including any street or highway which is built up with structures devoted to business, industry, or dwelling houses situated at intervals of less than one hundred feet for a distance of a quarter of a mile or more, and the character of such territory is indicated by official traffic control devices.

(QQ) "Traffic control device" means a flagger, sign, signal, marking, or other device used to regulate, warn, or guide traffic, placed on, over, or adjacent to a street, highway, private road open to public travel, pedestrian facility, or shared-use path by authority of a public agency or official having jurisdiction, or, in the case of a private road open to public travel, by authority of the private owner or private official having jurisdiction.

(RR) "Traffic control signal" means any highway traffic signal by which traffic is alternately directed to stop and permitted to proceed.

(SS) "Railroad sign or signal" means any sign, signal, or device erected by authority of a public body or official or by a railroad and intended to give notice of the presence of railroad tracks or the approach of a railroad train.

(TT) "Traffic" means pedestrians, ridden or herded animals, vehicles, streetcars, trackless trolleys, and other devices, either singly or together, while using for purposes of travel any highway or private road open to public travel.

(1) The right of a vehicle, streetcar, trackless trolley, or pedestrian to proceed uninterruptedly in a lawful manner in the direction in which it or the individual is moving in preference to another vehicle, streetcar, trackless trolley, or pedestrian approaching from a different direction into its or the individual's path;

(2) A general term denoting land, property, or the interest therein, usually in the configuration of a strip, acquired for or devoted to transportation purposes. When used in this context, right-of-way includes the roadway, shoulders or berm, ditch, and slopes extending to the right-of-way limits under the control of the state or local authority.

(VV) "Rural mail delivery vehicle" means every vehicle used to deliver United States mail on a rural mail delivery route.

(WW) "Funeral escort vehicle" means any motor vehicle, including a funeral hearse, while used to facilitate the movement of a funeral procession.

(XX) "Alley" means a street or highway intended to provide access to the rear or side of lots or buildings in urban districts and not intended for the purpose of through vehicular traffic, and includes any street or highway that has been declared an "alley" by the legislative authority of the municipal corporation in which such street or highway is located.

(YY) "Freeway" means a divided multi-lane highway for through traffic with all crossroads separated in grade and with full control of access.

(ZZ) "Expressway" means a divided arterial highway for through traffic with full or partial control of access with an excess of fifty per cent of all crossroads separated in grade.

(AAA) "Thruway" means a through highway whose entire roadway is reserved for through traffic and on which roadway parking is prohibited.

(BBB) "Stop intersection" means any intersection at one or more entrances of which stop signs are erected.

(CCC) "Arterial street" means any United States or state numbered route, controlled access highway, or other major radial or circumferential street or highway designated by local authorities within their respective jurisdictions as part of a major arterial system of streets or highways.

(DDD) "Ridesharing arrangement" means the transportation of persons in a motor vehicle where such transportation is incidental to another purpose of a volunteer driver and includes ridesharing arrangements known as carpools, vanpools, and buspools.

(EEE) "Motorized wheelchair" means any self-propelled vehicle designed for, and used by, a handicapped person and that is incapable of a speed in excess of eight miles per hour.

(FFF) "Child day-care center" and "type A family day-care home" have the same meanings as in section 5104.01 of the Revised Code.

(GGG) "Multi-wheel agricultural tractor" means a type of agricultural tractor that has two or more wheels or tires on each side of one axle at the rear of the tractor, is designed or used for drawing other vehicles or wheeled machinery, has no provision for carrying loads independently of the drawn vehicles or machinery, and is used principally for agricultural purposes.

(HHH) "Operate" means to cause or have caused movement of a vehicle, streetcar, or trackless trolley.

(1) A violation of section 4511.03, 4511.051, 4511.12, 4511.132, 4511.16, 4511.20, 4511.201, 4511.21, 4511.211, 4511.213, 4511.22, 4511.23, 4511.25, 4511.26, 4511.27, 4511.28, 4511.29, 4511.30, 4511.31, 4511.32, 4511.33, 4511.34, 4511.35, 4511.36, 4511.37, 4511.38, 4511.39, 4511.40, 4511.41, 4511.42, 4511.43, 4511.431, 4511.432, 4511.44, 4511.441, 4511.451, 4511.452, 4511.46, 4511.47, 4511.48, 4511.481, 4511.49, 4511.50, 4511.511, 4511.53, 4511.54, 4511.55, 4511.56, 4511.57, 4511.58, 4511.59, 4511.60, 4511.61, 4511.64, 4511.66, 4511.661, 4511.68, 4511.70, 4511.701, 4511.71, 4511.711, 4511.712, 4511.713, 4511.72, 4511.73, 4511.763, 4511.771, 4511.78, or 4511.84 of the Revised Code;

(2) A violation of division (A)(2) of section 4511.17, divisions (A) to (D) of section 4511.51, or division (A) of section 4511.74 of the Revised Code;

(3) A violation of any provision of sections 4511.01 to 4511.76 of the Revised Code for which no penalty otherwise is provided in the section that contains the provision violated;

(4) A violation of a municipal ordinance that is substantially similar to any section or provision set forth or described in division (III)(1), (2), or (3) of this section.

(JJJ) "Road service vehicle" means wreckers, utility repair vehicles, and state, county, and municipal service vehicles equipped with visual signals by means of flashing, rotating, or oscillating lights.

(KKK) "Beacon" means a highway traffic signal with one or more signal sections that operate in a flashing mode.

(LLL) "Hybrid beacon" means a type of beacon that is intentionally placed in a dark mode between periods of operation where no indications are displayed and, when in operation, displays both steady and flashing traffic control signal indications.

(MMM) "Highway traffic signal" means a power-operated traffic control device by which traffic is warned or directed to take some specific action. "Highway traffic signal" does not include a power-operated sign, steadily illuminated pavement marker, warning light, or steady burning electric lamp.

(NNN) "Median" means the area between two roadways of a divided highway, measured from edge of traveled way to edge of traveled way, but excluding turn lanes. The width of a median may be different between intersections, between interchanges, and at opposite approaches of the same intersection.

(OOO) "Private road open to public travel" means a private toll road or road, including any adjacent sidewalks that generally run parallel to the road, within a shopping center, airport, sports arena, or other similar business or recreation facility that is privately owned but where the public is allowed to travel without access restrictions. "Private road open to public travel" includes a gated toll road but does not include a road within a private gated property where access is restricted at all times, a parking area, a driving aisle within a parking area, or a private grade crossing.

(PPP) "Shared-use path" means a bikeway outside the traveled way and physically separated from motorized vehicular traffic by an open space or barrier and either within the highway right-of-way or within an independent alignment. A shared-use path also may be used by pedestrians, including skaters, joggers, users of manual and motorized wheelchairs, and other authorized motorized and non-motorized users.

Sec. 4511.13. Highway traffic signal indications for vehicles and pedestrians shall have the following meanings:

(1)(a) Vehicular traffic, streetcars, and trackless trolleys facing a circular green signal indication are permitted to proceed straight through or turn right or left or make a u-turn movement except as such movement is modified by a lane-use sign, turn prohibition sign, lane marking, roadway design, separate turn signal indication, or other traffic control device. Such vehicular traffic, including vehicles turning right or left or making a u-turn movement, shall yield the right-of-way to both of the following:

(b) In addition, vehicular traffic turning left or making a u-turn movement to the left shall yield the right-of-way to other vehicles approaching from the opposite direction so closely as to constitute an immediate hazard during the time when such turning vehicle is moving across or within the intersection.

(2) Vehicular traffic, streetcars, and trackless trolleys facing a green arrow signal indication, displayed alone or in combination with another signal indication, are permitted to cautiously enter the intersection only to make the movement indicated by such arrow, or such other movement as is permitted by other indications displayed at the same time. Such vehicular traffic, streetcars, and trackless trolleys, including vehicles turning right or left or making a u-turn movement, shall yield the right-of-way to both of the following:

(3)(a) Unless otherwise directed by a pedestrian signal indication, as provided in section 4511.14 of the Revised Code, pedestrians facing a circular green signal indication are permitted to proceed across the roadway within any marked or unmarked associated crosswalk. The pedestrian shall yield the right-of-way to vehicles lawfully within the intersection or so close as to create an immediate hazard at the time that the green signal indication is first displayed.

(b) Pedestrians facing a green arrow signal indication, unless otherwise directed by a pedestrian signal indication or other traffic control device, shall not cross the roadway.

(1) Vehicular traffic, streetcars, and trackless trolleys facing a steady circular yellow signal indication are thereby warned that the related green movement or the related flashing arrow movement is being terminated or that a steady red signal indication will be exhibited immediately thereafter when vehicular traffic, streetcars, and trackless trolleys shall not enter the intersection. The provisions governing vehicular operation under the movement being terminated shall continue to apply while the steady circular yellow signal indication is displayed.

(2) Vehicular traffic facing a steady yellow arrow signal indication is thereby warned that the related green arrow movement or the related flashing arrow movement is being terminated. The provisions governing vehicular operation under the movement being terminated shall continue to apply while the steady yellow arrow signal indication is displayed.

(3) Pedestrians facing a steady circular yellow or yellow arrow signal indication, unless otherwise directed by a pedestrian signal indication as provided in section 4511.14 of the Revised Code or other traffic control device, shall not start to cross the roadway.

(1)(a) Vehicular traffic, streetcars, and trackless trolleys facing a steady circular red signal indication, unless entering the intersection to make another movement permitted by another signal indication, shall stop at a clearly marked stop line; but if there is no stop line, traffic shall stop before entering the crosswalk on the near side of the intersection; or if there is no crosswalk, then before entering the intersection; and shall remain stopped until a signal indication to proceed is displayed except as provided in divisions (C)(1), (2), and (3) of this section.

(b) Except when a traffic control device is in place prohibiting a turn on red or a steady red arrow signal indication is displayed, vehicular traffic facing a steady circular red signal indication is permitted, after stopping, to enter the intersection to turn right, or to turn left from a one-way street~~, after stopping~~ into a one-way street. The right to proceed with the turn shall be subject to the provisions that are applicable after making a stop at a stop sign.

(2)(a) Vehicular traffic, streetcars, and trackless trolleys facing a steady red arrow signal indication shall not enter the intersection to make the movement indicated by the arrow and, unless entering the intersection to make another movement permitted by another signal indication, shall stop at a clearly marked stop line; but if there is no stop line, before entering the crosswalk on the near side of the intersection; or if there is no crosswalk, then before entering the intersection; and shall remain stopped until a signal indication or other traffic control device permitting the movement indicated by such red arrow is displayed.

(b) When a traffic control device is in place permitting a turn on a steady red arrow signal indication, vehicular traffic facing a steady red arrow indication is permitted, after stopping, to enter the intersection to ~~make the movement indicated by the arrow signal indication, after stopping~~ turn right, or to turn left from a one-way street into a one-way street. The right to proceed with the turn shall be limited to the direction indicated by the arrow and shall be subject to the provisions that are applicable after making a stop at a stop sign.

(3) Unless otherwise directed by a pedestrian signal indication as provided in section 4511.14 of the Revised Code or other traffic control device, pedestrians facing a steady circular red or steady red arrow signal indication shall not enter the roadway.

(4) Local authorities by ordinance, or the director of transportation on state highways, may prohibit a right or a left turn against a steady red signal at any intersection, which shall be effective when signs giving notice thereof are posted at the intersection.

(1)(a) Vehicular traffic, on an approach to an intersection, facing a flashing circular yellow signal indication, is permitted to cautiously enter the intersection to proceed straight through or turn right or left or make a u-turn movement except as such movement is modified by lane-use signs, turn prohibition signs, lane markings, roadway design, separate turn signal indications, or other traffic control devices. Such vehicular traffic, including vehicles turning right or left or making a u-turn movement, shall yield the right-of-way to both of the following:

(b) In addition, vehicular traffic turning left or making a u-turn to the left shall yield the right-of-way to other vehicles approaching from the opposite direction so closely as to constitute an immediate hazard during the time when such turning vehicle is moving across or within the intersection.

(2)(a) Vehicular traffic, on an approach to an intersection, facing a flashing yellow arrow signal indication, displayed alone or in combination with another signal indication, is permitted to cautiously enter the intersection only to make the movement indicated by such arrow, or other such movement as is permitted by other signal indications displayed at the same time. Such vehicular traffic, including vehicles turning right or left or making a u-turn, shall yield the right-of-way to both of the following:

(3) Pedestrians facing any flashing yellow signal indication at an intersection, unless otherwise directed by a pedestrian signal indication or other traffic control device, are permitted to proceed across the roadway within any marked or unmarked associated crosswalk. Pedestrians shall yield the right-of-way to vehicles lawfully within the intersection at the time that the flashing yellow signal indication is first displayed.

(4) When a flashing circular yellow signal indication is displayed as a beacon to supplement another traffic control device, road users are notified that there is a need to pay additional attention to the message contained thereon or that the regulatory or warning requirements of the other traffic control device, which might not be applicable at all times, are currently applicable.

(1) Vehicular traffic, on an approach to an intersection, facing a flashing circular red signal indication, shall stop at a clearly marked stop line; but if there is no stop line, before entering the crosswalk on the near side of the intersection; or if there is no crosswalk, at the point nearest the intersecting roadway where the driver has a view of approaching traffic on the intersecting roadway before entering the intersection. The right to proceed shall be subject to the provisions that are applicable after making a stop at a stop sign.

(2) Pedestrians facing any flashing red signal indication at an intersection, unless otherwise directed by a pedestrian signal indication or other traffic control device, are permitted to proceed across the roadway within any marked or unmarked associated crosswalk. Pedestrians shall yield the right-of-way to vehicles lawfully within the intersection at the time that the flashing red signal indication is first displayed.

(3) When a flashing circular red signal indication is displayed as a beacon to supplement another traffic control device, road users are notified that there is a need to pay additional attention to the message contained thereon or that the regulatory requirements of the other traffic control device, which might not be applicable at all times, are currently applicable. Use of this signal indication shall be limited to supplementing stop, do not enter, or wrong way signs, and to applications where compliance with the supplemented traffic control device requires a stop at a designated point.

(G) In the event an official traffic-control signal is erected and maintained at a place other than an intersection, the provisions of this section shall be applicable except as to those provisions which by their nature can have no application. Any stop required shall be made at a sign or marking on the pavement indicating where the stop shall be made, but in the absence of any such sign or marking the stop shall be made at the signal.

(H) This section does not apply at railroad grade crossings. Conduct of drivers of vehicles, trackless trolleys, and streetcars approaching railroad grade crossings shall be governed by sections 4511.61 and 4511.62 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 4511.21. (A) No person shall operate a motor vehicle, trackless trolley, or streetcar at a speed greater or less than is reasonable or proper, having due regard to the traffic, surface, and width of the street or highway and any other conditions, and no person shall drive any motor vehicle, trackless trolley, or streetcar in and upon any street or highway at a greater speed than will permit the person to bring it to a stop within the assured clear distance ahead.

(B) It is prima-facie lawful, in the absence of a lower limit declared or established pursuant to this section by the director of transportation or local authorities, for the operator of a motor vehicle, trackless trolley, or streetcar to operate the same at a speed not exceeding the following:

(1)(a) Twenty miles per hour in school zones during school recess and while children are going to or leaving school during the opening or closing hours, and when twenty miles per hour school speed limit signs are erected; except that, on controlled-access highways and expressways, if the right-of-way line fence has been erected without pedestrian opening, the speed shall be governed by division (B)(4) of this section and on freeways, if the right-of-way line fence has been erected without pedestrian opening, the speed shall be governed by divisions (B)(9) and (10) of this section. The end of every school zone may be marked by a sign indicating the end of the zone. Nothing in this section or in the manual and specifications for a uniform system of traffic control devices shall be construed to require school zones to be indicated by signs equipped with flashing or other lights, or giving other special notice of the hours in which the school zone speed limit is in effect.

(b) As used in this section and in section 4511.212 of the Revised Code, "school" means any school chartered under section 3301.16 of the Revised Code and any nonchartered school that during the preceding year filed with the department of education in compliance with rule 3301-35-08 of the Ohio Administrative Code, a copy of the school's report for the parents of the school's pupils certifying that the school meets Ohio minimum standards for nonchartered, nontax-supported schools and presents evidence of this filing to the jurisdiction from which it is requesting the establishment of a school zone. "School" also includes a special elementary school that in writing requests the county engineer of the county in which the special elementary school is located to create a school zone at the location of that school. Upon receipt of such a written request, the county engineer shall create a school zone at that location by erecting the appropriate signs.

(c) As used in this section, "school zone" means that portion of a street or highway passing a school fronting upon the street or highway that is encompassed by projecting the school property lines to the fronting street or highway, and also includes that portion of a state highway. Upon request from local authorities for streets and highways under their jurisdiction and that portion of a state highway under the jurisdiction of the director of transportation or a request from a county engineer in the case of a school zone for a special elementary school, the director may extend the traditional school zone boundaries. The distances in divisions (B)(1)(c)(i), (ii), and (iii) of this section shall not exceed three hundred feet per approach per direction and are bounded by whichever of the following distances or combinations thereof the director approves as most appropriate:

(i) The distance encompassed by projecting the school building lines normal to the fronting highway and extending a distance of three hundred feet on each approach direction;

(ii) The distance encompassed by projecting the school property lines intersecting the fronting highway and extending a distance of three hundred feet on each approach direction;

(iii) The distance encompassed by the special marking of the pavement for a principal school pupil crosswalk plus a distance of three hundred feet on each approach direction of the highway.

Nothing in this section shall be construed to invalidate the director's initial action on August 9, 1976, establishing all school zones at the traditional school zone boundaries defined by projecting school property lines, except when those boundaries are extended as provided in divisions (B)(1)(a) and (c) of this section.

(d) As used in this division, "crosswalk" has the meaning given that term in division (LL)(2) of section 4511.01 of the Revised Code.

The director may, upon request by resolution of the legislative authority of a municipal corporation, the board of trustees of a township, or a county board of developmental disabilities created pursuant to Chapter 5126. of the Revised Code, and upon submission by the municipal corporation, township, or county board of such engineering, traffic, and other information as the director considers necessary, designate a school zone on any portion of a state route lying within the municipal corporation, lying within the unincorporated territory of the township, or lying adjacent to the property of a school that is operated by such county board, that includes a crosswalk customarily used by children going to or leaving a school during recess and opening and closing hours, whenever the distance, as measured in a straight line, from the school property line nearest the crosswalk to the nearest point of the crosswalk is no more than one thousand three hundred twenty feet. Such a school zone shall include the distance encompassed by the crosswalk and extending three hundred feet on each approach direction of the state route.

(e) As used in this section, "special elementary school" means a school that meets all of the following criteria:

(iv) A majority of the total number of students enrolled at the school are not related by blood.

(v) The principal or other person in charge of the special elementary school annually sends a report to the superintendent of the school district in which the special elementary school is located indicating the total number of students enrolled at the school, but otherwise the principal or other person in charge does not report any other information or data to the superintendent.

(2) Twenty-five miles per hour in all other portions of a municipal corporation, except on state routes outside business districts, through highways outside business districts, and alleys;

(3) Thirty-five miles per hour on all state routes or through highways within municipal corporations outside business districts, except as provided in divisions (B)(4) and (6) of this section;

(4) Fifty miles per hour on controlled-access highways and expressways within municipal corporations;

(5) Fifty-five miles per hour on highways outside municipal corporations, other than highways within island jurisdictions as provided in division (B)(8) of this section, highways as provided in division (B)(9) of this section, and freeways as provided in divisions (B)(13) ~~and (14)~~, (16), and (17) of this section;

(6) Fifty miles per hour on state routes within municipal corporations outside urban districts unless a lower prima-facie speed is established as further provided in this section;

(8) Thirty-five miles per hour on highways outside municipal corporations that are within an island jurisdiction;

(9) Sixty miles per hour on two-lane state routes outside municipal corporations as established by the director under division (H)(2) of this section.

(10) Fifty-five miles per hour at all times on freeways with paved shoulders inside municipal corporations, other than freeways as provided in divisions (B)(13) ~~and (14)~~, (16), and (17) of this section;

~~(10)~~(11) Fifty-five miles per hour at all times on freeways outside municipal corporations, other than freeways as provided in divisions (B)(13) ~~and (14)~~, (16), and (17) of this section;

~~(11)~~(12) Fifty-five miles per hour at all times ~~on all portions of freeways that are part of the interstate system and~~ on all portions of freeways that are not part of the interstate system, but are built to the standards and specifications that are applicable to freeways that are part of the interstate system for operators of any motor vehicle weighing in excess of eight thousand pounds empty weight and any noncommercial bus~~, except as provided in division (B)(14) of this section~~;

~~(12)~~(13) Fifty-five miles per hour for operators of any motor vehicle weighing eight thousand pounds or less empty weight and any commercial bus at all times on all portions of freeways that ~~are part of the interstate system and that had such a speed limit established prior to October 1, 1995, and freeways that~~ are not part of the interstate system, but are built to the standards and specifications that are applicable to freeways that are part of the interstate system and that had such a speed limit established prior to October 1, 1995, unless a higher speed limit is established under division (L) of this section;

~~(13)~~(14) Sixty-five miles per hour for operators of any motor vehicle weighing eight thousand pounds or less empty weight and any commercial bus at all times on all portions of the following:

(a) Freeways ~~that are part of the interstate system and that had such a speed limit established prior to October 1, 1995, and freeways~~ that are not part of the interstate system, but are built to the standards and specifications that are applicable to freeways that are part of the interstate system and that had such a speed limit established prior to October 1, 1995;

(b) Freeways ~~that are part of the interstate system and freeways~~ that are not part of the interstate system but are built to the standards and specifications that are applicable to freeways that are part of the interstate system, and that had such a speed limit established under division (L) of this section;

(c) Rural, divided, multi-lane highways that are designated as part of the national highway system under the "National Highway System Designation Act of 1995," 109 Stat. 568, 23 U.S.C.A. 103, and that had such a speed limit established under division (M) of this section.

~~(14) Sixty-five~~ (15) Fifty-five miles per hour for operators of any motor vehicle at all times on all portions of freeways in congested areas as determined by the director and that are part of the interstate system and are located within a municipal corporation or within an interstate freeway outerbelt;

(16) Sixty-five miles per hour for operators of any motor vehicle at all times on all portions of freeways in urban areas as determined by the director and that are part of the interstate system and are part of an interstate freeway outerbelt;

(17) Seventy miles per hour at all times on all portions of freeways that are part of the interstate system and ~~that had such a speed limit on the effective date of this amendment~~ are outside urbanized areas, as designated in accordance with 23 U.S.C. 101, for operators of ~~any~~ all motor ~~vehicle weighing in excess of eight thousand pounds empty weight and any noncommercial bus~~ vehicles.

(C) It is prima-facie unlawful for any person to exceed any of the speed limitations in divisions (B)(1)(a), (2), (3), (4), (6), (7), and (8) of this section, or any declared or established pursuant to this section by the director or local authorities and it is unlawful for any person to exceed any of the speed limitations in division (D) of this section. No person shall be convicted of more than one violation of this section for the same conduct, although violations of more than one provision of this section may be charged in the alternative in a single affidavit.

(D) No person shall operate a motor vehicle, trackless trolley, or streetcar upon a street or highway as follows:

(1) At a speed exceeding fifty-five miles per hour, except upon a two-lane state route as provided in division (B)(9) of this section and upon a freeway as provided in divisions (B)(13) ~~and (14)~~, (16), and (17) of this section;

(2) At a speed exceeding sixty miles per hour upon a two-lane state route as provided in division (B)(9) of this section.

(3) At a speed exceeding sixty-five miles per hour upon a freeway as provided in division (B)(16) of this section, except upon a freeway as provided in division (B)(17) of this section;

(4) At a speed exceeding ~~sixty-five~~ seventy miles per hour upon a freeway as provided in ~~divisions~~ division (B)~~(13) and (14)~~(17) of this section;

~~(3)~~(5) If a motor vehicle weighing in excess of eight thousand pounds empty weight or a noncommercial bus as prescribed in division (B)(11) of this section, at a speed exceeding fifty-five miles per hour, except upon a freeway as provided in ~~that division~~ divisions (B)(16) and (17) of this section;

~~(4)~~(6) At a speed exceeding the posted speed limit upon a freeway for which the director has determined and declared a speed limit of not more than sixty-five miles per hour pursuant to division (L)(2) or (M) of this section;

~~(5)~~(7) At a speed exceeding sixty-five miles per hour upon a freeway for which such a speed limit has been established through the operation of division (L)(3) of this section;

~~(6)~~(8) At a speed exceeding the posted speed limit upon a freeway for which the director has determined and declared a speed limit pursuant to division (I)(2) of this section.

(E) In every charge of violation of this section the affidavit and warrant shall specify the time, place, and speed at which the defendant is alleged to have driven, and in charges made in reliance upon division (C) of this section also the speed which division (B)(1)(a), (2), (3), (4), (6), (7), or (8) of, or a limit declared or established pursuant to, this section declares is prima-facie lawful at the time and place of such alleged violation, except that in affidavits where a person is alleged to have driven at a greater speed than will permit the person to bring the vehicle to a stop within the assured clear distance ahead the affidavit and warrant need not specify the speed at which the defendant is alleged to have driven.

(F) When a speed in excess of both a prima-facie limitation and a limitation in division (D)~~(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (6)~~ of this section is alleged, the defendant shall be charged in a single affidavit, alleging a single act, with a violation indicated of both division (B)(1)(a), (2), (3), (4), (6), (7), or (8) of this section, or of a limit declared or established pursuant to this section by the director or local authorities, and of the limitation in division (D)~~(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (6)~~ of this section. If the court finds a violation of division (B)(1)(a), (2), (3), (4), (6), (7), or (8) of, or a limit declared or established pursuant to, this section has occurred, it shall enter a judgment of conviction under such division and dismiss the charge under division (D)~~(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (6)~~ of this section. If it finds no violation of division (B)(1)(a), (2), (3), (4), (6), (7), or (8) of, or a limit declared or established pursuant to, this section, it shall then consider whether the evidence supports a conviction under division (D)~~(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (6)~~ of this section.

(G) Points shall be assessed for violation of a limitation under division (D) of this section in accordance with section 4510.036 of the Revised Code.

(H)(1) Whenever the director determines upon the basis of a geometric and traffic characteristic study that any speed limit set forth in divisions (B)(1)(a) to (D) of this section is greater or less than is reasonable or safe under the conditions found to exist at any portion of a street or highway under the jurisdiction of the director, the director shall determine and declare a reasonable and safe prima-facie speed limit, which shall be effective when appropriate signs giving notice of it are erected at the location.

(2) Whenever the director determines upon the basis of a geometric and traffic characteristic study that the speed limit of fifty-five miles per hour on a two-lane state route outside a municipal corporation is less than is reasonable or safe under the conditions found to exist at that portion of the state route, the director may determine and declare a speed limit of sixty miles per hour for that portion of the state route, which shall be effective when appropriate signs giving notice of it are erected at the location.

(I)(1) Except as provided in divisions (I)(2) and (K) of this section, whenever local authorities determine upon the basis of an engineering and traffic investigation that the speed permitted by divisions (B)(1)(a) to (D) of this section, on any part of a highway under their jurisdiction, is greater than is reasonable and safe under the conditions found to exist at such location, the local authorities may by resolution request the director to determine and declare a reasonable and safe prima-facie speed limit. Upon receipt of such request the director may determine and declare a reasonable and safe prima-facie speed limit at such location, and if the director does so, then such declared speed limit shall become effective only when appropriate signs giving notice thereof are erected at such location by the local authorities. The director may withdraw the declaration of a prima-facie speed limit whenever in the director's opinion the altered prima-facie speed becomes unreasonable. Upon such withdrawal, the declared prima-facie speed shall become ineffective and the signs relating thereto shall be immediately removed by the local authorities.

(2) A local authority may determine on the basis of a geometric and traffic characteristic study that the speed limit of sixty-five miles per hour on a portion of a freeway under its jurisdiction that was established through the operation of division (L)(3) of this section is greater than is reasonable or safe under the conditions found to exist at that portion of the freeway. If the local authority makes such a determination, the local authority by resolution may request the director to determine and declare a reasonable and safe speed limit of not less than fifty-five miles per hour for that portion of the freeway. If the director takes such action, the declared speed limit becomes effective only when appropriate signs giving notice of it are erected at such location by the local authority.

(J) Local authorities in their respective jurisdictions may authorize by ordinance higher prima-facie speeds than those stated in this section upon through highways, or upon highways or portions thereof where there are no intersections, or between widely spaced intersections, provided signs are erected giving notice of the authorized speed, but local authorities shall not modify or alter the basic rule set forth in division (A) of this section or in any event authorize by ordinance a speed in excess of fifty miles per hour.

Alteration of prima-facie limits on state routes by local authorities shall not be effective until the alteration has been approved by the director. The director may withdraw approval of any altered prima-facie speed limits whenever in the director's opinion any altered prima-facie speed becomes unreasonable, and upon such withdrawal, the altered prima-facie speed shall become ineffective and the signs relating thereto shall be immediately removed by the local authorities.

(K)(1) As used in divisions (K)(1), (2), (3), and (4) of this section, "unimproved highway" means a highway consisting of any of the following:

(2) Except as otherwise provided in divisions (K)(4) and (5) of this section, whenever a board of township trustees determines upon the basis of an engineering and traffic investigation that the speed permitted by division (B)(5) of this section on any part of an unimproved highway under its jurisdiction and in the unincorporated territory of the township is greater than is reasonable or safe under the conditions found to exist at the location, the board may by resolution declare a reasonable and safe prima-facie speed limit of fifty-five but not less than twenty-five miles per hour. An altered speed limit adopted by a board of township trustees under this division becomes effective when appropriate traffic control devices, as prescribed in section 4511.11 of the Revised Code, giving notice thereof are erected at the location, which shall be no sooner than sixty days after adoption of the resolution.

(3)(a) Whenever, in the opinion of a board of township trustees, any altered prima-facie speed limit established by the board under this division becomes unreasonable, the board may adopt a resolution withdrawing the altered prima-facie speed limit. Upon the adoption of such a resolution, the altered prima-facie speed limit becomes ineffective and the traffic control devices relating thereto shall be immediately removed.

(b) Whenever a highway ceases to be an unimproved highway and the board has adopted an altered prima-facie speed limit pursuant to division (K)(2) of this section, the board shall, by resolution, withdraw the altered prima-facie speed limit as soon as the highway ceases to be unimproved. Upon the adoption of such a resolution, the altered prima-facie speed limit becomes ineffective and the traffic control devices relating thereto shall be immediately removed.

(4)(a) If the boundary of two townships rests on the centerline of an unimproved highway in unincorporated territory and both townships have jurisdiction over the highway, neither of the boards of township trustees of such townships may declare an altered prima-facie speed limit pursuant to division (K)(2) of this section on the part of the highway under their joint jurisdiction unless the boards of township trustees of both of the townships determine, upon the basis of an engineering and traffic investigation, that the speed permitted by division (B)(5) of this section is greater than is reasonable or safe under the conditions found to exist at the location and both boards agree upon a reasonable and safe prima-facie speed limit of less than fifty-five but not less than twenty-five miles per hour for that location. If both boards so agree, each shall follow the procedure specified in division (K)(2) of this section for altering the prima-facie speed limit on the highway. Except as otherwise provided in division (K)(4)(b) of this section, no speed limit altered pursuant to division (K)(4)(a) of this section may be withdrawn unless the boards of township trustees of both townships determine that the altered prima-facie speed limit previously adopted becomes unreasonable and each board adopts a resolution withdrawing the altered prima-facie speed limit pursuant to the procedure specified in division (K)(3)(a) of this section.

(b) Whenever a highway described in division (K)(4)(a) of this section ceases to be an unimproved highway and two boards of township trustees have adopted an altered prima-facie speed limit pursuant to division (K)(4)(a) of this section, both boards shall, by resolution, withdraw the altered prima-facie speed limit as soon as the highway ceases to be unimproved. Upon the adoption of the resolution, the altered prima-facie speed limit becomes ineffective and the traffic control devices relating thereto shall be immediately removed.

(a) "Commercial subdivision" means any platted territory outside the limits of a municipal corporation and fronting a highway where, for a distance of three hundred feet or more, the frontage is improved with buildings in use for commercial purposes, or where the entire length of the highway is less than three hundred feet long and the frontage is improved with buildings in use for commercial purposes.

(b) "Residential subdivision" means any platted territory outside the limits of a municipal corporation and fronting a highway, where, for a distance of three hundred feet or more, the frontage is improved with residences or residences and buildings in use for business, or where the entire length of the highway is less than three hundred feet long and the frontage is improved with residences or residences and buildings in use for business.

Whenever a board of township trustees finds upon the basis of an engineering and traffic investigation that the prima-facie speed permitted by division (B)(5) of this section on any part of a highway under its jurisdiction that is located in a commercial or residential subdivision, except on highways or portions thereof at the entrances to which vehicular traffic from the majority of intersecting highways is required to yield the right-of-way to vehicles on such highways in obedience to stop or yield signs or traffic control signals, is greater than is reasonable and safe under the conditions found to exist at the location, the board may by resolution declare a reasonable and safe prima-facie speed limit of less than fifty-five but not less than twenty-five miles per hour at the location. An altered speed limit adopted by a board of township trustees under this division shall become effective when appropriate signs giving notice thereof are erected at the location by the township. Whenever, in the opinion of a board of township trustees, any altered prima-facie speed limit established by it under this division becomes unreasonable, it may adopt a resolution withdrawing the altered prima-facie speed, and upon such withdrawal, the altered prima-facie speed shall become ineffective, and the signs relating thereto shall be immediately removed by the township.

(L)(1) Within one hundred twenty days of February 29, 1996, the director of transportation, based upon a geometric and traffic characteristic study of a freeway that is part of the interstate system or that is not part of the interstate system, but is built to the standards and specifications that are applicable to freeways that are part of the interstate system, in consultation with the director of public safety and, if applicable, the local authority having jurisdiction over a portion of such freeway, may determine and declare that the speed limit of less than sixty-five miles per hour established on such freeway or portion of freeway either is reasonable and safe or is less than that which is reasonable and safe.

(2) If the established speed limit for such a freeway or portion of freeway is determined to be less than that which is reasonable and safe, the director of transportation, in consultation with the director of public safety and, if applicable, the local authority having jurisdiction over the portion of freeway, shall determine and declare a reasonable and safe speed limit of not more than sixty-five miles per hour for that freeway or portion of freeway.

The director of transportation or local authority having jurisdiction over the freeway or portion of freeway shall erect appropriate signs giving notice of the speed limit at such location within one hundred fifty days of February 29, 1996. Such speed limit becomes effective only when such signs are erected at the location.

(3) If, within one hundred twenty days of February 29, 1996, the director of transportation does not make a determination and declaration of a reasonable and safe speed limit for a freeway or portion of freeway that is part of the interstate system or that is not part of the interstate system, but is built to the standards and specifications that are applicable to freeways that are part of the interstate system and that has a speed limit of less than sixty-five miles per hour, the speed limit on that freeway or portion of a freeway shall be sixty-five miles per hour. The director of transportation or local authority having jurisdiction over the freeway or portion of the freeway shall erect appropriate signs giving notice of the speed limit of sixty-five miles per hour at such location within one hundred fifty days of February 29, 1996. Such speed limit becomes effective only when such signs are erected at the location. A speed limit established through the operation of division (L)(3) of this section is subject to reduction under division (I)(2) of this section.

(M) Within three hundred sixty days after February 29, 1996, the director of transportation, based upon a geometric and traffic characteristic study of a rural, divided, multi-lane highway that has been designated as part of the national highway system under the "National Highway System Designation Act of 1995," 109 Stat. 568, 23 U.S.C.A. 103, in consultation with the director of public safety and, if applicable, the local authority having jurisdiction over a portion of the highway, may determine and declare that the speed limit of less than sixty-five miles per hour established on the highway or portion of highway either is reasonable and safe or is less than that which is reasonable and safe.

If the established speed limit for the highway or portion of highway is determined to be less than that which is reasonable and safe, the director of transportation, in consultation with the director of public safety and, if applicable, the local authority having jurisdiction over the portion of highway, shall determine and declare a reasonable and safe speed limit of not more than sixty-five miles per hour for that highway or portion of highway. The director of transportation or local authority having jurisdiction over the highway or portion of highway shall erect appropriate signs giving notice of the speed limit at such location within three hundred ninety days after February 29, 1996. The speed limit becomes effective only when such signs are erected at the location.

(N)(1)(a) If the boundary of two local authorities rests on the centerline of a highway and both authorities have jurisdiction over the highway, the speed limit for the part of the highway within their joint jurisdiction shall be either one of the following as agreed to by both authorities:

(ii) An altered speed limit determined and posted in accordance with this section.

(b) If the local authorities are unable to reach an agreement, the speed limit shall remain as established and posted under this section.

(2) Neither local authority may declare an altered prima-facie speed limit pursuant to this section on the part of the highway under their joint jurisdiction unless both of the local authorities determine, upon the basis of an engineering and traffic investigation, that the speed permitted by this section is greater than is reasonable or safe under the conditions found to exist at the location and both authorities agree upon a uniform reasonable and safe prima-facie speed limit of less than fifty-five but not less than twenty-five miles per hour for that location. If both authorities so agree, each shall follow the procedure specified in this section for altering the prima-facie speed limit on the highway, and the speed limit for the part of the highway within their joint jurisdiction shall be uniformly altered. No altered speed limit may be withdrawn unless both local authorities determine that the altered prima-facie speed limit previously adopted becomes unreasonable and each adopts a resolution withdrawing the altered prima-facie speed limit pursuant to the procedure specified in this section.

(2) "Commercial bus" means a motor vehicle designed for carrying more than nine passengers and used for the transportation of persons for compensation.

(3) "Noncommercial bus" includes but is not limited to a school bus or a motor vehicle operated solely for the transportation of persons associated with a charitable or nonprofit organization.

(4) "Outerbelt" means a portion of a freeway that is part of the interstate system and is located in the outer vicinity of a major municipal corporation or group of municipal corporations, as designated by the director.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in divisions (P)(1)(b), (1)(c), (2), and (3) of this section, a minor misdemeanor;

(b) If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to two violations of any provision of this section or of any provision of a municipal ordinance that is substantially similar to any provision of this section, a misdemeanor of the fourth degree;

(c) If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to three or more violations of any provision of this section or of any provision of a municipal ordinance that is substantially similar to any provision of this section, a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(2) If the offender has not previously been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of any provision of this section or of any provision of a municipal ordinance that is substantially similar to this section and operated a motor vehicle faster than thirty-five miles an hour in a business district of a municipal corporation, faster than fifty miles an hour in other portions of a municipal corporation, or faster than thirty-five miles an hour in a school zone during recess or while children are going to or leaving school during the school's opening or closing hours, a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.

(3) Notwithstanding division (P)(1) of this section, if the offender operated a motor vehicle in a construction zone where a sign was then posted in accordance with section 4511.98 of the Revised Code, the court, in addition to all other penalties provided by law, shall impose upon the offender a fine of two times the usual amount imposed for the violation. No court shall impose a fine of two times the usual amount imposed for the violation upon an offender if the offender alleges, in an affidavit filed with the court prior to the offender's sentencing, that the offender is indigent and is unable to pay the fine imposed pursuant to this division and if the court determines that the offender is an indigent person and unable to pay the fine.

Sec. 4511.61. (A) As used in this section, "active grade crossing warning device" has the same meaning as in section 5733.43 of the Revised Code.

(B) The department of transportation and local authorities in their respective jurisdictions, with the approval of the department, may designate dangerous highway crossings over railroad tracks whether on state, county, or township highways or on streets or ways within municipal corporations, and erect stop signs thereat. ~~When such~~

(C)(1) The department and local authorities shall erect stop signs at a railroad highway grade crossing in either of the following circumstances:

(a) New warning devices that are not active grade crossing warning devices are being installed at the grade crossing, and railroad crossbucks were the only warning devices at the grade crossing prior to the installation of the new warning devices.

(b) The grade crossing is constructed after the effective date of this amendment and only warning devices that are not active grade crossing warning devices are installed at the grade crossing.

(2) Division (C)(1) of this section does not apply to a railroad highway grade crossing that the director of transportation has exempted from that division because of traffic flow or other considerations or factors.

(D) When stop signs are erected pursuant to division (B) or (C) of this section, the operator of any vehicle, streetcar, or trackless trolley shall stop within fifty, but not less than fifteen, feet from the nearest rail of the railroad tracks and shall exercise due care before proceeding across such grade crossing.

~~(B)~~(E) Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever violates division (D) of this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one predicate motor vehicle or traffic offense, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of two or more predicate motor vehicle or traffic offenses, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree.

Sec. 4513.263. (A) As used in this section and in section 4513.99 of the Revised Code:

(1) "Automobile" means any commercial tractor, passenger car, commercial car, or truck that is required to be factory-equipped with an occupant restraining device for the operator or any passenger by regulations adopted by the United States secretary of transportation pursuant to the "National Traffic and Motor Vehicle Safety Act of 1966," 80 Stat. 719, 15 U.S.C.A. 1392.

(2) "Occupant restraining device" means a seat safety belt, shoulder belt, harness, or other safety device for restraining a person who is an operator of or passenger in an automobile and that satisfies the minimum federal vehicle safety standards established by the United States department of transportation.

(3) "Passenger" means any person in an automobile, other than its operator, who is occupying a seating position for which an occupant restraining device is provided.

(4) "Commercial tractor," "passenger car," and "commercial car" have the same meanings as in section 4501.01 of the Revised Code.

(5) "Vehicle" and "motor vehicle," as used in the definitions of the terms set forth in division (A)(4) of this section, have the same meanings as in section 4511.01 of the Revised Code.

(6) "Tort action" means a civil action for damages for injury, death, or loss to person or property. "Tort action" includes a product liability claim, as defined in section 2307.71 of the Revised Code, and an asbestos claim, as defined in section 2307.91 of the Revised Code, but does not include a civil action for damages for breach of contract or another agreement between persons.

(1) Operate an automobile on any street or highway unless that person is wearing all of the available elements of a properly adjusted occupant restraining device, or operate a school bus that has an occupant restraining device installed for use in its operator's seat unless that person is wearing all of the available elements of the device, as properly adjusted;

(2) Operate an automobile on any street or highway unless each passenger in the automobile who is subject to the requirement set forth in division (B)(3) of this section is wearing all of the available elements of a properly adjusted occupant restraining device;

(3) Occupy, as a passenger, a seating position on the front seat of an automobile being operated on any street or highway unless that person is wearing all of the available elements of a properly adjusted occupant restraining device;

(4) Operate a taxicab on any street or highway unless all factory-equipped occupant restraining devices in the taxicab are maintained in usable form.

(C) Division (B)(3) of this section does not apply to a person who is required by section 4511.81 of the Revised Code to be secured in a child restraint device or booster seat. Division (B)(1) of this section does not apply to a person who is an employee of the United States postal service or of a newspaper home delivery service, during any period in which the person is engaged in the operation of an automobile to deliver mail or newspapers to addressees. Divisions (B)(1) and (3) of this section do not apply to a person who has an affidavit signed by a physician licensed to practice in this state under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code or a chiropractor licensed to practice in this state under Chapter 4734. of the Revised Code that states that the person has a physical impairment that makes use of an occupant restraining device impossible or impractical.

(D) Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, no law enforcement officer shall cause an operator of an automobile being operated on any street or highway to stop the automobile for the sole purpose of determining whether a violation of division (B) of this section has been or is being committed or for the sole purpose of issuing a ticket, citation, or summons for a violation of that nature or causing the arrest of or commencing a prosecution of a person for a violation of that nature, and no law enforcement officer shall view the interior or visually inspect any automobile being operated on any street or highway for the sole purpose of determining whether a violation of that nature has been or is being committed.

(E) All fines collected for violations of division (B) of this section, or for violations of any ordinance or resolution of a political subdivision that is substantively comparable to that division, shall be forwarded to the treasurer of state for deposit into the state treasury to the credit of the trauma and emergency medical services fund, which is hereby created. In addition, sixty cents of each fee collected under sections 4501.34, 4503.26, 4505.14, 4506.08, 4509.05, and 4519.63 of the Revised Code as specified in those sections, plus the portion of the driver's license reinstatement fee described in division (F)(2)(g) of section 4511.191 of the Revised Code, plus all fees collected under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code, plus all fines imposed under section 4765.55 of the Revised Code, plus the fees and other moneys specified in section 4766.05 of the Revised Code, and plus five per cent of fines and moneys arising from bail forfeitures as directed by section 5503.04 of the Revised Code, also shall be deposited into the trauma and emergency medical services fund. All money deposited into the trauma and emergency medical services fund shall be used by the department of public safety for the administration and operation of the division of emergency medical services and the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services, and by the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services to make grants, in accordance with section 4765.07 of the Revised Code and rules the board adopts under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code. The director of budget and management may transfer excess money from the trauma and emergency medical services fund to the state highway safety fund if the director of public safety determines that the amount of money in the trauma and emergency medical services fund exceeds the amount required to cover such costs incurred by the emergency medical services agency and the grants made by the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services and requests the director of budget and management to make the transfer.

(F)(1) Subject to division (F)(2) of this section, the failure of a person to wear all of the available elements of a properly adjusted occupant restraining device in violation of division (B)(1) or (3) of this section or the failure of a person to ensure that each minor who is a passenger of an automobile being operated by that person is wearing all of the available elements of a properly adjusted occupant restraining device in violation of division (B)(2) of this section shall not be considered or used by the trier of fact in a tort action as evidence of negligence or contributory negligence. But, the trier of fact may determine based on evidence admitted consistent with the Ohio Rules of Evidence that the failure contributed to the harm alleged in the tort action and may diminish a recovery of compensatory damages that represents noneconomic loss, as defined in section 2307.011 of the Revised Code, in a tort action that could have been recovered but for the plaintiff's failure to wear all of the available elements of a properly adjusted occupant restraining device. Evidence of that failure shall not be used as a basis for a criminal prosecution of the person other than a prosecution for a violation of this section; and shall not be admissible as evidence in a criminal action involving the person other than a prosecution for a violation of this section.

(2) If, at the time of an accident involving a passenger car equipped with occupant restraining devices, any occupant of the passenger car who sustained injury or death was not wearing an available occupant restraining device, was not wearing all of the available elements of such a device, or was not wearing such a device as properly adjusted, then, consistent with the Rules of Evidence, the fact that the occupant was not wearing the available occupant restraining device, was not wearing all of the available elements of such a device, or was not wearing such a device as properly adjusted is admissible in evidence in relation to any claim for relief in a tort action to the extent that the claim for relief satisfies all of the following:

(b) The defendant in question is the manufacturer, designer, distributor, or seller of the passenger car.

(c) The claim for relief against the defendant in question is that the injury or death sustained by the occupant was enhanced or aggravated by some design defect in the passenger car or that the passenger car was not crashworthy.

(G)(1) Whoever violates division (B)(1) of this section shall be fined thirty dollars.

(2) Whoever violates division (B)(3) of this section shall be fined twenty dollars.

(3) Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever violates division (B)(4) of this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. If the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of division (B)(4) of this section, whoever violates division (B)(4) of this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree.

Sec. 4513.34. (A)(1) The director of transportation with respect to all highways that are a part of the state highway system and local authorities with respect to highways under their jurisdiction, upon application in writing, shall issue a special regional heavy hauling permit authorizing the applicant to operate or move a vehicle or combination of vehicles as follows:

(a) At a size or weight of vehicle or load exceeding the maximum specified in sections 5577.01 to 5577.09 of the Revised Code, or otherwise not in conformity with sections 4513.01 to 4513.37 of the Revised Code;

(b) Upon any highway under the jurisdiction of the authority granting the permit except those highways with a condition insufficient to bear the weight of the vehicle or combination of vehicles as stated in the application;

(c) For regional trips at distances of one hundred fifty miles or less from a facility stated on the application as the applicant's point of origin.

Issuance of a special regional heavy hauling permit is subject to the payment of a fee established by the director or local authority in accordance with this section.

(2) In circumstances where a person is not eligible to receive a permit under division (A)(1) of this section, the director of transportation with respect to all highways that are a part of the state highway system and local authorities with respect to highways under their jurisdiction, upon application in writing and for good cause shown, may issue a special permit in writing authorizing the applicant to operate or move a vehicle or combination of vehicles of a size or weight of vehicle or load exceeding the maximum specified in sections 5577.01 to 5577.09 of the Revised Code, or otherwise not in conformity with sections 4513.01 to 4513.37 of the Revised Code, upon any highway under the jurisdiction of the authority granting the permit.

(3) For purposes of this section, the director may designate certain state highways or portions of state highways as special economic development highways. If an application submitted to the director under this section involves travel of a nonconforming vehicle or combination of vehicles upon a special economic development highway, the director, in determining whether good cause has been shown that issuance of a permit is justified, shall consider the effect the travel of the vehicle or combination of vehicles will have on the economic development in the area in which the designated highway or portion of highway is located.

(B) Notwithstanding sections 715.22 and 723.01 of the Revised Code, the holder of a ~~special~~ permit issued by the director under this section may move the vehicle or combination of vehicles described in the ~~special~~ permit on any highway that is a part of the state highway system when the movement is partly within and partly without the corporate limits of a municipal corporation. No local authority shall require any other permit or license or charge any license fee or other charge against the holder of a permit for the movement of a vehicle or combination of vehicles on any highway that is a part of the state highway system. The director shall not require the holder of a permit issued by a local authority to obtain a special permit for the movement of vehicles or combination of vehicles on highways within the jurisdiction of the local authority. Permits may be issued for any period of time not to exceed one year, as the director in the director's discretion or a local authority in its discretion determines advisable, or for the duration of any public construction project.

(C)(1) The application for a permit issued under this section shall be in the form that the director or local authority prescribes. The director or local authority may prescribe a permit fee to be imposed and collected when any permit described in this section is issued. The permit fee may be in an amount sufficient to reimburse the director or local authority for the administrative costs incurred in issuing the permit, and also to cover the cost of the normal and expected damage caused to the roadway or a street or highway structure as the result of the operation of the nonconforming vehicle or combination of vehicles. The director, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall establish a schedule of fees for permits issued by the director under this section; however, the fee to operate a triple trailer unit, at locations authorized under federal law, shall be one hundred dollars.

(2) For the purposes of this section and of rules adopted by the director under this section, milk transported in bulk by vehicle is deemed a nondivisible load.

(D) The director or a local authority shall issue a special regional heavy hauling permit under division (A)(1) of this section upon application and payment of the applicable fee. However, the director or local authority may issue or withhold a special permit specified in division (A)(2) of this section. If a permit is to be issued, the director or local authority may limit or prescribe conditions of operation for the vehicle and may require the posting of a bond or other security conditioned upon the sufficiency of the permit fee to compensate for damage caused to the roadway or a street or highway structure. In addition, a local authority, as a condition of issuance of an overweight permit, may require the applicant to develop and enter into a mutual agreement with the local authority to compensate for or to repair excess damage caused to the roadway by travel under the permit.

For a permit that will allow travel of a nonconforming vehicle or combination of vehicles on a special economic development highway, the director, as a condition of issuance, may require the applicant to agree to make periodic payments to the department to compensate for damage caused to the roadway by travel under the permit.

(E) Every permit issued under this section shall be carried in the vehicle or combination of vehicles to which it refers and shall be open to inspection by any police officer or authorized agent of any authority granting the permit. No person shall violate any of the terms of a permit.

(F) The director may debar an applicant from applying for a ~~special~~ permit under this section upon a finding based on a reasonable belief that the applicant has done any of the following:

(1) Abused the process by repeatedly submitting false information or false travel plans or by using another company or individual's name, insurance, or escrow account without proper authorization;

(2) Failed to comply with or substantially perform under a previously issued ~~special~~ permit according to its terms, conditions, and specifications within specified time limits;

(3) Failed to cooperate in the application process for the ~~special~~ permit or in any other procedures that are related to the issuance of the ~~special~~ permit by refusing to provide information or documents required in a permit or by failing to respond to and correct matters related to the ~~special~~ permit;

(4) Accumulated repeated justified complaints regarding performance under a ~~special~~ permit that was previously issued to the applicant or previously failed to obtain a ~~special~~ permit when such a permit was required;

(5) Attempted to influence a public employee to breach ethical conduct standards;

(6) Been convicted of a criminal offense related to the application for, or performance under, a ~~special~~ permit, including, but not limited to, bribery, falsification, fraud or destruction of records, receiving stolen property, and any other offense that directly reflects on the applicant's integrity or commercial driver's license;

(7) Accumulated repeated convictions under a state or federal safety law governing commercial motor vehicles or a rule or regulation adopted under such a law;

(8) Accumulated repeated convictions under a law, rule, or regulation governing the movement of traffic over the public streets and highways;

(10) Deliberately or willfully submitted false or misleading information in connection with the application for, or performance under, a ~~special~~ permit issued under this section.

If the applicant is a partnership, association, or corporation, the director also may debar from consideration for ~~special~~ permits any partner of the partnership, or the officers, directors, or employees of the association or corporation being debarred.

The director may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code governing the debarment of an applicant.

(G) When the director reasonably believes that grounds for debarment exist, the director shall send the person that is subject to debarment a notice of the proposed debarment. A notice of proposed debarment shall indicate the grounds for the debarment of the person and the procedure for requesting a hearing. The notice and hearing shall be in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. If the person does not respond with a request for a hearing in the manner specified in that chapter, the director shall issue the debarment decision without a hearing and shall notify the person of the decision by certified mail, return receipt requested. The debarment period may be of any length determined by the director, and the director may modify or rescind the debarment at any time. During the period of debarment, the director shall not issue, or consider issuing, a ~~special~~ permit under this section to any partnership, association, or corporation that is affiliated with a debarred person. After the debarment period expires, the person, and any partnership, association, or corporation affiliated with the person, may reapply for a ~~special~~ permit.

(H)(1) No person shall violate the terms of a permit issued under this section that relate to gross load limits.

(2) No person shall violate the terms of a permit issued under this section that relate to axle load by more than two thousand pounds per axle or group of axles.

(3) No person shall violate the terms of a permit issued under this section that relate to an approved route except upon order of a law enforcement officer.

(I) Whoever violates division (H) of this section shall be punished as provided in section 4513.99 of the Revised Code.

(J) A permit issued by the department of transportation or a local authority under this section for the operation of a vehicle or combination of vehicles is valid for the purposes of the vehicle operation in accordance with the conditions and limitations specified on the permit. Such a permit is voidable by law enforcement only for operation of a vehicle or combination of vehicles in violation of the weight, dimension, or route provisions of the permit. However, a permit is not voidable for operation in violation of a route provision of a permit if the operation is upon the order of a law enforcement officer.

Sec. 4513.53. (A) The superintendent of the state highway patrol, with approval of the director of public safety, may appoint and maintain necessary staff to carry out the inspection of buses.

(B) The superintendent of the state highway patrol shall adopt a distinctive annual safety inspection decal bearing the date of inspection. The state highway patrol may remove any decal from a bus that fails any inspection.

(C) ~~Fees~~ Bus inspection fees collected by the state highway patrol under section 4513.52 of the Revised Code shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the general revenue fund. Annually by the first day of June, the director of public safety shall determine the amount of fees collected under section 4513.52 of the Revised Code and shall certify the amount to the director of budget and management for reimbursement. The director of budget and management then may transfer cash up to the amount certified from the general revenue fund to the state highway safety fund created in section 4501.06 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 4513.66. (A) If a motor vehicle accident occurs on any highway, public street, or other property open to the public for purposes of vehicular travel and if any motor vehicle, cargo, or personal property that has been damaged or spilled as a result of the motor vehicle accident is blocking the highway, street, or other property or is otherwise endangering public safety, the sheriff of the county, or the chief of police of the municipal corporation, township, or township or joint police district, in which the accident occurred, a state highway patrol trooper, or the chief of the fire department having jurisdiction where the accident occurred ~~may~~, or a duly authorized subordinate acting on behalf of an official specified above, without consent of the owner but with the approval of the law enforcement agency conducting any investigation of the accident, may remove the motor vehicle if the motor vehicle is unoccupied, cargo, or personal property from the portion of the highway, public street, or property ordinarily used for vehicular travel on the highway, public street, or other property open to the public for purposes of vehicular travel.

(B)(1) Except as provided in division (B)(2) or (3) of this section, no employee of the department of transportation, sheriff, deputy sheriff, chief of police or police officer of a municipal corporation, township, or township or joint police district, state highway patrol trooper, chief of a fire department, or fire fighter, or a duly authorized subordinate acting on behalf of such an official who authorizes or participates in the removal of any unoccupied motor vehicle, cargo, or personal property as authorized by division (A) of this section is liable in civil damages for any injury, death, or loss to person or property that results from the removal of that unoccupied motor vehicle, cargo, or personal property. Except as provided in division (B)(2) or (3) of this section, if the department of transportation or a sheriff, chief of police of a municipal corporation, township, or township or joint police district, head of the state highway patrol, or chief of a fire department, or a duly authorized subordinate acting on behalf of such an official authorizes, employs, or arranges to have a private tow truck operator or towing company remove any unoccupied motor vehicle, cargo, or personal property as authorized by division (A) of this section, that private tow truck operator or towing company is not liable in civil damages for any injury, death, or loss to person or property that results from the removal of that unoccupied motor vehicle, cargo, or personal property~~, and~~. Further, the department of transportation, sheriff, chief of police, head of the state highway patrol, or fire department chief, or a duly authorized subordinate acting on behalf of such an official is not liable in civil damages for any injury, death, or loss to person or property that results from the private tow truck operator or towing company's removal of that unoccupied motor vehicle, cargo, or personal property.

(2) Division (B)(1) of this section does not apply to any person or entity involved in the removal of an unoccupied motor vehicle, cargo, or personal property pursuant to division (A) of this section if that removal causes or contributes to the release of a hazardous material or to structural damage to the roadway.

(3) Division (B)(1) of this section does not apply to a private tow truck operator or towing company that was not authorized, employed, or arranged by the department of transportation, a sheriff, a chief of police of a municipal corporation, township, or township or joint police district, the head of the state highway patrol, or a chief of a fire department, or a duly authorized subordinate acting on behalf of such an official or to a private tow truck operator or towing company that was authorized, employed, or arranged by the department of transportation, a sheriff, a chief of police of a municipal corporation, township, or township or joint police district, the head of the state highway patrol, or a chief of a fire department, or a duly authorized subordinate acting on behalf of such an official to perform the removal of the unoccupied motor vehicle, cargo, or personal property and the private tow truck operator or towing company performed the removal in a reckless or willful manner.

Sec. 4517.021. (A) Sections 4517.01, 4517.02, and 4517.03 to 4517.45 of the Revised Code do not apply to a person auctioning classic motor vehicles, provided all of the following apply:

(1) The person is responsible for not more than ~~two~~ four auctions of classic motor vehicles per year, with no auction lasting more than two days;

(2) The person requests and receives permission for the auction from the registrar of motor vehicles by filing an application for each proposed auction of classic motor vehicles, at least thirty days before the auction, in a form prescribed by the registrar, signed and sworn to by the person, that contains all of the following:

(d) Any necessary, reasonable, and relevant information that the registrar may require to verify compliance with this section.

(3) The person will be auctioning the classic motor vehicle to the general public for the legal owner of the vehicle, which ownership must be evidenced at the time of the auction by a valid certificate of title issued pursuant to Chapter 4505. of the Revised Code;

(4) The person keeps a record of the following information for each classic motor vehicle offered for sale at auction, in a manner prescribed by the registrar:

(g) The odometer reading at the time of the auction and an odometer statement from the person offering the vehicle for sale at auction that complies with 49 U.S.C. 32705.

(5) The person allows reasonable inspection by the registrar of the person's records relating to each classic motor vehicle auction.

(B) Any person that auctions classic motor vehicles under this section shall use the auction services of an auction firm to conduct the auction.

(C) The registrar may refuse permission to hold an auction if the registrar finds that the person has not complied with division (A) of this section or has made a false statement of a material fact in the application filed under division (A)(2) of this section.

(D) The registrar shall not authorize a person licensed under section 4707.072 of the Revised Code to offer auction services or act as an auctioneer in regard to an auction of classic motor vehicles pursuant to this section.

(1) "Auction firm" and "auction services" have the same meanings as in section 4707.01 of the Revised Code.

(2) "Classic motor vehicle" means a motor vehicle that is over twenty-six years old.

Sec. 4561.01. As used in sections 4561.01 to ~~4561.151~~ 4561.25 of the Revised Code:

(A) "Aviation" means transportation by aircraft; operation of aircraft; the establishment, operation, maintenance, repair, and improvement of airports, landing fields, and other air navigation facilities; and all other activities connected therewith or incidental thereto.

(B) "Aircraft" means any contrivance used or designed for navigation or flight in the air, excepting a parachute or other contrivance for such navigation used primarily as safety equipment.

(D) "Landing field" means any location either on land or water of such size and nature as to permit the landing or taking off of aircraft with safety, and used for that purpose but not equipped to provide for the shelter, supply, or care of aircraft.

(E) "Air navigation facility" means any facility used, available for use, or designed for use in aid of navigation of aircraft, including airports, landing fields, facilities for the servicing of aircraft or for the comfort and accommodation of air travelers, and any structures, mechanisms, lights, beacons, marks, communicating systems, or other instrumentalities or devices used or useful as an aid to the safe taking off, navigation, and landing of aircraft, or to the safe and efficient operation or maintenance of an airport or landing field, and any combination of such facilities.

(F) "Air navigation hazard" means any structure, object of natural growth, or use of land, that obstructs the air space required for the flight of aircraft in landing or taking off at any airport or landing field, or that otherwise is hazardous to such landing or taking off.

(G) "Air navigation," "navigation of aircraft," or "navigate aircraft" means the operation of aircraft in the air space over this state.

(H) "~~Airman~~ Airperson" means any individual who, as the person in command, or as pilot, mechanic, or member of the crew, engages in the navigation of aircraft.

(I) "Airway" means a route in the air space over and above the lands or waters of this state, designated by the Ohio aviation board as a route suitable for the navigation of aircraft.

(J) "Person" means any individual, firm, partnership, corporation, company, association, joint stock association, or body politic, and includes any trustee, receiver, assignee, or other similar representative thereof.

(K) "Government agency" means a state agency, state institution of higher education, regional port authority, or any other political subdivision of the state, or the federal government or other states.

Sec. 4561.06. The department of transportation shall encourage the development of aviation and the promotion of aviation education and research within this state as, in its judgment, may best serve the public interest.

The department may furnish engineering or other technical counsel and services, with or without charge therefor, to any appropriate government agency ~~of any county or municipal corporation of the state~~ desiring such counsel or services in connection with any question or problem concerning the need for, or the location, construction, maintenance, or operation of airports, landing fields, or other air navigation facilities ~~in the county or municipal corporation~~.

The department shall be the official representative of this state in all civil actions, matters, or proceedings pertaining to aviation in which this state is a party or has an interest.

The department may investigate, and may cooperate with any other appropriate ~~governmental~~ government agency in the investigation of, any accident occurring in this state in connection with aviation. It may issue an order to preserve, protect, or prevent the removal of any aircraft or air navigation facility involved in an accident being so investigated until the investigation is completed. The chief executive officer or any law enforcement officer of this state or any political subdivision in which an accident occurred shall assist the department in enforcing such an order when called upon to do so.

The department, in connection with any investigation it is authorized to conduct, or in connection with any matter it is required to consider and determine, may conduct hearings thereon. All such hearings shall be open to the public. The administrator of the office of aviation or those employees of that office or its agents who are designated to conduct such hearings may administer oaths and affirmations and issue subpoenas for and compel the attendance and testimony of witnesses and the production of papers, books, and documents at the hearings. In case of failure to comply with such a subpoena or refusal to testify, the administrator or the employees of the office of aviation or its agents who are designated to conduct the hearings may invoke the aid of the court of common pleas of the county in which the hearing is being conducted, and the court may order the witness to comply with the requirements of the subpoena or to give testimony concerning the matter in question. Failure to obey any order of the court may be punished as a contempt of the court.

Reports of any investigations or hearings, or parts thereof, conducted by the department shall not be admitted in evidence or used for any purpose in any action or proceeding arising out of any matter referred to in the investigation, hearings, or report thereof, except in actions or proceedings instituted by the state or by the department on behalf of the state, nor shall any member of the department or any of its employees be required to testify to any facts ascertained in, or information obtained by reason of, the member's or employee's official capacity, or to testify as an expert witness in any action or proceeding involving or pertaining to aviation to which the state is not a party. Subject to this section, the department may make available to appropriate agencies of government any information and material developed in the course of its investigations and hearings.

The department shall report to the appropriate agency of the United States all cases that come to its attention of persons navigating aircraft without a valid aviator's certificate, or in which an aircraft is navigated without a valid air-worthiness certificate in probable violation of the laws of the United States requiring such certificates, and it also shall report to the proper governmental agency any probable infringement or violation of laws, rules, and regulations pertaining to aviation that come to its attention.

The department may prepare, adopt, and subsequently revise a plan showing the locations and types of airports, landing fields, and other air navigation facilities within this state; it also may prepare another plan of a system of airways within this state, the establishment, maintenance, and use of which will, in its judgment, serve the development of transportation by aircraft within this state in the best interests of the public. It may publish plans and pertinent information as the public interest requires.

The department periodically may prepare, publish, and distribute such maps, charts, or other information as the public interest requires, showing the location of and containing a description of all airports, landing fields, and other air navigation facilities then in operation in this state, together with information concerning the manner in which, and the terms upon which, those facilities may be used, and showing all airways then in use, or recommended for use, within this state, together with information concerning the manner in which the facilities should be used.

Sec. 4561.07. The department of transportation may cooperate with ~~and assist the federal~~ any government~~, regional airport authorities, the political subdivisions of this state,~~ agency and others, including private persons, engaged in aviation, aviation education or research, or the promotion of aviation, and shall seek to promote the aeronautic activities of these bodies.

The department may confer with or hold joint meetings and hearings with any ~~federal aeronautical agency, any regional airport authority, or any~~ government agency ~~of a political subdivision of this state,~~ in connection with any matter arising under ~~sections 4561.01 to 4561.151 of the Revised Code~~ this chapter, or relating to the sound development of aviation, and the department may avail itself of the cooperation, services, records, and facilities of any ~~such regional airport authority or~~ government agency, as fully as is practicable, in the administration and enforcement of such sections. It shall reciprocate by furnishing to any such regional airport authority or agency its cooperation, services, records, and facilities, as fully as is practicable and in the best interests of the public.

If the federal government, any agency of the federal government, or any regional airport authority or political subdivision of this state, or any government agency, requires a state agency to receive and disburse any airport assistance or development and maintenance funds, the department may act as that state agency in all such matters pertaining to aviation.

Sec. 4561.08. The department of transportation may cooperate with ~~the United States, and~~ any government agency ~~thereof~~, in the acquisition, establishment, construction, enlargement, improvement, equipment, or operation of airports, landing fields, and other air navigation facilities in this state, and may comply with the laws of the United States and any regulations made thereunder with respect to the expenditure of federal funds for or in connection with such airports, landing fields, and other air navigation facilities.

The department may accept, receive, and receipt for federal funds, upon such terms as are prescribed by the laws of the United States and any regulations made thereunder, on behalf of the state, and may treat similarly, for the state or as agent for any regional airport authority, county, or municipal corporation thereof, other funds, public or private, for the acquisition, establishment, construction, enlargement, improvement, equipment, or operation of airports, landing fields, and other air navigation facilities, whether such work is to be done severally by the state or by a political subdivision thereof or by a regional airport authority, or by the state and a regional airport authority or one or more such political subdivisions jointly, or by any two or more such political subdivisions jointly, or by a regional airport authority and any one or more such political subdivisions jointly. The department may also act as agent of any regional airport authority, county, or municipal corporation of the state in any other matter connected with the acquisition, establishment, construction, enlargement, improvement, equipment, or operation of airports, landing fields, and other air navigation facilities. In the discharge of its duties as such agent, the department may use all its powers in the same manner as when acting for and in behalf of the state.

The department may approve or disapprove all contracts and agreements for the acquisition, establishment, construction, enlargement, improvement, equipment, or operation of airports, landing fields, and other air navigation facilities insofar as its rules require.

The department may advise and cooperate with any regional airport authority or political subdivision of this state or of any other state, when it is acting jointly with a regional airport authority or subdivision of this state, in all matters pertaining to the location, acquisition, establishment, construction, enlargement, improvement, equipment, or operation of airports, landing fields, and other air navigation facilities.

All money accepted by the department pursuant to sections 4561.01 to 4561.151 of the Revised Code shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the highway operating fund. All such moneys shall be expended in accordance with the terms imposed by the United States in making the grants thereof.

Sec. 4561.09. Each regional airport authority, county, ~~and~~ municipal corporation, and agency of this state may accept, receive, and give receipt for federal funds upon such terms as are prescribed by the laws of the United States and any rules and regulations made thereunder, and may treat similarly other funds, public or private, for the acquisition, establishment, construction, enlargement, improvement, equipment, or operation of airports, landing fields, and other air navigation facilities.

The board of trustees of a regional airport authority and the legislative body of each county or municipal corporation may designate the department of transportation as the agent of such regional airport authority, county, or municipal corporation to accept, receive, and receipt for federal funds upon such terms as are prescribed by the laws of the United States and any rules or regulations made thereunder, and to treat similarly other funds, public or private, for the acquisition, establishment, construction, enlargement, improvement, equipment, or operation of airports, landing fields, and other air navigation facilities, whether such work is to be done by the regional airport authority, county, or municipal corporation alone, or jointly with the state, or jointly with the state and other counties or municipal corporations. Such board of trustees or legislative body may designate the department as its agent in any other matter connected with the acquisition, establishment, construction, enlargement, improvement, equipment, or operation of airports, landing fields, and other air navigation facilities, and may enter into, or authorize the executive department of such political subdivision to enter into, an agreement with the department prescribing the terms of such agency, in accordance with the laws of the United States and any rules or regulations made thereunder.

All contracts for the acquisition, establishment, construction, enlargement, improvement, equipment, or operation of airports, landing fields, or other air navigation facilities made by a regional airport authority, county, or municipal corporation, or agency of this state shall be made pursuant to the laws of this state governing the making of such contracts; provided that when the acquisition, establishment, construction, enlargement, improvement, equipment, or operation of airports, landing fields, or other air navigation facilities is financed wholly or partly with federal funds, the regional airport authority, county, or municipal corporation, or agency of this state may let contracts in the manner prescribed by the federal authorities acting under the laws of the United States and any rules or regulations made thereunder.

Sec. 4561.12. (A) No Unless operated by the department of transportation or its agents, no aircraft shall be operated or maintained on any public land or water owned or controlled by this state, or by any political subdivision of this state, except at such places and under such rules and regulations governing and controlling the operation and maintenance of aircraft as are adopted and promulgated by the department ~~of transportation~~ in accordance with sections 119.01 to 119.13 of the Revised Code.

Such action and approval by the department shall not become effective until it has been approved by the adoption and promulgation of appropriate rules ~~and regulations~~ governing, controlling, and approving said places and the method of operation and maintenance of aircraft, by the department, division, political subdivision, agent, or agency of this state having ownership or control of the places on said public land or water which are affected by such operation or maintenance of aircraft thereon.

(B) Whoever violates this section shall be fined not more than five hundred dollars, imprisoned not more than ninety days, or both.

Sec. 4561.21. (A) The director of transportation shall deposit all aircraft transfer fees in the state treasury to the credit of the general fund.

(B) The director shall deposit all aircraft license taxes and fines in the state treasury to the credit of the airport assistance fund, which is hereby created. Money in the fund shall be used for maintenance and capital improvements to publicly owned airports, and the operating costs associated with the office of aviation. For maintenance and capital improvements to publicly owned airports, the director shall distribute the money to eligible recipients in accordance with such procedures, guidelines, and criteria as the director shall establish. No more than ten per cent of all funds deposited annually into the fund shall be spent annually to pay operating costs associated with the office of aviation.

Sec. 4582.06. (A) A port authority created in accordance with section 4582.02 of the Revised Code may:

(1) Acquire, construct, furnish, equip, maintain, repair, sell, exchange, lease to or from, lease with an option to purchase, convey other interests in, or operate real or personal property, or any combination thereof, related to, useful for, or in furtherance of any authorized purpose, and make charges for the use of any port authority facility, which shall be not less than the charges established for the same services furnished by a public utility or common carrier in the jurisdiction of the particular port authority;

(2) Straighten, deepen, and improve any canal, channel, river, stream, or other water course or way that may be necessary or proper in the development of the facilities of the port authority;

(3) Issue bonds or notes for the acquisition, construction, furnishing, or equipping of any real or personal property, or any combination thereof, related to, useful for, or in furtherance of any authorized purpose, in compliance with Chapter 133. of the Revised Code, except that the bonds or notes only may be issued pursuant to a vote of the electors residing within the territory of the port authority. The net indebtedness incurred by a port authority shall never exceed two per cent of the total value of all property within the territory comprising the authority as listed and assessed for taxation.

(4) By resolution of its board of directors, issue revenue bonds beyond the limit of bonded indebtedness provided by law, for the acquisition, construction, furnishing, or equipping of any real or personal property, or any combination thereof, related to, useful for, or in furtherance of any authorized purpose, including all costs in connection with or incidental thereto.

The revenue bonds of the port authority shall be secured only by a pledge of and a lien on the revenues of the port authority derived from those loan payments, rentals, fees, charges, or other revenues that are designated in the resolution, including, but not limited to, any property to be acquired, constructed, furnished, or equipped with the proceeds of the bond issue, after provision only for the reasonable cost of operating, maintaining, and repairing the property of the port authority so designated. The bonds may further be secured by the covenant of the port authority to maintain rates or charges that will produce revenues sufficient to meet the costs of operating, maintaining, and repairing such property and to meet the interest and principal requirements of the bonds and to establish and maintain reserves for the foregoing purposes. The board of directors, by resolution, may provide for the issuance of additional revenue bonds from time to time, to be secured equally and ratably, without preference, priority, or distinction, with outstanding revenue bonds, but subject to the terms and limitations of any trust agreement described in this section, and of any resolution authorizing bonds then outstanding. The board of directors, by resolution, may designate additional property of the port authority, the revenues of which shall be pledged and be subject to a lien for the payment of the debt charges on revenue bonds theretofore authorized by resolution of the board of directors, to the same extent as the revenues above described.

In the discretion of the board of directors, the revenue bonds of the port authority may be secured by a trust agreement between the board of directors on behalf of the port authority and a corporate trustee, that may be any trust company or bank having powers of a trust company, within or without the state.

The trust agreement may provide for the pledge or assignment of the revenues to be received, but shall not pledge the general credit and taxing power of the port authority. A trust agreement securing revenue bonds issued to acquire, construct, furnish, or equip real property, plants, factories, offices, and other structures and facilities for authorized purposes consistent with Section 13 or 16 of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, may mortgage the real or personal property, or a combination thereof, to be acquired, constructed, furnished, or equipped from the proceeds of such revenue bonds, as further security for the bonds. The trust agreement or the resolution providing for the issuance of revenue bonds may set forth the rights and remedies of the bondholders and trustee, and may contain other provisions for protecting and enforcing their rights and remedies that are determined in the discretion of the board of directors to be reasonable and proper. The agreement or resolution may provide for the custody, investment, and disbursement of all moneys derived from the sale of such bonds, or from the revenues of the port authority, other than those moneys received from taxes levied pursuant to section 4582.14 of the Revised Code, and may provide for the deposit of such funds without regard to section 4582.15 of the Revised Code.

All bonds issued under authority of this chapter, regardless of form or terms and regardless of any other law to the contrary, shall have all qualities and incidents of negotiable instruments, subject to provisions for registration, and may be issued in coupon, fully registered, or other form, or any combination thereof, as the board of directors determines. Provision may be made for the registration of any coupon bonds as to principal alone or as to both principal and interest, and for the conversion into coupon bonds of any fully registered bonds or bonds registered as to both principal and interest.

The revenue bonds shall bear interest at such rate or rates, shall bear such date or dates, and shall mature within forty-five years following the date of issuance and in such amount, at such time or times, and in such number of installments, as may be provided in or pursuant to the resolution authorizing their issuance. The final maturity of any original issue of revenue bonds shall not be later than forty-five years from their date of issue. Such resolution also shall provide for the execution of the bonds, which may be by facsimile signatures unless prohibited by the resolution, and the manner of sale of the bonds. The resolution shall provide for, or provide for the determination of, any other terms and conditions relative to the issuance, sale, and retirement of the bonds that the board of directors in its discretion determines to be reasonable and proper.

Whenever a port authority considers it expedient, it may issue renewal notes and refund any bonds, whether the bonds to be refunded have or have not matured. The final maturity of any notes, including any renewal notes, shall not be later than five years from the date of issue of the original issue of notes. The final maturity of any refunding bonds shall not be later than the later of forty-five years from the date of issue of the original issue of bonds. The refunding bonds shall be sold and the proceeds applied to the purchase, redemption, or payment of the bonds to be refunded and the costs of issuance of the refunding bonds. The bonds and notes issued under this chapter, their transfer, and the income therefrom, shall at all times be free from taxation within the state.

(5) Do any of the following, in regard to any interests in any real or personal property, or any combination thereof, including, without limitation, machinery, equipment, plants, factories, offices, and other structures and facilities related to, useful for, or in furtherance of any authorized purpose, for such consideration and in such manner, consistent with Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, as the board in its sole discretion may determine:

(a) Loan moneys to any person or governmental entity for the acquisition, construction, furnishing, and equipping of the property;

(c) Sell to, exchange with, lease, convey other interests in, or lease with an option to purchase the same or any lesser interest in the property to the same or any other person or governmental entity;

A port authority may accept and hold as consideration for the conveyance of property or any interest therein such property or interests therein as the board in its discretion may determine, notwithstanding any restrictions that apply to the investment of funds by a port authority.

(6) Construct, maintain, repair, furnish, equip, sell, exchange, lease, or lease with an option to purchase, any property that it is authorized to acquire. A port authority that is subject to this section also may operate any property in connection with transportation, recreational, governmental operations, or cultural activities.

(a) Any purchase, exchange, sale, lease, lease with an option to purchase, conveyance of other interests in, or other contract with a person or governmental entity that pertains to the acquisition, construction, maintenance, repair, furnishing, equipping, or operation of any real or personal property, or any combination thereof, related to, useful for, or in furtherance of an activity contemplated by Section 13 or 16 of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, shall be made in such manner and subject to such terms and conditions as may be determined by the board of directors in its discretion.

(b) Division (A)(6)(a) of this section applies to all contracts that are subject to the division, notwithstanding any other provision of law that might otherwise apply, including, without limitation, any requirement of notice, any requirement of competitive bidding or selection, or any requirement for the provision of security.

(i) Any contract secured by or to be paid from moneys raised by taxation or the proceeds of obligations secured by a pledge of moneys raised by taxation;

(ii) Any contract secured exclusively by or to be paid exclusively from the general revenues of the port authority. For the purposes of this section, any revenues derived by the port authority under a lease or other agreement that, by its terms, contemplates the use of amounts payable under the agreement either to pay the costs of the improvement that is the subject of the contract or to secure obligations of the port authority issued to finance costs of such improvement, are excluded from general revenues.

(7) Apply to the proper authorities of the United States pursuant to appropriate law for the right to establish, operate, and maintain foreign trade zones and to establish, operate, and maintain foreign trade zones; and to acquire land or property therefor, in a manner consistent with section 4582.17 of the Revised Code;

(8) Exercise the right of eminent domain to appropriate any land, rights, rights-of-way, franchises, easements, or other property, necessary or proper for any authorized purpose, pursuant to the procedure provided in sections 163.01 to 163.22 of the Revised Code, if funds equal to the appraised value of the property to be acquired as a result of such proceedings are available for that purpose, except that nothing contained in sections 4582.01 to 4582.20 of the Revised Code shall authorize a port authority to take or disturb property or facilities belonging to any agency or political subdivision of this state, public utility, or common carrier, which property or facilities are necessary and convenient in the operation of the agency or political subdivision, public utility, or common carrier, unless provision is made for the restoration, relocation, or duplication of the property or facilities, or upon the election of the agency or political subdivision, public utility, or common carrier, for the payment of compensation, if any, at the sole cost of the port authority, provided that:

(a) If any restoration or duplication proposed to be made pursuant to this section involves a relocation of such property or facilities, the new facilities and location shall be of at least comparable utilitarian value and effectiveness, and the relocation shall not impair the ability of the public utility or common carrier to compete in its original area of operation.

(b) If any restoration or duplication made pursuant to this section involves a relocation of such property or facilities, the port authority shall acquire no interest or right in or to the appropriated property or facilities, except as provided in division (A)(11) of this section, until the relocated property or facilities are available for use and until marketable title thereto has been transferred to the public utility or common carrier.

(c) Provisions for restoration or duplication shall be described in detail in the resolution for appropriation passed by the port authority.

(9) Enjoy and possess the same rights, privileges, and powers granted municipal corporations under sections 721.04 to 721.11 of the Revised Code;

(11) Direct its agents or employees, when properly identified in writing, and after at least five days' written notice, to enter upon lands within the confines of its jurisdiction in order to make surveys and examinations preliminary to location and construction of works for the purposes of the port authority, without liability of the port authority or its agents or employees except for actual damage done;

(12) Sell, lease, or convey other interests in real and personal property and grant easements or rights-of-way over property of the port authority. The board of directors shall specify the consideration and any terms thereof for the sale, lease, or conveyance of other interests in real and personal property. Any determinations made by the board of directors under this division shall be conclusive. The sale, lease, or conveyance may be made without advertising and the receipt of bids.

(13) Promote, advertise, and publicize the port authority facilities and its authorized purposes, provide information to persons with an interest in transportation and other port authority activities, and appear before rate-making authorities to represent and promote the interests of the port authority and its authorized purposes;

(14) Adopt rules, not in conflict with general law, governing the use of and the safeguarding of its property, grounds, buildings, equipment, and facilities, safeguarding persons and their property located on or in port authority property, and governing the conduct of its employees and the public, in order to promote the public safety and convenience in and about its terminals and grounds, and to maintain order. Any such regulation shall be posted at no less than five public places in the port authority, as determined by the board of directors, for a period of not fewer than fifteen days, and shall be available for public inspection at the principal office of the port authority during regular business hours. No person shall violate any lawful regulation adopted and posted as provided in this division.

(15) Do all acts necessary or appropriate to carry out its authorized purposes. The port authority shall have the powers and rights granted to other subdivisions under section 9.20 of the Revised Code.

(B) Any instrument by which real property is acquired pursuant to this section shall identify the agency of the state that has the use and benefit of the real property as specified in section 5301.012 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 4582.171. A port authority may charge, alter, and collect rentals or other charges for the use or services of any port authority facility and contract in the manner provided by this section with one or more persons, one or more governmental agencies, or any combination thereof, desiring the use or services of the facility, and fix the terms, conditions, rentals, or other charges for the use or services. If the services are furnished in the jurisdiction of the port authority by a public utility or a common carrier, charges by the port authority for the services shall not be less than the charges established for the same services furnished by a public utility or common carrier in the port authority jurisdiction. The rentals or other charges shall not be subject to supervision or regulation by any other authority, commission, board, bureau, or agency of the state and the contract may provide for acquisition by the person or governmental agency of all or any part of the port authority facility for such consideration payable over the period of the contract or otherwise as the port authority in its sole discretion determines to be appropriate, but subject to the provisions of any resolution authorizing the issuance of port authority revenue bonds or any trust agreement securing the bonds. Any governmental agency that has power to construct, operate, and maintain port authority facilities may enter into a contract or lease with a port authority whereby the use or services of any port authority facility will be made available to the governmental agency, and may pay for the use or services rentals or other charges as may be agreed to by the port authority and the governmental agency.

Any governmental agency or combination of governmental agencies may cooperate with the port authority in the acquisition or construction of port authority facilities and shall enter into such agreements with the port authority as may be appropriate, with a view to effective cooperative action and safeguarding of the respective interests of the parties thereto, which agreements shall provide for contributions by the parties thereto in a proportion as may be agreed upon and other terms as may be mutually satisfactory to the parties including, without limitation, the authorization of the construction of the facility by one of the parties acting as agent for all of the parties and the ownership and control of the facility by the port authority to the extent necessary or appropriate. Any governmental agency may provide the funds for the payment of any contribution required under such agreements by the levy of taxes or assessments if otherwise authorized by the laws governing the governmental agency in the construction of the type of port authority facility provided for in the agreements, and may pay the proceeds from the collection of the taxes or assessments; or the governmental agency may issue bonds or notes, if authorized by those laws, in anticipation of the collection of the taxes or assessments, and may pay the proceeds of the bonds or notes to the port authority pursuant to such agreements. In addition, any governmental agency may provide the funds for the payment of a contribution by the appropriation of money or, if otherwise authorized by law, by the issuance of bonds or notes and may pay the appropriated money or the proceeds of the bonds or notes to the port authority pursuant to such agreements. The agreement by the governmental agency to provide a contribution, whether from appropriated money or from the proceeds of taxes or assessments, or bonds or notes, or any combination thereof, shall not be subject to Chapter 133. of the Revised Code or any rules or limitations contained therein. The proceeds from the collection of taxes or assessments, and any interest earned thereon, shall be paid into a special fund immediately upon the collection thereof by the governmental agency for the purpose of providing the contribution at the times required under such agreements.

When the contribution of any governmental agency is to be made over a period of time from the proceeds of the collection of special assessments, the interest accrued and to accrue before the first installment of the assessments is collected, which is payable by the governmental agency on the contribution under the terms and provisions of the agreements, shall be treated as part of the cost of the improvement for which the assessments are levied, and that portion of the assessments that is collected in installments shall bear interest at the same rate as the governmental agency is obligated to pay on the contribution under the terms and provisions of the agreements and for the same period of time as the contribution is to be made under the agreements. If the assessment or any installment thereof is not paid when due, it shall bear interest until the payment thereof at the same rate as the contribution and the county auditor shall annually place on the tax list and duplicate the interest applicable to the assessment and the penalty thereon as otherwise authorized by law.

As used in this section, the term "governmental agency" has the meaning defined in section 4582.21 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 4737.04. (A) As used in this section and sections 4737.041, 4737.042, 4737.043, 4737.044, 4737.045, and 4737.99 of the Revised Code:

(1) "Scrap metal dealer" means the owner or operator of a business that purchases or receives scrap metal for the purpose of sorting, grading, and shipping metals to third parties for direct or indirect melting into new products.

(b) Cable, wire, electrical components, and other equipment used in providing cable service or any utility service, including, but not limited to, copper or aluminum coverings, housings, or enclosures related thereto;

(c) Grave markers, sculptures, plaques, and vases made out of metal, the appearance of which suggests that the articles have been obtained from a cemetery;

(d) Guard rails for bridges, highways, and roads; highway and street signs; street light poles and fixtures; worker access hole covers, water meter covers, and other similar types of utility access covers; traffic directional and control signs and light signals, metal marked with the name of a political subdivision of the state, and other metal articles that are purchased and installed for use upon authorization of the state or any political subdivision of the state;

(e) Historical, commemorative, and memorial markers and plaques made out of metal;

(f) Four-wheel metal carts, commonly referred to as "grocery carts," that are generally used by individuals to collect and transport consumer goods while shopping;

(g) Four-wheel metal carts, commonly referred to as "metal bossies," that are used to transport or merchandise food products that are stored in crates, shells, or trays;

(h) Railroad material, including journal brasses, rail spikes, rails, tie plates, frogs, and communication wire;

(i) Metal trays, merchandise containers, or similar transport containers used by a product producer, distributor, retailer, or an agent of a product producer, distributor, or retailer as a means for the bulk transportation, storage, or carrying of retail containers of milk, baked goods, eggs, or bottled beverage products;

(j) "Burnt wire," which is any coated metal wire that has been smelted, burned, or melted thereby removing the manufacturer's or owner's identifying marks.

(3) "Bulk merchandise container" has the same meaning as in section 4737.012 of the Revised Code.

(4) "Bulk merchandise container dealer" means a dealer who is subject to section 4737.012 of the Revised Code.

(5) "Common recycled matter" means bottles and other containers made out of steel, tin, or aluminum and other consumer goods that are metal that are recycled by individual consumers and not in the bulk or quantity that could be supplied or recycled by large business establishments. "Common recycled matter" does not include a metal tray used by a product producer, distributor, retailer, or agent of a product producer, distributor, or retailer as a means for the bulk transportation, storage, or carrying of retail containers of milk, baked goods, eggs, or bottled beverage products.

(6) "Consumer goods" has the same meaning as in section 1309.102 of the Revised Code.

(7) "Recyclable materials" means the metal materials described in division (C)(5) of this section, on the condition that those metal materials are not special purchase articles.

(8) "Motor vehicle" has the same meaning as in section 4501.01 of the Revised Code.

(B)(1) No person shall engage in the business of scrap metal dealing or act as a bulk merchandise container dealer without first registering with the director of public safety in accordance with section 4737.045 of the Revised Code.

(2) Notwithstanding section 2913.02 of the Revised Code, no person, with purpose to deprive the owner of a special purchase article or bulk merchandise container, shall knowingly obtain or exert control over the special purchase article or bulk merchandise container in any of the following ways:

~~(b) Beyond the scope of the express or implied consent of the owner or person authorized to give consent;~~

~~(3)~~ No person shall receive, purchase, or sell a special purchase article or a bulk merchandise container except as in accordance with sections 4737.012 and 4737.04 to 4737.045 of the Revised Code.

(C) Every scrap metal dealer shall maintain a record book or electronic file, in which the dealer shall keep an accurate and complete record of all articles purchased or received by the dealer in the course of the dealer's daily business. On and after September 11, 2008, every entry in the record book or electronic file shall be numbered consecutively and, on or after ~~the effective date of this amendment~~ September 28, 2012, shall be maintained for inspection in numerical order. Until the registry developed by the director pursuant to section 4737.045 of the Revised Code is operational, a dealer shall maintain the record for each article purchased or received for a minimum period of one year after the date the dealer purchased or received the article, except that the dealer shall maintain the photograph required under division (I) of this section only for a period of sixty days after the dealer purchased or received the article. Beginning on the date the registry is operational, a dealer shall maintain the record for each article purchased or received only for a period of sixty days after the date the dealer purchased or received the article. The director shall adopt rules for the format and maintenance of the records required under this division.

(1) The name and residence of the person from whom the articles were purchased or received, a copy of that person's personal identification card, and a photograph of the person taken pursuant to division (I) of this section;

(2) The date and time the scrap metal dealer purchased or received the articles and the weight of the articles as determined by a licensed commercial scale;

(3) If the seller or provider of the articles arrives at the dealer's place of business in a motor vehicle, the license plate number of that motor vehicle along with the state that issued the license plate;

(4) For metal articles that are not recyclable materials, a full and accurate description of each article purchased or received by the dealer that includes identifying letters or marks written, inscribed, or otherwise included on the article and the name and maker of the article if known;

(5) For recyclable materials that are not special purchase articles, the following category codes to identify the recyclable materials that the dealer receives:

(a) "Number one copper," which includes clean copper pipe, clean copper wire, or other number one copper that does not have solder, paint, or coating;

(b) "Number two copper," which includes unclean copper pipe, unclean copper wire, or other number two copper;

(e) "Aluminum or copper radiators," which includes aluminum radiators, aluminum copper radiators, and copper radiators;

(g) "Yellow brass," which includes yellow brass fixtures, yellow brass valve and fitting, ornamental brass, and other yellow brass;

(i) "Aluminum extrusions," which includes aluminum bleachers, aluminum benches, aluminum frames, aluminum pipe, and other aluminum extrusions;

(j) "Cast aluminum," which includes aluminum grills, lawnmower decks made of aluminum, aluminum motor vehicle parts and rims, and other cast aluminum;

(m) "Aluminum exteriors," which includes aluminum siding, aluminum gutters and downspouts, aluminum shutters, aluminum trim, and other aluminum exterior items;

(o) "Stainless steel," which includes, sinks, appliance housing, dishes, pots, pans, pipe, and other items made out of stainless steel;

(q) "Steel structural," which includes all structural steel such as I-beams, trusses, channel iron, and similar steel from buildings;

(r) "Miscellaneous steel," which includes steel grates, steel farm machinery, steel industrial machinery, steel motor vehicle frames, and other items made out of steel;

(s) "Sheet irons," which includes bicycles, motor vehicle body parts made of iron, and other items made using sheet iron;

(t) "Motor vehicle nonbody parts," which includes motor vehicle batteries, radiators, and other nonbody motor vehicle parts;

(x) "Electronic scrap," which includes any consumer or commercial electronic equipment such as computers, servers, routers, video displays, and similar products.

(6) For recyclable materials that are special purchase articles, the relevant category provided in division (A)(2) of this section.

(D) Railroad material, including journal brasses, rail spikes, rails, tie plates, frogs, and communication wire, other than purchases and sales under sections 4973.13 to 4973.16 of the Revised Code, shall be held by a scrap metal dealer for a period of thirty days after being purchased or acquired.

(E)(1) The records required under division (C) of this section or under section 4737.012 of the Revised Code shall be open for inspection by the representative of any law enforcement agency, railroad police officers, and the director of public safety or the director's designated representative during all business hours. A scrap metal dealer or bulk merchandise container dealer shall do both of the following:

(a) Provide a copy of those records to any law enforcement agency or railroad police officer that requests the records or to the director or director's representative, upon request;

(b) Prepare a daily electronic report, the content and format of which shall be established in rules adopted by the director, listing all retail transactions that occurred during the preceding day and containing the information described in division (C) of this section or division (A) of section 4737.012 of the Revised Code, as applicable. The dealer shall electronically transfer, by twelve noon eastern standard time, the report for inclusion in the registry created pursuant to division (E) of section 4737.045 of the Revised Code.

(2) A law enforcement agency may inspect any photographic records collected and maintained by a scrap metal dealer of either yard operations or individual transactions. Records submitted to any law enforcement agency pursuant to this section are not public records for purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code.

~~(2)~~(3) Records submitted to any law enforcement agency, railroad police officer, or the director or the director's designated representative as required by section 4737.012 of the Revised Code and sections 4737.04 to 4737.045 of the Revised Code shall not be public records for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code.

(4) Notwithstanding division (E)(3) of this section, the names and addresses of scrap metal dealers and bulk merchandise container dealers shall be made available to the public by the director upon request.

(5) A person who claims to own a stolen article that may be identified in those records, or an agent of that person, who provides proof of having filed a stolen property report with the appropriate law enforcement agency, may request those records. The law enforcement agency shall provide those records upon a request made by such a person or that person's agent, but the law enforcement agency shall redact information that reveals the name of the seller of any article and the price the dealer paid for any article the dealer purchased or the estimated value of any article the dealer received. The law enforcement agency shall determine which records to provide, based upon the time period that the alleged theft is reported to have taken place. A law enforcement agency may charge or collect a fee for providing records as required by this section.

(F)(1) No scrap metal dealer shall purchase or receive any metal articles, and no bulk merchandise container dealer shall purchase or receive any bulk merchandise containers, from a person who refuses to show the dealer the person's personal identification card, or who refuses to allow the dealer to take a photograph of the person as required under division (I) of this section or of the person or container as required under division (B) of section 4737.012 of the Revised Code.

(2) The law enforcement agency that serves the jurisdiction in which a scrap metal dealer or a bulk merchandise container dealer is located shall provide to the scrap metal dealer or bulk merchandise container dealer a searchable, electronic list prepared in accordance with rules adopted by the director, as that agency determines appropriate, of the names and descriptions of persons known to be thieves or receivers of stolen property. The law enforcement agency may request the appropriate clerk of courts to provide the list. No scrap metal dealer or bulk merchandise container dealer shall purchase or receive articles from any person who is either identified on the list the dealer receives from the law enforcement agency, or who appears on the lists made available by the director pursuant to division (E) of section 4737.045 of the Revised Code. The law enforcement agency also shall provide the list to the department of public safety, in an electronic format in accordance with rules adopted by the director, for inclusion in the registry created in section 4737.045 of the Revised Code.

(3) No scrap metal dealer or bulk merchandise container dealer shall purchase or receive any special purchase articles or bulk merchandise containers from any person who is under eighteen years of age.

(4) No scrap metal dealer shall purchase or receive any special purchase article without complying with division (C) or and (I) of this section and division (B), (C), or (D) of section 4737.041 of the Revised Code.

(5) No scrap metal dealer shall purchase or receive more than one catalytic converter per day from the same person except from a motor vehicle dealer as defined in section 4517.01 of the Revised Code.

(6) No scrap metal dealer shall purchase or receive a beer keg that is marked with a company name or logo except from a manufacturer of beer as described in section 4303.02 of the Revised Code or an agent authorized by the manufacturer to dispose of damaged kegs.

(7) No scrap metal dealer shall treat a transaction as exempt from section 4737.04 or 4737.041 of the Revised Code unless the seller provides evidence of satisfying division (D)(3) of section 4737.043 of the Revised Code.

(G) Every scrap metal dealer and bulk merchandise container dealer shall post a notice in a conspicuous place on the dealer's premises notifying persons who may wish to transact business with the dealer of the penalties applicable to any person who does any of the following:

(2) With purpose to defraud, provides any other false information to the dealer in connection with the dealer's duty to maintain the records required under division (C) of this section or under section 4737.012 of the Revised Code;

(3) Violates section 2913.02 of the Revised Code ~~or division (B)(2) of this section~~.

(H)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (F)(2) of this section, a clerk of courts or an employee of a clerk of courts; a chief of police, marshal, or other chief law enforcement officer; a sheriff, constable, or chief of police of a township police department or police district police force; a deputy, officer, or employee of the law enforcement agency served by the marshal or the municipal or township chief, the office of the sheriff, or the constable; and an employee of the department of public safety is immune from liability in a civil action, including an action for defamation, libel, or slander, to recover damages for injury, death, or loss to persons or property or reputation allegedly caused by an act or omission in connection with compiling and providing the list required by division (F)(2) of this section.

(2) The immunity described in division (H)(1) of this section does not apply to a person described in that division if, in relation to the act or omission in question, any of the following applies:

(a) The act or omission was manifestly outside the scope of the person's employment or official responsibilities.

(b) The act or omission was with malicious purpose, in bad faith, or in a wanton or reckless manner.

(I) Every scrap metal dealer shall take a photograph, in accordance with rules adopted by the director, of each person who sells or otherwise gives the dealer an article for which the dealer must make record under division (C) of this section.

The dealer shall take the required photograph at the time the dealer purchases or receives the article and shall keep the photograph as part of the record in accordance with division (C) of this section.

(J)(1) An individual listed as a known thief or receiver of stolen property on a list prepared pursuant to division (F)(2) of this section may request that the individual's name be removed from the list by filing an application with the law enforcement agency responsible for preparing the list.

(2) A law enforcement agency receiving an application in accordance with division (J)(1) of this section shall remove the applicant's name from the list of known thieves and receivers of stolen property if the individual has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty to either a misdemeanor that is a theft offense, as defined in section 2913.01 of the Revised Code, within three years immediately prior to the date of the application or a felony that is a theft offense within six years immediately prior to the date of the application.

Sec. 4737.99. (A) Except as specified in divisions (B), (C), (D), (E), and (F) of this section, whoever violates sections 4737.01 to 4737.11 of the Revised Code, shall be fined not less than twenty-five nor more than one thousand dollars and the costs of prosecution.

(B) Whoever violates division (F)(2) of section 4737.10 of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.

(C) Whoever fails to comply with or violates section 4737.01, 4737.012, or 4737.041, division (C), (D), (E), (F), (G), or (I) of section 4737.04, or division (D) of section 4737.045 of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the offender one time previously has violated or failed to comply with section 4737.01, 4737.012, or 4737.041, division (C), (D), (E), (F), (G), or (I) of section 4737.04, or division (D) of section 4737.045 of the Revised Code, the violation or failure is a felony of the fifth degree. If the offender two or more times previously has violated or failed to comply with section 4737.01, 4737.012, or 4737.041, division (C), (D), (E), (F), (G), or (I) of section 4737.04, or division (D) of section 4737.045 of the Revised Code, the violation or failure is a felony of the fourth degree. For any second or subsequent violation of or failure to comply with section 4737.01, 4737.012, or 4737.041, or division (C), (D), (E), (F), (G), or (I) of section 4737.04, or division (D) of section 4737.045 of the Revised Code, a court may suspend the registration issued to the scrap metal dealer or bulk merchandise container dealer under section 4737.045 of the Revised Code for a period of ninety days, during which time period the person shall not engage in the business of a scrap metal dealer or a bulk merchandise container dealer, as applicable.

(D) Whoever violates division (B)(1) of section 4737.04 of the Revised Code is guilty of a felony of the fifth degree. The court also shall enjoin the person from engaging in the business of a scrap metal dealer or a bulk merchandise dealer.

(E) ~~Notwithstanding section 2913.02 of the Revised Code, whoever~~ Whoever violates division (B)(2) ~~or (3)~~ of section 4737.04 of the Revised Code is guilty of a felony of the fifth degree for the first offense and a felony of the third degree for any subsequent offense.

(F) Any motor vehicle used in the theft or illegal transportation of metal shall be impounded for at least thirty days and not more than sixty days. If the same motor vehicle is used in connection with a second or subsequent theft or illegal transportation of metal, the motor vehicle shall be impounded for at least sixty days and not more than one hundred eighty days. Any motor vehicle used in the theft or illegal transportation of a special purchase article or bulk merchandise container shall be impounded for at least ninety days and not more than three hundred sixty days. A motor vehicle impounded pursuant to this division shall be stored at a municipal corporation impound lot, if available, or at a lot owned by a private entity or another governmental unit that the municipal corporation utilizes for the purpose of impounding a motor vehicle. An impounded motor vehicle may be recovered from the impound lot at the end of the impound term upon payment of fees~~, fifty per cent of which shall be remitted to the department of public safety to offset the costs of operating the registry established pursuant to section 4737.045 of the Revised Code~~.

Sec. 4743.05. Except as otherwise provided in sections 4701.20, 4723.062, 4723.082, 4729.65, 4781.121, and 4781.28 of the Revised Code, all money collected under Chapters 3773., 4701., 4703., 4709., 4713., 4715., 4717., 4723., 4725., 4729., 4732., 4733., 4734., 4736., 4741., 4753., 4755., 4757., 4758., 4759., 4761., ~~4766.,~~ 4771., 4775., 4779., and 4781. of the Revised Code shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the occupational licensing and regulatory fund, which is hereby created for use in administering such chapters.

At the end of each quarter, the director of budget and management shall transfer from the occupational licensing and regulatory fund to the nurse education assistance fund created in section 3333.28 of the Revised Code the amount certified to the director under division (B) of section 4723.08 of the Revised Code.

At the end of each quarter, the director shall transfer from the occupational licensing and regulatory fund to the certified public accountant education assistance fund created in section 4701.26 of the Revised Code the amount certified to the director under division (H)(2) of section 4701.10 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 4765.02. (A)(1) There is hereby created the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services within the division of emergency medical services of the department of public safety. The board shall consist of the members specified in this section who are residents of this state. The governor, with the advice and consent of the senate, shall appoint all members of the board, except the employee of the department of public safety designated by the director of public safety under this section to be a member of the board. In making the appointments, the governor shall appoint only members with background or experience in emergency medical services or trauma care and shall attempt to include members representing urban and rural areas, various geographical regions of the state, and various schools of training.

(2) One member of the board shall be a physician certified by the American board of emergency medicine or the American osteopathic board of emergency medicine who is active in the practice of emergency medicine and is actively involved with an emergency medical service organization. The governor shall appoint this member from among three persons nominated by the Ohio chapter of the American college of emergency physicians and three persons nominated by the Ohio osteopathic association. One member shall be a physician certified by the American board of surgery or the American osteopathic board of surgery who is active in the practice of trauma surgery and is actively involved with emergency medical services. The governor shall appoint this member from among three persons nominated by the Ohio chapter of the American college of surgeons and three persons nominated by the Ohio osteopathic association. One member shall be a physician certified by the American academy of pediatrics or American osteopathic board of pediatrics who is active in the practice of pediatric emergency medicine and actively involved with an emergency medical service organization. The governor shall appoint this member from among three persons nominated by the Ohio chapter of the American academy of pediatrics and three persons nominated by the Ohio osteopathic association. One member shall be the administrator of an adult or pediatric trauma center. The governor shall appoint this member from among three persons nominated by the OHA: the association for hospitals and health systems, three persons nominated by the Ohio osteopathic association, three persons nominated by the association of Ohio children's hospitals, and three persons nominated by the health forum of Ohio. One member shall be the administrator of a hospital ~~that is not a trauma center~~ located in this state. The governor shall appoint this member from among three persons nominated by OHA: the association for hospitals and health systems, three persons nominated by the Ohio osteopathic association, and three persons nominated by the association of Ohio children's hospitals~~, and three persons nominated by the health forum of Ohio~~. One member shall be ~~a registered nurse~~ an adult or pediatric trauma program manager or trauma program director who is involved in the ~~active practice of emergency nursing~~ daily management of a verified trauma center. The governor shall appoint this member from among three persons nominated by the Ohio nurses association, three persons nominated by the Ohio society of trauma nurse leaders, and three persons nominated by the Ohio state council of the emergency nurses association. One member shall be the chief of a fire department that is also an emergency medical service organization in which more than fifty per cent of the persons who provide emergency medical services are full-time paid employees. The governor shall appoint this member from among three persons nominated by the Ohio fire chiefs' association. One member shall be the chief of a fire department that is also an emergency medical service organization in which more than fifty per cent of the persons who provide emergency medical services are volunteers. The governor shall appoint this member from among three persons nominated by the Ohio fire chiefs' association. One member shall be a person who is certified to teach under section 4765.23 of the Revised Code ~~or, if the board has not yet certified persons to teach under that section, a person who is qualified to be certified to teach under that section~~ and holds a valid certificate to practice as an EMT, AEMT, or paramedic. The governor shall appoint this member from among three persons nominated by the Ohio emergency medical technician instructors association and the Ohio instructor/coordinators' society. One member shall be an ~~EMT-basic, one shall be an EMT-I, and one~~ EMT, AEMT, or paramedic, and one member shall be a paramedic. The governor shall appoint these members from among three ~~EMTs-basic, three EMTs-I,~~ EMTs or AEMTs and three paramedics nominated by the Ohio association of professional fire fighters and three ~~EMTs-basic~~ EMTs, three ~~EMTs-I~~ AEMTs, and three paramedics nominated by the northern Ohio fire fighters. One member shall be an ~~EMT-basic, one shall be an EMT-I, and one~~ EMT, AEMT, or paramedic, and one member shall be a paramedic ~~whom the~~. The governor shall appoint these members from among three ~~EMTs-basic, three EMTs-I,~~ EMTs or AEMTs and three paramedics nominated by the Ohio state firefighter's association. One member shall be a person whom the governor shall appoint from among an ~~EMT-basic, an EMT-I, and~~ EMT, AEMT, or a paramedic nominated by the Ohio association of emergency medical services or the Ohio ambulance and medical transportation association. One member shall be an EMT, AEMT, or a paramedic, whom the governor shall appoint from among three persons nominated by the Ohio ambulance and medical transportation association. One member shall be a paramedic, whom the governor shall appoint from among three persons nominated by the Ohio ambulance and medical transportation association. The governor shall appoint one member who is an EMT-basic, EMT-I, or paramedic affiliated with an emergency medical services organization. One member shall be a member of the Ohio ambulance association whom the governor shall appoint from among three persons nominated by the Ohio ambulance association. One member shall be a physician certified by the American board of surgery, American board of osteopathic surgery, American osteopathic board of emergency medicine, or American board of emergency medicine who is the chief medical officer of an air medical agency and is currently active in providing emergency medical services. The governor shall appoint this member from among three persons nominated by the Ohio association of air medical services. One member shall be the owner or operator of a private emergency medical service organization whom the governor shall appoint from among three persons nominated by the Ohio ambulance and medical transportation association. One member shall be a provider of mobile intensive care unit transportation in this state whom the governor shall appoint from among three persons nominated by the Ohio association of critical care transport. One member shall be a provider of air-medical transportation in this state whom the governor shall appoint from among three persons nominated by the Ohio association of critical care transport. One member shall be the owner or operator of a nonemergency medical service organization in this state that provides ambulette services whom the governor shall appoint from among three persons nominated by the Ohio ambulance and medical transportation association.

The governor may refuse to appoint any of the persons nominated by one or more organizations under division (A)(2) of this section, except the employee of the department of public safety designated by the director of public safety under this section to be a member of the board. In that event, the organization or organizations shall continue to nominate the required number of persons until the governor appoints to the board one or more of the persons nominated by the organization or organizations.

The director of public safety shall designate an employee of the department of public safety to serve as a member of the board at the director's pleasure. This member shall serve as a liaison between the department and the division of emergency medical services in cooperation with the executive director of the board.

Initial appointments to the board by the governor and the director of public safety shall be made within ninety days after November 12, 1992. Of the initial appointments by the governor, five shall be for terms ending one year after November 12, 1992, six shall be for terms ending two years after November 12, 1992, and six shall be for terms ending three years after November 12, 1992. Within ninety days after the effective date of this amendment, the governor shall appoint the member of the board who is the chief medical officer of an air medical agency for an initial term ending November 12, 2000. Thereafter, terms

(B) Terms of office of all members appointed by the governor shall be for three years, each term ending on the same day of the same month as did the term it succeeds. Each member shall hold office from the date of appointment until the end of the term for which the member was appointed. A member shall continue in office subsequent to the expiration date of the member's term until the member's successor takes office, or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, whichever occurs first.

Each vacancy shall be filled in the same manner as the original appointment. A member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which the member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the remainder of the unexpired term.

The term of a member shall expire if the member ceases to meet any of the requirements to be appointed as that member. The governor may remove any member from office for neglect of duty, malfeasance, misfeasance, or nonfeasance, after an adjudication hearing held in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.

(C) The members of the board shall serve without compensation but shall be reimbursed for their actual and necessary expenses incurred in carrying out their duties as board members.

(D) The board shall organize by annually selecting a chair and vice-chair from among its members. The board may adopt bylaws to regulate its affairs. A majority of all members of the board shall constitute a quorum. No action shall be taken without the concurrence of a majority of all members of the board. The board shall meet at least four times annually and at the call of the chair. The chair shall call a meeting on the request of the executive director or the medical director of the board or on the written request of five members. The board shall maintain written or electronic records of its meetings.

(E) Upon twenty-four hours' notice from a member of the board, the member's employer shall release the member from the member's employment duties to attend meetings of the full board. Nothing in this ~~paragraph~~ division requires the employer of a member of the board to compensate the member for time the member is released from employment duties under this paragraph, but any civil immunity, workers' compensation, disability, or similar coverage that applies to a member of the board as a result of the member's employment shall continue to apply while the member is released from employment duties under this paragraph.

Sec. 4765.03. (A) The director of public safety shall appoint a full-time executive director for the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services. The executive director shall be knowledgeable in emergency medical services and trauma care and shall serve at the pleasure of the director of public safety. The director of public safety shall appoint the executive director from among three persons nominated by the board. The director of public safety may refuse, for cause, to appoint any of the board's nominees. If the director fails to appoint any of the board's nominees, the board shall continue to nominate groups of three persons until the director does appoint one of the board's nominees. The executive director shall serve as the chief executive officer of the board and as the executive director of the division of emergency medical services. The executive director shall attend each meeting of the board, except the board may exclude the executive director from discussions concerning the employment or performance of the executive director or medical director of the board. The executive director shall give a surety bond to the state in such sum as the board determines, conditioned on the faithful performance of the duties of the executive director's office. The executive director shall receive a salary from the board and shall be reimbursed for actual and necessary expenses incurred in carrying out duties as executive director.

The executive director shall submit a report to the director of public safety at least every three months regarding the status of emergency medical services in this state. The executive director shall meet with the director of public safety at the director's request.

(B) The board shall appoint a medical director, who shall serve at the pleasure of the board. The medical director shall be a physician certified by the American board of emergency medicine or the American osteopathic board of emergency medicine who is active in the practice of emergency medicine and has been actively involved with an emergency medical service organization for at least five years prior to being appointed. The board shall consider any recommendations for this appointment from the Ohio chapter of the American college of emergency physicians, the Ohio chapter of the American college of surgeons, the Ohio chapter of the American academy of pediatrics, the Ohio osteopathic association, and the Ohio state medical association.

The medical director shall direct the executive director and advise the board with regard to adult and pediatric trauma and emergency medical services issues. The medical director shall attend each meeting of the board, except the board may exclude the medical director from discussions concerning the appointment or performance of the medical director or executive director of the board. The medical director shall be employed and paid by the board and shall be reimbursed for actual and necessary expenses incurred in carrying out duties as medical director.

(C) The board may appoint employees as it determines necessary. The board shall prescribe the duties and titles of its employees.

Sec. 4765.04. (A) The firefighter and fire safety inspector training committee of the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services is hereby created and shall consist of the members of the board who are chiefs of fire departments, and the members of the board who are emergency medical technicians-basic, emergency medical technicians-intermediate, and emergency medical technicians-paramedic appointed from among persons nominated by the Ohio association of professional fire fighters or the northern Ohio fire fighters and from among persons nominated by the Ohio state firefighter's association. Each member of the committee, except the chairperson, may designate a person with fire experience to serve in that member's place. The members of the committee or their designees shall select a chairperson from among the members or their designees.

The committee may conduct investigations in the course of discharging its duties under this chapter. In the course of an investigation, the committee may issue subpoenas. If a person subpoenaed fails to comply with the subpoena, the committee may authorize its chairperson to apply to the court of common pleas in the county where the person to be subpoenaed resides for an order compelling compliance in the same manner as compliance with a subpoena issued by the court is compelled.

(B) The trauma committee of the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services is hereby created and shall consist of the following members appointed by the director of public safety:

(1) A physician who is certified by the American board of surgery or American osteopathic board of surgery and actively practices general trauma surgery, appointed from among three persons nominated by the Ohio chapter of the American college of surgeons, three persons nominated by the Ohio state medical association, and three persons nominated by the Ohio osteopathic association;

(2) A physician who is certified by the American board of surgery or the American osteopathic board of surgery and actively practices orthopedic trauma surgery, appointed from among three persons nominated by the Ohio orthopedic society and three persons nominated by the Ohio osteopathic association;

(3) A physician who is certified by the American board of neurological surgeons or the American osteopathic board of surgery and actively practices neurosurgery on trauma victims, appointed from among three persons nominated by the Ohio state neurological society and three persons nominated by the Ohio osteopathic association;

(4) A physician who is certified by the American board of surgeons or American osteopathic board of surgeons and actively specializes in treating burn victims, appointed from among three persons nominated by the Ohio chapter of the American college of surgeons and three persons nominated by the Ohio osteopathic association;

(5) A dentist who is certified by the American board of oral and maxillofacial surgery and actively practices oral and maxillofacial surgery, appointed from among three persons nominated by the Ohio dental association;

(6) A physician who is certified by the American board of physical medicine and rehabilitation or American osteopathic board of rehabilitation medicine and actively provides rehabilitative care to trauma victims, appointed from among three persons nominated by the Ohio society of physical medicine and rehabilitation and three persons nominated by the Ohio osteopathic association;

(7) A physician who is certified by the American board of surgery or American osteopathic board of surgery with special qualifications in pediatric surgery and actively practices pediatric trauma surgery, appointed from among three persons nominated by the Ohio chapter of the American academy of pediatrics and three persons nominated by the Ohio osteopathic association;

(8) A physician who is certified by the American board of emergency medicine or American osteopathic board of emergency medicine, actively practices emergency medicine, and is actively involved in emergency medical services, appointed from among three persons nominated by the Ohio chapter of the American college of emergency physicians and three persons nominated by the Ohio osteopathic association;

(9) A physician who is certified by the American board of pediatrics, American osteopathic board of pediatrics, or American board of emergency medicine, is sub-boarded in pediatric emergency medicine, actively practices pediatric emergency medicine, and is actively involved in emergency medical services, appointed from among three persons nominated by the Ohio chapter of the American academy of pediatrics, three persons nominated by the Ohio chapter of the American college of emergency physicians, and three persons nominated by the Ohio osteopathic association;

(10) A physician who is certified by the American board of surgery, American osteopathic board of surgery, or American board of emergency medicine and is the chief medical officer of an air medical organization, appointed from among three persons nominated by the Ohio association of air medical services;

(11) A coroner or medical examiner appointed from among three people nominated by the Ohio state coroners' association;

(12) A registered nurse who actively practices trauma nursing at an adult or pediatric trauma center, appointed from among three persons nominated by the Ohio association of trauma nurse coordinators;

(13) A registered nurse who actively practices emergency nursing and is actively involved in emergency medical services, appointed from among three persons nominated by the Ohio chapter of the emergency nurses' association;

(14) The chief trauma registrar of an adult or pediatric trauma center, appointed from among three persons nominated by the alliance of Ohio trauma registrars;

(15) The administrator of an adult or pediatric trauma center, appointed from among three persons nominated by OHA: the association for hospitals and health systems, three persons nominated by the Ohio osteopathic association, three persons nominated by the association of Ohio children's hospitals, and three persons nominated by the health forum of Ohio;

(16) The administrator of a hospital that is not a trauma center and actively provides emergency care to adult or pediatric trauma patients, appointed from among three persons nominated by OHA: the association for hospitals and health systems, three persons nominated by the Ohio osteopathic association, three persons nominated by the association of Ohio children's hospitals, and three persons nominated by the health forum of Ohio;

(17) The operator of an ambulance company that actively provides trauma care to emergency patients, appointed from among three persons nominated by the Ohio ambulance association;

(18) The chief of a fire department that actively provides trauma care to emergency patients, appointed from among three persons nominated by the Ohio fire chiefs' association;

(19) An EMT or paramedic who is certified under this chapter and actively provides trauma care to emergency patients, appointed from among three persons nominated by the Ohio association of professional firefighters, three persons nominated by the northern Ohio fire fighters, three persons nominated by the Ohio state firefighters' association, and three persons nominated by the Ohio association of emergency medical services;

(20) A person who actively advocates for trauma victims, appointed from three persons nominated by the Ohio brain injury association and three persons nominated by the governor's council on people with disabilities;

(21) A physician or nurse who has substantial administrative responsibility for trauma care provided in or by an adult or pediatric trauma center, appointed from among three persons nominated by OHA: the association for hospitals and health systems, three persons nominated by the Ohio osteopathic association, three persons nominated by the association of Ohio children's hospitals, and three persons nominated by the health forum of Ohio;

(22) Three representatives of hospitals that are not trauma centers and actively provide emergency care to trauma patients, appointed from among three persons nominated by OHA: the association for hospitals and health systems, three persons nominated by the Ohio osteopathic association, three persons nominated by the association of Ohio children's hospitals, and three persons nominated by the health forum of Ohio. The representatives may be hospital administrators, physicians, nurses, or other clinical professionals.

Members of the committee shall have substantial experience in the categories they represent, shall be residents of this state, and may be members of the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services. In appointing members of the committee, the director shall attempt to include members representing urban and rural areas, various geographical areas of the state, and various schools of training. The director shall not appoint to the committee more than one member who is employed by or practices at the same hospital, health system, or emergency medical service organization.

The director may refuse to appoint any of the persons nominated by an organization or organizations under this division. In that event, the organization or organizations shall continue to nominate the required number of persons until the director appoints to the committee one or more of the persons nominated by the organization or organizations.

Initial appointments to the committee shall be made by the director not later than ninety days after November 3, 2000. Members of the committee shall serve at the pleasure of the director, except that any member of the committee who ceases to be qualified for the position to which the member was appointed shall cease to be a member of the committee. Vacancies on the committee shall be filled in the same manner as original appointments.

The members of the committee shall serve without compensation but shall be reimbursed for actual and necessary expenses incurred in carrying out duties as members of the committee.

The committee shall select a chairperson and vice-chairperson from among its members. A majority of all members of the committee shall constitute a quorum. No action shall be taken without the concurrence of a majority of all members of the committee. The committee shall meet at the call of the chair, upon written request of five members of the committee, and at the direction of the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services. The committee shall not meet at times or locations that conflict with meetings of the board. The executive director and medical director of the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services may participate in any meeting of the committee and shall do so at the request of the committee.

The committee shall advise and assist the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services in matters related to adult and pediatric trauma care and the establishment and operation of the state trauma registry. In matters relating to the state trauma registry, the board and the committee shall consult with trauma registrars from adult and pediatric trauma centers in the state. The committee may appoint a subcommittee to advise and assist with the trauma registry. The subcommittee may include persons with expertise relevant to the trauma registry who are not members of the board or committee.

(C)(1) The medical transportation committee of the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services is hereby created. The committee shall consist of members appointed by the board in accordance with rules adopted by the board. In appointing members of the committee, the board shall attempt to include members representing urban and rural areas and various geographical areas of the state, and shall ensure the members have substantial experience in the transportation of patients, including addressing the unique issues of mobile intensive care and air medical services. The members of the committee shall be residents of this state and may be members of the board. The members of the committee shall serve without compensation but shall be reimbursed for actual and necessary expenses incurred in carrying out duties as members of the committee. The committee shall select a chairperson and vice-chairperson from among its members. A majority of all members of the committee shall constitute a quorum. No action shall be taken without the concurrence of a majority of all members of the committee. The committee shall meet at the call of the chair and at the direction of the board. The committee shall not meet at times or locations that conflict with meetings of the board. The committee shall advise and assist the board in matters related to the licensing of nonemergency medical service, emergency medical service, and air medical service organizations in this state.

(2) There is hereby created the critical care subcommittee of the medical transportation committee. The membership of the subcommittee and the conduct of the subcommittee's business shall conform to rules adopted by the board. The subcommittee shall advise and assist the committee and board in matters relating to mobile intensive care and air medical service organizations in this state.

(D) The state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services may appoint other committees and subcommittees as it considers necessary.

~~(D)~~(E) The state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services, and any of its committees or subcommittees, may request assistance from any state agency. The board and its committees and subcommittees may permit persons who are not members of those bodies to participate in deliberations of those bodies, but no person who is not a member of the board shall vote on the board and no person who is not a member of a committee created under division (A) or, (B), or (C) of this section shall vote on that committee.

~~(E)~~(F) Sections 101.82 to 101.87 of the Revised Code do not apply to the committees established under ~~division~~ divisions (A) or, (B), and (C) of this section.

Sec. 4765.05. (A) As used in this section, "prehospital emergency medical services" means an emergency medical services system that provides medical services to patients who require immediate assistance, because of illness or injury, prior to their arrival at an emergency medical facility.

(B) The state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services shall divide the state geographically into prehospital emergency medical services regions for purposes of overseeing the delivery of adult and pediatric prehospital emergency medical services. For each prehospital emergency medical services region, the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services shall appoint either a physician to serve as the regional director or a physician advisory board to serve as the regional advisory board. The state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services shall specify the duties of each regional director and regional advisory board. Regional directors and members of regional advisory boards shall serve without compensation, but shall be reimbursed for actual and necessary expenses incurred in carrying out duties as regional directors and members of regional advisory boards.

(C) Nothing in this section shall be construed to limit in any way the ability of a hospital to determine the market area of that hospital.

Sec. 4765.06. (A) The state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services shall establish an emergency medical services incidence reporting system for the collection of information regarding the delivery of emergency medical services in this state and the frequency at which the services are provided. All emergency medical service organizations shall submit to the board any information that the board determines is necessary for maintaining the incidence reporting system.

(B) The board shall establish a state trauma registry to be used for the collection of information regarding the care of adult and pediatric trauma victims in this state. The registry shall provide for the reporting of adult and pediatric trauma-related deaths, identification of adult and pediatric trauma patients, monitoring of adult and pediatric trauma patient care data, determination of the total amount of uncompensated adult and pediatric trauma care provided annually by each facility that provides care to trauma victims, and collection of any other information specified by the board. All persons designated by the board shall submit to the board any information it determines is necessary for maintaining the state trauma registry. At the request of the board any state agency possessing information regarding adult or pediatric trauma care shall provide the information to the board. The board shall maintain the state trauma registry in accordance with rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code.

Rules relating to the state trauma registry adopted under this section and section 4765.11 of the Revised Code shall not prohibit the operation of other trauma registries and may provide for the reporting of information to the state trauma registry by or through other trauma registries in a manner consistent with information otherwise reported to the state trauma registry. Other trauma registries may report aggregate information to the state trauma registry, provided the information can be matched to the person that reported it. Information maintained by another trauma registry and reported to the state trauma registry in lieu of being reported directly to the state trauma registry is a public record and shall be maintained, made available to the public, held in confidence, risk adjusted, and not subject to discovery or introduction into evidence in a civil action as provided in section 149.43 of the Revised Code and this section. Any person who provides, maintains, or risk adjusts such information shall comply with this section and rules adopted under it in performing that function and has the same immunities with respect to that function as a person who performs that function with respect to the state trauma registry.

(C) The board and any employee or contractor of the board or the department of public safety shall not make public information it receives under Chapter 4765. of the Revised Code that identifies or would tend to identify a specific recipient of emergency medical services or adult or pediatric trauma care.

(D) Not later than two years after November 3, 2000, the board shall adopt and implement rules under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code that provide written standards and procedures for risk adjustment of information received by the board under Chapter 4765. of the Revised Code. The rules shall be developed in consultation with appropriate medical, hospital, and emergency medical service organizations and may provide for risk adjustment by a contractor of the board. Except as provided in division (G) of this section, before risk adjustment standards and procedures are implemented, no member of the board and no employee or contractor of the board or the department of public safety shall make public information received by the board under Chapter 4765. of the Revised Code that identifies or would tend to identify a specific provider of emergency medical services or adult or pediatric trauma care. Except as provided in division (G) of this section, after risk adjustment standards and procedures are implemented, the board shall make public such information only on a risk adjusted basis.

(E) The board shall adopt rules under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code that specify procedures for ensuring the confidentiality of information that is not to be made public under this section. The rules shall specify the circumstances in which deliberations of the persons performing risk adjustment functions under this section are not open to the public and records of those deliberations are maintained in confidence. Nothing in this section prohibits the board from making public statistical information that does not identify or tend to identify a specific recipient or provider of emergency medical services or adult or pediatric trauma care.

(F) No provider that furnishes information to the board with respect to any patient the provider examined or treated shall, because of this furnishing, be deemed liable in damages to any person or be held to answer for betrayal of a professional confidence in the absence of willful or wanton misconduct. No such information shall be subject to introduction in evidence in any civil action against the provider. No provider that furnishes information to the board shall be liable for the misuse or improper release of the information by the board or any other person.

No person who performs risk adjustment functions under this section shall, because of performing such functions, be held liable in a civil action for betrayal of professional confidence or otherwise in the absence of willful or wanton misconduct.

(G) The board may transmit data that identifies or tends to identify a specific provider of emergency medical services care and has not been risk-adjusted from the emergency medical services incident reporting system directly to the national emergency medical services information system, pursuant to a written contract between the board and the federal agency that administers the national emergency medical services information system, which shall ensure to the maximum extent permitted by federal law that such agency shall use such data solely for inclusion in the national emergency medical services information system and shall not disclose such data to the public, through legal discovery, a freedom of information request, or otherwise, in a manner that identifies or tends to identify a specific provider of emergency medical services care.

Sec. 4765.07. (A) The state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services shall adopt rules under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code to establish and administer a grant program under which grants are distributed according to the following priorities:

(1) First priority shall be given to emergency medical service organizations for the training of personnel, for the purchase of equipment and vehicles, and to improve the availability, accessibility, and quality of emergency medical services in this state. In this category, the board shall give priority to grants that fund training and equipping of emergency medical service personnel.

(2) Second priority shall be given to entities that research, test, and evaluate medical procedures and systems related to adult and pediatric trauma care.

(3) Third priority shall be given to entities that research the causes, nature, and effects of traumatic injuries, educate the public about injury prevention, and implement, test, and evaluate injury prevention strategies.

(4) Fourth priority shall be given to entities that research, test, and evaluate procedures that promote the rehabilitation, retraining, and reemployment of adult or pediatric trauma victims and social service support mechanisms for adult or pediatric trauma victims and their families.

(5) Fifth priority shall be given to entities that conduct research on, test, or evaluate one or more of the following:

(a) Procedures governing the performance of emergency medical services in this state;

(6) For grants distributed for the grant award years occurring not later than the award year ending June 30, 2017, sixth priority shall be given to entities that operate paramedic training programs and are seeking national accreditation of the programs.

(B) To be eligible for a grant distributed pursuant to division (A)(6) of this section, an applicant for the grant shall meet all of the following conditions:

(1) Hold a certificate of accreditation issued by the board under section 4765.17 of the Revised Code to operate a paramedic training program;

(2) Be seeking initial national accreditation of the program from an accrediting organization approved by the board;

(C) The grant program shall be funded from the trauma and emergency medical services fund created by section 4513.263 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 4765.08. The state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services shall prepare a statewide emergency medical services plan and shall revise the plan as necessary.

The board shall prepare a plan for the statewide regulation of emergency medical services during periods of disaster. The plan shall be consistent with the statewide emergency medical services plan required under this section and with the statewide emergency operations plan required under section 5502.22 of the Revised Code. The board shall submit the plan to the emergency management agency created under section 5502.22 of the Revised Code. The board shall cooperate with the agency in any other manner the agency considers necessary to develop and implement the statewide emergency operations plan.

Sec. 4765.09. The state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services shall prepare recommendations for the operation of ambulance service organizations, air medical organizations, and emergency medical service organizations. Within thirty days following the preparation or modification of recommendations, the board shall notify the board of county commissioners of any county, the board of township trustees of any township, the board of trustees of any joint ambulance district, or the board of trustees of any joint emergency medical services district in which there exist ambulance service organizations, air medical organizations, or emergency medical service organizations of any board recommendations for the operation of such organizations. The recommendations shall include, but not be limited to:

(B) The design, equipment, and supplies for ambulances and medical aircraft, including special equipment, supplies, training, and staffing required to assist pediatric and geriatric emergency victims;

(D) The communication systems necessary for the operation of ambulances and medical aircraft;

(E) Reports to be made by persons holding certificates of accreditation or approval issued under section 4765.17 of the Revised Code and certificates to practice issued under section 4765.30 of the Revised Code to ascertain compliance with this chapter and the rules and recommendations adopted thereunder and to ascertain the quantity and quality of ambulance service organizations, air medical organizations, and emergency medical service organizations throughout the state.

Sec. 4765.10. (A) The state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services shall do all of the following:

(1) Administer and enforce the provisions of this chapter and the rules adopted under it;

(2) Approve, in accordance with procedures established in rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code, examinations that demonstrate competence to have a certificate to practice renewed without completing a continuing education program;

(3) Advise applicants for state or federal emergency medical services funds, review and comment on applications for these funds, and approve the use of all state and federal funds designated solely for emergency medical service programs unless federal law requires another state agency to approve the use of all such federal funds;

(4) Serve as a statewide clearinghouse for discussion, inquiry, and complaints concerning emergency medical services;

(5) Make recommendations to the general assembly on legislation to improve the delivery of emergency medical services;

(6) Maintain a toll-free long distance telephone number through which it shall respond to questions about emergency medical services;

(7) Work with appropriate state offices in coordinating the training of firefighters and emergency medical service personnel. Other state offices that are involved in the training of firefighters or emergency medical service personnel shall cooperate with the board and its committees and subcommittees to achieve this goal.

(8) Provide a liaison to the state emergency operation center during those periods when a disaster, as defined in section 5502.21 of the Revised Code, has occurred in this state and the governor has declared an emergency as defined in that section.

(1) Investigate complaints concerning emergency medical services and emergency medical service organizations as it determines necessary;

(2) Enter into reciprocal agreements with other states that have standards for accreditation of emergency medical services training programs and for certification of first responders, EMTs-basic, EMTs-I, paramedics, firefighters, or fire safety inspectors that are substantially similar to those established under this chapter and the rules adopted under it;

(3) Establish a statewide public information system and public education programs regarding emergency medical services;

(C) The state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services shall not regulate any profession that otherwise is regulated by another board, commission, or similar regulatory entity.

Sec. 4765.101. (A) The state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services shall investigate any allegation that a person has violated this chapter or a rule adopted under it.

Any person may submit to the board a written complaint regarding an alleged violation of this chapter or a rule adopted under it. In the absence of fraud or bad faith, no person submitting a complaint to the board or testifying in an adjudication hearing conducted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code with regard to such an alleged violation shall be liable to any person in damages in a civil action as a result of submitting the complaint or providing testimony.

(4) Compel the attendance of witnesses and production of books, accounts, papers, records, documents, and testimony.

(C) A subpoena for patient record information shall not be issued without consultation with the attorney general's office and approval of the executive director of the board. Before issuance of a subpoena for patient record information, the executive director shall determine whether there is probable cause to believe that the complaint filed alleges a violation of this chapter or any rule adopted under it and that the records sought are relevant to the alleged violation and material to the investigation. The subpoena may apply only to records that cover a reasonable period of time surrounding the alleged violation.

(D) On failure to comply with any subpoena issued by the board and after reasonable notice to the person being subpoenaed, the board may move, pursuant to the Rules of Civil Procedure, for an order compelling the production of persons or records.

(E) A subpoena issued by the board may be served by a sheriff, the sheriff's deputy, or an investigator for the division of emergency medical services of the department of public safety. Service of a subpoena issued by the board may be made by delivering a copy of the subpoena to the person named in it, reading it to the person, or leaving it at the person's usual place of residence. When the person being served is an individual authorized by this chapter to practice emergency medical services, service of the subpoena may be made by certified mail, restricted delivery, return receipt requested, and the subpoena shall be deemed served on the date delivery is made or on the date that the person refuses to accept delivery.

Sec. 4765.102. (A) As used in this section, "licensing agency" means any entity that has the authority pursuant to Title XLVII of the Revised Code to issue a license, and any other agency of this or another state, other than the Ohio supreme court, that has the authority to issue a license that authorizes an individual to engage in an occupation or profession. "Licensing agency" includes an administrative officer that has authority to issue a license that authorizes an individual to engage in an occupation or profession.

(B) Except as provided in divisions (C) and (D) of this section and section 4765.111 of the Revised Code, all information the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services receives pursuant to an investigation, including information regarding an alleged violation of this chapter or rules adopted under it or a complaint submitted under division (A) of section 4765.101 of the Revised Code, is confidential, and is not subject to discovery in any civil action, during the course of the investigation and any adjudication proceedings that result from the investigation. Upon completion of the investigation and any resulting adjudication proceedings, the information is a matter of public record for purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code.

(C) The board may release information otherwise made confidential by division (B) of this section to law enforcement officers or licensing agencies of this or another state that are prosecuting, adjudicating, or investigating the holder of a certificate issued under this chapter or a person who allegedly engaged in the unauthorized provision of emergency medical services.

A law enforcement officer or licensing agency with information disclosed by the board under this division shall not divulge the information other than for the purpose of an adjudication by a court or licensing agency to which the subject of the adjudication is a party.

(D) If an investigation conducted under section 4765.101 of the Revised Code requires a review of patient records, the investigation and proceedings related to it shall be conducted in such a manner as to protect patient confidentiality. The board shall not make public the name or any other identifying information about a patient unless proper consent is given in accordance with rules adopted by the board. If the patient is less than eighteen years of age, the board shall obtain consent from the patient's parent, guardian, or custodian.

Sec. 4765.11. (A) The state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services shall adopt, and may amend and rescind, rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and division (C) of this section that establish all of the following:

(1) Procedures for its governance and the control of its actions and business affairs;

(2) Standards for the performance of emergency medical services by first responders, emergency medical technicians-basic, emergency medical technicians-intermediate, and emergency medical technicians-paramedic;

(3) Application fees for certificates of accreditation, certificates of approval, certificates to teach, and certificates to practice, which shall be deposited into the trauma and emergency medical services fund created in section 4513.263 of the Revised Code;

(4) Criteria for determining when the application or renewal fee for a certificate to practice may be waived because an applicant cannot afford to pay the fee;

(5) Procedures for issuance and renewal of certificates of accreditation, certificates of approval, certificates to teach, and certificates to practice, including any procedures necessary to ensure that adequate notice of renewal is provided in accordance with division (D) of section 4765.30 of the Revised Code;

(6) Procedures for suspending or revoking certificates of accreditation, certificates of approval, certificates to teach, and certificates to practice;

(7) Grounds for suspension or revocation of a certificate to practice issued under section 4765.30 of the Revised Code and for taking any other disciplinary action against a first responder, EMT-basic, EMT-I, or paramedic;

(8) Procedures for taking disciplinary action against a first responder, EMT-basic, EMT-I, or paramedic;

(12) The curricula, number of hours of instruction and training, and instructional materials to be used in adult and pediatric emergency medical services training programs and adult and pediatric emergency medical services continuing education programs;

(13) Procedures for conducting courses in recognizing symptoms of life-threatening allergic reactions and in calculating proper dosage levels and administering injections of epinephrine to adult and pediatric patients who suffer life-threatening allergic reactions;

(16) Procedures for approving examinations that demonstrate competence to have a certificate to practice renewed without completing an emergency medical services continuing education program;

(17) Procedures for granting extensions and exemptions of emergency medical services continuing education requirements;

(18) Procedures for approving the additional emergency medical services first responders are authorized by division (C) of section 4765.35 of the Revised Code to perform, EMTs-basic are authorized by division (C) of section 4765.37 of the Revised Code to perform, EMTs-I are authorized by division (B)(5) of section 4765.38 of the Revised Code to perform, and paramedics are authorized by division (B)(6) of section 4765.39 of the Revised Code to perform;

(19) Standards and procedures for implementing the requirements of section 4765.06 of the Revised Code, including designations of the persons who are required to report information to the board and the types of information to be reported;

(20) Procedures for administering the emergency medical services grant program established under section 4765.07 of the Revised Code;

(21) Procedures consistent with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for appealing decisions of the board;

(22) Minimum qualifications and peer review and quality improvement requirements for persons who provide medical direction to emergency medical service personnel;

(23) The manner in which a patient, or a patient's parent, guardian, or custodian may consent to the board releasing identifying information about the patient under division (D) of section 4765.102 of the Revised Code;

(24) Circumstances under which a training program or continuing education program, or portion of either type of program, may be taught by a person who does not hold a certificate to teach issued under section 4765.23 of the Revised Code;

(25) Certification cycles for certificates issued under sections 4765.23 and 4765.30 of the Revised Code and certificates issued by the executive director of the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services under section 4765.55 of the Revised Code that establish a common expiration date for all certificates.

(B) The board may adopt, and may amend and rescind, rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and division (C) of this section that establish the following:

(1) Specifications of information that may be collected under the trauma system registry and incidence reporting system created under section 4765.06 of the Revised Code;

(2) Standards and procedures for implementing any of the recommendations made by any committees of the board or under section 4765.04 of the Revised Code;

(3) Requirements that a person must meet to receive a certificate to practice as a first responder pursuant to division (A)(2) of section 4765.30 of the Revised Code;

(C) In developing and administering rules adopted under this chapter, the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services shall consult with regional directors and regional physician advisory boards created by section 4765.05 of the Revised Code and emphasize the special needs of pediatric and geriatric patients.

(D) Except as otherwise provided in this division, before adopting, amending, or rescinding any rule under this chapter, the board shall submit the proposed rule to the director of public safety for review. The director may review the proposed rule for not more than sixty days after the date it is submitted. If, within this sixty-day period, the director approves the proposed rule or does not notify the board that the rule is disapproved, the board may adopt, amend, or rescind the rule as proposed. If, within this sixty-day period, the director notifies the board that the proposed rule is disapproved, the board shall not adopt, amend, or rescind the rule as proposed unless at least twelve members of the board vote to adopt, amend, or rescind it.

This division does not apply to an emergency rule adopted in accordance with section 119.03 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 4765.111. Except as provided in this section or sections 4765.112 to 4765.116 of the Revised Code, the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services shall conduct disciplinary proceedings regarding the holder of a certificate issued under this chapter in accordance with rules adopted by the board under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code.

The board and a holder of a certificate are the parties to a hearing conducted under this chapter. Either party may submit a written request to the other party for a list of witnesses and copies of documents intended to be introduced at the hearing. The request shall be in writing and shall be served not less than thirty-seven days prior to the commencement of the hearing, unless the hearing officer or presiding board member grants an extension of time to make the request. Not later than thirty days before the hearing, the responding party shall provide the requested list of witnesses and copies of documents to the requesting party, unless the hearing officer or presiding board member grants an extension of time to provide the list and copies.

Failure to timely provide a list or copies requested in accordance with this section shall result in exclusion from the hearing of the witnesses, testimony, or documents.

Sec. 4765.112. (A) The state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services, by an affirmative vote of the majority of its members, may suspend without a prior hearing a certificate to practice issued under this chapter if the board determines that there is clear and convincing evidence that continued practice by the certificate holder presents a danger of immediate and serious harm to the public and that the certificate holder has done any of the following:

(2) Engaged in activities that exceed those permitted by the individual's certificate;

(3) In a court of this or any other state or federal court been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been the subject of a judicial finding of guilt of, a judicial finding of guilt resulting from a plea of no contest to, or a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction for, a felony or for a misdemeanor committed in the course of practice or involving gross immorality or moral turpitude.

(B) Immediately following the decision to impose a summary suspension, the board, in accordance with section 119.07 of the Revised Code, shall issue a written order of suspension, cause it to be delivered to the certificate holder, and notify the certificate holder of the opportunity for a hearing. If timely requested by the certificate holder, a hearing shall be conducted in accordance with section 4765.115 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 4765.113. If the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services imposes a suspension on the basis of a conviction, judicial finding, or plea as described in division (A)(3) of section 4765.112 of the Revised Code that is overturned on appeal, the certificate holder, on exhaustion of the criminal appeal process, may file with the board a petition for reconsideration of the suspension along with appropriate court documents. On receipt of the petition and documents, the board shall reinstate the certificate holder's certificate to practice.

Sec. 4765.114. (A) A certificate to practice emergency medical services issued under this chapter is automatically suspended on the certificate holder's conviction of, plea of guilty to, or judicial finding of guilt of any of the following: aggravated murder, murder, voluntary manslaughter, felonious assault, kidnapping, rape, sexual battery, gross sexual imposition, aggravated arson, aggravated burglary, aggravated robbery, or a substantially equivalent offense committed in this or another jurisdiction. Continued practice after the suspension is practicing without a certificate.

(B) If the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services has knowledge that an automatic suspension has occurred, it shall notify, in accordance with section 119.07 of the Revised Code, the certificate holder of the suspension and of the opportunity for a hearing. If timely requested by the certificate holder, a hearing shall be conducted in accordance with section 4765.115 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 4765.115. (A) A suspension order issued under section 4765.112 or automatic suspension under section 4765.114 of the Revised Code is not subject to suspension by a court prior to a hearing under this section or during the pendency of any appeal filed under section 119.12 of the Revised Code.

(B) A suspension order issued under section 4765.112 or automatic suspension under section 4765.114 of the Revised Code remains in effect, unless reversed by the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services, until a final adjudication order issued by the board pursuant to this section becomes effective.

(C) Hearings requested pursuant to section 4765.112 or 4765.114 of the Revised Code shall be conducted under this section in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.

(D) A hearing under this section shall be held not later than forty-five days but not earlier than forty days after the certificate holder requests it, unless another date is agreed to by the certificate holder and the board.

(E) After completion of an adjudication hearing, the board may adopt, by an affirmative vote of the majority of its members, a final adjudication order that imposes any of the following sanctions:

The board shall issue its final adjudication order not later than forty-five days after completion of an adjudication hearing. If the board does not issue a final order within that time period, the suspension order is void, but any final adjudication order subsequently issued is not affected.

(F) Any action taken by the board under this section resulting in a suspension from practice shall be accompanied by a written statement of the conditions under which the certificate to practice may be reinstated. Reinstatement of a certificate suspended under this section requires an affirmative vote by the majority of the members of the board.

(G) When the board revokes or refuses to reinstate a certificate to practice, the board may specify that its action is permanent. An individual subject to permanent action taken by the board is forever ineligible to hold a certificate of the type revoked or refused, and the board shall not accept from the individual an application for reinstatement of the certificate or for a new certificate.

Sec. 4765.116. If a certificate holder subject to a suspension order issued by the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services under section 4765.112 or an automatic suspension order under section 4765.114 of the Revised Code fails to make a timely request for a hearing, the following apply:

(A) In the case of a certificate holder subject to a summary suspension order, the board is not required to hold a hearing, but may adopt, by an affirmative vote of a majority of its members, a final order that contains the board's findings. In the final order, the board may order any of the sanctions listed in division (E) of section 4765.115 of the Revised Code.

(B) In the case of a certificate holder subject to an automatic suspension order, the board may adopt, by an affirmative vote of a majority of its members, a final order that permanently revokes the holder's certificate to practice.

Sec. 4765.12. (A) Not later than two years after ~~the effective date of this section~~ November 3, 2000, the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services shall develop and distribute guidelines for the care of trauma victims by emergency medical service personnel and for the conduct of peer review and quality assurance programs by emergency medical service organizations. The guidelines shall be consistent with the state trauma triage protocols adopted in rules under sections 4765.11 and 4765.40 of the Revised Code and shall place emphasis on the special needs of pediatric and geriatric trauma victims. In developing the guidelines, the board shall consult with entities with interests in trauma and emergency medical services and shall consider any relevant guidelines adopted by national organizations, including the American college of surgeons, American college of emergency physicians, and American academy of pediatrics. The board shall distribute the guidelines, and amendments to the guidelines, to each emergency medical service organization, regional director, regional physician advisory board, certified emergency medical service instructor, and person who regularly provides medical direction to emergency medical service personnel in this state.

(B) Not later than three years after ~~the effective date of this section~~ November 3, 2000, each emergency medical service organization in this state shall implement ongoing peer review and quality assurance programs designed to improve the availability and quality of the emergency medical services it provides. The form and content of the programs shall be determined by each emergency medical service organization. In implementing the programs, each emergency medical service organization shall consider how to improve its ability to provide effective trauma care, particularly for pediatric and geriatric trauma victims, and shall take into account the trauma care guidelines developed by the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services under this section.

Information generated solely for use in a peer review or quality assurance program conducted on behalf of an emergency medical service organization is not a public record under section 149.43 of the Revised Code. Such information, and any discussion conducted in the course of a peer review or quality assurance program conducted on behalf of an emergency medical service organization, is not subject to discovery in a civil action and shall not be introduced into evidence in a civil action against the emergency medical service organization on whose behalf the information was generated or the discussion occurred.

No emergency medical service organization on whose behalf a peer review or quality assurance program is conducted, and no person who conducts such a program, because of performing such functions, shall be liable in a civil action for betrayal of professional confidence or otherwise in the absence of willful or wanton misconduct.

Sec. 4765.15. A person seeking to operate an emergency medical services training program shall submit a completed application for accreditation to the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services on a form the board shall prescribe and furnish. The application shall be accompanied by the appropriate application fee established in rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code.

A person seeking to operate an emergency medical services continuing education program shall submit a completed application for approval to the board on a form the board shall prescribe and furnish. The application shall be accompanied by the appropriate application fee established in rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code.

The board shall administer the accreditation and approval processes pursuant to rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code. In administering these processes, the board may authorize other persons to evaluate applications for accreditation or approval and may accept the recommendations made by those persons.

The board may cause an investigation to be made into the accuracy of the information submitted in any application for accreditation or approval. If an investigation indicates that false, misleading, or incomplete information has been submitted to the board in connection with any application for accreditation or approval, the board shall conduct a hearing on the matter in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.

Sec. 4765.16. (A) All courses offered through an emergency medical services training program or an emergency medical services continuing education program, other than ambulance driving, shall be developed under the direction of a physician who specializes in emergency medicine. Each course that deals with trauma care shall be developed in consultation with a physician who specializes in trauma surgery. Except as specified by the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services pursuant to rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code, each course offered through a training program or continuing education program shall be taught by a person who holds the appropriate certificate to teach issued under section 4765.23 of the Revised Code.

(B) A training program for first responders shall meet the standards established in rules adopted by the board under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code. The program shall include courses in both of the following areas for at least the number of hours established by the board's rules:

(C) A training program for emergency medical technicians-basic shall meet the standards established in rules adopted by the board under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code. The program shall include courses in each of the following areas for at least the number of hours established by the board's rules:

Each operator of a training program for emergency medical technicians-basic shall allow any pupil in the twelfth grade in a secondary school who is at least seventeen years old and who otherwise meets the requirements for admission into such a training program to be admitted to and complete the program and, as part of the training, to ride in an ambulance with emergency medical technicians-basic, emergency medical technicians-intermediate, and emergency medical technicians-paramedic. Each emergency medical service organization shall allow pupils participating in training programs to ride in an ambulance with emergency medical technicians-basic, advanced emergency medical technicians-intermediate, and emergency medical technicians-paramedic.

(D) A training program for emergency medical technicians-intermediate shall meet the standards established in rules adopted by the board under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code. The program shall include, or require as a prerequisite, the training specified in division (C) of this section and courses in each of the following areas for at least the number of hours established by the board's rules:

(1) Recognizing symptoms of life-threatening allergic reactions and in calculating proper dosage levels and administering injections of epinephrine to persons who suffer life-threatening allergic reactions, conducted in accordance with rules adopted by the board under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code;

(3) Cardiac monitoring and electrical interventions to support or correct the cardiac function.

(E) A training program for emergency medical technicians-paramedic shall meet the standards established in rules adopted by the board under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code. The program shall include, or require as a prerequisite, the training specified in divisions (C) and (D) of this section and courses in each of the following areas for at least the number of hours established by the board's rules:

(5) Acute cardiac care, including administration of parenteral injections, electrical interventions, and other emergency medical services;

(6) Emergency and trauma victim care beyond that required under division (C) of this section;

(F) A continuing education program for first responders, EMTs-basic, EMTs-I, or paramedics shall meet the standards established in rules adopted by the board under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code. A continuing education program shall include instruction and training in subjects established by the board's rules for at least the number of hours established by the board's rules.

Sec. 4765.17. (A) The state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services shall issue the appropriate certificate of accreditation or certificate of approval to an applicant who is of good reputation and meets the requirements of section 4765.16 of the Revised Code. The board shall grant or deny a certificate of accreditation or certificate of approval within one hundred twenty days of receipt of the application. The board may issue or renew a certificate of accreditation or certificate of approval on a provisional basis to an applicant who is of good reputation and is in substantial compliance with the requirements of section 4765.16 of the Revised Code. The board shall inform an applicant receiving such a certificate of the conditions that must be met to complete compliance with section 4765.16 of the Revised Code.

(B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, a certificate of accreditation or certificate of approval is valid for up to five years and may be renewed by the board pursuant to procedures and standards established in rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code. An application for renewal shall be accompanied by the appropriate renewal fee established in rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code.

(C) A certificate of accreditation or certificate of approval issued on a provisional basis is valid for the length of time established by the board. If the board finds that the holder of such a certificate has met the conditions it specifies under division (A) of this section, the board shall issue the appropriate certificate of accreditation or certificate of approval.

(D) A certificate of accreditation is valid only for the emergency medical services training program or programs for which it is issued. The holder of a certificate of accreditation may apply to operate additional training programs in accordance with rules adopted by the board under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code. Any additional training programs shall expire on the expiration date of the applicant's current certificate. A certificate of approval is valid only for the emergency medical services continuing education program for which it is issued. Neither is transferable.

(E) The holder of a certificate of accreditation or a certificate of approval may offer courses at more than one location in accordance with rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 4765.18. The state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services may suspend or revoke a certificate of accreditation or a certificate of approval issued under section 4765.17 of the Revised Code for any of the following reasons:

(C) The signing of an application or the holding of a certificate of accreditation by a person who has pleaded guilty to or has been convicted of a felony, or has pleaded guilty to or been convicted of a crime involving moral turpitude;

(D) The signing of an application or the holding of a certificate of accreditation by a person who is addicted to the use of any controlled substance or has been adjudicated incompetent for that purpose by a court, as provided in section 5122.301 of the Revised Code;

(E) Violation of any commitment made in an application for a certificate of accreditation or certificate of approval;

(F) Presentation to prospective students of misleading, false, or fraudulent information relating to the emergency medical services training program or emergency medical services continuing education program, employment opportunities, or opportunities for enrollment in accredited institutions of higher education after entering or completing courses offered by the operator of a program;

(G) Failure to maintain in a safe and sanitary condition premises and equipment used in conducting courses of study;

(H) Failure to maintain financial resources adequate for the satisfactory conduct of courses of study or to retain a sufficient number of certified instructors;

(I) Discrimination in the acceptance of students upon the basis of race, color, religion, sex, or national origin.

Sec. 4765.22. A person seeking a certificate to teach in an emergency medical services training program or an emergency medical services continuing education program shall submit a completed application for certification to the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services on a form the board shall prescribe and furnish. The application shall be accompanied by the appropriate application fee established in rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 4765.23. The state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services shall issue a certificate to teach in an emergency medical services training program or an emergency medical services continuing education program to any applicant who it determines meets the qualifications established in rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code. The certificate shall indicate each type of instruction and training the certificate holder may teach under the certificate.

A certificate to teach shall have a certification cycle established by the board and may be renewed by the board pursuant to rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code. An application for renewal shall be accompanied by the appropriate renewal fee established in rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code.

The board may suspend or revoke a certificate to teach pursuant to rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 4765.28. A person seeking a certificate to practice as a first responder, emergency medical technician-basic, emergency medical technician-intermediate, or emergency medical technician-paramedic shall submit a completed application for certification to the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services on a form the board shall prescribe and furnish. Except as provided in division (B) of section 4765.29 of the Revised Code, the application shall include evidence that the applicant received the appropriate certificate of completion pursuant to section 4765.24 of the Revised Code. The application shall be accompanied by the appropriate application fee established in rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code, unless the board waives the fee on determining pursuant to those rules that the applicant cannot afford to pay the fee.

Sec. 4765.29. (A) The state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services shall provide for the examination of applicants for certification to practice as first responders, emergency medical technicians-basic, emergency medical technicians-intermediate, and emergency medical technicians-paramedic. The examinations shall be established by the board in rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code. The board may administer the examinations or contract with other persons to administer the examinations. In either case, the examinations shall be administered pursuant to procedures established in rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code and shall be offered at various locations in the state selected by the board.

Except as provided in division (B) of this section, an applicant shall not be permitted to take an examination for the same certificate to practice more than three times since last receiving the certificate of completion pursuant to section 4765.24 of the Revised Code that qualifies the applicant to take the examination unless the applicant receives another certificate of completion that qualifies the applicant to take the examination.

(B) On request of an applicant who fails three examinations for the same certificate to practice, the board may direct the applicant to complete a specific portion of an accredited emergency medical services training program. If the applicant provides satisfactory proof to the board that the applicant has successfully completed that portion of the program, the applicant shall be permitted to take the examination.

Sec. 4765.30. (A)(1) The state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services shall issue a certificate to practice as a first responder to an applicant who meets all of the following conditions:

(a) Except as provided in division (A)(2) of this section, is a volunteer for a nonprofit emergency medical service organization or a nonprofit fire department;

(b) Holds the appropriate certificate of completion issued in accordance with section 4765.24 of the Revised Code;

(d) Is not in violation of any provision of this chapter or the rules adopted under it;

(e) Meets any other certification requirements established in rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code.

(2) The board may waive the requirement to be a volunteer for a nonprofit entity if the applicant meets other requirements established in rules adopted under division (B)(3) of section 4765.11 of the Revised Code relative to a person's eligibility to practice as a first responder.

(B) The state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services shall issue a certificate to practice as an emergency medical technician-basic to an applicant who meets all of the following conditions:

(1) Holds a certificate of completion in emergency medical services training-basic issued in accordance with section 4765.24 of the Revised Code;

(2) Passes the examination for emergency medical technicians-basic conducted under section 4765.29 of the Revised Code;

(3) Is not in violation of any provision of this chapter or the rules adopted under it;

(4) Meets any other certification requirements established in rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code.

(C) The state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services shall issue a certificate to practice as an emergency medical technician-intermediate or emergency medical technician-paramedic to an applicant who meets all of the following conditions:

(2) Holds the appropriate certificate of completion issued in accordance with section 4765.24 of the Revised Code;

(3) Passes the appropriate examination conducted under section 4765.29 of the Revised Code;

(4) Is not in violation of any provision of this chapter or the rules adopted under it;

(5) Meets any other certification requirements established in rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code.

(D) A certificate to practice shall have a certification cycle established by the board and may be renewed by the board pursuant to rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code. Not later than sixty days prior to the expiration date of an individual's certificate to practice, the board shall notify the individual of the scheduled expiration.

An application for renewal shall be accompanied by the appropriate renewal fee established in rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code, unless the board waives the fee on determining pursuant to those rules that the applicant cannot afford to pay the fee. Except as provided in division (B) of section 4765.31 of the Revised Code, the application shall include evidence of either of the following:

(1) That the applicant received a certificate of completion from the appropriate emergency medical services continuing education program pursuant to section 4765.24 of the Revised Code;

(2) That the applicant has successfully passed an examination that demonstrates the competence to have a certificate renewed without completing an emergency medical services continuing education program. The board shall approve such examinations in accordance with rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code.

(E) The board shall not require an applicant for renewal of a certificate to practice to take an examination as a condition of renewing the certificate. This division does not preclude the use of examinations by operators of approved emergency medical services continuing education programs as a condition for issuance of a certificate of completion in emergency medical services continuing education.

Sec. 4765.31. (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this section, a first responder, emergency medical technician-basic, emergency medical technician-intermediate, and emergency medical technician-paramedic shall complete an emergency medical services continuing education program or pass an examination approved by the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services under division (A) of section 4765.10 of the Revised Code prior to the expiration of the individual's certificate to practice. Completion of the continuing education requirements for EMTs-I or paramedics satisfies the continuing education requirements for renewing the certificate to practice as an EMT-basic held by an EMT-I or paramedic.

(B)(1) An applicant for renewal of a certificate to practice may apply to the board, in writing, for an extension to complete the continuing education requirements established under division (A) of this section. The board may grant such an extension and determine the length of the extension. The board may authorize the applicant to continue to practice during the extension as if the certificate to practice had not expired.

(2) An applicant for renewal of a certificate to practice may apply to the board, in writing, for an exemption from the continuing education requirements established under division (A) of this section. The board may exempt an individual or a group of individuals from all or any part of the continuing education requirements due to active military service, unusual circumstance, emergency, special hardship, or any other cause considered reasonable by the board.

(C) Decisions of whether to grant an extension or exemption under division (B) of this section shall be made by the board pursuant to procedures established in rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 4765.32. A current, valid certificate of accreditation issued under the provisions of former section 3303.11 or 3303.23 of the Revised Code shall remain valid until one year after the expiration date of the certificate as determined by the provisions of those sections and shall confer the same privileges and impose the same responsibilities and requirements as a certificate of accreditation issued by the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services under section 4765.17 of the Revised Code.

A certificate to practice as an emergency medical technician-ambulance that is valid on November 24, 1995, shall be considered a certificate to practice as an emergency medical technician-basic. A certificate to practice as an advanced emergency medical technician-ambulance that is valid on November 24, 1995, shall be considered a certificate to practice as an emergency medical technician-intermediate.

Sec. 4765.33. The state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services may suspend or revoke certificates to practice issued under section 4765.30 of the Revised Code, and may take other disciplinary action against first responders, emergency medical technicians-basic, emergency medical technicians-intermediate, and emergency medical technicians-paramedic pursuant to rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 4765.37. (A) An emergency medical technician-basic shall perform the emergency medical services described in this section in accordance with this chapter and any rules adopted under it by the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services.

(B) An emergency medical technician-basic may operate, or be responsible for operation of, an ambulance and may provide emergency medical services to patients. In an emergency, an EMT-basic may determine the nature and extent of illness or injury and establish priority for required emergency medical services. An EMT-basic may render emergency medical services such as opening and maintaining an airway, giving positive pressure ventilation, cardiac resuscitation, electrical interventions with automated defibrillators to support or correct the cardiac function and other methods determined by the board, controlling of hemorrhage, treatment of shock, immobilization of fractures, bandaging, assisting in childbirth, management of mentally disturbed patients, initial care of poison and burn patients, and determining triage of adult and pediatric trauma victims. Where patients must in an emergency be extricated from entrapment, an EMT-basic may assess the extent of injury and render all possible emergency medical services and protection to the entrapped patient; provide light rescue services if an ambulance has not been accompanied by a specialized unit; and after extrication, provide additional care in sorting of the injured in accordance with standard emergency procedures.

(C) An EMT-basic may perform any other emergency medical services approved pursuant to rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code. The board shall determine whether the nature of any such service requires that an EMT-basic receive authorization prior to performing the service.

(D)(1) Except as provided in division (D)(2) of this section, if the board determines under division (C) of this section that a service requires prior authorization, the service shall be performed only pursuant to the written or verbal authorization of a physician or of the cooperating physician advisory board, or pursuant to an authorization transmitted through a direct communication device by a physician, physician assistant designated by a physician, or registered nurse designated by a physician.

(2) If communications fail during an emergency situation or the required response time prohibits communication, an EMT-basic may perform services subject to this division, if, in the judgment of the EMT-basic, the life of the patient is in immediate danger. Services performed under these circumstances shall be performed in accordance with the protocols for triage of adult and pediatric trauma victims established in rules adopted under sections 4765.11 and 4765.40 of the Revised Code and any applicable protocols adopted by the emergency medical service organization with which the EMT-basic is affiliated.

Sec. 4765.38. (A) An emergency medical technician-intermediate shall perform the emergency medical services described in this section in accordance with this chapter and any rules adopted under it.

(1) Establish and maintain an intravenous lifeline that has been approved by a cooperating physician or physician advisory board;

(3) Perform electrical interventions to support or correct the cardiac function;

(6) Perform any other emergency medical services approved pursuant to rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code.

(C)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) of this section, the services described in division (B) of this section shall be performed by an EMT-I only pursuant to the written or verbal authorization of a physician or of the cooperating physician advisory board, or pursuant to an authorization transmitted through a direct communication device by a physician, physician assistant designated by a physician, or registered nurse designated by a physician.

(2) If communications fail during an emergency situation or the required response time prohibits communication, an EMT-I may perform any of the services described in division (B) of this section, if, in the judgment of the EMT-I, the life of the patient is in immediate danger. Services performed under these circumstances shall be performed in accordance with the protocols for triage of adult and pediatric trauma victims established in rules adopted under sections 4765.11 and 4765.40 of the Revised Code and any applicable protocols adopted by the emergency medical service organization with which the EMT-I is affiliated.

(D) In addition to, and in the course of, providing emergency medical treatment, an emergency medical technician-intermediate may withdraw blood as provided under sections 1547.11, 4506.17, and 4511.19 of the Revised Code. An emergency medical technician-intermediate shall withdraw blood in accordance with this chapter and any rules adopted under it by the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services.

Sec. 4765.39. (A) An emergency medical technician-paramedic shall perform the emergency medical services described in this section in accordance with this chapter and any rules adopted under it.

(2) Perform electrical interventions to support or correct the cardiac function;

(7) Perform any other emergency medical services, including life support or intensive care techniques, approved pursuant to rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code.

(C)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) of this section, the services described in division (B) of this section shall be performed by a paramedic only pursuant to the written or verbal authorization of a physician or of the cooperating physician advisory board, or pursuant to an authorization transmitted through a direct communication device by a physician, physician assistant designated by a physician, or registered nurse designated by a physician.

(2) If communications fail during an emergency situation or the required response time prohibits communication, a paramedic may perform any of the services described in division (B) of this section, if, in the paramedic's judgment, the life of the patient is in immediate danger. Services performed under these circumstances shall be performed in accordance with the protocols for triage of adult and pediatric trauma victims established in rules adopted under sections 4765.11 and 4765.40 of the Revised Code and any applicable protocols adopted by the emergency medical service organization with which the paramedic is affiliated.

(D) In addition to, and in the course of, providing emergency medical treatment, an emergency medical technician-paramedic may withdraw blood as provided under sections 1547.11, 4506.17, and 4511.19 of the Revised Code. An emergency medical technician-paramedic shall withdraw blood in accordance with this chapter and any rules adopted under it by the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services.

Sec. 4765.40. (A)(1) Not later than two years after ~~the effective date of this amendment~~ November 3, 2000, the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services shall adopt rules under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code establishing written protocols for the triage of adult and pediatric trauma victims. The rules shall define adult and pediatric trauma in a manner that is consistent with section 4765.01 of the Revised Code, minimizes overtriage and undertriage, and emphasizes the special needs of pediatric and geriatric trauma patients.

(2) The state triage protocols adopted under division (A) of this section shall require a trauma victim to be transported directly to an adult or pediatric trauma center that is qualified to provide appropriate adult or pediatric trauma care, unless one or more of the following exceptions applies:

(a) It is medically necessary to transport the victim to another hospital for initial assessment and stabilization before transfer to an adult or pediatric trauma center;

(b) It is unsafe or medically inappropriate to transport the victim directly to an adult or pediatric trauma center due to adverse weather or ground conditions or excessive transport time;

(c) Transporting the victim to an adult or pediatric trauma center would cause a shortage of local emergency medical service resources;

(d) No appropriate adult or pediatric trauma center is able to receive and provide adult or pediatric trauma care to the trauma victim without undue delay;

(e) Before transport of a patient begins, the patient requests to be taken to a particular hospital that is not a trauma center or, if the patient is less than eighteen years of age or is not able to communicate, such a request is made by an adult member of the patient's family or a legal representative of the patient.

(3)(a) The state triage protocols adopted under division (A) of this section shall require trauma patients to be transported to an adult or pediatric trauma center that is able to provide appropriate adult or pediatric trauma care, but shall not require a trauma patient to be transported to a particular trauma center. The state triage protocols shall establish one or more procedures for evaluating whether an injury victim requires or would benefit from adult or pediatric trauma care, which procedures shall be applied by emergency medical service personnel based on the patient's medical needs. In developing state trauma triage protocols, the board shall consider relevant model triage rules and shall consult with the commission on minority health, regional directors, regional physician advisory boards, and appropriate medical, hospital, and emergency medical service organizations.

(b) Before the joint committee on agency rule review considers state triage protocols for trauma victims proposed by the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services, or amendments thereto, the board shall send a copy of the proposal to the Ohio chapter of the American college of emergency physicians, the Ohio chapter of the American college of surgeons, the Ohio chapter of the American academy of pediatrics, OHA: the association for hospitals and health systems, the Ohio osteopathic association, and the association of Ohio children's hospitals and shall hold a public hearing at which it must consider the appropriateness of the protocols to minimize overtriage and undertriage of trauma victims.

(c) The board shall provide copies of the state triage protocols, and amendments to the protocols, to each emergency medical service organization, regional director, regional physician advisory board, certified emergency medical service instructor, and person who regularly provides medical direction to emergency medical service personnel in the state; to each medical service organization in other jurisdictions that regularly provide emergency medical services in this state; and to others upon request.

(B)(1) The state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services shall approve regional protocols for the triage of adult and pediatric trauma victims, and amendments to such protocols, that are submitted to the board as provided in division (B)(2) of this section and provide a level of adult and pediatric trauma care comparable to the state triage protocols adopted under division (A) of this section. The board shall not otherwise approve regional triage protocols for trauma victims. The board shall not approve regional triage protocols for regions that overlap and shall resolve any such disputes by apportioning the overlapping territory among appropriate regions in a manner that best serves the medical needs of the residents of that territory. The trauma committee of the board shall have reasonable opportunity to review and comment on regional triage protocols and amendments to such protocols before the board approves or disapproves them.

(2) Regional protocols for the triage of adult and pediatric trauma victims, and amendments to such protocols, shall be submitted in writing to the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services by the regional physician advisory board or regional director, as appropriate, that serves a majority of the population in the region in which the protocols apply. Prior to submitting regional triage protocols, or an amendment to such protocols, to the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services, a regional physician advisory board or regional director shall consult with each of the following that regularly serves the region in which the protocols apply:

(d) Professional societies of physicians who specialize in adult or pediatric emergency medicine or adult or pediatric trauma surgery;

(e) Professional societies of nurses who specialize in adult or pediatric emergency nursing or adult or pediatric trauma surgery;

(f) Professional associations or labor organizations of emergency medical service personnel;

(g) Emergency medical service organizations and medical directors of such organizations;

(3) Regional protocols for the triage of adult and pediatric trauma victims approved under division (B)(2) of this section shall require patients to be transported to a trauma center that is able to provide an appropriate level of adult or pediatric trauma care; shall not discriminate among trauma centers for reasons not related to a patient's medical needs; shall seek to minimize undertriage and overtriage; may include any of the exceptions in division (A)(2) of this section; and supersede the state triage protocols adopted under division (A) of this section in the region in which the regional protocols apply.

(4) Upon approval of regional protocols for the triage of adult and pediatric trauma victims under division (B)(2) of this section, or an amendment to such protocols, the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services shall provide written notice of the approval and a copy of the protocols or amendment to each entity in the region in which the protocols apply to which the board is required to send a copy of the state triage protocols adopted under division (A) of this section.

(C)(1) The state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services shall review the state triage protocols adopted under division (A) of this section at least every three years to determine if they are causing overtriage or undertriage of trauma patients, and shall modify them as necessary to minimize overtriage and undertriage.

(2) Each regional physician advisory board or regional director that has had regional triage protocols approved under division (B)(2) of this section shall review the protocols at least every three years to determine if they are causing overtriage or undertriage of trauma patients and shall submit an appropriate amendment to the state board, as provided in division (B) of this section, as necessary to minimize overtriage and undertriage. The state board shall approve the amendment if it will reduce overtriage or undertriage while complying with division (B) of this section, and shall not otherwise approve the amendment.

(D) No provider of emergency medical services or person who provides medical direction to emergency medical service personnel in this state shall fail to comply with the state triage protocols adopted under division (A) of this section or applicable regional triage protocols approved under division (B)(2) of this section.

(E) The state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services shall adopt rules under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code that provide for enforcement of the state triage protocols adopted under division (A) of this section and regional triage protocols approved under division (B)(2) of this section, and for education regarding those protocols for emergency medical service organizations and personnel, regional directors and regional physician advisory boards, emergency medical service instructors, and persons who regularly provide medical direction to emergency medical service personnel in this state.

Sec. 4765.42. Each emergency medical service organization shall give notice of the name of its medical director or the names of the members of its cooperating physician advisory board to the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services. The notice shall be made in writing.

Sec. 4765.48. The attorney general, the prosecuting attorney of the county, or the city director of law shall, upon complaint of the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services, prosecute to termination or bring an action for injunction against any person violating this chapter or the rules adopted under it. The common pleas court in which an action for injunction is filed has the jurisdiction to grant injunctive relief upon a showing that the respondent named in the complaint is in violation of this chapter or the rules adopted under it.

Sec. 4765.49. (A) A first responder, emergency medical technician-basic, emergency medical technician-intermediate, or emergency medical technician-paramedic is not liable in damages in a civil action for injury, death, or loss to person or property resulting from the individual's administration of emergency medical services, unless the services are administered in a manner that constitutes willful or wanton misconduct. A physician, physician assistant designated by a physician, or registered nurse designated by a physician, any of whom is advising or assisting in the emergency medical services by means of any communication device or telemetering system, is not liable in damages in a civil action for injury, death, or loss to person or property resulting from the individual's advisory communication or assistance, unless the advisory communication or assistance is provided in a manner that constitutes willful or wanton misconduct. Medical directors and members of cooperating physician advisory boards of emergency medical service organizations are not liable in damages in a civil action for injury, death, or loss to person or property resulting from their acts or omissions in the performance of their duties, unless the act or omission constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.

(B) A political subdivision, joint ambulance district, joint emergency medical services district, or other public agency, and any officer or employee of a public agency or of a private organization operating under contract or in joint agreement with one or more political subdivisions, that provides emergency medical services, or that enters into a joint agreement or a contract with the state, any political subdivision, joint ambulance district, or joint emergency medical services district for the provision of emergency medical services, is not liable in damages in a civil action for injury, death, or loss to person or property arising out of any actions taken by a first responder, EMT-basic, EMT-I, or paramedic working under the officer's or employee's jurisdiction, or for injury, death, or loss to person or property arising out of any actions of licensed medical personnel advising or assisting the first responder, EMT-basic, EMT-I, or paramedic, unless the services are provided in a manner that constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.

(C) A student who is enrolled in an emergency medical services training program accredited under section 4765.17 of the Revised Code or an emergency medical services continuing education program approved under that section is not liable in damages in a civil action for injury, death, or loss to person or property resulting from either of the following:

(1) The student's administration of emergency medical services or patient care or treatment, if the services, care, or treatment is administered while the student is under the direct supervision and in the immediate presence of an EMT-basic, EMT-I, paramedic, registered nurse, physician assistant, or physician and while the student is receiving clinical training that is required by the program, unless the services, care, or treatment is provided in a manner that constitutes willful or wanton misconduct;

(2) The student's training as an ambulance driver, unless the driving is done in a manner that constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.

(D) An EMT-basic, EMT-I, paramedic, or other operator, who holds a valid commercial driver's license issued pursuant to Chapter 4506. of the Revised Code or driver's license issued pursuant to Chapter 4507. of the Revised Code and who is employed by an emergency medical service organization that is not owned or operated by a political subdivision as defined in section 2744.01 of the Revised Code, is not liable in damages in a civil action for injury, death, or loss to person or property that is caused by the operation of an ambulance by the EMT-basic, EMT-I, paramedic, or other operator while responding to or completing a call for emergency medical services, unless the operation constitutes willful or wanton misconduct or does not comply with the precautions of section 4511.03 of the Revised Code. An emergency medical service organization is not liable in damages in a civil action for any injury, death, or loss to person or property that is caused by the operation of an ambulance by its employee or agent, if this division grants the employee or agent immunity from civil liability for the injury, death, or loss.

(E) An employee or agent of an emergency medical service organization who receives requests for emergency medical services that are directed to the organization, dispatches first responders, EMTs-basic, EMTs-I, or paramedics in response to those requests, communicates those requests to those employees or agents of the organization who are authorized to dispatch first responders, EMTs-basic, EMTs-I, or paramedics, or performs any combination of these functions for the organization, is not liable in damages in a civil action for injury, death, or loss to person or property resulting from the individual's acts or omissions in the performance of those duties for the organization, unless an act or omission constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.

(F) A person who is performing the functions of a first responder, EMT-basic, EMT-I, or paramedic under the authority of the laws of a state that borders this state and who provides emergency medical services to or transportation of a patient in this state is not liable in damages in a civil action for injury, death, or loss to person or property resulting from the person's administration of emergency medical services, unless the services are administered in a manner that constitutes willful or wanton misconduct. A physician, physician assistant designated by a physician, or registered nurse designated by a physician, any of whom is licensed to practice in the adjoining state and who is advising or assisting in the emergency medical services by means of any communication device or telemetering system, is not liable in damages in a civil action for injury, death, or loss to person or property resulting from the person's advisory communication or assistance, unless the advisory communication or assistance is provided in a manner that constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.

(G) A person certified under section 4765.23 of the Revised Code to teach in an emergency medical services training program or emergency medical services continuing education program, and a person who teaches at the Ohio fire academy established under section 3737.33 of the Revised Code or in a fire service training program described in division (A) of section 4765.55 of the Revised Code, is not liable in damages in a civil action for injury, death, or loss to person or property resulting from the person's acts or omissions in the performance of the person's duties, unless an act or omission constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.

(H) In the accreditation of emergency medical services training programs or approval of emergency medical services continuing education programs, the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services and any person or entity authorized by the board to evaluate applications for accreditation or approval are not liable in damages in a civil action for injury, death, or loss to person or property resulting from their acts or omissions in the performance of their duties, unless an act or omission constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.

(I) A person authorized by an emergency medical service organization to review the performance of first responders, EMTs-basic, EMTs-I, and paramedics or to administer quality assurance programs is not liable in damages in a civil action for injury, death, or loss to person or property resulting from the person's acts or omissions in the performance of the person's duties, unless an act or omission constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.

Sec. 4765.55. (A) The executive director of the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services, with the advice and counsel of the firefighter and fire safety inspector training committee of the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services, shall assist in the establishment and maintenance by any state agency, or any county, township, city, village, school district, or educational service center of a fire service training program for the training of all persons in positions of any fire training certification level approved by the executive director, including full-time paid firefighters, part-time paid firefighters, volunteer firefighters, and, fire safety inspectors in this state. The executive director, with the advice and counsel of the committee, shall adopt rules to regulate those firefighter and fire safety inspector training programs, and other training programs approved by the executive director. The rules may include, but need not be limited to, training curriculum, certification examinations, training schedules, minimum hours of instruction, attendance requirements, required equipment and facilities, basic physical requirements, and methods of training for all persons in positions of any fire training certification level approved by the executive director, including full-time paid firefighters, part-time paid firefighters, volunteer firefighters, and fire safety inspectors. The rules adopted to regulate training programs for volunteer firefighters shall not require more than thirty-six hours of training.

The executive director, with the advice and counsel of the committee, shall provide for the classification and chartering of fire service training programs in accordance with rules adopted under division (B) of this section, and may take action against any chartered training program or applicant, in accordance with rules adopted under divisions (B)(4) and (5) of this section, for failure to meet standards set by the adopted rules.

(B) The executive director, with the advice and counsel of the firefighter and fire safety inspector training committee of the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services, shall adopt, and may amend or rescind, rules under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that establish all of the following:

(1) Requirements for, and procedures for chartering, the training programs regulated by this section;

(2) Requirements for, and requirements and procedures for obtaining and renewing, an instructor certificate to teach the training programs and continuing education classes regulated by this section;

(3) Requirements for, and requirements and procedures for obtaining and renewing, any of the fire training certificates regulated by this section;

(4) Grounds and procedures for suspending, revoking, restricting, or refusing to issue or renew any of the certificates or charters regulated by this section, which grounds shall be limited to one of the following:

(e) In the case of a chartered training program or applicant, failure to meet standards set by the rules adopted under this division.

(5) Grounds and procedures for imposing and collecting fines, not to exceed one thousand dollars, in relation to actions taken under division (B)(4) of this section against persons holding certificates and charters regulated by this section, the fines to be deposited into the trauma and emergency medical services fund established under section 4513.263 of the Revised Code;

(6) Continuing education requirements for certificate holders, including a requirement that credit shall be granted for in-service training programs conducted by local entities;

(7) Procedures for considering the granting of an extension or exemption of fire service continuing education requirements;

(8) Certification cycles for which the certificates and charters regulated by this section are valid.

(C) The executive director, with the advice and counsel of the firefighter and fire safety inspector training committee of the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services, shall issue or renew an instructor certificate to teach the training programs and continuing education classes regulated by this section to any applicant that the executive director determines meets the qualifications established in rules adopted under division (B) of this section, and may take disciplinary action against an instructor certificate holder or applicant in accordance with rules adopted under division (B) of this section. The executive director, with the advice and counsel of the committee, shall charter or renew the charter of any training program that the executive director determines meets the qualifications established in rules adopted under division (B) of this section, and may take disciplinary action against the holder of a charter in accordance with rules adopted under division (B) of this section.

(D) The executive director shall issue or renew a fire training certificate for a firefighter, a fire safety inspector, or another position of any fire training certification level approved by the executive director, to any applicant that the executive director determines meets the qualifications established in rules adopted under division (B) of this section and may take disciplinary actions against a certificate holder or applicant in accordance with rules adopted under division (B) of this section.

(E) Certificates issued under this section shall be on a form prescribed by the executive director, with the advice and counsel of the firefighter and fire safety inspector training committee of the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services.

(F)(1) The executive director, with the advice and counsel of the firefighter and fire safety inspector training committee of the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services, shall establish criteria for evaluating the standards maintained by other states and the branches of the United States military for firefighter, fire safety inspector, and fire instructor training programs, and other training programs recognized by the executive director, to determine whether the standards are equivalent to those established under this section and shall establish requirements and procedures for issuing a certificate to each person who presents proof to the executive director of having satisfactorily completed a training program that meets those standards.

(2) The executive director, with the committee's advice and counsel, shall adopt rules establishing requirements and procedures for issuing a fire training certificate in lieu of completing a chartered training program.

(G) Nothing in this section invalidates any other section of the Revised Code relating to the fire training academy. Section 4765.11 of the Revised Code does not affect any powers and duties granted to the executive director under this section.

Sec. 4765.56. On receipt of a notice pursuant to section 3123.43 of the Revised Code, the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services shall comply with sections 3123.41 to 3123.50 of the Revised Code and any applicable rules adopted under section 3123.63 of the Revised Code with respect to a certificate to practice issued pursuant to this chapter.

Sec. 4765.59. The state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services shall not administer laws and rules exceeding the statutory authority provided to the board under Chapters 4765. and 4766. of the Revised Code.

(A) "Advanced life support" means treatment described in section 4765.39 of the Revised Code that a paramedic is certified to perform.

(B) "Air medical service organization" means an organization that furnishes, conducts, maintains, advertises, promotes, or otherwise engages in providing medical services with a rotorcraft air ambulance or fixed wing air ambulance.

(C) "Air medical transportation" means the transporting of a patient by rotorcraft air ambulance or fixed wing air ambulance with appropriately licensed and certified medical personnel.

(D) "Ambulance" means any motor vehicle that is specifically designed, constructed, or modified and equipped and is intended to be used to provide basic life support, intermediate life support, advanced life support, or mobile intensive care unit services and transportation upon the streets or highways of this state of persons who are seriously ill, injured, wounded, or otherwise incapacitated or helpless. "Ambulance" does not include air medical transportation or a vehicle designed and used solely for the transportation of nonstretcher-bound persons, whether hospitalized or handicapped or whether ambulatory or confined to a wheelchair.

(E) "Ambulette" means a motor vehicle that is specifically designed, constructed, or modified and equipped and is intended to be used for transportation upon the streets or highways of this state of persons who require use of a wheelchair.

(F) "Basic life support" means treatment described in section 4765.37 of the Revised Code that an ~~EMT-basic~~ EMT is certified to perform.

(G) "Disaster situation" means any condition or situation described by rule of the ~~Ohio~~ state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation ~~board~~ services as a mass casualty, major emergency, natural disaster, or national emergency.

(H) "Emergency medical service organization" means an organization that uses ~~EMTs-basic~~ EMTs, ~~EMTs-I~~ AEMTs, or paramedics, or a combination of ~~EMTs-basic~~ EMTs, ~~EMTs-I~~ AEMTs, and paramedics, to provide medical care to victims of illness or injury. An emergency medical service organization includes, but is not limited to, a commercial ambulance service organization, a hospital, and a funeral home.

(I) "~~EMT-basic~~ EMT," "~~EMT-I~~ AEMT," and "paramedic" have the same meanings as in ~~section~~ sections 4765.01 and 4765.011 of the Revised Code.

(J) "Fixed wing air ambulance" means a fixed wing aircraft that is specifically designed, constructed, or modified and equipped and is intended to be used as a means of air medical transportation.

(K) "Intermediate life support" means treatment described in section 4765.38 of the Revised Code that an ~~EMT-I~~ AEMT is certified to perform.

(L) "Major emergency" means any emergency event that cannot be resolved through the use of locally available emergency resources.

(M) "Mass casualty" means an emergency event that results in ten or more persons being injured, incapacitated, made ill, or killed.

(N) "Medical emergency" means an unforeseen event affecting an individual in such a manner that a need for immediate care is created.

(O) "Mobile intensive care unit" means an ambulance used only for maintaining specialized or intensive care treatment and used primarily for interhospital transports of patients whose conditions require care beyond the scope of a paramedic as provided in section 4765.39 of the Revised Code.

(P)(1) "Nonemergency medical service organization" means a person that does both of the following:

(a) Provides services to the public on a regular basis for the purpose of transporting individuals who require the use of a wheelchair or are confined to a wheelchair to receive health care services at health care facilities or health care practitioners' offices in nonemergency circumstances;

(b) Provides the services for a fee, regardless of whether the fee is paid by the person being transported, a third party payer, as defined in section 3702.51 of the Revised Code, or any other person or government entity.

(2) "Nonemergency medical service organization" does not include a health care facility, as defined in section 1751.01 of the Revised Code, that provides ambulette services only to patients of that facility.

(Q) "Nontransport vehicle" means a motor vehicle operated by a licensed emergency medical service organization not as an ambulance, but as a vehicle for providing services in conjunction with the ambulances operated by the organization or other emergency medical service organizations.

(R) "Patient" means any individual who as a result of illness or injury needs medical attention, whose physical or mental condition is such that there is imminent danger of loss of life or significant health impairment, who may be otherwise incapacitated or helpless as a result of a physical or mental condition, or whose physical condition requires the use of a wheelchair.

(S) "Rotorcraft air ambulance" means a helicopter or other aircraft capable of vertical takeoffs, vertical landings, and hovering that is specifically designed, constructed, or modified and equipped and is intended to be used as a means of air medical transportation.

Sec. 4766.03. (A) The ~~Ohio~~ state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation ~~board~~ services shall adopt rules, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, implementing the requirements of this chapter. The rules shall include provisions relating to the following:

(1) Requirements for an emergency medical service organization to receive a permit for an ambulance or nontransport vehicle;

(2) Requirements for an emergency medical service organization to receive a license as a basic life-support, intermediate life-support, advanced life-support, or mobile intensive care unit organization;

(3) Requirements for a nonemergency medical service organization to receive a permit for an ambulette vehicle;

(4) Requirements for a nonemergency medical service organization to receive a license for an ambulette service;

(5) Requirements for an air medical service organization to receive a permit for a rotorcraft air ambulance or fixed wing air ambulance;

(8) Requirements for record keeping of service responses made by licensed emergency medical service organizations;

(10) Inspection requirements for licensees' vehicles or aircraft, records, and physical facilities;

(11) Fee amounts for inspections of ambulances, ambulettes, rotorcraft air ambulances, fixed wing air ambulances, and nontransport vehicles;

(12) Requirements for ambulances and nontransport vehicles used by licensed emergency medical service organizations, for ambulette vehicles used by licensed nonemergency medical service organizations, and for rotorcraft air ambulances or fixed wing air ambulances used by licensed air medical service organizations that specify for each type of vehicle or aircraft the types of equipment that must be carried, the communication systems that must be maintained, and the personnel who must staff the vehicle or aircraft;

(13) The level of care each type of emergency medical service organization, nonemergency medical service organization, and air medical service organization is authorized to provide;

(14) Eligibility requirements for employment as an ambulette driver, including grounds for disqualification due to the results of a motor vehicle law violation check, chemical test, or criminal records check. The rule may require that an applicant for employment as an ambulette driver provide a set of fingerprints to law enforcement authorities if the applicant comes under final consideration for employment.

(15) Any other rules that the board determines necessary for the implementation and enforcement of this chapter.

(B) In the rules for ambulances and nontransport vehicles adopted under division (A)(12) of this section, the board may establish requirements that vary according to whether the emergency medical service organization using the vehicles is licensed as a basic life-support, intermediate life-support, advanced life-support, or mobile intensive care unit organization.

(C) A mobile intensive care unit that is not dually certified to provide advanced life-support and meets the requirements of the rules adopted under this section is not required to carry immobilization equipment, including board splint kits, traction splints, backboards, backboard straps, cervical immobilization devices, cervical collars, stair chairs, folding cots, or other types of immobilization equipment determined by the board to be unnecessary for mobile intensive care units.

A mobile intensive care unit is exempt from the emergency medical technician staffing requirements of section 4765.43 of the Revised Code when it is staffed by at least one physician or registered nurse and another person, designated by a physician, who holds a valid license or certificate to practice in a health care profession, and when at least one of the persons staffing the mobile intensive care unit is a registered nurse whose training meets or exceeds the training required for a paramedic.

Sec. 4766.04. (A) Except as otherwise provided in this chapter, no person shall furnish, operate, conduct, maintain, advertise, engage in, or propose or profess to engage in the business or service in this state of transporting persons who are seriously ill, injured, or otherwise incapacitated or who require the use of a wheelchair or are confined to a wheelchair unless the person is licensed pursuant to this section.

(B) To qualify for a license as a basic life-support, intermediate life-support, advanced life-support, or mobile intensive care unit organization, an emergency medical service organization shall do all of the following:

(1) Apply for a permit for each ambulance and nontransport vehicle owned or leased as provided in section 4766.07 of the Revised Code;

(2) Meet all requirements established in rules adopted by the ~~Ohio~~ state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation ~~board~~ services regarding ambulances and nontransport vehicles, including requirements pertaining to equipment, communications systems, staffing, and level of care the particular organization is permitted to render;

(3) Maintain the appropriate type and amount of insurance as specified in section 4766.06 of the Revised Code;

(4) Meet all other requirements established under rules adopted by the board for the particular license.

(C) To qualify for a license to provide ambulette service, a nonemergency medical service organization shall do all of the following:

(1) Apply for a permit for each ambulette owned or leased as provided in section 4766.07 of the Revised Code;

(2) Meet all requirements established in rules adopted by the ~~Ohio~~ state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation ~~board~~ services regarding ambulettes, including requirements pertaining to equipment, communication systems, staffing, and level of care the organization is permitted to render;

(3) Maintain the appropriate type and amount of insurance as specified in section 4766.06 of the Revised Code;

(4) Meet all other requirements established under rules adopted by the board for the license.

(D) To qualify for a license to provide air medical transportation, an air medical service organization shall do all of the following:

(1) Apply for a permit for each rotorcraft air ambulance and fixed wing air ambulance owned or leased as provided in section 4766.07 of the Revised Code;

(2) Meet all requirements established in rules adopted by the ~~Ohio~~ state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation ~~board~~ services regarding rotorcraft air ambulances and fixed wing air ambulances, including requirements pertaining to equipment, communication systems, staffing, and level of care the organization is permitted to render;

(3) Maintain the appropriate type and amount of insurance as specified in section 4766.06 of the Revised Code;

(4) Meet all other requirements established under rules adopted by the board for the license.

(E) An emergency medical service organization that applies for a license as a basic life-support, intermediate life-support, advanced life-support, or mobile intensive care unit organization; a nonemergency medical service organization that applies for a license to provide ambulette service; or an air medical service organization that applies for a license to provide air medical transportation shall submit a completed application to the board, on a form provided by the board for each particular license, together with the appropriate fees established under section 4766.05 of the Revised Code. The application form shall include all of the following:

(1) The name and business address of the operator of the organization for which licensure is sought;

(3) A list of the names and addresses of all officers and directors of the organization;

(4) For emergency medical service organizations and nonemergency medical service organizations, a description of each vehicle to be used, including the make, model, year of manufacture, mileage, vehicle identification number, and the color scheme, insignia, name, monogram, or other distinguishing characteristics to be used to designate the applicant's vehicle;

(5) For air medical service organizations using fixed wing air ambulances, a description of each aircraft to be used, including the make, model, year of manufacture, and aircraft hours on airframe;

(6) For air medical service organizations using rotorcraft air ambulances, a description of each aircraft to be used, including the make, model, year of manufacture, aircraft hours on airframe, aircraft identification number, and the color scheme, insignia, name, monogram, or other distinguishing characteristics to be used to designate the applicant's rotorcraft air ambulance;

(7) The location and description of each place from which the organization will operate;

(F) Within sixty days after receiving a completed application for licensure as a basic life-support, intermediate life-support, advanced life-support, or mobile intensive care unit organization; an ambulette service; or an air medical service organization, the board shall approve or deny the application. The board shall deny an application if it determines that the applicant does not meet the requirements of this chapter or any rules adopted under it. The board shall send notice of the denial of an application by certified mail to the applicant. The applicant may request a hearing within ten days after receipt of the notice. If the board receives a timely request, it shall hold a hearing in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.

(G) If an applicant or licensee operates or plans to operate an organization in more than one location under the same or different identities, the applicant or licensee shall apply for and meet all requirements for licensure or renewal of a license, other than payment of a license fee or renewal fee, for operating the organization at each separate location. An applicant or licensee that operates or plans to operate under the same organization identity in separate locations shall pay only a single license fee.

(H) An emergency medical service organization that wishes to provide ambulette services to the public must apply for a separate license under division (C) of this section.

(I) Each license issued under this section and each permit issued under section 4766.07 of the Revised Code expires one year after the date of issuance and may be renewed in accordance with the standard renewal procedures of Chapter 4745. of the Revised Code. An application for renewal shall include the license or permit renewal fee established under section 4766.05 of the Revised Code. An applicant for renewal of a permit also shall submit to the board proof of an annual inspection of the vehicle or aircraft for which permit renewal is sought. The board shall renew a license if the applicant meets the requirements for licensure and shall renew a permit if the applicant and vehicle or aircraft meet the requirements to maintain a permit for that vehicle or aircraft.

(J) Each licensee shall maintain accurate records of all service responses conducted. The records shall be maintained on forms prescribed by the board and shall contain information as specified by rule by the board.

Sec. 4766.05. (A) The ~~Ohio~~ state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation ~~board~~ services shall establish by rule a license fee, a permit fee for each ambulance, ambulette, rotorcraft air ambulance, fixed wing air ambulance, and nontransport vehicle owned or leased by the licensee that is or will be used as provided in section 4766.07 of the Revised Code, and fees for renewals of licenses and permits, taking into consideration the actual costs incurred by the board in carrying out its duties under this chapter. However, the fee for each license and each renewal of a license shall not exceed one hundred dollars, and the fee for each permit and each renewal of a permit shall not exceed one hundred dollars for each ambulance, rotorcraft air ambulance, fixed wing air ambulance, and nontransport vehicle. The ~~fee for each permit and each renewal of a permit shall be twenty-five dollars for each ambulette for one year after March 9, 2004. Thereafter, the~~ board shall determine by rule the fee, which shall not exceed fifty dollars, for each permit and each renewal of a permit for each ambulette. For purposes of establishing fees, "actual costs" includes the costs of salaries, expenses, inspection equipment, supervision, and program administration.

(B) The board shall deposit all fees and other moneys collected pursuant to sections 4766.04, 4766.07, and 4766.08 of the Revised Code in the state treasury to the credit of the ~~occupational licensing~~ trauma and ~~regulatory~~ emergency medical services fund, which is created by section ~~4743.05~~ 4513.263 of the Revised Code. ~~All moneys from the fund shall be used solely for the salaries and expenses of the board incurred in implementing and enforcing this chapter.~~

(C) The board, subject to the approval of the controlling board, may establish fees in excess of the maximum amounts allowed under division (A) of this section, but such fees shall not exceed those maximum amounts by more than fifty per cent.

Sec. 4766.07. (A) Except as otherwise provided by rule of the ~~Ohio~~ state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation ~~board~~ services, each emergency medical service organization, nonemergency medical service organization, and air medical service organization subject to licensure under this chapter shall possess a valid permit for each ambulance, ambulette, rotorcraft air ambulance, fixed wing air ambulance, and nontransport vehicle it owns or leases that is or will be used by the licensee to perform the services permitted by the license. Each licensee and license applicant shall submit the appropriate fee and an application for a permit for each ambulance, ambulette, rotorcraft air ambulance, fixed wing air ambulance, and nontransport vehicle to the ~~Ohio~~ state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation ~~board~~ services on forms provided by the board. The application shall include documentation that the vehicle or aircraft meets the appropriate standards set by the board, that the vehicle or aircraft has been inspected pursuant to division (C) of this section, that the permit applicant maintains insurance as provided in section 4766.06 of the Revised Code, and that the vehicle or aircraft and permit applicant meet any other requirements established under rules adopted by the board.

The ~~Ohio~~ state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation ~~board~~ services may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to authorize the temporary use of a vehicle or aircraft for which a permit is not possessed under this section in back-up or disaster situations.

(B)(1) Within sixty days after receiving a completed application for a permit, the board shall issue or deny the permit. The board shall deny an application if it determines that the permit applicant, vehicle, or aircraft does not meet the requirements of this chapter and the rules adopted under it that apply to permits for ambulances, ambulettes, rotorcraft air ambulances, fixed wing air ambulances, and nontransport vehicles. The board shall send notice of the denial of an application by certified mail to the permit applicant. The permit applicant may request a hearing within ten days after receipt of the notice. If the board receives a timely request, it shall hold a hearing in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.

(2) If the board issues the vehicle permit for an ambulance, ambulette, or nontransport vehicle, it also shall issue a decal, in a form prescribed by rule, to be displayed on the rear window of the vehicle. The board shall not issue a decal until all of the requirements for licensure and permit issuance have been met.

(3) If the board issues the aircraft permit for a rotorcraft air ambulance or fixed wing air ambulance, it also shall issue a decal, in a form prescribed by rule, to be displayed on the left fuselage aircraft window in a manner that complies with all applicable federal aviation regulations. The board shall not issue a decal until all of the requirements for licensure and permit issuance have been met.

(C) In addition to any other requirements that the board establishes by rule, a licensee or license applicant applying for an initial vehicle or aircraft permit under division (A) of this section shall submit to the board the vehicle or aircraft for which the permit is sought. Thereafter, a licensee shall annually submit to the board each vehicle or aircraft for which a permit has been issued.

(1) The board shall conduct a physical inspection of an ambulance, ambulette, or nontransport vehicle to determine its roadworthiness and compliance with standard motor vehicle requirements.

(2) The board shall conduct a physical inspection of the medical equipment, communication system, and interior of an ambulance to determine the operational condition and safety of the equipment and the ambulance's interior and to determine whether the ambulance is in compliance with the federal requirements for ambulance construction that were in effect at the time the ambulance was manufactured, as specified by the general services administration in the various versions of its publication titled "federal specification for the star-of-life ambulance, KKK-A-1822."

(3) The board shall conduct a physical inspection of the equipment, communication system, and interior of an ambulette to determine the operational condition and safety of the equipment and the ambulette's interior and to determine whether the ambulette is in compliance with state requirements for ambulette construction. The board shall determine by rule requirements for the equipment, communication system, interior, and construction of an ambulette.

(4) The board shall conduct a physical inspection of the medical equipment, communication system, and interior of a rotorcraft air ambulance or fixed wing air ambulance to determine the operational condition and safety of the equipment and the aircraft's interior.

(5) The board shall issue a certificate to the applicant for each vehicle or aircraft that passes the inspection and may assess a fee for each inspection, as established by the board.

(6) The board shall adopt rules regarding the implementation and coordination of inspections. The rules may permit the board to contract with a third party to conduct the inspections required of the board under this section.

Sec. 4766.08. (A) The ~~Ohio~~ state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation ~~board may~~ services, pursuant to an adjudication conducted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, may suspend or revoke any license or permit or renewal thereof issued under this chapter for any one or combination of the following causes:

(2) Refusal to permit the board to inspect a vehicle or aircraft used under the terms of a permit or to inspect the records or physical facilities of a licensee;

(3) Failure to meet the ambulance, ambulette, rotorcraft air ambulance, fixed wing air ambulance, and nontransport vehicle requirements specified in this chapter or the rules adopted thereunder;

(5) Failure to comply with any of the terms of an agreement entered into with the board regarding the suspension or revocation of a license or permit or the imposition of a penalty under this section.

(B) If the board determines that the records, record-keeping procedures, or physical facilities of a licensee, or an ambulance, ambulette, rotorcraft air ambulance, fixed wing air ambulance, or nontransport vehicle for which a valid permit has been issued, do not meet the standards specified in this chapter and the rules adopted thereunder, the board shall notify the licensee of any deficiencies within thirty days of finding the deficiencies. If the board determines that the deficiencies exist and they remain uncorrected after thirty days, the board may suspend the license, vehicle permit, or aircraft permit. The licensee, notwithstanding the suspension under this division, may operate until all appeals have been exhausted.

(C) At the discretion of the board, a licensee whose license has been suspended or revoked under this section may be ineligible to be licensed under this chapter for a period of not more than three years from the date of the violation, provided that the board shall make no determination on a period of ineligibility until all the licensee's appeals relating to the suspension or revocation have been exhausted.

(D) The board may, in addition to any other action taken under this section and after a hearing conducted pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, impose a penalty of not more than fifteen hundred dollars for any violation specified in this section. The attorney general shall institute a civil action for the collection of any such penalty imposed.

(A) A person rendering services with an ambulance in the event of a disaster situation when licensees' vehicles based in the locality of the disaster situation are incapacitated or insufficient in number to render the services needed;

(B) Any person operating an ambulance, ambulette, rotorcraft air ambulance, or fixed wing air ambulance outside this state unless receiving a person within this state for transport to a location within this state;

(C) A publicly owned or operated emergency medical service organization and the vehicles it owns or leases and operates, except as provided in section 307.051, division (G) of section 307.055, division (F) of section 505.37, division (B) of section 505.375, and division (B)(3) of section 505.72 of the Revised Code;

(D) An ambulance, ambulette, rotorcraft air ambulance, fixed wing air ambulance, or nontransport vehicle owned or leased and operated by the federal government;

(F) Emergency vehicles owned by a corporation and operating only on the corporation's premises, for the sole use by that corporation;

(G) An ambulance, nontransport vehicle, or other emergency medical service organization vehicle owned and operated by a municipal corporation;

(H) A motor vehicle titled in the name of a volunteer rescue service organization, as defined in section 4503.172 of the Revised Code;

(J) A fire department, rescue squad, or life squad comprised of volunteers who provide services without expectation of remuneration and do not receive payment for services other than reimbursement for expenses;

(K) A private, nonprofit emergency medical service organization when fifty per cent or more of its personnel are volunteers, as defined in section 4765.01 of the Revised Code;

(L) Emergency medical service personnel who are regulated by the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services under Chapter 4765. of the Revised Code;

(M) Any of the following that operates a transit bus, as that term is defined in division (Q) of section 5735.01 of the Revised Code, unless the entity provides ambulette services that are reimbursed under the state medicaid plan:

(3) A private nonprofit organization that receives grants under section 5501.07 of the Revised Code.

(N)(1) An entity, to the extent it provides ambulette services, if the entity meets all of the following conditions:

(a) The entity is certified by the department of aging or the department's designee in accordance with section 173.391 of the Revised Code or operates under a contract or grant agreement with the department or the department's designee in accordance with section 173.392 of the Revised Code.

(2) A vehicle, to the extent it is used to provide ambulette services, if the vehicle meets both of the following conditions:

(a) The vehicle is owned by an entity that meets the conditions specified in division (N)(1) of this section.

(b) The vehicle does not provide ambulette services that are reimbursed under the state medicaid plan.

(O) A vehicle that meets both of the following criteria, unless the vehicle provides services that are reimbursed under the state medicaid plan:

(1) The vehicle was purchased with funds from a grant made by the United States secretary of transportation under 49 U.S.C. 5310;

Sec. 4766.10. This chapter does not invalidate any ordinance or resolution adopted by a municipal corporation that establishes standards for the licensure of emergency medical service organizations as basic life-support, intermediate life-support, or advanced life-support service organizations that have their principal places of business located within the limits of the municipal corporation, as long as the licensure standards meet or exceed the standards established in this chapter and the rules adopted thereunder.

Emergency medical service organizations licensed by a municipal corporation are subject to the jurisdiction of the ~~Ohio~~ state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation ~~board~~ services, but the fees they pay to the board for licenses, permits, and renewals thereof shall not exceed fifty per cent of the fee amounts established by the board pursuant to section 4766.03 of the Revised Code. The board may choose to waive the vehicle inspection requirements and inspection fees, but not the permit fees, for the vehicles of organizations licensed by a municipal corporation.

Sec. 4766.11. (A) The ~~Ohio~~ state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation ~~board~~ services may investigate alleged violations of this chapter or the rules adopted under it and may investigate any complaints received regarding alleged violations.

In addition to any other remedies available and regardless of whether an adequate remedy at law exists, the board may apply to the court of common pleas in the county where a violation of any provision of this chapter or any rule adopted pursuant thereto is occurring for a temporary or permanent injunction restraining a person from continuing to commit that violation. On a showing that a person has committed a violation, the court shall grant the injunction.

In conducting an investigation under this section, the board may issue subpoenas compelling the attendance and testimony of witnesses and the production of books, records, and other documents pertaining to the investigation. If a person fails to obey a subpoena from the board, the board may apply to the court of common pleas in the county where the investigation is being conducted for an order compelling the person to comply with the subpoena. On application by the board, the court shall compel obedience by attachment proceedings for contempt, as in the case of disobedience of the requirements of a subpoena from the court or a refusal to testify therein.

(B) The ~~medical transportation~~ board may suspend a license issued under this chapter without a prior hearing if it determines that there is evidence that the license holder is subject to action under this section and that there is clear and convincing evidence that continued operation by the license holder presents a danger of immediate and serious harm to the public. The chairperson and executive director of the board shall make a preliminary determination and describe the evidence on which they made their determination to the board members. The board by resolution may designate another board member to act in place of the chairperson or another employee to act in place of the executive director in the event that the chairperson or executive director is unavailable or unable to act. Upon review of the allegations, the board, by the affirmative vote of ~~at least four~~ a majority of its members, may suspend the license without a hearing.

Any method of communication, including a telephone conference call, may be utilized for describing the evidence to the board members, for reviewing the allegations, and for voting on the suspension.

Immediately following the decision by the board to suspend a license under this division, the board shall issue a written order of suspension and cause it to be delivered in accordance with section 119.07 of the Revised Code. If the license holder subject to the suspension requests an adjudication hearing by the board, the date set for the adjudication shall be within fifteen days but not earlier than seven days after the request unless another date is agreed to by the license holder and the board.

Any summary suspension imposed under this division remains in effect, unless reversed by the board, until a final adjudicative order issued by the board pursuant to this section and Chapter 119. of the Revised Code becomes effective. The board shall issue its final adjudicative order not less than ninety days after completion of its adjudication hearing. Failure to issue the order by that day shall cause the summary suspension order to end, but such failure shall not affect the validity of any subsequent final adjudication order.

Sec. 4766.12. If a county, township, joint ambulance district, or joint emergency medical services district chooses to have the ~~Ohio~~ state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation ~~board~~ services license its emergency medical service organizations and issue permits for its vehicles pursuant to this chapter, except as may be otherwise provided, all provisions of this chapter and all rules adopted by the board thereunder are fully applicable. However, a county, township, joint ambulance district, or joint emergency medical services district is not required to obtain any type of permit from the board for any of its nontransport vehicles.

Sec. 4766.13. The ~~Ohio~~ state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation ~~board~~ services, by endorsement, may license and issue vehicle permits to an emergency medical service organization or a nonemergency medical service organization that is regulated by another state. To qualify for a license and vehicle permits by endorsement, an organization must submit evidence satisfactory to the board that it has met standards in another state that are equal to or more stringent than the standards established by this chapter and the rules adopted under it.

Sec. 4766.15. (A) An applicant for employment as an ambulette driver with an organization licensed pursuant to this chapter shall submit proof to the organization of, or give consent to the employer to obtain, all of the following:

(1)(a) A valid driver's license issued pursuant to Chapter 4506. or 4507. of the Revised Code, or its equivalent, if the applicant is a resident of another state;

(b) A recent certified abstract of the applicant's record of convictions for violations of motor vehicle laws provided by the registrar of motor vehicles pursuant to section 4509.05 of the Revised Code, or its equivalent, if the applicant is a resident of another state.

(2)(a) A certificate of completion of a course in first aid techniques offered by the American red cross or an equivalent organization;

(b) A certificate of completion of a course in cardiopulmonary resuscitation, or its equivalent, offered by an organization approved by the ~~Ohio~~ state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation ~~board~~ services.

(3) The result of a chemical test or tests of the applicant's blood, breath, or urine conducted at a hospital or other institution approved by the board for the purpose of determining the alcohol, drug of abuse, controlled substance, or metabolite of a controlled substance content of the applicant's whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, or urine;

(4) The result of a criminal records check conducted by the bureau of criminal identification and investigation.

(B) An organization may employ an applicant on a temporary provisional basis pending the completion of all of the requirements of this section. The length of the provisional period shall be determined by the board.

(C) An organization licensed pursuant to this chapter shall use information received pursuant to this section to determine in accordance with rules adopted by the ~~Ohio~~ state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation ~~board~~ services under section 4766.03 of the Revised Code whether an applicant is disqualified for employment.

No applicant shall be accepted for permanent employment as an ambulette driver by an organization licensed pursuant to this chapter until all of the requirements of division (A) of this section have been met.

Sec. 4766.22. (A) Not later than forty-five days after the end of each fiscal year, the ~~Ohio~~ state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation ~~board~~ services shall submit a report to the governor and general assembly that provides all of the following information for that fiscal year:

(2) The amount of fees the board collected for issuing and renewing each type of license and permit specified in division (A)(1) of this section;

(3) The number of inspections the board or a third party on the board's behalf conducted in connection with each type of license and permit specified in division (A)(1) of this section and the amount of fees the board collected for the inspections;

(5) The number of investigations the board conducted under section 4766.11 of the Revised Code;

(6) The number of adjudication hearings the board held and the outcomes of the adjudications;

(7) The amount of penalties the board imposed and collected under section 4766.08 of the Revised Code;

(B) The board shall post the annual report required by this section on its web site and make it available to the public on request.

(1) Exercise and perform such other duties, powers, and functions as are conferred by law on the director, the department, the assistant directors, the deputy directors, or on the divisions of the department;

(2) Coordinate and develop, in cooperation with local, regional, state, and federal planning agencies and authorities, comprehensive and balanced state policy and planning to meet present and future needs for adequate transportation facilities in this state, including recommendations for adequate funding of the implementation of such planning;

(3) Coordinate its activities with those of other appropriate state departments, public agencies, and authorities, and enter into any contracts with such departments, agencies, and authorities as may be necessary to carry out its duties, powers, and functions;

(4) Cooperate with and assist the public utilities commission in the commission's administration of sections 4907.47 to 4907.476 of the Revised Code, particularly with respect to the federal highway administration;

(5) Cooperate with and assist the Ohio power siting board in the board's administration of Chapter 4906. of the Revised Code;

(6) Give particular consideration to the development of policy and planning for public transportation facilities, and to the coordination of associated activities relating thereto, as prescribed under divisions (A)(2) and (3) of this section;

(7) Conduct, in cooperation with the Ohio legislative service commission, any studies or comparisons of state traffic laws and local traffic ordinances with model laws and ordinances that may be required to meet program standards adopted by the United States department of transportation pursuant to the "Highway Safety Act of 1966," 80 Stat. 731, U.S.C.A. 401;

(8) Prepare, print, distribute, and advertise books, maps, pamphlets, and other information that, in the judgment of the director, will inform the public and other governmental departments, agencies, and authorities as to the duties, powers, and functions of the department;

(9) In its research and development program, consider technologies for improving safety, mobility, aviation and aviation education, transportation facilities, roadways, including construction techniques and materials to prolong project life, being used or developed by other states that have geographic, geologic, or climatic features similar to this state's, and collaborate with those states in that development.

(B) Nothing contained in ~~division (A)(1) of~~ this section shall be held to in any manner affect, limit, restrict, or otherwise interfere with the exercise of powers relating to transportation facilities by appropriate agencies of the federal government, or by counties, municipal corporations, or other political subdivisions or special districts in this state authorized by law to exercise such powers.

(C) The department may use all appropriate sources of revenue to assist in the development and implementation of rail service as defined by division (C) of section 4981.01 of the Revised Code.

(D) The director of transportation may enter into contracts with public agencies including political subdivisions, other state agencies, boards, commissions, regional transit authorities, county transit boards, and port authorities, to administer the design, qualification of bidders, competitive bid letting, construction inspection, research, and acceptance of any projects or transportation facilities administered by the department, provided the administration of such projects or transportation facilities is performed in accordance with all applicable state and federal laws and regulations with oversight by the department.

(E) The director may enter into cooperative or contractual agreements with any individual, organization, or business related to the creation or promotion of a traveler information program. The traveler information program shall provide real-time traffic conditions and travel time information to travelers by telephone, text message, internet, or other similar means at no cost to the traveler. The director may contract with a program manager for the traveler information program. The program manager shall be responsible for all costs associated with the development and operation of the traveler information program. The compensation due to a program manager or vendor under any of these agreements may include deferred compensation in an amount determined by the director. Excess revenue shall be remitted to the department for deposit into the highway operating fund.

(F) Any materials or data submitted to, made available to, or received by the director of transportation, to the extent that the materials or data consist of trade secrets, as defined in section 1333.61 of the Revised Code, or commercial or financial information, are confidential and are not public records for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 5501.17. The director of transportation may employ such assistants as are necessary to prepare plans and surveys. Compensation paid for the preparation of plans, surveys, and specifications shall be regarded as a part of the cost and expense of the improvement for which they were made and shall be paid from funds set aside for the improvement.

The director may appoint additional clerks and stenographers, and such other engineers, inspectors, technicians, and other employees as are necessary to carry out Chapters 4561., 5501., 5503., 5511., 5513., 5515., 5516., 5517., 5519., 5521., 5523., 5525., 5527., 5528., 5529., 5531., 5533., and 5535. of the Revised Code. All such technicians employed under the authority of this section shall be eligible to receive pay during periods of on the job training or while attending special training schools conducted by the department of transportation. Such employees and appointees, in addition to their salaries, shall receive their actual necessary traveling expenses when on official business.

The director may contract with regional, county, or municipal planning commissions or county engineers having adequate staffs, and with planning agencies of adjacent states, for the preparation of comprehensive transportation and land use studies and major thoroughfare reports, or parts thereof, and pay the commissions, county engineers, or planning agencies of adjacent states for such work from funds available to the department.

Sec. 5501.31. The director of transportation shall have general supervision of all roads comprising the state highway system. The director may alter, widen, straighten, realign, relocate, establish, construct, reconstruct, improve, maintain, repair, and preserve any road or highway on the state highway system, and, in connection therewith, relocate, alter, widen, deepen, clean out, or straighten the channel of any watercourse as the director considers necessary, and purchase or appropriate property for the disposal of surplus materials or borrow pits, and, where an established road has been relocated, establish, construct, and maintain such connecting roads between the old and new location as will provide reasonable access thereto.

The director may purchase or appropriate property necessary for the location or construction of any culvert, bridge, or viaduct, or the approaches thereto, including any property needed to extend, widen, or alter any feeder or outlet road, street, or way adjacent to or under the bridge or viaduct when the extension, widening, or alteration of the feeder road, street, or way is necessary for the full utilization of the bridge or viaduct, or for any other highway improvement. The director may purchase or appropriate, for such length of time as is necessary and desirable, any additional property required for the construction and maintenance of slopes, detour roads, sewers, roadside parks, rest areas, recreational park areas, park and ride facilities, and park and carpool or vanpool facilities, scenic view areas, drainage systems, or land to replace wetlands, incident to any highway improvement, that the director is or may be authorized to locate or construct. Also incident to any authorized highway improvement, the director may purchase property from a willing seller as required for the construction and maintenance of bikeways and bicycle paths or to replace, preserve, or conserve any environmental resource if the replacement, preservation, or conservation is required by state or federal law.

Title to property purchased or appropriated by the director shall be taken in the name of the state either in fee simple or in any lesser estate or interest that the director considers necessary or proper, in accordance with forms to be prescribed by the attorney general. The deed shall contain a description of the property and be recorded in the county where the property is situated and, when recorded, shall be kept on file in the department of transportation. The property may be described by metes and bounds or by the department of transportation parcel number as shown on a right of way plan recorded in the county where the property is located.

Provided that when property, other than property used by a railroad for operating purposes, is acquired in connection with improvements involving projects affecting railroads wherein the department is obligated to acquire property under grade separation statutes, or on other improvements wherein the department is obligated to acquire lands under agreements with railroads, or with a public utility, political subdivision, public corporation, or private corporation owning transportation facilities for the readjustment, relocation, or improvement of their facilities, a fee simple title or an easement may be acquired by purchase or appropriation in the name of the railroad, public utility, political subdivision, public corporation, or private corporation in the discretion of the director. When the title to lands, which are required to adjust, relocate, or improve such facilities pursuant to agreements with the director, is taken in the name of the state, then, in the discretion of the director, the title to such lands may be conveyed to the railroad, public utility, political subdivision, or public corporation for which they were acquired. The conveyance shall be prepared by the attorney general and executed by the governor and bear the great seal of the state of Ohio.

The director, in the maintenance or repair of state highways, is not limited to the use of the materials with which the highways, including the bridges and culverts thereon, were originally constructed, but may use any material that is proper or suitable. The director may aid any board of county commissioners in establishing, creating, and repairing suitable systems of drainage for all highways within the jurisdiction or control of the board and advise with it as to the establishment, construction, improvement, maintenance, and repair of the highways.

Chapters 4561., 5501., 5503., 5511., 5513., 5515., 5516., 5517., 5519., 5521., 5523., 5525., 5527., 5528., 5529., 5531., 5533., and 5535. of the Revised Code do not prohibit the federal government, any government agency, or any individual or corporation, from contributing a portion of the cost of the establishment, construction, reconstruction, relocating, widening, resurfacing, maintenance, and repair of the highways or transportation facilities.

Except in the case of maintaining, repairing, erecting traffic signs on, or pavement marking of state highways within villages, which is mandatory as required by section 5521.01 of the Revised Code, and except as provided in section 5501.49 of the Revised Code, no duty of constructing, reconstructing, widening, resurfacing, maintaining, or repairing state highways within municipal corporations, or the culverts thereon, shall attach to or rest upon the director, but the director may construct, reconstruct, widen, resurface, maintain, and repair the same with or without the cooperation of any municipal corporation, or with or without the cooperation of boards of county commissioners upon each municipal corporation consenting thereto.

Sec. 5501.51. (A) The state shall reimburse a utility for the cost of relocation of utility facilities necessitated by the construction of a highway project only in the event that the utility can evidence a vested interest in the nature of a fee interest, an easement interest, or a lesser estate in the real property it occupies in the event that the utility possesses a vested interest in such property. The utility shall present evidence satisfactory to the state substantiating the cost of relocation. The director may audit all financial records which the director determines necessary to verify such actual costs.

(B) The director of transportation may establish and enforce such rules and procedures as the director may determine to be necessary to assure consistency governing any and all aspects of the cost of utility relocations. The director may adopt such amendments to such rules as are necessary and within the guidelines of this section.

(1) "Cost of relocation" includes the actual cost paid by a utility directly attributable to relocation after deducting any increase in the value of the new facility and any salvage value derived from the old facility.

(a) Publicly, privately, and cooperatively owned utilities that are subject to the authority of the public utilities commission of Ohio~~. "Utility" also includes a~~;

(b) A cable operator as defined in the "Cable Communications Policy Act of 1984," 98 Stat. 2780, 47 U.S.C. 522, as amended by the "Telecommunications Act of 1996," 110 Stat. 56, 47 U.S.C. 151, and includes the provision of other information or telecommunications services, or both~~, and an~~;

Sec. 5501.73. (A) After selecting a solicited or unsolicited proposal for a public-private initiative, the department of transportation shall enter into a public-private agreement for a transportation facility with the selected private entity or any configuration of private entities. An affected jurisdiction may be a party to a public-private agreement entered into by the department and a selected private entity or combination of private entities.

(B) A public-private agreement under this section shall provide for all of the following:

(1) Planning, acquisition, financing, development, design, construction, reconstruction, replacement, improvement, maintenance, management, repair, leasing, or operation of a transportation facility;

(3) Type of property interest, if any, the private entity will have in the transportation facility;

(4) A specific plan to ensure proper maintenance of the transportation facility throughout the term of the agreement and a return of the facility to the department, if applicable, in good condition and repair;

(5) Whether user fees will be collected on the transportation facility and the basis by which such user fees shall be determined and modified;

(7) Grounds for termination of the public-private agreement by the department or operator;

(1) Review and approval by the department of the operator's plans for the development and operation of the transportation facility;

(2) Inspection by the department of construction of or improvements to the transportation facility;

(3) Maintenance by the operator of a policy of liability insurance or self-insurance;

(4) Filing by the operator, on a periodic basis, of appropriate financial statements in a form acceptable to the department;

(5) Filing by the operator, on a periodic basis, of traffic reports in a form acceptable to the department;

(8) Rights and duties of the operator, the department, and other state and local governmental entities with respect to use of the transportation facility;

(11) Assignment, subcontracting, or other delegation of responsibilities of the operator or the department under the agreement to third parties, including other private entities and other state agencies;

(12) Sale or lease to the operator of private property related to the transportation facility;

(13) Traffic enforcement and other policing issues, including any reimbursement by the private entity for such services.

(D)(1) The director of transportation may include in any public-private agreement under sections 5501.70 to 5501.83 of the Revised Code a provision authorizing a binding dispute resolution method for any controversy subsequently arising out of the contract. The binding dispute resolution method may proceed only upon agreement of all parties to the controversy. If all parties do not agree to proceed to a binding dispute resolution, a party having a claim against the department shall exhaust its administrative remedies specified in the public-private agreement prior to filing any action against the department in the court of claims.

No appeal from the determination of a technical expert lies to any court, except that the court of common pleas of Franklin County may issue an order vacating such a determination upon the application of any party to the binding dispute resolution if any of the following applies:

(b) There was evidence of partiality or corruption on the part of the technical expert.

(c) The technical expert was guilty of misconduct in refusing to postpone the hearing, upon sufficient cause shown, or in refusing to hear evidence pertinent and material to the controversy, or of any other misbehavior by which the rights of any party have been prejudiced.

(2) As used in this division, "binding dispute resolution" means a binding determination after review by a technical expert of all relevant items, which may include documents, and by interviewing appropriate personnel and visiting the project site involved in the controversy. "Binding dispute resolution" does not involve representation by legal counsel or advocacy by any person on behalf of any party to the controversy.

(E) No public-private agreement entered into under this section shall be construed to transfer to a private entity the director's authority to appropriate property under Chapters 163., 5501., and 5519. of the Revised Code.

Sec. 5501.77. (A) For the purposes of carrying out sections 5501.70 to 5501.83 of the Revised Code, the department of transportation may do all of the following:

(1) Accept, subject to applicable terms and conditions, available funds from the United States or any of its agencies, whether the funds are made available by grant, loan, or other financial assistance;

(2) Enter into agreements or other arrangements with the United States or any of its agencies as may be necessary;

(3) For the purpose of completing a transportation facility under an agreement, accept from any source any grant, donation, gift, or other form of conveyance of land, money, other real or personal property, or other item of value made to the state or the department.

(B) Any transportation facility may be financed in whole or in part by contribution of any funds or property made by any private entity or affected jurisdiction that is party to a public-private agreement under sections 5501.70 to 5501.83 of the Revised Code.

(C) The department may use federal, state, local, and private funds to finance a transportation facility under sections 5501.70 to 5501.83 of the Revised Code and shall comply with any requirements and restrictions governing the use of the funds, including maintaining the funds separately when necessary.

(D) The director of transportation, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, may adopt such rules as the director considers advisable for the control and regulation of traffic on any transportation facility subject to a public-private agreement, for the protection and preservation of the transportation facility, for the maintenance and preservation of good order within the transportation facility, and for the purpose of establishing vehicle owner or operator liability for avoidance of user fees. The rules shall provide that public police officers shall be afforded ready access, while in the performance of their official duties, to the transportation facility without the payment of user fees.

(1) No person shall violate any rules of the department of transportation adopted under this division.

(2)(a) All fines collected for the violation of applicable laws of the state and the rules of the department of transportation or money arising from bonds forfeited for such violation shall be disposed of in accordance with section 5503.04 of the Revised Code.

(b) All fees or charges assessed by the department of transportation or a public-private operator in accordance with this section against an owner or operator of a vehicle as a civil violation for failure to comply with toll collection rules shall be revenues of the department or public-private operator as set forth in the public-private agreement.

(E)(1) Except as provided in division (E)(2) of this section, whoever violates division (D)(1) of this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor on a first offense; on each subsequent offense such person is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.

(2) Whoever violates division (D)(1) of this section when the violation is a civil violation for failure to comply with toll collection rules is subject to a fee or charge established by the department by rule.

Sec. 5502.01. (A) The department of public safety shall administer and enforce the laws relating to the registration, licensing, sale, and operation of motor vehicles and the laws pertaining to the licensing of drivers of motor vehicles.

The department shall compile, analyze, and publish statistics relative to motor vehicle accidents and the causes of them, prepare and conduct educational programs for the purpose of promoting safety in the operation of motor vehicles on the highways, and conduct research and studies for the purpose of promoting safety on the highways of this state.

(B) The department shall administer the laws and rules relative to trauma and emergency medical services specified in Chapter 4765. of the Revised Code and any laws and rules relative to medical transportation services specified in Chapter 4766. of the Revised Code.

(C) The department shall administer and enforce the laws contained in Chapters 4301. and 4303. of the Revised Code and enforce the rules and orders of the liquor control commission pertaining to retail liquor permit holders.

(D) The department shall administer the laws governing the state emergency management agency and shall enforce all additional duties and responsibilities as prescribed in the Revised Code related to emergency management services.

(E) The department shall conduct investigations pursuant to Chapter 5101. of the Revised Code in support of the duty of the department of job and family services to administer the supplemental nutrition assistance program throughout this state. The department of public safety shall conduct investigations necessary to protect the state's property rights and interests in the supplemental nutrition assistance program.

(F) The department of public safety shall enforce compliance with orders and rules of the public utilities commission and applicable laws in accordance with Chapters 4905., 4921., and 4923. of the Revised Code regarding commercial motor vehicle transportation safety, economic, and hazardous materials requirements.

(G) Notwithstanding Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code, the department of public safety may establish requirements for its enforcement personnel, including its enforcement agents described in section 5502.14 of the Revised Code, that include standards of conduct, work rules and procedures, and criteria for eligibility as law enforcement personnel.

(H) The department shall administer, maintain, and operate the Ohio criminal justice network. The Ohio criminal justice network shall be a computer network that supports state and local criminal justice activities. The network shall be an electronic repository for various data, which may include arrest warrants, notices of persons wanted by law enforcement agencies, criminal records, prison inmate records, stolen vehicle records, vehicle operator's licenses, and vehicle registrations and titles.

(I) The department shall coordinate all homeland security activities of all state agencies and shall be a liaison between state agencies and local entities for those activities and related purposes.

(J) Beginning July 1, 2004, the department shall administer and enforce the laws relative to private investigators and security service providers specified in Chapter 4749. of the Revised Code.

(K) The department shall administer criminal justice services in accordance with sections 5502.61 to 5502.66 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 5503.01. There is hereby created in the department of public safety a division of state highway patrol which shall be administered by a superintendent of the state highway patrol.

The superintendent shall be appointed by the director of public safety, and shall serve at the director's pleasure. The superintendent shall hold the rank of colonel and be appointed from within the eligible ranks of the patrol. The superintendent shall give bond for the faithful performance of the superintendent's official duties in such amount and with such security as the director approves.

The superintendent, with the approval of the director, may appoint any number of state highway patrol troopers and radio operators as are necessary to carry out sections 5503.01 to 5503.06 of the Revised Code, but the number of troopers shall not be less than eight hundred eighty. The number of radio operators shall not exceed eighty in number. Except as provided in this section, at the time of appointment, troopers shall be not less than twenty-one years of age, nor have reached thirty-five years of age. A person who is attending a training school for prospective state highway patrol troopers established under section 5503.05 of the Revised Code and attains the age of thirty-five years during the person's period of attendance at that training school shall not be disqualified as over age and shall be permitted to continue to attend the training school as long as the person otherwise is eligible to do so. Such a person also remains eligible to be appointed a trooper. Any other person who attains or will attain the age of thirty-five years prior to the time of appointment shall be disqualified as over age.

At the time of appointment, troopers shall have been legal residents of Ohio for at least one year, except that this residence requirement may be waived by the superintendent.

If any state highway patrol troopers become disabled through accident or illness, the superintendent, with the approval of the director, shall fill any vacancies through the appointment of other troopers from a qualified list to serve during the period of the disability.

The superintendent and state highway patrol troopers shall be vested with the authority of peace officers for the purpose of enforcing the laws of the state that it is the duty of the patrol to enforce and may arrest, without warrant, any person who, in the presence of the superintendent or any trooper, is engaged in the violation of any such laws. The state highway patrol troopers shall never be used as peace officers in connection with any strike or labor dispute.

Each state highway patrol trooper and radio operator, upon appointment and before entering upon official duties, shall take an oath of office for faithful performance of the trooper's or radio operator's official duties and execute a bond in the sum of twenty-five hundred dollars, payable to the state and for the use and benefit of any aggrieved party who may have a cause of action against any trooper or radio operator for misconduct while in the performance of official duties. In no event shall the bond include any claim arising out of negligent operation of a motorcycle or motor vehicle used by a trooper or radio operator in the performance of official duties.

The superintendent shall prescribe a distinguishing uniform and badge which shall be worn by each state highway patrol trooper and radio operator while on duty, unless otherwise designated by the superintendent. No person shall wear the distinguishing uniform of the state highway patrol or the badge or any distinctive part of that uniform, except on order of the superintendent.

The superintendent, with the approval of the director, may appoint necessary clerks, stenographers, and employees.

Sec. 5503.03. The state highway patrol and the superintendent of the state highway patrol shall be furnished by the state with such vehicles, equipment, and supplies as the director of public safety deems necessary, all of which shall remain the property of the state and be strictly accounted for by each member of the patrol.

The patrol may be equipped with standardized and tested devices for weighing vehicles, and may stop and weigh any vehicle which appears to weigh in excess of the amounts permitted by sections 5577.01 to 5577.14 of the Revised Code.

The superintendent, with the approval of the director, shall prescribe rules for instruction and discipline, make all administrative rules, and fix the hours of duty for patrol officers. He The superintendent shall divide the state into districts and assign members of the patrol to such districts in a manner that he the superintendent deems proper. He The superintendent may transfer members of the patrol from one district to another, ~~and classify~~ and rank members of the patrol. All ranks below the level of superintendent shall be classified. All promotions to a higher grade shall be made from the next lower grade. When a patrol officer is promoted by the superintendent, the officer's salary shall be increased to that of the lowest step in the pay range for the new grade which shall increase the officer's salary or wage by at least nine per cent of the base pay wherever possible.

Sec. 5503.04. Forty-five per cent of the fines collected from or moneys arising from bail forfeited by persons apprehended or arrested by state highway patrol troopers shall be paid into the state treasury to be credited to the general revenue fund, five per cent shall be paid into the state treasury to be credited to the trauma and emergency medical services fund created by section 4513.263 of the Revised Code, and fifty per cent shall be paid into the treasury of the municipal corporation where the case is prosecuted, if in a mayor's court. If the prosecution is in a trial court outside a municipal corporation, or outside the territorial jurisdiction of a municipal court, the fifty per cent of the fines and moneys that is not paid into the state treasury shall be paid into the treasury of the county where the case is prosecuted. The fines and moneys paid into a county treasury and the fines and moneys paid into the treasury of a municipal corporation shall be deposited one-half to the same fund and expended in the same manner as is the revenue received from the registration of motor vehicles, and one-half to the general fund of such county or municipal corporation.

If the prosecution is in a municipal court, forty-five per cent of the fines and moneys shall be paid into the state treasury to be credited to the general revenue fund, five per cent shall be paid into the state treasury to be credited to the trauma and emergency medical services ~~grants~~ fund created by division (E) of section 4513.263 of the Revised Code, ten per cent shall be paid into the county treasury to be credited to the general fund of the county, and forty per cent shall be paid into the municipal treasury to be credited to the general fund of the municipal corporation. In the Auglaize county, Clermont county, Crawford county, Hocking county, Jackson county, Lawrence county, Madison county, Miami county, Ottawa county, Portage county, and Wayne county municipal courts, that portion of money otherwise paid into the municipal treasury shall be paid into the county treasury.

The trial court shall make remittance of the fines and moneys as prescribed in this section, and at the same time as the remittance is made of the state's portion to the state treasury, the trial court shall notify the superintendent of the state highway patrol of the case and the amount covered by the remittance.

This section does not apply to fines for violations of division (B) of section 4513.263 of the Revised Code, or for violations of any municipal ordinance that is substantively comparable to that division, all of which shall be delivered to the treasurer of state as provided in division (E) of section 4513.263 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 5503.31. The state highway patrol shall have the same authority as is conferred upon it by section 5503.02 of the Revised Code with respect to the enforcement of state laws on other roads and highways and on other state properties, to enforce on all turnpike projects the laws of the state and the bylaws, rules, and regulations of the Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission. The patrol, the superintendent of the patrol, and all state highway patrol troopers shall have the same authority to make arrests on all turnpike projects for violations of state laws and of bylaws, rules, and regulations of the Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission as is conferred upon them by section 5503.02 of the Revised Code to make arrests on, and in connection with offenses committed on, other roads and highways and on other state properties.

Sec. 5503.32. The director of public safety may from time to time enter into contracts with the Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission with respect to the policing of turnpike projects by the state highway patrol. The contracts shall provide for the reimbursement of the state by the commission for the costs incurred by the patrol in policing turnpike projects, including, but not limited to, the salaries of employees of the patrol assigned to the policing, the current costs of funding retirement pensions for the employees of the patrol and of providing workers' compensation for them, the cost of training state highway patrol troopers and radio operators assigned to turnpike projects, and the cost of equipment and supplies used by the patrol in such policing, and of housing for such troopers and radio operators, to the extent that the equipment, supplies, and housing are not directly furnished by the commission. Each contract may provide for the ascertainment of such costs, and shall be of any duration, not in excess of five years, and may contain any other terms, that the director and the commission may agree upon. The patrol shall not be obligated to furnish policing services on any turnpike project beyond the extent required by the contract. All payments pursuant to any contract in reimbursement of the costs of the policing shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the turnpike policing fund, which is hereby created. All investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund.

Sec. 5513.01. (A) All purchases of machinery, materials, supplies, or other articles that the director of transportation makes shall be in the manner provided in this section. In all cases except those in which the director provides written authorization for purchases by district deputy directors of transportation, all such purchases shall be made at the central office of the department of transportation in Columbus. Before making any purchase at that office, the director, as provided in this section, shall give notice to bidders of the director's intention to purchase. Where the expenditure does not exceed the amount applicable to the purchase of supplies specified in division (B) of section 125.05 of the Revised Code, as adjusted pursuant to division (D) of that section, the director shall give such notice as the director considers proper, or the director may make the purchase without notice. Where the expenditure exceeds the amount applicable to the purchase of supplies specified in division (B) of section 125.05 of the Revised Code, as adjusted pursuant to division (D) of that section, the director shall give notice by posting for not less than ten days a written, typed, or printed invitation to bidders on a bulletin board, which shall be located in a place in the offices assigned to the department and open to the public during business hours. Producers or distributors of any product may notify the director, in writing, of the class of articles for the furnishing of which they desire to bid and their post-office addresses, in which case copies of all invitations to bidders relating to the purchase of such articles shall be mailed to such persons by the director by regular first class mail at least ten days prior to the time fixed for taking bids. The director also may mail copies of all invitations to bidders to news agencies or other agencies or organizations distributing information of this character. Requests for invitations shall not be valid nor require action by the director unless renewed, either annually or after such shorter period as the director may prescribe by a general rule. The invitation to bidders shall contain a brief statement of the general character of the article that it is intended to purchase, the approximate quantity desired, and a statement of the time and place where bids will be received, and may relate to and describe as many different articles as the director thinks proper, it being the intent and purpose of this section to authorize the inclusion in a single invitation of as many different articles as the director desires to invite bids upon at any given time. Invitations issued during each calendar year shall be given consecutive numbers, and the number assigned to each invitation shall appear on all copies thereof. In all cases where notice is required by this section, sealed bids shall be taken, on forms prescribed and furnished by the director, and modification of bids after they have been opened shall not be permitted.

(B) The director may permit the Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission, any political subdivision, and any state university or college to participate in contracts into which the director has entered for the purchase of machinery, materials, supplies, or other articles. The turnpike and infrastructure commission and any political subdivision or state university or college desiring to participate in such purchase contracts shall file with the director a certified copy of the bylaws or rules of the turnpike and infrastructure commission or the ordinance or resolution of the legislative authority, board of trustees, or other governing board requesting authorization to participate in such contracts and agreeing to be bound by such terms and conditions as the director prescribes. Purchases made by the turnpike and infrastructure commission, political subdivisions, or state universities or colleges under this division are exempt from any competitive bidding required by law for the purchase of machinery, materials, supplies, or other articles.

(1) "Political subdivision" means any county, township, municipal corporation, conservancy district, township park district, park district created under Chapter 1545. of the Revised Code, port authority, regional transit authority, regional airport authority, regional water and sewer district, county transit board, or school district as defined in section 5513.04 of the Revised Code.

(2) "State university or college" has the same meaning as in division (A)(1) of section 3345.32 of the Revised Code.

(3) "Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission" means the commission created by section 5537.02 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 5517.02. (A) Before undertaking the construction, reconstruction by widening or resurfacing, or improvement of a state highway, or a bridge or culvert thereon, or the installation of a traffic control signal on a state highway, the director of transportation, except as provided in section 5517.021 of the Revised Code, shall make an estimate of the cost of the work using the force account project assessment form developed by the auditor of state under section 117.16 of the Revised Code. In constructing, or reconstructing by widening or resurfacing, improving, maintaining, and repairing state highways, and the bridges and culverts thereon, and in installing, maintaining, and repairing traffic control signals on state highways, the director, except as provided in division (B) of this section, shall proceed by contract let to the lowest competent and responsible bidder, after advertisement as provided in section 5525.01 of the Revised Code When a force account project assessment form is required, the estimate shall include costs for subcontracted work and any competitively bid component costs.

(B)(1) Where the work contemplated is the construction of a bridge or culvert, or the installation of a traffic control signal, estimated to cost not more than fifty thousand dollars, the director may proceed by employing labor, purchasing materials, and furnishing equipment.

~~(2) The~~ After complying with division (A) of this section, the director may ~~also~~ proceed without competitive bidding with maintenance or repair work by employing labor, purchasing materials, and furnishing equipment, ~~provided~~ if the total estimated cost of the completed operation, or series of connected operations, does not exceed ~~twenty-five~~ the following, as adjusted under division (B)(2) of this section:

(a) Thirty thousand dollars per centerline mile of highway, exclusive of structures and traffic control signals~~, or fifty~~;

(b) Sixty thousand dollars for any single ~~structure or~~ traffic control signal or any other single project.

~~(3)~~(2) On the first day of July of every odd-numbered year beginning in 2015, the director shall increase the amounts established in division (B)(1) of this section by an amount not to exceed the lesser of three per cent, or the percentage amount of any increase in the department of transportation's construction cost index as annualized and totaled for the prior two calendar years. The director shall publish the applicable amounts on the department's internet web site.

(C) The director may proceed by furnishing equipment, purchasing materials, and employing labor in the erection of temporary bridges or the making of temporary repairs to a highway or bridge rendered necessary by flood, landslide, or other extraordinary emergency. If the director determines inability to complete such emergency work by force account, the director may contract for any part of the work, with or without advertising for bids, as the director considers for the best interest of the department of transportation.

(D) When a project proceeds by force account under this section or section 5517.021 of the Revised Code, the department of transportation shall perform the work in compliance with any project requirements and specifications that would have applied if a contract for the work had been let by competitive bidding. The department shall retain in the project record all records documenting materials testing compliance, materials placement compliance, actual personnel and equipment hours usage, and all other documentation that would have been required if a contract for the work had been let by competitive bidding.

(E) The director shall proceed by competitive bidding to let work to the lowest competent and responsible bidder after advertisement as provided in section 5525.01 of the Revised Code in both of the following situations:

(1) When the scope of work exceeds the limits established in section 5517.021 of the Revised Code;

(2) When the estimated cost for a project, other than work described in section 5517.021 of the Revised Code, exceeds the amounts established in division (B) of this section, as adjusted.

Sec. 5517.021. (A)(1) The director of transportation may proceed without competitive bidding by employing labor, purchasing materials, and furnishing equipment to do any of the following work:

(a) Replace any single span bridge in its substantial entirety or widen any single span bridge, including necessary modifications to accommodate widening the existing substructure and wing walls. The director shall proceed under division (A)(1)(a) of this section only if the deck area of the new or widened bridge does not exceed seven hundred square feet as measured around the outside perimeter of the deck.

(b) Replace the bearings, beams, and deck of any bridge on that bridge's existing foundation if the deck area of the rehabilitated structure does not exceed eight hundred square feet;

(c) Construct or replace any single cell or multi-cell culvert whose total waterway opening does not exceed fifty-two square feet;

(d) Pave or patch an asphalt surface if the operation does not exceed one hundred twenty tons of asphalt per lane-mile of roadway length, except that the department shall not perform a continuous resurfacing operation under this section if the cost of the work exceeds the amount established in division (B)(1)(a) of section 5517.02 of the Revised Code, as adjusted.

(2) Work performed in accordance with division (A)(1) of this section may include approach roadway work, extending not more than one hundred fifty feet as measured from the back side of the bridge abutment wall or outside edge of the culvert, as applicable. The length of an approach guardrail shall be in accordance with department of transportation design requirements and shall not be included in the approach work size limitation.

(B) The requirements of section 117.16 of the Revised Code shall not apply to work described in division (A) of this section and the work shall be exempt from audit for force account purposes except to determine compliance with the applicable size or tonnage restrictions.

Sec. 5525.01. Before entering into a contract, the director of transportation shall advertise for bids for two consecutive weeks in one newspaper of general circulation published in the county in which the improvement or part thereof is located, but if there is no such newspaper then in one newspaper having general circulation in an adjacent county. In the alternative, the director may advertise for bids as provided in section 7.16 of the Revised Code. The director may advertise for bids in such other publications as the director considers advisable. Such notices shall state that plans and specifications for the improvement are on file in the office of the director and the district deputy director of the district in which the improvement or part thereof is located and the time within which bids therefor will be received.

Each bidder shall be required to file with the bidder's bid a bid guaranty in the form of a certified check, a cashier's check, or an electronic funds transfer to the treasurer of state that is evidenced by a receipt or by a certification to the director of transportation in a form prescribed by the director that an electronic funds transfer has been made to the treasurer of state, for an amount equal to five per cent of the bidder's bid, but in no event more than fifty thousand dollars, or a bid bond for ten per cent of the bidder's bid, payable to the director, which check, transferred sum, or bond shall be forthwith returned to the bidder in case the contract is awarded to another bidder, or, in case of a successful bidder, when the bidder has entered into a contract and furnished the bonds required by section 5525.16 of the Revised Code. In the event the contract is awarded to a bidder, and the bidder fails or refuses to furnish the bonds as required by section 5525.16 of the Revised Code, the check, transferred sum, or bid bond filed with the bidder's bid shall be forfeited as liquidated damages. No bidder shall be required either to file a signed contract with the bidder's bid, to enter into a contract, or to furnish the contract performance bond and the payment bond required by that section until the bids have been opened and the bidder has been notified by the director that the bidder is awarded the contract.

The director shall permit a bidder to withdraw the bidder's bid from consideration, without forfeiture of the check, transferred sum, or bid bond filed with the bid, providing a written request together with a sworn statement of the grounds for such withdrawal is delivered within forty-eight hours after the time established for the receipt of bids, and if the price bid was substantially lower than the other bids, providing the bid was submitted in good faith, and the reason for the price bid being substantially lower was a clerical mistake evident on the face of the bid, as opposed to a judgment mistake, and was actually due to an unintentional and substantial arithmetic error or an unintentional omission of a substantial quantity of work, labor, or material made directly in the compilation of the bid. In the event the director decides the conditions for withdrawal have not been met, the director may award the contract to such bidder. If such bidder does not then enter into a contract and furnish the contract bond as required by law, the director may declare forfeited the check, transferred sum, or bid bond as liquidated damages and award the contract to the next higher bidder or reject the remaining bids and readvertise the project for bids. Such bidder ~~may~~, within thirty days, may appeal the decision of the director to the court of common pleas of Franklin county and the court may affirm or reverse the decision of the director and may order the director to refund the amount of the forfeiture. At the hearing before the common pleas court evidence may be introduced for and against the decision of the director. The decision of the common pleas court may be appealed as in other cases.

There is hereby created the ODOT letting fund, which shall be in the custody of the treasurer of state but shall not be part of the state treasury. All certified checks and cashiers' checks received with bidders' bids, and all sums transferred to the treasurer of state by electronic funds transfer in connection with bidders' bids, under this section shall be credited to the fund. All such bid guaranties shall be held in the fund until a determination is made as to the final disposition of the money. If the department determines that any such bid guaranty is no longer required to be held, the amount of the bid guaranty shall be returned to the appropriate bidder. If the department determines that a bid guaranty under this section shall be forfeited, the amount of the bid guaranty shall be transferred or, in the case of money paid on a forfeited bond, deposited into the state treasury, to the credit of the highway operating fund. Any investment earnings of the ODOT letting fund shall be distributed as the treasurer of state considers appropriate.

The director shall require all bidders to furnish the director, upon such forms as the director may prescribe, detailed information with respect to all pending work of the bidder, whether with the department of transportation or otherwise, together with such other information as the director considers necessary.

In the event a bidder fails to submit anything required to be submitted with the bid and then fails or refuses to so submit such at the request of the director, the failure or refusal constitutes grounds for the director, in the director's discretion, to declare as forfeited the bid guaranty submitted with the bid.

The director may reject any or all bids. Except in regard to contracts for environmental remediation and specialty work for which there are no classes of work set out in the rules adopted by the director, if the director awards the contract, the director shall award it to the lowest competent and responsible bidder as defined by rules adopted by the director under section 5525.05 of the Revised Code, who is qualified to bid under sections 5525.02 to 5525.09 of the Revised Code. In regard to contracts for environmental remediation and specialty work for which there are no classes of work set out in the rules adopted by the director, the director shall competitively bid the projects in accordance with this chapter and shall award the contracts to the lowest and best bidder.

The award for all projects competitively let by the director under this section shall be made within ten days after the date on which the bids are opened, and the successful bidder shall enter into a contract and furnish a contract performance bond and a payment bond, as provided for in section 5525.16 of the Revised Code, within ten days after the bidder is notified that the bidder has been awarded the contract.

The director may insert in any contract awarded under this chapter a clause providing for value engineering change proposals, under which a contractor who has been awarded a contract may propose a change in the plans and specifications of the project that saves the department time or money on the project without impairing any of the essential functions and characteristics of the project such as service life, reliability, economy of operation, ease of maintenance, safety, and necessary standardized features. If the director adopts the value engineering proposal, the savings from the proposal shall be divided between the department and the contractor according to guidelines established by the director, provided that the contractor shall receive at least fifty per cent of the savings from the proposal. The adoption of a value engineering proposal does not invalidate the award of the contract or require the director to rebid the project.

Sec. 5525.16. (A) Before entering into a contract, the director of transportation shall require a contract performance bond and a payment bond with sufficient sureties, as follows:

(1) A contract performance bond in an amount equal to one hundred per cent of the ~~estimated cost of the work~~ contract amount, conditioned, among other things, that the contractor will perform the work upon the terms proposed, within the time prescribed, and in accordance with the plans and specifications, will indemnify the state against any damage that may result from any failure of the contractor to so perform, and, further, in case of a grade separation will indemnify any railroad company involved against any damage that may result by reason of the negligence of the contractor in making the improvement.

(2) A payment bond in an amount equal to one hundred per cent of the ~~estimated cost of the work~~ contract amount, conditioned for the payment by the contractor and all subcontractors for labor or work performed or materials furnished in connection with the work, improvement, or project involved.

(B) In no case is the state liable for damages sustained in the construction of any work, improvement, or project under this chapter and Chapters 5501., 5503., 5511., 5513., 5515., 5516., 5517., 5519., 5521., 5523., 5527., 5528., 5529., 5531., 5533., and 5535. of the Revised Code.

This section does not require the director to take bonds as described in division (A) of this section in connection with any force account work, but the director may require those bonds in connection with force account work.

If any bonds taken under this section are executed by a surety company, the director may not approve such bonds unless there is attached a certificate of the superintendent of insurance that the company is authorized to transact business in this state, and a copy of the power of attorney of the agent of the company. The superintendent, upon request, shall issue to any licensed agent of such company the certificate without charge.

The bonds required to be taken under this section shall be executed by the same surety, approved by the director as to sufficiency of the sureties, and be in the form prescribed by the attorney general.

(C) Any person to whom any money is due for labor or work performed or materials furnished in connection with a work, improvement, or project, at any time after performing the labor or furnishing the materials but not later than ninety days after the acceptance of the work, improvement, or project by the director, may furnish to the sureties on the payment bond a statement of the amount due the person. If the indebtedness is not paid in full at the expiration of sixty days after the statement is furnished, the person may commence an action in the person's own name upon the bond as provided in sections 2307.06 and 2307.07 of the Revised Code.

An action shall not be commenced against the sureties on a payment bond until sixty days after the furnishing of the statement described in this section or, notwithstanding section 2305.12 of the Revised Code, later than one year after the date of the acceptance of the work, improvement, or project.

(D) As used in this section, "improvement," "subcontractor," "material supplier," and "materials" have the same meanings as in section 1311.01 of the Revised Code, and "contractor" has the same meaning as "original contractor" as defined in that section.

(A) "Firm" means any person or limited liability company that is legally engaged in rendering professional services.

(B) "Federal Water Pollution Control Act" has the same meaning as in section 6111.01 of the Revised Code.

(1) The practice of engineering as defined in section 4733.01 of the Revised Code;

(2) The practice of surveying as defined in section 4733.01 of the Revised Code;

(3) The practice of landscape architecture as defined in section 4703.30 of the Revised Code;

(4) The evaluation of environmental impacts performed in accordance with the "National Environmental Policy Act of 1969," 83 Stat. 852, 42 U.S.C. 4321, as amended, the Federal Water Pollution Control Act, or any other applicable law or regulation;

(5) Right-of-way acquisition services such as right-of-way project management, title searches, property valuations, appraisals, appraisal reviews, negotiations, relocation services, appropriation activities, real estate closings, and property management activities that are performed for the purpose of properly acquiring private and public property rights in conjunction with public highway projects and that conform to Chapters 163. and 5501. of the Revised Code; rules 5501:2-5-01 to 5501:2-5-06 of the Ohio Administrative Code; the "Uniform Relocation Assistance and Real Property Acquisition Policies Act of 1970," 84 Stat. 1894, 42 U.S.C. 4601, et seq., as amended; the "Surface Transportation and Uniform Relocation Assistance Act of 1987," Public Law No. 100-17, 101 Stat. 132; applicable provisions of Titles 23 and 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations; and any applicable policies and procedures established by the department of transportation;

(6) Services related to the department's administration of construction contract claims, including, but not limited to, the analysis of claims, assistance in negotiations, and assistance during litigation;

(8) Any other professional service that is determined by the director of transportation or any other designated officials of the department to be necessary for the provision of transportation services or to provide assistance to the department in furtherance of its statutory duties and powers.

"Professional services" does not mean the practice of architecture as regulated under Chapter 4703. of the Revised Code, except landscape architecture and architectural services related to bridges as provided in divisions (C)(3) and (7) of this section.

(1) The competence of a firm to perform required professional services as indicated by the technical training, education, and experience of the firm's personnel, in particular the technical training, education, and experience of the firm's personnel assigned to perform professional services for the department;

(2) The ability of a firm in terms of its workload and the availability of qualified personnel, equipment, and facilities to perform the required professional services competently and expeditiously;

(3) The past performance of a firm as indicated by evaluations of previous clients of the firm with respect to such factors as control of costs, quality of work, and meeting of deadlines;

Sec. 5533.121. In addition to any other name prescribed in the Revised Code or otherwise, that portion of the road known as United States highway number twenty-two, within the municipal corporation of Zanesville only, in Muskingum county, shall be known as the "U.S. Army Staff Sergeant Lester O. "Buddy" Kinney II Memorial Highway."

The director of transportation may erect suitable markers along the highway indicating its name.

Sec. 5533.31. The road known as interstate route eighty, extending across Ohio from the Pennsylvania border in Trumbull county to the Indiana border in Williams county, shall be known as the "Christopher Columbus highway."

The director of transportation may erect suitable markers upon the portions of such highway under ~~his~~ the director's jurisdiction indicating its name, and the Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission may erect suitable markers on the portions of such highway under its jurisdiction indicating its name.

(A) "Commission" means the Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission created by section 5537.02 of the Revised Code or, if that commission is abolished, the board, body, officer, or commission succeeding to the principal functions thereof or to which the powers given by this chapter to the commission are given by law.

(B) "~~Project" or "turnpike~~ Turnpike project" means any express or limited access highway, super highway, or motorway constructed, operated, or improved, under the jurisdiction of the commission and pursuant to this chapter, at a location or locations reviewed by the turnpike legislative review committee and approved by the governor, including all bridges, tunnels, overpasses, underpasses, interchanges, entrance plazas, approaches, those portions of connecting public roads that serve interchanges and are determined by the commission and the director of transportation to be necessary for the safe merging of traffic between the turnpike project and those public roads, toll booths, service facilities, and administration, storage, and other buildings, property, and facilities that the commission considers necessary for the operation or policing of the turnpike project, together with all property and rights which may be acquired by the commission for the construction, maintenance, or operation of the turnpike project, and includes any sections or extensions of a turnpike project designated by the commission as such for the particular purpose. Each turnpike project shall be separately designated, by name or number, and may be constructed, improved, or extended in such sections as the commission may from time to time determine. Construction includes the improvement and renovation of a previously constructed turnpike project, including additional interchanges, whether or not the turnpike project was initially constructed by the commission.

(C) "Infrastructure project" means any public express or limited access highway, super highway, or motorway, including all bridges, tunnels, overpasses, underpasses, interchanges, entrance plazas, approaches, and those portions of connecting public roads that serve interchanges, that is constructed or improved, in whole or in part, with infrastructure funding approved pursuant to criteria established under section 5537.18 of the Revised Code.

(D) "Cost," as applied to construction of a turnpike project or an infrastructure project, includes the cost of construction, including bridges over or under existing highways and railroads, acquisition of all property acquired either by the commission or by the owner of the infrastructure project for the construction, demolishing or removing any buildings or structures on land so acquired, including the cost of acquiring any lands to which the buildings or structures may be moved, site clearance, improvement, and preparation, diverting public roads, interchanges with public roads, access roads to private property, including the cost of land or easements therefor, all machinery, furnishings, and equipment, communications facilities, financing expenses, interest prior to and during construction and for one year after completion of construction, traffic estimates, indemnity and surety bonds and premiums on insurance, title work and title commitments, insurance, and guarantees, engineering, feasibility studies, and legal expenses, plans, specifications, surveys, estimates of cost and revenues, other expenses necessary or incident to determining the feasibility or practicability of constructing or operating a turnpike project or an infrastructure project, administrative expenses, and any other expense that may be necessary or incident to the construction of the turnpike project or an infrastructure project, the financing of the construction, and the placing of the turnpike project or an infrastructure project in operation. Any obligation or expense incurred by the department of transportation with the approval of the commission for surveys, borings, preparation of plans and specifications, and other engineering services in connection with the construction of a turnpike project or an infrastructure project, or by the federal government with the approval of the commission for any public road projects which must be reimbursed as a condition to the exercise of any of the powers of the commission under this chapter, shall be regarded as a part of the cost of the turnpike project or an infrastructure project and shall be reimbursed to the state or the federal government, as the case may be, from revenues, state taxes, or the proceeds of bonds as authorized by this chapter.

~~(D)~~(E) "Owner" includes all persons having any title or interest in any property authorized to be acquired by the commission for turnpike projects under this chapter, or the public entity for whom an infrastructure project is funded, in whole or in part, by the commission under this chapter.

~~(E)~~(F) "Revenues" means all tolls, service revenues, investment income on special funds, rentals, gifts, grants, and all other moneys coming into the possession of or under the control of the commission by virtue of this chapter, except the proceeds from the sale of bonds. "Revenues" does not include state taxes.

~~(F)~~(G) "Public roads" means all public highways, roads, and streets in the state, whether maintained by a state agency or any other governmental agency.

~~(G)~~(H) "Public utility facilities" means tracks, pipes, mains, conduits, cables, wires, towers, poles, and other equipment and appliances of any public utility.

~~(H)~~(I) "Financing expenses" means all costs and expenses relating to the authorization, issuance, sale, delivery, authentication, deposit, custody, clearing, registration, transfer, exchange, fractionalization, replacement, payment, and servicing of bonds including, without limitation, costs and expenses for or relating to publication and printing, postage, delivery, preliminary and final official statements, offering circulars, and informational statements, travel and transportation, underwriters, placement agents, investment bankers, paying agents, registrars, authenticating agents, remarketing agents, custodians, clearing agencies or corporations, securities depositories, financial advisory services, certifications, audits, federal or state regulatory agencies, accounting and computation services, legal services and obtaining approving legal opinions and other legal opinions, credit ratings, redemption premiums, and credit enhancement facilities.

~~(I)~~(J) "Bond proceedings" means the resolutions, trust agreements, certifications, notices, sale proceedings, leases, lease-purchase agreements, assignments, credit enhancement facility agreements, and other agreements, instruments, and documents, as amended and supplemented, or any one or more or any combination thereof, authorizing, or authorizing or providing for the terms and conditions applicable to, or providing for the security or sale or award or liquidity of, bonds, and includes the provisions set forth or incorporated in those bonds and bond proceedings.

~~(J)~~(K) "Bond service charges" means principal, including any mandatory sinking fund or mandatory redemption requirements for the retirement of bonds, and interest and any redemption premium payable on bonds, as those payments come due and are payable to the bondholder or to a person making payment under a credit enhancement facility of those bond service charges to a bondholder.

~~(K)~~(L) "Bond service fund" means the applicable fund created by the bond proceedings for and pledged to the payment of bond service charges on bonds provided for by those proceedings, including all moneys and investments, and earnings from investments, credited and to be credited to that fund as provided in the bond proceedings.

~~(L)~~(M) "Bonds" means bonds, notes, including notes anticipating bonds or other notes, commercial paper, certificates of participation, or other evidences of obligation, including any interest coupons pertaining thereto, issued by the commission pursuant to this chapter.

~~(M)~~(N) "Infrastructure fund" means the applicable fund or funds created by the bond proceedings, which shall be used to pay or defray the cost of infrastructure projects recommended by the director of transportation and evaluated and approved by the commission.

(O) "Net revenues" means revenues lawfully available to pay both current operating expenses of the commission and bond service charges in any fiscal year or other specified period, less current operating expenses of the commission and any amount necessary to maintain a working capital reserve for that period.

~~(N)~~(P) "Pledged revenues" means net revenues, moneys and investments, and earnings on those investments, in the applicable bond service fund and any other special funds, and the proceeds of any bonds issued for the purpose of refunding prior bonds, all as lawfully available and by resolution of the commission committed for application as pledged revenues to the payment of bond service charges on particular issues of bonds.

~~(O)~~(Q) "Service facilities" means service stations, restaurants, and other facilities for food service, roadside parks and rest areas, parking, camping, tenting, rest, and sleeping facilities, hotels or motels, and all similar and other facilities providing services to the traveling public in connection with the use of a turnpike project and owned, leased, licensed, or operated by the commission.

~~(P)~~(R) "Service revenues" means those revenues of the commission derived from its ownership, leasing, licensing, or operation of service facilities.

~~(Q)~~(S) "Special funds" means the applicable bond service fund and any accounts and subaccounts in that fund, any other funds or accounts permitted by and established under, and identified as a "special fund" or "special account" in, the bond proceedings, including any special fund or account established for purposes of rebate or other requirements under federal income tax laws.

~~(R)~~(T) "State agencies" means the state, officers of the state, and boards, departments, branches, divisions, or other units or agencies of the state.

~~(S)~~(U) "State taxes" means receipts of the commission from the proceeds of state taxes or excises levied and collected, or appropriated by the general assembly to the commission, for the purposes and functions of the commission. State taxes do not include tolls, or investment earnings on state taxes except on those state taxes referred to in Section 5a of Article XII, Ohio Constitution.

~~(T)~~(V) "Tolls" means tolls, special fees or permit fees, or other charges by the commission to the owners, lessors, lessees, or operators of motor vehicles for the operation of or the right to operate those vehicles on a turnpike project.

~~(U)~~(W) "Credit enhancement facilities" means letters of credit, lines of credit, standby, contingent, or firm securities purchase agreements, insurance, or surety arrangements, guarantees, and other arrangements that provide for direct or contingent payment of bond service charges, for security or additional security in the event of nonpayment or default in respect of bonds, or for making payment of bond service charges and at the option and on demand of bondholders or at the option of the commission or upon certain conditions occurring under put or similar arrangements, or for otherwise supporting the credit or liquidity of the bonds, and includes credit, reimbursement, marketing, remarketing, indexing, carrying, interest rate hedge, and subrogation agreements, and other agreements and arrangements for payment and reimbursement of the person providing the credit enhancement facility and the security for that payment and reimbursement.

~~(V)~~(X) "Person" has the same meaning as in section 1.59 of the Revised Code and, unless the context otherwise provides, also includes any governmental agency and any combination of those persons.

~~(W)~~(Y) "Refund" means to fund and retire outstanding bonds, including advance refunding with or without payment or redemption prior to stated maturity.

~~(X)~~(Z) "Governmental agency" means any state agency, federal agency, political subdivision, or other local, interstate, or regional governmental agency, and any combination of those agencies.

~~(Y)~~(AA) "Property" has the same meaning as in section 1.59 of the Revised Code, and includes interests in property.

~~(Z)~~(BB) "Administrative agent," "agent," "commercial paper," "floating rate interest structure," "indexing agent," "interest rate hedge," "interest rate period," "put arrangement," and "remarketing agent" have the same meanings as in section 9.98 of the Revised Code.

~~(AA)~~(CC) "Outstanding," as applied to bonds, means outstanding in accordance with the terms of the bonds and the applicable bond proceedings.

~~(BB)~~(DD) "Ohio turnpike system" or "system" means all existing and future turnpike projects constructed, operated, and maintained under the jurisdiction of the commission.

(EE) "Ohio turnpike and infrastructure system" means turnpike projects and infrastructure projects funded by the commission existing on and after July 1, 2013, that facilitate access to, use of, and egress from the Ohio turnpike system, and also facilitate access to and from areas of population, commerce, and industry that are connected to the Ohio turnpike system.

Sec. 5537.02. (A) There is hereby created a commission to be known on and after July 1, 2013, as the "Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission." The commission is a body both corporate and politic, constituting an instrumentality of the state, and the exercise by it of the powers conferred by this chapter in the construction, operation, and maintenance of the Ohio turnpike system, and also in entering into agreements with the department of transportation to pay the cost or a portion of the costs of infrastructure projects, are and shall be held to be essential governmental functions of the state, but the commission shall not be immune from liability by reason thereof. Chapter 2744. of the Revised Code applies to the commission and the commission is a political subdivision of the state for purposes of that chapter. The commission is subject to all provisions of law generally applicable to state agencies which do not conflict with this chapter.

(a) ~~Four~~ Six members appointed by the governor with the advice and consent of the senate, no more than ~~two~~ three of whom shall be members of the same political party;

(b) The director of transportation, who shall be a voting member, and the director of budget and management, ~~and the director of development, each~~ both of whom shall ~~be a member~~ serve as ex officio members, without compensation;

(c) One member of the senate, appointed by the president of the senate, who shall represent either a district in which is located or through which passes a portion of a turnpike project that is part of the Ohio turnpike system or a district located in the vicinity of a turnpike project that is part of the Ohio turnpike system;

(d) One member of the house of representatives, appointed by the speaker of the house of representatives, who shall represent either a district in which is located or through which passes a portion of a turnpike project that is part of the Ohio turnpike system or a district located in the vicinity of a turnpike project that is part of the Ohio turnpike system.

(2) The members appointed by the governor shall be residents of the state, shall have been qualified electors therein for a period of at least five years next preceding their appointment~~, and~~. In making the appointments, the governor may appoint persons who reside in different geographic areas of the state, taking into consideration the various turnpike and infrastructure projects in the state. Members appointed to the commission prior to July 1, 2013, shall serve terms of eight years commencing on the first day of July and ending on the thirtieth day of June. Thereafter, members appointed by the governor shall serve terms of five years commencing on the first day of July and ending on the thirtieth day of June. Those members appointed by the president of the senate or the speaker of the house of representatives shall serve a term of the remainder of the general assembly during which the senator or representative is appointed. Each appointed member shall hold office from the date of appointment until the end of the term for which the member was appointed. If a commission member dies or resigns, or if a senator or representative who is a member of the commission ceases to be a senator or representative, or if an ex officio member ceases to hold the applicable office, the vacancy shall be filled in the same manner as provided in division (B)(1) of this section. Any member who fills a vacancy occurring prior to the end of the term for which the member's predecessor was appointed shall, if appointed by the governor, hold office for the remainder of such term or, if appointed by the president of the senate or the speaker of the house of representatives, shall hold office for the remainder of the term or for a shorter period of time as determined by the president or the speaker. Any member appointed by the governor shall continue in office subsequent to the expiration date of the member's term until the member's successor takes office, or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, whichever occurs first. A member of the commission is eligible for reappointment. Each member of the commission appointed by the governor, before entering upon the member's duties, shall take an oath as provided by Section 7 of Article XV, Ohio Constitution. The governor, the president of the senate, or the speaker of the house of representatives, may at any time remove their respective appointees to the commission for misfeasance, nonfeasance, or malfeasance in office.

(3)(a) A member of the commission who is appointed by the president of the senate or the speaker of the house of representatives shall not participate in any vote of the commission. Serving as an appointed member of the commission under divisions (B)(1)(c), (1)(d), or (2) of this section does not constitute grounds for resignation from the senate or the house of representatives under section 101.26 of the Revised Code.

(b) The director of budget and management ~~and the director of development~~ shall not participate in any vote of the commission.

(C) The voting members of the commission shall elect one of the ~~appointed~~ voting members as chairperson and another as vice-chairperson, and shall appoint a secretary-treasurer who need not be a member of the commission. ~~Three~~ Four of the voting members of the commission constitute a quorum, and the affirmative vote of ~~three~~ four voting members is necessary for any action taken by the commission. No vacancy in the membership of the commission impairs the rights of a quorum to exercise all the rights and perform all the duties of the commission.

(D) Each member of the commission appointed by the governor shall give a surety bond to the commission in the penal sum of twenty-five thousand dollars and the secretary-treasurer shall give such a bond in at least the penal sum of fifty thousand dollars. The commission may require any of its officers or employees to file surety bonds including a blanket bond as provided in section 3.06 of the Revised Code. Each such bond shall be in favor of the commission and shall be conditioned upon the faithful performance of the duties of the office, executed by a surety company authorized to transact business in this state, approved by the governor, and filed in the office of the secretary of state. The costs of the surety bonds shall be paid or reimbursed by the commission from revenues. Each member of the commission appointed by the governor shall receive an annual salary of five thousand dollars, payable in monthly installments. Each member shall be reimbursed for the member's actual expenses necessarily incurred in the performance of the member's duties. All costs and expenses incurred by the commission in carrying out this chapter shall be payable solely from revenues and state taxes, and no liability or obligation shall be incurred by the commission beyond the extent to which revenues have been provided for pursuant to this chapter.

Sec. 5537.03. In order to remove present and anticipated handicaps and potential hazards on the congested highways in this state, to facilitate vehicular traffic throughout the state, to finance infrastructure projects that improve and enhance mobility in Ohio, and also to promote the agricultural, ~~commercial,~~ recreational, tourism, and commercial, industrial, and economic development of the state, and to provide for the general welfare by the construction, improvement, and maintenance of modern express highways embodying safety devices, including without limitation center divisions, ample shoulder widths, longsight distances, multiple lanes in each direction, and grade separations at intersections with other public roads and railroads, the Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission~~, subject~~ may do the following:

(A) Subject to section 5537.26 of the Revised Code, ~~may~~ construct, maintain, repair, and operate a system of turnpike projects at locations that are reviewed by the turnpike legislative review committee and approved by the governor, and in accordance with alignment and design standards that are approved by the director of transportation, and issue revenue bonds of this state, payable solely from pledged revenues, to pay the cost of those projects. The turnpikes and turnpike projects authorized by this chapter are hereby or shall be made part of the Ohio turnpike system.

(B) Provide the infrastructure funds to pay the cost or a portion of the cost of infrastructure projects as recommended by the director of transportation pursuant to a determination made by the commission based on criteria set forth in rules adopted by the commission under section 5537.18 of the Revised Code. A determination by the commission to provide infrastructure funds for an infrastructure project shall be conclusive and incontestable.

Sec. 5537.04. (A) The Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission may do any of the following:

(1) Adopt bylaws for the regulation of its affairs and the conduct of its business;

(2) Adopt an official seal, which shall not be the great seal of the state and which need not be in compliance with section 5.10 of the Revised Code;

(3) Maintain a principal office and suboffices at such places within the state as it designates;

(4) ~~Sue~~ With respect to the Ohio turnpike system and turnpike projects, sue and be sued in its own name, plead and be impleaded, provided any actions against the commission shall be brought in the court of common pleas of the county in which the principal office of the commission is located, or in the court of common pleas of the county in which the cause of action arose if that county is located within this state, and all summonses, exceptions, and notices of every kind shall be served on the commission by leaving a copy thereof at its principal office with the secretary-treasurer or executive director of the commission;

(5) With respect to infrastructure projects only, sue and be sued in its own name, plead and be impleaded, provided any actions against the commission shall be brought in the court of common pleas of Franklin county, and all summonses, exceptions, and notices of every kind shall be served on the commission by leaving a copy thereof at its principal office with the secretary-treasurer or executive director of the commission.

(6) Construct, maintain, repair, police, and operate the turnpike system, and establish rules for the use of any turnpike project;

~~(6)~~(7) Issue revenue bonds of the state, payable solely from pledged revenues, as provided in this chapter, for the purpose of paying any part of the cost of constructing any one or more turnpike projects or infrastructure projects;

~~(7)~~(8) Fix, and revise from time to time, and charge and collect tolls by any method approved by the commission, including, but not limited to, manual methods or through electronic technology accepted within the tolling industry;

~~(8)~~(9) Acquire, hold, and dispose of property in the exercise of its powers and the performance of its duties under this chapter;

~~(9)~~(10) Designate the locations and establish, limit, and control such points of ingress to and egress from each turnpike project as are necessary or desirable in the judgment of the commission and of the director of transportation to ensure the proper operation and maintenance of that turnpike project, and prohibit entrance to such a turnpike project from any point not so designated;

~~(10)~~(11) Make and enter into all contracts and agreements necessary or incidental to the performance of its duties and the execution of its powers under this chapter, including participation in a multi-jurisdiction electronic toll collection agreement and collection or remittance of tolls, fees, or other charges to or from entities or agencies that participate in such an agreement; the commission also may enter into agreements with retail locations, including deputy registrars, to allow the general public to acquire electronic toll collection devices, commonly known as transponders, from the retail locations for such reasonable fees as are established by the commission;

~~(11)~~(12) Employ or retain or contract for the services of consulting engineers, superintendents, managers, and any other engineers, construction and accounting experts, financial advisers, trustees, marketing, remarketing, and administrative agents, attorneys, and other employees, independent contractors, or agents that are necessary in its judgment and fix their compensation, provided all such expenses shall be payable solely from the proceeds of bonds or from revenues of the Ohio turnpike system;

~~(12)~~(13) Receive and accept from any federal agency, subject to the approval of the governor, and from any other governmental agency grants for or in aid of the construction, reconstruction, repair, renovation, maintenance, or operation of any turnpike project, and receive and accept aid or contributions from any source or person of money, property, labor, or other things of value, to be held, used, and applied only for the purposes for which such grants and contributions are made;

~~(13)~~(14) Provide coverage for its employees under Chapters 4123. and 4141. of the Revised Code;

~~(14)~~(15) Fix and revise by rule, from time to time, such permit fees, processing fees, or administrative charges for the prepayment, deferred payment, or nonpayment of tolls and use of electronic tolling equipment or other commission property;

(16) Adopt rules for the issuance of citations either by a policing authority or through administrative means to individuals or corporations that evade the payment of tolls established for the use of any turnpike project;

(17) Approve funding and authorize agreements with the department of transportation for the funding of infrastructure projects recommended by the director of transportation pursuant to the criteria established by rule under section 5537.18 of the Revised Code.

(B) The commission may do all acts necessary or proper to carry out the powers expressly granted in this chapter.

Sec. 5537.05. (A) The Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission may construct grade separations at intersections of any turnpike project with public roads and railroads, and change and adjust the lines and grades of those roads and railroads, and of public utility facilities, which change and adjustment of lines and grades of those roads shall be subject to the approval of the governmental agency having jurisdiction over the road, so as to accommodate them to the design of the grade separation. The cost of the grade separation and any damage incurred in changing and adjusting the lines and grades of roads, railroads, and public utility facilities shall be ascertained and paid by the commission as a part of the cost of the turnpike project or from revenues or state taxes.

(1) If the commission finds it necessary to change the location of any portion of any public road, railroad, or public utility facility, it shall cause the same to be reconstructed at the location the governmental agency having jurisdiction over such road, railroad, or public utility facility considers most favorable. The construction shall be of substantially the same type and in as good condition as the original road, railroad, or public utility facility. The cost of the reconstruction, relocation, or removal and any damage incurred in changing the location shall be ascertained and paid by the commission as a part of the cost of the turnpike project or from revenues or state taxes.

(2) The commission may petition the board of county commissioners of the county in which is situated any public road or part thereof affected by the location therein of any turnpike project, for the vacation or relocation of the road or any part thereof, in the same manner and with the same force and effect as is given to the director of transportation pursuant to sections 5553.04 to 5553.11 of the Revised Code.

(B) The commission and its authorized agents and employees, after proper notice, may enter upon any lands, waters, and premises in the state for the purpose of making surveys, soundings, drillings, and examinations that are necessary or proper for the purposes of this chapter, and the entry shall not be deemed a trespass, nor shall an entry for those purposes be deemed an entry under any appropriation proceedings which may then be pending, provided that before entering upon the premises of any railroad notice shall be given to the superintendent of the railroad involved at least five days in advance of entry, and provided that no survey, sounding, drilling, and examination shall be made between the rails or so close to a railroad track as would render the track unusable. The commission shall make reimbursement for any actual damage resulting to such lands, waters, and premises and to private property located in, on, along, over, or under such lands, waters, and premises, as a result of such activities. The state, subject to the approval of the governor, hereby consents to the use of all lands owned by it, including lands lying under water, that are necessary or proper for the construction, maintenance, or operation of any turnpike project, provided adequate consideration is provided for the use.

(C) The commission may make reasonable provisions or rules for the installation, construction, maintenance, repair, renewal, relocation, and removal of public utility facilities in, on, along, over, or under any turnpike project. Whenever the commission determines that it is necessary that any public utility facilities located in, on, along, over, or under any turnpike project should be relocated in or removed from the turnpike project, the public utility owning or operating the facilities shall relocate or remove them in accordance with the order of the commission. Except as otherwise provided in any license or other agreement with the commission, the cost and expenses of such relocation or removal, including the cost of installing the facilities in a new location, the cost of any lands, or any rights or interests in lands, and any other rights, acquired to accomplish the relocation or removal, shall be ascertained and paid by the commission as part of the cost of the turnpike project or from revenues of the Ohio turnpike system. In case of any such relocation or removal of facilities, the public utility owning or operating them and its successors or assigns may maintain and operate the facilities, with the necessary appurtenances, in the new location, for as long a period, and upon the same terms, as it had the right to maintain and operate the facilities in their former location.

(D) The commission is subject to Chapters 1515., 6131., 6133., 6135., and 6137. of the Revised Code and shall pay any assessments levied under those chapters for an improvement or maintenance of an improvement on land under the control or ownership of the commission.

Sec. 5537.051. (A)(1) In any county that as of January 1, 2011, had closed one or more roads as a result of grade separation failure at intersections of a turnpike project with a county or township road, the Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission is responsible for the major maintenance and repair and replacement of failed grade separations. The governmental entity with jurisdiction over the county or township road is responsible for routine maintenance of such failed grade separations.

(2) This section does not apply to any grade separation at intersections of a turnpike project with a county or township road except as described in division (A)(1) of this section.

(3) Major maintenance and repair and replacement of aforementioned failed grade separations shall commence not later than July 1, 2011, and be completed before December 31, 2014.

(1) "Major maintenance and repair and replacement" relates to all elements constructed as part of or required for a grade separation, including bridges, pile, foundations, substructures, abutments, piers, superstructures, approach slabs, slopes, embankments, fences, and appurtenances.

(2) "Routine maintenance" includes, without limitation, clearing debris, sweeping, snow and ice removal, wearing surface improvements, marking for traffic control, box culverts, drainage facilities including headwalls and underdrains, inlets, catch basins and grates, guardrails, minor and emergency repairs to railing and appurtenances, and emergency patching.

Sec. 5537.06. (A) The Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission may acquire by purchase, lease, lease-purchase, lease with option to purchase, appropriation, or otherwise and in such manner and for such consideration as it considers proper, any public or private property necessary, convenient, or proper for the construction, maintenance, or efficient operation of the Ohio turnpike system. The commission may pledge net revenues, to the extent permitted by this chapter with respect to bonds, to secure payments to be made by the commission under any such lease, lease-purchase agreement, or lease with option to purchase. Title to personal property, and interests less than a fee in real property, shall be held in the name of the commission. Title to real property held in fee shall be held in the name of the state for the use of the commission. In any proceedings for appropriation under this section, the procedure to be followed shall be in accordance with the procedure provided in sections 163.01 to 163.22 of the Revised Code, including division (B) of section 163.06 of the Revised Code notwithstanding the limitation in that division of its applicability to roads open to the public without charge. Except as otherwise agreed upon by the owner, full compensation shall be paid for public property so taken.

(B) This section does not authorize the commission to take or disturb property or facilities belonging to any public utility or to a common carrier engaged in interstate commerce, which property or facilities are required for the proper and convenient operation of the public utility or common carrier, unless provision is made for the restoration, relocation, replication, or duplication of the property or facilities elsewhere at the sole cost of the commission.

(C) Disposition of real property shall be by the commission in the manner and for the consideration it determines if to a state agency or other governmental agency, and otherwise in the manner provided in section 5501.45 of the Revised Code for the disposition of property by the director of transportation. Disposition of personal property shall be in the manner and for the consideration the commission determines.

(D) Any instrument by which real property is acquired pursuant to this section shall identify the agency of the state that has the use and benefit of the real property as specified in section 5301.012 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 5537.07. (A) When the cost to the Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission under any contract with a person other than a governmental agency involves an expenditure of more than fifty thousand dollars, the commission shall make a written contract with the lowest responsive and responsible bidder in accordance with section 9.312 of the Revised Code after advertisement for not less than two consecutive weeks in a newspaper of general circulation in Franklin county, and in such other publications as the commission determines, which notice shall state the general character of the work and the general character of the materials to be furnished, the place where plans and specifications therefor may be examined, and the time and place of receiving bids. The commission may require that the cost estimate for the construction, demolition, alteration, repair, improvement, renovation, or reconstruction of roadways and bridges for which the commission is required to receive bids be kept confidential and remain confidential until after all bids for the public improvement have been received or the deadline for receiving bids has passed. Thereafter, and before opening the bids submitted for the roadways and bridges, the commission shall make the cost estimate public knowledge by reading the cost estimate in a public place. The commission may reject any and all bids. The requirements of this division do not apply to contracts for the acquisition of real property or compensation for professional or other personal services.

(B) Each bid for a contract for construction, demolition, alteration, repair, improvement, renovation, or reconstruction shall contain the full name of every person interested in it and shall meet the requirements of section 153.54 of the Revised Code.

(C) Other than for a contract referred to in division (B) of this section, each bid for a contract that involves an expenditure in excess of one hundred fifty thousand dollars or any contract with a service facility operator shall contain the full name of every person interested in it and shall be accompanied by a sufficient bond or certified check on a solvent bank that if the bid is accepted a contract will be entered into and the performance of its proposal secured.

(D) Other than a contract referred to in division (B) of this section, a bond with good and sufficient surety, in a form as prescribed and approved by the commission, shall be required of every contractor awarded a contract that involves an expenditure in excess of one hundred fifty thousand dollars or any contract with a service facility operator. The bond shall be in an amount equal to at least fifty per cent of the contract price and shall be conditioned upon the faithful performance of the contract.

(E) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this section, the commission may establish a program to expedite special turnpike projects by combining the design and construction elements of any public improvement project into a single contract. The commission shall prepare and distribute a scope of work document upon which the bidders shall base their bids. At a minimum, bidders shall meet the requirements of section 4733.161 of the Revised Code. Except in regard to those requirements relating to providing plans, the commission shall award contracts following the requirements set forth in divisions (A), (B), (C), and (D) of this section.

Sec. 5537.08. (A) The Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission may provide by resolution for the issuance, at one time or from time to time, of revenue bonds of the state for the purpose of paying all or any part of the cost of any one or more turnpike projects or infrastructure projects. The bond service charges shall be payable solely from pledged revenues pledged for such payment pursuant to the applicable bond proceedings. The bonds of each issue shall be dated, shall bear interest at a rate or rates or at variable rates, and shall mature or be payable at such time or times, with a final maturity not to exceed forty years from their date or dates, all as determined by the commission in the bond proceedings. The commission shall determine the form of the bonds, including any interest coupons to be attached thereto, and shall fix the denomination or denominations of the bonds and the place or places of payment of bond service charges.

(B) The bonds shall be signed by the chairperson or vice-chairperson of the commission or by the facsimile signature of that officer, the official seal of the commission or a facsimile thereof shall be affixed thereto or printed thereon and attested by the secretary-treasurer of the commission, which may be by facsimile signature, and any coupons attached thereto shall bear the facsimile signature of the chairperson or vice-chairperson of the commission. In case any officer whose signature, or a facsimile of whose signature, appears on any bonds or coupons ceases to be such officer before delivery of bonds, such signature or facsimile shall nevertheless be valid and sufficient for all purposes the same as if the officer had remained in office until such delivery.

(C) Subject to the bond proceedings and provisions for registration, the bonds shall have all the qualities and incidents of negotiable instruments under Title XIII of the Revised Code. The bonds may be issued in such form or forms as the commission determines, including without limitation coupon, book entry, and fully registered form, and provision may be made for the registration of any coupon bonds as to principal alone and also as to both principal and interest, and for the exchange of bonds between forms. The commission may sell such bonds by competitive bid on the best bid after advertisement or request for bids or by private sale in the manner, and for the price, it determines to be for the best interest of the state. ~~The determination of the commission as to the manner of sale, by competitive bid or by private sale, shall be approved by the controlling board.~~

(D) The proceeds of the bonds of each issue shall be used solely for the payment of the costs of the turnpike project or projects for which such bonds were issued, ~~and~~ or for the payment of the costs of the infrastructure project or projects as approved by the commission under section 5537.18 of the Revised Code. The proceeds shall be disbursed in such manner and under such restrictions as the commission provides in the applicable bond proceedings.

(E) Prior to the preparation of definitive bonds, the commission may, under like restrictions, issue interim receipts or temporary bonds or bond anticipation notes, with or without coupons, exchangeable for definitive bonds when such bonds have been executed and are available for delivery. The commission may provide for the replacement of any mutilated, stolen, destroyed, or lost bonds. Bonds may be issued by the commission under this chapter without obtaining the consent of any state agency, and without any other proceedings or the happening of any other conditions or things than those proceedings, conditions, or things that are specifically required by this chapter or those proceedings.

(G) The bond proceedings shall provide, subject to the provisions of any other applicable bond proceedings, for the pledge to the payment of bond service charges and of any costs of or relating to credit enhancement facilities of all, or such part as the commission may determine, of the pledged revenues and the applicable special fund or funds, which pledges may be made to secure the bonds on a parity with bonds theretofore or thereafter issued if and to the extent provided in the bond proceedings. Every pledge, and every covenant and agreement with respect thereto, made in the bond proceedings may in the bond proceedings be extended to the benefit of the owners and holders of bonds and to any trustee and any person providing a credit enhancement facility for those bonds, for the further security for the payment of the bond service charges and credit enhancement facility costs.

(1) The redemption of bonds prior to maturity at the option of the commission or of the bondholders or upon the occurrence of certain stated conditions, and at such price or prices and under such terms and conditions as are provided in the bond proceedings;

(4) The terms of any trust agreement securing the bonds or under which the same may be issued;

(5) Any or every provision of the bond proceedings being binding upon the commission and state agencies, or other person as may from time to time have the authority under law to take such actions as may be necessary to perform all or any part of the duty required by such provision;

(7) Any other or additional agreements with the holders of the bonds, or the trustee therefor, relating to the bonds or the security for the bonds, including agreements for credit enhancement facilities.

(I) Any holder of bonds or a trustee under the bond proceedings, except to the extent that the holder's or trustee's rights are restricted by the bond proceedings, may by any suitable form of legal proceedings, protect and enforce any rights under the laws of this state or granted by the bond proceedings. Those rights include the right to compel the performance of all duties of the commission and state agencies required by this chapter or the bond proceedings; to enjoin unlawful activities; and in the event of default with respect to the payment of any bond service charges on any bonds or in the performance of any covenant or agreement on the part of the commission contained in the bond proceedings, to apply to a court having jurisdiction of the cause to appoint a receiver to receive and administer the revenues and the pledged revenues which are pledged to the payment of the bond service charges on such bonds or which are the subject of the covenant or agreement, with full power to pay, and to provide for payment of, bond service charges on such bonds, and with such powers, subject to the direction of the court, as are accorded receivers in general equity cases, excluding any power to pledge additional revenues or receipts or other income, funds, or moneys of the commission or state agencies to the payment of such bond service charges and excluding the power to take possession of, mortgage, or cause the sale or otherwise dispose of any turnpike project or other property of the commission.

(J) Each duty of the commission and the commission's officers and employees, undertaken pursuant to the bond proceedings, is hereby established as a duty of the commission, and of each such officer, member, or employee having authority to perform the duty, specifically enjoined by law resulting from an office, trust, or station within the meaning of section 2731.01 of the Revised Code.

(K) The commission's officers or employees are not liable in their personal capacities on any bonds issued by the commission or any agreements of or with the commission relating to those bonds.

(L) The bonds are lawful investments for banks, savings and loan associations, credit union share guaranty corporations, trust companies, trustees, fiduciaries, insurance companies, including domestic for life and domestic not for life, trustees or other officers having charge of sinking and bond retirement or other funds of the state or its political subdivisions and taxing districts, the commissioners of the sinking fund of the state, the administrator of workers' compensation, the state teachers retirement system, the public employees retirement system, the school employees retirement system, and the Ohio police and fire pension fund, notwithstanding any other provisions of the Revised Code or rules adopted pursuant thereto by any state agency with respect to investments by them, and are also acceptable as security for the repayment of the deposit of public moneys.

(M) Provision may be made in the applicable bond proceedings for the establishment of separate accounts in the bond service fund and for the application of such accounts only to the specified bond service charges pertinent to such accounts and bond service fund, and for other accounts therein within the general purposes of such fund.

(N) The commission may pledge all, or such portion as it determines, of the pledged revenues to the payment of bond service charges, and for the establishment and maintenance of any reserves and special funds, as provided in the bond proceedings, and make other provisions therein with respect to pledged revenues, revenues, and net revenues as authorized by this chapter, which provisions are controlling notwithstanding any other provisions of law pertaining thereto.

Sec. 5537.09. The Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission may provide by resolution for the issuance of revenue bonds of the state, payable solely from pledged revenues, for the purpose of refunding any bonds then outstanding, including the payment of related financing expenses and, if considered advisable by the commission, for the additional purpose of paying costs of improvements, extensions, renovations, or enlargements of any turnpike project or any infrastructure project. The issuance of refunding bonds, the maturities and other details thereof, the rights of the holders thereof, and the rights, duties, and obligations of the commission in respect to such bonds shall be governed by the provisions of this chapter insofar as they are applicable and by the applicable bond proceedings.

Sec. 5537.11. (A) The bonds do not constitute a debt, or a pledge of the faith and credit, of the state or of any political subdivision of the state. Bond service charges on outstanding bonds are payable solely from the pledged revenues pledged for their payment as authorized by this chapter and as provided in the bond proceedings. All turnpike and infrastructure revenue bonds shall contain on their face a statement to that effect.

(B) All expenses incurred in carrying out this chapter shall be payable solely from revenues provided under this chapter and from state taxes. This chapter does not authorize the Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission to incur indebtedness or liability on behalf of or payable by the state or any political subdivision of the state.

Sec. 5537.12. (A) In the discretion of the Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission any bonds may be secured by a trust agreement between the commission and a corporate trustee, which may be any trust company or bank having the powers of a trust company within or without the state but authorized to exercise trust powers within this state.

(B) Any trust agreement may pledge or assign the revenues to be received, but shall not convey or mortgage any turnpike project or infrastructure project, any part of a turnpike project or infrastructure project, or any part of the Ohio turnpike system or the Ohio turnpike and infrastructure system. Any such trust agreement or other bond proceedings may contain provisions for protecting and enforcing the rights and remedies of the bondholders that are reasonable and proper and not in violation of law, including covenants setting forth the duties of the commission in relation to the acquisition of property, and the construction, maintenance, repair, operation, and insurance of the turnpike project or projects in connection with which the bonds are authorized, the rates of toll to be charged, and the custody, safeguarding, and application of all moneys, and provisions for the employment or retention of the services of consulting engineers in connection with the construction, maintenance, or operation of the turnpike project or projects. Any bank or trust company incorporated under the laws of this state which may act as depository of the proceeds of bonds or of revenues may furnish such indemnifying bonds or may pledge such securities as are required by the commission. Any such trust agreement may set forth the rights and remedies of the bondholders and of the trustee, may restrict the individual right of action by bondholders as is customary in revenue bond trust agreements of public bodies, and may contain other provisions that the commission considers reasonable and proper for the security of the bondholders. All expenses incurred in entering into or carrying out the provisions of such a trust agreement may be treated as a part of the cost, or of the cost of the operation, of the turnpike project or projects.

Sec. 5537.13. (A) Subject to division (C)(1) of this section and section 5537.26 of the Revised Code, the Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission may fix, revise, charge, and collect tolls for each turnpike project, and contract in the manner provided by this section with any person desiring the use of any part thereof, including the right-of-way adjoining the paved portion, for placing thereon telephone, electric light, or power lines, service facilities, or for any other purpose, and fix the terms, conditions, rents, and rates of charge for such use, provided that no toll, charge, or rental may be made by the commission for placing in, on, along, over, or under the turnpike project, equipment or public utility facilities that are necessary to serve service facilities or to interconnect any public utility facilities.

(B) Contracts for the operation of service facilities shall be made in writing. Such contracts, except contracts with state agencies or other governmental agencies, shall be made with the bidder whose bid is determined by the commission to be the best bid received, after advertisement for two consecutive weeks in a newspaper of general circulation in Franklin county, and in other publications that the commission determines. The notice shall state the general character of the service facilities operation proposed, the place where plans and specifications may be examined, and the time and place of receiving bids. Bids shall contain the full name of each person interested in them, and shall be in such form as the commission requires. The commission may reject any and all bids. All contracts for service facilities shall be preserved in the principal office of the commission.

(C) ~~Tolls~~ (1) Except as necessary to comply with covenants in bond proceedings in existence before July 1, 2013, for calendar years 2013 through 2023, the commission shall not increase the toll rates for any class of passenger vehicle as fixed on the effective date of this amendment, when both of the following apply:

(a) The tolls are collected and remitted in accordance with a multi-jurisdiction electronic toll collection agreement; and

(2) Subject to division (C)(1) of this section, tolls shall be so fixed and adjusted as to provide funds at least sufficient with other revenues of the Ohio turnpike system, if any, to pay:

~~(1)~~(a) The cost of maintaining, improving, repairing, constructing, and operating the Ohio turnpike system and its different parts and sections, and to create and maintain any reserves for those purposes;

~~(2)~~(b) Any unpaid bond service charges on outstanding bonds payable from pledged revenues as such charges become due and payable, and to create and maintain any reserves for that purpose.

(D) Tolls are not subject to supervision, approval, or regulation by any state agency other than the turnpike and infrastructure commission.

(E) Revenues derived from each turnpike project ~~in connection with which any bonds are outstanding~~ shall be first applied to pay the cost of maintenance, improvement, repair, and operation and to provide any reserves therefor that are provided for in the bond proceedings authorizing the issuance of those outstanding bonds, and otherwise as provided by the commission~~, and the balance~~. The bond proceedings also shall provide, subject to the provisions of any other applicable bond proceedings, for the pledge of all, or such part as the commission may determine of the pledged revenues ~~shall be set aside, at such regular intervals as are provided in the bond proceedings, in a bond service fund, which is hereby pledged to and charged with~~ and the applicable special fund or funds to the payment of the bond service charges ~~on any such outstanding bonds as provided in the applicable~~, which pledge may be made to secure the bonds senior or subordinate to or on a parity with bonds theretofore or thereafter issued, if and to the extent provided in the bond proceedings. The pledge shall be valid and binding from the time the pledge is made; the revenues and the pledged revenues thereafter received by the commission immediately shall be subject to the lien of the pledge without any physical delivery thereof or further act, and the lien of the pledge shall be valid and binding as against all parties having claims of any kind in tort, contract, or otherwise against the commission, whether or not those parties have notice thereof. The bond proceedings by which a pledge is created need not be filed or recorded except in the records of the commission. The use and disposition of moneys to the credit of a bond service fund shall be subject to the applicable bond proceedings. ~~Except as is otherwise provided in such bond proceedings, such a bond service fund shall be a fund for all such bonds, without distinction or priority of one over another.~~

(F) The proceeds of bonds issued for the payment of the costs of infrastructure projects, net of the payment of all financing expenses and deposits into debt service reserves or other special funds as may be required in the applicable bond proceedings, shall be deposited to the infrastructure fund or funds and shall be exclusively used to pay the cost of infrastructure projects approved by the commission, except that income earned by the infrastructure fund may be used by the commission towards the payment of bond service charges.

Sec. 5537.14. All moneys received by the Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission under this chapter, whether as proceeds from the sale of bonds or as revenues, are to be held and applied solely as provided in this chapter and in any applicable bond proceedings. Such moneys shall be kept in depositories as selected by the commission in the manner provided in sections 135.01 to 135.21 of the Revised Code, insofar as such sections are applicable, and the deposits shall be secured as provided in sections 135.01 to 135.21 of the Revised Code. The bond proceedings shall provide that any officer to whom, or any bank or trust company to which, revenues or pledged revenues are paid shall act as trustee of such moneys and hold and apply them for the purposes thereof, subject to applicable provisions of this chapter and the bond proceedings.

Sec. 5537.15. Any holder of bonds issued and outstanding under this chapter, or any of the coupons appertaining thereto, and the trustee under any trust agreement, except to the extent the rights given by this chapter may be restricted or modified by the bond proceedings, may by suit, action, mandamus, or other proceedings, protect and enforce any rights under the laws of the state or granted under this chapter or the bond proceedings, and may enforce and compel the performance of all duties required by this chapter or the bond proceedings, to be performed by the Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission or any officer of the commission, including the fixing, charging, collecting, and application of tolls.

Sec. 5537.16. (A) The Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission may adopt such bylaws and rules as it considers advisable for the control and regulation of traffic on any turnpike project, for the protection and preservation of property under its jurisdiction and control, for the maintenance and preservation of good order within the property under its control, and for the purpose of establishing owner or operator liability for failure to comply with toll collection rules. The rules of the commission with respect to the speed, use of special engine brakes, axle loads, vehicle loads, and vehicle dimensions of vehicles on turnpike projects, including the issuance of a special permit by the commission to allow the operation on any turnpike project of a motor vehicle transporting two or fewer steel coils, shall apply notwithstanding sections 4511.21 to 4511.24, 4513.34, and Chapter 5577. of the Revised Code. Such bylaws and rules shall be published in a newspaper of general circulation in Franklin county, and in such other manner as the commission prescribes.

(B) Such rules shall provide that public police officers shall be afforded ready access, while in the performance of their official duty, to all property under the jurisdiction of the commission and without the payment of tolls.

(D)(1) All fines collected for the violation of applicable laws of the state and the bylaws and rules of the commission or moneys arising from bonds forfeited for such violation shall be disposed of in accordance with section 5503.04 of the Revised Code.

(2) All fees or charges assessed by the commission against an owner or operator of a vehicle as a civil violation for failure to comply with toll collection or toll evasion rules shall be revenues of the commission.

Sec. 5537.17. (A) Each turnpike project open to traffic shall be maintained and kept in good condition and repair by the Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission. The Ohio turnpike system shall be policed and operated by a force of police, toll collectors, and other employees and agents that the commission employs or contracts for.

(B) All public or private property damaged or destroyed in carrying out the powers granted by this chapter shall be restored or repaired and placed in its original condition, as nearly as practicable, or adequate compensation or consideration made therefor out of moneys provided under this chapter.

(C) All governmental agencies may lease, lend, grant, or convey to the commission at its request, upon terms that the proper authorities of the governmental agencies consider reasonable and fair and without the necessity for an advertisement, order of court, or other action or formality, other than the regular and formal action of the authorities concerned, any property that is necessary or convenient to the effectuation of the purposes of the commission, including public roads and other property already devoted to public use.

(D) Each bridge constituting part of a turnpike project shall be inspected at least once each year by a professional engineer employed or retained by the commission.

(E) On or before the first day of July in each year, the commission shall make an annual report of its activities for the preceding calendar year to the governor and the general assembly. Each such report shall set forth a complete operating and financial statement covering the commission's operations and funding of any turnpike projects and infrastructure projects during the year. The commission shall cause an audit of its books and accounts to be made at least once each year by certified public accountants, and the cost thereof may be treated as a part of the cost of operations of the commission. The auditor of state, at least once a year and without previous notice to the commission, shall audit the accounts and transactions of the commission.

(F) The commission shall submit a copy of its annual audit by the auditor of state and its proposed annual budget for each calendar or fiscal year to the governor, the presiding officers of each house of the general assembly, the director of budget and management, and the legislative service commission no later than the first day of that calendar or fiscal year.

(G) Upon request of the chairperson of the appropriate standing committee or subcommittee of the senate and house of representatives that is primarily responsible for considering transportation budget matters, the commission shall appear at least one time before each committee or subcommittee during the period when that committee or subcommittee is considering the biennial appropriations for the department of transportation and shall provide testimony outlining its budgetary results for the last two calendar years, including a comparison of budget and actual revenue and expenditure amounts. The commission also shall address its current budget and long-term capital plan.

(H) Not more than sixty nor less than thirty days before adopting its annual budget, the commission shall submit a copy of its proposed annual budget to the governor, the presiding officers of each house of the general assembly, the director of budget and management, and the legislative service commission. The office of budget and management shall review the proposed budget and may provide recommendations to the commission for its consideration.

Sec. 5537.18. (A) The Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission shall adopt rules establishing the procedures and criteria under which the commission may approve an application received from the director of transportation for infrastructure project funding under division (B) of this section. The rules shall require an infrastructure project to have an anticipated benefit to the system of public highways in the state of Ohio and transportation-related nexus with and relationship to the Ohio turnpike system and the Ohio turnpike and infrastructure system. The criteria included in the rules for determining if an infrastructure project has the required nexus and relationship to the Ohio turnpike system and the Ohio turnpike and infrastructure system and the criteria for approving an application for infrastructure project funding submitted by the director of transportation shall include the following:

(1) A physical proximity of the infrastructure project to and a direct or indirect physical connection between the infrastructure project and the Ohio turnpike system;

(2) The impact of the infrastructure project on traffic density, flow through, or capacity on the Ohio turnpike system;

(3) The impact of the infrastructure project on the Ohio turnpike system toll revenue or other revenues;

(4) The impact of the infrastructure project on the movement of goods and services on or in the area of the Ohio turnpike system; and

(5) The enhancement or improvement by and through the infrastructure project of access to, use of, and egress from the Ohio turnpike system and access to and from connected areas of population, commerce, and industry.

(B) The director of transportation may submit an application to the commission for infrastructure project funding. An application to the commission for infrastructure project funding, as submitted by the director, shall include only infrastructure projects that previously have been reviewed and recommended by the transportation review advisory council pursuant to the selection process followed by the council under Chapter 5512. of the Revised Code. In selecting infrastructure projects for which applications will be made to the commission for infrastructure project funding, the director shall consider the physical proximity of the project to the Ohio turnpike system. Not less than ninety per cent of the total cost of the infrastructure project funding requests submitted by the director of transportation to the commission shall be for infrastructure projects that are at least partially located within seventy-five miles of the Ohio turnpike system.

By rule, the director may establish guidelines under which an application may be made for infrastructure project funding that combines separate projects if the combination of projects is necessary to satisfy any funding threshold required for approval by the transportation review advisory council and the individual projects have a nexus to the Ohio turnpike system and also address a critical public safety concern or have a significant economic impact.

(C) The commission shall evaluate each application for infrastructure project funding submitted under division (B) of this section in accordance with the procedures and criteria established in rules adopted under division (A) of this section. A determination or approval made under this section is conclusive and incontestable.

(D) Nothing in this section shall interfere with the authority of the director of transportation under Chapter 5512. of the Revised Code.

Sec. 5537.19. The Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission shall expend such moneys as the commission considers necessary for studies of any turnpike project or infrastructure project, whether proposed, under construction, or in operation, and may employ consulting engineers, traffic engineers, and any other individuals or firms that the commission considers necessary to properly implement the studies. The cost of the studies may be paid from revenues, eligible state and federal grants, state taxes available to the commission and permitted by law to be spent for such purposes, or the proceeds of bonds.

Sec. 5537.20. The exercise of the powers granted by this chapter is in all respects for the benefit of the people of the state, for the increase of their commerce and prosperity, and for the improvement of their health and living conditions, and as the construction, operation, and maintenance of the Ohio turnpike system by the Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission constitute the performance of essential governmental functions, the commission, except as provided in division (D) of section 5537.05 of the Revised Code, shall not be required to pay any state or local taxes or assessments upon any turnpike project or infrastructure project funded by it, or upon revenues or any property acquired or used by the commission under this chapter, or upon the income therefrom. The bonds issued under this chapter, their transfer, and the income therefrom, including any profit made on the sale thereof, shall at all times be free from taxation within the state.

Sec. 5537.21. (A) When bond service charges on all outstanding bonds issued in connection with any turnpike project have been paid or provision for that payment has been made, as provided in the applicable bond proceedings, or in the case of a turnpike project in connection with which no bonds have been issued, the project shall continue to be or be operated, and improved and maintained, by the Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission as a part of the Ohio turnpike system and as a toll road, and all revenues received by the commission relating to that project shall be applied as provided in division (B) of this section.

(B) Subject to the bond proceedings for bonds relating to any turnpike project or infrastructure project, tolls relating to a turnpike project as referred to in division (A) of this section shall be so fixed and adjusted such that the aggregate of available revenues relating to that turnpike project ~~and available for the purpose~~ are in amounts ~~to provide moneys~~ at least sufficient~~, and those revenues shall be used,~~ to pay the costs described in division (C)~~(1)~~(2)(a) of section 5537.13 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 5537.22. All final actions of the Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission shall be journalized and such journal shall be open to the inspection of the public at all reasonable times.

Sec. 5537.24. (A) There is hereby created a turnpike legislative review committee consisting of six members as follows:

(1) Three members of the senate, no more than two of whom shall be members of the same political party, one of whom shall be the chairperson of the committee dealing primarily with highway matters, one of whom shall be appointed by the president of the senate, and one of whom shall be appointed by the minority leader of the senate.

Both the senate member who is appointed by the president of the senate and the senate member appointed by the minority leader of the senate shall represent either districts in which is located or through which passes a portion of a turnpike project that is part of the Ohio turnpike system or districts located in the vicinity of a turnpike project that is part of the Ohio turnpike system.

The president of the senate shall make the president of the senate's appointment to the committee first, followed by the minority leader of the senate, and they shall make their appointments in such a manner that their two appointees represent districts that are located in different areas of the state. If the chairperson of the senate committee dealing primarily with highway matters represents a district in which is located or through which passes a portion of a turnpike project that is part of the Ohio turnpike system or a district located in the vicinity of a turnpike project that is part of the Ohio turnpike system, the president of the senate and the minority leader of the senate shall make their appointments in such a manner that their two appointees and the chairperson of the senate committee dealing primarily with highway matters all represent districts that are located in different areas of the state.

(2) Three members of the house of representatives, no more than two of whom shall be members of the same political party, one of whom shall be the chairperson of the house of representatives committee dealing primarily with highway matters, one of whom shall be appointed by the speaker of the house of representatives, and one of whom shall be appointed by the minority leader of the house of representatives.

Both the house of representatives member who is appointed by the speaker of the house of representatives and the house of representatives member appointed by the minority leader of the house of representatives shall represent either districts in which is located or through which passes a portion of a turnpike project that is part of the Ohio turnpike system or districts located in the vicinity of a turnpike project that is part of the Ohio turnpike system.

The speaker of the house of representatives shall make the speaker of the house of representative's appointment to the committee first, followed by the minority leader of the house of representatives, and they shall make their appointments in such a manner that their two appointees represent districts that are located in different areas of the state. If the chairperson of the house of representatives committee dealing primarily with highway matters represents a district in which is located or through which passes a portion of a turnpike project that is part of the Ohio turnpike system or a district located in the vicinity of a turnpike project that is part of the Ohio turnpike system, the speaker of the house of representatives and the minority leader of the house of representatives shall make their appointments in such a manner that their two appointees and the chairperson of the house of representatives committee dealing primarily with highway matters all represent districts that are located in different areas of the state.

The chairperson of the house of representatives committee shall serve as the chairperson of the turnpike legislative review committee for the year 1996. Thereafter, the chair annually shall alternate between, first, the chairperson of the senate committee and then the chairperson of the house of representatives committee.

(B) Each member of the turnpike legislative review committee who is a member of the general assembly shall serve a term of the remainder of the general assembly during which the member is appointed or is serving as chairperson of the specified senate or house committee. In the event of the death or resignation of a committee member who is a member of the general assembly, or in the event that a member ceases to be a senator or representative, or in the event that the chairperson of the senate committee dealing primarily with highway matters or the chairperson of the house of representatives committee dealing primarily with highway matters ceases to hold that position, the vacancy shall be filled through an appointment by the president of the senate or the speaker of the house of representatives or minority leader of the senate or house of representatives, as applicable. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the end of the term for which the member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the remainder of the term or for a shorter period of time as determined by the president or the speaker. A member of the committee is eligible for reappointment.

(C) The turnpike legislative review committee shall meet at least quarterly and may meet at the call of its chairperson, or upon the written request to the chairperson of not fewer than four members of the committee. Meetings shall be held at sites that are determined solely by the chairperson of the committee. At each meeting, the Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission shall make a report to the committee on commission matters, including but not limited to financial and budgetary matters and proposed and on-going construction, maintenance, repair, and operational projects of the commission.

The committee, by the affirmative vote of at least four of its members, may submit written recommendations to the commission, either at meetings held pursuant to this section or at any other time, describing new turnpike projects or new interchanges located on existing projects that the committee believes the commission should consider constructing.

(D) At least annually the commission shall make a report to the committee of those infrastructure projects approved and paid for by the commission.

(E) The members of the turnpike legislative review committee who are members of the general assembly shall serve without compensation, but shall be reimbursed by the commission for their actual and necessary expenses incurred in the discharge of their official duties as committee members. Serving as a member of the turnpike legislative review committee does not constitute grounds for resignation from the senate or house of representatives under section 101.26 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 5537.25. (A) Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission shall make no expenditure to engage the services of any person to influence either of the following:

(1) Administrative actions or decisions of the governor, the director of any department listed in section 121.02 of the Revised Code, any member of the staff of any public officer or employee listed in this section, the president of the United States, or any federal officer or employee;

(2) Legislation pending in this state or any other state, a subdivision of this state or any other state, or the federal government, including the executive approval or veto of any such pending legislation.

(B) This section shall not be interpreted to prohibit the commission from designating officers or members of the commission, or full-time, permanent employees of the commission, to act as administrative or legislative agents for the commission.

Sec. 5537.26. (A) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, no increase by the Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission in the toll rate structure that is applicable to vehicles operating on a turnpike project shall become effective unless the commission complies with the notice and hearing requirements prescribed in division (B) of this section, and the commission shall not take any action that expands, has the effect of expanding, or will to any degree at any time in the future have the effect of expanding the sphere of responsibility of the commission beyond the Ohio turnpike, unless the commission complies with the notice and hearing requirements prescribed in division (B) of this section.

(B) Not less than ninety days prior to the date on which the commission votes to increase any part of the toll rate structure that is applicable to vehicles operating on a turnpike project, and not less than ninety days prior to the date on which the commission votes to take an action that expands, has the effect of expanding, or will to any degree at any time in the future have the effect of expanding the sphere of responsibility of the commission beyond the Ohio turnpike, the commission shall do both of the following:

(1) Send notice to the governor and the presiding officers and minority leaders of the senate and house of representatives that details the proposed increase to the toll rate structure or the expansion of the sphere of responsibility of the commission beyond the Ohio turnpike, including a description of and a justification for the increase or expansion;

(2) Commence holding public hearings on the proposed increase in the toll rate structure or the proposed action. If the commission is proposing an increase in the toll rate structure that is applicable to vehicles operating on a turnpike project, it shall hold not less than three public hearings in three geographically diverse locations in this state that are in the immediate vicinity of the affected project. If the commission is proposing to take an action that expands, has the effect of expanding, or will to any degree at any time in the future have the effect of expanding the sphere of responsibility of the commission beyond the Ohio turnpike, it shall hold not less than three public hearings in three locations in the immediate vicinity where the expanded responsibilities would arise.

The commission shall hold the third or, if it holds more than three hearings, the last hearing of any set of hearings required to be held under this section not less than thirty days prior to the date on which it votes to increase part of the toll rate structure that is applicable to vehicles operating on a turnpike project or to take an action that expands, has the effect of expanding, or will to any degree at any time in the future have the effect of expanding the sphere of responsibility of the commission beyond the Ohio turnpike.

The commission shall inform the public of all the hearings required to be held under this section by causing a notice to be published in a newspaper of general circulation in the county in which each hearing is to be held, not less than once per week for two weeks prior to the date of the hearing.

(C) If the commission does not comply with the notice and hearing requirements contained in division (B) of this section and votes for an increase in the toll rate structure that is applicable to vehicles operating on a turnpike project, the increase in the toll rate structure shall not take effect, any attempt by the commission to implement the increase in the toll rate structure is void, and, if necessary, the attorney general shall file an action in the court of common pleas of the county in which the principal office of the commission is located to enjoin the commission from implementing the increase. The commission shall not implement any increase until it complies with division (B) of this section.

If the commission does not comply with the notice and hearing requirements contained in division (B) of this section and votes to take an action that expands, has the effect of expanding, or will to any degree at any time in the future have the effect of expanding the sphere of responsibility of the commission beyond the Ohio turnpike, the commission shall not take the proposed action and, if necessary, the attorney general shall file an action in the court of common pleas of the county in which the principal office of the commission is located to enjoin the commission from taking the proposed action. The commission shall not take the proposed action until it complies with the notice and hearing requirements prescribed in division (B) of this section.

(D) Divisions (A) to (C) of this section do not apply to any decrease made to the toll rate structure by the commission. The commission may implement a temporary decrease in the toll rate structure only if it does not exceed eighteen months in duration. Prior to instituting any decrease to the toll rate structure, the commission shall do both of the following:

(1) Not less than five days prior to any public meeting under division (D)(2) of this section, send notice to the governor and the presiding officers and minority leaders of the senate and house of representatives that details the proposed decrease to the toll rate structure;

(2) Hold a public meeting to explain to members of the traveling public the reasons for the upcoming decrease, to inform them of any benefits and any negative consequences, and to give them the opportunity to express their opinions as to the relative merits or drawbacks of each toll decrease. The commission shall inform the public of the meeting by causing a notice to be published in newspapers of general circulation in Cuyahoga, Lucas, Mahoning, Trumbull, Williams, and Summit counties not less than five days prior to the meeting. The commission shall not be required to hold any public hearing or meeting upon the expiration of any temporary decrease in the toll rate structure, so long as it implements the same toll rate structure that was in effect immediately prior to the temporary decrease.

(E) As used in this section, "Ohio turnpike" means the toll freeway that is under the jurisdiction of the commission and runs in an easterly and westerly direction across the entire northern portion of this state between its borders with the state of Pennsylvania in the east and the state of Indiana in the west, and carries the interstate highway designations of interstate seventy-six, interstate eighty, and interstate eighty-ninety.

Sec. 5537.27. The Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission, the director of transportation or the director's designee, and another person designated by the governor shall establish a procedure whereby a political subdivision or other government agency or agencies may submit a written application to the commission, requesting the commission to construct and operate a turnpike project within the boundaries of the subdivision, agency, or agencies making the request. The procedure shall include a requirement that the commission send a written reply to the subdivision, agency, or agencies, explaining the disposition of the request. The procedure established pursuant to this section shall not become effective unless it is approved by the commission and by the director or the director's designee and the designee of the governor, and shall require submission of the proposed turnpike project to the turnpike legislative review committee if the project must be approved by the governor.

Sec. 5537.28. (A) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, on and after the effective date of this section, the Ohio turnpike commission shall not expend any toll revenues that are generated by an existing turnpike project to fund in any manner or to any degree the construction, operation, maintenance, or repair of another turnpike project the location of which must be reviewed by the turnpike legislative review committee and approved by the governor.

In paying the cost of ~~such a~~ any turnpike project, the Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission may issue bonds and bond anticipation notes as permitted by this chapter, and may accept moneys from any source to pay the cost of any portion of the turnpike project, including, but not limited to, the federal government, any department or agency of this state, and any political subdivision or other government agency. Each such project shall be constructed, operated, maintained, and repaired ~~entirely~~ with funds ~~generated by that project or otherwise~~ specifically acquired for that project or from ~~sources permitted by this chapter~~ excess funds available from any other turnpike project.

(B) The commission shall not expend any toll revenues generated by the Ohio turnpike to pay any amount of the principal amount of, or interest due on, any bonds or bond anticipation notes issued by the commission to pay any portion of the cost of another turnpike project the location of which must be reviewed by the turnpike legislative review committee and approved by the governor. The commission shall not expend any toll revenues generated by any turnpike project to pay any amount of the principal amount of, or interest due on, any bonds or bond anticipation notes issued by the commission to pay any portion of the cost of a new turnpike project the location of which must be reviewed by the turnpike legislative review committee and approved by the governor or the cost of the operation, repair, improvement, maintenance, or reconstruction of any turnpike project other than the project that generated those toll revenues.

~~(1) "Ohio turnpike" has the same meaning as in division (E) of section 5537.26 of the Revised Code;~~

~~(2) "Another~~ "any turnpike project" does not include infrastructure ~~improvements on the Ohio turnpike or on connecting roadways within one mile of an Ohio turnpike interchange~~ projects. The costs of infrastructure projects approved under section 5537.18 of the Revised Code shall be funded exclusively out of the infrastructure fund or funds.

Sec. 5537.30. (A) Not later than December 31, 2009, the Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission shall establish a program for the placement of business logos for identification purposes on directional signs within the turnpike right-of-way.

(B)(1) The commission shall establish, and may revise at any time, a fee for participation in the business logo sign program. All direct and indirect costs of the business logo sign program established pursuant to this section shall be fully paid by the businesses applying for participation in the program. The direct and indirect costs of the program shall include, but not be limited to, the cost of capital, directional signs, blanks, posts, logos, installation, repair, engineering, design, insurance, removal, replacement, and administration.

(2) Money generated from participating businesses in excess of the direct and indirect costs and any reasonable profit earned by a person awarded a contract ~~under division (C) of this section~~ to operate, maintain, or market the business logo sign program shall be remitted to the commission.

(3) If the commission operates such a program and does not contract with a private person to operate it, all money collected from participating businesses shall be retained by the commission.

(C) The commission, in accordance with rules adopted pursuant to section 111.15 of the Revised Code, may contract with any private person to operate, maintain, or market the business logo sign program. The contract may allow for a reasonable profit to be earned by the successful applicant. In awarding the contract, the commission shall consider the skill, expertise, prior experience, and other qualifications of each applicant.

~~(D)~~ The program shall permit the business logo signs of a seller of motor vehicle fuel to include on the seller's signs a marking or symbol indicating that the seller sells one or more types of alternative fuel so long as the seller in fact sells that fuel. As used in this division, "alternative fuel" has the same meaning as in section 125.831 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 5553.051. The board of county commissioners may establish a fee to cover the actual costs the county incurs in providing published notice and mailed notice as required by section 5553.05 of the Revised Code. The board may require an initial deposit to be paid at the time a petition for vacation of a road is filed under section 5553.04 of the Revised Code or promptly thereafter. The clerk of the board shall maintain an accurate and detailed accounting of all funds received under this section and expended in providing the required published and mailed notice.

Sec. 5577.044. (A) Notwithstanding sections 5577.02 and 5577.04 of the Revised Code, a vehicle fueled solely by compressed natural gas may exceed by not more than two thousand pounds the gross vehicle weight provisions of sections 5577.01 to 5577.09 of the Revised Code or the axle load limits of those sections.

(B) If a vehicle described in division (A) of this section exceeds the weight provisions of sections 5577.01 to 5577.09 of the Revised Code by more than the allowance provided for in division (A) of this section, both of the following apply:

(2) A highway, road, or bridge that is subject to reduced maximum weights under section 4513.33, 5577.07, 5577.071, 5577.08, 5577.09, or 5591.42 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 5577.05. (A) No vehicle shall be operated upon the public highways, streets, bridges, and culverts within the state, whose dimensions exceed those specified in this section.

(1) One hundred four inches for passenger bus type vehicles operated exclusively within municipal corporations;

(2) One hundred two inches, excluding such safety devices as are required by law, for passenger bus type vehicles operated over freeways, and such other state roads with minimum pavement widths of twenty-two feet, except those roads or portions of roads over which operation of one hundred two-inch buses is prohibited by order of the director of transportation;

(4) One hundred two inches for recreational vehicles, excluding safety devices and retracted awnings and other appurtenances of six inches or less in width and except that the director may prohibit the operation of one hundred two inch recreational vehicles on designated state highways or portions of highways;

(5) One hundred two inches, including load, for all other vehicles, except that the director may prohibit the operation of one hundred two-inch vehicles on such state highways or portions of state highways as the director designates.

(1) Sixty-six feet for passenger bus type vehicles and articulated passenger bus type vehicles operated by a regional transit authority pursuant to sections 306.30 to 306.54 of the Revised Code;

(3) Fifty-three feet for any semitrailer when operated in a commercial tractor-semitrailer combination, with or without load, except that the director may prohibit the operation of any such commercial tractor-semitrailer combination on such state highways or portions of state highways as the director designates.

(4) Twenty-eight and one-half feet for any semitrailer or trailer when operated in a commercial tractor-semitrailer-trailer or commercial tractor-semitrailer-semitrailer combination, except that the director may prohibit the operation of any such commercial tractor-semitrailer-trailer or commercial tractor-semitrailer-semitrailer combination on such state highways or portions of state highways as the director designates;

(5)(a) Ninety-seven feet for drive-away saddlemount vehicle transporter combinations and drive-away saddlemount with fullmount vehicle transporter combinations when operated on any interstate, United States route, or state route, including reasonable access travel on all other roadways for a distance not to exceed one road mile from any interstate, United States route, or state route, not to exceed three saddlemounted vehicles, but which may include one fullmount;

(b) Seventy-five feet for drive-away saddlemount vehicle transporter combinations and drive-away saddlemount with fullmount vehicle transporter combinations, when operated on any roadway not designated as an interstate, United States route, or state route, not to exceed three saddlemounted vehicles, but which may include one fullmount;

(6) Sixty-five feet for any other combination of vehicles coupled together, with or without load, except as provided in divisions (C)(3) and (4), and in division (E) of this section;

(8) ~~Forty~~ Fifty feet for all other vehicles except trailers and semitrailers, with or without load.

(D) No such vehicle shall have a height in excess of thirteen feet six inches, with or without load.

(E) An automobile transporter or boat transporter shall be allowed a length of sixty-five feet and a stinger-steered automobile transporter or stinger-steered boat transporter shall be allowed a length of seventy-five feet, except that the load thereon may extend no more than four feet beyond the rear of such vehicles and may extend no more than three feet beyond the front of such vehicles, and except further that the director may prohibit the operation of a stinger-steered automobile transporter, stinger-steered boat transporter, or a B-train assembly on any state highway or portion of any state highway that the director designates.

(F) The widths prescribed in division (B) of this section shall not include side mirrors, turn signal lamps, marker lamps, handholds for cab entry and egress, flexible fender extensions, mud flaps, splash and spray suppressant devices, and load-induced tire bulge.

The width prescribed in division (B)(5) of this section shall not include automatic covering devices, tarp and tarp hardware, and tiedown assemblies, provided these safety devices do not extend more than three inches from each side of the vehicle.

The lengths prescribed in divisions (C)(2) to (8) of this section shall not include safety devices, bumpers attached to the front or rear of such bus or combination, nonproperty carrying devices or components that do not extend more than twenty-four inches beyond the rear of the vehicle and are needed for loading or unloading, B-train assembly used between the first and second semitrailer of a commercial tractor-semitrailer-semitrailer combination, energy conservation devices as provided in any regulations adopted by the secretary of the United States department of transportation, or any noncargo-carrying refrigeration equipment attached to the front of trailers and semitrailers. In special cases, vehicles whose dimensions exceed those prescribed by this section may operate in accordance with rules adopted by the director.

(G) This section does not apply to fire engines, fire trucks, or other vehicles or apparatus belonging to any municipal corporation or to the volunteer fire department of any municipal corporation or used by such department in the discharge of its functions. This section does not apply to vehicles and pole trailers used in the transportation of wooden and metal poles, nor to the transportation of pipes or well-drilling equipment, nor to farm machinery and equipment. ~~The~~

The owner or operator of any vehicle, machinery, or equipment not specifically enumerated in this section but the dimensions of which exceed the dimensions provided by this section, when operating the same on the highways and streets of this state, shall comply with the rules of the director governing such movement that the director may adopt. Sections 119.01 to 119.13 of the Revised Code apply to any rules the director adopts under this section, or the amendment or rescission of the rules, and any person adversely affected shall have the same right of appeal as provided in those sections.

This section does not require the state, a municipal corporation, county, township, or any railroad or other private corporation to provide sufficient vertical clearance to permit the operation of such vehicle, or to make any changes in or about existing structures now crossing streets, roads, and other public thoroughfares in this state.

(H) As used in this section, "recreational vehicle" has the same meaning as in section 4501.01 of the Revised Code.

(A) "Motor vehicle" means everything on wheels that is self-propelled, other than by muscular power or power collected from electric trolley wires and other than vehicles or machinery not designed for or employed in general highway transportation, used to transport or propel persons or property over a public highway.

(B) "Commercial car" means any motor vehicle used for transporting persons or property, wholly on its own structure on a public highway.

(C) "Commercial tractor" means any motor vehicle designed and used to propel or draw a trailer or semi-trailer or both on a public highway without having any provision for carrying loads independently of such trailer or semi-trailer.

(D) "Trailer" means everything on wheels that is not self-propelled, except vehicles or machinery not designed for or employed in general highway transportation, used for carrying property wholly on its own structure and for being drawn by a motor vehicle on a public highway, including any such vehicle when formed by or operated as a combination of a semi-trailer and a vehicle of the dolly type such as that commonly known as a trailer dolly. "Trailer" does not include manufactured homes as defined in division (C)(4) of section 3781.06 of the Revised Code or mobile homes as defined in division (O) of section 4501.01 of the Revised Code.

(E) "Semi-trailer" means everything on wheels that is not self-propelled, except vehicles or machinery not designed for or employed in general highway transportation, designed and used for carrying property on a public highway when being propelled or drawn by a commercial tractor when part of its own weight or the weight of its load, or both, rest upon and is carried by a commercial tractor.

(F) "Commercial tandem" means any commercial car and trailer or any commercial tractor, semi-trailer, and trailer when fastened together and used as one unit.

(G) "Commercial tractor combination" means any commercial tractor and semi-trailer when fastened together and used as one unit.

(H) "Axle" means two or more load carrying wheels mounted in a single transverse vertical plane.

(I) "Public highway" means any highway, road, or street dedicated to public use, including a highway under the control and jurisdiction of the Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission created by the provisions of section 5537.02 of the Revised Code and land and lots over which the public, either as user or owner, generally has a right to pass even though such land or lots are closed temporarily by public authorities for the purpose of construction, reconstruction, maintenance, or repair.

(J) "Jurisdiction" means a state of the United States, the District of Columbia, or a province or territory of Canada.

Sec. 5735.05. (A) To provide revenue for maintaining the state highway system; to widen existing surfaces on such highways; to resurface such highways; to pay that portion of the construction cost of a highway project which a county, township, or municipal corporation normally would be required to pay, but which the director of transportation, pursuant to division (B) of section 5531.08 of the Revised Code, determines instead will be paid from moneys in the highway operating fund; to enable the counties of the state properly to plan, maintain, and repair their roads and to pay principal, interest, and charges on bonds and other obligations issued pursuant to Chapter 133. of the Revised Code or incurred pursuant to section 5531.09 of the Revised Code for highway improvements; to enable the municipal corporations to plan, construct, reconstruct, repave, widen, maintain, repair, clear, and clean public highways, roads, and streets, and to pay the principal, interest, and charges on bonds and other obligations issued pursuant to Chapter 133. of the Revised Code or incurred pursuant to section 5531.09 of the Revised Code for highway improvements; to enable the Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission to construct, reconstruct, maintain, and repair turnpike projects; to maintain and repair bridges and viaducts; to purchase, erect, and maintain street and traffic signs and markers; to purchase, erect, and maintain traffic lights and signals; to pay the costs apportioned to the public under sections 4907.47 and 4907.471 of the Revised Code and to supplement revenue already available for such purposes; to pay the costs incurred by the public utilities commission in administering sections 4907.47 to 4907.476 of the Revised Code; to distribute equitably among those persons using the privilege of driving motor vehicles upon such highways and streets the cost of maintaining and repairing them; to pay the interest, principal, and charges on highway capital improvements bonds and other obligations issued pursuant to Section 2m of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, and section 151.06 of the Revised Code; to pay the interest, principal, and charges on highway obligations issued pursuant to Section 2i of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, and sections 5528.30 and 5528.31 of the Revised Code; to pay the interest, principal, and charges on major new state infrastructure bonds and other obligations of the state issued pursuant to Section 13 of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, and section 5531.10 of the Revised Code; to provide revenue for the purposes of sections 1547.71 to 1547.78 of the Revised Code; and to pay the expenses of the department of taxation incident to the administration of the motor fuel laws, a motor fuel excise tax is hereby imposed on all motor fuel dealers upon receipt of motor fuel within this state at the rate of two cents plus the cents per gallon rate on each gallon so received, to be computed in the manner set forth in section 5735.06 of the Revised Code; provided that no tax is hereby imposed upon the following transactions:

(1) The sale of dyed diesel fuel by a licensed motor fuel dealer from a location other than a retail service station provided the licensed motor fuel dealer places on the face of the delivery document or invoice, or both if both are used, a conspicuous notice stating that the fuel is dyed and is not for taxable use, and that taxable use of that fuel is subject to a penalty. The tax commissioner, by rule, may provide that any notice conforming to rules or regulations issued by the United States department of the treasury or the Internal Revenue Service is sufficient notice for the purposes of division (A)(1) of this section.

(2) The sale of K-1 kerosene to a retail service station, except when placed directly in the fuel supply tank of a motor vehicle. Such sale shall be rebuttably presumed to not be distributed or sold for use or used to generate power for the operation of motor vehicles upon the public highways or upon the waters within the boundaries of this state.

(3) The sale of motor fuel by a licensed motor fuel dealer to another licensed motor fuel dealer;

(4) The exportation of motor fuel by a licensed motor fuel dealer from this state to any other state or foreign country;

(5) The sale of motor fuel to the United States government or any of its agencies, except such tax as is permitted by it, where such sale is evidenced by an exemption certificate, in a form approved by the tax commissioner, executed by the United States government or an agency thereof certifying that the motor fuel therein identified has been purchased for the exclusive use of the United States government or its agency;

(6) The sale of motor fuel that is in the process of transportation in foreign or interstate commerce, except insofar as it may be taxable under the Constitution and statutes of the United States, and except as may be agreed upon in writing by the dealer and the commissioner;

(7) The sale of motor fuel when sold exclusively for use in the operation of aircraft, where such sale is evidenced by an exemption certificate prescribed by the commissioner and executed by the purchaser certifying that the motor fuel purchased has been purchased for exclusive use in the operation of aircraft;

(8) The sale for exportation of motor fuel by a licensed motor fuel dealer to a licensed exporter type A;

(9) The sale for exportation of motor fuel by a licensed motor fuel dealer to a licensed exporter type B, provided that the destination state motor fuel tax has been paid or will be accrued and paid by the licensed motor fuel dealer.

(10) The sale to a consumer of diesel fuel, by a motor fuel dealer for delivery from a bulk lot vehicle, for consumption in operating a vessel when the use of such fuel in a vessel would otherwise qualify for a refund under section 5735.14 of the Revised Code.

Division (A)(1) of this section does not apply to the sale or distribution of dyed diesel fuel used to operate a motor vehicle on the public highways or upon water within the boundaries of this state by persons permitted under regulations of the United States department of the treasury or of the Internal Revenue Service to so use dyed diesel fuel.

(B) The two cent motor fuel tax levied by this section is also for the purpose of paying the expenses of administering and enforcing the state law relating to the registration and operation of motor vehicles.

(C) After the tax provided for by this section on the receipt of any motor fuel has been paid by the motor fuel dealer, the motor fuel may thereafter be used, sold, or resold by any person having lawful title to it, without incurring liability for such tax.

If a licensed motor fuel dealer sells motor fuel received by the licensed motor fuel dealer to another licensed motor fuel dealer, the seller may deduct on the report required by section 5735.06 of the Revised Code the number of gallons so sold for the month within which the motor fuel was sold or delivered. In this event the number of gallons is deemed to have been received by the purchaser, who shall report and pay the tax imposed thereon.

Sec. 5735.23. (A) Out of receipts from the tax levied by section 5735.05 of the Revised Code, the treasurer of state shall place to the credit of the tax refund fund established by section 5703.052 of the Revised Code amounts equal to the refunds certified by the tax commissioner pursuant to sections 5735.13, 5735.14, 5735.141, 5735.142, and 5735.16 of the Revised Code. The treasurer of state shall then transfer the amount required by section 5735.051 of the Revised Code to the waterways safety fund, the amount required by section 4907.472 of the Revised Code to the grade crossing protection fund, and the amount required by section 5735.053 of the Revised Code to the motor fuel tax administration fund.

(B) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, each month the balance of the receipts from the tax levied by section 5735.05 of the Revised Code shall be credited, after receipt by the treasurer of state of certification from the commissioners of the sinking fund, as required by section 5528.35 of the Revised Code, that there are sufficient moneys to the credit of the highway obligations bond retirement fund to meet in full all payments of interest, principal, and charges for the retirement of highway obligations issued pursuant to Section 2i of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, and sections 5528.30 and 5528.31 of the Revised Code due and payable during the current calendar year, as follows:

(1) To the state and local government highway distribution fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury, an amount that is the same percentage of the balance to be credited as that portion of the tax per gallon determined under division (B)(2)(a) of section 5735.06 of the Revised Code is of the total tax per gallon determined under divisions (B)(2)(a) and (b) of that section.

(2) After making the distribution to the state and local government highway distribution fund, the remainder shall be credited as follows:

(a) Thirty per cent to the gasoline excise tax fund for distribution pursuant to division (A)(1) of section 5735.27 of the Revised Code;

(b) Twenty-five per cent to the gasoline excise tax fund for distribution pursuant to division (A)(3) of section 5735.27 of the Revised Code;

(c) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, forty-five per cent to the highway operating fund for distribution pursuant to division (B)(1) of section 5735.27 of the Revised Code.

(C) From the balance in the state and local government highway distribution fund on the last day of each month there shall be paid the following amounts:

(1) To the local transportation improvement program fund created by section 164.14 of the Revised Code, an amount equal to a fraction of the balance in the state and local government highway distribution fund, the numerator of which fraction is one and the denominator of which fraction is that portion of the tax per gallon determined under division (B)(2)(a) of section 5735.06 of the Revised Code;

(2) An amount equal to five cents multiplied by the number of gallons of motor fuel sold at stations operated by the Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission, such gallonage to be certified by the commission to the treasurer of state not later than the last day of the month following. The funds paid to the commission pursuant to this section shall be expended for the construction, reconstruction, maintenance, and repair of turnpike projects, except that the funds may not be expended for the construction of new interchanges. The funds also may be expended for the construction, reconstruction, maintenance, and repair of those portions of connecting public roads that serve existing interchanges and are determined by the commission and the director of transportation to be necessary for the safe merging of traffic between the turnpike and those public roads.

The remainder of the balance shall be distributed as follows on the fifteenth day of the following month:

(a) Ten and seven-tenths per cent shall be paid to municipal corporations for distribution pursuant to division (A)(1) of section 5735.27 of the Revised Code and may be used for any purpose for which payments received under that division may be used. Through July 15, 2005, the sum of two hundred forty-eight thousand six hundred twenty-five dollars shall be monthly subtracted from the amount so computed and credited to the highway operating fund. Beginning August 15, 2005, the sum of seven hundred forty-five thousand eight hundred seventy-five dollars shall be monthly subtracted from the amount so computed and credited to the highway operating fund.

(b) Five per cent shall be paid to townships for distribution pursuant to division (A)(5) of section 5735.27 of the Revised Code and may be used for any purpose for which payments received under that division may be used. Through July 15, 2005, the sum of eighty-seven thousand seven hundred fifty dollars shall be monthly subtracted from the amount so computed and credited to the highway operating fund. Beginning August 15, 2005, the sum of two hundred sixty-three thousand two hundred fifty dollars shall be monthly subtracted from the amount so computed and credited to the highway operating fund.

(c) Nine and three-tenths per cent shall be paid to counties for distribution pursuant to division (A)(3) of section 5735.27 of the Revised Code and may be used for any purpose for which payments received under that division may be used. Through July 15, 2005, the sum of two hundred forty-eight thousand six hundred twenty-five dollars shall be monthly subtracted from the amount so computed and credited to the highway operating fund. Beginning August 15, 2005, the sum of seven hundred forty-five thousand eight hundred seventy-five dollars shall be monthly subtracted from the amount so computed and credited to the highway operating fund.

(d) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, the balance shall be transferred to the highway operating fund and used for the purposes set forth in division (B)(1) of section 5735.27 of the Revised Code.

(D) Monthly from September to February of each fiscal year, an amount equal to one-sixth of the amount certified in July of that year by the treasurer of state pursuant to division (Q) of section 151.01 of the Revised Code shall, from amounts required to be credited or transferred to the highway operating fund pursuant to division (B)(2)(c) or (C)(2)(d) of this section, be credited or transferred to the highway capital improvement bond service fund created in section 151.06 of the Revised Code. If, in any of those months, the amount available to be credited or transferred to the bond service fund is less than one-sixth of the amount so certified, the shortfall shall be added to the amount due the next succeeding month. Any amount still due at the end of the six-month period shall be credited or transferred as the money becomes available, until such time as the office of budget and management receives certification from the treasurer of state or the treasurer of state's designee that sufficient money has been credited or transferred to the bond service fund to meet in full all payments of debt service and financing costs due during the fiscal year from that fund.

Sec. 5739.02. For the purpose of providing revenue with which to meet the needs of the state, for the use of the general revenue fund of the state, for the purpose of securing a thorough and efficient system of common schools throughout the state, for the purpose of affording revenues, in addition to those from general property taxes, permitted under constitutional limitations, and from other sources, for the support of local governmental functions, and for the purpose of reimbursing the state for the expense of administering this chapter, an excise tax is hereby levied on each retail sale made in this state.

(A)(1) The tax shall be collected as provided in section 5739.025 of the Revised Code. The rate of the tax shall be five and one-half per cent. The tax applies and is collectible when the sale is made, regardless of the time when the price is paid or delivered.

(2) In the case of the lease or rental, with a fixed term of more than thirty days or an indefinite term with a minimum period of more than thirty days, of any motor vehicles designed by the manufacturer to carry a load of not more than one ton, watercraft, outboard motor, or aircraft, or of any tangible personal property, other than motor vehicles designed by the manufacturer to carry a load of more than one ton, to be used by the lessee or renter primarily for business purposes, the tax shall be collected by the vendor at the time the lease or rental is consummated and shall be calculated by the vendor on the basis of the total amount to be paid by the lessee or renter under the lease agreement. If the total amount of the consideration for the lease or rental includes amounts that are not calculated at the time the lease or rental is executed, the tax shall be calculated and collected by the vendor at the time such amounts are billed to the lessee or renter. In the case of an open-end lease or rental, the tax shall be calculated by the vendor on the basis of the total amount to be paid during the initial fixed term of the lease or rental, and for each subsequent renewal period as it comes due. As used in this division, "motor vehicle" has the same meaning as in section 4501.01 of the Revised Code, and "watercraft" includes an outdrive unit attached to the watercraft.

A lease with a renewal clause and a termination penalty or similar provision that applies if the renewal clause is not exercised is presumed to be a sham transaction. In such a case, the tax shall be calculated and paid on the basis of the entire length of the lease period, including any renewal periods, until the termination penalty or similar provision no longer applies. The taxpayer shall bear the burden, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the transaction or series of transactions is not a sham transaction.

(3) Except as provided in division (A)(2) of this section, in the case of a sale, the price of which consists in whole or in part of the lease or rental of tangible personal property, the tax shall be measured by the installments of that lease or rental.

(4) In the case of a sale of a physical fitness facility service or recreation and sports club service, the price of which consists in whole or in part of a membership for the receipt of the benefit of the service, the tax applicable to the sale shall be measured by the installments thereof.

(1) Sales to the state or any of its political subdivisions, or to any other state or its political subdivisions if the laws of that state exempt from taxation sales made to this state and its political subdivisions;

(3) Sales of food sold to students only in a cafeteria, dormitory, fraternity, or sorority maintained in a private, public, or parochial school, college, or university;

(4) Sales of newspapers and of magazine subscriptions and sales or transfers of magazines distributed as controlled circulation publications;

(5) The furnishing, preparing, or serving of meals without charge by an employer to an employee provided the employer records the meals as part compensation for services performed or work done;

(6) Sales of motor fuel upon receipt, use, distribution, or sale of which in this state a tax is imposed by the law of this state, but this exemption shall not apply to the sale of motor fuel on which a refund of the tax is allowable under division (A) of section 5735.14 of the Revised Code; and the tax commissioner may deduct the amount of tax levied by this section applicable to the price of motor fuel when granting a refund of motor fuel tax pursuant to division (A) of section 5735.14 of the Revised Code and shall cause the amount deducted to be paid into the general revenue fund of this state;

(7) Sales of natural gas by a natural gas company, of water by a water-works company, or of steam by a heating company, if in each case the thing sold is delivered to consumers through pipes or conduits, and all sales of communications services by a telegraph company, all terms as defined in section 5727.01 of the Revised Code, and sales of electricity delivered through wires;

(8) Casual sales by a person, or auctioneer employed directly by the person to conduct such sales, except as to such sales of motor vehicles, watercraft or outboard motors required to be titled under section 1548.06 of the Revised Code, watercraft documented with the United States coast guard, snowmobiles, and all-purpose vehicles as defined in section 4519.01 of the Revised Code;

(9)(a) Sales of services or tangible personal property, other than motor vehicles, mobile homes, and manufactured homes, by churches, organizations exempt from taxation under section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, or nonprofit organizations operated exclusively for charitable purposes as defined in division (B)(12) of this section, provided that the number of days on which such tangible personal property or services, other than items never subject to the tax, are sold does not exceed six in any calendar year, except as otherwise provided in division (B)(9)(b) of this section. If the number of days on which such sales are made exceeds six in any calendar year, the church or organization shall be considered to be engaged in business and all subsequent sales by it shall be subject to the tax. In counting the number of days, all sales by groups within a church or within an organization shall be considered to be sales of that church or organization.

(b) The limitation on the number of days on which tax-exempt sales may be made by a church or organization under division (B)(9)(a) of this section does not apply to sales made by student clubs and other groups of students of a primary or secondary school, or a parent-teacher association, booster group, or similar organization that raises money to support or fund curricular or extracurricular activities of a primary or secondary school.

(c) Divisions (B)(9)(a) and (b) of this section do not apply to sales by a noncommercial educational radio or television broadcasting station.

(10) Sales not within the taxing power of this state under the Constitution of the United States;

(11) Except for transactions that are sales under division (B)(3)(r) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code, the transportation of persons or property, unless the transportation is by a private investigation and security service;

(12) Sales of tangible personal property or services to churches, to organizations exempt from taxation under section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, and to any other nonprofit organizations operated exclusively for charitable purposes in this state, no part of the net income of which inures to the benefit of any private shareholder or individual, and no substantial part of the activities of which consists of carrying on propaganda or otherwise attempting to influence legislation; sales to offices administering one or more homes for the aged or one or more hospital facilities exempt under section 140.08 of the Revised Code; and sales to organizations described in division (D) of section 5709.12 of the Revised Code.

"Charitable purposes" means the relief of poverty; the improvement of health through the alleviation of illness, disease, or injury; the operation of an organization exclusively for the provision of professional, laundry, printing, and purchasing services to hospitals or charitable institutions; the operation of a home for the aged, as defined in section 5701.13 of the Revised Code; the operation of a radio or television broadcasting station that is licensed by the federal communications commission as a noncommercial educational radio or television station; the operation of a nonprofit animal adoption service or a county humane society; the promotion of education by an institution of learning that maintains a faculty of qualified instructors, teaches regular continuous courses of study, and confers a recognized diploma upon completion of a specific curriculum; the operation of a parent-teacher association, booster group, or similar organization primarily engaged in the promotion and support of the curricular or extracurricular activities of a primary or secondary school; the operation of a community or area center in which presentations in music, dramatics, the arts, and related fields are made in order to foster public interest and education therein; the production of performances in music, dramatics, and the arts; or the promotion of education by an organization engaged in carrying on research in, or the dissemination of, scientific and technological knowledge and information primarily for the public.

Nothing in this division shall be deemed to exempt sales to any organization for use in the operation or carrying on of a trade or business, or sales to a home for the aged for use in the operation of independent living facilities as defined in division (A) of section 5709.12 of the Revised Code.

(13) Building and construction materials and services sold to construction contractors for incorporation into a structure or improvement to real property under a construction contract with this state or a political subdivision of this state, or with the United States government or any of its agencies; building and construction materials and services sold to construction contractors for incorporation into a structure or improvement to real property that are accepted for ownership by this state or any of its political subdivisions, or by the United States government or any of its agencies at the time of completion of the structures or improvements; building and construction materials sold to construction contractors for incorporation into a horticulture structure or livestock structure for a person engaged in the business of horticulture or producing livestock; building materials and services sold to a construction contractor for incorporation into a house of public worship or religious education, or a building used exclusively for charitable purposes under a construction contract with an organization whose purpose is as described in division (B)(12) of this section; building materials and services sold to a construction contractor for incorporation into a building under a construction contract with an organization exempt from taxation under section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 when the building is to be used exclusively for the organization's exempt purposes; building and construction materials sold for incorporation into the original construction of a sports facility under section 307.696 of the Revised Code; building and construction materials and services sold to a construction contractor for incorporation into real property outside this state if such materials and services, when sold to a construction contractor in the state in which the real property is located for incorporation into real property in that state, would be exempt from a tax on sales levied by that state; and, until one calendar year after the construction of a convention center that qualifies for property tax exemption under section 5709.084 of the Revised Code is completed, building and construction materials and services sold to a construction contractor for incorporation into the real property comprising that convention center;

(14) Sales of ships or vessels or rail rolling stock used or to be used principally in interstate or foreign commerce, and repairs, alterations, fuel, and lubricants for such ships or vessels or rail rolling stock;

(15) Sales to persons primarily engaged in any of the activities mentioned in division (B)(42)(a), (g), or (h) of this section, to persons engaged in making retail sales, or to persons who purchase for sale from a manufacturer tangible personal property that was produced by the manufacturer in accordance with specific designs provided by the purchaser, of packages, including material, labels, and parts for packages, and of machinery, equipment, and material for use primarily in packaging tangible personal property produced for sale, including any machinery, equipment, and supplies used to make labels or packages, to prepare packages or products for labeling, or to label packages or products, by or on the order of the person doing the packaging, or sold at retail. "Packages" includes bags, baskets, cartons, crates, boxes, cans, bottles, bindings, wrappings, and other similar devices and containers, but does not include motor vehicles or bulk tanks, trailers, or similar devices attached to motor vehicles. "Packaging" means placing in a package. Division (B)(15) of this section does not apply to persons engaged in highway transportation for hire.

(16) Sales of food to persons using supplemental nutrition assistance program benefits to purchase the food. As used in this division, "food" has the same meaning as in 7 U.S.C. 2012 and federal regulations adopted pursuant to the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008.

(17) Sales to persons engaged in farming, agriculture, horticulture, or floriculture, of tangible personal property for use or consumption primarily in the production by farming, agriculture, horticulture, or floriculture of other tangible personal property for use or consumption primarily in the production of tangible personal property for sale by farming, agriculture, horticulture, or floriculture; or material and parts for incorporation into any such tangible personal property for use or consumption in production; and of tangible personal property for such use or consumption in the conditioning or holding of products produced by and for such use, consumption, or sale by persons engaged in farming, agriculture, horticulture, or floriculture, except where such property is incorporated into real property;

(18) Sales of drugs for a human being that may be dispensed only pursuant to a prescription; insulin as recognized in the official United States pharmacopoeia; urine and blood testing materials when used by diabetics or persons with hypoglycemia to test for glucose or acetone; hypodermic syringes and needles when used by diabetics for insulin injections; epoetin alfa when purchased for use in the treatment of persons with medical disease; hospital beds when purchased by hospitals, nursing homes, or other medical facilities; and medical oxygen and medical oxygen-dispensing equipment when purchased by hospitals, nursing homes, or other medical facilities;

(19) Sales of prosthetic devices, durable medical equipment for home use, or mobility enhancing equipment, when made pursuant to a prescription and when such devices or equipment are for use by a human being.

(20) Sales of emergency and fire protection vehicles and equipment to nonprofit organizations for use solely in providing fire protection and emergency services, including trauma care and emergency medical services, for political subdivisions of the state;

(21) Sales of tangible personal property manufactured in this state, if sold by the manufacturer in this state to a retailer for use in the retail business of the retailer outside of this state and if possession is taken from the manufacturer by the purchaser within this state for the sole purpose of immediately removing the same from this state in a vehicle owned by the purchaser;

(22) Sales of services provided by the state or any of its political subdivisions, agencies, instrumentalities, institutions, or authorities, or by governmental entities of the state or any of its political subdivisions, agencies, instrumentalities, institutions, or authorities;

(23) Sales of motor vehicles to nonresidents of this state under the circumstances described in division (B) of section 5739.029 of the Revised Code;

(24) Sales to persons engaged in the preparation of eggs for sale of tangible personal property used or consumed directly in such preparation, including such tangible personal property used for cleaning, sanitizing, preserving, grading, sorting, and classifying by size; packages, including material and parts for packages, and machinery, equipment, and material for use in packaging eggs for sale; and handling and transportation equipment and parts therefor, except motor vehicles licensed to operate on public highways, used in intraplant or interplant transfers or shipment of eggs in the process of preparation for sale, when the plant or plants within or between which such transfers or shipments occur are operated by the same person. "Packages" includes containers, cases, baskets, flats, fillers, filler flats, cartons, closure materials, labels, and labeling materials, and "packaging" means placing therein.

(b) Sales of water by a nonprofit corporation engaged exclusively in the treatment, distribution, and sale of water to consumers, if such water is delivered to consumers through pipes or tubing.

(26) Fees charged for inspection or reinspection of motor vehicles under section 3704.14 of the Revised Code;

(27) Sales to persons licensed to conduct a food service operation pursuant to section 3717.43 of the Revised Code, of tangible personal property primarily used directly for the following:

(b) To preserve food that has been or will be prepared for human consumption for sale by the food service operator, not including tangible personal property used to display food for selection by the consumer;

(28) Sales of animals by nonprofit animal adoption services or county humane societies;

(29) Sales of services to a corporation described in division (A) of section 5709.72 of the Revised Code, and sales of tangible personal property that qualifies for exemption from taxation under section 5709.72 of the Revised Code;

(30) Sales and installation of agricultural land tile, as defined in division (B)(5)(a) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code;

(31) Sales and erection or installation of portable grain bins, as defined in division (B)(5)(b) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code;

(32) The sale, lease, repair, and maintenance of, parts for, or items attached to or incorporated in, motor vehicles that are primarily used for transporting tangible personal property belonging to others by a person engaged in highway transportation for hire, except for packages and packaging used for the transportation of tangible personal property;

(33) Sales to the state headquarters of any veterans' organization in this state that is either incorporated and issued a charter by the congress of the United States or is recognized by the United States veterans administration, for use by the headquarters;

(34) Sales to a telecommunications service vendor, mobile telecommunications service vendor, or satellite broadcasting service vendor of tangible personal property and services used directly and primarily in transmitting, receiving, switching, or recording any interactive, one- or two-way electromagnetic communications, including voice, image, data, and information, through the use of any medium, including, but not limited to, poles, wires, cables, switching equipment, computers, and record storage devices and media, and component parts for the tangible personal property. The exemption provided in this division shall be in lieu of all other exemptions under division (B)(42)(a) or (n) of this section to which the vendor may otherwise be entitled, based upon the use of the thing purchased in providing the telecommunications, mobile telecommunications, or satellite broadcasting service.

(35)(a) Sales where the purpose of the consumer is to use or consume the things transferred in making retail sales and consisting of newspaper inserts, catalogues, coupons, flyers, gift certificates, or other advertising material that prices and describes tangible personal property offered for retail sale.

(b) Sales to direct marketing vendors of preliminary materials such as photographs, artwork, and typesetting that will be used in printing advertising material; and of printed matter that offers free merchandise or chances to win sweepstake prizes and that is mailed to potential customers with advertising material described in division (B)(35)(a) of this section;

(c) Sales of equipment such as telephones, computers, facsimile machines, and similar tangible personal property primarily used to accept orders for direct marketing retail sales.

(d) Sales of automatic food vending machines that preserve food with a shelf life of forty-five days or less by refrigeration and dispense it to the consumer.

For purposes of division (B)(35) of this section, "direct marketing" means the method of selling where consumers order tangible personal property by United States mail, delivery service, or telecommunication and the vendor delivers or ships the tangible personal property sold to the consumer from a warehouse, catalogue distribution center, or similar fulfillment facility by means of the United States mail, delivery service, or common carrier.

(36) Sales to a person engaged in the business of horticulture or producing livestock of materials to be incorporated into a horticulture structure or livestock structure;

(37) Sales of personal computers, computer monitors, computer keyboards, modems, and other peripheral computer equipment to an individual who is licensed or certified to teach in an elementary or a secondary school in this state for use by that individual in preparation for teaching elementary or secondary school students;

(c) Items of property that are attached to or incorporated in motor racing vehicles, including engines, chassis, and all other components of the vehicles, and all spare, replacement, and rebuilt parts or components of the vehicles; except not including tires, consumable fluids, paint, and accessories consisting of instrumentation sensors and related items added to the vehicle to collect and transmit data by means of telemetry and other forms of communication.

(39) Sales of used manufactured homes and used mobile homes, as defined in section 5739.0210 of the Revised Code, made on or after January 1, 2000;

(40) Sales of tangible personal property and services to a provider of electricity used or consumed directly and primarily in generating, transmitting, or distributing electricity for use by others, including property that is or is to be incorporated into and will become a part of the consumer's production, transmission, or distribution system and that retains its classification as tangible personal property after incorporation; fuel or power used in the production, transmission, or distribution of electricity; energy conversion equipment as defined in section 5727.01 of the Revised Code; and tangible personal property and services used in the repair and maintenance of the production, transmission, or distribution system, including only those motor vehicles as are specially designed and equipped for such use. The exemption provided in this division shall be in lieu of all other exemptions in division (B)(42)(a) or (n) of this section to which a provider of electricity may otherwise be entitled based on the use of the tangible personal property or service purchased in generating, transmitting, or distributing electricity.

(41) Sales to a person providing services under division (B)(3)(r) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code of tangible personal property and services used directly and primarily in providing taxable services under that section.

(a) To incorporate the thing transferred as a material or a part into tangible personal property to be produced for sale by manufacturing, assembling, processing, or refining; or to use or consume the thing transferred directly in producing tangible personal property for sale by mining, including, without limitation, the extraction from the earth of all substances that are classed geologically as minerals, production of crude oil and natural gas, or directly in the rendition of a public utility service, except that the sales tax levied by this section shall be collected upon all meals, drinks, and food for human consumption sold when transporting persons. Persons engaged in rendering services in the exploration for, and production of, crude oil and natural gas for others are deemed engaged directly in the exploration for, and production of, crude oil and natural gas. This paragraph does not exempt from "retail sale" or "sales at retail" the sale of tangible personal property that is to be incorporated into a structure or improvement to real property.

(b) To hold the thing transferred as security for the performance of an obligation of the vendor;

(e) To incorporate the thing transferred as a material or a part into, or to use or consume the thing transferred directly in the production of, magazines distributed as controlled circulation publications;

(f) To use or consume the thing transferred in the production and preparation in suitable condition for market and sale of printed, imprinted, overprinted, lithographic, multilithic, blueprinted, photostatic, or other productions or reproductions of written or graphic matter;

(g) To use the thing transferred, as described in section 5739.011 of the Revised Code, primarily in a manufacturing operation to produce tangible personal property for sale;

(h) To use the benefit of a warranty, maintenance or service contract, or similar agreement, as described in division (B)(7) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code, to repair or maintain tangible personal property, if all of the property that is the subject of the warranty, contract, or agreement would not be subject to the tax imposed by this section;

(i) To use the thing transferred as qualified research and development equipment;

(j) To use or consume the thing transferred primarily in storing, transporting, mailing, or otherwise handling purchased sales inventory in a warehouse, distribution center, or similar facility when the inventory is primarily distributed outside this state to retail stores of the person who owns or controls the warehouse, distribution center, or similar facility, to retail stores of an affiliated group of which that person is a member, or by means of direct marketing. This division does not apply to motor vehicles registered for operation on the public highways. As used in this division, "affiliated group" has the same meaning as in division (B)(3)(e) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code and "direct marketing" has the same meaning as in division (B)(35) of this section.

(k) To use or consume the thing transferred to fulfill a contractual obligation incurred by a warrantor pursuant to a warranty provided as a part of the price of the tangible personal property sold or by a vendor of a warranty, maintenance or service contract, or similar agreement the provision of which is defined as a sale under division (B)(7) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code;

(l) To use or consume the thing transferred in the production of a newspaper for distribution to the public;

(m) To use tangible personal property to perform a service listed in division (B)(3) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code, if the property is or is to be permanently transferred to the consumer of the service as an integral part of the performance of the service;

(n) To use or consume the thing transferred primarily in producing tangible personal property for sale by farming, agriculture, horticulture, or floriculture. Persons engaged in rendering farming, agriculture, horticulture, or floriculture services for others are deemed engaged primarily in farming, agriculture, horticulture, or floriculture. This paragraph does not exempt from "retail sale" or "sales at retail" the sale of tangible personal property that is to be incorporated into a structure or improvement to real property.

(o) To use or consume the thing transferred in acquiring, formatting, editing, storing, and disseminating data or information by electronic publishing.

As used in division (B)(42) of this section, "thing" includes all transactions included in divisions (B)(3)(a), (b), and (e) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code.

(43) Sales conducted through a coin operated device that activates vacuum equipment or equipment that dispenses water, whether or not in combination with soap or other cleaning agents or wax, to the consumer for the consumer's use on the premises in washing, cleaning, or waxing a motor vehicle, provided no other personal property or personal service is provided as part of the transaction.

(44) Sales of replacement and modification parts for engines, airframes, instruments, and interiors in, and paint for, aircraft used primarily in a fractional aircraft ownership program, and sales of services for the repair, modification, and maintenance of such aircraft, and machinery, equipment, and supplies primarily used to provide those services.

(45) Sales of telecommunications service that is used directly and primarily to perform the functions of a call center. As used in this division, "call center" means any physical location where telephone calls are placed or received in high volume for the purpose of making sales, marketing, customer service, technical support, or other specialized business activity, and that employs at least fifty individuals that engage in call center activities on a full-time basis, or sufficient individuals to fill fifty full-time equivalent positions.

(46) Sales by a telecommunications service vendor of 900 service to a subscriber. This division does not apply to information services, as defined in division (FF) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code.

(47) Sales of value-added non-voice data service. This division does not apply to any similar service that is not otherwise a telecommunications service.

(48)(a) Sales of machinery, equipment, and software to a qualified direct selling entity for use in a warehouse or distribution center primarily for storing, transporting, or otherwise handling inventory that is held for sale to independent salespersons who operate as direct sellers and that is held primarily for distribution outside this state;

(i) "Direct seller" means a person selling consumer products to individuals for personal or household use and not from a fixed retail location, including selling such product at in-home product demonstrations, parties, and other one-on-one selling.

(ii) "Qualified direct selling entity" means an entity selling to direct sellers at the time the entity enters into a tax credit agreement with the tax credit authority pursuant to section 122.17 of the Revised Code, provided that the agreement was entered into on or after January 1, 2007. Neither contingencies relevant to the granting of, nor later developments with respect to, the tax credit shall impair the status of the qualified direct selling entity under division (B)(48) of this section after execution of the tax credit agreement by the tax credit authority.

(c) Division (B)(48) of this section is limited to machinery, equipment, and software first stored, used, or consumed in this state within the period commencing June 24, 2008, and ending on the date that is five years after that date.

(49) Sales of materials, parts, equipment, or engines used in the repair or maintenance of aircraft or avionics systems of such aircraft, and sales of repair, remodeling, replacement, or maintenance services in this state performed on aircraft or on an aircraft's avionics, engine, or component materials or parts. As used in division (B)(49) of this section, "aircraft" means aircraft of more than six thousand pounds maximum certified takeoff weight or used exclusively in general aviation.

(50) Sales of full flight simulators that are used for pilot or flight-crew training, sales of repair or replacement parts or components, and sales of repair or maintenance services for such full flight simulators. "Full flight simulator" means a replica of a specific type, or make, model, and series of aircraft cockpit. It includes the assemblage of equipment and computer programs necessary to represent aircraft operations in ground and flight conditions, a visual system providing an out-of-the-cockpit view, and a system that provides cues at least equivalent to those of a three-degree-of-freedom motion system, and has the full range of capabilities of the systems installed in the device as described in appendices A and B of part 60 of chapter 1 of title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations.

(51) Any transfer or lease of tangible personal property between the state and a successful proposer in accordance with sections 126.60 to 126.605 of the Revised Code, provided the property is part of a project as defined in section 126.60 of the Revised Code and the state retains ownership of the project or part thereof that is being transferred or leased, between the state and JobsOhio in accordance with section 4313.02 of the Revised Code.

(C) For the purpose of the proper administration of this chapter, and to prevent the evasion of the tax, it is presumed that all sales made in this state are subject to the tax until the contrary is established.

(D) The levy of this tax on retail sales of recreation and sports club service shall not prevent a municipal corporation from levying any tax on recreation and sports club dues or on any income generated by recreation and sports club dues.

(E) The tax collected by the vendor from the consumer under this chapter is not part of the price, but is a tax collection for the benefit of the state, and of counties levying an additional sales tax pursuant to section 5739.021 or 5739.026 of the Revised Code and of transit authorities levying an additional sales tax pursuant to section 5739.023 of the Revised Code. Except for the discount authorized under section 5739.12 of the Revised Code and the effects of any rounding pursuant to section 5703.055 of the Revised Code, no person other than the state or such a county or transit authority shall derive any benefit from the collection or payment of the tax levied by this section or section 5739.021, 5739.023, or 5739.026 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 5747.01. Except as otherwise expressly provided or clearly appearing from the context, any term used in this chapter that is not otherwise defined in this section has the same meaning as when used in a comparable context in the laws of the United States relating to federal income taxes or if not used in a comparable context in those laws, has the same meaning as in section 5733.40 of the Revised Code. Any reference in this chapter to the Internal Revenue Code includes other laws of the United States relating to federal income taxes.

(A) "Adjusted gross income" or "Ohio adjusted gross income" means federal adjusted gross income, as defined and used in the Internal Revenue Code, adjusted as provided in this section:

(1) Add interest or dividends on obligations or securities of any state or of any political subdivision or authority of any state, other than this state and its subdivisions and authorities.

(2) Add interest or dividends on obligations of any authority, commission, instrumentality, territory, or possession of the United States to the extent that the interest or dividends are exempt from federal income taxes but not from state income taxes.

(3) Deduct interest or dividends on obligations of the United States and its territories and possessions or of any authority, commission, or instrumentality of the United States to the extent that the interest or dividends are included in federal adjusted gross income but exempt from state income taxes under the laws of the United States.

(4) Deduct disability and survivor's benefits to the extent included in federal adjusted gross income.

(5) Deduct benefits under Title II of the Social Security Act and tier 1 railroad retirement benefits to the extent included in federal adjusted gross income under section 86 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(6) In the case of a taxpayer who is a beneficiary of a trust that makes an accumulation distribution as defined in section 665 of the Internal Revenue Code, add, for the beneficiary's taxable years beginning before 2002, the portion, if any, of such distribution that does not exceed the undistributed net income of the trust for the three taxable years preceding the taxable year in which the distribution is made to the extent that the portion was not included in the trust's taxable income for any of the trust's taxable years beginning in 2002 or thereafter. "Undistributed net income of a trust" means the taxable income of the trust increased by (a)(i) the additions to adjusted gross income required under division (A) of this section and (ii) the personal exemptions allowed to the trust pursuant to section 642(b) of the Internal Revenue Code, and decreased by (b)(i) the deductions to adjusted gross income required under division (A) of this section, (ii) the amount of federal income taxes attributable to such income, and (iii) the amount of taxable income that has been included in the adjusted gross income of a beneficiary by reason of a prior accumulation distribution. Any undistributed net income included in the adjusted gross income of a beneficiary shall reduce the undistributed net income of the trust commencing with the earliest years of the accumulation period.

(7) Deduct the amount of wages and salaries, if any, not otherwise allowable as a deduction but that would have been allowable as a deduction in computing federal adjusted gross income for the taxable year, had the targeted jobs credit allowed and determined under sections 38, 51, and 52 of the Internal Revenue Code not been in effect.

(8) Deduct any interest or interest equivalent on public obligations and purchase obligations to the extent that the interest or interest equivalent is included in federal adjusted gross income.

(9) Add any loss or deduct any gain resulting from the sale, exchange, or other disposition of public obligations to the extent that the loss has been deducted or the gain has been included in computing federal adjusted gross income.

(10) Deduct or add amounts, as provided under section 5747.70 of the Revised Code, related to contributions to variable college savings program accounts made or tuition units purchased pursuant to Chapter 3334. of the Revised Code.

(11)(a) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise allowable as a deduction or exclusion in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable year, the amount the taxpayer paid during the taxable year for medical care insurance and qualified long-term care insurance for the taxpayer, the taxpayer's spouse, and dependents. No deduction for medical care insurance under division (A)(11) of this section shall be allowed either to any taxpayer who is eligible to participate in any subsidized health plan maintained by any employer of the taxpayer or of the taxpayer's spouse, or to any taxpayer who is entitled to, or on application would be entitled to, benefits under part A of Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended. For the purposes of division (A)(11)(a) of this section, "subsidized health plan" means a health plan for which the employer pays any portion of the plan's cost. The deduction allowed under division (A)(11)(a) of this section shall be the net of any related premium refunds, related premium reimbursements, or related insurance premium dividends received during the taxable year.

(b) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income during the taxable year, the amount the taxpayer paid during the taxable year, not compensated for by any insurance or otherwise, for medical care of the taxpayer, the taxpayer's spouse, and dependents, to the extent the expenses exceed seven and one-half per cent of the taxpayer's federal adjusted gross income.

(c) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income, any amount included in federal adjusted gross income under section 105 or not excluded under section 106 of the Internal Revenue Code solely because it relates to an accident and health plan for a person who otherwise would be a "qualifying relative" and thus a "dependent" under section 152 of the Internal Revenue Code but for the fact that the person fails to meet the income and support limitations under section 152(d)(1)(B) and (C) of the Internal Revenue Code.

(d) For purposes of division (A)(11) of this section, "medical care" has the meaning given in section 213 of the Internal Revenue Code, subject to the special rules, limitations, and exclusions set forth therein, and "qualified long-term care" has the same meaning given in section 7702B(c) of the Internal Revenue Code. Solely for purposes of divisions (A)(11)(a) and (c) of this section, "dependent" includes a person who otherwise would be a "qualifying relative" and thus a "dependent" under section 152 of the Internal Revenue Code but for the fact that the person fails to meet the income and support limitations under section 152(d)(1)(B) and (C) of the Internal Revenue Code.

(12)(a) Deduct any amount included in federal adjusted gross income solely because the amount represents a reimbursement or refund of expenses that in any year the taxpayer had deducted as an itemized deduction pursuant to section 63 of the Internal Revenue Code and applicable United States department of the treasury regulations. The deduction otherwise allowed under division (A)(12)(a) of this section shall be reduced to the extent the reimbursement is attributable to an amount the taxpayer deducted under this section in any taxable year.

(b) Add any amount not otherwise included in Ohio adjusted gross income for any taxable year to the extent that the amount is attributable to the recovery during the taxable year of any amount deducted or excluded in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income in any taxable year.

(13) Deduct any portion of the deduction described in section 1341(a)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code, for repaying previously reported income received under a claim of right, that meets both of the following requirements:

(a) It is allowable for repayment of an item that was included in the taxpayer's adjusted gross income for a prior taxable year and did not qualify for a credit under division (A) or (B) of section 5747.05 of the Revised Code for that year;

(b) It does not otherwise reduce the taxpayer's adjusted gross income for the current or any other taxable year.

(14) Deduct an amount equal to the deposits made to, and net investment earnings of, a medical savings account during the taxable year, in accordance with section 3924.66 of the Revised Code. The deduction allowed by division (A)(14) of this section does not apply to medical savings account deposits and earnings otherwise deducted or excluded for the current or any other taxable year from the taxpayer's federal adjusted gross income.

(15)(a) Add an amount equal to the funds withdrawn from a medical savings account during the taxable year, and the net investment earnings on those funds, when the funds withdrawn were used for any purpose other than to reimburse an account holder for, or to pay, eligible medical expenses, in accordance with section 3924.66 of the Revised Code;

(b) Add the amounts distributed from a medical savings account under division (A)(2) of section 3924.68 of the Revised Code during the taxable year.

(16) Add any amount claimed as a credit under section 5747.059 or 5747.65 of the Revised Code to the extent that such amount satisfies either of the following:

(a) The amount was deducted or excluded from the computation of the taxpayer's federal adjusted gross income as required to be reported for the taxpayer's taxable year under the Internal Revenue Code;

(b) The amount resulted in a reduction of the taxpayer's federal adjusted gross income as required to be reported for any of the taxpayer's taxable years under the Internal Revenue Code.

(17) Deduct the amount contributed by the taxpayer to an individual development account program established by a county department of job and family services pursuant to sections 329.11 to 329.14 of the Revised Code for the purpose of matching funds deposited by program participants. On request of the tax commissioner, the taxpayer shall provide any information that, in the tax commissioner's opinion, is necessary to establish the amount deducted under division (A)(17) of this section.

(18) Beginning in taxable year 2001 but not for any taxable year beginning after December 31, 2005, if the taxpayer is married and files a joint return and the combined federal adjusted gross income of the taxpayer and the taxpayer's spouse for the taxable year does not exceed one hundred thousand dollars, or if the taxpayer is single and has a federal adjusted gross income for the taxable year not exceeding fifty thousand dollars, deduct amounts paid during the taxable year for qualified tuition and fees paid to an eligible institution for the taxpayer, the taxpayer's spouse, or any dependent of the taxpayer, who is a resident of this state and is enrolled in or attending a program that culminates in a degree or diploma at an eligible institution. The deduction may be claimed only to the extent that qualified tuition and fees are not otherwise deducted or excluded for any taxable year from federal or Ohio adjusted gross income. The deduction may not be claimed for educational expenses for which the taxpayer claims a credit under section 5747.27 of the Revised Code.

(19) Add any reimbursement received during the taxable year of any amount the taxpayer deducted under division (A)(18) of this section in any previous taxable year to the extent the amount is not otherwise included in Ohio adjusted gross income.

(20)(a)(i) Subject to divisions (A)(20)(a)(iii), (iv), and (v) of this section, add five-sixths of the amount of depreciation expense allowed by subsection (k) of section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code, including the taxpayer's proportionate or distributive share of the amount of depreciation expense allowed by that subsection to a pass-through entity in which the taxpayer has a direct or indirect ownership interest.

(ii) Subject to divisions (A)(20)(a)(iii), (iv), and (v) of this section, add five-sixths of the amount of qualifying section 179 depreciation expense, including the taxpayer's proportionate or distributive share of the amount of qualifying section 179 depreciation expense allowed to any pass-through entity in which the taxpayer has a direct or indirect ownership interest.

(iii) Subject to division (A)(20)(a)(v) of this section, for taxable years beginning in 2012 or thereafter, if the increase in income taxes withheld by the taxpayer is equal to or greater than ten per cent of income taxes withheld by the taxpayer during the taxpayer's immediately preceding taxable year, "two-thirds" shall be substituted for "five-sixths" for the purpose of divisions (A)(20)(a)(i) and (ii) of this section.

(iv) Subject to division (A)(20)(a)(v) of this section, for taxable years beginning in 2012 or thereafter, a taxpayer is not required to add an amount under division (A)(20) of this section if the increase in income taxes withheld by the taxpayer and by any pass-through entity in which the taxpayer has a direct or indirect ownership interest is equal to or greater than the sum of (I) the amount of qualifying section 179 depreciation expense and (II) the amount of depreciation expense allowed to the taxpayer by subsection (k) of section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code, and including the taxpayer's proportionate or distributive shares of such amounts allowed to any such pass-through entities.

(v) If a taxpayer directly or indirectly incurs a net operating loss for the taxable year for federal income tax purposes, to the extent such loss resulted from depreciation expense allowed by subsection (k) of section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code and by qualifying section 179 depreciation expense, "the entire" shall be substituted for "five-sixths of the" for the purpose of divisions (A)(20)(a)(i) and (ii) of this section.

The tax commissioner, under procedures established by the commissioner, may waive the add-backs related to a pass-through entity if the taxpayer owns, directly or indirectly, less than five per cent of the pass-through entity.

(b) Nothing in division (A)(20) of this section shall be construed to adjust or modify the adjusted basis of any asset.

(c) To the extent the add-back required under division (A)(20)(a) of this section is attributable to property generating nonbusiness income or loss allocated under section 5747.20 of the Revised Code, the add-back shall be sitused to the same location as the nonbusiness income or loss generated by the property for the purpose of determining the credit under division (A) of section 5747.05 of the Revised Code. Otherwise, the add-back shall be apportioned, subject to one or more of the four alternative methods of apportionment enumerated in section 5747.21 of the Revised Code.

(d) For the purposes of division (A)(20)(a)(v) of this section, net operating loss carryback and carryforward shall not include the allowance of any net operating loss deduction carryback or carryforward to the taxable year to the extent such loss resulted from depreciation allowed by section 168(k) of the Internal Revenue Code and by the qualifying section 179 depreciation expense amount.

(i) "Income taxes withheld" means the total amount withheld and remitted under sections 5747.06 and 5747.07 of the Revised Code by an employer during the employer's taxable year.

(ii) "Increase in income taxes withheld" means the amount by which the amount of income taxes withheld by an employer during the employer's current taxable year exceeds the amount of income taxes withheld by that employer during the employer's immediately preceding taxable year.

(iii) "Qualifying section 179 depreciation expense" means the difference between (I) the amount of depreciation expense directly or indirectly allowed to a taxpayer under section 179 of the Internal Revised Code, and (II) the amount of depreciation expense directly or indirectly allowed to the taxpayer under section 179 of the Internal Revenue Code as that section existed on December 31, 2002.

(21)(a) If the taxpayer was required to add an amount under division (A)(20)(a) of this section for a taxable year, deduct one of the following:

(i) One-fifth of the amount so added for each of the five succeeding taxable years if the amount so added was five-sixths of qualifying section 179 depreciation expense or depreciation expense allowed by subsection (k) of section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code;

(ii) One-half of the amount so added for each of the two succeeding taxable years if the amount so added was two-thirds of such depreciation expense;

(iii) One-sixth of the amount so added for each of the six succeeding taxable years if the entire amount of such depreciation expense was so added.

(b) If the amount deducted under division (A)(21)(a) of this section is attributable to an add-back allocated under division (A)(20)(c) of this section, the amount deducted shall be sitused to the same location. Otherwise, the add-back shall be apportioned using the apportionment factors for the taxable year in which the deduction is taken, subject to one or more of the four alternative methods of apportionment enumerated in section 5747.21 of the Revised Code.

(c) No deduction is available under division (A)(21)(a) of this section with regard to any depreciation allowed by section 168(k) of the Internal Revenue Code and by the qualifying section 179 depreciation expense amount to the extent that such depreciation results in or increases a federal net operating loss carryback or carryforward. If no such deduction is available for a taxable year, the taxpayer may carry forward the amount not deducted in such taxable year to the next taxable year and add that amount to any deduction otherwise available under division (A)(21)(a) of this section for that next taxable year. The carryforward of amounts not so deducted shall continue until the entire addition required by division (A)(20)(a) of this section has been deducted.

(d) No refund shall be allowed as a result of adjustments made by division (A)(21) of this section.

(22) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable year, the amount the taxpayer received during the taxable year as reimbursement for life insurance premiums under section 5919.31 of the Revised Code.

(23) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable year, the amount the taxpayer received during the taxable year as a death benefit paid by the adjutant general under section 5919.33 of the Revised Code.

(24) Deduct, to the extent included in federal adjusted gross income and not otherwise allowable as a deduction or exclusion in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable year, military pay and allowances received by the taxpayer during the taxable year for active duty service in the United States army, air force, navy, marine corps, or coast guard or reserve components thereof or the national guard. The deduction may not be claimed for military pay and allowances received by the taxpayer while the taxpayer is stationed in this state.

(25) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise allowable as a deduction or exclusion in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable year and not otherwise compensated for by any other source, the amount of qualified organ donation expenses incurred by the taxpayer during the taxable year, not to exceed ten thousand dollars. A taxpayer may deduct qualified organ donation expenses only once for all taxable years beginning with taxable years beginning in 2007.

(a) "Human organ" means all or any portion of a human liver, pancreas, kidney, intestine, or lung, and any portion of human bone marrow.

(b) "Qualified organ donation expenses" means travel expenses, lodging expenses, and wages and salary forgone by a taxpayer in connection with the taxpayer's donation, while living, of one or more of the taxpayer's human organs to another human being.

(26) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable year, amounts received by the taxpayer as retired military personnel pay for service in the United States army, navy, air force, coast guard, or marine corps or reserve components thereof, or the national guard, or received by the surviving spouse or former spouse of such a taxpayer under the survivor benefit plan on account of such a taxpayer's death. If the taxpayer receives income on account of retirement paid under the federal civil service retirement system or federal employees retirement system, or under any successor retirement program enacted by the congress of the United States that is established and maintained for retired employees of the United States government, and such retirement income is based, in whole or in part, on credit for the taxpayer's military service, the deduction allowed under this division shall include only that portion of such retirement income that is attributable to the taxpayer's military service, to the extent that portion of such retirement income is otherwise included in federal adjusted gross income and is not otherwise deducted under this section. Any amount deducted under division (A)(26) of this section is not included in a taxpayer's adjusted gross income for the purposes of section 5747.055 of the Revised Code. No amount may be deducted under division (A)(26) of this section on the basis of which a credit was claimed under section 5747.055 of the Revised Code.

(27) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable year, the amount the taxpayer received during the taxable year from the military injury relief fund created in section 5101.98 of the Revised Code.

(28) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable year, the amount the taxpayer received as a veterans bonus during the taxable year from the Ohio department of veterans services as authorized by Section 2r of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution.

(29) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable year, any loss from wagering transactions that is allowed as an itemized deduction under section 165 of the Internal Revenue Code and that the taxpayer deducted in computing federal taxable income.

(30) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable year, any income ~~derived from providing public services under a contract through a project owned by the state, as described in section 126.604 of the Revised Code or~~ derived from a transfer agreement or from the enterprise transferred under that agreement under section 4313.02 of the Revised Code.

(31) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable year, Ohio college opportunity or federal Pell grant amounts received by the taxpayer or the taxpayer's spouse or dependent pursuant to section 3333.122 of the Revised Code or 20 U.S.C. 1070a, et seq., and used to pay room or board furnished by the educational institution for which the grant was awarded at the institution's facilities, including meal plans administered by the institution. For the purposes of this division, receipt of a grant includes the distribution of a grant directly to an educational institution and the crediting of the grant to the enrollee's account with the institution.

(B) "Business income" means income, including gain or loss, arising from transactions, activities, and sources in the regular course of a trade or business and includes income, gain, or loss from real property, tangible property, and intangible property if the acquisition, rental, management, and disposition of the property constitute integral parts of the regular course of a trade or business operation. "Business income" includes income, including gain or loss, from a partial or complete liquidation of a business, including, but not limited to, gain or loss from the sale or other disposition of goodwill.

(C) "Nonbusiness income" means all income other than business income and may include, but is not limited to, compensation, rents and royalties from real or tangible personal property, capital gains, interest, dividends and distributions, patent or copyright royalties, or lottery winnings, prizes, and awards.

(D) "Compensation" means any form of remuneration paid to an employee for personal services.

(E) "Fiduciary" means a guardian, trustee, executor, administrator, receiver, conservator, or any other person acting in any fiduciary capacity for any individual, trust, or estate.

(F) "Fiscal year" means an accounting period of twelve months ending on the last day of any month other than December.

(H) "Internal Revenue Code" means the "Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 1, as amended.

(I) "Resident" means any of the following, provided that division (I)(3) of this section applies only to taxable years of a trust beginning in 2002 or thereafter:

(1) An individual who is domiciled in this state, subject to section 5747.24 of the Revised Code;

(2) The estate of a decedent who at the time of death was domiciled in this state. The domicile tests of section 5747.24 of the Revised Code are not controlling for purposes of division (I)(2) of this section.

(3) A trust that, in whole or part, resides in this state. If only part of a trust resides in this state, the trust is a resident only with respect to that part.

(a) A trust resides in this state for the trust's current taxable year to the extent, as described in division (I)(3)(d) of this section, that the trust consists directly or indirectly, in whole or in part, of assets, net of any related liabilities, that were transferred, or caused to be transferred, directly or indirectly, to the trust by any of the following:

(i) A person, a court, or a governmental entity or instrumentality on account of the death of a decedent, but only if the trust is described in division (I)(3)(e)(i) or (ii) of this section;

(ii) A person who was domiciled in this state for the purposes of this chapter when the person directly or indirectly transferred assets to an irrevocable trust, but only if at least one of the trust's qualifying beneficiaries is domiciled in this state for the purposes of this chapter during all or some portion of the trust's current taxable year;

(iii) A person who was domiciled in this state for the purposes of this chapter when the trust document or instrument or part of the trust document or instrument became irrevocable, but only if at least one of the trust's qualifying beneficiaries is a resident domiciled in this state for the purposes of this chapter during all or some portion of the trust's current taxable year. If a trust document or instrument became irrevocable upon the death of a person who at the time of death was domiciled in this state for purposes of this chapter, that person is a person described in division (I)(3)(a)(iii) of this section.

(b) A trust is irrevocable to the extent that the transferor is not considered to be the owner of the net assets of the trust under sections 671 to 678 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(c) With respect to a trust other than a charitable lead trust, "qualifying beneficiary" has the same meaning as "potential current beneficiary" as defined in section 1361(e)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code, and with respect to a charitable lead trust "qualifying beneficiary" is any current, future, or contingent beneficiary, but with respect to any trust "qualifying beneficiary" excludes a person or a governmental entity or instrumentality to any of which a contribution would qualify for the charitable deduction under section 170 of the Internal Revenue Code.

(d) For the purposes of division (I)(3)(a) of this section, the extent to which a trust consists directly or indirectly, in whole or in part, of assets, net of any related liabilities, that were transferred directly or indirectly, in whole or part, to the trust by any of the sources enumerated in that division shall be ascertained by multiplying the fair market value of the trust's assets, net of related liabilities, by the qualifying ratio, which shall be computed as follows:

(i) The first time the trust receives assets, the numerator of the qualifying ratio is the fair market value of those assets at that time, net of any related liabilities, from sources enumerated in division (I)(3)(a) of this section. The denominator of the qualifying ratio is the fair market value of all the trust's assets at that time, net of any related liabilities.

(ii) Each subsequent time the trust receives assets, a revised qualifying ratio shall be computed. The numerator of the revised qualifying ratio is the sum of (1) the fair market value of the trust's assets immediately prior to the subsequent transfer, net of any related liabilities, multiplied by the qualifying ratio last computed without regard to the subsequent transfer, and (2) the fair market value of the subsequently transferred assets at the time transferred, net of any related liabilities, from sources enumerated in division (I)(3)(a) of this section. The denominator of the revised qualifying ratio is the fair market value of all the trust's assets immediately after the subsequent transfer, net of any related liabilities.

(iii) Whether a transfer to the trust is by or from any of the sources enumerated in division (I)(3)(a) of this section shall be ascertained without regard to the domicile of the trust's beneficiaries.

(i) A trust is described in division (I)(3)(e)(i) of this section if the trust is a testamentary trust and the testator of that testamentary trust was domiciled in this state at the time of the testator's death for purposes of the taxes levied under Chapter 5731. of the Revised Code.

(ii) A trust is described in division (I)(3)(e)(ii) of this section if the transfer is a qualifying transfer described in any of divisions (I)(3)(f)(i) to (vi) of this section, the trust is an irrevocable inter vivos trust, and at least one of the trust's qualifying beneficiaries is domiciled in this state for purposes of this chapter during all or some portion of the trust's current taxable year.

(f) For the purposes of division (I)(3)(e)(ii) of this section, a "qualifying transfer" is a transfer of assets, net of any related liabilities, directly or indirectly to a trust, if the transfer is described in any of the following:

(i) The transfer is made to a trust, created by the decedent before the decedent's death and while the decedent was domiciled in this state for the purposes of this chapter, and, prior to the death of the decedent, the trust became irrevocable while the decedent was domiciled in this state for the purposes of this chapter.

(ii) The transfer is made to a trust to which the decedent, prior to the decedent's death, had directly or indirectly transferred assets, net of any related liabilities, while the decedent was domiciled in this state for the purposes of this chapter, and prior to the death of the decedent the trust became irrevocable while the decedent was domiciled in this state for the purposes of this chapter.

(iii) The transfer is made on account of a contractual relationship existing directly or indirectly between the transferor and either the decedent or the estate of the decedent at any time prior to the date of the decedent's death, and the decedent was domiciled in this state at the time of death for purposes of the taxes levied under Chapter 5731. of the Revised Code.

(iv) The transfer is made to a trust on account of a contractual relationship existing directly or indirectly between the transferor and another person who at the time of the decedent's death was domiciled in this state for purposes of this chapter.

(v) The transfer is made to a trust on account of the will of a testator who was domiciled in this state at the time of the testator's death for purposes of the taxes levied under Chapter 5731. of the Revised Code.

(vi) The transfer is made to a trust created by or caused to be created by a court, and the trust was directly or indirectly created in connection with or as a result of the death of an individual who, for purposes of the taxes levied under Chapter 5731. of the Revised Code, was domiciled in this state at the time of the individual's death.

(g) The tax commissioner may adopt rules to ascertain the part of a trust residing in this state.

(J) "Nonresident" means an individual or estate that is not a resident. An individual who is a resident for only part of a taxable year is a nonresident for the remainder of that taxable year.

(K) "Pass-through entity" has the same meaning as in section 5733.04 of the Revised Code.

(L) "Return" means the notifications and reports required to be filed pursuant to this chapter for the purpose of reporting the tax due and includes declarations of estimated tax when so required.

(M) "Taxable year" means the calendar year or the taxpayer's fiscal year ending during the calendar year, or fractional part thereof, upon which the adjusted gross income is calculated pursuant to this chapter.

(N) "Taxpayer" means any person subject to the tax imposed by section 5747.02 of the Revised Code or any pass-through entity that makes the election under division (D) of section 5747.08 of the Revised Code.

(O) "Dependents" means dependents as defined in the Internal Revenue Code and as claimed in the taxpayer's federal income tax return for the taxable year or which the taxpayer would have been permitted to claim had the taxpayer filed a federal income tax return.

(P) "Principal county of employment" means, in the case of a nonresident, the county within the state in which a taxpayer performs services for an employer or, if those services are performed in more than one county, the county in which the major portion of the services are performed.

(1) "Subdivision" means any county, municipal corporation, park district, or township.

(2) "Essential local government purposes" includes all functions that any subdivision is required by general law to exercise, including like functions that are exercised under a charter adopted pursuant to the Ohio Constitution.

(R) "Overpayment" means any amount already paid that exceeds the figure determined to be the correct amount of the tax.

(S) "Taxable income" or "Ohio taxable income" applies only to estates and trusts, and means federal taxable income, as defined and used in the Internal Revenue Code, adjusted as follows:

(1) Add interest or dividends, net of ordinary, necessary, and reasonable expenses not deducted in computing federal taxable income, on obligations or securities of any state or of any political subdivision or authority of any state, other than this state and its subdivisions and authorities, but only to the extent that such net amount is not otherwise includible in Ohio taxable income and is described in either division (S)(1)(a) or (b) of this section:

(a) The net amount is not attributable to the S portion of an electing small business trust and has not been distributed to beneficiaries for the taxable year;

(b) The net amount is attributable to the S portion of an electing small business trust for the taxable year.

(2) Add interest or dividends, net of ordinary, necessary, and reasonable expenses not deducted in computing federal taxable income, on obligations of any authority, commission, instrumentality, territory, or possession of the United States to the extent that the interest or dividends are exempt from federal income taxes but not from state income taxes, but only to the extent that such net amount is not otherwise includible in Ohio taxable income and is described in either division (S)(1)(a) or (b) of this section;

(3) Add the amount of personal exemption allowed to the estate pursuant to section 642(b) of the Internal Revenue Code;

(4) Deduct interest or dividends, net of related expenses deducted in computing federal taxable income, on obligations of the United States and its territories and possessions or of any authority, commission, or instrumentality of the United States to the extent that the interest or dividends are exempt from state taxes under the laws of the United States, but only to the extent that such amount is included in federal taxable income and is described in either division (S)(1)(a) or (b) of this section;

(5) Deduct the amount of wages and salaries, if any, not otherwise allowable as a deduction but that would have been allowable as a deduction in computing federal taxable income for the taxable year, had the targeted jobs credit allowed under sections 38, 51, and 52 of the Internal Revenue Code not been in effect, but only to the extent such amount relates either to income included in federal taxable income for the taxable year or to income of the S portion of an electing small business trust for the taxable year;

(6) Deduct any interest or interest equivalent, net of related expenses deducted in computing federal taxable income, on public obligations and purchase obligations, but only to the extent that such net amount relates either to income included in federal taxable income for the taxable year or to income of the S portion of an electing small business trust for the taxable year;

(7) Add any loss or deduct any gain resulting from sale, exchange, or other disposition of public obligations to the extent that such loss has been deducted or such gain has been included in computing either federal taxable income or income of the S portion of an electing small business trust for the taxable year;

(8) Except in the case of the final return of an estate, add any amount deducted by the taxpayer on both its Ohio estate tax return pursuant to section 5731.14 of the Revised Code, and on its federal income tax return in determining federal taxable income;

(9)(a) Deduct any amount included in federal taxable income solely because the amount represents a reimbursement or refund of expenses that in a previous year the decedent had deducted as an itemized deduction pursuant to section 63 of the Internal Revenue Code and applicable treasury regulations. The deduction otherwise allowed under division (S)(9)(a) of this section shall be reduced to the extent the reimbursement is attributable to an amount the taxpayer or decedent deducted under this section in any taxable year.

(b) Add any amount not otherwise included in Ohio taxable income for any taxable year to the extent that the amount is attributable to the recovery during the taxable year of any amount deducted or excluded in computing federal or Ohio taxable income in any taxable year, but only to the extent such amount has not been distributed to beneficiaries for the taxable year.

(10) Deduct any portion of the deduction described in section 1341(a)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code, for repaying previously reported income received under a claim of right, that meets both of the following requirements:

(a) It is allowable for repayment of an item that was included in the taxpayer's taxable income or the decedent's adjusted gross income for a prior taxable year and did not qualify for a credit under division (A) or (B) of section 5747.05 of the Revised Code for that year.

(b) It does not otherwise reduce the taxpayer's taxable income or the decedent's adjusted gross income for the current or any other taxable year.

(11) Add any amount claimed as a credit under section 5747.059 or 5747.65 of the Revised Code to the extent that the amount satisfies either of the following:

(a) The amount was deducted or excluded from the computation of the taxpayer's federal taxable income as required to be reported for the taxpayer's taxable year under the Internal Revenue Code;

(b) The amount resulted in a reduction in the taxpayer's federal taxable income as required to be reported for any of the taxpayer's taxable years under the Internal Revenue Code.

(12) Deduct any amount, net of related expenses deducted in computing federal taxable income, that a trust is required to report as farm income on its federal income tax return, but only if the assets of the trust include at least ten acres of land satisfying the definition of "land devoted exclusively to agricultural use" under section 5713.30 of the Revised Code, regardless of whether the land is valued for tax purposes as such land under sections 5713.30 to 5713.38 of the Revised Code. If the trust is a pass-through entity investor, section 5747.231 of the Revised Code applies in ascertaining if the trust is eligible to claim the deduction provided by division (S)(12) of this section in connection with the pass-through entity's farm income.

Except for farm income attributable to the S portion of an electing small business trust, the deduction provided by division (S)(12) of this section is allowed only to the extent that the trust has not distributed such farm income. Division (S)(12) of this section applies only to taxable years of a trust beginning in 2002 or thereafter.

(13) Add the net amount of income described in section 641(c) of the Internal Revenue Code to the extent that amount is not included in federal taxable income.

(14) Add or deduct the amount the taxpayer would be required to add or deduct under division (A)(20) or (21) of this section if the taxpayer's Ohio taxable income were computed in the same manner as an individual's Ohio adjusted gross income is computed under this section. In the case of a trust, division (S)(14) of this section applies only to any of the trust's taxable years beginning in 2002 or thereafter.

(T) "School district income" and "school district income tax" have the same meanings as in section 5748.01 of the Revised Code.

(U) As used in divisions (A)(8), (A)(9), (S)(6), and (S)(7) of this section, "public obligations," "purchase obligations," and "interest or interest equivalent" have the same meanings as in section 5709.76 of the Revised Code.

(V) "Limited liability company" means any limited liability company formed under Chapter 1705. of the Revised Code or under the laws of any other state.

(W) "Pass-through entity investor" means any person who, during any portion of a taxable year of a pass-through entity, is a partner, member, shareholder, or equity investor in that pass-through entity.

(X) "Banking day" has the same meaning as in section 1304.01 of the Revised Code.

(Z) "Quarter" means the first three months, the second three months, the third three months, or the last three months of the taxpayer's taxable year.

(AA)(1) "Eligible institution" means a state university or state institution of higher education as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, or a private, nonprofit college, university, or other post-secondary institution located in this state that possesses a certificate of authorization issued by the Ohio board of regents pursuant to Chapter 1713. of the Revised Code or a certificate of registration issued by the state board of career colleges and schools under Chapter 3332. of the Revised Code.

(2) "Qualified tuition and fees" means tuition and fees imposed by an eligible institution as a condition of enrollment or attendance, not exceeding two thousand five hundred dollars in each of the individual's first two years of post-secondary education. If the individual is a part-time student, "qualified tuition and fees" includes tuition and fees paid for the academic equivalent of the first two years of post-secondary education during a maximum of five taxable years, not exceeding a total of five thousand dollars. "Qualified tuition and fees" does not include:

(a) Expenses for any course or activity involving sports, games, or hobbies unless the course or activity is part of the individual's degree or diploma program;

(b) The cost of books, room and board, student activity fees, athletic fees, insurance expenses, or other expenses unrelated to the individual's academic course of instruction;

(c) Tuition, fees, or other expenses paid or reimbursed through an employer, scholarship, grant in aid, or other educational benefit program.

(BB)(1) "Modified business income" means the business income included in a trust's Ohio taxable income after such taxable income is first reduced by the qualifying trust amount, if any.

(2) "Qualifying trust amount" of a trust means capital gains and losses from the sale, exchange, or other disposition of equity or ownership interests in, or debt obligations of, a qualifying investee to the extent included in the trust's Ohio taxable income, but only if the following requirements are satisfied:

(a) The book value of the qualifying investee's physical assets in this state and everywhere, as of the last day of the qualifying investee's fiscal or calendar year ending immediately prior to the date on which the trust recognizes the gain or loss, is available to the trust.

(b) The requirements of section 5747.011 of the Revised Code are satisfied for the trust's taxable year in which the trust recognizes the gain or loss.

Any gain or loss that is not a qualifying trust amount is modified business income, qualifying investment income, or modified nonbusiness income, as the case may be.

(3) "Modified nonbusiness income" means a trust's Ohio taxable income other than modified business income, other than the qualifying trust amount, and other than qualifying investment income, as defined in section 5747.012 of the Revised Code, to the extent such qualifying investment income is not otherwise part of modified business income.

(4) "Modified Ohio taxable income" applies only to trusts, and means the sum of the amounts described in divisions (BB)(4)(a) to (c) of this section:

(a) The fraction, calculated under section 5747.013, and applying section 5747.231 of the Revised Code, multiplied by the sum of the following amounts:

(ii) The trust's qualifying investment income, as defined in section 5747.012 of the Revised Code, but only to the extent the qualifying investment income does not otherwise constitute modified business income and does not otherwise constitute a qualifying trust amount.

(b) The qualifying trust amount multiplied by a fraction, the numerator of which is the sum of the book value of the qualifying investee's physical assets in this state on the last day of the qualifying investee's fiscal or calendar year ending immediately prior to the day on which the trust recognizes the qualifying trust amount, and the denominator of which is the sum of the book value of the qualifying investee's total physical assets everywhere on the last day of the qualifying investee's fiscal or calendar year ending immediately prior to the day on which the trust recognizes the qualifying trust amount. If, for a taxable year, the trust recognizes a qualifying trust amount with respect to more than one qualifying investee, the amount described in division (BB)(4)(b) of this section shall equal the sum of the products so computed for each such qualifying investee.

(c)(i) With respect to a trust or portion of a trust that is a resident as ascertained in accordance with division (I)(3)(d) of this section, its modified nonbusiness income.

(ii) With respect to a trust or portion of a trust that is not a resident as ascertained in accordance with division (I)(3)(d) of this section, the amount of its modified nonbusiness income satisfying the descriptions in divisions (B)(2) to (5) of section 5747.20 of the Revised Code, except as otherwise provided in division (BB)(4)(c)(ii) of this section. With respect to a trust or portion of a trust that is not a resident as ascertained in accordance with division (I)(3)(d) of this section, the trust's portion of modified nonbusiness income recognized from the sale, exchange, or other disposition of a debt interest in or equity interest in a section 5747.212 entity, as defined in section 5747.212 of the Revised Code, without regard to division (A) of that section, shall not be allocated to this state in accordance with section 5747.20 of the Revised Code but shall be apportioned to this state in accordance with division (B) of section 5747.212 of the Revised Code without regard to division (A) of that section.

If the allocation and apportionment of a trust's income under divisions (BB)(4)(a) and (c) of this section do not fairly represent the modified Ohio taxable income of the trust in this state, the alternative methods described in division (C) of section 5747.21 of the Revised Code may be applied in the manner and to the same extent provided in that section.

(5)(a) Except as set forth in division (BB)(5)(b) of this section, "qualifying investee" means a person in which a trust has an equity or ownership interest, or a person or unit of government the debt obligations of either of which are owned by a trust. For the purposes of division (BB)(2)(a) of this section and for the purpose of computing the fraction described in division (BB)(4)(b) of this section, all of the following apply:

(i) If the qualifying investee is a member of a qualifying controlled group on the last day of the qualifying investee's fiscal or calendar year ending immediately prior to the date on which the trust recognizes the gain or loss, then "qualifying investee" includes all persons in the qualifying controlled group on such last day.

(ii) If the qualifying investee, or if the qualifying investee and any members of the qualifying controlled group of which the qualifying investee is a member on the last day of the qualifying investee's fiscal or calendar year ending immediately prior to the date on which the trust recognizes the gain or loss, separately or cumulatively own, directly or indirectly, on the last day of the qualifying investee's fiscal or calendar year ending immediately prior to the date on which the trust recognizes the qualifying trust amount, more than fifty per cent of the equity of a pass-through entity, then the qualifying investee and the other members are deemed to own the proportionate share of the pass-through entity's physical assets which the pass-through entity directly or indirectly owns on the last day of the pass-through entity's calendar or fiscal year ending within or with the last day of the qualifying investee's fiscal or calendar year ending immediately prior to the date on which the trust recognizes the qualifying trust amount.

(iii) For the purposes of division (BB)(5)(a)(iii) of this section, "upper level pass-through entity" means a pass-through entity directly or indirectly owning any equity of another pass-through entity, and "lower level pass-through entity" means that other pass-through entity.

An upper level pass-through entity, whether or not it is also a qualifying investee, is deemed to own, on the last day of the upper level pass-through entity's calendar or fiscal year, the proportionate share of the lower level pass-through entity's physical assets that the lower level pass-through entity directly or indirectly owns on the last day of the lower level pass-through entity's calendar or fiscal year ending within or with the last day of the upper level pass-through entity's fiscal or calendar year. If the upper level pass-through entity directly and indirectly owns less than fifty per cent of the equity of the lower level pass-through entity on each day of the upper level pass-through entity's calendar or fiscal year in which or with which ends the calendar or fiscal year of the lower level pass-through entity and if, based upon clear and convincing evidence, complete information about the location and cost of the physical assets of the lower pass-through entity is not available to the upper level pass-through entity, then solely for purposes of ascertaining if a gain or loss constitutes a qualifying trust amount, the upper level pass-through entity shall be deemed as owning no equity of the lower level pass-through entity for each day during the upper level pass-through entity's calendar or fiscal year in which or with which ends the lower level pass-through entity's calendar or fiscal year. Nothing in division (BB)(5)(a)(iii) of this section shall be construed to provide for any deduction or exclusion in computing any trust's Ohio taxable income.

(b) With respect to a trust that is not a resident for the taxable year and with respect to a part of a trust that is not a resident for the taxable year, "qualifying investee" for that taxable year does not include a C corporation if both of the following apply:

(i) During the taxable year the trust or part of the trust recognizes a gain or loss from the sale, exchange, or other disposition of equity or ownership interests in, or debt obligations of, the C corporation.

(6) "Available" means information is such that a person is able to learn of the information by the due date plus extensions, if any, for filing the return for the taxable year in which the trust recognizes the gain or loss.

(CC) "Qualifying controlled group" has the same meaning as in section 5733.04 of the Revised Code.

(DD) "Related member" has the same meaning as in section 5733.042 of the Revised Code.

(b) "Qualifying corporation" means any person classified for federal income tax purposes as an association taxable as a corporation, except either of the following:

(i) A corporation that has made an election under subchapter S, chapter one, subtitle A, of the Internal Revenue Code for its taxable year ending within, or on the last day of, the investor's taxable year;

(ii) A subsidiary that is wholly owned by any corporation that has made an election under subchapter S, chapter one, subtitle A of the Internal Revenue Code for its taxable year ending within, or on the last day of, the investor's taxable year.

(2) For the purposes of this chapter, unless expressly stated otherwise, no qualifying person indirectly owns any asset directly or indirectly owned by any qualifying corporation.

(2) A "qualified pre-income tax trust" is any pre-income tax trust that makes a qualifying pre-income tax trust election as described in division (FF)(3) of this section.

(3) A "qualifying pre-income tax trust election" is an election by a pre-income tax trust to subject to the tax imposed by section 5751.02 of the Revised Code the pre-income tax trust and all pass-through entities of which the trust owns or controls, directly, indirectly, or constructively through related interests, five per cent or more of the ownership or equity interests. The trustee shall notify the tax commissioner in writing of the election on or before April 15, 2006. The election, if timely made, shall be effective on and after January 1, 2006, and shall apply for all tax periods and tax years until revoked by the trustee of the trust.

(4) A "pre-income tax trust" is a trust that satisfies all of the following requirements:

(a) The document or instrument creating the trust was executed by the grantor before January 1, 1972;

(A) "Person" means, but is not limited to, individuals, combinations of individuals of any form, receivers, assignees, trustees in bankruptcy, firms, companies, joint-stock companies, business trusts, estates, partnerships, limited liability partnerships, limited liability companies, associations, joint ventures, clubs, societies, for-profit corporations, S corporations, qualified subchapter S subsidiaries, qualified subchapter S trusts, trusts, entities that are disregarded for federal income tax purposes, and any other entities.

(B) "Consolidated elected taxpayer" means a group of two or more persons treated as a single taxpayer for purposes of this chapter as the result of an election made under section 5751.011 of the Revised Code.

(C) "Combined taxpayer" means a group of two or more persons treated as a single taxpayer for purposes of this chapter under section 5751.012 of the Revised Code.

(D) "Taxpayer" means any person, or any group of persons in the case of a consolidated elected taxpayer or combined taxpayer treated as one taxpayer, required to register or pay tax under this chapter. "Taxpayer" does not include excluded persons.

(1) Any person with not more than one hundred fifty thousand dollars of taxable gross receipts during the calendar year. Division (E)(1) of this section does not apply to a person that is a member of a consolidated elected taxpayer;

(2) A public utility that paid the excise tax imposed by section 5727.24 or 5727.30 of the Revised Code based on one or more measurement periods that include the entire tax period under this chapter, except that a public utility that is a combined company is a taxpayer with regard to the following gross receipts:

(a) Taxable gross receipts directly attributed to a public utility activity, but not directly attributed to an activity that is subject to the excise tax imposed by section 5727.24 or 5727.30 of the Revised Code;

(b) Taxable gross receipts that cannot be directly attributed to any activity, multiplied by a fraction whose numerator is the taxable gross receipts described in division (E)(2)(a) of this section and whose denominator is the total taxable gross receipts that can be directly attributed to any activity;

(c) Except for any differences resulting from the use of an accrual basis method of accounting for purposes of determining gross receipts under this chapter and the use of the cash basis method of accounting for purposes of determining gross receipts under section 5727.24 of the Revised Code, the gross receipts directly attributed to the activity of a natural gas company shall be determined in a manner consistent with division (D) of section 5727.03 of the Revised Code.

As used in division (E)(2) of this section, "combined company" and "public utility" have the same meanings as in section 5727.01 of the Revised Code.

(3) A financial institution, as defined in section 5726.01 of the Revised Code, that paid the tax imposed by section 5726.02 of the Revised Code based on one or more taxable years that include the entire tax period under this chapter;

(4) A person directly or indirectly owned by one or more financial institutions, as defined in section 5726.01 of the Revised Code, that paid the tax imposed by section 5726.02 of the Revised Code based on one or more taxable years that include the entire tax period under this chapter.

For the purposes of division (E)(4) of this section, a person owns another person under the following circumstances:

(a) In the case of corporations issuing capital stock, one corporation owns another corporation if it owns fifty per cent or more of the other corporation's capital stock with current voting rights;

(b) In the case of a limited liability company, one person owns the company if that person's membership interest, as defined in section 1705.01 of the Revised Code, is fifty per cent or more of the combined membership interests of all persons owning such interests in the company;

(c) In the case of a partnership, trust, or other unincorporated business organization other than a limited liability company, one person owns the organization if, under the articles of organization or other instrument governing the affairs of the organization, that person has a beneficial interest in the organization's profits, surpluses, losses, or distributions of fifty per cent or more of the combined beneficial interests of all persons having such an interest in the organization.

(5) A domestic insurance company or foreign insurance company, as defined in section 5725.01 of the Revised Code, that paid the insurance company premiums tax imposed by section 5725.18 or Chapter 5729. of the Revised Code, or an unauthorized insurance company whose gross premiums are subject to tax under section 3905.36 of the Revised Code based on one or more measurement periods that include the entire tax period under this chapter;

(6) A person that solely facilitates or services one or more securitizations of phase-in-recovery property pursuant to a final financing order as those terms are defined in section 4928.23 of the Revised Code. For purposes of this division, "securitization" means transferring one or more assets to one or more persons and then issuing securities backed by the right to receive payment from the asset or assets so transferred.

(7) Except as otherwise provided in this division, a pre-income tax trust as defined in division (FF)(4) of section 5747.01 of the Revised Code and any pass-through entity of which such pre-income tax trust owns or controls, directly, indirectly, or constructively through related interests, more than five per cent of the ownership or equity interests. If the pre-income tax trust has made a qualifying pre-income tax trust election under division (FF)(3) of section 5747.01 of the Revised Code, then the trust and the pass-through entities of which it owns or controls, directly, indirectly, or constructively through related interests, more than five per cent of the ownership or equity interests, shall not be excluded persons for purposes of the tax imposed under section 5751.02 of the Revised Code.

(8) Nonprofit organizations or the state and its agencies, instrumentalities, or political subdivisions.

(F) Except as otherwise provided in divisions (F)(2), (3), and (4) of this section, "gross receipts" means the total amount realized by a person, without deduction for the cost of goods sold or other expenses incurred, that contributes to the production of gross income of the person, including the fair market value of any property and any services received, and any debt transferred or forgiven as consideration.

(a) Amounts realized from the sale, exchange, or other disposition of the taxpayer's property to or with another;

(b) Dividends and distributions from corporations, and distributive or proportionate shares of receipts and income from a pass-through entity as defined under section 5733.04 of the Revised Code;

(c) Receipts from the sale, exchange, or other disposition of an asset described in section 1221 or 1231 of the Internal Revenue Code, without regard to the length of time the person held the asset. Notwithstanding section 1221 of the Internal Revenue Code, receipts from hedging transactions also are excluded to the extent the transactions are entered into primarily to protect a financial position, such as managing the risk of exposure to (i) foreign currency fluctuations that affect assets, liabilities, profits, losses, equity, or investments in foreign operations; (ii) interest rate fluctuations; or (iii) commodity price fluctuations. As used in division (F)(2)(c) of this section, "hedging transaction" has the same meaning as used in section 1221 of the Internal Revenue Code and also includes transactions accorded hedge accounting treatment under statement of financial accounting standards number 133 of the financial accounting standards board. For the purposes of division (F)(2)(c) of this section, the actual transfer of title of real or tangible personal property to another entity is not a hedging transaction.

(d) Proceeds received attributable to the repayment, maturity, or redemption of the principal of a loan, bond, mutual fund, certificate of deposit, or marketable instrument;

(e) The principal amount received under a repurchase agreement or on account of any transaction properly characterized as a loan to the person;

(f) Contributions received by a trust, plan, or other arrangement, any of which is described in section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code, or to which Title 26, Subtitle A, Chapter 1, Subchapter (D) of the Internal Revenue Code applies;

(g) Compensation, whether current or deferred, and whether in cash or in kind, received or to be received by an employee, former employee, or the employee's legal successor for services rendered to or for an employer, including reimbursements received by or for an individual for medical or education expenses, health insurance premiums, or employee expenses, or on account of a dependent care spending account, legal services plan, any cafeteria plan described in section 125 of the Internal Revenue Code, or any similar employee reimbursement;

(h) Proceeds received from the issuance of the taxpayer's own stock, options, warrants, puts, or calls, or from the sale of the taxpayer's treasury stock;

(i) Proceeds received on the account of payments from insurance policies, except those proceeds received for the loss of business revenue;

(j) Gifts or charitable contributions received; membership dues received by trade, professional, homeowners', or condominium associations; and payments received for educational courses, meetings, meals, or similar payments to a trade, professional, or other similar association; and fundraising receipts received by any person when any excess receipts are donated or used exclusively for charitable purposes;

(k) Damages received as the result of litigation in excess of amounts that, if received without litigation, would be gross receipts;

(l) Property, money, and other amounts received or acquired by an agent on behalf of another in excess of the agent's commission, fee, or other remuneration;

(m) Tax refunds, other tax benefit recoveries, and reimbursements for the tax imposed under this chapter made by entities that are part of the same combined taxpayer or consolidated elected taxpayer group, and reimbursements made by entities that are not members of a combined taxpayer or consolidated elected taxpayer group that are required to be made for economic parity among multiple owners of an entity whose tax obligation under this chapter is required to be reported and paid entirely by one owner, pursuant to the requirements of sections 5751.011 and 5751.012 of the Revised Code;

(p) Sales or use taxes collected as a vendor or an out-of-state seller on behalf of the taxing jurisdiction from a consumer or other taxes the taxpayer is required by law to collect directly from a purchaser and remit to a local, state, or federal tax authority;

(q) In the case of receipts from the sale of cigarettes or tobacco products by a wholesale dealer, retail dealer, distributor, manufacturer, or seller, all as defined in section 5743.01 of the Revised Code, an amount equal to the federal and state excise taxes paid by any person on or for such cigarettes or tobacco products under subtitle E of the Internal Revenue Code or Chapter 5743. of the Revised Code;

(r) In the case of receipts from the sale of motor fuel by a licensed motor fuel dealer, licensed retail dealer, or licensed permissive motor fuel dealer, all as defined in section 5735.01 of the Revised Code, an amount equal to federal and state excise taxes paid by any person on such motor fuel under section 4081 of the Internal Revenue Code or Chapter 5735. of the Revised Code;

(s) In the case of receipts from the sale of beer or intoxicating liquor, as defined in section 4301.01 of the Revised Code, by a person holding a permit issued under Chapter 4301. or 4303. of the Revised Code, an amount equal to federal and state excise taxes paid by any person on or for such beer or intoxicating liquor under subtitle E of the Internal Revenue Code or Chapter 4301. or 4305. of the Revised Code;

(t) Receipts realized by a new motor vehicle dealer or used motor vehicle dealer, as defined in section 4517.01 of the Revised Code, from the sale or other transfer of a motor vehicle, as defined in that section, to another motor vehicle dealer for the purpose of resale by the transferee motor vehicle dealer, but only if the sale or other transfer was based upon the transferee's need to meet a specific customer's preference for a motor vehicle;

(u) Receipts from a financial institution described in division (E)(3) of this section for services provided to the financial institution in connection with the issuance, processing, servicing, and management of loans or credit accounts, if such financial institution and the recipient of such receipts have at least fifty per cent of their ownership interests owned or controlled, directly or constructively through related interests, by common owners;

(v) Receipts realized from administering anti-neoplastic drugs and other cancer chemotherapy, biologicals, therapeutic agents, and supportive drugs in a physician's office to patients with cancer;

(w) Funds received or used by a mortgage broker that is not a dealer in intangibles, other than fees or other consideration, pursuant to a table-funding mortgage loan or warehouse-lending mortgage loan. Terms used in division (F)(2)(w) of this section have the same meanings as in section 1322.01 of the Revised Code, except "mortgage broker" means a person assisting a buyer in obtaining a mortgage loan for a fee or other consideration paid by the buyer or a lender, or a person engaged in table-funding or warehouse-lending mortgage loans that are first lien mortgage loans.

(x) Property, money, and other amounts received by a professional employer organization, as defined in section 4125.01 of the Revised Code, from a client employer, as defined in that section, in excess of the administrative fee charged by the professional employer organization to the client employer;

(y) In the case of amounts retained as commissions by a permit holder under Chapter 3769. of the Revised Code, an amount equal to the amounts specified under that chapter that must be paid to or collected by the tax commissioner as a tax and the amounts specified under that chapter to be used as purse money;

(I) "Qualifying distribution center receipts" means receipts of a supplier from qualified property that is delivered to a qualified distribution center, multiplied by a quantity that equals one minus the Ohio delivery percentage. If the qualified distribution center is a refining facility, "supplier" includes all dealers, brokers, processors, sellers, vendors, cosigners, and distributors of qualified property.

(II) "Qualified property" means tangible personal property delivered to a qualified distribution center that is shipped to that qualified distribution center solely for further shipping by the qualified distribution center to another location in this state or elsewhere or, in the case of gold, silver, platinum, or palladium delivered to a refining facility solely for refining to a grade and fineness acceptable for delivery to a registered commodities exchange. "Further shipping" includes storing and repackaging property into smaller or larger bundles, so long as the property is not subject to further manufacturing or processing. "Refining" is limited to extracting impurities from gold, silver, platinum, or palladium through smelting or some other process at a refining facility.

(III) "Qualified distribution center" means a warehouse, a facility similar to a warehouse, or a refining facility in this state that, for the qualifying year, is operated by a person that is not part of a combined taxpayer group and that has a qualifying certificate. All warehouses or facilities similar to warehouses that are operated by persons in the same taxpayer group and that are located within one mile of each other shall be treated as one qualified distribution center. All refining facilities that are operated by persons in the same taxpayer group and that are located in the same or adjacent counties may be treated as one qualified distribution center.

(IV) "Qualifying year" means the calendar year to which the qualifying certificate applies.

(V) "Qualifying period" means the period of the first day of July of the second year preceding the qualifying year through the thirtieth day of June of the year preceding the qualifying year.

(VI) "Qualifying certificate" means the certificate issued by the tax commissioner after the operator of a distribution center files an annual application with the commissioner. The application and annual fee shall be filed and paid for each qualified distribution center on or before the first day of September before the qualifying year or within forty-five days after the distribution center opens, whichever is later.

The applicant must substantiate to the commissioner's satisfaction that, for the qualifying period, all persons operating the distribution center have more than fifty per cent of the cost of the qualified property shipped to a location such that it would be sitused outside this state under the provisions of division (E) of section 5751.033 of the Revised Code. The applicant must also substantiate that the distribution center cumulatively had costs from its suppliers equal to or exceeding five hundred million dollars during the qualifying period. (For purposes of division (F)(2)(z)(i)(VI) of this section, "supplier" excludes any person that is part of the consolidated elected taxpayer group, if applicable, of the operator of the qualified distribution center.) The commissioner may require the applicant to have an independent certified public accountant certify that the calculation of the minimum thresholds required for a qualified distribution center by the operator of a distribution center has been made in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles. The commissioner shall issue or deny the issuance of a certificate within sixty days after the receipt of the application. A denial is subject to appeal under section 5717.02 of the Revised Code. If the operator files a timely appeal under section 5717.02 of the Revised Code, the operator shall be granted a qualifying certificate, provided that the operator is liable for any tax, interest, or penalty upon amounts claimed as qualifying distribution center receipts, other than those receipts exempt under division (C)(1) of section 5751.011 of the Revised Code, that would have otherwise not been owed by its suppliers if the qualifying certificate was valid.

(VII) "Ohio delivery percentage" means the proportion of the total property delivered to a destination inside Ohio from the qualified distribution center during the qualifying period compared with total deliveries from such distribution center everywhere during the qualifying period.

(VIII) "Refining facility" means one or more buildings located in a county in the Appalachian region of this state as defined by section 107.21 of the Revised Code and utilized for refining or smelting gold, silver, platinum, or palladium to a grade and fineness acceptable for delivery to a registered commodities exchange.

(IX) "Registered commodities exchange" means a board of trade, such as New York mercantile exchange, inc. or commodity exchange, inc., designated as a contract market by the commodity futures trading commission under the "Commodity Exchange Act," 7 U.S.C. 1 et seq., as amended.

(ii) If the distribution center is new and was not open for the entire qualifying period, the operator of the distribution center may request that the commissioner grant a qualifying certificate. If the certificate is granted and it is later determined that more than fifty per cent of the qualified property during that year was not shipped to a location such that it would be sitused outside of this state under the provisions of division (E) of section 5751.033 of the Revised Code or if it is later determined that the person that operates the distribution center had average monthly costs from its suppliers of less than forty million dollars during that year, then the operator of the distribution center shall be liable for any tax, interest, or penalty upon amounts claimed as qualifying distribution center receipts, other than those receipts exempt under division (C)(1) of section 5751.011 of the Revised Code, that would have not otherwise been owed by its suppliers during the qualifying year if the qualifying certificate was valid. (For purposes of division (F)(2)(z)(ii) of this section, "supplier" excludes any person that is part of the consolidated elected taxpayer group, if applicable, of the operator of the qualified distribution center.)

(iii) When filing an application for a qualifying certificate under division (F)(2)(z)(i)(VI) of this section, the operator of a qualified distribution center also shall provide documentation, as the commissioner requires, for the commissioner to ascertain the Ohio delivery percentage. The commissioner, upon issuing the qualifying certificate, also shall certify the Ohio delivery percentage. The operator of the qualified distribution center may appeal the commissioner's certification of the Ohio delivery percentage in the same manner as an appeal is taken from the denial of a qualifying certificate under division (F)(2)(z)(i)(VI) of this section.

Within thirty days after all appeals have been exhausted, the operator of the qualified distribution center shall notify the affected suppliers of qualified property that such suppliers are required to file, within sixty days after receiving notice from the operator of the qualified distribution center, amended reports for the impacted calendar quarter or quarters or calendar year, whichever the case may be. Any additional tax liability or tax overpayment shall be subject to interest but shall not be subject to the imposition of any penalty so long as the amended returns are timely filed. The supplier of tangible personal property delivered to the qualified distribution center shall include in its report of taxable gross receipts the receipts from the total sales of property delivered to the qualified distribution center for the calendar quarter or calendar year, whichever the case may be, multiplied by the Ohio delivery percentage for the qualifying year. Nothing in division (F)(2)(z)(iii) of this section shall be construed as imposing liability on the operator of a qualified distribution center for the tax imposed by this chapter arising from any change to the Ohio delivery percentage.

(iv) In the case where the distribution center is new and not open for the entire qualifying period, the operator shall make a good faith estimate of an Ohio delivery percentage for use by suppliers in their reports of taxable gross receipts for the remainder of the qualifying period. The operator of the facility shall disclose to the suppliers that such Ohio delivery percentage is an estimate and is subject to recalculation. By the due date of the next application for a qualifying certificate, the operator shall determine the actual Ohio delivery percentage for the estimated qualifying period and proceed as provided in division (F)(2)(z)(iii) of this section with respect to the calculation and recalculation of the Ohio delivery percentage. The supplier is required to file, within sixty days after receiving notice from the operator of the qualified distribution center, amended reports for the impacted calendar quarter or quarters or calendar year, whichever the case may be. Any additional tax liability or tax overpayment shall be subject to interest but shall not be subject to the imposition of any penalty so long as the amended returns are timely filed.

(v) Qualifying certificates and Ohio delivery percentages issued by the commissioner shall be open to public inspection and shall be timely published by the commissioner. A supplier relying in good faith on a certificate issued under this division shall not be subject to tax on the qualifying distribution center receipts under division (F)(2)(z) of this section. A person receiving a qualifying certificate is responsible for paying the tax, interest, and penalty upon amounts claimed as qualifying distribution center receipts that would not otherwise have been owed by the supplier if the qualifying certificate were available when it is later determined that the qualifying certificate should not have been issued because the statutory requirements were in fact not met.

(vi) The annual fee for a qualifying certificate shall be one hundred thousand dollars for each qualified distribution center. If a qualifying certificate is not issued, the annual fee is subject to refund after the exhaustion of all appeals provided for in division (F)(2)(z)(i)(VI) of this section. The fee imposed under this division may be assessed in the same manner as the tax imposed under this chapter. The first one hundred thousand dollars of the annual application fees collected each calendar year shall be credited to the revenue enhancement fund. The remainder of the annual application fees collected shall be distributed in the same manner required under section 5751.20 of the Revised Code.

(vii) The tax commissioner may require that adequate security be posted by the operator of the distribution center on appeal when the commissioner disagrees that the applicant has met the minimum thresholds for a qualified distribution center as set forth in divisions (F)(2)(z)(i)(VI) and (F)(2)(z)(ii) of this section.

(aa) Receipts of an employer from payroll deductions relating to the reimbursement of the employer for advancing moneys to an unrelated third party on an employee's behalf;

(dd) Bad debts from receipts on the basis of which the tax imposed by this chapter was paid in a prior quarterly tax payment period. For the purpose of this division, "bad debts" means any debts that have become worthless or uncollectible between the preceding and current quarterly tax payment periods, have been uncollected for at least six months, and that may be claimed as a deduction under section 166 of the Internal Revenue Code and the regulations adopted under that section, or that could be claimed as such if the taxpayer kept its accounts on the accrual basis. "Bad debts" does not include repossessed property, uncollectible amounts on property that remains in the possession of the taxpayer until the full purchase price is paid, or expenses in attempting to collect any account receivable or for any portion of the debt recovered;

(ee) Any amount realized from the sale of an account receivable to the extent the receipts from the underlying transaction giving rise to the account receivable were included in the gross receipts of the taxpayer;

(ff) Any receipts directly attributed ~~to providing public services pursuant to sections 126.60 to 126.605 of the Revised Code, or any receipts directly attributed~~ to a transfer agreement or to the enterprise transferred under that agreement under section 4313.02 of the Revised Code.

(I) "Qualified uranium receipts" means receipts from the sale, exchange, lease, loan, production, processing, or other disposition of uranium within a uranium enrichment zone certified by the tax commissioner under division (F)(2)(gg)(ii) of this section. "Qualified uranium receipts" does not include any receipts with a situs in this state outside a uranium enrichment zone certified by the tax commissioner under division (F)(2)(gg)(ii) of this section.

(II) "Uranium enrichment zone" means all real property that is part of a uranium enrichment facility licensed by the United States nuclear regulatory commission and that was or is owned or controlled by the United States department of energy or its successor.

(ii) Any person that owns, leases, or operates real or tangible personal property constituting or located within a uranium enrichment zone may apply to the tax commissioner to have the uranium enrichment zone certified for the purpose of excluding qualified uranium receipts under division (F)(2)(gg) of this section. The application shall include such information that the tax commissioner prescribes. Within sixty days after receiving the application, the tax commissioner shall certify the zone for that purpose if the commissioner determines that the property qualifies as a uranium enrichment zone as defined in division (F)(2)(gg) of this section, or, if the tax commissioner determines that the property does not qualify, the commissioner shall deny the application or request additional information from the applicant. If the tax commissioner denies an application, the commissioner shall state the reasons for the denial. The applicant may appeal the denial of an application to the board of tax appeals pursuant to section 5717.02 of the Revised Code. If the applicant files a timely appeal, the tax commissioner shall conditionally certify the applicant's property. The conditional certification shall expire when all of the applicant's appeals are exhausted. Until final resolution of the appeal, the applicant shall retain the applicant's records in accordance with section 5751.12 of the Revised Code, notwithstanding any time limit on the preservation of records under that section.

(hh) Amounts realized by licensed motor fuel dealers or licensed permissive motor fuel dealers from the exchange of petroleum products, including motor fuel, between such dealers, provided that delivery of the petroleum products occurs at a refinery, terminal, pipeline, or marine vessel and that the exchanging dealers agree neither dealer shall require monetary compensation from the other for the value of the exchanged petroleum products other than such compensation for differences in product location or grade. Division (F)(2)(hh) of this section does not apply to amounts realized as a result of differences in location or grade of exchanged petroleum products or from handling, lubricity, dye, or other additive injections fees, pipeline security fees, or similar fees. As used in this division, "motor fuel," "licensed motor fuel dealer," "licensed permissive motor fuel dealer," and "terminal" have the same meanings as in section 5735.01 of the Revised Code.

(ii) In the case of amounts collected by a licensed casino operator from casino gaming, amounts in excess of the casino operator's gross casino revenue. In this division, "casino operator" and "casino gaming" have the meanings defined in section 3772.01 of the Revised Code, and "gross casino revenue" has the meaning defined in section 5753.01 of the Revised Code.

(jj) Any receipts for which the tax imposed by this chapter is prohibited by the constitution or laws of the United States or the constitution of this state.

(3) In the case of a taxpayer when acting as a real estate broker, "gross receipts" includes only the portion of any fee for the service of a real estate broker, or service of a real estate salesperson associated with that broker, that is retained by the broker and not paid to an associated real estate salesperson or another real estate broker. For the purposes of this division, "real estate broker" and "real estate salesperson" have the same meanings as in section 4735.01 of the Revised Code.

(4) A taxpayer's method of accounting for gross receipts for a tax period shall be the same as the taxpayer's method of accounting for federal income tax purposes for the taxpayer's federal taxable year that includes the tax period. If a taxpayer's method of accounting for federal income tax purposes changes, its method of accounting for gross receipts under this chapter shall be changed accordingly.

(G) "Taxable gross receipts" means gross receipts sitused to this state under section 5751.033 of the Revised Code.

(H) A person has "substantial nexus with this state" if any of the following applies. The person:

(2) Holds a certificate of compliance with the laws of this state authorizing the person to do business in this state;

(4) Otherwise has nexus with this state to an extent that the person can be required to remit the tax imposed under this chapter under the Constitution of the United States.

(I) A person has "bright-line presence" in this state for a reporting period and for the remaining portion of the calendar year if any of the following applies. The person:

(1) Has at any time during the calendar year property in this state with an aggregate value of at least fifty thousand dollars. For the purpose of division (I)(1) of this section, owned property is valued at original cost and rented property is valued at eight times the net annual rental charge.

(2) Has during the calendar year payroll in this state of at least fifty thousand dollars. Payroll in this state includes all of the following:

(a) Any amount subject to withholding by the person under section 5747.06 of the Revised Code;

(b) Any other amount the person pays as compensation to an individual under the supervision or control of the person for work done in this state; and

(3) Has during the calendar year taxable gross receipts of at least five hundred thousand dollars.

(4) Has at any time during the calendar year within this state at least twenty-five per cent of the person's total property, total payroll, or total gross receipts.

(5) Is domiciled in this state as an individual or for corporate, commercial, or other business purposes.

(J) "Tangible personal property" has the same meaning as in section 5739.01 of the Revised Code.

(K) "Internal Revenue Code" means the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 1, as amended. Any term used in this chapter that is not otherwise defined has the same meaning as when used in a comparable context in the laws of the United States relating to federal income taxes unless a different meaning is clearly required. Any reference in this chapter to the Internal Revenue Code includes other laws of the United States relating to federal income taxes.

(L) "Calendar quarter" means a three-month period ending on the thirty-first day of March, the thirtieth day of June, the thirtieth day of September, or the thirty-first day of December.

(M) "Tax period" means the calendar quarter or calendar year on the basis of which a taxpayer is required to pay the tax imposed under this chapter.

(N) "Calendar year taxpayer" means a taxpayer for which the tax period is a calendar year.

(O) "Calendar quarter taxpayer" means a taxpayer for which the tax period is a calendar quarter.

(P) "Agent" means a person authorized by another person to act on its behalf to undertake a transaction for the other, including any of the following:

(2) A person retaining only a commission from a transaction with the other proceeds from the transaction being remitted to another person;

(3) A person issuing licenses and permits under section 1533.13 of the Revised Code;

(4) A lottery sales agent holding a valid license issued under section 3770.05 of the Revised Code;

(5) A person acting as an agent of the division of liquor control under section 4301.17 of the Revised Code.

(R) "Reporting person" means a person in a consolidated elected taxpayer or combined taxpayer group that is designated by that group to legally bind the group for all filings and tax liabilities and to receive all legal notices with respect to matters under this chapter, or, for the purposes of section 5751.04 of the Revised Code, a separate taxpayer that is not a member of such a group.

Sec. 5751.02. (A) For the purpose of funding the needs of this state and its local governments ~~beginning with the tax period that commences July 1, 2005, and continuing for every tax period thereafter~~ and providing revenue to the commercial activity tax motor fuel receipts fund, there is hereby levied a commercial activity tax on each person with taxable gross receipts for the privilege of doing business in this state. For the purposes of this chapter, "doing business" means engaging in any activity, whether legal or illegal, that is conducted for, or results in, gain, profit, or income, at any time during ~~the~~ a calendar year. Persons on which the commercial activity tax is levied include, but are not limited to, persons with substantial nexus with this state. The tax imposed under this section is not a transactional tax and is not subject to Public Law No. 86-272, 73 Stat. 555. The tax imposed under this section is in addition to any other taxes or fees imposed under the Revised Code. The tax levied under this section is imposed on the person receiving the gross receipts and is not a tax imposed directly on a purchaser. The tax imposed by this section is an annual privilege tax for the calendar year that, in the case of calendar year taxpayers, is the annual tax period and, in the case of calendar quarter taxpayers, contains all quarterly tax periods in the calendar year. A taxpayer is subject to the annual privilege tax for doing business during any portion of such calendar year.

(B) The tax imposed by this section is a tax on the taxpayer and shall not be billed or invoiced to another person. Even if the tax or any portion thereof is billed or invoiced and separately stated, such amounts remain part of the price for purposes of the sales and use taxes levied under Chapters 5739. and 5741. of the Revised Code. Nothing in division (B) of this section prohibits:

(1) A person from including in the price charged for a good or service an amount sufficient to recover the tax imposed by this section; or

(2) A lessor from including an amount sufficient to recover the tax imposed by this section in a lease payment charged, or from including such an amount on a billing or invoice pursuant to the terms of a written lease agreement providing for the recovery of the lessor's tax costs. The recovery of such costs shall be based on an estimate of the total tax cost of the lessor during the tax period, as the tax liability of the lessor cannot be calculated until the end of that period.

Sec. 5751.051. (A)(1) Not later than the tenth day of the second month after the end of each calendar quarter, every taxpayer other than a calendar year taxpayer shall file with the tax commissioner a tax return in such form as the commissioner prescribes. The return shall include, but is not limited to, the amount of the taxpayer's taxable gross receipts for the calendar quarter and shall indicate the amount of tax due under section 5751.03 of the Revised Code for the calendar quarter. The taxpayer shall indicate on the return the portion of the taxpayer's receipts attributable to motor fuel used for propelling vehicles on public highways.

(2)(a) Subject to division (C) of section 5751.05 of the Revised Code, a calendar quarter taxpayer shall report the taxable gross receipts for that calendar quarter.

(b) With respect to taxable gross receipts incorrectly reported in a calendar quarter that has a lower tax rate, the tax shall be computed at the tax rate in effect for the quarterly return in which such receipts should have been reported. Nothing in division (A)(2)(b) of this section prohibits a taxpayer from filing an application for refund under section 5751.08 of the Revised Code with regard to the incorrect reporting of taxable gross receipts discovered after filing the annual return described in division (A)(3) of this section.

A tax return shall not be deemed to be an incorrect reporting of taxable gross receipts for the purposes of division (A)(2)(b) of this section if the return reflects between ninety-five and one hundred five per cent of the actual taxable gross receipts for the calendar quarter.

(3) For the purposes of division (A)(2)(b) of this section, the tax return filed for the fourth calendar quarter of a calendar year is the annual return for the privilege tax imposed by this chapter. Such return shall report any additional taxable gross receipts not previously reported in the calendar year and shall adjust for any over-reported taxable gross receipts in the calendar year. If the taxpayer ceases to be a taxpayer before the end of the calendar year, the last return the taxpayer is required to file shall be the annual return for the taxpayer and the taxpayer shall report any additional taxable gross receipts not previously reported in the calendar year and shall adjust for any over-reported taxable gross receipts in the calendar year. Taxpayers reporting taxable gross receipts attributable to motor fuel used for propelling vehicles on public highways may not utilize the statutory estimation procedure provided in divisions (A)(2) and (3) of this section.

(4) Because the tax imposed by this chapter is a privilege tax, the tax rate with respect to taxable gross receipts for a calendar quarter is not fixed until the end of the measurement period for each calendar quarter. Subject to division (A)(2)(b) of this section, the total amount of taxable gross receipts reported for a given calendar quarter shall be subject to the tax rate in effect in that quarter.

(5) Not later than the tenth day of May following the end of each calendar year, every calendar year taxpayer shall file with the tax commissioner a tax return in such form as the commissioner prescribes. The return shall include, but is not limited to, the amount of the taxpayer's taxable gross receipts for the calendar year and shall indicate the amount of tax due under section 5751.03 of the Revised Code for the calendar year. The taxpayer shall indicate on the return the portion of the taxpayer's receipts attributable to motor fuel used for propelling vehicles on public highways.

(B)(1) A person that first becomes subject to the tax imposed under this chapter shall pay the minimum tax imposed under division (B) of section 5751.03 of the Revised Code on or before the day the return is required to be filed for that quarter under division (A)(1) of this section, regardless of whether the person registers as a calendar year taxpayer under section 5751.05 of the Revised Code.

(2) The amount of the minimum tax for a person subject to division (B)(1) of this section shall be reduced to seventy-five dollars if the registration is timely filed after the first day of May and before the first day of January of the following calendar year.

Sec. 5751.20. (A) As used in sections 5751.20 to 5751.22 of the Revised Code:

(1) "School district," "joint vocational school district," "local taxing unit," "recognized valuation," "fixed-rate levy," and "fixed-sum levy" have the same meanings as used in section 5727.84 of the Revised Code.

(a) For fiscal years prior to fiscal year 2010, the sum of state aid amounts computed for the district under the following provisions, as they existed for the applicable fiscal year: division (A) of section 3317.022 of the Revised Code, including the amounts calculated under sections 3317.029 and 3317.0217 of the Revised Code; divisions (C)(1), (C)(4), (D), (E), and (F) of section 3317.022; divisions (B), (C), and (D) of section 3317.023; divisions (L) and (N) of section 3317.024; section 3317.0216; and any unit payments for gifted student services paid under sections 3317.05, 3317.052, and 3317.053 of the Revised Code; except that, for fiscal years 2008 and 2009, the amount computed for the district under Section 269.20.80 of H.B. 119 of the 127th general assembly and as that section subsequently may be amended shall be substituted for the amount computed under division (D) of section 3317.022 of the Revised Code, and the amount computed under Section 269.30.80 of H.B. 119 of the 127th general assembly and as that section subsequently may be amended shall be included.

(b) For fiscal years 2010 and 2011, the sum of the amounts computed under former sections 3306.052, 3306.12, 3306.13, 3306.19, 3306.191, and 3306.192 of the Revised Code;

(c) For fiscal years 2012 and 2013, the sum of the amounts paid under Sections 267.30.50, 267.30.53, and 267.30.56 of H.B. 153 of the 129th general assembly.

(3) "State education aid" for a joint vocational school district means the following:

(a) For fiscal years prior to fiscal year 2010, the sum of the state aid computed for the district under division (N) of section 3317.024 and section 3317.16 of the Revised Code, except that, for fiscal years 2008 and 2009, the amount computed under Section 269.30.80 of H.B. 119 of the 127th general assembly and as that section subsequently may be amended shall be included.

(b) For fiscal years 2010 and 2011, the amount paid in accordance with Section 265.30.50 of H.B. 1 of the 128th general assembly.

(c) For fiscal years 2012 and 2013, the amount paid in accordance with Section 267.30.60 of H.B. 153 of the 129th general assembly.

(4) "State education aid offset" means the amount determined for each school district or joint vocational school district under division (A)(1) of section 5751.21 of the Revised Code.

(5) "Machinery and equipment property tax value loss" means the amount determined under division (C)(1) of this section.

(6) "Inventory property tax value loss" means the amount determined under division (C)(2) of this section.

(7) "Furniture and fixtures property tax value loss" means the amount determined under division (C)(3) of this section.

(8) "Machinery and equipment fixed-rate levy loss" means the amount determined under division (D)(1) of this section.

(9) "Inventory fixed-rate levy loss" means the amount determined under division (D)(2) of this section.

(10) "Furniture and fixtures fixed-rate levy loss" means the amount determined under division (D)(3) of this section.

(11) "Total fixed-rate levy loss" means the sum of the machinery and equipment fixed-rate levy loss, the inventory fixed-rate levy loss, the furniture and fixtures fixed-rate levy loss, and the telephone company fixed-rate levy loss.

(12) "Fixed-sum levy loss" means the amount determined under division (E) of this section.

(13) "Machinery and equipment" means personal property subject to the assessment rate specified in division (F) of section 5711.22 of the Revised Code.

(14) "Inventory" means personal property subject to the assessment rate specified in division (E) of section 5711.22 of the Revised Code.

(15) "Furniture and fixtures" means personal property subject to the assessment rate specified in division (G) of section 5711.22 of the Revised Code.

(16) "Qualifying levies" are levies in effect for tax year 2004 or applicable to tax year 2005 or approved at an election conducted before September 1, 2005. For the purpose of determining the rate of a qualifying levy authorized by section 5705.212 or 5705.213 of the Revised Code, the rate shall be the rate that would be in effect for tax year 2010.

(17) "Telephone property" means tangible personal property of a telephone, telegraph, or interexchange telecommunications company subject to an assessment rate specified in section 5727.111 of the Revised Code in tax year 2004.

(18) "Telephone property tax value loss" means the amount determined under division (C)(4) of this section.

(19) "Telephone property fixed-rate levy loss" means the amount determined under division (D)(4) of this section.

(20) "Taxes charged and payable" means taxes charged and payable after the reduction required by section 319.301 of the Revised Code but before the reductions required by sections 319.302 and 323.152 of the Revised Code.

(21) "Median estate tax collections" means, in the case of a municipal corporation to which revenue from the taxes levied in Chapter 5731. of the Revised Code was distributed in each of calendar years 2006, 2007, 2008, and 2009, the median of those distributions. In the case of a municipal corporation to which no distributions were made in one or more of those years, "median estate tax collections" means zero.

(22) "Total resources," in the case of a school district, means the sum of the amounts in divisions (A)(22)(a) to (h) of this section less any reduction required under division (A)(32) or (33) of this section.

(b) The sum of the payments received by the school district in fiscal year 2010 for current expense levy losses pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 5727.85 and divisions (C)(8) and (9) of section 5751.21 of the Revised Code, excluding the portion of such payments attributable to levies for joint vocational school district purposes;

(c) The sum of fixed-sum levy loss payments received by the school district in fiscal year 2010 pursuant to division (E)(1) of section 5727.85 and division (E)(1) of section 5751.21 of the Revised Code for fixed-sum levies charged and payable for a purpose other than paying debt charges;

(d) Fifty per cent of the school district's taxes charged and payable against all property on the tax list of real and public utility property for current expense purposes for tax year 2008, including taxes charged and payable from emergency levies charged and payable under section 5709.194 of the Revised Code and excluding taxes levied for joint vocational school district purposes;

(e) Fifty per cent of the school district's taxes charged and payable against all property on the tax list of real and public utility property for current expenses for tax year 2009, including taxes charged and payable from emergency levies and excluding taxes levied for joint vocational school district purposes;

(f) The school district's taxes charged and payable against all property on the general tax list of personal property for current expenses for tax year 2009, including taxes charged and payable from emergency levies;

(g) The amount certified for fiscal year 2010 under division (A)(2) of section 3317.08 of the Revised Code;

(h) Distributions received during calendar year 2009 from taxes levied under section 718.09 of the Revised Code.

(23) "Total resources," in the case of a joint vocational school district, means the sum of amounts in divisions (A)(23)(a) to (g) of this section less any reduction required under division (A)(32) of this section.

(b) The sum of the payments received by the joint vocational school district in fiscal year 2010 for current expense levy losses pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 5727.85 and divisions (C)(8) and (9) of section 5751.21 of the Revised Code;

(c) Fifty per cent of the joint vocational school district's taxes charged and payable against all property on the tax list of real and public utility property for current expense purposes for tax year 2008;

(d) Fifty per cent of the joint vocational school district's taxes charged and payable against all property on the tax list of real and public utility property for current expenses for tax year 2009;

(e) Fifty per cent of a city, local, or exempted village school district's taxes charged and payable against all property on the tax list of real and public utility property for current expenses of the joint vocational school district for tax year 2008;

(f) Fifty per cent of a city, local, or exempted village school district's taxes charged and payable against all property on the tax list of real and public utility property for current expenses of the joint vocational school district for tax year 2009;

(g) The joint vocational school district's taxes charged and payable against all property on the general tax list of personal property for current expenses for tax year 2009.

(24) "Total resources," in the case of county mental health and disability related functions, means the sum of the amounts in divisions (A)(24)(a) and (b) of this section less any reduction required under division (A)(32) of this section.

(a) The sum of the payments received by the county for mental health and developmental disability related functions in calendar year 2010 under division (A)(1) of section 5727.86 and divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code as they existed at that time;

(b) With respect to taxes levied by the county for mental health and developmental disability related purposes, the taxes charged and payable for such purposes against all property on the tax list of real and public utility property for tax year 2009.

(25) "Total resources," in the case of county senior services related functions, means the sum of the amounts in divisions (A)(25)(a) and (b) of this section less any reduction required under division (A)(32) of this section.

(a) The sum of the payments received by the county for senior services related functions in calendar year 2010 under division (A)(1) of section 5727.86 and divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code as they existed at that time;

(b) With respect to taxes levied by the county for senior services related purposes, the taxes charged and payable for such purposes against all property on the tax list of real and public utility property for tax year 2009.

(26) "Total resources," in the case of county children's services related functions, means the sum of the amounts in divisions (A)(26)(a) and (b) of this section less any reduction required under division (A)(32) of this section.

(a) The sum of the payments received by the county for children's services related functions in calendar year 2010 under division (A)(1) of section 5727.86 and divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code as they existed at that time;

(b) With respect to taxes levied by the county for children's services related purposes, the taxes charged and payable for such purposes against all property on the tax list of real and public utility property for tax year 2009.

(27) "Total resources," in the case of county public health related functions, means the sum of the amounts in divisions (A)(27)(a) and (b) of this section less any reduction required under division (A)(32) of this section.

(a) The sum of the payments received by the county for public health related functions in calendar year 2010 under division (A)(1) of section 5727.86 and divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code as they existed at that time;

(b) With respect to taxes levied by the county for public health related purposes, the taxes charged and payable for such purposes against all property on the tax list of real and public utility property for tax year 2009.

(28) "Total resources," in the case of all county functions not included in divisions (A)(24) to (27) of this section, means the sum of the amounts in divisions (A)(28)(a) to (d) of this section less any reduction required under division (A)(32) or (33) of this section.

(a) The sum of the payments received by the county for all other purposes in calendar year 2010 under division (A)(1) of section 5727.86 and divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code as they existed at that time;

(b) The county's percentage share of county undivided local government fund allocations as certified to the tax commissioner for calendar year 2010 by the county auditor under division (J) of section 5747.51 of the Revised Code or division (F) of section 5747.53 of the Revised Code multiplied by the total amount actually distributed in calendar year 2010 from the county undivided local government fund;

(c) With respect to taxes levied by the county for all other purposes, the taxes charged and payable for such purposes against all property on the tax list of real and public utility property for tax year 2009, excluding taxes charged and payable for the purpose of paying debt charges;

(d) The sum of the amounts distributed to the county in calendar year 2010 for the taxes levied pursuant to sections 5739.021 and 5741.021 of the Revised Code.

(29) "Total resources," in the case of a municipal corporation, means the sum of the amounts in divisions (A)(29)(a) to (g) of this section less any reduction required under division (A)(32) or (33) of this section.

(a) The sum of the payments received by the municipal corporation in calendar year 2010 for current expense levy losses under division (A)(1) of section 5727.86 and divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code as they existed at that time;

(b) The municipal corporation's percentage share of county undivided local government fund allocations as certified to the tax commissioner for calendar year 2010 by the county auditor under division (J) of section 5747.51 of the Revised Code or division (F) of section 5747.53 of the Revised Code multiplied by the total amount actually distributed in calendar year 2010 from the county undivided local government fund;

(c) The sum of the amounts distributed to the municipal corporation in calendar year 2010 pursuant to section 5747.50 of the Revised Code;

(d) With respect to taxes levied by the municipal corporation, the taxes charged and payable against all property on the tax list of real and public utility property for current expenses, defined in division (A)(35) of this section, for tax year 2009;

(e) The amount of admissions tax collected by the municipal corporation in calendar year 2008, or if such information has not yet been reported to the tax commissioner, in the most recent year before 2008 for which the municipal corporation has reported data to the commissioner;

(f) The amount of income taxes collected by the municipal corporation in calendar year 2008, or if such information has not yet been reported to the tax commissioner, in the most recent year before 2008 for which the municipal corporation has reported data to the commissioner;

(30) "Total resources," in the case of a township, means the sum of the amounts in divisions (A)(30)(a) to (c) of this section less any reduction required under division (A)(32) or (33) of this section.

(a) The sum of the payments received by the township in calendar year 2010 pursuant to division (A)(1) of section 5727.86 of the Revised Code and divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code as they existed at that time, excluding payments received for debt purposes;

(b) The township's percentage share of county undivided local government fund allocations as certified to the tax commissioner for calendar year 2010 by the county auditor under division (J) of section 5747.51 of the Revised Code or division (F) of section 5747.53 of the Revised Code multiplied by the total amount actually distributed in calendar year 2010 from the county undivided local government fund;

(c) With respect to taxes levied by the township, the taxes charged and payable against all property on the tax list of real and public utility property for tax year 2009 excluding taxes charged and payable for the purpose of paying debt charges.

(31) "Total resources," in the case of a local taxing unit that is not a county, municipal corporation, or township, means the sum of the amounts in divisions (A)(31)(a) to (e) of this section less any reduction required under division (A)(32) of this section.

(a) The sum of the payments received by the local taxing unit in calendar year 2010 pursuant to division (A)(1) of section 5727.86 of the Revised Code and divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code as they existed at that time;

(b) The local taxing unit's percentage share of county undivided local government fund allocations as certified to the tax commissioner for calendar year 2010 by the county auditor under division (J) of section 5747.51 of the Revised Code or division (F) of section 5747.53 of the Revised Code multiplied by the total amount actually distributed in calendar year 2010 from the county undivided local government fund;

(c) With respect to taxes levied by the local taxing unit, the taxes charged and payable against all property on the tax list of real and public utility property for tax year 2009 excluding taxes charged and payable for the purpose of paying debt charges;

(d) The amount received from the tax commissioner during calendar year 2010 for sales or use taxes authorized under sections 5739.023 and 5741.022 of the Revised Code;

(e) For institutions of higher education receiving tax revenue from a local levy, as identified in section 3358.02 of the Revised Code, the final state share of instruction allocation for fiscal year 2010 as calculated by the board of regents and reported to the state controlling board.

(32) If a fixed-rate levy that is a qualifying levy is not charged and payable in any year after tax year 2010, "total resources" used to compute payments to be made under division (C)(12) of section 5751.21 or division (A)(1)(b) or (c) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code in the tax years following the last year the levy is charged and payable shall be reduced to the extent that the payments are attributable to the fixed-rate levy loss of that levy as would be computed under division (C)(2) of section 5727.85, division (A)(1) of section 5727.85, divisions (C)(8) and (9) of section 5751.21, or division (A)(1) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code.

(33) In the case of a county, municipal corporation, school district, or township with fixed-rate levy losses attributable to a tax levied under section 5705.23 of the Revised Code, "total resources" used to compute payments to be made under division (C)(3) of section 5727.85, division (A)(1)(d) of section 5727.86, division (C)(12) of section 5751.21, or division (A)(1)(c) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code shall be reduced by the amounts described in divisions (A)(34)(a) to (c) of this section to the extent that those amounts were included in calculating the "total resources" of the school district or local taxing unit under division (A)(22), (28), (29), or (30) of this section.

(34) "Total library resources," in the case of a county, municipal corporation, school district, or township public library that receives the proceeds of a tax levied under section 5705.23 of the Revised Code, means the sum of the amounts in divisions (A)(34)(a) to (c) of this section less any reduction required under division (A)(32) of this section.

(a) The sum of the payments received by the county, municipal corporation, school district, or township public library in calendar year 2010 pursuant to sections 5727.86 and 5751.22 of the Revised Code, as they existed at that time, for fixed-rate levy losses attributable to a tax levied under section 5705.23 of the Revised Code for the benefit of the public library;

(b) The public library's percentage share of county undivided local government fund allocations as certified to the tax commissioner for calendar year 2010 by the county auditor under division (J) of section 5747.51 of the Revised Code or division (F) of section 5747.53 of the Revised Code multiplied by the total amount actually distributed in calendar year 2010 from the county undivided local government fund;

(c) With respect to a tax levied pursuant to section 5705.23 of the Revised Code for the benefit of the public library, the amount of such tax that is charged and payable against all property on the tax list of real and public utility property for tax year 2009 excluding any tax that is charged and payable for the purpose of paying debt charges.

(35) "Municipal current expense property tax levies" means all property tax levies of a municipality, except those with the following levy names: airport resurfacing; bond or any levy name including the word "bond"; capital improvement or any levy name including the word "capital"; debt or any levy name including the word "debt"; equipment or any levy name including the word "equipment," unless the levy is for combined operating and equipment; employee termination fund; fire pension or any levy containing the word "pension," including police pensions; fireman's fund or any practically similar name; sinking fund; road improvements or any levy containing the word "road"; fire truck or apparatus; flood or any levy containing the word "flood"; conservancy district; county health; note retirement; sewage, or any levy containing the words "sewage" or "sewer"; park improvement; parkland acquisition; storm drain; street or any levy name containing the word "street"; lighting, or any levy name containing the word "lighting"; and water.

(36) "Current expense TPP allocation" means, in the case of a school district or joint vocational school district, the sum of the payments received by the school district in fiscal year 2011 pursuant to divisions (C)(10) and (11) of section 5751.21 of the Revised Code to the extent paid for current expense levies. In the case of a municipal corporation, "current expense TPP allocation" means the sum of the payments received by the municipal corporation in calendar year 2010 pursuant to divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code to the extent paid for municipal current expense property tax levies as defined in division (A)(35) of this section, excluding any such payments received for current expense levy losses attributable to a tax levied under section 5705.23 of the Revised Code. If a fixed-rate levy that is a qualifying levy is not charged and payable in any year after tax year 2010, "current expense TPP allocation" used to compute payments to be made under division (C)(12) of section 5751.21 or division (A)(1)(b) or (c) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code in the tax years following the last year the levy is charged and payable shall be reduced to the extent that the payments are attributable to the fixed-rate levy loss of that levy as would be computed under divisions (C)(10) and (11) of section 5751.21 or division (A)(1) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code.

(37) "TPP allocation" means the sum of payments received by a local taxing unit in calendar year 2010 pursuant to divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code, excluding any such payments received for fixed-rate levy losses attributable to a tax levied under section 5705.23 of the Revised Code. If a fixed-rate levy that is a qualifying levy is not charged and payable in any year after tax year 2010, "TPP allocation" used to compute payments to be made under division (A)(1)(b) or (c) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code in the tax years following the last year the levy is charged and payable shall be reduced to the extent that the payments are attributable to the fixed-rate levy loss of that levy as would be computed under division (A)(1) of that section.

(38) "Total TPP allocation" means, in the case of a school district or joint vocational school district, the sum of the amounts received in fiscal year 2011 pursuant to divisions (C)(10) and (11) and (D) of section 5751.21 of the Revised Code. In the case of a local taxing unit, "total TPP allocation" means the sum of payments received by the unit in calendar year 2010 pursuant to divisions (A)(1), (2), and (3) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code. If a fixed-rate levy that is a qualifying levy is not charged and payable in any year after tax year 2010, "total TPP allocation" used to compute payments to be made under division (C)(12) of section 5751.21 or division (A)(1)(b) or (c) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code in the tax years following the last year the levy is charged and payable shall be reduced to the extent that the payments are attributable to the fixed-rate levy loss of that levy as would be computed under divisions (C)(10) and (11) of section 5751.21 or division (A)(1) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code.

(39) "Non-current expense TPP allocation" means the difference of total TPP allocation minus the sum of current expense TPP allocation and the portion of total TPP allocation constituting reimbursement for debt levies, pursuant to division (D) of section 5751.21 of the Revised Code in the case of a school district or joint vocational school district and pursuant to division (A)(3) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code in the case of a municipal corporation.

(40) "TPP allocation for library purposes" means the sum of payments received by a county, municipal corporation, school district, or township public library in calendar year 2010 pursuant to section 5751.22 of the Revised Code for fixed-rate levy losses attributable to a tax levied under section 5705.23 of the Revised Code. If a fixed-rate levy authorized under section 5705.23 of the Revised Code that is a qualifying levy is not charged and payable in any year after tax year 2010, "TPP allocation for library purposes" used to compute payments to be made under division (A)(1)(d) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code in the tax years following the last year the levy is charged and payable shall be reduced to the extent that the payments are attributable to the fixed-rate levy loss of that levy as would be computed under division (A)(1) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code.

(41) "Threshold per cent" means, in the case of a school district or joint vocational school district, two per cent for fiscal year 2012 and four per cent for fiscal years 2013 and thereafter. In the case of a local taxing unit or public library that receives the proceeds of a tax levied under section 5705.23 of the Revised Code, "threshold per cent" means two per cent for tax year 2011, four per cent for tax year 2012, and six per cent for tax years 2013 and thereafter.

(B)(1) The commercial activities tax receipts fund is hereby created in the state treasury and shall consist of money arising from the tax imposed under this chapter. Eighty-five one-hundredths of one per cent of the money credited to that fund shall be credited to the revenue enhancement fund and shall be used to defray the costs incurred by the department of taxation in administering the tax imposed by this chapter and in implementing tax reform measures. The remainder of the money in the commercial activities tax receipts fund shall first be credited ~~for each fiscal year~~ to the commercial activity tax motor fuel receipts fund, pursuant to division (B)(2) of this section, and the remainder shall be credited in the following percentages each fiscal year to the general revenue fund, to the school district tangible property tax replacement fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury for the purpose of making the payments described in section 5751.21 of the Revised Code, and to the local government tangible property tax replacement fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury for the purpose of making the payments described in section 5751.22 of the Revised Code, in the following percentages:

(2) Not later than the twentieth day of February, May, August, and November of each year, the commissioner shall provide for payment from the commercial activities tax receipts fund to the commercial activity tax motor fuel receipts fund an amount that bears the same ratio to the balance in the commercial activities tax receipts fund that (a) the taxable gross receipts attributed to motor fuel used for propelling vehicles on public highways as indicated by returns filed by the tenth day of that month for a liability that is due and payable on or after July 1, 2013, bears to (b) all taxable gross receipts as indicated by those returns for such liabilities.

(C) Not later than September 15, 2005, the tax commissioner shall determine for each school district, joint vocational school district, and local taxing unit its machinery and equipment, inventory property, furniture and fixtures property, and telephone property tax value losses, which are the applicable amounts described in divisions (C)(1), (2), (3), and (4) of this section, except as provided in division (C)(5) of this section:

(1) Machinery and equipment property tax value loss is the taxable value of machinery and equipment property as reported by taxpayers for tax year 2004 multiplied by:

(2) Inventory property tax value loss is the taxable value of inventory property as reported by taxpayers for tax year 2004 multiplied by:

(a) For tax year 2006, a fraction, the numerator of which is five and three-fourths and the denominator of which is twenty-three;

(b) For tax year 2007, a fraction, the numerator of which is nine and one-half and the denominator of which is twenty-three;

(c) For tax year 2008, a fraction, the numerator of which is thirteen and one-fourth and the denominator of which is twenty-three;

(d) For tax year 2009 and thereafter a fraction, the numerator of which is seventeen and the denominator of which is twenty-three.

(3) Furniture and fixtures property tax value loss is the taxable value of furniture and fixture property as reported by taxpayers for tax year 2004 multiplied by:

The taxable value of property reported by taxpayers used in divisions (C)(1), (2), and (3) of this section shall be such values as determined to be final by the tax commissioner as of August 31, 2005. Such determinations shall be final except for any correction of a clerical error that was made prior to August 31, 2005, by the tax commissioner.

(4) Telephone property tax value loss is the taxable value of telephone property as taxpayers would have reported that property for tax year 2004 if the assessment rate for all telephone property for that year were twenty-five per cent, multiplied by:

(5) Division (C)(5) of this section applies to any school district, joint vocational school district, or local taxing unit in a county in which is located a facility currently or formerly devoted to the enrichment or commercialization of uranium or uranium products, and for which the total taxable value of property listed on the general tax list of personal property for any tax year from tax year 2001 to tax year 2004 was fifty per cent or less of the taxable value of such property listed on the general tax list of personal property for the next preceding tax year.

In computing the fixed-rate levy losses under divisions (D)(1), (2), and (3) of this section for any school district, joint vocational school district, or local taxing unit to which division (C)(5) of this section applies, the taxable value of such property as listed on the general tax list of personal property for tax year 2000 shall be substituted for the taxable value of such property as reported by taxpayers for tax year 2004, in the taxing district containing the uranium facility, if the taxable value listed for tax year 2000 is greater than the taxable value reported by taxpayers for tax year 2004. For the purpose of making the computations under divisions (D)(1), (2), and (3) of this section, the tax year 2000 valuation is to be allocated to machinery and equipment, inventory, and furniture and fixtures property in the same proportions as the tax year 2004 values. For the purpose of the calculations in division (A) of section 5751.21 of the Revised Code, the tax year 2004 taxable values shall be used.

To facilitate the calculations required under division (C) of this section, the county auditor, upon request from the tax commissioner, shall provide by August 1, 2005, the values of machinery and equipment, inventory, and furniture and fixtures for all single-county personal property taxpayers for tax year 2004.

(D) Not later than September 15, 2005, the tax commissioner shall determine for each tax year from 2006 through 2009 for each school district, joint vocational school district, and local taxing unit its machinery and equipment, inventory, and furniture and fixtures fixed-rate levy losses, and for each tax year from 2006 through 2011 its telephone property fixed-rate levy loss. Except as provided in division (F) of this section, such losses are the applicable amounts described in divisions (D)(1), (2), (3), and (4) of this section:

(1) The machinery and equipment fixed-rate levy loss is the machinery and equipment property tax value loss multiplied by the sum of the tax rates of fixed-rate qualifying levies.

(2) The inventory fixed-rate loss is the inventory property tax value loss multiplied by the sum of the tax rates of fixed-rate qualifying levies.

(3) The furniture and fixtures fixed-rate levy loss is the furniture and fixture property tax value loss multiplied by the sum of the tax rates of fixed-rate qualifying levies.

(4) The telephone property fixed-rate levy loss is the telephone property tax value loss multiplied by the sum of the tax rates of fixed-rate qualifying levies.

(E) Not later than September 15, 2005, the tax commissioner shall determine for each school district, joint vocational school district, and local taxing unit its fixed-sum levy loss. The fixed-sum levy loss is the amount obtained by subtracting the amount described in division (E)(2) of this section from the amount described in division (E)(1) of this section:

(1) The sum of the machinery and equipment property tax value loss, the inventory property tax value loss, and the furniture and fixtures property tax value loss, and, for 2008 through 2010, the telephone property tax value loss of the district or unit multiplied by the sum of the fixed-sum tax rates of qualifying levies. For 2006 through 2010, this computation shall include all qualifying levies remaining in effect for the current tax year and any school district levies charged and payable under section 5705.194 or 5705.213 of the Revised Code that are qualifying levies not remaining in effect for the current year. For 2011 through 2017 in the case of school district levies charged and payable under section 5705.194 or 5705.213 of the Revised Code and for all years after 2010 in the case of other fixed-sum levies, this computation shall include only qualifying levies remaining in effect for the current year. For purposes of this computation, a qualifying school district levy charged and payable under section 5705.194 or 5705.213 of the Revised Code remains in effect in a year after 2010 only if, for that year, the board of education levies a school district levy charged and payable under section 5705.194, 5705.199, 5705.213, or 5705.219 of the Revised Code for an annual sum at least equal to the annual sum levied by the board in tax year 2004 less the amount of the payment certified under this division for 2006.

(2) The total taxable value in tax year 2004 less the sum of the machinery and equipment, inventory, furniture and fixtures, and telephone property tax value losses in each school district, joint vocational school district, and local taxing unit multiplied by one-half of one mill per dollar.

(3) For the calculations in divisions (E)(1) and (2) of this section, the tax value losses are those that would be calculated for tax year 2009 under divisions (C)(1), (2), and (3) of this section and for tax year 2011 under division (C)(4) of this section.

(4) To facilitate the calculation under divisions (D) and (E) of this section, not later than September 1, 2005, any school district, joint vocational school district, or local taxing unit that has a qualifying levy that was approved at an election conducted during 2005 before September 1, 2005, shall certify to the tax commissioner a copy of the county auditor's certificate of estimated property tax millage for such levy as required under division (B) of section 5705.03 of the Revised Code, which is the rate that shall be used in the calculations under such divisions.

If the amount determined under division (E) of this section for any school district, joint vocational school district, or local taxing unit is greater than zero, that amount shall equal the reimbursement to be paid pursuant to division (E) of section 5751.21 or division (A)(3) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code, and the one-half of one mill that is subtracted under division (E)(2) of this section shall be apportioned among all contributing fixed-sum levies in the proportion that each levy bears to the sum of all fixed-sum levies within each school district, joint vocational school district, or local taxing unit.

(F) If a school district levies a tax under section 5705.219 of the Revised Code, the fixed-rate levy loss for qualifying levies, to the extent repealed under that section, shall equal the sum of the following amounts in lieu of the amounts computed for such levies under division (D) of this section:

(1) The sum of the rates of qualifying levies to the extent so repealed multiplied by the sum of the machinery and equipment, inventory, and furniture and fixtures tax value losses for 2009 as determined under that division;

(2) The sum of the rates of qualifying levies to the extent so repealed multiplied by the telephone property tax value loss for 2011 as determined under that division.

The fixed-rate levy losses for qualifying levies to the extent not repealed under section 5705.219 of the Revised Code shall be as determined under division (D) of this section. The revised fixed-rate levy losses determined under this division and division (D) of this section first apply in the year following the first year the district levies the tax under section 5705.219 of the Revised Code.

(G) Not later than October 1, 2005, the tax commissioner shall certify to the department of education for every school district and joint vocational school district the machinery and equipment, inventory, furniture and fixtures, and telephone property tax value losses determined under division (C) of this section, the machinery and equipment, inventory, furniture and fixtures, and telephone fixed-rate levy losses determined under division (D) of this section, and the fixed-sum levy losses calculated under division (E) of this section. The calculations under divisions (D) and (E) of this section shall separately display the levy loss for each levy eligible for reimbursement.

(H) Not later than October 1, 2005, the tax commissioner shall certify the amount of the fixed-sum levy losses to the county auditor of each county in which a school district, joint vocational school district, or local taxing unit with a fixed-sum levy loss reimbursement has territory.

(I) Not later than the twenty-eighth day of February each year beginning in 2011 and ending in 2014, the tax commissioner shall certify to the department of education for each school district first levying a tax under section 5705.219 of the Revised Code in the preceding year the revised fixed-rate levy losses determined under divisions (D) and (F) of this section.

(J) There is hereby created in the state treasury the commercial activity tax motor fuel receipts fund.

SECTION 101.02. That existing sections 9.33, 126.06, 126.503, 127.14, 153.01, 153.65, 164.05, 307.05, 307.051, 307.055, 505.37, 505.375, 505.44, 505.72, 718.01, 2913.01, 2913.02, 2913.51, 2937.221, 3354.13, 3355.10, 3357.12, 3705.242, 3791.12, 3791.13, 3791.99, 4501.01, 4501.03, 4501.04, 4501.041, 4501.042, 4501.043, 4501.06, 4503.03, 4503.04, 4503.042, 4503.07, 4503.103, 4503.11, 4503.19, 4503.191, 4503.22, 4503.42, 4503.45, 4503.49, 4504.19, 4504.21, 4505.11, 4506.08, 4506.09, 4507.011, 4507.05, 4507.23, 4511.01, 4511.13, 4511.21, 4511.61, 4513.263, 4513.34, 4513.53, 4513.66, 4517.021, 4561.01, 4561.06, 4561.07, 4561.08, 4561.09, 4561.12, 4561.21, 4582.06, 4737.04, 4737.99, 4743.05, 4765.02, 4765.03, 4765.04, 4765.05, 4765.06, 4765.07, 4765.08, 4765.09, 4765.10, 4765.101, 4765.102, 4765.11, 4765.111, 4765.112, 4765.113, 4765.114, 4765.115, 4765.116, 4765.12, 4765.15, 4765.16, 4765.17, 4765.18, 4765.22, 4765.23, 4765.28, 4765.29, 4765.30, 4765.31, 4765.32, 4765.33, 4765.37, 4765.38, 4765.39, 4765.40, 4765.42, 4765.48, 4765.49, 4765.55, 4765.56, 4766.01, 4766.03, 4766.04, 4766.05, 4766.07, 4766.08, 4766.09, 4766.10, 4766.11, 4766.12, 4766.13, 4766.15, 4766.22, 5501.03, 5501.17, 5501.31, 5501.51 5501.73, 5501.77, 5502.01, 5503.01, 5503.03, 5503.04, 5503.31, 5503.32, 5513.01, 5517.02, 5525.01, 5525.16, 5526.01, 5533.121, 5533.31, 5537.01, 5537.02, 5537.03, 5537.04, 5537.05, 5537.051, 5537.06, 5537.07, 5537.08, 5537.09, 5537.11, 5537.12, 5537.13, 5537.14, 5537.15, 5537.16, 5537.17, 5537.19, 5537.20, 5537.21, 5537.22, 5537.24, 5537.25, 5537.26, 5537.27, 5537.28, 5537.30, 5577.05, 5728.01, 5735.05, 5735.23, 5739.02, 5747.01, 5751.01, 5751.02, 5751.051, and 5751.20 and sections 126.60, 126.601, 126.602, 126.603, 126.604, 126.605, 3791.11, 4766.02, 4766.20, 4981.36, 4981.361, and 5540.151 of the Revised Code are hereby repealed.

SECTION 110.10. That the versions of sections 4501.01, 4503.04, 4503.22, 4507.05, and 4511.01 of the Revised Code that are scheduled to take effect January 1, 2017, be amended to read as follows:

Sec. 4501.01. As used in this chapter and Chapters 4503., 4505., 4507., 4509., 4510., 4511., 4513., 4515., and 4517. of the Revised Code, and in the penal laws, except as otherwise provided:

(B) "Motor vehicle" means any vehicle, including mobile homes and recreational vehicles, that is propelled or drawn by power other than muscular power or power collected from overhead electric trolley wires. "Motor vehicle" does not include utility vehicles as defined in division (VV) of this section, under-speed vehicles as defined in division (XX) of this section, mini-trucks as defined in division (BBB) of this section, motorized bicycles, road rollers, traction engines, power shovels, power cranes, and other equipment used in construction work and not designed for or employed in general highway transportation, well-drilling machinery, ditch-digging machinery, farm machinery, and trailers that are designed and used exclusively to transport a boat between a place of storage and a marina, or in and around a marina, when drawn or towed on a public road or highway for a distance of no more than ten miles and at a speed of twenty-five miles per hour or less.

(J) "Commercial car" or "truck" means any motor vehicle that has motor power and is designed and used for carrying merchandise or freight, or that is used as a commercial tractor.

(L) "Motorized bicycle" or "moped" means any vehicle that either has two tandem wheels or one wheel in the front and two wheels in the rear, that may be pedaled, and that is equipped with a helper motor of not more than fifty cubic centimeters piston displacement that produces no more than one brake horsepower and is capable of propelling the vehicle at a speed of no greater than twenty miles per hour on a level surface.

(Q) "Recreational vehicle" means a vehicular portable structure that meets all of the following conditions:

(4) It is not used for the purpose of commerce as defined in 49 C.F.R. 383.5, as amended.

(5) It is not regulated by the public utilities commission pursuant to Chapter 4905., 4921., or 4923. of the Revised Code.

(a) "Travel trailer" or "house vehicle" means a nonself-propelled recreational vehicle that does not exceed an overall length of forty feet, exclusive of bumper and tongue or coupling. "Travel trailer" includes a tent-type fold-out camping trailer as defined in section 4517.01 of the Revised Code.

(d) "Fifth wheel trailer" means a vehicle that is of such size and weight as to be movable without a special highway permit, that is constructed with a raised forward section that allows a bi-level floor plan, and that is designed to be towed by a vehicle equipped with a fifth-wheel hitch ordinarily installed in the bed of a truck.